VTU-ETR Seat No.

Question Paper Version : A

Visvesvaraya Technological University, Belagavi

Eligibility Test for Research (VTU-ETR) Programmes
Ph.D./M.S. (Research) August - 2023
Electrical and Electronics Engineering
Time: 3 hrs. Max. Marks: 100

INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES

1. Ensure that the question paper booklet issued to you is of your opted discipline.
2. If your name, ETR number, OMR No., branch and branch code are not already printed on
the OMR answer sheet, write them in clear handwriting in the space provided.
3. The question paper has 100 multiple choice questions. Each question carries one mark.
4. All the questions are compulsory.
5. Missing data, if any, may be suitably assumed.
6. There shall be no negative marking for wrong answers.
7. The examinees shall select the response which they want to mark/indicate on the response
sheet and shade/darken/blacken completely the inside area of the corresponding checkbox
bubble of circular or oval shape.
8. Candidates should use black ball point pen to shade the checkbox bubble so that it is fully
dark and the computer can detect without fail. Shading should be limited to the checkbox
bubble only.
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10. Partial or incomplete shading/darkening of the bubble be avoided.
11. Use of whiteners/correction fluid to change the shaded/filled checkbox bubble to fill another
is prohibited.
12. Erasing of filled checkbox bubble/s to fill another is prohibited.
13. Any type of writing, scribbling etc., on the question paper and ticking the response of a
question/s are prohibited. Violation of this condition shall lead to disciplinary action like
debar from the examination. Also, the OMR answer sheet shall not be considered for
evaluation process.
14. Only non-programmable scientific calculator is permitted. Violation of this condition shall
lead to disciplinary action like debar from the examination. Also, the OMR answer sheet
shall not be considered for evaluation process.
15. Folding/crushing/mutilating of OMR sheet is not permitted.
16. Handover the OMR sheet to the Room Invigilator while leaving the examination hall.
 PART – I
(Research Methodology)
[50 Marks]

1. What is the significance of research?

a) Gathering information b) Solving problems
c) Formulating theories d) Analyzing data

2. Which of the following best defines research?

a) Systematic investigation b) A random experiment
c) A personal opinion d) An intuitive guess

3. Which of the following is NOT an objective of research?

a) Exploring new phenomena b) Developing new theories
c) Testing pre conceived notions d) Proving personal beliefs.

4. What is the difference between research methods and research methodology?

a) Methods are practical techniques, while methodology is the theoretical framework.
b) Methods focus on data analysis, while methodology focuses on data collection.
c) Methods are used in natural sciences, while methodology is used in social sciences.
d) Methods are objective, while methodology is subjective.

5. What are the criteria of good research?

a) Replicability, Objectivity and Reliability
b) Creativity, Subjectivity and Originality
c) Simplicity, brevity, and clarity
d) Validity, Complexity and comprehensiveness

6. What is the purpose of reviewing the literature in research?

a) To validate the researcher’s hypothesis b) To identify gaps in existing knowledge
c) To find short cuts for conducting research d) To plagiarize ideas from previous studies.

7. What is the role of a theoretical framework in research?

a) It provides a structure for organizing the literature review.
b) It establishes the research objectives and hypotheses.
c) It guides the data collection and analysis process.
d) It helps in selecting the appropriate research design.

8. What is the meaning of research design?

a) The overall plan for conducting a research study.
b) The specific research method used in data collection.
c) The Statistical analysis technique used in research.
d) The process of formulating research questions.

Ver – A : EE 1 of 13
9. Which of the following is an important principle of experimental designs?
a) Random sampling of participants b) Use of control groups
c) Longitudinal data collection d) Qualitative data.

10. What is the need for research design?

a) It helps in determining the sample size
b) It ensures the accuracy of data analysis.
c) It provides a structure for conducting research
d) It minimizes the ethical concerns in research.

11. What is the difference between a sample survey and a census survey?
a) Sample survey includes the entire population, while census survey includes a subset.
b) Sample survey is conducted using questionnaires while census surveys use interviews.
c) Sample survey is less accurate than census survey.
d) Sample survey is more expensive than census survey.

12. What are the types of sampling designs?

a) Probability sampling and non probability sampling.
b) Cluster sampling and convenience sampling.
c) Snowball sampling and purposive sampling.
d) Quota sampling and stratified sampling.

13. Which of the following is NOT a classification of measurement scales?

a) Normal Scale b) Ordinal scale c) Interval scale d) Hierarchical scale

14. What are the sources of error in measurement?

a) Systematic error and random error b) Measurement bias and sampling error
c) Observer bias and response bias d) Internal validity and external validity.

15. What is the purpose of scaling in research?

a) To measure the central tendency of data
b) To determine the reliability of measurements
c) To assign numbers to represent characteristics
d) To calculate statistical significance.

16. What is the process of data preparation in research?

a) Collecting data from primary sources. b) Analyzing data using statistical software.
c) Cleaning and organizing data for analysis. d) Conducting data visualization techniques.

17. Which of the following is NOT a problem in the data preparation process?
a) Handling missing values b) Dealing with outliers
c) Ensuring data privacy d) Checking data accuracy.

Ver – A : EE 2 of 13
18. What are the measures of central tendency?
a) Mean, Median and mode
b) Variance, standard deviation and range
c) Skewness, Kurtosis and correlation
d) Probability, confidence interval and hypothesis testing.

19. What do measures of dispersion indicate in research?

a) The shape of the data distribution b) The spread or variability of the data
c) The central value of the data set d) The relationship between variables.

20. What is the purpose of descriptive statistics?

a) To summarize and describe data b) To test hypotheses and make inferences
c) To establish causal relationships d) To predict future outcomes.

21. What is the difference between a parameter and a statistic?

a) Parameters describe populations, while statistics describe samples.
b) Parameters are qualitative, while statistics are quantitative.
c) Parameters are based on theory, while statistics are based on observation.
d) Parameters are mode reliable than statistics.

22. What is the central limit theorem?

a) It states that the sample mean approaches the population mean as the sample size increases.
b) It explains the relationship between the mean and standard deviation of a sample.
c) It ensures that the sampling distribution is normally distributed.
d) It allows for the estimation of population parameters based on sample statistics.

23. What is the standard error?

a) The standard deviation of the population.
b) The standard deviation of the sample.
c) The measure of sampling error.
d) The measure of non-sampling error.

24. What is the purpose of finite population correction?

a) To adjust for sampling bias.
b) To account for non-response error.
c) To correct for measurement error.
d) To adjust the standard error for small populations.

25. What does statistical inference involve?

a) Making predictions about the future based on past data.
b) Estimating population parameters from sample statistics.
c) Analyzing the relationship between variables.
d) Describing and summarizing data.

26. If terms such as, ‘positive’, ‘negative’, ‘more than’, ‘less than’ etc are used to make a statement,
then such a hypothesis is called…..
a) Relational hypotheses b) Causal hypothesis
c) Research hypothesis d) Directional hypothesis.

Ver – A : EE 3 of 13
27. The tests of significance or test statistic are classified into…..
a) Parametric test
b) Non parametric test
c) Both parametric and nonparametric tests
d) None of these.

28. A two-tailed test rejects the null hypothesis if the sample mean is significantly____ than the
hypothesized value of the mean of the population.
a) Higher b) Lower c) Higher or lower d) None of these

29. _________ is a way to test for comparing two related samples, involving small values of ‘n’ that
does not require the variances of the two populations to be equal.
a) Z-test b) Paired t – test c) f-test d) None of these

30. As a test of independence, X2 test enables us to explain _______

a) Whether or not two attributes are associated b) The fit is considered to be a good one
c) Whether test is significant d) None of these

31. The ANOVA technique is important in the context of all those situations where all want to
compare ______
a) Two population b) More than two populations
c) Less than two populations d) Single population.

32. Analysis of variance in which only ______ is used to analyze the difference between more than
two population means is called one way anova.
a) Two criterion (variable)
b) One criterion (variable)
c) Both two criterion (variable) and one criterion (variable)
d) None of these.

33. The basic principle of ANOVA is to test for differences among the ______ by examining the
______ within each of these samples, relative to the amount of variation between the samples.
a) Means of the populations and amount of variation
b) Estimation of the population and amount of variation
c) Means of the samples and amount of variation
d) Samples and amount of variation.

34. While applying the ANOVA techniques, the influence the uncontrolled variable is usually
removed by _______
a) Multiple regression method b) Simple linear regression method
c) One way ANOVA d) All of these

35. What are the other assumptions in ANOVA ______

a) Various treatment groups are selected at random from the population.
b) The groups are homogeneous in variability.
c) The regression is linear and is from group to group.
d) All of these.

Ver – A : EE 4 of 13
36. Regression analysis helps to determine ______ to measure the variability or spread of values of
a dependent variable with respect to the regression line.
a) Independent value b) Dependent value
c) Linear regression d) Standard error of estimate.

37. Regression models are used for several purposes, including the following_______
a) Data description
b) Parameter Estimation
c) Linear regression and standard error of estimate
d) All of these.

38. Factor analysis is by for the most often used _______ of research studies, specially pertaining to
social and behavioural sciences.
a) Multi functional technique b) Multi lateral technique
c) Multi linear d) Multivariate technique.

39. _______ , in the context of factor analysis, is something like staining a microscope slide.
a) Flipping b) Factoring
c) Rotation d) Synchronizing.

40. In _______, the correlations are computed between pairs of respondents instead of pairs of
variables.
a) Q-type factor analysis b) P-type factor analysis
c) R-type factor analysis d) S-type factor analysis.

41. If the outcome of an experiment is certain, that is the outcome is always the same, it is then a
______
a) Probabilistic Experiment b) Quasi Experiment
c) Deterministic Experiment d) Random Experiment.

42. The probability of the occurrence of a single event, such as P(A) or P(B), which takes a specific
value irrespective of the values of other events, i.e. unconditioned on any other events, is called
______
a) Joint Probability b) A marginal probability
c) Conditional Probability d) Unconditional Probability.

43. When the sample space S is countable, it is known as a ______

a) Discrete sample space b) Continuous sample space
c) Asynchronous sample space d) Synchronous sample space.

44. If two or more events cannot occur simultaneously in a single trail of an experiment, then such
events are called _______
a) Mutually exclusive events or disjoint events b) Collectively exhaustive events
c) Both A and B d) Joint events.

45. The _______ is that value that occurs most often or has the greatest probability of occurring.
a) Mean of a random variable b) Mode of a random variable
c) Median of a random variable d) None of these

Ver – A : EE 5 of 13
46. Two events are mutually exclusive if the occurrence of one of them prevents or rules out the
occurrence of the other is called _______
a) Collectively exhaustive events b) Mutually exclusive events
c) Both A and B d) None of these.

