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Information Technology Management WGU C954

nformation Technology Management WGU C954

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
555 views38 pages

Information Technology Management WGU C954

nformation Technology Management WGU C954

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kigunduian637
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© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
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Information Technology Management WGU C954 –

Questions & Answers 2024

fact - ANSWERThe confirmation or validation of an event or object

information age - ANSWERA time when infinite quantities of facts are widely available
to anyone who can use a computer

internet of things (IoT) - ANSWERA world where interconnected Internet-enabled


devices or "things" have the ability to collect and share data without human intervention

machine-to-machine (M2M) - ANSWERrefers to devices that connect directly to there


devices

data aggregation - ANSWERThe collection of data from various sources for the purpose
of data processing

structured data - ANSWERdata that has defined length, type and format and includes
numbers, dates, or strings such as Customer Address

ambient digital experience - ANSWERa blend of the physical, virtual, and electronic
environments creating a real-time ambient environment that changes as the user moves
form one place to another

Internet of Everything (IoE) - ANSWERa concept that extends the Internet of Things
(IoT) emphasis on machine-to-machine communications to describe a more complex
system that also encompasses people and processes

autonomous agent - ANSWERsoftware that carries out some set of operations on


behalf of a user or another program with some degree of independence or autonomy,
and employ some knowledge or representation of the user's goals or desires

autonomic computing - ANSWERa self-managing computing model named after, and


patterned on, the human body's autonomic nervous system
transformation process - ANSWERthe technical core, especially in manufacturing
organizations; the actual conversion of inputs to outputs

value-added - ANSWERthe term used to describe the difference between the cost of
inputs and the value of price of outputs

strategic business units (SBUs) - ANSWERconsists of several stand alone businesses

materials requirement planning (MRP) system - ANSWERsales forecasts to make sure


that needed parts and materials are available at the right time and place in a specific
company

tactical planning - ANSWERfocuses on producing goods and services as efficiently as


possible within the strategic plan

operational planning and control (OP&C) - ANSWERdeals with the day to day
procedures for performing work, including scheduling, inventory, and process
management

International Organization for Standardization (ISO) - ANSWERa non-governmental


organization established in 1947 to promote the development of world standards to
facilitate the international exchange of goods and services

process quality - ANSWERmain goal is to produce defect free products

six sigma quality - ANSWERthe goal is to detect potential problems to prevent their
occurrence and achieve no more than 3.4 defects per million opportunities

malcolm baldric national quality awards - ANSWER1987 U.S. standard awarding quality
awards in seven key areas: leadership, strategic planning, customer/market focus,
information and analysis, human resources focus, process management, and business
results

ISO 900 - ANSWERinternational organization for standardization (1947) requiring a


company to determine customer needs, including regulatory and legal requirements
including communication arrangements. Other standards involve process control,
product testing, storage and delivery.

ISO 14000 - ANSWERcollection of best practices for managing an organizations impact


on the environment

CMMI - ANSWERcapability maturity integration is a framework for best practices. Does


not describe the processes themselves; it describes the characteristics of good
processes, thus providing efficient guidelines.

inputs - ANSWERland, labor, capital, information


transformation - ANSWERconversion process

outputs - ANSWERgoods & services

storage virtualization - ANSWERcombines multiple network storage devices so that they


appear to be a single storage device

network virtualization - ANSWERcombines networks by splitting the available bandwidth


into independent channels that an be assigned in real time to a specific device

server virtualization - ANSWERcombines the physical resources, such as servers,


processors, and operating systems, from the applications

system virtualization - ANSWERthe ability to present the resources of a single computer


as if it is a collation of separate computers (virtual machines)

multi-tenancy - ANSWERa single instance of a system serves multiple customers

cloud fabric controller - ANSWERan individual who monitors and provisions cloud
resources similar to a server administrator at an individual company

cloud fabric - ANSWERthe software that makes the benefits of cloud computing
possible

hybrid cloud - ANSWERincludes two or more private, public, or community clouds, but
each cloud remains separate and is only linked by technology that enables data and
application portability

cloud bursting - ANSWERwhen a company uses its own computing infrastructure for
normal usage and accesses the cloud when it needs to sale for high/peak load
requirements, ensuring a sudden spike in usage does not result in poor performance or
system crashes

utility computing - ANSWERoffers a pay-per-use revenue model similar to a metered


service such as gas or electricity

Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) - ANSWERdelivers hardware networking capabilities,


including use of servers, networking, and storage, over the cloud using a pay-per-use
revenue model

Disaster Recovery as a Device (DRaaS) - ANSWEROffers backup services that use


cloud resources to protect applications and data form disruption caused by disaster

Data as a Service (DaaS) - ANSWERfacilitates the accessibility of business-critical data


in a timely, secure, and affordable manner
Moore's Law - ANSWERrefers to the computer chip performance per dollar doubling
every 18 months

upcycle - ANSWERreuses or refurbishes waste and creates new product

governance - ANSWERmethod or system of government for management or control

information systems audit and control association (USACA) - ANSWERa set of


guidelines and supporting tools for IT governance that is accepted worldwide and
generally used by auditors and companies as a way to integrate technology to
implement controls and meet specific business objectives

internet technology infrastructure library (ITIL) - ANSWERa framework provided by the


government of the UK that offers eight sets of management procedures

committee of sponsoring organizations (COSO) - ANSWERkey for evaluating internal


controls such as human resources, logistics, IT, risk, legal, marketing and sales,
operations, financial functions, procurement, and reporting

capability maturity model integration (CMMI) method - ANSWERa process improvement


approach that contains 22 process areas

enterprise architecture - ANSWERa process for how an organization will build, deploy,
use, and share its data, processes, and MIS assets

deperimeterization - ANSWERoccurs when an organization moves employees outside


its firewall, a growing movement to change the way corporations address technology
security

transborder data flows (TDF) - ANSWERwhen business data flows across international
boundaries over the telecommunications networks of global information systems

carbon emission - ANSWERincludes the carbon dioxide & carbon monoxide in the
atmosphere produced by processes and systems

grid computing - ANSWERa collection of computers coordinated to solve a common


problem

smart grid - ANSWERdelivers electricity using two-way digital technology

virtualization - ANSWERthe creation of a virtual (rather than actual) version of


computing resources, such as an operating system, a server, a storage device, or other
network resources
data center - ANSWERa facility used to house management information systems and
associated components, such as telecommunications and storage systems

public cloud - ANSWERpromotes massive, global, industrywide applications offered to


the general public

private cloud - ANSWERserves only one customer or organization and can be located
on the customer's premises or off premises

community cloud - ANSWERserves a specific community with common business


models, security requirements, and compliance considerations

big data as a service (BDaaS) - ANSWERoffers cloud-based big data service to help
organizations analyze massive amounts of data to solve business dilemmas

child online protection act (COPA) - ANSWERa law that protects minors from accessing
inappropriate material on the internet

threat - ANSWERan act or object that poses a danger to assets

competitive click-fraud - ANSWERa computer crime where a competitor or disgruntled


employee increases a company's search advertising costs by repeatedlyclickingon the
advertiser's link

fair information practices - ANSWERa general term for a set of standards governing the
collection and use of personal data and addressing issues of privacy and accuracy

