Contact No.

: 9359315845

DR. GULVE CLASSES

Near Bhosale High School, Narhari Sonar Mandir Road, Tambri Vibhag, Dharashiv

Physics - 45 Chemistry - 45 Biology - 90

Mark Group Date : 11-04-2025
720 PCB
NEET Time : 3 Hrs.

This is to certify that, the entries of NEET-2025 Roll No. and Answer Sheet No. have been correctly written and verified.

Candidate’s Signature Invigilator’s Signature

Syllabus
Physics : Units and Measurements + Motion In A Straight Line + Motion In A Plane
Chemsitry : Some Basic Concept of Chemistry + Structure of Atom
Biology : The Living World + Biological Classification + Plant Kingdom + Animal Kingdom

PHYSICS 04. A body travels uniformly a distance of (13.8 ± 0.2)m

in a time (4.0 ± 0.3) s. The velocity of the body within
error limits is

01. Given that, Force  , what are the (1) (3.45 ± 0.2) ms–1 (2) (3.45 ± 0.3) ms–1
Density  3
(3) (3.45 ± 0.4)ms–1 (4) (3.45 ± 0.5) ms–1
dimensions of  and ?
05. The position of a particle at time t is given by the
(1) ML–2T–2, ML–1/3 (2) M2L4T–2, M1/3L–1
(3) M2L–2T–2, M1/3L–1 (4) M2L–2T–2, ML–3  0  t
relation x(t)    (1  e ) , where v0 is a constant
02. In CGS system, the magnitude of the force is 100 
 
dynes. In another system, where the fundamental and  > 0. The dimensions of v0 and  respectively,
physical quantities are kilogram, metre and minute, are
the magnitude of the force is (1) M0L1T–1 and T–1 (2) M0L1T0 and T–1
(1) 0.036 (2) 0.36 (3) M0L1T–1 and LT–2 (4) M0L1T–1 and T
(3) 3.6 (4) 36
06. Suppose refractive index µ is given as
03. If x, y and z are some physial quantities and [xy] =
[z], then which of the following is meaningful? B speed of light in vacuum
A (where µ = speed of light in medium )
2

xy x
(1) [angle] = 2 (2) z  y Where A and B are constants and  is wavelength,
z
the dimensions of B are same as that of
z (1) Wavelength
(3) xy – z2 (4) x  y (2) Volume
(3) Pressure
(4) Area
Page No.1
07. The mass and volume of a body are found to be 5.00
± 0.05 kg and 1.00 ± 0.05 m 3, respectively. The
maximum possible percentage error in its density is
(1) 6% (2) 3%
(3) 10% (4) 5%
08. The period of oscillation of a simple pendulum in
the experiment is recorded as 2.63 s, 2.56 s, 2.42 s,
2.71 s and 2.80 s. The average absolute error is (1) 13.8 mm (2) 13.5 mm
(1) 0.1 s (2) 0.11 s (3) 14.1 mm (4) 13.0 mm
(3) 0.01 s (4) 1.0 s 15. In the following options you are given the
magnitudes of three forces in Newton acting
09. The pressure on a square plate is measured by
simultaneously on a body. Find the set for which the
measuring the force on the plate and the length of
resultant force on the body can be zero.
the sides of the plate. If the maximum error in the
measurement of force and length are, respectively (1) 10, 8, 2 (2) 15, 30, 14
4% and 2%, the maximum error in the measurement (3) 40, 19, 17 (4) 10, 20, 35
of pressure is 16. Match the physical quantities given in Column-I
(1) 1% (2) 2% with dimensions in Column-II.
(3) 6% (4) 8% Column-I Column-II
a. Torque p. ML2T–1
V b. Angular momentum q. M0L2T–2
10. The resistance is R V R  , where V = 100 ± 5 V and
I
c. Latent heat r. M0L0T1
I = 10 ± 0.2 A. What is the total error in R? d. Surface tension s. M0LT0
(1) 5% (2) 7% e. Light year t. ML2T–2
(3) 5.2% (4) (5/2)% u. ML0T–2
11. The external and internal radius of a hollow cylinder (1) a-t, b-p, c-q, d-u, e-s
are measured to be (4.23 ± 0.01) cm and (3.89 ± 0.01)
(2) a-q, b-r, c-p, d-t, e-s
cm. The thickness of the wall of the cylinder is
(3) a-q, b-p, c-t, d-r, e-s
(1) (0.34 ± 0.02) cm (2) (0.17 ± 0.02) cm
(4) a-t, b-s, c-q, d-p, e-r
(3) (0.17 ± 0.01) cm (4) (0.34 ± 0.01) cm
17. In a vernier calipers, the smallest division of main
12. The pitch of a screw gauge is 1 mm and there are 50 scale is 1 mm. Vernier scale has 20 divisions which
divisions on its cap. When nothing is put in between coincide with 19 divisions of main scale. When fixed
the studs, 44th division of the circular scale coincides jaw touches a movable jaw, zero of vernier scale lies
with the reference line, and zero of the main scale is on right of zero of the main scale and 12th division
not visible. When a glass plate is placed between the of vernier scale coincides with any division of main
studs, the main scale reads three divisions and the scale. Type of zero error and its value is
circular scale reads 26 divisions. Calculate the
(1) +ve, 0.60 mm (2) –ve, 0.60 mm
thickness of the plate.
(3) +ve, 0.6 mm (4) –ve, 0.6 mm
(1) 3.64 mm (2) 2.64 mm
18. The random error in the arithmetic mean of 100
(3) 2.64 cm (4) 3.64 cm
observations is x, then random error in the arithmetic
13. Match Column-I with Column-II and choose the mean of 400 observations would be
correct combination from the options given.
Column-I Column-II 1
(1) 4x (2) x
a. Permittivity of free p. M0L0T–1 4
space
1
b. Radiant flux q. ML3T–3A–2 (3) 2x (4) x
3
c. Resistivity r. ML2T–3
d. Frequency s. M–1L–3T4A2 2k 3l 2
(1) a-s, b-r, c-q, d-p (2) a-q, b-p, c-r, d-s 19. A physical quantity X is given by X  . The
m n
(3) a-r, b-q, c-p, d-q (4) a-s, b-q, c-p, d-r percentage error in the measurements of k, l, m and
14. Find the thickness of the cubical object using the n are 1%, 2%, 3% and 4%, respectively. The value of
defective vernier caliper. The main scale has mm X is uncertain by
marks and 10 divisions of vernier scale coincide with (1) 8% (2) 10%
9 divisions of main scale.
(3) 12% (4) None of these
Page No.2
 26. If velocity v = 6t2 + 2t + 3 m/s, then find the average
Z
  k velocity from t = 0 to t = 1 s.
20. In the relation P  e , P is pressure, Z isthe
 (1) 11 m/s (2) 8 m/s
distance, k is Boltzmann constant and  is the (3) 6 m/s (4) 7 m/s
temperature. The dimensional formula of  will be 27. A constant acceleration acts for 20 s on a particle,
(1) [M0L2T0] (2) [M1L2T1] starting from rest. If the particle covers distance d1
in the first 10 s and distance d2 in the next 10 s, then
(3) [M1L0T–1] (4) [M1L2T–1]
21. If area (A), velocity (v) and density () are taken as d1
fundamental units, what is the dimensional formula (1) d 2  (2) d 2  d1
2
for force?
(3) d2  3d1 (4) d 2  2d1
(1) [Av 2 ] (2) [A 2 v ]
28. A particle moves along x-axis in such a way that its
(3) [Av  ] 2
(4) [Av ] x-coordinate varies with time according to the
equation x = 8 – 4t + 6t2. The distance covered by
22. A point traversed 3/4th of the circle of radius R in
time t. The magnitude of the average velocity of the 2
particle between t = 0 to t = sec is
particle in this time interval is 3

