1-The operating mass of an aircraft is:

A) The empty mass plus the take-off fuel mass

B) The dry operating mass plus the take-off fuel mass
C) The empty mass plus the trip fuel mass
D) The empty mass plus crew, crew baggage and catering
2-Dry Operating Mass is the mass of the aeroplane less:

A) usable fuel
B) traffic load, potable water and lavatory chemicals
C) usable fuel and traffic load
D) usable fuel, potable water and lavatory chemicals
3-The Zero Fuel Mass and the Dry Operating Mass:

A) are the same value

B) differ by the value of the traffic load mass
C) differ by the mass of usable fuel
D) differ by the sum of the mass of usable fuel plus traffic load mass
4-The Basic Empty Mass is the mass of the aeroplane ...

A) plus non-standard items such as lubricating oil, fire extinguishers,

emergency oxygen equipment etc
B) minus non-standard items such as lubricating oil, fire extinguishers,
emergency oxygen equipment etc
C) plus standard items such as unusable fluids, fire extinguishers,
emergency oxygen equipment, supplementary electronics etc
D) minus non-standard items such as unusable fluids, fire extinguishers,
emergency oxygen and supplementary electronic equipment etc
5-The Regulated Take-off Mass:

A) the maximum structural take-off mass subject to any last minute mass
changes
B) is the lower of maximum structural take-off mass and the performance
limited take-off mass
C) the maximum performance limited take-off mass subject to any last
minute mass changes
D) is the higher of the maximum structural zero fuel mass and the
performance limited takeoff mass
6-Traffic load is the:

A) Dry Operating Mass minus the disposable load

B) Take-off Mass minus Zero Fuel Mass
C) Dry Operating Mass minus the variable load
D) Zero Fuel Mass minus Dry Operating Mass
7-Define the useful load.
A) Dry operating mass plus usable fuel load
B) Traffic load plus dry operating mass
C) That part of the traffic load which generates revenue
D) Traffic load plus usable fuel mass
8-The term 'Maximum Zero Fuel Mass' consist of:

A) The maximum permissible mass of an aeroplane with no usable fuel

B) The maximum mass authorized for a certain aeroplane not including the
fuel load and operational items
C) The maximum mass for some aeroplanes including the fuel load and the
traffic load
D) The maximum mass authorized for a certain aeroplane not including
traffic load and fuel load
9-For a repetitive flight plan (RPL) to be used, flights must take place on a regular basis on at least:

A) 30 occasions
B) 20 occasions
C) 50 occasions
D) 10 occasions
10-If the destination airport has no ICAO indicator, in box 16 of your ATS flight plan, you write:

A) ////
B) ZZZZ
C) AAAA
D) XXXX
11-Prior to an IFR flight, when filling in the ICAO flight plan, the time information which should be
entered in box 16 (total elapsed time) is the time elapsed from:

A) taxi out prior to take-off until the IAF

B) take-off until reaching the IAF (initial approach fix) of the destination
aerodrome
C) take-off until landing
D) taxi-out prior to take-off until completion off taxi-ing after landing
12-In the ATS flight plan Item 15, a cruising speed of 470 knots will be entered as:

A) N470
B) KN470
C) 0470K
D) N0470
13-An aircraft has a maximum certificated take-off mass of 137000 kg but is operating at take-off
mass 135000 kg.
In Item 9 of the ATS flight plan its wake turbulence category is:

A) medium (M)
B) heavy/medium (H/M)
C) medium plus (M+)
D) heavy (H)
14-On an ATC flight plan, the letter Y is used to indicate that the flight is carried out under the
following flight rules:
A) IFR followed by VFR
B) VFR followed by IFR
C) VFR
D) IFR
15-In the ATS flight plan item 10 (standard equipment) is considered to be :

A) VHF RTF, ADF, VOR and transponder

B) VHF RTF, VOR, ILS and transponder
C) VHF RTF, ADF, VOR and ILS
D) VHF RTF, VOR, ILS and transponder
16-For a radio equipped aircraft, the identifier in the ATS flight plan item 7 must always:

A) include the operating agency designator

B) include an indication of the aircraft type
C) be the RTF callsign to be used
D) include the aircraft registration
17-In an ATS flight plan, Item 15 (route), a cruising pressure altitude of 32000 feet would be entered
as:

A) 32000
B) S3200
C) FL320
D) F320
18-When completing an ATS flight plan, an elapsed time (Item 16) of 1 hour 55 minutes should be
entered as:

A) 0155
B) 115M
C) 0115
D) 1H55
19-The speed VS is defined as

A) speed for best specific range

B) design stress speed
C) stalling speed or minimum steady flight speed at which the aeroplane is
controllable
D) safety speed for take-off in case of a contaminated runway
20-Clearway length is limited by:

