VTU-ETR Seat No.

Question Paper Version : A

Visvesvaraya Technological University, Belagavi

Eligibility Test for Research (VTU-ETR) Programmes
Ph.D./M.S. (Research) May - 2024
Electrical and Electronics Engineering
Time: 3 hrs. Max. Marks: 100

INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES

1. Ensure that the question paper booklet issued to you is of your opted discipline.
2. If your name, ETR number, OMR No., branch and branch code are not already printed on
the OMR answer sheet, write them in clear handwriting in the space provided.
3. The question paper has 100 multiple choice questions. Each question carries one mark.
4. All the questions are compulsory.
5. Missing data, if any, may be suitably assumed.
6. There shall be no negative marking for wrong answers.
7. The examinees shall select the response which they want to mark/indicate on the response
sheet and shade/darken/blacken completely the inside area of the corresponding checkbox
bubble of circular or oval shape.
8. Candidates should use black ball point pen to shade the checkbox bubble so that it is fully
dark and the computer can detect without fail. Shading should be limited to the checkbox
bubble only.
9. Shading of multiple checkbox bubbles shall be treated as invalid answer.
10. Partial or incomplete shading/darkening of the bubble be avoided.
11. Use of whiteners/correction fluid to change the shaded/filled checkbox bubble to fill another
is prohibited.
12. Erasing of filled checkbox bubble/s to fill another is prohibited.
13. Any type of writing, scribbling etc., on the question paper and ticking the response of a
question/s are prohibited. Violation of this condition shall lead to disciplinary action like
debar from the examination. Also, the OMR answer sheet shall not be considered for
evaluation process.
14. Only non-programmable scientific calculator is permitted. Violation of this condition shall
lead to disciplinary action like debar from the examination. Also, the OMR answer sheet
shall not be considered for evaluation process.
15. Folding/crushing/mutilating of OMR sheet is not permitted.
16. Handover the OMR sheet to the Room Invigilator while leaving the examination hall.
 PART – I
(Research Methodology)
[50 Marks]

1. Which of the following research is also known as collaborative research?

a) Analytical research b) Applied research
c) Action research d) Descriptive research

2. Cross-sectional surveys are divided into two types, which are?

a) Exploratory and causal b) Functional and Dysfunctional
c) Relational and logical d) Descriptive and analytical

3. What are the main purposes of data analysis?

a) Description b) Construction of Measurement Scale
c) Generating empirical relationships d) Explanation and prediction

4. __________ involve a set of predetermined questions and highly standardized techniques of

recording?
a) Structured interview b) Unstructured interview
c) Interview guided d) All of these

5. Which of the following is a primary step in social science research?

a) Preparing the Research Design b) Developing the Research Hypothesis
c) Formulation of research problem d) Execution of the Project

6. Find an example of probability sampling.

a) Convenience or accidental sampling b) Purposive or judgmental sampling
c) Quota sampling d) Stratified random sampling

7. Which of the following is not a data collection method?

a) Observation b) Schedules
c) Interview d) Research question

8. The term ‘ethno’ refers to

a) Geographical area b) Social life
c) Cultural group d) People or culture
9. Ogives is also known as?
a) Cumulative frequency curves b) Frequency distributions
c) Transcendental Curve d) All of these

10. Which of the following strategies is used to determine how common, widespread, or pervasive a
certain trait, phenomenon, attitude, or opinion is in a demographic population?
a) Cross-sectional descriptive survey b) Factorial survey method
c) Total survey design d) Pooled surveys

11. Quantitative research involves conducting research using the following :

a) Feelings and hidden emotions, expectations b) Facts, Numbers and numerical data
c) Humour and gratitude d) Ethics, Accuracy and discipline
Ver-A : EE 1 of 10
12. Which of the following best describes quantitative research?
a) the collection of non-numerical data
b) an attempt to confirm the researcher’s hypotheses
c) exploratory research
d) research that attempts to generate a new theory

13. Which of the following includes examples of quantitative variables?

a) age, temperature, income, height
b) grade point average, anxiety level, reading performance
c) gender, religion, ethnic group
d) both a and b

14. Quantitative research only works if

a) You talk to the right number of people
b) You talk to the right type of people
c) You ask the right question and analyse the data you get in the right way
d) All of the above

15. An image, perception or concept that is capable of measurement is called _______

a) Scale b) Hypothesis c) Type d) Variable

16. Why do you need to review the existing literature?

a) To make sure you have a long list of references
b) Because without it, you could never reach the required word-count
c) To help in your general studying
d) To find out what is already known about your area of interest

17. To pursue the research, which of the following is priorly required?

a) Developing a research design b) Formulating a research question
c) Deciding about the data analysis procedure d) Formulating a research hypothesis

18. A statement of the quantitative research question should:

a) Extend the statement of purpose by specifying exactly the question (the researcher will
address)
b) Help the research in selecting appropriate participants, research methods, measures and
materials
c) Specify the variables of interest
d) None of the above

19. Concept is of two types

a) Abstract and coherent b) Concrete and coherent
c) Abstract and concrete d) None of these

20. _________ is concerned with discovering and testing certain variables with respect to their
association or disassociation.
a) Exploratory b) Descriptive
c) Diagnostic d) Descriptive and diagnostic

21. In the process of conducting research ‘Formulation of Hypothesis’ is followed by

a) Statement of Objectives b) Analysis of Data
c) Selection of Research Tools d) Collection of Data
Ver-A : EE 2 of 10
22. The data of research is _______
a) Qualitative only b) Quantitative only c) Neither of them d) Both a and b

23. _______- test is used to prove hypothesis of smaller sample.

a) t b) f c) z d) P

24. _____ tailed test is used when the researcher’s interest is primarily on one side of the issue.
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

25. ______ is a part of the universe that can be used as respondents to survey.
a) Frame b) Sample c) Hypothesis d) Population

26. _______ Hypothesis states that there is no relationship between two or more variables
a) Null b) Alternative c) Negative Page d) Positive

27. _______ research helps to solve practical problems.

a) Qualitative b) Applied c) Basic d) Descriptive

28. The final stage in a survey is

a) Field work b) Assignment c) Calculation d) Reporting

29. ______ mean refers to the value obtained by dividing the sum of the values of all items by the
total
a) number of items b) Arithmetic c) Geometric d) Harmonic

30. _______ is used to analyse differences between group means and the associated procedures
a) ANOVA b) Chi square c) Z-test d) correlation

31. Z test is used to test hypothesis when the sample size is ______
a) more than 30 b) less than 30 c) less than 50 d) none of these

32. The mode of 2, 5, 6, 4, 2, 7, 2, 5 is

a) 5 b) 6 c) 2 d) 7

33. Hypothesis should be ______

a) Any statement b) Empirically testable
c) Not empirically testable d) Can’t say
34. What is the purpose of doing research?
a) To identify problem b) To find the solution
c) Both a and b d) None of these

35. Which ONE of these sampling methods is a probability method?

a) Quota b) Judgment
c) Convenience d) Simple random

36. _______ is the first step of the Research process

a) Formulation of a problem b) Collection of Data
c) Editing and Coding d) Selection of a problem

37. If the critical region is located equally in both sides of the sampling distribution of test statistics,
the test is called
a) One-tailed b) Two-tailed c) Right tailed d) Left tailed
Ver-A : EE 3 of 10
38. The standard deviation is always ______
a) Negative b) Positive c) Sometimes negative d) None of these

39. Mean, Median and Mode are

a) Measures of deviation b) Measures of dispersion
c) Measures of control tendency d) Measures of central tendency

40. A tentative proposition subject to test is

a) Variable b) Hypothesis c) Data d) Concept

41. A Hypothesis that develops while planning the research is

a) Null Hypothesis b) Working Hypothesis
c) Relational Hypothesis d) Descriptive Hypothesis

42. The fullform of APA is ______

a) American Physical Association b) American Psychological Association
c) American Psychological Amendment d) American Psychological Agreement

43. Questions in which only two alternatives are possible is called

a) Dichotomous questions b) Open-ended questions
c) Structured questions d) MCQs

44. Questionnaire is a
a) Research method b) Measurement technique
c) Tool for data collection d) Data analysis technique

45. Which of the following order is recommended in the flowchart of the research process?
a) Formulate Hypothesis, Sampling Design, Process Data, Identify Research Problem
b) Sampling Design, Process Data, Identify Research Problem, Formulate Hypothesis
c) Formulate Hypothesis, Process Data, Identify Research Problem, Sampling Design
d) Identify Research Problem, Formulate Hypothesis, Sampling Design, Process Data

46. If 0 < r < 1 means there is ______

a) Negative correlation b) Positive correlation
c) No correlation d) All of these

47. _______ is a process of checking errors and omissions in data collection.

a) Editing b) Coding c) Tabulation d) None of these

48. _______ is the difference between highest and lowest value in a series of data.
a) Median b) Range c) Mode d) None of these

49. If Ho is true and we reject it is called

a) Type-I error b) Type-II error c) Standard error d) None of these

50 Sending a Questionnaire to a respondent with a request to complete and return by post is called
a) Interview b) Observation c) A Mail Survey d) Panel

Ver-A : EE 4 of 10
 PART – II
Discipline Oriented Section
(Electrical and Electronics Engineering)
[50 MARKS]

51. In a linear network with only resistances if iA = 8A and iB = 12A, Vx is found to be 80V and if
iA =  8A and iB = 4A, Vx is found to be 0V.

a) 40V b) 75V c) 150V d) 80V

52. Find the maximum of active power delivered to the load ZL, and the current IL at maximum
power.


a) 50 |135  A 100W b) 50 |45  A , 100W c) 50 | 45  A , 200W d) 5 | 90 , 200W

53. The value of resistance of a series RLC circuit with L = 0.01mH and C = 0.1F, to have a
damping ratio of 0.7 is

a) 140 b) 14.14 c) 14.0 d) 141.40

54. The Y parameters of the network shown are

1 1   1 1   1 1   1 1 
a)  14 14 b)  28 28 c)  7 28 d)  14 28
 1
 14 2  1 2  1 1  1 1
14   28 28   28 14   28 7 

Ver-A : EE 5 of 10
55. In the circuit shown below steady state is reached with switch K in position 1. At t = 0.
The switch position is changed is position 2. Find the current i at t = 0.5m sec.

a) 1.839A b) 3.160A c) 2.543A d) 1.732A

56. During high frequency applications of a B.J.T., which parasitic capacitor arise between the base
and the emitter?
a) Cjc and Cb b) Ccs c) Cb d) Ccs and Cb
57. What is the type of sampling observed?
a) Shunt-Series feedback b) Series-Series feedback
c) Shunt-Shunt feedback d) Series-Shunt feedback.

