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911 views254 pages

Kapsabet High School Pre

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rahabngenya386

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KAPSABET HIGH SCHOOL PRE-MOCK 2024

ALL SUBJECTS CAPTURED IN THIS PDF SCROLL DOWNWARDS

WE HAVE : TOP SCHOOLS PRE-MOCKS,MOCKS,PREDICTIONS,POST MOCKS,TERMIL

EXAMS,AND ALL OTHER LEVELS EXAMS INCLUDIND CBC

FOR QUESTIONS IN WORD AND MARKING SCHEME

CALL SIR ABRAHAM 0729125181
N/B;WE DON’T OFFER FREE MARKING SCHEME
1
@KAPSABET 2024 APRIL PRE-MOCK
FOR MARKING SCHEME CALL SIR ABRAHAM 0729 125 181
443/1 - AGRICULTURE - PAPER 1

APRIL. 2024- 2 hours

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education

(K.C.S.E.) PRE-MOCK 2024

Name-----------------------------------------------------------------ADM------------------------------------

DATE………………………..SIGN……………………..TARGET……..INDEX…………….

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES

• Write your name and Admission number

• This paper consist of three sections A, B and C
• Answer ALL he questions in section A and B and ANY TWO questions in
section C in the spaces provided

FOR EXAMINERS’ USE ONLY

Section Questions Maximum Score Candidate’s Score

A 1-16

B 17-20

C 21

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@KAPSABET 2024 APRIL PRE-MOCK
FOR MARKING SCHEME CALL SIR ABRAHAM 0729 125 181
SECTION A: Answer all the questions in this section (30 Marks)

1. Name three branches of horticulture (1 ½ marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………

2. List three aspects of light that influence crops growth (1½ marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………

3. a) What is mixed farming (1 mark)

b) Give three disadvantages of mixed farming to a small scale farmer (1½ marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………

4. Give two ways how hard pans would be caused by cultivation (1 mark

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FOR MARKING SCHEME CALL SIR ABRAHAM 0729 125 181
………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………

5. a) Give a reason why nitrogenous fertilizer should: (2 marks)

i) Be stored under dry condition
………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………

ii) Be applied in most soils

………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………

iii) Be applied to an established crop

iv) Be applied frequently

b) Distinguish between complete compound fertilizer and incomplete

compound fertilizer (1 mark)

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FOR MARKING SCHEME CALL SIR ABRAHAM 0729 125 181
………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………

6. State two mechanical methods of separating soil particles according to size

during soil analysis (2 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………

7. Give two methods of controlling stalk borer in maize production (1 marks)

8. State two reasons why too much air in the silo is undesirable in the process
of silage making (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………

9. State three ways of controlling weeds in pure grass pastures (1 ½ marks)

10. Give four advantages of title deed to a farmer (2 marks)

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@KAPSABET 2024 APRIL PRE-MOCK
FOR MARKING SCHEME CALL SIR ABRAHAM 0729 125 181
………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………

11. Outline four advantages of a mixed-legume pasture over a pure-grass

pasture (2 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………

12. Give four management practices that promote high herbage yields in pasture
production (2 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………
…………….…………………………………………………………………………

13. Give four factors that a farmer should consider in siting a nursery (2 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………

14. Give four benefits of using vegetable propagation in orange production (2 marks)

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@KAPSABET 2024 APRIL PRE-MOCK
FOR MARKING SCHEME CALL SIR ABRAHAM 0729 125 181
………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………
………….……………………………………………………………………………

15. a) What is micro-catchment? (1 mark)

b) List any four types of micro-catchments (2marks)

……………………….……………………………………………………………..
………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………

16.List four common bacterial diseases that affect crops (2 marks)

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@KAPSABET 2024 APRIL PRE-MOCK
FOR MARKING SCHEME CALL SIR ABRAHAM 0729 125 181
SECTION B: Answer all the questions in this section (20 Marks)

17.Study the diagram below.

a) Name the process above used to prepare Irish potatoes in readiness for
planting (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………

b) (i) Which of the two potatoes is suitable for planting? (1 mark)

(ii) Give a reason for your answer in (b) (i) above (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………

c) Give two reasons why maize needs to be earthed (2 marks)

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FOR MARKING SCHEME CALL SIR ABRAHAM 0729 125 181
18. A farmer growing maize on 10 hectares is to dress it with sulphate of
ammonia (20%N) at the rate of 120kg of S.A per hectare. At the local
market S.A is available in 50kg bags selling at Ksh. 1500 per bag.
a) Calculate the amount of S.A the farmer needs to top-dress his crop of
maize (3 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………

b) Calculate the amount of money he will use on fertilizer (2 marks)

19.The diagram below illustrates a type of soil erosion. Study it carefully and
answer the questions that follow.

a) Identify the type of erosion above (1 mark)

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FOR MARKING SCHEME CALL SIR ABRAHAM 0729 125 181
………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………

b) Give two factors that may accelerate the rate of the type of erosion above (2 marks)

c) Give two effects of the type of soil erosion shown above on the farm (2 marks)

20.Study the diagrams labelled G and H

a) Give one use of setting up such an experiment (1 mark)

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FOR MARKING SCHEME CALL SIR ABRAHAM 0729 125 181
………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………

b) Give two reasons why the garden soil in the experiment H is heated (2 marks)

c) Briefly explain what happens to the lime water in both experiment G and
H

Experiment G (1 mark)

Experiment H (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………

SECTION C: Answer TWO questions only in this section (40 Marks)

21.a) Discuss ten cultural practices of controlling pests in a crop field (10
marks)
b) Outline five factors a farmer should consider before deciding on the type
of irrigation in crop production (5 marks)

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c) Describe the qualities of the mother plant that should be considered when
selecting vegetative material for planting (5 marks)
22.a) Discuss the factors considered when drawing a crop rotation programme
(10 marks)
b) Explain the precautions that should be observed during harvesting of tea
(5 marks)
c) Describe reasons for drainage as a method of land reclamation in crop
production (5 marks)
23.(i) Describe production of onions under the following subheadings
a) Ecological requirement (3 marks)
b) Land preparation (4 marks)
c) Harvesting and marketing (3 marks)
d) Breaking the tops in onions (1 mark)
e) Two pests in onions (2 marks)
(ii) Explain seven ways soil fertility is maintained (7 marks)

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@KAPSABET 2024 APRIL PRE-MOCK
FOR MARKING SCHEME CALL SIR ABRAHAM 0729 125 181
443/2 THEORY - - AGRICULTURE PAPER 2

APRIL. 2024- 2 hours

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education (K.C.S.E.)PRE-MOCK 2024

Name-----------------------------------------------------------------ADM-----------------------------
DATE………………………..SIGN…………………….……………..TARGET…………………………………….INDEX…………..…….

Instructions to Candidates:

a) Write your name and index number in spaces provided above

b) This paper consists of THREE sections: A, B and C
c) Answer all questions in Section A and B.
d) All answers should be written in the spaces provided on this question paper.
e) Candidates should answer the questions in English.
f) Answer any two questions in section C

For Examiner’s use only

Section Questions Maximum Score Candidate’s Score

A 1 – 20 30

B 21 - 24 20

25 20

C 26 20

20
27

TOTAL SCORE 90

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@KAPSABET 2024 APRIL PRE-MOCK
FOR MARKING SCHEME CALL SIR ABRAHAM 0729 125 181
SECTION A [30 MARKS]

Answer All The Questionsin The Spaces Provided.

1. Mention four control measures undertaken to control brucellosis in cattle. [2 marks]

(i) …………………………………………………………………….……………………………………………….
(ii) …………………………………………………………………….………………………………………………
(iii) ……………………………………………………..………………….………………………………………..
(iv) ……………………………………………………..…..………….……………………………………………
2. State four breeds of rabbits [2mark]

(i) ………………………………………………………………….………………………………………………….
(ii) ………………………………………………………….…………………………………………………………
(iii) …………………………………………………………………………………….……………………………..
(iv) ………………………………………………...…………………………………………………………………
3. List any two physiological condition s of livestock that may be assessed to determine the health
status of the animal. [1 ½ mark]

(i) ……………………………………………………………………………….…………………………………….
(ii) ……………………………………………………………………………….……………………………………
4. State two ways of preventing predation in a fish pond. (1 mark)
(i) ………………………………………………………………………………………………..……………………………………………………

(ii) …………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….………………………………

5. State four factors considered when selecting eggs for sale [2 marks]
(i) …………………………………………………………………………….……………………………………………………………………….

(ii) …………………………………………………………………………………………..…………………………………………………………

(iii) ………………………………………………………………………………………..…………………………………………………………..
(iv). …………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….

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@KAPSABET 2024 APRIL PRE-MOCK
FOR MARKING SCHEME CALL SIR ABRAHAM 0729 125 181
6. State four observations on behavior of chicks under excess heat in the brooder that a farmer may
notice. [2marks]
(i) ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
(ii) ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(iii) ……………………………………………………………………………………………..……………………………………………………..
(iv). …………………………………………………………………………………………………………..……………………………………….
7. State four advantages of embryo transplant (2 mark)
i. …………………………………………………………………………………………………………….………………………..…………….
ii. …………………………………………………………………………………………………………….………………………………………
iii. ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..……………………..
iv. ………………………………………………………………………………………………………….…….…………………………………..
8. Differentiate between mothering ability and prolificacy [2 marks]
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..………………

9. Name four practices carried out in the crush (2 marks)

(i) ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(ii) ………………………………………………………………………………………………..……………………………………………………
(iii) ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….………………………………..
(iv). …………………………………………………………………………………………………………….…………………………………….
10. Give four reasons why young rams should be docked. [2marks]
(i) ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………..……………………………………….
(ii) ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………..………………………………………
(iii) ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………..……………………………………..
(iv). ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..………………………………….
11. Give any two methods of selection done on livestock [1 mark]
(i) …………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..………………………………….
(ii) ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..……………………………………
12. List four mechanical methods of tick control in a farm [2 marks]
(i) ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
(ii) ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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(iii) ………………………………………………………………………………………………………..…………………………………………..
(iv). …………………………………………………………………………………………………….…………………………………………….
13. State two factors that determine the quality of honey [1mark]
(i) ……………………………………………………………………………………..……………………………………………………………….
(ii) ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..……………
14. Give the terms used to describe the following
(i) Mature male pig (1 mark)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(ii) Sterilised male birds (1/2 mark)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………..……………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
(iii) Mature female goat (1/2 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………….……………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………...

15.State four qualities considered when selecting a heifer for dairy purposes [2 marks]

(i) …………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
(ii) ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(iii) …………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
(iv). ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
16. Give one role of a damp proof course in the foundation of a farm building. (1 mark)
(i) ………………………………………………………………………………………..………………………………………………………….
17. State any four causes of cannibalism in poultry production. (2 marks)
(i) …………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
(ii) ……………………………………………………………………………………………..……………………………………………………
(iii) …………………………………………………………………………………………………………..……………………………………..
(iv). ……………………………………………………………………………………………………..………………………………………….
18. Name the breed of camel with two humps (1/2 marks)
(i) …………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
19. Give the functional difference between a ripsaw and atenon saw. (1 mark)

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FOR MARKING SCHEME CALL SIR ABRAHAM 0729 125 181
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
20. Define the term steaming up as used in livestock production (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….

SECTION B [20 MARKS]

Answer all questions in this section

21. Below is an activity carried out in poultry production? Study it carefully then answer the questions
that follow

a) Identify the practice being carried out …………………………………………..(1 mark)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

b) State three defects that can be detected by this practice. (3 marks)

(i) ……………………………………………………..………………………………………………….…………………………………………….
(ii) …………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….…………………
(iii) ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..……………

c). State one disadvantage of artificial incubation. (1 mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………..…………………………………………………………………………………….

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@KAPSABET 2024 APRIL PRE-MOCK
FOR MARKING SCHEME CALL SIR ABRAHAM 0729 125 181
22. The diagram below represents livestock parasites

Y
Z

(a) Identify the parasites Y and Z (1 mark)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(b) In which organ in livestock is parasite Z found? (1mark)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………….………………………………………………………………..
(c) How is parasite Z passed from livestock to human being (1 mark)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(d) Give a control measure of each parasite Y and Z (2 marks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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@KAPSABET 2024 APRIL PRE-MOCK
FOR MARKING SCHEME CALL SIR ABRAHAM 0729 125 181
23. Below are illustrations farm tools and equipment
(a).Identify the tool/equipment labelled A and B (2 marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b). State two appropriate uses of the tools labelled C (1 mark)

(c). Explain two maintenance practices of the tool labelled D. (2 mark)

24. A farmer wants to prepare a ration for layers containing 18% DCP. Using maize germ 20% DCP and a
wheat grain 10% DCP
(a). Calculate using peason’s square method the amount of each food stuff needed in order to
prepare 100kg of feeds. (4 marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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@KAPSABET 2024 APRIL PRE-MOCK
FOR MARKING SCHEME CALL SIR ABRAHAM 0729 125 181
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..………………………………………………

(b).State any other method used in computation of food ratio. (1mark)

SECTION C [20 MARKS]

Answer all questions in this section

25. (a). Describe conditions under which bees abscond the hive. (5 marks)

(b). Describe the causes of stress in poultry management. (10 marks)

(c). Describe the uses of fences on the farm. (5 marks)

26. (a). Explain four factors that affect digestibility of food in livestock. (8 marks)

(b). Explain the essentials of clean milk production. (7 marks)

(c). State the disadvantages of clean natural method of mating. (5 marks)

27. (a). State four advantages of using a sub soiler in seedbed preparation. (4 marks)

(b). Give six advantages of artificial insemination in cattle management. (6 marks)

(c). Explain ten function of water in animal’s body. (10 marks)

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@KAPSABET 2024 APRIL PRE-MOCK
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231/3
BIOLOGY

PRACTICAL CONFIDENTIAL
Each Candidate Requires The Following:

1. About 5g(small)piece of specimen Y.

2. 4 test tubes in a test tube rack and 2 droppers.
3. 10ml of 20% hydrogen peroxide solution in a test tube.
4. 100ml empty beaker – 2.
5. 10ml measuring cylinder.
6. A pair of forceps.
7. Access to hot water maintained at 80°C from a hot water bath.
8. 2 wooden splints.
9. (1 ripe orange fruit labeled specimen K).
10. Scalpel.
11. Access to:
(i) Sodium hydroxide solution - 4ml per candidate.
(ii) Copper (II) sulphate solution - 2ml per candidate.
(iii)Dilute hydrochloric acid - 2ml per candidate.
(iv) Sodium hydrogen carbonate solution - 2ml per candidate.
(v) Benedict's solution - 4ml per candidate.
(vi) Source of heat.

Note:
• 5g (small) piece of fresh liver labeled as specimen Y.
• 1 ripe orange fruit labeled specimen K.

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@KAPSABET 2024 APRIL PRE-MOCK
FOR MARKING SCHEME CALL SIR ABRAHAM 0729 125 181
231/1 - BIOLOGY - PAPER 1

APRIL. 2024- 2 hours

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education

(K.C.S.E.)PRE-MOCK 2024

Name-----------------------------------------------------------------ADM---------------------------------

DATE………………………..SIGN……………………..TARGET……..INDEX…………

Instructions
1. Write your name, Index Number and School in the spaces provided above.
2. Sign and write the date of the examination in the spaces provided above.
3. Answer all the questions in the spaces provided.
4. Additional pages must not be inserted.
5. Check the question paper to ascertain that all the pages are printed and that no questions are
missing.
6. All answers should be written in English

FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY

Question Maximum Score Candidate’s
Score

1-25 80

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@KAPSABET 2024 APRIL PRE-MOCK
FOR MARKING SCHEME CALL SIR ABRAHAM 0729 125 181
1. Name the branch of biology that involves the study of:
(a) Organism for the sake of classifying them (1mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………...………………………………………………….

(b) Microscopic organisms. (1 mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………

2. The diagram below represents a plant

(a) Name the division to which the plant belongs (1 mark)

(b). Give three reasons for your answer in (a) above (3 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………….………………………………………………………………………
3. A student estimating a cell of an onion epidermal cell observed the following on the
microscope field of view using a transparent ruler.

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@KAPSABET 2024 APRIL PRE-MOCK
FOR MARKING SCHEME CALL SIR ABRAHAM 0729 125 181
The student identifies 20 cells across the field of view. Calculate the size of the cell in
micrometres. (3 marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………..…………………………………………………………………….
……………………………...……………………………………………………………………….
4. State the functions of centrioles in a cell. (2 marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………..…………………………..………………………………………………………………

5. Study the flow diagram below

Name the substance U, V and W. (3 marks)

U…………………………………………………...…..……………………………………………
V ……………………………………………………………………………………………………
W ………………………………………..................…...…………………………………………..

6. (a). State the deficiency diseases of each of the following vitamins. (3 marks)

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@KAPSABET 2024 APRIL PRE-MOCK
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(i). B1 …………………….…………….………….….…………………………………………….

(ii). B2 …………………………………………….….…………………………………………….

(iii). B6………………………………….…………………………………………………………..

(b). What is the role of roughage in a diet? (1 mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

7. State two differences between osmosis and Active transport. (2 marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
8. In a certain experiment, the following observation was made:
When red blood cell was placed in certain solution, the solution exerted more osmotic
pressure leading to cell losing water molecules to become (crenated/shrunk)
(a). What type of solution was the cell placed in respect to the cell’s cytoplasms?
(1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(b). By which physiological process did the cell lose water molecules? (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(c).Name two substances that make a cell membrane. (2 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
9. The diagram below represents a transverse section of a plant part. Study it and answer the
questions that follow.

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@KAPSABET 2024 APRIL PRE-MOCK
FOR MARKING SCHEME CALL SIR ABRAHAM 0729 125 181
(a). Name the class in which the plant belongs. (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………….……………………………………………………………………………..
(b). Give a reason for answer (a) above. (1 mark)
…………………………..………………………………………………………………………..…
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(c). State three adaptations for the structure labeled X to their functions. (3 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
10. State THREE structural differences between arteries and veins in mammals. (3 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

11. (a). Why does carboxyhaemoglobin lead to death? (3 marks)

(b). Name two gaseous exchange sites in higlier plants. (2 marks)

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@KAPSABET 2024 APRIL PRE-MOCK
FOR MARKING SCHEME CALL SIR ABRAHAM 0729 125 181
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
12. State the importance of the following features in gaseous exchange
(i) cartilage in the trachea 1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(ii) (ii) Moisture on the surface of the alveoli. (1 marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………..………………………………………………………………………………..
13. The equation below shows an oxidation reaction of flow food substances
102
5C51H98O6 + 145O2→ CO2 + 98H2O + Energy
(i) (a) Determine respiratory quotient of the Oxidation of the food substance above (3 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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(ii) Identify the food substance. (1 mark)
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14. (a). A dog weighing 15.2kg requires 216kg while a mouse weighing 50g
Explain. (2 marks)
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(b). Under what condition is lactic acid formed in human muscles? (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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15. Equal amounts of crushed Irish potato were placed in equal volumes of hydrogen peroxide
solution at indicated PH. The volume of the gas produced was measured and recorded as shown
in the table below.
(3 marks)

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PH 4.0 7.0 9.0
3
Volume of gas (cm ) 2.7 7.0 9.0
(a). Name the gas that was produced. (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………..
(b). Account for the difference in the volume of the gas produced in PH 4.0 and PH 9.0
(3 marks)
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(c). Name two components of blood that are not present in the glomerular filtrate. (2 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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(16). Define the following terms (2 marks)
(a) Entomology
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(b) Sensitivity
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(17). Give two examples of continuous variations in humans. (2marks)
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(18). (a) State the causative agent of the following diseases (2 marks)
(i). Typhoid ………………………………………………….………..……………………………
(ii). Pneumonia ………………………………………………….………………………………….
(b). State three preventive measures of schistosomiasis in human beings (3 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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19. Describe capture-recapture method of estimating population. (3 marks)
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20. State three advantages of asexual reproduction in organisms. (3 marks)
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21.The diagram below shows a phenomenon which occurs during cell division.

(a). Identify the stage of cell division in which the phenomenon occurs. (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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(b). State the importance of phenomenon taking place in the part labelled B. (2 marks)
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………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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22. Name the region in plants where the following take place
(a). Primary growth (1 mark)
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(b). Secondary growth (1 mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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23. State three parameters that can be used to estimate growth in seedlings. (3 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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24. State three reasons for classifying organism. (3 marks)
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25. The diagram below represents a transverse section of an ovary from certain flower.

(i) Name the structure labeled W. (1 mark)

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………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(ii). Name the type of placentation illustrated in this diagram. (1 mark)

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231/2 - -BIOLOGY PAPER 2

APRIL. 2024- 2 hours

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education

(K.C.S.E.)PRE-MOCK 2024

Name-----------------------------------------------------------------ADM------------------------------------

DATE………………………..SIGN……………………..TARGET……..INDEX…………….