R 3R 8
(1) (2) (1) Zero (2) m
t 2t 3

R 2 R 4
(3) (4) (3) 8 m (4) m
t 2t 3

23. An object is moving in a straight line, according to 29. Assertion : Magnitude of average velocity is equal
the curve given in the graph, x(m) = t2. Find the to average speed if velocity is uniform.
average velocity for the interval t = 1 s to t = 3 s. Reason : If velocity is uniform, then there is no
change in the direction of motion.
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and the
(1) 9 m/s
reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) 4 m/s
(2) If both assertion and reason are true, but reason
(3) 4.5 m/s is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(4) 1.5 m/s (3) If assertion is true, but reason is false.
(4) If assertion is false, but reason is true.
24. If a particle is moving with uniform velocity, then 30. Initially, bus A is 112.5 m ahead of bus B. Both start
I. Average speed = |Average velocity| moving at time t = 0 in the same direction along a
II. Instantaneous speed = |Instantaneous velocity| straight line. The velocity-time graph of the two cars
is shown in the figure. The time when the bus B will
III. Instantaneous speed = Average speed
catch the bus A, will be
(1) Only I is correct
(2) Only II is correct
(3) Only I and III are correct
(4) All are correct
25. Velocity-time graph for a particle is shown in figure.
Starting from t = 0, at what instant t, average
acceleration is zero between 0 to t?
(1) 45 s (2) 22.5 s
(3) 32 s (4) 18 s
31. A ball is dropped from a bridge, 125 m above a river.
Two second later, another ball is thrown straight
down. What must be the initial velocity of the second
ball so that both hit the water surface
simultaneously?
(1) 26.66 m/s (2) 66.26 m/s
(1) 1 s (2) 3.5 s (3) 43.5 m/s (4) 5 m/s
(3) 6.3 s (4) 7.3 s
Page No.3
32. A ball is dropped from a building of height 45 m. 37. A ball is projected from the ground with velocity v
Simultaneously another ball is thrown up with a such that its range is maximum.
speed 40 m/s. The relative speed of the balls as a
function of time can be shown as 3v
(a) Velocity at half of the (i)
2
maximum height

v
(1) (2) (b) Velocity at the maxim- (ii)
2
um height

(c) Change in its velocity (iii) v 2

when it returns to
the ground

(3) (4) v 5
(d) Average velocity (iv)
2 2
when it reaches the
33. Rain is falling vertically downward with a speed of
maximum height
9 m/s. After sometime, wind starts blowing
(1) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i (2) a-iii, b-ii, c-i, d-iv
horizontally with speed 3 3 m / s from south to (3) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv (4) a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii
north. In order to protect himself from rain, a man 38. A projectile is fired at an angle of 45° with the
standing on the ground should hold his umbrella at horizonal. Elevation angle of the projectile at its
an angle highest point, as seen from the point of projection,
(1)  = 30° with vertical towards south is
(2)  = 30° with vertical towards north (1) 45° (2) 60°
(3)  = 60° with vertical towards south
 3
(4)  = 60° with vertial towards north 1  1  tan 1
(3) tan   (4)  
34. A body of mass m is projected at an angle of 45° with 2  2 
the horizontal. If air resistance is negligible, then total 39. Assertion : When the velocity of projection of a body
change in momentum when it strikes the ground is is made n times, its time of flight becomes n times.
(1) 2mv (2) 2mv Reason : Time of flight does not depend on velocity
of projection.
(3) mv (4) mv / 2 (1) If both assertion and reason are true and the
35. The speed of a projectile at its maximum height is reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
half of its initial speed. The angle of projection is (2) If both assertion and reason are true, but reason
(1) 15° (2) 30° is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) 45° (4) 60° (3) If assertion is true, but reason is false.
36. The velocity of a projectile at the initial point A (4) If assertion is false, but reason is true.
40. A bird flying with a speed of 10 m/s along a vector
is (2 ˆi  3 ˆj)m/ s . Its velocity (in m/s) at point B is
( 3 ˆi  4 ˆj) . If initial position of bird is (12 m, 10 m, 5
m), then find the x-coordinate (in m) after the 2 s.
(1) 1 (2) 0
(3) 2 (4) None of these
41. Two Rajdhani trains, each 50 m long, are travelling
in opposite directions with a velocity of 10 m/s and
(1) 2 ˆi  3 ˆj (2) 2 ˆi  3 ˆj 15 m/s. The time of crossing is
(1) 2 s (2) 4 s
(3) 2 ˆi  3 ˆj (4) 2 ˆi  3 ˆj
(3) 2 3s (4) 4 3s

Page No.4
42. Water drops come out at regular interval from the 48. The number of atoms present in one mole of an
water tank at the roof. When the first drop hits element is equal to Avogadro number. Which of the
ground, third drop comes out of the tank. The height following elements contains the greatest number of
of the second drop from the ground is [Height of atoms ?
tank is H0]. (1) 4 g He (2) 46 g Na
(3) 0.40 g Ca (4) 12 g He
4 H0 49. What is the mass percent of carbon in carbon
(1) H (2)
3 0 4 dioxide?
(1) 0.034 %
3H0 H0 (2) 27.27 %
(3) (4)
4 9 (3) 3.4 %
43. Which of the following graph does not represent (4) 28.7 %
retardation? [v : velocity, t : time, x : position] 50. Which statement is incorrect regarding Dalton’s
Atomic Theory ?
(1) Matter consists of indivisible atoms
(2) All atoms of a given element have identical
(1) (2) properties
(3) Compounds are formed when atoms of different
elements combine in a fixed ratio
(4) Atoms are either created or destroyed in a
chemical reactio
(3) (4) None of these 51. The number of electrons present in 9.5 g of PO43– is
(1) 6 (2) 5 NA
(3) 0.1 NA (4) 4.7 NA
44. A particle starting from rest, moves with uniform
52. The total no. of neutrons present in 54 mL H2O(l)
acceleration and covers x m in the first 5 s. Distance
are :
covered by the same particle in the next 5 s is
(1) 3 NA (2) 30 NA
(1) x m (2) 2x m
(3) 24 NA (4) none of these
(3) 3x m (4) 4x m
53. Match the following prefixes with their multiples :
45. The motion of a particle along a straight line is
Prefixes Multiples
described by equation x = 8 + 12t – t3, where x is in
metres and t in seconds. The retardation of the a. Micro i. 106
particle when its velocity becomes zero is b. Deca ii. 109
(1) 6 m/s2 (2) 12 m/s2 c. Mega iii. 10–6
(3) 24 m/s2 (4) Zero d. Giga iv. 10–15
e. Femto v. 10
CHEMISTRY (1) a-iii, b-v, c-i, d-ii, e-iv
46. Which of the following pairs of substance illustrate (2) a-iii, b-v, c-ii, d-iv, e-i
the law of multiple proportions ? (3) a-i, b-iii, c-iv, d-ii, e-v
a. CO CO2, H2O H2O2, PbO PbO2 (4) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii, e-v
b. H2O, D2O, T2O 54. Potassium exist in mainly two isotopic form, 39K and
c. NaCl, NaBr, NaF, NaI 41K and their abundance in nature are 93% and 7%
d. MgO, Mg(OH)2, MgCl2, MgBr2 respectively. The average atomic mass of potassium
is
e. N2O, N2O2, N2O3, N2O4, N2O5
(1) 39.14
(1) a and e (2) a, b and c
(2) 39.28
(3) b and c (4) a, b, c and d
(3) 39.47
47. For the reaction
(4) 39.60
Ba(OH)2 + 2HClO3 
 Ba(ClO3)2 + 2H2O,
55. A mixture of 1.65 × 1021 molecules of X and 1.85 ×
calculate the no. of moles of H2O formed when 0.1 1021 molecules of Y weighs 0.688 g. The mol. wt. of X
mole of Ba(OH)2 is treated with 0.0250 moles of is (Assume mol. wt. of Y is 187)
HClO3. (1) 52 (2) 84
(1) 0.1 (2) 0.125 (3) 126 (4) 41.47
(3) 0.25 (4) 0.025

