CEE model question
CEE model question
BDS
B.Sc. Nursing
Paramedical/Applied Sciences
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c. halved d. one –fourth a. 4En b.
En
c. 2En
𝐸𝑛
d.
4 2
24. A sample contains 16 g of a radioactive material, the
38. The shortest wavelength of X-rays emitted from an
half life of which is two days. After 32 days the X-ray tube depends on the?
amount of radioactive material left in the sample is - a. current in the tube
1
a. less than 1 mg b. g b. voltage applied to the tube
4 c. nature of the gas in the tube
1 d. atomic number of the target material
c. g d. 1 g
2 39. A soap bubble is given a negative charge then its
25. A 5℃ rise in temperature is observed in a conductor radius
by passing current . If the current is doubled the rise a. Decreases b. Increases
in temperature of the conductor will be nearly? c. Remains unchanged
A. 10°𝑐 b. 20°𝑐 c. 40°𝑐 d. 2.5℃ d. This information is insufficient
26. In electrolysis, the amount of mass liberated or 40. If an electron has an initial velocity perpendicular to
deposited form an electrode is directly proportional direction of electric field, the path of the electron is
to ? a. A staright line b. A parabola
a. amount of charge c. A circle d. An ellipse
b. squre of charge 41. X-rays are used to irradiate sodium and copper
c concentration of electrode surfaces in two separate experiments and stopping
d. square of current potential is determined.
27. A coil of Area A and Resistance R is kept inside a a. Greater for sodium b. Greater for coppe
uniform magnetic field B normal to plane of Coil, c. Equal in both cases d. infinite in both cases
then charge induced in the coil if it is revolved end 42. The photoelectric current can be increased by
per end is: a. Increasing frequency b. Increasing intensity
BA BA 2BA c. Decreasing intensity d. Decreasing wavelength
a. zero b. c. d.
R 2R R 43. The energy released in nuclear fission mostly
28. In a moving galvanometer a current I produces a appears as
deflection , then ? a. Heat b. Radioactive radiation
a. I tan b. I c. I 2 d. I √ c. Chemical energy
29. Two wire of same material have lengths L and 2L d. Kinetic energy of fission fragments
and cross- sectional areas 4A and A respectively. 44. Quark combination of antineutron is
The ratio of their specific resistances would be a. uud b. ud c. u ud d. udd
a.1:1 b. 1:8 c.8:1 d.1:2 45. Two conducting spheres of radii r1 and r2 are
30. Three resistance, each of 3 are connected in charged to the same surface charged density. The
parallel, the equivalent resistance is ratio of electric potentials on their surfaces is:
a. 1 b. 9 c. 6
1
d. r12 r22 r1
3 a. 2 b. 2 c. d. 1 : 1
r2 r1 r2
31. In LCR circuit capacitance is changed form C to 2C.
46. Two wares y1 = 0.25 S in 316 t and y2 = 0.25 sin 310t
for resonant frequency to remain unchanged the in
are propagating along the same direction. The
dutance should be changed form L to ?
𝐿 numbers of beats produced per second are
a. 4L b. 2L c. d. L 3
2 a. 6 b. 3 c. d. 3𝜋
32 When indium is doped to pure semiconductor the 𝜋
47. If the strength of the current is decreased by 2% the
conduction is mainly clue to?
a. electrons b. holes power of the bulb will decreased by
c. protons d. negative ions a. 2% b.4% c. 8% d. 1%
33. For detecting intensity of light, we use? 48. In bringing an electron towards another electrons,
a. photodiode in forward bias electrostatic potential energy of the system
a. decreases b. increases
b. photodiode in reverse bias
c. LED in forward bias c. becomes zero d. remains same
d. LED in reverse bias 49. In charged capacitor, energy is stored in
a. Positive charge
34. Barrier potential of a P-N junction diode does not
b. both +ve and –ve charge
depend upon?
c. The field between plates
a. diode design b. temperature
c. forward bias d. doping intensity d. around the edges of capacitor plates
35. How many NAND gates are used to form AND gate? 50. The ozone layer absorbs
a.3 b. 2 c. 1 d. 4 a. Ultravoilet rays b. Infrared rays
c. X-rays d. Light rays
36. The work function of a substance is 4 ev- The
longest wavelength of light that can cause Chemistry
51. The element with electronic configuration as [Ar]
photoelectric emission form this substance is
approximately? 3d10 4s2 4p5 represents as:
a. 540nm b. 400nm c. 310nm d. 220nm a. metal b. non-metal
c. metalloid d. transition metal
37. If the energy of a hydrogen atom in nth orbit is En,
then energy in the nth orbit of a slightly ionized
helium atom will be ?