47. Binomial probability distribution is a widely used probability distribution where ______
a) There are only two possible outcomes b) There exists discrete random variable
c) it’s a Bernoulli process d) All of these

48. Mean  and standard deviation  are called parameters of ________

a) Normal distribution b) Binomial
c) Bernoulli Process d) Poisson

49. The Poisson process measures the number of occurrences of a particular outcome of a discrete
random variable in a predetermined _______
a) Time interval b) Space
c) Volume d) All of these

50 In the _______ process, the random variable values need counting. Such a count might be
number of telephone calls per hour coming into the switchboard, number of fatal traffic
accidents per week in a city/state etc. and so on.
a) Binomial distribution b) Normal distribution
c) Bayesian d) Poisson

Ver – A : EE 6 of 13
 PART – II
Discipline Oriented Section
(Electrical and Electronics Engineering)
[50 MARKS]

51. What are Thevenin’s equivalent parameters VTh and ZTh of the network shown in Figure below
across A and B?

a) VTh = 125 volts, ZTh = 25 b) VTh = -83.33 volts, ZTh = 20
c) VTh = -83.33 volts, ZTh = 16.67 d) VTh = -125 volts, ZTh = 20

52. For the two port network shown if Figure below, the transmission parameter ‘C’ is

Za
a) Za b) 1 + c) Zb d) 1/Zb
Zb

53. Three infinite uniform sheets of charge are located in free space as follows : 3nC/m2 at Z = -4 ,
6nC/m2 at Z = 1 and -8nC/m2 at Z = 4. The ‘E’ at point P(2, 5, -5) is
a) - 56.5 a z b) - 960.2 a z c) + 56.5 a z d) + 960.02 a z

54. The divergence of D in the region about a point charge ‘Q’ located at the ‘Origin’ is
a)  . D = 0 every where b)  . D = 0 everywhere except at the origin
c)   D = 0 everywhere d)   D = 0 everywhere except at the origin

55. The Stoke’s theorem given by an expression is :

a)  H  dL   (  H )  d S b)  H  dL   (  H )  d S
L S L S

c)  H  dL   (  H)  d S d)  H  dL   (  H)  dS
S S

56. Find the gain bandwidth product of a n-channel MOSFET having 300pF , 500pF and 30m-1
of gate to source capacitance , gate to drain capacitance and transconductance respectively.
a) 5.9 MHz b) 3.2 GHz c) 2.9 MHz d) 4 kHz

57. A Common emitter amplifier when bypassed with a capacitor at the emitter resistance has
a) increased input resistance and increased voltage gain
b) increased input resistance and decreased voltage gain
c) decreased input resistance and increased voltage gain
d) decreased input resistance and decreased voltage
Ver – A : EE 7 of 13
58. The frequency of the output from a JK flip – flop, when J = 1, K = 1 and with a clock pulse
frequency of 1kHz is
a) 500 Hz b) 2 kHz c) 250 Hz d) 600Hz

59. A priority encoder has Four inputs I0, I1, I2 and I3, where I3 has the highest priority and I0 has
the least priority. If I2 = 1, the out of the encoder will
a) 10 b) 00 c) 11 d) 01

60. In the given digital circuit, if the inputs A and B are 1 and 0 respectively, the output Y will be

a) 0 b) 1 c) Undefined d) No output

61. The value of TMOD for timer -0 in mode – 1 and timer -1 in mode 1 is :
a) 22h b) 10h c) 12h d) 11h

62. The ISR address for external hardware interrupt INT – 1 is :

a) 000Bh b) 0013h c) 0023h d) 0003h

63. The reference voltage for 8 – bit ADC is 2.56V. The digital output voltage of this ADC for
input voltage of 2.56V is
a) ooh b) FEh c) FFh d) AAh

64. The zero crossing detector cannot detect zero crossings of input signal for
a) low frequency input signal and noise at input terminals.
b) high frequency input signal and noise at input terminal
c) low frequency input signal and offset output voltage
d) for dc input signal

65. What is the output of PLL if VCO output is 90º out of phase with input signal?
a) attenuated b) perfect lock condition
c) error signal is multiplied d) PLL is not working

66. A 5 – point sequence x[n] is given as x[-3] = 1 ; x[-2] = 1 ; x[-1] = 0 , x[0] = 5 , x[1] = 1.

Let X(ejw) denote the discrete – time Fourier Transform of x[n]. The value of  X (e
jw
) dw is

a) 5 b) 10 π c) 16 π d) 5 + j10 π

67. Consider the following statements pertaining to FIR filters :

1) These are recursive and hence stability is not guaranteed.
2) These have high coefficient sensitivity
3) These have linear phase characteristics
4) These are realized using feedback structures.
a) 1, 2 and 4 b) 2, 3 and 4 c) only 3 d) only 4

68. Let x[n] = x[-n]. Let X(z) be the Z – transform of x[n]. If 1 + j2 is a zero of X(z), which one of
the following must also be a zero of X(z).
a) 0.2 + j0.4 b) 0.2 – j0.4 c) 1 + j2 d) 1 – j0.5
Ver – A : EE 8 of 13
69. Consider a system equation y(n + 2) = -3x(n + 2) + 2x(n) – 5 x(n - 1). The system is _____ and
_____ respectively.
a) non – Causal I I R b) Causal, I I R c) Causal, F I R d) non – Causal F I R

70. Consider the following statements regarding the impulse invariant method of I I R filter
design.
1) After digitizing the analog filter , the impulse response of the original analog filter is
preserved.
2) The method is inappropriate for the design of high – pass or band – stop filters.
Which of these statements is / are correct?
a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2

71. A single – phase air cored transformer fed from a rated sinusoidal supply is operating at no –
load. The steady – state magnetizing current drawn by the transformer from the supply will
have the wave form :
a) b)

c) d)

72. The DC motor, which can provide zero – speed regulation at full load without any controller is
a) Series b) Shunt
c) Cumulative compound d) Differential compound

73. The three – phase slip ring induction motor is fed from the rotor side with stator winding short
circuited. The frequency of the currents flowing in the short circuited stator is
a) Slip frequency b) Supply frequency
c) Frequency corresponding to rotor speed d) Zero

74. A synchronous generator is feeding a zero power factor (lagging) load at rated current. The
armature reaction is
a) magnetizing b) demagnetizing c) cross magnetizing d) ineffective

75. The equivalent circuit of a transformer has leakage reactances X1, X 12 and magnetizing
reactance Xm. Their magnitudes satisfy
a) X1 > > X 12 > > Xm b) X1 < < X 12 < < Xm c) X1 ≈ X 12 > > Xm d) X1 ≈ X 12 < < Xm

76. For open loop transfer function the constant steadly state error for unit – step input is
20
G(s) =
(s  1)(s  4)
a) 0.5 b) 0.166 c) 0.25 d) 0
Ver – A : EE 9 of 13
77. The characteristic equation of a unity feedback system is given by S4 + 4S3 + S2 + 8S + 1 = 0
a) The system has one pole in the RH of the S – plane
b) The system has two poles in the RH of the S – plane
c) The system is asymptotically stable d) The system exhibits oscillatory response.

78. An Open – loop transfer function has 4 – poles and one – zero. Then number of branches of
root locus is
a) 4 b) 1 c) 5 d) 3

79. For a stable system

a) gain margin must be positive but phase margin can be positive or negative
b) phase margin must be positive but gain margin can be positive or negative
c) both gain margin and phase margin must be positive
d) one of them must be zero.

80. For the Transfer function the initial slope of the Bode plot is
1
T.F = 2 .
s (s  2)(s  4)
a) - 80 dB/dec b) - 40 dB/dec c) - 60 dB/dec d) + 40 dB/dec

81. A three phase fully controlled thyristor bridge converter is used as a line commutated inverter
to feed 50kW power from 420V dc to a three – phase 415V (line), 50Hz ac mains. Consider dc
link current to be constant. The rms current of the thyristor is
a) 119.05A b) 79.37A c) 68.73A d) 39.67A

82. A three phase diode bridge rectifier is fed from a 400V, 50Hz, three – phase AC source. If the
load is purely resistive, then the peak instantaneous output voltage is
2 400
a) 400V b) 400 2 V c) 400 V d) V
3 3

83. A DC – DC transistor chopper supplied from a fixed voltage DC source feeds a fixed R – L
load and a free – wheeling diode. The chopper operates at 1 KHz and 50% duty cycle. Without
changing the value of average DC current through the load, if it is desired to reduce the ripple
constant of load current, the control action required will be
a) Increase the chopper frequency keeping duty cycle constant
b) Increase the chopper frequency and duty cycle in equal ratio
c) Decrease only the chopper frequency
d) Decrease only the duty cycle

84. A PWM switching scheme is used with a three – phase inverter to

a) Reduce THD with modes filtering
b) Minimize the load on the DC side
c) Increase the life of the batteries
d) Reduce low order harmonics and increase high order harmonics.

Ver – A : EE 10 of 13
85. In a single – phase voltage controller circuit shown in Fig. below for what range of triggering
angle (α), the output voltage (Vo) is not controllable?

a) 0º < α < 45º b) 45º < α < 135º c) 90º < α < 180º d) 135º < α < 180º

86. Consider the Op – AMP based circuit shown in the Figure below. Ignore the conduction drops
of diodes D1 and D2. All the components are ideal and the breakdown voltage of the zener is
5V. Which of the following statement is true?

a) The maximum and minimum values of the output voltage VO are +15V and -10V.
b) The maximum and minimum values of the output voltage VO are +5V and -15V.
c) The maximum and minimum values of the output voltage VO are +10V and -5V.
d) The maximum and minimum values of the output voltage VO are +5V and -10V.

87. Neglecting the delays due to the logic gates in the circuit shown in figure below, the decimal
equivalent of the binary sequence [ABCD] of initial logic states, which will not change with
clock is ______

a) 1000 b) 0101 c) 0010 d) 1111

88. The zener diode in circuit has a breakdown voltage of 5V. The current gain of the transistor in
the active region is 99. Ignore base – emitter voltage drop, VBE. The current through the 20
resistance in milliampere is ______

a) 200mA b) 250mA c) 125mA d) 300mA

Ver – A : EE 11 of 13
89. Given that Op – amp is ideal, the output voltage UO, is

a) 4V b) 6V c) 7.5V d) 12.12V

90. A minimum form of the function F is

a) F = XY + YZ b) F = X Y + YZ c) F = X Y + Y Z d) F = X Y + Y Z

91. An eight stage Cockcroft – Walton generator has stage capacitances all equal to 0.05F. The
transformer secondary voltage is 125KV(max) at a frequency of 150Hz. If the load current is
5mA, the optimum number of stages for minimum regulation are
a) 12 stages b) 14 stages c) 13 stages d) 10 stages

92. Indirect Strokes near overhead transmission line induces over voltages due to
a) Electrostatic induction
b) Both due to electrostatic and electromagnetic induction
c) Only electromagnetic induction
d) Conduction current through line conductive.

93. The clearance normally adopted in high voltage lab for ac and impulse voltage are
a) 100 to 200 KV/m for ac and 500 KV for impulse
b) 300 KV/m for ac and 500 KV/m for impulse
c) 30 KV/m for ac and 50 KV/m for impulse
d) 10 KV/m for ac and 50 KV/m for impulse

94. The Basic Impulse Level (BIL) of a power system is defines as

a) The peak value of highest system voltage
b) The maximum power frequency withstand voltage of any power equipment or apparatus.
c) The minimum power frequency withstand voltage of any apparatus or power equipment
d) The minimum insulation impulse withstand voltage of any power equipment of apparatus.

95. To minimize the current chopping tendency, the SF6 gas is used at
a) Low velocity, high pressure b) High velocity, low pressure
c) Low velocity, low pressure d) High velocity, high pressure

Ver – A : EE 12 of 13
96. A sample 3 bus power system is shown in Figure below. The direction of reactive power flow
in the two transmission line TL1 and TL2 are respectively.

a) A to B and B to C b) B to A and B to C
c) A to B and C to B d) B to A and C to B

97. Load Flow Analysis is carried out on a 10 Bus power system. Bus 1 is a slack bus. Buses 2 to 4
are PV buses. Buses 5 to 10 are PQ buses. i – represents the angle of voltage at ith bus and Vi
– represents the magnitude of voltage at ith bus. The number of variables to be solved using
Load flow analysis are
a) 10 ‘’s and 4 ‘V’s b) 4 ‘’s and 6 ‘V’s c) 9 ‘’s and 6 ‘V’s d) 6 ‘’s and 4 ‘V’s

98. Let ICi represents the incremental cost function of ith generating station and ITLi represents
Incremental transmission loss of ith generating station. All the generators in the system are
operating within their specified limits of real power generation. If ‘’ is a constant the
condition for optimal generation allocation is
a) IC i ( 1 – ITLi) =  for all generating stations
 1 
b) ICi   =  for all generating stations
 ITLi 
c) IC i * ( ITLi) =  for all generating stations
d) ICi / ( 1 – ITLi) =  for all generating stations

99. Two areas are connected by Tie line with the following characteristics.
Area 1 Area 2
Speed Regulation (R) 0.01 pu 0.01 pu
Load damping constant (D) 0.8 pu 1.0 pu
If the load change of 0.2 pu occurs in area 1, what is the change in steady state frequency.
(All pu values are on common base values).
a) - 0.00099 pu b) + 0.00099 pu c) - 0.0099 pu d) + 0. 0099 pu

100. Series capacitor compensation of the transmission line, leads to

a) Reduction in line voltage drop and increase in power transfer capability
b) Reduction in line voltage drop and reduction in power transfer capability
c) Increase in line voltage drop and increase in power transfer capability
d) Increase in line voltage drop and reduction in power transfer capability.

