26-06-2024

7102CMD3035LD24001 MD

PHYSICS

SECTION-A

1) A cube has a side of length 1.2 × 10–2 m. Calculate its volume :-

(1) 1.7 × 10–6 m3

(2) 1.73 × 10–6 m3
(3) 1.70 × 10–6 m3
(4) 1.732 × 10–6 m3

2) If the velocity (V), acceleration (A) and force (F) are taken as fundamental quantities then the
dimension of Young's modulus (Y) would be :-

(1) F A2 V–4
(2) F A2 V–5
(3) F A2 V–3
(4) F A2 V–2

3) The speed of light (C), gravitational constant (G) and plank's constant (h) are taken as the
fundamental units in a system. The dimension of time in this new system should be :-

(1) G1/2 h1/2 C–5/2

(2) G–1/2 h1/2 C1/2
(3) G1/2 h1/2 C–3/2
(4) G1/2 h1/2 C1/2

4) A vernier calliper has 10 divisions on the vernier scale which coincide with 8 divisions on the main
scale. The least count of the instrument is 0.1 MM. The main scale divisions are of :

(1) 0.5 MM
(2) 1 MM
(3) 1.5 MM
(4) 2.5 MM

5)

If the dimensions of a physical quantity are given by MaLbTc, then the physical quantity will be :

(1) velocity if a = 1, b = 0, c = –1
(2) acceleration if a = 1, b = 1, c = –2
(3) force if a = 0, b = –1, c = –2
(4) pressure if a = 1, b = –1, c = –2

6) The time period of oscillation of a simple pendulum is given by The length of the
pendulum is measured as l = 10 ± 0.01 cm and the time period as T = 0.5 ± 0.02 s. The percentage
error in the value of g is

(1) 5%
(2) 8%
(3) 7%
(4) none of these

7) The velocity of a particle depends upon time according to the relation v = αt + . The
dimensions of α, β and γ will be -

(1) LT–2, L, T
(2) L, T, LT–2
(3) T, L, LT–2
(4) LT–1, L, T

8) In an experiment the values of two resistances were measured to be R1 = (5.0 ± 0.2) Ω & R2 =
(10.0 ± 0.1) Ω. Then their combined resistance in series will be :-

(1) (15 ± 0.1) Ω

(2) (15 ± 0.2) Ω
(3) (15 ± 2%) Ω
(4) (15 ± 3%) Ω

9) If the speed of light (c), acceleration due to gravity (g) and pressure (p) are taken as fundamental
units, the dimensions of gravitational constant (G) are:-

0
(1) c gp–3
(2) c2g3p–2
0
(3) c g2p–1
(4) c2g2p–2

10) The circular division of a screw gauge are 50. It moves 0.5 mm on main scale in one rotation.
When a diameter of a wire is measured, the main scale reading is 3.5 mm and circular scale reading
is 32. If zero error in the screw gauge is 0.06 mm, then the diameter of the wire is :

(1) 3.82 mm
(2) 3.76 mm
(3) 3.88 mm
(4) None of these
11) The position of a particle moving along a straight line is given by x(t) = (1–e–At) where B is

constant and A > 0. The dimensions of is same as :-

(1) linear momentum

(2) moment of inertia
(3) relative velocity
(4) acceleration

12) If velocity of a particle depends on time t, according to equation

Then a, b, c, d represents the following quantities in order :

(1) Distance, distance, acceleration, time

(2) Acceleration, distance, time, distance
(3) Acceleration, distance, distance, time
(4) Distance, acceleration, distance, time

13) If the unit of force is 100 N, unit of length is 10 m and unit of time is 100 s, the unit of mass in
this system of units is :-

(1) 105 kg
(2) 107 kg
(3) 102 kg
(4) 109 kg

14) If error in measuring the radius of a sphere is 3% what is the percentage error in measuring the
volume of sphere ?

(1) 3%
(2) 27%
(3) 9%
(4) 6%

15) The resistance is where V = (100 ± 4) volt and I = (10 ± 0.2) ampere. What is the total
error in R ?

(1) 6%
(2) 7%
(3) 5.2%

(4)
16) A physical quantity X is given by . The percentage error in the measurements of k,l,m
and n are 1%, 2%, 2% and 4% respectively. The vlaue of X is uncertain by

(1) 9%
(2) 10%
(3) 11%
(4) 12%

17) A vernier calliper has 1 mm marks on the main scale. It has 20 equal divisions on the vernier
scale, which match with 16 main scale division. For this vernier calliper, the least count is -

(1) 0.02 mm
(2) 0.2 mm
(3) 0.05 mm
(4) 0.1 mm

18) The leastcount of a screw guage is 0.01 mm. The percentage error in measuring 5 mm thickness
will be:

(1) 0.01%
(2) 0.1%
(3) 0.2%
(4) 0.02%

19) In 4 full rotations the circular scale of a screw gauge advances by 2 mm. If total 100 divisions
are there on circular scale, then least count of screw gauge will be :-

(1) 0.005 cm
(2) 0.0005 cm
(3) 0.02 mm
(4) 0.002 mm

20) The pitch of a screw gauge is 0.5 mm and there are 100 divisions on it circular scale. The
instrument reads +2 divisions on circular scale when nothing is put in-between its jaws. In
measuring the diameter of a wire, there are 8 divisions on the main scale and 83rd division of
circular scale coincides with the reference line. Then the diameter of the wire is

(1) 4.05 mm
(2) 4.405 mm
(3) 3.05 mm
(4) 1.25 mm

21) Two full turns of Screw gauge cover a distance of 1 mm on main scale. The total number of
circular scale divisions are 100. The measured value of thickness of sheet will be:
(1) 4.555 mm
(2) 4.295 mm
(3) 2.295 mm
(4) 2.245 mm

22) Time intervals measured by a clock give the following readings :

1.25 s, 1.24 s, 1.27 s, 1.21 s and 1.28 s. What is the percentage relative error of the observations ?

(1) 2%
(2) 4%
(3) 16%
(4) 1.6 %

23) Percentage error in measuring the radius and mass of a solid sphere are 1% and 2%
respectively. Then error in measurement of density of the solid sphere is :-

(1) 3%
(2) 4%
(3) 6%
(4) 5%

24) If energy of a photon is

E ∝ hacbλd
here h = Planck's constant
c = speed of light
λ = wavelength
then find out value of a, b and d :

(1) 1, 1, 1
(2) 1, –1, 1
(3) 1, 1, –1
(4) None of these

25) A physical quantity X is given by X = The percentage error in the measurements of k,ℓ, m
and n are 1%, 2%, 3% and 4% respectively. The value of X is uncertain by

(1) 8 %
(2) 10 %
(3) 12 %
 None of the above
(4)

26)

If the volume of a cube is measured with a percentage error of 9%, the error in its length is:-

(1) 3%
(2) 6%
(3) 9%
(4) 18%

27)

If potential energy is given as

u = mgh
where m = mass
g = acceleration due to gravity
and, h = height

If error in measuring m, g and energy are 1%, 2% and 4% respectively, then find out error in
measurement of height ?
(1) 1%
(2) 4%
(3) 6%
(4) 7%

28) The radius of a ball is (5.2 ± 0.2) cm. The percentage error in the volume of the ball is :-

(1) 11%
(2) 4%
(3) 7%
(4) 9%

29) The method of dimensional analysis can be used to derive which of the following relations ?

