FPPL Question Bank

1. A light aeroplane’s Certificate of Airworthiness:

(a) Will not expire under any circumstances.

(b) Is valid indefinitely, provided that the aircraft is maintained, repaired or modified in an approved manner.
(c) Is valid for the period specified on the certificate.
(d) Expires after ten years.

2. A PPL may carry out certain minor repairs and services, these are:

(a) Listed in the Certificate of Maintenance Review. The aeroplane concerned must weigh less than 5,700 kg and not used for public transport.
(b) Listed in the Pilot’s Operating Handbook.The aeroplane concerned must weigh less than 2,730kg.
(c) Listed in the Air Navigation(General) Regulations. The aeroplane concerned must weigh less than 5,700 kg.
(d) Listed in the Air Navigation (General) Regulations.The aeroplane concerned must weigh less than 2,730 kg and not be used for public transport.

3. The details of any minor repairs or services carried out by a private pilot:

(a) Must be recorded in the aircraft logbook if it relates to a primary control system.
(b) Must be entered in the aircraft logbook and certified by the pilot concerned, together with the pilot’s signature and licence number.
(c) Must be entered in the aircraft logbook and certified by a licensed engineer, together with the engineer’s signature and licence number.
(d) Does not need not be recorded.

4. A Certificate of Release to Service:

(a) Must be signed by a licensed PPL following any minor repairs.

(b) Is issued by the aircraft owner following any maintenance.
(c) Is issued by the aircraft operator following any maintenance.
(d) Is issued by a licensed engineer following any maintenance or inspection.

5. In relation to aircraft documents:

(a) All aircraft documents must be carried in the aircraft at all times.
(b) Only the Flight Manual must be carried at all times.
(c) The aircraft documents, excluding the Flight Manual, must be carried unless you are taking off from, and returning to, the same aerodrome.
(d) The aircraft documents, including the Flight Manual, must be carried unless you are taking off from, and returning to, the same aerodrome.

6. The green arc on the airspeed indicator shows the:

(a) VNE range.

(b) Caution range.
(c) Flap operating range.
(d) Normal operating range.

7. The yellow arc on the airspeed indicator shows the:

(a) Caution range.

(b) VNE range.
(c) Normal operating range.
(d) Flap operating range.

8. Which of the following are signs of an overstressed airframe?

(a) Skin wrinkles, cracks and popped rivets.

(b) Peeling paint, scratches and rust.
(c) Missing rivets, cracks and dents.
(d) Dents, rust and scratches.

9. What is VNE?

(a) It is the bottom of the normal operating range.

(b) It is the maximum speed at which flaps may be used.
(c) It is the maximum speed at which the aircraft may be flown under normal operating conditions.
(d) It is the absolute maximum speed at which the aircraft may be flown.

10. In a 60° level turn the structural load increases:

(a) Twofold.
(b) Four times.
(c) By a factor of 1.5.
(d) Threefold.

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11. Why must caution be exercised when operating in turbulent conditions?

(a) Gusts may over stress the airframe.

(b) Stresses on the airframe are increased, plus gusts may suddenly increase the angle of attack and wing loading, leading to the possibility of stalling.
(c) Stresses on the airframe are reduced, plus gusts may suddenly reduce the angle of attack and wing loading leading to the possibility of stalling.
(d) Sudden changes in the relative airflow will make navigation difficult.

12. High air density improves aircraft performance. Which of the following factors will increase the air density?

(a) Increased altitude, high humidity and high temperatures.

(b) Low humidity, low altitude and low temperatures.
(c) High altitude, low temperatures and high pressure.
(d) Low pressure, high humidity and low altitude.

13. The International Standard Atmosphere sets out:

(a) Theoretical values for temperature, pressure and density at all altitudes.
(b) Ambient sea level values for temperature, pressure and density at all altitudes.
(c) Actual values for temperature, pressure and density at all altitudes.
(d) Ambient values for temperature, pressure and density at all altitudes.

14. If the QNH is 1003 hPa, the aerodrome elevation 320 feet, what is the pressure altitude at aerodrome elevation?

(a) 300 feet.

(b) 20 feet.
(c) 620 feet.
(d) 420 feet.

15. If the QNH is 1028 hPa, the aerodrome elevation 320 feet what is the pressure altitude at aerodrome elevation?

(a) -130 feet.

