UPSC CSE EXAM

9 Year TOPIC - Wise PDF

Prelims PYQs Content
(SUBJECT-WISE & TOPIC-WISE)

GEOGRAPHY
[Part of our Prelims PYQ Content]
 PRELIMS PYQs Content - (Geography)
INDEX

CHAPTER-1 INDIA MAPPING POINTS, RIVERS, LAKES, GLACIERS, PEAKS, ETC.............................................. 3

CHAPTER-2 WORLD MAPPING POINTS, RIVERS, LAKES, GLACIERS, PEAKS, etc.......................................... 24

CHAPTER-3 PLACES IN NEWS ...................................................................................................................... 30

CHAPTER-4 NATURAL VEGETATION ............................................................................................................ 35

CHAPTER -5 AGRICULTURE .......................................................................................................................... 39

CHAPTER-6 ATMOSPHERE .......................................................................................................................... 55

CHAPTER-7 CLIMATOLOGY.......................................................................................................................... 58

CHAPTER-8 OCEANOGRAPHY ..................................................................................................................... 61

CHAPTER-9 PHYSIOGRAPHY ....................................................................................................................... 65

CHAPTER-10 PHYSIOGRAPHY OF INDIA ........................................................................................................ 68

CHAPTER-11 MINERAL AND ENERGY RESOURCES ........................................................................................ 71

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CHAPTER-1
INDIA MAPPING POINTS, RIVERS, LAKES, GLACIERS, PEAKS, ETC.
1. Wular Lake [UPSC 2023] 1. Consider the following statements:
 It is the largest freshwater lake in India; located in 1. Jhelum River passes through Wular
Bandipora district, Jammu and Kashmir. Lake.
 It is the second largest fresh-water lake of Asia. 2. Krishna River directly feeds Kolleru
 It lies at the north end of the Vale of Kashmir, 20 Lake.
miles (32 km) north-northwest of Srinagar. 3. Meandering of the Gandak River
 Main source of water is River Jhelum. The lake formed Kanwar Lake.
controls the flow of the Jhelum River, which How many of the statements given above
traverses it. are correct?
 This lake also has a small island in its centre called (a) Only one
the ‘Zaina Lank’. This island was constructed by (b) Only two
King Zainul-Abi-Din. (c) All three
 It is also said to be a remnant of Satisar Lake that (d) None
existed in ancient times.
 The Jhelum rises from a deep spring at Vernag, in
western Jammu and Kashmir, meanders
northwestward from the northern slope of the
PirPanjal through the Valley of Kashmir to Wular
Lake at Srinagar.

2. Kolleru Lake
 It is largest fresh water lake in Andhra Pradesh,
India
 It is located between Krishna and Godavari deltas.
 It spans into two districts of Andhra Pradesh-
Krishna and West Godavari, fed directly by water
from the seasonal Budameru and Tammileru
streams.
 It was declared as wildlife sanctuary in November
1999 under Wildlife Protection Act of 1972, and
designated wetland of international importance in
November 2002 under Ramsar Convention.

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 It is important habitat for resident and migratory
birds, including the grey or spot-billed pelican
(Pelecanus philippensis).
 Many birds migrate here in winter, such as Siberian
crane, ibis, and painted storks.
3. Kanwar Lake/Kabar Taal
 Largest freshwater lake in Bihar, located 22 km
north-west of Begusarai town.
 It was formed by a cut-off meander of an old
channel of Burhi Gandak River, a tributary of
Ganga.
 The Burhi Gandak River flows parallel to the
eastern side of the Gandak River through an old
channel.
 It is an important stopover along the Central Asian
Flyway, with 58 migratory waterbirds using it to rest
and refuel.
 Five critically endangered species inhabit the site,
including three vultures – the red-headed vulture
(Sarcogyps calvus), white-rumped vulture (Gyps
bengalensis) and Indian vulture (Gyps indicus) –
and two waterbirds, the sociable lapwing (Vanellus
gregarius) and Baer’s pochard (Aythya baeri).
 Note: Kanwar lake is located near Burhi Gandak
River -> Gandak and Burhi Gandak are different
rivers.
4. River Burhi Gandak
 Rise in the West Champaran district from the spring
of Someshwar hills.
 It flows through the West Champaran district in
south east direction and is joined by several
tributaries like Masan, Harbora, Tilawe, Siriswa,
Koria with their catchment in Someshwar hills.
 It is bounded on the north by the Himalayas, on the
south by the River Ganga, on the east by the Kosi
Basin and on the west by the Gandak Basin.
5. River Gandhak
 It originates at an altitude of 7620 m in the north of
Dhaulagiri in Tibet near Nepal border in the
shownypeaks of the Himalyas.
 The river enters the Indian territory near Tribeni
town in Nepal.
 It flows through the west Champaran, East
Champaran, Muzaffarpur, Gopalganj, Siwan, Saren
and Vaishali districts of Bihar and Gorakhpur and
Deoria district of Uttar Pradesh before joining
Ganga at Hazipur near Patna.

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6. Amarkantak [UPSC 2023] 2. Consider the following statements:
 It is one of the major pilgrimage centers for Hindus 1. Amarkantak Hills are at the
located in the hills of Maikal in Anuppur district of confluence of Vindhya and the
Madhya Pradesh. Sahyadri Ranges.
 This holy place bordering Chhattisgarh has a 2. Biligirirangan Hills constitute the
meeting point of the hills of Vindhya, Satpura, and easternmost part of Satpura Range.
Maidar, whose view is astonishing. 3. Seshachalam Hills constitute the
southernmost part of Western Ghats.
 It is a unique heritage area commonly known
as “Tirthraj” or “The King of pilgrimage”. How many of the statements given above
are correct?
 It is the place where the Vindhya and Satpura ranges
(a) Only one
merge and where the Narmada and Son river get birth.
(b) Only two
 Source of the Narmada River, Mahanadi and Son
(c) All three
Rivers.
(d) None
7. Seshachalam Biosphere reserve
 Seshachalam Hills- also known as the Tirumala
Range are hill ranges of the Eastern Ghats, located
in southern Andhra Pradesh. They are bounded by
the Rayalaseema uplands in the west and northwest
and the Nandyal Valley in the northeast.
 Seshachalam hills is the first Biosphere Reserve in
Andhra Pradesh located in southern Eastern Ghats
of Chittoor and Kadapa districts; designated as
Biosphere reserve in 2010.
 Tirupati and Srivenkateshwara National Park are
located in these ranges.
 Flora: It has large reserves of Red
Sandalwood (Pterocarpussantalinus) which is used
in medicines, soaps, spiritual rituals.
 Fauna: Endangered wildlife species like slender
loris, indian giant squirrel, mouse deer, golden
gecko, etc.
 Tigers, leopard, elephants, sloth bear, Indian wolf,
wild boar, chinkara, four-horned antelope, chital
and sambar, ibex, pig, bonnet monkey, mongoose,
wild dogs, pangolin, bison, jackal, fox, civet cat,
jungle cat, lizards are some of other animals
commonly found.
 The native population of the reserve includes the
tribes of Yanadis.
8. Biligirirangan Hills
 Located in the Chamarajanagar district of
Karnataka, India. at its border with Tamil
Nadu (Erode District) in South India.
 The area is called Biligiri Ranganatha Swamy Temple
Wildlife Sanctuary or simply BRT Wildlife Sanctuary.
 It is a protected reserve under the Wildlife
Protection Act of 1972. Being close to the Eastern
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Ghats as well as the Western Ghats, the sanctuary
has floral and faunal associations with both regions.
 They are part of the Eastern Ghats mountain range.
 The site was declared a tiger reserve in January
2011 by the Government of Karnataka, a few
months after approval from India's National Tiger
Conservation Authority.
9. Important Ports and Characteristics [UPSC 2023] 3. Consider the following pairs:
 Kamarajar Port Port Well known as
o Located on the Coromandel Coast north of 1. Kamarajar First major port in
Chennai Port Port India registered as
o First port in India which is a public company. a company
The port was declared as a major port under the 2. Mundra Largest privately
Indian Ports Act, 1908 in 1999. Port owned port in
India
o Incorporated as Ennore Port Limited under the
3. Visakhapat Largest container
Companies Act, 1956 in 1999. nam port in Port India
o The Kamarajar Port is the only corporatized How many of the above pairs are
major port and is registered as a company. correctly matched?
 Mundra Port (a) Only one pair
o Mundra Port is India’s first private port and (b) Only two pairs
largest privately owned port, located on the (c) All three pairs
northern shores of the Gulf of Kutch near (d) None of the pairs
Mundra, Kutch district, Gujarat.
 Visakhapatnam Port
o It is located midway between the Chennai and
Kolkata Ports on the Bay of Bengal.
o It is India’s third largest state-owned port by
volume of cargo handled and the largest on the
Eastern Coast.
o It is one of the oldest and largest major ports in
India, handling various types of cargo such as
iron ore, coal, petroleum products, fertilisers,
containers, etc.
 Jawaharlal Nehru Port Trust /NhavaSheva
o It is the premier container handling port in India,
accounting for around 50% of the total
containerized cargo volume, across the major
ports of India.
o JNPT is the largest container port in India and
one of the most essential subcontinents harbours
on the Western coast.

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10. Rann of Kutch [UPSC2023] 4. Which one of the following is the best
 The Rann of Kutch is a vast salt marsh located in the example of repeated falls in sea level,
Thar Desert of Gujarat, India. giving rise to present-day extensive
 It is known for its unique ecosystem and is marshland?
characterized by extensive marshy areas. (a) Bhitarkanika Mangroves
 The region has experienced multiple cycles of sea (b) Marakkanam Salt Pans
level fluctuations over time, leading to the formation (c) Naupada Swamp
of the marshland in the present day. (d) Rann of Kutch
 During 7000-3000 BC, the present area of the Rann
was an arm of the Arabian Sea.
 The present low lying plains near the Rann or the
Indus valley plains towards the sea had different
phases - shallow sea to delta and then to the plains
or Rann.
 It homes the only remaining population of the
chestnut-coloured Indian wild ass (khur), as well as
blue-bulls, blackbuck and chinkara.
11. Bhitarkanika Mangroves
 It hosts many mangrove species, and is the second
largest mangrove ecosystem in India.
 The core area of the sanctuary was declared
Bhitarkanika National Park in September 1998.
 Gahirmatha Marine Wildlife Sanctuary, which
bounds the Bhitarkanika Wildlife Sanctuary to the
east, was created in September 1997

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 Bhitarkanika National park: Located in
kendrapara district of Odisha; second largest
mangrove ecosystem in the country, also a Ramsar
site; inundated by rivers like Brahmani, Baitrani and
Pathsala.  Fauna: Salt water crocodile, Olive ridley
turtles, Indian python, black ibis etc.  Flora:
Mangroves (Sundari and thespian); grasses like
Indigo, bush etc.
12. Marakkanam Salt pans
 Marakkanam salt pans, situated in Tamil Nadu,
India, are salt marshes used for salt production.
 They are formed in low-lying coastal areas where
seawater is allowed to evaporate, leaving behind salt
crystals.
 These salt pans support the livelihood of around
1,000 workers every day during peak season,
starting January each year.
 These salt pans are created artificially by utilizing
the existing seawater.
 The aim of Mission LiFE was highlighted to the salt
pan workers of Marakkanam, a coastal taluk in the
Villupuram District, Tamil Nadu.
13. Naupada Swamp
 Freshwater swamp located in Andhra Pradesh,
India.
 It is formed by the inflow of freshwater from rivers
and receives seasonal rainwater.
 Recently a nematode infestation has led to mass
mortality of spot-billed pelicans (Pelicanus
philippensis) at Telineelapuram Important Bird
Area (IBA) in Naupada swamp of Srikakulam
district in Andhra Pradesh.
14. Gandikota Canyon [UPSC 2022] 5. Gandikota canyon of South India was
 Gandikota is small village in Kadapa district of created by which one of following rivers?
Andhra Pradesh. (a) Cauvery
 The swift flowing waters of River Pennar cut (b) Manjira
through the granite rocks near the village of (c) Pennar
Gandikota, naturally eroding the rock and forming a (d) Tungabhadra
deep valley.
 The fort was the centre of power for various
dynasties, such as the Kalyani Chalukyas,
Pemmasani Nayakas, and the Golconda Sultanate.
 Gandikota got its name from ‘gandi’ a Telugu word
for ‘gorge’.
15. Pennar river
 The Pennar River, also known as the Uttar Pinakini.
 It rises from the Nandi Hills in the Karnataka district
of Chikkaballapur.
 It runs east and drains into the Bay of Bengal.

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 Flows through Andhra Pradesh and Karnataka.
16. Cauvery river [UPSC 2022]
 It is known as ‘Ponni’ in Tamil, also known as
Ganga of the south.
 It is the fourth largest river of southern India.
 It rises on Brahmagiri Hill of the Western Ghats in
southwestern Karnataka state, flows in a
southeasterly direction through the states of
Karnataka and Tamil Nadu, and descends the
Eastern Ghats in a series of great falls and drains
into Bay of Bengal through Pondicherry.
 Tributaries: Arkavathi, Hemavathi, Lakshmana
Theertha, Shimsa, Kabini and Harangi.
17. Manjira river
 Manjeera is a tributary of Godavari river.
 It passes through the states of Maharashtra,
Karnataka and Telangana.
 It originates in the Balaghat range of hills near
Ahmednagar district at an altitude of 823 metres
(2,700 ft) and empties into the Godavari River.
18. Tungabhadra river
 It is a sacred river in southern India that flows
through the state of Karnataka to Andhra Pradesh.
The ancient name of the river was Pampa.
 It is formed by the confluence of two rivers, the
Tunga River and the Bhadra River. Both Tunga &
Bhadra Rivers originate on the eastern slopes of the
Western Ghats.
 Tributaries are the Bhadra, the Haridra, the
Vedavati, the Tunga, the Varda and the
Kumdavathi.
 It flows in a more or less northwest direction before
joining the eastern river Krishna. The Krishna River
finally ends into the Bay of Bengal.
19. Namcha Barwa, Nanda Devi and Nokrek [UPSC 6. Consider the following pairs:
2022] Peak Mountains
 Namcha Barwa is in an isolated part of 1. Namcha : Garhwal Himalaya
southeastern Tibet. It stands inside the Great Bend Barwa
of the Yarlung Tsangpo River as the river enters its
2. Nanda : Kumaon Himalaya
notable gorge across the Himalaya, emerging as the
Devi
Siang and becoming the Brahmaputra.
3. Nokrek : Sikkim Himalaya
 Nanda Devi: It is the second highest mountain in
India and the highest entirely within the country Which of the pairs given above is/are
(Kangchenjunga being on the border of India and correctly matched?
Nepal). It is part of the Kumaon Himalayas, and is (a) 1 and 2
located in the state of Uttarakhand, between the (b) 2 only
Rishiganga valley on the west and Goriganga valley (c) 1 and 3
on the east. (d) 3 only

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 Nokrek: The Nokrek Biosphere Reserve is located
in the northeast of India on the Tura Range, which
forms part of the Meghalaya Plateau.
Kumaon Himalaya: The Kumaon Himalayas lie in
Uttarakhand and extend from the Satluj to the Kali river.
20. Garhwal Himalaya: The Garhwal Himalayas are
mountain ranges located in the Indian state of
Uttarakhand. This range is also a part of Himalaya
Sivalik Hills, the outer most hills of the Himalaya
located in Himachal Pradesh and Uttarakhand.
21. Sikkim Himalaya
 Sikkim Himalayas are located beyond the Kali
River up to the Teesta River.
 Most of them are located in Nepal and known as
Central Himalayas.
 These Himalayas are home to highest peaks of
Himalayas such as Everest, Kanchenjunga, Makalu,
Dhaulagiri, Annapurna.
 Two passes viz. Nathu La and Jelep-La are
important as they connect India’s Sikkim to Tibet of
China.

22. Indus Water Treaty, 1960: Under the treaty all the 7. With reference to Indus River system, of
waters of three rivers, namely Ravi, Sutlej, and Beas the following 4 rivers, 3 of them pour into
were allocated to India for exclusive use. While, the one of them which joins Indus direct.
waters of Western rivers – Indus, Jhelum, and Among following, which river that joins
Chenab were allocated to Pakistan except for specified Indus direct?
domestic, non-consumptive, and agricultural use (a) Chenab
permitted to India as provided in the Treaty. India has (b) Jhelum
also been given the right to generate hydroelectricity (c) Ravi
through the run of the river projects on the Western
(d) Sutlej
Rivers which, subject to specific criteria for design and
operation is unrestricted.

