Mcqs in Bacteriology by Amalundu Part 1

They may be some virology and parasitology questions in here just skip gunning continues
Team Clear pass Production

1. Food poisoning is caused by

A. Clostridum tetani
B. Clostridum Welchi
C. Diptheria
D. Clostridium botulinum
2. Koplic’s spots will develop in
A. HIV
B. Measles
C. Mumps
D. Rubella
3. Viral DNA is resistant to DNA of the host cell because it contains
A. 5’-HMC
B. 5’-HMA
C. 5’-CHM
D. 5’MHC
4. Which of the following is an example of live vaccine?
A. pertusi
B. mumps
C. cholera
D. rabies
5. Triple toxoid vaccine gives protection against
A. Diphtheria, tetanus and rabies
B. Tetanus, whooping cough, Tuberculosis
C. Whooping cough, tetanus and Diphtheria
D. Whooping cough, cancer and T.B.
6. Higher does of chloramphenicol affects the eukaryotic cells because
A. They have 30 S ribosomes
B. They have mitochondria
C. They have 70 S ribosomes
D. None of the above
7. AIDS is caused by
A. Retrovirus
B. Prion
C. Rhabdovirus
D. Retroprison
8. Penicillin is a
A. Primary metabolite
B. Secondary metabolite
C. Tertiary metabolite
D. None of the above
9. The rejection of an organ transplant such as a kidney transplant, is an example of _____
Hypersensitivity.
A. Immediate
B. Delayed
C. Allergy
D. None of these
10. Listeriosis was ______ disease.
A. Food borne
B. Water borne
C. Milk borne
D. Air borne
11. Pus-forming forms are called as
A. Pyoderm
B. Pyogenic
C. Pyrogen
D. None of the above
12. In Elisa technique, the antibodies are labeled by
A. Acridine orange
B. Alkaline phosphate
C. Neutral red
D. Bromothymol blue
13. _____ is a genetic disease charachterized by a total or partial inability to synthesize globulins.