acceptable use policy (AUP) - ANSWERa policy that a user must agree to follow in
order to be provided access to a network or to the internet

nonrepudiation - ANSWERcontractual stipulation to ensure that business participants do


not deny (repudiate) their online actions

mail bomb - ANSWERa massive amount email to a specific person or system that can
cause that user's server to stop functioning

teergrubbing - ANSWERanti-spamming approach where the receiving computer


launches a return attack against the spammer, sending email messages back to the
computer that originated the suspected spam

workplace mis monitoring - ANSWERtracks people's activities by such measures as


number of keystrokes, error rate, and number of transactions processed

mis infrastructure - ANSWERincludes the plans for how a firm will build, deploy, use,
and share its data, processes, and mis assets
client - ANSWERcomputer that is designed yo request information from a server

server - ANSWERcomputer that is dedicated to providing information in response to


external requests

enterprise architect (EA) - ANSWERperson grounded in technology, fluent in business,


a patient diplomat, ad provides the important bridge between IT and the business

information mis infrastructure - ANSWERidentifies where and how important


information, such as customer records, is maintained and secured

agile mis infrastructure - ANSWERincludes the hardware, software, and


telecommunications equipment that, when combined, provides the underlying
foundation to support the organization's goals

sustainable mis infrastructure - ANSWERidentifies ways that a company can grow in


terms of computing resources while simultaneously becoming less dependent on the
hardware and energy consumption

fault tolerance - ANSWERthe ability for a system to respond to unexpected failures or


system crashes as the backup system immediately and automatically takes over with no
loss of service

failover - ANSWERoccurs when redundant storage server offers an exact replica of the
real time data, and if the primary server crashes, the users are automatically directed to
the secondary server or backup server

failback - ANSWERoccurs when the privy machine recovers and resumes operations,
taking over from the secondary server

hot site - ANSWERa separate and fully equipped facility where the company can move
immediately after a disaster and resume business

cold site - ANSWERa separate facility that does not have any computer equipment, but
is a place where employees can move after a disaster

warm site - ANSWERa separate facility with computer equipment that requires
installation and configuration

disaster recovery cost curve - ANSWERcharts the cost to the organization of the
unavailability of information and technology AND the cost of recovering from a disaster
over time

business continuity planning (BCP) - ANSWERdetails how a company reverse and


restores critical business operations and systems after a disaster or external disruption
administrator access - ANSWERunrestricted access to the entire system

web accessibility initiative (WAI) - ANSWERbrings together people form industry,


disability orgs, government, and research labs to develop accessibility guidelines
worldwide

web accessibility - ANSWERpeople with visual, auditory, speech, cognitive, ad


neurological disabilities, can use the web

availability - ANSWERrefers to the time frames when the system is operational

maintainability (or flexibility) - ANSWERrefers to how quickly a system can transform


support environmental changes

performance - ANSWERmeasures how quickly a system performs a certain process or


transaction

capacity planning - ANSWERdetrmines future environmental infrastructure


requirements to ensure high-quality system performance

capacity - ANSWERrepresents the maximum throughput a system can deliver; for


example, the capacity of a HD represents the size or volume

serviceability - ANSWERhow quickly a third party vendor can change system to ensure
it meets user needs and the terms of any contracts, including agreed levels of reliability,
maintainability, or availability

insider - ANSWERlegitimate users who purposely or accidentally misuse their access to


the environment and cause some kind of business-affecting incident

pretexting - ANSWERa form of social engineering in which one individual lies to obtain
confidential data about another individual

information security plan - ANSWERdetails how an org will implement the information
security policies

information security policy - ANSWERidentifies the rules required to maintain


information security

destructive agents - ANSWERmalicious agents designed by spammers and other


hackers to farm email addresses off websites or deposit spyware

spear phishing - ANSWERa phishing expedition in which emails are carefully designed
to target a particular person or organization
vishing (voice phishing) - ANSWERscam involving defraud by asking to call bogus
number to confirm their account information

pharming attack - ANSWERuses zombie farm, to launch massive phishing attack (often
used by organized crime)

zombie farm - ANSWERa group of computers on which a hackers have planted zombie
programs

authentication - ANSWERa method of conforming users' identities

authorization - ANSWERthe process of providing a user with permission including


access levels and abilities such as file access, hours of access, and amount of allocated
storage space

token - ANSWERsmall electronic devices that change user passwords automatically

smart card - ANSWERcard with embedded technologies that can store information and
small amounts of software to perform some limited processing

biometrica - ANSWERthe id of a user based on physical characteristics (fingerprints iri,


voice, handwriting)

single factor authentication - ANSWERtraditional security process, username/password

two-factor authentication - ANSWERrequires two means of authentication password


and token

multifactor authentication - ANSWERrequires more than two means of authentication


(knows, has, and is)

privilege escalation - ANSWERa network intrusion attack that takes advantage of


programming errors or design flaws to grant the attacker elevated access to the network
and its associated data and applications

vertical privilege escalation - ANSWERattackers grant themselves a higher access level


allowing the attacker to perform illegal actions such as running unauthorized code or
deleting data

horizontal privilege escalation - ANSWERattacker grants themselves the same access


levels they already have but assumes identity of another user

time bombs - ANSWERcomputer viruses that wait for a specific date before executing
instructions
advanced encryption standard (AES) - ANSWERintroduced by the national institute of
standards and technology (NIST), an encryption standard designed to keep government
information secure

publicly encryption (PKE) - ANSWERsystem using two keys: a public key for everyone
and a private key for only the recipient

certificate authority - ANSWERa trusted third party that validates user identities by
means of digital certificates (VeriSign)

digital certificate - ANSWERa data file that identifies individuals or organizations online
and is comparable to a digital signature

firewall - ANSWERhardware or software that guards a private network by analyzing the


information leaving and entering the network

intrusion detection software - ANSWERfeatures full-time monitoring tools that search for
patterns in network traffic to identify intruders

phishing - ANSWERtechnique using fraudulent email to gain personal information

phishing expedition - ANSWERmasquerading attack that combines spam with spoofing

pharming - ANSWERreroutes requests for legitimate websites to false websites

intellectual property - ANSWERintangible creative work that is embodied in physical


form and includes copyrights, trademarks, and patents

copyright - ANSWERthe legal protection afforded an expression of an idea, such as a


song, book, or video game

patent - ANSWERan exclusive right to make, use, and sell an invention granted by a
government to the inventor

confidentiality - ANSWERthe assurance that messages and information are available


only to those who are authorized to view them

pirated software - ANSWERthe unauthorized use, duplication, distribution, or sale of


copyrighted software

digital rights management - ANSWERa technological solution that allows publishers to


control their digital media to discourage, limit, or prevent illegal copying and distribution

ediscovery - ANSWERrefers to the ability of a company to identify, search, gather,


seize, or export digital information in responding to a litigation, audit, investigation, or
information inquiry
drive-by hacking - ANSWERa computer attack where an attacker accesss a wireless
computer network, internets data, uses network services, and/or sends an attack
instructions without entire office, org that owns the network

virus - ANSWERsoftware written with malicious intent to cause annoyance or damage

worm - ANSWERspreads itself not only form file to file but form computer to computer

spyware - ANSWERa special class of adware that collects user data and transmits it
without user knowledge or permission

