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Ian Amos Mbau

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FORM 4 TERM 2 OPENER

ALL SUBJECTS
2024 ACADENIC YEAR
A Series of Assessment Questions prepared by Top Examiners

FOR MARKING SCHEMES:

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Compiled and Distributed by Kenya Educators Consultancy, P.O.BOX 15400-00500, Nairobi.
Tel 0724333200 E-mail kenyaeducators@gmail.com. ORDER MARKING SCHEMES AT
www.kenyaeducators.co.ke or Contact 0724333200/0768321553/0795491185
Name…………………………………………….Adm. no……………………

School……………………………………..Date………………………………

Class……………………………..

443/2

AGRICULTURE

PAPER 2

TIME: 2 HOURS

FORM 4

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES:

1. This paper consists of sections A,B,andC

2. Answer all questions in sections A and B

3. Answer any two questions in section C

For Examiners use only

SECTION QUESTON MAXIMUM SCORE CANDIDATE’S SCORE

A 1-17 30
B 18-21 20
C 22-24 40
TOTAL 90

Section A (30MKS)

1. Name four methods of dehorning in cattle

(2mks)

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……………………………………………………………………………………………………..

……………………………………………………………………………………………………..

2. State the function of the following parts of a poultry digestive system(1mk)

Crop-
………………………………………………………………………………………………………….

Gizzard-
……………………………………………………………………………………………………..

3. State two functions of protein in animal nutrition (1mk)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………..

4. Name four bacterial diseases 2mks

…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

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5. Name two meat breeds of goat …1mks

……………………………………………………………………………………………………..

6. Give four characteristics of a large white breed of pig (2mk)

..........................................................................................................................................................

.........................................................................................................................................................

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7. State four ways of restraining cattle during routine management
(2mks)

........................................................................................................................................................

.......................................................................................................................................................

8. What is meant by the following terms as used in livestock health?

(a) Incubation period

(1mk)

.......................................................................................................................................................

....................................................................................................................................................

(b) Mortality rate

(1mk)

......................................................................................................................................................

9. Define the following terms as used in livestock rearing………..2mks

(a)pullet………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………

b.cockrel……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………..

c.piglet………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………

c.sow…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………..

10. What is creep feeding? (1mk)

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………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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11.State two meat breeds of sheep 2mks

12. Give microbial activities that takes place in the rumen..2mks

13. (a) State 2 functions of cobalt in animal’s body 1MKS

(b)Name two classes of feedstuff 1mks

14. Give 4 mechanical method of tick control 2mks

15. State structural requirements of a pig house 2mks

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16. State 4 disadvantages of using spray race over cattle dip 2mks

17. Give the uses of the following farm tools and equipments 2mks

i) strip cup

ii) milk strainer

Iii) Hacksaw

iv) Centre punch

Section B 20mks

18. Diagram G,H and J illustrates some livestock parasites

G J
H

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(a) Identify parasites G,H and J (3 mk

G……………………………………….

H……………………………………….

J………………………………………..

(b) Name the parts of the host body where parasites G and J are found (1mk)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………..

(c) Name the intermediate host of parasites G and J

(2mk)

G……………………………………………………………………………………………………..

J……………………………………………………………………………………………………..

(d) Outline four symptoms of attack in livestock by parasite J (2mks)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………..

19. The diagram below illustrates a hoof of a sheep. Study it carefully and answer the questions that
follow

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(a) Name the routine management practice that should be carried out on the hoof illustrated
above(1mk)

...........................................................................................................................................................

(b) State two reasons for carrying out the management practice in (a) above
(2mks)

...........................................................................................................................................................

20. Study the diagrams of workshop tools shown below

(a) Identify the tools labeled E and F

(2mk)

E........................................................

F.........................................................

(b) What functional advantage does tool E have over tool F?

(1mk)

.........................................................................................................................................................

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(i) Identify the farm structure illustrated above
( 1mk)

.........................................................................................................................................................

(ii) State the function of the part labeled M

( 1mk)

.......................................................................................................................................................

(iii) State two maintenance practices that should be carried out on the farm structure illustrated above in
readiness for grain storage 2mks

21.Give four functions of a worker bee 2mks

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Section c (40mks)
Attempt any two questions

22(a) i) Describe seven signs of ill-health in livestock 7mks

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………

(ii) Outline five uses of a crush in livestock rearing5mks

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(b) (i) Name the causal organism of coccidiosis in poultry. (1mk)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………

(ii) Apart from poultry name two other animals affected by the disease above. (2mks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………

(iii) Give five symptoms of the disease in poultry.

(5mks)

23. (a) Describe the procedure of processing honey wax (8mks

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(b) Outline FOUR harmful effects of lice in livestock ( 4MKS )

(c) State five advantages of the top bar beehive (5mks)

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d). Give three signs of heat in pigs (3mks)

24. A) Explain six advantages of artificial insemination (A.I) in livestock breeding. (6mks)

(b) Give 5 categories of farm tools and equipment (5mks)

c)outline five characteristics corriedale breed of sheep (5mks)

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NAME…………………………………………….ADMISSION NUMBER……………………….

443/1

AGRICULTURE

TIME:2 HOURS

FORM 4

PAPER ONE

TIME 2HOURS

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES.

● Write your name and admission number in the spaces provided.

● Answer all questions in the spaces provided.
● This question paper consists of three sections A, B and C.
● Answer all the questions in sections A and B any two questions from section C.
● Answers should be written in the spaces provided.
● The paper consists of 11 printed pages
For Examiner’s use only

Section Question Maximum score Candidate’s score

A 1-16

B 17-21

C 22

Total

Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that all the pages are printed as indicate and no questions
are missing.

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SECTION A(30mks)Attempt all the questions in this section.
1. Give two conditions under which shifting cultivation can be practiced. 1mk
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………
2. Differentiate between apiculture and aquaculture. 1mk
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………

3. Give four government policies which influence Agricultural production… 2mks

4. State four methods of clearing land. 2mk

…………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………

5. State four importance for treating water for domestic use. 2mks
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………

6. Give four qualities of a fertile soil. 2mks

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………

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………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………

7. State four types of farm records… 2mks

8. Give four role of nitrogen in a plant. 2mks

9. State four factors which influence the rooting of a cutting . 2mks

10. Give four reasons for growing seedling in a nursery . 2mks

11. Name two methods of pruning . 2mks

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………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………
12. Give two causes of blossom end rot in tomatoes. 2mks
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………
13. Define the following terms as used in Agriculture.
i. Land sub-division 1mk

………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………

ii. Land consolidation. 1mk

………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………

14. State four harmful effects of weed. 2mks

15. State two categories under which pest can be classified or mode of feeding. 2mks
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………

16. Name four causes of crop diseases. 2mks

…………………………………………………………………………………………………
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…………………………………………………………………………………………………
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………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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SECTION B:20mks:Attempt all questions in this section.
17. Below is a diagram of one of the tertially practices that are carried out in land
preparation. Study it and answer the questions below

a. Identify the tertially practice shown above. 1mk

……………………………………………………………………………………………
b. Give four reasons for carrying out the above practice. (2mks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………

c. Apart from the above practice name any other two tertiary practices that are carried out in
a farm (1mk)
………………………………………………………………………………………………

18. The table below is one of the record that is kept by livestock farmer in the farm

Dam No Breed colour Parents: sire Dam

1st Service2nd service 3rd serivice 4th service Remarks No of service

Date of service
Date of service Date of service Date of service

Time of Time of service Time of service Time of service

service

A Bull No Breed Bull No Breed Bull no Breed

…….

B…… Result……………….

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Expected date of calving

C…………………………………..

Weight of calf at birth

Sex of the calf

No of calf

a. Identify the type of record. 1mk

………………………………………………………………………………………
b. Fill in the blank spaces 3mks
A……………………………………………………
B……………………………………………………………
C…………………………………………………………………
19. A farmer was advised to apply 150 kg of CAN/ha,while top dressing the maize
crop.CAN contains 21% N.Calculate the amount of Nitrogen applied per ha.
4mks
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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20. Below are various pegging methods of tea. Study them and answer the questions that
follows.

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1
a. Identify the pegging methods shown above. 12𝑚𝑘𝑠
A-
B--
C
b. Apart from the above method .Name any other method which is used to bring tea to
bearing. 1mk
……………………………………………………………………………………………
c. Give one advantage of using the method given in b above. 1mk
………………………………………………………………………………..
d. State one reason why the method in (b) above is not commonly used.½mk
……………………………………………………………………………………………..

21. Below are some of the common weeds in Kenya. Study them and answer the questions
which follow.

a. Identify the weeds A,B,C D. 2MKS

……………………………………………………………………………………………
b. What contributes to the competitive ability of weed C 1mk
…………………………………………………………………………………………
c. Why is it difficult to control weed E and weed F. 1mk

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………………………………………………………………………………………………

SECTION C(Attempt two questions in this section.(40mks)

22. (a)Describe the advantages of organic farming in Kenya. 5mks
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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(b)Explain the overall effects of HIV/AIDS and ill health on Agricultural production.5mks
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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(c)Describe five reasons of carrying out minimum tillage in agriculture production.5mks
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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(d)Describe the uses of water in a farm . 5mks
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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……………………………………………………………………………………

23. (a)Explain five ways of maintaining soil fertility. 5mks

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(b)Explain the factors which affects the spacing of any crop. 5mks
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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(c)Describe five management practices carried out in a nursery bed. 5mks

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………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b) Explain cultural methods of controlling pests.14mks

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NAME……………………………………………………ADM NO….............CLASS………….

SIGNATURE…………………………………………………DATE…………………………….

BIOLOGY
PAPER 1
(THEORY)
TIME: 2 HOURS

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES:

Write your Name, Class and Adm. no in the spaces provided above.
Answer all the questions in this paper in the spaces provided.

FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY:

Question Maximum Candidate’s
Score Score
1 - 25 80

1. (a) Define the term ‘parthenocarpy’. (1mk)

___________________________________________________________________________

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(b) Name two plant growth hormones that promote parthenocarpy. (2mks)

___________________________________________________________________________

2. Name the organelle that performs each of the following functions in a cell
(i) Protein synthesis. (1mk)

___________________________________________________________________________

(ii) Transport of cell secretions. (1mk)

___________________________________________________________________________

3. The diagram below shows a longitudinal section of mammalian skin.

a) Name the parts labelled F and G. (2mrks)

F _________________________________________________________
G _________________________________________________________
b) State onefunction of each of the parts labelled H and J (2mrks)
H _________________________________________________________
J __________________________________________________________

4. Other than carbon (IV) oxide, name other products of anaerobic respiration in plants (2mks)

___________________________________________________________________________

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5. (a) Name the fluid that is produced by sebaceous glands. (1mk)

___________________________________________________________________________

(b) State two functions of sweat on the human body. (2mks)

___________________________________________________________________________

6. (a) State two characteristics that are used to divide the phylum arthropoda into classes.(2mks)
___________________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________________

(b)Name the class with the largest number of individuals in the phylum Arthropoda. (1mk)

___________________________________________________________________________

7. Why are people with blood group O referred to as universal donors? (1mk)
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
8. The diagram below represents a longitudinal section of a fruit

(a) Name structures labeled P (1mk)

______________________________________________________________________________
(b) Describe two adaptations of the fruit for its mode of dispersal (3mks)
(i) Mode of dispersal
____________________________________________________________________________

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(ii) Adaptation
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________

9. (a) What causes the following diseases?

(i) Diabetes mellitus. (1mk)

_____________________________________________________________________

(ii) Diabetes insipidus. (1mk)

_____________________________________________________________________

b) An individual shows the symptoms for diabetes mellitus, how would you determine in the
school laboratory whether they are positive for the condition?(3mks)

___________________________________________________________________________

10. In an attempt to estimate the number of weaver birds in a small woodland 435 were
captured , marked and released. Three days later, 620 were captured 75 of which were
marked.
a) What is the name of the sampling method described above? (1mk)

______________________________________________________________________________

b) Calculate the approximate size of the weaver bird population in the woodland.(2mks)
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________

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________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
c) Give one disadvantage of this method. (1mk)
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
11.Identify the nucleic acid whose base sequence is shown below.
G-A-C-U-A-G-A-C-G
i) Identify the type of nucleic shown above (1mk)
______________________________________________________________________________
ii) Give reason for your answer in (i) above. (1mk)
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
iii) Write the base sequence of a DNA strandfor the nucleic acid shown above(1mk)
________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
12. The diagram below shows a mature embryo sac of a flowering plant.

D
(a) Name the parts labeled A and B (2mks)

A________________________________________________________________

B________________________________________________________________

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(b) What is the function of the structure labeled B? (1mk)

___________________________________________________________________________

13. (a) Name the tissues that transport water in plants. (1mk)

___________________________________________________________________________

(b) State why the tissue above is said to be dead. (1mk)

___________________________________________________________________________

14. The diagram below shows regions of growth in a root. Study it and answer the questions
that follow.

A
B
C
K

(a) Name the zone labeled B

__________________________________________________________ (1mk)

(b) State the function of part K (1mk)

_____________________________________________________________
(c) State three characteristics of the cells found in zone C(3 mks)

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______________________________________________________________________________

15. The enzymes pepsin and trypsin are secreted in their inactive forms. Explain why they
are secreted in these inactive forms. (1mk)

___________________________________________________________________________

__________________________________________________________________________

16. (a) Give two examples of natural selection in action. (2mk)

Cell body
Nucleus
(a) Identify the neurone. (1mk)

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___________________________________________________________________________

(b) Name the parts labeled.

A ___________________________________________________ (1mk)

B ____________________________________________________ (1mk)

(c) Using an arrow indicate the direction of movement of a nerve impulse along the
neuron (1mk)
18. Study the diagram of the mammalian tooth below and answer the questions that follow.

(a) Identify the tooth. (1mk)

___________________________________________________________________________

(b) Give a reason for your answer in (a) above. (1mk)

___________________________________________________________________________

(c) State one adaptation of the tooth to its function. (1mk)

___________________________________________________________________________

19.a) Name the part of the brain that regulates breathing (1mk)
______________________________________________________________________________
b) Give two ways through which the body responds to increased concentration of
carbon (IV) oxide in the blood (2mks)

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____________________________________________________________________________

20. The concentration of carbon (IV) oxide in a tropical forest was measured during the course of
24 hours period from mid-night to mid-night.

Account for the results obtained at mid day. (2mks)

21. The diagram below represents the anterior view of a certain vertebra.

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B
C
(a) With a reason, identify the type of vertebra shown above. (2mks)

___________________________________________________________________________

(b) Name the parts labeled.