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52. The mass of 60 % HCl required for the
neutralization of 101 of 0.1 M KOH is:
a. 60.8 g b. 21.9 g c. 100 g d. 219 g
53. Forty ml of 0.1 m ammonia is mixed with 20 ml of
0.1 m HCl. Find the pH of the resulting of mixture.
(pkb = 4.74)
a. 2.27 b. 4.74 c. 9.26 d. 5 a. 1>2>3>4 b. 4>3>2>1
54. A flask containing air is heated from 300K to 500 K . c. 2>1>3>4 d. 2>3>1>4
The percentage of air escape to the atmosphere is 70. The number of possible isomer of C4 H10O is:
a.16 b. 40 c.60 d. 20 a. 7 b. 6 c. 4 d. 5
55. Which of the following molecule is non- polar? 71. Elimination reaction generally occurs with the
a. BF3 b.PCl3 formation of:
c. CHCl3 d. All of these a. One sigma
56. For gaseous reaction: b. One Pi bond
N2 O4 (g) 2NO2 (g) c. One sigma and one Pi bond
a. H and E are equal b. H >E d. All of the above
c. H<E d. H - E = 0 72. Gammexane is used as:
57. A sample of Al F3 contains 31025 F ions. The a. Insecticide b. Fire extinguisher
number of Al3+ in the sample would be: c. Refrigerant d. Rodenticide
a. 31025 b. 11025 c. 1.51025 d. 21025 73. The IUPAC name of CH3COCH(CH3)2 is
58. Indicator used in titration of weak acid and strong a. 2-methyl -3-butanon b. 3-methyl -2-butanon
base is: c. Isopropyl methyl ketone d. 4-methyl isopropyl ketone
a. Phenolphthalein b. Litmus paper 74. An alkane is most likely to react with:
c. Methyl red d. Methyl orange a. A free radical b. An alkali
59. In the equation Cr2 O72- + Fe2++H+ Cr3+ + Fe3+ c. An electrophile d. A nucleophile
H2O the coefficients of Fe2+ and H+ are respectively: 75. The reaction
a. 6, 7 b. 6, 14 c. 5, 7 d. 5, 14
60. Increasing order of electron affinity is
a. N<O<Cl<Al b. O<N<Al<Cl
c. Al<N<O<Cl d. Cl<N<O<Al a. Etard's reactions
61. The strongest Bronsted-Lowry base out of b. Clemmenson readuction
following? c. Reimer Tiemmanns reaction
a. ClO- b. ClO2- c. ClO3- d. ClO4- d. Perkin's reaction
62. If the four tubes of a car are filled to the same 76. Which of the following conversion can be brought
pressure with N2, O2,H2 and Ne separately, then about under Wolf-Kishner reduction?
which one will be filled first? a. Benzaldehyde to banzyl alcohol
a.N2 b.O2 c.H2 d.Ne b. Cyclohexanol to cyclohexane
63. The solubility product Ksp of the sparingly soluble c. Cyclohexanone to cyclohexanol
salt Ag2 CrO4 is 4 10-12. The solubility of the salt d. Benzophenone to diphenyl methane
is: 77. Phosgene is a common name for:
a. 1 10-12 mol L-1 b. 2 10-6 mol L-1 a. Thionyl chloride
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c. 10 mol L d. 10-4 mol L-1 b. Phosphoryl chloride
64. Which of the following is a buffer solution? c. Carbondioxide and phosphine
a. NaOH + CH3 COONa b. NH4 OH + NH4Cl d. Carbonyl chloride
c. NaOH + Na2 So4 d. K2So4 + H2So4 78. In Williamson synthesis of ethers given by general
65. Initial concentration of a radioactive substance is equation
0.08 mol l-1. After what time its concentration R X + RONa R – OR, the yield from R – X
becomes 0.01 mol l-1, if its half life is 10 min? follows the sequence:
a. 30 min b. 5 min c. 15 min d. 60 min a. CH3 > 10 > 20> 30 b. CH3 < 10 < 20 < 30
66. Water (H2O) is oxidized to O2 by: c. CH3 < 10 < 20 > 30 d. CH3 < 10 < 30 < 20
a. Ozone b. KMnO4 c. H2O2 d. F2 79. Ethanal is treated with ammonia and adduct formed