A) A load bearing strength less than that of the runway

B) The first obstacle likely to damage the aeroplane in the event of a
continued take-off after engine failure
C) The first obstacle likely to damage the aircraft in the event of an
abandoned take-off after engine failure
D) A ditch located at the end of ASDA
21-If the anti-skid system is inoperative:

A) the landing distance required will be unchanged because anti-skid is not

 taken account of in determining landing performance
B) the landing distance required will decrease
C) the landing distance required will increase
D) the landing distance required will only increase on runways that are wet
or precipitation covered
22-Regarding take-off, the take-off decision speed V1:

A) Is the airspeed on the ground at which the pilot is assumed to have made
a decision to continue or discontinue the take-off
B) Is the airspeed of the aeroplane upon reaching 35 feet above the take-off
surface
C) Is an airspeed at which the aeroplane is airborne but below 35 ft and the
pilot is assumed to have made a decision to continue or discontinue the
take-off
D) Is always equal to VEF (Engine Failure speed)
23-Take-off distance available is:

A) TORA
B) the distance from brake release point to 35ft screen height
C) TORA plus stopway
D) TORA plus clearway
24-What will happen to VX and VY if the landing gear is extended?

A) VX increases, VY decreases
B) VX decreases and VY increases
C) VX and VY decrease
D) VX and VY increase
25-V2 has to be equal to or higher than:

A) VMCA
B) 1.15 VR
C) VSO
D) 1.15 VMCG
26-V1 has to be:

A) higher than VR
B) equal to or higher than VMCA
C) equal to or higher than VMCG
D) equal to or higher than V2
27-The rotation speed (Vr):

A) must not be more than 1.05 Vmca

B) must not be less than 1.05 Vmca
C) is the airspeed at which the aeroplane lifts off the ground
D) is always equal to V1 for aeroplanes with 2 engines
28-The take-off decision speed V1 is:
A) a chosen limit. If an engine failure is recognized before reaching V1 the
take-off must be aborted
B) sometimes greater than the rotation speed VR
C) not less than V2min, the minimum take-off safety speed
D) a chosen limit. If an engine failure is recognized after reaching V1 the
take-off must be aborted
29-ASDA is defined as:

A) TODA plus stopway

B) TORA plus clearway
C) the same as TODA
D) TORA plus stopway
30-The stopway is an area which allows an increase only in :

A) the take-off distance available

B) the accelerate-stop distance available
C) the landing distance available
D) the take-off run available
31-Which statement regarding V1 is correct?

A) When determining the V1, reverse thrust is only allowed to be taken into
account on the remaining symmetric engines
B) V1 is not allowed to be greater than VMCG
C) The V1 correction for up-slope is negative
D) V1 is not allowed to be greater than VR
32-A clearway:

A) Need not have the same weight bearing qualities as the runway with
which it is associated
B) Provides an area over which an aeroplane can safely transit from lift off
to the required height
C) May be water
D) All of the above
33-What is the advantage of a balanced field length condition?

A) A balanced field length gives the minimum required field length in the
event of an engine failure
B) A balanced take-off provides the lowest elevator input force requirement
for rotation
C) For a balanced field length the required take-off runway length always
equals the available runway length
D) A balanced field length provides the greatest margin between " net" and "
gross" take-off flight paths
34-he speed V1 is:

A) the speed at which rotation to the unstick attitude is initiated

B) the stalling speed with the flaps in a prescribed position
C) the speed at which, with the critical engine inoperative, the TODR will not
exceed the TODA, the TORR will not exceed the TORA and the ASDR will
not exceed the ASDA
D) the critical speed for engine failure during take off
35-Which take-off speed is affected by the presence or absence of stopway and/or clearway?

A) V2
B) VMCA
C) V1
D) VMC
G
36-Minimum control speed on ground, VMCG, is based on directional control being maintained
by:

A) nosewheel steering only

B) primary aerodynamic control, nosewheel steering and differential braking
C) primary aerodynamic control and nosewheel
D) primary aerodynamic control only
37-A stopway is:

A) An extension to the take-off runway free of obstacles but not capable of

supporting the aeroplane in the event of an aborted take-off
B) An extension to the take-off runway capable of supporting the aeroplane
during an aborted take-off
C) An extension to the Take-off runway free of obstacles
D) An extension to the take-off runway free of obstacles which can be used
to extend the take-off run
38-For a twin-engine class B aircraft the rotation speed Vr must not be less than:

A) 1,05Vmc or 1,2Vs1
B) the stalling speed with the flaps in the take-off position (Vs1)
C) 1,05Vmc or 1,1Vs1
D) 1,1Vmc or 1,2Vs1
39-Which of the following will decrease V1?