(i) A _________________________________________________ (1mk)

(ii) D _________________________________________________ (1mk)

(c) State the function of part E. (1mk)

___________________________________________________________________________

22.(a) State one similarity between diffusion and osmosis (1mk)

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23.Study the diagram below and use it to answer the questions.

a) Identify the organelle marked A. (1mk)

______________________________________________________________________________

b) Give three functions of the organelle named in (a) above (3mks)

24. It was found that during germination of pea seeds 9.3cm3 of carbon (iv) oxide was produced
while 9.1cm3 of oxygen was used up.
a) Calculate the respiratory quotient (RQ) of the reaction taking place.(2mks)

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______________________________________________________________________________
25. What is the biological importance of the larval stage during metamorphosis(2mks)
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________

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BIOLOGY
FORM 4
PAPER 2
TIME 2 Hrs
NAME: …………………………………………………………… ADM NO: ……………….. CLASS: …….
Instructions to candidates: Answer All Questions in the Spaces Provided
1. The diagram shows two types of cells placed in a certain solution. Study them and answer
questions that follow

a. Name the physiological process responsible for the observed results. [1 Mark]

b. Give the correct biological term used to describe cells A & B. [2 Marks]
A–

B–

2. The equation below shows a chemical reaction that takes place in plants.

Carbon (iv) oxide + water A + water

a. Identify substance A. [1 Mark]

b. Name the process represented by the equation. [1 Mark]

c. Other than the reactants state two conditions necessary for this reaction. [2 Marks]

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ii.
3. The diagram below illustrates an experiment used to determine rate of respiration in a small
insect.

a. Name the chemical compound labeled X and state its function. [2 Marks]
Compound –

Function –

b. Why is the conical flask placed in a water bath? [1 Mark]

c. What would happen to the level of coloured water after 5 minutes? Explain: [2 Marks]

d. How can a control experiment be set? [1 Mark]

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4. In a biology lesson a student collected the animal in the diagram below.
Use it to answer questions that follow;

a. Name the phylum and class to which the organism belongs

i. Phylum ______________________________________ [1 Mark]

ii. Class________________________________________ [1 Mark]

b. Give two reasons for your answer in 1 (i), (ii) above [4 Marks]
i. __________________________________

__________________________________

ii. __________________________________

__________________________________

5. The diagram below represents a plant in the division Byrophyta:

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a. Name the parts labeled [5 Marks]
U

b. Name one function of part labeled. [3 Marks]

6.
a. It is observed that when apical bud of a plant is removed, lateral buds sprouts, where as
they do not sprout in presence of the apical bud;
i. What is the biological term used to describe this? [1 Mark]

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ii. Give one application of this phenomena in agriculture. [1 Mark]

b. State four roles of IAA in plant growth and development: [4 Marks]

c. In epigeal germination the cotyledon is brought above the soil surfaces; Explain
[2 Marks]

7.
a. State 2 structural modifications of nephrons in desert mammals. [2 Marks]

b. State a kidney disease whose symptom is coloured and turbid urine [1 Mark]

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8. In a biological experiment; a cross was made between a tall pea plant & dwarfs plants; their
progeny was selfed and the resulting plants were in a mixture in the ratio of 3:1. Make a
biological cross to show these outcomes. [4 Marks]

9. Explain geographical distribution as evidence of organic evolution. [2 Marks]

SECTION B

Answer Questions 10 (Compulsory) and either question 11 or 12 in the Spaces Provided

10. The table below shows the changes observed in the dry weight in milligrams of a barley
seedling, its embryo and Endosperm during the first ten days after the onset of germination.
Dry weight in milligrams
Time (days) Embryo Endosperm Whole seedling
0 2 41 45
2 2 39 43
4 7 32 41
6 15 21 38
8 22 11 35
10 35 6 43
a. Using a suitable scale and on the same axis, plot a graph of dry weight of embryo,
endosperm and whole seedling against time. [8 Marks]
b. State and account for the changes in dry weight shown by:-
i. Endosperm [4 Marks]
ii. Embryo [4 Marks]
c. Explain the role of water during germination [4 Marks]
11.
a. Describe how the mammalian heart is adapted to its function [10 Marks]

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b. How does gaseous exchange take place in terrestrial plants? [10 Marks]
12.
a. How is the Epidermis of a green plant adapted to its function? [6 Marks]
b. Describe how structural factors affect rate of transpiration in plants [8 Marks]
c. Describe how xerophytes adapted to minimize water loss in their habitat. [6 Marks]

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Biology paper 3.
Paper 231/3.(Practical).
CONFIDENTIAL INSTRUCTIONS:
NB/Requirement instruments:

1. About 10ml of substance L.

2. 4 clean test tubes on a rack.
3. A means of heating
4. Test tube holder.
5. A scalpel.
6. A house fly labeled specimen M.
7. A dry bean seed labeled S1.
8. A bean seedling labeled S2.
9. A maize seedling labeled S3.
10. 1% copper (II) sulphate solution.
11. 10% sodium hydroxide solution.
12. Benedict‫ۥ‬s solution.
13. Iodine solution.

Note:

i. To make substance L,mix egg albumen and starch.

ii. Specimen S2 and S3 should be ready 1 week before the exams and must have the
seeds intact.

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NAME……………………………………………………ADMNO…………….CLASS………

565/1

BUSINESS STUDIES – FORM FOUR

PAPER 1
2 HOURS

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
a) Write your name, class and admission number in the spaces provided above.
b) Answer all the questions.
c) All the answers should be written in the spaces provided in this booklet.
d) All the questions should be answered in English.

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1. State four characteristics of services. (4mks)
a)…………………………………………………………………………………………...

b)……………………………………………………………………………………………

c)…………………………………………………………………………………………...

d)………………………………………………………………………………………….

2. Outline four disadvantages of division of labour. (4mks)

a)………………………………………………………………………………………..

b)………………………………………………………………………………………..

c)………………………………………………………………………………………….

d)………………………………………………………………………………………...

3. Mention four advantages of using Automatic Vending Machines. (4mks)

a)………………………………………………………………………………………...

b)…………………………………………………………………………………………..

c)……………………………………………………………………………………………

d)…………………………………………………………………………………………....

4. Give four benefits one gets from self-employment. (4mks)

a)………………………………………………………………………………………….

b)……………………………………………………………………………………………

c)………………………………………………………………………………………….

d)…………………………………………………………………………………………..

5. Outline four factors to consider when intending to buy office furniture. (4mks)
a)………………………………………………………………………………………..

b)…………………………………………………………………………………………..

c)……………………………………………………………………………………………

d)…………………………………………………………………………………………..

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6. Name the source document to which each of the following description relate. (4mks)
Description source document

(i) Issued by the seller to a buyer for cash paid

(ii)
Used for processing and authorizing payments

(iii) Sent to a credit buyer to demand payment

(iv) Used to correct undercharge

7. Outline four principles of co-operatives. (4mks)

a)………………………………………………………………………………………….

b)………………………………………………………………………………………...

c)…………………………………………………………………………………………..

d)………………………………………………………………………………………..

8. Highlight four measures that the government puts in place to create conditions that will
be favorable for business development. (4mks)

a)……………………………………………………………………………………….

b)…………………………………………………………………………………………

c)………………………………………………………………………………………..

d)………………………………………………………………………………………..

9. State four advantages of transporting oil by pipeline rather than by road. (4mks)

a)…………………………………………………………………………………………

b)………………………………………………………………………………………….

c)…………………………………………………………………………………………

d)………………………………………………………………………………………….

10. Outline four advantages of audio-visual communication. (4mks)

a)………………………………………………………………………………………...

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b)……………………………………………………………………………………...

c)………………………………………………………………………………………….

d)…………………………………………………………………………………………..

11. Highlight four ways in which the production activities of firms in your country affect the
environment. (4mks)

a)…………………………………………………………………………………………....

b)…………………………………………………………………………………………..

c)………………………………………………………………………………………….

d)…………………………………………………………………………………………..

12. Highlight four disadvantages of a private warehouse. (4mks)

a)………………………………………………………………………………………...

b)…………………………………………………………………………………………

c)………………………………………………………………………………………..

d)………………………………………………………………………………………….

13. Ragati and Nzonge operates a business with a stock valued at ksh.350,000 and have
interests of 3/5 and 2/5 respectively. Ragati decided to insure 2/4 of the stock against fire.
Sometimes later fire occurred at their business premises and destroyed stock worth ksh.
250,000. Calculate the amount of compensation Ragati would get from the insurance
company. (4mks)

……………………………………………………………………………………………

……………………………………………………………..............................................

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14. Outline four sources of monopoly power. (4mks)

a)………………………………………………………………………………………...

b)……………………………………………………………………………………………

c)………………………………………………………………………………………….

d)………………………………………………………………………………………….

15. Name four sources of public finance. (4mks)

a)……………………………………………………………………………………….

b)…………………………………………………………………………………………..

c)………………………………………………………………………………………….

d)………………………………………………………………………………………….

16. State four benefits that would accrue to a customer who borrows a loan from a non-bank
financial institution. (4mks)

a)…………………………………………………………………………………………..

b)………………………………………………………………………………………….

c)………………………………………………………………………………………….

d)…………………………………………………………………………………………..

17. Match each of the statements given below with the relevant type of capital. (4mks)

Statement Type of capital

a. Resource invested into a business by the owner

b. Excess of current assets over current liabilities

c. Amount invested into the business by outsiders

d. Represents total finance in a firm

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18. The following information was extracted from the books of farmers choice supermarket
on 31st Dec 2009
shs
Average stock 30,000
Closing stock 40,000
Purchases 336,000
Carriage inwards 2,000
Return outwards 18,000
Margin 1/6

Required. Calculate sales for the year . 4mks

……………………………………………………………………………………………

………………………………………………………………………………………………

19. Outline four important characteristics of a general journal. (4mks)

a)…………………………………………………………………………………………..

b)………………………………………………………………………………………….

c)…………………………………………………………………………………………...

d)………………………………………………………………………………………….

20. Apex traders provided you with the following

Margin 25%
Cost of sales 15,000
Opening stock 2,000
Closing stock 1,000
Operating expenses 2% of capital
Sales and capital are in the ratio of 1:4

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Calculate :
a. Rate of stock turnover
b. Purchases
c. Return on capital

………………………………………………………………………………………………..

……………………………………………………………………………………………………..

………………………………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

……………………………………………………………………………………………………..

………………………………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

……………………………………………………………………………………………………..

21. Indicate the subsidiary ledger in which each of the following should be recorded. 4mks

Account Subsidiary ledger

a. Return inwards

b. Bank

c. Drawings

d. Juma traders ( a debtor)

e. Discount received

f. Uchumi wholesalers (a supplier) …………………………………

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22. Highlight four types of advertising. (4mks)

a)………………………………………………………………………………...

b)………………………………………………………………………………….

c)…………………………………………………………………………………….

d)……………………………………………………………………………………….

23. State four natural sources of energy in Kenya. (4mks)

a)……………………………………………………………………………………….

b)……………………………………………………………………………………….

c)……………………………………………………………………………………….

d)………………………………………………………………………………………..

24. The statement below described various types of goods. Identify the type of goods best
described by each statement. (4mks)

a. Owned by the government on behalf of its citizens.

b. Goods that are capable of directly satisfying human want.

c. Goods that are used to make other goods.

d. Goods that get spoilt within a very short time.

25. Identify four reasons why many youths in urban centre are starting hawking businesses.
(4mks)
a)………………………………………………………………………………………….

b)………………………………………………………………………………………….

c)…………………………………………………………………………………………....

d)…………………………………………………………………………………………....

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565/2
FORM 4
BUSINESS STUDIES
PAPER 2
TIME: 2½ HOURS

NAME …………………………............................………….… CLASS…….ADM NO:………

DATE…………………..
Instructions to candidates
a) Write your name and adm. no in the spaces provided above.
b) Sign and write the date of the examination in the spaces provided above.
c) This paper consists of six questions.
d) Answer any five questions in the answer booklet provided.
e) All questions carry equal marks.
f) This paper consists of 3 printed pages.
g) Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that all the pages are printed as
indicated and that no questions are missing.
h) Candidates should answer the questions in English.

For examiner’s use only

Questions Maximum Score Candidates Score

1 20

2 20

3 20

4 20

5 20

6 20

TOTAL SCORE

1. a) Explain five benefits that would accrue to Country as a result of delocalization. (10mks)

b) Explain five features of a perfect competition market structure (10mks)

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2. a) The following transactions relate to Vivylex wholesalers for the month of December
1998.

1998
Dec. 1 Bought goods on credit from Weka Distributors sh.46,200, Micko sh15,600 and
Limo shs38,360.
3 Sold goods on credit to Lwanda Retailers shs.39,200, Motor Grocers sh.25,560
and Mawe shs.12,650.
7 Returned goods to Micko sh4,200 and Limo shs6,140.
11 Bought goods on credit from Tuktuk sh34,830.
12 Goods returned by motor Grocers hs4,550 and Lwanda Retailers sh1,280.
15 Sold goods on credit to Motor Grocers shs6,800, Marion traders shs12,800.
18 Goods returned by Marion Traders shs2,060.
22 Bought goods on credit from Fatuma shs22,100, Temo shs38,350.
28 Credit sales to Ngula shs16,060, Oyunga shs12,960 and Mawe shs15,260.

Enter the above transaction in the respective books of original entry (10mks)

b) Discuss five factors that enhances efficient running of a warehouse. (10mks)

3. a) Explain five negative effects of inflation to a country’s economic development.(10mks)

b) Highlight five importance of entrepreneurship to the economy of a country. (10mks)

4. a) Explain five factors that can lead to unfavourable balance of payment. (10mks)

b) Explain five factors to be considered when choosing a method of product promotion

(10mks)

5. a) Describe five procedure to be followed when taking an insurance policy. (10mks)

b) Explain five limitations of containerization in transport sector. (10mks)

6. a) Highlight five benefits that a country will enjoy as a result of indirect production(10mks)

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b) The following trial balance was extracted from the books of Mugoya Traders as at 30th
June, 2014
Mugoya Traders
Trial balance
As at 30th June 2014

Details Dr (shs) Cr (shs)

Premises 1,500,000
Debtors and creditors 20,000 30,000
Cash at bank 90,000
Cash in hand 10,000
Purchases and sales 140,000 320,000
st
Stock of good on 1 July 2013 45,000
Discounts 6,000 2,000
Salaries and wages 50,000
Commissions 8,000
Power and lighting 12,000
Returns 15,000 19,000
Carriage outwards 2,300
Carriage inwards 5,400
Capital 1,543,700
Furniture 27,000
1,922,700 1,922,700

Additional information

Stock of goods on 30th June, 2014 was worth sh22, 000.

Required: prepare trading, profit and loss account for the period ended 30th June, 2014. (10mks)

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NAME----------------------------------------------------------------CLASS -------------------------------
ADM NO -----------------------------
SIGNATURE --------------------------
DATE ----------------------------------

233/1
FORM 4
CHEMISTRY
PAPER 1
TIME: 2 HOURS
INSTRUCTIONS

- Answer all the questions in the spaces provided

- Mathematical tables and silent electronic calculators may be used
- All working must b e clearly shown where necessary

For examiners use only

1. The figure below shows the cooling curve for water is gaseous state.

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i) Using the same axis draw a curve obtained if the water used in the experiment was
impure.

(1mk)

ii) Name the process taking place between

S and T (1mk)

U and V (1mk)

2. On addition of a few drops of aqeous sodium hydroxide to solution M a white precipitate

forms which dissolves on a addition of excess sodium hydroxide. A white precipitate forms
when solution M is reacted with sodium chloride solution. Suggest the identity of the cation
present and explain. (2mks)

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3. 1g of sodium hydroxide is added to 30cm3 of 1M HCl. How many cm3 of 0.1M KOH solution
will be needed to neutralize the excess acid. (3mks)

4. Describe how you can prepare crystals of magnesium chloride starting with 50cm3 of 2M
magnesium hydroxide. (3mks)

5.Use the following information to answer the questions that follow

H lattice Mgcl2 = -2489 KJ/ mol -1

H hydration Mg2+ = - 1891 kJ/ mol

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H hydration Cl - = -384 kJ/ mol

a) Calculate the heat of solution of magnesium chloride. (2mks)

b)Draw an energy level diagram for the dissolving of magnesium chloride. (2mks)

6.The reaction between hydrochloric acid and potassium dichromate can be used to demonstrate
a reversible reaction. The ionic equation is given below

2Cro42- (aq) + 2H+ (aq) Cr2O7 2- (aq) + H20 (l)

Yellow orange

Explain the observation that would be made when dilute hydrochloride acid is added to the
equilibrium mixture. (2mks)

7.The table below gives the rate of decay for a sample of a radioactive element P

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Mass of P (g) number of days

48 0

18 90

6 180

a)Determine its half-life (2mks)

b)Complete the following nuclear equation. (1mk)

233 0

Pa + e

91 -1

8. Study the following flow chart. Use it to answer the question that follow

a)Identify (3mks)

i) Solid A

ii)Solid B

iii)Gas E

b)Name the reagents used in step (2mks)

i) I

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ii) II

9.i)Name two salts responsible for permanent hardness of water. (2mks)

ii)Explain the precipitation method used to remove water hardness. (1mk)

10. When steam was passed over heated charcoal as shown in the diagram, below, hydrogen and
carbon (II) oxide gases were formed.

a)Write the equation for the reaction which takes place. (1mk)

b)Name two uses of carbon (II) oxide gas which are also uses of hydrogen gas. (2mks)

11.a) State and explain the observations made when a few drops of concentrated Sulphuric (vi)
acid is added to sucrose ( C12, O22,O11) (2mks)

b)Using an equation show how the above reaction takes place. (1mk)

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12.Students from Sunshine Secondary School suspected that some water contained either
sulphate or sulphite cons. Explain how the ion present can be determined. (3mks)

13.A mixture of ethane, oxygen and nitrogen are ignited. On cooling the residual gas occupied
58 cm3 when shaken with aqeous alkali, the volume was reduced to32 cm3. A further 18 cm3 of
the product was absorbed by alkaline pyrogallo. Calculate the composition of the original
mixture. ( C = 12, H = 1, N = 14, O = 16 and molar volume at r.t.p = 24dm3. (4mks)

14.0.24g of a divalent metal x dissolves in 50 cm3 of 0.25 M sulphuric acid. The resulting
solution required 5.0 cm3 of 1.0 M sodium hydroxide solution to neutralize the excess acid. What
is the reactive atomic mass of x.

