Yakeen NEET (2025)

PRACTICE TEST- 02

DURATION: :200
DURATION 90 Minutes
Minutes DATE: 16/06/2024 M.MARKS: 720

Topics Covered
Physics: Units and Measurements, Motion in a straight line

Chemistry: Solutions (Complete Chapter), Thermodynamics (Complete Chapter)

Biology: (Botany): Cell cycle and Cell Division

(Zoology): Complete chapter Breathing and exchange of gases

General Instructions:
1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the test booklet.
2. The test is of 3 hours 20 min. duration.
3. The test booklet consists of 200 questions. The maximum marks are 720.
4. There are four Section in the Question Paper, Section I, II, III & IV consisting of Section-I (Physics), Section-II
(Chemistry), Section-III (Botany)& Section IV (Zoology) and having 50 Questions in each Subject and each
subject is divided in two Section, Section A consisting 35 questions (all questions are compulsory) and
Section B consisting 15 Questions (Any 10 questions are compulsory).
5. There is only one correct response for each question.
6. Each correct answer will give 4 marks while 1 Mark will be deducted for a wrong MCQ response.
7. No student is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile phone,
any electronic device, etc. inside the examination room/hall.
8. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty in the
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 [Practice Test-02 | Yakeen NEET (2025) | 16/06/2024]
Units and Measurements, Motion in a straight line

SECTION-(I) PHYSICS

SECTION-A 8. In C.G.S. system the magnitude of the force is 100

1. If unit of length and force are increased 4 times. dynes. In another system where the fundamental
physical quantities are in kilogram, metre and
The unit of energy;
minute, the magnitude of the force is;
(1) is increased by 4 times.
(1) 0.036 (2) 0.36
(2) is increased by 16 times.
(3) 3.6 (4) 36
(3) is increased by 8 times.
(4) remains unchanged.
9. The division of energy by time is X. The
2. The density of a material in CGS system of units dimensional formula of X is same as that of;
is 4 g/cm3. In a system of units in which unit of (1) momentum.
length is 10 cm and unit of mass is 100 g, the (2) power.
value of density of material will be; (3) torque.
(1) 0.4 (2) 40 (4) electric field.
(3) 400 (4) 0.04
10. If the dimensions of a physical quantity are given
3. Light year is a unit of; by M a LbT c , then the physical quantity will be;
(1) time. (2) mass. (1) velocity if a = l, b = 0, c = – 1
(3) distance. (4) energy. (2) acceleration if a =l, b = l, c = – 2
(3) force if a = 0, b = –l, c = –2
4. A wire has a mass 0.3 ± 0.003 g, radius 0.5 ± (4) pressure if a = 1, b = – 1, c = –2
0.005 mm and length 6 ± 0.06 cm. The maximum
percentage error in the measurement of its density 11. [MLT–1] + [MLT–1] = …………..
is;
(1) [ M 0 L0T 0 ]
(1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 3 (4) 4 (2) [ MLT –1 ]
(3) 2[ MLT −1 ]
5. A quantity is represented by X = MaLbTc. The %
(4) None of these
error in measurement of M, L and T are %, %
and % respectively. The maximum % error in X
12. A boy completes one round of a circular track of
would be;
radius 20 m in 50 seconds. The displacement at
(1) (a + b + c)%
the end of 4 minute 10 second will be;
(2) (a − b + c)% (1) 40 m
(3) (a − b − c) 100% (2) 20 m
(4) None of these (3) 80 km
(4) Zero
6. The unit of potential energy is;
(1) g (cm/sec2). (2) g (cm/sec)2. 13. Given below are two statement: one is labelled as
2
(3) g (cm /sec). (4) g (cm/sec). Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R:
Assertion A: When we change the unit of
7. The frequency of vibration of a string is given by measurement of a quantity, its numerical value
changes.
n T
f = , where T is tension in the string, L is Reason R: Smaller the unit of measurement
2L m smaller is its numerical value.
the length, n is number of harmonics. The In the light of the above statements, choose the
dimensional formula for m is; correct answer from the options given below:
(1) [ M 0 LT ] (1) A is true but R is false.
(2) A is false but R is true.
(2) [ M 1L−1T −1 ] (3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
(3) [ M 1L−1T 0 ] explanation of A.
(4) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
(4) [ M 0 LT −1 ] explanation of A.
14. Given below are two statement: one is labelled as 19. The displacement of a particle, starting from rest
Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R: (at t = 0) is given by s = 6t2– t3.
Assertion A: Angle and strain are dimensionless. The time in seconds at which the particle will
Reason R: Angle have no unit. obtain zero velocity again is:
In the light of the above statements, choose the (1) 2
correct answer from the options given below:
(2) 4
(1) A is true but R is false.
(3) 6
(2) A is false but R is true.
(4) 8
(3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A.
(4) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct 20. A man leaves his house for a cycle ride. He comes
explanation of A. back to his house after half-an-hour after covering
a distance of one km. What is his average velocity
15. The ratio of distances traversed in successive for the ride?
intervals of time when a body falls freely under (1) Zero
gravity from certain height is; (2) 2 km h–1
(1) 1 : 2 : 3
(3) 10 km s–1
(2) 1 : 5 : 9
1
(3) 1 : 3 : 5 (4) km s–1
2
(4) 1: 2 : 3
21. The initial velocity of a particle is 10 m/s
16. Match List-I with List-II.
retardation is 2 m/s2. The distance covered in the
List-I List-II
fifth second of the motion will be:
(A) Angle (I) ML2T −3 (1) 2 m
(B) Power (II) M 0 L0T 0 (2) 1 m
(C) Work (III) ML2T −2 (3) 50 m
(D) Force (IV) MLT −2 (4) 75 m
Choose the correct answer from the options given
22. A monkey walks 40 m east; 30 m south & finally
below:
(1) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-III climbs up on a pole of height 120 m. What is the
(2) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-IV displacement of monkey?
(3) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II (1) 190 m
(4) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV (2) 130 m
(3) 150 m
17. A stone falls from a balloon that is descending at a (4) 170 m
uniform rate of 12 m/s. The displacement of the
stone from the point of release after 10 sec is; 23. Given below are two statement: one is labelled as
(1) 490 m Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R:
(2) 510 m Assertion (A): A body falling freely may do so
(3) 610 m with constant velocity.
(4) 725 m Reason (R): The body falls freely, when
acceleration of a body is equal to acceleration due
18. Which the following is/are correct?
to gravity.
I. Pressure = energy per unit area
In the light of the above statements, choose the
II. Pressure = energy per unit volume
II. Pressure = force per unit volume correct answer from the options given below:
IV. Pressure = momentum per unit (1) A is true but R is false.
volume (2) A is false but R is true.
(1) I and II (3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
(2) II only explanation of A.
(3) III only (4) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
(4) I, II, III and IV explanation of A.
24. If an iron ball and a wooden ball of same radii are 30. Match List-I with List-II.
released from a height h in vacuum then time List-I List-II
taken by both of them to reach ground will be; (A) snth (I) m/s2
(1) unequal.
(2) roughly equal. (B) v2 − u 2 (II) u+v
(3) exactly equal. 2
(4) zero. (C) Average speed (III) 2gh
(D) Acceleration (IV) a
u + (2n − 1)
25. Which of the following statements is not true? 2
(1) If displacement covered of a particle is zero, Choose the correct answer from the options given
then distance covered may or may not be below:
zero.
(1) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(2) If the distance covered is zero then the
(2) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
displacement must be zero.
(3) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-II
(3) The numerical value of ratio of displacement
to distance is equal to or less than one. (4) A-III, B-I, C-III, D-IV
(4) The numerical value of the ratio of velocity
to speed is always less than one. 31. Match List-I with List-II.
List-I List-II
26. The period of oscillation of a simple pendulum is (A) Velocity (I) m/s2
L (B) Displacement (II) Vector
T = 2 . Measured value of L is 20.0 cm known
g (C) Speed (III) m/s
to 1mm accuracy and time for 100 oscillations of (D) Acceleration (IV) scalar
the pendulum is found to be 90 s using a wrist Choose the correct answer from the options given
watch of 1 s resolution. The accuracy in the
below:
determination of g is;
(1) A-II, III, B-II, C-III, IV, D-I
(1) 1%
(2) 5% (2) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
(3) 2% (3) A-I, II, III, B-III, C-IV, D-I, III
(4) 3% (4) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III