Instructions to the Candidates

a) Write your name and index number in the spaces provided above.
b) Sign and write the date of examination in the spaces provided above.
c) This paper consists of TWO sections A and B
d) Answer ALL the questions in section A by filling in the spaces provided.
e) In section B answer question 6 (compulsory question) and any other one question from the
remaining two questions (i.e. 7 or 8) in the spaces provided after question 8.
f) Candidates may be penalized for false information or even wrong spellings of technical terms.
g) This paper consists of 13 printed pages.
h) Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that all the pages are printed as
indicated and that no questions are missing.
For Examiner’s Use Only
Section Question Maximum score Candidate’s Score
A 1 8

2 8

3 8

4 8

5 8

B 6 20

7 20

8 20

TOTAL 80

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SECTION A – (40 MARKS)
Answer All Questions In This Section In The Spaces Provided.

1. The set up below was used to investigate a certain process.

Glucose solution was boiled and olive oil added on top. It was then allowed to cool before the
yeast suspension was added.
a) Name the biological process being investigated. (1 mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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b) Why was the glucose solution boiled? (1 mark)
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c) What is the importance of cooling the glucose solution before adding the yeast? (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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d) What is the role of olive oil in the experiment? (1 mark)
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e) What will be observed in the lime water at the end of the experiment? (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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f) Suggest what would be observed if a thermometer reading 250C was inserted in the
glucose solution with the yeast suspension (2 marks)

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………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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g) Suggest a control experiment for this set up. (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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2. In maize the gene for Green colour is dominant to the gene for white colour. A pure
breeding maize plant with green grains was crossed with heterozygous plant.
a) (i) Using letter G to represent the gene for green colour, work out the genotypic ratio
of the offspring. (5 marks)

(ii) State the phenotype of the offspring. (1 mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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b) What is genetic engineering? (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………….…..……………………………
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c) What is meant by hybrid vigour? (1 mark)

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………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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3. (a) Briefly discuss how the following gives evidences on specification:

(i) Cell biology (2 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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(ii) Comparative embryology (2 marks)
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(b) State one limitation of using fossil records as an evidence of organic evolution.
(1 mark)
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(c) (i) What is meant by the term vestigial structure. (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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(ii) Name two examples of vestigial structures in man. (2 marks)
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4. The diagram below shows a tissue in a plant.

a) (i) Identify the tissue shown in the diagram above. (1 mark)

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………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(ii) State the function of the tissue shown above. (1 mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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b) State two functions of the part labeled A. (2 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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c) Name the two compounds or substances transported by the tissue from the leaf to other
parts of the plant. (2 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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d) Explain the role of xylem in plant nutrition. (2 marks)
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5. The results in the table below shows the effects of some conditions on seed germination. In
each experiment, all other environmental conditions were kept constant except for the one
being investigated.
Experiment Treatment %
Germination
I Seeds placed in a tightly closed container with pyrogallic 0
acid.
II (i) Seeds kept in source of light. 96
(ii) Seeds kept in dark cupboard. 97
0
III (i) Seeds kept in refrigerator 4 C. 0.5
(ii) Seeds kept in oven 600C. 0
0
(iii)Seeds kept at 35 C. 92
IV Dry seeds in closed container. 0
Moist seeds in a closed container. 87

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a) (i) What was the purpose of pyrogallic acid in experiment (i) (1 mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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(ii) State the aim of the experiment (ii) (1 mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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b) (i) Account for the results obtained in experiment set-up (iii) (3 marks)
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(ii)
State why 100% germination was not achieved in experiment (ii) and (iv).
(1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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c) Of what biological significance is the condition necessary for germination been
investigated by experiment (iv)? (2 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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SECTION B – 40 MARKS
Answer Question 6(Compulsory) and Either Question 7 or 8 in the Spaces Provided
After Question 8
6. (a) An experiment was carried out to investigate the population of a certain micro-
organism. Two petri dishes were used. Into the petri dish labeled M 30cm3 of a culture
medium was placed while 30cm3 of the same culture was placed in petri dish labeled N.
Equal numbers of micro-organisms were introduced in both petri dishes. The set-ups were
then incubated at 350C. The number of micro-organisms in each petri dish were determined
at equal intervals for a period of 60 hours. The results were as shown in the table below.

M 40 40 180 280 1200 1720 1600 1840 1560 600

Relative number of N 40 40 120 200 680 560 560 600 600 400
micro-organisms

Time in hours 0 5 10 7. 23 30 35 42 45 60

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a) (i) On the same axes draw the graphs of relative number of micro-organisms against time on
the grid provided.

(ii) After how many hours was the difference between the two populations greatest? (1 mark)

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………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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(iii) Work out the difference between the two populations at 50 hours (2 marks)

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(iv) With a reason state the effect on the population of micro-organisms in petri dish M if the
temperature was raised to 600C after 20 hours (2 marks)

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(v) Account for the shape of the curve for population in petri dish N between 46 and 59 hours
(3 marks)
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b) Explain how the osmotic pressure in the human blood is maintained at normal level
(5 marks)

7. (a) Describe how budding takes place in yeast (5 marks)

(b) Discuss the economic importance of bacteria (10 marks)
(c) Describe the methods of excretion in plants (5 marks)

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8. (a) Describe the process of photosynthesis in green plant (10 marks)
(b) Explain the various conditions necessary for germination (10 marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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231/3 - BIOLOGY - PAPER 3

APRIL. 2024- 1 HR 45 MIN

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education

(K.C.S.E.)PRE-MOCK 2024

Name-----------------------------------------------------------------ADM------------------------------------

DATE………………………..SIGN……………………..TARGET……..INDEX…………….

Instructions to the Candidates.

a) Write your name and index number in the spaces provided above.
b) Sign and write the date of the examination in the spaces provided above.
c) Answer all the questions in the spaces provided.
d) You are required to spend the first 15 minutes of the 1 ¾ hours allowed for the paper reading
the whole paper carefully before commencing your work.
e) Additional pages must not be inserted.
f) Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that all the pages are printed as
indicated and that no questions are missing.
g) Candidates should answer all the questions in English

For Examiner’s Use Only

Question Maximum Score Candidate’s Score
1 14

2 13

3 13

Total Score 40

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1. You are provided with specimen K. Use it to answer the questions that follow.
(i) Cut a traverse section of specimen K and draw a well labeled diagram of the cut surface.
(4 marks)

(ii) State the type of placentation of specimen K (1 mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(iii)Apart from the placentation named in (ii), name two other form of placentation.
(2 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(iv) Squeeze out the juice from one of the halves of the specimen K and put it in a beaker.
Using the reagents provided, carry out test to identify the food substances present in the
juice. (7 marks)
Food substance Procedure Observation Conclusion

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2. The diagram represents organisms in a certain habitat.

a) State two observable characteristics of living things displayed by the organisms.

(2 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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b) (i) Name the respiratory surface used by the organism. (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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(ii) State three adaptations of the respiratory surface named in (b) (i) above. (3 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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c) The organism is found in Kingdom Animalia. Giving two external features, identify the
phylum to which it belong.

Phylum (1 mark)

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………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
External features (2 marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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d) By use of arrows, show the life cycle of this organism. (1 mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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………………………………………………………………………………………………………
e) Complete the table shown below on the hormones, site of production and the functions
played by these hormones in metamorphosis. (3 marks)

Name of Hormone Site of Production Function of the Hormone

……………………… Corpus allatum Formation of larval cuticle

Ecdysone ………………… ……………………………

3. You are provided with the following:

• \specimen Y
• Hydrogen peroxide
• 2 test tubes in a test tube rack.
• 2 labels
• 10ml measuring cylinder.
• A scalpel.
• 2 wooden splints.
• 100ml beaker.

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Procedure
(i) Label two test tubes A and B.
(ii) Measure 2cm3 of hydrogen peroxide and put in test tube A. Repeat the same procedure
for test tube B.
(iii)Cut a small piece of specimen Y to two smaller pieces using a scalpel. Place one of the
pieces in test tube A and retain the other piece for the subsequent procedure for test tube
B.
(iv) Immediately, introduce a glowing splint into the mouth of the test tube. Record your
observations in the table below.
(v) Put the other piece of specimen Y in an empty 100ml beaker then add 50ml boiling water
from a hot water bath maintained at 800C. Leave the set up for 5 minutes
(vi) Remove specimen Y from the boiling water using a pair of forceps and place in test tube
B. Immediately, introduce a glowing splint at the mouth of the test tube. Record your
observations in the table below.

a) Record your observations in this table (5 marks)

Test tube Observations
On placing specimen Y On introducing a glowing splint
A (i)

(ii)

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B

b) Explain your answers in (a) above.

(i) A (3 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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(ii) B (1 mark)
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c) State the role of experimental set up in test tube B. (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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d) Specimen Y is an organ in animals. Name the organ and state two other functions apart
from detoxification.
Name of organ (1 mark)
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………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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Functions (2 marks)
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561/1 - BUSINESS - PAPER 1

APRIL. 2024- 2 hours

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education

(K.C.S.E.)PRE-MOCK 2024

Name-----------------------------------------------------------------ADM------------------------------------

DATE………………………..SIGN……………………..TARGET……..INDEX…………….

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES.
1. Answer all questions in the spaces provided.

For Examiners use only.

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 Total

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1. State four elements of the external environment that may negatively affect business
operations. (4mks)
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2. Outline four factors that make office managers to communicate to their staff in writing.
(4mks)
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3. Highlight four disadvantages of monopoly markets. (4mks)
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4. Identify the books of original entry used in recording each of the following transactions of
Turkwel traders. (4mks)
Transactions Books of Original Entry
a) Sold goods on credit to Atieno
b) Bought goods on credit from Chantal
Traders for sh 4000
c) Zuma returned goods worth sh 8000
d) Turkwel returned goods worth sh 11000 to
Simba Traders

5. State four roles played by Nairobi stock exchange in Kenyan economy. (4mks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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6. Name four types of warehouses. (4mks)
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7. State four reasons why consumers have to make a choice between competing needs.
(4mks)
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8. Filling in the missing figures
Fixed Assets Current Assets Capital Liabilities
a) 275 500 ________________ 315 000 115 500
b) 182 000 108 700 _____________ 217 100
c) ______________ 76 400 123 100 91 900
d) 313 450 211 340 189 170 ________________

9. Highlight four functions of money. (4mks)

Activity Utility
a) Carpentry
b) Selling bread to students
c) Warehousing of goods imported
d) Carriage of cargo to the market

11. The following are policies issued under marine insurance, fleet policy composite policy,
voyage policy, time policy.

Identify the policy that suits the description listed below.

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Description Marine policy
a) Covers a ship within a specified period of time
b) Covers a ship on a particular journey
c) Different insurers covers a ship for the same
d) Covers many vessels against losses under one
policy

12. This is Mutegi’s demand schedule for bread in a week.

Price per loaf (shs) No. of loaves demanded

30 1
20 2
15 4
12 6
10 8
5 12
1 20

Required: Draw the demand curve of Mutegi’s bread for a whole week. (4mks)

13. The following information was extracted from the books of Jupiter Traders

Rate of stock turnover 3 times

Mark up 20%
Opening stock shs 160 000
Closing stock shs 200 000

Required:

(i) Gross profit (2mks)

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………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(ii) Sales (2mks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

14. Outline four business ethics that a trader should observe when dealing with customers,
employees, and other businesses. (4mks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
15. Highlight four reasons why the government requires businesses to obtain licences.
(4mks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
16. The following information was obtained from the books of Jakayo Traders as at 1st July
2010.
Shs
Furniture 20 000
Stock 8 000
Creditor 7 000
Cash bank 12 000
Long term loan 10 000

Prepare Jakayo’s balance sheet as at 1st July 2010. (4mks)

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17. State four circumstance under which cash with order is mostly practiced. (4mks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
18. Highlight four reasons why a producer of goods may use intermediaries to distribute his
goods. (4mks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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19. Outline four tools of monetary policy that government may use to reduce excess money in
circulation. (4mks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
20. Highlight four benefits that would accrue to a firm located near existing firms. (4mks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
21. Highlight four circumstance under which personal selling may be used as a strategy in
product promotion. (4mks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
22. Give four measures that a government may take to reduce the mortality rate in a country.
(4mks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
23. Highlight four benefits of using electronic filling system in an office. (4mks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
24. Give four factors that limit use of containers as a method of transporting goods in a
developing country. (4mks)

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565/2 - BUSINESS - PAPER 2

APRIL. 2024- 2 ½ hours

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education

(K.C.S.E.)PRE-MOCK 2024

Name-----------------------------------------------------------------ADM------------------------------------

DATE………………………..SIGN……………………..TARGET……..INDEX…………….

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES.

2. This paper consist of six questions.

3. Answer only five questions in the writing material provided.

4. Indicate clearly the questions answered.

For Examiners use only.

1 2 3 4 5 6 Total

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1. (a) Explain five factors that encourage entrepreneurial development in Kenya. (10mks)

(b) Highlight five characteristics of an efficient tax system. (10mks)

2. (a) Dr Walden would like to pass a message to a firend. Explain five factors he is to
consider in choosing the most appropriate means of communication to use. (10mks)

(b) Describe any five source of document that a business may have access to. (10mks)

3. (a) Explain five benefits of direct production. (10mks)

(b) The following information relates to Maralal Traders for the month of May 2014.
May 1: Balance brought forward
Cash shs 180,000
Bank shs 450,000 (Cr)
3: received a cheque of 1,500,000 from Mpasha, a debtor
7: Cash sales shs 280,000
11: Jolloimat, a creditor of shs 600,000 was paid by cheque of sh
400,000 and the balance by cash
14: Received commission in cash shs 150,000
17: A debtor, Leteipa, paid his account of 185,000 by cheque less 2%
cash discount.
19: Paid the following expenses by cheque:
Rent shs 75,000
Electricity shs 32,000
Water shs 25,000
21: Withdrew shs 100,000 from bank for personal use.
24: Paid cash shs 133,280 to Kinai after deducting a cash discount of
2%
25: Received a cheque of sh 200,000 from Kiyapi, a debtor
28: Paid salaries shs 120,000 by cheque
31: Banked all cash except shs 50,000

Required:

Record the above transactions in a three column cash book. (10mks)

4. (a) Explain five differences between private limited companies and partnerships forms of
business units. (10mks)

(b) Explain clearly with aid of a diagram the change of equilibrium as a result of increase
in supply of a commodity. (1omks)

5. (a) Explain five challenges that an underpopulated country may experience. (10mks)
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(b) Explain five measures that a wholesaler would take to ensure smooth running of his
warehouse. (10mks)

6. (a) Highlight four circumstances under which a cheque may be dishonoured. (8mks)

(b) The following trial balance related to Kimani;s business as at 31st December 2012

DR(SHS) CR(SHS)
st
Stock on 1 January 2003 60,000
Purchases and sales 400,000 580,000
Returns 20,000 50,000
Debtors and creditors 65,000 40,000
Premises 540,000
Machinery 200,000
Fixtures and fittings 100,000
Carriage outwards 8,000
Wages and salaries 30,000
Discounts 25,000 32,000
Commissions 16,000 14,000
Cash in hand 70,000
Capital 818,000
1,534,000 1,534,000
Required:

(a) Prepare a trading profit and loss account for the period ended 31st December 2012 and
a balance sheet as at that date if the closing stock was worth shs 70,000
(12mks)

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PAPER

APRIL. 2024- 2 ½ hours

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education

(K.C.S.E.)PRE-MOCK 2024

CHEMISTRY PAPER 3 CONFIDENTIAL

INSTRUCTIONS

In additional to the apparatus and fittings common in a chemistry laboratory, each candidate will
require the following.
- About 150ml of solution labelled A.
- About 100ml solution labelled B.
- About 50ml of solution labelled C
- About 0.2g of sodium hydrogen carbonate in a stoppered container.
- About 0.5g of solid M in a stoppered container.
- About 0.5g of solid G in a stoppered container
- 0 – 50ml burette.
- 25ml pipette.
- Two 250ml conical flasks
- 250ml volumetric flask
- 10ml measuring cylinder.
- Six test tubes on a test tube rack.
- A boiling tube.
- test tube holder.
- Complete stand.
- A white tile.
- One metallic spatula.
- Distilled water in a wash bottle.
- One label

Access to:
- Source of heat.
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- Universal indicator paper and its pH chart.
- 2M aqueous ammonia supplied with a dropper.
- 2M aqueous sodium hydroxide supplied with a dropper.
- Pb(NO3)2 (aq) supplied with a dropper
- Acidified potassium manganate (VII) supplied with a dropper.
- Bromine water supplied with a dropper.
- 2M dilute nitric (V) acid.
- Methyl orange indicator with a dropper
- Phenolphthalein indicator with a dropper
- Sodium chloride solution

NB:

1. Solution A is prepared by dissolving 4.3 cm3 of concentrated HCl (1.18g/cm3) to 500

cm3 of water and dilute to 1 litre.
2. Solution B is prepared by dissolving 1.2g of NaOH pellets in about 600ml of distilled
water and diluting to 1 litre.
3. Solution C is prepared by dissolving 62.9g of Na2CO3.10H2O in about 800ml of distilled
water and then topping up to 1 litre.
4. Acidified potassium permanganate is prepared by dissolving 3.5g of KMnO4 (s) in
200cm3 of 2M H2SO4(aq) and toping up to one litre solution.
5. 2M H2SO4 (aq) is prepared by diluting 110cm3 of concentrated Sulphuric (VI) acid to
make one litre of solution.
6. 2M NaOH(aq) is prepared by dissolving 80g of NaOH pellets in one litre of solution.
7. 2M HNO3 is prepared by adding 128 cm3 of Conc. HNO3 to about 500ml of water and
dilute to 1 litre.
8. Sodium chloride solution is prepared dissolving 5.85g of NaCl in 1 litre of water
9. Lead (II) nitrate solution is prepared by dissolving 30g of Pb(NO3)2 in 1litre of water
10. Solid M is aluminium sulphate
11. Solid G is maleic acid.

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233/1 - CHEMISTY - PAPER 1

APRIL. 2024- 2 hours

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education (K.C.S.E.)PRE-MOCK 2024

Name---------------------------------------------------------------ADM-------------------------------
DATE……………………………..…………..SIGN………….………………..TARGET…………….…..INDEX………………….……….

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES:
(a)Write your name, class and admission number in the spaces provided above.

(b)Answer ALL the questions in the spaces provided in the question paper

(c) KNEC Mathematical tables and electronic calculators may be used for calculations
(d) All working MUST be clearly shown where necessary
(e) This paper consists of 10 printed pages
(f) Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that all the pages are printed as indicated
and that no questions are missing
(g) Candidates should answer the questions in English

FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY

Question Maximum score Candidate’s score

1-29 80

Turn Over

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1. An element Y has the electronic configuration 2.8.5
a) Identify its period (1mk)
……………………………………………………………………………………..……………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..………………………………………
b) Write a formula of the most stable anion formed when Y ionizes. (1mk)
………………………………………………………………………………..…………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………….………………………………………….………………………
c) Explain the differences between the atomic radius of element Y and its ionic radius. (2mks)
……………………………………………………………………………………..……………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………..……………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..…

2. The table below shows tests carried out on a sample of water and the results obtained.
Test Results

I Addition of sodium hydroxide solution White precipitate which dissolves in excess

II Addition of excess aqueous ammonia Colourless solution obtained

III Addition of dilute hydrochloric acid and White precipitate

barium chloride

a) Identify the anion present in the water. (1mark)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..……………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..…………

b) Write an ionic equation for the reaction in III. (1mark)

………………………………………………………………….………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………….…………………………………………………………………………………
3. Solutions can be classified as acids bases or neutral. The table below shows solutions and their pH

values.
Solution PH - VALUES
K 1.5
L 7.0
M 14.0

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(i) Select any pair that would react to form a solution of pH 7. (1mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(ii) Identify two solutions that would react with aluminum hydroxide. Explain. (1marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
4. a) State Graham’s Law of diffusion. (1mk)

b) 60cm3 of oxygen gas diffused through a porous partition in 50 seconds. How long would it take

for 60cm3 of sulphur (IV) oxide gas to diffuse through the same partition under the same

conditions? ( S = 32.0, O = 16.0) ( 3 marks )

5. Study the flow chart below and answer the questions that follow.

Add NH3 (aq Add excess

Metal oxide White precipitate X Colourless solution Y
NH3 (aq

a) Identify the metal oxide. (1mk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..……………………………………….
b) Write an ionic equation leading to the formation of the white precipitate X. (1mk)

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…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
c) Give the formula of the ions responsible for the colourless solution Y. (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………..……………………………………………………………

6. Two compounds of barium are barium sulfide and barium chloride.

(a) The hazard symbol shown in Figure below is on bottles containing barium metal.

State the meaning of this hazard symbol. (1mk

........................................................................................................................................................................
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..........................................
(b) Give the names of the elements combined in barium sulfide. (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..……………………………….
(c) Hydrogen sulphide gas is highly poisonous. Sate one safety precaution that should be taken
when handling hydrogen sulphide. (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….………………………………
7. Study the information in the table and answer questions that follow:

Isotope 69 71

R1 R2
Relative abundance % 61.3 38.7
31 31

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(a) Determine the number of neutrons of R1 . (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………….……………………………………………………………………………………….

