11/04/2022 RM_CODE-A

Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Phone : 011-47623456

MM : 720 REVISION TEST SERIES Time : 3 Hrs. 20 Min.

(for NEET-2022)
Test 4
Topics covered :
Physics : Electromagnetic Induction, Alternating Current, Electromagnetic Waves
Chemistry : The s-block Elements, Coordination Compounds, The d- & f block Elements
Botany : Microbes in Human Welfare, Strategies for Enhancement in Food Production
Zoology : Human Health and Disease

Instructions :
(i) There are two sections in each subject, i.e., Section-A & Section-B. You have to attempt all 35 questions
from Section-A & only 10 questions from Section-B out of 15.
(ii) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from the total score.
Unanswered / unattempted questions will be given no marks.
(iii) Use blue/black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
(iv) Mark should be dark and completely fill the circle.
(v) Dark only one circle for each entry.
(vi) Dark the circle in the space provided only.
(vii) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material
on the Answer sheet.

PHYSICS

Choose the correct answer:

SECTION-A e
1. A short bar magnet is kept stationary and a
solenoid is moving parallel to its axis, with
(1) (0, 0) t
constant velocity, as shown in the figure. Which
of the following best represents variation of
induced emf(e) in coil with time?
e
S N
(2) (0, 0) t

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Revision Test Series for NEET-2022 (XII Passed) Test-4_Code-A
e 7. Flux passing through a loop is changing with time
as shown in the figure. Select most appropriate

(3) (0, 0) t graph between induced emf ( ) and time(t)

= 2t2

e
t
(4) (0, 0) t

t t
2. Phase difference between voltage and current in (1) (0, 0) (2) (0, 0)
LCR series circuit at resonance is
(1) 0° (2) 45°
(3) 90° (4) 180°
t t
3. In an LCR series circuit voltage across resistor, (3) (0, 0) (4) (0, 0)
inductor and capacitor are same and is 50 V. If
capacitor is short circuited, then the voltage
across inductor will be (Assume same A.C. 8. Select correct statement regarding ideal
voltage source remains connected) transformer

(1) 25 2 V (2) 25 V (1) Input and output both have same frequency
and different power
(3) 50 2 V (4) 100 V
(2) Input and output both have same power and
4. An A.C. voltage V = 20 sin(80 t) is applied to a different frequency
circuit. How many times current in circuit
(3) Input and output both have same power and
becomes zero in 2 second?
frequency
(1) 40 (2) 80
(4) Input and output both have different
(3) 160 (4) 240 frequency and different power
5. A part of complex circuit is shown in the diagram.
9. A square plate of side 20 cm is kept in yz-plane in
If at an instant current is from A to B and is 2 A
and the potential difference between point A and a region where magnetic field B (4i 6 j 2k ) T .
di The magnitude of magnetic flux passing through
B is zero, then the is
dt the loop is

10 V (1) 16 weber
1 0.2 H
(2) 0.16 weber
A i=2A B
(3) 0.4 40 weber
(1) 4 A/s (2) 20 A/s
(3) 30 A/s (4) 40 A/s (4) 2.4 weber

6. Current flowing through an inductor of inductance 10. Self-inductance L of a coil of length l, area of
2 H, is 4 A. The magnitude of flux through the cross-section A, and total number of turns N,
inductor is increases with increase in (i is current)

(1) 2 Wb (2) 3 Wb (1) i (2) l and A

(3) 8 Wb (4) 6 Wb (3) i and l (4) N and A

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Test-4_Code-A Revision Test Series for NEET-2022 (XII Passed)
11. A circular loop and a square loop are entering 15. In the circuit shown in figure, the average power
into a region of uniform magnetic field with dissipated through the circuit is
constant speed. While the loops are entering C R
R v0

v0

E = E0 sin t
R
E02R E 02
(1) (2)
(1) Induced emf in both are constant 1 2R
2 2
R2
(2) Induced emf in square loop is variable and in C2
circular loop is constant
E 02
(3) Induced emf in circular loop is variable and in (3) (4) Zero
R
square loop it is constant
16. In a step up transformer
(4) None of the these
(1) NS < NP (2) NS = NP
12. A circular loop of radius R carrying current i is
(3) NS < NP (4) NS > NP
kept on xy-plane so that centre of loop is at
origin. The total magnetic flux passing through 17. A series LR circuit is connected with AC source
any sphere enclosing the loop is of peak voltage 100 V. If peak voltage across
inductor is 80 V, then effective current in the
0i R circuit is [Resistance of resistor is 15 ]
(1) Zero (2)
2
(1) 2 A (2) 4 A
0 iR 0i R
(3) (4) (3) 2.8 A (4) 6.5 A
2 4
18. In a series LCR resonance circuit, as the
13. A circular conducting loop of radius R is placed in
resistance of the circuit is decreased, The
uniform magnetic field B with its plane
Q-factor is
perpendicular to the field. If it is rotated about its
(1) Increased (2) Decreased
axis through centre normal to its plane with
angular frequency , then value of induced emf is (3) Zero (4) Remains same
19. A wire AB of length 1 m, is moving in a uniform
B R2
(1) B R2 (2) magnetic field of 2 T perpendicular to the plane of
paper, with constant velocity of 3 m/s,
R2 perpendicular to field as shown in figure. Force
(3) (4) Zero required to move the wire with constant velocity
B
3 m/s is
14. Alternating current in a circuit is given as i = i1 + i2
×
× A ×
cos t. The root mean square value of this
× ×
current in circuit is R=2
× F
i 22
(1) i12 + i22 (2) i12 × ×
2 ×
× B ×

i 22 i12 i 22 (1) 6 N (2) 3 N

2
(3) i1 (4)
2 2 (3) 4 N (4) Zero

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Revision Test Series for NEET-2022 (XII Passed) Test-4_Code-A
20. If current i as shown in figure increases, at the
rate of 3 A/s, then VM VN is
1H 1H 1H (1)
i
M N
(1) 9 V (2) 3V
(3) 3 V (4) 9V
21. In an AC generator, the magnetic flux linked with
the rotating coil has maximum value and (2)
frequency of rotation of coil is f. Then amplitude
of emf generated is