–λt
(1) N0e
(2) A sin(ωt + kx)

(3)
mv2 + Iω2
(4) None of the above

30)

The length, breadth and thickness of a strip are

(10.0±0.1) cm
(1.00±0.01) cm and
(0.100± 0.001) cm
 respectively. The most probable error in its volume will be
(1) ± 0.03 cm3
(2) ± 0.111 cm3
(3) ± 0.012 cm3
(4) None of these

31) Choose the incorrect statement out of the following :-

(1) Every measurement made by any measuring instrument has some error.
(2) Every calculated physical quantity that is based on measured values has some error.
(3) A measurement can have more accuracy but less precision and vice versa.
(4) The percentage error is different from relative error.

32) In C.G.S. system, the magnitude of the force is 100 dynes. In another system where the
fundamental physical quantities are kilogram, metre and minute, the magnitude of the force is :-

(1) 0.036
(2) 0.36
(3) 3.6
(4) 36

33) In the formula x = 3yz2 ; x has the dimensions of force and Z has the dimensions of density, then
dimensions of y are :-

(1) M7L–1T2
(2) M1L7T2
(3) M–1L7T–2
(4) M–7LT2

34) If force (f), work (w) and velocity (v) are taken as fundamental quantities. What is the
dimensional formula of time (T) :-

(1) [w f v]
(2) [w f v–1]
(3) [w–1 f–1 v]
(4) [w f–1 v–1]

35) Which of the following pairs of physical quantities has the same dimensions?

(1) Work and power

(2) Momentum and energy
(3) Force and power
(4) Work and energy

SECTION-B
1) The value of 60J/min on a system which has 100g, 100cm, and 1 min as fundamental unit is.

(1) 2.16 × 106

(2) 2.16 × 104
(3) 2.16 × 103
(4) 2.16 × 105

2) If the errors involved in the measurement of a side and mass of a cube are 3% and 4%
respectively, what is the maximum permissible error in the density of a material :

(1) 11%
(2) 12%
(3) 13%
(4) None of these

3) A vernier calliper has 1 mm marks on the main scale. It has 20 equal divisions on the vernier scale
which match with 16 main scale divisions. For this vernier calliper, the least count is :-

(1) 0.02 mm
(2) 0.2 mm
(3) 0.05 mm
(4) 0.1 mm

4) What is the diameter of sphere shown in figure. Pitch of screwgauge is 1 mm and number of

divisions in circular scale are 50 :-

(1) 1.238 cm
(2) 1.218 cm
(3) 1.228 cm
(4) 1.215 cm

5) The determination of the value of acceleration due to gravity (g) by simple pendulum method

employs the formula, . The expression for the maximum relative error in the value of 'g' is
:

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

6) Given that v is speed, r is the radius and g is the acceleration due to gravity. Which of the
following is dimensionless?

(1) v2/rg
(2) v2r/g
(3) v2g/r
(4) v2rg

7) A new system of units is proposed in which unit of mass is α kg, unit of length is β m and unit of
time is γ s. What will be value of 5J in this new system :

(1) 5αβ2γ–2
(2) 5α–1β–2γ2
(3) 5α–2β–1γ–2
(4) 5α–1β2γ2

8) The number 7.845 and 7.835 on rounding off to 3 significant figures will give :-

(1) 7.85 and 7.84

(2) 7.84 and 7.83
(3) 7.85 and 7.83
(4) 7.84 and 7.84

9) Force F is given in terms of time t and distance x by

F = AsinCt + BcosDx

Then the dimensions of and are given by :-

0 0
(1) MLT–2, M L T–1
0 0
(2) MLT–2, M L–1T
0 0 0 0
(3) M L T , M L1T–1
0 0 0 0
(4) M L1T–1, M L T

10) A vernier calliper in which 10 divisions of vernier scale coincide with 9 divisions of main scale
(each of the main scale division is 0.1 cm) is used to measure length of a cube of mass 4.832 g. If the
main scale reading is 12 mm and 2nd division of vernier scale coincides with main scale division the
density of cube in appropriate significant figure is :-

(1) 2.661 g cm–3

(2) 2.66 g cm–3
(3) 2.676 g cm–3
(4) 2.660 g cm–3
11) Force acting on a particle is 2N. If unit of length and time are doubled and unit of mass is
halved, then the numerical value of the force in new system will be :

(1) 2
(2) 4
(3) 6
(4) 8

12) Thickness of a copper plate is measured using a screw gauge with following information.
No. of circular scale divisions = 50
One complete revolution is equivalent to 0.5 mm on linear scale

Figure (A) when screw is closed and touches stud

Figure (B) when sheet is placed between screw and stud

The correct thickness of sheet is :

(1) 5.53mm
(2) 5.35mm
(3) 6.65mm
(4) 6.79mm

13) In a vernier callipers, one main scale division is x cm and n divisions of the vernier scale coincide
with (n–1) division of the main scale. The least count (in cm) of the callipers is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

14) The main scale of a Vernier calliper reads in mm and its Vernier is divided into 10 divisions
which coincide with 9 divisions of the main scale. The reading for the situation is found to be (x/10)
mm. Find the value of x. In fig (1) 8th div. of V.S. coincides with M.S.D. & in fig (2) 6th div. of V.S.

coincides with M.S.D.

(1) 104
(2) 108
(3) 114
(4) 118

15) The least count of a stop watch is 0.2 second. The time of 20 oscillations of a pendulum is
measured to be 25 seconds. The percentage error in the time period is

(1) 16 %
(2) 0.8 %
(3) 1.8 %
(4) 8 %

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A

1) Which of the following contains the least number of molecules ?

(1) 4.4 g CO2

(2) 3.4 g NH3
(3) 1.6 g CH4
(4) 3.2 g SO2

2) Molecular weight of dibasic acid is W. Its equivalent weight will be :

(1)

(2)

(3) W
(4) 3W

3) 1 amu is equal to :-

(1)

(2)

(3) 1 g of H2
(4) 1.66 × 10–24 kg

4) A gas is found to contain 2.34 g of Nitrogen and 5.34 g of oxygen. Simplest formula of the
compound is -

(1) N2O
(2) NO
(3) N2O3
(4) NO2

5) When gases combine or are produced in a chemical reaction they do so in a simple ratio by
volume provided all gases are at same temperature and pressure. This law is known as -

(1) Dalton's Law

(2) Gay Lussac's Law
(3) Avogadro's Law
(4) Law of Lavoisier

6) The number of atoms in "n" mole of gas can be given by :-

(1) n × Av. No. × atomicity

(2)

(3)

(4) None

7) 4.4 g of an unknown gas occupies 2.24 L of volume at STP. The gas may be :-

(1) N2O
(2) CO
(3) CO2
(4) 1 & 3 both

8) Number of oxygen atoms in 8 g of ozone is -

(1) 6.02 × 1023

(2)