27. Dimensional analysis can be applied to; 32. Which of the following is/are correct statements?
(1) check the dimensional consistency of I. When a body reaches highest point in vertical
equations. motion, its velocity becomes zero but
(2) deduce relation among the physical acceleration is non -zero.
quantities.
II. Average velocity of an object is not equal to
(3) to convert from one system of units to
the instantaneous velocity in uniform motion.
another.
(4) All of these III. Average speed can be zero but average
velocity can never be zero.
28. A man goes 10 m towards North, then 20 m (1) I and II
towards east then displacement is; (2) II and III
(1) 20 m (3) I and III
(2) 22.5 m (4) I, II and III
(3) 25.5 m
(4) 30 m 33. Which of the following is a one dimensional
29. The ratio of displacement to distance is; motion?
(1) Always = 1 (1) Landing of an aircraft
(2) Always < 1 (2) Earth revolving around the sun
(3) Always > 1 (3) Motion of wheels of a moving train
(4) May be 1 (4) Train running on a straight track
34. A body starts from rest and travels ‘s’ m in 2nd 40. A force is given by F = at + bt2, where t is time,
second, then acceleration is; the dimensions of a and b are;
(1) 2s m/s2
(2) 3s m/s2 (1) [ MLT −4 ] and [ MLT −1 ]
2
(3) s m/s2 (2) [ MLT −1 ] and [ MLT 0 ]
3
(4)
3
s m/s2 (3) [ MLT −3 ] and [ MLT −4 ]
2
(4) [ MLT −3 ] and [ MLT 0 ]
35. Choose the correct equation to determine distance
in a straight line for a body with uniform motion.
41. In a simple pendulum experiment, the maximum
v
(1) s = percentage error in the measurement of length is
t
2% and that in the observation of the time-period
(2) s = v2t
1 is 3%. Then the maximum percentage error in
(3) s = ut + at 2
2 determination of the acceleration due to gravity g
(4) s = v  t 2 is;
(1) 5%
SECTION-B (2) 6%
36. A body projected vertically upwards with a (3) 1%
velocity u returns to the starting point in 4 (4) 8%
seconds. If g = 10 m/sec2, the value of u is:
(1) 5 m/sec (2) 10 m/sec 42. Match List-I with List-II.
(3) 15 m/sec (4) 20 m/sec
List-I List-II

37. Which of the following statements is/are correct? (A) Mean absolute (I) amean / amean
I. 345.726 has six significant figures error
II. 0.004289 has seven significant figures (B) Relative error (II)  amean 
III. 125000 has three significant figures    100
 amean 
IV 9.0042 has five significant figures
(1) I only (C) Percentage (III) n

(2) II only error

| ai | / n
i =1
(3) I, III and IV
(4) II, III and IV (D) Absolute error (IV) an − amean

Choose the correct answer from the options given

38. The physical quantity that does not have the
below:
dimensional formula [ ML−1T −2 ] is; (1) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
(1) force (2) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
(2) pressure
(3) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
(3) stress
(4) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
(4) modulus of elasticity

39. The velocity of a body depends on time according 43. Stopping distance of a moving vehicle is directly
to the equation v = 20 + 0.1t2. The body has: proportional to;
(1) Uniform acceleration (1) square of the initial velocity.
(2) Uniform retardation (2) square of the initial acceleration.
(3) Non-uniform acceleration
(3) the initial velocity.
(4) Zero acceleration
(4) the initial acceleration.
44. The incorrect statement(s) from the following 48. If two balls of masses m1 and m2 (m1 = 2m2) are
is/are: dropped from the same height, then the ratio of
I. A body having zero velocity will not the time taken by them to reach the ground will
necessarily have zero acceleration. be;
II. A body having zero velocity will necessarily (1) m1 : m2
have zero acceleration. (2) 2m2 : m1
III. A body having uniform speed can have only
(3) 1 : 1
uniform acceleration.
(4) 1 : 2
IV. A body having non-uniform velocity will
have zero acceleration.
49. Given below are two statement: one is labelled as
(1) II, III and IV (2) I and II
Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R:
(3) II and III (4) IV only
Assertion A: The time period of a pendulum is

given by the formula, T = 2 g /

45. A body is projected vertically upwards. If t1 and t2
Reason R: According to the principle of
be the times at which it is at height h above the
homogeneity of dimensions, only that formula is
projection while ascending and descending
correct in which the dimensions of L.H.S is equal
respectively, then h is;
to dimensions of R.H.S.
1
(1) gt1t2 (2) gt1t 2
2 In the light of the above statements, choose the

(3) 2gt1t2 (4) 2hg correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A is true but R is false.
46. Acceleration of a particle changes when (2) A is false but R is true.
(1) Direction of velocity changes (3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
(2) Magnitude of velocity changes explanation of A.
(3) Both (1) & (2) (4) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
(4) Speed changes explanation of A.