58. Harmonic distortion is caused by nonlinearities of ______

a) Voltage divider circuit
b) Resistive elements only
c) Passive elements
d) Active elements
59. A circuit the compares two numbers and determines their magnitude is called ______.
a) Height comparator
b) Size comparator
c) Comparator
d) Magnitude comparator

60. Counter circuit is usually constructed of ________

a) A number of latches connected in cascade form
b) A number of NAND gates connected in cascade form
c) A number of flip-flops connected in cascade
d) A number of NOR gates connected in cascade form

61. The data range for 16 bit signal integer is :

a)  128 to +127 b) 0 to 255 c)  32768 to +32767 d) 0 to 32767.

62. In 8051 c, timer 0 or timer  1 can be started and stopped by using software methods, when
a) GATE bit is HIGH b) GATE bit is LOW
c) GATE bit is alternately HIGH and LOW d) GATE bit is alternately LOW and HIGH.

63. The ISR address of timer - 1 interrupt is ;

a) 001Bh b) 000Bh c) 0000h d) 0023h

64. The characteristic of comparator are :

a) accuracy only
b) speed of operation only
c) accuracy, speed of operation and compatibility of output
d) conversion time only
Ver-A : EE 6 of 10
65. To use 555 timer as pulse stretcher, it should be operated in
a) bistable mode
b) Schmitt trigger mode
c) astable mode
d) monostable mode.
66. The Fourier transform of the signal x(t) = e-at u(t) ; a > 0 is given by
1 1 a 1
a) b) c) d)
a  j a  j a  j 1  j
FT
67. If x ( t )  x ( j) , then y(t) = ejt x(t) 
FT
________
a) x(j(ω + )) b) x(j(ω  )) c) x(jω) d) x(j)

68. The Z-transform of x(n) = dnu(n) is _______

z z 1 1
a) b) c) d)
z z z z
69. The following Filter has got maximally Flat Frequency response both in passband and stopband
a) Chebyshev Filter b) Butterworth Filter
c) FIR Filter d) None of these.

70. Stopband attenuation provided by Hamming window is ______.

a) 44dB b) 53dB c) 74dB d) 21dB.
71. Which is to be short-circuited on performing short-circuit test on a transformer?
a) Low voltage side b) High voltage side
c) Primary side d) Secondary side.

72. Which of the following are advantages of skewing of the rotor of an induction motor?
1) Elimination of cogging
2) Prevent crawling
3) Produce non uniform torque
4) Eliminate any type of Harmonic
5) Reduce Noice
The correct code is
a) 1 and 2 b) 1, 2, 3 and 4 c) 1, 2, 4 and 5 d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

73. A synchronous generator connected to an infinite bus delivers power at lagging power factor.
If its field excitation is increased, what is the effect?
a) Terminal voltage increases
b) Voltage Angle increases
c) Current delivered increases
d) All of the above

74. A DC shunt motor runs at 500rpm, at 220V. A resistance of 4.5ohm in added in series with
armature for speed control. The armature resistance is 0.5ohm. The current to stall the motor is
a) 44A b) 50A c) 40A d) 30A.

Ver-A : EE 7 of 10
75. Effect of reducing the frequency of AC supply with corresponding reduction in applied voltage
of the three phase induction motor.
a) Has no effect on the magnitude of starting current
b) Is to reduce magnitude of starting current
c) Is to increase the magnitude of starting current
d) All of the above.
20
76. For a unit step input, a system with forward path transfer function G(s) = and feedback path
S2
transfer function H(s) = s + 5, has a steady state output of
a) 0 b) 0.5 c) 0.2 d) 20

77. Consider the following polynomials

1) s4 + 7s3 + 17s2 + 17s + 6 2) s4 + s3 + 2s2 + 3s + 2
Among these polynomials, those which are Hurwitz
a) only 1 b) only 2 c) both 1and 2 d) None of these.

78. The roots move away from poles when the system gain is
a) increased b) decreased c) zero d) None of these

100(1  0.25s )
79. The transfer function of a system is . The corner frequencies will be
1  0.5s
a)  4 and  2 b)  4 and 2 c) 4 and  2 d) 4 and 2

80. If the Nyquist plot of the open loop transfer function G(s) H(s) of a system passes through the
 1+ j0 point then the phase margin of the system is likely to be
a) 45º b) 180º c) 0º d) 90º

81. A single – phase ac regulator fed from 50Hz system supplies a load having resistance and
inductance of 4.0 and 12.73mH respectively. The control range of firing angle is
a) 0º <  < 180º b) 45º <  < 180º c) 90º <  < 180º d) 0º <  < 45º

82. A phase controlled single phase, full bridge converter is supplying a highly inductive DC load.
The converter is fed from a 230V, 50Hz. AC source the fundamental frequency is HZ of the
voltage ripple on the DC side is
a) 25 b) 50 c) 100 d) 300.

83. In type A chopper, source voltage is 100V dc. ON period is 100s ; OFF period is 150s ; Load
consists of R = 2, L = 5mH and E = 10V. For continuous conduction, the average output
voltage and average output current are :
a) 40V, 15A
b) 66.66V, 28.33A
c) 60V, 25A
d) 40V, 20A

84 A PWM switching scheme is used with a three phase inverter to

a) Reduce the total harmonic distortion with modes filtering
b) Minimize the load on the DC side
c) Increase the life of the batteries
d) Reduce lower order harmonics and increase higher order harmonics.

Ver-A : EE 8 of 10
85. For a sinusoidal input voltage, Vs = Vm Sin wt, if the input voltage is connected to load for ‘n’
cycles and is disconnected for ‘m’ cycle, then rms output voltage is given by V0 = Vs K ,
where duty cycle K is given by
mn n
a) m + n b) m – n c) d)
mn mn
86. If the diameters of the conductor is increased
a) The inductance is increased
b) The inductance is decreased
c) No change in inductance
d) No change in Resistance
87. If we increase the length of the transmission, the charging current
a) Decrease b) Increase c) Remains the same d) Not affected.

88. Which of the following is correct of a synchronous machine

a) Xd  Xd  X d b) Xd  Xd  X d c) Xd  Xd  X d d) Xd  Xd  X d

89. When a fault occur in a power system the following sequence current are recorded
I positive =  j7.53pu, I negative = +j4.30 pu, I zero = + j3.23 pu,
The fault is
a) Three phase b) Lane to Line c) Line to Line to ground d) Line to ground
90. The which type of fault Va1 = Va2
a) Single line to ground fault b) Double line to ground fault
c) Line to Line fault d) None of the above

91. Paschen’s law is associated with

a) Breakdown voltage b) Ionisation c) Thermal radiations d) None of the above.
92. Vande Graff generator are useful for
a) High voltage pulse only
b) Constant high voltage and current applications
c) Very high voltage and low current applications
d) Very high voltage and high current applications

93. A relay connected is a 400/5 ratio current transformer with setting of 150%. Calculate the Plug
Setting Multiplies (PSM) when circuit current a fault current of 3000A.
a) 5 b) 6 c) 8 d) 7.
94. An ideal circuit breaker should offer
a) Infinite and zero impendence before and after interruption respectively
b) Zero and infinite impedance before and after interruption respectively
c) Equal impendence before and after interruption
d) None of the above.
95. Lighting arrestors and used in power system to protect the electrical equipment against
a) Direct stroke
b) Over voltage due to indirect lighting strokes
c) Power frequency over voltage
d) Over current due to lighting

Ver-A : EE 9 of 10
96. In load flow studies of a power system, a voltage control bus is specified by
a) Real power and reactive power
b) Real power and voltage magnitude
c) Voltage and voltage phase angle
d) Reactive power and voltage magnitude.

97. A voltage controlled bus is treated as a load bus is subsequent iteration when its :
a) Voltage limit is violated
b) Active power limits is violated
c) Reactive power limit is violated
d) Phase angle limit is violated

98. The incremental cost characteristics of the two units in a plane are
Ic1 = 0.1P1 + 80 Rs/Mwh, Ic2 = 0.15P2 + 3.0 Rs/Mwh
When the total load is 100mW, the optimum sharing of the load is
P1 P1
a) 40mW 60mW
b) 33.3mW 66.7mW
c) 60mW 40mW
d) 66.7mW 33.3mW

99. With the help of a reactive compensator it is possible to have

a) constant voltage generation only
b) unity p.f operation only
c) both constant voltage and unity p.f
d) Either constant voltage or unity p.f

100. Which of the following are the advantages of interconnected operation of power systems
i) Less reserve capacity requirement
ii) More reliability
iii) Higher power factor
iv) Reduction in short circuit level
select the correct answer using the codes given below
a) i) and ii) b) ii) and iii) c) iii) and iv) d) i) and iv).