(3)

(4)

9) At NTP, 5.6 L of a gas weight 8 grams. The vapour density of gas is :-

(1) 32
(2) 40
(3) 16
(4) 8

10) The number of molecules in 22.4 cm3 of nitrogen gas at STP is ________.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

11) 4 mol H2 and 1mol O2 are reacted. then find out produced mass of H2O

(1) 36g
(2) 18g
(3) 72g
(4) 9g

12) 7 g of N2 will produce

:-

(1) 17 g NH3
(2) 8.5 g NH3
(3) 34 g NH3
(4) 7g NH3

13) What is volume (in L) of oxygen required at STP to completely convert 1.5 moles of sulphur to
sulphur dioxide ?
S + O2 → SO2

(1) 43.6
(2) 33.6
(3) 11.2
(4) 23.6

14) At NTP, 5.6 L of a gas weight 8g. The vapour density of gas is :-

(1) 32
(2) 40
(3) 16
(4) 8

15) Which of the following compounds has same empirical formula as that of fructose :-

(1) CH3CHO
(2) CH3COOH
(3) CH3OH
(4) C2H6

16) Which of the following has the highest mass?

(1) 1g atom of C

(2)
mole of CH4
(3) 10 mole of pure H2O
(4) 8 g of O2

17)

Total number of neutrons in 5g of D2O is :-

(1) 0.25 NA
(2) 2.5 NA
(3) 1.1 NA
(4) 0.5 NA

18) The percentage of nitrogen in urea (NH2CONH2) is :-

(1) 38.4
(2) 46.6
(3) 59.1
(4) 61.3

19) 48 × 1022 atoms of element weight 100g. The atomic mass of the element is -

(1) 290
(2) 125
(3) 34.4
(4) 10.4

20) Calculate the approximate volume of air required for the complete combustion of 5L of C4H8 :-​​

(1) 150 L
(2) 30 L
(3) 5 L
(4) 40 L

21) Assertion : At S.T.P. volumes of 2 mole O2 and 2 mole N2 are equal.

Reason : According to Avagadro's law equal mole of all gases at same temperature and pressure
possess equal volume.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

22) Assertion (A) : The empirical mass of ethene is half of its molecular mass.
Reason (R) : The empirical formula represents the simplest whole number ratio of various atoms
present in a compound.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) A is true but R is false.
(3) A is false but R is true.
(4) Both A and R are false

23) Assertion: 1 amu represents a mass equal to 1.66 × 10–27 kg.

Reason: 1 amu represents the actual mass of one atom of carbon-12.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

24) Which of the following concentration terms depends on temperature

(1) %(w/w)
(2) Molarity
(3) Molality
(4) Mole fraction

25) Characteristics of a liquid are :–

(1) Definite shape & volume

(2) Indefinite shape & volume
(3) Definite shape & indefinite volume
(4) Definite volume & indefinite shape

26) Relative atomic mass of Ca-atom is

(1) 400 g
(2) 40
(3) 40 mg
(4) 40 kg

27) Assertion : 1 mole H2 and 1 mole D2 contain same number of atoms.

Reason : 1 mole of H2 has same mass as 1 mole of D2.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

28) Volume of 14 g N2 gas at STP is

(1) 11.2 L
(2) 5.6 L
(3) 22.4 L
(4) 16.8 L

29) Number of neutrons in 36 mL H2O(ℓ) are :-

(1) 16 NA
(2) 8 NA
(3) 32 NA
(4) 4 NA

30) 2.5 mol of calcium has mass of :-

(1) 100g
(2) 10g
(3) 5g
(4) 1g

31) Limiting reagent is one which is :-

(1) Consumed first in reaction

(2) Always minimum in mass
(3) Always minimum in mole
(4) None of these

32) How many electrons are present in 1.4 g N–3 ion.

(1) 6.02 × 1023

(2) 6.02 × 1022
(3) 6.02 × 1021
(4) 6.02 × 1024

33) The mass of 0.25 mole of H2SO4 is -

(1) 0.245
(2) 2.45
(3) 24.5
(4) 49.0

34) Avogadro number (6.023 × 1023) of carbon atoms are present in :-

(1) 12 grams of CO2

(2) 22.4 grams of CO2
(3) 44 grams of CO2
(4) 12 moles of CO2

35) Which one of the following has maximum number of molecules ?

(1) 16 g of O2
(2) 16 g of NO2
(3) 4 g of N2
(4) 2 g of H2

SECTION-B

1) Suppose the elements X and Y combine to form two compounds XY2 and X3Y2. When 0.1 mole of
XY2 weighs 10 g and 0.05 mole of X3Y2 weighs 9 g, the atomic weights of X and Y are

(1) 20, 30
(2) 30, 20
(3) 40, 30
(4) 60, 40

2) If 1 mL of water contains 20 drops then number of molecules in a drop of water is

(1) 6.023 × 1023

(2) 1.673 × 1021
(3) 1.344 × 1018
(4) 4.346 × 1020

3)

The maximum number of molecules are present in

(1) 5 L of N2 gas at STP

(2) 0·5 g of H2 gas
(3) 10 g of O2 gas
(4) 15 L of H2 gas at STP

4) The percentage of oxygen in ethanol is

(1) 13.13%
(2) 34.78%
(3) 60%
(4) 75%

5) Match List-I with List-II :

List-I List-II
 4.48 litres of
(a) (i) 0.2 moles
O2 at STP

12.022 × 1022 12.044 × 1023

(b) (ii)
molecules of H2O molecules

(c) 96 g of O2 (iii) 6.4 g

67.2 litres at
(d) 88 g of CO2 (iv)
STP
(Given – Molar volume of a gas at STP = 22.4 L)
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
(2) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
(3) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)
(4) (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)

6) The number of moles of hydrogen molecules required to produce 20 moles of ammonia through
Haber's process is :-

(1) 10
(2) 20
(3) 30
(4) 40

7) 20cc of CO2 are passed over red hot coke. The volume of CO evolved is –

(1) 10 cc
(2) 20 cc
(3) 30 cc
(4) 40 cc

8) How many moles of electron weighs one kilogram?

(1) 6.02 × 1023

(2)

(3)

(4)

9) Insulin contains 0.32% of sulphur by mass. Then calculate minimum molecular mass of insulin :-

(1) 100
(2) 1000
(3) 10000
(4) 10
10) An oxide of sulphur contains 50% of sulphur in it. Its emperical formula is

(1) SO2
(2) SO3
(3) SO
(4) S2O

11) Aspirin has the formula C9H8O4 . How many atoms of oxygen are there in a tablet weighing 360
mg ?

(1) 1.204 × 1023

(2) 1.08 × 1022
(3) 1.204 × 1024
(4) 4.81 × 1021

12) Match the following Column-I to Column-II.

Column-I Column-II

(A) 1 gm atom of nitrogen (P) 28 amu

(B) 1 gm of nitrogen (Q)

nitrogen atoms

(C) 1 gm molecule of nitrogen (R) 22.4 litre of N2 at STP.