A. Apitososis
B. Agamma globulinemia
C. Gammaglobulinemma
D. Sickle-cell anemia.
14. A study involving analysis of risk for genetic defects in a family is
A. Genetic Engineering
B. Genetic counseling
C. Genetic drift
D. Genetic equilibrium
15. Viral antigens are likely
A. Protein
B. Glyco proteins
C. Lipo proteins
D. Both a and b
16. The suitable assay method for antibiotics is
A. Enzymatic assay
B. Turbidometric assay
C. End point determination assay
D. Metabolic assay
17. ELISA test is used for the identification of
A. Janudice
B. AIDS
C. Cancer
D. Diabetis
18. Incubation period for infective Hepatitis disease
A. 45 – 80 day
B. 15 – 35 days
C. 35 – 50 days
D. 5 – 15 days
19. All of the following are bacteriostatic chemotherapeutic agents except
A. Bacitracin
B. Chloramphenicol
C. Novobiocin
D. Tetracycline
20. Kinetosomes are observed in
A. Algae
B. Fungi
C. Protozoa
D. Viruses
21. β-lactum ring is present in
A. Erythromycin
B. Penicillin
C. Tetracyclins
D. Chromphenical
Answer» B. Penicillin
discuss
22. Antibiotic produced from streptomyces orientalis is
A. Streptomycin
B. Penicillin
C. Vancomycin
D. Both a and b
23. The drug of choice for dermal, oral and vaginal candidiasis is
A. Griseofulvin
B. Amphoterein B
C. Gentian violet
D. Nystatin
24. Botulism means
A. Food adultration
B. Food poisioning by streptococcus bacteria
C. Chemical contamination of food
D. Food processing
25. Chloramphenicol is obtained from
A. Streptomyces griseus
B. Streptomyces venezuelae
C. Streptomyces pyrogenes
D. None of these
26. Streptomycin is obtained from
A. Streptococcus species
B. Streptomyces griseus
C. Straphylococcus aureus
D. None of these
27. The treatment required for small bodies of water is
A. Disinfection
B. Filtration
C. Purification
D. All of these
Answer» D. All of these
discuss
28. Surface ropiness is caused by
A. Alkaligenes viscolactis
B. Streptococcus
C. both a and b
D. None of these
29. Septicaemia is
A. Bacteria in blood
B. Toxin in blood
C. Pus in blood
D. Multiplication of bacteria and toxins in blood
30. In AIDS, Kaposis sarcoma may respond to
A. Interleukin – 2 infusion
B. Azathioprine
C. Alpha interferon
D. None of these
31. Ciprofloxacin acts by inhibiting
A. Cellwall synthesis
B. RNA synthesis
C. Folate synthesis
D. DNA gyrase
32. Lyme disease is caused by
A. Bacteria
B. Fungi
C. Spirochaete
D. Virus
33. Toxic shock syndrome is caused by
A. Staph. albu
B. Staph. aureus
C. Strep. viridana
D. None of these
34. Black water fever is caused by
A. P. vivax
B. P. falciparum
C. P. ovale
D. None of these
35. Mantoux test detects
A. M. tuberculosi
B. Cynaobacteria
C. Clostridia
D. Both a and b
36. The antibiotic acting on cell wall is
A. Bactracin
B. Penicillin
C. Cyclosporine
D. All of these
37. Aflatoxin is produced by
A. Aspergillus sp
B. Penicillium sps
C. Alternaria sps
D. None of these
38. Penicillin is discovered by
A. Fleming
B. Pasteur
C. Koch
D. None of these
39. Antibiotics used in combination may demonstrate
A. Synergism
B. Antaginism
C. both
D. None of these
40. The drug of choice in anaphylactic shock is
A. Histamine
B. Corticosteroid
C. Epinephrine
D. None of these
41. Drugs of choice for treatment of Mycoplasma infections:
A. Tetracycline
B. Erythromycin
C. a and b
D. Penicillins
42. A number of viruses are known to infect mycoplasmas, called
A. Bacteriophages
B. Mycoplasma phages
C. Virions
D. Tiny strains
43. The following are true about Rickettsiae.
A. Unicellular organisms
B. Prokaryotic intracellular parasites
C. Presence of 70 S ribosomes
D. It causes hemolysis in human beings
44. The causative agent of scrub typhus:
A. R.Quintana
B. R.rickettsii
C. R.orinetalis
D. R.prowazekii
45. Lymphogranuloma venerum (LGV) is a sexually transmitted disease is caused by
A. Copthalmia
B. C.trachomatis
C. C.pneumonias
D. C.psittasi
46. Intradermal test employed for diagnosis of LGV is
A. Frei test
B. Mantoux test
C. Schick test
D. Dick test
47. Which algae is pathogenic to human?
A. Cephaloeuro
B. Ulothrix
C. Macrocystis
D. Prototheca
48. Erythromycin is obtained from
A. S.griseu
B. S.rimosus
C. S.scabies
D. S.erythraeus
49. Common cold is caused by
A. Adeno viru
B. Corono virus
C. Hepatitis virus
D. Pox virus
Answer» B. Corono virus
discuss
50. The causative agent of conjunctivitis:
A. Adeno viru
B. Corono virus
C. Paramyxo virus
D. None of these
51. Antibiotics used for treatment of cholera are
A. Tetracycline
B. Penicillins
C. Streptomycines
D. None of these
52. Salmonella typhi is causative organism of
A. Undulent fever
B. Remittent fever
C. Dengue fever
D. Enteric fever
53. Which of the following Salmonella paratyphi is the commonest in India?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. None of these
54. In enteric fever, the organ lodging maximum number of the organism is
A. Liver
B. Gall bladder
C. Small intestine
D. Large intestine
55. True about Enteric fever is
A. Bacteraemia in first week
B. Carrier in 90%
C. All serotypes cause the disease
D. Rosy spots on 18th day
56. Gastroenteritis is caused by
A. Shigella
B. V.cholerae
C. V.cholera Parahaenolyticus
D. S.typhi
57. E.coli produces the following toxins:
A. Enterotoxin
B. Endotoxins
C. Verocytotoxins
D. Hemolysins
58. Diphtheria is caused by
A. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
B. C. Bovis
C. C. Jeikeium
D. C. equi
59. Causative organism of diphtheria was first demonstrated by
A. Robert Koch
B. Lois Pasteur
C. Klebs and Loeffler
D. Volhard and Fahr
60. Coryne bacterium is
A. Gram positive
B. Resistant to Penicillin
C. Gram negative
D. Resistant to Chloramphenicol
61. diphtheriae consists of
A. Startch granules
B. Polymeta phosphate granules
C. Lipid granules
D. None of these
62. The incubation period of diphtheriae is
A. Upto 2 week
B. Upto 1 week
C. 2–4 weeks
D. None of these
63. Diphtheria virulence test is
A. Ascoli’s thermoprecipitation test
B. Eleck’s gel precipitation test
C. C.R.P test
D. M.R.T. test
64. Diptheria toxoid is prepared by using
A. Aldehyde
B. Formalin
C. Phenols
D. None of these
65. Diphtheria is an example of
A. Bacteraemia
B. Pyaemia
C. Septicemia
D. Toxaemia
66. Main symptom of tuberculosis is
A. Tubercle formation
B. Liquid formation
C. Both a and b
D. None of these
67. BCG vaccine is for the prevention of
A. Brucellosi
B. Diphtheria
C. Botulism
D. Tuberculosis
68. Dose of BCG vaccine is
A. 0.2–0.5 ml
B. 0.1 ml
C. 0.05 ml
D. 0.2 to 0.3 ml
Answer» B. 0.1 ml
discuss
69. Negative Mantoux test is important in
A. Pulmonary Koch’s syndrome
B. Sarcoidosis
C. Carcinoma bronchus
D. Lymphoma

70. Bacilli Calmette Guerin (BCG) contains the avirulent strains of

A. Human tubercle bacilli
B. Avian tubercle bacilli
C. Bovine tubercle bacilli
D. A typical mycobacteria
71. Drugs used against tuberculosis (TB) are
A. Refampicin, Isoniazid
B. Pyrazinamide, Streptomycin
C. Both a and b
D. None of these
72. The greatest number of tubercle bacilli is present in
A. Large sized tuberculomas
B. Miliary tuberculosis
C. Tuberculous lymphadinitis
D. Tuberculous cavity of the lung
73.
Histoid Hansen is a veriety of
A. Tuberculoid Leprosy
B. Borderline tuberculoid
C. Borderline lepramatous
D. Lepronmetous leprosy
Answer» D. Lepronmetous leprosy
discuss
74. Streptococcus pyogens produces all of the following lesions, except
A. Impetigo contagiosa
B. Erysipeals
C. Boil
D. Paronchia
75. Causative agent of Scarlet fever:
A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Streptococcus viridans
C. Stre. pyogens
D. None of these
76. Rheumatic fever is most commonly caused by
A. Str. viridan
B. Str. pyogenes
C. Stph. aures
D. None of these
77. Penicillin is the drug of choice for
A. Scarlet fever
B. Whooping cough
C. Brucellosis
D. Cholera
78. In human being str. pneumoniae causes
A. Septicaemia
B. Paronychia
C. Pneumomnia
D. None of these
79. Virulence factor for Stre. pneumoniae:
A. Capsular polysaccharide
B. Specific soluble substance
C. Vi-antigen
D. Forsmann antigen
80. Conjunctivitis in a new born is caused by
A. Streptococcu
B. Pneumococcus
C. Meningococci
D. None of these
81. Influenza is belonging to
A. Orthomyxoviridae
B. Retroviridae
C. Both a and b
D. None of these
82. Influenza virus contains
A. Eight segments of RNA
B. Two strands of RNA
C. Single RNA
D. None of these
83. ‘Reye’s syndrome’ is caused by
A. St.pneumoniae
B. St.pyogenes
C. Influenza
D. None of these
84. Geraman measles is also known as
A. Rubella / 2-day measles
B. Rubella / 3day measles
C. Rubella / 4-day measles
D. Rubella / 1-day measles
85. The commonest cause of rubella in new bornes
A. Congential rubella
B. Post natal rubella
C. Expanded rubella syndrome (ERS)
D. Both a and c
86. Mumps virus is belonging go
A. Retroviriae
B. Paramyxoviriae
C. Orthomyxo viridae
D. None of these
87. Measles is characterized by
A. Negribodies
B. Babes-Ernest granules
C. Koplik’s spots
D. Fever
88. Brucella causes
A. Pertusi
B. Plague
C. Brucellosis
D. None of these
89. Mediterranian fever is caused by
A. M. tuberculosi
B. S. typhi
C. C.neoformans
D. Brucella
90. Which of the following test is specific for Brucellosis?
A. Frei
B. Weil
C. Castaneda strip
D. Rose water
91. Malignant pustule is caused by
A. Anthrax
B. Tetanus
C. Diphtheria
D. None of these
92. The commonest form of anthrax in man is
A. Alimentary
B. Cutaneous
C. Pulmonary
D. Hepatic
93. The animals most frequently infected with anthrax are
A. Sheep
B. Cattle
C. Goats
D. All of these
94. Virus causing Rabies is
A. Orthromyxo viru
B. Paramyxo virus
C. Rhbdo virus
D. Toga viruses
95. Rhabdo viruses are belonging to the family:
A. Rhabdo viridae
B. Toga viridae
C. Paramyxo viridae
D. None of these
Answer» A. Rhabdo viridae
discuss
96. Rabies Virus isolated from natural human or animal infection is termed as
A. Street viru
B. Fixed virus
C. Both a and b
D. None of these
97. Rabies virus can multiply in
A. The central nervous system only
B. The peripheral nerves
C. Muscle tissues
D. All the above
98.Neurological complications following rabies vaccines is common with
A. Chick embryo vaccine
B. HDCS vaccine
C. Semple vaccine
D. BPL vaccine
99.Which anti rabic vaccine has been recommended by WHO as the most effective?
A. Duck embryo vaccine
B. HDCS vaccine
C. Sheep brain vaccine
D. BPL vaccine
100.The causative agent of tetanus is
A. Clostridium botulinum
B. Cl. tetani
C. Cl. welchii
D. Cl. Perfringens
Onto the next here guys am sorrry tuma parasitology and virology is about just skip because your
main focus is bacteriology
1. Food poisoning is caused by
a. Clostridum tetani
b. Clostridum Welchi
c. Diptheria
d. Clostridium botulinum
2. Koplic’s spots will develop in
a. HIV
c. Mumps
b. Measles
d. Rubella
3. Viral DNA is resistant to DNA of the host cell because it contains
a. 5’-HMC
c. 5’-CHM
b. 5’-HMA
d. 5’MHC
4. Which of the following is an example of live vaccine?
a. pertusis
c. cholera
b. mumps
d. rabies
5. Triple toxoid vaccine gives protection against
a. Diphtheria, tetanus and rabies
b. Tetanus, whooping cough, Tuberculosis
c. Whooping cough, tetanus and Diphtheria
d. Whooping cough, cancer and T.B.
6. Higher does of chloramphenicol affects the eukaryotic cells because
a. They have 30 S ribosomes
b. They have mitochondria
c. They have 70 S ribosomes
d. None of the above
7. AIDS is caused by
a. Retrovirus
b. Prion
c. Rhabdovirus
d. Retroprison
8. Penicillin is a
a. Primary metabolite
b. Secondary metabolite
c. Tertiary metabolite
d. None of the above
9. The rejection of an organ transplant such as a kidney transplant, is an example of _____
Hypersensitivity.
a. Immediate
c. Allergy
b. Delayed
d. None of these
10. Listeriosis was ______ disease.
a. Food borne
c. Milk borne
b. Water borne
d. Air borne
11. Pus-forming forms are called as
a. Pyoderm
c. Pyrogen
b. Pyogenic
d. None of the above
12. In Elisa technique, the antibodies are
labeled by
a. Acridine orange
b. Alkaline phosphate
c. Neutral red
d. Bromothymol blue
13. _____ is a genetic disease charachterized by a total or partial inability to synthesize globulins.
a. Apitososis
b. Agamma globulinemia
c. Gammaglobulinemma
d. Sickle-cell anemia.