(1)
f
2
(2)
f
(3)
2
(3)
f

(4) 2 f
22. A square loop of wire of side l is placed at the
centre of a coplanar circular loop of radius R
(R >> l). Their centre coincide. The mutual (4)
inductance of system is directly proportional to
(1) R2 (2) R
(3) l2 (4) l
23. In electromagnetic induction, the induced charge 25. Number of turns in primary and secondary of a
that flows in a coil is independent of coil are 200 and 400 respectively. The
(1) Resistance
10 V DC. The voltage in secondary will be
(2) Change in flux
(3) Time in which change in flux is brought (1) 20 V (2) Zero

(4) All of these (3) 30 V (4) 50 V

24. The current (i) in the inductance is varying with 26. In an A.C. circuit V and I are given by V = 100
time(t) according to the plot shown in figure
sin100t volt and I 100 sin 100 t
3
milliampere. The power dissipated in the circuit is:
(1) 104 watt (2) 10 watt
(3) 2.5 watt (4) 5 watt
27. A 200 V ac source is fed to a series LCR circuit
having XL = 50 ohm, XC = 50 and R = 25 ohm.
Potential drop across the inductor is:
Which one of the following is the best (1) 100 V (2) 200 V
representation of correct variation of e.m.f with
time in the coil? (3) 400 V (4) 10 V

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Test-4_Code-A Revision Test Series for NEET-2022 (XII Passed)
28. The rms value of potential difference V (shown in 31. The direction of electromagnetic wave is along
the figure) for one time period T is the direction of (symbols have their usual
meanings)
(1) B E (2) E B

(3) E B (4) E B
32. A transformer is used to light 140 W, 24 V lamp
from 240 V A.C. mains. The current in the main
cable is 0.7 A. The efficiency of the transformer is
(1) 63.7% (2) 58%
V0 (3) 83.3% (4) 34%
(1) (2) V0
3 33. Consider a parallel plate capacitor with circular
plates of area A. At an instant, the charge on the
V0 V0 plates of capacitor is q and it is increasing at a
(3) (4)
2 2 dq
rate . The displacement current through a
29. An aluminium ring faces an electromagnet. The dt
current i through electromagnet can be altered by A
changing the setting of rheostat. Choose the circular region of area parallel to the plates,
2
correct statement between them is
E +q q
A

A
Area
2
i 1 dq dq
(1) (2) 2
K 4 dt dt
+ 1 dq dq
(3) (4)
(1) As the K shifts towards right, E will repel A 2 dt dt
(2) As the K shifts towards left, E will attract A 34. The magnetic flux ( ) in an induction coil varies
(3) As the K shifts towards right, E will attract A with time (t) according to the graph as shown in
the figure. Choose the correct graph best
(4) Both (1) & (2) are correct representing induced emf ( ) in the coil with time
30. The magnetic field in a plane electromagnetic
wave is given by

By 2 10 sin(0.5 10 x 1.5 10 t )T j
where x, t are in m and s respectively. The t
O t1 t2
expression for the electric field is

(1) Ex 60sin(0.5 103 y 1.5 1011t ) V/m $i

(2) Ex 2 10 sin(0.5 10 x 1.5 10 t ) V/m (1) (2)

$i

(3) Ez 60sin(0.5 103 x 1.5 1011t ) V/m k

(4) Ez 2 10 sin(0.5 10 y 1.5 10 t ) V/m (3) (4)

k

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Revision Test Series for NEET-2022 (XII Passed) Test-4_Code-A
35. A circular loop of radius r is placed at the centre 39. Electromagnetic wave can be produced by
of current carrying conducting square loop of side (1) L-C oscillations
a. If both loops are coplanar and a >> r, then the
(2) De-excitation of nucleus
mutual inductance between the loops will be
(3) Stationary charge
2 2
0r 0r (4) Both (1) and (2)
(1) (2)
2 2(a) 4a
40. A circular loop of radius a is rotated in a uniform
2 2 magnetic field B0 with constant angular velocity
2 2 0r 0r
(3) (4) about diameter as shown in the figure. Choose
a 4 2a
the correct graph of induced emf versus time t.
SECTION-B (consider at t = 0 area vector of loop is in the
36. A circular conducting coil of radius r0 having direction of magnetic field)

resistance R is placed in a time varying B0

transverse uniform magnetic field B 4t 2 as

shown in the figure. The current in the coil at time
t = 2 s is (consider all quantities are in SI units)
2
B a B0

O t
(1)
r0 2
a B0

a2 B 0
16 r02 4 r02
(1) (2) (2) O t
R R 2
a B0
8 r02 r02
(3) (4)
R R
2
37. In the given branch PQ of a circuit, a current
a B0
I = (2t + 3) A is flowing, where t is time in second. (3) O t
Then the value of potential difference (VP VQ) at
t = 2 s will be a2 B0

I
P Q
4 2H a2 B0
10 V
(1) 24 V (2) 42 V (4) O t
2
(3) 34 V (4) Zero a B0
38. If the electric field component of an electro- 41. A plane E.M. wave in free space is travelling
magnetic wave moving in positive x-direction is along the +x-direction. The electric field
8 N component of the wave at a particular point of
given by E x t j , then
C space and time is E 103 j V/m. Its magnetic
the average energy density of the
field component B at this point be
electromagnetic wave will be
(1) 0.33 10 5 k T (2) 0.33 10 5 ( k ) T
(1) 2.8 × 10 10 J/m3 (2) 1.6 × 10 10 J/m3
(3) 9 × 1010 J/m3 (4) 3.8 × 10 8 J/m3 (3) 0.33 10 5 k T (4) 0.33 10 5 ( k ) T