(b) Calculate the relative atomic mass of element R. (2mks)

b ) Using dots (•) and crosses (x) to represent electrons show bonding in magnesium oxide (2mks)

9. Show the products formed when the following salts are heated by writing a balanced chemical
equation. (2 marks)
Heat
(i) KNO3(s)

Heat
(ii) (NH4)2 CO3(s)

10. Explain why when one is stung by a bee application of a little solution of sodium

hydrogen carbonate helps to relieve the pain. ( 2 marks )

11. The following table gives the melting point of oxides of the third period elements.
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Study it and answer the questions that follow.

Formula of oxides Na2O MgO Al2O3 SiO2 P4O10 SO2

Melting point (0O) 1190 3080 3050 1730 560 -73

(a) Explain the large difference in the melting points of Na2O and P4O10. (2 mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………….……………………………………………………
………………………………………………….………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….

(b) Write the equation for the reaction between Al2O3 with;

(i) NaOH ( 1 mark )

…………………………………..………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….……………………………

(ii) HCl ( 1 mark )

12. A hydrocarbon slowly decolourlises bromine in presence of sunlight but does not decolourise

acidified potassium permanganate. Name and draw the structural formula of the fourth member of

the series to which the hydrocarbon belongs. (2 marks )

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13. Distinguish between ionization energy and electron affinity. (2mks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………..…………………………………………………………………………………………………

14. The set-up below was used to prepare a carbon (IV) oxide gas.

Calcium carbonate

(a) Give the name of substance A (1mk)

(b) Complete the diagram to show how the dry gas can be collected. (2mks)

(c)Write the equation for the reaction (1mk)

15. Calculate the mass of sulphur which on complete combustion would yield 7dm3 of sulphur (IV)
oxide measured at 182oc and 722 mm Hg pressure. (0=16, S=32, molar gas volume = 24dm3
at r.t.p). (3 mks)
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…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………….…………………………………………………………………
16. Form two students from Achiever’s secondary school reacted three elements as shown in the table
below
Element Reaction with Oxygen Reaction with water

X Formed acidic oxide No reaction

Y Formed basic oxide Formed soluble hydroxide gave off

hydrogen gas

Z Formed acidic oxide Dissolved to form an acidic solution

Which element (s) is likely to be: (3mks)

i) Non-metal (s)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
ii) Metal (s)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….………………………………………………
iii) Insoluble in water.
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

17. A polymer has the following structure

CH2 CH CH2 CH CH2 CH

CN CN CN

A sample of this polymer is found to have a molecular mass of 5194. Determine the number

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of monomers on the polymer. ( H = 1.0, C = 12.0, N = 14.0 ) ( 2 marks )

18. a) State the likely products of the electrolysis of molten potassium chloride at the:-
(i) Cathode……………………………………………………………………………….(½mk)
(ii) Anode ……………………………………………………………………………….(½mk)
b) Write the equations that occur at the anode and cathode. …….(2mks)
Anode…………………………………………………………………………………………
Cathode…………………………………………………………………………………………………
19. Give two reasons why helium is used in weather balloons. (2mks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………...…….
20. A Bunsen burner produces a yellow flame when airhole is close. Explain. (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

21. In an experiment, a boiling tube full of chlorine gas was inverted into a trough of water as shown
below.
Sunlight

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a) State and explain the observations. (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

b) If the experiment is repeated with tetrachloromethane instead of water.

i) State the observations made. (1mk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………….……………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..………………………………….

ii) Explain your observations in b(i) above. (1mk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………….……………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….

23. Study the flow chart below and answer the questions that follow.

a) Name substances
W ……………………………………………………………………………..….(½ mark)
Y …………………………………………………………………………….…..(½ mark)
b) An organic compound K reacted with bromine to form 2,3 – dibromobutane. Draw the
structural formula of K. (1mks)

24. Starting with copper metal describe how a solid sample of copper (II) carbonate can be prepared.
( 3 marks )

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…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………….…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
….………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….

25. Study the information in the table below and answer the questions that follow. The letters do not

represent the actual symbols of the elements.

Element Electrical conductivity Ductility Action of water

A Good Good No reaction

B Good Poor No reaction

C Good Good Reacts

Select the element which is

(a) Likely to be in group II of the periodic table. ( ½ mark )

(b) Could be used to make electric cables. ( ½mark )

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………….……………………………………………………………………………………

(c ) Likely to be graphite. ( ½ mark )

26. In an investigation, sulphur (IV) oxide gas was bubbled through acidified bromine water. This was

followed by drops of barium nitrate solution.

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(a) State the property of sulphur (IV) oxide under investigation. (½ mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………..……………………………………………………………………………………………….
(b) i) State the observation that were made on addition on sulphur (IV) oxide into the bromine water.
(1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………….……………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
ii) Explain the observation. (1mk)
.…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..………………….
27. Study the flow chart below and answer the questions that follow

Ammonia
Platinum Nitrogen O2 Nitrogen H2O G&J
(II) oxide (IV) oxide
(aq)
Gas X

a) Identify gas X (1mk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
b) Write an equation for the reaction between ammonia and gas X (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………….……………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….……
c) Write an equation to show the formation of G and J (1mk)
………………………………………………………………………………………..…………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..…………

28. (a) Define pollution. ( 1 mark )

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..………

(b) Mention one pollutant that is

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(i) A Particle ( ½ mark )

(ii) Gaseous ( ½ mark )

29. Hydrogen gas was burnt in air to form a colourless liquid.

a) Describe a chemical test to identify the colourless liquid. (2mk)

b) State how the purity of the colourless liquid can be determined. (1mk)

THIS IS THE LAST PRINTED PAGE

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233/2 - CHEMISTRY - PAPER 2

APRIL. 2024- 2 hours

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education

(K.C.S.E.)PRE-MOCK 2024

Name-----------------------------------------------------------------ADM---------------------------------

DATE………………………..SIGN……………………..TARGET……..INDEX…………..

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
(a)Write your name, class and admission number in the spaces provided above.
(b)Answer ALL the questions in the spaces provided in the question paper.
(c) KNEC Mathematical tables and electronic calculators may be used for calculations.
(d) All working MUST be clearly shown where necessary.
(e) This paper consists of 9 printed pages.
(f) Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that all the pages are printed as
indicated and that no questions are missing.
(g) Candidates should answer the questions in English.

For examiners’ use only.

Questions Max-score Candidates score

1 13
2 10
3 08
4 14
5 11
6 13
7 11

Total score = 80
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1. The grid below represents part of the periodic table. Study it and answer the questions that
follow. The letters do not represent the actual symbols of the elements.

D G
B E F H J
A C
I

a) State the elements that can form ions with a charge of -1. Give a reason for your answer.
.(2 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
b) What type of structure exists in the oxide of A. Give a reason for your answer? (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
c) How does the reactivity of I compare with that of H. Explain. (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………..…
….…………………………………………………………………………………………………..
d) The oxide of D has a low melting point than the oxide of element C. Explain. (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
e) With a reason choose the most;
i) Electropositive element (2 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
ii) Electronegative element (2 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
f) Compare the atomic radius of;
i) B and H (1 mark)
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…………………………………………………………………………………………………..…
…….……………………………………………………………………………………………….
ii) D and E (1 mark)
……………………………………………………………………………………………...………
………………….…………………………………………………………………………………...
g) State and explain the observations made when concentrated Nitric (V) acid is added to turnings
of copper. (2 marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………..…
……………………………..………………………………………………………………………..

2. The flow chart below shows how nitric (v) acid is produced on a large scale. Study it and
answer the questions that follow.

Air Purifier Heat Catalytic

Compressor
Exchanger Chamber
Gas A

Hot water
Gas B & air
Unreacted

Gas B

Absorption Reaction
Purified Air
tower Chamber
68% HNO3
a) State the functions of:
(i) Purifier (1mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…..………………..…………………………………………………………………………………
(ii) Heat exchanger (1mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
b) Identify
(i) Gas A (½mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………..…………………………………………………………………………………..

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(ii) Catalyst C (½mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…..…………………………………………………………………………………………………..
c) Write equations for the reaction that take place;
(i) in catalytic chamber. (1mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………..……………………………………………………………………………………………..
(ii) in absorption tower. (1mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………..……………………………………………………………………………..
d) Calculate the molarity of the commercial nitric (v) acid, given that it is 68% pure and has a
density of 1.42g/cm3. (N=14, H=1,)=16) (3mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………….…
…………………………………………………………………………………………….………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
(e).(i) State the observation made when concentrated nitric (v) acid is added to acidified
sulphur powder and warmed. (1mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
ii) Give a reason for the answer given in c (i) above. (1mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………..………………………………………………………………………………………..

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3. Study the flow chart below starting from iron metal.

Compound B
Fe2O3.3H2O
Fe3O4(s) + Gas Q
Step 1 Chlorine
Air & Moisture
gas
Step 2 Steam

Sulphur & heat Fe2(SO4)3(aq) + H2O(l)

Compound T Fe(s)
Step 4 Hot conc. H2SO4
Step 3 + gas D
Dil HCl step 5

FeCl2
Step 7 Step 8 Solid V Step 9 Solid A
+ Gas L Brown solution
H2O2 (i)NaOH Heat
Step 6 (ii) filter
(i)NaOH
(ii) filter
Solid X

(a) Name gases (1½mk )

D……….……………………………………………………………………………………

L……….…………………………………………………………………………………....

V……….…………………………………………………………………………….............

(b) Identify the following substances. (2 ½mk)

(i) Compound B……….…………………………………….…………………………………….

(ii) Compound T……….………………………………………………………………………….

(iii) Solid A……….……………………………..………………………….……………………..

(iv) Solid V……….………………………..………………………………….…………………..

(v) Solid X……….………………………..……………………………….…………...................

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c) What name is given to the reaction in step 2? (½mk )
……….……………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

d) State the colour of solid X (½mk)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………….……….…………………………………………………………………………
e) Write balanced equations for the reactions that occurred in:- (2mks)

Step 1……….……………………………..……………………………………………………...

Step 5……….……………………………………………………………………………………...

f) What property of hydrogen peroxide (H2O2) is indicated in step 7 of the flow chart? (1mk)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………….…………………………………………………………………..
4. The set up below was used to prepare hydrogen chloride gas and salt T.

Liquid M
Aluminium
powder Salt T

Gas V
Flask I heat
Flask II

Conc.
Sulphuric water
Sodium
chloride (VI) acid
heat
crystals

a) I. Name the following

i) Liquid M (½ mark)
……….……………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………....................
ii) Gas V (½ mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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……..……….…………………………………………………………………………….................
II. Write the formula of Salt T (1mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…..……….…………………………………………………………………………….....................
b) Write balanced chemical equations for reactions that occur at
i) Flask I (1mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………...…………………………………………………………………………….....................
ii) Combustion tube. (1mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………...…………………………………………………………………………….....................
c) Name the process that formed salt T as shown in the diagram. (1mark)
……….……………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………..…………………………………………………………………....................
d) Sulphuric (VI) acid is used as a drying agent in this experiment. Explain why calcium
oxide is unsuitable for the same purpose in this reaction (2marks)
……….…………………………………………………………………………….....................
……….………………………………………………………………………………………….
e) The water in the trough was found to have a pH of 2.0 at the end of the experiment.
Explain. (1mark)
……….…………………………………………………………………………….....................
……….…………………………………………………………………………….....................
f) Calculate the mass of salt T formed if 480cm3 of hydrogen chloride gas measured at
r.t.p was reacted with aluminium powder. (Al=27, Cl = 35.5, MGV=24dm3) (2marks)
……….…………………………………………………………………………….....................
……….…………………………………………………………………………….....................
……….…………………………………………………………………………….....................
g) In the space provided below, draw a well labelled diagram showing how you would
dissolve hydrogen chloride gas in water. (1mark)

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h) A solution of hydrogen chloride in methylbenzene does not react with carbonates.
However, on adding water and then shaking the resulting mixture, there is vigorous
effervescence. Explain the above observation. (2marks)
……….………………………………………….………………………………………………….
……….………………………………….…….…………………………………….....................…
……..…….………………………………………………………………………………………….
i) Using equation, state the observation made when a gas jar containing hydrogen
chloride gas is opened near an open bottle of liquid ammonia. (1mark)
……….…………………………………………………………………………….....................…
…….………………………………………………………………………………….....................
5. Name each of the processes described below which takes place when salts are exposed to air for
sometime.
(i) Anhydrous copper (II) sulphate becomes wet. (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………..………………………………..
(ii) Common table salt forms an aqueous solution (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………..…………………………………………………………………..
(iii) Fresh crystals of sodium carbonate Na2CO3.10H20 becomes covered with white powder of
formula Na2CO3.H2O (1mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………..…………………………………………………………………..
(b)Write the formula of the complex ion formed in each of the reactions described below.
(i) Zinc metal dissolves in hot potassium hydroxide solution (1mark)
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………………………………………………………………………………………………..……
……………………………………………………………………………………………………..
(ii) Copper hydroxide dissolves in excess ammonia solution (1mark)
………………………………….………………………………………………………………..…
……………………………………..………………………………………………………………..
(c) A hydrated salt has the following composition by mass. Iron 20.2%, Oxygen 23%, Sulphur
11.5% and water 45.3%. Its relative formula mass is 278. Determine the formula of the
hydrated salt. (Fe = 56, S = 32, O = 16, H = 1) (3marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(d) Describe how a solid sample of lead (II) chloride can be prepared using the following reagents:-
dilute nitric acid, dilute hydrochloric acid and lead carbonate. (3marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………..…
………………………………………………………………………………………………..……
……………………………………………………………………………………………..………
…………………………………………………………………………………………..…………
…………………….………………………………………………………………………………..
6. A student set-up the apparatus shown below in order to determine the percentage by volume of
oxygen in the air. Study it and answer the questions that follow.
Phosphorus

Measuring
cylinder

Wire

Water

Start of experiment End of experiment

(a)(i) State one observations made in the measuring cylinder at the start of the experiment.
Explain. (2mks)
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………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(ii) The PH of the contents of the beaker at the end of the experiment was found to be 4.
Explain the observation. (2marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(iii) The volume of air in the measuring cylinder at the end f the experiment was measured.
study the data given below and answer the questions that follow.
-Volume of air at start of the experiment = 30.65 cm3
-Volume of air at the end of the experiment = 24.28 cm3
Determine the percentage volume of oxygen in the air. (2marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(b)State and explain the observation made when a mixture of zinc powder and copper (II) oxide
is heated in a crucible. (2marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(c) State two air pollutants produced by motor vehicles. (1mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(d) A group of students burnt a piece of magnesium ribbon in air and its ash collected in a
Petri dish. The ash was found to comprise of magnesium Oxide and Magnesium nitride
(i) Write an equation for the reaction leading to formation of the magnesium nitride. (1mk)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………..…………………………………………………………………………………..
(ii) A little water was added to the products in the Petri dish. State and explain the observation
made. (2mks)

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…………………………………………………………………………………………………..…
………………………………………………………………………………………………..
(iii) A piece of blue litmus paper was dipped into the solution formed in (b) above. State the
observation made. (1mk)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………..…………………………………………………………………………………………..
7(a) A compound has an empirical formula C3H6O and a relative formula mass of 116.
i) Determine its molecular formula. (H =1, C = 12, O =16) (2 marks)
…………………………………….…………………………………………………………..……
…………………….………………………………………………………………………………..
ii) Calculate the percentage composition of carbon by mass in the compound. (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………….…
……………………………………………………………………………………………………..
(b) Study the scheme below and answer the questions that follow.

CH2 - CH2
Z
CH2BrCH3 c ess
Pr o
HBr
Step I Step III
H2C = C H2 Process L
F2 CH 3CH 2OH
Compound V Step IV
Step II
E
MnO-2 H +

Substance U CH3 CH 2OH

Compound P
Step V N
I. State the conditions for process in step V. (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………..……………………………..………………………………………………
II. Name the reaction represented by process.
i) Z (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
….….………………………………………………………………………………………………..

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ii) L (1mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
iii) E 1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
iv) N (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
III. Draw and name the structure of the substance.
i) V (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
….…….……………………………………………………………………………………………..
ii) P (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………..…………………………………………………………………………………………..
iii) U (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………..…………………………………………………………………………..

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233/3 - CHEMISTY - PAPER 3

APRIL. 2024- hours

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education

(K.C.S.E.)PRE-MOCK 2024

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
• Write your name, admission number and class.
• Answer all the Questions in the spaces provided.
• You are not allowed to start working with the apparatus for the first 15 minutes of the 2 ¼
hours allowed for this paper. This time is to enable you to read the Question paper and make
sure you have all the chemicals and apparatus you need.
• All working must be clearly shown where necessary.
• Mathematical tables and electronic calculators may be used.
• This paper consists of 6 printed pages.
• Candidates should check to ascertain that all pages are printed as indicated and that no
Questions are missing.
FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY

Question Maximum Score Candidate’s Score

1 19

2 12
3 09

TOTAL 40

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Question 1
You are provided with the following:
• Solution A ; Hydrochloric acid
• Solution B; 0.03M sodium hydroxide
• Solution C, Containing 15.74g of Na2CO3. XH2O in 250ml of the solution.
You are required to determine: -
i) The concentration of solution A
ii) The value of X in the carbonate Na2CO3. XH2O

PROCEDURE A
➢ Fill the burette with solution A. Using clean pipette, place 25.0cm3 of solution B into a 250ml
conical flask.
➢ Add 2 drops of phenolphthalein indicator and titrate with solution A. Record your results in
table I below. Repeat the experiment two more times and complete the table.
Table I (4mks)
I II III

Final burette reading (cm3)

Initial burette reading (cm3)

Volume of solution A (cm3) used

a) Determine the :-
(i) Average volume of solution A used. (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
(ii) Number of moles of sodium hydroxide in 25 cm3 of solution B used. (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………….

(iii) Number of moles of acid in volume of solution A used. (1mk)

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…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
(iv) Concentration of solution A in moles per litre. (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………..……………………………………………………………………….
PROCEDURE B
➢ Using a clean pipette, place 25.0 cm3 of solution C into a 250ml volumetric flask. Add about
100cm3 of distilled water. Shake well and add more distilled water to make up to the mark.
Label this solution D
➢ Fill the burette with solution A. Using a clean pipette, place 25 cm3 of solution D into a
conical flask. Add 2 drops of methyl orange indicator and titrate with solution A. Record
your results in the table II.
➢ Repeat the titration two more times and complete table II.
Table II (4mks)
I II III

Final burette reading (cm3)

Initial burette reading (cm3)

Volume of solution A (cm3) used

b) Determine the: -
(i) Average volume of solution A used. (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
(ii) Moles of the acid of solution A that reacted with the carbonate solution D. (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
(iii) Number of moles of the carbonate in 25 cm3 of solution D used. (1mk)

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…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
(iv) Number of moles of carbonate in 250cm3 of solution D (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
(v) Concentration of carbonate solution C in moles per litre. (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
(vi) Concentration of the carbonate solution C in grams per litre. (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
(vii) Value of X in Na2CO3. XH2O (H=1.0, C=12.0, O=16.0 Na=23.0) (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………

Question 2
You are provided with solid M. Use it to carry out the tests below. Write the observations and
inferences in the space provided.
(i) Place solid M in a boiling tube and add about 10cm3 of distilled water. Divide the resulting
solution into five portions
Observation Inference

(1mk)
(1mk)

(ii) To the first portion add sodium hydroxide solution dropwise till excess.

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Observation Inference

(1mk)
(1mk)

(iii) To the second portion add aqueous ammonia solution dropwise till excess.
Observation Inference

(1mk)
(1mk)

(iv) To the third portion add 3 drops of sodium chloride solution.

Observation Inference

(1mk)
(1mk)
(v) To the fourth portion add about 2cm3 of HNO3 acid.
Observation Inference

(1mk)
(1mk)

(vi) To the fifth portion add 3 drops of lead (II) nitrate solution and warm.
Observation Inference

(1mk)
(1mk)

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Question 3
You are provided with solid G. Use it to carry out the tests below. Write the observations and
inferences in the space provided.
(a) Using a clean metallic spatula, take one third of solid G and place on Bunsen burner flame.
Observation Inference

(1mk)
(1mk)

(b) Place the remaining solid G in a boiling tube. Add 10cm3 of distilled water and shake the
mixture until all the solid dissolves. Divide the resulting solution into four portions.
To the first portion add 3 drops of acidified potassium manganate (vii)
Observation Inference

(1mk)
(1mk)

(c) To the second portion add 3drops of bromine water

Observation Inference

(1mk)
(1mk)

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(d) To the fourth portion dip universal indicator paper and determine the pH of the solution
Observation Inference

(1mk)
(1mk)

(e) To the third portion add solid sodium hydrogen carbonate

Observation Inference

(½mk)
(½mk)

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- COMPUTER STUDIES - PAPER 1

APRIL. 2024- 2 ½ hours

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education (K.C.S.E.)PRE-MOCK 2024

Name--------------------------------------------------------------ADM--------------------------------
DATE…………………………..………..SIGN………………………….…………..TARGET…………..INDEX………………………….

Instructions to candidates

• Write your name and Index No in the spaces provided above.

• Sign and Write the date of the examination in the spaces provided above.
• This paper consists of two sections: A and B
• Answer all the questions in section A
• Answer question 16 and any other three questions from section B
• All answers must be written in the spaces provided on the question paper.

