BT LONG QUIZ (PART I) NAME: ________________________________________SECTION: ______

1. Which among the following is not a cold-working steel process?

a. Forging b. Annealing c. Tempering d. Extrusion
2. It is the process of squeezing a material through a shaped orifice (called a die) to produce a linear element with the desired cross
section. Aluminum profiles are the most common product of this process.
a. Moulding b. Die casting c. Extrusion d. Forging
3. Which of the following is least appropriate for joining steel members?
a. Bolts b. Rivets c. Screws d. Welds
4. A type of metal decking where two sheets, one corrugated and one flat, are welded together and can be made sufficiently stiff to
support normal floor loads without structural assistance from the concrete fill that is poured over it to produce a level floor.
a. Cellular decking b. Composite decking c. Form decking d. Roof decking
5. Among the different methods of stabilizing the frame of buildings, which one produces the most rigid frame?
a. Diagonal Bracing b. Diaphragm c. Moment Connections d. Shear Panels e. Cladding
6. Structural steel usually have markings or designations as assigned by ASTM, such as A36 or A325. What does the letter "A" in
these markings mean?
a. "A" stands for alloy. d. "A" means that it passed through ASTM standard.
b. "A" means first-class type of steel material. e. "A" refers to the strength of the steel material.
c. Being the primary metal material in construction, "A" is the designation for steel.
7. Which is the heaviest among the following metals?
a. Chromium b. Lead c. Steel d. Titanium
8. Arrange in ascending order the following carbon steels in terms percentage carbon content.
a. Spring steel – Medium steel – Mild steel – Hard steel
b. Spring steel – Mild steel – Medium steel – Hard steel
c. Mild steel – Medium steel – Spring steel – Hard steel
d. Mild steel – Medium steel – Hard steel – Spring steel
9. A steel beam fabricated by the dividing the web of a wide-flange section with a lengthwise zigzag cut, then welding both halves
together at the peaks, thus increasing its depth without increasing its weight.
a. Open web steel joist b. Box girder c. Castellated beam d. Built-up section
10. Which steel jamb anchorage shown below is most appropriate for connection to steel stud walls?
A. B. C. D.

11. There are many ways to shape metals. Among the following shaping processes listed in the choices below, which one tends to
produce a weaker metal?
a. Casting b. Forging c. Drawing d. Rolling
12. What is the letter designation for I-beams?
a. C b. L c. S d. W
13. It is actually a trademark for a brand of steel pipe column, usually filled with concrete.
a. HSS column b. Kern section c. Lally column d. Young’s modulus e. Terne metal
14. What is the main alloy component of stainless steel?
a. Chromium b. Manganese c. Nickel d. Zinc
15. Which of the following alloys has lead as primary ingredient?
a. Brass b. Bronze c. Muntz metal d. Red brass e. Terne metal
16. Iron with very high carbon content.
a. Alloy b. Steel c. Wrought iron d. Cast iron
17. Iron with a controlled amount of carbon, generally less than 1.7%.
a. Alloy b. Cast iron c. Wrought iron d. Steel
18. An alloy consisting essentially of copper and zinc.
a. Bauxite b. Brass c. Bronze d. Muntz e. Terne
19. A weld at the inside intersection of two metal surfaces that meet at right angles.
a. Butt weld b. Groove weld c. Puddle weld d. Fillet weld
20. The application of zinc coating to steel as a means of preventing corrosion.
a. Anodizing b. Galvanizing c. Oxidation d. Priming
21. A measure of thickness of sheet material.
a. Gauge b. Grade c. Plate d. Sheet
22. The American standard beam section.
a. I-beam b. Wide flange c. Cee section d. Structural tee
23. To strengthen or toughen a metal by reheating at a lower temperature and slowly cooling the material.
a. Anneal b. Forge c. Temper d. Cold-roll
24. Flat rolled metal less than ¼” in thickness.
a. Ingot b. Plate c. Sheet d. Slag
25. A truss that spans with two-way action.
a. Space frame b. Staggered truss system c. Vierendeel truss d. Howe truss
BT LONG QUIZ (PART II) NAME: ________________________________________ SECTION: _______