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Test-4_Code-A Revision Test Series for NEET-2022 (XII Passed)
42. An electromagnetic wave going through a 46. A transformer works on principal of
medium is described by E = E0sin(kx t) and B (1) Self induction
= B0sin (kx t), then (2) Mutual induction
(1) E0k = B0 (2) E0 = B0k (3) Electric inertia
(3) E0B0 = k (4) E0 = B0 k (4) Magnetic effect of current
47. An L-R circuit is shown in figure. What is peak
43. A conducting ring of radius 2r is placed in a
value of current in circuit.
varying magnetic field perpendicular to the plane
of the ring. If the rate at which the magnetic field
varies is x, the electric field intensity at any point
of the ring is
rx
(1) rx (2)
2
(2) 2rx (4) 4rx
44. The core of transformer is laminated to reduce (1) 3.6 A (2) 1.8 A
(3) 2.6 A (4) 5.1 A
(1) Flux leakage (2) Hysteresis loss
48. For series L-C-R circuit at resonance, the
(3) Eddy current loss (4) Copper loss
statement which is incorrect is
45. A metallic ring is kept on a horizontal hard paper (1) Wattless current is zero
(which is transparent to magnetic field) such that
(2) Power factor is zero
its centre coincide with the axis of a long solenoid
(3) Impedance of circuit is equal to resistance of
(as shown in figure). If current in solenoid is
circuit
switched on then normal reaction between ring
(4) Average power is equal to apparent power
and paper will
49. In case of inductor connected to an A.C. source

(1) Voltage lags current by

2

(2) Voltage leads current by

2
K (3) Voltage and current are in phase
R (4) Inductive reactance is independent of A.C.
source frequency
(1) Continuously decrease
50. The part of the spectrum of electromagnetic
(2) Continuously increase waves used to cook food is
(3) Remain unchanged (1) x-rays (2) Ultraviolet rays
(4) First decreases and then becomes constant (3) Radiowaves (4) Microwaves

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A 52. Correct order of density is

51. Least soluble in water among the following is (1) Li > Na > K
(1) BeSO4
(2) Na > K > Li
(2) MgSO4
(3) K > Na > Li
(3) BaSO4
(4) CaSO4 (4) K > Li > Na

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Revision Test Series for NEET-2022 (XII Passed) Test-4_Code-A
53. Concentrated solution of alkali metals in liquid 62. The following diagram of splitting of d-orbitals
ammonia is/are takes place in the formation of
(1) Blue in colour
(2) Bronze in colour
(3) Diamagnetic in nature
(4) Both (2) and (3)
54. Which of following does not exist as a solid?
(1) LiHCO3 (2) NaHCO3
(3) KHCO3 (4) RbHCO3
55. In flame test, apple green colour is shown by (1) Octahedral complexes

(1) Sr (2) Ba (2) Tetrahedral complexes

(3) Ca (4) Mg (3) Both tetrahedral and octahedral complexes

56. Dead burnt plaster is (4) Square planar complexes

(1) CaSO4 (2) CaCO3 63. MnO24 (1 mol) in acidic medium disproportionates
to
1
(3) CaSO4 H2O (4) CaSO4 2H2O
2 2 1
(1) mol of MnO4 and mol of MnO2
57. Which of the following transition elements shows 3 3
the highest oxidation state? 1 2
(2) mol of MnO4 and mol of MnO2
(1) Cr (2) Mn 3 3
(3) V (4) Os 1 1
(3) mol of Mn2O7 and mol of MnO2
58. The IUPAC name of [Cu(NH3)4] [NiCl4] is 3 7

(1) Tetraamminecopper(II) tetrachloridonickelate(II) 2 1

(4) mol of Mn2O7 and mol of MnO2
(2) Tetrachloridonickel(II) tetraamminecuprate(II)
3 3
64. KMnO4 on strong heating gives a gas which is
(3) Tetraamminecopper(II) tetrachloridonickel(II)
(1) O2 (2) MnO
(4) Tetrachloronickelate(II) tetraamminecopper(II)
(3) Mn2O3 (4) MnO2
59. Which of the following equimolar solution has the
highest molar conductivity in the solution? 65. Correct order of spin only magnetic moments of

(1) [Pt(NH3)6]Cl4 (2) [Pt(NH3)5Cl]Cl3 Ni(CO)4, [Ti(H2O)6]2+, [V(H2O)6]2+, [Fe(H2O)6]2+ is

(3) [Pt(NH3)4Cl2]Cl2 (4) [Pt(NH3)3Cl3]Cl I II III IV

60. If excess AgNO3 solution is added in 1 M solution (1) I < II < III < IV (2) IV < III < II < I
of CoCl3.xNH3, two moles of AgCl is formed. (3) II < III < I < IV (4) II < I < III < IV
What is the value of x? 66. Heteroleptic complex among the following is
(1) 2 (2) 5 (1) [Fe(CN)6]4 (2) [Cr(NH3)3Cl3]
(3) 4 (4) 6 (3) [Cr(NH3)6]3+ (4) Cr(CO)6
61. Which of the following is an amphoteric oxide? 67.
(1) Cr2O3 (2) Mn2O7 (1) [CrCl2F2Br2]3 (2) [Cr(NH3)2(en)Cl2]+

(3) CrO (4) Cl2O7 (3) [Cr(NH3)2(en)2]3+ (4) [Cr(NH3)2(CN)2Br2]

