26-05-2024

5001CMD303001240007 MD

PHYSICS

SECTION-A

1) If and , then the angle between and is

(1) 90°
(2) 180°
(3) 120°
(4) zero

2) Which of these is a unit vector

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) All of these

3) is unit vector along positive x-axis. If , then what is ?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

4) The length of a diagonal of a rectangle of side 8 cm and 15 cm is-

(1) 23 cm
(2) 19 cm
(3) 17 cm
(4) None

5) If the sum of two unit vectors is a unit vector, then magnitude of difference is

(1)
(2)
(3) 1/
(4)

6) Given : When a vector is added to , we get a unit vector along positive x-axis.
Then, is–

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

7) A force of 5N acts on a particle along a direction making an angle of 60º with vertical. Its vertical
component be

(1) 10 N
(2) 3 N
(3) 4 N
(4) 2.5 N

8) A vector is rotated through an angle the magnitude of new vector is -

(1) 2A
(2) A
(3) A/2
(4) Zero

9) If and then magnitude of will be

(1) 5
(2)
(3) 10
(4) 25

10) The angle that the vector makes with x-axis :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

11) If y = 4x2 + 2x then slope of y-x graph at x = 1 is :

(1) 10
(2) 8
(3) 4
(4) 6

12) Value of cos (120°) is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

13) If y = x3 + 2x + 1 then at x = 1 is -

(1) 6
(2) 4
(3) 8
(4) 5

14) Which of the following are not a unit of time :-

(i) Second (ii) Light year (iii) Year (iv) Parsec

(1) (i, iv)

(2) (ii, iv)
(3) (ii, iii)
(4) (i, ii, iii)

15) π and e are

(1) Dimensional constant

(2) Dimensional variable
(3) Dimensionless constant
(4) Dimensionless variable
0
16) M LT–1 can be the dimension of :-
Momentum P= mv
Acceleration a = Δv/Δt

(1) Momentum
(2) Speed
(3) Angle
(4) Acceleration

17) The dimensional formula for kinetic energy is :-

(1) [M2L2T]
(2) [ML2T–2]
0
(3) [M L–1]
(4) [ML2T]

18) A dimensionless quantity:-

(1) Never has a unit

(2) Always has a unit
(3) May have a unit
(4) Does not exist

19) Which of the following is an fundamental quantity ?

(1) Force
(2) Velocity
(3) Length
(4) Density

20) SI unit of electric current is

(1) newton
(2) ampere
(3) mole
(4) candela

21) Light year is a unit of

(1) Time
(2) Speed
(3) Length
(4) None of these

22) In the SI system, the unit of temperature is :-

(1) Degree centrigrade

(2) Degree Celsius
(3) Kelvin
(4) Degree Fahrenheit

23) Unit of energy in SI system is :-

(1) erg
(2) calorie
(3) joule
(4) electron volt

24) Whose diagonals are mutually perpendicular

(1) rhombus
(2) rectangle
(3) parallelogram
(4) All

25) Refractive index of a medium what would be dimensions of ?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

26) Dimensional formula for angular momentum L is :– (L = Mvr), M is mass, v is velocity, r is

distance.

(1) ML2T–2
(2) ML2T–1
(3) MLT–1
0
(4) M L2T–2

27) KE = so shape of graph of KE verses velocity is

(1) Straight line

(2) Parabola
(3) Hyperbola
(4) Circle

28) Vector lies in which quadrant

(1) I
(2) II
(3) III
(4) IV

29) Match the column:

Column - I Column -II

(A) mN (P) nano-meter

(B) nm (Q) milli-newton

 (C) Nm (R) newton-meter
(1) (A) → P, (B) → Q, (C) → R
(2) (A) → R, (B) → P, (C) → Q
(3) (A) → Q, (B) → P, (C) → R
(4) (A) → Q, (B) → R, (C) → P

30) A force of 6 N and another of 8 N can be applied to produce the effect of a single force equal to :-

(1) 1 N
(2) 10 N
(3) 16 N
(4) 0 N

31) The magnitude of :

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) 1

32) (x5 + x4 + 7) equal to :-

(1) x6 + x5 + 7x
(2) 5x4 + 4x7 + 7

(3)
+ 7x
(4) 5x4 + 4x3

33)

(1) e100
(2) 0
(3) 100e99
(4) 1

34) Which of the following is usually a derived quantity?

(1) Mass
(2) Velocity
(3) Length
(4) Time

35) Which is a supplementary unit?

(1) radian
(2) steradian
(3) candela
(4) both (1) and (2)

SECTION-B

1) The value of is :-

(1) 1
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 2

2) The slope of straight line y = 3x + 4 is :–

(1) 3
(2)

(3)

(4)

3) The SI unit of momentum is :-

(P = mv)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

4) Consider two quantities A and B having different dimensions. Which mathematical operation
given below is physically meaningful?