67. Hess law is associated with: is warmed. The final product is:
a. Equelibrium of reaction b. Order of reaction a. Acetaldehyde ammonia
c. Stability of reaction d. Change of heat of reaction b. Acetaldimine
68. In dry cell depolarizer is: c. Tetra ethylene hexamine
a. Hg b. MnO2 c. CdO d. Hg2Cl2 d. Ethyl amine
69. Indentify correct order of reactivity electronic 80. The catalyst used in Rosenmund’s reaction is:
substitution reaction: a. HgSO4 b. Anhydrous AlCl3
c. pd/BaSO4 d. Anhydrous ZnCl2
81. Which of the following does not form metamers?
a. 10 amine b. 20 amine c. 30 amine d. all
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82. The reaction of HCOOH with conc. H2SO4 gives: 100. Bleaching powder is prepared by the action of
a. CO2 b. CO chloring on:
c. Oxalic acid d. Acetic acid a. Quick lime b. Slaked lime
83. Which of the following is formed by the reaction of c. Soda line d. Milk of lime
chloroform with nitric acid? Zoology
a. nitrochloromethane b. picric acid 101. Trochorphore larva is found in
c. chloropicrin d. nitromethane a. Annelida and mollusca b. Annelida and cnidaria
84. The weakest base among following is: c. Annelida and ctenophora d. Annelida and arthropoda
a. C6H5NO2 b. C6H5NH2 102. Nematocysts of Hydra are in maximum number in
c. NH3 d. CH3CONH2 which of the following?
85. The order of reactivity of alcohols with sodium is: a. Gastrodermis b. Tentacles
a. 3° > 2° > 1° b. 1° > 2° > 3° c. Basal disc d. Gonad basal disc
c. 2° > 3° > 1° d. 3° > 2° < 1° 103. Which one is fresh water sponge
86. Which is an azo dye? a. Cliona b. Euspongia
a. Methyl orange b. Phenolphthalein c. Spongilla d. Sycon
c. Malachite green d. Methylene blue 104. Green glands, present in some arthropods, help in
87. Speigeleisen is: a. Respiration b. Exceretion
a. An alloy of iron, steel and carbon c. Degestion d. Reproduction
b. A variety of steel 105. Which parts of birds brain are better developed
c. Used in manufacture of iron from haematite a. Cereberum b. Opticlobes
d. An alloy of iron, manganese and carbon c. Cerebellum
88. The compound which gives oxygen on moderate d. Optic lobes and cerebellum
heating is: 106. Which one is absent in Flatworm?
a. Zno b. HgO c. Al2O3 d. Fe2O3 a. Respiratory system b. Circulatory system
89. Stainless steel contains iron and carbon along with: c. Skeletal system d. All of these
a. Cr and Co b. Mn and Ni 107. Respiratory organ in scorpion is?
c. Ni and Cr d. Co and Mn a. Book gills b. Book lungs
90. Which of the following has lowest melting point? c. Gills d. Skin
a. LiX b. Nacl c. RbCl d. KCl 108. Male genital aperture of earthworm is located in the
91. Hydrazine and oxygen react to form: segment
a. N2 and H2O b. N2O and H2O a. 13 b. 14 c. 19 d. 18
c. N2 and H2O2 d. NO2 and H2O 109. Manifestation of increase in blood pressure of a
92. Hypo is used in photography due to its: person is called
a. Picture printing b. Oxidizing property a. Hypertension b. Atherosclerosis
c. Complexing property d. Reducing property c. Arteriosclerosis d. None of these
93. Which of the following metals never occurs in free 110. Relapse of malaria is due to:
state of nature? a. P. falciparum and P. vivax
a. Gold b. Copper c. Silver d. Sodium b. P. falciparum of P. malaria
94. The oxide and chloride of element X are separately c. P. falciparum and P. Ovale
mixed with water. The resulting solutions have same d. P. vivax and P. ovale
effect on litmus. What is element X? 111. The colour of earthworm is due to pigment
a. Sodium b. Aluminum porphyrin found on the
c. Magnesium d. Phosphorus a. Culticle b. Epidermis
95. The row materials used for cement are: c. Circular muscle d. Longitudinal muscle
a. CaCO3 and SiO2 b. CaCO3 and Clays 112. Antibody producing blood cells are
c. CaO and SiO2 d. Ca(OH)2 and clay a. Lymphocytes b. Monocytes
96. Corrosive sublimate is: c. Basophyls d. Neutrophils
a. HgCl2 b. Hg2Cl2 c. Hg2Cl d. Hg2Cl3 113. Pheretima lives within a burrow mainly to
97. Rusting of iron is a chemical reaction is: a. Procure food b. Copulate
a. Analysis b. Displacement c. Avoid enemies d. Get moisture
c. Combinaiton d. Double decomposition 114. Body of frog is divisible into
98. Purification of aluminium by electrolytic process is a. Head, neck and trunk b. Head, neck trunk and tail
known as: c. Head and neck d. Head and trunk
a. Hoope’s process b. Serpeck’s process 115. Bidder's canal is found in
c. Hall’s process d. Bayer’s process a. Testes of Frog b. Kidney of Frog
99. The conc. H2SO4 is used extensively to prepare other c. Kidney of mammals d. Ovary of mammals
acids because concentrated H2SO4 116. The pylangium and synangium in frog’s heart is
a. Is highly ionized marked by
b. Is excellent dehydrating agent a. First row of semilunar valves
c. Has high boiling point b. Second row of semilunar valves
d. Has high density c. Spiral valve d. Sinu – arterial node.