tangible benefits - ANSWEReasy to qualify and typically measured to determine the


success or failure of a project

kill switch - ANSWERtrigger that enables project manager to close project prior to
completion

feasibility - ANSWERthe measure of the tangible/intangible benefits of an information


system

PERT (program evaluation and review technique) chart - ANSWERgraphical network


model that depicts a projects tasks and the relationships between those tasks

dependency - ANSWERlogical relationship existing between project tasks or tasks and


milestones

critical path - ANSWERestimates shortest path through the project ensuring all critical
tasks are completed from start to finish

gantt chart - ANSWERa simple bar chart that lists project tasks vertically against the
projects timeframe, listed horizontally

nearshore outsourcing - ANSWERcontracting an outsourcing agreement with a


company in a nearby country

offshore outsourcing - ANSWERusing organizations from developing countries to write


code and develop systems

communication plan - ANSWERdefines how, what, when and who regarding the flow of
project information to stakeholders and is key for managing expectations

executive sponsor - ANSWERthe person or group who provides the financial resources
for the project

project constraint - ANSWERspecific factor that can limit options


project assumption - ANSWERfactor that is considered to be true, real, or certain
without proof or demonstration

project deliverable - ANSWERany measurable, tangible, verifiable outcome, result, or


item that is produced to complete a project or part of a project

project management office (PMO) - ANSWERan internal dept that oversees all
organix=zational projects

project milestone - ANSWERrepresents key dates when a certain group of activities


must be performed

project objective - ANSWERquantifiable criteria that must be met for the project to be
considered a success

project scope statement - ANSWERlinks the project to the organizations overall


business goals

methodology - ANSWERa set of policies, procedures, standards, processes, practices,


tools, techniques, and tasks that people apply to technical management challenges

waterfall methodology - ANSWERa sequence of phases in which the output of each


phase becomes the input for the next

discovery prototyping - ANSWERbuilds small scale representation or working model of


the system to ensure it meets the user and business requirements

iterative development - ANSWERconsists of series of tiny projects

agile methodology - ANSWERaims for customer satisfaction through early and


continuous delivery of useful software components developed by an iterative process
with a design point that uses the bare minimum requirements

rapid application development (RAD) methodology - ANSWER(rapid prototyping)


emphasizes extensive user involvement in the rapid and evolutionary construction of
working prototypes of a system to accelerate the systems development process

extreme programming (XP) methodology - ANSWERbreaks a project into tiny phases,


and developers cannot continue on to the next phase until the first phase is complete

rational unified process (RUP) methodology - ANSWERprovides a framework for


breaking down the development of software into four gates

scrum methodology - ANSWERuses small teams to produce small pieces of deliverable


software using sprints, or 30-day intervals, to achieve appointed goal
web standards - ANSWERopen standards way of supporting interoperability

extensible markup language (XML) - ANSWERmarkup language for documents,


containing structured information

loose coupling - ANSWERthe capability to be joined on demand to create services or


disassembled just as easily into their functional components

service-oriented architecture (SOA) - ANSWERbusiness driven enterprise that supports


integrating a business as linked, repeatable activities, tasks , or services

SOA service - ANSWERa business task, such as checking a potential customers credit
rating when opening a new account

joint application development (JAD) - ANSWERa session where employees meet to


define or review the business requirements for the system

conversion - ANSWERthe process of transferring information from a legacy system to a


new one

systems development life cycle (SDLC) - ANSWERoverall process for developing info
systems from planning and analysis through implementation and maintenance

analysis phase - ANSWERanalyzing end user business requirements snd refining


project goals into defined functions and operations of the intended system

data flow diagram (DFD) - ANSWERillustrates the movement of information between


external entities and the processes and data stores within the system

computer aided software engineering (CASE) - ANSWERtools are software suites that
automate systems analysis, design, and development

software engineering - ANSWERa disciplined approach for constructing information


systems through the use of common methods, techniques, or tools

control objectives for information and related technologies (COBIT) - ANSWERa set of
best practices that helps an organization to maximize the benefits of an information
system, while at the same time establishing appropriate controls to ensure minimum
errors

scripting language - ANSWERa programming method that provides for interactive


modules to a website

object oriented languages - ANSWERlanguages that group data and corresponding


processes into objects
fourth generation language (4GL) - ANSWERprogramming languages that look similar
to human languages

phases mis - ANSWERplanning, analysis, development, testing, implementation,


maintenance, corrective maintenance, preventative maintenance

bug - ANSWERdefects in the code of an information system

test condition - ANSWERthe detailed steps the system must perform along with the
expected results each step

supply chain design - ANSWERdetermines how to structure a supply chain including the
product, selection of partners, the location and capacity of warehouses, transportation
methods, and supporting management information systems

supply chain visibility - ANSWERthe ability to view all areas up and down the supply
chaining real time

supply chain planning system - ANSWERuses advanced mathematical algorithms to


improve the flow and efficiency of the supply chain while reducing inventory

supply chain execution system - ANSWERensures chain cohesion by automating the


different activities of the supply chain

electronic data interchange (EDI) - ANSWERa standard format for the electronic
exchange of information between supply chain participants

bullwhip effect - ANSWERoccurs when distorted product demand information passes


from one entity to the next throughout the supply chain

procurement - ANSWERthe purchasing of goods and services to meet the needs of the
supply chain

logisitics - ANSWERincludes the processes that control the distribution, maintenance,


and replacement of materials and personnel to support the supply chain

cradle to grave - ANSWERprovides logistics support throughout the entire system or life
of the product

materials management - ANSWERincludes activities that govern the flow of tangible,


physical materials through the supply chain such as shipping, transport, distribution, and
warehousing

makermovement - ANSWERa cultural trend that places value on an individual's ability to


be a creator of things as well as a consumer of things
makerspace - ANSWERa community center that provides technology, manufacturing
equipment, and educational opportunities to the public that would otherwise be
inaccessible or unaffordable

chief information officer (CIO) - ANSWERoversees all uses of IT and ensures the
strategic alignment of MIS with business goals and objectives

chief data officer - ANSWERdetermines types of information the enterprise will capture,
retain, analyze, and share

chief technology officer (CTO) - ANSWERensures the throughput, speed, accuracy,


availability, and reliability of an organization's IT

chief knowledge officer (CKO) - ANSWERresponsible for collecting, maintaining, and


distributing the organization's knowledge

chief privacy officer (CPO) - ANSWERensures the ethical and legal use of information
within an organization

chief security officer (CSO) - ANSWERensures security of MIS systems and developing
strategies and MIS safeguards against attacks from hackers and viruses

chief automation officer - ANSWERdetermines if a person or business process can be


replaced by a robot or software

chief user experience officer - ANSWERcreates the optimal relationship between user
and technology