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23. Jhelum: Originates at Vernag, in western Jammu and
Kashmir union territory, in the Indian-administered
portion of the Kashmir region, from a deep spring. The
river flows northwestward from the Pir Panjal Range's
northern slope through the Vale of Kashmir to
Srinagar's Wular Lake, which regulates its flow. The
Jhelum emerges from the lake and flows westward,
cutting through the Pir Panjal in a gorge that is 7,000
feet (2,100 metres) deep. [UPSC 2021]
24. Ravi: The Ravi River rises in the Himalayas in the
Multhan tehsil of Himachal Pradesh's Kangra district. It
is a perennial river that flows in a north-westerly
direction. The Budhil and Nai or Dhona, two of its
major tributaries, meet 64 kilometres downstream from
its source. The Budhil River rises in the Lahul range of
hills and receives its water from the Hindu pilgrimage
sites of Manimahesh Kailash Peak and Manimahesh
Lake. [UPSC 2021]
25. Sutlej: It rises in China's Western Tibet, near the source
of the Indus, Ganges, and Brahmaputra rivers, in the
Kailas mountain range. The river has a length of 1,536
kilometres and a catchment area of 75369 square
kilometres (of which 70 percent is in India). Often
referred to as the Red River. The Sutlej River usually
flows west to southwest, entering India through the
Shipki La Pass in Himachal Pradesh. [UPSC 2021]
26. Jhelum and Ravi join Chenab, Beas joins Sutlej, and
then Sutlej and Chenab join to form Panjnad, 10 miles
north of Uch Sharif in Muzaffar Garh district. The
combined stream runs southwest for approximately 44
miles and joins the Indus River at Mithankot.
28. Nagavali River: It forms a prime river of north eastern 8. Consider following River
Andhra Pradesh and southern Odisha. The origin of 1. Brahmani
Nagavali River lies in the eastern slopes of the Eastern 2. Nagavali
Ghats near Lakhbahal, located at an altitude of 1,300
3. Subarnarekha
metres in the Kalahandi district of the Indian state
Odisha. [UPSC 2021] 4. Vamsadhara
29. Brahmani River: It is a major seasonal river in the Which of the above rise from the Eastern
Odisha state of eastern India. It is formed by the Ghats?
confluence of the Sankh and South Koel rivers near the (a) 1 and 2
major industrial town of Rourkela. The Sankh has its (b) 2 and 4
origins near the Jharkhand -Chhattisgarh border. (c) 3 and 4
30. Vamsadhara river: It rises in the Eastern Ghats on the (d) 1 and 3
border Kalahandi district and Rayagada district of
Odisha. It runs for a distance of about 254 kilometers,
where it joins the Bay of Bengal at Kalingapatnam,
Andhra Pradesh.
31. Subarnarekha River: It flows through the Indian states
of Jharkhand, West Bengal and Odisha. After
originating near Ranchi it traverses a long distance
through Ranchi and East Singhbhum. Thereafter, it
flows for shorter distances through West Bengal and
Odisha before joining the Bay of Bengal.

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32. River systems originating in Western Ghats: The
major river systems originating in the Western Ghats are
the Godavari, Kaveri, Krishna, Thamiraparani and
Tungabhadra rivers.
33. Rivers flowing through the Eastern Ghats:
Brahmani, Godavari, Kaveri, Krishna, Mahanadi,
Subarnarekha and Tungabhadra. [UPSC 2021]
34. Rivers originating on the Eastern Ghats: Baitarani
River, Budhabalanga River, Rushikulya River,
Vamsadhara River, Palar River, Nagavali River,
Champavathi River, Gosthani River, Sarada River,
Sabari River, Sileru River, Tammileru, Gundlakamma
River, Pennai Yaru River, Swarnamukhi, Kundu River,
Vellar River and Penna River.
35. Left tributaries: Purna, Pranahita, Indravati, Sabari, 9. Consider following rivers
Taliperu, Wainganga, Penganga, Wardha, Dudhana 1. Vamsadhara
36. Right tributaries: Pravara, Manjira, Pedda Vagu, 2. Indravati
Manair, Kinnerasani [UPSC 2015] 3. Pranahita
4. Pennar
Which of the above are tributaries of
Godavari?
(a) 1,2 and 3
(b) 2,3 and 4
(c) 1,2 and 4
(d) 2 and 3 only
37. Siachen Glacier 10. Siachen Glacier is situated to the
 Located over the Karakoram Range in the Nubra (a) East of Aksai Chin
Valley, is the second largest glacier outside the polar (b) East of Leh
and sub-polar regions (c) North of Gilgit
 Lolofond and Teram Shehr are its main tributaries (d) North of Nubra Valley
 Disputed between India and Pakistan
 Highest battle field of the world
 It is the source of the Nubra River, a tributary of the
Indus River flowing into Pakistan and the Arabian
Sea. [UPSC 2020]
38. Bandarpunch [UPSC 2019] 11. Consider following pairs:
 It is an important glacier of Yamuna river basin in Glacier River
the Garhwal division of the Himalayas. 1. Bandarpunch : Yamuna
 It is 12 km long situated on Northern slopes of 2. Bara Shigri : Chenab
Bandarpunch West, Khatling peak and 3. Milam : Mandakini
Bandarpunch peak, glacier is formed by 3 cirque 4. Siachen : Nubra
glaciers and then join the river of Yamuna. 5. Zemu : Manas
39. Bara Shigri [UPSC 2019] Which of pairs given above are correctly
 It is the largest glacier located in Lahaul Spiti region matched?
in Chandra Valley, Himachal Pradesh. (a) 1, 2 and 4
 It is a 30-km long glacier, the second longest glacier (b) 1, 3 and 4
in the Himalayas after Gangotri. (c) 2 and 5
 It flows northwards and feeds the Chenab river. (d) 3 and 5
 It is located in Pir Panjal range of inner Himalayas.

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40. Milam Glacier: It is located in Munsiyari, Pithoragarh
district, Uttarakhand. It is the source of Gori Ganga
River which is an important tributary of Kali River.
41. Zemu glacier: It is the largest in the Eastern Himalayas
in Sikkim. It is at the base of the Kanchendzonga and is
one of the sources for the Teesta not Manas river. Teesta
is a tributary of the Brahmaputra. [UPSC 2019]

42. River Teesta [UPSC 2017] 12. With reference to river Teesta, consider
 It is a tributary of the Brahmaputra (known the following statements:
as Jamuna in Bangladesh), flowing through India 1. Source of Teesta is same as that of
and Bangladesh. Brahmaputra but it flows in Sikkim.
2. River Rangeet originates in Sikkim
 It originates from the Pahunri glacier or Teesta and is a tributary of river Teesta.
Kangse glacier. 3. It flows into Bay of Bengal on India
 It is fed by rivulets that originate in the mountain Bangladesh border
ranges of Thangu, Yumthang, and Donkha. Which of the statements given above
 It flows through West Bengal and Sikkim, before is/are correct?
going to Bay of Bengal through Bangladesh. (a) 1 and 3 only
 The river meets its main tributary, the Rangeet, just (b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
before the Teesta Bridge, where the roads from
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Kalimpong and Darjeeling meet.
43. Brahmaputra river [UPSC 2016] 13. Which of following is/are tributary/
 It is the sixth-longest river in Asia, at 2,900 km tributaries of Brahmaputra?
(1,800 mi). 1. Dibang
 It is bounded on the north by Himalayas, on east by 2. Kameng
Patkari range of hills, on the south by the Assam 3. Lohit
range of hills, and on the west by Himalayas and Select the correct answer using the code
ridge that separates it from the Ganga basin. given below.
 Its origin is in Chemayungdung mountain ranges (a) 1 only
near Mansarovar lake in southern Tibet. (b) 2 and 3 only
 The spring named Tamchok khambab is considered (c) 1 and 3 only
the origin of the river Brahmaputra. (d) 1, 2 and 3
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 It is known as Tsangpo or the Yarlung Tsangpo in the
Tibet region and flows parallel to the Himalayan ranges
before entering India through Arunachal Pradesh.
 The Tsangpo River (Brahmaputra) enters India at
Bishing, from where it is known as the “Siang River”.
 It enters India through Arunachal Pradesh as the
Siang river and then flows through Assam before
entering Bangladesh.
 Its basin also covers Arunachal Pradesh, Assam,
West Bengal, Meghalaya, Nagaland, and Sikkim.
 Left Bank tributaries: Siang river, Dibang river,
Lohit river, Burhi Dihang river, Dhansiri river and
Kopili river.
 Right Bank tributaries: Subansiri, Kameng,
Manas, Sankosh and Teesta river.

44. Srisailam [UPSC 2015] 14. Consider following pairs:

 Mallikarjuna Temple or Srisailam Temple is a 1. Pilgrimage Location
Hindu temple dedicated to the deity Shiva located 2. Srisailam : Nallamala
on Nallamalla hills. Hills
 It is referred to as one of the twelve Jyothirlingas of 3. Omkareshwar : Satmala Hills
Lord Shiva. 4. Pushkar : Mahadeo Hills
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly
 Inscriptional evidence from the Satavahana dynasty
matched ?
place the temple to be existent from the 2nd century.
(a) 1 only
 The veerasheromandapam and paathalaganga steps
constructed during the time of Reddi Kingdom. (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
 The temple complex houses many halls; the most
notable is the Mukha Mandapa built during the (d) 1, 2 and 3
Vijayanagar period.
45. Omkareshwar
 It is a Hindu pilgrimage site; one of the 12 revered
Jyotirlinga shrines of Shiva located on Mandhata
Island on banks of Narmada River in Khandwa
district of Madhya Pradesh.
 The temple dates back to the Krita Yuga.
 River Narmada flows here around the Mandhata hill
in the form of an Om (Omkaram).

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46. Pushkar
 The Pushkar valley is formed between the Aravalli
hills.
 The Pushkar Camel Fair was started to attract the
local camel and cattle traders for a business meeting
during the holy Kartik Purnima festival.
47. Mahadeo Hills [UPSC 2015]
 Mahadeo Hills, sandstone hills located in the
northern part of the Satpura Range, in Madhya
Pradesh.
 The hills have small plateaus and steep scarps that
were formed during the Carboniferous Period (about
360 to 300 million years ago).
 The general trend of the hills is east-northeast.
 To the north the sacred Narmada River flows
through the 20- to 40-mile- (32- to 64-km-) wide
valley floor between the Mahadeo Hills and the
Vindhya Range to the north.
48. Satmala Hills [UPSC 2015]
 Satmala hills runs across Nashik District in
Maharashtra.
 They are an integral part of the Sahyadris range
within Nashik.
 Highest peak is Dhodap.
49. Nallamala Hills [UPSC 2015]
 These are a section of the Eastern Ghats which
forms the eastern boundary of the Rayalaseema
region of the state of Andhra Pradesh.
 They run in a nearly north-south alignment, parallel
to the Coromandel Coast for close to 430 km
between the rivers, Krishna and Pennar.
 The average elevation is about 520 m which reaches
1100 m at Bhairani Konda and 1048 m at Gundla
Brahmeswara.
 The rocks of the Nallamala ranges belong to the
Kadapa system.
 Chenchus, a forest-dwelling tribe live here who
have remained cut off from the modern world even
today.
50. Barak river: The Barak is an important river in 15. Consider following rivers
Manipur and Mizoram. The barak river, the head stream 1. Barak
of Meghna rises in the hills in Manipur. [UPSC 2014] 2. Lohit
51. Lohit River is a river in Arunachal Pradesh in India. It 3. Subansiri
is a tributary to the Brahmaputra River. [UPSC 2014] Which above flows through Arunachal
52. Subansiri River is a tributary of the Brahmaputra River Pradesh?
in the states of Assam and Arunachal Pradesh. (a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
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53. Ten degree channel [UPSC 2014] 16. Which one of the following pairs of
 It separates the Andaman Islands and the Nicobar islands is separated from each other by
Islands from each other in the Bay of Bengal and the ‘Ten Degree Channel’?
forms the Indian Union Territory of Andaman and (a) Andaman & Nicobar
Nicobar Islands. (b) Nicobar & Sumatra
 It is 150km wide from north to south and 10km (c) Maldives &
long from east to west with a minimum depth of Lakshadweep
7.3m. (d) Sumatra& Java
 It is named as it lies on the 10-degree line of
Latitude, north of the equator.
54. Nine Degree Channel
 It separates the island of Minicoy from the main
Lakshadweep archipelago.
 It is strategically important as it is the passage of
nearly all merchant shipping between Europe, the
Middle-East and Western Asia with South-East Asia
and the Far-East.
55. Eight Degree Channel
 The maritime boundary between the Maldives and
India runs through the Eight Degree Channel.
It separates the islands of Minicoy and Maldives.
 Maliku Kandu and Māmalē Kandu Divehi are
the traditional names of the Eight Degree Channel.
56. Other Important channels: Grand Channel (It is
between Great Nicobar Islands and Sumatra islands of
Indonesia), Minicoy Channel (It is a small eight-degree
channel that separates Maldives and Lakshadweep) and
Sunda strait (Sumatra and Java are separated by Sunda
strait)

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57. Cardamom hills 17. Consider following pairs :
 Cardamom Hills or Yela Mala are mountain range Hills Region
of southern India and part of the southern Western 1. Cardamom : Coromandel
Ghats located in southeast Kerala and southwest Hills Coast
Tamil Nadu in South India. 2. Kaimur Hills : Konkan Coast
 Their name comes from the cardamom spice grown 3. Mahadeo : Central India
in much of the hills' cool elevation, which also Hills
supports pepper and coffee. 4. Mikir Hills : North-East
 The Western Ghats and Periyar Sub-Cluster India
including the Cardamom Hills, are UNESCO World Which of the above pairs are correctly
Heritage Sites. matched?
58. Kaimur Plateau (a) 1 and 2
 Kaimur plateau us situated in Bihar. (b) 2 and 3
 It extends in the eastern zone of Vindhya range (c) 3 and 4
 Its major materials are minerals calcite and (d) 2 and 4
aragonite which are different crystal forms of
calcium carbonate.
59. Mahadeo hills: Mahadeo hills forms the central part of
the Satpura Range, located in Madhya Pradesh. Highest
peak is Dhoopgarh.
60. Mikir hills
 Mikir hills of Assam are an extension of Shillong
Plateau, covered by tropical rain forest which makes
it highly inaccessible.
 Mikir Hills are located to the south of the Kaziranga
National Park, Assam.
 This landform is pear-shaped and encompasses area
of 7000 sq. km.
 Highest peak – Dambuchko. [UPSC 2014]

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61. Kolleru Lake 18. Which one of the following is an artificial
 It is largest fresh water lake located between lake?
Krishna and Godavari deltas in Andhra Pradesh, (a) Kodaikanal (Tamil Nadu)
India. (b) Kolleru (Andhra Pradesh)
 Declared as wildlife sanctuary in 1999 under (c) Nainital (Uttarakhand)
Wildlife Protection Act of 1972, and designated (d) Renuka (Himachal Pradesh)
wetland of international importance in 2002 under
Ramsar Convention.
 Important habitat for grey or spot-billed pelican and
many migratory birds such as Siberian crane, ibis,
and painted storks.
62. Nainital lake
 It is a natural freshwater body, situated in town of
Nainital in Uttarakhand.
 The lake is in crescent or kidney shape and is one of
the most famous lakes of the Kumaon region.
 Bounded by Naini Peak on North West, Tiffin Point
on the South West and snow-capped peaks on the
north, the Nainital Lake offers a breathtaking view,
especially during early morning and sunset.
63. Renuka lake
 It is in the Sirmaur district of Himachal Pradesh in
India and it is 672 m above the sea level.
 It is the largest lake in Himachal Pradesh, with a
circumference of about 3214 m.
 It is designated as Ramsar site in 2005. Renuka dam
project has been conceived as a storage project on
the Giri river (a tributary of the Yamuna)-> It
envisages making a 148-metre-high dam for
supplying water to Delhi and other basin States.
 Around 90% of cost of irrigation/drinking water
component of project will be provided by
Central government.
64. Kodaikanal/Kodai lake
 It is a manmade lake located in the Kodaikanal city
in Tamil Nadu, India.
 Nestled amidst the rolling slopes of the Palani Hills,
it stands at an altitude of 7200 feet above sea level.
 Sir Vere Henry Levinge, the then Collector of
Madurai, was instrumental in creating the lake in
1863.
 It is surrounded by lush green hills of the
Northwestern Palani Hills. [UPSC 2018]
65. Bhavnagar 19. At one of the places in India, if you
 Bhavnagar was founded by Bhavsinhji Gohil, the stand on the seashore and watch the
rulers of Sihor in 1723 AD. sea, you will find that the sea water
 It lies on the western shore of the Gulf of Khambhat recedes from the shore line a few
(Cambay) of the Arabian Sea. kilometres and comes back to the
shore, twice a day, and you can
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 Bhavnagar has the highest tidal range in India. actually walk on the sea floor when
 Gujarat Government given nod to the world’s first the water recedes. This unique
CNG port terminal at Bhavnagar - It will have phenomenon is seen at
annual capacity of 6 million metric tone, which will (a) Bhavnagar
increase the total handling capacity of the port to 9 (b) Bheemunipatnam
million metric tonnes. (c) Chandipur
66. Bheemunipatnam (d) Nagapattinam
 Bheemunipatnam is a suburb of Visakhapatnam
located in Andhra Pradesh; named after Bhima, a
character in the Hindu epic Mahabharata.
 Located at the confluence of River Gosthani and the
Bay of Bengal.
 Narasimha Swami temple of 12th century, located on
the Pavuralakonda hill.
 Once a Dutch settlement, it is also dotted with the
remains of a 17th century Dutch fort, beautiful old
churches, a cemetery and a lighthouse.
67. Erra Matti Dibbalu
 It is located between Visakhapatnam and
Bheemunipatnam, the Erra Matti Dibbalu are rare
red sand dunes that are a reminder of the million
years of geological processes.
 The width of the dunes, which runs for five
kilometres along the coast, varies from 200 metres
to two kilometres.
 It is listed among the 34 notified National
Geological Heritage Monument Sites of India by the
Geological Survey of India.
 The sediments are mainly derived from the
Khondalite rocks from the hinterland of the Eastern
Ghats.

68. Chandipur
 Chandipur is located in Balasore district of Odisha;
also known as Odisha's Hide and Seek Beach.
 The water of the sea recedes off shore and proceeds
rhythmically after a regular interval twice a day. The
open beach without water encourages the tourists to
walk into the sea up to a distance of 5 km.
 Sand dunes, rocky coasts and verdant Casuarina
trees make Chandipur one of the most spectacular
seashores.