14. A study involving analysis of risk for
genetic defects in a family is
a. Genetic Engineering
b. Genetic counseling
c. Genetic drift
d. Genetic equilibrium
15. Viral antigens are likely
a. Proteins
c. Lipo proteins
b. Glyco proteins
d. Both a and b
16. The suitable assay method for antibiotics is
a. Enzymatic assay
b. Turbidometric assay
c. End point determination assay
d. Metabolic assay
17. ELISA test is used for the identification of
a. Janudice
c. Cancer
b. AIDS
d. Diabetis
18. Incubation period for infective Hepatitis disease
a. 45 – 80 days
c. 35 – 50 days
b. 15 – 35 days
d. 5 – 15 days
19. All of the following are bacteriostatic chemotherapeutic agents except
a. Bacitracin
c. Novobiocin
b. Chloramphenicol
d. Tetracycline
20. Kinetosomes are observed in
a. Algae
c. Protozoa
b. Fungi
d. Viruses
21. β ββ-lactum ring is present in
a. Erythromycin
b. Penicillin
c. Tetracyclins
d. Chromphenical
22. Antibiotic produced from streptomyces orientalis is
a. Streptomycin
c. Vancomycin
b. Penicillin
d. Both a and b
23. The drug of choice for dermal, oral and
vaginal candidiasis is
a. Griseofulvin
b. Amphoterein B
c. Gentian violet
d. Nystatin
24. Botulism means
a. Food adultration
b. Food poisioning by streptococcus bacteria
c. Chemical contamination of food
d. Food processing
25. Chloramphenicol is obtained from
a. Streptomyces griseus
b. Streptomyces venezuelae
c. Streptomyces pyrogenes
d. None of these
26. Streptomycin is obtained from
a. Streptococcus species
b. Streptomyces griseus
c. Straphylococcus aureus
d. None of these
27. The treatment required for small bodies
of water is
a. Disinfection
c. Purification
b. Filtration
d. All of these
28. Surface ropiness is caused by
a. Alkaligenes viscolactis
b. Streptococcus
c. both a and b
d. None of these
29. Septicaemia is
a. Bacteria in blood
b. Toxin in blood
c. Pus in blood
d. Multiplication of bacteria and toxins in blood
30. In AIDS, Kaposis sarcoma may respond to
a. Interleukin – 2 infusion
b. Azathioprine
c. Alpha interferon
d. None of these
MEDICAL MICROBIOLOGY
31. Ciprofloxacin acts by inhibiting
a. Cellwall synthesis
b. RNA synthesis
c. Folate synthesis
d. DNA gyrase
32. Lyme disease is caused by
a. Bacteria
b. Fungi
c. Spirochaete
d. Virus
33. Toxic shock syndrome is caused by
a. Staph. albus
b. Staph. aureus
c. Strep. viridana
d. None of these
34. Black water fever is caused by
a. P. vivax
b. P. falciparum
c. P. ovale
d. None of these
35. Mantoux test detects
a. M. tuberculosis
b. Cynaobacteria
c. Clostridia
d. Both a and b
36. The antibiotic acting on cell wall is
a. Bactracin
b. Penicillin
c. Cyclosporine
d. All of these
37. Aflatoxin is produced by
a. Aspergillus sps
b. Penicillium sps
c. Alternaria sps
d. None of these
38. Penicillin is discovered by
a. Fleming
b. Pasteur
c. Koch
d. None of these
39. Antibiotics used in combination may demonstrate
a. Synergism
b. Antaginism
c. both
d. None of these
40. The drug of choice in anaphylactic shock is
a. Histamine
b. Corticosteroid
c. Epinephrine
d. None of these
41. Drugs of choice for treatment of Mycoplasma infections:
a. Tetracyclines
b. Erythromycin
c. a and b
d. Penicillins
42. A number of viruses are known to infect mycoplasmas, called
a. Bacteriophages
b. Mycoplasma phages
c. Virions
d. Tiny strains
43. The following are true about Rickettsiae.
a. Unicellular organisms
b. Prokaryotic intracellular parasites
c. Presence of 70 S ribosomes
d. It causes hemolysis in human beings
e. Gram negative plemorphic rods
44. The causative agent of scrub typhus:
a. R.Quintana
b. R.rickettsii
c. R.orinetalis
d. R.prowazekii
45. Lymphogranuloma venerum (LGV) is a sexually transmitted disease is caused by
a. Copthalmia
b. C.trachomatis
c. C.pneumonias
d. C.psittasi
46. Intradermal test employed for diagnosis of LGV is
a. Frei test
b. Mantoux test
c. Schick test
d. Dick test
47. Which algae is pathogenic to human?
a. Cephaloeuros b. Ulothrix
c. Macrocystis d. Prototheca
48. Erythromycin is obtained from
a. S.griseus
b. S.rimosus
c. S.scabies
d. S.erythraeus
49. Common cold is caused by
a. Adeno virus
b. Corono virus
c. Hepatitis virus
d. Pox virus
50. The causative agent of conjunctivitis:
a. Adeno virus
b. Corono virus
c. Paramyxo virus
d. None of these
51. Antibiotics used for treatment of cholera are
a. Tetracyclines
b. Penicillins
c. Streptomycines
d. None of these
52. Salmonella typhi is causative organism of
a. Undulent fever
c. Dengue fever
b. Remittent fever
d. Enteric fever
53. Which of the following Salmonella paratyphi is the commonest in India?
a. A
c. C
b. B
d. None of these
54. In enteric fever, the organ lodging maximum number of the organism is
a. Liver
c. Small intestine
b. Gall bladder
d. Large intestine
55. True about Enteric fever is
a. Bacteraemia in first week
b. Carrier in 90%
c. All serotypes cause the disease
d. Rosy spots on 18th day
56. Gastroenteritis is caused by
a. Shigella
b. V.cholerae
c. V.cholera Parahaenolyticus
d. S.typhi
57. E.coli produces the following toxins:
a. Enterotoxins
c. Verocytotoxins
b. Endotoxins
d. Hemolysins
58. The following infections caused by Esch.Coli, except
a. Urinary tract infections
b. Septic infections of wounds
c. Diarrhoea
d. Dysentery
e. Meningitis
59. Diphtheria is caused by
a. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
b. C. Bovis
c. C. Jeikeium
d. C. equi
60. Causative organism of diphtheria was first demonstrated by
a. Robert Koch
b. Lois Pasteur
c. Klebs and Loeffler
d. Volhard and Fahr
61. Coryne bacterium is
a. Gram positive
b. Resistant to Penicillin
c. Gram negative
d. Resistant to Chloramphenicol
62. C. diphtheriae consists of
a. Startch granules
b. Polymeta phosphate granules
c. Lipid granules
d. None of these
63. The incubation period of diphtheriae is
a. Upto 2 weeks
c. 2–4 weeks
b. Upto 1 week
d. None of these
64. Diphtheria virulence test is
a. Ascoli’s thermoprecipitation test
b. Eleck’s gel precipitation test
c. C.R.P test
d. M.R.T. test
65. Diptheria toxoid is prepared by using
a. Aldehyde
c. Phenols
b. Formalin
d. None of these
66. Diphtheria is an example of
a. Bacteraemia
c. Septicemia
b. Pyaemia
d. Toxaemia
67. Main symptom of tuberculosis is
a. Tubercle formation
b. Liquid formation
c. Both a and b
d. None of these
68. BCG vaccine is for the prevention of
a. Brucellosis
c. Botulism
b. Diphtheria
d. Tuberculosis
69. Dose of BCG vaccine is
a. 0.2–0.5 ml
c. 0.05 ml
b. 0.1 ml
d. 0.2 to 0.3 ml
70. Negative Mantoux test is important in
a. Pulmonary Koch’s syndrome
b. Sarcoidosis
c. Carcinoma bronchus
d. Lymphoma
71. Bacilli Calmette Guerin (BCG) contains the avirulent strains of
a. Human tubercle bacilli
b. Avian tubercle bacilli
c. Bovine tubercle bacilli
d. A typical mycobacteria
72. Drugs used against tuberculosis (TB) are
a. Refampicin, Isoniazid
b. Pyrazinamide, Streptomycin
c. Both a and b
d. None of these
73. The greatest number of tubercle bacilli is present in
a. Large sized tuberculomas
b. Miliary tuberculosis
c. Tuberculous lymphadinitis
d. Tuberculous cavity of the lung
74. Histoid Hansen is a veriety of
a. Tuberculoid Leprosy
b. Borderline tuberculoid
c. Borderline lepramatous
d. Lepronmetous leprosy
75. Streptococcus pyogens produces all of the following lesions, except