MIS skills gap - ANSWERdifference between existing MIS workplace knowledge and
that required to fulfill the business goals and strategies

metrics - ANSWERmeasurements that evaluates results to determine whether a project


is meeting its goals

critical success factor (CSF) - ANSWERcrucial steps companies perform to achieve


their goals and objectives and implement their strategies

key performance indicator (KPI) - ANSWERquantifiable metrics a company uses to


evaluate progress toward critical success factors

effectiveness MIS metric - ANSWERmeasures the impact MIS has on business


processes and activities including customer satisfaction, conversion rates, and sell-
through increases
efficiency MIS metric - ANSWERmeasures the performance of the MIS system itself
including throughput, speed, and availability

benchmark - ANSWERbaseline values the system seeks to attain

balanced scorecard - ANSWERa management system, in addition to a measurement


system, that enables organizations to clarify their vision and strategy and translate them
into action

workflow - ANSWERincludes the tasks, activities, and responsibilities required to


execute each step in a business process

workflow control systems - ANSWERmonitor processes to ensure tasks, activities, and


responsibilities are executed as specified

static process - ANSWERuses a systematic approach in an attempt to improve


business effectiveness and efficiency continuously

dynamic process - ANSWERcontinuously changing and provides business solutions to


ever-changing business operations

customer facing process - ANSWERresults in a product or service that is received by an


organization's external customer

business facing process - ANSWERinvisible to the external customer but essential to


the effective management of the business; they include goal setting, day to day
planning, performance feedback and rewards, and resource allocation

business process reengineering (BPR) - ANSWERthe analysis and redesign of


workflow within and between enterprises

business process modeling (mapping) - ANSWERthe activity of creating a detailed


flowchart or process map of a work process, showing its inputs, tasks, and activities in
as structured sequence

business process model - ANSWERgraphic description of a process, showing the


sequence of process tasks, which is developed for a specific purpose and from a
selected viewpoint

business process model and notation (BPMN) - ANSWERa graphical notation that
depicts the steps in a business process

as-is process model - ANSWERrepresents the current state of the operation that has
been mapped, without any specific improvements or changes to existing processes
swimlane diagram - ANSWERdocuments the steps or activities of a workflow by
grouping activities into swim lanes, which are horizontal or vertical columns containing
all associated activities for that category or department

process owner - ANSWERperson responsible for the need to end functioning of a


business process

supply chain management (SCM) - ANSWERinvolves the management of information


flows between and among activities in a supply chain to maximize total supply chain
effectiveness and corporate profitability

CRM reporting technologies - ANSWERhelp organizations identify their customers


across other applications

CRM analysis technologies - ANSWERhelp orgs segment customers into categories


such as best/worst customers

enterprise resource planning (ERP) - ANSWERintegrates all departments and functions


throughout an organization into a single system (or integrated set of MIS systems) so
that employees can make decisions by viewing enterprise wide information on all
business operations

common data repository - ANSWERallows every department to store and retrieve


information in real time allowing information to be more reliable and accessible

first-mover advantage - ANSWERoccurs when an organization can significantly impact


its market share by being first to market with a competitive advantage

SWOT analysis - ANSWERstrength, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats

porter's five forces model - ANSWERanalyzes the competitive forces within the
environment in which a company operates to assess the potential for profitability in an
industry

buyer power - ANSWERthe ability of buyers to affect the price they must pay for an item

supply chain - ANSWERconsists of all parties involved, directly or indirectly, in the


procurement of a product or raw material

threat of substitute products or services - ANSWERhigh when there are many


alternatives to a product or service and low when there are few alternatives from which
to choose

porter's three generic strategies - ANSWERgeneric business strategies that are neither
organization nor industry specific and can be applied to any business, product, or
service
business process - ANSWERa standardized set of activities that accomplish a specific
task, such as processing a customer's order

value chain analysis - ANSWERviews a firms as a series of business processes that


each add value to the product/service

support value activities - ANSWERfound along the top of the value chain and includes
business processes, such as firm infrastructure, human resource management,
technology development, and procurement that support the primary value activities

primary value activities - ANSWERfound at the bottom of the value chain, these include
business processes that acquire raw materials and manufacture, deliver, market, sell,
and provide after sales services

web 2.0 (business 2.0) - ANSWERthe next generation of internet use, a more mature,
distinctive communications platform characterized by new qualities such as
collaboration, sharing, and free

open source - ANSWERsoftware whose source code is made available free for any
third party to review and modify

knowledge management (KM) - ANSWERinvolves capturing, classifying, evaluating,


retrieving, and sharing information assets in a way that provides context for effective
decisions and actions

knowledge management system (KMS) - ANSWERsupports the capturing, organization,


dissemination of knowledge throughout an org

explicit knowledge - ANSWERconsists of anything that can be documented, archived,


codified, often with the help of IT

tacit knowledge - ANSWERthe knowledge contained in people's heads

asynchronous communication - ANSWERcommunication like email in which the


message and the response do not occur at the same time

social media - ANSWERrefers to websites that rely on user participation and user
contributed content

social network - ANSWERan application that connects people by matching profile


information

social networking analysis (SNA) - ANSWERmaps group contacts, identifying who


knows each other and who works together
tags - ANSWERspecific keywords or phrases incorporated into website content for
means of classification or taxonomy

folksonomy - ANSWERsimilar to taxonomy, except that crowdsourcing determines tags


or keyword based classification system

real simple syndication (RSS) - ANSWERa web format used to publish frequently
updated works, such as blogs, news headlines, audio, and video, in a standardized
format

wiki - ANSWERa type of collaborative web page that allows users to add, remove, and
change content, which can be easily organized and reorganized as required

network effect - ANSWERdescribes how products increase in value to users as the


number of network users increases

mashup editor - ANSWERwysiwyg for mashups that provide a visual interface to build a
mashup, often allowing the user to drag and drop data points into a web application

mashup - ANSWERa website or web application that uses content form more than one
source to create a completely new product or service

application program interface (API) - ANSWERa set of routines, protocols, and tools for
building software applications

semantic web - ANSWERa component of web 3.0 that describes things in a way that
computers can understand

search engine optimization (SEO) - ANSWERcombines art along with science to


determine how to make URLs more attractive to search engines resulting n higher
search engine ranking

content management system - ANSWERhelps companies manage the creation,


storage, editing and publication of their website content

taxonomy - ANSWERthe scientific classification of organisms into groups based on


similarities of structure or origin

information architecture - ANSWERthe set of ideas about how all information in a given
context should be organized

middleware - ANSWERseveral different types of software that sit in the middle of and
provide connectivity between two or more software applications
enterprise application integration (EAI) middleware - ANSWERpackages together
commonly used functionality whites reduces time to develop solutions that integrate
applications from multiple vendors

core ERP component - ANSWERtraditional components included in most ERP systems


and they primarily focus on internal operations

elogistics - ANSWERmanages the transportation and storage of goods

software as a service (SaaS) - ANSWERdelivers applications over the cloud using pay
per use revenue model

hybrid ERP - ANSWERsplits ERP functions between on-premises ERP system and one
or more functions handled as SaaS in the cloud

extended ERP component - ANSWERthe extra components that meet the


organizational needs not covered by the core components and primarily focus on
external operations

operational CRM - ANSWERsupports traditional transactional processing for day to day


front office operations or systems that deal directly with the customers

list generator - ANSWERcompile customer information form a variety of sources and


segments for different marketing campaigns

campaign management system - ANSWERguides users through marketing campaigns


by performing such tasks as campaign definition, planning, scheduling, segmentation,
and success analysis

customer service and support (CSS) - ANSWERa part of the operational CRM that
automates service requests, complaints, product returns, and information requests