(1) A + B
(2) A – B
(3) A/B
(4) None

5) The side of a square is increasing at the rate of 0.2 cm/s. The rate of increase of perimeter w.r.t.
time is :
(1) 0.2 cm/s
(2) 0.4 cm/s
(3) 0.6 cm/s
(4) 0.8 cm/s

6) The value of x which give maximum of the function is

(1) 0
(2) 1
(3)

(4)

7) The sum of the magnitudes of two forces acting at point is 18 and the magnitude of their resultant
is 12. If the resultant is at 90º with the force of smaller magnitude, what are the, magnitudes of
forces :

(1) 12, 5
(2) 14, 4
(3) 5, 13
(4) 10, 8

8) Find the area under the shaded region for curve

y = 3x2 :-

(1) 80
(2) 26
(3) 20
(4) 40

9) Find =?

(1)

(2)
(3)
(4) All of these

10) The slope of the tangent to the curve y = ln (sin x) at x = is :

(1) 1
(2) –1

(3)

(4) –ln

11) The equation of straight line as shown in figure :-

(1) 6x + 8y = 15
(2) 2y + 8x = 7
(3) 4x + 3y = 18
(4) 3y + 4x = 24

12) Convert density= 0.5 g/cc into MKS system :-

(1) 5 × 106
(2) 5 × 109
(3) 5 × 103
(4) 5 × 102

13) Dimensional formula of η in equation F = 6πηrv where F is force, r is radius and v is velocity :-

(1) MLT–1
(2) ML–1T–1
(3) ML–1T
(4) M–1L–1T–1

14) A force is given by F =at + bt2 where t is time. The dimensions of a and b are-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
15) Select correct option.

(1) Angle between and is 120°

(2) Angle between and is 60°
(3) Angle between and is 120°
(4) Angle between and is 120°.

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A

1) The radius of nucleus of will be-

(1) 1.2×10-15 m
(2) 2.7×10-15 m
(3) 10.8×10-15 m
(4) 4×10-15 m

2) The energy of a photon of light is _____ proportional to its frequency and ________ proportional to
its wavelength

(1) directly, directly

(2) inversely, inversely
(3) inversely, directly
(4) directly, inversely

3) The energy needed to excite a hydrogen atom from its ground state to its third excited state is-

(1) 12.1 eV
(2) 10.2 eV
(3) 0.85 eV
(4) 12.75 eV

4) Bohr's theory is not applicable to

(1) He
(2) Li2+
(3)
(4) Both (1) and (3)

5) Bohr's theory helped to explain why

(1) Electron having negative charge

(2) Most be the mass of the atom is in the nucleus
(3) Excited hydrogen gas gives off certain colour of light
(4) Atom combine to form molecules

6) What would be the radius of 2nd excited state in Li2+ ion?

(1) 0.529 Å
(2) 1.58 Å
(3) 0.2645 Å
(4) 0.5299Å

7) The line spectra of two elements are not identical because-

(1) The elements don't have the same number of newtons

(2) They have different mass number
(3) Their outermost electrons are at different energy levels
(4) They have different valencies

8) When the electrons of a hydrogen atom jumps from n = 4 to n = 1 state the number of spectral
lines emitted is

(1) 15
(2) 6
(3) 3
(4) 4

9) de Broglie wavelength is related to applied voltage is-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

10) If the kinetics energy of an electron is increased 4 times the wavelength of the de Broglie wave
associated with it would becomes:
(1) Four times
(2) Two times
(3) Half times
(4) one fourth times

11) The number of orbitals in n = 3 are

(1) 1
(2) 4
(3) 9
(4) 16

12) The designation of an orbital with n = 4 and l = 1 is

(1) 4d
(2) 4s
(3) 4f
(4) 4p

13) In potassium the order of energy level for 19th electron is

(1) 3s > 3d
(2) 4s < 3d
(3) 4s > 4p
(4) 4s = 3d

14) The orbital diagram in which aufbau principle is violated is-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

15) Going from K-shell to N-shell in case of H-atom

(1) K.E. decreases

(2) Total energy decreases
(3) Potential energy decreases
(4) None of these

16) The radiation of law frequency will be emitted in which transition of hydrogen atom

(1) n = 1 to n = 4
(2) n = 2 to n = 5
(3) n = 3 to n =1
(4) n = 5 to n = 2

17) En = 313.6/n2. If the value of

En = -34.84 then to which of the following values does 'n' correspond.

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

18) Which is correct for any H-like species:

(1) (E2 -E1) > (E3- E2) > (E4 -E3)

(2) (E2 -E1) < (E3- E2) < (E4 -E3)
(3) (E2 -E1) = (E3- E2) = (E4 -E3)

(4)
(E2 -E1) = (E3- E2) = (E4 -E3)

19) In which transition , one quantum of energy is emitted

(1) n = 4 → n = 2
(2) n = 3 → n = 1
(3) n = 4 → n = 1
(4) All of these

20) In H-atom , electron transits from 6th orbit to 2nd orbit in multi steps. Then total spectral lines
(without balmer series) will be

(1) 6
(2) 10
(3) 4
(4) 0

21) Which one of the following species will give a series of spectral lines similar to that of Mg2+.

(1) Al3+
(2) Na
(3) Mg+
(4) F
22) When an electron in H-atom jumps from n = 4 to n = 1, ultra violet light is emitted. If the
transition corresponds to n = 4 to n = 2 which of the following colours will be emitted.