15.Study the diagram below and answer the questions that follow.

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a)Identify liquid x (1mk)

b)Write an equation for the reaction that occurs in the flask. (1mk)

c)Describe the confirmatory test for oxygen gas. (1mk)

16.When zinc metal is reacted with a solution of hydrogen chloride gas in water there is
effervescence. When the experiment is repeated with a solution of hydrogen chloride gas in
methylbenzene there is no observable change. Explain this observations. (3mks)

17. Compare the rate of diffusion of carbon dioxide (CO2) & ozone (O3) at the same temperature.
(C = 12, O = 16 ) (3mks)

18. Starting with Lead metal describe how to prepare a solid sample of Lead (II) Sulphate salt.
(3mks)

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19.Given the following reaction

HCN(aq) + NaOH(aq) NaCN (aq) + H2O(l)

T1 = initial temperature of solutions before additions = 18.0oC

T2 = final temperature of solution at neutralization = 19.2oC

50 cm3 1M HCN

50 cm3 1M NaOH

Calculate Molar enthalpy of neutralization of hydrogen cyanide (3mks)

20.Compound K reacts with sodium hydroxide as shown

a)What type of reaction is represented by the equation. (1mk)

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b)To what class of organic compounds does K belong. (1mk)

c)How is M separated from aqueous mixture of L and M. (1mk)

21.Draw a diagram to show how an aluminium spoon can be electroplated with pure copper.

(2mks)

22.An ion of element Z can be represented as shown below,

Use the information to answer the questions that follow

a)Identify the period in which the element belong. (½mk)

b)Write the electron configuration of the ion of Z ( ½mk)

c)What would be the nature of the solution of the chloride of Z if dissolved in water. (1mk)

23. What is PH scale (1mk)

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ii) State whether the values of the following solution are strong or weak acids and bases.

PH = 8 (½mk)

PH = 5 (½ mk)

PH = 2 (½ mk)

PH = 13 (½mk)

24.Draw the structure of;

a) i) Hydroxonium ion H3O+ (1mk)

ii) Aluminium oxide (Al = 13, 0 = 8) (1mk)

b) Aluminium chloride has a melting point of 120oC while Aluminium oxide has a melting point
of 2977oC. In terms of structure and bonding explain how the differences come about. (2mks)

25.State the use of the following laboratory apparatus

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ii)

26.The diagram below shows heating of Lead nitrate

i)State the observations made in the above experiment (2mks)

ii) Write an equation for the reaction that takes place. (1mk)

27.Give two differences between nuclear reactions and chemical reactions. (2mks)

28. 3.1 g of an organic compound containing carbon, hydrogen and oxygen only produced 4.4 g
of carbon oxide and 2.0 g of water on complete combustion:

a)Calculate its empirical formulae (2mks)

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b)Calculate its molecular formulae if its formulae mass is 62. (2mks)

29. Two cleansing agents are represented below

i) R – COO-Na and ii) R – OSO3-Na+

a) Name the detergents (2mks)

ii)

b) Select one of the detergents that would be suitable for washing in water containing
magnesium chloride. Explain. (2mks)

30.Use the data below to calculate the enthalpy change for the reaction below

CH4(g) + 2O2(g) CO2(g) + 2H20 (l) (3mks)

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Bond Energy (KJ)

C–H 314

O=O 296

C=O 149

H–O 283

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Name: …………………………………………………………………………….. Class: ………… Adm.No……………..
School: …………………………………………………………………………… Date: ………………………………………
Sign:………………………………………..
233/2
CHEMISTRY
Paper 2
Time: 2 hours

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
• Write your name, admission number, date and school in the spaces provided.
• Answer all the questions in the spaces provided.
• All working must be clearly shown where necessary.
• Scientific calculators may be used.

FOR EXAMINERS’ USE ONLY

Questions Maximum Score Candidate’s Score

1 10
2 12
3 10
4 12
5 13
6 12
7 11
TOTAL 80

This paper consists of 13 printed pages. Candidates are advised to check and to make sure all pages are
as indicated and no question is missing.

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1. A. In an experiment to determine the percentage of oxygen in air, the apparatus below
were set up. Study the set up and the information provided to answer the
questions that follow.

Copper turnings
K

100
J
200
Water
300

I 400
Heat
500

Flask H (500cm3)

A 500cm3 measuring cylinder K was filled with water and assembled for gas collection.
Copper turnings were heated red hot and water was slowly passed into 500cm3 flask H
until it reached the 500cm3 mark. A colourless gas was collected in K.

(i) What was the purpose of passing water into flask H? (1 mark)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(ii) What observations were made in the tube I? (1 mark)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(iii) Name one of the gases that is likely to be found in J. (1 mark)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(iv) What was the volume of the gas collected in the measuring cylinder at the end of
the experiment? (1 mark)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(v) Calculate the percentage of oxygen in air using the above results. (2 marks)

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B. Study the diagram below and answer the questions that follow.

Copper (II) oxide Ice cold water

Colourless
liquid Y
Heat

(a) Give one observation made in the combustion tube after some time. (1 mark)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b) Write an equation for the formation of the colourless liquid Y. (1 mark)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
2. Use the information below to answer the questions that follow. The letters are not the
actual symbols of the elements.

Element Atomic No. M.P0C B.P0C Ionic radius

(nm)
P 11 98 890 0.095
Q 12 650 1110 0.065
R 13 660 2470 0.050
S 14 1410 2360 0.041
T 15 44.2 & 590 280 0.034
U 16 113 & 119 445 0.184
V 17 -101 -35 0.181
W 18 -189 -186 -

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(a) (i) Write the electronic configuration of the atoms represented by letters T
and W. (1 mark)

(ii) State the nature of the oxides of the elements represented by Q and U.
(2 marks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
(b) Why does the elements represented by the letters T and U have two values of
melting points? (1 mark)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(c) Explain the following observations in terms of structure and bonding.

(i) There is an increase in boiling point from P to R. (2 marks)

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……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(ii) Why is there no ionic radius for W reported in the table? (1 mark)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
3. (a) The solubilities of potassium nitrate and potassium bromide at different
temperatures was determined. The following data was obtained.

Temperature 0C 0 10 20 30 40 50 60 70 80
Solubility KNO3 5 15 26 43 61 83 105 135 165
g/100g H2O KBr 50 55 60 65 70 77 85 90 95

(i) Draw solubility curves for both salts on the same axis. (3 marks)

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(ii) What was the solubility of each salt at 650C? (1 mark)

(iii) 100g of a saturated solution of potassium nitrate at 700C was cooled to

200C. What mass of the crystals will be crystallized? (2 marks)

(b) Study the flow chart below and answer the questions that follow.

Solid A Dil. HCl Solution

Metal Heat + C
carbonate Gas B

A few drops of
NH3(aq)
Deep blue
Excess of
solution E Solid D
NH3(aq)

(i) Write an equation for the formation of solid A and gas B. (1 mark)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(ii) Name;
Solution C - ………………………………………………….. (1 mark)
Solid D - ………………………………………………….. (1 mark)

(c) Write the formula of the complex ion in solution E. (1 mark)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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4. Study the flow chart below and answer the questions that follow.
III II
NaOH
Heat
W
Na2CO3 NaOH

NaOH
IV
Q Na

V X Z
HI
R

H H

C C
Y
H H
n

(a) Name substance. (3 marks)

X - ………………………………………………………………….
Q - ………………………………………………………………….
R - ………………………………………………………………….
(b) Write down an equation for the reaction represented by step III. (1 mark)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(i) I (2 marks)
Reagent - …………………………………………………………………………………..

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Condition - …………………………………………………………………………………..

(ii) IV (2 marks)
Reagent - …………………………………………………………………………………..
Condition - …………………………………………………………………………………..

(b) Name the process represented by: (4 marks)

I - ……………………………………………………………………….
II - ……………………………………………………………………….
IV - ……………………………………………………………………….
V - ……………………………………………………………………….
5. I. Study the scheme below and answer the questions that follow.

Substance A Substance B

Step I
Oxygen
Catalyst F Oxygen
Ammonia gas Colourless Brown gas
Step II gas D

Water

Nitric (V)
acid
(a) Identify substances. (3 marks)
A - …………………………………………………………………..
B - …………………………………………………………………..
D - …………………………………………………………………..
(b) State the catalyst necessary for; (2 marks)
Step I - …………………………………………………………………………………………
Step II - …………………………………………………………………………………………

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………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….

(d) Write two balanced chemical equations for the reaction between chlorine
gas and;
(i) Hot and concentrated sodium hydroxide. (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
(ii) Dilute and cold sodium hydroxide. (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
II. The diagram below shows an experiment in which the Lead (II) nitrate crystals are
heated.
Powdered
Pb(NO3)2
Gas Y

Ice
Liquid P

(a) Name; (2 marks)

(i) Liquid P - ………………………………………………………………………..

(ii) Gas Y - ………………………………………………………………………..

(b) Write a balanced chemical equation for the decomposition of Lead (II) nitrate.
(1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(c) Explain how you can distinguish between nitrogen (II) oxide and nitrogen (I) oxide.
(2 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

6. I. Study the standard electrode potentials given below and answer the questions that
follow.

(a) Identify the strongest:

(i) Reducing agent ……………………….. (1 mark)
(ii) Oxidizing agent ……………………….. (1 mark)
(b) Calculate the e.m.f of a cell made of G and M. (2 marks)

(d) Draw a cell diagram for the cell in (b) above. (2 marks)

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(e) Write the cell reaction for the drawn cell diagram in (d) above. (1 mark)

II. Electrolysis of aqueous solution of metal M resulted in the deposition of 1.07g of

metal upon passage of a current of 1.32 amperes for 75 minutes.
(M = 52, 1F = 96500C)

(i) Calculate the quantity of electricity passed through the cell. (1 mark)

(ii) Calculate the charge on the metal ion. (3 marks)

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7. Extraction of iron involves two main processes, smelting and refining. Below is the blast
furnace which is used to smelt iron from its ore.

CO2, CO
as waste

3000C
C
Carbon (IV) oxide 5000C
recycled

6000C
B

8000C
A
Fire brick lining
Hot air blast from
16000C stove

Slag
Slag tap
Iron
Molten iron from
tap

(a) (i) What does the word smelt mean? (1 mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
(ii) Name the reducing agent in the process. (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
(iii) What is the role of the hot air blast in the process? (2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….

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…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
(b) Write equations for the reactions that take place at the region marked A, B and C.
(3 marks)

A - ……………………………………………………………………………………………………….

B - ……………………………………………………………………………………………………….

C - ……………………………………………………………………………………………………….

(c) What is the purpose of limestone in the extraction process? (1 mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….

(f) Write equations to show how impurities are removed from the ore.
(3 marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….

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Name: …………………………………………………………… Index no ……..…...................................
School: ……………………………………………………....…. Candidate’s sign ……………………...........
Date: ……………………………………………………………
233/3
CHEMISTRY

PAPER 3 (PRACTICAL)

TIME: 2 ¼ HOURS

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES:

(a) Write your name and index number in the spaces provided.
(b) Sign and write the date of examination in the spaces provided
(c) Answer ALL the questions in the spaces provided in the question paper
(d) You are NOT allowed to start working with the apparatus for the first 15 minutes of the 2
¼ hours allowed for this paper. This time is to enable you to read the question paper and
make sure you have all the chemicals and apparatus you may need.
(e) All working MUST be clearly shown where necessary.
(f) Mathematical tables and electronic calculators may be used.
(g) Candidates should check the questions to ascertain that all pages are printed as indicated
and that no questions are missing.

For Examiner’s Use Only:

Question Maximum score Candidates score

1 22
2 8
3 10
Total score 40

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1. You are provided with:

- A monobasic acid HA, solution J.

- Sodium carbonate solution, solution Q, containing 1.325g in 250cm3 of solution.

- Solution R, containing 15.75g of M(OH).8H2O per litre.

-Screened methyl orange indicator.

You are required to:

- Standardize solution J.
- Determine the relative atomic mass of element M in M (OH)2. 8H2O.
Procedure 1

Fill the burette with solution J. Pipette 25cm3 of solution Q into a clean 250ml conical flask and
add 2 – 3 drops of screened methyl orange indicator. Titrate this solution with the solution in
the burette and record your results in table 1 below. Repeat this procedure and complete the
table. Retain solution J in the burette for use in procedure II.

Table 1

Titre I II III

Final burette reading (cm3)

Initial burette reading (cm3)

Volume of J used (cm3)

(4 marks)

a) Calculate the average volume of solution J used. (1 mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….

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b) Determine the concentration of solution Q in moles per litre (Na=23, C=12, O=16 (1 mark)

c) (i) Determine the number of moles of the monobasic acid solution, HA, that are in the

averaged value calculated in (b) above. (1 mark)

(ii) Determine the concentration of solution J in moles per litre. (1 mark)

Procedure 2

- Using a 25cm3 measuring cylinder, transfer 25cm3 of solution R into a clean 250ml conical flask. Using
a 100ml measuring cylinder, transfer 75cm3 of solution Q into the flask with solution R. Boil the mixture
for about 5 minutes. After cooling filter into a conical flask and transfer the filtrate into a clean 100ml
measuring cylinder and add distilled water to make exactly 100cm3 of solution. Label this solution as
solution S.

Pipette 25cm3 of solution S into a conical flask and titrate it with solution J using 2 drops of screened
methyl orange indicator. Record your results in table 2 below. Repeat this to complete the table.

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Table 2

Titre I II III

Final burette reading (cm3)

Initial burette reading (cm3)

Volume of J used (cm3)

(4 marks)
d) Calculate the average volume of solution J used. (1mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..

e) Determine the number of moles of:

(i) The monobasic acid, HA, in the average volume. (1 mark)

(ii) Sodium carbonate in 25cm3 of solution S. (1 mark)

(iii) Sodium carbonate in 75cm3 of solution S. (1 mark)

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iv) Sodium carbonate in the original 75cm3 of solution S. (1 mark)

v) Sodium carbonate that reacted with solution R. (1 mark)

vi) M (OH)2. 8H2O in 25cm3 of solution R. (1 mark)

(1 mole of M (OH)2. 8H2O reacts with one mole of sodium carbonate)

...………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

f) Determine

(i) the concentration of solution R in moles per litre. (1mark)

(ii) the relative formula mass of M(OH)2.8H2O. (1 mark)

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(iii) the relative atomic mass of M (O=16.0, H=1.0) (1mark)

2. You are provided with:

Solid P, 2.0 g of a dibasic acid H2X.