1. Which cement mortar type is graded as very-low-strength mortar suitable only for use in interior non-loadbearing wall where permitted
by building code?
a. Type K b. Type M c. Type N d. Type O e. Type S
2. Squared stonework
a. Ashlar b. Fieldstone c. Flagstone d. Rubble e. Stone course
3. Brickwork consisting entirely of stretchers.
a. Common bond b. Construction bond c. English bond d. Flemish bond e. Running bond
4. Masonry walls can be carried by beams, if available, to reduce the load borne by the wall below. What is the convenient support
member attached to the beam to bear the load of the masonry wall?
a. Anchors b. Corbel c. Shelf angle d. Spandrel e. Ties
5. A substance used to join masonry units, consisting of cementitious materials, fine aggregate, and water.
a. Filler b. Grout c. Mortar d. Plaster e. Stucco
6. Which burned clay unit is the most impervious?
a. Brick b. Ceramic tile c. Quarry tile d. Terra cotta e. Vigan tile
7. Sun-dried brick made of clay and straw, commonly used in countries with little rainfall.
a. Adobe b. Bisque c. Pise d. Quarry tile e. Terra cotta
8. A brickwork or masonry bond having successive courses of stretchers with all head joints aligned vertically.
a. Common bond b. English bond c. Garden wall bond d. Running bond e. Stack bond
9. Flashing is a common feature in masonry construction, especially where there are cavity walls. Where is counterflashing usually
applied?
a. At the base of a masonry wall. c. At the lintel of door or window. e. At the parapet.
b. At the window sill. d. At a recess or projection in a wall.
10. Brickwork laid with each course consisting of alternating headers and stretchers.
a. Common bond b. Flemish bond c. English bond d. Running bond e. Stack bond
11. Brickwork laid with alternating courses each consisting entirely of headers and stretchers.
a. Common bond b. Flemish bond c. English bond d. Running bond e. Stack bond
12. Which of the following does not fall under the category of masonry?
a. Dimension stone b. Glass blocks c. Stone cladding d. CHB e. Terrazzo
13. A spanning device in which masonry units in successive courses are cantilevered slightly over one another.
a. Cantilever b. Corbel c. Overhng d. Quoin e. Spandrel
14. A horizontal layer of masonry units one unit high is known as
a. Course b. Lead c. Lift d. Tier e. Wythe
15. Which of the following is not a burned clay tile?
a. Ceramic tile b. Brick c. Terra cotta d. Terrazzo e. None. All are burned clays
16. This is the term for the material that fills the cavities found in between wythes or masonry walls.
a. Back plaster b. Bond c. Grout d. Joint e. Mortar
17. A vertical layer of masonry that is one masonry unit thick.
a. Course b. Rowlock c. Soldier d. Stretcher e. Wythe
18. A brick laid where its broadest surface is horizontal and its length is parallel to the surface of the wall.
a. Header b. Rowlock c. Sailor d. Shiner e. Stretcher
19. A brick laid on its long edge, with its end exposed in the face of the wall.
a. Header b. Rowlock c. Sailor d. Shiner e. Stretcher
20. A brick laid horizontally on the longer edge with the broad face exposed.
a. Header b. Rowlock c. Sailor d. Shiner e. Stretcher
21. Which of the following is not a troweled joint?
a. Flush joint b. Raked joint c. Struck joint d. Vee joint e. Weathered joint
22. Which among the following joint profiles for brickwork are most suitable for outdoor use?
a. Weathered joint and struck joint c. Flush joint and troweled joint e. Any of the above
b. Raked joint and stripped joint d. Concave joint and vee joint
23. In masonry terminology, it is the act of filling or finishing the surface of a masonry joint with mortar after the masonry unit has been laid,
either to finish the joint or to repair a defective joint.
a. Clipping b. Pointing c. Tucking d. Tooling e. Troweling
24. In unit masonry, which among the following joints lie parallel to the wall?
a. Bed joint b. Clip joint c. Collar joint d. Head joint e. Shoved joint
25. What is the term for the exterior angle of a masonry wall, or one of the stones or bricks forming such an angle, usually differentiated
from adjoining surfaces in terms of material, texture, color, size or projection?
a. Cordon b. Cornerstone c. Embrasure d. Perpend e. Quoin
BT LONG QUIZ (PART III) NAME: ________________________________________SECTION: _____________

1. Distortion from shrinkage of sawn lumber depends on the position of the piece of lumber occupied in the tree. Which sawing
method produces the most pronounced distortion?
a. Bandsawn b. Plainsawn c. Quartersawn d. Rotary sawn
2. A lumber that has been worked with a tongue on one edge of each piece and a groove on the opposite edge.
a. Dressed lumber b. Matched lumber c. Shiplapped lumber d. Patterned lumber
3. Lengths of wood, rectangular in cross section, sawed directly from a log.
a. Dimension lumber b. Nominal dimension c. Sawn lumber d. Soft lumber
4. Which type of wood siding is suitable for both horizontal and vertical installation?
a. Plain bevel b. Rabbeted bevel c. Tongue and groove d. Shiplap
5. Where a rafter is provided with eaves, what will be the cut at the underside of the rafter to bear on the top of the wall below it?
a. Check cut b. Seat cut c. Bird’s mouth d. Top cut
6. Which of the following wood panel products has wood veneers?
a. Composite panel b. Waferboard c. Particleboard d. Oriented strand board
7. Which of the following lengthening joints is the simplest?
a. Finger joint b. Fish joint c. Scarf joint d. Square splice
8. Wooden strips laid upon a concrete slab to provide a means of attaching wood floors.
a. Sill b. Sleeper c. Nailer d. Battens
9. Nailing to the surface at an angle.
a. Blind nail b. Face nail c. End nail d. Toe nail
10. To bond together in layers.
a. Joint b. Laminate c. Glue d. Seal