Ver – A : EE 13 of 13
VTU-ETR Seat No. Question Paper Version : B

Visvesvaraya Technological University, Belagavi

Eligibility Test for Research (VTU-ETR) Programmes
Ph.D./M.S. (Research) August - 2023
Electrical and Electronics Engineering
Time: 3 hrs. Max. Marks: 100

INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES

1. Ensure that the question paper booklet issued to you is of your opted discipline.
2. If your name, ETR number, OMR No., branch and branch code are not already printed on
the OMR answer sheet, write them in clear handwriting in the space provided.
3. The question paper has 100 multiple choice questions. Each question carries one mark.
4. All the questions are compulsory.
5. Missing data, if any, may be suitably assumed.
6. There shall be no negative marking for wrong answers.
7. The examinees shall select the response which they want to mark/indicate on the response
sheet and shade/darken/blacken completely the inside area of the corresponding checkbox
bubble of circular or oval shape.
8. Candidates should use black ball point pen to shade the checkbox bubble so that it is fully
dark and the computer can detect without fail. Shading should be limited to the checkbox
bubble only.
9. Shading of multiple checkbox bubbles shall be treated as invalid answer.
10. Partial or incomplete shading/darkening of the bubble be avoided.
11. Use of whiteners/correction fluid to change the shaded/filled checkbox bubble to fill another
is prohibited.
12. Erasing of filled checkbox bubble/s to fill another is prohibited.
13. Any type of writing, scribbling etc., on the question paper and ticking the response of a
question/s are prohibited. Violation of this condition shall lead to disciplinary action like
debar from the examination. Also, the OMR answer sheet shall not be considered for
evaluation process.
14. Only non-programmable scientific calculator is permitted. Violation of this condition shall
lead to disciplinary action like debar from the examination. Also, the OMR answer sheet
shall not be considered for evaluation process.
15. Folding/crushing/mutilating of OMR sheet is not permitted.
16. Handover the OMR sheet to the Room Invigilator while leaving the examination hall.
 PART – I
(Research Methodology)
[50 Marks]
1. If the outcome of an experiment is certain, that is the outcome is always the same, it is then a
______
a) Probabilistic Experiment b) Quasi Experiment
c) Deterministic Experiment d) Random Experiment.

2. The probability of the occurrence of a single event, such as P(A) or P(B), which takes a specific
value irrespective of the values of other events, i.e. unconditioned on any other events, is called
______
a) Joint Probability b) A marginal probability
c) Conditional Probability d) Unconditional Probability.

3. When the sample space S is countable, it is known as a ______

a) Discrete sample space b) Continuous sample space
c) Asynchronous sample space d) Synchronous sample space.

4. If two or more events cannot occur simultaneously in a single trail of an experiment, then such
events are called _______
a) Mutually exclusive events or disjoint events b) Collectively exhaustive events
c) Both A and B d) Joint events.

5. The _______ is that value that occurs most often or has the greatest probability of occurring.
a) Mean of a random variable b) Mode of a random variable
c) Median of a random variable d) None of these

6. Two events are mutually exclusive if the occurrence of one of them prevents or rules out the
occurrence of the other is called _______
a) Collectively exhaustive events b) Mutually exclusive events
c) Both A and B d) None of these.

7. Binomial probability distribution is a widely used probability distribution where ______

a) There are only two possible outcomes b) There exists discrete random variable
c) it’s a Bernoulli process d) All of these

8. Mean  and standard deviation  are called parameters of ________

a) Normal distribution b) Binomial
c) Bernoulli Process d) Poisson

9. The Poisson process measures the number of occurrences of a particular outcome of a discrete
random variable in a predetermined _______
a) Time interval b) Space
c) Volume d) All of these

Ver – B : EE 1 of 13
10 In the _______ process, the random variable values need counting. Such a count might be
number of telephone calls per hour coming into the switchboard, number of fatal traffic
accidents per week in a city/state etc. and so on.
a) Binomial distribution b) Normal distribution
c) Bayesian d) Poisson

11. The ANOVA technique is important in the context of all those situations where all want to
compare ______
a) Two population b) More than two populations
c) Less than two populations d) Single population.

12. Analysis of variance in which only ______ is used to analyze the difference between more than
two population means is called one way anova.
a) Two criterion (variable)
b) One criterion (variable)
c) Both two criterion (variable) and one criterion (variable)
d) None of these.

13. The basic principle of ANOVA is to test for differences among the ______ by examining the
______ within each of these samples, relative to the amount of variation between the samples.
a) Means of the populations and amount of variation
b) Estimation of the population and amount of variation
c) Means of the samples and amount of variation
d) Samples and amount of variation.

14. While applying the ANOVA techniques, the influence the uncontrolled variable is usually
removed by _______
a) Multiple regression method b) Simple linear regression method
c) One way ANOVA d) All of these

15. What are the other assumptions in ANOVA ______

a) Various treatment groups are selected at random from the population.
b) The groups are homogeneous in variability.
c) The regression is linear and is from group to group.
d) All of these.

16. Regression analysis helps to determine ______ to measure the variability or spread of values of
a dependent variable with respect to the regression line.
a) Independent value b) Dependent value
c) Linear regression d) Standard error of estimate.

17. Regression models are used for several purposes, including the following_______
a) Data description
b) Parameter Estimation
c) Linear regression and standard error of estimate
d) All of these.

Ver – B : EE 2 of 13
18. Factor analysis is by for the most often used _______ of research studies, specially pertaining to
social and behavioural sciences.
a) Multi functional technique b) Multi lateral technique
c) Multi linear d) Multivariate technique.

19. _______ , in the context of factor analysis, is something like staining a microscope slide.
a) Flipping b) Factoring
c) Rotation d) Synchronizing.

20. In _______, the correlations are computed between pairs of respondents instead of pairs of
variables.
a) Q-type factor analysis b) P-type factor analysis
c) R-type factor analysis d) S-type factor analysis.

21. What is the difference between a sample survey and a census survey?
a) Sample survey includes the entire population, while census survey includes a subset.
b) Sample survey is conducted using questionnaires while census surveys use interviews.
c) Sample survey is less accurate than census survey.
d) Sample survey is more expensive than census survey.

22. What are the types of sampling designs?

a) Probability sampling and non probability sampling.
b) Cluster sampling and convenience sampling.
c) Snowball sampling and purposive sampling.
d) Quota sampling and stratified sampling.

23. Which of the following is NOT a classification of measurement scales?

a) Normal Scale b) Ordinal scale c) Interval scale d) Hierarchical scale

24. What are the sources of error in measurement?

a) Systematic error and random error b) Measurement bias and sampling error
c) Observer bias and response bias d) Internal validity and external validity.

25. What is the purpose of scaling in research?

a) To measure the central tendency of data
b) To determine the reliability of measurements
c) To assign numbers to represent characteristics
d) To calculate statistical significance.

26. What is the process of data preparation in research?

a) Collecting data from primary sources. b) Analyzing data using statistical software.
c) Cleaning and organizing data for analysis. d) Conducting data visualization techniques.

27. Which of the following is NOT a problem in the data preparation process?
a) Handling missing values b) Dealing with outliers
c) Ensuring data privacy d) Checking data accuracy.

Ver – B : EE 3 of 13
28. What are the measures of central tendency?
a) Mean, Median and mode
b) Variance, standard deviation and range
c) Skewness, Kurtosis and correlation
d) Probability, confidence interval and hypothesis testing.

29. What do measures of dispersion indicate in research?

a) The shape of the data distribution b) The spread or variability of the data
c) The central value of the data set d) The relationship between variables.

30. What is the purpose of descriptive statistics?

a) To summarize and describe data b) To test hypotheses and make inferences
c) To establish causal relationships d) To predict future outcomes.

31. What is the significance of research?

a) Gathering information b) Solving problems
c) Formulating theories d) Analyzing data

32. Which of the following best defines research?

a) Systematic investigation b) A random experiment
c) A personal opinion d) An intuitive guess

33. Which of the following is NOT an objective of research?

a) Exploring new phenomena b) Developing new theories
c) Testing pre conceived notions d) Proving personal beliefs.

34. What is the difference between research methods and research methodology?
a) Methods are practical techniques, while methodology is the theoretical framework.
b) Methods focus on data analysis, while methodology focuses on data collection.
c) Methods are used in natural sciences, while methodology is used in social sciences.
d) Methods are objective, while methodology is subjective.

35. What are the criteria of good research?

a) Replicability, Objectivity and Reliability
b) Creativity, Subjectivity and Originality
c) Simplicity, brevity, and clarity
d) Validity, Complexity and comprehensiveness

36. What is the purpose of reviewing the literature in research?

a) To validate the researcher’s hypothesis b) To identify gaps in existing knowledge
c) To find short cuts for conducting research d) To plagiarize ideas from previous studies.

37. What is the role of a theoretical framework in research?

a) It provides a structure for organizing the literature review.
b) It establishes the research objectives and hypotheses.
c) It guides the data collection and analysis process.
d) It helps in selecting the appropriate research design.

Ver – B : EE 4 of 13
38. What is the meaning of research design?
a) The overall plan for conducting a research study.
b) The specific research method used in data collection.
c) The Statistical analysis technique used in research.
d) The process of formulating research questions.

39. Which of the following is an important principle of experimental designs?

a) Random sampling of participants b) Use of control groups
c) Longitudinal data collection d) Qualitative data.

40. What is the need for research design?

a) It helps in determining the sample size
b) It ensures the accuracy of data analysis.
c) It provides a structure for conducting research
d) It minimizes the ethical concerns in research.

41. What is the difference between a parameter and a statistic?

a) Parameters describe populations, while statistics describe samples.
b) Parameters are qualitative, while statistics are quantitative.
c) Parameters are based on theory, while statistics are based on observation.
d) Parameters are mode reliable than statistics.

42. What is the central limit theorem?

a) It states that the sample mean approaches the population mean as the sample size increases.
b) It explains the relationship between the mean and standard deviation of a sample.
c) It ensures that the sampling distribution is normally distributed.
d) It allows for the estimation of population parameters based on sample statistics.

43. What is the standard error?

a) The standard deviation of the population.
b) The standard deviation of the sample.
c) The measure of sampling error.
d) The measure of non-sampling error.

44. What is the purpose of finite population correction?

a) To adjust for sampling bias.
b) To account for non-response error.
c) To correct for measurement error.
d) To adjust the standard error for small populations.

45. What does statistical inference involve?

a) Making predictions about the future based on past data.
b) Estimating population parameters from sample statistics.
c) Analyzing the relationship between variables.
d) Describing and summarizing data.

Ver – B : EE 5 of 13
46. If terms such as, ‘positive’, ‘negative’, ‘more than’, ‘less than’ etc are used to make a statement,
then such a hypothesis is called…..
a) Relational hypotheses b) Causal hypothesis
c) Research hypothesis d) Directional hypothesis.

47. The tests of significance or test statistic are classified into…..

a) Parametric test
b) Non parametric test
c) Both parametric and nonparametric tests
d) None of these.

48. A two-tailed test rejects the null hypothesis if the sample mean is significantly____ than the
hypothesized value of the mean of the population.
a) Higher b) Lower c) Higher or lower d) None of these

49. _________ is a way to test for comparing two related samples, involving small values of ‘n’ that
does not require the variances of the two populations to be equal.
a) Z-test b) Paired t – test c) f-test d) None of these

50. As a test of independence, X2 test enables us to explain _______

a) Whether or not two attributes are associated b) The fit is considered to be a good one
c) Whether test is significant d) None of these

Ver – B : EE 6 of 13
 PART – II
Discipline Oriented Section
(Electrical and Electronics Engineering)
[50 MARKS]
51. An eight stage Cockcroft – Walton generator has stage capacitances all equal to 0.05F. The
transformer secondary voltage is 125KV(max) at a frequency of 150Hz. If the load current is
5mA, the optimum number of stages for minimum regulation are
a) 12 stages b) 14 stages c) 13 stages d) 10 stages

52. Indirect Strokes near overhead transmission line induces over voltages due to
a) Electrostatic induction
b) Both due to electrostatic and electromagnetic induction
c) Only electromagnetic induction
d) Conduction current through line conductive.