(b) 450 feet.
(c) 770 feet.
(d) 330 feet.

16. The actual outside air temperature at 4,000 feet is +5°C. How does this compare to the ISA?

(a) ISA +2.

(b) ISA -2.
(c) ISA +4.
(d) ISA -4.

17. What does the following definition describe? “The length of the take-off run available plus the length of the clearway if provided”.

(a) Accelerate/stop distance available (ASDA).

(b) Take-off run available (TORA).
(c) The full runway length.
(d) Take-off distance available (TODA).

18. The Take-Off Safety Speed is:

(a) The speed at which the main gear will leave the runway.
(b) Provides at least a 20% margin of safety above the stall.
(c) The speed required to clear a 50 foot obstacle.
(d) At least 20% of the stalling speed.

19. In comparison to a flapless take off, using a small flap setting for take-off will:

(a) Reduce the stalling, lift off and take off safety speeds.
(b) Reduce the stalling speed, but increase the lift off and take off safety speeds.
(c) Increase the stalling, lift off and take off safety speeds.
(d) Reduce the stalling and lift off speeds, but will increase the take-off safety speed.

20. Increasing an aircraft’s weight by 10% will have what effect on its take-off distance?

(a) Take off distance will reduce by 43%.

(b) Take off distance will increase by 20%.
(c) Take off distance will increase by 33%.
(d) Take off distance will reduce by 20%.

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21. An important reason for taking off into a headwind is:

(a) To enable the aircraft to lift off at a higher ground speed and have a longer ground run.
(b) To enable the aircraft to lift off at a lower ground speed and have a longer ground run.
(c) To enable the aircraft to lift off at a higher ground speed and have a shorter ground run.
(d) To enable the aircraft to lift off at a lower ground speed and have a shorter ground run.

22. When using runway 27, the surface wind is 300° at 28 knots. What is the approximate crosswind component?

(a) 20 knots.
(b) 14 knots.
(c) 7 knots.
(d) 10 knots.

23. Using a runway with an up slope will lead to:

(a) A shorter landing distance, but a longer take off distance.

(b) A longer landing distance, and a longer take off distance.
(c) A shorter landing distance, and a shorter take off distance.
(d) A longer landing distance, but a shorter take off distance.

24. VAT, the target threshold speed, will provide a margin above the stalling speed in the landing configuration of:

(a) 10%.
(b) 25%.
(c) 30%.
(d) 50%.

25. It is recommend that when calculating take-off distance, a take- off safety factor should be applied. What is the take-off safety factor?

(a) 1.15.
(b) 1.5.
(c) 1.33.
(d) 1.43.

26. By how much should you expect the landing distance to increase when landing on short, wet grass?

(a) 60%.
(b) 50%.
(c) 40%.
(d) 30%.

27. In a piston engine aircraft to fly for maximum endurance a pilot should select:

(a) The speed corresponding to the maximum power available.

(b) The speed corresponding to the minimum power as this will give the minimum fuel consumption.
(c) The minimum drag speed.
(a) The speed corresponding to the maximum power as this will give the greatest distance for time available.

28. In a piston engine aircraft, to fly for maximum range, a pilot should select:

(a) The minimum drag speed.

(b) A speed just above the stalling speed.
(c) A speeed just below the minimum drag speed.
(d) VNO.

29. The best rate of climb:

(a) Gains the greatest amount of height in the greatest distance over the ground and depends on excess power available.
(b) Gains the greatest amount of height in the shortest time and will occur where maximum excess power is available.
(c) Gains the greatest amount of height in the shortest distance over the ground and will occur at the maximum L:D ratio.
(d) Gains the greatest amount of height with the greatest horizontal speed and will occur at the maximum L:D ratio.

30. In relation to maximum range:

(a) A tailwind will require a slightly faster speed to be adopted.

(b) The wind will have no effect.
(c) A crosswind will require a slightly faster speed to be adopted.
(d) A headwind will require a slightly faster speed to be adopted.

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31. An overweight aircraft will:

(a) Have a longer take off run and a lower take off speed.
(b) Have a lower stalling speed, but a higher take off speed.
-(c) Handle and perform poorly and if flown may suffer structural damage.
(d) Have good climb performance and a greater endurance.