a. Impetigo contagiosa
b. Erysipeals
c. Boil
d. Paronchia
76. Causative agent of Scarlet fever:
a. Staphylococcus aureus
b. Streptococcus viridans
c. Stre. pyogens
d. None of these
77. Rheumatic fever is most commonly caused by
a. Str. viridans
c. Stph. aures
b. Str. pyogenes
d. None of these
78. Penicillin is the drug of choice for
a. Scarlet fever
c. Brucellosis
b. Whooping cough
d. Cholera
79. In human being str. pneumoniae causes
a. Septicaemia
c. Pneumomnia
b. Paronychia
d. None of these
80. Virulence factor for Stre. pneumoniae:
a. Capsular polysaccharide
b. Specific soluble substance
c. Vi-antigen
d. Forsmann antigen
81. Conjunctivitis in a new born is caused by
a. Streptococcus
c. Meningococci
b. Pneumococcus
d. None of these
82. Influenza is belonging to
a. Orthomyxoviridae
b. Retroviridae
c. Both a and b
d. None of these
83. Influenza virus contains
a. Eight segments of RNA
b. Two strands of RNA
c. Single RNA
d. None of these
84. ‘Reye’s syndrome’ is caused by
a. St.pneumoniae
c. Influenza
b. St.pyogenes
d. None of these
85. Geraman measles is also known as
a. Rubella / 2-day measles
b. Rubella / 3day measles
c. Rubella / 4-day measles
d. Rubella / 1-day measles
86. The commonest cause of rubella in new bornes
a. Congential rubella
b. Post natal rubella
c. Expanded rubella syndrome (ERS)
d. Both a and c
87. Mumps virus is belonging go
a. Retroviriae
b. Paramyxoviriae
c. Orthomyxo viridaed. None of these
88. Measles is characterized by
a. Negribodies
b. Babes-Ernest granules
c. Koplik’s spots
d. Fever
89. Brucella causes
a. Pertusis
c. Brucellosis
b. Plague
d. None of these
90. Mediterranian fever is caused by
a. M. tuberculosis
c. C.neoformans
b. S. typhi
d. Brucella
91. Which of the following test is specific for Brucellosis?
a. Frei
c. Castaneda strip
b. Weil
d. Rose water
92. Malignant pustule is caused by
a. Anthrax
c. Diphtheria
b. Tetanus
d. None of these
93. The commonest form of anthrax in man is
a. Alimentary
c. Pulmonary
b. Cutaneous
d. Hepatic
94. The animals most frequently infected with
anthrax are
a. Sheep
c. Goats
b. Cattle
d. All of these
95. Virus causing Rabies is
a. Orthromyxo virus
b. Paramyxo virus
c. Rhbdo virus
d. Toga viruses
96. Rhabdo viruses are belonging to the
family:
a. Rhabdo viridae
b. Toga viridae
c. Paramyxo viridae
d. None of these
97. Rabies Virus isolated from natural human or animal infection is termed as
a. Street virus
c. Both a and b
b. Fixed virus
d. None of these
98. Rabies virus can multiply in
a. The central nervous system only
b. The peripheral nerves
c. Muscle tissues
d. All the above
99. Neurological complications following rabies vaccines is common with
a. Chick embryo vaccine
b. HDCS vaccine
c. Semple vaccine
d. BPL vaccine
100. Which anti rabic vaccine has been recommended by WHO as the most effective?
a. Duck embryo vaccine
b. HDCS vaccine
c. Sheep brain vaccine
d. BPL vaccine
101. The causative agent of tetanus is
a. Clostridium botulinum
b. Cl. tetani
c. Cl. welchii
d. Cl. perfringens
102. The mode of spread of tetanus neurotoxin from blood to brain is
a. Via lymphaties
b. Arterial blood
c. Cranial nerves
d. None of these
103. Tetanus is caused by spread of
a. Exotoxin in sympathetic system
b. Exotoxin in para sympathetic system
c. Endotoxin in sympathetic system
d. Endotoxin in parasympathetic system
104. The first symptom of tetanus is
a. Lock jaw
c. Anorexia
b. Trismus
d. Dyspagia
105. Of which clostridia, the neurotoxin is most powerful?
a. Cl. tetani
c. Cl. botulism
b. Cl. welchii
d. Cl. septicum
106. Toxin produced by C. botulism is
a. Botulin
c. Tetanolysin
b. Tetanospasmin
d. Cholaragen
MEDICAL MICROBIOLOGY
107. “Toxic shock syndrome” is caused by the toxin of
a. Staphylococcus aureus
b. Streptococcus pyoge
c. Vibrio cholerae
d. Candida
108. Causative agent of syphilis
a. T. pallidum
c. T. carateum
b. T. pertenue
d. T. endemicum
109. Spirochaelis are sensitive to
a. Penicillin
b. Chloramphenicols
c. Erythromycin
d. Tetracyclins
110. Specific test for syphilis is
a. VDRL test
c. FTA
111. VDRL test is a
b. ELISA
d. None of these
a. Agglutination test
b. Slide flocculation test
c. Precipitation test
d. None of these
112. The following characters are true about Neisseria gonorrhoeae except
a. Gram-negative, aerobic bacteria
b. Non-motile diplococci
c. Oxidase positive organisms
d. Air borne infection
113. Gonorrhoea is
a. Air borne disease
b. Water borne disease
c. Sexually transmitted venereal disease
d. Both a and c
114. Bartholin cyst is caused by
a. Candida
c. Staphylococcus
b. Streptococcus
d. Gonococcus
115. Neisseria gonorrhoeae causes
a. Urethritis
c. Arthritis
b. Conjuctivitis
d. All of the above
116. Virulence in gonococcus is due to
a. Pili
b. Cell membrane
c. Its cellular location
d. Cyclic enzymes
117. Japanese encephalitis is caused by
a. Toga Viruses
b. Arbo Viruses
c. Para myxo Viruses
d. Ortho myxo Viruses
118. In India, Japanese b encephalitis was first isolated from the mosquitoes of the
a. Culex tritaeriorhynchus
b. Culex annulirostris
c. Culex vishnui
d. None of these
119. Dengue virus is transmitted from man to man by the
a. Sand fly
c. Aedes aegypti
b. Ticks
d. Culex
120. Yellow fever is caused by
a. Bunya virus
c. Arbo virus
b. Calci virus
d. None of these
121. Vector for leishmaniasis is
a. Tick
c. Sand fly
b. Mite
d. Tsetse fly
122. Splenomegaly is an important manifestation of
a. Kala-agar
c. Malaria
b. Typhoid
d. All of these
123. Which of the following is most severly affected in Kala-azar?
a. Liver
b. Spleen
c. Adrenal gland
d. Bone marrow
124. In India, malaria most often spreads by
a. Anophels cucifacies
b. Anopheles fluvatis
c. Anopheles stephensi
d. Anopheles minimus
125. Man is intermediate host for
a. Guinea Worm
c. Malaria
b. Filaria
d. Kala-azar
126. Which of the following preferably infects reticulocytes?
a. P. ovale
c. P.falciparum
b. P.vivax
d. P.malaria
127. In which type of material parasite in the exoerythrocytic stage absent?
a. P.ovale
c. P.falciparum
b. P.vivax
d. P. malariae
128. In falciparum malaria, all of the following stages are seen except
a. Ring stage
c. Gametocyte
b. Schizont
d. None of these
129. Sporozite vaccine in malaria has
a. Induces antibodies
b. Prevents only asexual forms with reproduction
c. No effects on clinical illness
d. None of the above
130. Growing trophozoites and schizonts are not seen in the peripheral blood in malaria due to
a. P. falciparum
c. P.ovale
b. P.vivax
d. P. malaria
131. Thin blood smear for malaria is used to identify
a. Plasmodium
b. Gametocytes
c. Type of parasite
d. Schizont
132. The radical teatment of malaria is to half
a. Gametocyte
b. Exo-erythrocytic phase
c. Erythrocytic phase
d. All of these
133. Symptoms of acute aflatoxicosis
a. Osteogenic sarcoma
b. Lymphatic leukemia
c. Malaise & Anorexia
d. Both a and b
134. Most important Penicillium toxins are
a. Citrinin
b. Patulin
c. Penicillic acid
d. All of the above
135. Penicillic acid is produced by
a. A. ochraceus
c. Both a and b
b. P. puberulum
d. None of the above
136. Fungi producting mycelium are called
a. Moulds
c. Both a and b
b. Filamentous fungi
d. Yeasts
137. Candidiasis is caused by
a. Candida albicans
b. Aspergillus spp.