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 The rare Horseshoe crab and tiny red crabs are often
spotted on the beach.
 Integrated Test Range (ITR) - A portion of the
beach, under DRDO is the ITR of the Indian Army.
Akash, Shaurya, Agni and Prithvi ballistic missiles
have been launched from here.
69. Nagapattinam
 It is a town in the Indian state of Tamil Nadu.
 The Chudamani Vihara in Nagapattinam is
constructed by Srivijayan king Sri Mara
Vijayattungavarman of the Sailendra dynasty with
the help of Rajaraja Chola I was an important
Buddhist structure.
 It was settled by Portuguese and, later, Dutch under
whom it served as capital of Dutch
Coromandel from 1660 to 1781.
 In 1781, the town was conquered by the British East
India Company.
 Kayarohanaswami
Temple and Soundararajaperumal temple are major
Hindu piligrimage sites. [UPSC 2017]
70. Bhilsa: It is a city in the state of Madhya Pradesh. It is 20. With references to history of India,
located around 60 km northeast of the state capital, consider the following pairs:
Bhopal. Famous Place Present
71. Dwarasamudra: Halebidu, previously known as State
Dorasamudra or Dwarasamudra, ancient Hoysala 1. Bhilsa : Madhya
capital, houses the ornate Hoysaleswara and Pradesh
Kedareswara temples, and is one of well-visited tourist 2. Dwarasamudra : Maharashtra
attractions of Karnataka state. 3. Girinagar : Gujarat
72. Girinagar/Revatak Parvata: It is a group of mountains 4. Sthanesvara : Uttar
in the Junagadh District of Gujarat. This place is sacred Pradesh
to the Jains because it is place where Lord Niminatha Which of the pairs given above is/are
attained salvation. correctly matched?
73. Sthanesvara: It is a historical town an important Hindu (a) 1 and 3 only
pilgrimage centre on the banks of the Saraswati River in (b) 1 and 4 only
the state of Haryana in northern India. (c) 2 and 3 only
Prabhakarvardhana was a ruler of Thanesar in the early
(d) 2 and 4 only
seventh - century CE and was succeeded by his sons,
Rajyavardhana and Harshavardhana. [UPSC 2020]
74. Kohima to Kottayam: The shortest route from Kohima 21. If you travel by road from Kohima to
(Nagaland) to Kottayam (Kerala) passes through the Kottayam, what is the minimum number
following states: Nagaland-Assam-West Bengal- of States within India through which you
Odisha-Andhra Pradesh-Tamil Nadu-Kerala. [UPSC can travel, including the origin and the
2017] destination?
(a) 6
(b) 7
(c) 8
(d) 9

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75. Himalayas [UPSC 2017] 22. Consider the following statements:
 Himalayas are the youngest mountain chain in the 1. In India, the Himalayas are spread
world. over five states only.
 Himalayan mountains have come out of a great 2. Western Ghats are spread over five
geosyncline called the Tethys Sea and that the uplift states only.
has taken place in different phases. 3. Pulicat Lake is spread over two
 In India, the Himalayas are spread over Jammu & States only.
Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Sikkim, Which of the statements given above
Assam, West Bengal, Arunachal Pradesh. Some is/are correct?
extensions of Shiwaliks are also present in Punjab (a) 1 and 2 only
and Haryana. (b) 3 only
 Greater Himalayas: Highest and most continuous (c) 2 and 3 only
mountain range in the world. The range has very few (d) 1 and 3 only
gaps mainly provided by the antecedent rivers.
Receive less rainfall as compared to the Lesser
Himalayas and the Shiwaliks.
 Middle Himalayas: The Middle Himalayan Range
originated in the Miocene epoch. It is in between the
Shiwaliks in the south and the Greater Himalayas in
the north. It is also called Lower Himalaya. It
consists, generally, of un-fossiliferous sediments or
metamorphosed crystalline.
 Outer Himalayas: The Shiwaliks extend from
Jammu Division of Jammu and Kashmir State to
Assam. It is not a continuous range. It is broader in
the west and narrows down in the east. Between the
Shiwaliks and the Lesser Himalayas are longitudinal
valleys called Doons / Duns. They are created due
to the alluvial deposit of the Himalayan rivers.
76. Western Ghats
 Western Ghats, also known as Sahyadri Hills, are
well known for their rich & unique flora and fauna.
 It is recognized as one of UNESCOs World Heritage
site.
 They extend from the Satpura Range in the north, go
south past Goa, through Karnataka and into Kerala
and Tamil Nadu end at Kanyakumari embracing
Indian ocean.
 Western Ghats are spread over six states, namely-
Gujarat, Maharashtra, Goa, Karnataka, Kerala,
Tamil Nadu.
77. Pulicat Lake
 It is the second largest brackish water lake in India,
next only to Chilika lake, which lies on the border
of Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu.
 Greater flamingos and pelicans are some of the
famousmigratory birds that visit this place.

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 Region in which Pulicat lake is situated receives
rainfall from both South-West & North-East
monsoon winds.
 Nelapattu Bird Sanctuary(Andhra Pradesh) is a
famous bird sanctuary located near this lake.
 The lake is also home for black-headed ibis, Asian
openbill, black-crowned night heron, and little
cormorant.
 Other migratory birds that visit sanctuary include
northern pintail, common teal, little grebe, northern
shoveler, Eurasian coot, Indian spot-billed duck,
grey heron, Oriental darter, black-winged stilt,
garganey and gadwall.
 The presence of Barringtonia and Acacia nilotica
plant species near the Pulicat lake region provides
an ideal breeding site for spot-billed pelicans.
78. Flamingo Festival is held every year to promote tourism
in Pulicat and Nelapattu
23. Among the following cities, which one
lies on a longitude closest to that of
Delhi?
(a) Bengaluru
(b) Hyderabad
(c) Nagpur
(d) Pune

UPSC 2018
79. Reservoirs and States [UPSC 2022] 24. Consider the following pairs:
 Ghataprabha- Karnataka; Ghatprabha is a major Reservoirs States
tributary of River Krishna. 1. Ghataprabha : Telangana
 Gandhi Sagar- Madhya Pradesh; It is a masonry 2. Gandhi Sagar : MP
gravity dam 3. Indira Sagar : Andhra
 Indira Sagar – Madhya Pradesh; on Narmada river. Pradesh
4. Maithon : Chhattisgarh
 Maithon- Jharkhand; developed by Damodar Valley
How many pairs given above are not
corporation.
correctly matched?
(a) Only one pair
(b) Only two pairs
(c) Only three pairs
(d) All four pairs

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80. Mainland of India, extends from Kashmir in north to 25. Which of the following pairs of States of
Kanniyakumari in south and Arunachal Pradesh in east India indicates the easternmost and
to Gujarat in west.[UPSC 2015] Westernmost State?
(a) Assam and Rajasthan
(b) Arunachal Pradesh and Rajasthan
(c) Assam and Gujarat
(d) Arunachal Pradesh and Gujarat

******

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CHAPTER-2
WORLD MAPPING POINTS, RIVERS, LAKES, GLACIERS, PEAKS, etc.
1. Congo Basin [UPSC 2023] 1. Which one of the following is a part of
 Congo basin, basin of the Congo River, astride the the Congo Basin?
Equator in west-central Africa. (a) Cameroon
 It is the world’s second-largest river basin, comprising (b) Nigeria
an area of more than 1.3 million square miles. (c) South Sudan
 The basin stretches across six countries- Cameroon, (d) Uganda
Central African Republic, Democratic Republic of
the Congo, Congo, Equatorial Guinea and Gabon.
 It is home to the world’s largest tropical peatlands,
along with Brazil and Indonesia.
 The peat swamp forest of the Congo Basin stores
around 29 billion tons of carbon. The basin is one of
the world’s last regions that absorbs more carbon
than it emits.

2. 2. Consider the following countries:

1. Bulgaria
2. Czech Republic
3. Hungary
4. Latvia
5. Lithuania
6. Romania
How many of the above-mentioned
countries share a land border with
Ukraine?
(a) Only two
(b) Only three
(c) Only four
(d) Only five

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3. Mekong river: It originates in the icy headwaters of the 3. Consider following pairs:
Tibetan highlands, flows through the steep canyons of Rivers Flows into
China through lower basin countries Myanmar, Laos, 1. Mekong : Andaman Sea
Thailand, and Cambodia, before fanning an expansive 2. Thames : Irish Sea
delta in Vietnam and emptying into the South China Sea. 3. Volga : Caspian Sea
[UPSC 2020] 4. Zambezi : Indian Ocean
4. River Thames: It is the longest river in England, flows Which of pairs given above is/are
215 miles from the Cotswolds to the North Sea + The correctly matched?
main tributaries of Thames are Buscot, Reading, and (a) 1 and 2 only
Kingston. [UPSC 2020] (b) 3 only
5. Volga River: It is the longest river in Europe, runs (c) 3 and 4 only
through Russia with its delta flowing into the Caspian (d) 1, 2 and 4 only
Sea just south of the Kazakhstan border. [UPSC 2020]
6. Zambezi river: It rises in the Kalene hills in north-
western Zambia and flows eastwards for about 3000 km
to the Indian Ocean.
7. Adriatic Sea: It is a part of the Mediterranean Sea 4. Consider following pairs:
positioned between the eastern coastline of Italy, and Sea Bordering
countries of the Balkan Peninsula, from Slovenia, South Country
through Croatia, Montenegro, and to Albania. [UPSC 1) Adriatic Sea : Albania
2019] 2) Black Sea : Croatia
8. Black Sea: It is an inland sea located between far- 3) Caspian Sea : Kazakhstan
southeastern Europe and the far-western edges of the 4) Mediteranean : Morocco
continent of Asia and the country of Turkey. It's Sea
bordered by Turkey, and by Bulgaria, Romania, 5) Red Sea : Syria
Ukraine, Russia and Georgia. [UPSC 2019] Which pairs given above are correctly
matched?
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 5 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
9. Caspian Sea

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10. Aral Sea [UPSC 2018] 5. Which of the following has/have shrunk
 It was a saline lake lying between Kazakhstan in the immensely/dried up in the recent past due
north and Uzbekistan, in the south. to human activities ?
 The Aral Sea, which was once 26,300 square miles 1. Aral Sea
in size had decreased in size by 2007 to only 10% of 2. Black Sea
its original area 3. Lake Baikal
Select correct answer using the code given
below :
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 2 only
(d) 1 and 3

11. Black Sea/Euxine Sea [UPSC 2018]

 It is a marginal sea of the Atlantic Ocean, located
between Eastern Europe and Western Asia.
 Turkish straits system - Dardanelles, Bosporus and
Marmara Sea forms a transitional zone between
Mediterranean and Black Sea.

 It is connected to the Sea of Azov by the Strait of

Kerch.

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12. Lake Baikal [UPSC 2018]
 It is a rift lake located in southern Siberia, Russia.
 It is the largest freshwater lake by volume in the
world, containing 22 to 23% of the world’s fresh
surface water.
 It is the seventh-largest lake in the world by surface
area.
 Deepest lake in world [1,637 metres deep] and 2nd
longest lake.
 The region to east of Lake Baikal is referred to as
Transbaikalia or as the Trans Baikal and sometimes
known as Baikalia.

13. UNESCO declared Lake Baikal a World Heritage Site in

1996
14. Distance from Great Nicobar to Sumatra is 1,192 km. 6. Which of the following is geographically
closest to Great Nicobar?
(a) Sumatra
(b) Borneo
(c) Java
(d) Sri Lanka

[UPSC 2017]

15. Turkey is located between Black sea and Mediterranean 7. Turkey is located between
Sea. [UPSC 2014] (a) Black Sea and Caspian Sea
16. Black sea: Black Sea is a marginal sea of the Atlantic (b) Black Sea and Mediterranean Sea
Ocean. It is located between Eastern Europe and (c) Gulf of Suez and Mediterranean Sea
Western Asia. Black Sea is bordered by six countries- (d) Gulf of Aqaba and Dead Sea
Romania and Bulgaria to the west; Ukraine, Russia and
Georgia to the north and east and Turkey to the south.
17. Caspian Sea: The Caspian Sea is the world’s largest
inland body of water, variously classed as the world’s
largest lake or a full-fledged sea. An endorheic basin, it
lies between Europe and Asia.

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18. Gulf of Suez: Gulf of Suez connects the Arabian Sea
with the Strait of Hormuz, which then runs to the Persian
Gulf.
19. Gulf of Aqaba: The Gulf of Aqaba or Gulf of Eilat is a
large gulf at the northern tip of the Red Sea, east of the
Sinai Peninsula and west of the Arabian Peninsula. Its
coastline is divided among four countries: Egypt, Israel,
Jordan, and Saudi Arabia.

20. Dead sea

 The Dead Sea or Salt Sea is the landlocked salt-lake
between Israel and Jordan located at the lowest point
on earth.
 It is the world’s deepest hypersaline lake.
21. Dead Sea is called the Dead Sea due to the harsh
environment - extreme salinity of its water in which
plants and animals cannot flourish.
8. What is the correct sequence of
occurrence of the following cities in
South-East Asia as one proceeds from
south to north?
1. Bangkok
2. Hanoi
3. Jakarta
4. Singapore
Select the correct answer using the code
given below.
(a) 4-2-1-3
(b) 3-2-4-1
(c) 3-4-1-2
[UPSC 2014] (d) 4-3-2-1

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22. Border countries with Afghanistan: Republic of 9. Consider following:
Afghanistan is a mountainous landlocked country in 1. Azerbaijan
southern Central Asia. It borders Tajikistan, 2. Kyrgyzstan
Turkmenistan, and Uzbekistan to the north, Iran to the 3. Tajikistan
west, Pakistan to the east and south.
4. Uzbekistan
5. Turkmenistan
Which of the above have borders with
Afghanistan?
(a) 1, 2 and 5 only
(b) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 3, 4 and 5 only
[UPSC 2022] (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
23. 10. Which one of the following countries of
South-West Asia does not open out to the
Mediterranean Sea?
(a) Syria
(b) Jordan
(c) Lebanon
(d) Israel

24. Chabahar Port [UPSC 2017] 11. What is the importance of developing
 Located on the Gulf of Oman and 72 km away from Chabahar Port by India?
the Gwadar port in Pakistan which has been (a) India’s trade with African countries
developed by China. will enormously increase.
 It serves as the only oceanic port of Iran and consists (b) India’s relations with oil-producing
of two separate ports named Shahid Beheshti and Arab countries will be strengthened.
Shahid Kalantari. (c) India will not depend on Pakistan
 It is considered a gateway to golden opportunities for for access to Afghanistan and
trade by India, Iran and Afghanistan with central Central Asia.
Asian countries. (d) Pakistan will facilitate and protect
 US has given separate exceptions for the strategic the installation of a gas pipeline
Chabahar port project. between Iraq and India.

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 PRELIMS PYQs Content - (Geography)
CHAPTER-3
PLACES IN NEWS
1. Interlinking of rivers – Godavari & Krishna 1. Recently, linking of which of following rivers
[UPSC 2016] was undertaken?
(a) Cauvery and Tungabhadra
(b) Godavari and Krishna
(c) Mahanadi and Sone
(d) Narmada and Tapti

2. Food Crisis 2. Recently, in which of following countries

The world faces one of the largest food crises in 70 having lakhs of people either suffered from
years with 20 million people I four countries severe famine/acute malnutrition or died due to
namely: Yemen, Nigeria, South Sudan and starvation caused by war/ethnic conflicts?
Somalia according to FAO. [UPSC 2018] (a) Angola and Zambia
(b) Morocco and Tunisia
(c) Venezuela and Colombia
(d) Yemen and South Sudan
3. Places in News 3. Consider the following pairs
 Aleppo – Syria Towns Country in news
 Kirkuk – Iraq 1. Aleppo : Syria
 Mosul – Iraq 2. Kirkuk : Yemen
3. Mosul : Palestine
 Mazar-i-sharif – Afghanistan
4. Mazar-i-sharif : Afghanistan
[UPSC 2018]
Which of the pairs given above are correctly
matched?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 4
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 3 and 4
4. Bidibidi 4. Consider following statements:
 Bidibidi is a large refugee settlement in Yumbe 1. Bidibidi is a large refugee settlement in
district of Uganda. north-western Kenya.
 It is home to more than 270,000 refugees 2. Some people who fled from South Sudan
mostly from South Sudan. civil war live in Bidibidi.
 Dadaab refugee (Kenya) complex consists of 3. People who fled from civil war in Somalia
three camps. The three Dadaab camps are live in Dadaab complex in Kenya.
Dagahaley, Ifo and Hagadera. The first camp Which of the statements given above is/are
was established in 1991, when refugees fleeing correct?
the civil war in Somalia started to cross the (a) 1 and 2
border into Kenya.[UPSC 2022] (b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 3 only

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5. Senkaku Islands 5. Which one of following statements best reflects
 Senkaku Islands are a group of uninhabited issue of Senkaku Islands, mentioned in the
islands in the East China Sea. news?
 Japan and China claim the uninhabited islands, (a) It is generally believed that they are
known as the Senkaku in Japan and Tiaoyu in artificial islands made by a country around
China, as their own, but Japan has South China Sea.
administered them since 1972. (b) China and Japan engage in maritime
 Senkaku/Diaoyu Islands were formally disputes over these islands in East China
claimed by Japan in 1895. After Japan’s defeat Sea.
in World War II, island chain was controlled (c) Permanent American military base has
by the US until 1971 before its return. Since been set up there to help Taiwan to increase
then, Japan has administered the island chains. its defence capabilities.
 China began to reassert claims over the (d) Though International Court of Justice
Senkaku/Diaoyu Islands in the 1970s, citing declared them as no man’s land, some
historic rights to the area. However, Japan does South-East Asian countries claim them.
not recognise Chinese claims.