Ver-A : EE 10 of 10
VTU-ETR Seat No. Question Paper Version : B

Visvesvaraya Technological University, Belagavi

Eligibility Test for Research (VTU-ETR) Programmes
Ph.D./M.S. (Research) May - 2024
Electrical and Electronics Engineering
Time: 3 hrs. Max. Marks: 100

INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES

1. Ensure that the question paper booklet issued to you is of your opted discipline.
2. If your name, ETR number, OMR No., branch and branch code are not already printed on
the OMR answer sheet, write them in clear handwriting in the space provided.
3. The question paper has 100 multiple choice questions. Each question carries one mark.
4. All the questions are compulsory.
5. Missing data, if any, may be suitably assumed.
6. There shall be no negative marking for wrong answers.
7. The examinees shall select the response which they want to mark/indicate on the response
sheet and shade/darken/blacken completely the inside area of the corresponding checkbox
bubble of circular or oval shape.
8. Candidates should use black ball point pen to shade the checkbox bubble so that it is fully
dark and the computer can detect without fail. Shading should be limited to the checkbox
bubble only.
9. Shading of multiple checkbox bubbles shall be treated as invalid answer.
10. Partial or incomplete shading/darkening of the bubble be avoided.
11. Use of whiteners/correction fluid to change the shaded/filled checkbox bubble to fill another
is prohibited.
12. Erasing of filled checkbox bubble/s to fill another is prohibited.
13. Any type of writing, scribbling etc., on the question paper and ticking the response of a
question/s are prohibited. Violation of this condition shall lead to disciplinary action like
debar from the examination. Also, the OMR answer sheet shall not be considered for
evaluation process.
14. Only non-programmable scientific calculator is permitted. Violation of this condition shall
lead to disciplinary action like debar from the examination. Also, the OMR answer sheet
shall not be considered for evaluation process.
15. Folding/crushing/mutilating of OMR sheet is not permitted.
16. Handover the OMR sheet to the Room Invigilator while leaving the examination hall.
 PART – I
(Research Methodology)
[50 Marks]

1. A Hypothesis that develops while planning the research is

a) Null Hypothesis b) Working Hypothesis
c) Relational Hypothesis d) Descriptive Hypothesis

2. The fullform of APA is ______

a) American Physical Association b) American Psychological Association
c) American Psychological Amendment d) American Psychological Agreement

3. Questions in which only two alternatives are possible is called

a) Dichotomous questions b) Open-ended questions
c) Structured questions d) MCQs

4. Questionnaire is a
a) Research method b) Measurement technique
c) Tool for data collection d) Data analysis technique

5. Which of the following order is recommended in the flowchart of the research process?
a) Formulate Hypothesis, Sampling Design, Process Data, Identify Research Problem
b) Sampling Design, Process Data, Identify Research Problem, Formulate Hypothesis
c) Formulate Hypothesis, Process Data, Identify Research Problem, Sampling Design
d) Identify Research Problem, Formulate Hypothesis, Sampling Design, Process Data

6. If 0 < r < 1 means there is ______

a) Negative correlation b) Positive correlation
c) No correlation d) All of these

7. _______ is a process of checking errors and omissions in data collection.

a) Editing b) Coding c) Tabulation d) None of these

8. _______ is the difference between highest and lowest value in a series of data.
a) Median b) Range c) Mode d) None of these

9. If Ho is true and we reject it is called

a) Type-I error b) Type-II error c) Standard error d) None of these

10. Sending a Questionnaire to a respondent with a request to complete and return by post is called
a) Interview b) Observation c) A Mail Survey d) Panel

11. Z test is used to test hypothesis when the sample size is ______
a) more than 30 b) less than 30 c) less than 50 d) none of these

12. The mode of 2, 5, 6, 4, 2, 7, 2, 5 is

a) 5 b) 6 c) 2 d) 7

Ver-B : EE 1 of 10
13. Hypothesis should be ______
a) Any statement b) Empirically testable c) Not empirically testable d) Can’t say

14. What is the purpose of doing research?

a) To identify problem b) To find the solution
c) Both a and b d) None of these

15. Which ONE of these sampling methods is a probability method?

a) Quota b) Judgment
c) Convenience d) Simple random

16. _______ is the first step of the Research process

a) Formulation of a problem b) Collection of Data
c) Editing and Coding d) Selection of a problem

17. If the critical region is located equally in both sides of the sampling distribution of test statistics,
the test is called
a) One-tailed b) Two-tailed c) Right tailed d) Left tailed

18. The standard deviation is always ______

a) Negative b) Positive c) Sometimes negative d) None of these

19. Mean, Median and Mode are

a) Measures of deviation b) Measures of dispersion
c) Measures of control tendency d) Measures of central tendency

20. A tentative proposition subject to test is

a) Variable b) Hypothesis c) Data d) Concept

21. Quantitative research involves conducting research using the following :

a) Feelings and hidden emotions, expectations b) Facts, Numbers and numerical data
c) Humour and gratitude d) Ethics, Accuracy and discipline

22. Which of the following best describes quantitative research?

a) the collection of non-numerical data
b) an attempt to confirm the researcher’s hypotheses
c) exploratory research
d) research that attempts to generate a new theory

23. Which of the following includes examples of quantitative variables?

a) age, temperature, income, height
b) grade point average, anxiety level, reading performance
c) gender, religion, ethnic group
d) both a and b

24. Quantitative research only works if

a) You talk to the right number of people
b) You talk to the right type of people
c) You ask the right question and analyse the data you get in the right way
d) All of the above

Ver-B : EE 2 of 10
25. An image, perception or concept that is capable of measurement is called _______
a) Scale b) Hypothesis c) Type d) Variable

26. Why do you need to review the existing literature?

a) To make sure you have a long list of references
b) Because without it, you could never reach the required word-count
c) To help in your general studying
d) To find out what is already known about your area of interest

27. To pursue the research, which of the following is priorly required?

a) Developing a research design b) Formulating a research question
c) Deciding about the data analysis procedure d) Formulating a research hypothesis

28. A statement of the quantitative research question should:

a) Extend the statement of purpose by specifying exactly the question (the researcher will
address)
b) Help the research in selecting appropriate participants, research methods, measures and
materials
c) Specify the variables of interest
d) None of the above

29. Concept is of two types

a) Abstract and coherent b) Concrete and coherent
c) Abstract and concrete d) None of these

30. _________ is concerned with discovering and testing certain variables with respect to their
association or disassociation.
a) Exploratory b) Descriptive
c) Diagnostic d) Descriptive and diagnostic

31. Which of the following research is also known as collaborative research?

a) Analytical research b) Applied research
c) Action research d) Descriptive research

32. Cross-sectional surveys are divided into two types, which are?
a) Exploratory and causal b) Functional and Dysfunctional
c) Relational and logical d) Descriptive and analytical

33. What are the main purposes of data analysis?

a) Description b) Construction of Measurement Scale
c) Generating empirical relationships d) Explanation and prediction

34. __________ involve a set of predetermined questions and highly standardized techniques of
recording?
a) Structured interview b) Unstructured interview
c) Interview guided d) All of these

35. Which of the following is a primary step in social science research?

a) Preparing the Research Design b) Developing the Research Hypothesis
c) Formulation of research problem d) Execution of the Project

Ver-B : EE 3 of 10
36. Find an example of probability sampling.
a) Convenience or accidental sampling b) Purposive or judgmental sampling
c) Quota sampling d) Stratified random sampling

37. Which of the following is not a data collection method?

a) Observation b) Schedules
c) Interview d) Research question
38. The term ‘ethno’ refers to
a) Geographical area b) Social life
c) Cultural group d) People or culture

39. Ogives is also known as?

a) Cumulative frequency curves b) Frequency distributions
c) Transcendental Curve d) All of these

40. Which of the following strategies is used to determine how common, widespread, or pervasive a
certain trait, phenomenon, attitude, or opinion is in a demographic population?
a) Cross-sectional descriptive survey b) Factorial survey method
c) Total survey design d) Pooled surveys

41. In the process of conducting research ‘Formulation of Hypothesis’ is followed by

a) Statement of Objectives b) Analysis of Data
c) Selection of Research Tools d) Collection of Data

42. The data of research is _______

a) Qualitative only b) Quantitative only c) Neither of them d) Both a and b

43. _______- test is used to prove hypothesis of smaller sample.

a) t b) f c) z d) P

44. _____ tailed test is used when the researcher’s interest is primarily on one side of the issue.
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

45. ______ is a part of the universe that can be used as respondents to survey.
a) Frame b) Sample c) Hypothesis d) Population
46. _______ Hypothesis states that there is no relationship between two or more variables
a) Null b) Alternative c) Negative Page d) Positive
47. _______ research helps to solve practical problems.
a) Qualitative b) Applied c) Basic d) Descriptive
48. The final stage in a survey is
a) Field work b) Assignment c) Calculation d) Reporting
49. ______ mean refers to the value obtained by dividing the sum of the values of all items by the
total
a) number of items b) Arithmetic c) Geometric d) Harmonic

50 _______ is used to analyse differences between group means and the associated procedures
a) ANOVA b) Chi square c) Z-test d) correlation

Ver-B : EE 4 of 10
 PART – II
Discipline Oriented Section
(Electrical and Electronics Engineering)
[50 MARKS]

51. Paschen’s law is associated with

a) Breakdown voltage b) Ionisation c) Thermal radiations d) None of the above.
52. Vande Graff generator are useful for
a) High voltage pulse only
b) Constant high voltage and current applications
c) Very high voltage and low current applications
d) Very high voltage and high current applications

53. A relay connected is a 400/5 ratio current transformer with setting of 150%. Calculate the Plug
Setting Multiplies (PSM) when circuit current a fault current of 3000A.
a) 5 b) 6 c) 8 d) 7.
54. An ideal circuit breaker should offer
a) Infinite and zero impendence before and after interruption respectively
b) Zero and infinite impedance before and after interruption respectively
c) Equal impendence before and after interruption
d) None of the above.
55. Lighting arrestors and used in power system to protect the electrical equipment against
a) Direct stroke
b) Over voltage due to indirect lighting strokes
c) Power frequency over voltage
d) Over current due to lighting

56. In load flow studies of a power system, a voltage control bus is specified by
a) Real power and reactive power
b) Real power and voltage magnitude
c) Voltage and voltage phase angle
d) Reactive power and voltage magnitude.