Page No.5
56. Match the following. 63. 3BaCl2 + 2Na3PO4   Ba3(PO4)2 + 6NaCl
Column I Column II Maximum amount of Ba 3(PO4)2 formed when 2
a. i. 25.5 g product is formed moles each of Na3PO4 and BaCl2 react is
(1) 4 mole (2) 1 mole
b. ii. 0.25 g of reactant is left 2 1
(3) mole (4) mole
3 3
c. iii. H2 is the limiting
64. The ratio of masses of oxygen and nitrogen in a
reagent particular gaseous mixture is 1 : 4. The ratio of
number of their molecule is :
d. iv. 41.12 g product
(1) 1 : 4 (2) 7 : 32
(1) a-i, b-iv, c-ii, d-iii (2) a-i, b-ii, c-iv, d-iii (3) 1 : 8 (4) 3 : 16
(3) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i (4) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv 65. If a rocket was fuelled with kerosene and liquid
57. The mass and charge of one mole electrons oxygen, then what mass of oxygen would be
respectively is: required for every litre of kerosene ? Assume
kerosene to have the average composition C14H30
(1) 54.8 × 10–7 kg; 9.65 × 104 coulomb
and density 0.792 g/ml.
(2) 5.48 × 10–7 kg; 9.65 × 103 coulomb
(1) 5.504 kg (2) 2.752 kg
(3) 5.48 × 10–7 g; 9.65 × 104 coulomb (3) 1.376 kg (4) 3.475 kg
(4) 5.48 × 10–7 kg; 9.65 × 104 coulomb 66. A quantity of 4.35 g of a sample of pyrolusite ore,
58. If avogadro number (NA) is changed from when heated with conc. HCl gave chlorine. The
6.022 × 1023 mol–1 to 6.022 × 1020 mol–1, this would be chlorine, when passed through potassium iodide
change : solution liberated 6.35 g of iodine. The percentage
of pure MnO2 in the pyrolusite ore is
(1) the mass of one mole of carbon
(Mn = 55, I = 127)
(2) the ratio of chemical species to each other in a
balanced equation (1) 40 (2) 50
(3) the ratio of elements to each other in compound (3) 60 (4) 70
67. A pre-weighed vessel was filled with oxygen at NTP
(4) the definition of mass in units of gram
and weighed. It was then evacuated, filled with SO2
59. Which one of the followings has maximum number at the same temperature and pressure, and again
of atoms ? weighed. The weight of oxygen is
(1) 1g of Mg(s) [Atomic mass of Mg = 24] (1) The same as that of SO2
(2) 1g of O2(g) [Atomic mass of O = 16]
1
(3) 1g of Li(s) [Atomic mass of Li = 7] (2) that of SO2
2
(4) 1g of Ag(s) [Atomic mass of Ag = 108]
(3) Twice that of SO2
60. Given that the abundance of isotopes 54Fe, 56Fe and
57 Fe are 5%, 90% and 5%, respectively, the atomic
1
mass of Fe is : (4) that of SO2
4
(1) 55.85 (2) 55.95
68. A polystyrene of formula Br 3C 6 H 2(C 8H 8)n was
(3) 55.75 (4) 56.05 prepared by heating styrene with tribromobenzyl
peroxide in the absence of air. It was found to contain
61.  2NH3(g)
N2(g) + 3H2(g)  10.46% bromine by mass. The value of n is (Br = 80)
20g 5g (1) 20 (2) 21
Consider the above reaction, the limiting reagent of (3) 19 (4) 22
the reaction and number of moles of NH3 formed 69. Among the following, the energy of 2s orbital lowest
respectively are: in :
(1) H2, 1.42 moles (1) K (2) H
(2) H2, 0.71 moles (3) Li (4) Na
(3) N2, 1.42 moles 70. The radius of the second Bohr orbit, in terms of the
Bohr radius, a0, in Li2+ is :
(4) N2, 0.71 moles
62. The number of neutrons present in 12 × 1025 atoms 2a 0 4a 0
of oxygen (8O17) is: (1) (2)
3 9
(Given : NA = 6 × 1023 )
(1) 1800 (2) 1600 4a 0 2a 0
(3) (4)
(3) 1800 NA (4) 3200 NA 3 9

Page No.6
71. The ground state energy of hydrogen atom is –13.6 (1) A-p, B-q, C-r, D-r, s
eV. The energy of second excited state of He+ ion in (2) A-q, B-s, C-p,t, D-r
eV is : (3) A-r,t, B-p, C-s, D-q
(1) –54.4 (2) –3.4 (4) A-p, B-p, C-q,r,s, D-p
(3) –6.04 (4) –27.2 79. In which of the following options do both
72. The number of orbitals associated with quantum constituents of the pair have the same magnetic
1 moment?
numbers n  5, m s   is : (1) Zn2+ and Cu2+ (2) Co2+ and Ni2+
2
(3) Mn4+ and Co2+ (4) Mg2+ and Sc+
(1) 11 (2) 25
80. The fourth line of the Balmer series corresponds to
(3) 50 (4) 15
electron transition between energy levels
73. If the de-Broglie wavelength of a particle of mass m (1) 6 and 2 (2) 5 and 2
is 100 times its velocity, then its value in terms of its
mass (m) and Planck's constant (h) is (3) 4 and 1 (4) 5 and 1
81. Maximum number of electrons in a subshell of an
1 m h atom is determined by the following :
(1) (2) 10
10 h m (1) 2n2 (2) 4l + 2
(3) 2l + 1 (4) 4l – 2
1 h 1 m 82. The orbital diagram in which Aufbau principle is
(3) (4)
10 m 10 h violated is
74. What can be the representation of the orbital having
3 angular nodes and n = 5. (1) (2)
(1) 5d (2) 5f
(3) 5p (4) 5s
75. For which element, the valence electron will be (3) (4)
present in the hightest energy orbital
83. How many electrons can fit in the orbital for which
(1) 3Li (2) 16S
n = 3 and l = 1 ?
(3) 20Ca (4) 21Sc
(1) 2 (2) 6
76. Which of the following is not permissible (3) 10 (4) 14
arrangment of electrons in an atom ?
84. Which of the following statements are not correct
(1) n = 5, l = 3, m = 0, s = +1/2 about electromagnetic radiation ?
(2) n = 3, l = 2, m = –3, s = –1/2
i) Electromagnetic waves require medium to
(3) n = 3, l = 2, m = –2, s = –1/2 travel.
(4) n = 4, l = 0, m = 0, s = –1/2 ii) Different electromagnetic radiations travel at
77. What is the difference between two species if one same speed in vaccum.
has atomic mass = 14 and atomic number = 7 whereas
iii) The oscillating electric and magnetic fields
the other has atomic mass = 14 and atomic number =
produced by oscillating charged particles are
6?
perpendicular to each other, but not to the
(1) Neurtorns direction of propagation.
(2) Protons iv) The oscillating electric field and magnetic field
(3) Electrons are perpendicular to each other, and also to the
(4) All of these direction of propagation.
78. Match the orbitals the number of nodes/ quantum (1) (i), (ii) and (iii)
numbers present in them. (2) (ii) and (iii)
Column I Column II (3) (i) and (iii)
A. 2p orbital p. Number of spherical
(4) (i) and (iv)
nodes = 0
B. 3d orbital q. Number of nodal plane 85. The shortest wavelength of H atom in the Lyman
=0 series is 1. The logest wavelength in the Balmer
series is He+ is:
C. 2s orbital r. Orbital angular
momentum 361 51
(1) (2)
number = 0 5 9
D. 4f orbital s. Azimuthal quantum
number = 0 9 1 27 1
(3) (4)
5 5