A. B. C. D.
11. The photos above show different types of saws. Identify D.
a. Band saw b. Jigsaw c. Miter saw d. Table saw
12. There are four types of seasoning distortions in dimension lumber. Which one in the figures below is crook?

A. B. C. D.

13. Which is the strongest among non-veneered wood panel products?

a. Plywood panels b. Composite panels c. Oriented strand board d. Waferboard e. Particleboard
14. A viscous, dough-like adhesive substance, formulated for different purposes such as sealants, adhesives, glazing compounds, or
roofing cements.
a. Glue b. Mastic c. Mortar d. Epoxy
15. These are manufactured wood components that are made of wood shreds oriented parallel to the long axis of each piece and
bonded together with adhesive.
a. LVL b. MDF c. OSB d. PSL
16. Which is the most efficient slicing for veneer panel production?
a. Flat slicing b. Quarter slicing c. Rift cutting d. Rotary slicing
17. Which lengthening joint has better tension resistance?
a. End joint b. Square splice c. Scarf joint d. Finger joint
18. Among wood beams, which one has steel component?
a. Flitch beam b. I-joist c. Built-up beam d. Box beam
19. The finish piece that covers the joint between a window stool and the wall finish.
a. Sash b. Casing c. Sill d. Apron
20. Pieces of wood inserted tightly between joists, studs, or rafters in a building frame to stabilize the structure, inhibit the passage of
fire, provide a nailing surface for finish materials, or retain insulation.
a. Blocking b. Bridging c. Firestop d. Let in
21. A nail driven through the side of one piece of lumber and into the end of another.
a. Blind nail b. Toe nail c. Face nail d. End nail
22. A complex polymeric carbohydrate of which the structural fibers in wood are composed.
a. Xylem b. Cambium c. Lignin d. Cellulose
23. A flattening of a longitudinal edge of a solid member on a plane that lies at an angle of 45º to the adjoining planes.
a. Bevel b. Chamfer c. Miter d. Fillet
24. Bracing installed between steel or wood joists at midspan to stabilize them against buckling and permit adjacent joists to share
loads.
 a. Blocking b. Bridging c. Let in d. Ledger
25. Exposed to view, or a material that is exposed to view.
a. Finish b. Hardware c. Roughing in d. Face material
26. A thin piece of material placed between two components to adjust their relative positions as they are assembled.
a. Mortar b. Spline c. Thrust block d. Shim
27. A sloping end cut on a wood beam or joist where it enters a masonry wall, whose purpose is to allow the wood member to rotate
out of the wall without prying the wall apart.
a. Bevel b. Plumb cut c. Firecut d. Diagonal joist
28. Smooth, lying on a single plane.
a. Abutment b. Course c. Flush d. Level
29. A heavy U-shaped staple used to tie the ends of heavy timbers together.
a. U-bolt b. U-stirrup c. Bird’s mouth d. Iron dog
30. A building type with exterior masonry bearing walls and an interior framework of heavy timbers and solid timber decking.
a. Ordinary construction b. Mill construction c. Western construction d. Cabin construction
31. A diagonal cut at the end of a piece, whose joint is produced by joining two diagonally cut pieces at right angels.
a. Bevel b. Chamfer c. Fillet d. Miter
32. A building type with exterior masonry bearing walls and an interior structure of balloon framing.
a. Ordinary construction b. Mill construction c. Western construction d. Cabin construction
33. A glued end connection between two pieces of wood, using a sloping cut to create a large surface for the glue bond, to allow it to
develop the full tensile strength of the wood that it connects.
a. Butt joint b. Finger joint c. Scarf joint d. Mortise and tenon
34. The horizontal bottom portion of a window or a door.
a. Sill b. Apron c. Threshold d. Ledger
35. The strip of wood that lies immediately on top of a concrete or masonry foundation in wood frame construction.
a. Sill b. Sole plate c. Top plate d. Ledger
36. The horizontal piece of dimension lumber at the bottom of the studs in a wall in a light frame building.
a. Sill b. Sole plate c. Top plate d. Ledger
37. The sloping wood or steel member that supports the treads of a stair.
a. Coping b. Carriage c. Railing d. Stringer
38. The loadbearing surface beneath a finish floor.
a. Floor joist b. Substrate c. Underlayment d. Subfloor
39. A panel laid over a subfloor to create a smooth, stiff surface for application of finish flooring.
a. Sheathing b. Subfloor c. Substrate d. Underlayment
40. A wood panel made by binding together large, flat flakes of wood.
a. Laminated wood b. Plyboard c. Particleboard d. Waferboard
41. A system of framing a building in which the studs are continuous to roof supporting second floor joists.
a. Post and beam b. Western framing c. Balloon framing d. Platform framing
BT LONG QUIZ (PART IV) NAME: ________________________________________SECTION: _____________