53. The clearance normally adopted in high voltage lab for ac and impulse voltage are
a) 100 to 200 KV/m for ac and 500 KV for impulse
b) 300 KV/m for ac and 500 KV/m for impulse
c) 30 KV/m for ac and 50 KV/m for impulse
d) 10 KV/m for ac and 50 KV/m for impulse

54. The Basic Impulse Level (BIL) of a power system is defines as

a) The peak value of highest system voltage
b) The maximum power frequency withstand voltage of any power equipment or apparatus.
c) The minimum power frequency withstand voltage of any apparatus or power equipment
d) The minimum insulation impulse withstand voltage of any power equipment of apparatus.

55. To minimize the current chopping tendency, the SF6 gas is used at
a) Low velocity, high pressure b) High velocity, low pressure
c) Low velocity, low pressure d) High velocity, high pressure

56. A sample 3 bus power system is shown in Figure below. The direction of reactive power flow
in the two transmission line TL1 and TL2 are respectively.

a) A to B and B to C b) B to A and B to C
c) A to B and C to B d) B to A and C to B

57. Load Flow Analysis is carried out on a 10 Bus power system. Bus 1 is a slack bus. Buses 2 to 4
are PV buses. Buses 5 to 10 are PQ buses. i – represents the angle of voltage at ith bus and Vi
– represents the magnitude of voltage at ith bus. The number of variables to be solved using
Load flow analysis are
a) 10 ‘’s and 4 ‘V’s b) 4 ‘’s and 6 ‘V’s c) 9 ‘’s and 6 ‘V’s d) 6 ‘’s and 4 ‘V’s
Ver – B : EE 7 of 13
58. Let ICi represents the incremental cost function of ith generating station and ITLi represents
Incremental transmission loss of ith generating station. All the generators in the system are
operating within their specified limits of real power generation. If ‘’ is a constant the
condition for optimal generation allocation is
a) IC i ( 1 – ITLi) =  for all generating stations
 1 
b) ICi   =  for all generating stations
 ITLi 
c) IC i * ( ITLi) =  for all generating stations
d) ICi / ( 1 – ITLi) =  for all generating stations

59. Two areas are connected by Tie line with the following characteristics.
Area 1 Area 2
Speed Regulation (R) 0.01 pu 0.01 pu
Load damping constant (D) 0.8 pu 1.0 pu
If the load change of 0.2 pu occurs in area 1, what is the change in steady state frequency.
(All pu values are on common base values).
a) - 0.00099 pu b) + 0.00099 pu c) - 0.0099 pu d) + 0. 0099 pu

60. Series capacitor compensation of the transmission line, leads to

a) Reduction in line voltage drop and increase in power transfer capability
b) Reduction in line voltage drop and reduction in power transfer capability
c) Increase in line voltage drop and increase in power transfer capability
d) Increase in line voltage drop and reduction in power transfer capability.

61. A three phase fully controlled thyristor bridge converter is used as a line commutated inverter
to feed 50kW power from 420V dc to a three – phase 415V (line), 50Hz ac mains. Consider dc
link current to be constant. The rms current of the thyristor is
a) 119.05A b) 79.37A c) 68.73A d) 39.67A

62. A three phase diode bridge rectifier is fed from a 400V, 50Hz, three – phase AC source. If the
load is purely resistive, then the peak instantaneous output voltage is
2 400
a) 400V b) 400 2 V c) 400 V d) V
3 3
63. A DC – DC transistor chopper supplied from a fixed voltage DC source feeds a fixed R – L
load and a free – wheeling diode. The chopper operates at 1 KHz and 50% duty cycle. Without
changing the value of average DC current through the load, if it is desired to reduce the ripple
constant of load current, the control action required will be
a) Increase the chopper frequency keeping duty cycle constant
b) Increase the chopper frequency and duty cycle in equal ratio
c) Decrease only the chopper frequency
d) Decrease only the duty cycle

64. A PWM switching scheme is used with a three – phase inverter to

a) Reduce THD with modes filtering
b) Minimize the load on the DC side
c) Increase the life of the batteries
d) Reduce low order harmonics and increase high order harmonics.

Ver – B : EE 8 of 13
65. In a single – phase voltage controller circuit shown in Fig. below for what range of triggering
angle (α), the output voltage (Vo) is not controllable?

a) 0º < α < 45º b) 45º < α < 135º c) 90º < α < 180º d) 135º < α < 180º

66. Consider the Op – AMP based circuit shown in the Figure below. Ignore the conduction drops
of diodes D1 and D2. All the components are ideal and the breakdown voltage of the zener is
5V. Which of the following statement is true?

a) The maximum and minimum values of the output voltage VO are +15V and -10V.
b) The maximum and minimum values of the output voltage VO are +5V and -15V.
c) The maximum and minimum values of the output voltage VO are +10V and -5V.
d) The maximum and minimum values of the output voltage VO are +5V and -10V.

67. Neglecting the delays due to the logic gates in the circuit shown in figure below, the decimal
equivalent of the binary sequence [ABCD] of initial logic states, which will not change with
clock is ______

a) 1000 b) 0101 c) 0010 d) 1111

68. The zener diode in circuit has a breakdown voltage of 5V. The current gain of the transistor in
the active region is 99. Ignore base – emitter voltage drop, VBE. The current through the 20
resistance in milliampere is ______

a) 200mA b) 250mA c) 125mA d) 300mA

Ver – B : EE 9 of 13
69. Given that Op – amp is ideal, the output voltage UO, is

a) 4V b) 6V c) 7.5V d) 12.12V

70. A minimum form of the function F is

a) F = XY + YZ b) F = X Y + YZ c) F = X Y + Y Z d) F = X Y + Y Z

71. The value of TMOD for timer -0 in mode – 1 and timer -1 in mode 1 is :
a) 22h b) 10h c) 12h d) 11h

72. The ISR address for external hardware interrupt INT – 1 is :

a) 000Bh b) 0013h c) 0023h d) 0003h

73. The reference voltage for 8 – bit ADC is 2.56V. The digital output voltage of this ADC for
input voltage of 2.56V is
a) ooh b) FEh c) FFh d) AAh

74. The zero crossing detector cannot detect zero crossings of input signal for
a) low frequency input signal and noise at input terminals.
b) high frequency input signal and noise at input terminal
c) low frequency input signal and offset output voltage
d) for dc input signal

75. What is the output of PLL if VCO output is 90º out of phase with input signal?
a) attenuated b) perfect lock condition
c) error signal is multiplied d) PLL is not working

76. A 5 – point sequence x[n] is given as x[-3] = 1 ; x[-2] = 1 ; x[-1] = 0 , x[0] = 5 , x[1] = 1.

Let X(ejw) denote the discrete – time Fourier Transform of x[n]. The value of  X (e
jw
) dw is

a) 5 b) 10 π c) 16 π d) 5 + j10 π

77. Consider the following statements pertaining to FIR filters :

1) These are recursive and hence stability is not guaranteed.
2) These have high coefficient sensitivity
3) These have linear phase characteristics
4) These are realized using feedback structures.
a) 1, 2 and 4 b) 2, 3 and 4 c) only 3 d) only 4

Ver – B : EE 10 of 13
78. Let x[n] = x[-n]. Let X(z) be the Z – transform of x[n]. If 1 + j2 is a zero of X(z), which one of
the following must also be a zero of X(z).
a) 0.2 + j0.4 b) 0.2 – j0.4 c) 1 + j2 d) 1 – j0.5

79. Consider a system equation y(n + 2) = -3x(n + 2) + 2x(n) – 5 x(n - 1). The system is _____ and
_____ respectively.
a) non – Causal I I R b) Causal, I I R c) Causal, F I R d) non – Causal F I R

80. Consider the following statements regarding the impulse invariant method of I I R filter
design.
1) After digitizing the analog filter , the impulse response of the original analog filter is
preserved.
2) The method is inappropriate for the design of high – pass or band – stop filters.
Which of these statements is / are correct?
a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2

81. What are Thevenin’s equivalent parameters VTh and ZTh of the network shown in Figure below
across A and B?

a) VTh = 125 volts, ZTh = 25 b) VTh = -83.33 volts, ZTh = 20
c) VTh = -83.33 volts, ZTh = 16.67 d) VTh = -125 volts, ZTh = 20

82. For the two port network shown if Figure below, the transmission parameter ‘C’ is

Za
a) Za b) 1 + c) Zb d) 1/Zb
Zb
83. Three infinite uniform sheets of charge are located in free space as follows : 3nC/m2 at Z = -4 ,
6nC/m2 at Z = 1 and -8nC/m2 at Z = 4. The ‘E’ at point P(2, 5, -5) is
a) - 56.5 a z b) - 960.2 a z c) + 56.5 a z d) + 960.02 a z

84. The divergence of D in the region about a point charge ‘Q’ located at the ‘Origin’ is
a)  . D = 0 every where b)  . D = 0 everywhere except at the origin
c)   D = 0 everywhere d)   D = 0 everywhere except at the origin

85. The Stoke’s theorem given by an expression is :

a)  H  dL   (  H )  d S b)  H  dL   (  H )  d S
L S L S

c)  H  dL   (  H)  d S d)  H  dL   (  H)  dS
S S

Ver – B : EE 11 of 13
86. Find the gain bandwidth product of a n-channel MOSFET having 300pF , 500pF and 30m-1
of gate to source capacitance , gate to drain capacitance and transconductance respectively.
a) 5.9 MHz b) 3.2 GHz c) 2.9 MHz d) 4 kHz

87. A Common emitter amplifier when bypassed with a capacitor at the emitter resistance has
a) increased input resistance and increased voltage gain
b) increased input resistance and decreased voltage gain
c) decreased input resistance and increased voltage gain
d) decreased input resistance and decreased voltage

88. The frequency of the output from a JK flip – flop, when J = 1, K = 1 and with a clock pulse
frequency of 1kHz is
a) 500 Hz b) 2 kHz c) 250 Hz d) 600Hz

89. A priority encoder has Four inputs I0, I1, I2 and I3, where I3 has the highest priority and I0 has
the least priority. If I2 = 1, the out of the encoder will
a) 10 b) 00 c) 11 d) 01

90. In the given digital circuit, if the inputs A and B are 1 and 0 respectively, the output Y will be

a) 0 b) 1 c) Undefined d) No output

91. A single – phase air cored transformer fed from a rated sinusoidal supply is operating at no –
load. The steady – state magnetizing current drawn by the transformer from the supply will
have the wave form :
b) b)

c) d)

92. The DC motor, which can provide zero – speed regulation at full load without any controller is
a) Series b) Shunt
c) Cumulative compound d) Differential compound

93. The three – phase slip ring induction motor is fed from the rotor side with stator winding short
circuited. The frequency of the currents flowing in the short circuited stator is
a) Slip frequency b) Supply frequency
c) Frequency corresponding to rotor speed d) Zero

Ver – B : EE 12 of 13
94. A synchronous generator is feeding a zero power factor (lagging) load at rated current. The
armature reaction is
a) magnetizing b) demagnetizing c) cross magnetizing d) ineffective

95. The equivalent circuit of a transformer has leakage reactances X1, X 12 and magnetizing
reactance Xm. Their magnitudes satisfy
a) X1 > > X 12 > > Xm b) X1 < < X 12 < < Xm c) X1 ≈ X 12 > > Xm d) X1 ≈ X 12 < < Xm

96. For open loop transfer function the constant steadly state error for unit – step input is
20
G(s) =
(s  1)(s  4)
a) 0.5 b) 0.166 c) 0.25 d) 0

97. The characteristic equation of a unity feedback system is given by S4 + 4S3 + S2 + 8S + 1 = 0

a) The system has one pole in the RH of the S – plane
b) The system has two poles in the RH of the S – plane
c) The system is asymptotically stable d) The system exhibits oscillatory response.

98. An Open – loop transfer function has 4 – poles and one – zero. Then number of branches of
root locus is
a) 4 b) 1 c) 5 d) 3

99. For a stable system

a) gain margin must be positive but phase margin can be positive or negative
b) phase margin must be positive but gain margin can be positive or negative
c) both gain margin and phase margin must be positive
d) one of them must be zero.