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Test-4_Code-A Revision Test Series for NEET-2022 (XII Passed)
68. FeSO4 on treatment with excess of KCN gives a 75. The product obtained upon reaction of I with
product that does not give test of Fe2+. The MnO4 in alkaline medium is
product formed is (1) I2 (2) IO3
(1) [Fe(CN)2]SO4 (2) K3[Fe(CN)6] (3) IO (4) IO4
(3) K4[Fe(CN)6] (4) KFe[Fe(CN)6] 76. Which among the following ions has the lowest
69. Electronic configuration of d6 system in low spin value of negative hydration enthalpy?
octahedral complex is
(1) Cu2+ (2) Ti2+
(1) t 62g e0g (2) t52g e1g (3) Ni2+ (4) Cr2+

4 2 3 3 77. Most common oxidation state of Ti and V

(3) t 2g eg (4) t 2g eg respectively are
70. Which of the following relation is correct for same (1) + 2 and + 4 (2) + 4 and + 5
metal ion and ligand? (3) + 3 and + 5 (4) + 4 and + 3
9 3 78. The species which is orange in colour is
(1) 0 t (2) 0 t
4 4 (1) CrO42 (2) Cr2O72
4 4 (3) [Ti(H2O)6]3+ (4) MnO42
(3) 0 t (4) 0 t
3 9
79. Which among the following has highest value of
71. Which of the following is correct regarding enthalpy of atomisation?
Valence Bond Theory regarding co-ordination
(1) Co (2) Mn
compounds?
(3) Cu (4) Sc
(1) It gives a quantitative interpretation of
thermodynamic stability (or kinetic stability) of 80. Which of the following has shortest C O bond
complexes length?
(2) It does not distinguish between strong and (1) [Co(CO)4] (2) [Cr(CO)6]
weak field ligands (3) [Mn(CO)6]+ (4) [Fe(CO)5]
(3) It explains the colour exhibited by 81. In Castner Kellner cell, cathode is made up of
coordination compounds
(1) Steel (2) Platinum
(4) It makes exact predictions regarding
(3) Carbon (4) Mercury
tetrahedral and square planar geometry
82. Which compound has maximum solubility in
72. Coordination compound used as catalyst in the
water?
hydrogenation of alkenes and its formula is
(1) BeF2 (2) MgF2
(1) Dithiosulphatoargentate(I) ion: [Ag(S2O3)2]3
(3) CaF2 (4) SrF2
(2) Ziegler-Natta catalyst : TiCl4 + (C2H5)3Al
83. Which of the following has the highest value of
(3) Wilkinson catalyst : [(Ph3P)3RhCl]
E ?
(4) Cis-platin : [Pt(NH3)2Cl2] M/M2+

73. Which among the following contains highest (1) Fe (2) Ti

number of unpaired electrons? (3) Co (4) Ni
(1) Gd3+ (2) Ce3+ 84. 0 is
the octahedral crystal field splitting energy,
(3) Pm3+ (4) Sm3+ then the CFSE for [Fe(CN)6]4 is (ignore pairing
74. Outer orbital complex among the following is energy)

(1) [Fe(CN)6]3 (2) [Co(H2O)6]3+ (1) 0 (2) 0

(3) [MnCl6]3 (4) [Co(C2O4)3]3 (3) 0 (4) 0

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Revision Test Series for NEET-2022 (XII Passed) Test-4_Code-A
85. Which of the following complex ion have 94. Thermally most stable carbonate among the
symmetrical distribution of d electron of central following is
metal ion in eg orbital?
(1) Na2CO3 (2) K2CO3
(1) [Co(CN)6]4 (2) [Fe(H2O)6]2+
(3) Li2CO3 (4) Rb2CO3
(3) [Cu(NH3)6]2+ (4) [Co(en)3]2+
95. Among the following, lowest melting point is of
SECTION-B
(1) Ti (2) Mn
86. Ionic mobility of which of the following alkali metal
ions is lowest when aqueous solution of their (3) V (4) Cr
salts are put under an electric field? 96. The possible number of enantiomeric pair(s) for
(1) Na+ (2) K+ the complex ion is
(3) Rb+ (4) Li+
(1) 1 (2) 2
87. IUPAC name of K3[Al(C2O4)3] is
(3) 3 (4) 4
(1) Potassium trioxalatoaluminium (III)
97. Select the incorrect statement out of the
(2) Potassium trioxalatoaluminium (II)
following.
(3) Potassium trioxalatoaluminate (III)
(1) has a positive value
(4) Potassium trioxalatoaluminate (II)
88. Which oxidation state is not observed for cobalt? (2) Cu2+ cannot oxidise I to I2

(1) + 2 (2) + 3 (3) Cu+ disproportionates in aqueous solutions to

form Cu2+ and Cu
(3) + 5 (4) + 4
89. Which oxide of Mn is most acidic in nature? (4) Cu2+(aq) is more stable than Cu+(aq) as the
hydration of Cu2+ is much more exothermic
(1) MnO (2) MnO2
than that of Cu+, which compensates more
(3) Mn2O7 (4) Mn2O3 than the second ionisation enthalpy of Cu
90. Heating of LiNO3 produces
98. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
(1) Li3N (2) LiNO2
(1) The hybridisation of Co in [CoF6]3 is sp3d2
(3) Li2O (4) LiOH
(2) The hybridisation of Co in [Co(NH3)6]3+ is
91. Among the following, chelating ligand is d2sp3
(1) C2H4 (2) C2O24 (3) The hybridisation of Fe in [Fe(CN)6]3 is sp3d2

(3) CO32 (4) CN (4) The hybridisation of Ni in Ni(CO)4 is sp3

99. Which of the following pairs has the same size?
92. [Co(NH3)5SO4]Br and [Co(NH3)5Br]SO4 are
related as (1) Zn2+, Hf4+ (2) Fe2+, Sc2+
(1) Linkage isomers (3) Zr4+, Ti4+ (4) Zr4+, Hf4+
(2) Coordination isomers 100. Which statement is correct comparison between
(3) Ionisation isomers lanthanoids and actinoids?
(4) Geometrical isomers (1) Actinoid contraction is more than lanthanoid
93. Which of the following is not an organometallic contraction
compound? (2) Actinoids do not show variable valency
(1) Grignard reagent (3) Lanthanoids show higher tendency to form
(2) Tetracarbonyl nickel oxocations than actinoids
(3) Wilkinson catalyst (4) More number of lanthanoids are radioactive
(4) Ferrocene than actinoids