57. A voltage controlled bus is treated as a load bus is subsequent iteration when its :
a) Voltage limit is violated
b) Active power limits is violated
c) Reactive power limit is violated
d) Phase angle limit is violated
58. The incremental cost characteristics of the two units in a plane are
Ic1 = 0.1P1 + 80 Rs/Mwh, Ic2 = 0.15P2 + 3.0 Rs/Mwh
When the total load is 100mW, the optimum sharing of the load is
P1 P1
a) 40mW 60mW
b) 33.3mW 66.7mW
c) 60mW 40mW
d) 66.7mW 33.3mW
Ver-B : EE 5 of 10
59. With the help of a reactive compensator it is possible to have
a) constant voltage generation only
b) unity p.f operation only
c) both constant voltage and unity p.f
d) Either constant voltage or unity p.f

60. Which of the following are the advantages of interconnected operation of power systems
i) Less reserve capacity requirement
ii) More reliability
iii) Higher power factor
iv) Reduction in short circuit level
select the correct answer using the codes given below
a) i) and ii) b) ii) and iii) c) iii) and iv) d) i) and iv).
61. A single – phase ac regulator fed from 50Hz system supplies a load having resistance and
inductance of 4.0 and 12.73mH respectively. The control range of firing angle is
a) 0º <  < 180º b) 45º <  < 180º c) 90º <  < 180º d) 0º <  < 45º

62. A phase controlled single phase, full bridge converter is supplying a highly inductive DC load.
The converter is fed from a 230V, 50Hz. AC source the fundamental frequency is HZ of the
voltage ripple on the DC side is
a) 25 b) 50 c) 100 d) 300.

63. In type A chopper, source voltage is 100V dc. ON period is 100s ; OFF period is 150s ; Load
consists of R = 2, L = 5mH and E = 10V. For continuous conduction, the average output
voltage and average output current are :
a) 40V, 15A
b) 66.66V, 28.33A
c) 60V, 25A
d) 40V, 20A

64. A PWM switching scheme is used with a three phase inverter to

a) Reduce the total harmonic distortion with modes filtering
b) Minimize the load on the DC side
c) Increase the life of the batteries
d) Reduce lower order harmonics and increase higher order harmonics.
65. For a sinusoidal input voltage, Vs = Vm Sin wt, if the input voltage is connected to load for ‘n’
cycles and is disconnected for ‘m’ cycle, then rms output voltage is given by V 0 = Vs K ,
where duty cycle K is given by
mn n
a) m + n b) m – n c) d)
mn mn
66. If the diameters of the conductor is increased
a) The inductance is increased
b) The inductance is decreased
c) No change in inductance
d) No change in Resistance
67. If we increase the length of the transmission, the charging current
a) Decrease b) Increase c) Remains the same d) Not affected.

Ver-B : EE 6 of 10
68. Which of the following is correct of a synchronous machine
a) Xd  Xd  X d b) Xd  Xd  X d c) Xd  Xd  X d d) Xd  Xd  X d

69. When a fault occur in a power system the following sequence current are recorded
I positive =  j7.53pu, I negative = +j4.30 pu, I zero = + j3.23 pu,
The fault is
a) Three phase b) Lane to Line c) Line to Line to ground d) Line to ground
70. The which type of fault Va1 = Va2
a) Single line to ground fault b) Double line to ground fault
c) Line to Line fault d) None of the above

71. The data range for 16 bit signal integer is :

a)  128 to +127 b) 0 to 255 c)  32768 to +32767 d) 0 to 32767.

72. In 8051 c, timer 0 or timer  1 can be started and stopped by using software methods, when
a) GATE bit is HIGH b) GATE bit is LOW
c) GATE bit is alternately HIGH and LOW d) GATE bit is alternately LOW and HIGH.

73. The ISR address of timer - 1 interrupt is ;

a) 001Bh b) 000Bh c) 0000h d) 0023h

74. The characteristic of comparator are :

a) accuracy only
b) speed of operation only
c) accuracy, speed of operation and compatibility of output
d) conversion time only

75. To use 555 timer as pulse stretcher, it should be operated in

a) bistable mode
b) Schmitt trigger mode
c) astable mode
d) monostable mode.
The Fourier transform of the signal x(t) = e-at u(t) ; a > 0 is given by
76. 1 1 a 1
a) b) c) d)
a  j a  j a  j 1  j
FT
77. If x ( t )  x ( j) , then y(t) = ejt x(t) 
FT
________
a) x(j(ω + )) b) x(j(ω  )) c) x(jω) d) x(j)

78. The Z-transform of x(n) = dnu(n) is _______

z z 1 1
a) b) c) d)
z z z z
The following Filter has got maximally Flat Frequency response both in passband and stopband
79. a) Chebyshev Filter b) Butterworth Filter
c) FIR Filter d) None of these.

80. Stopband attenuation provided by Hamming window is ______.

a) 44dB b) 53dB c) 74dB d) 21dB.
Ver-B : EE 7 of 10
81. In a linear network with only resistances if iA = 8A and iB = 12A, Vx is found to be 80V and if
iA =  8A and iB = 4A, Vx is found to be 0V.

a) 40V b) 75V c) 150V d) 80V

82. Find the maximum of active power delivered to the load ZL, and the current IL at maximum
power.


a) 50 |135  A 100W b) 50 |45  A , 100W c) 50 | 45  A , 200W d) 5 | 90 , 200W

83. The value of resistance of a series RLC circuit with L = 0.01mH and C = 0.1F, to have a
damping ratio of 0.7 is

a) 140 b) 14.14 c) 14.0 d) 141.40

84 The Y parameters of the network shown are

1 1   1 1   1 1   1 1 
a)  14 14 b)  28 28 c)  7 28 d)  14 28
 1
 14 2  1 2  1 1  1 1
14   28 28   28 14   28 7 

Ver-B : EE 8 of 10
85. In the circuit shown below steady state is reached with switch K in position 1. At t = 0.
The switch position is changed is position 2. Find the current i at t = 0.5m sec.

a) 1.839A b) 3.160A c) 2.543A d) 1.732A

86. During high frequency applications of a B.J.T., which parasitic capacitor arise between the base
and the emitter?
a) Cjc and Cb b) Ccs c) Cb d) Ccs and Cb
87. What is the type of sampling observed?
a) Shunt-Series feedback b) Series-Series feedback
c) Shunt-Shunt feedback d) Series-Shunt feedback.

88. Harmonic distortion is caused by nonlinearities of ______

a) Voltage divider circuit
b) Resistive elements only
c) Passive elements
d) Active elements
89. A circuit the compares two numbers and determines their magnitude is called ______.
a) Height comparator
b) Size comparator
c) Comparator
d) Magnitude comparator

90. Counter circuit is usually constructed of ________

a) A number of latches connected in cascade form
b) A number of NAND gates connected in cascade form
c) A number of flip-flops connected in cascade
d) A number of NOR gates connected in cascade form

91. Which is to be short-circuited on performing short-circuit test on a transformer?

a) Low voltage side b) High voltage side
c) Primary side d) Secondary side.

92. Which of the following are advantages of skewing of the rotor of an induction motor?
1) Elimination of cogging
2) Prevent crawling
3) Produce non uniform torque
4) Eliminate any type of Harmonic
5) Reduce Noice
The correct code is
a) 1 and 2 b) 1, 2, 3 and 4 c) 1, 2, 4 and 5 d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Ver-B : EE 9 of 10
93. A synchronous generator connected to an infinite bus delivers power at lagging power factor.
If its field excitation is increased, what is the effect?
a) Terminal voltage increases
b) Voltage Angle increases
c) Current delivered increases
d) All of the above

94. A DC shunt motor runs at 500rpm, at 220V. A resistance of 4.5ohm in added in series with
armature for speed control. The armature resistance is 0.5ohm. The current to stall the motor is
a) 44A b) 50A c) 40A d) 30A.

95. Effect of reducing the frequency of AC supply with corresponding reduction in applied voltage
of the three phase induction motor.
a) Has no effect on the magnitude of starting current
b) Is to reduce magnitude of starting current
c) Is to increase the magnitude of starting current
d) All of the above.
96. 20
For a unit step input, a system with forward path transfer function G(s) = and feedback path
S2
transfer function H(s) = s + 5, has a steady state output of
a) 0 b) 0.5 c) 0.2 d) 20

97. Consider the following polynomials

1) s4 + 7s3 + 17s2 + 17s + 6 2) s4 + s3 + 2s2 + 3s + 2
Among these polynomials, those which are Hurwitz
a) only 1 b) only 2 c) both 1and 2 d) None of these.