47. A ball is released from the top of tower of height h

50. A particle of unit mass undergoes one-
metre. It takes T second to reach the ground. What
dimensional motion such that its velocity varies
is the position of the ball in T/3 second from
according to v (x) = bx–2n where b and n are
ground?
constants and. x is the position of the particle. The
h
(1) metre from the ground acceleration of the particle as a function of x, is
9
given by;
7h
(2) metre from the ground
9 (1) −2nb2 x−4n−1
8h
(3) metre from the ground (2) −2b2 x−2n+1
9
17 h
(3) −2nb2e−4n+1
(4) metre from the ground
18 (4) −2nb2 x−2n−1
 [Practice Test-02 | Yakeen NEET (2025) | 16/06/2024]
Solutions (Complete Chapter), Thermodynamics (Complete Chapter)

SECTION-(II) CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A In the light of the above statements, choose the

correct answer from the options given below:
51. Unit of molarity is expressed as;
(1) A is true but R is false.
(1) g/L (2) mol/L
(2) A is false but R is true.
(3) L/mol (4) mol/Kg
(3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A.
52. Which of the following is the correct mathematical (4) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the
expression for ideal solution of A and B? correct explanation of A.
(1) PS = PAo X A + PBo X B
(2) PS  PAo X A + PBo X B 58. One mole of gas occupying 2 L volume is expended
against a constant external pressure of one atm to a
(3) PS  PAo X A + PBo X B
volume of 10 L, the work done in this process is;
(4) PS = PAo X B + PBo X A (1) –350 J (2) –800 J
(3) –810.4 J (4) –750 J
53. Calculate the amount of benzoic acid required to
prepare 200 mL of 0.15 M solution in methanol. 59. Match List-I with List-II.
[molar mass of benzoic acid = 122 g mol–1] List-I List-II
(1) 3.66 g (2) 5.47 g (A) Soda water (I)
Solution of gas
(3) 4.15 g (4) 5.15 g in solid
(B) Sugar solution (II) Solution of gas
54. Which of the following is true when components in gas
forming an ideal solution are mixed? (C) Air (III) Solution of gas
(1) H mix = 0, Vmix = 0 in liquid
(D) Hydrogen gas (IV) Solution of
(2) H mix  0, Vmix  0
in palladium solid in liquid
(3) H mix  0, Vmix  0 Choose the correct answer from the options given
(4) H mix = 0, Vmix  0 below:
(1) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
55. The unit of entropy is; (2) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(1) JK–1 mol–1 (3) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
(2) kJ–1 mol–1 (4) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II
(3) kJ mol–1
(4) J–1 K–1 mol–1 60. 32 g oxygen gas expands at STP isobarically to
occupy double of its original value. The work
56. Enthalpy of formation of compounds; done during this process is;
(1) always positive. (1) 11.2 atm L (2) 22.4 atm L
(3) –11.2 atm L (4) –22.4 atm L
(2) always negative.
(3) can be either negative or zero.
(4) can be positive or negative. 61. When 10 g of a non-volatile solute dissolved in
100 g of benzene, it raises boiling point by 1ºC,
then molar mass of the solute is;
57. Given below are two statement: one is labelled as (Kb for benzene = 2.53 K kg mol–1)
Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R: (1) 223 g/mol (2) 233 g/mol
Assertion A: In the following combustion (3) 243 g/mol (4) 253 g/mol
reaction.
C(s) + O2(g) → CO2(g), 62. According to Henry’s law, the solubility of a gas
The value of enthalpy change is calculated as, in a given volume of liquid increases with
H = U − RT increases in;
Reason R: H is related to U by equation, (1) temperature. (2) pressure.
H = U + n g RT (3) concentration. (4) catalyst.
63. Given below are two statements: 67. Which of the following is intensive property?
Statement I: For a cyclic process net work done (1) Temperature (2) Length
is always zero. (3) Mass (4) Volume
Statement II: Work is a path function.
In the light of the above statements, choose the 68. In an isochoric process the increases in internal
most appropriate answer from the options given energy is;
below: (1) equal to the heat absorbed.
(1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is (2) equal to the heat evolved.
incorrect. (3) equal to the work done.
(2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
(4) equal to the sum of the heat absorbed and
correct.
work done.
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are
correct.
69. The numerical value of enthalpy of neutralisation
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are
of formic acid with NaOH is;
incorrect.
(1) > 90.6 kJ/mol
64. Given below are two statements: (2) < 90.6 kJ/mol
Statement I: TSsys is the energy which is not (3) > 57.2 kJ/mol
available to do useful work. (4) < 57.2 kJ/mol
Statement II: G is the net energy available to do
useful work. 70. Match List-I with List-II.
In the light of the above statements, choose the List-I List-II
most appropriate answer from the options given (A) Adiabatic (I) Heat
below: process
(1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is (B) Isolated system (II) Constant
incorrect. temperature
(2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is (C) Isothermal (III) No exchange
correct. change of energy and
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are matter
correct. (D) Path function (IV) No transfer of
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are heat
incorrect.
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below:
65. Given below are two statement: one is labelled as
(1) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I,
Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R:
(2) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II,
Assertion (A): Boiling point of 1 m Al2(SO4)3 is
(3) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III,
greater than that of 1 m NaCl.
Reason (R): Van’t Hoff factor of Al2(SO4)3 is (4) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I,
lower than that of NaCl.
In the light of the above statements, choose the 71. Which one of the following equations does not
correct answer from the options given below: correctly represent the first law of
(1) A is true but R is false. thermodynamics for the given processes involving
(2) A is false but R is true. an ideal gas? (Assume non-expansion work is
(3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct zero)
explanation of A. (1) Cyclic process, q = –w
(4) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the (2) Adiabatic process; U = –w
correct explanation of A. (3) Isochoric process; U = q
(4) Isothermal process; q = –w
66. The occurrence of a chemical reaction is
impossible when; 72. Among the following a path function is;
(1) H is +ve; S is also +ve but H < TS (1) density
(2) H is –ve; S is also –ve but H > TS (2) internal energy
(3) H is –ve; S is +ve (3) entropy
(4) H is +ve; S is –ve (4) work
73. Consider the reaction at 300K 80. If the enthalpy change for the transition of liquid
15 water to steam is 300 kJ mol–1 at 27ºC, then
C6 H6 (l ) + O2( g ) → 6CO2( g ) + 3H2O ( l ),
2 entropy change for this process would be;
H = –3271 kJ (1) 1000 JK–1 mol–1 (2) 10 JK–1 mol–1
What is the value of U for the combustion of 1.5 (3) 1 JK–1 mol–1 (4) 0.1 JK–1 mol–1
moles of benzene at 27ºC?
(1) –3267.25 kJ (2) –4900.88 kJ 81. An azeotropic mixture of two liquids has a boiling
(3) –4806.5 kJ (4) –3274.75 kJ point higher than either of them when it;
(1) shows positive deviation from Raoults law.
74. In which of the following case change in entropy (2) shows negative deviation from Raoults law.
is negative? (3) shows ideal behaviour.
(1) Evaporation of water. (4) is saturated.
(2) Expansion of a gas at constant temperature.
(3) Sublimation of solid to gas. 82. Which one of the following aqueous solution will
(4) 2H(g) → H2(g) exhibit highest boiling point?
(1) 0.015 M urea (2) 0.01 M KNO3
75. A system absorbs 40 kJ heat and also does 20 kJ (3) 0.10 M Na2SO4 (4) 0.015 M glucose
of work. The net internal energy of the system;
(1) decreases by 60 kJ 83. The vapour pressure of a pure liquid solvent (X) is
(2) increases by 60 kJ decreased to 0.60 atm from 0.80 atm on addition
(3) increases by 20 kJ of a non-volatile substance (Y). The mole fraction
(4) decreases by 20 kJ of (Y) in the solution is;
(1) 0.20 (2) 0.25
76. The molal elevation constant is the ratio of the (3) 0.50 (4) 0.75
elevation in boiling point to;
(1) Molarity. 84. Amongst the following, which one is a colligative
(2) Molality. property?
(3) Mole fraction of solute. (1) Surface tension
(4) Mole fraction of solvent. (2) Viscosity
(3) Osmotic pressure
77. During osmosis, flow of water through a
(4) Optical activity
semipermeable membrane is;
(1) from solution having lower concentration
85. Among the following, that does not form an ideal
only.
solution is;
(2) from solution having higher concentration
(1) C6H6 and C6H5CH3
only.
(2) C2H5Cl and C6H5OH
(3) from both sides of semipermeable membrane
(3) C6H5Cl and C6H5Br
with equal flow rates.
(4) C2H5Br and C2H5I
(4) from both sides of semipermeable membrane
with unequal flow rates.
SECTION-B
78. For the reaction, A(s) + 3B(g) → 4C(s) + D(l), H 86. Van’t Hoff factor of aqueous acetic acid solution
is;
and U are related as;
(1) < 1
(1) H = U
(2) > 1
(2) H = U + 3RT
(3) = 1
(3) H = U + RT
(4) 0
(4) H = U – 3RT