6. Places in News 6. Consider following pairs:

 Guniea: The president of Guinea was detained Country Important
after a successful military coup in the West reason for being
African nation. The coup was reportedly led by in news recently
special task forces led by Colonel Mamady 1. Chad : Setting up a
Doumbouya, the head of Guinean Special permanent
Forces. military base by
China
 Lebanon: Lebanon's economy collapsed after
2. Guinea : Suspension of
it defaulted on about $31 billion of Eurobonds
Constitution and
in March 2020, with its currency sinking more
Govt. by
than 90 per cent against the US dollar on the military
black market. 3. Lebanon : Severe and
 Tunisia: Tunisia's President Kais Saied prolonged
extended his suspension of parliament until economic
new elections in December 2022, while calling depression
for a July referendum on constitutional 4. Tunisia : Suspension of
reforms. Parliament by
 Anatolia: A broad peninsula that lies between President
the Black Sea and the Mediterranean Sea and How many above pairs are correctly matched?
called Asia Minor (Lesser Asia) by the (a) Only one pair
Romans, is the Asian part of modern Turkey, (b) Only two pairs
across Thrace. It lies across the Aegean Sea to (c) Only three pairs
the east of Greece and is usually known by its (d) All four pairs
ancient name Anatolia.

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 PRELIMS PYQs Content - (Geography)
 Amhara: One of the two largest 7. Consider following :
ethnolinguistic groups in Ethiopia. Region often Country
 Cabo Delgado is a region in Mozambique. mentioned in the
 Catalonia is a region of Spain. [UPSC 2022] news
1. Anatolia : Turkey
2. Amhara : Ethiopia
3. Cabo Delgado : Spain
4. Catalonia : Italy
How many above pairs are correctly matched?
(a) Only one pair
(b) Only two pairs
(c) Only three pairs
(d) All four pairs

7. Regions in News 8. Consider following pairs:

 Catalonia: The autonomous community of Regions in Country
Catalonia occupies a triangular area in the news
north-eastern corner of Spain. It is bordered 1. Catalonia : Spain
by France and Andorra to the north, 2. Crimea : Hungary
the Mediterranean Sea to the east, the 3. Mindanao : Philippines
autonomous community of Valencia to the 4. Oromia : Nigeria
south, and the autonomous community Which of the pairs given above are correctly
of Aragon to the west. matched?
 Crimea: It lies on a peninsula stretching out (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
from the south of Ukraine between the Black (b) 3 and 4 only
Sea and the Sea of Azov. It is separated from (c) 1 and 3 only
Russia to the east by the narrow Kerch Strait. (d) 2 and 4 only
 Mindanao island: Second largest in
the Philippines, in the southern part of the
archipelago, surrounded by
the Bohol, Philippine, Celebes, and Sulu seas.
8. Oromia: It is one of the ethnically based regional
states of Ethiopia. [UPSC 2018]

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 PRELIMS PYQs Content - (Geography)
9. Levant [UPSC 2022] 9. The term “Levant” often heard in the news
 The Levant is roughly corresponds to which of the following
an old term regions?
referring to (a) Region along eastern Mediterranean shores
countries of the (b) Region along North African shores from
eastern Egypt to Morocco
Mediterranean. (c) Region along Persian Gulf and Horn of
Levant, Africa
originally (d) Entire coastal area of Mediterranean Sea
meant ‘the East’ or ‘Mediterranean lands east
of Italy’.
 It is the region along the eastern Mediterranean
shores, roughly corresponding to modern-day
Israel, Jordan, Lebanon, Syria, and certain
adjacent areas.
10. Lake Victoria [UPSC 2022]: It is the second- 10. Which one of the lakes of West Africa has
largest freshwater lake in the world + It is the become dry and turned into a desert?
largest lake in Africa + It is situated on the block (a) Lake Victoria
mountain between the two branches of the Great (b) Lake Faguibine
Rift Valley + It is the source of the White Nile. (c) Lake Oguta
(d) Lake Volta

11. Lake Faguibine

 Lake Faguibine is a lake in Mali on the
southern edge of the Sahara Desert situated 80
km west of Timbuktu and 75 km north of the
Niger River.
 Since the Sahel drought of the 1970s and 1980s
the lake has been mostly dry.
 The lake was once one of the largest in West
Africa used to be fed by annual flooding from
the Niger River.
 It has four interlinked lakes west of Timbuktu
in Mali, was historically one of Mali’s most
fertile areas.
 Even though normal rainfall resumed after the
year 2000, the lake remained nearly dry.

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12. Lake Oguta
 Oguta Lake is a lean 'finger lake' formed by the
damming of the lower Njaba River with
alluvium.
 It is the largest natural lake in Imo State,
Southeastern Nigeria; within the equatorial
rainforest region of Niger Delta.
 Oguta Lake's catchment area comprises the
drainage area of the Njaba River and a part of
the River Niger floodplain in the region south
of Onitsha.
13. Lake Volta
 It is the largest artificial reservoir in the world
based on surface area; contained behind the
Akosombo Dam.
 It is completely within the country of Ghana
and has a surface area of 8,502 square kms.
14. It extends from Akosombo in the south to the
northern part of the country.

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 PRELIMS PYQs Content - (Geography)
CHAPTER-4
NATURAL VEGETATION
1. Tropical Rain Forests [UPSC 2023] Consider the following statements:
 Region: Occur near the equator; Found in Central and Statement-I: The soil in tropical rain forests
South America, western and central Africa, western is rich in nutrients.
India, Southeast Asia, the island of New Guinea, and Statement-II: The high temperature and
Australia. moisture of tropical rain forests cause dead
 Climate: Most diverse and rich communities on earth; organic matter in the soil to decompose
temperature and humidity remain high and uniform; quickly.
annual rainfall exceeds 200cms and distributed Which one of the following is correct in
throughout the year. respect of the above statements?
 Flora: vertically stratified with tall trees covered with (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
vines, epiphytic orchids. correct and Statement-II is the correct
 Soils: Red latosols + high rate of leaching-> useless for explanation for Statement-I
agri purposes + undergrowth restricted by lack of (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
sunlight at ground level. The soils of the tropical correct and Statement-II is not the correct
rainforest are typically nutrient-poor. The high explanation for Statement-I
temperature and moisture of tropical rainforests cause (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is
dead organic matter in the soil to decompose quickly + incorrect
In tropical rainforests, the plants grow so fast that they (d) Statement-I is incorrect but
quickly consume the nutrients from the soil, and the Statement-II is correct
leftover nutrients are then leached away by abundant
rainfall, which leaves the soil infertile.
 Fauna: The fauna species encompass okapi, tapir,
rhinoceros, spider monkey etc.
2. Tropical Deciduous forests [UPSC 2023] Consider the following trees:
 A deciduous forest is a biome dominated by deciduous 1. Jackfruit (Artocarpus heterophyllus)
trees which lose their leaves seasonally. Most 2. Mahua (Madhuca indica)
widespread in India; also called monsoon forests. 3. Teak (Tectona grandis)
 These are found in regions which receive rainfall How many of the above are deciduous trees?
between 70-200 cm. (a) Only one
 Two types (b) Only two
o Most deciduous: Rainfall between100 to 200 cms (c) All three
+ It is found in the north eastern states along the (d) None
foothills of Himalayas, eastern slopes of the
Western Ghats and Odisha.
o Species: Teak, sal, shisham, mahua, and
sandalwood etc.
o Dry deciduous: Rainfall ranges between 70 -100
cm; found in rainier areas of the Peninsula and the
plains of Uttar Pradesh and Bihar + In the higher
rainfall regions of the Peninsular plateau and the
northern Indian plain, these forests have a parkland
landscape with open stretches in which teak and
other trees interspersed with patches of grass are
common.
o Species: Tendu, palas, amaltas, bel, khair,
axlewood etc.

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 PRELIMS PYQs Content - (Geography)
 Mahua (Madhuca indica
o Found in the dry deciduous type of forests like the
Forests of Chhattisgarh and Jharkhand.
o Fast-growing tree and home to Madhya Pradesh,
Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh, Odisha, Maharashtra,
and Bihar.
 Teak (Tectona grandis)
o Tropical hardwood tree; Moist deciduous tree.
o mainly found in North East India.
o It is native to south and southeast Asia, but is also
cultivated in many other regions.
o Teak wood is valued for its durability and water
resistance, and is used for various purposes such as
boat building, furniture, carving, and veneer.
o Teak has been widely used in India for more than
2,000 years.
3. Jackfruit
 Jackfruit (Artocarpus heterophyllus) is an evergreen
tree, which means they retain their leaves throughout
the year and do not shed them seasonally.
 Latex-producing trees of up to 25 m that are native to
India and Malaysia, that have spread to Sri Lanka,
China, South-east Asia and to tropical Africa.
 They are cultivated for the large fruits that can vary in
shape and size, and for timber.
 It is the largest tree-borne fruit in the world, reaching
up to 60 cm (about 2 feet) long and weighing up to 18
kg.
4. Savannah [UPSC 2021] 1. The vegetation of savannah consists of
 Distribution: West African Sudan, East Africa, South grassland with scattered small trees. The
America (Llanos and campos), Australia forest development in such areas is generally
(Queensland). In general, savannas grow in tropical kept in check by one or more or a
regions 8° to combination of some conditions.
20° from the Equator. Which of the following are such conditions?
 Conditions: Savanna is heterogeneous environments 1. Burrowing animals and termites.
characterized by presence of trees, bushes, and grasses 2. Fire
+ Usually Nutrient and soil moisture availability are 3. Grazing herbivores
limiting factors affecting the biomass growth + Fire, 4. Seasonal rainfall
grazing herbivore and seasonal rainfall are factors 5. Soil properties
behind scarce forest development in the region. Select the correct answer using the code
 Climate: It is a transitional type of climate found given below.
between the equatorial rainforests and hot deserts. (a) 1 and 2
 Temperature: Mean annual temperature is greater (b) 4 and 5
than 18° C + Extreme diurnal range of temperature+ (c) 2, 3 and 4
Confined dry and wet season.
(d) 1, 3 and 5
 Precipitation: Annual precipitation is around 80 cms
+ rainfall is confined to limited period + In northern
hemisphere, rainy season begins in May and lasts till

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September + In southern hemisphere, the rainy season
is from October to March.
 Natural vegetation: Typified by tall grass and short
trees (elephant grass) + It has presence of deciduous
trees like Acacius + Trees are deciduous and shed the
leaves in the cool, dry season to prevent excessive loss
of water through transpiration + Broad trunks with
water storing devices to survive droughts + Presence
of grasses with scattered trees and fire resisting thorny
shrubs.
 Fauna: Antelopes, buffaloes, elephants and
rhinoceros; carnivores include lion, cheetah, hyena and
many rodents.
5. Other names: Brazil (Campos) + Venezuela (Llanos).
6. Tropical rain forests [UPSC 2021] 12. “Leaf litter decomposes faster than in
 Region: Occur near the equator; Found in Central and any other biome and as a result, the soil
South America, western and central Africa, western surface is often almost bare. Apart from
India, Southeast Asia, the island of New Guinea, and trees, the vegetation is largely composed of
Australia. plant forms that reach up into the canopy
vicariously, by climbing the trees or growing
 Climate: Most diverse and rich communities on earth;
as epiphytes, rooted on the upper branches of
temperature and humidity remain high and uniform;
trees.” This is the most likely description of
annual rainfall exceeds 200cms and distributed
throughout the year. (a) Coniferous forest
(b) Dry deciduous forest
 Flora: vertically stratified with tall trees covered with
vines, epiphytic orchids + vegetation is largely (c) Mangrove forest
composed of plant forms that reach up into the canopy, (d) Tropical rain forest
by climbing the trees or growing as epiphytes.
 Soils are red latosols + high rate of leaching-> useless
for agri purposes + undergrowth restricted by lack of
sunlight at ground level.
 Fauna: The fauna species encompass okapi, tapir,
rhinoceros, spider monkey etc.
7. Coniferous forests: Covers most of inland Canada and
Alaska, Sweden, Finland, Russia and northern parts of
Kazakhstan, Mongolia and Japan + Present in cold regions
with high rainfall + Strong seasonal climates with long
winters and short summers; Evergreen plant species such
as spruce, fir, pine trees; Animals such as red fox,
porcupine, bear etc; Soils characterized by thin podzols,
acidic and are mineral deficient; Productivity and
community stability is lower.
8. Tropical Dry deciduous forest: Found throughout
northern part of country except in North-east; also found
in M.P, Gujarat, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh and Tamil
Nadu+ Shed their leaves in dry season, closed but even
canopy-> enough light reaches to ground for growth of
grass and climbers+ Important species are teak, sal, acacia,
common bamboo, red sanders, satinwood etc. + Suffer
from over grazing, fire etc.

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9. Mangroves: small tree or shrub that grows along
coastlines, taking root in salty sediments, often underwater
+ It belong to the families Rhizophoraceae, Acanthaceae,
Lythraceae, Combretaceae, and Arecaceae.
 Characteristics: Mostly evergreen forests grow in
sheltered low lying coasts, estuaries, mudflats etc+
Highly productive ecosystems + It protect shoreline
from the effect of cyclones+ Best example of ecotone
+ Grow below high water level of spring tides + Salt
tolerant trees (halophytes) + Adapted to the low
oxygen (anoxic) conditions of waterlogged mud +
Produce pneumatophores (blind roots) to overcome
the respiration problem + Occur worldwide mainly
between latitudes 25° N and 25° S + Succulent leaves
(store fresh water in leaves), viviparous (Their seeds
germinate while still attached to the parent tree. Once
germinated, the seedling grows into a propagule).
10. Largest Mangrove Forest: Sundarbans in West Bengal
are the largest mangrove forest regions in the world +
listed as a UNESCO World Heritage site + Home to the
Royal Bengal tiger, Gangetic dolphins and Estuarine
crocodiles.
11. Leaf Modifications in Desert areas to inhabit water loss 1. Which of the following leaf modifications
[UPSC 2018] occur(s) in the desert areas to inhibit water
 Wax coatings on leaves prevent water loss through loss?
evaporation. 1. Hard and waxy leaves
 Leaves few or absent or represented by spines only. 2. Tiny leaves
 Petiole modified into leaf like structure. 3. Thorns instead of leaves
 Thorns instead of leaves E.g: Cacti have spines in Select the correct answer using the code
place of leaves, which conduct photosynthesis. given below
 Stem reduced and branching is sparse. (a) 2 and 3 only
 Prevention of loss of water by transpiration (b) 2 only
modifications: Intercellular spaces reduced, Spongy (c) 3 only
parenchyma is present, Stomata on lower surface and (d) 1, 2 and 3
sunken in stomatal pits.
12. Prevention of excessive heat Modifications: Leaves
covered with dense hairs; leaf surfaces shiny or glaborous,
leaf blade remains rolled during the day.

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 PRELIMS PYQs Content - (Geography)
CHAPTER -5
AGRICULTURE
1. Agricultural Comparisons [UPSC 2023] 1. Consider the following statements:
 Arable area 1. India has more arable area than China.
o India has the most arable land in the world 2. The proportion of irrigated area is
followed by the United States, Russia, China and more in India as compared to China.
Brazil. 3. The average productivity per hectare
o India has the largest arable land at 1,656,780 km in Indian agriculture is higher than that
square (50.4% of total land) compared with in China.
1,084,461 km square (11.3% of total land) of How many of the above statements are
China. correct?
o World Population Review-> India has 156.1M (a) Only one
Hectares of arable land, which is about 47% of (b) Only two
its total land area. (c) All three
(d) None

 Irrigated Area
o India has more proportion of irrigated land than
China.
o China’s irrigation cover is 41% of the cultivated
area, and India’s is 48%.
o As a result of this irrigation, China’s total sown
area is 166 m ha compared to India’s gross
cropped area of 198 m ha. agricultural output
valued at $1,367 billion—more than three times
that of India’s $407 billion.