98. The roots move away from poles when the system gain is
a) increased b) decreased c) zero d) None of these

99. 100(1  0.25s )

The transfer function of a system is . The corner frequencies will be
1  0.5s
a)  4 and  2 b)  4 and 2 c) 4 and  2 d) 4 and 2

100. If the Nyquist plot of the open loop transfer function G(s) H(s) of a system passes through the
 1+ j0 point then the phase margin of the system is likely to be
a) 45º b) 180º c) 0º d) 90º

Ver-B : EE 10 of 10
VTU-ETR Seat No. Question Paper Version : C

Visvesvaraya Technological University, Belagavi

Eligibility Test for Research (VTU-ETR) Programmes
Ph.D./M.S. (Research) May - 2024
Electrical and Electronics Engineering
Time: 3 hrs. Max. Marks: 100

INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES

1. Ensure that the question paper booklet issued to you is of your opted discipline.
2. If your name, ETR number, OMR No., branch and branch code are not already printed on
the OMR answer sheet, write them in clear handwriting in the space provided.
3. The question paper has 100 multiple choice questions. Each question carries one mark.
4. All the questions are compulsory.
5. Missing data, if any, may be suitably assumed.
6. There shall be no negative marking for wrong answers.
7. The examinees shall select the response which they want to mark/indicate on the response
sheet and shade/darken/blacken completely the inside area of the corresponding checkbox
bubble of circular or oval shape.
8. Candidates should use black ball point pen to shade the checkbox bubble so that it is fully
dark and the computer can detect without fail. Shading should be limited to the checkbox
bubble only.
9. Shading of multiple checkbox bubbles shall be treated as invalid answer.
10. Partial or incomplete shading/darkening of the bubble be avoided.
11. Use of whiteners/correction fluid to change the shaded/filled checkbox bubble to fill another
is prohibited.
12. Erasing of filled checkbox bubble/s to fill another is prohibited.
13. Any type of writing, scribbling etc., on the question paper and ticking the response of a
question/s are prohibited. Violation of this condition shall lead to disciplinary action like
debar from the examination. Also, the OMR answer sheet shall not be considered for
evaluation process.
14. Only non-programmable scientific calculator is permitted. Violation of this condition shall
lead to disciplinary action like debar from the examination. Also, the OMR answer sheet
shall not be considered for evaluation process.
15. Folding/crushing/mutilating of OMR sheet is not permitted.
16. Handover the OMR sheet to the Room Invigilator while leaving the examination hall.
 PART – I
(Research Methodology)
[50 Marks]
1. Z test is used to test hypothesis when the sample size is ______
a) more than 30 b) less than 30
c) less than 50 d) none of these

2. The mode of 2, 5, 6, 4, 2, 7, 2, 5 is
a) 5 b) 6 c) 2 d) 7

3. Hypothesis should be ______

a) Any statement b) Empirically testable
c) Not empirically testable d) Can’t say

4. What is the purpose of doing research?

a) To identify problem b) To find the solution
c) Both a and b d) None of these

5. Which ONE of these sampling methods is a probability method?

a) Quota b) Judgment
c) Convenience d) Simple random

6. _______ is the first step of the Research process

a) Formulation of a problem b) Collection of Data
c) Editing and Coding d) Selection of a problem

7. If the critical region is located equally in both sides of the sampling distribution of test statistics,
the test is called
a) One-tailed b) Two-tailed c) Right tailed d) Left tailed

8. The standard deviation is always ______

a) Negative b) Positive c) Sometimes negative d) None of these

9. Mean, Median and Mode are

a) Measures of deviation b) Measures of dispersion
c) Measures of control tendency d) Measures of central tendency

10. A tentative proposition subject to test is

a) Variable b) Hypothesis c) Data d) Concept

11. Which of the following research is also known as collaborative research?

a) Analytical research b) Applied research
c) Action research d) Descriptive research

12. Cross-sectional surveys are divided into two types, which are?
a) Exploratory and causal b) Functional and Dysfunctional
c) Relational and logical d) Descriptive and analytical

Ver-C : EE 1 of 10
13. What are the main purposes of data analysis?
a) Description b) Construction of Measurement Scale
c) Generating empirical relationships d) Explanation and prediction

14. __________ involve a set of predetermined questions and highly standardized techniques of
recording?
a) Structured interview b) Unstructured interview
c) Interview guided d) All of these

15. Which of the following is a primary step in social science research?

a) Preparing the Research Design b) Developing the Research Hypothesis
c) Formulation of research problem d) Execution of the Project

16. Find an example of probability sampling.

a) Convenience or accidental sampling b) Purposive or judgmental sampling
c) Quota sampling d) Stratified random sampling

17. Which of the following is not a data collection method?

a) Observation b) Schedules
c) Interview d) Research question

18. The term ‘ethno’ refers to

a) Geographical area b) Social life
c) Cultural group d) People or culture

19. Ogives is also known as?

a) Cumulative frequency curves b) Frequency distributions
c) Transcendental Curve d) All of these

20. Which of the following strategies is used to determine how common, widespread, or pervasive a
certain trait, phenomenon, attitude, or opinion is in a demographic population?
a) Cross-sectional descriptive survey b) Factorial survey method
c) Total survey design d) Pooled surveys

21. A Hypothesis that develops while planning the research is

a) Null Hypothesis b) Working Hypothesis
c) Relational Hypothesis d) Descriptive Hypothesis

22. The fullform of APA is ______

a) American Physical Association b) American Psychological Association
c) American Psychological Amendment d) American Psychological Agreement

23. Questions in which only two alternatives are possible is called

a) Dichotomous questions b) Open-ended questions
c) Structured questions d) MCQs

24. Questionnaire is a
a) Research method b) Measurement technique
c) Tool for data collection d) Data analysis technique

Ver-C : EE 2 of 10
25. Which of the following order is recommended in the flowchart of the research process?
a) Formulate Hypothesis, Sampling Design, Process Data, Identify Research Problem
b) Sampling Design, Process Data, Identify Research Problem, Formulate Hypothesis
c) Formulate Hypothesis, Process Data, Identify Research Problem, Sampling Design
d) Identify Research Problem, Formulate Hypothesis, Sampling Design, Process Data

26. If 0 < r < 1 means there is ______

a) Negative correlation b) Positive correlation
c) No correlation d) All of these
27. _______ is a process of checking errors and omissions in data collection.
a) Editing b) Coding c) Tabulation d) None of these

28. _______ is the difference between highest and lowest value in a series of data.
a) Median b) Range c) Mode d) None of these

29. If Ho is true and we reject it is called

a) Type-I error b) Type-II error c) Standard error d) None of these

30. Sending a Questionnaire to a respondent with a request to complete and return by post is called
a) Interview b) Observation c) A Mail Survey d) Panel

31. In the process of conducting research ‘Formulation of Hypothesis’ is followed by

a) Statement of Objectives b) Analysis of Data
c) Selection of Research Tools d) Collection of Data

32. The data of research is _______

a) Qualitative only b) Quantitative only c) Neither of them d) Both a and b

33. _______- test is used to prove hypothesis of smaller sample.

a) t b) f c) z d) P

34. _____ tailed test is used when the researcher’s interest is primarily on one side of the issue.
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

35. ______ is a part of the universe that can be used as respondents to survey.
a) Frame b) Sample c) Hypothesis d) Population

36. _______ Hypothesis states that there is no relationship between two or more variables
a) Null b) Alternative c) Negative Page d) Positive

37. _______ research helps to solve practical problems.

a) Qualitative b) Applied c) Basic d) Descriptive

38. The final stage in a survey is

a) Field work b) Assignment c) Calculation d) Reporting

39. ______ mean refers to the value obtained by dividing the sum of the values of all items by the
total
a) number of items b) Arithmetic c) Geometric d) Harmonic

40. _______ is used to analyse differences between group means and the associated procedures
a) ANOVA b) Chi square c) Z-test d) correlation
Ver-C : EE 3 of 10
41. Quantitative research involves conducting research using the following :
a) Feelings and hidden emotions, expectations b) Facts, Numbers and numerical data
c) Humour and gratitude d) Ethics, Accuracy and discipline

42. Which of the following best describes quantitative research?

a) the collection of non-numerical data
b) an attempt to confirm the researcher’s hypotheses
c) exploratory research
d) research that attempts to generate a new theory

43. Which of the following includes examples of quantitative variables?

a) age, temperature, income, height
b) grade point average, anxiety level, reading performance
c) gender, religion, ethnic group
d) both a and b

44. Quantitative research only works if

a) You talk to the right number of people
b) You talk to the right type of people
c) You ask the right question and analyse the data you get in the right way
d) All of the above

45. An image, perception or concept that is capable of measurement is called _______

a) Scale b) Hypothesis c) Type d) Variable

46. Why do you need to review the existing literature?

a) To make sure you have a long list of references
b) Because without it, you could never reach the required word-count
c) To help in your general studying
d) To find out what is already known about your area of interest

47. To pursue the research, which of the following is priorly required?

a) Developing a research design b) Formulating a research question
c) Deciding about the data analysis procedure d) Formulating a research hypothesis

48. A statement of the quantitative research question should:

a) Extend the statement of purpose by specifying exactly the question (the researcher will
address)
b) Help the research in selecting appropriate participants, research methods, measures and
materials
c) Specify the variables of interest
d) None of the above
49. Concept is of two types
a) Abstract and coherent b) Concrete and coherent
c) Abstract and concrete d) None of these

50 _________ is concerned with discovering and testing certain variables with respect to their
association or disassociation.
a) Exploratory b) Descriptive
c) Diagnostic d) Descriptive and diagnostic

Ver-C : EE 4 of 10
 PART – II
Discipline Oriented Section
(Electrical and Electronics Engineering)
[50 MARKS]

51. Which is to be short-circuited on performing short-circuit test on a transformer?

a) Low voltage side b) High voltage side
c) Primary side d) Secondary side.