(D) 1 molecule of nitrogen (S) 6.02 × 1023 N atoms

(1) (A)–(S), (B)–(Q), (C)–(R), (D)–(P)
(2) (A)–(P), (B)–(Q), (C)–(R), (D)–(S)
(3) (A)–(S), (B)–(R), (C)–(Q), (D)–(P)
(4) (A)–(S), (B)–(P), (C)–(Q), (D)–(R)

13) A gas found to have formula (CO)X and its vapour density is 70 the value of X will be

(1) 3
(2) 5
(3) 6
(4) 2.5

14) For the reaction 2P + Q → R, 8 mol of P and 5 mol of Q will produce :-

(1) 8 mol of R
(2) 5 mol of R
(3) 4 mol of R
(4) 13 mol of R

15) The empirical formula and molecular mass of a compound are CH2O and 180 g respectively.
what will be molecular formula of the compound?
(1) C9H18O9
(2) CH2O
(3) C6H12O6
(4) C2H4O2

BOTANY

SECTION-A

1) Which one of the following is correct regarding decomposition ?

I II

(1) Formation of dark coloured amorphous substance (i) Fragmentation

(2) Water soluble inorganic nutrients go down into the soil horizon (ii) Humification

(3) release of inorganic nutrients by microbial activities (iii) Minerlisation

(4) Break down detritus into smaller particles (iv) Leaching

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

2)

Plant capture only _____ of the PAR and this amount of energy sustains the entire living world

(1) 50 - 60 %
(2) 40 - 80 %
(3) 2 - 10 %
(4) 20 - 40 %

3)

Which of the following can not be explained by using ecological pyramid :-

(a) Omnivory
(b) Decomposition
(c) Biotic potential/reproductive potential

(d) Energy level

(1) a, b
(2) Only a
(3) c, d
(4) Only b

4) Approximately how much of the solar energy that falls on the leaves of a plant is converted to
chemical energy by photosynthesis ?

(1) 1–5%
(2) 2–10%
(3) 30%
(4) 50%

5)

Find out correct statement regarding to G.F.C. and D.F.C.:

(1) G.F.C. and D.F.C. both are major conduit of energy flow in an aquatic ecosystem
(2) G.F.C. and D.F.C. both are major conduit of energy flow in an terrestrial ecosystem
(3) G.F.C. is the major conduit of energy flow in an aquatic and D.F.C. for terrestrial ecosystem
(4) G.F.C. is the major conduit of energy flow in an terrestrial and D.F.C. for aquatic ecosystem.

6)

Which of the following is not a step involved in decomposition?

(1) Immobilisation
(2) Fragmentation
(3) Catabolism
(4) Humification

7) By the following process the water soluble inorganic nutrients go down into the soil horizon and
get precipitated as unavailable salts

(1) Fragmentation
(2) Leaching
(3) Catabolism
(4) Mineralization

8) Assertion : Pyramid of energy is always upright, never be inverted.

Reason : When energy flow from a particular trophic level to next trophic level, some energy is
always lost as heat at each step.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

9) Assertion (A) : Productivity, decomposition, energy flow and nutrient cycling are the four
important components of an ecosystem. Reason (R) : Secondary productivity is the rate of
assimilation of food energy by the consumers.

(1) A and R are correct and R is correct explanation of A.

(2) A & R are correct but R is not correct explanation of A.
(3) A is correct but R is false.
(4) Both are incorrect.

10) Assertion : Decomposition is largely an oxygen requiring process.

Reason : Decomposition takes place by anaerobic bacteria.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) Both assertion and reason are false.

11) Assertion : Detritus food chain may be connected with the grazing food chain at some trophic
levels.
Reason : Some of the organisms of DFC are prey to the GFC animals.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) Both assertion and reason are false.

12) Assertion : Humus undergoes decomposition at an extremely slow rate.

Reason : Humus is a dark coloured amorphous substance, highly resistant to microbial action.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

13) The given ecological pyramid represents pyramid of energy in an ecosystem. What must be the
amount of energy in the form of light available to this ecosystem :-

(1) 10,000 J
(2) 1,00,000 J
(3) 1,000,000 J
(4) 10,000,000 J
14) Given pyramid is observed in :-

(1) Pyramid of number without any exception

(2) Pyramid of energy without any exception
(3) Pyramid of biomass without any exception
(4) Both (1) and (3)

15) How many statements are correct ?

(a) Net primary productivity is available biomass for consumption to heterotrophs
(b) Secondary productivity is defined as rate of formation of new organic matter by heterotrophs
(c) The annual net primary productivity of ocean is greater than land
(d) Warm and moist environment favours decomposition

(1) a, b, c & d
(2) a, b & c
(3) a, b & d
(4) a & c

16)

Limiting factor for productivity in ocean is

(1) Nitrogen
(2) Water
(3) Oxygen
(4) CO2

17) Incorrect statement is/are :-

A. In GFC size of organism increases towards higher trophic level
B. There may be a start of detritus food chain from the every living organism of grazing food chain
C. After the organismic death of any food chain there may be a start of detritus food chain
D. At a time one species can participate in only one type of food chain
E. Some of the organisms of DFC are prey to the GFC animals
Options :

(1) A and C
(2) B and D
(3) D
(4) E

18) Read the following statements. Find out how many statements are correct :-
(a) In a tree ecosystem the pyramid of numbers is inverted.
(b) Pyramid of number show biotic potential of a ecosystem.
(c) Pyramid of biomass in aquatic ecosystem is inverted.
(d) Measurement of biomass in terms of dry weight is more accurate
Option :-

(1) a, b, d
(2) a, b, c & d
(3) a, c
(4) only d

19) Which can represent an inverted pyramid :-

(a) Pyramid of number in grassland ecosystem
(b) Pyramid of energy in pond ecosystem
(c) Pyramid of biomass in grassland ecosystem
(d) Pyramid of number in tree ecosystem

(1) a, b
(2) c, d
(3) a, c
(4) only d

20) The functional components of the ecosystems are :-

a. Productivity b. Decomposition
c. Nutrient cycling d. Energy flow
e. Dominance f. Stratification

(1) a, b, and c
(2) a, b, c and d
(3) a, b, c, d and e
(4) a, b, c, d and f

21) Find out the amount of energy available at C2:-

(1) 100 KJ
(2) 1000 KJ
(3) 10 KJ
(4) 1 KJ
22)
In this food chain, which trophic level have maximum biomass ?

(1) Trophic level - I

(2) Trophic level - II
(3) Trophic level - III
(4) Trophic level - IV

23)

The correct order of the process of decomposition is

(1) Catabolism → Fragmentation → Leaching → Humification→ Mineralization

(2) Catabolism →Fragmentation → Humification → Leaching → Mineralization
(3) Fragmentation → Humification → Catabolism → Leaching → Mineralization
(4) Fragmentation → Leaching → Catabolism → Humification → Mineralization

24) Plant → Insects → Frog → Snake → Eagle

In above food chain, snake is :-

(1) Primary carnivore as well as secondary consumer

(2) Tertiary consumer & have T3
(3) Top consumer and have T4
(4) Tertiary consumer & have T4

25) Which of the following representations show the pyramid of numbers in a grassland ecosystem?