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 Productivity
o The average productivity per hectare is higher in
China i.e., 4.7 tonnes per hectare compared to
India’s 2.7.
o China’s productivity in most crops is 50 to 100%
higher than India’s.
o In India agricultural yield of food grains has
increased by more than four times since 1950-
51, and was 3479 kg/hectare in 2021. Whereas
the average yield of food grains was 6321
kg/hectare.
o The average productivity per hectare in Indian
agriculture is 2.4 tonnes for rice and 3 tonnes for
wheat, while in China it is 6.7 tonnes for rice and
5 tonnes for wheat

2. Sustainable Sugarcane Initiative 2. What are significances of practical

 Iinnovative credit-plus approach of NABARD which approach to sugarcane production known
helps to integrate twin drip irrigation system with as Sustainable Sugarcane Initiative?
resource efficient sugarcane cultivation practices. 1. Seed cost is very low than
 It aims to promote sustainable and innovative set of conventional method
agronomic practices that reduces ecological 2. Drip irrigation can be practiced
footprint amongst the sugarcane farmers and create effectively
market linkages with the sugar factories. 3. No application of chemical/ inorganic
 There is an application of inorganic and organic fertilizers at all
fertilizers such as NPK at the rate of 112kg, 25kg and 4.Intercropping scope is more as compared
48kg per acre, respectively. to conventional method.
 Benefits: better yield, low seed cost, reduced fertilizer Select the correct answer using the code
and water use, and flexibility to do intercropping. given below.
 Major principles of SSI: Raising nursery using (a) 1 and 3 only
single budded chips, transplanting young (b) 1, 2 and 4 only
seedlings(25-35 days old), Maintaining wide (c) 2, 3 and 4 only
spacing (5X2 feet) in main field, providing sufficient (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
moisture & avoiding inundation of water,
Encouraging organic method of nutrient and plant
protection measures and Practicing intercropping for
effective utilization of land. [UPSC 2014]

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3. Seed Replacement Rates 3. In the context of food and nutritional
 It is the percentage of area sown out of the total area security of India, enhancing the 'Seed
of crop planted in the season by using Replacement Rates' of various crops helps
certified/quality seeds other than the farm saved in achieving the food production targets of
seed. the future. But what is/are the constraint/
 Due to huge demand supply gap, India suffers from constraints in its wider / greater
a dismal seed Replacement Ratio. [UPSC 2014] implementation?
1. There is no National Seeds Policy in
place.
2. No participation of private sector seed
companies in supply of quality seeds
of vegetables, planting materials of
horticultural crops.
3. There is a demand-supply gap
regarding quality seeds in case of low
value and high volume crops.
Select the correct answer using the code
given below.
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 (d) None
4. Tea Board of India [UPSC 2022] 4. With reference to the “Tea Board” in
 It is a statutory body created under the Tea Act, India, consider the following statements:
1953; works under Ministry of Commerce. 1. Tea Board is statutory body.
 Composition: 31 members (including Chairman) 2. It is a regulatory body attached to the
drawn from Members of Parliament, tea producers, Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers
tea traders, tea brokers, consumers, and Welfare.
representatives of Governments from the principal 3. Tea Board’s Head Office is situated in
tea producing states, and trade unions. Bengaluru.
 The Board is reconstituted every three years. 4. Board has overseas offices at Dubai
 Tea Board of India’s Head Office is situated in and Moscow.
Kolkata. Which of the statements given above are
 It has overseas offices in Moscow, Dubai, Hamburg, correct?
London and New York. (a) 1 and 3
 The Moscow office operates under the Embassy of (b) 2 and 4
India, and its area of activity includes Russia and the (c) 3 and 4
CIS countries, which comprise 50% of Indian tea (d) 2 and 3
exports.
5. System of Rice Intensification (SRI) [UPSC 2022] 5. “System of Rice Intensification” of
 It was first developed in Madagascar in the 1980s. cultivation, in which alternate wetting and
 It involves cultivating rice with as much organic drying of rice fields is practiced, results in:
manure as possible. 1. Reduced seed requirement
 It employs young seedlings planted singly at wider 2. Reduced methane production
spacing in a square pattern; and with intermittent 3. Reduced electricity consumption
irrigation that keeps the soil moist but not inundated, Select the correct answer using the code
and frequent inter cultivation with weeder that given below:
actively aerates the soil. (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
 Alternate Wetting and Drying (AWD) -> controlled (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
or intermittent irrigation of the rice crops.
 Benefits of SRI cultivation
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o Higher yields – Both grain and straw
o Reduced duration (by 10 days)
o Less chaffy grain %
o Grain weight increased without change in grain
size
o Higher head rice recovery
o Withstand cyclonic gales
o Cold tolerance
o Soil health improves through biological activity
o It reduces required seeds for transplanting by 60-
80%.
o Reduced methane production
o Reduced electricity consumption as it enables
reduce use of chemical fertilizers and
agrichemicals and reduced use of irrigation
water.
6. Moringa and Tamarind [UPSC 2021] 6. Consider following statements:
 Moringa is a green leafy fast-growing deciduous 1. Moringa (drumstick tree) is a
plant, native to Indian subcontinent. It grows in wild leguminous evergreen tree.
or is cultivated in Central America and Caribbean, 2. Tamarind tree is endemic to south
northern countries of South America, Africa, South Asia.
& Southeast Asia, and Countries of Oceania + 3. In India, most of the tamarind is
Common names: moringa, drumstick, horseradish, collected as minor forest produce.
ben oil or benzolive tree. 4. India exports tamarind and seeds of
 Tamarind is a leguminous tree which is indigenous moringa.
to tropical Africa and not South Asia. It is widely 5. Seeds of moringa and tamarind can be
cultivated in tropical and subtropical regions for its used in the production of biofuels.
edible fruit which is extensively used in foods and Which of the statements given above are
traditional medicines. correct?
 It is collected mostly as the minor forest produce in (a) 1, 2, 4 and 5
India. (b) 3, 4 and 5
 India exports tamarind and moringa seeds to US, (c) 1, 3 and 4
China, Canada, South Korea, and European (d) 1,2, 3 and 5
countries + Globally, the demand for Moringa
products, such as Moringa Leaf Powder and
Moringa Oil, has been witnessing healthy growth for
its nutritional, medicinal, culinary uses.
 The oil from the Moringa considered to be a more
sustainable biodiesel feedstock than jatropha oil.
7. Permaculture: It is an innovative framework for 7. How is permaculture farming different
creating sustainable ways of agriculture. It is a practical from conventional chemical farming?
method of developing ecologically harmonious, efficient 1. Permaculture farming discourages
and productive systems that can be used by anyone, monocultural practices but in
anywhere. [UPSC 2021] conventional chemical farming,
 Discourages Monoculture: It discourages monoculture practices are
monoculture and promote growing a wide range of predominant.
food grains, fruits and vegetables and thereby 2. Conventional chemical farming can
expanding the food basket. cause increase in soil salinity but such
 Soil salinity: Usage of techniques such as natural phenomenon is not observed in
mulching, rainfall harvesting, legume cultivation in permaculture.
permaculture improves soil properties, increase soil 3. Conventional chemical farming is
organic matter content and reduce soil salinity. easily possible in such regions.
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 Semi-arid regions: Permaculture focuses on water 4. Practice of mulching is very important
management and water conservation through in it but not necessarily so in
rainwater harvesting, so it is very much suitable for conventional one.
arid and semiarid regions. Select the correct answer using the code
 Rainwater harvesting, less machinery to be used, given below.
Seasonal agriculture and Multi cropping/ Crop (a) 1 and 3
diversification. (b) 1, 2 and 4
 Mulching: It basically involves application of a (c) 4 only
protective layer of material to the field soil surface (d) 2 and 3
just after sowing any crop. The material could be
organic and biodegradable (paddy straw, sugarcane
bark, dry grass, trees leaves and even newspaper) or
inorganic and non-biodegradable such as polythene
sheets. It improves crop yield and optimize water use
which is an essential component of permaculture.
 Components of Perma-Culture

8. Palm oil is derived from the oil palm tree, which is native 8. With reference to ‘palm oil’, consider the
to West Africa and grows best in tropical climates with following statements:
abundant water. It was imported into SE Asia in the mid 1. The palm oil tree is native to Southeast
19th century. Asia.
9. • Oil palm flourishes in the humid tropics and produces 2. Palm oil is a raw material for some
a high yield when grown 10 degrees north and south of
industries like lipstick and perfumes.
the equator.
10. Palm Sludge Oil (PSO) is the floating residual oil that 3. The palm oil can be used to produce
separated during the initial stage of POME discharge to biodiesel.
the pond. The PSO is currently being categorised under Which of the statements given above are
sludge oil as it exhibits high Free Fatty Acids (FFA) and correct?
very low Deterioration of Bleachability Index (DOBI) (a) 1 and 2 only
values. (b) 2 and 3 only
11. Due to the inferior quality of PSO, this residual oil (c) 1 and 3 only
cannot be used directly as a food source but normally
being used for low-grade laundry soap formulation to (d) 1, 2 and 3
substitute palm fatty acids distillate.
Conventionally, Volatile short-chain fatty Acid
(VSCFA) has been widely used as raw material in the
fragrant industry for the production of perfume via the
esterification process.
If refined, the PSO can be applied directly as boiler fuel,
raw material for biodiesel production.

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12. Sugarcane [UPSC 2021] 9. Among the following, which one is the
 Temperature: 21-27°C with hot & humid climate. least water-efficient crop?
 Rainfall: Around 75-100 cm. (a) Sugarcane
 Soil Type: Deep rich loamy soil. (b) Sunflower
 Top Sugarcane Producing States: Uttar Pradesh, (c) Pearl millet
Maharashtra, Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, Bihar. (d) Red gram
 Comparison with world: India is the second largest
producer of sugarcane after Brazil.
 Unique facts: It can be grown on all variety of
soilsgiven these soils should be well drained. It
needs manual labour from sowing to harvesting.
 Government initiatives: Scheme for Extending
Financial Assistance to Sugar Undertakings
(SEFASU), National Policy on Biofuels.
 Bud chip technology: it reduces the mass and
enables quick multiplication of seeds; it has proved
to be more economical than the traditional method of
planting two to three bud setts; returns are relatively
better, with substantial savings on the seed material
 Setts having two buds are giving germination about
65 to 70% with better yield.
 Large setts have better survival under bad weather
but single budded setts also give 70% germination if
protected with chemical treatment.
13. Zero Tillage/No Tillage [UPSC 2020] 10. What are the advantages of zero tillage in
 It is the process where the crop seed will be sown agriculture?
through drillers without prior land preparation and 1. Sowing of wheat is possible without
disturbing the soil where previous crop stubbles are burning the residue of the previous
present. crop.
 Advantages: Less soil erosion from wind and water 2. Without the need for nursery of rice
(because the mulch cover of previous crops covers saplings, direct planting of paddy
the soil), less soil compaction, more fertile and seeds in the wet soil is possible.
resilient soils, less moisture evaporation, lower fuel 3. Carbon sequestration in the soil is
and labor costs (because there are less passes across possible.
the field), reduces the cost of cultivation, irrigation Select the correct answer using the code
requirement and weed effect. given below:
 Disadvantages: initial cost of zero tillage equipment (a) 1 and 2 only
(the upfront costs can be high), gullies can form in (b) 2 and 3 only
the fields, increased use of herbicides. (c) 3 only
 Zero-Tillage Direct seeded rice: It is an alternative (d) 1, 2 and 3
crop establishment method for rice where seeds are
sown directly without raising them in a nursery, and
can be done in zero-tillage conditions.
 Carbon Sequestration is possible if crops are not
burnt and land is prepared through mechanical
agitation.
14. Conservation tillage: It means any minimal tillage
system that leaves sufficient crop residue to cover the
soil surface by at least 30%.

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15. Black gram: It is a warm weather crop and comes up in 11. With reference to pulse production in
areas receiving an annual rainfall ranging from 600 to India, consider the following statements:
1000 mm + It is mainly cultivated in a cereal-pulse 1. Black gram is cultivated as both kharif
cropping system primarily to conserve soil nutrients and and rabi crops.
utilize the left over soil moisture particularly, after rice 2. Green-gram alone accounts for nearly
cultivation + the majority of black gram cultivation falls half of pulse production.
in either rabi or late rabi seasons particularly in 3. In last 3 decades, while production of
peninsular India. [UPSC 2020] kharif pulses increased, production of
rabi pulses has decreased.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
16. Cotton [UPSC 2020] 12. “The crop is subtropical in nature. A hard
 Temperature: Between 21-30°C frost is injurious to it. It requires at least
 Rainfall: Around 50-100cm. 210 frost free days and 50 to 100
centimeters of rainfall for its growth. A
 Soil Type: Well drained black cotton soil of Deccan
light well-drained soil capable of retaining
Plateau.
moisture is ideally suited for the
 Top Cotton Producing States: Gujarat, cultivation of the crop.” Which one of the
Maharashtra, Telangana, Andhra Pradesh, following is that crop?
Rajasthan.
(a) Cotton
 Conditions: Cotton needs 210 frost free days and (b) Jute
bright sun-shine for its growth.
(c) Sugarcane
 Maturity period: Kharif crop & requires 6 to 8
(d) Tea
months to mature.
 Genetical modification: BT Cotton to fight
environmental stress and pest attacks.
 Government initiatives: Silver Fibre Revolution
and Technology Mission on Cotton

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17. Jute/Golden Fibre

 Temperature: Between 25-35°C.
 Rainfall: Around 150-250 cm.
 Soil Type: It is mainly concentrated in eastern India
because of rich alluvial soil of Ganga-Brahmaputra
delta.
 Top Jute Producing States: West Bengal, Bihar,
Assam, Andhra Pradesh, Odisha.
 Comparison with world: India is largest producer of
jute.
 Use: It is used in making gunnybags, mats, ropes,
yarn etc.
 Challenge: Due to its high cost, it is losing market
to synthetic fibres and packing materials,
particularly nylon.
 Government initiatives: Golden Fibre Revolution,
Technology Mission on Jute & Mesta.
18. Sugarcane
 Temperature: 21-27°C with hot and humid climate.
 Rainfall: Around 75-100 cm.
 Soil Type: Deep rich loamy soil.
 Top Sugarcane Producing States: Uttar Pradesh,
Maharashtra, Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, Bihar.
 Comparison with world: India is the second largest
producer of sugarcane after Brazil.

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 Unique facts: It can be grown on all variety of
soilsgiven these soils should be well drained. It
needs manual labour from sowing to harvesting.
 Government initiatives: Scheme for Extending
Financial Assistance to Sugar Undertakings
(SEFASU), National Policy on Biofuels.
 Bud chip technology: it reduces the mass and
enables quick multiplication of seeds; it has proved
to be more economical than the traditional method of
planting two to three bud setts; returns are relatively
better, with substantial savings on the seed material
 Setts having two buds are giving germination about
65 to 70% with better yield.
 Large setts have better survival under bad weather
but single budded setts also give 70% germination if
protected with chemical treatment.
19. Tea
 Temperature: Between 20-30°C
 Rainfall: Around 150-300 cm.
 Soil type: Deep and fertile well drained soil, rich in
humus and organic matter. Slopes of eastern hills
have humid climate and evenly distributed rainfall
without water logging which are optimal conditions
for terrace farming
 Top Tea Producing States: Assam, West Bengal,
Tamil Nadu.
 Comparison with world: India is the second largest
producer of tea.
 Labour intensive: It requires abundant, cheap and
skilled labour.
 Unique facts: Tea is processed within the tea garden
to retain its freshness.
 Government Initiatives: Tea Development and
Promotion Scheme, Wage Compensation Scheme
and Tea Boutiques.
20. Sugarcane [UPSC 2020] 13. With reference to the current trends in the
 Temperature: Between 21-27°C with hot and cultivation of sugarcane in India, consider
humid climate. the following statements:
 Rainfall: Around 75-100 cm. 1. A substantial saving in seed material is
 Soil Type: Deep rich loamy soil. made when ‘bud chip settings’ are
raised in a nursery and transplanted in
 Top Sugarcane Producing States: Uttar Pradesh, the main field.
Maharashtra, Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, Bihar.
2. When direct planting of setts is done,
 Comparison with world: India is the second largest the germination percentage is better
producer of sugarcane after Brazil. with single budded setts as compared
 Unique facts: It can be grown on all variety of to setts with many buds.
soilsgiven these soils should be well drained. It 3. If bad weather conditions prevail
needs manual labour from sowing to harvesting. when setts are directly planted, single-
budded setts have better survival as
compared to large setts.

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 Government initiatives: Scheme for Extending 4. Sugarcane can be cultivated using
Financial Assistance to Sugar Undertakings settings prepared from tissue culture.
(SEFASU), National Policy on Biofuels. Which of the statements given above is/are
 Bud chip technology: it reduces the mass and correct?
enables quick multiplication of seeds; it has proved (a) 1 and 2 only
to be more economical than the traditional method of (b) 3 only
planting two to three bud setts; returns are relatively (c) 1 and 4 only
better, with substantial savings on the seed material (d) 2, 3 and 4 only
 Setts having two buds are giving germination about
65 to 70% with better yield.
 Large setts have better survival under bad weather
but single budded setts also give 70% germination if
protected with chemical treatment.
21. Fertigation: It is a method of fertilizer application in 14. What are the advantages of fertigation in
which fertilizer is incorporated within the irrigation agriculture?
water by the drip system; fertilizer solution is distributed 1. Controlling the alkalinity of irrigation
evenly in irrigation. In this method liquid fertilizer as water is possible.
well as water soluble fertilizers are used. Fertilizer use 2. Efficient application of Rock
efficiency is increased from 80 to 90 per cent. Phosphate and all other phosphatic
Advantages of Fertigation: [UPSC 2020] fertilizers is possible.
 Drip irrigation helps to avoid water spillage on field 3. Increased availability of nutrients to
which increase soil alkalinity because of water plants is possible.
logging. 4. Reduction in the leaching of chemical
 Urea, potash and highly water soluble fertilizers are nutrients is possible.
available for applying through fertigation + But, Select the correct answer using the code
rock phosphate is not water soluble and thus not given below:
suitable for fertigation + Application of super (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
phosphorus through fertigation must be avoided as it
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
makes precipitation of phosphate salts. Thus
phosphoric acid is more suitable for fertigation as it (c) 1, 3 and 4 only
is available in liquid form. (d) 2, 3 and 4 only
 Fertilizer use efficiency ranges between 80-90 per
cent, which helps to save a minimum of 25% of
nutrients.
 It reduces the leaching of chemical nutrients as
fertilizers are applied in a targeted manner.
 Fertilizer used in fertigation: Urea, potash and
highly water soluble fertilizers are available for
applying through fertigation + Special fertilisers like
mono ammonium phosphate (Nitrogen and
Phosphorus), poly feed (Nitrogen, Phosphorus and
Potassium), Multi K (Nitrogen and Potassium),
Potassium sulphate (Potassium and Sulphur) are
highly suitable for Fertigation as they are highly
soluble in water.
22. Cultivation of Kharif Crops in last 5 years [UPSC 15. With reference to the cultivation of Kharif
2019] crops in India in the last five years,
 Area under Rice cultivation: The area under rice consider the following statements:
cultivation in 2015-16 is 434.99 lakh hectares, it 1. Area under rice cultivation is the
became 437.8 lakh hectares in 2019-20 and it is highest.
highest among all.