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117. The largest part of the brain is: c. Bicarbonate shift
a. Cereberum b. Medulla oblongata d. CO2 dissociation
c. Cerebellum d. Corpora quadrigemina 134. The examples of sedatives amongst following are
118. Platyhelminthes are generally parasites. Which of a. LSD and hashish
the following class is exception b. Opium and morphine
a. Monogenoidae b. Monopostnocotyla c. Caffeine and amphetamines
c. Turbellaria d. Aspidogastrea d. Benzodiazepines and barbiturates
119. During emergency which of the following hormone is 135. Fish Xiphius migrating towards north in spring and
secreted to south in winter is:
a. Aldosterone b. Thyroxine a. Spawing migration b. Vertical migration
c. Aderenaline d. Calcitonin c. Latitudinal migration d. Langitudinal migration
120. The acidophils are 136. Lateral line organs are found in
a. White blood cells b. Connective tissue cells a. Amphibia b. Gnathostomata
c. Bone cells d. Cartilage cells c. Oesteicythes d. Reptilia
121. Nucleo protein is 137. Theory of use and disuse was proposed by
a. Structural protein b. Simple protein a. Charles Darwin b. Lamarck
c. Conjugated protein d. Fibrous protein c. Haeckel d. August Weismann
122. Which of the following increases during allergy? 138. Which era is called the age of mammals
a. IgE b. IgA a. Mesozoic b. Palaeozoic
c. IgM d. IgD c. Coenozoic d. Archeozoic
123. In an adult human spleen is necessary for 139. Human vermiform appendix is an extension of
a. Storage of blood a. Jejunum b. Rectum
b. Deloxification of drug c. Caecum d. Ileum
c. Formation of blood 140. Which of the following stood erect first?
d. Providing immune response a. Peking man b. Java man
124. LH and FSH are gonadotropins secreted by anterior c. Cro-Magnon man d. Australopithecus
pituitary. Chemically, they are Botany
a. Steroids b. Catecholamines 141. The coconut water from a tender coconut is
c.Glycoprotenis d. Polypeptides a. Free nuclear endosperm b. Liquid mesocarp
125. In adult, trachea bifurcates at the level of c. Cellular endosperm d. Liquid nucellus
…………thoracic vertebrae.