You are required to determine the molar heat of solution of solid P.

PROCEDURE

Place 30cm3 of distilled water into a 100ml beaker. Measure the initial temperature of the water
and record it in the table below. Add all the solid P at once and stir the mixture carefully with the
thermometer until all the solid dissolves. Measure the final temperature reached and record it in
table.

Final temperature (oC)

Initial temperature (oC)

(3 mks)
a) Determine the change in temperature, ∆T. (1 mk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………
b) Calculate the:
i) heat change when H2X dissolves in water. (Assume the heat capacity of
the solution is 4.2 Jg-1oC -1 and density is 1g/cm3) (2 mks)

ii) number of moles of the acid that were used. (Relative formula mass of
H2X is 126) (1mk)

iii) molar heat of solution, ∆H, of the acid H2X. (1mk)

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3.You are provided with solid G.Place all solid G in a boiling tube.Add distilled water and
shake.Divide the resulting solution into three portions.

Inferences 0bservations

( ½ mk) ( ½ mk)

i)To the first portion add drops of 2M sodium hydroxide.

Inferences 0bservations

( ½ mk) ( ½ mk)

ii)To the second portion dip a metallic spatula in the solution and burn it directly on a
non-luminous flame.
Inferences 0bservations

( ½ mk) ( ½ mk)

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iii)To the third portion add three drops of barium nitrate solution followed by 2cm3 of
2M hydrochloric acid.

Inferences 0bservations

( ½ mk) ( ½ mk)

iv) To the fourth portion add three drops of acidified potassium dichromate (VI)
solution.
Inferences 0bservations

( ½ mk) ( ½ mk)

b)You are provided with solid F. Carry out the tests below and record your
observations and inferences in the spaces provided

(i) Using a metallic spatula, heat half of solid F in a non-luminous bunsen burner
flame .

Inferences 0bservations

( ½ mk) ( ½ mk)

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(ii) Put a half spatula endful of solid F into a boiling tube. Add about 10cm3 of
distilled water and shake.

Inferences 0bservations

( ½ mk) ( ½ mk)

Divide the resulting solution from a(ii) above into two portions

(i) To the first portion,2 -3 drops of universal indicator and determine its pH.

Inferences 0bservations

( ½ mk) ( ½ mk)

(ii) To the second portion, add two drop of acidified potassium Manganate (VII)
solution and shake.

Inferences 0bservations

( ½ mk) ( ½ mk)

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(c) Put half spatula endful of solid F into a boiling tube and add 5 drops of ethanol
followed by 2 drops of concentrated sulphuric (VI) acid.warm the mixture.

Inferences 0bservations

( ½ mk) ( ½ mk)

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233/3

CHEMISTRY

PAPER 3

( CONFIDENTIAL)

In addition to the apparatus found in the laboratory each candidate will require
the following;
➢ About 0.5g of solid F
➢ About 1g of solid G
➢ 6 clean test-tubes
➢ Universal indicator solution and a pH chart
➢ Ethanol supplied with a dropper
➢ Clean dry metallic spatula
➢ 1 boiling tube
➢ Distilled water
➢ Solution J, about 130cm3
➢ Solution Q, about 160cm3
➢
Solution R, about 30cm3
➢ Screened methyl orange indicator
➢ Methyl orange indicator
➢ 100ml measuring cylinder
➢ Filter paper
➢ Means of labeling
➢ Solid P
➢ Thermometer
➢ 100ml beaker

Access to the following;

❖ Ethanol supplied with a dropper

❖ Concentrated sulphuric (VI) acid supplied with a dropper bottle
❖ Acidified Potassium dichromate (VI) solution
❖ Acidified Potassium Manganate (VII) solution.
❖ 2M Ba(NO3)2 solution.
❖ 2M NaOH solution.
❖ 2M HCl acid.
❖ Source of heat.

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Preparation

✓ Solurion J is 0.12M HCL, prepared by adding about 800cm3 of distilled water to

4.05cm3of concentrated HCL of density 1.08gcm-3 and making it to one litre of solution.
✓ Solution Q is prepared by dissolving 5.3g of anhydrous sodium carbonate in enough
distilled water and making up to one litre of solution.
✓ Solution R is prepared by dissolving 15.75g of hydrated barium hydroxide in enough
distilled water and top up to one litre of solution.
✓ Solid P is 2.0g of oxalic acid weighed accurately and supplied in a stoppered container
✓ Solid F is maleic acid
✓ Solid G is sodium sulphite

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Name………………………………………………………. Adm No…………………/…….
Date …………………………. Candidate’s Signature………………………

451/1
COMPUTER STUDIES
Paper 1
Time: 2 ½ Hours

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education (K.C.S.E)

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES

- Write your name, School and index number in the spaces provided above.
- This paper consists of Two sections A & B
- Answer ALL the questions in Section A
- Question 16 is compulsory
- Answer any THREE questions in section B
- All answers to ALL questions must be written in the spaces provided in the question paper

FOR EXAMINERS USE ONLY

SECTION QUESTION MAXIMUM MARKS CANDIDATES SCORE
A 1-15 40
B 16 15
17 15
18 15
19 15
20 15
TOTAL SCORE 100

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SECTION A (40 MARKS)
Answer all the questions in this section in the spaces provided
1. State any two peripheral devices that are powered by the system unit. (1 mk)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
2. The following are symbols of some keys found on the keyboard. Name the keys represented by
the symbols. ( 2 mks)

________________ _____________

________________ _______________

3. Explain any three functions of system software in a computer (3mks)

4. As a computer student you have been asked to assist in buying an input device. State any four
factors to consider when buying input devices. (4mks)

5. i. The arithmetic logic unit, the control unit and the main memory use electrical pathways or links
called buses. State and explain the three types of buses. (3mks)

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ii. What is the role of special purpose memories in the microprocessor? (1 mk)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
6. Outline the three differences between primary memory and secondary memory. (3mks)

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10. Define the following terms in relation to internet (2 mks)
i). Downloading
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

ii). Hyperlink
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
11. Benjos was instructed by his teacher while typing a Microsoft word document to replace
all the occurrences of the word MS with Microsoft. Highlight the steps to do this (3mks)

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15.(a) Define the following computer crimes
(i) Piracy (1mk)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(ii) Industrial espionage (1mk)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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SECTION B (60 MARKS)
Answer questions 16 (COMPULSORY) and any other three questions in this section

16. (a) Draw a flowchart for a program that is to prompt for N numbers, accumulate the sum and
them find the average. The output is the accumulated totals and the average. (5 mks)

(b) Write a pseudo code for the above program. (4 mks)

(c) Explain three types of control structures use in programming. (3mks)

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17. (a) i. Subtract 1102 from 110102 (1mk)

ii. Find the sum of binary number 101.1012 and 110.1002 (1mk)

(b) i. Convert binary number 11010110.10012 into octal number. (1mk)

ii. Convert binary number 11010110.10012 into hexadecimal number. (1 mark)

(c) Convert the following numbers to their decimal equivalent

i. 11.0112 (2 marks)

ii. 0.110112 (2 mrks)

(d) i. Convert 3BD16 to Octal. (3mks)

ii. Using one’s complement, calculate 510 – 910. use six bit in your calculation. (3mks)

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(e) State the following types of transcription errors: (2 marks)
i. 3455 instead of 3456

ii. Simth instead of Smith

18. (a) State and explain the following types of relationship as used in database design

(b) i. Explain the difference between primary key and an index key as used in database application
(2 marks)

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ii. Outline the functions of a primary key (2 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(c) Describe the following types of database model

i. Network model (2 marks)

ii. Relational model (2 marks)

19. (a) i. What is an operating system? (1 mark)

ii. Maintaining security is one of the functions the operating system. Explain how the
operating system maintains security (2mks)

iii. Explain how an operating system controls I/O devices. (2mks)

(b) What does the following control measures against computer crime involve? (5 mks)
i. Audit trail
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
ii. Data encryption

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iii. Log files

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
iv. Passwords
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
v. Firewall

(c) Briefly explain what happen during power on self test (POST) (3 mks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(d) Explain the functions of complementary metal-oxide semiconductor (CMOS) (2 mks)

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20. a) State two advantages and two disadvantages of the ring network topology
Advantage (2mks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………….
……………………………………………………………………………………………………….
Disadvantages (2mks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………….
……………………………………………………………………………………………………….
b) State two roles and responsibilities of each of the following ICT professionals
i) Webmaster (2mks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………….
……………………………………………………………………………………………………….
ii) Network Administrator (2mks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………….
……………………………………………………………………………………………………….
iii) Computer scientists (2mks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………….
……………………………………………………………………………………………………….
iv) System Administrator (2mks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………….
……………………………………………………………………………………………………….
v) Software Engineer (2mks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………….
……………………………………………………………………………………………………….
c) Explain the term accreditation as used in education (1mk)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………….

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313/1
CHRISTIAN RELIGIOUS EDUCATIN
PAPER 1
TIME: 2 ½ HOURS

NAME --------------------------------------------------------------------------- INDEX NO --------------

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES

- Answer ALL the questions.

- Each question on its own foolscap.
- Question must be answered neatly in a good hand writing.

QTN 1 2 3 4 5 TOTAL SCORE

SCORE

1. a) Outline the first account of creation in Genesis 1:1-2:49 (7mks)

b) State seven responsibilities given to human beings by God in the genesis stories of
creation. (7mks)

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c) Outline six ways in which Christians care for God’s creation today. (6mks)

2. a) Explain the factors that led to the division of Israel after the death of King Solomon.
(7mks)

b) Identify seven reasons that led to the Mt. Carmel contest. (7mks)

c) State six reasons why leaders are rejected in society today. (6mks)

3. a) Mention seven ways in which the old Testament prophets communicated their
messages. (7mks)

b) Give seven reasons why Israel and Judah would face God’s judgement according to
prophet Amos. (7mks)

c) State six ways in which modern Christians may invite Gods punishment on them.
(6mks)

4. a) Describe the call of prophet Jeremiah. (7mks)

b) Outline seven reasons why Jeremiah condemned human sacrifice. (7mks)

c) State six ways in which Christians can reduce human suffering. (6mks)

5. a) Identify seven factors that promote harmony and social responsibility in traditional
African Community. (7mks)

b) Mention seven factors that influence the naming of children in traditional African
society. (7mks)

c) Show how modern trends have affected burial rites in traditional African communities.
(6mks)

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313/2
CHRISTIAN RELIGIOUS EDUCATION
PAPER 2
TIME: 2 ½ HOURS

NAME------------------------------------------------------------------- INDEX NO ------------------------

Instructions to candidates

- Answer ALL the five questions.

- Each question should be done on a separate foolscap.
- Questions must be answered neatly in a good hand writing

QUESTION 1 2 3 4 5 TOTAL SCORE

SCORE

1. a) Outline Nathan’s prophecy concerning the coming of the messiah. (6mks)

b) Describe the birth of John the Baptist according to Luke 1:57-79. (7mks)

c) Give seven reasons why Christians sing in church today. (7mks)

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2. a) Outline seven teachings of Jesus from the sermon on the plain on true discipleship.
(7mks)

b) Using examples give four reasons why Jesus faced opposition from the Jewish,
religious leaders in Galilee . (8mks)

c) Outline Five ways in which the church leaders are preparing in the society for the second
coming of Jesus. (5mks)

3. a) Narrate the parable of the great feast. (7mks)

b) Identify seven teachings of Jesus on eschatology according to Luke 21:5-38.(7mks)

c) State six reasons why Christians celebrate the last supper today. (6mks)

4. a) Give seven instructions Paul gave to the church in Corinth on how to use Spiritual
gifts. (7mks)

b) Explain how the unity of believers is expressed in the image of the bride Rev.2:1-2
2 cor11:2. (6mks)

c) Outline the importance of the Holy Spirit to Christians today. (7mks)

5. a) Outline seven moral duties of employers to employees. (7mks)

b) Mention seven factors that determine a just wage. (7mks)

c) Show how retrenchmentof workers affect their families. (6mks)

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Name: …………………………………….………….. Adm. No:………... Class: ……………

Candidate’s Signature: ………………….

Date: ……………………………………..

101/2
ENGLISH
Paper 2
Time: 2 ½ Hours

TERM 2 OPENER- 2024

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education
101/2
ENGLISH
Time: 2 ½ Hours

Instructions to students
❖ Write your name, admission number and class in the spaces provided.
❖ Sign and write the date of the examination in the spaces provided.
❖ Answer all questions in the spaces provided
❖ All your answers must be written in the spaces provided in this question paper.
❖ This paper consists of 7 printed pages. Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that all the pages are printed as
indicated and that no questions are missing
❖ Candidates must answer all questions in English

Question Maximum Student’s Score Examiner’s

Score Initials
1. COMPREHENSION 20

2. EXCERPT 25

3. ORAL LITERATURE 20

4. GRAMMAR 15

TOTAL 80

Compiled and distributed by Kenya Educators Consultancy-0724333200

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1. COMPREHENSION
Read the following passage and then answer the questions that follow
At the head of the court is a high seat where the judge sits. Down below it is a table for officers
of the court and o the left and to the right of the table are other seats. Some of these seats form a block
that is enclosed, and they are for the jury if there is a jury. In front of the table are other seats
arranged in arcs of circles, with curved tables in front of the seats, and it is there that the lawyers sit.
And behind them is the dock, with a passage leading to some place that is underground, and from
this place that is underground will be brought the men that are judged. At the back of the court there
are seats rising in tiers, those on the right for Europeans, those on the left for non-Europeans,
according to the custom.
You may not smoke in this court, you may not whisper or speak or laugh. You must dress
decently and if you are a man, you may not wear your hat unless such is your religion. This is in
honour of the judge and in honour of the king whose officer he is; and in honour of the law behind
the judge and in honour of the people behind the law. When the judge enters you will stand and you
will not sit till he is seated. When the judges leaves you will stand and you will not move till he has
left you. This is in honour of the judge and of the things behind the judge.
The judge is entrusted a great duty and pronounce sentence even sentence of death. Because of
their high office, judges are called honourable and precede most other men on great occasions. And
they are held in great honour by men both white and black. Because the land is a land of fear, a judge
must be without fear, so that justice may be done according to the law; therefore a judge must be
incorruptible.
The judge does not make the law. It is the people that make the law. Therefore, if a law is
unjust, and if the judge judges according to the law, that is justice, even if it is not just. It is the duty of
a judge to do justice, but it is only that the people that can be just. Therefore, if justice be not just, that
is not to be laid at the door of the judge but at the door of the people, which means at the door of the
white people for it is the white people that make the law.
In South Africa men are proud of their judges because they are incorruptible. Even the black
men are proud of their judges because they believe they are incorruptible. Even the black men have
faith in them, though they do not always have faith in the law. In a land of fear this incorruptibility is
like a lamp set upon a stand giving light to that are in the house.
QUESTIONS
1. What factors determine where you may sit near the front of the court? (2mks)
2. What does the seating arrangement at the back of the court reveal about the society? (2mks)
3. Certain rules must be strictly observed inside the court. What would non-observance of the rules
imply? (2mks)
4. Why must a judge be fearless? (2mks)
5. How have judges in South Africa earned respect and admiration? (2mks)
6. Although the judge has great responsibilities and power, he has limitations. What are his
limitations? (4mks)