c. E. floccosum
d. M. audouinii
138. Candida albicans is capable to form
a. Single cells
b. Pseudomonas
c. Multicellular forms
d. None of these
139. Aspergillus fumigatus can infect
a. A. niger
c. A. flavus
b. A. fumigatus
d. A. oryzae
140. A.fumigates can produce
a. Endotoxins
c. Enterotoxins
b. Exotoxins
d. None of these
141. The drug of choice for dermal, oral and vaginal candidiasis is
a. Griseofulvin
c. Gentian violet
b. Amphotericin B
d. Nystatin
142. The following Penicillium species are pathogenic except
a. P. commune
c. P. glaucum
b. P. bicolor
d. P.notatum
143. Tinea versicolor is caused by
a. Candida albicans
b. Malassezia furfur
c. Aspergillus niger
d. None of these
144. Causative agent of Tinea nigra
a. Malassezia furfur
b. Exophiala werenekii
c. Candida albicans
d. Aspergillus flavus
145. Causative agent of African histoplasmosis
a. Histoplasma capsulatum
b. Histoplasma duboissi
c. Aspergillus niger
d. Aspergillus flavus
146. Sun ray fungus is
a. Actinomyces irraeli
b. Chromoblastomycosis
c. Streptomyces griseus
d. Cryptococcosis
147. Which agent on addition to a colony inhibits its growth and on removal the colony regrows is?
a. Bacteriostatic
c. Antibiotic
b. Bactericidal
d. Antiseptic
148. Griseofluvin is obtained from
a. Penicillium notatum
b. Streptomyces griseus
c. Penicillium griseofluvin
d. None of these
149. β ββ-lactum ring is present in
a. Erythromycin
b. Penicillin
c. Tetracyclins
d. Chloramphenicol
150. All of the following drugs act on cell membrane, except
a. Novobiocin
c. Chloromycetin
b. Nystatin
d. Colicins
151. Cycloserine related to the amino acid in structure
a. Serine
c. Alanine
b. Aspergine
d. None of these
152. In Tuberculosis therapy mainly used antibiotic is
a. Penicillin
b. Streptomycin
c. Chloramphenol
d. Cycloserine
153. The antibacterial action of penicillin is due to its effect on
a. Cell membrane permeability
b. Cell wall synthesis
c. DNA synthesis
d. Protein synthesis
154. The antibiotic produced from Bacillus subtilis is
a. Vancomycin
c. Both a and b
b. Bactiracin
d. None of these
155. bacitracin sensitivity test is done for
a. Pneunocci
b. Group ‘A’ Streptococci
c. Gonococci
d. Staphylococci
156. The effect of antibiotics on micro organisms is mainly due to
a. Inhibition of cell-wall synthesis
b. Damage to the cytoplasmic membrane
c. Inhibition of nucleic acid and protein
synthesis
d. All of the above
157. The antibiotic acting on cell wall is
a. Penicillin
c. Cyclosporin
b. Bacitracin
d. All of the above
158. Erythromycin belongs to chemical class of antibiotics
a. â-lactose
c. Macrolides
b. Tetracyclines
d. Aminoglycosides
159. Bacterial resistance to antibiotics is transmitted by
a. Transduction
c. Mutation
b. Transformation
d. Plasmids
160. Erythromycin inhibits protein synthesis by
a. Attaching to 30 S ribosome unit
b. Attaching to 50 S unit or ribosome
c. By the attachment to t-RNA
d. By the attachment to m-RNA
161. The function of (THFA) Tetrahydrofolic acid coenzyme include
a. Amino acid synthesis
b. Thymidine synthesis
c. Protein synthesis
d. Both a and b
162. Resistant to drugs in tuberculosis develops by
a. Transduction
c. Conjugation
b. Transformation
d. Mutation
163. Which of the following is penicillinase resisting acid labile penicillin?
a. Amoxycillin
c. Carbenicillin
b. Cloxacillin
d. Methicillin
164. Which of the following does not inhibit cell wall synthesis?
a. Penicillin
c. Amikacin
b. Carbenicillin
d. Vancomycin
165. The anti tumor antibiotics act by inhibiting
a. Cell wall synthesis
b. RNA synthesis
c. Cell membrane synthesis
d. The DNA structure & function
166. Drug resistance to sulphonamides is due to
a. Production of PABA
b. Folic acid synthetase
c. Drug alteration
d. Low affinity for drug synthesis by bacteria
167. Amoxycillin is combined with clavulanic acid to inhibit
a. DNA gyrace
b. Cell synthesis
c. Protein synthesis
d. β-lactamase enzymes
168. Drug of choice for methicillin resistant
staph. Aureus is
a. Ampicillin
 c. Neomycin
b. Erythromycin
d. Vancomycin
169. Nalidixic acid activity is due to
a. The inhibition of DNA synthesis
b. Inhibition of protein synthesis
c. The inhibition of cell wall synthesis
d. Both b and c
170. The best test for the susceptibility of a microorganism to antibiotics and other
chemotherapeutic agents:
a. Tube-dilution test
b. Paper-disc test
c. Both a and b
d. None of these
171. The smallest amount of chemotherapeutic agents required to inhibit the growth of the
organism in Vitro is known as
a. MIC (minimum inhibitory concentration)
b. Thermal death point (TDP)
c. Death rate
d. None of these
172. Clear-zones formation around antibiotic disc is due to
a. Growth of the bacterium surrounding of the disc
b. Lysis of the bacterial cells surrounding the disc
c. The destruction of paper disc (antibiotic)