sales force automation (SFA) - ANSWERautomatically tracks all steps of the sales
process

sales management CRM systems - ANSWERautomates each phase of the sales


process, helping individual sales representatives coordinate and organize all their
accounts

opportunity management CRM systems - ANSWERtargets sales opportunities by


finding new customers or companies for future sales

uplift modeling - ANSWERa form of predictive analytics for marketing campaigns that
attempts to identify target markets or people who could be convinced to buy products
supplier relationship management (SRM) - ANSWERfocuses on keeping suppliers
satisfied by evaluating and categorizing suppliers for different projects, which optimizes
supplier selection

partner relationship management (PRM) - ANSWERfocuses on keeping vendors


satisfied by managing alliance partner and reseller relationships that provide customers
with the optimal sales channel

employee relationship management (ERM) - ANSWERprovides employees with a


subset of CRM applications available through a web browser

operational level - ANSWERemployees develop, control, and maintain core business


activities required to run the day to day operations

structured decisions - ANSWERinvolves situations where established processes offer


potential solutions

managerial level - ANSWERemployees are continuously evaluating company


operations to hone the firm's abilities to identify, adapt to, and leverage change

semistructured decisions - ANSWERoccurs in situations in which a few established


processes help to evaluate potential solutions, but not enough to lead to a definite
recommended decision

strategic level - ANSWERmangers develop overall business strategies, goals, and


objectives as part of the company's strategic plan

unstructured decisions - ANSWERoccurs in situations in which no procedures or rules


exist to guide decision makers toward the correct choice

model - ANSWERa simplified representation or abstraction of reality

online transaction processing (OLTP) - ANSWERthe capturing of transaction and event


information using technology to process the info according to defined business rules
AND store the info AND update existing info to reflect the new info

transaction processing system (TPS) - ANSWERthe basic business system that serves
the operational level (analysts) in an org

source document - ANSWERdescribes the original transaction record along with details
such as date, purpose, amount, cash receipts, canceled CDs, invoices, refunds, time
sheet, etc.

online analytical processing (OLAP) - ANSWERthe manipulation of info to create


business intel in support of strategic decision making
decision support system (DSS) - ANSWERmodel info using OLAP that provides
assistance in evaluating and choosing among different courses of action

what-if analysis - ANSWERchecks the impact of a change in an assumption on the


proposed solution

sensitivity analysis - ANSWERstudy of the impact on other variables when one variable
is changed repeatedly

goal-seeking analysis - ANSWERfinds the inputs necessary to achieve goal such as


desired level of output

optimization analysis - ANSWERan extension of goal seeking analysis, finds the


optimum value for a target variable by repeatedly changing other variables, subject to
specified constraints

executive information system (EIS) - ANSWERspecialized DSS that supports senior


level execs within org

granularity - ANSWERrefers to level of detail in the model or the decision making


process

digital dashboard - ANSWERtracks key performance indicators (KPIs) and critical


success factors (CSFs) by compiling info form multi sources and tailoring it to meet user
needs

artificial neural network - ANSWERa category of AI that attempts to emulate the way a
human brain works

expert system - ANSWERcomputerized advisory programs that imitate the reasoning


processes of experts in solving difficult problems

genetic algorithm - ANSWERan AI system that mimics the evolutionary survival of the
fittest process to generate increasingly better solutions to a problem

intelligent agent - ANSWERa special purpose knowledge based info system that
accomplishes specific tasks on behalf of its users

fuzzy logic - ANSWERa mathematical method of handling imprecise or subjective


information

mutation - ANSWERprocess within genetic algorithm of randomly trying combinations


and evaluating the success/failure of the outcome

augmented reality - ANSWERviewing of the physical world with computer generated


layers of info added to it
personal area network (PAN) - ANSWERprovides communication for devices owned by
a single user over short distance

bluetooth - ANSWERwireless PAN technology transmitting signals short distances

wireless LAN (WLAN) - ANSWERlocal area wireless network transmitting signals over a
few hundred feet

access point (AP) - ANSWERcomputer or network device that serves a interface


between devices and the network

wireless access point (WAP) - ANSWERenables devices to connect to a wireless


network to communicate with each other

multiple-in/multiple-out (MIMO) technology - ANSWERmultiple transmitters and


receivers allowing greater amounts of data to be sent

wireless fidelity (Wi-Fi) - ANSWERa means by which portable devices connect


wirelessly to a LAN, using access points that send and receive data via radio waves

institute of electronic engineers (IEEE) - ANSWERorg that researches and institutes


electrical standards for communication and other technologies

wireless MAN (WMAN) - ANSWERa metro area network that uses radio signals to
transmit and receive data

worldwide interoperability for microwave access (WiMAX) - ANSWERcomm tech aimes


at providing high speed wireless data over metro area networks

wireless WAN (WWAN) - ANSWERa wide area network that uses radio signals to
transmit and receive data

wired equivalent privacy (WEP) - ANSWERan encryption algorithm designed to protect


wireless transmission data

wi-fi protected access (WPA) - ANSWERa wireless security protocol to protect wi-fi
networks

war driving - ANSWERdeliberately searching for wi-fi signals from a vehicle

war chalking - ANSWERthe practice of tagging pavement with codes displaying where
wi-fi access is available

mobile device management (MDM) - ANSWERremotely controls smartphones and


tablets, ensuring data security
mobile application management - ANSWERadmins and delivers applications to
corporate and personal smartphones and tablets

RFID reader (RFID interrogator) - ANSWERtransmitter/receiver that reads the contents


of RFID tags in the area

RFID tag - ANSWERan electronic device that is made up of a chip and antennae;
passive no power source, active, own battery

semi-passive RFID - ANSWERinclude a battery to run the microchip's circuitry, but


communicate by drawing power from the RFID reader

asset tracking - ANSWERoccurs when a company places active or semi passive RFID
tags on expensive products or assets to gather data on the items' location with little or
no manual intervention

automatic vehicle location (AVL) - ANSWERuses GPS tracking for vehicles

geocache - ANSWERa GPS technology adventure game that posts on the internet the
latitude and longitude location of an item for users to find

estimated time enroute (ETE) - ANSWERtime remaining before reaching destination


using present speed

estimated time of arrival (ETA) - ANSWERthe time of day of an expected arrival at a


certain destination; NOT enroute remaining

geographic information system (GIS) - ANSWERstores, views, and analyzes


geographic data creating multidimensional charts or maps

edge matching (warping, rubber sheeting) - ANSWERoccurs when paper maps are laid
edge to edge, items that run across maps but do not match are reconfigured to match

GIS map automation - ANSWERlinks business assets to a centralized system where


they can be tracked and monitored over time

spatial data (geospatial data or geographic information) - ANSWERidentifies the


geographic location of features and boundaries on Earth, such as natural or constructed
features, oceans, etc.