For Examiner’s Use Only

Section Question Candidate’s Score

A 1 – 15
16

B 17
18
19
20
Total Score

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1. Identify three advantages of using computers in banking (3mks)

2. List three facilities that will ensure proper ventilation in a computer lab (3mks)

3. Give two main functions of a computer input device. (2mks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

4. What are turnaround documents? (1mk)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

5. Using examples, distinguished between:

(i) Primary and secondary storage (1mk)

(ii) Fixed and removable disks (1mk)

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6. Ann connected new multimedia speakers to her computer and tried to play her favorite music CD, but
no sound came out. Suggest two problems that might have occurred (2mks)

7. Explain the following considerations when purchasing software (2mks)

(i) Authenticity

(ii) Portability

8. Give three ways in which operating systems are classified into (3mks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

9. Peter tried to retrieve a document file following all the steps correctly. The filename did not
appear in file list box. State three causes for this. (3mks)

10. State the use of the following objects in databases. (3mks)

i) Tables

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………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

ii) Forms
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..

iii) Query
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

11. i. Explain the meaning of the following as used in computer programming. (2mks)
a. Syntax
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

b. Semantic
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………….

ii.List three ways in which data integrity can be compromised. (3mks)

12. i. Mobile phones have become common ICT devices. Explain some of the powerful capabilities
that come with some of the latest embedded operating systems (3mks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

ii. List two disadvantages of fiber optic cable over twisted wires. (2mks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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13. Describe any two types of data processing methods. (2mks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

14. State two advantages of USB port over the parallel port (2mks)

15. Differentiate between the terms signal Attenuation and Noise as used in data communication.
(2mks)

SECTION B

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Answer question 16 and any other three questions in this section

16. a) State three advantages of low -level languages (3mks)

b) Give two differences between a compiler and an interpreter. (2mks)

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c) i) Study this flowchart and use it to answer the questions that follow.

Start

S=1

Y = Y/10

S=S+1

Y < 10? NO

YES
S

Stop

I. Give the expected output from the flowchart when the value of Y is:

(i) 48 (1 marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………….……………………………………………………………………………..

(ii) 9170 (2 marks)

(iii) – 800 (2 marks)

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…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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II. Write the pseudo code that can be used to create a program represented by the above Flowchart.

17. a. Use two complement to perform the following arithmetic operations

i) 1510 -1210 (4mks)

ii) 101112- 10112 (3mks)

b) 10112 is a ones complement binary representation of negative number using four bits work out the
likely positive equivalent in base 10. (4mks)

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c) Convert the decimal fraction 10.37510 into its binary equivalent (3mks)
Whole numbers

d) Assuming the existence of base five, list the numbers used in the number system (1mk)

18. a) State and explain two disadvantages that will come about if a network was to be installed in your
school. (4mks)

b) Discuss two disadvantages of wireless networks. (4mks)

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c) Write the following abbreviation in full. (2mks)

i) F.T.P

ii) H.T.T.P

d) With the aid of a diagram, discuss Hybrid topology. (4mks)

e) Discuss four advantages of network. (2mks)

19. a) Explain why a computer is able to display the correct time and date when it has just been
switched on. (2mks)

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b) Discuss two types of special memories found in a Computer System. (4mks)

c) i) Define a Bus with reference to a computer system. (1mk)

ii) List two examples of buses. (2mks)

d) Distinguish between a power cable and interface cable. (2mks)

e) Differentiate between the different types of RAM. (4mks)

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20. a) i) Define a system. (1mk)
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ii) Explain system entropy. (2mks)

b) State three circumstances that can lead to development of information systems (3mks)

c) Distinguish parallel changes over from straight change over as used in system implementation.
(2mks)

d) Discuss two fact finding methods. (4mks)

e) Differentiate an open system from a closed system. (2mks)

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f) List two responsibilities of a system analyst. (2mks)

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451/2 - COMPUTER STUDIES - PAPER
2
APRIL. 2024- 2 ½ hours

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education

(K.C.S.E.)PRE-MOCK 2024

Name-----------------------------------------------------------------ADM------------------------------------

DATE………………………..SIGN……………………..TARGET……..INDEX…………….

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES.

● Type your name and index number at the top right hand corner
of each printout
● Sign and write the date of the examination below the name and
index number on each printout
● Write your name and Admission number on the compact disks
● Write the name and version of the software used for each
question attempted in the answer sheet.
● Passwords should not be used while saving in the compact disks.
● Answer all the questions
● All questions carry equal marks
● All answers must be saved in your compact disks
● Make a printout of the answers on the answer sheets provided.
● Hand in all the printouts and the compact disks.

COMPUTER PAPER TWO

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Question 1

1. Create a folder on the desktop called MAVUNO COMPANY LIMITED. (50 marks)
(i) Using spreads sheet program enter the following data and Save the file as mavuno payroll
inside the folder created above.(10 marks)
(ii) Insert printable borders(2 marks)
(iii) Arrange the department from A to Z (2 marks)
(iv) Rename sheet one as original.(1 mark)

(v) Copy original sheet to sheet two and rename it as payroll, calculate the following ;(12
marks)
(a) Basic pay
(b) Gross pay
(c) Tax deductions
(d) Nssf contributions
(e) Allowances
(f) Net pay
Nb: Use the formula below
BASIC PAY =HOURS WORKED *HOURLY RATE
ALLOWANCE ARE ALLOCATED AS 10% 0F BASIC PAY
Gross pay =BASIC PAY + ALLOWANCE
TAX DEDUCTION is calculates as 20% of the GROSS PAY
NET PAY=GROSS PAY-DEDUCTIONS

(vi) Copy names and basic pay to sheet three rename sheet three as chart.(2 marks)
a) Create column chart using employee’s names, basic pay and allowances.(3 marks)
b) Set the chart title as payroll at the top 2022(2 marks)
c) Insert legend at the bottom(1 mark)
d) Add data labels at the top(1 mark)

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e) Format chart border as; solid line, solid color-red, transparency-50%.(3 marks)
(vii) Copy pno, name,gender,department and netpay from payroll sheet to calculate the
following ;
(2 marks)
a) Calculate the subtotals of each department and grand total, save the sheet as
subtotals (4 marks)
b) Freeze the header(1 mark)

(viii) Print the following; (4 marks)

(a) Original worksheet
(b) Payroll worksheet
(c) Chart worksheet
(d) Subtotals worksheet

Question 2
Design a publication to appear exactly as shown in the next page using the following
instructions.

(20marks)
a) (i) Launch the DPT package and set measurements to centimeters and the margins
2cm all round
(ii) Paper size A4 portrait.
b) Save your work as “Modern computers”
(2marks)
c) The heading “Introduction to computers The Basics” to have the following styles.
(5marks)
● Centered across the page
● Font face
● Font size: 18
● Background Texture: Granite
● Format the drop cap in the first line as it appears
d) The heading “Hardware” in the publication to have the styles.
(5marks)
● Font face: Arial Narrow
● Font size: 16
● Text weight: Bold
● Character spacing: 180%
● Alignment: Centered
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e) The text under the heading “Hardware” to be in two columns and having the following
styles.
(3marks)
➢ Font size: 12
➢ Dashed outline on the first column
➢ First character of the first column to be dropped by 4 lines as shown.
f) Insert the banner bearing the text auxiliary as it appears.
(3marks)
g) - Enter the text below the banner in three columns as shown
(4marks)
- Insert lines between the three columns
(3marks)
- Type and format the text below the three columns exactly as it appears
(3marks)
h) Print the publication.

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313/1 - CRE - PAPER 1

APRIL. 2024- 2 ½ hours

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education (K.C.S.E.)PRE-MOCK 2024

Name-----------------------------------------------------------------ADM-----------------------------
DATE……………………………………..SIGN………………….………..TARGET………………..INDEX…………………………….….

Instructions to Candidates:
1. The question paper has six questions.
2. Answer any five questions.

FOR EXAMINERS USE ONLY

QUESTION MARKS

GRAND TOTAL

Questions

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1. (a) Describe the first account of creation according to Genesis 1. (8 marks)
(b) Outline the meaning of the Biblical accounts of creation according to Genesis 1&2
(7 marks)
(c) State five ways in which Christians continue with God's creation. (5 marks)

2. (a) Outline seven promises that God gave to Abraham during his call. (7 marks)
(b) Why was Moses a suitable leader to the Israelites (8 marks)
(c) State the leadership qualities that a Christian can learn from Moses. (5 marks)

3. (a) State six reasons for Kingship in Israel. (6 marks)

(b) Explain the significance of David as an ancestor of Jesus to Christians. (8 marks)
(c) State six lessons Christians learn from the failures of King Saul. (6 marks)

4. (a) Describe the evils that Prophet Amos condemned in Israel. (8 marks)
(b) Explain Prophet Amos teaching on hypocritical religion in Israel. (7 marks)
(c) State the ways through which Christians fight hypocrisy in our churches today.
(5 marks)

5. (a) Describe the personal life of Prophet Jeremiah. (8 marks)

(b) State the circumstances that led the Israelites to be taken to exile in Babylon during the time
of Prophet Jeremiah. (7 marks)
(c) State the relevance of Prophet Jeremiah's suffering to Christians today. (5 marks)

6. (a) Give reasons why pregnancy before marriage is rare in traditional African Communities.
(7 marks)
(b) State the importance of bride wealth in the traditional African Communities.
(5 marks)
(c) Explain the socio-cultural changes that have taken place in traditional African Communities
in Kenya today. (8 marks)

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- CRE - PAPER 2

APRIL. 2024- 2 hours

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education

(K.C.S.E.)PRE-MOCK 2024

Name-----------------------------------------------------------------ADM------------------------------------

DATE………………………..SIGN……………………..TARGET……..INDEX…………….

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES:

1. Answer any five questions in the answer sheet provided.

2. Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that all pages are printed and no
question are missing.

FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY

QUESTION CANDIDATE’S SCORE

1
2
3
4
5
6
Total score

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1. (a). Basing your answer on the infancy stories, in Luke 1:5-56, describe Mary’s visit to
Elizabeth.
(7 marks)
(b). Describe the annunciation of the birth of Jesus by Angel Gabriel as recorded in Luke
1:26-38
(8 marks)
(c). State lessons that Christians learn from the magnificat. (5 marks)
2. (a). Narrate the Baptism of Jesus on river Jordan. (Luke 3:21-22 (6 marks)
(b). Identify four teachings of John the Baptist (8 marks)
(c). Why are Christians finding it difficult to apply the teachings of John the Baptist in their
lives.
(6 marks)
3. (a). Describe the healing of the ten lepers. (7 marks)
(b). Explain four teachings from the triumphant entry of Jesus into Jerusalem. (8 marks)
(c). State five lessons that Christians learn from the suffering and death of Jesus. (5 marks)
4. (a). Describe the unity of believers as expressed in the image of the body of Christ. (8 marks)
(b). Outline St. Paul’s teaching on how the gifts of the Holy Spirit should be used in the
church.
(7 marks)
(c). How are the gifts of the Holy spirit misused in the church today. (5 marks)
5. (a). Identify five sources of Christian ethics. (5 marks)
(b). Explain the Christian understanding of marriage. (7 marks)
(c). State the problems related to family life today. (8 marks)

6. (a). Outline seven moral duties of employers to employees. (7 marks)

(b). Mention seven factors that determine a just wage. (7 marks)

(c). Show how retrenchment of workers affect their families. (6 marks)

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- ENGLISH - PAPER 1
APRIL. 2024- 2 ½ hours

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education

(K.C.S.E.)PRE-MOCK 2024

Name-----------------------------------------------------------------ADM------------------------------------

DATE………………………..SIGN……………………..TARGET……..INDEX…………….

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES

*Write your name and admission number in the spaces provided above.

*Sign and write the date of examination in the spaces provided above.

*Answer all the questions in this paper.

*All your answers must be written in the spaces provided in the question paper.

*This paper consists of 7 printed pages.

*Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that all the pages are printed as
indicated and that no questions are missing.

*Candidates must answer the questions in English

FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY

Questions 1 2 3

Maximum score 20 10 30

Candidates score

This paper consists of 8 printed pages. Candidates should check to ascertain that all pages
are printed as indicated and that no questions are missing.

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1. FUNCTIONAL WRITING
(20mks)
Drama Club, for which you are a member, needs to raise a sum of Kshs 20,000/= to aid them
on their trip to Muranga for a Drama Contest. To yours and the other members astonishment,
the school Principal has offered to give you Kshs 15,000/=.

a. Write a memorandum to the other club members inviting them to a meeting to discuss;

i) how to raise the remaining amount

ii) rehearsal for the contest (12 mks)

iii)Travelling logistics
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b.Write the Principal a note to sincerely thank him/her for his/her generosity. (8mks)
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2. CLOZE TEST

Read the passage below and fill each blank space with the most appropriate word. (10
marks)

It is an indisputable fact that agriculture (1) _______________ the backbone of the economy.
It is therefore (2) ________________ that we stop over-relying on the rain-fed agriculture.
Israel is a classic (3) ________________ of a country that has reclaimed its deserts and put
them (4) __________________ use. Land which was (5) _______________ ‘useless’ has
been turned around and (6) ____________________ useful. Egypt which solely depends on
(7) ______________________ River Nile is a leading exporter of fruits and cereals. For our
country to (8) _______________________ self-sufficiency in food production and to get a
(9) ________________________ for export, land should be utilized to the (10)
_________________. This is only possible with irrigation.

3. ORAL SKILLS (30 marks)

Read the following poem then answer the questions that follow.

I can see the rain

As I walk along the lane

I can hear the lion roar

Just as lions did of yore

I can learn to run a race

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And I can ravel out some lace

I can fly and I can row

Let my rich imaginations flow

i)Comment briefly on the rhyme scheme used in the poem. (2mks)

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ii)Identify any two pairs of rhyming words. (2mks)

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iii)Apart from rhyme, how else has the poet achieved rhythm. (2mks)

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iv)How would you effectively perform line 7 in the poem above. (2mks)

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b) Identify the silent letters in each of the following words

(4mks)

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i) comb………………………………………....……………………………………………….

ii) Parliament ………………………………….……………………………………………….

iii) Leopard…………………………………………………….……………………………….

iv) gnaw……………………………………………………………...…………………………

c)The words in bold indicates the stressed word in the sentences below. Briefly explain
what each sentence mean . (3mks)

i)The lady in a red dress lost her purse.

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ii)The lady in a red dress lost her purse.

iii) The lady in a red dress lost her purse.

d) State what type of intonation you would use in the following sentences. (3 marks)

i)When were you born? ……………………………………………...………..……………….

ii)Did you complete your work? ……………………………………………..………………..

iii) What a beautiful car you have bought!.................................................................................

e) Read the genre below and answer the questions that follow. (6mks)

The great Greek grape growers grow great Greek grapes.

i) Classify the above subgenre. (1mk)

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ii) Identify two sound patterns used in the above genre. (4mks)

iii) State one functions of the above sub-genre. (1mk)

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f) You are attending an English symposium for all students in your sub county. When a
student from your school takes the podium, you notice that he/she is afraid. Give three
indicators of this behavior and suggest how it could be overcome. (6mks)

XXXXXXX This is the last printed page XXXXXXXX

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- - ENGLISH PAPER 2
APRIL. 2024- 2 ½ hours

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education

(K.C.S.E.)PRE-MOCK 2024

Name-----------------------------------------------------------------ADM------------------------------------

DATE………………………..SIGN……………………..TARGET……..INDEX…………….

Name……………………………………..……………………… Adm. No.…………

Class…………………………………………………Candidate’s sign……………………

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES

Write your name, school and Index number in the spaces provided above.

Answer ALL the questions in the spaces provided

For Examiners Use Only

FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY

Questions 1 2 3 4

Maximum score 20 25 20 15

Candidates score

This paper consists of 12 printed pages. Candidates should check the question paper to
ensure that all pages are printed as indicated and no questions are missing.

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1.Read the following passage and then answer the questions that follow. (2OMKS)

When Google hosted a boot camp in California this month for its Android operating system,
there were some new faces in the room: auto manufacturers. They made the trip to learn
about Android Auto, a new dashboard system meant to let a smartphone power a car’s center
screen. Tasks as varied as navigation, communication and music apps, all constantly talking
to the cloud. And to the driver. A similar scene is playing out just a few miles down the road
at Apple, where a rival system, Car Play, has been developed for iPhone users.

After years of being treated as an interesting side business, autos have become the latest
obsession for Silicon Valley, with Apple assigning about 200 engineers to work on electric
vehicle technology and Google saying it envisions the public using driverless cars within five
years. But nowhere is that obsession playing out more immediately than in the battle to
develop the next generation of cars’ dashboard systems.

In the coming weeks and months, dealerships around the country will begin selling vehicles
capable of running Android Auto, Apple Car Play, or both. The systems go far beyond
currently available Bluetooth pairing for playing music or making a hands-free call, and
allow for Google’s or Apple’s operating system to essentially take over the center screen and
certain buttons within the car. “Consumers have spoken,” said John Maddox, assistant
director of the University of Michigan’s Mobility Transformation Center.

“They expect to have coordination between their phone and their vehicle.” Here at Google’s
headquarters, Android Auto is about to make its debut in Americans’ cars after two years in
development. Plug in a smartphone with a USB cord and the system powers up on a car’s
screen. The phone’s screen, meanwhile, goes dark, not to be touched while driving. Apple’s
Car Play works similarly, with bubbly icons for phone calls, music, maps, messaging and
other apps appearing on the car’s center screen. (Apple declined to comment for this article.)

While the idea of constantly connected drivers zipping along roads raises concerns about
distracted driving, both companies say their systems are designed with the opposite goal: to
make cellphone-toting drivers safer. “We looked at what people do with their phones in the

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car, and it was scary,” said Andrew Brenner, who heads Google’s Android Auto team. “You
want to say to them, ‘Yikes, no, don’t do that.’”

Brenner said his team tried to figure out how to minimize distraction during tasks people
frequently do while driving, while also deciding what should be prevented in the car
altogether. Google even built its own driver-distraction lab, to test different variations.

Android Auto, for example, has no “back” button like the smartphone version. No “recents”
button either. Google Maps has been adjusted to make fonts bigger and streets less detailed,
for easier reading while driving. No action should take more than two seconds — consistent
with the Transportation Department’s voluntary guidelines. “Things that we don’t show are
just as important as what we do show,” Brenner said. Music is most definitely in. Streaming
video? Most definitely not.

Most social media will also be blocked, and texts can be sent only with voice commands.
Apps on the screen are optimized for speed: glance, touch and eyes back to the road. “It’s
these little glances at the screen that people do in a car,” he said.

“We want something that’s very glanceable, that can be seen and done quickly.” When the
Android Auto project began, it included a core group of automakers like General Motors,
Audi, Honda and Hyundai. Now, as it prepares for its debut, roughly two dozen car brands
have signed on to offer it soon. Apple has teamed up with roughly the same number of
brands, many of which will offer both systems. Most automakers are staying mum on their
exact start dates, but Hyundai is expected to act shortly, and Volkswagen has indicated
availability for its next Golf. GM has said the same about its Spark subcompact. One of the
most widespread adopters will be Ford, which this year will begin offering both Android
Auto and Car Play in conjunction with the revamping of the automaker’s much-criticized
Sync system.

By the end of 2016, they will be available on all Fords sold in the United States. “We don’t
want people to have to make a vehicle choice based on which mobile phone they have,” said

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Don Butler, Ford’s executive director for connected vehicles and services. “We want to
accommodate all customers and their devices.”

Fiat-Chrysler, considered to have one of the better infotainment platforms on the market, has
signed on to support Google’s and Apple’s systems. But a bit of lament is evident. “We’re
confident that our systems deliver a good experience for our customers,” said Eric Mayne, a
spokesman at Chrysler. “But we’re not standing still either.”

a)Why did Auto manufacturing companies make the trip to California? ( 2mks)

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b)What according to the passage shows the seriousness that companies have autos have
attached to autos?

c)What does the expression “Consumers have spoken,” imply? (2mks)

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d)Briefly explain how the system works? (2mks)

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e)Why in your opinion do social media have to be blocked? ( 3mks

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f)In point form, summarize how developers have tried to minimize distractions that may arise
out of the new developments. (5mks)

g)Rewrite the following in reported speech. (1 mark)

“We’re confident that our systems deliver a good experience for our customers,” said Eric
Mayne, a spokesman at Chrysler.
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…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…..…..........................................................................................................................................

h)What do the following words mean as used in the passage? (3 marks)

i)Debut ………………………………………………………………………………………....

ii)Mum ………………………………………………………………………………………....
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iii) Infotainment ………………………………..……………………………………................

2. Read the excerpt below and then answer the questions that follow. (25 marks)

I'm not sure. Perhaps it's fun," she said.