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 Area under Jowar and Oilseeds cultivation: Area 2. Area under the cultivation of jowar is
under cultivation of jowar is less than that of more than that of oilseeds.
oilseeds. The area under oilseeds cultivation in 3. Area of cotton cultivation is more than
2019-20 is 270 lakh hectare while that of coarse that of sugarcane.
cereals is of 240.2 lakh hectares. 4. Area under sugarcane cultivation has
 Area under Cotton and Sugarcane cultivation: steadily decreased.
Area under cotton cultivation is 133 lakh hectares Which of the statements given above are
while under sugarcane it is 45.7 lakh hectares in correct?
2019-20. (a) 1 and 3 only
 Area under Sugarcane cultivation: Area under (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
sugarcane cultivation is showing a fluctuating trend (c) 2 and 4 only
and not steadily declined. (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Note:
 The oilseed production in India has steadily
increased since 2016-17 onward after showing a
fluctuating trend prior to that.
 It has grown by almost 43 % from 2015-16 to 2020-
21.
 India is the world’s second largest consumer and
number one importer of vegetable oil.

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 As per OECD-FAO Agricultural Outlook 2021-
2030, India is projected to maintain a high per capita
vegetable oil consumption growth of 2.6 per cent per
annum reaching 14 kg/capita by 2030 necessitating
a high import growth of 3.4% per annum.
23. Conservation Agriculture [UPSC 2018] 16. With reference to circumstances in Indian
 Conservation Agriculture (CA) is a farming system agriculture, concept of “Conservation
that can prevent losses of arable land while Agriculture” assumes significance. Which
regenerating degraded lands. of the following fall under Conservation
 It promotes maintenance of a permanent soil cover, Agriculture?
minimum soil disturbance, and diversification of 1. Avoiding monoculture practices
plant species. 2. Adopting minimum tillage
 It enhances biodiversity and natural biological 3. Avoiding the cultivation of plantation
processes above and below the ground surface, crops
which contribute to increased water and nutrient use 4. Using crop residues to cover the soil
efficiency and to improved and sustained crop surface
production. 5. Adopting spatial and temporal crop
 Principles: Minimum tillage and soil sequencing /crop rotations
disturbance, Permanent soil cover with crop Select the correct answer using the code
residues and live mulches and Crop rotation and given below:
intercropping. (a) 1, 3 and 4 (b) 2, 3, 4 and 5
(c) 2, 4 and 5 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 5
24. Agricultural Soils [UPSC 2018] 17. With reference to agricultural soils,
 Soil water holding capacity is the amount of water consider following statements :
that a given soil can hold for crop use. 1. High content of organic matter in soil
 Plant residues that cover the soil surface protect the drastically reduces its water holding
soil from sealing and crusting by raindrop impact, capacity.
which enhances rainwater infiltration and reduce 2. Soil does not play any role in the
runoff. sulphur cycle.
 Each 1% increase in soil organic matter helps soil 3. Irrigation over a period of time can
hold 20,000 gallons more water per acre. contribute to the salinization of some
 Sulphur is one of three nutrients that are cycled agricultural lands.
between the soil, plant matter and the atmosphere. Which of the statements given above is/are
 Salinization occurs with excessive irrigation, correct?
because deposits of salts build up in the soil and can (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only
reach levels that are harmful to crops. (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
25. Drip Irrigation/Trickle Irrigation 18. Which of the following is/are the
advantage /advantages of practising drip
irrigation?
1. Reduction in weed
2. Reduction in soil salinity
3. Reduction in soil erosion
Select the correct answer using the code
given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
 Advantages of Drip irrigation: Maximum use of
(c) 1 and 3 only
available water, no water being available to weeds,
Maximum crop yield, High efficiency in the use of (d) None of the above is an advantage of
fertilizers, Less weed growth and restricts population practising drip irrigation

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of potential hosts, Low labour and relatively low
operation cost, No soil erosion, Improved infiltration
in soil of low intake, Ready adjustment to
sophisticated automatic control, No runoff of
fertilizers into ground water, Less evaporation losses
of water as compared to surface irrigation, Improves
seed germination, Decreased to tillage operations.
[UPSC 2016]
26. Rice Exports of India 19. Among the following, which one is the
 India is the 2nd largest producer and consumer of largest exporter of rice in the world in the
rice in the world after China. last five years?
 Average yield of rice in India is 2.3 tonne/ha against (a) China
the global average of 4.374 tonne/ha. China (6.5), (b) India
Australia (10), US (7.5) leads in productivity figures (c) Myanmar
of rice. (d) Vietnam
 India is the biggest exporter of basmati rice.
 India had the highest export volume of rice
worldwide, at 18.75 million metric tons as of
2021/2022.
 Vietnam was the second largest rice exporter, with
about 6.5 million metric tons of rice worldwide.
[UPSC 2019]

27. N2O Emissions 20. Consider following statements:

 Agricultural soils contributed to over 70% of N2O 1. Agricultural soils release nitrogen
emissions from India in 2010, followed by waste oxides into environment.
water (12%) and residential and commercial 2. Cattle release ammonia into
activities (6%). Since 2002, N2O has replaced environment.
methane as the second largest Greenhouse Gas 3. Poultry industry releases reactive
(GHG) from Indian agriculture. nitrogen compounds into
 Cattle account for 80% of the ammonia production, environment.
though their annual growth rate is 1%, due to a stable Which of the statements given above is/are
population. correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only

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 The poultry industry, on the other hand, with an (b) 2 and 3 only
annual growth rate of 6%, recorded an excretion of (c) 2 only
reactive nitrogen compounds of 0.415 tonnes in (d) 1, 2 and 3
2016. [UPSC 2019]
28. Crop Diversification: It refers to the addition of new 21. In the context of India, which of the
crops or cropping systems to agricultural production on following is/are considered to be
a particular farm taking into account the different returns practice(s) of eco-friendly agriculture?
from value- added crops with complementary marketing 1. Crop diversification
opportunities + Benefits include increase in farmer 2. Legume intensification
income, reduce risk of total crop failure, food security, 3. Tensiometer use
manage price risks etc. + Types
4. Vertical farming
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct ?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

29. Legume intensification: A leguminous plant is a group

of plants that have vegetables or as foods grown from the
ground knobs that enhance the ability of nitrogen- rich
material. Examples include acacia, peas, clover, beans
etc. + Legume can improve soil health, by adding
nitrogen and organic matter and reduce erosion and
leaching loss.
30. Tensiometer: It literally means tension measurement.
To absorb water from soil, the plant has to overcome the
suction tension of the soil -> measured by tensiometer +
It helps farmers and other irrigation managers to
determine when to water the soil.
31. Vertical farming: It is the practice of growing crops in
vertically stacked layers and often incorporates
controlled-environment agriculture, which aims to
optimize plant growth, and soilless farming techniques.

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32. Aquaponics: It is a system that combines hydroponics

and aquaculture within a closed system + three
biological components in the aquaponics process ->
fishes, plants, and bacteria.

[UPSC 2020]
33. Rice 22. Among the following crops, which one is
 Methane and nitrous oxide are important greenhouse the most important anthropogenic source
gases. They contribute to global warming. Important of both methane and nitrous oxide ?
anthropogenic sources of biogenic methane are wet rice (a) Cotton
fields, cattle, animal waste, landfills and biomass (b) Rice
burning. (c) Sugarcane
(d) Wheat

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 Flooded rice cultivation has been identified as one of
the leading global agricultural sources of
anthropogenic methane (CH4) emissions.
 Paddies are a potential source of anthropogenic
nitrous oxide (N2O) emission as well. In paddies,
both the soil and the rice plants emit N2O into the
atmosphere.
34. Wheat
 Wheat is a rabi crop that requires a cool growing
season and bright sunshine at the time of ripening.
 Temperature: Between 10-15°C (Sowing time) and
21-26°C (Ripening & Harvesting) with bright
sunlight.
 Rainfall: Around 75-100 cm.
 Soil Type: Well-drained fertile loamy and clayey
loamy (Ganga-Satluj plains and black soil region of
the Deccan).
 Top Wheat Producing States: Uttar Pradesh >
Punjab > Haryana>Madhya Pradesh > Rajasthan>
Bihar>Gujarat
 It is the second most important cereal crop in India
after rice. [UPSC 2022]
35. Tea 23. Consider the following States:
 Temperature: Between 20-30°C 1. Andhra Pradesh
 Rainfall: Around 150-300 cm. 2. Kerala
 Soil type: Deep and fertile well drained soil, rich in 3. Himachal Pradesh
humus and organic matter. Slopes of eastern hills 4. Tripura
have humid climate and evenly distributed rainfall How many of the above are generally
without water logging which are optimal conditions known as tea-producing States?
for terrace farming (a) Only one State
 Top Tea Producing States: Assam, West Bengal, (b) Only two States
Tamil Nadu. (c) Only three States
 Comparison with world: India is the second largest (d) All four States
producer of tea.
 Labour intensive: It requires abundant, cheap and
skilled labour.
 Unique facts: Tea is processed within the tea garden
to retain its freshness.
 Government Initiatives: Tea Development and
Promotion Scheme, Wage Compensation Scheme
and Tea Boutiques.
 As per the Tea Board under the Ministry of
Commerce and Industry, Assam, West Bengal,
Tamil Nadu, Himachal Pradesh, Tripura, Kerela and
Karnataka are the states generally known as tea-
producing States. [UPSC 2022]

******
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CHAPTER-6
ATMOSPHERE
1. Temperature contrast and Specific heat of water 1. Consider the following statements:
 The temperature contrast between continents and Statement-I: The temperature contrast
oceans is greater during summer than in winter. This between continents and oceans is
is the result of more heat and stronger sea breeze in greater during summer than in
the summer than in winter. winter.
 The specific heat is the property of a substance which Statement-II: The specific heat of
determines the change in the temperature of the water is more than that of land
substance (undergoing no phase change) when a surface.
given quantity of heat is absorbed (or rejected) by it. Which one of the following is correct
 The specific heat capacity of water is much greater in respect of the above statements?
than the land because the relative density of water is (a) Both Statement-I and
much lower than that of the land surface. [UPSC Statement-II are correct and
2023] Statement-II is the correct
explanation for Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II
are correct and Statement-II is not
the correct explanation for
Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct but
Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but
Statement-II is correct
2. Westerlies [UPSC 2015] 2. Consider following statements:
 Westerlies are prevailing winds from the west toward 1. The winds which blow between 30
the east in the middle latitudes between 30 and 60 N and 60 S latitudes throughout the
degrees latitude. year are known as westerlies.
 Western Disturbance occurs in India, Pakistan, 2. The moist air masses that cause
Bangladesh and Nepal to describe an extratropical winter rains in the NorthWestern
storm originating in the Mediterranean, that brings region of India are part of
sudden winter rain and snow to the northwestern parts westerlies.
of the Indian subcontinent. Which of the statements given above
 This is a non-monsoonal precipitation pattern driven is/are correct?
by the Westerlies. (a) 1 only
3. (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

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4. Dewdrops [UPSC 2019] 3. Why are dewdrops not formed on a
 Dew is a type of precipitation where water droplets cloudy night?
form on the ground, or on objects near the ground in (a) Clouds absorb the radiation
a process called condensation of moisture. released from the Earth’s surface.
 Favorable elements: clear skies, light wind, decent (b) Clouds reflect back the Earth’s
soil moisture, and low night-time dew point radiation.
depressions. (c) The Earth’s surface would have a
 The dew formation is more when the sky is clear and low temperature on cloudy nights.
less when it is cloudy. When the sky is clear and the (d) Clouds deflect the blowing wind to
trees and plants are cooler at nights, there is more ground level.
evaporation of water and hence more dew formation.
5. But when it is cloudy, trees and plants do not get cool in
the night and hence there is less dew formation. As the sun
raises high in the sky, these dew drops evaporate into air.
6. Clouds [UPSC 2022] 4. Consider following statements:
 High clouds are often thin and do not reflect very 1. High clouds primarily reflect solar
much. They let lots of the Sun's warmth in. They radiation and cool surface of the
radiate less energy into space than the lower, warmer Earth.
clouds. 2. Low clouds have a high absorption
 Low clouds are often quite thick and reflect lots of of infrared radiation emanating
sunlight back to space. Low clouds are excellent from the Earth’s surface and thus
reflectors. Therefore, low clouds help to cool the cause warming effect.
Earth. Which of the statements given above
is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
7. Tropical Cyclones 5. In the South Atlantic and South Eastern
 Tropical cyclones originate and intensify over warm Pacific regions in tropical latitudes,
tropical oceans. cyclone does not originate. What is the
 The conditions favorable for the formation: reason?
o Large sea surface with temperature more than 27° (a) Sea Surface temperature are low
C; (b) Inter Tropical Convergence
o Presence of the Coriolis force; Zone seldom occurs
o Small variations in the vertical wind speed; (c) Coriolis force is too weak
o A preexisting weak- low-pressure area or low- (d) Absence of land in those regions
level cyclonic circulation;
o Upper divergence above the sea level system.
 For cyclone formation, a sea temperature of at least
27 degrees Celsius is needed. In the South-eastern
pacific and South Atlantic region cold currents are
found which leads to lower sea temperatures.
8. Inter Tropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ): Near the
equator, from about 5° north and 5° south, the northeast
trade winds and southeast trade winds converge in a low
pressure zone known as ITCZ.

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9. Coriolis Force[UPSC 2015]

10. Earth’s Atmosphere 6. With reference to the Earth's

 The earth’s surface receives most of its energy in atmosphere, which one of the
short wavelengths. The energy received by the earth following statements is correct?
is known as incoming solar radiation which in short (a) The total amount of insolation
is termed as insolation. received at the equator is roughly
 The atmosphere is largely transparent to shortwave about 10 times of that received at
solar radiation. The incoming solar radiation passes the poles.
through the atmosphere before striking the earth’s (b) Infrared rays constitute roughly
surface. two-thirds of insolation.
11. Within the troposphere water vapour, ozone and other (c) Infrared waves are largely
gases absorb much of the near infrared radiation. [UPSC absorbed by water vapour that is
2023] concentrated in the lower
atmosphere.
(d) Infrared waves are a part of the
visible spectrum of
electromagnetic waves of solar
radiation.

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CHAPTER-7
CLIMATOLOGY
1. Savannah [UPSC 2015] 1. “Each day is more or less the same, the
 Distribution: West African Sudan, East Africa, morning is clear and bright with a sea
South America (Llanos and campos), Australia breeze; as the sun climbs high in the sky,
(Queensland). heat mounts up, dark clouds form, than
 Climate: It is a transitional type of climate found rain comes with thunder and lightning.
between the equatorial rainforests and hot deserts. But rain is soon over.”
 Temperature: Mean annual temperature is greater Which of the following regions is
than 18° C + Extreme diurnal range of described in the above passage?
temperature+ Confined dry and wet season. (a) Savannah
 Precipitation: Annual precipitation is around 80 (b) Equatorial
cms + rainfall is confined to limited period+ In (c) Monsoon
northern hemisphere, rainy season begins in May (d) Mediterraneaz
and lasts till September + In southern hemisphere,
the rainy season is from October to March.
 Natural vegetation: Typified by tall grass and
short trees (elephant grass) + It has presence of
deciduous trees like Acacius + Trees are deciduous
and shed their leaves in the cool, dry season to
prevent excessive loss of water through
transpiration + Broad trunks with water storing
devices to survive droughts + Presence of grasses
with scattered trees and fire resisting thorny
shrubs + Boabs trees is special feature of this
ecosystem
 Fauna: Antelopes, buffaloes, elephants and
rhinoceros; carnivores include lion, cheetah,
hyena and many rodents.
2. Wet Equatorial Climate
 It is characterized by consistently high
temperatures (around 30 °C [86 °F]), with plentiful
precipitation (150–1,000 cm [59– 394 inches]) on
most afternoons., heavy cloud cover, and high
humidity, with very little annual temperature
variation.
 Wet equatorial regions lie within about 12°
latitude of the Equator.
3. Tropical Deciduous forests: Most widespread in
India; also called monsoon forests. These are found in
regions which receive rainfall between 70-200 cm.
 Most deciduous: Rainfall between100 to 200 cms.
It is found in the north eastern states along the
foothills of Himalayas, eastern slopes of the
Western Ghats and Odisha.
o Species: Teak, sal, shisham, mahua, and sandalwood
etc.