87. At 100ºC the vapour pressure of a solution of 6.5

79. An ideal solution is that which;
(1) obeys Raoult’s law. g of a solute in 90 g water is 732 mm of Hg.
(2) shows positive deviation from Raoult’s law. Molar mass of solute will be;
(3) shows negative deviation from Raoult’s law (1) 100 g/mol (2) 37 g/mol
(4) has no connection with Raoult’s law. (3) 103 g/mol (4) 35 g/mol
88. Which of the following is correct for entropy? 95. Match List-I with List-II.
(1) State function, intensive property List-I List-II
(2) Path function, intensive property (Compounds) (Ratio of Van’t
(3) Path function, extensive property Hoff factors)
(4) State function, extensive property (A) Urea, glucose, (I) 5:4:5
fructose
89. The standard enthalpy of formation of octane (B) NaCl, MgCl2, (II) 1 : 2 : 3
(C8H18) is –250 kJ/mol. The enthalpy of formation K2SO4
of CO2(g) and H2O(l) are –400 kJ/ mol –300 (C) Al2(SO4)3, Na3PO4, (III) 1 : 1 : 1
kJ/mol respectively. The enthalpy of combustion K4Fe(CN6)
of C8H18 is; (D) Glucose, NaCl, (IV) 2 : 3 : 3
(1) –5200 kJ/mol (2) –5746 kJ/mol CaCl2
(3) –5650 kJ/mol (4) –5310 kJ/mol Choose the correct answer from the options given
below:
(1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
90. Given below are two statement: one is labelled as
(2) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R:
(3) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
Assertion (A): Relative lowering of vapour
(4) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
pressure is equal to mole fraction of the solute.
Reason (R): Relative lowering of vapour pressure
96. A 5.2 molal aqueous solution of methyl alcohol,
is a colligative property. CH3OH, is supplied. The mole fraction of methyl
In the light of the above statements, choose the alcohol in the solution is;
correct answer from the options given below: (1) 1.00 (2) 0.190
(1) A is true but R is false. (3) 0.086 (4) 0.050
(2) A is false but R is true.
(3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct 97. The bond dissociation energies of X2, Y2 and XY
explanation of A. are in the ratio of 1 : 0.5 : 1. H for the formation
(4) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the of XY is –200 kJ mol–1. The bond dissociation
correct explanation of A. energy of X2 will be;
(1) 200 kJ mol–1 (2) 100 kJ mol–1
91. Change in surface area has following effect on (3) 400 kJ mol–1 (4) 800 kJ mol–1
vapour pressure;
(1) increases. 98. For the reaction: 2HgO(s) → 2Hg(l) + O2(g), then
(2) decreases. correct values of H and S are;
(3) does not affect vapour pressure. (1) H > 0 and S < 0
(4) None of these (2) H > 0 and S > 0
(3) H < 0 and S < 0
92. The molality of ethyl alcohol (molar mass = 46 (4) H < 0 and S > 0
g/mol) in aqueous solution which freezes at –10ºC
is; (Kf for water = 1.86 K molality–1) 99. Isotonic solution have same;
(1) 3.540 m (2) 4.567 m (1) density.
(3) 5.376 m (4) 6.315 m (2) molar concentration.
(3) normality.
93. The process of getting fresh water from sea water (4) osmotic pressure.
is known as;
(1) Osmosis 100. In thermodynamics, a process is called reversible
(2) Filtration when;
(1) surroundings and system change into each
(3) Pressure distillation
other.
(4) Reverse osmosis
(2) there is no boundary between system and
surrounding.
94. What is the molarity of NaOH solution if 250 mL
(3) the surroundings are always in equilibrium
of it contains 1 mg of NaOH?
with system.
(1) 10–1 M (2) 10–2 M
–4
(4) the system changes into the surroundings
(3) 10 M (4) 10–3 M
spontaneously.
 [Practice Test-02 | Yakeen NEET (2025) | 16/06/2024]
Cell cycle and Cell Division