(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) None of these

26)
Above graph represents pyramid of energy. If the energy input in the form of ISR (Incident Solar
Radiation) is 1,400,000 J, then how much energy will be present at primary carnivore level :-
(1) 14
(2) 140
(3) 1400
(4) 14000

27) What is the magnitude of energy at top carnivores (T4) level in given figure ?

(1) 0.1 J
(2) 0.01 J
(3) 1 J
(4) 10 J

28) If plant uses 6 percent of PAR then percentage of I.S.R., plant is using :

(1) 6%
(2) 3%
(3) 12%
(4) 24%

29) Statement 1 : Energy flow is unidirectional.

Statement 2 : Firstly plants capture solar energy and then food is transferred from the producers
to decomposers.

(1) Both are correct

(2) Both are Incorrect
(3) Statement 1 is correct but 2 is incorrect
(4) Statement 2 is correct but 1 is incorrect

30) Primary productivity is affected by

(i) Temperature
(ii) Sunlight
(iii) Moisture
(iv) Availability of nutrients

(1) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

(2) (i) and (ii)
(3) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(4) (ii), (iii) and (iv)

31) Statement-I : Each trophic level has a certain mass of living material at a particular time called
as the standing crop.
Statement-II : The number of trophic level is not restricted in grazing food chain. [G.F.C.]

(1) Statement-I & Statement-II both are correct.

(2) Statement-I is correct & Statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect & Statement-II is correct.
(4) Both Statement-I & Statement-II is incorrect.

32) Statement-I : Of the incident solar radiation more than 50% of it is photosynthetically active
radiation (P.A.R.)
Statement-II : Plants capture only 15-20% of the P.A.R.

(1) Statement-I & Statement-II both are correct.

(2) Statement-I is correct & Statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect & Statement-II is correct.
(4) Both Statement-I & Statement-II is incorrect.

33) Statement-I : Secondary productivity is defined as the rate of formation of new organic matter
by consumer.
Statement-II : Gross primary productivity minus respiration losses (R) is the net primary
productivity (NPP)

(1) Statement-I & Statement-II both are correct.

(2) Statement-I is correct & Statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect & Statement-II is correct.
(4) Both Statement-I & Statement-II is incorrect.

34) Productivity is measured in term of weight by _____ and energy by _____ respectively
(i) (gm m–2) yr–1 (ii) g–2 yr–1
(iii) g–1 yr–1 (iv) (kcal m–2) yr–1

(1) (ii) and (iv)

(2) (iv) and (i)
(3) (ii) and (iii)
(4) (i) and (iv)

35) _____ is defined as the amount of biomass on organic mater produce per unit area over a time
period by plants during photosynthesis.

(1) Primary production

(2) Secondary productivity
(3) Net productivity
(4) Both (1) & (2)

SECTION-B

1) Choose the number of correct features associated with energy flow in an ecosystem :-
A. Grazing food chain is major conduit for energy flow in terrestrial ecosystem.
B. Pyramid of energy is always upright.
C. Ecosystems are not exempted from Ist and IInd law of thermodynamics
D. Maximum two trophic levels, can be possible for energy transfer

(1) 2
(2) 1
(3) 3
(4) 4

2)

Annual net primary productivity of whole biosphere is approximately.

(1) 70 billion tons

(2) 55 billion tons
(3) 170 billion tons
(4) 33 trillion tons

3)

The importance of ecosystem lies in :

(1) Flow of energy

(2) Cycling of materials
(3) Both the above
(4) Deforestation

4) Assertion: Complexity of food web is dependent over length of food chains

Reason: Complexity of food webs determine the stability of an ecosystem

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true, and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true statement, but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements.

5)
Above pyramid reperesent.

(1) Pyramid of grassland on the basis of biomass.

(2) Pyramid of grassland on the basis of number.
(3) Pyramid of aquatic ecosystem on basis of biomass
(4) Pyramid of energy

6) Read the following and find out which one is incorrect about ecological pyramids :-
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

7) In given pyramid of grassland ecosystem identify B:

(1) B = 3
(2) B = 55
(3) B = 80
(4) B = 100

8) Which of the following option gives the correct categorisation of steps involved in the
decomposition process :-

Leaching Fragmentation Humification Catabolism

Water soluble
Leads a
Detrivores break inorganic Process
accumulation-n of
(1) down detritus into matter carried
dark coloured
small particles undergo in decompose
substance
soil

Occurs at lower Carried out by Complete Involves

(2)
horizon of soil bacteria and fungus decomposition earth worm
 Formation of Organic
Precipitation of
dark colour, matter
inorganic material Earth worm detritus
(3) amorphous decomposed
as unavailable salts in small particles
colloidal by bacteria
in soil
substance and fungus

Break down of Digestion in

Removal of
complex organic Formation of the
(4) inorganic matter for
matter in simple in Humus intestine of
soil
simple secavenger

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

9) In the below diagram 'B' is :

(1) Decomposer
(2) Omnivore
(3) Top consumer
(4) Producer

10) Match the following :-

A B C D E

(1) Herbivores Detritus Litter Cyclic Linear

(2) Secondary producer Decomposition Litter Linear Cyclic

(3) T-2 Duff GFC Cyclic Linear

(4) Bacteria Predation Fungi Linear Linear

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4
11) Calculate the energy level at the fox :-

(1) A = 100 J
(2) A = 10 J
(3) A = 1000 J
(4) A = 1 J

12) In the given pyramid calculate the amount of energy available to secondary consumer.

(1) 100
(2) 1000
(3) 5000
(4) 10

13) Each trophic level has a certain mass of living material at a particular time called as the

(1) Secondary productivity

(2) Standing state
(3) Primary productivity
(4) Standing crop

14) Further degradation of humus by some microbes and release of inorganic nutrients is called :-

(1) Humification
(2) Mineralisation
(3) Fragmentation
(4) Leaching

15) Pyramid of energy is always :

(1) Inverted
(2) Upright
(3) Spindle shaped
(4) None

ZOOLOGY

SECTION-A

1) Read the following statement carefully :-

(A) Alveoli are primary sites of exchange of gases.
(B) Trachea has 'c' shape rings which are ventrally incomplete.
(C) Coverings of lung are called pleura.
(D) Right lung has 2 lobes and left has 3 lobes.
How many statements is/are not incorrect ?

(1) 2
(2) 1
(3) 3
(4) 4

2) Select the incorrect statement with respect to emphysema :-

(1) Major cause is cigarette smoking

(2) It causes lungs fibrosis and severe lungs damage.
(3) Alveolar walls are damaged
(4) Respiratory surface gets decreased

3) Oxyhaemoglobin dissociates at :-

(1) Low in tissues

(2) High in tissues
(3) Equal

(4) All times irrespective of

4)

Total amount of CO2 transported through plasma:-

(1) 7%
(2) 70%
(3) 77%
(4) 23%

5) Primary respiratory muscle is :-

(1) Diaphragm
(2) EICM
(3) IICM
(4) Abdominal muscle

6) Limulus respire through

(1) Green gland

(2) Book gills
(3) Ctenidia
(4) Skin

7) Incomplete cartilaginous rings provides support to which of the following structures ?