142. Endospore formation generally occurs in
a. 4th b. 6th c. 7th d. 8th
a. Coccus form b. Bicillus form
126. The colour of urine is yellow due to c. Spirillum d. Vibrio form
a. Urobilin b. Urochrome
143. Which of the following is a modification of stem?
c.Bilirubin d. Stercobilin
a. Ginger b. Carrot c. Radish d. Turnip
127. Closure of which of the following makes louder
144. Common lichen used in hydrophobia is
sound of heart beat a. Cladonia b. Usnea c. Peltigera d. Cetradia
a. Mitral valve
145. In Funaria, stomata are present on the
b. Semilunar valve
a. Leaves b. Theca
c. Auriculo-ventricular valves
c. Apophysis d. Seta
d. Tricuspid valve
128. Menstruation is women is caused due to 146. Which of the following groups of algae is devoid of
a. Breaking of fallopian tubes zoospore formation during its life cycle
b. Breaking of urinary tract a. Rhodophyceae b. Phaeophyceae
c. Distruption of stratum basalis c. Chlorophyceae d. Xanthophyceae
d. Distruption of stratum functionalis 147. Wood of cycas is
129. Enzyme hyaluronidase is synthesized in a. Monoxylic and Polyxylic
a. Head of sperm b. Golgi body of acrosome b. Monoxylic and Pycnoxylic
c. Lysosome of acrosome d. tail of sperm c. Manoxylic and Polyxilic
130. Canal joining middle ear with buccal cavity is d. Manoxylic and Pycnoxylic
a. Tympanic cannal b. Eustachian canal
148. The germination of seed inside the fruit itself is
c. Semicircular cannal d. Fallopian tube
described as
131. Which of the following cells does the AIDS virus
attack? a. Hypogeal germination b. Epigeal germination
a. Helper T-cells b. Memory T-cells c. Viviparous germination d. Oviparous germination
c. B-cells d. Natural killer cells 149. ‘Coir’ is obtained from
132. In alcoholics, the hang over symptoms are due to a. Mesocarp of coconut b. Epicarp of coconut
formation of c. Epidermal hair of coconut d. Bast fibre of coconut
a. Acetaldehyde b. Acetone
150. A food chain always starts with
c. Diacetyl morphine d. Cannabis
a. Photosynthesis b. Decay
133. Hamburger phenomenon is related with:
c. Respiration d. Transpiration
a. O2 dissociation
b. Chloride shift
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151. Circinate vernation in fern refers to: 166. Which of the following is tetrasomic aneuploids
a. Presence of adventitious roots ?
a. 2n+2 b. 2n+2+1
b. Coiling of young leaves
c.2n-1 d. 2n-1-1
c. Leaf gaps in state
167. Mutation that arises from the insertion or the
d. Attachment of sori an leaf surface deletion of a single base causing the rest of the
152. Golgi bodies are maximum in message downstream to be read out of phase is
a. Dermatogen b. Root meristem called:
c. Root cap d. Leaf a. Frame-shift mutation b. Point mutation
153. The transfer vesicle from RER fuse with which c. Nonsense mutation d. Supressor mutation
region of Golgi complex 168. Vascular bundles in cucurbita stem are:
a. Cis b. Trans a. Bicollateral and open b. Bicollateral and closed
c. Radial d. Protein arms c. Collateral and open d. Amphivasal
154. Lampbrush chromesome are obsesved in 169. A phellogen originates from
a. Meiotic metaphase b. Mitotic metaphase a. Intra – fasicular cambium
c. Mitotic prophase d. Meiotic prophase b. Inter – fasicular cambium
155. Histone protein found in nuclei of eukaryote are c. Vascular cambium
a. Acidic b. Basic d. Tissue outside the vascular cambium
c. Neutral d. Amphoteric 170 In the following pairs where do you get lignin in
156. Longest stage of cell division is both the element?
a. Interphase b. Prophase a. Tracheid and collenchyma
c. Metaphase d. Telophase b. Sclerenchyma and sieve tube
157. Nitrosomonas is an example of: c. Sclerenchyma and tracheid
a. Photoautotrophs b. Anaerobe d. Parenchyma and endodermis
c. Chemoautotroph d. Symbiotic 171. Lacunate collenchymatous tissue is found in
158. The process of seed formation without fertilization is a. Salvia b. Sunflower (Helianthus)
called: c. Althaea d. Cucurbita
a. Parthenocarpy b. Polyembryony 172. Mobilization of food in plant is due to
c. Apomixis d. Syngamy a. Auxin b. ABA
159. The number of chiasmata are c. Morphactin d. Cytokinin
a. Inversely proportional to the length of the 173. Girdling (ringing) experiments can not be performed
chromosomes in sugarcane because
b. Directly proportional to the length of the a. Phloem in it is situated internal to xylem
chromosomes b. It can not withstand injury
c. Independent of the length of the chromosomes c. Vascular bundles in it are scattered
d. More in bacteria
d. Sugarcane plants are too delicate
160. DNA fragments are
a. Positively charged 174. If a starved plant is provide with glucose, the rate of
b. Negatively charged respiration would
a. Falls first then rises b. Becomes constant
c. Neutral
d. Either positively or negatively depending upon their c. First rises then falls d. Increases
size 175. Transverse growth of plant is due to
a. Auxin b. Gibberellin
161. DNA replication in bacteria occurs
c. Cytokinin d. Ethylene
a. Within nucleolus b. Prior to fission
c. Just before transcription d. during sphase 176. Pollen grains are nourished by
a. Epidermis b. Tapetum
162. When mendalian idea is depicted by a cross in which
c. Endothecium d. Middle layer
F1 generation resembles both the parents?