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Test-4_Code-A Revision Test Series for NEET-2022 (XII Passed)

BOTANY

SECTION-A 107. Which of the given is vitamin A enriched

101. Methods of producing large number of plants in vegetable crop developed by IARI, New Delhi?
very short duration is called (1) Pumpkin (2) Tomato

(1) Biofortification (3) Bitter gourd (4) Bathua

108. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. somatic
(2) Micropropagation
hybridisation.
(3) Protoplast fusion
(1) It is fusion of protoplast of two plants
(4) Somatic hybridisation belonging to same variety
102. (2) Cells are first treated with pectinase and
cellulase
(1) Wheat (2) Rice
(3) Naked protoplast are fused by electrofusion
(3) Sugarcane (4) Maize
or chemofusion
103. (4) PEG or sodium nitrate are used during
selection for disease resistance against bacterial chemofusion of protoplast
blight is a variety of
109. The crucial step for the success of breeding
(1) Chilli (2) Cauliflower experiment is
(3) Wheat (4) Cowpea (1) Germplasm collection

104. Select the incorrect match w.r.t. crop varieties (2) Evaluation and selection of parents
and resistance to disease (3) Cross hybridisation

(1) Himgiri Hill bunt (4) Selection and testing of superior

recombinants
(2) Pusa shubhra Leaf and stripe rust
110. Match the column I with II and select the correct
(3) Pusa swarnim White rust option.
(4) Pusa sadabahar Chilly mosaic virus
Column I Column II
105. A gene responsible for dwarfing in rice, dee-geo-
a. Bioactive (i) Plants genetically
woo-gen, was reported in
molecules identical to the
(1) Taiwan (2) Philippines original plant
(3) India (4) Australia produced during
tissue culture
106. Consider the following statements and select the
incorrect option. b. Somaclone (ii) Functional in
living system
(1) Wheat variety Atlas 66 with high protein
content has been used as a donor for c. Domestication (iii) Purposeful
improving cultivated wheat. manipulation of
plant species
(2) SCP is alternative source of proteins for
animal and human nutrition. d. Plant breeding (iv) Bringing species
under human
(3) The capacity to generate a whole plant from management
any cell/explant is called totipotency.
(1) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii) (2) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
(4) In tissue culture, the optimum pH should be
(3) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i) (4) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii)
7.5.

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Revision Test Series for NEET-2022 (XII Passed) Test-4_Code-A
111. Cereals are commonly deficient in 118. Large holed swiss cheese is ripened by
(1) Lysine and cysteine (1) Penicillium (2) Propionibacterium
(2) Lysine and methionine (3) Leuconostoc (4) Streptococcus
(3) Lysine and tryptophan 119. Select the incorrect match w.r.t microbes and
(4) Methionine and cysteine their applications.

112. In Abelmoschus esculentus, resistance to yellow (1) Aspergillus Flavouring and

mosaic virus was brought about by niger preservation of foods
(1) Tissue culture (2) Acetobacter Employed in dyeing
(2) Conventional breeding aceti
(3) Mutation (3) Clostridium Used for making
(4) Biofortification butylicum rancid butter
113. Which of the given characteristics develops (4) Lactobacillus Curd
resistance to stem borer in maize?
120. Which of the given is used as immunosuppressive
(1) Low nitrogen only
agent in organ-transplant patients?
(2) Low aspartic acid and sugar
(1) Statin (2) Lipase
(3) High aspartic acid only
(3) Cyclosporin A (4) Streptokinase
(4) Low nitrogen, sugar and high aspartic acid
121. Which of the given is major component of biogas
114. Sugarcane of North India, i.e., Saccharum barberi w.r.t. their percentage composition?
had
(1) CH4 (2) CO2
(1) High sugar content (2) Thick stem
(3) H2 (4) H2S
(3) Poor sugar content (4) High yield
122. Which of the given stages of sewage treatment
115. Find the incorrect match. removes floating debris?
Variety Resistance to (1) Primary treatment
(1) Pusa Gaurav Aphids (2) Secondary treatment
(2) Pusa Snow ball K-1 Black rot (3) Tertiary treatment
(3) Pusa Sawani Aphids (4) Biological treatment
(4) Pusa A-4 Shoot borer 123. The microbial biocontrol agent that can be
116. The technology of biogas production was introduced to control butterfly caterpillars is
developed in India mainly due to the efforts of (1) Trichoderma
(1) Ministry of Environment and Forest (2) Bacillus thuringiensis
(2) Indian Agricultural Research Institute (IARI) (3) Azotobacter
(3) Khadi and Village Industries Commission (4) Aulosira
(KVIC) 124. Identify the viruses given in figure
(4) Both (2) and (3)
117. Blood-cholesterol lowering agent
(1) Is streptokinase
(2) Is produced by bacterium Streptococcus
(3) Resembles mevalonate and is competitive
inhibitor of -hydroxy- -methylglutaryl CoA
reductase or HMG CoA reductase
(4) Is produced by the yeast Saccharomyces (1) TMV (2) Adenovirus
cerevisiae (3) Chilly mosaic virus (4) Bacteriophage

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Test-4_Code-A Revision Test Series for NEET-2022 (XII Passed)
125. Read the given statements stating true (T) or 129. In the production of which of the following, yeast
false (F) and select the correct option. is not used?
Statement-A : Flocs are masses of bacteria (1) Bread (2) Toddy
associated with fungal filaments. (3) Beer (4) Dosa
Statement-B : Raising of crops through the use 130. Puffed-up appearance of dough is due to
of chemical fertilizer is organic forming. production of
A B (1) CO2 only