(1) Trachea
(2) Primary bronchi
(3) Initial Bronchioles
(4) All of these

8) In which of the following, gaseous exchange between O2 and CO2 occurs through general body
surface :-

(1) Sponges
(2) Coelenterates
(3) Flatworms
(4) All

9) Diffusion of gases occurs in the alveolar region only and not in the other parts of respiratory
system, because :-

(1) Alveolar region is very thin

(2) Alveolar region has rich supply of blood vessels
(3) Alveolar region has very large surface area
(4) All are correct

10) Breathing rate is lowered during eating because

(1) Our lungs do not get enough supply of blood

(2) Swallowing and breathing cannot go together at the same time
(3) Lungs are compressed as stomach enlarges
(4) More energy is required during eating

11) Assertion :- In the alveoli, dissociation of CO2 from carbamino-haemoglobin takes place.
Reason :- In the alveoli is low and is high.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

12) Assertion: Oxygen is transported mainly as oxyhaemoglobin

Reason: PO2 is higher in alveoli than body tissues

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation for A
(3) A is correct but R is incorrect
(4) Both A and R is incorrect

13) Assertion (A) : The anatomical setup of lungs in thorax is such that any change in the volume of
the thoracic cavity will be reflected in the pulmonary cavity.
Reason (R) : Such an arrangement is essential for breathing as we cannot directly alter the
pulmonary volume.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Assertion are correct True but Reason is not correct.
(3) Assertion is not correct but reason is correct.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.

14) Assertion : Gills are used by most of aquatic arthropods & molluscs.
Reason : Vascularised bags called lungs are used by terrestrial animals for exchange of gases.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

15) During expiration the diaphragm becomes :-

(1) Inverted dome shaped

(2) Oblique
(3) Flattened
(4) Dome-shaped

16) Carbon dioxide entering erythrocytes reacts with water to form carbonic acid, the enzyme is :-

(1) Carbonic anhydrase

(2) Carboxy peptidase
(3) Hydrolase
(4) Oxidoreductase

17) Select the correct combination :-

(1) IC = TV + ERV
(2) FRC = ERV + IRV + TV
(3) RV = IRV
(4) VC = ERV + IRV + TV

18) The amount of oxygen delivers to tissue by two litre of blood under normal condition is
approximately:-

(1) 5 ml
(2) 15 ml
(3) 100 ml
(4) 50 ml

19) Blood carries the CO2 in 3 forms. The correct percentages of CO2 in these forms are -

As
Dissolved form
carbamino haemoglobin As bicarbonates
in plasma
in RBC

(A) 20-25% 70% 7%

(B) 70% 20-25% 7%

(C) 20-25% 7% 70%

(D) 7% 20-25% 70%

(1) A & B both
(2) C & D both
(3) A only
(4) A & D both

20) Carbon dioxide, a product of cellular respiration, is carried in the bloodstream. When the level of
CO2 in the blood becomes greater then :-

(1) The rate of respiration decreases

(2) The pH of the blood rises
(3) The respiratory centres become dormant
(4) The rate of respiration increases.

21) How many statements are right ?

(A) Nasal chambers are opened into a part of pharynx i.e. Nasopharynx
(B) Pharynx is a common path of food and air
(C) Epiglottis is a bony, flap like structure which covers glottis
(D) Larynx is a cartilagenous box which produces sound

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

22) How many organism in the list given below do respiration by general body surface.
Amoeba, Insects, Sponges, Flatworm, Fishes, Birds, Coeleterates, Reptiles

(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4) 6

23) Read the following statements and choose the correct option
Statement A: The conducting part transports the atmospheric air to the alveoli, clears it from
foreign particles, humidifies and also brings the air to body temperature.
Statement B: The branching network of bronchi, bronchioles and alveoli comprise the lungs.

(1) Both the statements are correct

(2) Both the statements are incorrect
(3) Only statement A is correct
(4) Only statement B is correct

24) Statement-I : A chemosensitive area adjacent to the rhythm centre in the medulla region of
brain is highly sensitive to CO2.
Statement-II : Conducting part of respiratory system provides surface for diffusion of O2 and CO2.
Choose the correct option from the given Statements.

(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect.

(2) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct.
(3) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
(4) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.

25) Which of the following centre present in the pons region of the brain can moderate the functions
of the respiratory rhythm centre ?

(1) Dorsal respiratory group of neurons

(2) Ventral respiratory group of neurons
(3) Pneumotaxic centre
(4) Cortoid and aortic bodies

26) Proliferation of fibrous tissue in lungs of stone mine workers is characterstic feature of :-

(1) Asthma
(2) Occupational Respiratory Disorder
(3) Emphysema
(4) Pleurisy

27) Chloride shift occurs in response of ?

(1) H+
(2) K+
–
(3) HCO3
(4) Na+

28) Difficulty in breathing causing wheezing due to inflammation of bronchi and bronchioles is
related to which disorder of respiratory system?

(1) Asthma
(2) Bronchitis
(3) Emphysema
(4) Occupational respiratory disease

29)

Among vertebrates ...A... use gills whereas reptiles, birds and mammals respire through the ...B...
.Amphibians like frogs can respire through ...C... also. Mammals have a well adapted respiratory
system.

Select appropriate choice for the blanks A, B, and C to complete the given statement.
(1) A-fishes, B-lungs, C-gills
(2) A-fishes, B-lungs, C-dry skin
(3) A-fishes, B-lungs, C-Moist skin
(4) A-mammals, B-gills, C-Moist skin

30) Lungs are made up of air-filled sacs, the alveoli. They do not collapse even after forceful
expiration, because of :-

(1) Inspiratory Reserve Volume

(2) Tidal Volume
(3) Expiratory Reserve Volume
(4) Residual Volume

31) Clinical assessment of pulmonary function is done by:-

(1) Sphygomanometer
(2) Pulse oxymeter
(3) Spirometer
(4) Barometer

32) Trachea divides at level of :-

(1) C7
(2) T4
(3) T5
(4) T6
33) Assertion :- Larynx is a cartilaginous box which helps in sound production.
Reason :- Epiglottis flap covers the glottis during swallowing and prevents the entry of food into the
larynx.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

34)

Which is correct with respect to respiratory volumes and capacities?

(1) Functional Residual Capacity < Inspiratory Capacity

(2) Expiratory Capacity > Functional Residual Capacity
(3) Vital Capacity > Functional Residual Capacity
(4) Inspiratory Reserve Volume > Inspiratory Capacity

35) Enzyme present in RBC and plasma both :

(1) Carbonic anhydrase

(2) Enterokinase
(3) Rennin
(4) Ptyalin

SECTION-B

1) Glottis is an opening in the floor of :-

(1) Mouth
(2) Trachea
(3) Pharynx
(4) Diaphragm

2) Find out partial pressure of O2 and CO2 in oxygenated blood.