(1) ultra violet

(2) green
(3) infrared
(4) no colour

23) In an electronic transition atom can not emit

(1) visible light

(2) γ - rays
(3) infrared light
(4) ultra violet light

24) If 9.9 eV energy is supplied to H-atom , the number of spectral lines emitted is equal to -

(1) 0
(2) 1
(3) 2
(4) 3

25) For a valid Bohr orbit, its circumference should be-

(1) = nλ
(2) =(n-1)λ
(3) >nλ
(4) <nλ

26) Heisenberg's uncertainity principle is not valid for

(1) moving electron

(2) motor car
(3) stationary particles
(4) Both (2) and (3)

27) Four quantum numbers of unpaired electrons of chlorine are:

n l m s

(I) 3 2 0
+

(II) 3 1 0
+
(III) 3 1 1 0

(IV) 3 0 -1
+
(1) I
(2) II
(3) III
(4) IV

28) Energy of atomic orbitals in a particular shell is in order

(1) s < p < d < f

(2) s > p > d > f
(3) p < d < f < s
(4) f > d > s > p

29) Spin angular momentum for electron

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None

30) Any nf -orbital can accomodate upto

(1) 14 electron
(2) six electron
(3) two electrons with parallel spin
(4) two electrons with opposite spin

31) Which orbital is represented by the complete wave function ψ420

(1) 4d
(2) 3d
(3) 4p
(4) 4s

32) The total spin resulting from a d9 configuration is

(1)

(2) 2
(3) 1

(4)

33) No. of all subshell of n + l = 7 is.

(1) 4
(2) 5
(3) 6
(4) 7

34) Which of the following series of transition in the spectrum of hydrogen atom falls in visible
region?

(1) Lymar series

(2) Balmer series
(3) Paschen series
(4) Brackett series

35) The number of protons, Neutrons and electrons in respectively are:

(1) 175, 104 and 71

(2) 71, 104 and 71
(3) 104, 71 and 71
(4) 71, 71 and 104

SECTION-B

1) Electronic configuration has violated:-

(1) Hund's rule

(2) Pauli's principle
(3) Aufbau principle
(4) (n + l) rule

2) The quantum number of 20th electron of Fe (Z = 26) would be

(1) 3, 2, –2, –1/2

(2) 3, 2, 0, +1/2
(3) 4, 0, 0, +1/2
(4) 4, 1, –1, +1/2

3) Which of the following transition neither shows absorption nor emission of energy in case of
hydrogen atom.

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) All the above

4) Which one represents ground state configuration?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

5) Which orbital has two angular nodal planes.

(1) s
(2) p
(3) d
(4) f

6) For H-atom, the energy required for the removal of electron from various subshells is given as
under:

The order of the energies would be

(1) E1 > E2 > E3

(2) E3 > E2 > E1
(3) E1 = E2 = E3
(4) None of these

7) An orbital with l = 0 is symmetrical about the:

(1) x-axis only

(2) y -axis only
(3) z-axis only
(4) The nucleus

8) Magnetic moment 2.84 BM is given by

(1) Ti3+
(2) Cr2+
(3) Co2+
(4) Ni2+

9) The angular momentum of electron in d-orbital is equal to

(1)

(2)

(3) 0

(4)

10) Which of the following pairs of d-orbitals will have electron density along the axis?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

11) Which of the following represent Uncertainty principle principle

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

12) Which of the following configuration follows the Hunds rule-

(1)
[He]

(2)
[He]

(3)
[He]

(4)
[He]

13) The ionisation potential of a singles ionised helium ion is equivalent to-

(1) Kinetic energy of first orbit

(2) Energy of last orbit
(3) Average energy in orbits
(4) Maximum energy in orbits
14) The explanation for the presence of three unpaired electrons in the nitrogen atom can be given
by

(1) Pauli's exclusion principle

(2) Hund's rule
(3) Aufbau's principle
(4) Uncertainity principle

15) Match list -I with list -II

List-I (quantum no.) List-II (orbital)

(a) n = 2, l = 1 (i) 2s

(b) n = 3, l = 2 (ii) 3s

(c) n = 3, l = 0 (iii) 2p

(d) n = 2, l = 0 (iv) 3d

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (a) -iii, (b) -iv, (c) - i, (d) -ii
(2) (a) -iv, (b) -iii, (c) - i, (d) -ii
(3) (a) -iv, (b) -iii, (c) - ii, (d) -i
(4) (a) -iii, (b) -iv, (c) - ii, (d) -i

BOTANY

SECTION-A

1) Microtubules help in

(1) Motility
(2) Form basal body
(3) Form mitotic spindle
(4) All

2) Material of nucleus stained by

(1) Acidic dye

(2) Basic dye
(3) Neutral dye
(4) None of these

3) Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Chromatin contain DNA and some basic protein called histones, some nonhistone
protein and also RNA.
Statement II: Material of nucleus stained by basic dyes was given name chromatin by Robert
Brown.
Choose the correct answer from the option given below:

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

4) In the following how many matching are correct:

(A) Flagella Axonems

(B) Mesosome Analogous to mitochondria

(C) 70S ribosome Subunit 40S and 30S

(D) Lysosomes Hydrolytic enzymes

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

5) Read the following statement and give correct answer regarding bacterial cell
(a) Glycocalyx is the outermost envelop in bacteria
(b) The glycocalyx could be a loose sheath called capsule
(c) The glycocalyx may be the thick and though called slime layer

(1) a correct
(2) a, b correct
(3) a, c correct
(4) b correct

6) Which of the following is not includes in endomembrane system:

(a) Golgi apparatus
(b) Endoplasmic Reticulum
(c) Mitochondria
(d) lysosome

(1) a only
(2) a and d only
(3) c only
(4) d only

7) Which of the following structure is an organelle within an organelle:

(1) Mesosome
(2) Mitochondria
(3) Ribosome
(4) Lysosome

8) Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Ribosomes are composed of RNA and proteins and are not surrounded by any
membrane.
Statement II: Eukaryotic ribosomes are 80S and prokaryotic ribosomes are 70S and are present in
cytoplasm.
Choose the correct answer from the option given below:

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

9) Which one is non-membranous cell organelle found in animal cell-

(1) Ribosome
(2) Centriole
(3) Nucleolous
(4) All

10) Which of the following does not differ in E.coli and spirogyra:

(1) Ribosome
(2) Cell wall
(3) Cell membrane
(4) Mitochondria

11) The main arena of various types of activities of a cell is:

(1) Nucleus
(2) Plasma membrane
(3) Mitochondrian
(4) Cytoplasm

12) Which of the following cell organelles is responsible for extracting energy from carbohydrates to
form ATP:

(1) Mitochondrion
(2) Lysosome
(3) Ribosome
(4) Chloroplast

13) Match the following scientists with their discovery and research year.

(a) 1838 i. Matthias Schleiden

 (b) 1839 ii. Theodore Schwann

(c) 1954 iii. Rudolf Virchow

(d) 1855 iv. G.N. Ramachandran

(1) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i
(2) a-i, b-ii, c-iv, d-iii
(3) a-ii, b-iv, c-iii, d-i
(4) a-i, b-iv, c-iii, d-ii

14) Which of the following cellular organelle is the site of formation of glycoproteins and glycolipids:

(1) Peroxisomes
(2) Mitochondria
(3) Golgi apparatus
(4) Chloroplast

15) Match the column I and column II

Column-I Column-II

(a) 1-2 μm (i) Typical bacteria

Diameter of
(b) 0.2 to 1.0 μm (ii)
mitochondria

(c) 3-5 μm (iii) Size of bacteria

(d) 2-4 μm (iv) Chloroplast width

(1) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
(2) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
(3) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)
(4) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)

16) Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Mitochondria is the largest cytoplasmic organelle of plants
Statement II: Ribosome is smallest membranous cell organelle in plant
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

17) The fluid nature of the membrane helps in:

(1) Cell growth, secretion

(2) Cell division
(3) Formation of intercellular junctions
(4) All of the above

18) The arrangement of lipid molecule in plasma membrane found as:

(1) Polar head towards the outer side and hydrophilic tails towards the inner side
(2) Tails towards the outer side while polar head towards the inner side
(3) Polar head towards the outer side and hydrophobic tails towards the inner side
(4) Arranged alternatively with amino acids

19) In which among the following cell organelle, steroidal hormones are being synthesised in animal
cells:

(1) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum

(2) Rough endoplasmic reticulum
(3) Golgi complex
(4) Vacuoles

20) Which one of the following provide support to nuclear membrane-

(1) Microtubule
(2) Intermediate filaments
(3) Keratin fibre
(4) Desmin fibre

21) The cell wall of plants is made up of:

(1) Hemicellulose + Pectin

(2) Hemicellulose + Lipids + Proteins
(3) Hemicellulose + Pectin + Cellulose + Protein
(4) Hemicellulose + Chitin

22) Membrane-bound organelles are absent in:

(1) E.coli
(2) Chlamydomonas
(3) Plasmodium
(4) Saccharmyces

23) Assertion (A): Golgi body is located near ER.

Reason (R): Vesicles detached from ER join to cis-face of Golgi body.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true
24) Middle lamella is composed mainly of:

(1) Muramic acid

(2) Calcium pectate
(3) Phosphoglycerides
(4) Hemicellulose

25) In given cell organnelles how many organelles are bound by single membrane.
Mitochondria, Ribosome, Vacuole, Lysosome, Chloroplast, Centriole, E.R., Golgi apparatus

(1) 6
(2) 5
(3) 4
(4) 2

26) Which of the following is incorrect statement about prokaryotic ribosome:

(1) Ribosome is the site of protein synthesis

(2) 50s and 30s subunit unite to form 70s Ribosome
(3) Size is 20 x 25nm subunit unite of form 80s Ribosome.
(4) Size is 15 x 20 mm

27) In prokaryotes like cyanobacteria, beside mesosome other membranous extensions into
cytoplasm is/are:

(1) Golgibody
(2) Chromatophores
(3) Ribosome
(4) Mitochondria

28) The number of mitochondria per cell is variable, depending on:

(1) Size of cells

(2) Shape of cells
(3) Physiological activity of cells
(4) Type of genes present in mt DNA

29) In the following how many matching are correct:

(A) Mesosome Found in Bacteria

(B) Fluid mosaic model Most accepted model

(C) Gas vacuole Present in all prokaryote

Site of aerobic and

(D) Mitochondria
anaerobic respiration
(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

30) In the given diagram the type of chromosomes is:

(1) Telocentric
(2) Metacentric
(3) Acrocentric
(4) Satalite chromosome

31) Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R)
Assertion (A): In animal cells lipid like steroidal hormones are synthesised in a SER.
Reason (R): Smooth endoplasmic reticulum is the major site for synthesis of protein.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

32) Analyse the following pairs and identify the correct option given below:

Contain pigments other

I. Chromoplasts
than chlorophyll

II. Leucoplasts Devoid of any pigments

III. Amyloplasts Store oils and fats

IV. Aleuroplasts Store carbohydrates

V. Elaioplasts Store protein

(1) I and III
(2) III and IV
(3) IV and V
(4) I and II

33) Higher plant cells and animal cells are different as the former possess all, except

(1) Plastids
(2) Central vacuoles
(3) Cell walls
(4) Centrioles

34) How many microtubules are present in a centrosome-

(1) 2 x 9
(2) (2 x 9) x 2
(3) (3 x 9)
(4) (3 x 9) x 2

35) Recognise the given figure and choose correct option:

(1) A - 50S, B - 30S, C - 80S

(2) A - 50S, B - 30S, C - 70S
(3) A - 30S, B - 50S, C - 70S
(4) A - 40S, B - 60S, C - 80S

SECTION-B

1) Given below are two statements : One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R)
Assertion (A): Cells also vary greatly in their shapes.
Reason (R): The shape of cell may vary with the function they perform.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

2) An elaborate network of filamentous proteinaeous structures present in the cytoplasm are called:

(1) Cytoskeleton
(2) Centrosome
(3) Cilia
(4) Flagella

3) Which among the following statement is incorrect:

(1) Majority of the chloroplast of the green plants are found in the mesophyll cells of the leaves.
The chloroplasts is double membrane bound the inner chloroplast membrane is relatively more
(2)
permeable
(3) Chlorophyll pigments are present in the thylakoids
(4) Thylakoids are arranged in stacks like the piles of coins called grana

4) Which one site for both protein synthesis and carbohydrate synthesis-

(1) Matrix of mitochondria

(2) Stroma of chloroplast
(3) Photosynthesis
(4) SER

5) Which among the following is not present n animal cell:

(1) Cell wall

(2) Large central vacuole
(3) Plastids
(4) All of these

6) Identify figure and choose correct option for A and B:

A- Actively invole in protein synthesis and secreation

(1)
B - Major site for synthesis of lipid
A - In Animal cell lipid like steroidal hormone synthesis
(2)
B - Major site for synthesis of lipid
A - Major like steroidal hormone synthesis
(3)
B - Major site for synthesis of protein
A - lipid like steroidal hormone synthesis
(4)
B - Major site for synthesis of protein

7) Many bacteria have small circular DNA outside the genomic DNA. These smaller DNA are called
as:

(1) Genomic DNA

(2) snDNA
(3) Plasmid
(4) siDNA
8) If you remove the fimbriae from the bacterial cell, which of the following would you expect to
happen:

(1) The bacteria could not longer swim

(2) The bacteria would not adhere to the host tissue
(3) Transportation of molecules across the membrane would stop
(4) The shape of bacteria would change

9) Read the given statements regarding a cell organelle.

I. It contains water, sap, excretory products and other unwanted materials
II. It is bounded by a single membrane called tonoplast
III. In plant cells, it can occupy upto 90% of cellular volume.
The above features are attributed to:

(1) Lysosome
(2) Vacuole
(3) Peroxisome
(4) Mitochondrion

10) How many statements are correct -

(i) Centriole hold two chromatids.
(ii) Telomers are end of chromosomes.
(iii) Short arm of chromosome is known as p - arm
(iv) Mitochondria is consider is as cell within cell.

(1) 3
(2) 1
(3) 2
(4) 4

11) When the centromere is situated in the middle of two equal arms of chromosomes, the
chromosome is referred as:

(1) Telocentric
(2) Sub-metacentric
(3) Acrocentric
(4) Metacentric

12) In a Golgi body, the maturing face is

(1) Concave and also called trans face

(2) Not interconnected with cis face
(3) Receiving face and receives vesicles from ER
(4) Convex and closely appressed with ER

13) Eukaryotic flagella and cilia are similar to each other as both
a. Have '9 + 2' organisation of microtubules
b. Are surrounded by membrane
c. Help in movement
d. Are hair-like outgrowths and work as oars
Choose the correct one(s).