52. Which of the following are advantages of skewing of the rotor of an induction motor?
1) Elimination of cogging
2) Prevent crawling
3) Produce non uniform torque
4) Eliminate any type of Harmonic
5) Reduce Noice
The correct code is
a) 1 and 2 b) 1, 2, 3 and 4 c) 1, 2, 4 and 5 d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

53. A synchronous generator connected to an infinite bus delivers power at lagging power factor.
If its field excitation is increased, what is the effect?
a) Terminal voltage increases
b) Voltage Angle increases
c) Current delivered increases
d) All of the above

54. A DC shunt motor runs at 500rpm, at 220V. A resistance of 4.5ohm in added in series with
armature for speed control. The armature resistance is 0.5ohm. The current to stall the motor is
a) 44A b) 50A c) 40A d) 30A.

55. Effect of reducing the frequency of AC supply with corresponding reduction in applied voltage
of the three phase induction motor.
a) Has no effect on the magnitude of starting current
b) Is to reduce magnitude of starting current
c) Is to increase the magnitude of starting current
d) All of the above.
56. 20
For a unit step input, a system with forward path transfer function G(s) = and feedback path
S2
transfer function H(s) = s + 5, has a steady state output of
a) 0 b) 0.5 c) 0.2 d) 20

57. Consider the following polynomials

1) s4 + 7s3 + 17s2 + 17s + 6 2) s4 + s3 + 2s2 + 3s + 2
Among these polynomials, those which are Hurwitz
a) only 1 b) only 2 c) both 1and 2 d) None of these.

58. The roots move away from poles when the system gain is
a) increased b) decreased c) zero d) None of these
Ver-C : EE 5 of 10
59. 100(1  0.25s )
The transfer function of a system is . The corner frequencies will be
1  0.5s
a)  4 and  2 b)  4 and 2 c) 4 and  2 d) 4 and 2

60. If the Nyquist plot of the open loop transfer function G(s) H(s) of a system passes through the
 1+ j0 point then the phase margin of the system is likely to be
a) 45º b) 180º c) 0º d) 90º

61. Paschen’s law is associated with

a) Breakdown voltage b) Ionisation c) Thermal radiations d) None of the above.
62. Vande Graff generator are useful for
a) High voltage pulse only
b) Constant high voltage and current applications
c) Very high voltage and low current applications
d) Very high voltage and high current applications

63. A relay connected is a 400/5 ratio current transformer with setting of 150%. Calculate the Plug
Setting Multiplies (PSM) when circuit current a fault current of 3000A.
a) 5 b) 6 c) 8 d) 7.
64. An ideal circuit breaker should offer
a) Infinite and zero impendence before and after interruption respectively
b) Zero and infinite impedance before and after interruption respectively
c) Equal impendence before and after interruption
d) None of the above.
65. Lighting arrestors and used in power system to protect the electrical equipment against
a) Direct stroke
b) Over voltage due to indirect lighting strokes
c) Power frequency over voltage
d) Over current due to lighting
66. In load flow studies of a power system, a voltage control bus is specified by
a) Real power and reactive power
b) Real power and voltage magnitude
c) Voltage and voltage phase angle
d) Reactive power and voltage magnitude.
67. A voltage controlled bus is treated as a load bus is subsequent iteration when its :
a) Voltage limit is violated
b) Active power limits is violated
c) Reactive power limit is violated
d) Phase angle limit is violated
68. The incremental cost characteristics of the two units in a plane are
Ic1 = 0.1P1 + 80 Rs/Mwh, Ic2 = 0.15P2 + 3.0 Rs/Mwh
When the total load is 100mW, the optimum sharing of the load is
P1 P1
a) 40mW 60mW
b) 33.3mW 66.7mW
c) 60mW 40mW
d) 66.7mW 33.3mW
Ver-C : EE 6 of 10
69. With the help of a reactive compensator it is possible to have
a) constant voltage generation only
b) unity p.f operation only
c) both constant voltage and unity p.f
d) Either constant voltage or unity p.f

70. Which of the following are the advantages of interconnected operation of power systems
i) Less reserve capacity requirement
ii) More reliability
iii) Higher power factor
iv) Reduction in short circuit level
select the correct answer using the codes given below
a) i) and ii) b) ii) and iii) c) iii) and iv) d) i) and iv).
71. A single – phase ac regulator fed from 50Hz system supplies a load having resistance and
inductance of 4.0 and 12.73mH respectively. The control range of firing angle is
a) 0º <  < 180º b) 45º <  < 180º c) 90º <  < 180º d) 0º <  < 45º

72. A phase controlled single phase, full bridge converter is supplying a highly inductive DC load.
The converter is fed from a 230V, 50Hz. AC source the fundamental frequency is HZ of the
voltage ripple on the DC side is
a) 25 b) 50 c) 100 d) 300.

73. In type A chopper, source voltage is 100V dc. ON period is 100s ; OFF period is 150s ; Load
consists of R = 2, L = 5mH and E = 10V. For continuous conduction, the average output
voltage and average output current are :
a) 40V, 15A
b) 66.66V, 28.33A
c) 60V, 25A
d) 40V, 20A

74. A PWM switching scheme is used with a three phase inverter to

a) Reduce the total harmonic distortion with modes filtering
b) Minimize the load on the DC side
c) Increase the life of the batteries
d) Reduce lower order harmonics and increase higher order harmonics.
75. For a sinusoidal input voltage, Vs = Vm Sin wt, if the input voltage is connected to load for ‘n’
cycles and is disconnected for ‘m’ cycle, then rms output voltage is given by V 0 = Vs K ,
where duty cycle K is given by
mn n
a) m + n b) m – n c) d)
mn mn
If the diameters of the conductor is increased
76. a) The inductance is increased
b) The inductance is decreased
c) No change in inductance
d) No change in Resistance
77. If we increase the length of the transmission, the charging current
a) Decrease b) Increase c) Remains the same d) Not affected.
Ver-C : EE 7 of 10
78. Which of the following is correct of a synchronous machine
a) Xd  Xd  X d b) Xd  Xd  X d c) Xd  Xd  X d d) Xd  Xd  X d

When a fault occur in a power system the following sequence current are recorded
79. I positive =  j7.53pu, I negative = +j4.30 pu, I zero = + j3.23 pu,
The fault is
a) Three phase b) Lane to Line c) Line to Line to ground d) Line to ground
80. The which type of fault Va1 = Va2
a) Single line to ground fault b) Double line to ground fault
c) Line to Line fault d) None of the above

81. The data range for 16 bit signal integer is :

a)  128 to +127 b) 0 to 255 c)  32768 to +32767 d) 0 to 32767.

82. In 8051 c, timer 0 or timer  1 can be started and stopped by using software methods, when
a) GATE bit is HIGH b) GATE bit is LOW
c) GATE bit is alternately HIGH and LOW d) GATE bit is alternately LOW and HIGH.

83. The ISR address of timer - 1 interrupt is ;

a) 001Bh b) 000Bh c) 0000h d) 0023h

84 The characteristic of comparator are :

a) accuracy only
b) speed of operation only
c) accuracy, speed of operation and compatibility of output
d) conversion time only

85. To use 555 timer as pulse stretcher, it should be operated in

a) bistable mode
b) Schmitt trigger mode
c) astable mode
d) monostable mode.
86. The Fourier transform of the signal x(t) = e-at u(t) ; a > 0 is given by
1 1 a 1
a) b) c) d)
a  j a  j a  j 1  j
FT
87. If x ( t )  x ( j) , then y(t) = ejt x(t) 
FT
________
a) x(j(ω + )) b) x(j(ω  )) c) x(jω) d) x(j)

88. The Z-transform of x(n) = dnu(n) is _______

z z 1 1
a) b) c) d)
z z z z
89. The following Filter has got maximally Flat Frequency response both in passband and stopband
a) Chebyshev Filter b) Butterworth Filter
c) FIR Filter d) None of these.

90. Stopband attenuation provided by Hamming window is ______.

a) 44dB b) 53dB c) 74dB d) 21dB.
Ver-C : EE 8 of 10
91. In a linear network with only resistances if iA = 8A and iB = 12A, Vx is found to be 80V and if
iA =  8A and iB = 4A, Vx is found to be 0V.

a) 40V b) 75V c) 150V d) 80V

92. Find the maximum of active power delivered to the load ZL, and the current IL at maximum
power.


a) 50 |135  A 100W b) 50 |45  A , 100W c) 50 | 45  A , 200W d) 5 | 90 , 200W

93. The value of resistance of a series RLC circuit with L = 0.01mH and C = 0.1F, to have a
damping ratio of 0.7 is

a) 140 b) 14.14 c) 14.0 d) 141.40

94. The Y parameters of the network shown are

1 1   1 1   1 1   1 1 
a)  14 14 b)  28 28 c)  7 28 d)  14 28
 1
 14 2  1 2  1 1  1 1
14   28 28   28 14   28 7 

Ver-C : EE 9 of 10
95. In the circuit shown below steady state is reached with switch K in position 1. At t = 0.
The switch position is changed is position 2. Find the current i at t = 0.5m sec.

a) 1.839A b) 3.160A c) 2.543A d) 1.732A

96. During high frequency applications of a B.J.T., which parasitic capacitor arise between the base
and the emitter?
a) Cjc and Cb b) Ccs c) Cb d) Ccs and Cb
97. What is the type of sampling observed?
a) Shunt-Series feedback b) Series-Series feedback
c) Shunt-Shunt feedback d) Series-Shunt feedback.