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 Dry deciduous: Rainfall ranges between 70 -100 cm;
found in rainier areas of the Peninsula and the plains of
Uttar Pradesh and Bihar.
o Species: Tendu, palas, amaltas, bel, khair, etc.
4. Temperate Evergreen forest:
 Region: Parts of world which have Mediterranean
type of climate such as Southern Chile, California,
Cape town of Africa and Southern Australia.
 Climate: warm, dry summers and cool, moist
winters.
 inhabited by low broad leaf evergreen trees+ fire
is hazardous factor + flora like oak, pine,
eucalyptus found here.
 Fauna: Animal Life includes Red-crowned crane,
Black bears, Wolves, Leopard, Lynx, Siberian
tiger, Otters, Red panda
5. Jet Streams: Jet streams are relatively narrow bands of 2. Consider following statements:
strong wind in the upper levels of the atmosphere. They 1. Jet Streams occur in the Northern
follow the boundaries between hot and cold air. They Hemisphere only.
occur in both the Northern and Southern Hemisphere. 2. Only some cyclones develop an eye.
6. Cyclone Eye: The eye develops when maximum 3. The temperature inside the eye of a
sustained wind speed is above 119 km/h and is the cyclone is nearly 10 degree Celsius
calmest part of the storm. The mature cyclones have lesser than that of the surroundings.
well-developed eye, but some extra-tropical cyclones Which of the statements given above
may not have an eye. is/are correct ?
 Temperature inside Eye: The temperature inside (a) 1 only
the eye of a cyclone is warmer than that of the (b) 2 and 3 only
surroundings. The temperature in the eye is nearly
(c) 2 only
10°C warmer or more at an altitude of 12 km than
the surrounding environment. (d) 1 and 3 only
 Conditions favorable for tropical cyclone
formation: Large sea surface with temperature
higher than 27° C, A pre-existing weak low-
pressure area or low-level-cyclonic circulation,
Upper divergence above the sea level system,
Presence of the Coriolis force, Small variations in
the vertical wind speed. [UPSC 2020]

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7. Monsoon Climate [UPSC 2014] 3. The seasonal reversal of winds is the
 Monsoons are land and sea breezes on a much typical characteristic of [UPSC 2014]
larger scale. (a) Equatorial climate
 Unlike equatorial wet climate, monsoon climate is (b) Mediterranean climate
characterized by distinct wet and dry seasons (c) Monsoon climate
associated with seasonal reversal of winds. (d) All of the above climates

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CHAPTER-8
OCEANOGRAPHY
1. Tropical Zone: Warmer water is transported westward 1. Consider the following statements :
in the ocean by the Northeast trade winds in the Northern 1. In the tropical zone, the western
hemisphere of the tropical zone. Therefore, in tropical sections of the oceans are warmer
zones, the western section of ocean is warmer than than the eastern sections owing to
eastern sections due to influence of trade winds. the influence of trade winds,
2. Temperate Zone: westerlies make the eastern sections 2. In the temperate zone, westerlies
of oceans warmer than the western sections. make the eastern sections of oceans
warmer than the. Western sections.
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

3. Trade winds: They blow from the sub-tropical high

pressure areas towards the equatorial low pressure belt +
They flow as the north-eastern trades in the northern
hemisphere and the south-eastern trades in the southern
hemisphere + This deflection in their ideally expected
north-south direction is explained on the basis of
Coriolis force and Farrel’s law + Trade winds are
descending and stable in areas of their origin (sub-
tropical high pressure belt), and as they reach the
equator, they become humid and warmer after picking
up moisture on their way + The eastern parts of the trade
winds associated with the cool ocean currents are drier
and more stable than the western parts of the ocean.
4. Westerlies: These are the winds blowing from the sub-
tropical high pressure belts towards the sub polar low
pressure belts + They blow from south-west to north-east
in the northern hemisphere and north-west to south-east
in the southern hemisphere + The westerlies of the
southern hemisphere are stronger and persistent due to
the vast expanse of water, while those of the northern
hemisphere are irregular because of uneven relief of vast
land-masses + Best developed between 40° and 65°S
latitudes + These latitudes are often called Roaring
Forties, Furious Fifties, and Shrieking Sixties.
[UPSC 2021]

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5. Tides [UPSC 2015] 2. Tides occur in the oceans and seas due to
 Tides are the rise and fall of sea levels caused by the which among the following?
combined effects of gravitational forces exerted by 1. Gravitational force of the Sun
the Moon, Sun, and rotation of the Earth. 2. Gravitational force of the Moon
 The times and amplitude of tides at a locale are 3. Centrifugal force of the Earth
influenced by the alignment of the Sun and Moon, Select the correct answer using the code
by the pattern of tides in the deep ocean, by the given below.
amphidromic systems of the oceans, and the shape (a) 1 only
of the coastline and near-shore bathymetry. (b) 2 and 3 only
 Types of Tides: (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

6. Eastward flow of Equatorial counter-current [UPSC 3. What explains the eastward flow of
2015] equatorial countercurrent?
 The equatorial countercurrents are driven by a (a) Earth’s rotation on its axis
distinct surface wind pattern in the tropics. (b) Convergence of the two equatorial
 Strong westward trade winds result in westward currents
surface flow in most of the tropical Atlantic and (c) Difference in salinity of water
Pacific Oceans. However, several hundred mi. (km.) (d) Occurrence of the belt of calm near
north of the equator the winds are much weaker, in the equator
comparison.
 The stronger winds to the south pile up water where
the winds are weak. As a result, the surface of the
ocean can be up to 6 in. (15 cm.) higher and the
thermocline (region of strongest decrease of
temperature with increasing depth) as much as 328
ft. (100 m.) deeper than it is directly to the north.
7. The excess water flows eastward under the influence of
the Earth’s rotation, giving rise to the equatorial
countercurrents.

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8. Indian Ocean Dipole [UPSC 2017] 4. With reference to ‘Indian Ocean Dipole
 It is an irregular oscillation of sea-surface (IOD)’ mentioned in news while
temperatures in which the western Indian Ocean forecasting Indian monsoon, which of
becomes alternately warmer and then colder than the following statements are correct?
eastern part of the ocean. 1. IOD phenomenon is characterised
 IOD can either aggravate or weaken the impact of El by a difference in sea surface
Nino on Indian monsoon. temperature between the tropical
 A positive IOD leads to greater monsoon rainfall and Western Indian Ocean and the
more active monsoon days in Indian sub-continent tropical Eastern Pacific Ocean.
while negative IOD leads to less rainfall and more 2. An IOD phenomenon can influence
monsoon break days (no rainfall). an El Nino’s impact on the
monsoon.
Select the correct answer using the code
given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
9. Ocean Mean Temperature (OMT) [UPSC 2020] 5. With reference to Ocean Mean
 It is measured up to a depth of 26 Degree C isotherm, Temperature (OMT), which of following
seen at depths varying from 50 –100 metres. During statements are correct?
January –March, the mean 26 Degree C isotherm 1. OMT is measured up to a depth of
depth in the Southwestern Indian Ocean is 59 metres. 26°C isotherm which is 129 meters
 OMT is a better indicator of monsoon rainfall than in the southwestern Indian Ocean
sea surface temperatures as it measures Ocean’s during January — March.
thermal energy and is a stable indicator. OMT has 2. OMT collected during January —
80% success rate when compared to SST which only March can be used in assessing
have 60% success rates. whether the amount of rainfall in
10. Sea Surface Temperature (SST) the monsoon will be less or more
 It is water temperature close to ocean's surface. Air than a certain long-term mean.
masses in Earth's atmosphere are highly modified by Select the correct answer using the code
sea surface temperatures within a short distance of given below:
the shore. (a) 1 only
 Warm sea surface temperatures are known to be a (b) 2 only
cause of tropical cyclogenesis over the Earth's (c) Both 1 and 2
oceans. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
 SST changes diurnally; less SST variation on breezy
days than on calm days + Coastal SSTs can cause
offshore winds to generate upwelling, which can
significantly cool or warm nearby landmasses.
11. It is usually used for predicting whether total amount of
rainfall which India receives during monsoon season
will be less or more than long-term mean of 887.5 mm.
12. Fresh Water in th World 6. With reference to the water on the planet
 Of the total freshwater, 69% resides in glaciers, Earth, consider the following statements:
30% underground, and less than 1% is located in 1. The amount of water in the rivers
lakes, rivers, and swamps. Thus, the amount of and lakes is more than the amount
water in rivers and lakes is less than amount of of groundwater.
groundwater. [UPSC 2021]

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 Of the total freshwater, 69% resides in glaciers and 2. The amount of water In polar ice
30% underground. Polar ice caps and glaciers has caps and glaciers is more than the
more water than the amount of groundwater. amount of groundwater.
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

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CHAPTER-9
PHYSIOGRAPHY
1. Continental Drift theory [UPSC 2014] 1. Which of the following phenomena might
 It had been proposed by Alfred Wegner in 1912, it have influenced the evolution of
talked about distribution of continents and the organisms?
oceans. 1. Continental drift
 According to Wegner all continents used to form a 2. Glacial cycles
single land mass known as PANGAEA and there Select the correct answer using the code
was a mega ocean called as PANTHALASSA. given below.
 However, around 200 million years ago Pangaea (a) 1 only
began to split into two large land masses called as (b) 2 only
Laurasia and Gondwanaland which subsequently (c) Both 1 and 2
broke into many smaller continents. (d) Neither 1 nor 2.
2. Glacial cycles
 Glacial-interglacial cycles are believed to be driven
by changes in the orbital pattern of the Earth that has
periods of about 20 ka, 40 ka and 100 ka.
 During last glacial cycle, ice sheet covered most of
North America, Eurasia, Barents Sea and northern
half of UK.
3. Glacial Cycle of Erosion
 Youth: marked by the inward cutting activity of ice
in a cirque. Aretes and horns are emerging. The
hanging valleys are not prominent at this stage.
 Maturity:The valley glacier gets transformed into a
trunk glacier and hanging valleys start emerging.
The opposite cirques come closer and the glacial
trough acquires a stepped profile that is regular and
graded.
 Old Age: The emergence of a ‘U’-shaped valley
marks the beginning of old age. An outwash plain
with features such as eskers, kame terraces,
drumlins, kettle holes, etc. is a prominent
development. The opposite cirques coalesce and the
summit heights are greatly reduced. Mountain tops
become rounded.
4. Summer Solstice [UPSC 2019] 2. On 21st June, the Sun
 Longest day & shortest night of year in Northern (a) does not set below the horizon at
Hemisphere. the Arctic Circle
 Countries in Northern Hemisphere are nearest to (b) does not set below the horizon at
Sun and Sun shines overhead on Tropic of Cancer Antarctic Circle
(23.5° North). (c) shines vertically overhead at noon on
 During the solstice, the Earth’s axis - around which the Equator
the planet spins, completing one turn each day - is (d) shines vertically overhead at the
tilted in a way that the North Pole is tipped towards Tropic of Capricorn
the sun and the South Pole is away from it.
5. At the Arctic Circle, the sun never sets during the
solstice.

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6. Summer Solstice [UPSC 2022] 3. In northern hemisphere, longest day of
 It is the longest day and shortest night of the year in year normally occurs in the:
the Northern Hemisphere. (a) First half of the month of June
 Max amount of sunlight received by Northern (b) Second half of the month of June
Hemisphere during this time is usually on June 20, (c) First half of the month of July
21 or 22. (d) Second half of month of July
 It occurs when sun is directly over the Tropic of
Cancer, or more specifically right over 23.5 degrees
north latitude.
 During the solstice, the Earth’s axis - around which
the planet spins, completing one turn each day - is
tilted in a way that the North Pole is tipped towards
the sun and the South Pole is away from it.
 At Arctic Circle, the sun never sets during the
solstice.

7. P waves and S waves [UPSC 2023] 4. Consider the following statements:

 Earthquake waves are basically of two types — 1. In a seismograph, P waves are
body waves and surface waves. Body waves are recorded earlier than S waves.
generated due to the release of energy at the focus 2. In P waves, the individual particles
and move in all directions travelling through the vibrate to and fro in the direction of
body of the earth. Hence, the name body waves. wave propagation whereas in S waves,
 P-waves (primary waves) move faster and are the particles vibrate up and down at
the first to arrive at the surface. The P-waves are right angles to the direction of wave
similar to sound waves. They travel through propagation.
gaseous, liquid and solid materials. S-waves Which of the statements given above is/are
(Secondary waves) arrive at the surface with correct?
some time lag. (a) 1 only
 S waves in an earthquake are examples of (b) 2 only
Transverse waves. In a transverse wave the particle (c) Both 1 and 2
displacement is perpendicular to the direction of (d) Neither 1 nor 2
wave propagation. The particles do not move along
with the wave; they simply oscillate up and down
about their individual equilibrium positions as the
wave passes by. Pick a single particle and watch its
motion.

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CHAPTER-10
PHYSIOGRAPHY OF INDIA
1. Tropical Wet Evergreen Forests [UPSC 2015] 1. Consider the following States:
 Annual rainfall exceeds 250 cm 1. Arunachal Pradesh
 The annual temperature is about 25°-27°C 2. Himachal Pradesh
 The average annual humidity exceeds 77 percent 3. Mizoram
and dry season is distinctly short. In which States do ‘Tropical Wet
 Due to high heat and high humidity, the trees of Evergreen Forests’ occur?
these forests do not shed their leaves together. (a) 1 only
 Mesophytic plants adapted to neither too dry nor too (b) 2 and 3 only
wet type climate. (c) 1 and 3 only
 Thick Canopy: From the air, the tropical rain (d) 1, 2 and 3
forest appears like a thick canopy of foliage,
broken only where it is crossed by large rivers
or cleared for cultivation.
 Distribution: Western side of the Western Ghats
(500 to 1370 metres above sea level), some
regions in the Purvanchal hills and in the
Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
 In India, evergreen forests are found on the eastern
and western slopes of the Western Ghats in such
states as Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, Kerala and
Maharashtra. And also found in Assam, Arunachal
Pradesh, Meghalaya, Nagaland, Tripura, West
Bengal and Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
2. Black Cotton soil: It is typical of the Deccan trap 2. The black cotton soil of India has been
(Basalt) region spread over northwest Deccan plateau formed due to the weathering of
and is made up of lava flows. They cover the plateaus of (a) Brown forest soil
Maharashtra, Saurashtra, Malwa, Madhya Pradesh and (b) Fissure volcanic rock
Chhattisgarh and extend in the south east direction along
(c) Granite and schist
the Godavari and the Krishna valleys. They are made up
of extremely fine i.e. clayey material. They are well- (d) Shale and limestone
known for their capacity to hold moisture. These soils
are rich in soil nutrients, such as calcium carbonate,
magnesium, potash and lime. These soils are generally
poor in phosphoric contents. The Deccan trap, which is
the source of the black soils, is a basaltic province
formed during the hot spot volcanism when the Indian
plate was above the Reunion island about 66 million
years ago. These soils are black in colour and are also
known as regur soils. This is ideal for growing cotton.
Black soil is formed due to weathering or erosion of the
basalt rocks. [UPSC 2021]
3. Brown Forest soil: Brown soils, often referred to
as brown forest soils or brown earths, are well drained
with brownish subsoils where iron oxides created
through weathering processes are bonded to silicate
clays. Mainly found in the warm temperate belt lying at
heights ranging from 900 to 1800 metres, which has
deciduous forests.

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4. Granite and Schist: Granite is an igneous rock ->
formed when magma of volcano oxidises and then
begins to slowly solidify under the ground. It has very
dense silica content -> So, highly resistant to
decay. Schist is a foliated metamorphic rock made up of
plate-shaped mineral grains. It usually forms on a
continental side of a convergent plate boundary where
sedimentary rocks, such as shales and mudstones, have
been subjected to compressive forces, heat, and
chemical activity.
5. Shale and Limestone: Shales are fine-grained
sedimentary rocks formed of organic-rich mud at bottom
of ancient seas. Shale is most abundant of sedimentary
rocks, accounting for roughly 70% of this rock type in
crust of Earth. Limestone is sedimentary rock composed
of calcium carbonate also known as dolomite. It is
usually yellow, white or grey. Limestone is formed
when minerals like Calcite and aragonite are
precipitated out from the water in which calcium is
dissolved.
6. Soil Erosion 3. In India, problem of soil erosion is
Soil erosion is an extreme form of soil degradation in associated with which of following?
which the natural geomorphological process accelerated 1. Terrace cultivation
so that soil is removed faster than is the case under the 2. Deforestation
condition of natural vegetation and much faster than the 3. Tropical climate'
rate at which new soil forms. Select the correct answer using the code
7. It mainly involves two processes- given below.
 loosening and detachment of soil particles from soil (a) 1 and 2 only
mass and (b) 2 only
 removal and transport of detached soil particles (c) 1 and 3 only
downslope human activities have largely modified (d) 1, 2 and 3
and changed land use pattern but some distinction.

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8. Deforestation: Felling of trees as a result of
urbanization, industrialization, mining and use of wood
for domestic and other purposes, shifting cultivation.