(1) F F (2) Both O2 and ethanol

(2) T T (3) Lactic acid

(3) T F (4) CO2 and starch

(4) F T 131. The turbidity of fruit juices is cleared with the help
of enzyme
126. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t
(1) Pectinases (2) Lipases
(3) Amylases (4) Streptokinase
(1) Grow anaerobically on cellulosic material
132. How many of the given practices or measures are
(2) Produce large amount of CH4 along with CO2
used by organic farmer for managing the pest
and H2 and pathogen?
(3) Promotes the growth of bacteria and fungi Natural predators, chemical methods, biological
present in sludge in anaerobic sludge control methods, conventional farming practices
digester
(1) Three (2) Two
(4) Are present in rumen of cattle
(3) Four (4) One
127. Read the following statements and select the
133. Which of the following can be used for recovery
option which is true for them.
of healthy plants from diseased plant?
Statement A : Dragonflies are useful to get rid of
(1) Embryo and pollen
aphids.
(2) Apical and axillary meristems
Statement B : The majority of baculoviruses
(3) Protoplast and anther
used as biocontrol agents are in the genus
Nucleopolyhedrovirus. (4) Pollen and embryo sac

(1) Only statement A is correct 134. Some growth regulators are required for cell
division and organ regeneration in tissue culture.
(2) Only statement B is correct Which of the following chemicals is not used as a
(3) Both statements A and B are correct growth regulator in tissue culture?
(4) Both statements A and B are incorrect (1) 2, 4 D

128. During primary treatment in STP, all the solids (2) Auxins
settle form the A , and the supernatant form (3) ABA
the B . (4) Benzyl amino purine
135. Antibiotics
Select the option which correctly fills A and B.
(1) Are obtained from prokaryotic and eukaryotic
(1) A- Primary sludge B- Primary effluent organisms
(2) A- Primary effluent B- Primary sludge (2) Are most significant discoveries of 9th century
(3) Are used to treat deadly diseases like
(3) A- Primary sludge B- Activated sludge
gal ghotu, colour blindness
(4) A- Activated sludge B- Primary effluent (4)

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Revision Test Series for NEET-2022 (XII Passed) Test-4_Code-A
SECTION-B 143. The entire collection of plants or seeds having all
136. Single cell protein the diverse alleles for all genes in a given crop is
called
(1) Is rich in good quality protein
(1) Hybridisation
(2) Poor in fats
(2) Germplasm collection
(3) Is rich in fats and poor in protein
(3) Pure line collection
(4) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Biofortification
137. Himgiri and Pusa Shubhra are developed
144. The main source of biofertilisers is/are
through
a. Bacteria
(1) Conventional method of plant breeding
b. Fungi
(2) Mutational method of plant breeding
c. Cyanobacteria
(3) Conventional and mutational methods of
(1) Only b (2) Only c
plant breeding respectively
(3) Only a and b (4) All a, b and c
(4) Mutational and conventional methods of plant
breeding respectively 145. Pusa sem 2 and 3 are varieties of flat bean. They
are resistant to
138. IARI, New Delhi has developed biofortified
spinach which is rich in (1) Shoot borer only
(2) Fruit borer only
(1) Only amino acids and iron
(3) Jassids, aphids and fruit borer
(2) Protein and minerals
(4) Jassids only
(3) Vitamin A, calcium and iron
146. Bacteria which can fix atmospheric nitrogen while
(4) Oil and micronutrients
free-living in the soil is/are
139. Lactic acid bacteria (LAB)
(1) Rhizobium (2) Azospirillum
(1) Completely digest the milk proteins (3) Azotobacter (4) Both (2) and (3)
(2) Can check disease causing microbes 147. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t Trichoderma
(3) Produce acid at any temperature (1) Trichoderma species are free-living fungi
(4) Produce acetic acid (2) They are very commonly found in the root
140. In STP, secondary treatment involves ecosystems
(a) Agitation (b) Aeration (3) They are effective biocontrol agents of
several plant pathogens
(c) Chlorination
(4) It can control the butterfly caterpillars easily
Choose the correct option
148. Which among the following is produced without
(1) Only (a) and (c) (2) Only (c)
distillation?
(3) Only (a) and (b) (4) Only (b) (1) Rum (2) Wine
141. Bacteria present in gut of ruminants and marshy (3) Brandy (4) Whisky
area are
149. Pusa Swarnim, resistant to white rust is variety of
(1) Halophiles (2) Thermoacidophiles
(1) Wheat (2) Chili
(3) Thermohalophiles (4) Methanogens
(3) Brassica (4) Cauliflower
142. Classical plant breeding involves
150. Citric acid is mainly produced by the organism
(1) Hybridisation of pure lines
(1) Lactobacillus
(2) Domestication (2) Aspergillus niger
(3) Tissue culture (3) Penicillium notatum
(4) Using molecular genetic tools (4) Staphylococci

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Test-4_Code-A Revision Test Series for NEET-2022 (XII Passed)

ZOOLOGY

SECTION-A 156. Property of normal cells called contact inhibition

151. Choose an autoimmune disorder among the is lost in
following. (1) Tuberculosis related complexes
(1) Myasthenia gravis (2) Muscular dystrophy (2) Bacterial infection
(3) Gout (4) Malaria (3) Malignant tumors
152. Choose the option where the disease does not (4) Severe combined immuno deficiency
match with its mode of transmission from the 157. Cancer of lymph nodes are named as
patient to the healthy person. (1) Lymphoma (2) Carcinomas
(1) Pneumonia - Air-borne droplets (3) Leukemia (4) Melanomas