98. Harmonic distortion is caused by nonlinearities of ______

a) Voltage divider circuit
b) Resistive elements only
c) Passive elements
d) Active elements
99. A circuit the compares two numbers and determines their magnitude is called ______.
a) Height comparator
b) Size comparator
c) Comparator
d) Magnitude comparator

100. Counter circuit is usually constructed of ________

a) A number of latches connected in cascade form
b) A number of NAND gates connected in cascade form
c) A number of flip-flops connected in cascade
d) A number of NOR gates connected in cascade form

Ver-C : EE 10 of 10
VTU-ETR Seat No. Question Paper Version : D

Visvesvaraya Technological University, Belagavi

Eligibility Test for Research (VTU-ETR) Programmes
Ph.D./M.S. (Research) May - 2024
Electrical and Electronics Engineering
Time: 3 hrs. Max. Marks: 100

INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES

1. Ensure that the question paper booklet issued to you is of your opted discipline.
2. If your name, ETR number, OMR No., branch and branch code are not already printed on
the OMR answer sheet, write them in clear handwriting in the space provided.
3. The question paper has 100 multiple choice questions. Each question carries one mark.
4. All the questions are compulsory.
5. Missing data, if any, may be suitably assumed.
6. There shall be no negative marking for wrong answers.
7. The examinees shall select the response which they want to mark/indicate on the response
sheet and shade/darken/blacken completely the inside area of the corresponding checkbox
bubble of circular or oval shape.
8. Candidates should use black ball point pen to shade the checkbox bubble so that it is fully
dark and the computer can detect without fail. Shading should be limited to the checkbox
bubble only.
9. Shading of multiple checkbox bubbles shall be treated as invalid answer.
10. Partial or incomplete shading/darkening of the bubble be avoided.
11. Use of whiteners/correction fluid to change the shaded/filled checkbox bubble to fill another
is prohibited.
12. Erasing of filled checkbox bubble/s to fill another is prohibited.
13. Any type of writing, scribbling etc., on the question paper and ticking the response of a
question/s are prohibited. Violation of this condition shall lead to disciplinary action like
debar from the examination. Also, the OMR answer sheet shall not be considered for
evaluation process.
14. Only non-programmable scientific calculator is permitted. Violation of this condition shall
lead to disciplinary action like debar from the examination. Also, the OMR answer sheet
shall not be considered for evaluation process.
15. Folding/crushing/mutilating of OMR sheet is not permitted.
16. Handover the OMR sheet to the Room Invigilator while leaving the examination hall.
 PART – I
(Research Methodology)
[50 Marks]

1. In the process of conducting research ‘Formulation of Hypothesis’ is followed by

a) Statement of Objectives b) Analysis of Data
c) Selection of Research Tools d) Collection of Data

2. The data of research is _______

a) Qualitative only b) Quantitative only c) Neither of them d) Both a and b

3. _______- test is used to prove hypothesis of smaller sample.

a) t b) f c) z d) P

4. _____ tailed test is used when the researcher’s interest is primarily on one side of the issue.
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

5. ______ is a part of the universe that can be used as respondents to survey.

a) Frame b) Sample c) Hypothesis d) Population

6. _______ Hypothesis states that there is no relationship between two or more variables
a) Null b) Alternative c) Negative Page d) Positive

7. _______ research helps to solve practical problems.

a) Qualitative b) Applied c) Basic d) Descriptive

8. The final stage in a survey is

a) Field work b) Assignment c) Calculation d) Reporting

9. ______ mean refers to the value obtained by dividing the sum of the values of all items by the
total
a) number of items b) Arithmetic c) Geometric d) Harmonic

10. _______ is used to analyse differences between group means and the associated procedures
a) ANOVA b) Chi square c) Z-test d) correlation

11. A Hypothesis that develops while planning the research is

a) Null Hypothesis b) Working Hypothesis
c) Relational Hypothesis d) Descriptive Hypothesis

12. The fullform of APA is ______

a) American Physical Association b) American Psychological Association
c) American Psychological Amendment d) American Psychological Agreement

13. Questions in which only two alternatives are possible is called

a) Dichotomous questions b) Open-ended questions
c) Structured questions d) MCQs

Ver-D : EE 1 of 10
14. Questionnaire is a
a) Research method b) Measurement technique
c) Tool for data collection d) Data analysis technique

15. Which of the following order is recommended in the flowchart of the research process?
a) Formulate Hypothesis, Sampling Design, Process Data, Identify Research Problem
b) Sampling Design, Process Data, Identify Research Problem, Formulate Hypothesis
c) Formulate Hypothesis, Process Data, Identify Research Problem, Sampling Design
d) Identify Research Problem, Formulate Hypothesis, Sampling Design, Process Data

16. If 0 < r < 1 means there is ______

a) Negative correlation b) Positive correlation
c) No correlation d) All of these

17. _______ is a process of checking errors and omissions in data collection.

a) Editing b) Coding c) Tabulation d) None of these

18. _______ is the difference between highest and lowest value in a series of data.
a) Median b) Range c) Mode d) None of these

19. If Ho is true and we reject it is called

a) Type-I error b) Type-II error c) Standard error d) None of these

20. Sending a Questionnaire to a respondent with a request to complete and return by post is called
a) Interview b) Observation c) A Mail Survey d) Panel

21. Z test is used to test hypothesis when the sample size is ______
a) more than 30 b) less than 30 c) less than 50 d) none of these

22. The mode of 2, 5, 6, 4, 2, 7, 2, 5 is

a) 5 b) 6 c) 2 d) 7

23. Hypothesis should be ______

a) Any statement b) Empirically testable
c) Not empirically testable d) Can’t say

24. What is the purpose of doing research?

a) To identify problem b) To find the solution
c) Both a and b d) None of these

25. Which ONE of these sampling methods is a probability method?

a) Quota b) Judgment
c) Convenience d) Simple random

26. _______ is the first step of the Research process

a) Formulation of a problem b) Collection of Data
c) Editing and Coding d) Selection of a problem

27. If the critical region is located equally in both sides of the sampling distribution of test statistics,
the test is called
a) One-tailed b) Two-tailed c) Right tailed d) Left tailed
Ver-D : EE 2 of 10
28. The standard deviation is always ______
a) Negative b) Positive c) Sometimes negative d) None of these

29. Mean, Median and Mode are

a) Measures of deviation b) Measures of dispersion
c) Measures of control tendency d) Measures of central tendency

30. A tentative proposition subject to test is

a) Variable b) Hypothesis c) Data d) Concept

31. Quantitative research involves conducting research using the following :

a) Feelings and hidden emotions, expectations b) Facts, Numbers and numerical data
c) Humour and gratitude d) Ethics, Accuracy and discipline

32. Which of the following best describes quantitative research?

a) the collection of non-numerical data
b) an attempt to confirm the researcher’s hypotheses
c) exploratory research
d) research that attempts to generate a new theory

33. Which of the following includes examples of quantitative variables?

a) age, temperature, income, height
b) grade point average, anxiety level, reading performance
c) gender, religion, ethnic group
d) both a and b

34. Quantitative research only works if

a) You talk to the right number of people
b) You talk to the right type of people
c) You ask the right question and analyse the data you get in the right way
d) All of the above

35. An image, perception or concept that is capable of measurement is called _______

a) Scale b) Hypothesis c) Type d) Variable

36. Why do you need to review the existing literature?

a) To make sure you have a long list of references
b) Because without it, you could never reach the required word-count
c) To help in your general studying
d) To find out what is already known about your area of interest
37. To pursue the research, which of the following is priorly required?
a) Developing a research design b) Formulating a research question
c) Deciding about the data analysis procedure d) Formulating a research hypothesis

38. A statement of the quantitative research question should:

a) Extend the statement of purpose by specifying exactly the question (the researcher will
address)
b) Help the research in selecting appropriate participants, research methods, measures and
materials
c) Specify the variables of interest
d) None of the above
Ver-D : EE 3 of 10
39. Concept is of two types
a) Abstract and coherent b) Concrete and coherent
c) Abstract and concrete d) None of these

40. _________ is concerned with discovering and testing certain variables with respect to their
association or disassociation.
a) Exploratory b) Descriptive
c) Diagnostic d) Descriptive and diagnostic

41. Which of the following research is also known as collaborative research?

a) Analytical research b) Applied research
c) Action research d) Descriptive research

42. Cross-sectional surveys are divided into two types, which are?
a) Exploratory and causal b) Functional and Dysfunctional
c) Relational and logical d) Descriptive and analytical

43. What are the main purposes of data analysis?

a) Description b) Construction of Measurement Scale
c) Generating empirical relationships d) Explanation and prediction

44. __________ involve a set of predetermined questions and highly standardized techniques of
recording?
a) Structured interview b) Unstructured interview
c) Interview guided d) All of these

45. Which of the following is a primary step in social science research?

a) Preparing the Research Design b) Developing the Research Hypothesis
c) Formulation of research problem d) Execution of the Project

46. Find an example of probability sampling.

a) Convenience or accidental sampling b) Purposive or judgmental sampling
c) Quota sampling d) Stratified random sampling

47. Which of the following is not a data collection method?

a) Observation b) Schedules
c) Interview d) Research question

48. The term ‘ethno’ refers to

a) Geographical area b) Social life
c) Cultural group d) People or culture

49. Ogives is also known as?

a) Cumulative frequency curves b) Frequency distributions
c) Transcendental Curve d) All of these

50 Which of the following strategies is used to determine how common, widespread, or pervasive a
certain trait, phenomenon, attitude, or opinion is in a demographic population?
a) Cross-sectional descriptive survey b) Factorial survey method
c) Total survey design d) Pooled surveys

Ver-D : EE 4 of 10
 PART – II
Discipline Oriented Section
(Electrical and Electronics Engineering)
[50 MARKS]

51. A single – phase ac regulator fed from 50Hz system supplies a load having resistance and
inductance of 4.0 and 12.73mH respectively. The control range of firing angle is
a) 0º <  < 180º b) 45º <  < 180º c) 90º <  < 180º d) 0º <  < 45º

52. A phase controlled single phase, full bridge converter is supplying a highly inductive DC load.
The converter is fed from a 230V, 50Hz. AC source the fundamental frequency is HZ of the
voltage ripple on the DC side is
a) 25 b) 50 c) 100 d) 300.
53. In type A chopper, source voltage is 100V dc. ON period is 100s ; OFF period is 150s ; Load
consists of R = 2, L = 5mH and E = 10V. For continuous conduction, the average output
voltage and average output current are :
a) 40V, 15A
b) 66.66V, 28.33A
c) 60V, 25A
d) 40V, 20A

54. A PWM switching scheme is used with a three phase inverter to

a) Reduce the total harmonic distortion with modes filtering
b) Minimize the load on the DC side
c) Increase the life of the batteries
d) Reduce lower order harmonics and increase higher order harmonics.
55. For a sinusoidal input voltage, Vs = Vm Sin wt, if the input voltage is connected to load for ‘n’
cycles and is disconnected for ‘m’ cycle, then rms output voltage is given by V 0 = Vs K ,
where duty cycle K is given by
mn n
a) m + n b) m – n c) d)
mn mn
56. If the diameters of the conductor is increased
a) The inductance is increased
b) The inductance is decreased
c) No change in inductance
d) No change in Resistance
57. If we increase the length of the transmission, the charging current
a) Decrease b) Increase c) Remains the same d) Not affected.