"Lying is fun?"
"l said I'm not sure. Now you did a good turn for me downstairs. They say one good turn
deserves another. So, in retum, can I tell you something I'm not yet sure I should tell you?"
'Sure. Go ahead."
"They have this youth at the VOA. His name is Nick Sentinel. What does he do? He snoops on
wireless transmissions, with a machine he calls-wait for it-the "Silent Listener'. While I was there
this moming...'
"While you were where? At the VOA? Yesterday you said you work for the Gambian News.
Were you lying? After all, you've just said lying might be fun."
"Will you let me finish?"
"Look. I really do work for the Gambian News. "
"Skip the lies! You're a CIA agent, aren't you?"
"l won't answer that."
"Because you are or because you can't?"
"Neither." "Isn't that exactly what you would say if you were?"
"All right, I will answer it."
"Believe me. I am a reporter for the Gambian News. Normally, that is. But, since right after our
interview yesterday, I am on loan to the VOA. If you must know, the VOA pays much better
than the Gambian News. Will the VOA take me for keeps? No. When the loan ends, it will be
thank you very much, Ms. McKenzie, but please go back to the Gambian News tomorrow and
start eating boiled dirt for breakfast, lunch and supper again• Are you happy now, Dr Afolabi?"
He did not answer.
a) Place this excerpt in its immediate context. (4 marks)
b) They say one good tum deserves another". What good tum did Dr. Afolabi do for Ms
Mckenzie? (2 marks)
c) Discuss one thematic concem brought out in the excerpt. (3 marks)
d) Identify and illustrate two styles used in the excerpt, (4 marks)

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e) What does a reporter-on-loan mean? (3 marks)
f) What does VOA stand for? (2 marks)
g) From the information in this excerpt, describe the character traits of Dr. Abiola. (4 marks)
h) Rewrite the sentence below beginning: ( It... )
When the loan ends, it will be thank you very much.
i) Give the meaning of the following words as used in the excerpt. (2 marks)
(i) Snoops
(ii) Tum

Questions:

i )Briefly describe what happens before the excerpt . (3marks)

ii) Identify and illustrate major themes evident in the excerpt . (4 marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………….…………
iii) In note form, state reasons why Krogstad says that he is prepared to fight for his small
post in the bank as if he was fighting for his life. (5mks)

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…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………….………
iv) How is Nora and Krogstad portrayed in the excerpt (4 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
v) Discuss any style used in the excerpt and show it's effectiveness (3mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………

vi) I shall be obliged to remind you of a few details.(Add a question tag) (1 mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………….………

vii) From your knowledge of the text, explain how Nora found herself in this predicament (3mks)

(i). Indiscretion
.....................................................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................................................

(ii). Compel
.....................................................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................................................

3.Read the oral poem below and answer the questions that follow.

The Crop Thieves

Tswiri tswiri! I the person, I suspect?

What have you heard that makes you suspicious?

I heard things said, rumours of weaver birds;

They ate corn in Lesiba’s field and finished it.

And when they left they sounded hummmmm-

They said, “Listen to the numerous weaver birds, sons of Mosima;s family.

Children of the horse that ate the courtyards and the times,

It is the numerous weaverbirds,

The grey ones that go about in swarms,

Children with the little red beaks,

Children that make a noise in the mimosa trees,

Tupu-tupu! The smoke comes out while the dew still glitters.

Howaaa! Sweaaa! – is heard in the early morning

They are finishing the corn, the numerous weaver birds.

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Children with the little red beaks.

At home, it is yo! yo!

The children are crying,

Their mothers have gone to the fields to the birds,

It is the Zulus that have entered the country,

Take axes and loop the tree branches,

Yo! This year we shall eat five,

We shall lack even a blue-tongued goat!

It is numerous weaverbirds, the grey ones that go about in swarms.

Questions
i)What kind of oral poem is this? (2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………

ii) Explain two functions of the above oral poem (2 marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………….………

…………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………….

iii) Identify and illustrate two oral features of this poem (4 marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………….……………

…………………………………………………………………………………………………

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…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………

iv) What does the poem tell us about the character trait of the weaverbirds. (2 marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………

v) Which lines show that people will keep on suffering if they don’t keep the birds away?
(2 marks)

……………………………………………………………………….…………………………

vi) Identify and illustrate two economic activities practiced in this community. (4 marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………

vii) What is the attitude of the singer towards the weaverbirds? (2 marks)

………………………………………………………………………………….………………

viii)Explain the meaning of the following lines as used in the song. ( 2marks)
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We shall lack even a blue-tongued goat.

ix) It is the Zulus that have entered the country.

…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………….……………………………………………………

4.GRAMMAR. (15MKS)

a)Rewrite the following sentences according to the instructions given after each. Do not
change the meaning. (4mks)

i) Juma did not do the assignment. He did not report to the teacher. (Rewrite into one
sentence using a correlative conjunction)

ii) Complete with the correct alternative.

They won the match because they had enough...........................................................(Practice/practise)

iii) I like to swim. ( change the infinitive into a gerund)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
iv) My examination results were released only after I had cleared the fee balance.( Begin:
Not until.............)

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…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….……………………………………………..

b) Fill in the blank spaces with the correct form of the word in brackets. (3mks)

i)He was relieved when the three ……………………….………………. left his compound.
(passerby)

ii) The inmates took advantage of the …………………….………………….to escape from

custody. (confuse)

iii)The film, though poor in artistic value, was a …………………………. success. (finance)

c) Complete the following sentences using an appropriate preposition. (3mks)

i) It is improper to hurl abuses ……………………………………………….……….. people.

ii) The principal was very happy …………………………………...…………… her students.

iii)Mueni and her family had lived in Mombasa …………………….………… twenty years.

d)Replace the underlined phrasal verb in each of the following sentences with an
appropriate word. (3mks)

i) Juma always calls in on us during meals.

ii) We felt completely let down by her performance.

XXXXXXX THIS IS THE LAST PRINTED PAGE

XXXXXXXX

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101/3 - ENGLISH - PAPER 3
APRIL. 2024- 2 ½ hours

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education

(K.C.S.E.)PRE-MOCK 2024

Name-----------------------------------------------------------------ADM------------------------------------

DATE………………………..SIGN……………………..TARGET……..INDEX…………….

INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES

Answer three questions only

Questions one and two are compulsory.

In question three choose only one of the optional texts, for which you have been
prepared.

Where a candidate presents work on more that one optional text, only the first to
appear will be marked

Each of your essay must not exceed 450 wor

This paper consists of 2 printed pages. Candidates should check to ascertain that all
pages are printed as indicated and that no questions are missing.

Answer Three Questions Only

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1. Imaginative Composition (20mks)
Either
Write a composition ending with the following statement:
............“Given another chance I would have done things differently."

Write a composition supporting or opposing this statement:

“Both boys and girls have equal rights to their parent’s property.”

2.The Compulsory Set Text. (20mks)

THE SAMARITAN BY JOHN LARA (20 marks)

Discuss the theme of Religion as depicted in the play, The Samaritan, by John
Lara

3.The Optional Set Texts. (20mks)

Answer any one of the following three questions.
Either
The short story: A Silent Song and Other Stories.

Drawing illustrations from MejaMwangi's an incident in the park, write an essay to

discuss the problems of urbanization

An Artist of the floating world by Kazuo Ishiguro.

The memory of the past can lead to a change of a life style. Justify the statement.

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PAPER 1 CONF

APRIL. 2024- 2 ½ hours

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education

(K.C.S.E.)PRE-MOCK 2024

GEOGRAPHY CONFIDENTIAL
- Provide enough copies of Kisumu East maps sheet 116/2 used in KCSE 2022 December.

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312/1 - GEOGRAPHY - PAPER 1

APRIL. 2024-

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education

(K.C.S.E.)PRE-MOCK 2024

Name-----------------------------------------------------------------ADM------------------------------------

DATE………………………..SIGN……………………..TARGET……..INDEX…………….

TIME: 23/4 HOURS

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES

• This paper consists of two sections.

• Answer all questions in section A .
• In section B answer question 6 and other two questions..

FOR EXAMINERS USE ONLY

SECTION QUESTION MARKS SCORE
A 1-5 25
6 25
7 25
B 8 25
9 25
10 25
TOTAL MARKS 100

TOTAL SCORE

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SECTION A: Answer all questions in this section
1. a) State two sub- branches of physical geography. (2 mks)
b) Give three reasons as to why it is important to study Geography. (3 mks)
2. a) Differentiate between seismic focus and epicenter. (2 mks)
b) Give three causes of earthquakes. (3 mks)
3. a) Name two major types of vegetation zones in the world. (2 mks)
b) State three characteristics of coniferous forest. (3 mks)
4. a) The diagram below shows a water cycle. Use it to answer the question that follow.

i. Name the processes labelled. (3 mks)

A_________________________
B_________________________
C_________________________

ii. State two factors influencing the amount of surface run-off. (2 mks)
5. a) What is a lake? (2 mks)
b) Give three reasons why some lakes in the Kenyan Rift valley are salty. (3 mks)

SECTION B
Answer question 6 and any other two questions in this section
6. Study the map of Kisumu 1:50,000 (sheet 116/2) provided and answer the following
questions.

a. i) Give the longitudinal extent of the area covered by the map? (1 mk)
ii) Name the three human-made features in the grid square 0193. (3 mks)
iii) Identify two methods used to show relief on the map. (2 mks)
iv) Calculate the area of Kisumu town. Give your answer in square kilometres.(2 mks)
v) Name two types of natural vegetation. (2 mks)

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b. Draw a square 10cm by 10cm to represent the area enclosed by easting 00 and 10, and
Northings 80 and 90. (1 mk)
On it mark and name the following
• Air photo principal point (04) (1 mk)
• Chinga market (1 mk)
• All weather road bound surface. (1 mk)
• River Ombeyi. (1 mk)
c. Describe the distribution of settlement in the area covered by the map. (4 mks)
d. Citing evidence from the map, give three economic activities carried out in the area by
the map. (6 mks)
7. a)i) Differentiate between a rock and a mineral. (2 mks)
ii) Describe the following characteristics of minerals.
a) Colour (1 mk)
b) Hardness (2 mks)
b)i) What are igneous rocks. (2 mks)
ii) State three notable differences between plutonic and volcanic rocks. (3 mks)
c)Describe the formation of the following rocks.
i. Mechanically formed sedimentary rocks. (3 mks)
ii. Chemically formed sedimentary rocks. (3 mks)
d(i) Identify the missing type of rocks. (3 mks)
Original rock Metamorphic rock

Limestone (i)

(ii) Graphite

Granite (iii)

ii) Supposing you were to carry out a field study on rocks at the Kenyan Coast.
a. State two reasons as to why you would ask for permission from the school
administration. (2 mks)
b. What reasons would you give for the widespread at sedimentary rocks at the Coastal
plain. (3 mks)

8. a)i) Differentiate between orogeny and orogenesis. (2 mks)

ii) State three factors that influence folding. (3 mks)
b)i) Apart from Recumbent fold name three types of folds. (3 mks)
ii) With the aid of a well labeled diagrams describe how a recumbent fold is formed.
(6 mks)
c)Name three features formed by folding. (3 mks)
d) Explain four positive effects of folding to human activities. (8 mks)
9. a) i) State three sources of ocean salts. (3 mks)
ii) Name two types of tides. (2 mks)
b)With the aid of a well labeled diagrams describe how a stack is formed. (8 mks)

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c)i) Name two types of submerged highland coasts. (2 mks)
ii) State two factors influencing deposition by ocean waves. (2 mks)
d)Explain four significance of oceans to human activities. (8 mks)

10. a)i) Differentiate between soil profile and soil catena. (2 mks)
ii) Draw a well labeled diagram of a mature soil profile. (5 mks)
b)i) Other than topography name three factors that influence formation of soil.
(3 mks)
ii) Explain how topography influence formation of soil. (3 mks)
iii) List three characteristics of desert soils. (3 mks)
c(i) Give three types of soil erosion. (3 mks)
ii) Explain three effects of soil erosion on human activities. (6 mks)

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312/2 - GEOGRAPHY - PAPER 2

APRIL. 2024-

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education

(K.C.S.E.)PRE-MOCK 2024

Name-----------------------------------------------------------------ADM------------------------------------

DATE………………………..SIGN……………………..TARGET……..INDEX…………….

Time 2 hours 45 min.

INSTRUCTIONS TO STUDENTS
• This paper has two sections A and B
• Answer ALL the questions in section A. In section B answer questions 6 and any other
TWO questions.

FOR EXAMINERS’ USE

SECTION QUESTION SCORE

A 1-5
6

B 7

TOTAL

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SECTION A
1. a) What is mining? (2 mks)
b) State three ways in which minerals occur. (3 mks)
2. a) Name indigenous soft wood tree species found in the Kenyan forest. (2 mks)
b) Give three importance of agro forestry. (3 mks)
3. a) Distinguish between horticulture and market gardening. (2 mks)
b) Give three characteristics of horticultural farming in Kenya. (3 mks)
4. a) Name two major swamp areas that have been reclaimed in Kenya. (2 mks)
b) State three physical factors that influenced the location of Perkera irrigation scheme.
(3 mks)
5. a) Identify two types of tourism. (2 mks)
b) State three problems facing tourism in Kenya. (3 mks)
SECTION B
Answer question 6 and any two questions in this section
6. The table below shows the number of Zebu cattle in different countries in Kenya in
2014.
County Number of Zebu cattle
Isiolo 42500
Wajir 22600
Marsabit 20300
Mandera 15400
a) Draw a divided rectangle 15 cm long to represent the data above.(7 mks)
b) Calculate the range of the above data. (2 mks)
c) Give three advantages of using divided rectangle to represent data. (3 mks)
d) i) Give three reasons why nomadic pastoralists keep large herds of animals.(3 mks)
ii) Name two nomadic communities involved in beef cattle rearing in Kenya.
(2 mks)
iii) Explain four ways in which the government of Kenya assist nomadic pastoralists to
improve the quality of their livestock. (8 mks)

7. a(i) Name two major categories of minerals. (2 mks)

ii) Identify four factors that influence the occurrence of minerals. (4 mks)
b(i) Apart from shaft mining name three other methods of mining. (3 mks)
ii) Describe how shaft mining method is carried out. (6 mks)
ci) name two areas in South Africa where diamond is mined. (2 mks)
ii) Explain four ways in which diamond mining contributed to the economy of South
Africa. (8 mks)

8. a)i) Define re-afforestation. (2 mks)

ii) State four reasons why afforestation is encouraged in Kenya. (4 mks)
b(i) Name three provinces in Canada where forestry is practiced on a large scale. (3 mks)
ii) State four factors favouring exploitation of forest in Canada. (4 mks)
ci) Explain three factors that favour the growth of natural forest on the slopes of Mount Kenya.
(6 mks)

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ii) Explain three problems which hinder the Kenyan government efforts to manage and conserve
forest in Kenya. (6 mks)
9. a(i) Differentiate between land reclamation and land rehabilitation. (2 mks)
ii) Give four problems facing Mwea Tebere irrigation scheme. (4 mks)
b) i) Explain three ways in which land is being rehabilitated in Kenya. (6 mks)
ii) Name two projects in Netherlands which were aimed at reclaiming land from the sea.
(2 mks)
c) Describe the steps followed in reclaiming land for agricultural use in Netherlands.
(6 mks)
d) State five benefits which Kenya derives from irrigation farming. (5 mks)

10. The diagram below shows a fishing in the pacific ocean.

i. Identify the fishing ground shown above. (1 mk)

ii. Name three types of fish species found in the fishing ground above. (3 mks)

b) i)Differentiate between fishing and fisheries. (2 mks)

ii) Name two inland types of fisheries in Kenya. (2 mks)

c (i) Describe the long lining fishing method. (5 mks)

ii) Explain four physical factors that influenced development of fishing in Japan. (8 mks)

d)State four problems facing marine fishing in Kenya. (4 mks

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311/1 - HISTORY AND GOVERNMENT - PAPER 1

APRIL. 2024- 2 ½ hours

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education (K.C.S.E.)PRE-MOCK 2024

Name----------------------------------------------------------------ADM------------------------------
DATE…………………………………………..SIGN……………..……………..TARGET………...INDEX……………..…….

FOR EXAMINERS USE ONLY

Section A B C Total

Questions 1 - 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24
Marks
awarded

TIME: 2½ hours
HISTORY AND GOVERNMENT

Paper 1

Instructions to Candidates

(a) This paper consists of three sections A, B and C.

(b) Answer all questions in section A, three from Section B and two from Section C.

(d) This paper consists of three printed pages

(e) Candidates should check the question paper to ensure that all pages are printed as indicated and

no questions are missing

(f) Candidates should answer the questions in EnglisH

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Section A (25 marks)

Answer all questions in this section

1. Identify the main source of information on Kenyan communities. (1 mark)

2. State two natural reasons for the migration of Bantu into Kenya. (2 marks)

3. Identify the basic political unit of the Maasai during the pre-colonial period.
(1 mark)

4. Give two evidences that shows that Chinese arrived at the East African coast.
(2 marks)

5. Name one missionary society that worked in Kenya in the 19th century. (1 mark)

6. Identify two categories of people eligible for registration as Kenyan citizens.

(2 marks)
7. Define the term “National integration”. (1 mark)

8. State the main reason for the formation of Inter-Party Parliamentary Group caucus in
1997. (1 mark)
9. Give two ways in which the constitution of Kenya can be amended. (2 marks)

10. Name the document that contains children rights in Kenya. (1 mark)

11. Identify two communities that exhibited mixed reactions. (2 marks)

12. Give two reasons why oathing was administered to Agiryama warriors. (2 marks)

13. Identify two grievances of the Indian delegation that were addressed by Devonshire White
Paper of 1923. (2 marks)

14. State two features of Missionary education in Kenya during the colonial period.
(2 marks)
15. Give the main impact of Oliver Lyttelton constitution of 1954. (1 mark)

16. Identify one type of elections in Kenya. (1 mark)

17. Who is the administrative head of the Kenyan Judiciary? (1 mark)

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SECTION B (45 MARKS)

Answer three questions in this section

18 a) Mention five economic activities of the Maasai. (5mks)

b) Explain five effects of Bantu migration and settlement in Kenya (10mks)

19 a) State five reasons for the Portuguese success in the conquest of the Kenyan coast

(5mks)

b) Explain five social effects of the Indian ocean trade on the peoples of Kenyan coast
up to 1500AD (10mks)

20 a) State five duties of the British governor in Kenya during the colonial period (5mks)

b) Discuss five reasons why British colonized Kenya (10mks) 21.(a) State
five factors that facilitated the Mau Mau movement. (5mks)

(b) Explain five roles played by the African elected members of parliament in the struggle for
independence in Kenya. (10mks)

SECTION C 30 MARKS

Answer any two questions in this section

22. (a) Name Five different types of prisons in kenya 5 mks

(b) Explain Five factors that may undermine the administration of justice in kenya (10 mks)

23 (a) identify five categories of people whose personal freedom of movement is limited in kenya (5
mks)

(b) Explain five rights of a child as contained in the constitution of kenya (10 mks)
24 a) state five reasons why the independence of the judiciary is important in kenya (5 mks)

(b) Explain five factors that can interfere with free and fair elections in kenya (10 mks)

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311/2 - - HISTORY PAPER 2

APRIL. 2024- 2 ½ hours

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education (K.C.S.E.)PRE-MOCK 2024

FOR EXAMINERS USE ONLY

Section A B C Total

Questions 1 - 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24
Marks
awarded

TIME: 2½ hours

HISTORY AND GOVERNMENT

Paper 2

Instructions to Candidates

(a) This paper consists of three sections A, B and C.

(b) Answer all questions in section A, three from Section B and two from Section C.
(c) Answers to all the questions must be written legibly in the answer booklet provided.
(d) This paper consists of three printed pages
(e) Candidates should check the question paper to ensure that all pages are printed as indicated and
no questions are missing
(f) Candidates should answer the questions in English

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SECTION A 25 MARKS

ANSWER ALL QUESTIONS.

1. Give the realationship between history and government 1 mk

2. Identify two types of manuscripts which is likely to contain information on history and
government. 2 mks
3. Give one reason why Homo habilis was refered to as “able” man 1 mk
4. Name two sources of information on the creation theory 2 mks
5. Identify two types of regional trade (2 mks)
6. Give the main form of transport that was used in trans-saharan trade (1 mk)
7. State two characteristics of the macadamized roads in the 19th century (2 mks)
8. Identify one form of picture writing during the early civilizations (1 mk)
9. Give two factors which should be considered when sending a message (2 mks)
10. Give two inventions that improved textile manufacturing industry in Britain in 18th century 2 mks
11. Name two metals that were used as currency in pre-colonial Africa (2 mks)
12. State two similarities between the Buganda and Ndebele systems of government in the 19 th
century (2 mks)
13. Give one reason why the shona supported the british during the Ndebele resistance of 1893 (1
mk)
14. Name one treaty signed between lobengula and British during the process of colonization of Suth
Africa during 19th century (1 mk)
15. Name the country that was blamed for the outbreak of the first world war ( 1 mk)
16. Give one political cause of the first world war (1 mk)
17. Give the main cause of the cold war (1 mk)
SECTION B 45 MARKS
Answer any three questions

18. ( a) State five stages of evolution of man. (5 marks)

(b) Describe the culture of man during the late Stone Age. (10 marks)

19 . (a) State three disadvantages of using coal as a source of energy. (3 marks)

(b) Explain six effects of scientific inventions on industry. (12 marks)

20. a) State five methods used by the British to acquire colonies in Africa. (5 marks)

(b) Explain five effects of the partition of Africa. (10 marks)

21.( a) Identify five causes for the rise of African nationalism. (5 marks)

b) Discuss five Problems that faced FRELIMO in the war against Portuguese in Mozambique. (10 marks)
SECTION C 30 MARKS.
Answer any two questions.