geocoding - ANSWERspatial databases in a coding process that takes a digital map


feature and assigns it an attribute that serves as a unique ID (tract no., node no.) or
classification (soil type, zoning category)
location based services (LBS) - ANSWERapplications that use location info to provide a
service

telecommunication system - ANSWERenables the transmission of data over


public/private networks

local area network (LAN) - ANSWERdesigned to connect a group of computers in


proximity to each other such as in an office building, school or home

wide area network (WAN) - ANSWERspans a large geographical area like a state,
province, or country

metropolitan area network (MAN) - ANSWERlarge computer network that spans a city

peer-to-peer (P2P) network - ANSWERa computer network that relies on the computing
power and bandwidth of the participants in the network rather than a centralized server

client/server network - ANSWERa model for applications in which the bulk of the back-
end processing, such as performing a physical search of a database, takes place on the
server, while the front-end processing, which involves communicating with the users, is
handled with the clients

network operating system (NOS) - ANSWERoperating system that runs a network,


steering information between computers and managing security and users

packet switching - ANSWERoccurs when the sending computer divides a message into
a number of efficiently sized units called packets, each of which contains the address of
the destination computer

router - ANSWERan intelligent connecting device that examines each packet of data it
receives and then decides which way to send it onward toward its destination

protocol - ANSWERa standard that specifies the format of data as well as the rules to
be followed during transmission

network topology - ANSWERrefers to the geometric arrangement of the actual physical


organization of the computers (and other devices) in a network

interoperability - ANSWERcapability of two or more computer systems to share data


and resources, even though they are made by different manufacturers

ethernet - ANSWERa physical and data layer technology for LAN networking

transmission control protocol/internet protocol (TCP/IP) - ANSWERprovides the


technical foundation for the public interest as well as for large numbers of private
networks
internet protocol version 6 (IPv6) - ANSWERthe "next generation" protocol designed to
replace the current version internet protocol

network transmission media - ANSWERvarious types of media used to carry the signal
between computers

wire media - ANSWERtransmission material manufactured so that signals will be


confined to a narrow path and will behave predictably

twisted pair cable - ANSWERa type of cable composed of four (or more) copper wise
twisted around each other within a plastic sheath

fiber-optic (optical fiber) - ANSWERtechnology associated with the transmission of


dates light impulses along a glass wire or fiber

coaxial cable - ANSWERable that can carry a wide range of frequencies with low signal
loss

wireless media - ANSWERnatural parts of the earth's environment that can be used as
physical paths to carry electronic signals

network - ANSWERa communications system created by linking two or more devices


and establishing a standard methodology in which they can communicate

software - ANSWERthe set of instructions that the hardware excites to carry out specific
tasks

central processing unit / micro processor (CPU) - ANSWERactual hardware that


interprets and executes the program (software) instructions and coordinates how all the
other hardware devices work together

control unit - ANSWERinterprets software instructions and literally tells the other
hardware devices what to do, based on said instructions

arithmetic/logic unit (ALU) - ANSWERperforms all arithmetic operations and all logic
operations (sorting, comparing numbers)

megahertz (MHz) - ANSWERmillions of cycles per second

gigahertz (GHz) - ANSWERbillions of cylces per second

complex instruction set chip (CISC) - ANSWERtype of CPU that can recognize as many
as 100 or more instructions, enough to carry out most computations directly
reduced instruction set computer chip (RISC) - ANSWERlimits number of instructions
the CPU can execute to increase processing speed

primary storage - ANSWERcomputers main memory consisting of random access


memory & read-only memory directly accessible to CPU

random access memory (RAM) - ANSWERcomputers primary working memory in which


program instructions and data are stored so that they can be accessed directly by the
COU via the processor's high speed external data bus

volatility - ANSWERrefers to RAM's complete loss of stored info if power is interrupted

cache memory - ANSWERsmall unit of ultra-fast memory that is used to store recently
accessed or frequently accessed data so that the CPU does not have to retrieve this
data from slower memory circuits like RAM

read only memory (ROM) - ANSWERthe portion of a computer's primary storage that
does not lose its contents when one switches off the power

flash memory - ANSWERspecial type of rewritable read-only (ROM) that is compact and
portable

megabyte (MB or M or Meg) - ANSWERroughly 1 million bytes

terabyte (TB) - ANSWERroughly 1 trillion bytes

magnetic medium - ANSWERsecondary storage medium using magnetic technics to


store and retrieve data on discs or tapes coated with magnetically sensitive materials

hard drive - ANSWERsecondary storage medium that uses several rigid discs coated
with a magnetically sensitive material and housed together with the recording heads in a
hermetically sealed mechanism

solid state drive - ANSWERan all electronic storage device that is an alternative to a
hard disk and is faster than hard disks due to zero latency (no read/write head to move)

output device - ANSWERequipment used to see, hear, or otherwise accept results of


information processing requests

communication device - ANSWERequipment used to send information and retrieve it


from one location to another

appliance - ANSWERa computer dedicated to a single function (calculator or computer


game)
system software - ANSWERcontrols how the various technology tools work together
along with the application software

operating system software - ANSWERcontrols the application software and manages


how the hardware devices work together

embedded operating system - ANSWERused for single purpose in computer appliances


and special purpose applications like auto, ATM, or media player

multitasking - ANSWERallows more than one piece of software to be used at a time

utility software - ANSWERprovides additional functionality to the operating system

control panel - ANSWERwindows feature that provides a group of options that set
default values for the windows operating system

safe mode - ANSWERoccurs if the system is failing and will load only the most essential
parts of the operating system and will not run many of the background operating utilities

application software - ANSWERused for specific info processing needs like payroll,
CRM, project management, training, etc.

personal management software (PIM) - ANSWERsoftware handles contact info,


appointments, task lists, and email

network user license - ANSWERallows anyone on the network to install and use
software

site license - ANSWERenables any qualified users within the org to install software,
regardless of whether the unit is on a network

application service provider license - ANSWERSpecialty software paid for on a license


basis or per-use basis or usage-based licensing

input device - ANSWERequipment used to capture info and commands

business process management (BPM) - ANSWERintegrates all of an organizations


business processes to make individual processes more efficient

business process management tool - ANSWERused to create an application that is


helpful in designing business process models beneficial to the company

partnership - ANSWERsimilar to sole proprietorships, except that this legal structure


allows for more than one owner; limited partnerships have legal protection from
irresponsible partners
coronation (organization, enterprise, business) - ANSWERartificially created legal entity
that exists separate and apart from those individuals who created it and carry on its
operations

shareholder - ANSWERbusiness owners

limited liability - ANSWERshareholders (owners) not personally liable for the losses
incurred by the corporation

limited liability corporation (LLC) - ANSWERhybrid entity that has the legal protections
of a corporation and the ability to be taxed (one time) partnership

bookkeeping - ANSWERthe actual recording of the business transactions, without any


analysis of the information

transaction - ANSWERexchange or transfer of goods, services, or funds involving two


or more people

solvency - ANSWERrepresents the ability of the business to pay its bills and service its
debt

financial statements - ANSWERwritten records of the financial status of the business


that allow for interested third parties evaluate the profitability and solvency of the
business

balance sheet - ANSWERgives an accounting picture of property owned by a company


and of claims against the property on a specific date

asset - ANSWERanything owned that's a value or earning power

liability - ANSWERan obligation to make financial payments

income statement - ANSWERreports operating results (rev - exp) for a given time period
ending at a specified date

net income - ANSWERamount of money remaining after paying taxes

statement of owners equity - ANSWERtracks and communicates changes in the


shareholders earnings

dividend - ANSWERdistribution of earnings to shareholders

statement of cash flows - ANSWERSummarizes sources and uses of cash, indicates


whether enough cash is available to carry on routine operations, and offers an analysis
of all business transactions, reporting where the firm obtained its cash and how it chose
to allocate the cash
financial quarter - ANSWERa 3 month period