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7. What does the second last paragraph reveal about the status of the black people? (2mks)
8. Explain the meaning of each of the following expressions as used in the passage: (3mks)
i. Unless such is your religion

ii. and precede most other men

iii. Laid at the door of the judge

iv. a lamp set upon a stand

2. Read the following excerpt and then answer the questions that follow (25 mks)
The door to the bathroom opened. Fiona emerged and started walking but stopped. Her eyes
had not adjusted to the darkness in the living room. “Where are you?” she asked.
“Over here,” he said. “I have taken a couch in the living room. Go take the bed in the
bedroom.”
“You’re acting as if you might have a wife,” she said. “Do you?”
“No, she divorced me last year.” “Did she?”
“Yes.”
“Let’s see now. You studied in America at a marriageable age.”
“So?”
“So let me guess.” Go ahead.
“She is American.”
“Who? Pamela?”
“That’s her name? Pamela?”
“Yes, it is. And, yes, she is American. Enough about me now. Let’s turn to you. Shouldn’t your
name still be Fiona McKenzie?”
“Who told you it might have changed?” She started walking to the bedroom. Her eyes had
adjusted to the only light.
“Why was Liberian Mauler calling you Joy instead?”
“It’s local slang for streetwalker?”
He was calling you a streetwalker?”
“Yes. Do you want me to draw a picture for you? Where are you from anyway? Mars?”
“No: Nigeria. Married?” “Me?”
The phone rang.
He rose and answered the landline by the couch. When he ended the call, his mood had
darkened.
“What’s the matter?” she asked him. You seem upset all of a sudden. Who was on the phone?”
“One Chineke Chiamaka,” he said. The man was claiming that I chided him for being drunk,
when all he had had was a Pepsi.” He wriggled in his improvised bed to protest his innocence
against that claim. “It beats me how he got my suite phone number in the first place,” he added.
“Anyway, I did not chide him. Why do people like to tell lies?”
QUESTIONS
1. What happens immediately before this excerpt? (4mks)

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2. Discuss two character traits of Abiola and one of Ms Fiona McKenzie as brought out in the excerpt.
(6mks)

3. Why do people like to tell lies? Rewrite in reported speech. (1mk)

4. The phone rang. Add a question tag. (1mk)

5. No, she divorced me last year. Rewrite in the passive voice. (1mk)

6. Discuss two themes raised in this excerpt. (4mks)

7. Identify and illustrate any two aspects of styles used in this excerpt. (4mks)

8. Explain the meaning of the following words as used in the excerpt. (3mks)
a. streetwalker
b. wriggled
c. chided

3. Read the following poem and then answer the questions that follow (20mks)
Poem for my sister (Liz Lochhead)

My little sister likes to try on my shoes,

to strut in them,
admire her spindle-thin twelve-year-old legs

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In this season’s styles.
She says they fit perfectly,
but wobbles
on their high heels, they’re
hard to balance.

I like to watch my
little sister playing
hopscotch, admire the
neat hops-and skips
of her, their quick
peck.
Never miss their
mark, not over-
stepping the line.

She is competent at peever.

I try to warn my little sister
about unsuitable shoes
point out my own distorted feet, the
callouses, odd patches of hard skin.
I should not like to see her
in my shoes.
I wish she would stay
sure footed,
sensibly shod.

QUESTIONS
1. Why does the little sister try the persona’s shoes? (3mks)

2. How do we know from the first stanza that the shoes don’t fit? (1mk)

3. Why does the persona like watching her young sister play hopscotch? (4mks)

4. In the third stanza, the persona gives us new reasons why her little sister should not wear her
shoes. What are these reasons? (2mks)

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5. What is the message of this poem? (5mks)

6. Describe the tone of the poem. (3mks)

7. Explain the meaning of the following lines: (2mks)

I should not like to see her
in my shoes

4. GRAMMAR (15MKS)
1. Rewrite the following sentences according to the instructions given after each. Do not change the
meaning.
I. my brother turned forty four yesterday (Punctuate correctly)

ii. They were unaware that the children were playing behind the house. (Begin: Little…)

Iii. Mwita served the food because he had finished cooking. (Begin with a participle phrase.)

iv. Nobody did the work. (Change into the passive voice)

v. I have some duties. I must perform them. (Combine into one sentence with an infinitive)

vi. We are hosted by ___________________________ (tall, nigerian, charming, three) gentlemen.

(Arrange the adjectives in order)

2. Fill in the blanks with the correct form of the word in brackets
i. His punishment will be a ____________________to the others. (deter)
ii. Miriam is an ________________________ girl. (adventure)
3. Combine each of the following pairs of sentences into one sentence by making one of them a
relative clause.
i. Martin joined our school this term. He is very good at grammar.

ii. The elephant is a very big animal. It is also very strong.

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iii. The generator has not been on the whole night. It broke down in the morning.

4. Complete the following sentences with a phrasal verb starting with the word in brackets.
i. She looked carefully at the documents but could not _________________ what it meant. (make)
ii. I could not ________________________ the situation much longer. (put)
5. Fill in the gaps with the most appropriate collective nouns
i. A ____________________ of soldiers received medals from the president.
ii. A ____________________ of islands were submerged in the ocean recently.

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Name………………………………………………………… Adm.………… Class….........

Index Number………………………………….

Candidate’s Signature…………………………

Date……………………………………………..
101/3
ENGLISH
Paper 3
(Creative writing and Essays from the Set Texts)
Time 2 ½ Hours

TERM 2 OPENER, 2024

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education
101/3 ENGLISH
Time: 2 ½ Hours
Instructions to students

• Write your name, admission number and class in the spaces provided
• Sign and write the date of the examination in the spaces provided
• Answer all questions in the spaces provided in blue ink.
• All your questions must written in spaces provided in this paper
• This paper consists of 2 printed pages
• Students must answer all questions in English

FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY

QUESTION TOTAL MARKS CANDIDATE’S

SCORE
1.Imaginative Composition 20

2.The Compulsory Set Text 20

3.The Optional Set Text 20

TOTAL 60

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1. IMAGINATIVE COMPOSITION (20 marks)

Either
(a) Write a composition beginning:

As the man approached, I knew I had seen him somewhere…

Or
(b) Write a composition on the following topic:

Ways of eliminating drug abuse among the youth.

2. THE SAMARITAN By J. LARA (20 marks)

Abuse of office is rampant among the officials of Maracas Municipality. Support this assertion with a close
reference to THE SAMARITAN.

3. The Optional Set Text (20 marks)

Answer any one of the following three questions.

Either
a) A SILENT SONG AND OTHER STORIES Edited by Godwin Shiundu
Urban people face various challenges. Prove how true this statement is basing your illustrations on Meja
Mwangi’s Incident in the Park.

Or
b) AN ARTIST OF THE FLOATING WORLD By Kazuo Ishinguro
Write an essay on the negative effects of war as portrayed in the novel.

Or
c) PARLIAMENT OF OWLS By Adipo Sidang
Write an essay on oppression as brought out in Parliament of Owls.

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Name ……………………………………………………………… Index Number …………………….

Candidate’s Signature ……………..

Date ……………………………….

ENGLISH
Paper 1
(Functional Skills)
2 hours

FORM 4

Instructions to candidates

1. Write our name and index number in the spaces provided above.
2. Sign and write the date of examination in the spaces provided above.
3. Answer all the questions in this question paper.
4. All your answer must be written in the spaces provided in this paper.
5. Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that all the pages
are printed as indicated and that no questions are missing.

For Examiner’s Use Only

Question Maximum Candidate’s
Score Score
1 20

2 10

3 30

Total Score

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FUNCTIONAL WRITING (20MKS)

1. You are the manager of Quick Safaris Transport Company. Of late you’ve realized that the workers, mainly
drivers and conductors have lost discipline, and this has made the company incur a lot of loss.

a) Write an internal memo to them, warning them of dire consequences if they do not change their
behaviour and attitude.
Some of the areas you wish to address are:
i. Punctuality
ii. Foul language
iii. Lack of courtesy
iv. Policy bribery
v. Any other relevant area from your observation
(13 marks)

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b) Design a Card inviting the workers to a motivational talk with an aim of changing their behaviour and
attitude. (7 marks)

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2. Read the passage below and fill in each blank space with an appropriate word.

Poaching is increasing (1) ____________________ a menance, not just in Kenya, (2) _______________ also
in other parts of the continent, (3) _________________ a grave danger to the survival of various animal species
particularly the elephant. Whereas, there have been (4) ___________________ to raise awareness about the
danger posed by the menance, not enough has been done to (5)______________ it out and punish offenders.
As it is, poaching is becoming a crisis, threatening species like elephants, which are hunted (6) ____________
for their ivory, rhinos which are targeted because of their horns and other game like lions.
The Kenya Wildlife Service has been doing well to combat (7) _____________ but it appears that more is
needed if the criminals (8) _______________ to be stopped. If the killers have more sophisticated weaponry,
then KWS must (9) _____________ its game or call (10) _________________ the military to assist.

Oral Skills (30 marks)

3 (a). Read the poem below and then answer the questions that follow.

Her lip suckle the nipples

Milk bubbles, foams and ripples
Little hands up in the air
Catch on the mother’s hair
Sweet sensation rises in pressure
Tiny legs kick with pleasure
Sleep comes gently and strong
Sleep whispers softly and long.

(Emusara Ossie Enekase)

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i. Identify any two pairs of rhyming words in the poem. (1mk)

ii. Identify one major sound pattern in the poem. (1mk)

iii. Give two examples of the above sound pattern. (2mks)

iv. How would you perform the last two lines of the poem? (3mks)

b) Suppose you were asked to make a speech at a friend’s graduation party. What would you do to
capture the audience’s attention? (5 mks)

c) Challenger: Two Europeans peeping through the window.

Response : Mucus

i. Classify the above genre. (1mk)

ii. Identify and illustrate the most outstading stylistic device used in the above genre. (1mk)

iii. Give two functions of the above genre. (2mks)

i)……………………………………………….
ii)…………………………………………………

d) In the words below, underline the part that should be stressed.

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i. Suc.cess
ii. ad.vice
iii. Chal.lenge
iv. ob.serve (4mk)

e) Give a word with a similar pronounciation (4mks)

i. Muscle
ii. Worn
iii. Come
iv. Which

f) The following is a conversation between a father and his daughter. Identify six shortcomings in the
father’s listening skills. (6mks)

DAUGHTER: (Shortly after having arrived home from school) Good afternoon, Daddy.
FATHER: (Sitting complacently in the sofa, reading a newspaper. Looking up……..)
Good afternoon.(Resumes reading).
DAUGHTER: (Holding out her school report form) Daddy, I’m excited. My classteacher said
I was the best improved. I was…
FATHER: Oh, you were? Me, I used to be number one. I was absolutely unbeatable.
DAUGHTER: Chemistry has been a particular headache (now looking at the report form which she
thought her father would wan see), but this time…
FATHER: (Stretching his arms, looking preoccupied)
Chemistry for me was particularly easy.
I never scored anything less than 90%.
DAUGHTER: Dad, I was going to tell you that this time…
FATHER: (Absent-mindedly) By the way, where is your mum?
DAUGHTER: Mum is in the garden pickng vegetables. But Dad, you are not listening to my story.
I was telling you about Chemistry.
FATHER: You mean you have a story about Chemistry? Chemistry is not about stories. It is hard
science.
DAUGHTER: It’s about my improvement…
FATHER: (Laughing) Me, it wasn’t a matter of improvement. I was always at the top of the class.
DAUGHTER: Daddy, I give up. You are not listening.

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FATHER: (looking surprised) Listening? I heard you: you were talking about improvement in
Chemistry, weren’t you?
DAUGHTER: Anyway, Dad. Thank you for paying attention. Enjoy your newspaper.
FATHER: Oh, yes I’m reading an interesting story about politics.

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312/1
GEOGRAPHY
Paper 1
Time: 2¾ hours

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education

312/1
Paper 1
GEOGRAPHY

INSTRUCTIONS TO STUDENTS
• This paper has two sections A and B
• Answer ALL the questions in section A. In section B answer questions 6 and any other
TWO questions.

SECTION A
Answer all the questions in this section.

1. (a) What is the relationship between Geography and Chemistry? (2 marks)

(b) The diagram below shows the internal structure of the earth.

H
(i) Name the parts marked G and H. (2 marks)

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(ii) Name the dominant mineral in the mantle. (1 mark)

2. (a) Differentiate between absolute and relative humidity. (2 marks)

(b) State the significance of humidity in the atmosphere. (3 marks)

3. The diagram below shows some features formed by faulting. (2 marks)

Y heave

upthrow
throw

downthrow

(a) Name the parts marked X and Y. (2 marks)

(b) State three effects of faulting on drainage of an area. (3 marks)

4. (a) Identify two scales used to measure the intensity of an earthquake.

(2 marks)

(b) Give three major earthquake zones of the world. (3 marks)

5. (a) State two ways in which plants cause weathering. (2 marks)

(b) Describe the process of weathering through oxidation. (3 marks)

SECTION B
Answer question 6 and any other TWO questions from this section.

6. Study the map of Migwani 1:50,000 (sheet 151/1) provided and answer the following
questions.

(a) (i) What is the altitude of the lowest contour shown on the map?
(1 mark)

(ii) Give the six-figure grid reference of Mboni dam. (2 marks)

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(iii) What is the length in Kilometres of the All Weather Road Bound Surface
C94 from the junction with the Dry Weather Road D502 to Northing 84?
(2 marks)

(b) Draw a rectangle measuring 10 cm by 8 cm to represent the area enclosed by

Eastings 90 and 00 and Northings 62 and 70. (1 mark)

On the rectangle, mark and name the following features:

(i) Musengo school

(ii) Road E742
(iii) Kitui Hills
(3 marks)

(ii) Describe the relief of the area covered by the map. (6 marks)

(d) Describe the characteristics of the long profile of river Ikoo. (6 marks)

7. (a) (i) Describe the following characteristics of minerals:

• Texture (1 mark)
• Tenacity (1 mark)

(ii) Describe how extrusive igneous rocks are formed. (4 marks)

(b) For each of the following rocks, name the resultant rock that forms after
metamorphism.

(i) Sandstone (1 mark)

(ii) Limestone (1 mark)
(iii) Granite (1 mark)

(c) Explain three economic significance of rocks in Kenya. (3 marks)

(d) Students carried out a field study on rocks around their school.

(i) State two importance of stating the objectives for their study.
(2 marks)

(ii) Give three reasons why they prepared a route map of the study area.
(3 marks)

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(iii) Give three activities that the students where involved in during the
field study. (3 marks)

8. (a) (i) What is an orogeny? (2 marks)

(ii) Give two factors that influence the folding process of rocks. (2 marks)

(b) The diagram below shows some types of folds. Use it to answer the question
(i) and (ii).

F Nappe fold

(i) Name the types of folds marked E and F. (2 marks)

(ii) Describe how an overthrust fold is formed. (4 marks)

(i) Atlas (1 mark)

(ii) Alps (1 mark)

(iii) Himalayas (1 mark)

(iv) Andes (1 mark)

(d) (i) Apart from fold mountains, name three other features resulting from
folding. (3 marks)

(ii) Explain four ways in which fold mountains influence climate.

(8 marks)

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9. (a) (i) Differentiate between a marine delta and a Lacustrine delta.
(2 marks)

(ii) Explain three conditions necessary for the formation of a delta.

(6 marks)

(iii) State three significance of deltas to man. (3 marks)

(b) (i) What is a braided channel? (2 marks)

(ii) State four conditions necessary for the formation of a braided channel.
(4 marks)

10. (a) What is Karst scenery? (2 marks)

(b) State four factors which influence the development of a karst landforms.
(4 marks)

Y Z

(i) Name the parts marked X, Y and Z. (3 marks)

(ii) Describe how the features marked Y and Z are formed. (5 marks)

(d) (i) Define a lake. (2 marks)

(ii) Name two types of lakes which are formed by volcanic activity.
(2 marks)

(iii) State three reasons why some lakes are salty. (3 marks)

(iv) Explain four ways in which lakes are of significance to human activities.
(4 marks)

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Name …………………………………………………… Index No. ……………………………

Candidate’s Sign ………………………………………. Date …………………………………

312/2
GEOGRAPHY
PAPER 2
TIME:23/4 HOURS

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education (K.C.S.E)

312/2
GEOGRAPHY
Paper 2

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
• This paper has two sections A and B
• Answer ALL the questions in Section A. In Section B answer question 6 and any
other TWO questions.