(1) Only and b

(2) Only c
(3) Only and d
(4) Only a, b and c

14) Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Endoplasmic reticulum bearing ribosomes on their surface is called R.E.R.
Statement II: R.E.R. is frequently observed in the cells actively involve in lipid synthesis and
secretion.
Choose the correct answer from the option given below:

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

15) Match A, B, C, D and E in diagram below from the list (i) to (v)

(i) Central sheath

(ii) Radial spoke
(iii) Plasma membrane
(iv) Interdoublet bridge
(v) Peripheral microtubules

(1) A-iii, B-v, C-iv, D-ii, E-i

(2) A-iii, B-iv, C-v, D-ii, E-i
(3) A-v, B-iii, C-iv, D-i, E-ii
(4) A-ii, B-v, C-iv, D-i, E-iii

ZOOLOGY

SECTION-A

1) Epiphyseal plates are found in-

(1) Epiphysis
(2) Metaphysis
(3) Compact bone
(4) Diaphysis

2) Read the following statements (A–D) :-

(A) Connective tissue is most abundant and widely distributed tissue.
(B) All connective tissue cells secretes fibres of structural proteins called collagen or elastin.
(C) Epithelial cells rest on basement membrane.
(D) Blood often serves as support framework of epithelium.
How many above statements are correct.

(1) One
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) Four

3) Which one is incorrect match :-

(1) Compound epithelium - Main role in secretion and absorption

(2) Areolar tissue - support framework of epithelium
(3) Blood - specialised C.T.
(4) Transitional epithelium = Proximal part of male urethra

4) Assertion (A): Protective colouration in frog is called mimicry.

Reason (R): Frog have ability to change the colour to hide them from their enemies.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true

5) Select the correct statement:-

(1) Loose connective tissue is present over the skin

(2) The excess of nutrients which are not used, are converted into fats
(3) Dense irregular tissue is present in tendons
(4) Ligament is a spelialised connective tissue

6) In addition to malpighian tubules which type of stuctures also help in excretion of cockroach ?

(1) Nephrocytes
(2) Uricose gland
(3) Urate cells
(4) All
7) Choose incorrect statement from following statement:-

(1) Cytoplasm is less in white fat cells

(2) Mitochondria are less in white fat
(3) White fat releases more energy than Brown fat
(4) Usually white fat is present in body

8) Which of the following types of connective tissue is mismatched with its matrix ?

(1) Areolar - Loosely packed matrix of protein fibres

(2) Bone - Mineralized matrix
(3) Cartilage - Highly vascular matrix
(4) Blood - liquid matrix

9) See the diagram carefully and select the correct match :

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

10) Which of the following is incorrectly matched for cartilage?

(1) Matrix - Chondrin

(2) Matrix - Solid, Non-pliable
(3) Chondrocyte - Cells
(4) Lacuna - 1 to 4 Chondrocyte
11) In cockroach, the respiratory system consists of a network of trachea, that open out side the
body by the help of :

(1) Atrium
(2) Tracheal end cells
(3) Spiracles
(4) Tracheal capillaries

12) How many ganglia are present on nerve-cord of Periplaneta

(1) 3
(2) 6
(3) 9
(4) 11

13) Which of the following is not an excretory organ of Periplaneta :-

(1) Malphigian tubules

(2) Nephrocytes
(3) Urecose glands
(4) Mushroom gland

14) Which is not correct with respect to blood vascular system in cockroach :-

(1) Haemolymph is composed of colourless plasma and haemocytes.

(2) Heart is tubular and 13-chambered
(3) 13–pairs of alary muscles help in blood circulation
(4) Blood vessels are poorly developed

15) Which is not true with respect to the vision of cockroach ?

(1) Mosaic vision

(2) Superposition vision
(3) More sensitivity
(4) Less resolution

16) Male cockroach bear a pair of short thread like structures which are absent in females. These
are:-

(1) Anal styles

(2) Anal cerci
(3) Anal pore
(4) Phallomeres

17) Cockroach blood does not contain respiratory pigment it means :

(1) it does not respire
(2) Cockroach respires anaerobically
(3) Oxygen passes to all the tissues through alary muscles
(4) Oxygen reaches tissue through tracheoles

18) The body of the cockroach is segmented and divisible into :

(1) Head and tail

(2) Head and thorax
(3) Head and abdomen
(4) Head, thorax and abdomen

19) How many malpighian tubules present in cockroach ?

(1) 60-100
(2) 90-110
(3) 100-150
(4) 70-90

20) Which one of the following diagram is correctly identified in the options given, along with its
correct location and function ?
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

21) Mushroom gland is a part of

(1) Male reproductive system of cockroach

(2) Female reproductive system of cockroach
(3) Male reproductive system of frog
(4) Female reproductive system of frog

22) Which of the following happens in the common cockroach ?

(1) Malpighian tubules are excretory organs projecting out from the colon
(2) Oxygen is transported by haemoglobin in blood
(3) Nitrogenous excretory product is urea
(4) The food is grind by mandibles and gizzard

23) The two pairs of wings in periplaneta are situated on :-

(1) Prothorax and Metathorax

(2) Prothorax and Mesothorax
(3) Mesothorax and Metathorax
(4) Metathorax and Second abdominal segment

24) Which of the following statements are correct about the hindwings in cockroach?