(1) PO2 = 104 mmHg PCO2 = 40 mmHg

(2) PO2 = 159 mmHg PCO2 = 0.3 mmHg
(3) PO2 = 40 mmHg PCO2 = 45 mmHg
(4) PO2 = 95 mmHg PCO2 = 40 mmHg

3)

Match the following :-

Column-A Column-B
 1. Tidal volume A. TV + IRV + ERV

Additional amount of air inhaled beyond TV during

2. Residual volume B.
a deep breath

3. Expiratory reserve volume C. Amount of air remaining in lungs after ERV

4. Inspiratory reserve volume D. TV + IRV

5. Inspiratory capacity E. Volume of air in one breath

6. Vital capacity F. Amount of air exhaled in forced exhalation

(1) 1-C, 2-E, 3-B, 4-F, 5-D, 6-A
(2) 1-E, 2-F, 3-C, 4-B, 5-A, 6-D
(3) 1-E, 2-C, 3-F, 4-B, 5-D, 6-A
(4) 1-E, 2-C, 3-B, 4-F, 5-A, 6-D

4)

Respiration involving following steps :-

A. Diffusion of gases O2 and CO2 across alveolar membrane
B. Transport of gases by blood
C. Utilization of O2 by cell for catabolic reactions and resultant release of CO2
D. Pulmonary ventilation by which atmospheric air is drawn in and CO2 rich alveolar air is released
out
E. Diffusion of O2 and CO2 between blood and tissue

The correct sequence of steps is –

(1) A → B → C → D → E
(2) E → D → C → B → A
(3) D → A → B → E → C
(4) C → B → E → A → D

5) Study the following diagram and choose the option that correctly identifies the parts labelled A, B,

C and D :

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

6)

How many factors in the list given below does not favours the dissociation of O2 from HbO2 ?
pO2↓, pO2 , H+ concentration , temperature ,

CO2 , CO2↓ ,pH , pH↓

(1) Four
(2) Two
(3) Five
(4) Three

7) Conduction zone in mammals are

(1) Lungs, nasal chamber, pharynx, wind pipe and trachea

(2) Lungs, nasal path, wind pipe and trachea
(3) Lungs, pharynx, wind pipe and trachea
(4) Nasal path, nasal chamber, pharynx, wind pipe or trachea

8) Read the following statements carefully and choose the correct answer.
Statement-1 : O2 can bind with haemoglobin in a reversible manner.
Statement-2 : CO2 (About 20-25%) is carried by haemoglobin as carbamino-Haemoglobin.

(1) Statement-1 and Statement-2 both are correct.

(2) Statement-1 and Statement-2 both are incorrect.
(3) Statement-1 is incorrect only.
(4) Statement-2 is incorrect only.

9) Statement-I :- Under normal physiological conditions every 100 ml of oxygenated blood can
deliver around 5 ml of O2 to tissues. Statement-II :- Normally 7% of CO2 transported by plasma.

(1) Statement-I and statement-II both are true.

(2) Statement-I is true and statement-II is false.
(3) Statement-I is false and statement-II is true.
(4) Statement-I and statement-II both are false.

10) The amount of inspired or expired air per minute by a healthy man is :-

(1) 500 ml
(2) 2500-3000 ml
(3) 1000-1100 ml
(4) 6000-8000 ml

11) Which one of the following factor will cause the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve shift to its
right side ?
(1) [H+] ↑
(2)
(3) Temperature ↓
(4) All of these

12) If in a person Functional Residual Capacity is 2300 ml, Residual Volume is 1200 ml and
Inspiratory Capacity is 3500 ml then find out its Vital Capacity-

(1) 5800 ml
(2) 7000 ml
(3) 4600 ml
(4) 2300 ml

13)

Above diagram shows which phenomenon of respiration ?

(1) Inspiration : Contraction in diaphragm and external intercoastal muscles

(2) Expiration : Contraction in diaphragm and external intercoastal muscles
(3) Expiration : Relaxation in diaphragm and external intercoastal muscles
(4) Inspiration : Contraction in diaphragm and relaxation in internal intercoastal muscles

14) If x is partial pressure of O2 in deoxygenated blood and y is of CO2 in oxygenated blood in mm of

Hg, than x and y are :-

(1) 40, 40
(2) 95, 40
(3) 40, 45
(4) 45, 40

15) FRC is :-

(1) VC–TV
(2) TLC–(IRV+TV)
(3) RV + TV
(4) IRV + ERV
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

SECTION-A

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 1 1 1 1 4 2 1 3 3 2 4 3 1 3 1 3 2 3 2 2
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35
A. 3 4 4 3 3 1 4 1 4 1 4 3 3 4 4

SECTION-B

Q. 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
A. 1 3 2 2 4 1 2 4 3 2 4 4 3 4 2

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A

Q. 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
A. 4 1 1 4 2 1 4 2 3 1 1 2 2 3 2 3 2 2 2 1
Q. 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 1 1 3 2 4 2 3 1 1 1 1 1 3 3 4

SECTION-B

Q. 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
A. 3 2 4 2 1 3 4 4 3 1 4 1 2 3 3

BOTANY

SECTION-A

Q. 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
A. 3 3 1 1 3 1 2 1 2 3 1 1 4 2 3 1 2 2 4 2
Q. 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135
A. 3 4 4 4 2 2 2 2 1 1 2 4 1 4 1

SECTION-B

Q. 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 1 3 3 2 3 3 1 3 2 2 2 2 4 2 2

ZOOLOGY
 SECTION-A

Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 1 2 1 1 1 2 4 4 4 2 4 2 4 2 4 1 4 3 3 4
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180 181 182 183 184 185
A. 3 2 1 3 3 2 3 1 3 4 3 3 1 3 1

SECTION-B

Q. 186 187 188 189 190 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200
A. 3 4 3 3 4 4 4 1 1 4 1 3 3 1 2
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

2)

[Y] = [Va Ab Fc]

[ML–1T–2] = [LT–1]a [LT–2]b [MLT–2]c
ML–1T–2 = Mc La+b+c T–a–2b–2c
c = 1, a + b + c = –1, –a – 2b – 2c = –2
c = 1, b = 2, a = –4

6)

8)

Rs = R1 + R2
Rs = (R1 + R2) ± (ΔR1 + ΔR2)
Rs = (5 + 10) ± (0.2 + 0.1)
Rs = (15 ± 0.3) W
or Rs = (15 ± 2%) W

9)

Let, G = Cαgβpγ
Substitute the dimensional formula on both sides of equation and compare the powers of L, M, T on
both sides. Then solve for α, β, and γ.

10) CV = MV – ZE
MV = 3.5 mm + 32 × LC

MV = 3.5 + 32 × 0.01 = 3.82 mm

CV = 3.82 – 0.06 = 3.76 mm

11)

[At] = 1
[A] =

[B] = [L–1 T–1]

12)

Principle of homogeneity.

19) Pitch

= 0.0005 cm

20)

Pl = 0.5 mm
N = 100 divisions
zero correction = 2 divisions
Reading = Measured value + zero correction

= (8 × 0.5) mm + (83 – 2) × .