1. Which type of roof shape uses a knee wall as part of its structural frame?
a. Shed roof b. Gable roof c. Gambrel roof d. Hip roof
2. The term for a material installed over a roof membrane to prevent wind uplift and shield the membrane from sunlight.
a. Ballast b. Topping c. Batten d. Coping
3. Which among the following trusses has no vertical web?
a. Belgian truss b. Howe truss c. King truss d. Pratt truss
4. Where a rafter is provided with eaves, what will be the cut at the underside of the rafter to bear on the top of the wall below it?
a. Cheek cut b. Seat cut c. Bird’s mouth d. Top cut
5. The roof member that supports the rake overhang.
a. Soffit b. Jack c. Lookout d. Spandrel
6. When a gable or hip roof is not provided with a ceiling joist, what alternative structural element is provided to maintain stability for
the rafters?
a. King post b. Knee wall c. Ridge beam d. Collar beam
7. A structure protruding through the plane of a sloping roof usually containing a window & having its own smaller roof.
a. Attic b. Bay c. Dormer d. Lookout
8. A vertical pipe for conducting water from a roof to a lower level.
a. Downspout b. Gutter c. Riser d. Scupper
9. The exposed vertical face of an eave.
a. Fascia b. Gutter c. Header d. Stringer
10. A rafter in a rake overhang.
a. Cripple b. Lookout c. Jack rafter d. Fly rafter
11. A roof consisting of two oppositely sloping planes that intersect at a level ridge.
a. Gable roof c. Gambrel roof
b. Hip roof d. Mansard roof
12. A membrane roof assembly in which the thermal insulation lies above the membrane.
a. Inverted roof c. Roof sheathing
b. Interstitial ceiling d. Underlayment
13. A shortened rafter that joins a hip or valley rafter.
a. Jack rafter b. Fly rafter c. Cripple d. Lookout
14. A short wall under the slope of a roof.
a. Collar c. Knee wall
b. Bird’s mouth d. Parapet
15. The sloping edge of a steep roof.
a. Eave b. Rake c. Soffit d. Shed
16. The horizontal edge at the low side of a sloping roof.
a. Soffit b. Rake c. Gutter d. Eave
17. The underside of a horizontal element of a building, especially the underside of a roof overhang.
a. Soffit b. Rake c. Gutter d. Eave
18. Roofing tile having S-shaped cross section laid so the downturn of one overlaps the upturn of the next in same course.
a. Mission tile b. Pantile c. Spanish tile d. Arris tile
19. Which of the following insulating materials for low-slope (flat) roofs is fire resistant and therefore compatible with hot bitumens
(asphalt)?
a. Polystyrene foam board c. Polyurethane foam board
b. Polyisocyanurate foam board d. Perlitic board
20. A trough formed by the intersection of two roof slopes.
a. Gutter b. Hip c. Ridge d. Valley
21. Which kind of roof is most appropriate for using shingles?
a. Gable roof b. Flat roof c. Steep roof d. Shed roof
22. A roof membrane laminated from layers of asphalt-saturated felt or other fabric, bonded together with bitumen.
a. Built-up roof b. Flat roof c. Inverted roof d. Fluid-applied roof
23. A strip of material with a sloping face used to ease the transition from a horizontal to a vertical surface at the edge of a membrane
roof.
a. Coping b. Cant strip c. Wood curb d. End flashing
24. Which of the following is not a roof membrane?
a. Coping b. Flashing c. BUR d. Roofing sheet e. Shingles
25. What is the primary purpose of roofing?
a. To protect from water and external physical elements. d. To protect from air infiltration.
b. To protect from thermal gain. e. Any of the above
c. To protect from moisture or water vapor.
26. Which of the following wood roof systems has ceilings customarily left exposed?
a. Double roof b. Plank and beam roof c. Rafter roof system d. Trussed rafter roof e. Truss roof
MODULE 1 GENERAL TERMS