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SECTION A:

Answer ALL the questions in this section.

1. a) State two ways in which minerals occur (2 marks)

b) Describe panning as a method of mining (3 marks)
2. a) Differentiate between a Forest and forestry (2 marks)

b) Give three characteristics of Tropical hard-wood forest (3 marks)

3. a) Name two main rivers which supply water to Mwea-Tebere irrigation scheme
(2 marks)
b) State three environmental problems faced by farmers in Mwea-Tebere irrigation
scheme (3 marks)
4. a) Give two methods used to rehabilitate land in Kenya (2 marks)
b) State three benefits of Perkerra Irrigation scheme (3 marks)
5. a) What is a game sanctuary (2 marks)
b) State three reasons for encouraging domestic tourism in Kenya (3 marks)

SECTION B:

Answer question 6 and any other TWO questions from this section
6. Study the photograph below and use it to answer question (a)

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a) (i) Name the type of photograph shown above (1 mark)

(ii) What time of the day was the photograph taken if the camera was held facing South?
(1 mark)

iii) Draw a rectangle measuring 16cm by 9cm to represent the area of the photograph. On
it sketch and label the main features shown on the photograph (5 marks)

iv) Describe the landscape of the area represented by the photograph. (3 marks)

b) (i) Identify two counties in the Rift Valley where ranching is practiced. (2 marks)

(ii) Name one exotic breed of beef cattle reared in Kenya (1 mark)

c) State four physical factors which favour beef farming in Argentina (4 marks)

d) Explain four benefits of beef farming to the economy of Argentina (8 marks)

7. a) Define agro-forestry (2 marks)

b) State three benefits of agro-forestry (3 marks)

c)i) Explain how the following factors have influenced distribution of natural forests in
Kenya
• Aspect (2 marks)
• Soils (2 marks)

ii) Explain four ways of managing forests in Kenya (8 marks)

d) Compare softwood forestry in Kenya and Canada under the following sub-headings
• Transportation (2 marks)
• Harvesting (2 marks)
• Climate (2 marks)
• Distribution (2 marks)

8. a) What is mixed farming? (2 marks)

b) State three economic factors influencing agriculture (3 marks)

c)i) Give four physical factors influencing coffee growing in Kenya (4 marks)

ii) Describe coffee productions in Kenya from harvesting to marketing (8 marks)

iii) Give three differences between coffee farming in Kenya and Brazil (6 marks)

d) You intend to carry out a field study on coffee growing in a farm near your school.
State two disadvantages of using secondary data during data collection (2 marks)

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9. Use the map of North America below to answer questions (a) and (b)

a) Name
(i) The fishing ground shaded (1 mark)
(ii) The ocean current marked (b) (1 mark)

b) Explain four physical conditions necessary for fishing in the fishing ground shaded.
(8 marks)

c) Describe trawling method of fishing (6 marks)

d)i) Explain three ways in which overfishing can be controlled in Lake Naivasha(6 marks)

ii) State three significance of fish farming (3 marks)

10. a)i) Apart from coal, name three other non-renewable sources of energy (3 marks)

ii) State four reasons why there has been a decline in the use of coal as a source of
energy (4 marks)

iii) Give three advantages of using wind energy (3 marks)

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b) Name two examples of agricultural non-food processing industries in Kenya(2 marks)

c) Below is a sketch map of the Ruhr Industrial Region. Use it to answer question (i)

(i) Name:
• The canal market U (1 mark)
• The river marked V (1 mark)
• The town marked W (1 mark)

(ii) Explain three factors which led to the growth of iron and steel industry in the Ruhr
region of Germany (6 marks)

d) Explain two environmental problems which have resulted from the development of car
manufacturing industry in Japan (4 marks)

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NAME __________________________________________ ADM. NO. __________________

Student’s signature ___________

Date _____/ __ /

School ______________________

312/1

HISTORY PAPER 1

2 ¾ HOURS

FORM FOUR

INSTRUCTIONS TO STUDENTS

a) This paper has Three sections: A, B and C.

b) Answer all the questions in section A.
c) Answer question three questions from section B and two others from section C.
d) All answers must be written in the answer booklet provided.
e) Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that all the pages are printed as indicated
and that no question is missing

SECTION A (25MARKS)
Answer all questions in this section
1. Identify one branch in the study of History and Government of Kenya (1mk)
2. What was the main economic activity of the Cushites in the pre-colonial period? (1mk)
3. State two similarities in the political organization of the Ameru and Abagusii in Kenya during the
19th century (2mks)
4. Identify one way in which the Monsoon winds led to the development of trade between the Kenyan
coast and the outside world (1mk)
5. State two functions of Fort Jesus during the Portuguese rule along the Kenyan coast (2mks)
6. Define the term dual citizenship (1mk)

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7. Give two categories of human rights (2mks)
8. Give two rules that govern the concept of National justice (2mks)
9. State two terms of Anglo-German-Agreement of 1886 (2mks)
10. Give one reason why the British colonial government encouraged white settlers to come to Kenya
(1mk)
11. What was the main reason for the formation of Ukamba Members Association? (1mk)
12. Why was the nomination of Eliud Mathu to the Legco important? (1mk)
13. Name two chambers of parliament under the new constitution (2mks)
14. Name one branch of the police service in Kenya (1mk)
15. Name one superior court in Kenya (1mk)
16. Identify one circumstance that would make a county governor to be removed from office (1mk)
17. State the main function of the National Security Council (1mk)

SECTION B
Answer any three questions from this section
18. a) Why did the Highland Nilotes migrate from their original homeland during the pre-colonial
period? (5mks)
b) Explain five results of the migration and settlement of the Highland Nilotes in Kenya (10mks)

19. a) Give three reasons for the coming of European Christian missionaries to Kenya in the 19th
century (3mks)
b) Explain six factors that hindered the work of early Christian missionaries in Kenya (12mks)

20. a) What were the reasons for construction of the Kenya – Uganda railway? (3mks)
b) Explain 6 effects of the construction of Kenya – Uganda railway (12mks)

21. a) Why were Africans opposed to the British colonial rule between 1920 – 1939? (5mks)
b) Explain five methods used by African Nationalists in Kenya in their struggle for independence
(10mks)

SECTION C
Answer any two questions from this section
22. a) State three factors that have undermined natural unity in Kenya since independence (5mks)
b) Explain five challenges facing the correctional services in Kenya today (10mks)

23. a) Identify three groups of Kenya Defence Forces (KDF) (3mks)

b) Explain 6 functions of the Kenya Defence Forces (12mks)

24. a) Name five survival rights of a child (5mks)

b) Describe five features of the Independence constitution (10mks)

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312/2

HISTORY AND GOVERNMENT PAPER 2

21/2 HRS

FORM 4

INSTRUCTIONS CANDIDATES.

a. This paper consists of three sections: A, B and C.

b. Answer all the questions in section A, three questions from section B and
two questions from section C.

c. Answers to all the questions must be written in the answer booklet

provided.

d. Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that all pages are
printed as indicated and that no questions are missing.

e. Candidates should answer the questions in English.

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1. State two disadvantages of oral traditions as a source of History and Government.(2mks)

2. State two circumstances that forced man to start growing crops.(2mks)

3. State the main mode of transport used during the trans – Saharan trade.(1mks)

4. What was the contribution of Alexander Graham Bell in the of Science.(1mk)

5. Identify the form of writing that developed in Egypt as result of development of agriculture.(1mk)

6. State the main factor that led to emergence of Cairo as an Urban Centres (1mk)

7. Identify one factor that hinder industrialization in third world countries.(1mk)

8. Give two reasons why indirect rule was unsuccessful in Southern Nigeria .(2mks)(1x2)=2mks

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9. State two strategic reasons for the scramble and partition of Africa.(2mks)

10. Give two resolution of the Berlin conference of 1884 to 1885(2mks)

11. Give two reasons why the league of nations was formed in 1919(2mks)

12. State one major event that led to the First World War.(1mk)

13. Identify two structural defects of the organization of African Unity(OAU) that have undermined its
activities since 1963(2mks)

14. Give two reasons why united state of America (U.S.A) did not join the First World war until
1917.(2mks)

15. State one use of steel(1mk)

16. What is the main role of the International Criminal Court?(1mk)

17. Give the main principle that guides non-aligned movement.(1mk)

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SECTION B(45 MKS)
Answer any three questions from this section in sheet provided.
18. a)State five impacts of early agriculture in Mesopotamia.(5mks)

b.Explainthe effects of food shortages in third world countries(10mks)

19. a)Sate five roles of Tuaregs in Trans-Saharan trade?(5mks)

b)Explain five social effects of Trans-Saharan trade on the people of western Sudan?(2mks)

20. a)Give the factors that led to the rise of the Baganda Kingdom.(5mks)

b)Describe the political organization of the Asante?(10mks)2x5=10mks

21. a.State five factors which made the Lozi to collaborate with the British (5mks).

b.Explain five reforms introduced by the German administration in Tanganyika after the MajiMaji
rebellion.(10mks)

SECTION C(30MKS)
22. a)State five reasons why the British used indirect rule to administer Northern Nigeria(5mks)

b.Why did the French system assimilation fail(10mks)

23. a)Give five functions of the security council of the united Nations Organization.(UNO) (5mks)

b)Describe five benefits for being a member of the common wealth of nations(10mks)

24. a)Give reasons for the formation of Non-Aligned Movement? (5mks)

b)Explain five effects of the cold war?(10mks)

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KITANDO CHA NNE
102/1
KISWAHILI
INSHA

MUDA 1 ¾.

Jina……………………………………………………………..Shule………………………..

MAAGIZO

Andika insha mbili. Swali la kwanza ni la LAZIMA

Chagua insha ya pili kutoka kwa maswali yaliyosalia.

Kila insha isipungue maneno 400.

Kila insha itatuzwa (alama 20.)

Wewe ni katibu wa vijana katika kijii chako. Andika kumbukumbu za mkutano wenu uliojadili
matatizo yanayowakumba vijana.

Muungano wa Afrika Mashariki una manufaa mengi. Fafanua.

Pilipili usioila yakuashiani?

………………….. hili lilikuwa jambo la ajabu ambalo sikuwa nimelishuhudia maishani

mwangu.

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MWANZO WA MUHULA WA PILI
Cheti cha Kuhitimu Kisomo cha Sekondari
MTIHANI WA MUHULA WA KWANZA – 2024

102/3 Kiswahili – Fasihi Karatasi ya 3

KIDATO CHA NNE JULAI/AGOSTI, 2023 Muda: Saa 2½
Jina: ………………………………………….……………… Nambari: ………………

Mkondo: ……………… Sahihi ya Mtahiniwa: ………..…….. Tarehe ……………………

Maagizo

(i) Andika jina lako, nambari ya usajili, mkondo, sahihi na tarehe katika nafasi ulizoachiwa hapo juu.
(ii) Jibu maswali manne pekee.
(iii) Swali la kwanza ni la lazima.
(iv) Maswali hayo mengine matatu yachaguliwe kutoka sehemu nne zilizobaki Riwaya, Ushairi, Tamthilia na
Fasihi Simulizi.
(v) Usijibu maswali mawili kutoka sehemu moja.
(vi) Karatasi hii ina kurasa 6. Watahiniwa ni lazima wahakikishe kwamba kurasa zote za karatasi hii zimepigwa
chapa sawasawa na kuwa maswali yote yamo.
(vii) Maswali yote ni sharti yaandikwe kwa lugha ya Kiswahili.
Kwa matumizi ya mtahini pekee

SWALI UPEO ALAMA

1 20

JUMLA 80

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SEHEMU YA A: NGUUU ZA JADI (CLARA MOMANYI)
1. Fafanua ufaafu wa anwani “Nguu za Jadi”.. (alama 20)

SEHEMU YA B: BEMBEA YA MAISHA

2. Eleza umuhimu wa mhusika Sara katika kujenga vipengele vifuatavyo.

(alama 20
(i) Ploti
(ii) Maudhui
au

3. “Maisha ya sasa hayana fundi. Yanamwendesha mtu kama tawi lililosukumwa

hadi likang’oka kutoka Tagani na kupeperushwa na upepo.
(i) Eleza muktadha wa dondoo hili. (alama 4)

(ii) Tambua vipengee vya kimuundo katika dondoo. (alama 2)

(iii) Eleza sifa nne za msemewa. (alama 4)

(iv) Thibitisha kauli ya msemaji ukirejelea tamthilia nzima. (alama 10)

SEHEMU YA C: FASIHI SIMULIZI

4. (a) Huku ukitoa mifano, eleza maana ya vitanza ndimi. (alama 2)

(b) Fafanua majukumu sita yavitanza ndimi katika jamii. (alama 6)

5. SEHEMU YA D: USHAIRI
Soma shairi lifuatalo kisha ujibu maswali yanayofuata.

Daima alfajiri na mapema

Hunipitia na jembe na kotama
Katika njia iendayo kondeni
Kama walivyofanya babuze zamani;
Nimuonapohuwa anatabasamu
Kama mtu aliye na kubwa hamu
Kushika mpini na kutokwa jasho
Ili kujikimu kupata malisho.

Anapotembea anaskiliza
Videge vyaanga vinavyotambuiza

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Utadhani huwa vimemngojea
Kwa usikukucha kuja kumwimbia;
Pia pepo baridi kumpepea
Rihi ya maua zikimletea
Nao umande kumbusumiguu’
Na miti yote hujipinda migongo
Kumpapasa, kumtoa matongo;
Na yeye kuendelea kwa furaha
Kuliko yeyote anayemjua
Akichekelea ha ha ha ha ha ha …..

Na mimi kubaki kujiuliza

Kuna siri gani inayomliwaza?
Au ni kujua au kutojua?
Furaha ya mtuni furaha gani
Katika dunia inayomhini?
Ukali wa jua wamnyima zao
Soko la dunia lamkaba koo;
Dini za kudhani zamsonga roho
Ayalimia matumbo ya warobo;
Kuna jambo gani linamridhisha?
Kama si kujua ni kutokujua
Laiti angalijua, laiti angalijua!

MASWALI:
(a) Eleza hali ya mzungumziwa katika shairi. (alama 4)

(b) Huku ukitoa mfano, onyesha aina mbili za uhuru wa Kishairi uliotumiwa katika
shairi. (alama 2)

(c) Fafanuaa ina tatuza taswira ukirejelea ubeti wa pili. (alama 3)

(d) Eleza umuhimu wa maswali yabalagha katika shairi hili. (alama 2)

(e) Bainisha vipengele vifuatavydo vya kimtindo katika shairi hili. (alama 3)

(i) Tashhisi –

(ii) Kinaya

(iii) Tashbihi

(f) Eleza toni ya shairi hili. (alama 2)

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(g) Bainisha nafsi neni katika shairi hili. (alama 1)

(h) Changanua muundo wa shairi hili. (alama 3)

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NAME: …………………………………………………… INDEX NO : ………………..

121/1

MATHEMATICS

PAPER 1

TIME: 2⅟2 HOURS

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES

i. Write your name and Index number in the spaces provided above.
ii. This paper consists of two sections: Section I and Section II.
iii. Answer all questions in Section I and only Five questions from Section II.
iv. Show all the steps in your calculations giving your answer at each stage in the spaces provided below each
question.
v. Non-programmable silent electronic calculators and KNEC mathematical tables may be used.

For Examiner’s use only.

Section I
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 Total

Section II
17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 Total Grand
Total

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SECTION I ( 50 MKS)

Attempt all questions.

⅟
1. Use tables of reciprocal only to evaluate 0.325 hence evaluate : 3 0.000125 (3mks)
0.325.