SECTION-(III) BOTANY
109. In animal cells, DNA replication and centriole
SECTION-A
duplication begins in;
101. Yeast can progress through the cell cycle in about; (1) cytoplasm only.
(1) 90 seconds. (2) 90 minutes. (2) cytoplasm and nucleus respectively.
(3) 90 hours. (4) 45 minutes. (3) nucleus only.
(4) nucleus and cytoplasm respectively.
102. Identify the correct option for the given stage of
cell cycle represented by P and Q. 110. Given below are two statements:
Statement-I: The plane of alignment of the
chromosomes at metaphase is referred to as the
metaphase plate.
Statement-II: The complete disintegration of the
nuclear envelope marks the start of the second
phase of mitosis.
In the light of the above statements, choose the
P Q most appropriate answer from the options given
(1) P-Prophase, Q-Telophase below:
(2) P-Telophase, Q-Prophase (1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
(3) P-Anaphase, Q-Telophase incorrect.
(4) P-Anaphase, Q-Metaphase (2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement-II is
correct.
103. The X-shaped structures observed during meiosis (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
are; (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are
(1) chiasmata. incorrect.
(2) synaptonemal complex.
(3) bivalent complex. 111. Spindle fibres attach on to _______ during cell
(4) kinetochores. division.
(1) kinetosome of the chromosome.
104. The interphase lasts more than ____% of the (2) telomere of the chromosome.
duration of cell cycle.
(3) kinetochore of the chromosomes.
(1) 80 (2) 70
(4) centromere of the chromosome.
(3) 95 (4) 75

105. Centriole in animal cells duplicate during; 112. Match List-I with List-II.
(1) G1 phase. (2) G2 phase. List-I List-II
(3) S phase. (4) M phase. (A) Chromosomes move (I) Pachytene
to equator
106. Heart cells cannot undergo cell division. These (B) Centromere splits (II) Zygotene
cells are probably considered in; and chromatids
(1) G2 phase. (2) S phase. move apart
(3) mitosis. (4) G0 phase. (C) Pairing between (III) Anaphase
homologous
107. Bivalent in meiosis is formed during; chromosomes
(1) pachytene. (2) diplotene. (D) Crossing over (IV) Metaphase
(3) zygotene. (4) diakinesis. between
homologous
108. How many of the following are incorrect for
chromosomes
interkinesis of cell cycle?
Choose the correct answer from the option given
A. Doubling of amount of DNA per cell.
below:
B. Centromere splitting.
(1) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
C. Chromatids arranged on equatorial plate.
(2) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
D. Short lived.
(3) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
(1) Four (2) One
(4) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
(3) Two (4) Three
113. Four haploid cells are formed at the end of; 120. Crossing over occurs between;
(1) telophase. (2) meiosis I. (1) sister chromatids of homologous
(3) mitosis. (4) meiosis II. chromosomes.
(2) non-sister chromatids of homologous
chromosomes.
114. ___________ begins with the simultaneous
(3) sister chromatids of non-homologous
splitting of the centromere of each chromosome,
chromosomes.
allowing them to move toward opposite poles of
(4) non-sister chromatids of non-homologous
the cell.
chromosomes.
(1) Anaphase-I. (2) Anaphase-II.
(3) Telophase-I. (4) Telophase-II. 121. __________ which had undergone duplication
during interphase, begins to move towards opposite
115. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as poles of the cell in prophase.
Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R: (1) Chromosome (2) Chromatid
Assertion A: Liquid endosperm in coconut is (3) Centrosome (4) DNA
syncytial.
Reason R: In some organisms karyokinesis is not 122. Given below are two statements:
followed by cytokinesis as a result of which Statement-I: Cells at the end of metaphase, when
multinucleate condition arises. viewed under the microscope, show Golgi
In the light of the above statements, choose the complexes and endoplasmic reticulum.
correct answer from the options given below: Statement-II: Cells at the end of prophase, when
(1) A is true but R is false. viewed under the microscope, do not show
(2) A is false but R is true. nucleolus and the nuclear envelope.
(3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct In the light of the above statements, choose the
explanation of A. most appropriate answer from the options given
below:
(4) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct
explanation of A. (1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
incorrect.
(2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
116. Recombination nodules in cell during meiosis are
correct.
formed before;
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
(1) leptotene. (2) zygotene.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are
(3) pachytene. (4) diplotene.
incorrect.