ANSWER KEY for QUIZ No. 1. GENERAL TERMS

MULTIPLE CHOICE: Choose the letter of the best answer.
1. What is the relationship between architectural design and plumbing design?
a. The placement of the spaces determines the proper orientation of the plumbing layout
b. The location of the T&Bs, kitchen, laundry area and carport are critical in the accuracy of plumbing installation
c. Orientation of utilitarian spaces is vital to the efficiency of the plumbing system
d. All of the above
2. What is included in the Plumbing System?
a. Water Supply and Sanitary System b. Water Supply and Drainage System
c. Waterworks and Sewerage System d. Water Supply and Storm Drainage System
3. Which among the following is not a plumbing appliance?
a. Drinking Fountain b. Refrigerator c. Faucet d. Washing Machine
4. Which among the following is not a plumbing appurtenance?
a. Shower Head b. Soap Dish c. Faucet d. Washing Machine
5. Which among the following is not a plumbing fixture?
a. Shower Valve b. Bidet c. Lavatory d. Floor Drain
6. Who is responsible for enforcing and administering the NPCP?
a. MWSS b. LWUA c. Administrative Authority d. Building Official
7. Who heads the Local Waterworks and Utilities Administration?
a. Secretary b. Plumbing Official c. LWUA d. Building Official
8. What is MWSS?
a. Manila Water & Sewerage System b. Metropolitan Waterworks & Sewerage System
c. Maynilad Water and Sewerage System d. Metro Manila Waterworks & Sewerage System
9. What is included in the Drainage System?
a. Drain, Waste and Vent b. Sanitary System and Non-Potable Water Supply
c. Sanitary Drainage System and Storm Drainage System d. Sanitary Drainage and Wastewater System
10. What is the scope of alteration?
a. change, addition and modification of major plumbing system only
b. change, addition and modification of plumbing materials only
c. change, addition and modification of appurtenances only
d. change, addition and modification of pipelines only
11. What are the requirements that must be strictly observed in the design of a PWD friendly Toilet?
a. Toilet dimension b. Clear width of door c. Height of lavatory d. All of the above
12. What is the size required for a PWD toilet?
a. 1.20sqm b. 2.16sqm c. 3.06sqm d. 4.00sqm
13. The term used for plumbing work before the settling of the fixtures, or finishing
a. plumbing layout b. plumbing roughing-in c. plumbing installation d. plumbing fit-outs
14. Who is the allied professional involved in plumbing works?
a. Journeyman b. Registered Master Plumber c. Sanitary Engineer d. Plumbing Engineer
15. The term used for a Comfort Room used by the public or T&B used by all the members of the family and/or guests
a. Public Toilet b. Common Comfort Room c. Common Toilet d. Common T&B
16. How would you describe a building?
a. with human habitation b. with utilitarian spaces c. with structural components d. with architectural components only
17. How would you describe a structure?
a. with human habitation b. with utilitarian spaces c. with structural components d. with architectural components only
18. To allow natural flow of air to circulate inside a building, the height between the floor and the ceiling should be
a. 1.80m b. 2.10m c. 2.40m d. 2.70m
19. To allow artificially cooled air to circulate inside a building, the height between the floor and the ceiling should be
a. 1.80m b. 2.10m c. 2.40m d. 2.70m
20. To contain the moisture and wetness only in the shower area, there should be
a. an exhaust fan b. a dehumidifier c. a window d. an electric fan
21. Where is the Main Water Line located if road is wide?
a. under the sidewalk b. near gutter c. centreline of road d. near curb
22. Where is the Main Water Line located if road is narrow?
a. under the sidewalk b. near gutter c. centreline of road d. near curb
23. In architectural design, it is important for an Architect to design strategically the location of Utilitarian spaces necessary to
make the building comfortable to use. Where do you orient the Laundry Area?
a. West b. Northwest c. Southwest d. East
24. In architectural design, it is important for an Architect to design strategically the location of Utilitarian spaces necessary to
make the building comfortable to use. Where do you orient the Kitchen?
a. West b. Northwest c. Southwest d. East
25. What do you call an open, unoccupied space?
a. Atrium b. Courtyard c. Court d. Airwell
MODULE 2 WATER SOURCE, STORAGE, SUPPLY