2. Two boys and a girl shared some money. The elder got 4⁄9 of it, the younger boy got 2⁄5 of the
remainder and the girl got the rest. Find the percentage share of the younger boy to the girls share.
(3mks)

3. Annette has some money in two denominations only. Fifty shillings notes and twenty shilling coins. She
has three times as many fifty shilling notes as twenty shilling coins. If altogether she has sh. 3,400, find
the number of fifty shilling notes and 20 shilling coin. (3mks)

4. The figure below shows a rhombus PQRS with PQ= 9cm and ‹SPQ=600 . SXQ is a circular arc, centre P.
S R

P Q

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Calculate the area of the shaded region correct to two decimal places (Take Pie= 22⁄7) (4mks)

5. Solve the equation 2x2 + 3x=5 by completing the square method (3mks)

6. Simplify the expression 3x2 – 4xy2 + y (3mks)

9x2—y2

7. Solve the equation 8x2 + 2x – 3 =0 hence solve the equation 8Cos2y + 2Cosy – 3= 0
For the range 00< y <1800 (4mks)

8. Show that the points P(3,4), Q(4,3) and R(1,6) are collinear. (3mks)

9. Solve the inequalities x≤ 2x + 7≤ ⅓x +14 hence represent the solution on a number line. (3mks)

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10. The mean of five numbers is 20. The mean of the first three numbers is 16. The fifth number is greater
than the fourth by 8. Find the fifth number. (3mks)

11. The volume of two similar solid spheres are 4752cm3 and 1408cm3. If the surface area of the small
sphere is 352cm2, find the surface area of the larger sphere. (3mks)

12. Solve for x in the equation ½log2 81 + log2(x - x⁄3) =1 (3mks)

13. A farmer has a piece of land measuring 840m by 396m. He divides it into square plots of equal size.
Find the maximum area of one plot. (3mks)

4 3
14. a) find the inverse of the matrix (1mk)
3 5

b) Hence solve the simultaneous equation using the matrix method (2mks)
4x + 3y =6
3x + 5y +5

O
O
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200
15. In the figure below O is the centre of the circle and <OAB=200. Find;
a) <AOB (1mk)
b) <ACB (2mks)

A B
16. Each interior angle of a regular polygon is 1200 larger than the exterior angle. How many sides has the
polygon? (3mks)

SECTION II (50MKS)
Choose any fie questions

17. Three business partners, Bela Joan and Trinity contributed Kshs 112,000, Ksh,128,000 and ksh,210,000
respectively to start a business. They agreed to share their profit as follows:
30% to be shared equally
30% to be shared in the ratio of their contributions
40% to be retained for running the business.

If at the end of the year, the business realized a profit of ksh 1.35 Million. Calculate:

a) The amount of money retained for the running of the business at the end of the year. (1mk)

b) The difference between the amounts received by Trinity and Bela (6mks)

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c) Express Joan’s share as a percentage of the total amount of money shared between the three
partners. (3mks)

18. Complete the table below for the function y=x3 + 6x2 + 8x for -5 ≤ x ≤1 (3mks)

X -5 -4 -3 -2 -1 0 1
X3 -125 -64 -1 0 8
6X2 54 6 0
8X -40 -24 -16 0 8
Y 0 3 0 15

a) Draw the graph of the function y=x3 + 6x2 + 8x for -5 ≤ x ≤1 (3mks)

(use a scale of 1cm to represent 1 unit on the x-axis . 1cm to represent 5 units on the y-axis)

b) Hence use your graph to estimate the roots of the equation

X3 + 5x2+ 4x= -x2 – 3x -1 (4mks)

19. Three islands P,Q,R and S are on an ocean such that island Q is 400Km on a bearing of 030 0 from island
P. island R is 520Km and a bearing of 1200 from island Q. A port S is sighted 750Km due South of island
Q.
a) Taking a scale of 1cm to represent 100Km, give a scale drawing showing the relative positions of
P,Q,R and S. (4mks)

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Use the scale drawing to:
b) Find the bearing of:
i. Island R from island P (1mk)

ii. Port S from island R (1mk)

c) Find the distance between island P and R (2mks)

d) A warship T is such that it is equidistant from the islands P,S and R. by construction locate the
position of T. (2mks)

20. In the figure below, E is the midpoint of AB, OD:DB=@:3 and f is the point of intersection of OE and AD.
A

O D B

Given OA= a and OB= B

a) Express in terms of a and b
i. AD (1mk)
ii. OE 2(mks)

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b) Given that AF= sAD and OF= tOE find the values of s and t (5mks)

c) Show that E,F and O are collinear (2mks)

21. A bag contains 5 red, 4 white and 3 blue beads . two beads are selected at random one after another.
a) Draw a tree diagram and show the probability space. (2mks)

b) From the tree diagram, find the probability that;

i. The last bead selected is red (3mks)

ii. The beads selected were of the same colour (2mks)

iii. At least one of the selected beads is blue. 3(mks)

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22. The table below shows how income tax was charged on income earned in a certain year.

Taxable income per year(Kenyan pounds Rate shilling per K£

1-3630 2
3631- 7260 3
7261 -10890 4
10891 - 14520 5

Mr. Gideon is an employee of a certain company and earns a salary of ksh.15,200 per month. He is housed by
the company and pas a nominal rent of Ksh. 1050 per month. He is married and is entitled to a family relief of
ksh. 450 per month.
i. Calculate his taxable income in K£ p.a (2mks)

ii. Calculate his gross tax per month. (4mks)

iii. Calculate his net tax per month (2mks)

iv. Calculate his net salary per month (2mks)

23. The table below shows the distribution of mathematics marks of form 4 candindates in Mavoko
Secondary school.
Marks 10-20 20-30 30-40 40-50 50-60 60-70 70-80 80-90 90-100
F 4 7 12 9 15 23 21 5 4

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Use the above date to calculate:
a) Mean using assumed mean of 65 (3mks)

b) Median (3mks)

c) Standard deviation (4mks)

24. Coast bus left Nairobi at 8.00am and travelled towards Mombasa at an average speed of 80Km/hr. At
8.30am, Lamu bus left Mombasa towards Nairobi at an average speed of 120 km per hour. Given that
the distance between Nairobi and Mombasa is 400Km.: determine:

i. The time Lamu bus arrived in Nairobi. (2mks)

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ii. The time the two buses met. (4mks)

iii. The distance from Nairobi to the point where the two buses met. (2mks)

iv. How far coast bus is from Mombasa when Lamu bus arrives in Nairobi (3mks)

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NAME………………………………………………….ADM.NO………….CLASS………….
Date …………………

121/2
MATHEMATICS
Paper 2
2 ½ Hours

Instructions to candidates

1. Write your name, admission number and class in the spaces provided above.
2. Sign and write the date of examination in the spaces provided above.
3. The paper contains two sections: Section I and Section II.
4. Answer All the questions in section I and strictly any five questions from Section II.
5. All answers and working must be written on the question paper in the spaces provided below
each question.
6. Show all the steps in your calculations, giving your answers at each stage in the spaces below
each question.
7. Marks may be given for correct working even if the answer is wrong.
8. Non-programmable silent electronic calculators and KNEC mathematical tables may be used,
unless stated otherwise.

For Examiner’s use only.

Section I
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 Total

Section II
17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 Total

Grand Total

This paper consists of 16 printed pages .Candidates should check the question paper to
Ensure that all the pages are printed as indicated and no question(s) are missing

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SECTION A ( 50 MARKS )
Answer all the questions in this section
1. Use logarithm table to evaluate. 4 mks
3 0.52 × 0.312
√
2.122

2. 200 cm3 of acid is mixed with 300 cm3 of alcohol. If the densities of acid and alcohol are
1.08g/cm3 and 0.8 g/cm3 respectively, calculate the density of the mixture.
3 mks

3. The coordinates of P and Q are P(5, 1) and Q(11, 4) point M divides line PQ in the ratio
2 : 1. Find the magnitude of vector OM. (3 marks)

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4. The Monthly income in Ksh Tax rate in each Ksh table below shows income tax
rates in a 1 – 9680 10% certain year.
9681 – 18800 15%
18801 – 27920 20%
27921 – 37040 25%
Over 37040 30%

In that year, a monthly personal tax relief of Ksh. 1056 was allowed. Calculate the monthly income
tax paid by an employee who earned a monthly salary of Ksh 32500.
(4 mks)

5. Make 𝑤 the subject of the formulae. 3mks

2𝑤 + 8
2𝑥 = √
3𝑤 − 5

6. A line passes through points (2, 5) and has a gradient of 2.

(a) Determine its equation in the form 𝑦 = 𝑚𝑥 + 𝑐. 2mks

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(b) Find the angle it makes with x-axis. 1mk

7. A quantity P is partly constant and partly varies as the cube of Q. When Q=1, P=23 and
when Q =2, P= 44. Find the value of P when Q = 5. 3mks

8. The vertices of a triangle are A(1, 2) , B(3, 5) and C(4, 1). The co-ordinates of C’ the image of
C under a translation vector T are (6, -2).
(a) Determine the translation vector T. 1mk

(b) Find the co-ordinates of A’ and B’ under the translation vector T. 2mks

9. (a) Expand (1 − 𝑥)4 using the binomial expansion. 1mk

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Use the first three terms of the expansion in (a) above to find the value of (0.98)4
correct to nearest hundredth. 2mks

10. Find the centre and radius of a circle with equation:

² + y² - 6 + 8y – 11 = 0 (3mks)

11. Two grades of coffee one costing sh.42 per kilogram and the other costing sh.47 per kilogram
are to be mixed in order to produce a blend worth sh.46 per kilogram in what proportion
should they be mixed. (3mks)

12. Pipe A can fill an empty water tank in 3 hours while pipe B can fill the same tank in 5 hours.
While the tank can be emptied by pipe C in 15 hours. Pipe A and B are opened at the same
time when the tank is empty. If one hour later pipe C is also opened. Find the total time taken
to fill the tank. 4 mks.

13. Simplify the expression: 3mks.

2 2
9𝑡 − 25𝑎
6𝑡 2 + 19𝑎𝑡 + 15𝑎2

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14. A business bought 300 kg of tomatoes at Ksh. 30 per kg. He lost 20% due to waste. If he has
to make a profit 20%, at how much per kilogram should he sell the tomatoes.
3mks.

15. Evaluate without using a Mathematical table or a calculator.

Log 6 216 + Log 42 − Log 6  Log 49 (2mks

16. Given that the ratio x: y = 2: 3, find the ratio (5x − 2y) ∶ (x + y) (3 mk)

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SECTION II (50mks)
Answer only five questions in this section in the spaces provide
17. Draw the graph of 𝑦 = 𝑥 3 + 2𝑥 2 − 5𝑥 − 8 for values of x in the range −4 ≤ 𝑥 ≤ 3
5mks
𝑥 -4 -3 -2 -1 0 1 2 3
3
𝑥 -64 27
2𝑥 2
−5𝑥
−8
𝑦 -20

(a) By drawing suitable straight line on the same axis, solve the equations.

i) 𝑥 3 + 2𝑥 2 − 5𝑥 − 8 = 0 1mks

ii) 𝑥 3 + 2𝑥 2 − 5𝑥 − 7 = 0 2mks

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iii) 3 + 3𝑥 − 2𝑥 2 − 𝑥 3 = 0 2mks

2 1 
18. A transformation represented by the matrix   maps the points A(0, 0), B(2, 0), C(2,
1 − 2 
3) and D(0, 3) of the quad ABCD onto A¹B¹C¹D¹ respectively.
a) Draw the quadrilateral ABCD and its image A¹B¹C¹D¹. (3mks)

b) Hence or otherwise determine the area of A¹B¹C¹D¹. (2mks)

0 −1 
c) Another transformation   maps A¹B¹C¹D¹ onto A¹¹B¹¹C¹¹D¹¹.
 −1 0
Draw the image A¹¹B¹¹C¹¹D¹¹. (2mks)

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d) Determine the single matrix which maps A¹¹B¹¹C¹¹D¹¹ back to ABCD. (3mks)

19. In the figure below (not drawn to scale) AB = 8cm, AC = 6cm, AD = 7cm, CD = 2.82cm and
angle CAB = 50°.
D
2.82cm
C
7cm
6cm

50°
A B
8cm

Calculate (to 2d.p.)

(a) the length BC. (3 marks)

(b) the size of angle ABC. (3 marks)

(c) size of angle CAD. (3 marks)

(d) Calculate the area of triangle ACD. (2 marks)

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20. Three variables P, Q and R are such that P varies directly as Q and inversely as the square of
R.
a) When P = 18, Q = 24 and R = 4.
Find P when Q = 30 and R = 10. (3mks)

(b) Express P in terms of Q and R. (1mk)

(c) If Q is increased by 20% and R is decreased by 10% find:

(i) A simplified expression for the change in P in terms of Q and R. (3mks)

(ii) The percentage change in P. (3mks)

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21. A surveyor recorded the following information in his field book after taking measurement in
metres of a plot.

To E
1000

880 320 to D

720 to F 640

480 600 to C

240 to G 400

200 400 to B
From A
(a) Sketch the layout of the plot. 4 mks.

(b) Calculate the area of the plot in hectares. 6mks

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22. A line L passes through points (-2, 3) and (-1,6) and is perpendicular to a line P at (-1,6).
a) Find the equation of L. (2 mks)

b) Find the equation of P in the form ax + by = c, where a, b and c are constant. (2

mks)

c) Given that another line Q is parallel to L and passes through point (1,2) find the x and
y intercepts of Q. (3
mks)

d) Find the point of intersection of lines P and Q. (3

mks)

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23. The figure below shows a square ABCD point V is vertically above middle of the base
ABCD. AB = 10cm and VC = 13cm.

Find;
(a) the length of diagonal AC (2mks)

(b) the height of the pyramid (2mks)

(c) the acute angle between VB and base ABCD. (2mks)

d) the acute angle between BVA and ABCD. (2mks)

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e) the angle between AVB and DVC. (2mks)

24. The diagram below represents a conical vessel which stands vertically. The which stands
vertically,. The vessels contains water to a depth of 30cm. The radius of the surface in the
vessel is 21cm. (Take =22/7).

a) Calculate the volume of the water in the vessels in cm3 3mks

b) When a metal sphere is completely submerged in the water, the level of the water in
the vessels rises by 6cm.
Calculate:
(i) The radius of the new water surface in the vessel; (2mks)

(ii) The volume of the metal sphere in cm3 (3mks)

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(iii) The radius of the sphere. (3mks)

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PHYSICS
PAPER 1
FORM 4 TERM 2 EXAM
NAME ………………………………………………… ADM …………………………

CLASS …………………………..