(1) They are transparent and membranous

(2) They are metathoracic
(3) They are used in flight
(4) All of these

25) In female cockroach 7th sternum is :-

(1) Rectangular
(2) Filamentous
(3) Boat shaped
(4) Spiral

26) Collaterial gland is a part of :-

(1) Male reproductive system of cockroach

(2) Female reproductive system of cockroach
(3) Male reproductive system of frog
(4) Female reproductive system of frog
27) Which type of structure in cockroach monitoring the environment ?

(1) Anal style

(2) Ootheca
(3) Antennae
(4) Anal cerci

28) Find out the incorrect match :-

(1) Widely distributed tissue - connective tissue

(2) Gap junction - faciliate communication
(3) Secretion of fibres - WBC
(4) 40-50% part of body - muscular tissue

29) Number of spiracle pairs in Periplaneta americana is ?

(1) 8
(2) 9
(3) 10
(4) 11

30) Match the following with reference to cockroach and choose the correct option :

Codes:

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

31) Choose the incorrect pair from the matches given below :-

(1) Antennae - sensory receptors

(2) Metathoracic wings - Help in flying
(3) Malpighian tubules - Excretory role
(4) Crop - Grinding of food

32) The following figure is related to head region of cockroach. Identify A to F :

(1) A-Compound eye, B-Ocellus, C-Maxillae, D-Mandible, E-Labrum, f-Labium

(2) A-Ocellus, B-Compound eye, C-Mandible, D-Maxillae, E-Labrum, F-Labium
(3) A-Ocellus, B-Compound eye, C-Mandible, D-Maxillae, E-Labium, F-Labrum
(4) A-Ocellus, B-Compound eye, C-Maxilla, D-Mandible, E-Labium, F-Labrum

33) Assertion (A): Frogs have a short alimentary canal.

Reason (R): They are carnivores.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

34) Which of the following is correct for frogs?

(1) Has ureter to carry both urine and sperm

(2) Bidder's canal is present inside the kidneys which carry sperms
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) These possess monocondylic skull

35) Which of the following is correct for CNS of frogs?

(1) Medulla oblongata passes out through the foramen magnum and continues as spinal cord
(2) Mid brain possesses one optic lobe
(3) Brain contains 10 cranial nerves
(4) All are correct

SECTION-B

1) Which type of structure represent the brain of cockroach ?

(1) Supra-pharyngeal ganglion
(2) Supra-oesophageal ganglion
(3) Sub-pharyngeal ganglion
(4) Segmental ganglion

2) In cockroach how many times moulting occurs in metamorphosis [Nymph to Adults] :-

(1) 14
(2) 17
(3) 13
(4) 16

3) Dicondylic skull along with ten pairs of cranial nerves is found in

(1) Mammalia
(2) Amphibia
(3) Reptilia
(4) Pisces

4) This about class Amphibia is correct

(i) Fertilization is internal
(ii) Respiration is through gills only
(iii) Body is divisible into head and trunk
(iv) Heart is two chambered - one ventricle and one auricle

(1) only (i)

(2) only (iii)
(3) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(4) All are correct

5) A frog has

(1) Jaws but no teeth

(2) Eyes but no lids
(3) Ears but no pinnae
(4) Hands but no fingers

6) Identify marked (A) (B) and (C) respectively

(1) Phallic gland, Vas deferens, Pseudo–penis
(2) Right phallomere, caudal style, Phallic gland
(3) Phallic gland, Ejaculatory duct, Pseudo-penis
(4) Phallic gland, Phallic duct, Pseudopenis

7) Read the following statements for frogs:

(i) A mature female can lay 2500 to 3000 ova at a time
(ii) Fertilization is external and occurs in water
(iii) Development is indirect
(iv) Tadpoles are herbivores
How many of the above statements are correct?

(1) Two
(2) Four
(3) Three
(4) One

8) Which of the following is true for the excretory system of frogs?

Two ureters emerge from the kidneys of male frogs which act as urinogenital duct that opens
(1)
into cloaca
(2) In female frogs ureters and oviduct forms the urinogenital duct that opens into cloaca
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Urinary bladder is present dorsal to the rectum which open into the cloaca

9) Select the correct statement for frogs:

(1) Ear acts as organ for hearing but not balancing

(2) External ear is absent and only tympanum can be seen externally
(3) These possess compound eyes
(4) All of the above

10) Match the columns:

Column-I Column-II

A. Fore-brain (i) A pair of optic lobes

Cerebellum and
B. Mid-brain (ii)
medulla oblongata

Olfactory lobe, paired

C. Hind-brain (iii) cerebral hemispheres,
unpaired diencephalon
(1) A = (i), B = (iii), C = (ii)
(2) A = (ii), B = (i), C = (iii)
(3) A = (iii), B = (i), C = (ii)
(4) A = (i), B = (ii), C = (iii)
11) Choose the correct statement for female reproductive system of frogs:

(1) Ovaries have no functional or internal connections with the kidneys

(2) Possess Bidder's canal
(3) The posterior ends of oviduct are broad called ovisacs which open dorsally into cloaca
(4) More than one option is correct

12) Statement-I: Left collaterial gland of cockroach is more branched.