[UPSC 2014]
9. Barren Island 4. Consider the following statements:
 It is located in 1. The Barren Island volcano is an active
Andaman Sea, volcano located in the Indian
about 140 km Territory.
from Port Blair. 2. Barren Island lies about 140 km east of
 Barren volcano Great Nicobar
in the region is
3. The last time the Barren Island
the only
volcano erupted was in 1991 and it has
confirmed active
volcano in South remained inactive since then.
Asia. Which of the statements given above is/are
 The Barren Island volcano has been lying dormant correct?
for more than 150 years until it saw a major eruption (a) 1 only
in 1991. (b) 2 and 3 only
 Since then it has shown intermittent activity, (c) 3 only
including eruptions in 1995, 2005, 2017 and 2018. (d) 1 and 3
10. Tonga volcanic eruption
 Recently, a volcano erupted in the southern Pacific
Island of Tonga which has triggered Tsunami waves
around the Pacific.
 It is an Undersea Volcanic Eruption consisting of
uninhabited islands Hunga-Ha’apai and Hunga-
Tonga.
 The Hunga-Tonga-Hunga-Ha’apai volcano
has erupted regularly over the past few decades.
 One of the reason being highly explosive is
the Fuel-Coolant interaction.
11. Mt Merapi volcanic eruption
 The most active volcano of Indonesia, Mt Merapi,
recently erupted with a river of lava and searing gas
clouds in 2021.
 The last major eruption of the Merapi was in 2010
that had killed 347 people.
 Mt Merapi is an active stratovolcano that is located
on the border between the Central Java and
Yogyakarta provinces, Indonesia.
12. It is the youngest group of volcanoes in southern Java
that is situated at a subduction zone of the Indo-
Australian Plate and Sunda Plate. [UPSC 2018]

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CHAPTER-11
MINERAL AND ENERGY RESOURCES
1. Ilmenite and Rutile [UPSC 2023] 1. Ilmenite and rutile, abundantly available in
 Ilmenite (FeO.TiO2) and rutile (TiO2) are the certain coastal tracts of India, are rich
two chief minerals of titanium sources of which one of the following?
 Titanium is a strong and lightweight metal widely (a) Aluminium
used in various industries, including aerospace, (b) Copper
automotive, and medical. (c) Iron
 Heavy mineral sands comprise a group of seven (d) Titanium
minerals, viz, ilmenite, leucoxene (brown
ilmenite), rutile, zircon, sillimanite, garnet and
monazite.
 Ilmenite and rutile along with other heavy minerals
are important constituents of beach sand deposits
found right from Moti Daman-Umbrat coast
(Gujarat) in the west to Odisha coast in the east.
2. Aluminium
 It is a soft, silvery-white, corrosion-resistant metal.
 It is the most abundant metal in the earth’s crust as
it makes up 8% of the crust and it is the third most
abundant element after oxygen and silicon.
 Aluminium is the 2nd most important industry after
the iron and steel industry.
 Bauxite ore is the major source of aluminium.
 Aluminium can also be recovered from cryolite
(Na3AlF6) and alunite. It is also found in
gemstones such as garnet, topaz and chrysoberyl.
 For producing 1 tonne of aluminium, 6 tonnes of
bauxite is required (which produces two tones of
aluminium).
 India is the 2nd largest Aluminum Producer
country in the world (in 2020).
3. Copper
 It is a good conductor of electricity and is ductile
in nature. It is used by the automobile and defense
industries, and in the electrical industry for making
wires, electric motors, transformers, and
generators.
 India does not have rich reserves of copper; also lag
in production of copper. India has low grade copper
ore (less than 1% metal content).
 The major supply comes from the USA, Canada,
Zimbabwe and Japan.
 Major copper ore deposits are located in the
Singhbhum district (Jharkhand), Balaghat district
(Madhya Pradesh), and Jhunjhunu and Alwar
districts (Rajasthan).

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 Copper Mining: The common ore used in the
extraction of copper is Chalcopyrite (CuFeS2) also
known as Copper Pyrites and other such sulphides.
The percentage of copper in the actual ore is too
low for direct extraction of copper to be viable. The
concentration of ore is required and it is done by
the Froth Flotation method.
4. Iron ore
 India is the 4th largest world producer of iron ore
 Orissa is the largest producer of Iron ore in India.
It accounts for over half of India’s iron ore
production, produced 120 million tonnes during the
2019/2020 year.
 Magnetite is the finest iron ore with a very high
content of iron up to 72 percent. It has excellent
magnetic qualities, especially valuable in the
electrical industry.
 Hematite ore is the most important industrial iron
ore in terms of the quantity used but has a slightly
lower iron content than magnetite.
 The highest producer is the Odisha Jharkhand belt,
Durg Bastar Chandrapur belt, Bellary-Chitradurga-
Chikmagalur-Tumkur belt, and the Maharashtra
Goa belt.
 Iron ore mines in Rajasthan are located in the
districts of Jaipur, Udaipur, Jhunjhunu, Sikar,
Bhilwara, Dausa and Banswara.
5. Titanium
 It is a lustrous transition metal with a silver colour,
low density and high strength.
 It is unique for light, strong and corrosion-resistant
nature. It is resistant to corrosion in seawater and
chlorine.
 It is four times stronger than stainless steel.
 It has applications to produce lightweight alloys for
aerospace, military, industrial processes, medical
prostheses, orthopedic implants and endodontic
instruments.
6. Coal-based thermal power plants 2. With reference to coal-based thermal
 In India, several coal-fired thermal power plants power plants in India, consider the
employ seawater for a variety of functions, following statements:
including cooling the condenser system. 1. None of them uses seawater.
 New WRI research finds that 40 percent of the 2. None of them is set up in water-
country’s thermal power plants are located in stressed district.
areas facing high water stress, a problem since 3. None of them is privately owned.
these plants use water for cooling. How many of the above statements are
 There are both privately and publicly owned correct?
coal-fired thermal power stations in India. Adani (a) Only one
Power Limited is the largest private thermal power (b) Only two
producer in India with an installed capacity of (c) All three
13,650 MW. [UPSC 2023] (d) None

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7. Uranium [UPSC 2023] 3. Consider the following statements:
 It is a silvery-gray metallic radioactive chemical Statement-I: India, despite having uranium
element which is only naturally formed in deposits, depends on coal for most its
supernova explosions. electricity production.
 The largest viable deposits are found in Australia, Statement-II: Uranium, enriched to the
Kazakhstan, and Canada. extent at least 60%, is required for the
 Kazakhstan produces the largest share production of electricity.
of uranium from mines (42% of world supply from Which one of the following is correct in
mines in 2019), followed by Canada (13%) and respect of the above statements?
Australia (12%). (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
 India is the world’s ninth-largest producer of correct and Statement-II is the correct
uranium, with an output of 617 Tonnes in 2022, up explanation for Statement-I
by 0.26% in 2021. However, Coal is still the most (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
important and abundant fossil fuel in India. It correct and Statement-II is not the
accounts for 55% of the country’s energy needs. correct explanation for Statement-1
 Low-enriched uranium, which typically has a 3-5% (c) Statement-I is correct but
concentration of U-235, can be used to produce Statement-II is incorrect
fuel for commercial nuclear power plants. (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-
 Highly enriched uranium has a purity of 20% or II is correct
more and is used in research reactors. Weapons-
grade uranium is 90% enriched or more.
 India imports Uranium from Russia, Kazakhstan
and France.
 Recently Uranium reserves discovered in parts
of Andhra Pradesh and Telangana
between Seshachalam forest and Sresailam.
 Uranium Deposits in India: In India, Uranium
deposits occur in Crystalline rocks. Around 70% of
Uranium deposits are found in Jharkhand. Uranium
deposits occur in the Singhbhum and Hazaribagh
districts of Jharkhand, Gaya district of Bihar, and
in the sedimentary rocks in the Saharanpur district
of Uttar Pradesh.

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8. Monazite [2022] 4. With reference to India, consider the
 Monazite is a brown crystalline mineral consisting following statements:
of cerium, lanthanum, other rare earth elements, 1. Monazite is a source of rare earths.
and thorium. 2. Monazite contains thorium.
 It occurs in small, isolated crystals or grains that 3. Monazite occurs naturally in the entire
are resistant to weathering and become Indian coastal sands in India.
concentrated in soils. 4. In India, Government bodies only can
 Monazite is a major source of rare earths and process or export monazite.
thorium. It yields a number of rare-earth elements, Which of the statements given above are
such as neodymium and praseodymium. correct?
 Though monazite is found in most coastal areas of (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
India. It is questionable to be found along entire (b) 1, 2 and 4 only
coast. (c) 3 and 4 only
 The main mines are found along the coasts of (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
southern India in Kerala, Tamil Nadu and in
Orissa.
 Export of monazite without AERB license is
violation of Atomic Energy (Radiation Protection)
Rules 2004.
9. Indian Rare Earths Limited (IREL) is the only entity
permitted to produce and process monazite, and handle
it for domestic use as well as for export.
10. Solar Pumps [UPSC 2020] 5. With reference to solar water pumps,
 Solar pumps present a clean, simple and energy- consider the following statements:
efficient alternative to traditional electric and fuel- 1. Solar power can be used for running
driven pump sets + They are classified as surface pumps and not for submersible
submersible and surface pumps based on their Pumps.
placement- Underwater and above the waterline. 2. Solar power can be used for running
centrifugal pumps and not the ones
with piston.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

 Centrifugal and Piston pumps: Centrifugal

pumps are the common choice for rotation and are
designed for fixed head applications. Their output
increases in proportion to their speed of rotation.
Solar power can also be used for running piston
pumps. The pumping action is cyclic and can be
driven by pistons, screws, gears etc.
 Advantages of Solar pumps: Reliable in regional
and remote areas, easy to transport and relocate,
cost-efficiency in the long run.

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 Disadvantages of Solar pumps: Initial investment
cost is very high, weather dependent Even though
solar energy can still be collected during cloudy
and rainy days, the efficiency of a solar system
drops.
11. State of India’s solar capacity: India added 10 GW of
solar energy to its cumulative installed capacity in 2021
+ India’s capacity additions rank the country fifth in
solar power deployment, contributing nearly 6.5% to
the global cumulative capacity of 709.68 GW.
12. Coalbed Methane [UPSC 2014] 6. With reference to two non-conventional
 CBM is an unconventional natural gas that occurs energy sources called ‘coalbed methane’
in coal beds in adsorbed form during coalification and ‘shale gas’, consider the following
process and is rich in methane content. ‘statements:
 With fifth-largest coal reserves in the world India 1. Coalbed methane is the pure methane
has huge potential (Gondwana sediments of eastern gas extracted from coal seams, while
India holding the bulk potential); CBM resources shale gas is a mixture of propane and
are estimated at 92 trillion cubic feet (TCF). butane only that can be extracted from
 Uses: It can be used for power generation, as CNG fine-grained sedimentary rocks.
auto fuel, running internal combustion engines, as 2. In India, abundant coalbed methane
feedstock for fertilizers and as industrial uses sources exist, but so far no shale gas
such as in cement production, rolling mills, sources have been found.
steel plants, and for methanol production. Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

13. Shale gas

 It is natural gas formed from being trapped within
shale formations.
 Unlike conventional hydrocarbons that can be
extracted from the permeable rocks easily, shale
gas is trapped under low permeable rocks.
 It is colourless, odourless gas, lighter than air.
 It is cheaper than natural gas and releases 50% less
CO2.
 Used as feedstock for petrochemicals industry,
which is turned into fertilizer, plastics and other
useful materials.
 Cambay, Gondwana, Krishna-Godavari and
Cauvery Basins are potential sites.
14. Extraction requires creation of fractures in oil and gas
rich shale to release hydrocarbons through a process
called hydraulic fracking/fracturing.

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15. Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) 7. Consider following statements
Amendment Act, 2015 1. In India, State Governments do not
 It includes bauxite, iron ore, limestone and have the power to auction non-coal
manganese ore and are defined as notified mines.
minerals. 2. Andhra Pradesh and Jharkhand do not
 It creates a new category of mining license i.e. the have gold mines.
prospecting license-cum-mining lease, which is a 3. Rajasthan has iron ore mines.
two stage-concession for the purpose of Which of the statements given above is/are
undertaking prospecting operations (exploring or correct?
proving mineral deposits), followed by mining (a) 1 and 2
operations. (b) 2 only
 Maximum area for mining: Under Act, a person (c) 1 and 3
could acquire 1 mining lease for a maximum area (d) 3 only
of 10 sq km.
 A mining lease was granted for a maximum of 30
years and a minimum of 20 years and could be
renewed for a period not exceeding 20 years.
 For all minerals other than coal, lignite and atomic
minerals, mining leases shall be granted for 50
years.
 State governments shall grant mining leases and
prospecting license-cum-mining leases for both
notified and other minerals. All leases shall be
granted through auction by competitive bidding,
including e-auction.
 Non-coal mines are to be auctioned by the
respective state governments.
16. MMDR Amendment Bill, 2021
 Empowers the central government to reserve any
mine as captive mine which is utilised for a specific
purpose only.
 Removes the distinction between captive and non-
captive mines. The mines will not be limited to just
a specific purpose/industry/sector.
 Sale of minerals by captive mines-> captive mines
(other than atomic minerals) may sell up to 50% of
their annual mineral production in open market
after meeting their own needs.
 It empowers the central government to specify a
time period for completion of the auction process
in consultation with the state government.
 If the state government is unable to complete the
auction process within this period, the auctions
may be conducted by the central government.
 Transferred statutory clearances will be valid
throughout the lease period of the new lessee.
 Mines (other than coal, lignite, and atomic
minerals), whose lease has expired, may be

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allocated to a government company in certain
cases.
 The state government may grant a lease for such a
mine to a government company for a period of up
to 10 years or until the selection of a new lessee,
whichever is earlier.
 District Mineral Foundation -> trust set up as a
non-profit body, in the districts affected by the
mining works, to work for the benefit of affected
people and areas. It is funded through the
contributions from miners.
 National Mineral Exploration Trust (NMET) –
Licensees will have to pay 2% of royalty to NMET.
It will be established by central government with
the objective of carrying out detailed mineral
exploration.
 Period of mining leases granted to government
companies will be prescribed by the central
government.

17. Gold mines in AP and Jharkhand: Alluvial gold in

Jharkhand found in sands of the Subarnarekha river;
Native gold is found in Singhbhum district. In Andhra
Pradesh, gold deposits found in Ramagiri in Anantapur
district but extraction halted due to cost infeasibility.
18. Iron ore mines in Rajasthan: Located in the districts
of Jaipur, Udaipur, Jhunjhunu, Sikar, Bhilwara, Dausa
and Banswara.
19. Distribution of Coal Mines in India [UPSC 2018]

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20. Coal Ash/Coal combustion residuals 8. Consider following statements
 They are produced primarily from the burning of 1. Coal ash contains arsenic, lead and
coal in coal-fired power plants. mercury.
 It contains contaminants like mercury, cadmium 2. Coal fired power plants release sulphur
and arsenic. dioxide and oxides of nitrogen into the
 Without proper management, these contaminants environment.
can pollute waterways, ground water, drinking 3. High ash content is observed in Indian
water, and the air. Coal.
 Coal based thermal power plants are major source Which of the above given statements is/are
of Sulphur dioxide and Nitrogen oxides emissions. correct?
 Ash content of coal produced in India is generally (a) 1 only
25 to 45% whereas average ash content of imported (b) 2 and 3 only
coal varies from 10 to 20%. [UPSC 2020] (c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
21. Shale gas 9. In which of the following regions of India
 It is natural gas formed from being trapped within are shale gas resources found?
shale formations. 1. Cambay Basin
 Unlike conventional hydrocarbons that can be 2. Cauvery Basin
extracted from the permeable rocks easily, shale 3. Krishna-Godavari Basin
gas is trapped under low permeable rocks. Select the correct answer using the code
 It is colourless, odourless gas, lighter than air. given below.
 It is cheaper than natural gas and releases 50% less (a) 1 and 2 only
CO2. (b) 3 only
 Used as feedstock for petrochemicals industry, (c) 2 and 3 only
which is turned into fertilizer, plastics and other (d) 1, 2 and 3
useful materials.
 Cambay, Gondwana, Krishna-Godavari and
Cauvery Basins are potential sites.
22. Extraction requires creation of fractures in oil and gas
rich shale to release hydrocarbons through a process
called hydraulic fracking/fracturing. [UPSC 2016]
23. Cobalt [UPSC 2023] 10. About three-fourths of world's cobalt, a
 Cobalt is found in the Earth’s crust only in a metal required for the manufacture of
chemically combined form, save for small deposits batteries for electric motor vehicles, is
found in alloys of natural meteoric iron. produced by
 The free element, produced by reductive smelting, (a) Argentina
is a hard, lustrous, silver-grey metal. (b) Botswana
 Cobalt makes up only 0.001% of Earth’s crust. (c) the Democratic Republic of the
Most of the Earth’s cobalt is in its core. Congo
 It is similar to iron and nickel in its physical (d) Kazakhstan
properties. Cobalt has a magnetic permeability
around 2/3 that of iron.
 It is found in plants and animals, air, water, soil,
rocks.
 Cobalt is used in many alloys & super alloys to
make parts in aircraft engines, gas turbine, high-
speed steels, corrosion resistant alloys, cemented
carbides. The radioactive isotopes, cobalt-60, is
used in medical treatment and also to irradiate
food.
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 About three-fourths of the world’s cobalt, a metal
required for the manufacture of batteries for
electric motor vehicles, is produced by the
Democratic Republic of the Congo. It is the leader
among the world's top cobalt-producing countries,
accounting for more than 70% of global output.
 Occurrences of cobalt are reported
from Singhbhum district, Jharkhand; Kendujhar
and Jajpur districts, Odisha; Jhunjhunu district,
Rajasthan; Tuensang district, Nagaland; and
Jhabua and Hoshangabad districts, Madhya
Pradesh.
24. Congo Basin
 Congo basin, basin of the Congo River, astride the
Equator in west-central Africa.
 It is the world’s second-largest river basin,
comprising an area of more than 1.3 million square
miles.
 The basin stretches across six countries-
Cameroon, Central African Republic, Democratic
Republic of the Congo, Congo, Equatorial Guinea
and Gabon.
 It is home to the world’s largest tropical peatlands,
along with Brazil and Indonesia.
 The peat swamp forest of the Congo Basin stores
around 29 billion tons of carbon. The basin is one
of the world’s last regions that absorbs more
carbon than it emits

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