d. None of these
173. Bacitracin is obtained from
a. B. subtilis
c. B. cereus
b. B. anthracis
d. B. anthracoid
174. Vancomycin is obtained from
a. Streptococcus species
b. Aspergillus niger
c. Streptomyces orientalis
d. Bacillus anthracis
175. â-lactum antibiotics are
a. Penicillin
c. Both a & b
b. Cephalosporin
d. None of these
176. Following are the test organisms used for the I.P microbiological assay of antibiotics match them
correctly: TAKE NOTE IVE ALREADY MATCHED FOR YOU UP TO QUESTION 192 YOUR JOB IS TO GUN
1. Rifampicin- D. Bacillus subtilis
2. Tetracyclin-E. Bacillus cereus
3. Streptomycin-A. Escherichia Coli
4. Chloramphenol-A. Escherichia Coli
177. The drugs mentioned below are produced by the species mentioned from Ato E.
Match them correctly :
1. Rifampicin-C. Streptomyces mediterranei
2. Nystatin-E. Streptomyces noursei
3. Amphotericin B- D. Streptomyces nodosus
4. Candicidin- B. Bacillus polymyxa
178. Match the correct method of sterilization
listed A to E for the following drugs :
1. Tetracyclin injection-D. Prepared by aseptic method
2. Insulin injection-C. Sterilised by aseptic method
3. Quinine injection-E. Sterilised by heating in an autoclave
4. Morphine injection- 4-B. Sterilised by heating with a bacteria
179. Match the following rickettsial disease with their respective organisms:
1. Epidemic typhusi- B. Rickettsia prowazeki
2. Scrub typhus- C. Rickettsia typhus
3. Trench typhus-D. Rickettsia Quintana
4. Murine typhus-E. Rickettsia typhus
180. Match the following antimicrobial with their respective side effects A to E:
1. Acridines-E. Toxic to leucocytes and retard granulation process
2. Benzalkonium- C. Haemolytic Benzoates
3. Parahydroxy-B. exhibit synergism and chloride unsuitable for preservative in eye drops
4. Formalin-A. Showed adverse effects of Proteins
181. Match the following antibiotics with their respective modes of administration A to E:
1. Penicillin V-B. Oral penicillin
2. Benzathine- A. Intramuscular suspension
3. Methicillin sodium-E. Intramuscular injection
4. Ampicillin- C. Both as oral and injection
182. Match the following antibiotics with respective strains A to E used for their production :
1. Tetracyclin-D. Streptomyces viridifaciens
2. Chloramphenicol- E. Streptomyces venezuelae
3. Erythromycin- A. Streptomyces erythreus
4. Cycloserine-B. Streptomyces garyphalous
183. Match the following strains with their respective produced antibiotics A to E:
1. Streptomyces -E. Streptomycin purpurea
2. Streptomyces-D. Chlortetracyclinegriseus var.
3. Streptomyces -A. Oxytetracycline griseus.
4. Streptomyces -C. Viomycin Rimosus
184. Match the following antibiotics with their respective disease A to E to be cured :
1. Streptomycin- B. Tuberculosis
2. Cycloserine-E. Anti-spirochaetes
3. Novobiocins- A. Staphylococcus infections
4. Griseofulvin- C. Fungal tuberculosi
185. Match the following antibiotics with their respective side effects A to E:
1. Novobiocin-D. Skin rashes
2. Neomycin- E. Kidney problem
3. Cycloserine- B. Damages CNS
4. Chloramphenol- C. Damages haemopoietic system
186. Match the following antibiotics with their modes of action A to E:
1. Tetracyclines-B. Chelation of light divalent salts
2. Erythromycin- C. Blocks protein synthesis
3. Novobiocin-D. Interferes with the conjugation of bilirubin
4. Griseofulvin- E. Influences mitosis
187. Match the following dosage forms with their respective antibiotics A to E:
1. Tablets- B. Colistin
2. Intravenous injection-A. Vancomycin Hcl
3. Capsules- E. Paromomycin sulphate
4. Intramuscular-C. Polymixin B sulphate
188. Match the following side effects with their respective antibiotics A to E:
1. Nephrotoxic- B. Polymixin B sulphate
2. Rashes-C. Cephaloridine
3. Hypersensitivity-A. Triacetyloleandomycin
4. Gastric irritation- E. Sodium fusidate
189. Match the following antibiotics with their respective activity spectra A to E:
2. Gentamycin- A. Gram negative
3. Sodium fusidate-D. Gram positive
4. Framycetin-B. Mainly staphylococci
190. Match the following enzymes with their activities A to E:
1. Hyaluronidase-B. Reversibly catalyzes the breakdown of a major component
2. Collagenase-C. Disintegrates a constituent of muscle, cartilage and bone
3. Lecithinase- D. Haemolysis of erythrocytes and the necrosis of other cells
4. Leucocidins- A. Inactivate leucocytes and aid
bacterial invasion
191. Match the following aggresins with their respective modes of action from A to E:
1. Hyaluronidase-B. Breaks down connective tissues, increases permeability of tissue space
2. Haemolysis-A. Destroys RBC’s and other tissues
3. Streptokinase- D. Digest the fibrin of blood
4. Lecithinase-C. Causes lysis of RBC’s and other tissues
192. Match the following terms with their
respective effects A to E:(Lol Ive already matched them for you)
1. Brucella melitensis-C. Causes Malta fever in goats
2. Flavobacterium-B. Causes influenza like fever species
3. Chlamydia trachomatis-A. Causes trachoma, conjunctivitis
and nongonococcal gamets
4. Leptospira icterohaemorrhagiae-E. Weil’s disease (jaundice)
193. Virus causing mumps is also responsible for
a. Measles
c. Rabies
b. Hepatitis A
d. Variola
194. Epidemic pleurodynia and myocarditis of new born infants are both caused by
a. Group B cox sack virus
b. Reovirus
c. Polyomavirus
d. Cytomegalovirus
195. Human papillomavirus causes following tumors:
a. Hepatic carcinoma
b. Cervical cancer
c. Condyloma acuminatum
d. Plantar wart
196. Viral infection is caused due to
a. Acute self limited illness
b. No apparent symptoms
c. Chronic infection with persistent viral shedding
d. All of these
197. Viruses which do not carry enzymes for DNA synthesis as a part of their virion are
a. Hepatitis B virus
b. Poxyviruses
c. Heepes simplex virus
d. Retroviruses
e. All of these
198. Following virus is known to establish latent infections:
a. Adeno virus
b. Varicella-zoster virus
c. Cytomegalovirus
d. Hepes simplex virus
e. All of these
199. Viruses which have teratogenic property
are
a. Herpes simplex virus
b. Cytomegalovirus
c. Rubella virus
d. All of these
200. Kawasaki syndrome is
a. Most prevalent in Japan and Hawaii
b. Patients show rickettsia like bacteria in skin biopsies
c. Strain involved may be propionibacterium
d. All of these
201. Mode of action of quinolone antibiotics on growing bacteria was thought to be
a. Inhibition of â lactamase
b. Prevention of the cross linking of glycine
c. Inhibition of DNA gyrase
d. Inhibition of reverse transcriptase
202. The role that human play in the plague life cycle is
a. Secondary reservoir
b. Primary transmission vector
c. Primary host
d. Accidental intruder in rat flea cycle
e. None of these
203. Patient with presence of penile chancre should be advised by physician
a. To take rest at home
b. To swab the chancre and culture on Thayer Martin agar
c. To Gram stain the chancre fluid
d. To repeat VDRL test in 10 hours
e. Perform dark field microscopy for treponemes
204. Which organism is responsible for causing fever to a man dealing with goats?
a. Trepanema Pallidum
b. M.tuberculosis
c. Clostridium novyl
d. Brucella melitensis
e. None of these
205. Diphtheria toxins are produced from the strains of C.diphtheriae, which are
a. Encapsulated
b. Sucrose fermentors
c. Of the mitis and strain
d. Glucose fermentors
e. Lysogenic for β prophase
206. Skin of the healthy person has normal microbial flora which includes
a. Enterobacteriaceae
b. Aerobic diphtheria bacilli
c. Anaerobic diphtheriae bacilli
d. Nonhemolytic staphylococci
e. All of these
207. Which of the following organisms can infect humans if improperly cooked meat is used?
a. Trichinella spiralis
b. Taenia saginata
c. Taenia solium
d. Diphyllobothrium latum
e. Both a and c
208. The parasite related to ancylostoma duodenale is
a. Wuchereria bancrofti
b. Necatur americanes
c. Loa loa
d. Trichinella spiralis
209. Which of the following amoeba does not live in large intestine ?
a. Entamoeba coli
b. Entamoeda histolytica
c. Endolimax nana
d. Entamoeba gingivalis
210. Which of the following is not related to congenital syphilis?
a. Aneurysm
c. Still birth
b. Saddle nose
 d. Hutchiso’s teeth
211. Streptococcus pyogens produce infection
a. Streptococcal sore throat
b. Acute glomerulo nephritis
c. Rheumatic fever
d. None of these
212. Salmonella which can cause prolong
septicaemia.