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22. (a) Give three parts into which the Asante kingdom was divided (3 marks)

(b) Explain six aspects of the political organization of Shona kingdom during the pre-colonial
period. (12 marks)

23 (a) State three functions of Emirs during the British administration in Nigeria 3 mks

24. (a) Name any three treaties that formed the Treaty of Versailles.(3 marks)

(b) Explain six reasons why the League of Nations failed to preserve world Peace and security
(12 marks)

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441/1 - - HOMESCIENCE PAPER 1

APRIL. 2024- 2 ½ hours

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education (K.C.S.E.)PRE-MOCK 2024

Name-----------------------------------------------------------------ADM-----------------------------

DATE…………….…………..SIGN…….………………..TARGET…………..INDEX……………………..
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES:

• Write your name, Index No in the spaces provided above.

• Sign and write the date of examination in the spaces provided above.
• This paper consists of 3 sections A, B and C.
• Answer all the question in section A
• Section B compulsory question -20 marks
• Section C Choose any two questions from this section (20 marks)
• Answers to ALL Questions MUST be written in this booklet

EXAMINER’S USE ONLY

SECTION QUESTION MAXIMUM SCORE CANDIDATE’S SCORE

A 1-23 40

B 24 20

C 25-26 40

TOTAL SCORE 100

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SECTION A (40 MARKS)

1. State three positive effects of advertising to a consumer. [3 marks]

2. Give two reasons for ensuring proper ventilation in a room [1 mark]

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3. Identify two functions of openings in garments. [1 mark]

4. State two reasons why stainless steel is the best material for making knives [1 mark]
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5. Give two reasons for buffing shoes after polishing. (1 mark)

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6. Mention four symptoms of scurvy [2 marks]
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7. Name two vaccines that are given to a baby immediately after birth. [2 marks]
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8. Identify four problems experienced by mothers while breastfeeding. [2 marks]

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9. State three advantages of convenience feeds. [3 marks]

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10. Give two reasons why fainting occurs. [1 mark]

11. State four rules to observe when making handmade button holes [2 marks]
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12. Give the importance of the ‘U’ or ‘S’ bend/trap in a sink. [1 mark]
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13. Give four disadvantages of steaming [3 marks]

14. State six factors that determine the repair method on a garment. [3 marks]
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15. Identify four reasons for using soft furnishing in homes. [2 marks]

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16. Name three common methods of draining waste water from a house. [1 ½ marks]
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17. Give three uses of mineral fibres in clothing. [1 ½ marks]

18. Give three qualities of a good tracing wheel. [1 ½ marks]

19. Identify three points to be emphasized in habit training of a child. [1 ½ marks]

20. Name the cause of the following deficiency diseases. [4 marks]

(i) Pellagra
(ii) Beri
(iii) Scurvy
(iv) Rickets
21. Name two types of food service. (1mark)

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…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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22. Mention three factors that affect a budget. (3 marks)

SECTION B – [20 marks]

COMPULSORY QUESTION

23. You are left at home to perform some tasks in waiting for celebration of your brothers’
graduation
(i) Describe a procedure of cleaning an oil painted Dining room wall. (8 marks)
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(ii). Outline the procedure of laundering a loose coloured cotton school blouse. (7 ½ marks)

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…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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(iii). Explain Outline steps to be taken when cleaning a dressing mirror. (4 ½ marks)

SECTION C

Choose any two questions from this section. (40 marks)

24. (a).(i). Mention two sources of lighting/light (1 mark)

(ii). Explain three reasons for providing appropriate lighting ibn a sick room. (6 marks)

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(c). Explain reasons for using each of the following ingredients in floor mixtures. (4 marks)

(i). Fat

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(ii). Sugar

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(d). Give a reason for sieving wheat flour before using. (1 mark)

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25. a). Explain five ways of avoiding food wastage in the kitchen. (10 marks)

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…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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(b). Explain using sketchy labelled diagram the preparation an attachment of squared patch pocket.
(10 marks)

26 (a). Identify and explain factors to consider when choosing clothes. (5 marks)

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…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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(d). Explain precautions to taken when making pastries. (4 marks)

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(e). Mention three ways of improving the efficiency of a detergent. (3 marks)

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441/2 - - HOMESCIENCE PAPER 2

APRIL. 2024- 2 ½ hours

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education

(K.C.S.E.)PRE-MOCK 2024

Name-----------------------------------------------------------------ADM------------------------------------

DATE………………………..SIGN……………………..TARGET……..INDEX…………….
(Clothing and Construction)

Instructions to candidates
- Candidates should check the question paper to ensure that all the printed papers
are as indicated and no question is missing.

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BOY’S SHORT
A pattern of boy’s short is provided. You are advised to study the sketches instructions and
layout carefully before you begin the test.

MATERIALS PROVIDED
1. Pattern pieces
A. Short back
B. Short front
C. Pocket
D. Waist band
2. Plain light weight cotton fabric 55cm long by 90cm wide.
3. Sewing thread to match the fabric
4. One large envelope.

THE TEST
Using the materials provided cut out and make the LEFT side of the boy’s short to show the
following processes.
a) Cutting out (9 ½ mks)
b) Making of the back dart (5 ½ mks)
c) Making of the inner leg seam using a french seam. (7 ½ mks)
d) Attaching the in seam pocket. (12 mks)
e) Working of the side seam using an open seam and neatening the section below the
pocket. (12 mks)
f) Preparing and attaching the interfaced waistband. (Do not trim the seam)
i. Tack the back part waistband using even tacking.
ii. Top stitch the edge of the waistband. (22 mks)
g) Managing the hem. Machine stitch half of the hem.(Do not remove tacking stitches).
(15 mks)
h) Overall presentation. (6 ½ mks)

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102/1 - - KISWAHILI PAPER 1

APRIL. 2024-

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education

(K.C.S.E.)PRE-MOCK 2024

Name-----------------------------------------------------------------ADM------------------------------------

DATE………………………..SIGN……………………..TARGET……..INDEX…………….

Muda: Saa 1¾

Maagizo
a) Andika insha mbili. Insha ya kwanza ni ya lazima kisha chagua insha nyingine moja
kati ya hizo tatu zilizobakia.
b) Kila insha isipungue maneno 400.
c) Kila insha ina alama 20.
d) Kila insha lazima iandikwe kwa lugha ya Kiswahili.
e) Karatasi hii ina kurasa 2 zilizopigwa chapa.
f) Watahiniwa ni lazima wahakikishe kwamba kurasa zote za karatasi hii zimepigwa chapa
sawasawa na kuwa maswali yote yamo.

Kwa Matumizi ya Mtahini Pekee

SWALI UPEO ALAMA

1 20

Jumla 40

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MASWALI

1. Umetangazwa kuwa mwanafunzi bora katika mtihani wa kitaifa. Mwalimu Mkuu wa

shule ya upili ya Tuamke amekualika katika shule hii yake kuwahutubia wanafunzi
kuhusu kilichochangia ufanisi wako. Andika hotuba yako.

2. Fafanua hatua ambazo jamii imechukua kuimarisha maisha ya wanawake katika jamii.

3. Andika kisa kinachodhihirisha maana ya methali; Mui huwa Mwema.

4. Andika insha itakayomalizia kwa: Nilijitazama na kujidharau kwa nini sikuwafahamisha

walimu jambo hilo mapema.

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- - KISWAHILI PAPER 2
APRIL. 2024- 2 ½ hours

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education

(K.C.S.E.)PRE-MOCK 2024

Name-----------------------------------------------------------------ADM------------------------------------

DATE………………………..SIGN……………………..TARGET……..INDEX…………….

Maagizo
• Andika Jina lako na Nambari yako katika nafasi ulizoachiwa hapo juu.
• Tiasahihi yakokisha tarehe ya mtihani katika nafasi ulizoachiwa
• Jibu maswali yote katika nafasi ulizoachiwa katika kijitabu hiki cha majibu.
• Hakikisha kwamba kurasa zote zimepigwa chapa.
• Majibu yote ni lazima yaandikwe kwa lugha ya Kiswahili.

Kwa Matumizi ya Mtahini Pekee

Swali Upeo Alama

1 15

2 15

3 40

4 10

JUMLA 80

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1. UFAHAMU: (Alama 15)

Soma kifungu kifuatacho kisha ujibu maswali.

Tumeshuhudia baadhi ya ndugu wa familia moja wakiishi bila maelewano na wakati mwingine
kukata kabisa kabisa mawasiliano. Hivi leo kuna familia ambazo haziwezi kuketi pamoja na
kumaliza matatizo yao, na badala yake huchukua njia za vita ugomvi na hata pengine mauaji
kama suluhisho la migogoro yao.

Kawaida maisha sio mstari mnyoofu. Kuna milima,mabonde,kona na hata mashimo. Ndiposa
migogoro ni sehemu ya maisha yetu! Mara nyingi haiepukiki, isipokuwa kuipitia na kupata
suluhisho. Ipo migogoro baina ya ndugu ambayo huleta kutoelewana,kukosesha amani nahata
pengine kupoteza kabisa mahusiano. Ni wazi kuwa mahali popote wanapoishi watu au kufanya
kazi pamoja, hapakosekani migogoro kwani hata vikombe vinapokuwa kabatini, havikosi
kugongana.

Ukweli ni kwamba sote tunazaliwa na tabia tofauti, uwezo tofauti wa kuvumilia na hata kuamua
kutenda. Katika mazingira yoyote ya kutoelewana, kiasi kikubwa cha busara, upendo, amani na
imani huhitajika ili kuiondoa migogoro hiyo. Isipotafutiwa suluhisho ama utatuzi wake
ukatendeka kwa jazba na chuki, migogoro ya ndugu katika familia hukua na kuzaa madhara
makubwa.

Kuanzia utotoni au hadi uzimani, kunaweza kuwa na sababu nyingi ambazo huweza kupelekea
kuleta tofauti baina ya ndugu. Kwa ujumla, ndugu ni watu unaowaamini, ambao hawatakupa
kisogo. Walakini, hii sio wakati wote. Kwa bahati mbaya ukweli umetuonyesha kuwa kuna
uhusiano wa kindugu ambao huisha vibaya. Sababu kubwa zikiwa ni mazingira ambayo ndugu
wameishi ambayo wakati mwingine kuna upendeleo wa mzazi kwa mtoto au watoto fulani na
kuwafanya wengine wahisi wivu, kutopendwa na kutengwa.

Zipo sababu za kiuchumi ambapo ndugu wengine katika familia wanafanikiwa zaidi kuliko
wengine na kuwa na maisha bora zaidi kuliko wengine. Hali hii pia inaweza kuleta mfarakano
kwa wale ambao hali zao ni tofauti na wengine, hasa iwapo hakukuwa na mazingira ya
utangamano katika familia tangu awali.

Ndugu wa familia moja huzaliwa wakiwa na tabia tofauti. Kila mshiriki wa familia ana haiba na
mtazamo wake tofauti katika masuala mbalimbali. Wengine hukasirika mara kwa mara, wengine
ni wakimya sana, wapo walio wakorofi na wengine wanaopenda amani, hivyo jambo hili ni
muhimu mno kulielewa mara inapotokea migogoro ili kutamua namna ya kupata suluhisho.

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Jambo la kusikitisha zaidi ni kwamba migogoro hii wakati mwingine hupelekea kuvuruga
mwelekeo wa maisha ya watoto hasa wakati wa ukuaji, kwani kulingana na tofauti zao, wapo
wale wanaoamua kuondoka nyumbani wakiwa bado na umri mdogo na kuhamia mitaani.

Pamoja na migogoro kuwepo katika familia zetu ni vyema wazazi ama walezi waelewe tofauti za
kifamilia zinavyoweza kuchangia mfarakano baina ya ndugu wa familia moja. Kwamba mzazi
ama mlezi anapompendelea mtoto mmoja na kutokuwa karibu na mwingine, anatengeneza
mazingira ya tofauti baina ya watoto wake. Ni vyema kuweka uwiano sawa baina ya watoto na
familia ili kuweza kupunguza tofauti zinazoweza kujitokeza.

Maswali
(a).Onyesha athari tatu za migogoro miongoni mwa ndugu katika familia. (Alama 3)
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(b). Eleza mambo matano yanayochangia kuwepo kwa watoto wanaorandaranda mitaani kwa
kurejelea kifungu. (Alama 5)
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(c). Malezi yanachangia migogoro baina ya ndugu. Thibitisha kwa kurejelea kifungu. (alama. 1)

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(d). Taja na ueleze mbinu nne za kimtindo zilizotumika katika kifungu. (alama. 4)
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(e). Andika visawe vya maneno yafuatayo kama yalivyotumika katika kifungu. (alama.2)
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(i) haiepukiki
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(ii). haiba
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2. MUHTASARI
Soma taarifa ifuatayo kisha ujibu maswali.

Migongoni mwa starehe ambazo Waswahili wamezihifadhi mpaka leo ni kutoleana

hadithi na kutegeana vitendawili. Starehe hizo ambazo kwa kawaida hufanywa nje huwa njiani
au uani, ama ndani chumbani au ukumbini, aghalabu hufanywa wakati wa magharibi au usiku
baada ya kila mtu kumaliza kazi ya nyumbani,dukani,shambani,ofisini na kadhalika. Mambo
haya yakitazamwa sana itaonekana kuwa hayakufanywa vivi hivi.

Tangu zamani wazee wa Kiswahili waliwakataza wana wao kucheza mchana. Hawakupenda
vijana wajizoeshe uvivu kwa kupiga malapa. Walisadiki kuwa mwana ambaye hakukanywa
dhidi ya utiriri huu hangeweza kujifaa yeye mwenyewe na wala hata watu wengine. Isitoshe nani
Asiyejua kuwa ajizi ninyumba ya njaa:Vijana walilimizwa kusaidia katika makazi mbali mbali
yanayofanywa majumbani, mashambani na mahali popote palipohisiwa kuwa mtu angalifanyiwa
jambo la kumpa riziki. Ndiposa ungesikia wazee wakiwaambia watoto wao, ‘ukisimulia hadithi
mchana utaota mkia’. Ingawa kwa watu wazima maneno haya yangekuwa masihara,kwa watoto
yaliaminika sana kwa hivyo wazazi wakapata mradi wao. Hi ndiyo maana Waswahili
wanasimuliana hadithi na kutegeana vitendawili jioni au usiku.

Wazazi ambao hawataki watoto wao watembeetembee au wacheze michezo ambayo itawafanya
wakimbiekimbie na kujihasiri huwatia ndani ili wawe nao kuanzia magharibi. Waswahili wana
itikadi nyingi zinazohusiana wakati wa magharibi. Ni ajabu kuwasikia wakisema kuwa
magharibi huwaleta pamoja na kutoleana hadithi. Na hata kama si hivyo hii ni fursa nzuri kwa
wazazi kuzungumza na watoto wao ambao kutwa nzima huwa hawakupata nafasi kuwa nao.

Starehe hizi pia huongeza elimu, na kama wahenga wasemavyo, elimu ni mwanga uangazao..
Kwa mfano watoto watategewa vitendawili, jambo hili litawafanya wafikiri. Na kufikiri huku
kutawafanya wavumbue mambo mengi ambayo mengine hapo awali hawakuyajua na
kuyathamini. Vile vile huwafunza werevu wa kufumba na kufumbua mafumbo ambayo elimu
inayohitaji kiwango kikubwa cha busara.

Kutoleana hadithi ni miongoni mwa starehe ambazo kwazo hujifunza mambo mengi sana.
Katika hadithi watoto wanaweza kujifunza mambo yanayohusu mila na desturi, katika mambo
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haya watu hujifunza tabia nzuri, heshima na uvumilivu. Pia katika hadithi mtu anaweza
kujifunza mambo ya historia na pia ya mazingira aliyoyazoea na hata mambo ambayo hayajui.

Aidha hadithi ni chombo ambacho wazee hukitumia kuwafundisha watoto mbinu za

kuzungumzia. Wazee wenye busara aghalabu huwapa nafasi watoto wao wabuni na wasimulie
hadithi zao. Wakati mwingine jamaa mbili jirani huweza kukutana kufanya mashindano ya
kutambiana hadithi. Mazoezi kama haya huwawezesha vijana kufikia viwango vya juu vya
ufasaha na matumizi ya lugha na ujasiri na ukakamavu wa kuweza kusema mbele za hadhira
kubwa katika maisha yao. Baadhi ya watambaji wakubwa waliopata kusifiwa haikosi mwanzo
wao ulikuwa wa namna hii. Hadithi pia huwafundisha watu kuhusu maisha duniani. Zinaweza
kuwafunza jinsi ya kuishi na ndugu, majirani, marafiki, wake au waume. Ulimwenguni humu
tunamoishi na mambo mengi yanoyomtatiza binadamu kwa namna mbalimbali. Hadithi
zinaweza kupendekeza mambo ya kufanya na kuonyesha njia zenye mapato mema tunapofikiwa
na hadhaa kadhaa. Zinaweza pia kukanya kiburi na kuonyesha faida ya kutosema uwongo ama
kuishi katika maisha yasiyo muruwa, yaliyojaa kiburi na majivuno. Hapana shaka hadithi
zinaweza kuongoza na kuwafanya wawe watiifu na raia wema katika nchi zao.

Maswali
(a). Kwa nini mwandishi akaoanisha utambaji wa hadithi na wakati wa jioni? (Maneno 40)
(alama 5, alama 1 ya mtiririko)
Nakala chafu

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(b). Kwa maneno kati ya 70 na 90 eleza umuhimu wa kutambiana hadithi na kutegeana

vitendawili,kulingana na mwandishi. ( Alama 8, 1 ya mtiririko)

Nakala chafu
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Nakala safi
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3. MATUMIZI YA LUGHA (Alama 40)

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(a). Andika neno lenye kikwamizo sighuna cha ufizi, irabu ya mbele wastani, nazali ya midomo
na irabu ya chini kati. (alama 2)
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(b). Eleza muundo wa silabi katika neno mbilikimo. (Alama1)
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(c). Andika upya kwa kutumia ‘o’-rejeshi tamati.

Majarida ambayo yatasomwa yameagizwa (alama. 1)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………..
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(d). Tunga sentensi zifuatazo (alama 2)

i) Arifu
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ii) Rai
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e) Tunga sentensi moja yenye kiwakilishi cha A-unganifu,kitenzi kishirikishi kipungufu na
kijalizo (alama.2)
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f) Andika sentensi zifuatayo katika hali ya udogo (Alama 2)
Mbuzi wake amekaata kamba akaingia shambani na kula mahindi.
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g). Andika katika usemi wa taarifa (Alama 2)
“Wanasiasa hawa wenu wakipigana hivi wataharibu nchi” Rais alisema.
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h). Changanua sentensi kwa jedwali. (alama.4)
Jirani aliyenisaidia juzi ataondoka mwakani.
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i). Onyesha yambwa katika sentensi ifuatayo

Alawi alifumiwa mkeka mzuri na shangaziye kwa miyaa. (alama 3)
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j). Eleza tofauti ya kisarufi ya maneno yaliyopigia mstari (alama.2)
i) Duka la mwalimu limechomeka
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ii) Duka la mwalimu limechomeka
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………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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k). Tunga sentensi kuonyesha wakati ujao, hali ya mazoea (Alama 2)
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l(I). Tumia neno pongezi katika sentensi kama (Alama 2)
i). Nomino
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(ii). Kihisishi
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m). Eleza matumizi ya ‘na’ katika sentensi ifuatayo:Ridhaa na Mwangeka walikuwa wameketi
karibu na jumba lakifahari walipoitwa na Apondi. (alama.3)
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n). Andika sentensi zifuatazo upya kulingana na maagizo
(i). Mwana mwadilifu huwaletea wazaziwe fahari. (alama 1).
( Badilisha neno lililopigiwa mstari kuwa nomino.)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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(ii). Nyota nyingi ziliipamba anga usiku huo. (alama 1)
(Tumia nomino ya jamii badala ya maneno yaliyopigiwa mstari)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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(iii). Makokha ni mkakamavua Onyango ni mkakamavu pia. (alama 1)

(Unganisha iwe sentensi moja yenye kihusishi cha kulinganisha.)
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(iv). ‘Kibali,nionyehse ulipoandika zoezi hilo.’Mwalimu alisema. (alama.1)
(Tumia kiwakilishi nafasi badala ya nomino ya pekee.)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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o). Kwa kutunga sentensi, onyesha ngeli mbili za neno ‘upwa’ (alama.2).
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p). Andika maana mbili zinazojitokeza katika sentensi hii. (alama.2)
Selume alimsimulia Ridhaa kisa chake.
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q). Tunga sentensi moja kubainisha maana mbili za neno. (alama.2)
Kina
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r). Rubani ni kwa ndege,………….ni kwa meli na……………..ni kwa matwana. (alama 2)

ISIMU JAMII (Alama 10)

Wewe ni mtaalamu wa maswala ya usalama. Umepewa fursa kuhutubia warsha inayojumuisha
maafisa wa usalama kutoka katika vikosi mbalimbali kuhusu jukumu lao katika kudumisha
usalama,amani na maridhiano nchini.
(a). Taja sajili ambayo utatumia kisha ueleze sababu ya jibu lako. (alama 2)
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(b). Andika huku ukifafanua vipengele vinane vya kimtindo utakavyotumia kufanikisha
mazungumzo yako. (alama 8)
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- - KISWAHILI PAPER 3

APRIL. 2024- 2 ½ hours

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education

(K.C.S.E.)PRE-MOCK 2024

Name-----------------------------------------------------------------ADM------------------------------------

DATE………………………..SIGN……………………..TARGET……..INDEX…………….