117. Read the following statements and select the

123. Average duration of cell cycle of a human cell is;
incorrect option.
(1) 12 hours.
(1) Meiosis involves meiosis I and meiosis II.
(2) 16 hours.
(2) Gametes are formed from specialised diploid
cells by mitosis. (3) 20 hours.
(3) Mitosis is involved in repairing of worn out (4) 24 hours.
cells.
(4) Meiosis involves pairing of homologous 124. Mitosis is important as it helps in;
chromosomes. (1) the growth of multicellular organism.
(2) cell repair.
118. Interphase includes all of the following except; (3) production of diploid daughter cells with
(1) G1 phase. (2) M-phase. identical genetic complement.
(3) S phase. (4) G2 phase. (4) All of these

119. Tetrad formation of chromosomes during cell 125. Which of the following does not occur during
division in meiosis is clearly visible during; mitotic prophase?
(1) leptotene. (1) Disappearance of the nuclear envelope.
(2) zygotene. (2) Chromosome condensation.
(3) pachytene. (3) Migration of centrioles towards the cell poles.
(4) diplotene. (4) Synapsis of homologous chromosomes.
126. Identify the correct stage of cell division shown in 131. Metaphase chromosome is made up of _________
the following diagram. sister chromatids, which are held together by the
centromere.
(1) one (2) three
(3) four (4) two

132. Identify the phase which follows S and G2 phases

of interphase.
(1) Prophase (2) Metaphase
(3) Anaphase (4) Telophase

(1) Prophase-I. 133. How many times does DNA replicate during a cell
(2) Metaphase-I. cycle?
(3) Anaphase-I. (1) Twice during both mitosis and meiosis.
(4) Telophase-I. (2) Once during both mitosis and meiosis.
(3) Once in mitotic cell cycle and twice during
127. Two equatorial plates are formed during which meiosis.
phase of cell cycle; (4) Twice during the mitotic cycle and once
(1) metaphase II. during meiosis.
(2) metaphase I.
(3) M phase. 134. The formation of the new cell wall begins with the
(4) metaphase of mitosis. cell-plate that represents the ___________ between
the walls of two adjacent cells.
128. If the initial amount of DNA is denoted as 2C then (1) nucleolus
the amount of DNA after S-phase will be; (2) middle lamella
(1) 4C. (3) nuclear envelope
(2) 6C. (4) plasma membrane
(3) C.
(4) 2C. 135. Diakinesis represents transition to ___________.
(1) metaphase I (2) diplotene
129. Given below are two statements: (3) pachytene (4) zygotene
Statement-I: Meiotic divisions in the meristematic
tissues like the apical and the lateral cambium,
SECTION-B
result in a continuous growth of plants throughout
their life. 136. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as
Statement-II: Meiosis ends with telophase II. Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R:
In the light of the above statements, choose the Assertion A: Mitosis or the equational division is
most appropriate answer from the options given usually restricted to the diploid cells only.
below: Reason R: In some lower plants and in some social
(1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is insects haploid cells divide by meiosis.
incorrect. In the light of the above statements, choose the
(2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct answer from the options given below:
correct. (1) A is true but R is false.
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct. (2) A is false but R is true.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are (3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
incorrect. explanation of A.
(4) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct
130. As each chromosome moves away from the explanation of A.
equatorial plate, the centromere of each
chromosome remains directed towards the 137. In humans meiosis does not occur in;
________ of the cell during anaphase of mitosis. A. heart cells. B. gut linings cell.
(1) pole C. blood cells. D. epidermis.
(1) A, C and D only
(2) equator
(2) All except D
(3) central line (3) A, B, C and D
(4) edge (4) A and C only
138. The correct sequence of phases of cell cycle is; 145. The M phase starts with the nuclear division,
(1) M → G1 → G2 → S. corresponding to the separation of daughter
(2) G1 → G2 → S → M. chromosomes called A and usually ends with
(3) S → G1 → G2 → M. division of cytoplasm, called B .
(4) G1 → S → G2 → M. (1) A-cytokinesis, B-karyokinesis
(2) A-interkinesis, B-cytokinesis
(3) A-karyokinesis, B-cytokinesis
139. In meiosis, crossing over and exchange of genetic (4) A-interkinesis, B-karyokinesis
material between homologous chromosomes are
catalysed by the enzyme; 146. Identify which phase of cell cycle occurs after
(1) phosphorylase. (2) recombinase. quiescent stage if the cell is going to divide.
(3) transferase. (4) polymerase. (1) M phase (2) G0 phase
(3) G1 phase (4) S phase
140. Cell plate during cell division in plants grows from;
(1) walls to the centre. 147. Mark the incorrect pair.
(2) centre to the walls. (1) Interphase – S phase
(3) in patches. (2) M phase – Metaphase
(4) simultaneously. (3) Meiosis I – Diplotene
(4) Meiosis II – Diakinesis
141. Daughter cells formed after reductional division
are; 148. Given below are two statement: one is labelled as
(1) genetically similar. Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R:
Assertion A: In the S and G2 phases the new DNA
(2) genetically different.
molecules formed are not distinct but intertwined.
(3) enucleate.
Reason R: Prophase in M phase is marked by the
(4) multinucleate. initiation of condensation of chromosomal
material.
142. Given below are two statement: one is labelled as
In the light of the above statements, choose the
Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R:
correct answer from the options given below:
Assertion A: G1 phase of cell cycle is characterised
(1) A is true but R is false
by the presence of chiasmata.
(2) A is false but R is true
Reason R: In oocytes of some vertebrates, (3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
diplotene can last for months or years. explanation of A.
In the light of the above statements, choose the (4) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct
correct answer from the options given below: explanation of A.
(1) A is true but R is false
(2) A is false but R is true 149. Select the mismatch from the following if the cell
(3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct has diploid ploidy level at G1 phase during mitosis.
explanation of A. (1) S phase - Diploid
(4) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct (2) G2 phase - Diploid
explanation of A. (3) Metaphase - Diploid
(4) Anaphase - Haploid
143. Read the following statements w.r.t the
synaptonemal complex and select the correct 150. Match the List-I with List-II.
option. List-I List-II
A. It appears between homologous (A) Interphase (I) Cell growth and
chromosomes. Protein synthesis
B. It is formed during zygotene stage. occurs
C. It is formed by a pair of synapsed homologous (B) G2 phase (II) Most dramatic
chromosomes is called a tetravalent. phase of cell
D. It is formed during the first stage of prophase cycle
I which is short lived compared to pachytene. (C) M phase (III) Resting phase of
(1) A, C and D only (2) All except D cell cycle.
(3) B, C and D only (4) A and B only (D) S phase (IV) DNA replication
Choose the correct answer from the options given
144. Prophase of the _________ meiotic division is below:
typically longer and more complex when compared (1) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
to prophase of mitosis. (2) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
(1) first (2) second (3) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
(3) third (4) fourth (4) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
 [Practice Test-02 | Yakeen NEET (2025) | 16/06/2024]
Complete chapter Breathing and exchange of gases