finance - ANSWERdeals with the strategic financial issues associated with increasing
the value of the business while observing applicable laws and social responsibilities

marketing - ANSWERthe process associated with promoting the sale of goods or


services

marketing mix - ANSWERincludes the variables that marketing managers can control in
order to best satisfy customers in the target market

product life cycle - ANSWERfour phases: intro, growth, maturity, decline

operations management - ANSWERmanagement of systems or processes that convert


or transform resources (incl. HR) into goods or services

distributed computing - ANSWERprocesses and manages algorithms across many


machines in a computing environment

data mining - ANSWERprocess of analyzing data to extract info not offered by raw data
alone

data profiling - ANSWERprocess of collecting stats and info about data in an existing
source

data replication - ANSWERthe process of sharing info to ensure consistency between


multiple data sources

recommended engine - ANSWERdata-mining algorithm that analyzes customer


purchases and actions on a website and then uses the data to recommend
complementary products

estimation analysis - ANSWERdetermine values for an unknown continuous variable


behavior or estimated future value

market basket analysis - ANSWEREvaluates such items as websites and checkout


scanner information to detect customers' buying behavior and predict future behavior by
identifying affinities among customers' choices of products and services.

affinity grouping analysis - ANSWERreveals the relationship between variables along


with the nature and frequency of the relationships

cluster analysis - ANSWERtechnique used to divide an information set into exclusive


groups such that the numbers of each group are as close together as possible to one
another and the different groups are as far apart as possible
classification analysis - ANSWERprocess of organizing data into categories or groups
for its most effective and efficient use

data mining tools - ANSWERvariety of techniques to find patterns and relationships in


large volumes of info that predict future behavior

cube - ANSWERcommon term for the rep of multidimensional info

algorithm - ANSWERmathematical formula placed in software that performs an analysis


on a data set

outlier - ANSWERdata value that is numerically distant from most of the other data
points in a set of data

fast data - ANSWERapplication of big data analytics to smaller data sets in near-real-
time, real-time time in order to solve a problem or creative business value

data artist - ANSWERbusiness analytics specialist who uses visual tools to help people
understand complex data

data visualization tools - ANSWERmoves beyond excel graphs na d charts into


sophisticated analysis techniques such as controls, instruments, maps, time series
graphs, etc.

data visualization - ANSWERallows users to see data transform info into a business
perspective

business intelligence dashboard - ANSWERtracks corp metrics allowing users to


manipulate data for analysis

optimization model - ANSWERstatistical process that finds the way to make a design,
system, or decision as effective as possible

forecasting model - ANSWERPredictions based on time-series information allowing


users to manipulate the time series for forecasting activities.

regression model - ANSWERfocus on he relationship[ between a dependent variable


and one or more independent variables

time-series information - ANSWERtime stamped information collected at a particular


frequency

analysis latency - ANSWERthe time from which data are made available to the time
when analysis is complete
decision latency - ANSWERthe time it takes a human to comprehend the analytic result
and determine an appropriate action

agile BI (business intelligence) - ANSWERan approach to business intelligence (BI) that


incorporates Agile software development methodologies to accelerate and improve the
outcomes of BI initiatives

repository - ANSWERa central location in which data is stored and managed

data warehouse - ANSWERa logical collection of information, gathered from many


different operational databases, that supports business analysis activities and decision-
making tasks

extraction, transformation, and loading (ETL) - ANSWERprocess that extracts


information from internal and external databases, transforms information using a
common set of enterprise definitions, and loads the info into a data warehouse

data mart - ANSWERcontains a subset of data warehouse info

information cleansing or scrubbing - ANSWERprocess that weeds out and fixes or


discards inconsistent, incorrect, or incomplete info

data point - ANSWERindividual item on a graph or chart

data lake - ANSWERstorage repository that holds vast amount of raw data until it is
needed

source data - ANSWERidentifies the primary location where data is collected

data set - ANSWERan organized collection of data

data map - ANSWERtechnique for establishing a match, or balance, between the


source data and the target data warehouse

information granularity - ANSWERrefers to the extent of detail within the info


(fine/detailed/coarse/abstract)

data gap analysis - ANSWERoccurs when a company examines its data to determine if
it can meet business expectations

database - ANSWERmaintains info about various types of objects (inventory), events


(transactions), people (employees), and places (warehouses)

database management system (DBMS) - ANSWERcreates, reads, updates, and deletes


data in a database while controlling access and security
query by example tool (QBE) - ANSWERhelp users graphically design the answer to a
question against a database

structures query language - ANSWERusers write lines of code to answer questions


against a database

data model - ANSWERlogical data structures that detail the relationships among data
elements using graphics or pictures

metadata - ANSWERdetails about data

relational database model - ANSWERtype of database that stores info in the form of
logically related two dimensional tables

entity - ANSWERstores information about a person, place, thing, transaction, or event

attribute - ANSWERthe data elements associated with an entity

record - ANSWERcollection of related data elements

primary key - ANSWERa field (or group of fields) that uniquely identifies a given entity in
a table

foreign key - ANSWERprimary key of one table that appears as an attribute in another
table and acts to provide a logical relationship between the two tables

physical view of information - ANSWERthe physical storage of information on a storage


device such as a hard disk

logical view of information - ANSWERfocuses on how users logically access info to


meet their particular business needs

data latency - ANSWERtime it takes data to restored or retrieved

information redundancy - ANSWERduplication of data, or the storage of the same data


in multiple places

information integrity - ANSWERmeasure of the quality of information

integrity constraint - ANSWERrules that help ensure the quality of info

relational integrity constraint - ANSWERrules that enforce basic and fundamental info
based constraints
business critical integrity constraint - ANSWERenforces business rules vital to an
organization's success and often requires more insight and knowledge than a relational
integrity constraints

identity management - ANSWERa broad administrative area that deals with identifying
individuals in a system (such as a country, a network, or an enterprise) and controlling
their access to resources within that system by associating user rights and restrictions
with the established identity

data driven website - ANSWERinteractive website kept constantly updated and relevant
to the needs of its customers through the use of a database

static information - ANSWERincludes fixed data that are not capable of change in the
event of a user action

dynamic information - ANSWERincludes data that change based on user actions

dynamic catalog - ANSWERan area of a website that stores information about products
in a database

forward integration - ANSWERtakes info entered into a given system and sends it
automatically to all downstream systems and processes

backward integration - ANSWERtakes information entered into a given system and


sends it automatically to all upstream systems and processes

data element or data field - ANSWERthe smallest or basic unit of information

data dictionary - ANSWERcompiles all of the metadata about the data elements in the
data model

integration - ANSWERallows separate systems to communicate directly with each other,


eliminating the need for manual entry into multiple systems

systems thinking - ANSWERa way of monitoring the entire system by viewing multiple
inputs being processed or transformed to produce outputs while continuously gathering
feedback on each part

management information systems (MIS) - ANSWERa business function, like accounting


and HR, which moves info about people , products, and processes across the company
to facilitate decision making and problem solving

information - ANSWERdata converted into a meaning and useful context

data storage - ANSWERtable, matrix, or graphical format


LAN - ANSWERlocal area network used to connect group of computers in an office
building