Statement-II: Collaterial gland secretes ootheca wall.

(1) Both Statements are wrong

(2) Both Statements are correct
(3) Statement I is correct & Statement II is wrong.
(4) Statement II is correct & Statement I is wrong

13) Match the column-I with column-II :-

Codes

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

14) Given below the diagram of alimentary canal of Cockroach. identify a to e :-

(1) (a) Pharynx, (b) Oesophagus, (c) Crop, (d) Rectum, (e) Colon
(2) (a) Pharynx, (b) Oesophagus, (c) Mid-gut (d) Colon, (e) Rectum
(3) (a) Buccal cavity, (b) Oesophagus, (c) Mid-gut, (d) Colon , (e) Rectum
(4) (a) Pharynx, (b) Oesophagus, (c) Gizzard, (d) Colon, (e) Rectum

15) The body temperature of a frog is 20 degrees celsius in an environment having a temperature of
30 degrees celsius. The temperature of the frog in the new environment is

(1) 25 degrees celsius

(2) 20 degrees celsius
(3) 30 degrees celsius
(4) Between 20 - 30 degrees celsius
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

SECTION-A

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 4 4 2 3 2 1 4 2 2 1 1 1 4 2 3 2 2 3 3 2
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35
A. 3 3 3 1 3 2 2 4 3 2 2 4 2 2 4

SECTION-B

Q. 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
A. 4 2 2 3 4 3 3 2 4 1 4 4 2 2 3

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A

Q. 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
A. 4 4 4 4 3 2 3 2 2 3 3 4 2 2 1 4 3 1 4 1
Q. 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 1 2 2 1 1 4 2 1 2 4 1 1 1 2 2

SECTION-B

Q. 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
A. 1 3 4 3 3 3 4 4 4 1 1 1 1 2 4

BOTANY

SECTION-A

Q. 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
A. 4 2 2 1 1 3 3 4 4 3 4 1 2 3 4 2 4 3 1 2
Q. 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135
A. 3 1 1 2 3 3 2 3 2 3 2 4 4 4 2

SECTION-B

Q. 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 4 1 2 2 4 1 3 2 2 1 4 1 4 2 3

ZOOLOGY
 SECTION-A

Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 2 3 1 1 2 4 3 3 2 2 3 3 4 3 2 1 4 4 3 3
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180 181 182 183 184 185
A. 1 4 3 4 3 2 3 3 3 2 4 2 1 3 1

SECTION-B

Q. 186 187 188 189 190 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200
A. 2 3 2 2 3 1 2 1 2 3 4 2 1 2 3
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

3)

5) Let and are the two unit vectors, then the sum is
or
+ 2n1n2 cosθ = 1 + 1 + 2 cosθ
Since it is given that ns is also a unit vector,

therefore 1 = 1 + 1 + 2 cosθ or cosθ or

θ = 120°
Now the difference vector is nd = n1 – n2 or
– 2n1n2 cosθ = 1 + 1 – 2 cos(120°)
∴ = 2 – 2(–1/2) = 2 + 1 = 3
⇒

6)

7)
 8) Magnitude remain same

9)

10)

with x axis

11)

Slope =
= 10

13)

14) Lightyear and parsec are the units used to measure distance.

15) π and e are Dimensionless constant.

16) Dimension of given quantities are as follows

Momentum = mass × velocity ⇒ [M1L1T–1]
0

Speed = ⇒[M L1T–1]

0 0 0

Angle = ⇒[M L T ]
0

Acceleration = ⇒ [M L1T–2]
 17) dimensional formula for energy is [ML2T–2]

18)
0 0 0
Unit of angle is radian but dimensions = [M L T ]

19)

Length is fundamental quantity

20) SI unit of electric current is ampere.

21) Conceptual

22) SI system-Kelvin

23)

Energy = Work = (Force) (Displacement)

= N × m = Joule

25)

26)

Angular momentum (J) = mvr.

30) A ~ B ≤ R ≤ A + B
2N ≤ R ≤ 14 N

31)
 32)

If y = x5 + x4 + 7

then = 5x4 + 4x3

33)

34)

Velocity
(Mod Q.no 17, Page No. 17)

35) Radian and steradian both are supplementary unit.

36)

(1)9 – (0)9 + sin

1–0+1–0=2

37)

= 3x + 4

y=

y=
slope (m) =

38)

(Mod. Q.no 7, Page No. 73)

39)

Because quantities having different dimensions can only be divided or multiplied. But they cannot be
added or subtracted.

40)

If side = a, then rate of increase of perimeter w.r.t.

 time = 4 = 4(0.2) = 0.8 cm/s

41)

42)

43)

Area

=
= [(3)3 – (1)3] = 26

44)
 45)

y = ln(sin x) ⇒

46) From the figure intercept of straight line are a = 6 ; b = 8.

⇒
4x + 3y = 24

47)

48)

= ML–1T–1

49) Dimension of at = dimension of F

Dimension of = dimension of F

50)

Angle between and is 120°.

CHEMISTRY

BOTANY
ZOOLOGY