ANSWER KEY for QUIZ NO. 2. WATER SOURCE, STORAGE, SUPPLY

MULTIPLE CHOICE: Choose the letter of the best answer.
1. What makes water potable?
a. drinkable quality b. with clarity c. with chemical treatment d. with sand and gravel filtration
2. What makes water non-potable?
a. drinkable quality b. with clarity c. with chemical treatment d. with sand and gravel filtration
3. What is considered as High Hazard water?
a. with toxic waste b. with liquid wastec. with polluted matters d. with contaminated matters
4. What is considered as Low Hazard water?
a. with toxic waste b. with liquid waste c. with polluted matters d. with contaminated matters
5. The portion of a rainfall runs off over the surface of the ground
a. Storm Water b. Rain Water c. Ground Water d. Surface Water
6. Water that is standing in; passing through ground is called?
a. Storm Water b. Rain Water c. Ground Water d. Surface Water
7. A type of water well where pipe driven is equipped with well point by maul or pile driver
a. Driven Well b. Drilled Well c. Shallow Well d. Bored Well
8. What is the level of water service provided if water is taken from communal faucet system?
a. Level 1 b. Level 2 c. Level 3 d. None of the above
9. Type of water treatment where granular medium (sand, crushed anthracite coal, or activated carbon) is used?
a. Aeration b. Chlorination c. Filtration d. Coagulation
10. Chlorine is used for
a. Aeration b. Chlorination c. Filtration d. Disinfection
11. Chemicals added to drinking water to adjust hardness or softness, pH, and alkalinity
a. Aeration b. Fluoridation c. Filtration d. Disinfection
12. What minerals are present in ground water?
a. Sodium Chloride b. Ferrous Bicarbonate c. Iron and Magnesium d. Calcitrate
13. Another term for bibb?
a. Cock b. Plug c. Tap d. Faucet
14. A faucet adapted for use in pantry sink?
a. Gooseneck Faucet b. Key Cock c. Self-closing faucet d. Compression Cock
15. A pipe laid in 2% slope is considered a
a. Vertical Pipe b. Riser c. Stack d. Horizontal Pipe
MODULE 3 WATER DISTRIBUTION

ANSWER KEY for QUIZ No. 3. WATER DISTRIBUTION

MULTIPLE CHOICE: Choose the letter of the best answer.
1. You noticed a six-storey building without the presence of an elevated water tank. What is used?
a. indirect downfeed b. indirect upfeed c. booster-feed d. direct upfeed
2. At a certain point in the distribution of water, water stopped, what could be the reason?
a. water is fed from lower level source b. water equated with the level of water source
c. water volume is lesser d. booster pump cannot reach higher level
3. Pump used for low to medium-rise buildings
a. centrifugal pump b. piston pump c. booster pump d. impeller pump
4. Pump used for high-rise buildings
a. centrifugal pump b. piston pump c. booster pump d. impeller pump
5. Most used heating water device
a. Solar Water Heater b. Gas Furnace c. Electric Heater d. Coal Heater
6. Where do you place pump in a pump room?
a. besides the cistern b. under the cistern c. on top of the cistern d. away from the cistern
7. Water is drawn directly from the main water line
a. indirect downfeed b. indirect upfeed c. booster-feed d. direct upfeed
8. Water is drawn indirectly from the main water line to an elevated water tank and delivered by gravity system
a. indirect downfeed b. indirect upfeed c. booster-feed d. direct upfeed
9. Where do you use submersible pumps?
a. cistern b. well c. elevated water tank d. faucet
10. The banging effect present in pipe interior is caused by
a. Air Pressure b. Vacuum c. Water Hammer d. Siphonage
11. How do you address the above situation?
a. Vacuum Breaker b. Air Cushion c. Air Filter d. Air Chamber
12. A valve where flow is cut off by means of a circular disk, at right angles to the direction of flow
a. Globe Valve b. Ball Valve c. Gate Valve d. Cut-off Valve
13. Valve used for boiler, pressure vessel when pressure/temperature exceeds
a. Boiler Blow-off b. Water Hammer c. Check Valve d. Ball Valve
14. Checks reversal of flow of water
a. Boiler Blow-off b. Water Hammer c. Check Valve d. Ball Valve
15. Valve used for throttling water
a. Globe Valve b. Ball Valve c. Gate Valve d. Cut-off Valve
MODULE 4 PLUMBING ROUGHING – IN AND FIXTURES PIPES, FITTINGS, JOINTINGS