a. Salmonella anetum
b. Salmonella cholerasuis
c. Salmonella typhimurium
d. Salmonella entritidis
213. E.coli produce which type of toxins?
a. Exotoxins
b. Endotoxins
c. Leucocidin
d. Both a and b
214. Main causative organism of gas gangrene is
a. B.anthrax
b. Clostridium tetani
c. Cl.deficile
d. Cl.perfringens
215. Causative organism of whooping cough is
a. Bordetella pertussis
b. Bordetella parapertussis
c. Bordetella bronchi septica
d. None of these
216. Pfeiffer phenomenon is related to
a. Vibrio cholerae
b. B.anthrax
c. Rickettsial pox
d. All of these
217. Diagnostic test for the identification of primary syphilis:
a. VDRL test
b. Treponema pallidum immobilization test
c. Kahn’s test
d. Dark ground microscopic examination
218. Sporadic summer diarrhea may becaused by
a. E.coli
b. Enterobacter
c. Hafnia
d. Serratia
219. Biological false reaction in VDRL is related to
a. Lepra bacilli
b. Corynebacterium diphtheria
c. Cl.welchi
d. None of these
Microbiology textbook compilation of Questions and ma must knows
Am adding tuma must know yields(I repeat these are must know not high or low yield must know) ku
swata guys bacteriology is wide lol
LRT means lowwer respiratory tract and URT means upper respiratory tract
So I add questions I add data we must balance so that we can cross the road
Team clear pass

1. Which one of the following is NOT part of the lower respiratory system?
A. Alveoli
B. Pharynx
C. Larynx
D. Trachea
2. Which one of the following is a complication of streptococcal pharyngitis?
A. Rheumatic fever
B. Pseudomembrane blockage
C. Strawberry tongue
D. Chest, back, and leg pain
3. Methylene blue staining of metachromatic granules is diagnostic for which of the following
bacteria?
A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
B. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
C. Chlamydia pneumoniae
D. Bordetella pertussis
4. Severe throat pain, fever, muffled voice, and stridor are symptoms of
A. sinusitis.
B. epiglottitis.
C. bronchitis.
D. diphtheria.
5. Which one of the following illnesses is characterized by yellow or green pus discharged from the
nose?
A. Pertussis
 B. Diphtheria
C. Bronchitis
D. Acute sinusitis
6. Swimmer’s ear is a common name for a ________ infection of the ________ ear.
A. bacterial; outer
B. viral; outer
C. bacterial; middle
D. viral; inner
7. Acute meningitis
A. is an LRT infection.
B. is a disease affecting the membranes of the heart.
C. can be caused be Corynebacterium diphtheriae.
D. often starts as a nasopharynx infection.
8. A catarrhal and paroxysmal stage is typical of which one of the following bacterial diseases?
A. Tuberculosis
B. Pneumonia
C. Pertussis
D. Q fever
9. Acid-fast staining is typically used to stain which bacterial genus?
A. Haemophilus
B. Streptococcus
C. Klebsiella
D. Mycobacterium
10. A person whose inner walls lining the main airways of the lungs become inflamed and who
develops a dry cough for a few days, probably has
A. acute bronchitis.
B. epiglottitis.
C. pneumonia.
D. chronic bronchitis.
11. Which one of the following is a gram-positive bacterial species commonly causing hospital-
acquired pneumonia?
A. Haemophilus influenzae
B. Klebsiella pneumoniae
C. Staphylococcus aureus
D. Chlamydophila pneumoniae
12. Humans can acquire which one of the following diseases from the droppings of infected birds?
A. Q fever
B. Legionellosis
C. Tuberculosis
D. Psittacosi
13. Scarlet fever is caused by a species of ________________.
14. ________________ is caused by a species of Mycobacterium.
15. The bacterial species ________________ causes psittacosis and
pneumonia.
16. ________________ is caused by transmission in droplets of airborne
water.
17. ________________ is a gram-negative rod that causes whooping cough.
18. The development of active tuberculosis throughout the body is called
________________ tuberculosis.
19. ________________ is a disease of parrots, parakeets, and canaries as
well as humans.
20. Another name of Streptococcus pneumoniae is ________________.
21. A bacterial form of ________________ may be caused by Neisseria or
Haemophilus.
22. Mycoplasma species have no ________________, which often gives
them a pleomorphic shape.
23. Coxiella burnetti is the causative agent of ________________.
24. The genus ________________ consists of acid-fast rods.
25. The agent of pneumococcal pneumonia is a gram-________________
Organism

1. Which one of the following is NOT a digestive organ of the gastroin

testinal (GI) tract?
A. Large intestine
B. Oral cavity
C. Liver
D. Small intestine
2. What part of the GI tract contains the largest population of microorganisms (microbiota)?
A. Colon
B. Jejunum
C. Duodenum
D. Stomach
3. Which one of the following statements does NOT apply to dental plaque?
A. It is an example of a biofilm.
B. It is most noticeable on the molars.
C. Its buildup on teeth can lead to gingivitis and periodontal
disease.
D. It is dominated by aerobic bacterial species.
4. What type of periodontal disease occurs when plaque bacteria build up between teeth and gums?
A. Trench mouth
B. ANUG
C. Gingivitis
D. Periodontitis
5. Gastroenteritis can result in
A. an intestinal inflammation.
B. an infection.
C. an intoxication
D. All the above (A–C) are correct.
6. Foodborne microbes can be found in
A. cattle carcasses.
B. fresh fruits and vegetables.
C. healthy animals.
D. All the above (A–C) are correct.
7. Which one of the following bacterial species is NOT a cause of food
poisoning (noninflammatory gastroenteritis)?
A. Escherichia coli
B. Bacillus cereus
C. Staphylococcus aureus
D. Clostridium perfringens
8a. One of the most excessive diarrheas of the GI tract is associated with which of the following
poisonings or diseases?
A. Staphylococcal food poisoning
B. Typhoid fever
C. Cholera
D. Campylobacteriosis
8b. Escherichia coli is a common gram _____ that can be a cause of _____.
A. positive rod; hemorrhagic colitis
B. negative rod; traveler’s diarrhea
C. positive coccus; typhoid fever
D. negative rod; cholera
8c. Clostridium difficile is
A. the cause of pseudomembranous colitis.
B. traveler’s diarrhea.
C. meningoencephalitis.
D. undulant fever.
8d. This gram-positive rod can cause meningoencephalitis, septicemia, and newborn meningitis.
A. Bacillus cereus
B. Listeria monocytogenes
C. Clostridium perfringens
D. Escherichia coli
1. Woolsorter disease applies to the _____ form of _____.
A. inhalation; tularemia
B. toxic; myonecrosis
C. intestinal; anthrax
D. inhalation; anthrax
2. Which one of the following describes the mode of action of
tetanospasmin?
A. It inhibits muscle contraction.
B. It damages and lyses red blood cells.
C. It disrupts cell tissues.
D. It inhibits muscle relaxation.
3. A crackling sound associated with myonecrosis is due to
A. respiratory distress due to plague.
B. nerve contractions due to tetanus.
C. lymph node swelling due to plague.
D. gas produced by C. perfringens.
4. Leptospira interrogans has all the following characteristics except:
A. endoflagella.
B. aerobic metabolism.
C. exotoxin production.
D. a hook at one end of the cell.
5. A characteristic of cell staining of Y. pestis is a
A. gram-positive staining.
B. bipolar staining.
C. gram-positive staining.
D. gram-variable staining.
6. Skin ulcers are a common lesion resulting from being bitten by
A. a tick infected with B. burgdorferi.
B. fleas infected with Y. pestis.
C. a tick infected with F. tularensis.
D. lice infected with C. tetani.
7. Erythema migrans is typical of the _____ stage of Lyme disease.
A. early localized
B. early disseminated
C. late
D. recurrent
8. A brief tick bite and a small number of recurring periods of fever and chills is typical of
A. louseborne relapsing fever.
B. ehrlichiosis.
C. Rocky Mountain spotted fever.
D. epidemic typhus.
9. Rocky Mountain spotted fever is most common in the
A. southeastern United States.
B. Rocky Mountains.
C. Pacific northwest.
D. New England.
10. A lowering of the white blood cell count is characteristic of
A. plague.
B. anthrax.
C. ehrlichlosis.
D. RMSF
Statement
12. Accompanied by erythema migrans.
13. Transmitted by lice; caused by Rickettsii prowazekii.
14. Affects monocytes in the body; transmitted by ticks.
15. Caused by a spore-forming rod that produces hyaluronidase and α-toxin.
16. Primarily endemic in large herbivores, such as cattle, sheep, and goats.
17. Treated with antitoxins; caused by an anaerobic spore former.
18. Bubonic, septicemic, and pneumonic stages.
19. Maculopapular rash beginning on extremities and progressing to body trunk.
20. Caused by a spirochete that infects kidney tissues in pets and humans.
21. Occurs in small game animals, especially rabbits.
22. Caused by a gram-negative rod with bipolar staining; transmitted by the rat flea.
23. Up to 13 attacks of substantial fever, joint pains, and skin spots; Borrelia involved.
24. Pulmonary, intestinal, and skin forms possible; due to a Bacillus species.
25. Most commonly reported tickborne disease in the United States. Disease
A. Anthrax
B. Ehrlichiosis
C. Epidemic typhus
D. Gas gangrene
E. Leptospirosis
F. Lyme disease
G. Murine typhus
H. Plague
I. Relapsing fever
J. Rickettsialpox
K. Rocky Mountain spotted fever
L. Tetanus
M. Tularemia
 1. The primary sex organs of the female reproductive system is/are the
A. uterus.
B. vagina.
C. fallopian tubes.
D. ovaries.
2. What part or parts of the male and female reproductive systems are typically colonized by
indigenous microbiota?