32. The Basic Empty Mass includes:

(a) Airframe, engine, pilot and passengers, cargo and unusable fuel.
(b) Airframe, engine, fixed equipment, full oil and unusable fuel.
(c) Airframe, engine, fixed equipment, pilot and passengers, baggage and fuel.
(d) Airframe, engine, fixed equipment, pilot and passengers, full oil and full fuel.

33. What is the MTOM?

(a) The Maximum Take-Off Mass, the maximum allowable gross mass for take-off.
(b) The Minimum Take-Off Mass, the minimum allowable gross mass for take-off.
(c) The Maximum Taxi-Out Mass, the maximum allowable gross mass for leaving the apron, allowance is made for fuel burn before departure.
(d) The Minimum Taxi-Out Mass, the minimum allowable gross mass for leaving the apron.

34. An aircraft loaded so that the CG is at the forward limit will:

(a) Be very stable in pitch and require only small elevator forces during the flare.
(b) Experience a reduction in the stalling speed.
(c) Experience a decrease in longitudinal stability.
(d) Be very stable in pitch and require high elevator forces during the flare.

35. An aircraft loaded so that the CG is at the aft limit will:

(a) Be less stable in pitch.

(b) Have a higher stalling speed.
(c) Require an increase in elevator force required during the flare.
(d) Be more stable in pitch.

36. Wake turbulence:

(a) Is not associated with helicopter operations.

(b) Only occurs when an aircraft is airborne.
(c) Starts when an aeroplane’s main gear leaves the ground.
(d) Occurs when an aircraft is creating lift, or when a helicopter is hovering.

37. In which of the following situations will the effect of wake turbulence be greatest?

(a) A light aeroplane, flying fast, strong wind conditions and zero flap.
(b) A light aeroplane, flying slowly, with flaps in the landing configuration.
(c) A heavy aeroplane, flying slowly,light wind conditions and zero flap.
(d) A heavy aeroplane in the landing configuration, flying slowly.

38. Wake vortices are especially hazardous:

(a) In calm or crosswind conditions.

(b) In strong winds.
(c) In strong wind straight down the runway.
(d) In cold and humid conditions.

39. Wake turbulence:

(a) Is not generated by helicopters

(b) Can be a danger to light aircraft operating within 3 rotor diameters of a hovering helicopter.
(c) Is proportional to aircraft speed.
(d) Stops when the main gear of a landing aircraft touches down.

40. Wing tip vortices:

(a) Drift apart, upwind and up behind the generating aircraft.

(b) Drift together, upwind and down behind the generating aircraft.
(c) Drift apart, downwind and down behind the generating aircraft.
(d) Drift together, downwind and up behind the generating aircraft.

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41. The pilot of a light aircraft should avoid a large aircraft’s flight path by:

(a) Remaining atleast 1,000 feet above and 6 miles behind the heavy traffic.
(b) Maintaining at least 500 feet below.
(c) Flying at least 200 feet above or 1,000 feet below.
(d) Flying at least 1,000 feet above or 200 feet below.

42. Ground effect will result in:

(a) In increase in both lift and drag.

(b) An increase in lift and a reduction in drag.
(c) A reduction in lift and an increase in drag.
(d) A reduction in both lift and drag.

43. A low wing aircraft, when compared to a high wing, is affected:

(a) More by ground effect.

(b) Less by ground effect and will tend to float meaning more runway is used when landing.
(c) Will not be affected by ground effect.
(d) Less by ground effect and tending to balloon on landing.

44. Climbing out after take-off, an aircraft is subjected to windshear with an increase in tailwind. Without pilot intervention, the
aircraft will experience:

(a) An increased rate of climb and an increase in indicated airspeed.

(b) A decreased rate of climb and a decrease in indicated airspeed.
(c) A decreased rate of climb and increase in indicated airspeed.
(d) An increased rate of climb and decrease in indicated airspeed.

45. You encounter windshear on final approach meaning that at 1,000 feet a 30 knot headwind component changes to a 10 knot tailwind
component. What will the effect be on your aircraft’s airspeed?

(a) The airspeed will increase rapidly.

(b) The airspeed will increase slowly.
(c) The airspeed will remain the same.
(d) The airspeed will reduce rapidly.

46. Which of the following meteorological phenomena may lead to windshear?

(a) Occluded fronts, rain and microbursts.

(b) Thunderstorms.
(c) Thunderstorms, marked temperature inversions, frontal passage, virga, microbursts and strong winds.
(d) Thunderstorms, temperature inversions, fog and virga.

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