Page No.7
86. Two fast moving particles X and Y are associated 93. Growth and reproduction are mutually exclusive
with de Broglie wavelengths 1 nm and 4 nm events in
respectively. If mass of X is nine times the mass of Y,
the ratio of kinetic energies of X and Y would be (1) Some higher animals and plants
(1) 3 : 1 (2) 9 : 1 (2) Unicellular organisms
(3) 5 : 12 (4) 16 : 9 (3) Majority of higher animals and plants
87. For emission line of atomic hydrogen from ni = 8 to (4) All animals and plants
 1  94. Read the following statements and choose the set of
nf = n, the plot of wave number ( v )against  2  correct statements:
n 
will be (The Rydberg constant, RH is in wave number A. Photoperiod affects reproduction in seasonal
unit) breeders, both plants and animals.
(1) Linear with intercept—RH B. Only human beings have self-consciousness.
(2) Non linear
C. Cellular organization of body is the defining
(3) Linear with slope RH feature of multicellular organisms only.
(4) Linear with slope—RH
D. Living organisms are self-replicating, evolving,
88. A hydrogen atom in the ground state is excited by
and self-regulating.
monochromatic radiation of wavelength Å. The
resulting spectrum consists of maximum 15 different Choose the correct answer from the options given
lines. What is the wavelength ? (RH = 109737 cm–1) below:
(1) 937.3 Å (1) A and C (2) A, Band C
(2) 1025Å (3) A, B and D (4) A, B, C, and D
(3) 1236Å
95. Read the following statements with respect to
(4) None of these
systematics and choose the set of correct statements:
89. The Heisenberg uncertainity principle will be most
significant for which of the following object? A. It is derived from Greek word systema.
(1) Object A ofmass 9.11 × 10–30 kg B. It deals with diversity of organisms and
(2) Object B of mass 9.11 × 10–28 g evolutionary relationship.
(3) Object C of mass 9.11 × 10–24 mg C. It is a method which includes identification,
(4) Object D of mass 9.11 × 10–28 kg nomenclature, relationship, and classification of
90. Which hydrogen-like species will have same radius living organisms.
as that of Bohr orbit of hydrogen atom? D. It enables a better understanding of life forms
(1) n = 2, Li2+ (2) n = 2, Be3+ on earth. Choose the correct answer from the
(3) n = 2, He + (4) n = 3, Li2+ options given below:
(1) A, B, andC
BIOLOGY-I
(2) B, C, and D
91. The twin characteristics of growth can be explained (3) B, andD
by
(4) A andD
(1) Increase in mass and volume
96. Which of the following pair is wrongly matched?
(2) Increase in number of cells and mass from
outside (1) Systema Naturae ~ Linnaeus
(3) Increase in mass by living and non-living (2) Classical taxonomy - Morphological characters
substances from inside and increase in number (3) Phylogeny - Evolutionary history of an
of cells organism
(4) Increase in size and volume of cells (4) Mammalia - Species
92. Reproduction is synonymous with growth in how
97. Carolus Linnaeus is the father of taxonomy because
many of the following species?
of which one of his contributions?
Bacteria, Chlamydomonas, Moss protonema,
(1) Genera Plantarum
Hydra, Amoeba, Planaria, Euglena
Choose the correct option. (2) Binomial nomenclature

(1) Five (2) Four (3) Described nearly 10,000 plants and animal
species
(3) Six (4) Three
(4) Die Naturlichen Pflanzen Familien

Page No.8
98. Some universal rules of binomial nomenclature for 104. Choose the correct option for missing word A, B and
naming of organisms are given below. Identify which C. Higher the taxonomic category,
one is incorrectly Pflanzen Familien (i) _A_ is the number of common characters.
(1) Biological names are generally taken from Latin (ii) _B_ is the number of organisms in it.
language irrespective of their origin.
(iii) _C_ is the difficulty in determining the
(2) The first word denoting genus starts with a relationship with other taxa at same level.
capital letter.
A B C
(3) Specific epithet starts with a small letter. Fewer Higher Lesser
(1)
(4) Name of the author is written after generic Fewer Higher Greater
(2)
name. Higher Fewer Lesser
(3)
99. Statement I: All organisms including those in the Higher Fewer Greater
plant and animal kingdoms have species as the (4)
lowest category.
Statement II: Class includes related orders. 105. Statement I: A family may have many orders.
(1) Both statement I and statement II are true. Statement II: All the orders of a family have some
(2) Both statement I and statement II are false. common features.

(3) Statement I is true, but statement II is false. (1) Both statement I and statement II are true.

(4) Statement I is false, but statement II is true. (2) Both statement I and statement II are false.

100. Both the words in a biological name when hand (3) Statement I is true, but statement II is false.
written are separately underlined or printed in italics (4) Statement I is false, but statement II is true.
(1) To indicate their native place 106. Read the statements (A–C) given below and select
(2) To indicate their generic name and specific the correct ones w.r.t. taxonomic categories:
epithet A. Species is the lowest rank in taxonomic
(3) To indicate their Latin origin categories.

(4) For identification of organism B. Genera are aggregates of closely related species.

101. Statement I: Biodiversity is the number and type of C. indica, tuberosum and leo are specific epithets.
organisms on earth. (1) Only (A) and (B) (2) Only (A) and (C)
Statement II: Biodiversity differs from place to place. (3) All (A), (B) and (C) (4) Only (A)
(1) Both statement I and statement II are true. 107. Animals like fishes, amphibians, reptiles, birds and
(2) Both statement I and statement II are false. mammals are placed in the same phylum Chordata.
Select the common characters for placing them in
(3) Statement I is true, but statement II is false.
same phylum.
(4) Statement I is false, but statement II is true.
(1) Presence of dorsal solid neural system
102. Taxonomic category families are characterized on the
(2) Presence of notochord
basis of
(3) Presence of vertical hollow neural system
(1) Vegetative features of plant species only
(4) Both (1) and (2)
(2) Reproductive features of plant species only
108. Triticum is placed in the
(3) Both vegetative and reproductive features of
plants species (1) Division—Plantae

(4) Their morphological features and phylogenetic (2) Class—Dicotyledonae

relationship (3) Family—Poaceae
103. Which of the following is the correct sequence of (4) Phylum—Angiospermae
taxonomic categories? 109. Which of the following is not recognized by botanist?
(1) Kingdom  Phylum  Class  Family  (a) Division (b) Tautonyms
Order  Genus  Species (c) Variety (d) Phylum
(2) Kingdom  Phylum  Class  Order  (e) Sub-species (f) Order
Family  Genus  Species Choose the correct option.
(3) Phylum  Class  Family  Order  (1) (b), (d), (e) (2) (b), (c), (d)
Species  Genus  Kingdom (3) (a), (c), (e) (4) (a),(e),(f)
(4) Phylum  Kingdom  Order  Family 
Class  Genus  Species

Page No.9
110. True regeneration – a fragmented organism 116. Plant Datura is placed in which family :
regenerate the lost part of body and become a new (1) Cruciferae (2) Convolvulaceae
individual occurs in :
(3) Solanaceae (4) Leguminaceae
(1) Roundworm (2) Planaria
117. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
(3) Both (A) and (B) (4) Earthworm
(1) Viroids lack a protein coat.
111. Which among the following is correct statement:
(2) Viruses are obligate parasites.
(1) Only most complex eukaryotes can sense and
(3) Infective constituent in viruses is the protein
respond
coat.
(2) Properties of tissue are present in constituent
cell (4) Prions consist of abnormally folded proteins.

(3) Metabolism is defining feature of life form 118. Identify the asexual reproductive structure
associated with Penicillium:
(4) All of these.
(1) Conidia (2) Gemmules
112. ICZN stand for :
(3) Buds (4) Zoospores
(1) Indian council for Zoological Nomenclature.
(2) International Code of Zoological Nomenclature. 119. The most abundant prokaryotes helpful to humans
in making curd from milk and in production of
(3) Indian certificate for Zoological Nomenclature.
antibiotics are the ones categorised as:
(4) Indian code of Zoological Nomenclature.
(1) Cyanobacteria
113. In binomial nomenclature, every organism has:
(2) Archaebacteria
(1) Two names, one latin, other Greek
(3) Chemosynthetic autotrophs
(2) Two names, one scientific other common
(4) Heterotrophic bacteria
(3) Two names by two scientists
120. Following are some characteristics of a specific
(4) One scientific name with two words, a generic
group. Considered the characters and identify the
and specific.
respective group :
114. Select the correct statement in the following
i. Majority of them are fresh water
universal rules of Nomenclature :
ii. Pellicle is present
a. Biological names are generally in Latin and
written in italics. They are Latinised or derived iii. Two flagella present
from Latin irrespective of their origin. (1) Chrysophyta (2) Slime moulds
b. The first word in a biological name represents (3) Euglenoids (4) Mycoplasma
the genus while the second component denotes
121. Identify the bacterial shape given in the fgure.
the specific epithet.
c. Both the words in a biological name, when
handwritten, are separately underlined, or
printed in italics to indicate their Latin origin.
d. The first word denoting the genus starts with a
capital letter while the specific epithet starts
with a small letter.
(1) Bacilli (2) Cocci
(1) a, b are correct
(3) Spirilla (4) Vibrio
(2) a, c and d are correct
122. Bacteriophages (viruses that infect bacteria) are
(3) a, b, c and d all are correct
usually :
(4) a, b and c are correct
(1) Circular RNA virus
115. Match the following column I and column II :
(2) Single stranded RNA virus
Column I Column II
(3) Single stranded DNA virus
(i) Mango (1) Felis
(4) Double stranded DNA viruses.
(ii) Leopard (2) Mangifera indica
123. Which is incorrect :
(iii) Tiger (3) Panthera pardus
(1) T.O. Diener discovered virus in 1981
(iv) Cat (4) Panthera tigris
(1) i-b, ii-c, iii-d, iv-a (2) RNA of viroid was of low molecular weight