100. For the Transfer function the initial slope of the Bode plot is
1
T.F = 2 .
s (s  2)(s  4)
a) - 80 dB/dec b) - 40 dB/dec c) - 60 dB/dec d) + 40 dB/dec

Ver – B : EE 13 of 13
VTU-ETR Seat No. Question Paper Version : C

Visvesvaraya Technological University, Belagavi

Eligibility Test for Research (VTU-ETR) Programmes
Ph.D./M.S. (Research) August - 2023
Electrical and Electronics Engineering
Time: 3 hrs. Max. Marks: 100

INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES

1. Ensure that the question paper booklet issued to you is of your opted discipline.
2. If your name, ETR number, OMR No., branch and branch code are not already printed on
the OMR answer sheet, write them in clear handwriting in the space provided.
3. The question paper has 100 multiple choice questions. Each question carries one mark.
4. All the questions are compulsory.
5. Missing data, if any, may be suitably assumed.
6. There shall be no negative marking for wrong answers.
7. The examinees shall select the response which they want to mark/indicate on the response
sheet and shade/darken/blacken completely the inside area of the corresponding checkbox
bubble of circular or oval shape.
8. Candidates should use black ball point pen to shade the checkbox bubble so that it is fully
dark and the computer can detect without fail. Shading should be limited to the checkbox
bubble only.
9. Shading of multiple checkbox bubbles shall be treated as invalid answer.
10. Partial or incomplete shading/darkening of the bubble be avoided.
11. Use of whiteners/correction fluid to change the shaded/filled checkbox bubble to fill another
is prohibited.
12. Erasing of filled checkbox bubble/s to fill another is prohibited.
13. Any type of writing, scribbling etc., on the question paper and ticking the response of a
question/s are prohibited. Violation of this condition shall lead to disciplinary action like
debar from the examination. Also, the OMR answer sheet shall not be considered for
evaluation process.
14. Only non-programmable scientific calculator is permitted. Violation of this condition shall
lead to disciplinary action like debar from the examination. Also, the OMR answer sheet
shall not be considered for evaluation process.
15. Folding/crushing/mutilating of OMR sheet is not permitted.
16. Handover the OMR sheet to the Room Invigilator while leaving the examination hall.
 PART – I
(Research Methodology)
[50 Marks]

1. What is the difference between a parameter and a statistic?

a) Parameters describe populations, while statistics describe samples.
b) Parameters are qualitative, while statistics are quantitative.
c) Parameters are based on theory, while statistics are based on observation.
d) Parameters are mode reliable than statistics.

2. What is the central limit theorem?

a) It states that the sample mean approaches the population mean as the sample size increases.
b) It explains the relationship between the mean and standard deviation of a sample.
c) It ensures that the sampling distribution is normally distributed.
d) It allows for the estimation of population parameters based on sample statistics.

3. What is the standard error?

a) The standard deviation of the population.
b) The standard deviation of the sample.
c) The measure of sampling error.
d) The measure of non-sampling error.

4. What is the purpose of finite population correction?

a) To adjust for sampling bias.
b) To account for non-response error.
c) To correct for measurement error.
d) To adjust the standard error for small populations.

5. What does statistical inference involve?

a) Making predictions about the future based on past data.
b) Estimating population parameters from sample statistics.
c) Analyzing the relationship between variables.
d) Describing and summarizing data.

6. If terms such as, ‘positive’, ‘negative’, ‘more than’, ‘less than’ etc are used to make a statement,
then such a hypothesis is called…..
a) Relational hypotheses b) Causal hypothesis
c) Research hypothesis d) Directional hypothesis.

7. The tests of significance or test statistic are classified into…..

a) Parametric test
b) Non parametric test
c) Both parametric and nonparametric tests
d) None of these.

Ver – C : EE 1 of 13
8. A two-tailed test rejects the null hypothesis if the sample mean is significantly____ than the
hypothesized value of the mean of the population.
a) Higher b) Lower c) Higher or lower d) None of these

9. _________ is a way to test for comparing two related samples, involving small values of ‘n’ that
does not require the variances of the two populations to be equal.
a) Z-test b) Paired t – test c) f-test d) None of these

10. As a test of independence, X2 test enables us to explain _______

a) Whether or not two attributes are associated b) The fit is considered to be a good one
c) Whether test is significant d) None of these

11. If the outcome of an experiment is certain, that is the outcome is always the same, it is then a
______
a) Probabilistic Experiment b) Quasi Experiment
c) Deterministic Experiment d) Random Experiment.

12. The probability of the occurrence of a single event, such as P(A) or P(B), which takes a specific
value irrespective of the values of other events, i.e. unconditioned on any other events, is called
______
a) Joint Probability b) A marginal probability
c) Conditional Probability d) Unconditional Probability.

13. When the sample space S is countable, it is known as a ______

a) Discrete sample space b) Continuous sample space
c) Asynchronous sample space d) Synchronous sample space.

14. If two or more events cannot occur simultaneously in a single trail of an experiment, then such
events are called _______
a) Mutually exclusive events or disjoint events b) Collectively exhaustive events
c) Both A and B d) Joint events.

15. The _______ is that value that occurs most often or has the greatest probability of occurring.
a) Mean of a random variable b) Mode of a random variable
c) Median of a random variable d) None of these

16. Two events are mutually exclusive if the occurrence of one of them prevents or rules out the
occurrence of the other is called _______
a) Collectively exhaustive events b) Mutually exclusive events
c) Both A and B d) None of these.

17. Binomial probability distribution is a widely used probability distribution where ______
a) There are only two possible outcomes b) There exists discrete random variable
c) it’s a Bernoulli process d) All of these

Ver – C : EE 2 of 13
18. Mean  and standard deviation  are called parameters of ________
a) Normal distribution b) Binomial
c) Bernoulli Process d) Poisson

19. The Poisson process measures the number of occurrences of a particular outcome of a discrete
random variable in a predetermined _______
a) Time interval b) Space
c) Volume d) All of these

20 In the _______ process, the random variable values need counting. Such a count might be
number of telephone calls per hour coming into the switchboard, number of fatal traffic
accidents per week in a city/state etc. and so on.
a) Binomial distribution b) Normal distribution
c) Bayesian d) Poisson

21. The ANOVA technique is important in the context of all those situations where all want to
compare ______
a) Two population b) More than two populations
c) Less than two populations d) Single population.

22. Analysis of variance in which only ______ is used to analyze the difference between more than
two population means is called one way anova.
a) Two criterion (variable)
b) One criterion (variable)
c) Both two criterion (variable) and one criterion (variable)
d) None of these.

23. The basic principle of ANOVA is to test for differences among the ______ by examining the
______ within each of these samples, relative to the amount of variation between the samples.
a) Means of the populations and amount of variation
b) Estimation of the population and amount of variation
c) Means of the samples and amount of variation
d) Samples and amount of variation.

24. While applying the ANOVA techniques, the influence the uncontrolled variable is usually
removed by _______
a) Multiple regression method b) Simple linear regression method
c) One way ANOVA d) All of these

25. What are the other assumptions in ANOVA ______

a) Various treatment groups are selected at random from the population.
b) The groups are homogeneous in variability.
c) The regression is linear and is from group to group.
d) All of these.

Ver – C : EE 3 of 13
26. Regression analysis helps to determine ______ to measure the variability or spread of values of
a dependent variable with respect to the regression line.
a) Independent value b) Dependent value
c) Linear regression d) Standard error of estimate.

27. Regression models are used for several purposes, including the following_______
a) Data description
b) Parameter Estimation
c) Linear regression and standard error of estimate
d) All of these.

28. Factor analysis is by for the most often used _______ of research studies, specially pertaining to
social and behavioural sciences.
a) Multi functional technique b) Multi lateral technique
c) Multi linear d) Multivariate technique.

29. _______ , in the context of factor analysis, is something like staining a microscope slide.
a) Flipping b) Factoring
c) Rotation d) Synchronizing.

30. In _______, the correlations are computed between pairs of respondents instead of pairs of
variables.
a) Q-type factor analysis b) P-type factor analysis
c) R-type factor analysis d) S-type factor analysis.

31. What is the difference between a sample survey and a census survey?
a) Sample survey includes the entire population, while census survey includes a subset.
b) Sample survey is conducted using questionnaires while census surveys use interviews.
c) Sample survey is less accurate than census survey.
d) Sample survey is more expensive than census survey.

32. What are the types of sampling designs?

a) Probability sampling and non probability sampling.
b) Cluster sampling and convenience sampling.
c) Snowball sampling and purposive sampling.
d) Quota sampling and stratified sampling.

33. Which of the following is NOT a classification of measurement scales?

a) Normal Scale b) Ordinal scale c) Interval scale d) Hierarchical scale

34. What are the sources of error in measurement?

a) Systematic error and random error b) Measurement bias and sampling error
c) Observer bias and response bias d) Internal validity and external validity.

Ver – C : EE 4 of 13
35. What is the purpose of scaling in research?
a) To measure the central tendency of data
b) To determine the reliability of measurements
c) To assign numbers to represent characteristics
d) To calculate statistical significance.

36. What is the process of data preparation in research?

a) Collecting data from primary sources. b) Analyzing data using statistical software.
c) Cleaning and organizing data for analysis. d) Conducting data visualization techniques.

37. Which of the following is NOT a problem in the data preparation process?
a) Handling missing values b) Dealing with outliers
c) Ensuring data privacy d) Checking data accuracy.

38. What are the measures of central tendency?

a) Mean, Median and mode
b) Variance, standard deviation and range
c) Skewness, Kurtosis and correlation
d) Probability, confidence interval and hypothesis testing.

39. What do measures of dispersion indicate in research?

a) The shape of the data distribution b) The spread or variability of the data
c) The central value of the data set d) The relationship between variables.

40. What is the purpose of descriptive statistics?

a) To summarize and describe data b) To test hypotheses and make inferences
c) To establish causal relationships d) To predict future outcomes.

41. What is the significance of research?

a) Gathering information b) Solving problems
c) Formulating theories d) Analyzing data

42. Which of the following best defines research?

a) Systematic investigation b) A random experiment
c) A personal opinion d) An intuitive guess

43. Which of the following is NOT an objective of research?

a) Exploring new phenomena b) Developing new theories
c) Testing pre conceived notions d) Proving personal beliefs.

44. What is the difference between research methods and research methodology?
a) Methods are practical techniques, while methodology is the theoretical framework.
b) Methods focus on data analysis, while methodology focuses on data collection.
c) Methods are used in natural sciences, while methodology is used in social sciences.
d) Methods are objective, while methodology is subjective.

Ver – C : EE 5 of 13
45. What are the criteria of good research?
a) Replicability, Objectivity and Reliability
b) Creativity, Subjectivity and Originality
c) Simplicity, brevity, and clarity
d) Validity, Complexity and comprehensiveness

46. What is the purpose of reviewing the literature in research?

a) To validate the researcher’s hypothesis b) To identify gaps in existing knowledge
c) To find short cuts for conducting research d) To plagiarize ideas from previous studies.

47. What is the role of a theoretical framework in research?

a) It provides a structure for organizing the literature review.
b) It establishes the research objectives and hypotheses.
c) It guides the data collection and analysis process.
d) It helps in selecting the appropriate research design.

48. What is the meaning of research design?

a) The overall plan for conducting a research study.
b) The specific research method used in data collection.
c) The Statistical analysis technique used in research.
d) The process of formulating research questions.

49. Which of the following is an important principle of experimental designs?

a) Random sampling of participants b) Use of control groups
c) Longitudinal data collection d) Qualitative data.

50. What is the need for research design?

a) It helps in determining the sample size
b) It ensures the accuracy of data analysis.
c) It provides a structure for conducting research
d) It minimizes the ethical concerns in research.