ANSWER KEY for QUIZ No. 4. PLUMBING ROUGHING – IN AND FIXTURES

MULTIPLE CHOICE: Choose the letter of the best answer.
1. How would you know if a plastic pipe is of quality material?
a. it has indelible marking b. it is molded c. it is stamped d. it is embossed
2. Pipe has no permanent water supply
a. wet standpipe b. dry standpipe c. fire hose rack d. fire hose cabinet
3. Cast Iron Pipe without a hub is known as
a. no header b. double hub c. single hub d. hubless pipe
4. Pipe used for both CWL and sanitary drainage line
a. PVC b. HDPE c. uPVC d. LDPE
5. Type of jointing for HDPE pipes
a. Welding b. Heat welded c. Electrofusion d. Soldering
6. Type of jointing for Cast Iron Pipes
a. Threading b. fuse welding c. oakum d. caulking
7. A flange without bores that closes the end of a pipe
a. Blind Flange b. Blank Flange c. Mid-flange d. Ferrule
8. Used to connect two straight runs of pipe, the fitting being inside threaded.
a. coupling b. nipple c. bushing d. union
9. Used to connect two straight runs of pipe, the fitting being outside threaded.
a. coupling b. nipple c. bushing d. union
10. A fitting that closes the end of the pipe, the fitting being inside threaded
a. Cap b. Plug c. Ferrule d. Flange
11. A fitting that closes the end of the pipe, the fitting being outside threaded
a. Cap b. Plug c. Ferrule d. Flange
12. A fitting used for joining the service pipe and the distribution pipe
a. Reducer b. Bushing c. Union Patente d. Tailpiece
13. Two-gated outlet used for dry and wet standpipes
a. Wye b. Double Wye c. Single Wye d. Siamese Connection
14. Used to connect the spigot to the bell
a. Shielded Coupling b. Caulking c. Threading d. Soldering
15. The measurement of the diameter of Cast Iron is taken on its
a. Outside Diameter b. N.I.D. c. Internal Diameter d. I.P.S
16. The measurement of the diameter of Copper tubing is taken on its
a. Outside Diameter b. N.I.D. c. Internal Diameter d. I.P.S
17. Used to connect two hubless pipes
a. Shielded Coupling b. Caulking c. Threading d. Soldering
18. Used to bend lead pipes
a. Bending Pin or Iron b. Yoke Vise c. Pipe Vise d. Bending Tool
19. Another name for cleanout plug
a. Ferrule b. Cap c. Plug point d. Flange
20. Copper Pipes jointing
a. Soldering b. Welding c. Brazen Joint d. Electrofusion
MODULE 5 PLUMBING FIXTURES

ANSWER KEY for QUIZ No. 5. PLUMBING FIXTURES

MULTIPLE CHOICE: Choose the letter of the best answer.
1. What is the purpose of a Toilet & Bath?
a. for cleaning b. for washing c. for bathing d. for sanitation and hygiene
2. Used for washing the middle part of the body; genitals
a. Foot Tub b. Bidet c. Bath tub d. wash basin
3. A bidet designed for the invalid and the infirm
a. Foot Tub b. Bidet c. Sitz Bath d. wash basin
4. Minimum size of a T&B as per Rule 8 of the NBCP?
a. 1.50sqm b. 2.00sqm c. 1.20sqm d. 1.80sqm
5. Another term for Lavatory?
a. Pot b. Closet c. Potty d. Wash Basin
6. Flushing water directly from water supply pipes/in connection
a. Flush Tank b. Flush Valve c. Flushometer Tank d. Flushometer Valve
7. Handle has an actuated direct water pressure
a. Flush Tank b. Flush Valve c. Flushometer Tank d. Flushometer Valve
8. Used for flushing/removing excrements
a. Flush Tank b. Flush Valve c. Flushometer Tank d. Flushometer Valve
9. It has an air accumulator vessel; predetermined quantity of water for flushing purposes
a. Flush Tank b. Flush Valve c. Flushometer Tank d. Flushometer Valve
10. Which among these fixtures does not have a P-Trap?
a. Bath Tub b. Water Closet c. Lavatory d. Kitchen Sink
11. It has a cuplike shell allows movement in every direction
a. Ball Joint b. Plug c. Ball Cock d. Ball Valve
12. It is a faucet/valve opened/closed by the fall or rise of a ball floating on the surface of water
a. Ball Joint b. Plug c. Ball Cock d. Flange
13. It is a pot sink used in restaurants and large kitchens
a. Kitchen Sink b. Laundry Tub c. Bar Sink d. Scullery Sink
14. A water closet with continuous trough
a. Siphon Jet b. Latrine c. Washdown d. Blowout
15. Also known as a mop sink
a. Slop Sink b. Service Tub c. Wash Basin d. Laundry Tub
16. A water closet used normally for commercial purposes
a. Siphon Jet b. Latrine c. Washdown d. Blowout
17. Which is not an energy saving feature of a fixture
a. Dual Flush b. 1.5gpf c. Pop-up Faucet d. Waterless Urinal
18. A Lavatory with a stand for covering the P-trap
a. Counter-top b. Pedestal c. Under-the Counter d. Self-Rimming
19. In-sync aerator is placed under a
a. Kitchen Sink b. Laundry Tub c. Bar Sink d. Scullery Sink
20. A water closet ergonomically designed for Asian-end
a. Siphon Jet b. Latrine c. Reverse Trap d. Blowout
MODULE 6 DRAINAGE SYSTEM