(2) i-a, ii-c, iii-d, iv-b (3) Lichens are symbiotic association
(3) i-c, ii-b, iii-d, iv-a (4) Lichens are good pollution indicator.
(4) i-c, ii-b, iii-a, iv-d

Page No.10
124. Match the different types of spores listed under 129. Name the virus and identify the correct statement
column-I with the names of the organisms given about it:
under column-II
Column-I Column-II
Spores Organisms
a. Ascospores f. Agaricus
b. Basidiospores g. Yeast
c. Zygospores h. Rhizopus
d. Conidia i. Pencillium
(1) a-g, b-f, c-h, d-i
(2) a-g, b-h, c-f, d-i (1) Genetic material is single stranded DNA
(3) a-h, b-i, c-g, d-f (2) Elongated capsid
(4) a-f, b-h, c-g, d-i (3) Reverse transcriptase enzyme is present
125. Which of the following organisms are not included (4) It is an animal virus
in the five kingdom system of classification 130. Column I (Example) Column II(Class)
(1) Chrysophytes, viroids, lichens
(a) Lycopodium (i) Psilopsida
(2) Bacteriophages, Dinoflagellates, lichens
(b) Equisetum (ii) Lycopsida
(3) Bacteriophages, viroids, Lichens
(c) Pteris (iii) Sphenopsida
(4) Viroids, slime moulds, fungi
(d) Psilotum (iv) Pteropsida
126. Match c correct option using the codes given below:
(1) a-(iii), b-(iv), c-(i), d-(ii)
Column-I olumn-II
(2) a-(ii), b-(iii), c-(iv), d-(i)
A) Pistils fused together 1. Gametogenesis
(3) a-(ii), b-(i), c-(iv), d-(iii)
B) Formation of gametes 2. Pistillate
(4) a-(iii), b-(iv), c-(ii), d-(i)
C) Hyphae of higher 3. Syncarpous
131. According to phylogenetic classification systems,
Ascomycetes
organisms belonging to
D) Unisexual female 4. Dikaryotic
(1) Same taxa have common ancestry
flower
(2) Same taxa have different ancestry
(1) A-1 B-2 C-4 D-3
(3) Different taxa have common ancestry
(2) A-3 B-1 C-4 D-2
(4) Different taxa have different ancestry
(3) A-4 B-3 C-1 D-2
(4) A-2 B-1 C-4 D-3 132. Mycorrhizal and coralloid roots are present in,
respectively
127. The process by which anything is grouped into
convenient categories based on some easily (1) Cycas and Pi mis
observable characters is : (2) Pinus and Cycas
(1) Nomenclature (3) Cycas and Ephedra
(2) Identification (4) Pinus and Ephedra
(3) Characterisation 133. Read the following statements w.r.t. algae:
(4) Classification (i) A few freshwater forms of algae form massive
128. Identify true statements about archaebacteri plant bodies.
(A) They can live in harsh habitats. (ii) Vascular tissues are absent.
(B) Cell walls do not contain peptidoglycon. (iii) Most common asexual spore is zoospore.
(C) Cell membrane contains branched chain lipids. (iv) Sexual reproduction can be isogamous,
(D) Some of them are capable of producing biogas. anisogamous, or oogamous.
(1) A & B only (v) Embryo formation is seen in marine brown and
(2) A, B & C only red algae.
(3) B & C only How many above given statements are correct?
(4) All of these (1) Two (2) Three
(3) Four (4) Five

Page No.11
134. Which of the following is correct? 140. A feature(s) common between bryophytes and
pteridophytes is/are
Gametes have 2-8
Spirogyra Phaeophyceae
(1) apical flagella A. Presence of independent and photosynthetic
Pyriform zoospores gametophyte.
Fucus with two heterokont Chlorophyceae B. Sporic meiosis and haplo-diplontic life cycle.
(2) apical flagella
C. Formation of motile male and non-motile female
Absence of motile
Polysiphonia Rhodophyceae gamete.
(3) gametes
Presence of D. Requirement of water for sexual reproduction.
Dictyota polysulphate Phaeophyceae Choose the correct option.
(4) esters in cell wall
(1) A and B only (2) C and D only
(3) B, C, and D only (4) A, B, C, and D
135. Statement I: Mature Marchantia bears
141. In gymnosperms, the seed that develop after
gametophores.
fertilization are naked. It means
Statement II: The antheridiophores and
(1) Seeds are very small and not visible with naked
archegoniophores are borne on different thalli.
eyes
(1) Both statement I and statement II are true.
(2) Seeds are not covered by any ovule wall
(2) Both statement I and statement II are false.
(3) Seeds are not covered by any ovary wall
(3) Statement I is true, but statement II is false.
(4) Seeds are enclosed in pericarp
(4) Statement I is false, but statement II is true.
142. Which of the following characters are common in
BIOLOGY-II both Selaginella and Pinusl
A. Main plant body is sporophyte.
136. Which of the following pairs is of unicellular algae? B. Produce two kinds of spores.
(1) Gelidium and Gracilaria C. Gametophytes lack vascular tissue.
(2) Anabaena and Volvox D. Male and female gametophytes are retained on
(3) Chlorella and Spirulina the sporophytes for variable period.
(4) Laminaria and Sargassum Choose the correct option.
137. Identify the pair of heterosporous pteridophytes (1) A and B only (2) A, B, and C
among the following: (3) A, B, and D (4) B, C, and D
(1) Equisetum and Salvinia 143. Assertion: Only red algae can flourish at the great
(2) Psilotum and Salvinia depth of sea.
(3) Selaginella and Salvinia Reason: Red alga has the pigments r-phycocyanin.
(4) Lycopodium and Selaginella (1) If both assertion and reason are true and the
138. Read the following and choose the features related reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
to Marchantia. (2) If both assertion and reason are true, but reason
A. Dioecious is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
B. Non-motile male gametes (3) If assertion is true, but reason is false.
C. Lack protonema stage (4) If both assertion and reason are false.
D. Independent sporophyte 144. Gymnosperms differ from pteridophytes in
(1) A and B only (1) Being tracheophytes/vascular plants
(2) B and D (2) Having sporophyte as dominant phase
(3) A and C only (3) Having independent gametophytic body
(4) C and D (4) Exhibit diplontic life cycle pattern
139. All isogamy, anisogamy and oogamy are found in 145. Cycas differs from Pinus in having
which of the following algae? A. Coralloid root
(1) Chlamydomonas B. Branched stem
(2) Volvox C. Dioecious sporophyte
(3) Fucus D. Simple leaves
(4) Porphyra E. Fungal association in roots
(4) Equational division Reductional division (1) Only A and B (2) A, C, and D
(3) A, C, D, and E (4) Only A and C
Page No.12
146. Identify the figure given below and select incorrect 152. Phylum Annelida posses :
option.
(1) Longitudinal muscles only
(2) Circular muscles only
(3) Both A and B and help in respiration
(4) Both A and B and help in locomotion
153. Name the Annelid which is dioecious :
(1) Earthworm (2) Leeches
(3) Nereis (4) Both 2 and 3
154. In phylum Hemichordata excretory organ is :
(1) Flame cells (2) Nephridia
(3) Proboscis gland (4) Malpighian tubule
155. Which is not the respiratory organ of arthropoda :
(1) Aquatic pteridophyte (1) Gills (2) Book gills
(2) Produces two kinds of spores (3) Book lungs (4) Lungs
(3) Occurrence of prothallus 156. Which is the correct matching :
(4) Shows seed habit Column I Column II
147. Assertion: All living species of Cycas are dioecius. a. Scoliodon i. Pterophyllum
Reason: Cycas contains male and female cones on b. Clarias ii. Betta
the same plant. c. Fighting fish iii. Dog fish
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and the d. Angel fish iv. Magur
reason is the correct explanation of the assertion. (1) a-iii, b-i, c-ii, d-iv
(2) If both assertion and reason are true, but reason (2) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i
is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) a-i, b-iii, c-ii, d-iv
(3) If assertion is true, but reason is false.
(4) a-iv, b-ii, c-iii, d-i
(4) If both assertion and reason are false.
148. Which is the correct matching : 157. Which is a correct matching set :
Column I Column II Column I Column II
a. Scoliodon i. Pterophyllum a. Metamerism i. Canal system
b. Clarias ii. Betta constituent
c. Fighting fish iii. Dog fish b. Spongocoel ii. Leech
d. Angel fish iv. Magur c. Acoelomate iii. Spongilla
(1) a-iii, b-i, c-ii, d-iv d. Fresh water sponge iv. Platyhelminthes
(2) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i (1) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii
(3) a-i, b-iii, c-ii, d-iv (2) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
(4) a-iv, b-ii, c-iii, d-i (3) a-i, b-iii, c-ii, d-iv
149. Worm like, proboscis, collar and trunk with digestive (4) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i
system complete is : 158. In which of the following animals, digestive tract
(1) Saccoglossus (2) Hemichordata has additional chambers like crop and gizzard?
(3) Balanoglossus (4) All of the above (1) Bufo, Balaenoptera, Bangarus