A. Male: ureters; female: vagina and ovaries
B. Male: testes and epididymis
 C. Male: urethra; female: vagina, vulva, and cervix
D. Male: bladder and ureters; female: fallopian tubes and cervix
3. Which one of the following microbes is NOT associated with vaginosis?
A. Peptostreptococcus
B. Gardnerella
C. Prevotella
D. Staphylococcus
4. Which one of the following statements is NOT correct concerning the
reproductive cycle of Chlamydia?
A. Reticulate bodies are infectious.
B. Reticulate bodies reorganize into elementary bodies.
C. Elementary bodies infect host cells.
D. Elementary bodies transform into reticulate bodies.
5. Salpingitis is associated with _____ and can lead to _____.
A. syphilis; gumma formation
B. gonorrhea; sterility
C. chlamydia; ophthalmia
D. chancroid; soft chancre
6. A chancre is typical of which stage of syphilis?
A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Tertiary
D. Chronic, latent
7. Besides chlamydia urethritis, what other STD is associated with another serotype of Chlamydia
trachomatis?
A. Lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV)
B. Genital warts
C. Granuloma inguinale
D. Chancroid
8. Which one of the following is NOT part of the urinary tract?
A. Urethra
B. Bladder
C. Kidneys
D. Ureters
9. What bacterial species is most often associated with cystitis?
A. Treponema pallidum
B. Escherichia coli
C. Chlamydia trachomatis
D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
10. What type of immune defensive cell is found in the sublayers of the epidermis?
A. Keratinocyte
B. Dendritic (Langerhans) cell
C. Neutrophil
D. Basophil
11. The skin is
A. dominated by gram-negative bacterial cells.
B. free of bacterial cells.
C. without a microbiota.
D. dominated by gram-positive bacterial cells.
12. Which one of the following statements is NOT true of acne?
A. Acne is caused by Propionibacterium acnes.
B. Plugged sebaceous glands are called erythemas.
C. Whiteheads are completely blocked follicles.
D. Acne is not a preventable disease.
13. An acute wound could be due to
A. surgical procedures.
B. cuts.
 C. lacerations.
D. All the above (A–C) are correct.
14. In children, this skin disease is characterized by the production of
thin-walled blisters oozing a yellowish fluid and forming yellowish
brown flakes.
A. Toxic shock syndrome
B. Scalded skin syndrome
C. Erysipelas
D. Impetigo
15. Which one of the following skin diseases is NOT caused by Streptococcus
pyogenes?
A. Necrotizing fasciitis
B. Toxic shock syndrome
C. Gas gangrene
D. Erysipelas
16. The most common cause of an invasive wound infection, such as a
burn, is
A. gram-positive bacterial species.
B. Treponema pallidum.
C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa.
D. Escherichia coli.
17. Bartonella henselae is the causative agent of this skin disease.
A. Leprosy
B. Cat-scratch disease
C. Necrotizing fasciitis
D. Rat-bite fever
18. Leprosy can be contracted by contact with
A. contaminated water.
B. insects.
C. nasal secretions.
D. contaminated food.
19. The SAFE strategy has greatly reduced the global burden of what
disease?
A. Trachoma
B. Neonatal conjunctivitis
C. Leprosy
D. Blepharitis
20. Ureaplasmal urethritis is a type of __________.
21. __________ is the disease caused by Haemophilus ducreyi.
22. Lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV) is prevalent in __________-Asia.
23. A __________ is absent in Mycoplasma species.
24. Granuloma inguinale is characterized by having bacterial masses called
__________ bodies.
25. Gardnerella is the cause of __________.
26. Mycoplasma __________ is the agent responsible for mycoplasmal
urethritis.
27. __________ are a group of connected, deep abscesses caused by
S. aureus.
28. __________ is the most common agent of urinary tract infections.
29. Sufferers of UTIs have a __________ on urination.
30. Dapsone, rifampin, and clofazimine are drugs used to treat __________.
1. Which one of the following statements about fungi is NOT true?
A. Some fungi are dimorphic.
B. Fungi have cell walls made of chitin.
C. Fungi are photosynthetic organisms.
D. Fungi consist of the yeasts and molds.
2. Which one of the following best describes the growth conditions for
a typical fungus?
A. pH 3; 23°C; no oxygen gas present
B. pH 8; 30°C; no oxygen gas present
C. pH 6; 30°C; oxygen gas present
D. pH 3; 23°C; oxygen gas present
3. All the following are examples of asexual spore formation except:
A. arthrospores.
B. conidia.
C. sporangiospores.
D. basidiospores.
4. An organism without a known sexual stage would be classified in the
A. Mitosporic fungi.
B. Zygomycota.
C. Basidiomycota.
D. Ascomycota.
5. Yeasts of the species Saccharomyces
A. are used in bread making.
 B. reproduce by budding.
C. are members of the ascomycetes.
D. All of the above (A–C) are correct.
6. Aflatoxin is produced by _____ and is _____.
A. Sporothrix schenkii; a hallucinogen
B. Aspergillus flavus; carcinogenic
C. Claviceps purpurea; a hallucinogen
D. Aspergillus niger; a mycotoxin
7. Mushroom poisoning is
A. always fatal.
B. characterized by immediate symptoms.
C. most common in children under 6 years of age.
D. treatable with antifungal drugs.
8. This fungal disease can cause a blister-like lesion on the scalp.
A. Candidiasis
B. Dermatophytosis
C. Cryptococcosis
D. Histoplasmosis
9. ______ causes more than 20 million cases each year and symptoms include an itching sensation
and burning internal pain.
A. Thrush
B. “Jock itch”
C. Vulvovaginitis
D. Sporotrichosis
10. From the following, sporotrichosis would most likely be transmitted from
A. peat moss.
B. bat caves.
C. mushrooms.
D. dusty soil.
11. Which one of the following fungi would most likely be found in pigeon droppings?
A. Pneumocystis
B. Cryptococcus
C. Coccidioides
D. Sporothrix
12. Moving to the Ohio or Mississippi River valleys might make one susceptible to
A. PCP.
B. valley fever.
C. dermatophytosis.
D. histoplasmosis
13. This dimorphic fungus produces conidia that are inhaled from dusty
soil or bird droppings.
A. Aspergillus fumigatus
B. Pneumocystis jiroveci
C. Amanita phalloides
D. Blastomyces dermatitidis
14. The formation of arthrospores and spherules is characteristic of
A. coccidioidomycosis.
B. histoplasmosis.
C. candidiasis.
D. aspergillosis.
15. This fungal disease is the most common cause of nonbacterial pneumonia in
immunocompromised individuals.
A. Blastomycosis
B. Pneumocystis pneumonia
C. Aspergillosis
D. Coccidioidomycosis
16. The most deadly form of aspergillosis is
A. a pulmonary form.
B. a toxigenic form.
C. a blood form.
D. an invasive form
Work together in study groups to solve and study these questions before a test you can know who
has data and make a tough formation. Teamwork makes the dreamwork in and out of the exam lol.