MAAGIZO:
a) Jibu maswali manne pekee
b) Swali la kwanza ni la lazima
c) Maswali hayo mengine yachaguliwe kutoka sehemu nne zilizobaki, yaani Riwaya,
Tamthilia, Hadithi fupi na Fasihi Simulizi.
d) Usijibu maswali mawili kutoka sehemu moja.
e) Majibu yote lazima yaandikwe kwa lugha ya Kiswahili.

Kwa Matumizi ya Mtahini Pekee

Swali Upeo Alama

1 20

Jumla 80

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SEHEMU YA A: USHAIRI
Swali la Lazima
1. Soma shairi hili kisha ujibu maswali yanayofuata:

Shimo: Ali Salim Zakwany

1. Mwambieni kibushuti, asiruke shimo lile

Kimo chake kama goti, kwenda ng'ambu sifikile
Mtu haoli bahati, akasahau umbile
Kila muwania mbele, na nyuma 'sisahawile

2. Afanyayo ni hatari, sijitie mpulele

Mambo yote ajasiri, shari asithibutile
Mjalia watu kheri, shairi ni yake vivile
Kila muwania mbele, na nyuma 'sisahawile

3. Asambe ndiyo busara, kutenda kitendo kile

Itamuwia hasara, na madhara kama yale
Mola mwingi wa subira, ajapo chomwa vidole
Kila muwania mbele, na nyuma 'sisahawile

4. Licha na yeye nyadungo, chuya katika mchele

Hata warefu ja pondo, hawatusi shimo lile
Walojaribu kitendo, shimoni watumbukile
Kila muwania mbele, na nyuma sisahawile

5. Nimefika kituoni, nasema mumuwasile

Mfua maji ngamani, ili kwamba sizamile
Chombo huungia mwambani, na nahodha ni yuyule
Kila muwania mbele, na nyuma 'sisahawile

Maswali

a) Lipe shairi hili kichwa mwafaka. (alama 1)

b) Fafanua toni ya shairi hili. (alama 4)
c) Taja na utoe mifano ya tamathali za usemi mbili zinazopatikana katika shairi. (alama 4)
d) Eleza umbo la shairi hili. (alama 4)
e) Kwa kutoa mifano minne, eleza aina moja ya idhini ya kishairi iliyotumika zaidi katika
shairi. (alama 3)
f) Andika ubeti wa tano kwa lugha ya nathari. (alama 4)

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SEHEMU YA B: NGUU ZA JADI -CLARE MOMANYI

Jibu swali la 2 au 3
2. “Tangu lini mke amuulize mumewe kule aendako au atokako?.....Ama kweli, wanawake wa
kisasa wanavunja kila mwiko uliowekwa na wazee.”
i) Yaweke maneno haya katika muktadha wake. (alama4)
ii) Kwa kutoa mfano,taja mbinu ya lugha iliyotumika. (alama2)
iii) Eleza umuhimu wa msemaji (alama4)
(iv) Kwa kutoa mifano kumi kutoka riwayani, fafanua jinsi mwanamke amesawiriwa katika
jamii ya Matuo. (alama 10)

3. Jamii ya Matuo katika riwaya ya ‘Nguu za Jadi’ imekumbwa na usaliti si haba. Kwa kutoa
mifano mwafaka riwayani, onyesha ukweli wa kauli hii. (alama20)

SEHEMU YA C: TAMTHILIA - BEMBEA YA MAISHA (Timothy Arege)

4. Ukirejelea Anwani ya Tamthilia ya Bembea ya Maisha, onyesha namna wahusika

wanavyobembea maishani mwao. (alama 20)

5. Maskini mke wangu! Kumbe ugonjwa haukumsaza mwaka baada ya mwaka. Umemla bila
huruma. Awali niliona kuwa mchezo kumbe ilikuwa kweli yake ninaona imesimama. Ni
mwele hakika. Laiti ningejua, jana ningeishi tofauti. Silezi zetu za maisha tungezila
zilivyokuja kwa furaha. Siku hazigandi wala jana hairudi. Sasa jana imebaki kumbukizi
baada ya kusombwa na wakati mfano wa mafuriko msimu wa masika."

a) Yaweke maneno haya katika muktadha wake (alama 4)

b) Eleza kwa mfano mbinu nne za kimtindo zilizotumika (alama 4)
c) Barusha toni katika dondoo hili. (alama 2)
d) Ni maudhui gani yanayojitokeza katika dondoo hili? (alama 4)
e) Onyesha sifa za mzungumzaji zinazodhihirisha kuwa silezi zao hawakuzila kwa furaha.
(alama 6)

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SEHEMU YA D: HADITHI FUPI - MAPAMBAZUKO YA MACHWEO NA HADITHI
ZINGINE.

6. (a) Fafanua mbinu za kimtindo katika dondoo lifuatalo. (alama 6)

"Jimbo la matopeni lilikuwa limegeuzwa ngome ya watu fulani binafsi. Watu wenye
ushawishi mkubwa serikalini! Watu wasiojali maisha ya wapiga kura kama Machoka na
Zuhura. Wapiga kura walioamka siku hiyo asubuhi ya majogoo, wakastahimili baridi kali ya
bukrata. Wakavumilia jua kali la mchana. Zuhura alikumbuka namna yeye na wenzake
walivyotunga foleni ndefu kwenye vituo vya kupigia kura. Yote haya wakiwa na matumaini
ya maisha bora ya baadaye, si bora maisha! Kumbe wajinga ndio waliwao! Mzigo mzito wa
maisha haukuwatisha wala kuwakosesha usingizi viongozi wao. Ama kweli, mzigo wa
mwenzio ni kanda la usufi. "

(b) Onyesha namna wanamatopeni wanavyokumbwa na madhila kwa kurejelea hadithi ya

"Msiba wa kujitakia" (alama 14)

7. “Katika hali ile ya uchungu, kilio na mtanziko wa mawazo, akaiona simu yake imeanguka
chini ya kitanda….. Haidhuru hata kama atamuunga mkono mwanawe.”
(i) Eleza muktadha wa maneno haya. (alama 4)
(ii) Fafanua mbinu ya kimtindo inayojitokeza katika dondoo hili. (alama 2)
(iii)Eleza sifa nne za anayerejelewa katika dondoo hili. (alama 4)
(iv) Eleza jinsi “taasubi ya kiume” inavyoshughulikiwa na mwandishi wa “fadhila za
punda”. (alama 10)

SEHEMU YA E: FASIHI SIMULIZI

8. Ewe Mainga wa Ndumi

Siwe uloambia akina mama
Siku tulopiga foleni
Chakula cha msaada kupata
Turudishe vifaranga kwenye miji
Wageuke vijusi tena
Njaa isiwaangamize?

Siwe ulopita
Matusi ukitema
Chumvi na sukari kuturushia ja samadi?
Uhitaji wetu ukatutuma

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Kuokota vihela uloturushia
Ukatununua, kura ukapata?
Sasa miaka mitano imetimia
Waja tulaghai tena
Mainga wa Ndumi huna lolote safari hii
Ubunge umekudondoka ukitazama
Wanyonge tumeamua
Kwingine kujaribu.

a) Eleza aina ya kipera hiki. (alama 2)

b) Huku ukitoa mifano, tambua mbinu za lugha nne zilizotumiwa katika utungo huu.
(alama 8)
c) Tambua nafsineni katika utungo huu. (alama 2)
d) Fafanua toni ya utengo huu. (alama 2)
e) Fafanua umuhimu wa kipera hiki. (alama 6)

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121/2 - - MATHEMATICS PAPER 2

APRIL. 2024- 2 ½ hours

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education

(K.C.S.E.)PRE-MOCK 2024

Name-----------------------------------------------------------------ADM------------------------------------

DATE………………………..SIGN……………………..TARGET……..INDEX…………….

Instructions to Candidates
a) Write your name and index number in the space provided above.
b) This paper consists of TWO sections: section I and section II.
c) Answer all the questions in section I and only five questions from section II.
d) All workings and answers must be written on the question paper in the spaced provided
below each question.
e) Non-programmable silent electronic scientific calculators and KNEC Mathematical tables
may be used EXCEPT where stated otherwise
f) The paper consists of 15 printed pages.
g) Candidates should check carefully to ascertain that all the pages are printed and no questions
are missing.

For Examiner’s Use Only

Section I
Question 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 Total
Candidate’s
Score
Section II Grand Total
Question 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 Total
Candidate’s
Score

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SECTION I: 50 MARKS

1. Given that the expression 4X2 + 28x + (K + 37) is a perfect square. Find the value of K.
(3 marks)

2. Calculate the percentage error in the volume of a cylinder whose radius 8.75cm and its
height 32.5cm. (3 marks)

3. Make X the subject of the formula (3 marks)

𝐶√𝑋 2 −1
b =
𝑋

4. In the figure, O is the centre of the circle. Line AB is parallel to line DC and angle ΔDC
= 550
Determine the size of ΔACB. (3 marks)

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5. Solve for X given that;
½ Log2 9 + Log2 [5x – 4] = 7 (3 marks)

6. An inlet tap can fill an empty tank in 6 hours. It takes 10hrs ro fill the tank when the inlet
tap and outlet tap are both opened at the same time. Calculate the time the outlet takes to
empty the full tank when the inlet tap is closed.
(2 marks)

7. Solve the equation (4 marks)

x + 3y = 13
x2 + 3y2 = 43

4
8. Simplify (2 marks)
√6 + √2

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9. The cash price of a TV set is Ksh.20,000. A customer bought it on hire purchase terms
by paying a deposit of Sh.10,000 followed by 18 equal monthly installments of Sh.900
each. Annual interest, compounded semi-annually was charged on the balance for the
period of 18 months. Determine correct to 1d.p the rate of interest per annum.
(4 marks)

10. The equation of a circle is given by X2 + 4X + y2 – 2y – 4 = 0. Determine the centre and

radius of the circle. (3
marks)

11. In the figure AOBP is a straight line. PZ is a tangent to the circle. If PZ = 12cm and BP
= 6cm, find the radius of the circle. (3
marks)

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3
12. (a) Expand (1 − 𝑋) 5 Leave the co-efficient as fraction in their lowest form.
10
(2 marks)

(b) Use the first three terms of the expansion in (a) above to estimate the value
(0.97) 5 (4 marks)

13. Using the assumed mean of 50, determine the variance of the following set of numbers;
52, 45, 42, 59, 56, 46. (3 marks)

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14. The table below shows the value of t and the corresponding values of h for a given
relation.
t 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8

h 8 4 2.7 2 1.6 1.3 1.1 1

a) On the grid, draw the graph to represent the information on the table given.(2
marks)

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b) Use the graph to determine the rate of change of h at t = 4. (2 marks)

15. Given that P = 2i – 3j + k, Q = 3i – 4i – 3k and R = 3P + 2Q, find │R │correct to 2

decimal places. (3 marks)

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16. Maize flour and millet flour were mixed. If the maize flour costs sh.60 per kilogram and
millet flour sh.90 per kilogram, find the ratio of maize flour to millet flour that gives a
mixture costing sh.85 per kilogram. (3 marks)

SECTION II: 50 MARKS

Attempt Only Five Questions In This Section

17. A cup has 8 white plates and 4 brown ones all identical in shape and size. Mrs. Kamau
selected 3 plates at random without replacement.
a) Draw a tree diagram representing this information. (2 marks)

b) Find the probability that she chooses:

(i) Two white plates and one brown in that order. (2 marks)

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(ii) At least one white plate. (3 marks)

(iii)Three plates of the same colour. (3 marks)

18. (a) A quantity P varies partly as the square of M and partly a constant. When P = 3.8, M
= 2 and when P = -0.2, M = 3.
Find:
(i) The equation that connects P and M (4 marks)

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(ii) The value of P when M = 10. (1 mark)

(b) Q varies as the cube of x and inversely as the square root of R. If X is increased by
20% and R is decreased by 36%;
(i) Find the law connecting Q, X and R. (2 marks)

(ii) Find the percentage change in Q (3 marks)

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19. Three consecutive terms of geometric progression are 92x+1, 81x and 729 respectively.
Calculate.
a) The value of x (3 marks)

b) Find the common ratio (2 marks)

c) Calculate the sum of the first 10 terms of the series. (2 marks)

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d) Given that the fifth and sixth terms of this G.P forms the first two consecutive of
arithmetic sequence; calculate the sum of the first 20 terms of the sequence.(3 marks)

20. The table below shows income tax rates in a certain year.
Monthly taxable income Tax rates
in Kshs
0 – 12298 10%
12299 – 23885 15%
23886 – 35472 20%
35473 – 47059 25%
47060 and above 30%

In the year, the monthly earnings of Mr.Korir

Basic salary Ksh.60,000
Medical allowance Ksh.16,500
Ksh.4,837.50 was erroneously exempted from his taxations.
a) Calculate Mr. Korir taxable income (2 marks)

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b) Calculate Mr. Korir net tax for that month if his personal tax relief was Sh.1408 per
month. (6 marks)

c) Calculate Mr. Korir net pay for that month. (2 marks)

21. The vertices of the triangle ABC are A(3, 3); B(1, 1) and c [5, 3] are mapped onto
0 1
triangle A1B1C1 by a matrix ( )
1 −2
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a) (i) Find the co-ordinates of A1 B1 and C1 (2 marks)

(ii) On the grid provided below, draw triangle ABC and A1B1C1 (2 marks)

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b) (i) Triangle A2B2C2 is the image of the triangle A1B1C1 under a transformation
−2 0
matrix. ( )
0 −1
Determine the co-ordinates of A2, B2 and C2 (2 marks)

(ii) Find the area of triangle A2B2C2 (2 marks)

c) Determine a single matrix that maps ABC onto A2B2C2 (2 marks)

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22. The table below shows the distances in kilometers covered by employees of a certain
factory.

Distance (Km) 1–5 6– 11 – 16 – 20 21 – 25 26 – 30

10 15
Number of workers 3 7 4 2
6 8

If the actual mean of the data above is 14.5km;

a) (i) Fill in the table given below.

Class Frequency Midpoint d = x-14.5 d2 fd2

(x)
1-5 3
6 – 10 6
11 – 15 8
16 – 20 7
21 – 25 4
26 - 30 2
∑f = ∑fd2 =

(ii) Use the values obtained from the table above to calculate standard deviations. (2 marks)

b) (i) Find upper and lower quartiles. (2 marks)

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(ii) Hence calculate quartile deviation. (2 marks)

23. In this question use a ruler and a pair of compasses.

a) (i) Construct triangle ABC such that AB = 9cm, AC = 7cm and ΔCAB = 600 (2 marks)

(ii) Construct the locus of point P within the triangle such that P is equidistant from A and B. (2 marks)

(iii) Construct the locus of point Q within the triangle such that CQ ≤ 3.5cm. (2 marks)

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b) On the diagram in part (a)
(i) Shade the region R, containing all the points enclosed by the Locus of P and Q, such
that AP≥BP (2 marks)

(ii) Find the area of triangle ABC (3 marks)

24. The table below shows some values of the curves y1 = 2 cos x and y2 = 3 sin x
a) Complete the table to 1 decimal place (2
marks)

X0 00 30 60 90 120 150 180 210 240 270 300 330 360

Y1 = 2 cos x 2 1 0 -1.7 -1.7 -1 1 1.7 2

Y2 = 3 sin x 0 1.5 3 2.6 0 -2.6 -1.5 0

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b) On the grid provided, draw the graph of y1 = 2 cos x and y2 = 3 sin x for 00 ≤ x ≤ 3600
On the same axes (5
marks)

c) Use the graph to find the values of x when 2 cos x = 3 sin x (2 marks)

d) Find the difference of the amplitude of y = 2 cos x and y = 3 sin x. (1 mark)

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- - MATHEMATICS PAPER 1
APRIL. 2024- 2 ½ hours

Kenya Certificate of Secondary

Education(K.C.S.E.)PRE-MOCK 2024

Name-----------------------------------------------------------------ADM------------------------------------

DATE………………………..SIGN……………………..TARGET……..INDEX…………….
Instructions to Candidates
1. Write your name, Admission number and class in the spaces provided.
2. Sign and write date of the examination in the spaces provided.
3. The paper contains TWO sections: Section I and II
4. Answer ALL questions in section I and STRICTLY ANY FIVE questions from section II.
5. All working and answers must be written on the question paper in the spaces provided below each
question.
6. Show all the steps in your calculations, giving your answers at each stage in the spaces below each
question.
7. Marks may be awarded for correct working even if the answer is wrong.
8. Non-programmable silent electronic calculators and KNEC Mathematical tables may be used except
where stated otherwise.

For Examiner’s use only

Section I
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 TOTAL

GRAND TOTAL
Section II

17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 TOTAL

This paper consists of 15 printed pages. Candidates should check to ensure that all pages
are printed as indicated and no questions are missing.

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Section I (50 Marks)
Answer ALL questions in the section in the space provided.

−12 (−3)𝑥4−(−20)
1. Evaluate (2 Marks)
– 6 𝑥 6  3+(−6)

1 2
2. Mr. Owino spends of his salary on school fees. He spends 3 of the remainder on food and
4
a fifth of what is left on transport. He saves the balance. In certain month he saved Sh. 3400.
What was his salary?
(3 Marks)

3. Simplify: (3 Marks)
2 2
2y − 3xy − 2x
4y 2 − x 2

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4. Find x if 32𝑥+3+ 1 = 28 (2 Marks)

5. The circle below whose area is 18.05cm2 circumscribes triangle ABC where AB = 6.3cm, BC
= 5.7cm and AC = 4.2cm. Find the area of the shaded part.
(4 Marks)
A

4.2cm
6.3cm

5.7cm
C
B

6. A salesman gets a commission of 2.4% on sales up to Sh. 100,000. He gets additional

commission of 1.5% on sales above this. Calculate the commission he gets for sales worth Sh.
280,000. (3 Marks)

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7. A rectangle whose area is 96m2 is such that its length is 4metres longer than its width.
Find
(a) It dimensions (2 Marks)

(b) Its perimeter (1 Mark)

8. The sum of interior angles of a triangle is given by [10x-2y]0 while that of a hexagon is given
by [30x+24y]0 .Calculate the values of x and y (3 Marks)

9. In triangle ABC below, AC = BC, AB is parallel to DE, AB = 15cm, DE = 7.5cm and BE =

6cm.
C

D E

B
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A
Calculate
(a) Length CE (2 Marks)

(b) Area of quadrilateral ABED. (2 Marks)

10. A measuring cylinder of base radius 5cm contains water whose level reads 6cm high. A
spherical object is immersed in the water and the new level reads 10cm. Calculate the radius
of the spherical object (3 Marks)

11. Using a ruler and pair of compasses only, construct triangle ABC in which AB = 6cm, BC =
8cm and angle ABC = 450. Drop a perpendicular from A to BC to meet line BC at M. Measure
AM and AC. (4 Marks)

12. In a book store, books packed in cartons are arranged in rows such that there are 50 cartons in
the first row, 48 cartons in the next row, and 46 in the next and so on.
(a) How many cartons will there be in the 8th row? (2 Marks)

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(b) If there are 20 rows in total, find the total number of cartons in the book store. (2 Marks)

13. Draw the net of the solid below and calculate the total surface area of its faces.(3 Marks)
V

10cm
10cm
10cm
10cm
D 6cm C
6cm 6cm

6cm B
A

14. Solve the following inequalities and state the integral values. (3 Marks)
2𝑥 − 2 ≤ 3𝑥 + 1 < 𝑥 + 11

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15. Solve for x in 22𝑥 - 18 x 2𝑥 = 40 (3 Marks)

16. A translation maps triangle ABC onto A1B1C1 where A[1,-1], B[2,2], C[3,1] and C1[-1,3].
Find,
i. Translation vector (1 Mark)

ii. The coordinate of A1 and B1 [2 Marks]

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Section II (50 Marks):
Answer any FIVE questions in this section in the spaces provided.
17. The distance between towns A and B is 360km. A minibus left town A at 8.15 a.m. and traveled
towards town B at an average speed of 90km/hr. A matatu left town B two and a third hours
later on the same day and travelled towards A at average speed of 110km/hr.
(a) (i) At what time did the two vehicles meet? (4 Marks)

(ii) How far from A did the two vehicles meet? (2 Marks)

(b) A motorist started from his home at 10.30 a.m. on the same day as the matatu and
travelled at an average speed of 100km/h. He arrive at B at the same time as the minibus.
Calculate the distance from A to his house. (4 Marks)

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18. Karis owns a farm that is triangular in shape as shown below.