(2) Typhoid - Contaminated food 158. LSD is a powerful hallucinogenic drug that is
and water obtained from
(1) Papaver somniferum
(3) Filariasis - Bite by female
(2) Claviceps purpurea
Anopheles vector
(3) Cannabis sativa
(4) Sleeping sickness - Bite by tse-tse fly
(4) Erythroxylum coca
153. The antibodies mainly produced against 159. Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t. HIV.
allergens in a hypersensitive patient are of type
(1) NACO is doing a lot of work to educate
(1) IgA (2) IgE people about AIDS.
(3) IgM (4) IgD (2) HIV has two copies of similar ssRNA.
154. Read the following statements w.r.t. Plasmodium (3) In AIDS, patients start suffering from
vivax. Select the incorrect statement. opportunistic infections due to decrease in
(1) Parasites reproduce sexually in the red blood number of helper T-cells.
cells of human, bursting the red blood cells (4) HIV do not spread by sharing infected
and causing cycles of fever and other needles.
symptoms. 160. Identify the plant part given in the diagram and
(2) Sexual stages (gametocytes) develop in select the drug that is obtained from it and its
RBCs of human. effect on the body
(3) Fertilisation takes place in the gut of
mosquito.
(4) Female mosquito takes up gametocytes with
blood meal.
155. Which among the following set of symptoms are
indicative of amoebiasis?
(1) Difficulty in respiration, fever, chills, cough,
headache
(2) Constipation, abdominal pain, cramps, blood
clots and mucous in stools (1) Claviceps purpurea Synthetic drug
Hallucinogen
(3) Nasal congestion and discharge, cough, sore
throat, headache (2) Cannabis sativa Bhang Hallucinogen

(4) Internal bleeding, muscular pain, fever, (3) Datura Morphine Pain killer
anemia and blockage of intestinal passage (4) Cannabis sativa Charas Stimulant

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Revision Test Series for NEET-2022 (XII Passed) Test-4_Code-A
161. Opioids binds to their specific receptors present 167. Read the following statements and choose the
in CNS. Choose the drug which does not fall into correct option.
this category. Statement-A: Dependence is the tendency of the
(1) Morphine (2) Amphetamines body to manifest a characteristic and unpleasant
withdrawal syndrome if regular dose of
(3) Smack (4) Heroin drug/alcohol is abruptly discontinued.
162. Cells which act as HIV factory are Statement-B: Dependence leads the patient to
(1) Helper T-cells ignore all social norms in order to get sufficient
funds to satiate his/her needs.
(2) Macrophages
(1) Both statements are incorrect
(3) Nerve cells
(2) Statement A is correct only
(4) Killer T-cells
(3) Statement A is incorrect only
163. A widely used diagnostic test for HIV is ____ and (4) Both statements are correct
its confirmatory test is done by ____.
168. Which among the following is correct w.r.t.
Choose the option which respectively fill the nicotine found in tobacco?
blanks correctly. (1) Stimulates adrenal gland to release
(1) PCR, Southern blotting adrenaline and nor-adrenaline

(2) ELISA, Western blotting (2) Decreases blood pressure

(3) Decreases heart rate
(3) ELISA, Northern blotting
(4) Is obtained from coca plant
(4) Pap smear, ELISA
169. Select a pair of primary lymphoid organs from the
164. Select the incorrect match w.r.t. carcinogens given options.
and their carcinogenic effect on the organs of the (1)
body
(2) Lymph nodes and spleen
(1) Cadmium oxide Prostate gland (3) Bone marrow and thymus
(2) Nickel compounds Lungs (4) MALT and tonsils
(3) Vinyl chloride Skin 170. Select the odd one w.r.t. detection and diagnosis
(4) Cigarette smoke Lungs of cancer.

165. Which is wrong w.r.t. alcohol abuse? (1) Biopsy (2) Immunotherapy
(3) CT scan (4) MRI
(1) May result in gastric carcinoma, peptic ulcer
171. Several genes called ________ in normal cells
(2) Alcohol damages the liver, causing cirrhosis get activated under certain conditions and could
(3) Fatty liver lead to carcinogenic transformation of the cells.
(4) Decrease urine output Choose the option that fills the blank correctly.
(1) Viral oncogenes (2) Proto oncogenes
166. Select an incorrect statement w.r.t. adolescence
from the following. (3) GP120 (4) CD8
172. All of the following statements are correct
(1) Adolescence is bridge linking childhood and
regarding AIDS, except
adulthood.
(1) It was first reported in 1981.
(2) It is a stage of human in which a child
(2) It is a hereditary, congenital disease as HIV
becomes mature in terms of his/her attitudes
can pass on from mother to her child.
and beliefs.
(3) Symptoms of AIDS begin to appear when T H
(3) It is a period of life between 12 to 18 years of lymphocyte count decreases drastically
age. (4) A person could be detected as HIV positive,
(4) Least vulnerable phase of mental and but it is not necessary that he is suffering
psychological development. from symptoms of AIDS at that time

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Test-4_Code-A Revision Test Series for NEET-2022 (XII Passed)
173. Which of the following side-effects of anabolic 179. Pneumonia is caused by
steroids is not observed in females? (1) Salmonella typhi
(1) Masculinisation (2) Wuchereria bancrofti
(2) Breast enlargement
(3) Haemophilus influenzae
(3) Excessive hair growth on face and body
(4) Bacillus pestis
(4) Deepening of voice
180. Which of the following is a component of physical
174. A hallucinogenic drug obtained from Cannabis barrier of innate immunity?
sativa is
(1) Skin and mucous membrane
(1) LSD (2) Heroin
(2) Histamine and serotonin
(3) Coke (4) Marijuana
(3) Sebum and bile
175. Choose the incorrect statement from the options
given below (4) Perforins and interferons
(1) Antibodies against cancer-specific antigens 181. A viral disease which spreads by bite of a
are also used for detection of certain mosquito is
cancers. (1) Filariasis (2) Malaria
(2) Metagenesis is the most feared property of (3) Dengue (4) Diphtheria
malignant tumors
182. Leucocytes mainly responsible for humoral
(3) Depletion of ozone layer in atmosphere can immune response are
lead to increased incidences of skin cancer
(1) T-lymphocytes (2) B-lymphocytes
(4) Chemotherapy can be used to treat various
forms of cancer. (3) Macrophages (4) Neutrophils