= 4 mm + 81 × mm
= 4.405 mm

21)

Pitch (p) = = 0.5 mm

Least count (LC) =

= = 0.005 mm
In fig (1) – No measurement:
There is a Negative zero error
ZE = – 4, CSD = –4 × 0.005 mm = –0.02 mm
In fig (2) – During measurement :
MSR = 4 pitch = 4 × 0.5 mm = 2 mm
CSR = 55 CSD = 55 × 0.005 mm
= 0.275 mm
Final Reading = 2 mm + 0.275 mm – (–0.02 mm)
= 2.295 mm
 23)

30)

V = abc ⇒ V = 10 × 1 × 0.1 = 1 cm3

= ± 0.03 cm3

32)

n2 = n1

= 100

= 100

n2 =

34)

[T] = [fx wy vz]

[T] = [MLT–2]x [ML2T–2]y [LT–1]z
[T] = [Mx+y Lx+2y+z T–2x–2y–z]
by solving we get x = –1
y=1
z = –1
–1 1 –1
∴ [T] = [F w v ]

39)

Zero error :

Least count of circular scale

Reading of main scale = 0.0 cm
Number of division coincided = 5
reading of circular scale = 5 × 0.02
Zero error = 0.10 mm = +0.010 cm

For diameter of sphere :

Reading of main scale = 1.2 cm
No. of division coincided = 14
Reading of circular scale = 14 × 0.02 = 0.28 mm
= 0.028 cm
Reading = 1.228 cm
Diameter = 1.228 – 0.010 = 1.218 cm

40)

42)

J→

43)

In 7.845, the preceding digit is even, it becomes 7.84.

In 7...835, the preceding digit is odd it becomes 7.84.

44)

F = A sin C t + B cos Dx
[Ct] = 1 ⇒ [C] = [T–1]
[A] = [F], [B] = [F] and [D]= [L–1]

⇒ and

46) Force = 2N = 2
If unit of length and time are doubled and unit of mass is halved, then unit of force will be

times.
Hence numerical value of the force will be 4 times.
Therefore, numerical value in new system will be 8.

47) Least count =

In figure (A): ZE = – (5×0.01)mm = –0.05mm
In figure (B) for measurement:
MSR = 6.5 mm
CSR = 24 × 0.01mm = 0.24mm
Corrected reading = 6.5mm + 0.24mm – (–0.05)mm
 = 6.79mm

48) N = x cm
b=n
a=n–1

L.C. = M

49)

Least count (LC) = MSD;

here a = 9, b = 10;
1MSD = 1mm

LC = 1mm = 0.1mm
There is zero error in measurement.
As the zero of the vernier lies to the left of the main scale, it has negative zero error.
For negative zero error, the coinciding division is to be read from right and it has 2 nd division
coinciding from right. Thus zero error
= ZE = –2 VSD = –2 × 0.1mm
= –0.2mm
Reading at measurement: 11MSD + 6VSD (coinciding)
Corrected reading = MSR + VSR × LC – zero error = 11mm + [6 × 0.1mm] – (–0.2mm) = 11.8mm
Hence the value of x = 118

50)

Percentage error = × 100% = 0.8%

CHEMISTRY

57)

Molar mass =

= = 44
CO2 & N2O
 58)

1 mol of O3 contains 3NA atoms of oxygen

8 g O3 moles = mol

mol. of O3 contains ⇒ × 3NA =

68)

%N= = 46.6

72) NCERT Pg. # 16

75)

Fact Based.

90)

(a) 4.48 litres of O2 at STP → 6.4 g

(b) 12.022 × 1022 molecules of H2O → 0.2 moles

(c) 96 g of O2 → 67.2 litres at STP

(d) 88 g of CO2 → 12.044 × 1023 molecules

N = 6.022 × 1023 × 2 = 12.044 × 1023 molecules

91)

N2(g) + 3H2(g) → 2NH3(g)

2 mole NH3(g) requires 3mole H2(g)
20 mole NH3(g) requires

= = 30 mole

92)

CO2(g) + C(g) → 2CO

1 cc CO2 given = 2 cc CO
20 cc CO2 given = 40 cc CO

94) Insulin must have one 'S' atom

now 0.32% insulin weighs 32

molecular mass =
= 10000

95) S

BOTANY

101) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 243, 244

102) NCERT-XII, Pg No. # 243

103) Ncert Pg No:250, 2021 - 2022

104)

12th NCERT Pg. # 245 First Para

105)

G.F.C. is the major conduit of energy flow in an aquatic and D.F.C. for terrestrial ecosystem.

106) NCERT XII, Pg. No. 243

107) NCERT XII, Pg. No. 243

108) NCERT XII English page # 272

109)

NCERT XII Pg. # 242,243

Functional components of ecosystem and energy transfer across trophic levels are two different
aspects.

110) NCERT Pg. # 243

111) NCERT Pg. # 246

112)
NCERT Pg. # 244

113)

NCERT XII Pg. # 249

114)

NCERT XII, Page # 249

115) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 242, 243

116) Allen module pg.no. 31

117) NCERT (XII) Pg # 246

118)

Module-7 Pg. # 16, 17

119) NCERT Pg. # 249

120)

12th NCERT Pg. # 242 Third Para 4 Points

121) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 249

122)

NCERT XII Pg # 246 para 14.4

123) NCERT Pg. # 243

124) NCERT Pg. # 246

125) NCERT Pg. 247

126)

NCERT Pg. # 249

127) NCERT XII, Page # 247

128)
NCERT Pg. # 245, 14.4

129) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 242

130)

NCERT (E) Pg # 246-247

(H) Pg # 267-268

131)

NCERT Pg. # 247

132)

NCERT Pg. # 245

133)

NCERT Pg. # 243

134) NCERT Pg. # 243

135) NCERT Pg. # 243

136)

B,C are correct

137) NCERT Page # 243

138) NCERT XII, No. Pg. 242

139) Allen Module page no. 26

140)

NCERT Pg. No. 248

141) NCERT-XII, Pg # 248,249

142)

NCERT-XII Page No. 212

143)

NCERT Pg.# 243

 144) Allen Module page no. 26

145)

NCERT XII Pg. # 177

146)

NCERT XII Pg. # 247

147)

NCERT XII pg.# 248

148) NCERT Pg. No. 211

149)

NCERT Pg. # 243

150) NCERT XII Pg. # 249

ZOOLOGY

152) NCERT, Pg. # 275

154)

NCERT XI, Pg. # 274

157)

NCERT Pg. # 269

163) NCERT Page No. # 270

164)

NCERT, Pg. # 268

167)

NCERT Pg. # 275

172)

NCERT Pg. # 268, Para 2

173)
NCERT PAGE (ENGLISH): 269,270

176)

NCERT-XI, Pg#276

178)

NCERT Pg.# 275

185) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 275

191)

NCERT XI, Page # 274, para-2

193)

NCERT, Pg. # 274

194)

NCERT Pg. # 274

195)

NCERT Pg. No. # 271, last Para

196)

NCERT pg # 274

198) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 271

199)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 275, Table-17.1 (E)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 274, Table-274 (H)