150. Name the class in which cranium and vertebral (2) Pavo, Psittacula, Corvus
columns are cartilaginous is present in : (3) Catla, Columba, Crocodilus
(1) Cyclostomata (2) Osteichthyes (4) Corvus, Columba, Chameleon
(3) Amphibia (4) Reptilia 159. Organ level of body organisation occurs in which
phylum :
151. Which one of the following worm is known as Hook
worm : (1) Coelenterata
(2) Ctenophora
(1) Ascaris (2) Wuchereria
(3) Platyhelminthes
(3) Ancylostoma (4) Hirudinaria
(4) Aschelminthes
Page No.13
160. The symmetry in which the body can be divided into (1) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii
identical left and right halves in only one plane is : (2) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
(1) Asymmetry (3) a-i, b-iii, c-ii, d-iv
(2) Radial symmetry (4) a-iv, b-ii, c-iii, d-i
(3) Pentaradial symmetry 166. Bioluminescence (the property of living organisms
(4) Bilateral symmetry to emit light) is well - marked in :
161. Which is a correct matching set : (1) Poriferans
Column I Column II (2) Coelentrates
a. Bilateral symmetry i. Coelenterates (3) Ctenophores
with metamerism (4) Molluscans
b. Diploblastic ii. Annelida 167. To which classes do the following animals belong?
c. Cellular level of iii. Aschelminthes a–Petromyzon, b–Scoliodon, c–Pristis
organisation (1) a–Cyclostomata, b–Chondrichthyes, c–
d. Pseudocoelom iv. Sponges Chondrichthyes
(1) a-i, b-iii, c-ii, d-iv (2) a–Osteichthyes, b–Chondrichthyes, c –
Chondrichthyes
(2) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
(3) a–Osteichthyes, b–Chondrichthyes, c–
(3) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii
Osteichthyes
(4) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i
(4) a–Osteichthyes, b–Chondrichthyes, c–
162. Diploblastic and triploblastic are terms that describe: Cyclostomata
(1) the number of invaginations during embry onic 168. Bilateral symmetrical, triploblastic and acoelomate
development animals with organ level of organisation are :
(2) the number of heads during embryonic (1) Flatworms
development
(2) Roundworms
(3) the number of germinal layers during
(3) Earthworm
embryonic development
(4) the number of cell types during development (4) Both 1 and 2
163. Match the following columns : 169. The figures given show the types of coelom. Identify
them and select the correct group of organisms
Column-A Column-B
which possess them.
a. Pteropus i. Monkey
b. Macropus ii. Horse
c. Elephas iii. Flying fox
d. Macaca iv. Elephant
e. Equus v. Kangaroo.
(1) a-iii, b-v, c-iv, d-ii, e-i
A B C
(2) a-iii, b-v, c-iv, d-i, e-ii
(1) Annelids Aschelminthes Platyhelminthes
(3) a-iv, b-iii, c-v, d-i, e-ii
(2) Molluscs Arthropods Platyhelminthes
(4) a-iii, b-v, c-i, d-iv, e-ii
(3) Echinoderms Aschelminthes Annelids
164. Name the coelenterates which exist in both forms (4) Echinoderms Arthropods Playhelminthes
exhibit alternation of generation (Metagenesis) :
170. (A) Chordata is the largest deuterostomeate
(1) Hydra (2) Adamsia phylum.
(3) Aurelia (4) Obelia (B) Notochord is persistent throughout life
165. Which is the correct matching set : in Amphioxus.
Column I Column II (C) Dorsal tubular nerve cord lies above the
a. Pinctada i. Tusk shell notocord, and outside the coelom
b. Sepia ii. Devil fish Which of the above statements are correct?
c. Dentalium iii. Pearl oyster (1) A & B only
d. Octopus iv. Cuttle fish (2) A & C only
(3) B & C only
(4) A, B & C
Page No.14
171. Match the following columns : (1) A, B & D (2) A, C, & D
Column-A Column-B (3) A & C (4) A, B, C, D
a. Ascaris i. King crab 176. A student brought home a strange animal which he
b. Ancylostoma ii. Sea lily found outside under a rock. It had moist skin, a
complete digestive tract, a ventral nerve cord, and
c. Physalia iii. Round worm
have metameric segments. Identify the phylum of
d. Limulus iv. Portuguese man of the animal.
war
(1) Porifera (2) Annelida
e. Antedon v. Hook worm
(3) Mollusca (4) Echinodermata
(1) a-iii, b-v, c-iv, d-ii, e-i
177. Match the following columns :
(2) a-iii, b-v, c-i, d-iv, e-ii
Column-A Column-B
(3) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i, e-v
a. Pristis i. Electric organ
(4) a-iii, b-v, c-iv, d-i, e-ii b. Trygon ii. Flying fish
172. Which is matched with two general characteristics? c. Carcharodon iii. Saw fish
(1) Echinodermata - Pentamerous radial d. Torpedo iv. Great white shark
symmetry, internal fertilization e. Exocoetus v. sting ray
(2) Mollusca - Normally oviparous and (1) a-iii, b-v, c-iv, d-ii, e-i
development through trochophore or veliger
(2) a-iii, b-v, c-iv, d-i, e-ii
larv(1)
(3) a-iv, b-v, c-iii, d-i, e-ii
(3) Arthropoda - Body divisible into head, thorax
(4) a-iii, b-v, c-i, d-iv, e-ii
and abdomen, tracheal respiration
178. In bryophytes, spores are formed by _A_ in _B_.
(4) Chordata - Notochord, separate anal and urine
apertures Choose the correct answer from the options given
below:
173. Which one of the following pairs of animals are
similar to each other pertaining to the feature stated A B
against them? (1) Meiosis Archegonia
(1) Pteropus and Ornithorhyncus-Vivipaiity (2) Meiosis Capsule
(2) Garden lizard and Crocodile - Three-chambered (3) Mitosis Capsule
heart (4) Sporangia Mitosis
(3) Ascaris and Ancylostoma - Metameric 179. Column I Column II
segmentation (a) indica (0 Order
(4) Sea horse and Flying fish - Cold blooded (b) Anacardiaceace (ii) Family
(poikilothermal) (c) Sapindales (iii) Species
174. Which one of the following sets of animals share a (d) Angiosperms (iv) Class
four chambered heart? (e) Dicotyledonae (v) Division
(1) Amphibian, Reptiles, Birds (1) a-(iii), b-(ii), c-(i), d-(v), e-(iv)
(2) Crocodiles, Birds, Mammals (2) a-(iv), b-(iii), c-(i), d-(ii), e-(v)
(3) Crocodiles, Lizards, Turtles (3) a(i), b-(iv), c-(iii), d-(ii), e-(v)
(4) Lizards, Mammals, Birds (4) a-(ii), b-(i), c-(iv), d-(iii), e-(v)
175. Read the following statements and choose option 180. Complete the following chart by selecting the correct
which have correct ones only. option for a fern.
(A) The body of arthopods are generally consists of
Sporophyte 
 Sporophyll 
A
 Spore
head, thorax and abdomen.
 Prothallus   Gametes
(B) In member of phylum Platyhelminthes, germination B