A) Increased take-off mass

B) Increased outside air temperature
C) Inoperative flight management system
D) Inoperative anti-skid
40-Changing the take-off flap setting from flap 15° to flap 5° will normally result in:

A) a longer take-off distance and a better climb

B) a shorter take-off distance and an equal climb
C) a shorter take-off distance and a better climb
D) a better climb and an equal take-off distance
41-he lift-off speed and take-off safety speed (V2) when flap position is changed from 10° to 5°
will:

A) decrease and decrease

B) increase and decrease
C) decrease and increase
D) increase and increase
42-What is the effect of increased weight on (i) ROC and (ii) best ROC speed?

A) u(i) increases, (ii) increases

B) u(i) reduces, (ii) increases
C) u(i) reduces, (ii) reduces
D) u(i) increases, (ii) reduces
43-What is the effect of increasing the flap setting on (i) gradient and (ii) rate of climb?

A) (i) decreases, (ii) decreases

B) (i) does not change, (ii) decreases
C) (i) decreases, (ii) does not change
D) (i) increases, (ii) increases
44-What is the effect of extending flaps on VX and VY?

A) VX decreases and VY increases

B) VX increases and VY decreases
C) VX increases and VY increases
D) VX decreases and VY decreases
45-Maximum and minimum values of V1 are limited by:

A) VR and VMCA
B) V2 and VMCG
C) VR and VMCG
D) V2 and VMCA
46-If not VMBE or Vmcg limited, what would V1 be limited by:

A) V2
B) VMU
C) VR
D) Vmca
47-Which of the following statements is correct :

A) If the aircraft is rotated before VR to the normal attitude, the take off
distance required will be reduced
B) If the aircraft is rotated after VR to the normal attitude, the take off
distance required will be increased
C) If the aircraft is rotated after VR to a greater than normal attitude, the
take off distance will be reduced
D) If the aircraft is rotated before VR to a greater than normal attitude, the
take off distance required will be reduced
48-The speed V2 of a jet aeroplane must be greater than:

A) 1.05VLOF
B) 1.2VMCG
C) 1.2Vs
D) 1.3V1

49-VR cannot be lower than:

A) 1.15 Vs for turbo-prop with three or more engines

B) V1 and 105% of VMCA
C) 105% of V1 and VMCA
D) 1.2 Vs for twin and three engine jet aeroplane
50-With a decreased flap setting from 20° to 10° on take off the effect will be:

A) VLOF would decrease

B) VLOF would increase but V2 would decrease
C) VLOF and V2 would both increase
D) VLOF would decrease and V2 would increase
51-Vr for transport category aircraft must be at least:

A) less than V1
B) 1.2 x Vmca
C) 1.05 x Vth
D) 1.05 x Vmca
52-Which of the following statements is correct?

A) A stopway means an area beyond the take-off runway, able to support

the aeroplane during an aborted take-off
B) A clearway is an area beyond the runway which can be used for an
aborted take-off
C) An under run is an area beyond the runway end which can be used for an
aborted take-off
D) If a clearway or a stopway is used, the lift-off point must be attainable at
least at the end of the permanent runway surface
53-Which of the following statements is correct?

A) A stopway means an area beyond the take-off runway, able to support

the aeroplane during an aborted take-off
B) A clearway is an area beyond the runway which can be used for an
aborted take-off
C) An under run is an area beyond the runway end which can be used for an
aborted take-off
D) If a clearway or a stopway is used, the lift-off point must be attainable at
least at the end of the permanent runway surface
54-Which of the following is true with regard to VMCA (air minimum control speed)?
A) The aeroplane will not gather the minimum required climb gradient
B) VMCA only applies to four-engine aeroplanes
C) Straight flight can not be maintained below VMCA, when the critical
engine has failed
D) The aeroplane is uncontrollable below VMCA
55-Clearway may not exceed:

A) 50% TODA
B) 50% TORA
C) 150% ASDA
D) 50% ASDA
56-Which is the correct sequence of speeds during take-off?

A) V1, VR, VMCG, V2

B) V1, VR, V2, VMCA
C) V1, VMCG, VR, V2
D) VMCG, V1, VR, V2
57-The speed Vmu is (class A):

A) the maximum speed for flight with the undercarriage extended

B) the minimum speed at which the aircraft can safely lift off the ground
C) the minimum speed at which the elevators can rotate the aircraft until
the tail skid is in contact with the runway
D) the maximum speed at which the aircraft should become airborne
58-If the flap setting is changed from 10º to 20º , V2MIN will:

A) decrease if not limited by VMC

B) increase
C) remain the same
D) increase or decrease
59-Which of the following represents the maximum value for V1 assuming max tyre speed and
max brake energy speed are not limiting?

A) VR
B) VMCA
C) VREF
D) V2
60-Which are the two most important parameters to determine the value of VMCG?