UNIX - ANSWERmultiuser operating system originating at AT&T's Bell Laboratories

service strategy (SS - alignment) - ANSWERlifecycle stage of ITIL that focuses on


ensuring that a businesses' objectives align with those of the IT provider

service design (SD - alignment) - ANSWER

service transition (ST) - ANSWER

service operation (SO - day-to-day management) - ANSWER

ITIL - ANSWERa guide to be used globally in the IT industry

social media ethics policy (socially communicate) - ANSWERIT ethics policy protects a
company by outlining the corporate guidelines or principles governing online
communication

train employees in compliance - ANSWERan example of a best practice in the ethical IT


use policy

intellectual property protection - ANSWERviolated when am employee shares info with


non-employees about impending release of new software application

acceptable use - ANSWERIT ethics policy requiring a user to agree to follow a policy
that indicates requirements for corporate email use, info systems, and the internet

social media (posting info about company) - ANSWERIT ethics policy providing
employee guidance about posting info regarding the org on websites

upcycling (electronic waste) - ANSWERincreased reuse of electronic waste

smart grid II - ANSWERsustainable computing two-way communication infrastructure


system making electrical systems more reliable

virtualization service provider backup systems - ANSWERsustainable IT practice


example

sales analytics - ANSWERtype of unified communications system used to analyze


product cycles and competitive intelligence

unified communications - ANSWERelectronic messages can be sent and received using


different forms of communication
podcast - ANSWERcan be used for discussing detailed product overviews

groupware - ANSWERused to increase productivity of workers managing a project

customer relationship management (CRM) - ANSWERsoftware system enabling


companies to send coupons to customers who shop on their website, etc.

customer relationship management (CRM) II - ANSWERsoftware that gathers and


analyzes customer info to tailor marketing campaign individually

executive information system (EIS) II - ANSWERmanagement information system (MIS)


system that supports unstructured, long-term, non-routine decisions requiring judgment,
evaluation, and insight

enterprise resource planning (ERP) system - ANSWERsystem having the goal to


integrate all of the organizational systems into one fully functioning, high-performance
system capable of meeting all business needs and user requirements

common data repository II - ANSWERkey component of enterprise resource


management system (ERP)

data warehouse II - ANSWERenterprise resource planning (ERP) tool formed from


multiple data marts to store data

employee - ANSWERmanagement system software extending customer relationship


management (CRM) by providing web-based tools to streamline the human resource
department

back office - ANSWERdepartment uses data mining component to collect information


about the company's current customers' buying patterns utilizing CRM system

reporting - ANSWERidentifying segment of customers buying patterns to management

Kim Stevenson IT professional attributes - ANSWERbreadth, systems thinking, courage

Mandy Edwards four personal attributes of IT leaders - ANSWERrisk management,


business acumen, decision making, new technology navigation

Dan Olley on IT leaders and product innovation - ANSWERspeak with non-customers

S.E.P.O. (BRHS) - ANSWERbreadth, risk, hatch, speak

Herman De Prins five pillars - ANSWERQuality, specialization, working as a team,


hatch the egg, marketing your value

PayPal CIO - ANSWERsecure air cover


De Prins - ANSWERhatch the egg

global growth trends - ANSWERdownsizing, outsourcing, and layoffs will continue as


organizations restructure

world future society - ANSWERtime will become one of the most precious commodities

sniffing - ANSWERcybersecurity attack that monitors data traveling over a network


including passwords and sensitive information

packet tampering - ANSWERattack that alters data as it travels on internet

token II - ANSWERsmall electronic device that changes user passwords automatically

single-factor - ANSWERsecurity approach requiring a user name and password

biometric - ANSWERtype of authentication based on recognition of physical


characteristics such as voice, face, or handwriting

disaster recovery - ANSWERdetailed plan for recovering information or a system in the


event of a catastrophic event

hot site II - ANSWERfully immediately functioning separate facility part of a disaster


recovery plan

online transaction processing system - ANSWERtool used to capture event info needed
for processing newly updated info

company operations - ANSWERmanagerial level employees continually evaluate this to


hone firm's abilities to identify, adapt to, and leverage change

customer order cycle - ANSWERagreed upon time between the purchase and delivery
of a product

3D printer - ANSWERused by a company to build a product prototype for the purpose of


testing user acceptance before beginning large scale production

project stakeholder - ANSWERterm used to describe individuals and organizations


whose interests are affected as a result of project execution or project completion

project scope - ANSWERterm used to describe the business needs, justification,


requirements, and boundaries of a project

PERT chart - ANSWERused by project lead to identify the project's critical path
distance - ANSWERprimary distinction between nearshore and offshore outsourcing

quality labor force - ANSWERin-house development has been instrumental in creating


this

waterfall (big list over falls!) - ANSWERsoftware development methodology requiring


stakeholders to provide a comprehensive list of requirements

rapid application development (RAD prototype!) - ANSWERsoftware development


methodology using early prototypes to best align with stakeholders expectations

rational unified process (RUP pup gates) - ANSWERsoftware development


methodology using gates

testing (interoperability phase SDLC) - ANSWERphase of systems development


lifecycle (SDLC) occurring when an organization brings project pieces together and
checks interoperability

development (transforming phase SLDC) - ANSWERphase of SLDC involves


programmers transforming a product into a new system

inception (RUP scope reviewed) - ANSWERgate of rational unified process (RUP)


where project scope is reviewed

waterfall maintenance - ANSWERphase of waterfall methodology whereby org is


operating in-house developed system

storyboarding - ANSWERused by business analyst to depict activities of different users

simulation (operations) - ANSWERprototyping method demonstrating how a solution


operates

role playing (predict user acceptance) - ANSWERprototyping method used to predict


user acceptance prior to system development

random access memory (RAM) II - ANSWERcomponent functions as a computer's


working memory

single-factor II - ANSWERsecurity approach requiring a username and password

systems development life cycle (SDLC) II 7 steps PADDTIM - ANSWERoverall process


for developing information systems, software development cycle. Planning->analysis-
>design->development->testing->implementation->maintenance

conversion II - ANSWERprocess of transferring info from legacy system to a new


system
planning phase (SLDC) - ANSWERbrainstorm, prioritize, set scope, develop project
plan

analysis phase (SLDC) - ANSWERgather the business requirement,define constraints


associated with the system

design phase (SLDC) - ANSWERdesign tech architecture, design system models

development phase (SLDC) - ANSWERbuild tech architecture, build the database, build
applications

testing (SLDC) - ANSWERwrite the test conditions, perform system testing

implementation (SLDC) - ANSWERwrite detailed documentation, provide user trainings

maintenance (SLDC) - ANSWERbuild a help desk, provide environment to support


system changes

intellectual property II - ANSWERintangible creative works embodied in physical form


including copyrights, trademarks & patents

copyright II - ANSWERlegal protection afforded an expression of an idea (song, book,


video game).

nonrepudiation II - ANSWERcontractual stipulation to ensure that e-business


participants do not deny (repudiate) their online actions; part of acceptable use policy

patent II - ANSWERexclusive right to make, use and sell an invention

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