58. Which of the following is correct of a synchronous machine

a) Xd  Xd  X d b) Xd  Xd  X d c) Xd  Xd  X d d) Xd  Xd  X d

Ver-D : EE 5 of 10
59. When a fault occur in a power system the following sequence current are recorded
I positive =  j7.53pu, I negative = +j4.30 pu, I zero = + j3.23 pu,
The fault is
a) Three phase b) Lane to Line c) Line to Line to ground d) Line to ground
60. The which type of fault Va1 = Va2
a) Single line to ground fault b) Double line to ground fault
c) Line to Line fault d) None of the above

61. In a linear network with only resistances if iA = 8A and iB = 12A, Vx is found to be 80V and if
iA =  8A and iB = 4A, Vx is found to be 0V.

a) 40V b) 75V c) 150V d) 80V

62. Find the maximum of active power delivered to the load ZL, and the current IL at maximum
power.


a) 50 |135  A 100W b) 50 |45  A , 100W c) 50 | 45  A , 200W d) 5 | 90 , 200W

63. The value of resistance of a series RLC circuit with L = 0.01mH and C = 0.1F, to have a
damping ratio of 0.7 is

a) 140 b) 14.14 c) 14.0 d) 141.40

64. The Y parameters of the network shown are

1 1   1 1   1 1   1 1 
a)  14 14 b)  28 28 c)  7 28 d)  14 28
 1
 14 2  1 2  1 1  1 1
14   28 28   28 14   28 7 

Ver-D : EE 6 of 10
65. In the circuit shown below steady state is reached with switch K in position 1. At t = 0.
The switch position is changed is position 2. Find the current i at t = 0.5m sec.

a) 1.839A b) 3.160A c) 2.543A d) 1.732A

66. During high frequency applications of a B.J.T., which parasitic capacitor arise between the base
and the emitter?
a) Cjc and Cb b) Ccs c) Cb d) Ccs and Cb
67. What is the type of sampling observed?
a) Shunt-Series feedback b) Series-Series feedback
c) Shunt-Shunt feedback d) Series-Shunt feedback.
68. Harmonic distortion is caused by nonlinearities of ______
a) Voltage divider circuit
b) Resistive elements only
c) Passive elements
d) Active elements
69. A circuit the compares two numbers and determines their magnitude is called ______.
a) Height comparator
b) Size comparator
c) Comparator
d) Magnitude comparator

70. Counter circuit is usually constructed of ________

a) A number of latches connected in cascade form
b) A number of NAND gates connected in cascade form
c) A number of flip-flops connected in cascade
d) A number of NOR gates connected in cascade form

71. Paschen’s law is associated with

a) Breakdown voltage b) Ionisation c) Thermal radiations d) None of the above.
72. Vande Graff generator are useful for
a) High voltage pulse only
b) Constant high voltage and current applications
c) Very high voltage and low current applications
d) Very high voltage and high current applications
73. A relay connected is a 400/5 ratio current transformer with setting of 150%. Calculate the Plug
Setting Multiplies (PSM) when circuit current a fault current of 3000A.
a) 5 b) 6 c) 8 d) 7.
74. An ideal circuit breaker should offer
a) Infinite and zero impendence before and after interruption respectively
b) Zero and infinite impedance before and after interruption respectively
c) Equal impendence before and after interruption
d) None of the above.
Ver-D : EE 7 of 10
75. Lighting arrestors and used in power system to protect the electrical equipment against
a) Direct stroke
b) Over voltage due to indirect lighting strokes
c) Power frequency over voltage
d) Over current due to lighting
In load flow studies of a power system, a voltage control bus is specified by
76. a) Real power and reactive power
b) Real power and voltage magnitude
c) Voltage and voltage phase angle
d) Reactive power and voltage magnitude.
77. A voltage controlled bus is treated as a load bus is subsequent iteration when its :
a) Voltage limit is violated
b) Active power limits is violated
c) Reactive power limit is violated
d) Phase angle limit is violated

78. The incremental cost characteristics of the two units in a plane are
Ic1 = 0.1P1 + 80 Rs/Mwh, Ic2 = 0.15P2 + 3.0 Rs/Mwh
When the total load is 100mW, the optimum sharing of the load is
P1 P1
a) 40mW 60mW
b) 33.3mW 66.7mW
c) 60mW 40mW
d) 66.7mW 33.3mW

With the help of a reactive compensator it is possible to have

79. a) constant voltage generation only
b) unity p.f operation only
c) both constant voltage and unity p.f
d) Either constant voltage or unity p.f

80. Which of the following are the advantages of interconnected operation of power systems
i) Less reserve capacity requirement
ii) More reliability
iii) Higher power factor
iv) Reduction in short circuit level
select the correct answer using the codes given below
a) i) and ii) b) ii) and iii) c) iii) and iv) d) i) and iv).
81. Which is to be short-circuited on performing short-circuit test on a transformer?
a) Low voltage side b) High voltage side
c) Primary side d) Secondary side.
82. Which of the following are advantages of skewing of the rotor of an induction motor?
1) Elimination of cogging
2) Prevent crawling
3) Produce non uniform torque
4) Eliminate any type of Harmonic
5) Reduce Noice
The correct code is
a) 1 and 2 b) 1, 2, 3 and 4 c) 1, 2, 4 and 5 d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Ver-D : EE 8 of 10
83. A synchronous generator connected to an infinite bus delivers power at lagging power factor.
If its field excitation is increased, what is the effect?
a) Terminal voltage increases
b) Voltage Angle increases
c) Current delivered increases
d) All of the above

84 A DC shunt motor runs at 500rpm, at 220V. A resistance of 4.5ohm in added in series with
armature for speed control. The armature resistance is 0.5ohm. The current to stall the motor is
a) 44A b) 50A c) 40A d) 30A.

85. Effect of reducing the frequency of AC supply with corresponding reduction in applied voltage
of the three phase induction motor.
a) Has no effect on the magnitude of starting current
b) Is to reduce magnitude of starting current
c) Is to increase the magnitude of starting current
d) All of the above.
86. 20
For a unit step input, a system with forward path transfer function G(s) = and feedback path
S2
transfer function H(s) = s + 5, has a steady state output of
a) 0 b) 0.5 c) 0.2 d) 20

87. Consider the following polynomials

1) s4 + 7s3 + 17s2 + 17s + 6 2) s4 + s3 + 2s2 + 3s + 2
Among these polynomials, those which are Hurwitz
a) only 1 b) only 2 c) both 1and 2 d) None of these.

88. The roots move away from poles when the system gain is
a) increased b) decreased c) zero d) None of these

89. 100(1  0.25s )

The transfer function of a system is . The corner frequencies will be
1  0.5s
a)  4 and  2 b)  4 and 2 c) 4 and  2 d) 4 and 2

90. If the Nyquist plot of the open loop transfer function G(s) H(s) of a system passes through the
 1+ j0 point then the phase margin of the system is likely to be
a) 45º b) 180º c) 0º d) 90º

91. The data range for 16 bit signal integer is :

a)  128 to +127 b) 0 to 255 c)  32768 to +32767 d) 0 to 32767.

92. In 8051 c, timer 0 or timer  1 can be started and stopped by using software methods, when
a) GATE bit is HIGH b) GATE bit is LOW
c) GATE bit is alternately HIGH and LOW d) GATE bit is alternately LOW and HIGH.

93. The ISR address of timer - 1 interrupt is ;

a) 001Bh b) 000Bh c) 0000h d) 0023h

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94. The characteristic of comparator are :
a) accuracy only
b) speed of operation only
c) accuracy, speed of operation and compatibility of output
d) conversion time only

95. To use 555 timer as pulse stretcher, it should be operated in

a) bistable mode
b) Schmitt trigger mode
c) astable mode
d) monostable mode.
96. The Fourier transform of the signal x(t) = e-at u(t) ; a > 0 is given by
1 1 a 1
a) b) c) d)
a  j a  j a  j 1  j
FT
97. If x ( t )  x ( j) , then y(t) = ejt x(t) 
FT
________
a) x(j(ω + )) b) x(j(ω  )) c) x(jω) d) x(j)

98. The Z-transform of x(n) = dnu(n) is _______

z z 1 1
a) b) c) d)
z z z z
99. The following Filter has got maximally Flat Frequency response both in passband and stopband
a) Chebyshev Filter b) Butterworth Filter
c) FIR Filter d) None of these.

100. Stopband attenuation provided by Hamming window is ______.

a) 44dB b) 53dB c) 74dB d) 21dB.

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