Ver – C : EE 6 of 13
 PART – II
Discipline Oriented Section
(Electrical and Electronics Engineering)
[50 MARKS]

51. A single – phase air cored transformer fed from a rated sinusoidal supply is operating at no –
load. The steady – state magnetizing current drawn by the transformer from the supply will
have the wave form :
c) b)

c) d)

52. The DC motor, which can provide zero – speed regulation at full load without any controller is
a) Series b) Shunt
c) Cumulative compound d) Differential compound

53. The three – phase slip ring induction motor is fed from the rotor side with stator winding short
circuited. The frequency of the currents flowing in the short circuited stator is
a) Slip frequency b) Supply frequency
c) Frequency corresponding to rotor speed d) Zero

54. A synchronous generator is feeding a zero power factor (lagging) load at rated current. The
armature reaction is
a) magnetizing b) demagnetizing c) cross magnetizing d) ineffective

55. The equivalent circuit of a transformer has leakage reactances X1, X 12 and magnetizing
reactance Xm. Their magnitudes satisfy
a) X1 > > X 12 > > Xm b) X1 < < X 12 < < Xm c) X1 ≈ X 12 > > Xm d) X1 ≈ X 12 < < Xm

56. For open loop transfer function the constant steadly state error for unit – step input is
20
G(s) =
(s  1)(s  4)
a) 0.5 b) 0.166 c) 0.25 d) 0

57. The characteristic equation of a unity feedback system is given by S4 + 4S3 + S2 + 8S + 1 = 0

a) The system has one pole in the RH of the S – plane
b) The system has two poles in the RH of the S – plane
c) The system is asymptotically stable d) The system exhibits oscillatory response.

Ver – C : EE 7 of 13
58. An Open – loop transfer function has 4 – poles and one – zero. Then number of branches of
root locus is
a) 4 b) 1 c) 5 d) 3

59. For a stable system

a) gain margin must be positive but phase margin can be positive or negative
b) phase margin must be positive but gain margin can be positive or negative
c) both gain margin and phase margin must be positive
d) one of them must be zero.

60. For the Transfer function the initial slope of the Bode plot is
1
T.F = 2 .
s (s  2)(s  4)
a) - 80 dB/dec b) - 40 dB/dec c) - 60 dB/dec d) + 40 dB/dec

61. An eight stage Cockcroft – Walton generator has stage capacitances all equal to 0.05F. The
transformer secondary voltage is 125KV(max) at a frequency of 150Hz. If the load current is
5mA, the optimum number of stages for minimum regulation are
a) 12 stages b) 14 stages c) 13 stages d) 10 stages

62. Indirect Strokes near overhead transmission line induces over voltages due to
a) Electrostatic induction
b) Both due to electrostatic and electromagnetic induction
c) Only electromagnetic induction
d) Conduction current through line conductive.

63. The clearance normally adopted in high voltage lab for ac and impulse voltage are
a) 100 to 200 KV/m for ac and 500 KV for impulse
b) 300 KV/m for ac and 500 KV/m for impulse
c) 30 KV/m for ac and 50 KV/m for impulse
d) 10 KV/m for ac and 50 KV/m for impulse

64. The Basic Impulse Level (BIL) of a power system is defines as

a) The peak value of highest system voltage
b) The maximum power frequency withstand voltage of any power equipment or apparatus.
c) The minimum power frequency withstand voltage of any apparatus or power equipment
d) The minimum insulation impulse withstand voltage of any power equipment of apparatus.

65. To minimize the current chopping tendency, the SF6 gas is used at
a) Low velocity, high pressure b) High velocity, low pressure
c) Low velocity, low pressure d) High velocity, high pressure

Ver – C : EE 8 of 13
66. A sample 3 bus power system is shown in Figure below. The direction of reactive power flow
in the two transmission line TL1 and TL2 are respectively.

a) A to B and B to C b) B to A and B to C
c) A to B and C to B d) B to A and C to B

67. Load Flow Analysis is carried out on a 10 Bus power system. Bus 1 is a slack bus. Buses 2 to 4
are PV buses. Buses 5 to 10 are PQ buses. i – represents the angle of voltage at ith bus and Vi
– represents the magnitude of voltage at ith bus. The number of variables to be solved using
Load flow analysis are
a) 10 ‘’s and 4 ‘V’s b) 4 ‘’s and 6 ‘V’s c) 9 ‘’s and 6 ‘V’s d) 6 ‘’s and 4 ‘V’s

68. Let ICi represents the incremental cost function of ith generating station and ITLi represents
Incremental transmission loss of ith generating station. All the generators in the system are
operating within their specified limits of real power generation. If ‘’ is a constant the
condition for optimal generation allocation is
a) IC i ( 1 – ITLi) =  for all generating stations
 1 
b) ICi   =  for all generating stations
 ITLi 
c) IC i * ( ITLi) =  for all generating stations
d) ICi / ( 1 – ITLi) =  for all generating stations

69. Two areas are connected by Tie line with the following characteristics.
Area 1 Area 2
Speed Regulation (R) 0.01 pu 0.01 pu
Load damping constant (D) 0.8 pu 1.0 pu
If the load change of 0.2 pu occurs in area 1, what is the change in steady state frequency.
(All pu values are on common base values).
a) - 0.00099 pu b) + 0.00099 pu c) - 0.0099 pu d) + 0. 0099 pu

70. Series capacitor compensation of the transmission line, leads to

a) Reduction in line voltage drop and increase in power transfer capability
b) Reduction in line voltage drop and reduction in power transfer capability
c) Increase in line voltage drop and increase in power transfer capability
d) Increase in line voltage drop and reduction in power transfer capability.

71. A three phase fully controlled thyristor bridge converter is used as a line commutated inverter
to feed 50kW power from 420V dc to a three – phase 415V (line), 50Hz ac mains. Consider dc
link current to be constant. The rms current of the thyristor is
a) 119.05A b) 79.37A c) 68.73A d) 39.67A

Ver – C : EE 9 of 13
72. A three phase diode bridge rectifier is fed from a 400V, 50Hz, three – phase AC source. If the
load is purely resistive, then the peak instantaneous output voltage is
2 400
a) 400V b) 400 2 V c) 400 V d) V
3 3

73. A DC – DC transistor chopper supplied from a fixed voltage DC source feeds a fixed R – L
load and a free – wheeling diode. The chopper operates at 1 KHz and 50% duty cycle. Without
changing the value of average DC current through the load, if it is desired to reduce the ripple
constant of load current, the control action required will be
a) Increase the chopper frequency keeping duty cycle constant
b) Increase the chopper frequency and duty cycle in equal ratio
c) Decrease only the chopper frequency
d) Decrease only the duty cycle

74. A PWM switching scheme is used with a three – phase inverter to

a) Reduce THD with modes filtering
b) Minimize the load on the DC side
c) Increase the life of the batteries
d) Reduce low order harmonics and increase high order harmonics.

75. In a single – phase voltage controller circuit shown in Fig. below for what range of triggering
angle (α), the output voltage (Vo) is not controllable?

a) 0º < α < 45º b) 45º < α < 135º c) 90º < α < 180º d) 135º < α < 180º

76. Consider the Op – AMP based circuit shown in the Figure below. Ignore the conduction drops
of diodes D1 and D2. All the components are ideal and the breakdown voltage of the zener is
5V. Which of the following statement is true?

a) The maximum and minimum values of the output voltage VO are +15V and -10V.
b) The maximum and minimum values of the output voltage VO are +5V and -15V.
c) The maximum and minimum values of the output voltage VO are +10V and -5V.
d) The maximum and minimum values of the output voltage VO are +5V and -10V.

Ver – C : EE 10 of 13
77. Neglecting the delays due to the logic gates in the circuit shown in figure below, the decimal
equivalent of the binary sequence [ABCD] of initial logic states, which will not change with
clock is ______

a) 1000 b) 0101 c) 0010 d) 1111

78. The zener diode in circuit has a breakdown voltage of 5V. The current gain of the transistor in
the active region is 99. Ignore base – emitter voltage drop, VBE. The current through the 20
resistance in milliampere is ______

a) 200mA b) 250mA c) 125mA d) 300mA

79. Given that Op – amp is ideal, the output voltage UO, is

a) 4V b) 6V c) 7.5V d) 12.12V

80. A minimum form of the function F is

a) F = XY + YZ b) F = X Y + YZ c) F = X Y + Y Z d) F = X Y + Y Z

81. The value of TMOD for timer -0 in mode – 1 and timer -1 in mode 1 is :
a) 22h b) 10h c) 12h d) 11h

82. The ISR address for external hardware interrupt INT – 1 is :

a) 000Bh b) 0013h c) 0023h d) 0003h

83. The reference voltage for 8 – bit ADC is 2.56V. The digital output voltage of this ADC for
input voltage of 2.56V is
a) ooh b) FEh c) FFh d) AAh

Ver – C : EE 11 of 13
84. The zero crossing detector cannot detect zero crossings of input signal for
a) low frequency input signal and noise at input terminals.
b) high frequency input signal and noise at input terminal
c) low frequency input signal and offset output voltage
d) for dc input signal

85. What is the output of PLL if VCO output is 90º out of phase with input signal?
a) attenuated b) perfect lock condition
c) error signal is multiplied d) PLL is not working

86. A 5 – point sequence x[n] is given as x[-3] = 1 ; x[-2] = 1 ; x[-1] = 0 , x[0] = 5 , x[1] = 1.

jw jw
Let X(e ) denote the discrete – time Fourier Transform of x[n]. The value of  X (e ) dw is

a) 5 b) 10 π c) 16 π d) 5 + j10 π

87. Consider the following statements pertaining to FIR filters :

1) These are recursive and hence stability is not guaranteed.
2) These have high coefficient sensitivity
3) These have linear phase characteristics
4) These are realized using feedback structures.
a) 1, 2 and 4 b) 2, 3 and 4 c) only 3 d) only 4

88. Let x[n] = x[-n]. Let X(z) be the Z – transform of x[n]. If 1 + j2 is a zero of X(z), which one of
the following must also be a zero of X(z).
a) 0.2 + j0.4 b) 0.2 – j0.4 c) 1 + j2 d) 1 – j0.5

89. Consider a system equation y(n + 2) = -3x(n + 2) + 2x(n) – 5 x(n - 1). The system is _____ and
_____ respectively.
a) non – Causal I I R b) Causal, I I R c) Causal, F I R d) non – Causal F I R

90. Consider the following statements regarding the impulse invariant method of I I R filter
design.
1) After digitizing the analog filter , the impulse response of the original analog filter is
preserved.
2) The method is inappropriate for the design of high – pass or band – stop filters.
Which of these statements is / are correct?
a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2

91. What are Thevenin’s equivalent parameters VTh and ZTh of the network shown in Figure below
across A and B?

a) VTh = 125 volts, ZTh = 25 b) VTh = -83.33 volts, ZTh = 20
c) VTh = -83.33 volts, ZTh = 16.67 d) VTh = -125 volts, ZTh = 20

Ver – C : EE 12 of 13
92. For the two port network shown if Figure below, the transmission parameter ‘C’ is

Za
a) Za b) 1 + c) Zb d) 1/Zb
Zb

93. Three infinite uniform sheets of charge are located in free space as follows : 3nC/m2 at Z = -4 ,
6nC/m2 at Z = 1 and -8nC/m2 at Z = 4. The ‘E’ at point P(2, 5, -5) is
a) - 56.5 a z b) - 960.2 a z c) + 56.5 a z d) + 960.02 a z

94. The divergence of D in the region about a point charge ‘Q’ located at the ‘Origin’ is
a)  . D = 0 every where b)  . D = 0 everywhere except at the origin
c)   D = 0 everywhere d)   D = 0 everywhere except at the origin

95. The Stoke’s theorem given by an expression is :

a)  H  dL   (  H )  d S b)  H  dL   (  H )  d S
L S L S

c)  H  dL   (  H)  d S d)  H  dL   (  H)  dS
S S

96. Find the gain bandwidth product of a n-channel MOSFET having 300pF , 500pF and 30m-1
of gate to source capacitance , gate to drain capacitance and transconductance respectively.
a) 5.9 MHz b) 3.2 GHz c) 2.9 MHz d) 4 kHz

97. A Common emitter amplifier when bypassed with a capacitor at the emitter resistance has
a) increased input resistance and increased voltage gain
b) increased input resistance and decreased voltage gain
c) decreased input resistance and increased voltage gain
d) decreased input resistance and decreased voltage

98. The frequency of the output from a JK flip – flop, when J = 1, K = 1 and with a clock pulse
frequency of 1kHz is
a) 500 Hz b) 2 kHz c) 250 Hz d) 600Hz

99. A priority encoder has Four inputs I0, I1, I2 and I3, where I3 has the highest priority and I0 has
the least priority. If I2 = 1, the out of the encoder will
a) 10 b) 00 c) 11 d) 01