A) Air density and rudder deflection

B) Engine thrust and air density
C) Engine thrust and flap setting
D) Engine thrust and rudder deflection
61-Compared with still air, a tailwind will cause the value of V1 to:

A) decrease
B) a take-off with tailwind is not permitted
C) remain unchanged
D) increase
62-he minimum value of V2 (class A):

A) must not be less than 1,1Vmc or 1,2Vs

B) must not be less than 1,1Vmu or 1,2Vs
C) must not be less than 1,1Vs of 1,2Vmc
D) must not be less than 1,1Vlof or 1,2Vs
63-The 'maximum tyre speed' limits:

A) VLOF in terms of ground speed

B) V1 in kt TAS
C) V1 in kt ground speed
D) VR, or VMU if this is lower than VR
64-Which of the following distances will increase if you increase V1?

A) All Engine Take-off distance

B) Take-off run
C) Take-off distance
D) Accelerate Stop Distance
67-If the anti-skid system is inoperative:

A) the landing distance required will be unchanged because anti-skid is not

taken account of in determining landing performance
B) the landing distance required will only increase on runways that are wet
or precipitation covered
C) the landing distance required will increase
D) the landing distance required will decrease
68-The navigation plan reads:
Trip fuel: 100 kg
Flight time: 1h35min
Taxi fuel: 3 kg
Block fuel: 181 kg

The endurance on the ICAO flight plan should read:

A) 2h 04min
B) 2h 49min
C) 2h 52min
D) 1h 35min
69-In the ATS flight plan Item 13, in a flight plan submitted before departure, the departure time
entered is the:

A) estimated time over the first point en route

B) estimated take-off time
C) allocated slot time
D) estimated off-block time
70-TOTAL ELAPSED TIME for an IFR flight, when filling in the ICAO flight plan at box 16, is
the time elapsed from:

A) taxiing until the IAF (Initial Approach Fix) of the destination aerodrome
B) taxi-out prior to take-off until taxiing after landing
C) take-off until reaching the IAF ( Initial Approach Fix) of the destination
aerodrome
D) take-off until landing
71-On a ATC flight plan, to indicate that you will overfly the way-point ROMEO at 120 kt at
flight level 085, you will write:

A) ROMEO / K0120 FL085

B) ROMEO / N0120 F085
C) ROMEO / F085 N0120
D) ROMEO / FL085 N0120
72-In the ATS flight plan item 15, when entering a route for which standard departure (SID) and
standard arrival (STAR) procedures exist:

A) STARS should be entered but not SIDs

B) SIDs should be entered but not STARs
C) neither SID nor STAR should be entered
D) both should be entered in the ATS plan where appropriate
73-Given the following flight plan information:
Trip fuel: 136 kg
Flight time: 2.75 hrs
Reserve fuel: 30% of trip
Fuel in tanks: minimum
Taxi fuel: 3 kg

State how ENDURANCE should be completed on the ICAO flight plan:

A) 0245
B) 0249
C) 0338
D) 0334
74-Refer to the ICAO Flight Plan Form)
Item 9 of the ATS flight plan includes NUMBER AND TYPE OF AIRCRAFT. In this case, the
NUMBER means:

A) the ICAO type designator number as set out in ICAO Doc 8643
B) the number of aircraft flying in a group
C) the registration number of the aircraft
D) the number of aircraft which will separately be using a repetitive flight
plan (RPL)
75-If a flight is subject to ATFM the flight plan should be filed:
A) 30 minutes
B) 60 minutes
C) 120 minutes
D) 180 minutes
76-How many hours in advance of departure time should a flight plan be filed in the case of
flights into areas subject to air traffic flow management (ATFM)?

A) 0:30 hours
B) 3:00 hours
C) 0:10 hours
D) 1:00 hour
77-The planned departure time from the parking area is 1815 UTC. The estimated take-off time
is 1825 UTC. The IFR flight plan must be filed with ATC at the latest at:

A) 1725 UTC
B) 1715 UTC
C) 1745 UTC
D) 1755 UTC
78-if a pilot lands at an aerodrome other than the destination aerodrome specified in the flight
plan, he must ensure that the ATS unit at the destination aerodrome is informed within a certain
number of minutes of his planned ETA at destination. This number of minutes is:

A) 10
B) 15
C) 30
D) 45
79-You have filed a flight plan for an uncontrolled flight and suffer a delay prior to departure.
After how long a delay must you restate your OBT?

A) 30 mins
B) 90 mins
C) 60 mins
D) 40 mins
80-In the ATS flight plan item 15, it is necessary to enter any point at which a change of cruising
speed takes place.
For this purpose a CHANGE OF SPEED is defined as:

A) 20 km per hour or 0.1 Mach or more

B) 5% TAS or 0.01 Mach or more
C) 10 % TAS or 0.05 Mach or more
D) 20 knots or 0.05 Mach or more