alimentary canal is complete with a well

A B
developed muscular pharynx
(1) Mitosis Meiosis
(C) Body of molluscans is unsegemented with a
(2) Meiosis Mitosis
distinct head, muscular foot and visceral hump.
(3) Mitosis Mitosis
(D) In Annelids, neural system is consists of paired
ganglia connected by lateral nerves to a double (4) Equational division Reductional division
soliddorsal nerve cord

Page No.15
SPACE FOR WORK

Page No.16
 SOLUTION- 11- 04-2025

PHYSICS 08. (2)

01. (3) 2.63  2.56  2.42  2.71  2.80

Average values 
5
  [Density]1/3  [M1/3 L1 ]
= 2.62 s
  [F][M1L3 ]  [M 2 L2 T 2 ] Now, |T1| = 2.63 – 2.62 = 0.01
|T2| = 2.62 – 2.56 = 0.06
02. (3) |T3| = 2.62 – 2.42 = 0.20
03. (4) |T4| = 2.71 – 2.62 = 0.09
[z] |T5| =2.80 – 2.62 = 0.18
[x]  [y]  [z]  Mean absolute error
[y]
T1  T2  T3  T4  T5
04. (2) T 
Here, S = (13.8 ± 0.2)m , t = (4.0 ± 0.3)s 5

13.8 0.54
v  3.45 ms 1   0.108  0.11s
4.0 5
09. (4)
v  S t  Maximum percentage error in the measurement of
Also,    
v  S t  pressure is
P F l
 0.2 0.3   100   100  2   100
     0.0895 P F l
 13.8 4.0 
4 2
v  0.0895  3.45  0.3   100  2   100  8%
100 100
10. (2)
05. (1)
Dimensions of at = [M0L0T0]  [] = [T–1] R V I
 100   100   100
R V I
v 
Again  0   [L] , so [v0] = [LT–1] 5 0.2
   100   100  5  2  7%
100 10
06. (4)
11. (1)
B Thickness of wall (t) = r1 – r2
A
2 t = 4.23 – 3.89 = 0.34 cm
t = ± (r1 + r2) = (0.01 + 0.01) = 0.02 cm
 B = (– A)2 where  and A are dimensionless.
Therefore, [B] = [L2] thickness = (t ± t) = [0.34 ± 0.02] cm
07. (1) 12. (1)
Here, 1mm
Mass of a body, M= 5.00 ± 0.05 kg L.C. = = 0 02 mm
50
Volume of a body, V= 1.00 ± 0.05 m3
Zero error = – [0 + (50 – 44) × 0.02 mm] = – 0.12 mm
M Observed reading = 3 mm + 26 × 0.02 mm
Density,  
V = 3.52 mm
Actual reading = 3.52 mm – (– 0.12 mm)
 M V
Relative error in density is,   = 3.64 mm
 M V
13. (1)
Percentage error in density is Conceptual
 M V 14. (2)
 100   100   10 Zero error = +0.3 mm
 M V
Reading = 13 mm + 8 × 0.01 mm
 0.05   0.05  = 13.8 mm
  100     100  = 1% + 5% = 6%
 5   1  = Reading – L.C.
= 13.5 mm

Page No.17
15. (1)
In each of the options (2), (3) and (4), there is one 26. (3)
force which is greater than sum of other two forces, 27. (3)
hence resultant force cannot be zero for these.
1 1  1 
16. (1) d1  a(10)2   a  100  s  at  at 2 
2 2  2 
Conceptual
17. (3) 1 1 1
18. (2) d2  a(20)2  a(10)2  a  300  3d1
2 2 2
Random error becomes 1/n times when number of
28. (4)
observations is made n times.
Given -coordinate varies as x – 8 – 4t + 6t2 so its
19. (3)
dx
2k 3l 2 velocity v   4  12t and when velocity
X dt
m n
1
become zero v = 0 = – 4+ 12t we get t = second
X 3k m 1 n 3
   
X k m 2 n 1
Which means particle turns at t = seconds
1 3
 % uNCERTanity = 3(A) + 2(B) + 3(C) + (D) =
2
At t  0,x1  8  4(0)  6(0)2  8m
12%
20. (1) 2
1 1 1 22
z At t  , x 2  8  4    6    m
3 3 3 3
In given equation, should be dimensionless
k
2
2 2 2
k [ML2 T 2 K 1 K] At t  , x 3  8  4    6    8m
  [ ]   [MLT 2 ] and 3 3 3
z [L]

   [MLT 2 ] 22 22 4
P  []      [M 0 L2 T 0 ] So distance covered  8  8  m
1 2 3 3 3
 P  [ML T ]
  

21. (1) 29. (1)

[MLT–2] = [L2][LT–1 ] [ML–3] Conceptual
30. (1)
= [M  L23  T  ]
Given ; xA = 20t
This gives: = 1, = 2
and 2+ – 3= 1
or = 1;

 F  Av 2
22. (3) 1
xA + 112.5 = 0 + × 1 × t2
2
Displacement 2R 20t + 112.5 = 0.5t2
v avg  
Time t 0.5t2 – 20t – 112.5 = 0
23. (2) t2 – 40t – 225 = 0
x (t = 1) = 1 and x (t = 3 ) = 9 t = 45 s
Displacement = 8m and time = 2s 31. (1)
8 h1 = h2
 (v) = = 4 m/s
2 1 2
h1 = 125 = gt or t = 5 s
24. (4) 2
Conceptual so, time for second ball = 5s – 2s = 3s
25. (3)
1
Conceptual h2 = 125 = u(3) + g(3)2
2
 3u = 80  u = 26.66 m/s
Page No.18
32. (4) 40. (2)
Relative acceleration of two balls is zero as
( 3 ˆi  4 ˆj)
Velocity vector   10 m / s
5

 1
s  ( 6 ˆi  8 ˆj)(2)  (0)22
2

 Displacement after 2 s = 12 ˆi  16 ˆj

 x-coordinate after 2s = (12 – 12) = 0
 
a rel  gjˆ  (  gj)
ˆ  0 and u
rel  40m/s constant.
41. (2)
42. (3)
So the graph is
Time taken by first drop to come to ground,

1
H0  gt 2
2

2H0
33. (1) t
g
9
tan(90° – ) =  3
3 3 Time taken by first drop to come to ground,
forming a vector triangle: 1
H0  gt 2
2

2H0
t
g
Drop falls at regular interval, therefore,
 = 30° with vertical towards south.
34. (2) t
distance covered by second drop in time is
Change in momentum = 2mu sin  2
= 2mv sin 45° = 2 mv
1 t2 1 2H 0 H 0
35. (4) h  g  g 
2 4 2 4g 4
u
ucos      60 H0 3H0
2  height from groun H0  
36. (4) 4 4
vx will remain same while vy will reverse. 43. (2)
Conceptual
So, v B  2iˆ  3ˆj
44. (3)
37. (3)
Conceptual 1 2
For a uniform accelerated motion, s = ut + at
38. (3) 2
It is given that u = 0, and s = x when t = 5. Thus,