100. In the given digital circuit, if the inputs A and B are 1 and 0 respectively, the output Y will be

a) 0 b) 1 c) Undefined d) No output

Ver – C : EE 13 of 13
VTU-ETR Seat No. Question Paper Version : D

Visvesvaraya Technological University, Belagavi

Eligibility Test for Research (VTU-ETR) Programmes
Ph.D./M.S. (Research) August - 2023
Electrical and Electronics Engineering
Time: 3 hrs. Max. Marks: 100

INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES

1. Ensure that the question paper booklet issued to you is of your opted discipline.
2. If your name, ETR number, OMR No., branch and branch code are not already printed on
the OMR answer sheet, write them in clear handwriting in the space provided.
3. The question paper has 100 multiple choice questions. Each question carries one mark.
4. All the questions are compulsory.
5. Missing data, if any, may be suitably assumed.
6. There shall be no negative marking for wrong answers.
7. The examinees shall select the response which they want to mark/indicate on the response
sheet and shade/darken/blacken completely the inside area of the corresponding checkbox
bubble of circular or oval shape.
8. Candidates should use black ball point pen to shade the checkbox bubble so that it is fully
dark and the computer can detect without fail. Shading should be limited to the checkbox
bubble only.
9. Shading of multiple checkbox bubbles shall be treated as invalid answer.
10. Partial or incomplete shading/darkening of the bubble be avoided.
11. Use of whiteners/correction fluid to change the shaded/filled checkbox bubble to fill another
is prohibited.
12. Erasing of filled checkbox bubble/s to fill another is prohibited.
13. Any type of writing, scribbling etc., on the question paper and ticking the response of a
question/s are prohibited. Violation of this condition shall lead to disciplinary action like
debar from the examination. Also, the OMR answer sheet shall not be considered for
evaluation process.
14. Only non-programmable scientific calculator is permitted. Violation of this condition shall
lead to disciplinary action like debar from the examination. Also, the OMR answer sheet
shall not be considered for evaluation process.
15. Folding/crushing/mutilating of OMR sheet is not permitted.
16. Handover the OMR sheet to the Room Invigilator while leaving the examination hall.
 PART – I
(Research Methodology)
[50 Marks]

1. The ANOVA technique is important in the context of all those situations where all want to
compare ______
a) Two population b) More than two populations
c) Less than two populations d) Single population.

2. Analysis of variance in which only ______ is used to analyze the difference between more than
two population means is called one way anova.
a) Two criterion (variable)
b) One criterion (variable)
c) Both two criterion (variable) and one criterion (variable)
d) None of these.

3. The basic principle of ANOVA is to test for differences among the ______ by examining the
______ within each of these samples, relative to the amount of variation between the samples.
a) Means of the populations and amount of variation
b) Estimation of the population and amount of variation
c) Means of the samples and amount of variation
d) Samples and amount of variation.

4. While applying the ANOVA techniques, the influence the uncontrolled variable is usually
removed by _______
a) Multiple regression method b) Simple linear regression method
c) One way ANOVA d) All of these

5. What are the other assumptions in ANOVA ______

a) Various treatment groups are selected at random from the population.
b) The groups are homogeneous in variability.
c) The regression is linear and is from group to group.
d) All of these.

6. Regression analysis helps to determine ______ to measure the variability or spread of values of
a dependent variable with respect to the regression line.
a) Independent value b) Dependent value
c) Linear regression d) Standard error of estimate.

7. Regression models are used for several purposes, including the following_______
a) Data description
b) Parameter Estimation
c) Linear regression and standard error of estimate
d) All of these.

Ver – D : EE 1 of 13
8. Factor analysis is by for the most often used _______ of research studies, specially pertaining to
social and behavioural sciences.
a) Multi functional technique b) Multi lateral technique
c) Multi linear d) Multivariate technique.

9. _______ , in the context of factor analysis, is something like staining a microscope slide.
a) Flipping b) Factoring
c) Rotation d) Synchronizing.

10. In _______, the correlations are computed between pairs of respondents instead of pairs of
variables.
a) Q-type factor analysis b) P-type factor analysis
c) R-type factor analysis d) S-type factor analysis.

11. What is the significance of research?

a) Gathering information b) Solving problems
c) Formulating theories d) Analyzing data

12. Which of the following best defines research?

a) Systematic investigation b) A random experiment
c) A personal opinion d) An intuitive guess

13. Which of the following is NOT an objective of research?

a) Exploring new phenomena b) Developing new theories
c) Testing pre conceived notions d) Proving personal beliefs.

14. What is the difference between research methods and research methodology?
a) Methods are practical techniques, while methodology is the theoretical framework.
b) Methods focus on data analysis, while methodology focuses on data collection.
c) Methods are used in natural sciences, while methodology is used in social sciences.
d) Methods are objective, while methodology is subjective.

15. What are the criteria of good research?

a) Replicability, Objectivity and Reliability
b) Creativity, Subjectivity and Originality
c) Simplicity, brevity, and clarity
d) Validity, Complexity and comprehensiveness

16. What is the purpose of reviewing the literature in research?

a) To validate the researcher’s hypothesis b) To identify gaps in existing knowledge
c) To find short cuts for conducting research d) To plagiarize ideas from previous studies.

17. What is the role of a theoretical framework in research?

a) It provides a structure for organizing the literature review.
b) It establishes the research objectives and hypotheses.
c) It guides the data collection and analysis process.
d) It helps in selecting the appropriate research design.

Ver – D : EE 2 of 13
18. What is the meaning of research design?
a) The overall plan for conducting a research study.
b) The specific research method used in data collection.
c) The Statistical analysis technique used in research.
d) The process of formulating research questions.

19. Which of the following is an important principle of experimental designs?

a) Random sampling of participants b) Use of control groups
c) Longitudinal data collection d) Qualitative data.

20. What is the need for research design?

a) It helps in determining the sample size
b) It ensures the accuracy of data analysis.
c) It provides a structure for conducting research
d) It minimizes the ethical concerns in research.

21. If the outcome of an experiment is certain, that is the outcome is always the same, it is then a
______
a) Probabilistic Experiment b) Quasi Experiment
c) Deterministic Experiment d) Random Experiment.

22. The probability of the occurrence of a single event, such as P(A) or P(B), which takes a specific
value irrespective of the values of other events, i.e. unconditioned on any other events, is called
______
a) Joint Probability b) A marginal probability
c) Conditional Probability d) Unconditional Probability.

23. When the sample space S is countable, it is known as a ______

a) Discrete sample space b) Continuous sample space
c) Asynchronous sample space d) Synchronous sample space.

24. If two or more events cannot occur simultaneously in a single trail of an experiment, then such
events are called _______
a) Mutually exclusive events or disjoint events b) Collectively exhaustive events
c) Both A and B d) Joint events.

25. The _______ is that value that occurs most often or has the greatest probability of occurring.
a) Mean of a random variable b) Mode of a random variable
c) Median of a random variable d) None of these

26. Two events are mutually exclusive if the occurrence of one of them prevents or rules out the
occurrence of the other is called _______
a) Collectively exhaustive events b) Mutually exclusive events
c) Both A and B d) None of these.

27. Binomial probability distribution is a widely used probability distribution where ______
a) There are only two possible outcomes b) There exists discrete random variable
c) it’s a Bernoulli process d) All of these

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28. Mean  and standard deviation  are called parameters of ________
a) Normal distribution b) Binomial
c) Bernoulli Process d) Poisson

29. The Poisson process measures the number of occurrences of a particular outcome of a discrete
random variable in a predetermined _______
a) Time interval b) Space
c) Volume d) All of these

30 In the _______ process, the random variable values need counting. Such a count might be
number of telephone calls per hour coming into the switchboard, number of fatal traffic
accidents per week in a city/state etc. and so on.
a) Binomial distribution b) Normal distribution
c) Bayesian d) Poisson

31. What is the difference between a parameter and a statistic?

a) Parameters describe populations, while statistics describe samples.
b) Parameters are qualitative, while statistics are quantitative.
c) Parameters are based on theory, while statistics are based on observation.
d) Parameters are mode reliable than statistics.

32. What is the central limit theorem?

a) It states that the sample mean approaches the population mean as the sample size increases.
b) It explains the relationship between the mean and standard deviation of a sample.
c) It ensures that the sampling distribution is normally distributed.
d) It allows for the estimation of population parameters based on sample statistics.

33. What is the standard error?

a) The standard deviation of the population.
b) The standard deviation of the sample.
c) The measure of sampling error.
d) The measure of non-sampling error.

34. What is the purpose of finite population correction?

a) To adjust for sampling bias.
b) To account for non-response error.
c) To correct for measurement error.
d) To adjust the standard error for small populations.

35. What does statistical inference involve?

a) Making predictions about the future based on past data.
b) Estimating population parameters from sample statistics.
c) Analyzing the relationship between variables.
d) Describing and summarizing data.

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36. If terms such as, ‘positive’, ‘negative’, ‘more than’, ‘less than’ etc are used to make a statement,
then such a hypothesis is called…..
a) Relational hypotheses b) Causal hypothesis
c) Research hypothesis d) Directional hypothesis.

37. The tests of significance or test statistic are classified into…..

a) Parametric test
b) Non parametric test
c) Both parametric and nonparametric tests
d) None of these.

38. A two-tailed test rejects the null hypothesis if the sample mean is significantly____ than the
hypothesized value of the mean of the population.
a) Higher b) Lower c) Higher or lower d) None of these

39. _________ is a way to test for comparing two related samples, involving small values of ‘n’ that
does not require the variances of the two populations to be equal.
a) Z-test b) Paired t – test c) f-test d) None of these

40. As a test of independence, X2 test enables us to explain _______

a) Whether or not two attributes are associated b) The fit is considered to be a good one
c) Whether test is significant d) None of these

41. What is the difference between a sample survey and a census survey?
a) Sample survey includes the entire population, while census survey includes a subset.
b) Sample survey is conducted using questionnaires while census surveys use interviews.
c) Sample survey is less accurate than census survey.
d) Sample survey is more expensive than census survey.

42. What are the types of sampling designs?

a) Probability sampling and non probability sampling.
b) Cluster sampling and convenience sampling.
c) Snowball sampling and purposive sampling.
d) Quota sampling and stratified sampling.

43. Which of the following is NOT a classification of measurement scales?

a) Normal Scale b) Ordinal scale c) Interval scale d) Hierarchical scale

44. What are the sources of error in measurement?

a) Systematic error and random error b) Measurement bias and sampling error
c) Observer bias and response bias d) Internal validity and external validity.

45. What is the purpose of scaling in research?

a) To measure the central tendency of data
b) To determine the reliability of measurements
c) To assign numbers to represent characteristics
d) To calculate statistical significance.

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46. What is the process of data preparation in research?
a) Collecting data from primary sources. b) Analyzing data using statistical software.
c) Cleaning and organizing data for analysis. d) Conducting data visualization techniques.

47. Which of the following is NOT a problem in the data preparation process?
a) Handling missing values b) Dealing with outliers
c) Ensuring data privacy d) Checking data accuracy.

48. What are the measures of central tendency?

a) Mean, Median and mode
b) Variance, standard deviation and range
c) Skewness, Kurtosis and correlation
d) Probability, confidence interval and hypothesis testing.

49. What do measures of dispersion indicate in research?

a) The shape of the data distribution b) The spread or variability of the data
c) The central value of the data set d) The relationship between variables.

50. What is the purpose of descriptive statistics?

a) To summarize and describe data b) To test hypotheses and make inferences
c) To establish causal relationships d) To predict future outcomes.