1. What is the reading of the vernier eallipers shown in the fly below if it has a positive
error of 0.02cm? (3mks)

2. The figure below shows apparatus used to observe behavior of smoke particles in a
smoke cell.

a) State a reason why smoke particles are used in the experiment. (1mk)

b) State the observation made. (1mk)

c) What would happen if temperature was lowered? (1mk)

0795491185/0768321553
3. Explain why fish can survive under water when the surface is already frozen. (1mk)

4. State one way on which the stability of the can be increased. (1mk)

5. A stone is thrown horizontally from a building that is 50m high above a horizontal
ground. The stone hits the ground at a point, which is 65m from the foot of the building.
Calculate the initial horizontal velocity of the stone. (g=10ms-2) (3mks)

6. The figure below shows air flowing through a pipe of non-uniform cross-sectional area
.Two pipes A and B are dipped into liquids as shown below.

a. Indicate the levels of the liquids in pipe A and B. (1mk)

b. Explain your answer in (a) above. (1mk)

7. When a mercury thermometer is used to measure the temperature of hot water, it is

observed that the mercury level first drops before beginning to rise. Explain (2mks)

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8. Figure below shows a u-tube manometer containing a liquid L. One end connectected to a
gas tap.
Given that the atmosphere pressure is 1.0×105pa, determinate the pressure of the gas
(density of liquid L is 900kg/m3, g=10N/kg) (2mks)

9. The figure below represents part of a tape pulled through a ticker-timer by trolley moving
down an inclined plane. If the frequency of the ticker-timer is 50Hz, calculate the
acceleration of the trolley. (3mks)

0795491185/0768321553
10. Explain why a glass container with thick glass walls is more likely to crack than one with
a thin wall when a very hot liquid is poured into it. (2mks)

11. Find the amount of work in stretching a sprig constant 25N/M when its lenghth is
increased from 0.1m to 0.2m. (3mks)

SECTION B (55MARKS)
12. A) Define specific latent heat of fusion of a substance. (1mk)

b) Water of mass 200g at a temperature of 600c is put in a well lagged copper calorimeter
of mass of 80g. A piece of ice at 00 c and mass 20g is placed in the calorimeter and the
mixture stirred gently until all the ice melts. The final temperatures, T of the mixture are
then measured. Determine:
i) The heat absorbed by melting ice at 00c. (2mk)

ii) The heat absorbed by melted ice (water) to rise to temperature. T (Give the answer in
terms of T (2mks)

0795491185/0768321553
ii) The heat lost by warm water and the calorimeter. (2mks) (Give the answer interms of T)

iii) The heat lost by warm and the calorimeter (2mks) (Give the interms of T)

IV) The final temperature T of the mixture. (Specific latent heat of fusion of ice=334,000 Jkg-
specific heat of water =4200Jkg-1, specific heat capacity of copper =900Jkg-1k-) (3mks)

13. A ball bearing x is dropped vertically downwards from the edge of the table and it takes
0.5s to hit the floor below. Another ball bearing Y leaves the odge of the table
horizontally with a velocity of 5ms-1 find :
a) The horizontal distance travelled by Y before hitting the floor. (2mks)

b) The vertical distance of the table top above the floor level. (2mks)

0795491185/0768321553
c) A bullet mass of 22g travelling horizontal with a velocity of 300ms-1 strikes a block of
wood of mass 1978g which rests on a rough horizontal surface. After impact the
bullet and the block move together and come to rest when the block has travelled a
distance of 5M. Calculate :
i) The velocity of bullet and wood after impact. (2mk)

ii) The force of friction between wood and surface. (2mks)

(d)A car starts from rest and accelerates uniformly at 2m/s2 for 5 seconds before
accelerating again at 2.5 m/s2 for 2 more seconds. The car is then brought to rest in
another 2 seconds.

i) Sketch a velocity time graph for this motion. (2mks)

ii) From the graph, calculate the total distance travelled. (2mks)

14. A) State two important factors to be considered when selecting the banking angles of a
road.

b) A ball of mass 2kg is whirled at the end of a string in a horizontal circular path at a
speed of 5m/s-1. If the string is 2.0m long find,
i) Angular velocity of the stone? (3mks)

ii. The tension of the string.

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15. The figure below shows a block of mass 30.0kg being pulled up a slope by a force F at a
constant speed. The friction force on the block is 200 N.

A) I) on the same figure above name and indicate the other forces acting on the block.
(2mks)

II) Determine the force acting on the block down the slopes. (2mks)

iii) Determine the value of F (2mks)

B. On reaching the top of the slopes. The block is left to run freely down the slopes.

i) Which of the force previously acting on the block would then act in the opposite direction?
(1mk)

II) Determine the acceleration of the block down the slope. (2mks)

0795491185/0768321553
III) What is the effect of increasing the angle of the slopes on your answer in (ii) above? (1mk)

16. A) i) State Newton’s second law of motion. (1mk)

ii) The figure below shows a sphere moving in a viscous liquid in a tall measuring
cylinder.

Show on the diagram the force acting on the sphere. (3mks)

iii) Sketch on the Cartesian plane below a graph of the variation of velocity with
time until the ball attains terminal velocity.

0795491185/0768321553
b) i. State Boyle’s law. (1mk)

ii. What is the absolute zero temperature? (1mk)

iii). A bicycle pump with the exit hole closed contains 80cm of air at 760 mmHg pressure and a
temperature of 10c. When the air was compressed to 38cm under a pressure of 1700mmHg
pressure, its temperature rises. Calculate the rise in temperature. (2mks)

0795491185/0768321553
Name: ………………………………………………………Adm. No: ………Class ………

232/2

PHYSICS Paper 2 (THEORY)

Time: 2 Hours

FORM 4

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education (K.C.S.E)

PHYSICS

Paper 2

Time: 2 Hours

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES:-

● Write your name, Admission number and class in the spaces provided above.
● This paper consists of two sections; A and B
● Answer all the questions in section A and B in the spaces provided
● All working must be clearly shown.
● Mathematical tables and electronic calculators may be used
● This paper consists of 10 printed pages. Candidates should check to ascertain that all
pages areprinted as indicated and that no questions are missing.
● Candidates should answer the questions in English.
● Take g=10N/kg
For Examiner’s Use Only:

Section Question Maximum Candidate’s

Score Score
A 1 – 12 25
13 10
14 12
B 15 12
16 8
17 4
18 9
Total Score 80

SECTION A (25MARKS)Answer all the questions

1. Figure1 below shows two mirrors M1 and M2 are inclined at right angles to each other.

0795491185/0768321553
Fig 1
Trace the reflection of the ray through the two mirrors and find the angle between the
incident ray and reflected ray of mirror M2. (2mks)
2. State the reasons why a convex mirror is preferred over a plane mirror for use as a driving
mirror. (1mk)

3. A current of 0.5A flows in a circuit. Determine the quantity of charge that crosses a point in
4 minutes through the circuit. (2mks)

4. A radio station broadcasts on a wavelength of 150m at a frequency of 200 kHz. Calculate the
velocity of the radio waves. (2mks)

5. The internal resistance of the cell in the figure below is 0.5 Ω.

Fig 2
Determine the ammeter reading when the switch S is closed. (2mks)

0795491185/0768321553
6. A man standing 400 away from a wall bangs two pieces of wood together and hears an
echo 2.5 seconds later. Determine the speed of sound in air at that place. (2mks)

7. State the property of light associated with formation of shadows. (1 mark)

8. In the circuit diagram shown in figure 3 the lamps are identical and cells are also identical.

Fig 3
State with a reason, in which circuit the lamp will be lit for a longer period. (2 marks)

9. Explain in terms of domain theory, what happens when a bar magnet is placed in a solenoid in
which an alternating current flows. (2 marks)

0795491185/0768321553
10. Use appropriate rays to complete the ray diagram in figure 4 and state the position of the object
formed. (3 marks)

Fig 4

11. Figure 5.0 shows a transverse wave.

a) Calculate the frequency of the wave. (2 marks)

b) Sketch another wave on the same diagram that has double the frequency and half the
amplitude and label it as M. (1 mark)

12. The figure 6.0 below shows a network of capacitors.

0795491185/0768321553
Determine the combined capacitance of the network. (2 marks)

SECTION B( 55MARKS)
13. The figure below shows a ray of green light through a prism. The speed of green light in
the prism is 2.0 x 108m/s

Fig 7

i. Determine the refractive index of the prism material( speed of light in air = 3.0 x 108m/s
(3mks)

ii. Given the r ==23.20, determine the angle Ѳ (3mks)

0795491185/0768321553
b) i) The diagram below show two prisms

Fig 8
Given that the critical angle of the glass in both prisms is 420 sketch the paths of the two rays in
each prism indicating all the angles. (2mks)

ii) Give two application of total internal reflection (2mks)

14. a) What is meant by the term capacitance? (1mk)

b) The figure below shows a point placed near a positively charged rod.
Draw on the diagram the resulting electric field patterns. (1mk)
Fig 9

0795491185/0768321553
c) When a positively charged conductor is brought close to a candle, the flame is diverted as
shown in the figure below. Explain this observation. (2mks)

Fig 10

d) The figure below shows three capacitors of capacitance 3µF, 2µF, and 6µF. Connected to
a 12v supply circuit.

Fig 11
Calculate:
i) The total capacitance of the circuit. (3mks)

0795491185/0768321553
ii) The total charge stored in the circuit. (3mks)

iii) The potential differences across 2µF capacitor. (2mks)

15. (a) Explain how sound reaches our ears. (2 marks)

(b) State two characteristics of sound waves. (2 marks)

(c) Wambua strikes a steel super bridge with a hammer. If the speed of sound in steel is 5,200
m/s, determine the time taken for the sound to reach another Samuel 2.6 km far off the bridge
with his ear on the rail. (2 marks)

0795491185/0768321553
(d) A boy whistles once at a distance 250 m from a vertical cliff. If the temperature in the
surrounding is 50C .If the speed of sound = (331.5m/s at 00c) the speed in air increases at about
0.6 m/s per 0C,

(i) Determine the distance travelled by sound. (2 marks)

(ii) Determine the speed travelled at 50C. (2 marks)

(iii) Calculate the time taken for the boy to hear the echo. (2 marks)

0795491185/0768321553
16. a) Define electric current (1mks)

b. The figure below shows an electric circuit with two bulbs B1 and B2 which are identical.

B1 B2

Fig 12
Explain what happens to the bulbs when
i. S1 only is closed (2mks)

ii. S1 and S2 are closed (2mks)

b. The figure below shows an electric circuit. Use the circuit to determine the current
supplied by the battery (3mks)

Fig 13

0795491185/0768321553
17. a) Figure 14 below shows a series of wave fronts one wavelength apart approaching a gap
between barriers in ripple tank.

Figure 14

On the same diagram, show what happens when the waves pass through the gap. (1 mark)

b) Some plane water waves were produced in a ripple tank. They pass from a region of deep
water into a region of shallow water. Figure 15.0 shows what the waves look like from
above.

Fig 15

State what happens at the boundary to

i) the frequency of the waves (1 mark)

ii) the speed of the waves (1 mark)

iii) the wavelength of the waves (1 mark)

18. (a) State three factors that affect the strength of an electromagnet. (3marks)

0795491185/0768321553
(b) In the set up below, the suspended metre rule is in equilibrium balanced by the magnet
and the weight shown. The iron core is fixed to the bench:

Thread

Magne
N
S
t
Soft Weigh
iron core t

Fig 16

(i) State and explain the effect on the metre rule when the switch S, is closed.(2marks)

(ii) What would be the effect of reversing the battery terminals? (1mark)

(c) The figure below shows two parallel current carrying conductors A and B placed close to
each other. The direction of the current is into the plane of the paper.

A B

On the same figure;

(i) Sketch the magnetic field pattern. (1mark)

(ii) Indicate the force F due to the current on each conductor. (1mark)

0795491185/0768321553
PRE-MOCKS
232/3
PHYSICS PAPER 3

CONFIDENTIAL
The teacher should make sure that the following apparatus are available

QUESTION ONE
- A bare copper wire of diameter 0.71 mm (SWG 22) and length 50cm.
- A retort stand, boss and clamp
- An optical pin mounted on a cork
- A stop watch
- Wire cutters /pliers(to be shared)
- A metre rule or half metre rule
- A cylindrical container
- Some water
- a boiling tube
- some sand(in 100ml beaker)
- Spatula
- a rubber band

QUESTION TWO
- A 250 cm3 beaker
- Water
- Screen
- Candle

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Name……………………………………………………………..Adm. No………………….

PRE-MOCKS
232/3

PHYSICS PAPER 3

TIME : 2 ½ HOURS

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES

1. Write your name and admission number in the spaces provided.

2. Answer all the questions in the spaces provided.
3. You are supposed to spend the first 15 minutes of the 2 ½ hours allowed for this paper reading
the whole paper clearly before commencing your work.
4. Non – programmable silent electronic calculators and KNEC mathematical tables may be used.
5. Candidates are advised to record their observations as soon as they are made.

QUESTION 1

This question consists of part A and B.

Attempt both parts.

PART A

You are provided with the following:

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- A bare copper wire of diameter 0.71 mm (SWG 22) and length 50cm.
- A retort stand, boss and clamp
- An optical pin mounted on a cork
- A stop watch
- Wire cutters /pliers(to be shared)
- A metre rule or half metre rule

Proceed as follows:

(a) Clamp the cork so that optical pin is horizontal. Hang the copper wire from the pin by the loop as
shown in figure 1. Ensure the wire is straight and the length X between the lower tip and the
optical pin is 32 cm. if the length exceeds 32 cm reduce by cutting at the lower tip using the wire
cutters provided.

(b) Displace the lower tip of the wire slightly in a plane perpendicular to the optical pin and then
release it. Measure the time t=10 oscillations of the wire and record the value in table 1.

(c) Repeat the procedure in (b) above for other values of X shown in the table. (Note that each
length X is obtained by cutting off an appropriate length from the lower tip of the wire.
For example to get X= 28 cm cut off 4 cm from the lower end). Complete the table.
(5 Marks)

Table 1
Length X cm 32 28 24 20 16 12
Time t for 10
oscillations (s)
𝑡
Period T= (s)
10

T2 (S2)

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(d) Plot a graph of T2 (y-axis) against X (metres) on the graph paper provided. (5 marks)

(e) i) Determine the slope, S, of the graph. (3 marks)

8𝜋
ii) Obtain the value of K in the equation S= (2marks)
3𝑘

PART B
You are provided with the following:

- A cylindrical container (about 20cm high and diameter 8cm or more)- used plastic
containers can be used by cutting the upper section
- Some water
- A stop watch
- A metre rule or half-metre rule
- A boiling tube

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- Some sand (in 100ml beaker)
- Spatula
- A rubber band
Proceed as follows:

(f) Tie the rubber band round the boiling tube so that it is at a distance L =12 cm from the bottom of
the tube (see fig 2a). Pour water into the cylindrical container until the level is about 2.0 cm from
the top of the beaker. Float the boiling tube in the water in the container. Add sand gradually into
the boiling tube until the tube sinks to the 12 cm mark. See figure 2(b).

(g) Depress the boiling tube slightly and release so that it oscillates vertically without touching the
sides of the container. Measure and record in table 2 the time t1, for five oscillations of the
boiling tube. Repeat the procedure two more times to obtain t2 and t3 and record the values in
table 2. Complete the table. (3 marks)

40𝐿
(h) Evaluate P= given that L is the length of the tube in metres up to the rubber band in part (f)
𝑇2
and T is the value obtained in (g) above.
(2 marks)

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QUESTION TWO

You are provided with the following.

- A 250 cm3 beaker

- Water
- a metre rule
- Screen
- Candle
i) Add 200cm3 of water to the vessel and obtain ‘h’ the height in centimetres of the water above the
base of the vessel. Determine the appropriate value of R, the internal radius in centimetres from the
formulae;

h= _________________________ cm (1 Marks)

R=_______________________cm (1 Marks)

This experiment uses a cylindrical vessel, filled with water as a lens and compare its radius with the
effective focal length.

ii) Set the apparatus as shown in diagram below:

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Set u to be about 10R away from the Centre of the ‘lens’ and adjust the position of the screen to locate
the image formed. The image is a sharp vertical line. Measure u and v from the Centre of the vessel.
Repeat the experiment with the follow multiples of R. and record all values of u and V in the table
below: (8 marks)

10R 9R 8R 7R 6R 5R 4R 3R
U (cm)
V (cm)
NB: Any other appropriate value of u depending on the value of R obtained can be awarded.

iii) Plot a graph of u (cm) against v (cm). (5 marks)

iv) From the graph determine

a) ‘V’ the value of V for which v=u (1 Mark)

b) ‘U’ the value of U for which u=2v (1 Mark)

′ 𝑢′ +′𝑣′
v) Determine the effective focal length of the ‘lens’ from the formulae f= (2 Marks)
5

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𝑅
vi) Hence determine the value of (1 Mark)
𝑓

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