176. All of the following drugs are used to treat 183. Which of the following statement is correct?
insomnia, except (1) Pathogen specific immunity is present only at
(1) Barbiturates (2) Benzodiazepines the time of birth.
(3) Valium (4) Cocaine (2) Colostrum contains IgA antibodies and
177. How many among the given statements are provides natural active immunity to new born
correct? (3) Interferons are glycolipids secreted by virus-
a. Alcohol addicts and all types of drug abusers infected cells to protect non-infected cells
are at high risk for acquiring HIV infection. from viral infection
b. Chemical carcinogens like UV rays and (4) The symptoms of allergy are quickly reduced
X-rays cause neoplastic transformations. by adrenaline and steroids
c. Cancer is the most dreaded infectious 184. MRI uses strong A and B to
disease of human.
accurately detect pathological and physiological
d. Drugs used in chemotherapy besides
changes in the living tissue. Choose the option
targeting cancer cells, also inhibit the
which fill blanks A and B correctly.
proliferation of normal cells in body leading to
hair loss and anemia. A B
(1) Four (2) Three (1) Ionising radiation Computed
(3) Two (4) One tomography
178. Select the mismatch. (2) Non-ionizing radiation X-rays
(1) Hashish Cannabis sativa
(3) Magnetic fields Non-ionising
(2) Morphine Papaver somniferum
radiations
(3) Atropine Atropa belladonna
(4) Magnetic fields Ionising radiations
(4) Crack Datura
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Revision Test Series for NEET-2022 (XII Passed) Test-4_Code-A
185. The figure given below illustrates the mode of 189. Anamnestic response is always vigorous due to
action of HIV. Identify steps A, B, C and D presence of
labelled in it (1) Suppressor T-cells (2) Memory cells
Retrovirus (3) Killer T-cells (4) Helper T-cells
Viral RNA core
Virus infects 190. Which of the following is a plasma protein that
Viral protein normal cell
coat helps in the immune response of the body?
Plasma
membrane (1) Albumin (2) Collagen
Animal cell
(3) Fibrinogen (4) Globulin
A Cytoplasm 191. A very effective sedative and painkiller which is
useful for patients who have undergone surgery
D
B is
(1) Opium in raw form
(2) Morphine
C New viruses
are produced (3) Diacetylmorphine
Nucleus DNA
(4) Barbiturates
192. Choose the factors which lead to oncogenic
New viruses transformation within cells.
can infect other cells
a. UV-rays
(1) A-Viral RNA, B-Viral RNA, C-Viral DNA form
new glycoprotein receptor, D-New viral DNA b. X-rays

(2) A-Viral DNA, B-Viral DNA, C-New viral RNA, c. Radiowaves

D-Viral RNA introduced into host genome d. Tobacco smoke
(3) A-Viral RNA, B-Viral DNA, C-New Viral RNA, e. Retrovirus
D-Viral DNA incorporated into host genome (1) a, b and c (2) a, b, d and e
(4) A-Viral DNA, B-Viral RNA, C-New Viral DNA, (3) a, b and d only (4) b and d only
D-Viral RNA incorporated into host genome 193. The immunity which is mainly responsible for
SECTION-B graft rejection is
186. Choose the odd one w.r.t. genera responsible for (1) Humoral immunity
ringworms. (2) Antibody mediated immunity
(1) Wuchereria (3) Cell mediated immunity
(2) Microsporum (4) Passive immunity
(3) Trichophyton 194. Which among the following is not a viral disease?
(4) Epidermophyton (1) Mumps
187. Interferons are included in (2) Diphtheria
(1) Physical barriers (3) Chicken pox
(2) Physiological barriers (4) Measles
(3) Cellular barriers 195. Acidic pH in stomach, saliva in mouth and tears
(4) Cytokine barriers from the eyes are parts of

188. (1) Physical barriers of innate immunity

itself after exposure to (2) Physiological barriers of innate immunity
(1) ATS (2) DPT vaccine (3) Cytokine barriers of innate immunity
(3) Antidote (4) Anti-venom (4) Humoral mediated specific immunity

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Test-4_Code-A Revision Test Series for NEET-2022 (XII Passed)
196. Select the odd one w.r.t. causative agents for the 199. Consider the given statements and select the
following given diseases. incorrect option w.r.t antibodies.
(1) Typhoid (2) Pneumonia (1) Antibodies are glycoprotein in nature
(3) Ringworms (4) Plague (2) IgM is the largest antibody
197. Consider the following symptoms. (3) IgD can cross the placenta
Internal bleeding, Muscular pain, Anemia, (4) Antigen binding site is present at N-terminal
Blockage of internal passage. of heavy and light chains

Above mentioned symptoms are observed in 200. Read the given statements and select the
disease caused by correct option.
(1) Ascaris Statement-A: Ebola virus is transferred through
(2) Entamoeba semen of an infected male.

(3) Wuchereria Statement-B: Pneumonia pathogen infects

alveoli whereas the common cold pathogen
(4) Microsporum
affects nose and respiratory passage but not the
198. Which of the following is used in the production
lungs.
of recombinant Hepatitis-B vaccine?
(1) Both statements A and B are correct
(1) Staphylococcus
(2) Both statements A and B are incorrect
(2) Yeast
(3) Only statement A is correct
(3) Trichophyton
(4) E.coli (4) Only statement B is correct

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