1 25
u 2 sin 2 45o x  a(5)2  a and v  u  at  v  5a
2 2
H 2g tan o 45 1
tan      For the second data, u = a × 5 = 5a, therefore the
R 2u 2 sin 45o cos 45o 2 2
distance travelled
2 2g
1
s'  ut' at'2
 1 2
   tan 1  
2 1 25 75
 5a(5)  a(5)2  25a  a  a  3x
39. (3) 2 2 2
Conceptual

Page No.19
45. (2)
Charge of 1 mole electrons = 1 Faraday = 96500 C
dx = 9.65 × 104 C
v  0  12  3t 2  0  t  2s
dt 58. (1)
At t = 2s, The mass of 1 mole of carbon = 12 g
If Na changed to 6.022 × 1020 atom then,
dv
Retardation = = – (– 6t) = 12 m/s2 12  6.022  10 20
dt Mass of 1 mole of carbon =
Note: Here, retardation means negative acceleration. 6.022  10 23
= 12 × 10–3 g
CHEMISTRY 59. (3)

46. (1) 1
Number of Mg atoms = × NA
47. (4) 24
48. (4)
1
Number of O atoms = × 2 × NA
4 32
4g He = mole = 1 mole
4
1
Number of Li atoms = × NA
46 7
46gNa = mole = 2 mole
23 1
Number of Ag atoms = × NA .
0.40 108
0.40 gCa = mole = 10–2 mole 60. (2)
40
Average atomic mass
12
12gHe = mole 3 mole (54  5)  (56  90)  (57  5)
4   55.95
100
Thus, 12gHe contains maximum number of moles
61. (3)
or atoms.
49. (2)  2NH3(g)
N2(g) + 3H2(g) 
44 g of CO2 contain C = 12 g
20g 5g
12
% of C = × 100 = 2727% 20 5
44 mol mol
28 2
50. (4) For 3 mol of H2  1 mol of N2 required
51. (2)
5 5
9.5 For mol of H2  = 0.83 mol of N2 req.
2 6
Moles of PO43– = = 0.1 mole
95
20
Number of electrons in 0.1 mole PO43– Moles of N2 = 0.71 N2 is the limiting reagent.
28
= 50 × 0.1 × NA = 5 NA
52. (3) 20
n(NH3) = 2 × n(N2) = 2 × = 1.42
28
54
No of mole of H2O (l) = 62. (3)
18
Number of neutrons =(17 – 8) × 12 × 1025
(d = 1.0 g / mL for H2O) = 9 × 2 × 6 × 1023 × 100 = 1800 NA
H has no neutron 63. (3)
 no. of neutrons in H2O = 3 × 8 × NA 64. (2)
53. (1) Let the mass of O2 = a g
54. (1)  Number of moles of O2 = 4ag

55. (4) a
Number of moles of O2 =
56. (2) 32

57. (4) 4a a
Number of moles of N2 = 
Mass of 1 mole electrons 28 7
= 9.1 × 10–31 × 6.022 × 1023 kg
a a
= 5.48 × 10–7 kg  Ratio of moles  :  7 : 32
32 7
Page No.20
65. (2) 78. (4)
66. (2) Radial nodes = m –l – 1
67. (2) (spherical nodes)
68. (3) nodal plane = l
orbital angular momentum
69. (1)
As the value of Z (atomic number) incrases, energy h
of orbital decreases (becomes more –ve value)  l(l  1).
2
 Order of energy of 2s orbital is H > Li > Na > K.
79. (3)
70. (3)
The electronic configuration of Mn4+ is d3. Therefore
n=3
a0n2
r
Z    . Therefore, n = 3.
The electronic configuration of Co2+ is d7
2 a (2)2 4a 0
For Li , r  0 
3 3      .Therefore, n = 3.
71. (3) Hence, magnetic moment is same for both, and is
According to Bohr’s model energy in nth state
  3(3  2)  3.872 BM
Z2
 13.6 eV 80. (1)
n2
For second excited state, of He+, n = 3

22
 E 3 (He  )  13.6  eV  6.04 eV
32
72. (2)
The possible number of orbitals in a shell in term of
‘n’ is n2
balmer lymen 6  2 4th line of the balmer series.
n = 5 ; n2 = 25
73. (2) 81. (2)
Let wavelength of particle be x 82. (3)
According to Aufbau principle, in the ground state
x of the atoms, the orbitals are filled in order of their
So, velocity (v) 
100 increasing energies.
83. (1)
h h  100
 ;x For n = 3 and l = 1, the subshell is 3p and a particular
mv mx 3p orbital can accommodate only 2 electrons
84. (3)
2 h h
x  100 or x  10 The oscillating fields are perpendicular to the
m m
direction of propagation
74. (2) 85. (3)
According to given information n = 5 and l = 3. Shortest wavelength  Max. energy   (1)
75. (4) For Lyman series of H atom,
3d electron is in the highest energy orbital
1 1 
76. (2)  R H (1)2   0 
m = –l to +l, through zero thus for l = 2,
1 1 
values of m will be –2, –1, 0, +1, +2.
1 1
Therefore for l = 2, m cannot have the value –3.   RH  RH 
1 1
77. (4)
For Balmer series of He+
Atomic number is equal to number of protons or
number of electrons. Thus, if two species have 1 1 1 1 94
different atomic number they must contain different  R H (2)2  2  2    R H (4)  
number of protons and electrons. Number of
1 2 3    36 
neutrons = atomic mass – atomic number. Therefore,
due to difference of atomic numbers two species also 1 5R H 9 9
    1
have different number of neutrons.  9 5R H 5

Page No.21
86. (4)
0.529n 2
rn  Å
h Z
de Broglie wavelength  
mv
0.529  12
1 m 2 v 2 1 1 1 r1 (H)   0.529 Å
 ;   1
 2 m 1v 1 4 9 v 1
0.529  2 2
r2 (Be 3 )   0.529 Å
v2 9 4

v1 4

v1 4

v2 9
BIOLOGY
1 2
KE = mv
2 91 (3) 92 (2) 93 (3) 94 (3) 95 (2)
2 96 (4) 97 (2) 98 (4) 99 (1) 100 (3)
KE1 m 1 v12 9  4  16
     101 (1) 102 (3) 103 (2) 104 (2) 105 (2)
KE 2 m 2 v 22 1  9  9
106 (3) 107 (2) 108 (3) 109 (1) 110 (2)
87. (4)
111 (3) 112 (2) 113 (4) 114 (3) 115 (1)
As we know
116 (3) 117 (3) 118 (1) 119 (4) 120 (2)
 1 1  121 (1) 122 (4) 123 (1) 124 (1) 125 (3)
v  rH  2  2  Z 2 (where, Z  1)
n 
 2 n1  126 (2) 127 (4) 128 (4) 129 (2) 130 (2)
After putting the values, we get 131 (1) 132 (2) 133 (2) 134 (3) 135 (1)
136 (2) 137 (3) 138 (3) 139 (1) 140 (4)
 1 1 
v  rH  2  2  141 (3) 142 (1) 143 (1) 144 (4) 145 (4)
n 8 
146 (3) 147 (3) 148 (2) 149 (4) 150 (1)
R R 151 (3) 152 (4) 153 (3) 154 (3) 155 (4)
 v H  H
64 n 2
156 (2) 157 (1) 158 (2) 159 (3) 160 (4)
comparing to y  mx  c , we get 161 (2) 162 (3) 163 (2) 164 (4) 165 (1)
1 166 (3) 167 (1) 168 (1) 169 (1) 170 (4)
x 2
and m  R H (slope)
n 171 (4) 172 (2) 173 (4) 174 (2) 175 (3)
88. (1) 176 (2) 177 (2) 178 (2) 179 (1) 180 (2)
Total number of spectral lines given by

1
[n  1]  n  15;  n6
2
Thus, electron is excited upto 6th energy level from
ground state. Therefore,

1 1 1 35
 R H  2  2   109737 
 1 6  36

  9.373  10 6 cm  937.3Å
89. (2)
x, v value will be large for object of smallest mass
and is therefore, the most significant for calculating
uncertainity. Object B has smallest mass i.e.,
g.11 × 10–28 g = g.11 × 10–31 Kg. So it will be most
significant.
90. (2)
The radius of the hydrogen-like species is calculated
and compared with that of hydrogen.

Page No.22