SECTION-(IV) ZOOLOGY
SECTION-A 157. Given below are two statements.
151. One molecule of haemoglobin carries _______ Statement I: Mammals respire through gills.
oxygen molecules. Statement II: Mechanism of breathing vary
Choose the correct option to fill the blank. among different groups of animals.
(1) one (2) two In the light of the above statements, choose the
(3) three (4) four most appropriate answer from the options given
below.
152. Which of the following cannot be measured by
spirometer? (1) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
(1) VC true.
(2) TV (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(3) IRV (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(4) RV (4) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
false.
153. Receptors associated with aortic arch and carotid
artery can recognise changes in concentration of;
(1) O2 only. 158. Inspiration occurs if the pressure within the lungs
(2) H+ only. is _____ the atmospheric pressure.
(3) CO2 and H+. Choose the correct option to fill the blank.
(4) O2 and CO2. (1) less than
(2) more than
154. Which of the following are the functions of
(3) equal to
conducting part of the respiratory system?
I. Transportation of the atmospheric air to the (4) none of these
alveoli.
II. Clears atmospheric air from foreign particles. 159. Choose the incorrect statement.
III. Humidifies atmospheric air. (1) Long exposure to dust can cause occupational
IV. Brings the atmospheric air to body respiratory disorders.
temperature.
(2) The nasal chamber opens into pharynx.
V. Diffusion of O2 and CO2 between blood and
atmospheric air. (3) Alveoli are very thick, regular-walled and non-
(1) I, II and III only vascularised bag-like structures.
(2) I, II, III and IV only (4) Solubility of gases affects rate of diffusion.
(3) I, II, III, IV and V
(4) I, II, III and V only 160. The partial pressures (in mmHg) of oxygen (O2)
and carbon dioxide (CO2) at alveoli are;
155. Alveolar diffusion membrane comprises of;
(1) alveolar epithelium. (1) pO2 = 40 and pCO2 = 45.
(2) basement substance. (2) pO2 = 95 and pCO2 = 40.
(3) capillary endothelium. (3) pO2 = 159 and pCO2 = 0.3.
(4) all of these (4) pO2 = 104 and pCO2 = 40.

156. Carbon dioxide entering erythrocytes reacts with

161. What percentage of CO2 is carried by
water in RBCs to form carbonic acid. The enzyme
haemoglobin as carbamino-haemoglobin?
involved is;
(1) carbonic anhydrase. (1) 3-5
(2) carboxypeptidase. (2) 90-95
(3) hydrolase. (3) 20-25
(4) oxidoreductase. (4) 70-75
162. Given below are two statements. 166. Which of the following options is incorrect w.r.t
Statement I: Epiglottis helps to prevent the entry the graph given below?
of food into the larynx.
Statement II: Binding of oxygen with
haemoglobin is only related to partial pressure of
CO2.
In the light of the above statements, choose the
most appropriate answer from the options given
below.
(1) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
(1) The curve is called oxygen dissociation curve.
true. (2) ‘A’ represents percentage saturation of
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true. haemoglobin with oxygen.
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false. (3) ‘B’ represents partial pressure of carbon dioxide.
(4) Statement I is correct but Statement II is (4) This curve is highly useful in studying the effect
of factors like pCO2, H+ concentration, etc. in
false. respiration.

163. Total lung capacity (TLC) is the total volume of 167. Human respiratory system has __A__ of external
nostrils opening out above the __B__.
air accommodated in the lungs at the end of a
Choose the correct option to fill the blank.
forced inspiration. This includes; (1) A – single, B – upper lips
(1) RV, ERV, IC and EC. (2) A – pair, B – lower lips
(2) RV, ERV, VC and FRC. (3) A – pair, B – upper lips
(4) A – single, B – lower lips
(3) RV, ERV, TV and IRV.
(4) RV, IC, EC and ERV. 168. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as
Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason
164. Choose the incorrect statement. (R):
Assertion (A): Inspiration and expiration are the
(1) Flatworms exchange respiratory gases by simple two stages of respiration.
diffusion over their body surface. Reason (R): Alveolar air is exhaled during
(2) Expiration take place when the intra-pulmonary inspiration.
In the light of the above statements, choose the
pressure is lower than atmospheric pressure.
correct answer from the options given below.
(3) Diffusion membrane is made up of 3 major (1) A is true but R is false.
layers of thickness less than 1 mm. (2) A is false but R is true.
(4) Tidal volume is approx. 500 mL in a healthy (3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A.
man.
(4) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
explanation of A.
165. Match the List-I with List-II.
List-I List-II 169. Read the following statements.
(A) Branchial respiration (I) Through lungs I. The outer pleural membrane is in close
(B) Tracheal respiration (II) Through skin contact with the thoracic lining.
(C) Pulmonary (III) Through a II. The inner pleural membrane is in contact
respiration network of tubes with the lung surface.
III. The part starting with the external nostrils up
(D) Cutaneous (IV) Through gills
to the terminal bronchioles constitute the
respiration
conducting part.
Choose the correct answer from the options given IV. The maximum volume of air a person can
below. breathe in after a forced expiration is the vital
(1) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II capacity.
(2) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II Which of the above statement/s is/are correct?
(3) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III (1) I, II and III only (2) II and IV only
(4) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I (3) I, II and IV only (4) I, II, III and IV
170. About 97% of oxygen is transported by RBCs, the 175. Trachea is a straight tube extending up to the mid-
remaining 3% is; thoracic cavity which divides at the level of;
(1) retained in lungs. (1) 5th thoracic vertebrae.
(2) transported in dissolved state through plasma. (2) 4th thoracic vertebrae.
(3) attached to cell membrane. (3) 3rd thoracic vertebrae.
(4) inside mitochondria. (4) 7th thoracic vertebrae.

171. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as 176. The volume of CO2 transported by 100 mL of
Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason deoxygenated blood to the alveoli is;
(R): (1) 4 mL. (2) 5 mL.
Assertion (A): Lower invertebrates exchange (3) 15 mL. (4) 20 mL
gases through simple diffusion.
Reason (R): Lower invertebrates exchange O2 177. Given below are two statements.
with CO2 over their entire body surface. Statement I: Breathing is commonly known as
respiration.
In the light of the above statements, choose the
Statement II: Spirometer helps in clinical
correct answer from the options given below.
assessment of pulmonary functions.
(1) A is true but R is false.
In the light of the above statements, choose the
(2) A is false but R is true.
most appropriate answer from the options given
(3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
below.
explanation of A. (1) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
(4) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct true.
explanation of A. (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
172. How many of the following structures are (4) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
supported by incomplete cartilaginous rings? false.
Primary bronchi, Secondary bronchi, Tertiary
bronchi, Trachea, Pharynx 178. The process of exchange of O2 from the
(1) Three (2) Four atmosphere with CO2 produced by the cells is
(3) Five (4) Two called;
(1) respiration.
173. We have the ability to increase the strength of (2) breathing.
inspiration and expiration with the help of; (3) metabolism.
(1) additional muscles in abdomen. (4) both (1) and (2)
(2) additional muscles in ribs.
(3) additional muscles in lungs. 179. Which of the following structure is a cartilaginous
(4) additional muscles in trachea. box in the human respiratory system?
(1) Larynx
174. Match the List-I with List-II. (2) Pharynx
List-I List-II (3) Trachea
(4) Bronchioles
(A) Functional residual (I) 3000 mL
capacity
180. The double membrane covering of the lung is
(B) Inspiratory reserve (II) 2100 mL
called;
volume
(1) pericardium.
(C) Inspiratory capacity (III) 1100 mL
(2) perichondrium.
(D) Residual volume (IV) 2500 mL
(3) peritoneum.
Choose the correct answer from the options given (4) pleural membrane.
below.
(1) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II 181. Additional volume of air, a person can expire by a
(2) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II forcible expiration is called;
(3) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III (1) TV. (2) ERV.
(4) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I (3) IRV. (4) EC.
182. Which of the following is the correct sequence of 188. The direction of concentration gradient for CO2 is
human respiratory tract? from;
(1) Nasal chamber  pharynx  larynx  (1) tissues to blood and blood to alveoli.
trachea (2) blood to tissues and tissues to alveoli.
(2) Pharynx  nasal chamber  larynx  (3) alveoli to blood and blood to tissues.
trachea (4) tissues to blood and alveoli to blood.
(3) Larynx  nasal chamber  pharynx 
trachea 189. Neural signal from _____ can reduce the duration
(4) Trachea  nasal chamber  pharynx 
of inspiration.
trachea
Choose the correct option to fill the blank.
183. Gases diffuse over the respiratory surface (1) chemosensitive area
because; (2) cardiovascular rhythm centre
(1) pO2 is more in alveoli than in blood. (3) pneumotaxic centre
(2) pO2 is more in tissues than in blood. (4) receptors associated with aortic arch and carotid
(3) pCO2 is more in alveoli than in blood. artery
(4) pCO2 is more in blood than in tissues.
190. Pressure within the lungs is called;
184. Respiratory part of the human respiratory system (1) inter-pulmonary pressure.
is formed from; (2) intra-pulmonary pressure.
(1) external nostrils up to the alveoli. (3) interstitial pressure.
(2) external nostrils to initial bronchioles. (4) both (1) and (2)
(3) trachea to terminal bronchioles.
(4) alveoli to ducts of alveoli. 191. Given below are two statements.
Statement I: Pressure contributed by an
185. Structure which does not contribute to the
individual gas in a mixture of gases is called
breathing movement in mammals is;
(1) larynx. (2) ribs. partial pressure.
(3) diaphragm. (4) intercostal muscles. Statement II: Aquatic arthropods and molluscs
exhibit branchial respiration.
SECTION-B In the light of the above statements, choose the
186. Match the List-I with List-II. most appropriate answer from the options given
List-I List-II below.
(A) Larynx (I) Lid of glottis (1) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
(B) Trachea (II) Air sacs true.
(C) Alveoli (III) Voice box (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(D) Epiglottis (IV) Wind pipe (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
Choose the correct answer from the options (4) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
given below. false.
(1) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
(2) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II 192. Body tissues obtain oxygen from oxyhaemoglobin
(3) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I because of its dissociation in tissues is caused by;
(4) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I (1) low oxygen concentration only.
(2) low carbon dioxide concentration only.
187. Given below are two statements. (3) low H+ concentration only.
Statement I: The binding of O2 with a (4) low oxygen concentration and high carbon
haemoglobin to form oxyhaemoglobin is an dioxide concentration.
irreversible process.
Statement II: Pneumotaxic centre present in the
193. Wheezing due to inflammation of bronchi and
pons.
bronchioles is seen in;
In the light of the above statements, choose the
(1) pneumonia. (2) asthma.
most appropriate answer from the options given
below. (3) tuberculosis. (4) bronchitis.
(1) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
true. 194. Alveoli become enlarged and damaged with
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true. reduced surface area in heavy smokers. This
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false. condition is called;
(4) Statement I is correct but Statement II is (1) silicosis. (2) emphysema.
false. (3) asthma. (4) bronchitis.
195. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as 198. Control centre of normal breathing in mammals is;
Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (1) cerebrum.
(R): (2) cerebellum.
Assertion (A): Alveoli are the primary site for
exchange of gases in human respiratory system. (3) midbrain.
Reason (R): Only CO2 is exchanged in alveoli by (4) medulla oblongata.
simple diffusion.
In the light of the above statements, choose the 199. External and internal intercostal muscles are
correct answer from the options given below. present in;
(1) A is true but R is false.
(2) A is false but R is true. (1) diaphragm.
(3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct (2) pharynx.
explanation of A. (3) lungs.
(4) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct (4) between the ribs.
explanation of A.
200. Select the correct sequence of steps of
196. Contraction of diaphragm increases the volume of respiration.
thoracic chamber in the; I. Diffusion of gases (O2 and CO2) across
(1) antero-posterior axis. alveolar membrane.
(2) dorso-ventral axis. II. Diffusion of O2 and CO2 between blood and
(3) ventro-lateral axis. tissues.
(4) dorso-lateral axis. III. Transport of gases by the blood.
IV. Pulmonary ventilation by which atmospheric
197. Tidal volume and expiratory reserve volume of an air is drawn in and CO2 rich alveolar air is
athlete is 500 mL and 1000 mL respectively. What released out.
will be his expiratory capacity if the residual V. Utilisation of O2 by the cells for catabolic
volume is 1200 mL? reactions are resultant release of CO2.
(1) 1500 mL (1) IV  I  III  II  V
(2) 1700 mL (2) III  II  I  V  IV
(3) 2200 mL (3) II  III  V  IV  I
(4) 2700 mL (4) I  III  II  V  IV

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