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 PART – II
Discipline Oriented Section
(Electrical and Electronics Engineering)
[50 MARKS]

51. A three phase fully controlled thyristor bridge converter is used as a line commutated inverter
to feed 50kW power from 420V dc to a three – phase 415V (line), 50Hz ac mains. Consider dc
link current to be constant. The rms current of the thyristor is
a) 119.05A b) 79.37A c) 68.73A d) 39.67A

52. A three phase diode bridge rectifier is fed from a 400V, 50Hz, three – phase AC source. If the
load is purely resistive, then the peak instantaneous output voltage is
2 400
a) 400V b) 400 2 V c) 400 V d) V
3 3

53. A DC – DC transistor chopper supplied from a fixed voltage DC source feeds a fixed R – L
load and a free – wheeling diode. The chopper operates at 1 KHz and 50% duty cycle. Without
changing the value of average DC current through the load, if it is desired to reduce the ripple
constant of load current, the control action required will be
a) Increase the chopper frequency keeping duty cycle constant
b) Increase the chopper frequency and duty cycle in equal ratio
c) Decrease only the chopper frequency
d) Decrease only the duty cycle

54. A PWM switching scheme is used with a three – phase inverter to

a) Reduce THD with modes filtering
b) Minimize the load on the DC side
c) Increase the life of the batteries
d) Reduce low order harmonics and increase high order harmonics.

55. In a single – phase voltage controller circuit shown in Fig. below for what range of triggering
angle (α), the output voltage (Vo) is not controllable?

a) 0º < α < 45º b) 45º < α < 135º c) 90º < α < 180º d) 135º < α < 180º

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56. Consider the Op – AMP based circuit shown in the Figure below. Ignore the conduction drops
of diodes D1 and D2. All the components are ideal and the breakdown voltage of the zener is
5V. Which of the following statement is true?

a) The maximum and minimum values of the output voltage VO are +15V and -10V.
b) The maximum and minimum values of the output voltage VO are +5V and -15V.
c) The maximum and minimum values of the output voltage VO are +10V and -5V.
d) The maximum and minimum values of the output voltage VO are +5V and -10V.

57. Neglecting the delays due to the logic gates in the circuit shown in figure below, the decimal
equivalent of the binary sequence [ABCD] of initial logic states, which will not change with
clock is ______

a) 1000 b) 0101 c) 0010 d) 1111

58. The zener diode in circuit has a breakdown voltage of 5V. The current gain of the transistor in
the active region is 99. Ignore base – emitter voltage drop, VBE. The current through the 20
resistance in milliampere is ______

a) 200mA b) 250mA c) 125mA d) 300mA

59. Given that Op – amp is ideal, the output voltage UO, is

a) 4V b) 6V c) 7.5V d) 12.12V

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60. A minimum form of the function F is

a) F = XY + YZ b) F = X Y + YZ c) F = X Y + Y Z d) F = X Y + Y Z

61. What are Thevenin’s equivalent parameters VTh and ZTh of the network shown in Figure below
across A and B?

a) VTh = 125 volts, ZTh = 25 b) VTh = -83.33 volts, ZTh = 20
c) VTh = -83.33 volts, ZTh = 16.67 d) VTh = -125 volts, ZTh = 20

62. For the two port network shown if Figure below, the transmission parameter ‘C’ is

Za
a) Za b) 1 + c) Zb d) 1/Zb
Zb

63. Three infinite uniform sheets of charge are located in free space as follows : 3nC/m2 at Z = -4 ,
6nC/m2 at Z = 1 and -8nC/m2 at Z = 4. The ‘E’ at point P(2, 5, -5) is
a) - 56.5 a z b) - 960.2 a z c) + 56.5 a z d) + 960.02 a z

64. The divergence of D in the region about a point charge ‘Q’ located at the ‘Origin’ is
a)  . D = 0 every where b)  . D = 0 everywhere except at the origin
c)   D = 0 everywhere d)   D = 0 everywhere except at the origin

65. The Stoke’s theorem given by an expression is :

a)  H  dL   (  H )  d S b)  H  dL   (  H )  d S
L S L S

c)  H  dL   (  H)  d S d)  H  dL   (  H)  dS
S S

66. Find the gain bandwidth product of a n-channel MOSFET having 300pF , 500pF and 30m-1
of gate to source capacitance , gate to drain capacitance and transconductance respectively.
a) 5.9 MHz b) 3.2 GHz c) 2.9 MHz d) 4 kHz

67. A Common emitter amplifier when bypassed with a capacitor at the emitter resistance has
a) increased input resistance and increased voltage gain
b) increased input resistance and decreased voltage gain
c) decreased input resistance and increased voltage gain
d) decreased input resistance and decreased voltage
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68. The frequency of the output from a JK flip – flop, when J = 1, K = 1 and with a clock pulse
frequency of 1kHz is
a) 500 Hz b) 2 kHz c) 250 Hz d) 600Hz

69. A priority encoder has Four inputs I0, I1, I2 and I3, where I3 has the highest priority and I0 has
the least priority. If I2 = 1, the out of the encoder will
a) 10 b) 00 c) 11 d) 01

70. In the given digital circuit, if the inputs A and B are 1 and 0 respectively, the output Y will be

a) 0 b) 1 c) Undefined d) No output

71. An eight stage Cockcroft – Walton generator has stage capacitances all equal to 0.05F. The
transformer secondary voltage is 125KV(max) at a frequency of 150Hz. If the load current is
5mA, the optimum number of stages for minimum regulation are
a) 12 stages b) 14 stages c) 13 stages d) 10 stages

72. Indirect Strokes near overhead transmission line induces over voltages due to
a) Electrostatic induction
b) Both due to electrostatic and electromagnetic induction
c) Only electromagnetic induction
d) Conduction current through line conductive.
73. The clearance normally adopted in high voltage lab for ac and impulse voltage are
a) 100 to 200 KV/m for ac and 500 KV for impulse
b) 300 KV/m for ac and 500 KV/m for impulse
c) 30 KV/m for ac and 50 KV/m for impulse
d) 10 KV/m for ac and 50 KV/m for impulse
74. The Basic Impulse Level (BIL) of a power system is defines as
a) The peak value of highest system voltage
b) The maximum power frequency withstand voltage of any power equipment or apparatus.
c) The minimum power frequency withstand voltage of any apparatus or power equipment
d) The minimum insulation impulse withstand voltage of any power equipment of apparatus.

75. To minimize the current chopping tendency, the SF6 gas is used at
a) Low velocity, high pressure b) High velocity, low pressure
c) Low velocity, low pressure d) High velocity, high pressure
76. A sample 3 bus power system is shown in Figure below. The direction of reactive power flow
in the two transmission line TL1 and TL2 are respectively.

a) A to B and B to C b) B to A and B to C
c) A to B and C to B d) B to A and C to B

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77. Load Flow Analysis is carried out on a 10 Bus power system. Bus 1 is a slack bus. Buses 2 to 4
are PV buses. Buses 5 to 10 are PQ buses. i – represents the angle of voltage at ith bus and Vi
– represents the magnitude of voltage at ith bus. The number of variables to be solved using
Load flow analysis are
a) 10 ‘’s and 4 ‘V’s b) 4 ‘’s and 6 ‘V’s c) 9 ‘’s and 6 ‘V’s d) 6 ‘’s and 4 ‘V’s

78. Let ICi represents the incremental cost function of ith generating station and ITLi represents
Incremental transmission loss of ith generating station. All the generators in the system are
operating within their specified limits of real power generation. If ‘’ is a constant the
condition for optimal generation allocation is
a) IC i ( 1 – ITLi) =  for all generating stations
 1 
b) ICi   =  for all generating stations
 ITLi 
c) IC i * ( ITLi) =  for all generating stations
d) ICi / ( 1 – ITLi) =  for all generating stations

79. Two areas are connected by Tie line with the following characteristics.
Area 1 Area 2
Speed Regulation (R) 0.01 pu 0.01 pu
Load damping constant (D) 0.8 pu 1.0 pu
If the load change of 0.2 pu occurs in area 1, what is the change in steady state frequency.
(All pu values are on common base values).
a) - 0.00099 pu b) + 0.00099 pu c) - 0.0099 pu d) + 0. 0099 pu

80. Series capacitor compensation of the transmission line, leads to

a) Reduction in line voltage drop and increase in power transfer capability
b) Reduction in line voltage drop and reduction in power transfer capability
c) Increase in line voltage drop and increase in power transfer capability
d) Increase in line voltage drop and reduction in power transfer capability.

81. A single – phase air cored transformer fed from a rated sinusoidal supply is operating at no –
load. The steady – state magnetizing current drawn by the transformer from the supply will
have the wave form :
d) b)

c) d)

82. The DC motor, which can provide zero – speed regulation at full load without any controller is
a) Series b) Shunt
c) Cumulative compound d) Differential compound

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83. The three – phase slip ring induction motor is fed from the rotor side with stator winding short
circuited. The frequency of the currents flowing in the short circuited stator is
a) Slip frequency b) Supply frequency
c) Frequency corresponding to rotor speed d) Zero

84. A synchronous generator is feeding a zero power factor (lagging) load at rated current. The
armature reaction is
a) magnetizing b) demagnetizing c) cross magnetizing d) ineffective

85. The equivalent circuit of a transformer has leakage reactances X1, X 12 and magnetizing
reactance Xm. Their magnitudes satisfy
a) X1 > > X 12 > > Xm b) X1 < < X 12 < < Xm c) X1 ≈ X 12 > > Xm d) X1 ≈ X 12 < < Xm

86. For open loop transfer function the constant steadly state error for unit – step input is
20
G(s) =
(s  1)(s  4)
a) 0.5 b) 0.166 c) 0.25 d) 0

87. The characteristic equation of a unity feedback system is given by S4 + 4S3 + S2 + 8S + 1 = 0

a) The system has one pole in the RH of the S – plane
b) The system has two poles in the RH of the S – plane
c) The system is asymptotically stable d) The system exhibits oscillatory response.

88. An Open – loop transfer function has 4 – poles and one – zero. Then number of branches of
root locus is
a) 4 b) 1 c) 5 d) 3

89. For a stable system

a) gain margin must be positive but phase margin can be positive or negative
b) phase margin must be positive but gain margin can be positive or negative
c) both gain margin and phase margin must be positive
d) one of them must be zero.

90. For the Transfer function the initial slope of the Bode plot is
1
T.F = 2 .
s (s  2)(s  4)
a) - 80 dB/dec b) - 40 dB/dec c) - 60 dB/dec d) + 40 dB/dec

91. The value of TMOD for timer -0 in mode – 1 and timer -1 in mode 1 is :
a) 22h b) 10h c) 12h d) 11h

92. The ISR address for external hardware interrupt INT – 1 is :

a) 000Bh b) 0013h c) 0023h d) 0003h

93. The reference voltage for 8 – bit ADC is 2.56V. The digital output voltage of this ADC for
input voltage of 2.56V is
a) ooh b) FEh c) FFh d) AAh

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94. The zero crossing detector cannot detect zero crossings of input signal for
a) low frequency input signal and noise at input terminals.
b) high frequency input signal and noise at input terminal
c) low frequency input signal and offset output voltage
d) for dc input signal

95. What is the output of PLL if VCO output is 90º out of phase with input signal?
a) attenuated b) perfect lock condition
c) error signal is multiplied d) PLL is not working

96. A 5 – point sequence x[n] is given as x[-3] = 1 ; x[-2] = 1 ; x[-1] = 0 , x[0] = 5 , x[1] = 1.

Let X(ejw) denote the discrete – time Fourier Transform of x[n]. The value of  X (e
jw
) dw is

a) 5 b) 10 π c) 16 π d) 5 + j10 π

97. Consider the following statements pertaining to FIR filters :

1) These are recursive and hence stability is not guaranteed.
2) These have high coefficient sensitivity
3) These have linear phase characteristics
4) These are realized using feedback structures.
a) 1, 2 and 4 b) 2, 3 and 4 c) only 3 d) only 4

98. Let x[n] = x[-n]. Let X(z) be the Z – transform of x[n]. If 1 + j2 is a zero of X(z), which one of
the following must also be a zero of X(z).
a) 0.2 + j0.4 b) 0.2 – j0.4 c) 1 + j2 d) 1 – j0.5
EE – 2 of 7

99. Consider a system equation y(n + 2) = -3x(n + 2) + 2x(n) – 5 x(n - 1). The system is _____ and
_____ respectively.
a) non – Causal I I R b) Causal, I I R c) Causal, F I R d) non – Causal F I R

100. Consider the following statements regarding the impulse invariant method of I I R filter
design.
1) After digitizing the analog filter , the impulse response of the original analog filter is
preserved.
2) The method is inappropriate for the design of high – pass or band – stop filters.
Which of these statements is / are correct?
a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2

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