250m 440m

A 320m B

(a) Calculate the size of angle BAC (2 Marks)

(b) Find the area of the farm in hectares (3 Marks)

(c) Karis wishes to irrigate his farm using a sprinkler machine situated in the farm such that
it is equidistant from points A, B and C.
(i) Calculate the distance of the sprinkler from point C. (2 Marks)

(ii) The sprinkler rotates in a circular motion so that the maximum point reached by the water jets is the
vertices A, B and C. Calculate the area outside his farm that will be irrigated. (3 Marks)

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19. A ship leaves port M and sails on a bearing of 0500 heading towards island L. Two Navy
destroyers sail from a naval base N to intercept the ship. Destroyer A sails such that it covers
the shortest distance possible. Destroyer B sails on a bearing of 200 to L. The bearing of N
from M is 1000 and distance
NM = 300KM. Using a scale of 1cm to represent 50km, determine:-

(i) The positions of M, N and L. (3 Marks)

(ii) The distance travelled by destroyer A (3 Marks)

(iii) The distance travelled by destroyer B. (2 Marks)

(iv) The bearing of N from L. (2 Marks)

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20. A number of people agreed to contribute equally to buy books worth KSh. 1200 for a school
library. Five people pulled out and so the others agreed to contribute an extra Shs. 10 each.
Their contributions enabled them to buy books worth Shs. 200 more than they originally
expected.

(a) If the original numbers of people was x, write an expression of how much each was
originally to contribute. (1 Mark)

(b) Write down two expressions of how much each contributed after the five people pulled
out. (2 Marks)

(d) Calculate how much each contributed. (2 Marks)

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21. Two lines L1, 2y - 3x - 6 ═ 0 and L2, 3y + x- 20 = 0 intersect at a point A.
a) Find the coordinates of A. [3marks]

b) A third line L3 is perpendicular to L2 at point A. Find the equation of L3 in the form y

= mx + c where m and c are constants. [3marks]

c) Another line L4 is parallel to L1 and passes through [-1,3]. Find the x and y-intercept of
L4. [4marks]

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22. The vertices of triangle PQR are P (0,0), Q (6, 0) and R (2, 4)
(a) Draw triangle PQR on the grid provided. (1 mark)

(b) Triangle PQR is the image of a triangle PQR under an enlargement scale factor
− 12
and centre (2, 2). On the same grid draw triangle PQR and write down its
coordinates. (3 marks)

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(c) On the same grid draw triangle PQR the image of triangle PQR under a
positive quarter turn about point (1, 1). (3 marks)

(d) Draw a triangle PQR the image of triangle PQR under reflection in the line y = 1 .

(2 marks)

(e) State the type of congruence between triangle PQR and triangle PQR .(1 mark)

23. The table shows marks obtained by 100 candidates at Goseta Secondary School in Biology
examination.
Marks 15-24 25-34 35-44 45-54 55-64 65-74 75-84 85-94
Frequency 6 14 24 14 x 10 6 4

(a) Determine the value of x (1 Mark)

(b) State the modal class (1 Mark)

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(c) Calculate the median mark (4 Marks)

(d) Calculate the mean mark (4 Marks)

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24. In the triangle below P and Q are points on OA and OB respectively such that OP:PA=3:2
and OQ:QB =1:2 AQ and PQ intersect at T. Given that OA= a and OB= b
~ ~

(a) Express AQ and PQ in terms of a and b (2mks)

~ ~

(b) Taking BT=kBP and AT=hAQ where h and k are real numbers.
(i) Find two expressions for OT in terms of a and b (2mks)
~ ~

(ii) Use the expressions in b (i) above to find the values of h and k. (5mks)

(c) In what ratio does T divide AQ.? (1mk)

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PHYSICS PAPER 3

APRIL. 2024- 2 ½ hours

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education (K.C.S.E.)PRE-MOCK 2024

PHYSICS PAPER 3 CONFIDENTIAL

Question 1

Each candidate to have the following apparatus

• 2 new dry cells

• Cell holder
• Ammeter (0-1A)
• Voltmeter
• 6 connecting wires (at least 3 with crocodile clips)
• Nichrome wire SWG 28 (d=0.38mm) mounted on a mm scale with the ends labeled (A and B)
• A switch
• Micrometer screw gauge (may be shared)
• Jockey key.

Question 2

PART A
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Each candidate to have the following apparatus

• Retort stand, clamp and boss

• A piece of thread (1.2 metre)
• Two small pieces of wood blocks
• Pendulum bob
• Meter rule
• Stop watch

PART B

Each candidate to have the following apparatus

• A concave mirror (Focal length = 16 cm)

• Mirror holder
• White screen
• Metre rule
• A candle

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- - PHYSICS PAPER 1

APRIL. 2024- 2 hours

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education

(K.C.S.E.)PRE-MOCK 2024

Name-----------------------------------------------------------------ADM------------------------------------

DATE………………………..SIGN……………………..TARGET……..INDEX…………….

Instructions to candidates

• This paper consists of two sections A and B.

• Answer all the questions in the two sections in the spaces provided after each question
• All working must be clearly shown.
• Electronic calculators, mathematical tables may be used.
• All numerical answers should be expressed in the decimal notations.
• You may use ‘g’ as 10m/s2

For Examiner use only

SECTION QUESTION MAX MARKS CANDIDATE’S
SCORE

A 1 – 13 25
14 13

B 15 13

16 14

17 07

18 08

TOTAL 80

This paper consists of 10 printed pages. Candidates should check to ascertain that all pages
are printed as indicated and that no questions are missing.
SECTION A (25 MARKS)
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1. Figure 1, shows a Vernier caliper of zero error 0.02 cm being used for measuring the
diameter of a cylindrical container of height 10 cm. The scale reading of the Vernier is as
shown alongside.

cm
0 5 10

Figure 1

a. Determine the diameter of the container (2 marks)

b. Estimate the volume of a liquid which can completely fill the container (2 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

2. State one factor that affects the turning effect of a force on a body. (1 mark)

Figure 2 shows some air trapped by mercury in a glass tube. The tube is inverted in a dish containing mercury.

Figure 2

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Given that the atmospheric pressure is 760 mmHg and the height of mercury column in the
tube is 600 mm, determine the pressure of the air trapped in the tube in mmHg. (2 marks)

3. Figure 3 shows drops of mercury and water on a glass surface, Explain the difference in the
shapes of the drops.
(2marks)
Mercury water
Glass surface

Figure 3

4. A ball is thrown from the top of a cliff 20m high with a horizontal velocity of 10ms-1.
Calculate the distance from the foot of the cliff to where the ball strikes the ground. (3 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

5. Explain one advantage of mercury over alcohol as a thermometric liquid. (1mark)

6. A body of mass M is allowed to slide down an inclined plane. State two factors that affect its
final velocity at the bottom of the inclined plane. (2marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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7. A stopwatch reads 08:10:84 and 09:10: 90 before and after an experiment respectively.
Determine the duration of the event in SI units. (2marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

8. Explain the meaning of thermodynamics as a branch of physics. (1 mark)

9.
a. State the Hooke’s Law. (1mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

b. Figure 4 shows identical spiral springs supporting a load of 90N. Each spring has a spring
constant k = 200N/m

springs

90N

Figure 4
Determine the total extension of the system (take the weight of the cross bars and springs to
be negligible) (2 marks)

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10. Figure 5 shows a rectangular loop with a thin thread loosely tied and dipped into a soap
solution. Draw on the space provided what is observed when point A is
punctured. (1mark)
A

thread
B

Figure 5

11. Two horizontal strings are attached to a block, resting on a frictionless surface, as shown in
figure 6.

F
100 N
support
Figure 6
A force of 100N pulls on one string. The block does not move. Find the value of the force, F
on the other string. (1 mark)

12. A wooden bench feels neither warm nor cold when touched by your bare hands. Explain this
observation. (2 marks)

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SECTION B (55 MARKS)
13. (a) State the principle of conservation of linear momentum. (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b) Distinguish between elastic and inelastic collision. (1 mark)

was in contact with the ball for 0.30s; determine the takeoff velocity of the ball.(3 marks)

(d) A high jumper usually lands on thick soft mattress. Explain how the mattress helps in

reducing the force of impact. (2 marks)

(e) A ball is thrown horizontally from the top of a vertical tower of height 75m and strikes
the ground at a point 80m from the bottom of the tower. Determine the:

(i) Time taken by the ball to hit the ground. (Acceleration due to gravity=10m/s2) (3 marks)

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(ii) Initial horizontal velocity of the ball. (3 marks)

14.
a) State two factors that affect the boiling point of a liquid (2 marks)

b) 100g of a liquid at a temperature of 100 C is poured into a well lagged calorimeter. An

electric heater rated 50W is used to heat the liquid. The graph in figure 7 shows the
variation of the temperature of the liquid with time.

Figure 7
(i) From the graph, determine the boiling point of the liquid (1 mark)

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(ii) Determine the heat given out the by the heater between the times t = 0.5 minutes and t =
5.0 minutes (3 marks)

c) From the graph determine the temperature change between the times t = 0.5 minutes and t
= 5.0 minutes, hence determine the specific heat capacity of the liquid (3 marks)

d) 1.8 g of vapor was collected from above the liquid between the times t= 3.5 minutes and
t= 4.5 minutes. Determine the specific latent heat of vaporization of the liquid (4 marks)

15.
a) State the law of floatation (1 mark)

b) Figure 8 below shows a simple hydrometer

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A …………………………………………………….……………………….....

B ……………………………………………….…………………………………

Figure 8
i. Identify the parts labelled A and B (2 marks)

ii. State the purpose of the part labelled B (1 mark)

c) How would the hydrometer be made more sensitive? (1 mark)

d) Describe how the hydrometer is calibrated to measure relative density (3 marks)

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e) Figure 9 shows a cork floating on water and held to the bottom of the beaker by a thin
thread.
i. Name the forces acting on the cork (3 marks)

Figure 9
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

ii. Describe how each of the forces mentioned in (i) above changes when water is
added until the container is completely filled (3 marks)

16.
a) Figure 10 shows a graph of pressure against volume for a fixed mass of a gas at constant
temperature.
Pressure, p

Volume, v

Figure 10
1
In the space provided, sketch a graph of pressure, p against 𝑣 (1 mark)

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………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

b) Explain the pressure law using the kinetic theory of matter (3 marks)

c) 20cm3 of a gas exerts a pressure of 760mmHg at 250C. Determine the temperature of the
gas when the pressure increases to 900mmHg and the volume decreases to 15 cm3
.(3 marks)

17.
a) Define the term velocity ratio of a machine (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

b) The figure 11, below shows part of the hydraulic lift system. State any one property of
the liquid under which the hydraulic system works (1 mark)

Figure 11
c) The hydraulic lift machine above has velocity ratio 45 and it overcomes a load of 4500 N
when an effort of 135 N is applied. Determine:
i. The mechanical advantage of the machine (2 marks)

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………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

ii. Efficiency of the machine (3 marks)

iii. The percentage of work that goes to waste (1 mark)

This is the last printed page

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32/2 - - PHYSICS PAPER 2

APRIL. 2024- 2 hours

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education .

. (K.C.S.E.)PRE-MOCK 2024

Name-----------------------------------------------------------------ADM-----------------------------

DATE………………………..SIGN………………………………..TARGET……..INDEX………………….
Instructions to CandidateS

− Write your name and index number in the spaces provided above.
− Sign and write the date of the examination in the spaces provided above
− This paper consists of two sections A and B.
− Answer all the questions in section A and B in the spaces provided
− All working MUST be clearly shown in the spaces provided in this booklet.
− Non programmable silent electronic calculators and KNEC mathematical tables may be used
except where stated otherwise.
Take: Speed of light in vacuum C = 3.0 x 108m/s

Acceleration due to gravity g = 10N/S

FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY

Section Question (s) Max. Score Candidates Score

A 1 – 12 25

13 12

14 8

15 11

16 12

17 12

B Total 80

This paper consists of 12 printed pages. Candidates should check the question paper to ensure that all the pages
are printed as indicated and no questions are missing
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SECTION A (25 MARKS)

Answer all the questions in the spaces provided.

1. Figure 1 below shows a ray of light incident to the first of the two mirrors placed at an angle of
600

fig 1

Complete the path of the ray after reflection from the mirrors. (1mk)

2. Figure 2 below shows a positive charge near a plate carrying negative charge.

fig 2

Draw the electric field between them. (2mks)

3. Two pins are hanging from a magnet as shown in the diagram below (figure 3)

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fig 3

Explain why they do not hang vertically downwards. (2mks)

4. Draw the diagrams to illustrate what happens when plane waves are incident on a slit.

i) When the width of the slit is large compared with the wavelengths of the waves. (2mks)

ii) When the width of the slit is small compared with wavelength of the waves. (2mks)

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5. What energy conversion occurs in a photocell? (1mk)

6. i) Arrange the following waves in order of decreasing wavelength; infrared, X-rays, micro-waves

and visible light (1mk)

ii) State one application of visible light. (1mk)

7. State two advantages of an alkaline battery over lead acid battery. (2mks)

8. A girl shouts and ears an echo after 0.6 seconds later from a cliff. If velocity of sound is 330m/s,
calculate the distance between her and the cliff. (3mks)

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………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

9. What is dispersion of light? (1mk)

10. Determine the reading of an ammeter in figure 4 below (2mks)

fig 4

11. A ray of light is incident on a glass oil interface as shown in figure 5 below. Determine the value
of r (Take refractive index of glass and oil as 3/2 and 6/3 respectively) (3mks)

fig 5

12. State two factors that affect the capacitance of a parallel plate capacitors. (2mks)

…………………………………………………………………………………..……………………………
…………………………………………………………………………….…….……………………………
………………………………………………………………………………..………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………….…………………………….

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SECTION B (55 MARKS)

13. (a) State Ohm’s law. (1 mark)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….…………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….……………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….

(b) You are provided with the following apparatus:

− Connecting wires
− An ammeter
− Fixed resistor
− A voltmeter
− A variable resistor
− Switch
− 2 dry cells in a cell holder

(i) In the spaces below, draw the circuit that can be used using the apparatus above to verify
Ohm’s Law. (3 marks)

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(ii) Briefly explain how you can obtain the results to verify Ohm’s law. (4 marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………..…………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(c)Study the circuit diagram below and answer the questions that follow.

(i) Calculate the effective resistance of the circuit. (3marks)

(ii) Find the voltmeter reading.

(2marks)

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14. (a) A Girl stands some distance from a high wall and claps her hands

(i)
What two measurements would need to be made in order to determine the speed of
sound? (2mks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………….………………………………….

(ii) Describe how you would make use of these measurements (3mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(iii) The speed of sound in air is 330m\s.How far from the wall would you stand? Choose an
answer from the following distances .10m, 200m, 500m.
Give reasons why you did not choose each of the other two distances (2mks)

(iv) The frequency of the sound emitted by the loud speaker is 1020Hz. Calculate the
wavelength of the sound wave in air where its velocity is 340m\s (2mks)

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b) Figure 15 shows the set up used to demonstrate interference of sound

i) An observer O, moves along XY.

State the observation(s) made. (1 mark)

(ii) State what would be observed if a cathode ray oscilloscope is moved along line XY. (1 mark)

(iii) What will a student hear if he moves along the line OC? (1 mark)

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………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

15. (a) State the conditions to be satisfied for total internal reflection to occur.
(2marks)

(b) A ray of light traveling in the direction EO in air enters a rectangular block as shown in the
diagram. The resulting angle of refraction is 18°.

18o

Find:

(i) The refractive index of the block. (2marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………….…………………..………………………………………………………
……………………………………….…………………..……………………………………………………………………………………………….……
……………..……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….…………

(ii) The critical angle C of the block.

(3marks)

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……………………………………………………………………………………….…………………..……………………………………………………
……………………………………….…………………..……………………………………………………………………………………………….……
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..…

16. (a) The figure below shows an object in front of lens.

(i) Using rays locate the image as seen by observer, E. (2 marks)

(ii) Give one application of such a lens as used above. (1 mark)

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………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b) Figure below shows a diagram of the human eye. Sketch a ray diagram showing how lens is used
to correct long sightedness. (2 marks)

(c) An object of height 10.5cm stands before a diverging lens of focal length 20cm and a
distance of 10cm from the lens. Determine;

(i) image distance. (3 marks)

(ii) height of the image. (3mark)

(iii) magnification. (2 mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

17. (a) State the Lenz’s law of electromagnetic induction. (1 mark)

(b) A bar magnet is moved into a coil of an insulated copper wire connected to a zero
centre galvanometer as shown below

N S

(i) Show on the figure above the direction of the induced current in the coil (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(ii) State and explain what is observed on the galvanometer when the south pole of the magnet is
moved into and then withdrawn from the coil. (2 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

The alternating voltage connected to the primary is 240V and current of 0.5.A. If 10% of the power
is dissipated as heat within the transformer, determine the current in the secondary coil.
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(3 marks)

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232/3 - PHYSICS - PAPER 3

APRIL. 2024- hours

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education

(K.C.S.E.)PRE-MOCK 2024

Name-----------------------------------------------------------------ADM------------------------------------

DATE………………………..SIGN……………………..TARGET……..INDEX…………….

Instructions

• Write your name, admission number, class and signature in the spaces provided at the top of
the page.
• Answer all the questions in the spaces provided in this paper.
• You are supposed to spend the first 15 minutes of the 2 ½ hours allowed for this paper
reading the whole paper carefully before your start.
• Marks will be given for clear record of observations actually made, for their suitability and
accuracy, and the use made of them.
• Candidates are advised to record their observations as soon as they are made.
• Electronic calculators and mathematical tables may be used.

FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY

Question(s) Maximum Score Candidate’s Score

1 20
A 11
2
B 9

TOTAL 40

This paper consists of 8 printed pages. Candidates are advised to check and to make sure all pages are
printed.

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QUESTION ONE.
You are provided with the following;
• 2 new dry cells
• Cell holder
• Ammeter (0-1A)
• Voltmeter
• 6 connecting wires (at least 3 with crocodile clips)
• Nichrome wire mounted on millimeter scale
• Micrometer screw gauge (may be shared)
• Jockey .
Proceed as follows;
a) Using micrometer screw gauge, measure the diameter, D of the nichrome wire.
i) D = __________________________ mm

ii) D = __________________________ m (1mark)

iii) The cross sectional area A is obtained by;
𝐴 = 𝜋𝑟 2 Where r = D/2
Determine the cross sectional area (A) in SI units. (2marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………

b) Set up the apparatus as shown below.

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c) Record the e.m.f across the terminals of the dry cells when the switch is open.

Emf = _________________________________________________________________
d) Adjust the position of jockey key such that length AX= 10cm.
Close the switch and record the voltmeter and ammeter reading on the table given.
e) Repeat step d) above for the other lengths shown on the table.
f) Complete the table. (5 marks)
Length, L AX 10 20 30 50 70 80
(cm)
Voltage (V)

Current (A)

Resistance(V/I)
(Ω)

g) Plot a graph of resistance (Ω) against Length (cm) on the graph provided below.(5 marks)

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h) i) Determine the slope of your graph. (3marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
⍴𝑳
ii) The relationship between L and R is given by the equation; 𝑹 = , determine the
𝑨
value of ⍴. (2marks)

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………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………..……………

iii) Suggest what constant ⍴ represents. (1mark)

QUESTION TWO (A)

You are provided with the following apparatus;

• Retort stand, clamp and boss

• A piece of thread
• Two small pieces of wood blocks
• Pendulum bob
• Meter rule
• Stop watch

Procedure;

Tie the bob to one end 20cm length of the thread and suspend it from the retort stand with the
help of the wooden blocks as shown in the diagram.

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Wooden pieces
blockssblocksMetere rul

20 cm

Retort Bob

stand Meter rule

Displace the bob by a small angle say 100; start the stopwatch simultaneously and allow it to
swing to make ten oscillations. Stop the clock and record the time taken in the table below.

Length L (m) 0.20 0.40 0.60 0.80

Time t for 10 oscillations (s)

Period T (s)

T2 (s2)

Q = 4π2 L

Repeat the same procedure for different lengths of thread 40cm, 60cm, 80cm and record the
corresponding times t taken in the table above.

Fill in the table above by determining the various values of T, T2 and Q as stated in the table.
(8marks)

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Determine the average value of quantity Q and state its SI units (2 marks)

Name the physical quantity represented by Q (1 mark)

QUESTION TWO (B)

You are provided with the following apparatus.

• A concave mirror
• Mirror holder
• White screen
• Meter rule
• A candle

Procedure

i) Set the apparatus as shown in the diagram below

Screen

Candle

Concave mirror

Metre rule

4
x u

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ii) Place a candle at a distance of x = 10 cm from the screen. Move the mirror to and fro to focus
a clear, sharp image of the candle flame on the screen.

iii) Measure the distance u between the mirror and the candle and the distance v between the
candle and the screen.

iv) Repeat the experiment for x = 15 cm and 20 cm. Complete the table below. (6 marks)

X (cm) 10 15 20 25
u(cm)
V =( u + x)(cm)
𝑢𝑣
𝑍 = 𝑢+𝑣 (cm)

Determine the average value of Z. (2marks)

vi) What is the significance of Z? (1mark)

254
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