a. Codominance b. Incomplets dominance 177. Diplospory is the development of embryo from
a. Nucellus b. Integument
c. Law of dominance d. Inheritance of one gene
c. Megaspore mother cell d. Megaspore
163. Transpiration is highest for …….. transpiration
a. Stomatal b. Cuticular 178. An organism can tolerate and thrive in a narrow
c. Lenticular d. All range of temperature, such organisms are called
164. Sympatric speciation occurs commonly in a. Eurythermal b. Stenothermal
a. mammals b. Fishes c. Plants d. Birds c. Mesothermal d. Hekistothermal
165. Cyclosporin A is obtained from 179. Which vitamin was first produced by using
a. Monascus purpureus biotechnology?
b. Trichoderma polysporum a. Vitamin A b. Vitamin B1
c. Vitamin B2 d. Vitamin C
c. Saccharomyces cerevisae
180. The transgenic animals are those which have
d. Staphylococci aureus a. Foreign DNA in some of their cells
b. Foreign DNA In all of their cells
c. Foreign RNA in all of their cells
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d. Both a and c
M.A.T.
181. 'Parliament' is related to 'Great Britain' in the same 194. Which one will replace the question mark?
way as 'Congress' is related to:
a. Japan b. India c. USA d. Netherland
182. Find the odd pair of words.
a. Venus : Shukra b. Uranus : Indra
c. Mars : Mangal d. Saturn : Budha
183. If PEACE is coded as RGCEG then how is MICKY
coded in the code?
a. MOUSE b. OKEMA a. 33 b. 38 c. 32 d. 37
c. LHBJX d. JDLJZ 195. Identify the figure that completes the pattern.
184. What comes in the place of question mark (?) in the
following number series?
7200, 3600, 1200, 300, 60, ?
a. 10 b. 25 c. 15 d. 20 (X) (1) (2) (3) (4)
185. Vinay is taller than Hanshika, Hanshika is taller a. 1 b. 2 c.3 d. 4
than Abhay, Aalok is taller than Ashok and Ashok is 196. Select the figure which satisfies the same conditions
taller than Vinay. Who is the shortest in the group? of placement of the dots as in Figure-X.
a. Vinay b. Ashok c. Hanshika d. Abhay
186. How many times in 24 hr. the hands of a clock are in
straight line but opposite in direction?
a. 20 b. 22 c. 24 d. 48
187. A river flows West to East and on the way turns left a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4
and goes in a semi – circle round a hillcock, and 197. Select a suitable figure from the four alternatives
then turns left at right angle. In which direction is that would complete the figure matrix.
the river finally flowing?
a. West b. East c. North d. South
188. If first number is 10% of third and second number
is 20% of third, then what percent is first of second?
a. 40% b. 50% c. 60% d. 100%
189. If the C.P. of 10 articles is Rs. 5 and the S.P. of 5
article is Rs. 10. Find profit or loss percent.
a. 100% b. 200% c. 300% d. 400%
190. If a certain sum of money amounts to Rs. 540 in 2
years at 4% p.a. Find the principle.
a. Rs. 500 b. Rs. 550 c. Rs. 400 d. Rs. 450
191. A does a work in 10 days and B does the same work
in 15 days. In how days they together will do the
same work? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4
a. 5 b. 6 c. 8 d. 9 198. Choose the alternative which is closely resembles the
192. Statement: mirror image of the given combination.
In a one – day cricket match the total runs made by
a team were 200, out of which 160 runs were made
by spinners.
Conclusion:
I) 80% of the team consist of spinners. a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4
II) The opening batsman were spinners. 199. Find the number of triangles in the given figure.
a. Only I follows b. Only II follows
c. Both follow d. None follows
193. Statement:
Many historians have done more harm than good by
distorting truth.
Assumption: a. 16 b. 18 c. 14 d. 15
I) People believe what is reported by the historians. 200. Select a suitable figure from the Answer Figures that
II) Historians are seldom expected to depict the would replace the question mark (?).
truth. Problem Figures: Answer Figures:
a. Only I is implicit b. Only II is implicit
c. Either I or II is implicit d. Both I and II are implicit
(A) (B) (C) (D) (1) (2) (3) (4) (5)
a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4
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