ANSWER KEY for QUIZ No. 6. DRAINAGE SYSTEM

MULTIPLE CHOICE: Choose the letter of the best answer.
1. The construction, collection, transportation, pumping treatment and final disposition of sewage
a. Plumbing b. Sewerage c. Drainage d. Storm Drainage
2. An underground system that cannot drain by gravity into the building sewer
a. Storm Drain b. Subsewer c. Building Subdrain d. Underground Sewer
3. This pipe starts at the end of the building drain
a. House Sewer b. House Drain c. Building Drain d. House Storm Sewer
4. Pipe takes the waste water from the plumbing fixtures and deliver it to the sewer
a. Plumbing b. Sewerage c. Drainage System d. Storm Drainage
5. Equivalent to a flow rate of 7 ½ gallons of water per min; 28.3 liters per min (1 cu.ft/minute)
a. Fixture Unit b. Plumbing Unit c. Fixture Drain d. Unit Vent
6. The lowest horizontal piping of drainage system conveying waste to the building sewer beginning 0.6 m.
outside the building wall
a. House Sewer b. Building Sewer c. Building Drain d. House Storm Sewer
7. The pipeline from the building to the public storm sewer system
a. House Sewer b. House Drain c. Building Drain d. House Storm Sewer
8. The drain from the trap of a fixture to the junction of the drain
a. Fixture Unit b. Plumbing Unit c. Fixture Drain d. Unit Vent
9. A waste pipe that does not connect directly with the building drainage
a. Receptor b. Drain Pipe c. Direct Pipe d. Indirect Waste Pipe
10. Another term for rainfall/precipitation
a. Downfall b. Condensation c. Storm Water d. Falling water
11. Liquids are retained to deposit settleable material
a. Rain leader b. Downspout c. Catch Basin d. Trench Canal
12. An interceptor of 3 cubic meters capacity
a. Grease Trap b. Clarifier c. Grease Interceptor d. Sand Interceptor
13. An unobstructed vertical distance between the lowest openings from any pipe to the flood level rim of the
receptor
a. Airbreak b. Air Relief c. Air Gap, Drainage d. Air Gap, Water Distribution
14. An unobstructed vertical distance through free atmosphere between the lowest opening from any pipe or
faucet conveying potable water to the flood-level rim
a. Airbreak b. Air Relief c. Air Gap, Drainage d. Air Gap, Water Distribution
15. A. vertical distance between the dip and the crown weir of a trap/the water in the trap between the dip and the
crown weir
a. Water Seal b. Trap Seal c. Seal d. Trap Arm
16. The principal artery in vent system
a. Main Vent b. VSTR c. SVTR d. Main Soil Vent
17. Provide flow of air to or from a drainage system; provide a circulation of air to protect traps seals from
siphonage and backpressure
a. Vent Pipe b. Vent System c. Vent d. Vent Thru Roof
18. A pipe or opening used for ensuring the circulation of air in a plumbing system; for reducing the pressure
exerted on trap seals
a. Vent Pipe b. Vent System c. Vent d. Vent Thru Roof
19. An arrangement of venting so installed that one vent pipe will serve two traps
a. Unit Vent b. Individual Vent c. Loop Vent d. Yoke Vent
20. Acts as auxiliary vent (“yoke vent”)
a. Unit Vent b. Individual Vent c. Loop Vent d. Relief Vent
MODULE 8: PRINCIPLES OF ELECTRICITY
MULTIPLE CHOICE: Choose the letter of the best answer.
1. The force which causes movement of electricity in a conductor
a. Electromotive Force b. Pressure c. Electric Circuit d. Electric Current
2. A circuit that is broken, incomplete or disconnected
a. Parallel b. Open Circuit c. Shunt d. Short Circuit
3. Varies between reversal of flow
a. Alternating Current b. Direct Current c. Ampacity d. Rectified Current
4. It is the current-carrying capacity of a wire without undue heating
a. Resistance b. Polarity c. Ampacity d. Impedance
5. Known as the electric flow in an electric circuit
a. Electromotive Force b. Pressure c. Electric Circuit d. Electric Current
6. It reverses direction of flow at regular intervals
a. Alternating Current b. Direct Current c. Ampacity d. Rectified Current
7. One volt is the pressure which causes one ampere to flow in a wire with a resistance of one ohm
a. False b. True c. Not sure d. NOTA
8. It converts Mechanical Energy to Electrical Energy
a. Alternator b. Generator c. Motor d. Converter
9. It converts Electrical Energy to Mechanical Energy
a. Alternator b. Generator c. Motor d. Converter
10. In working drawings, a Circuit Diagram is known
a. Electrical Plan b. Layout c. Analysis d. Electrical Layout
11. Unit of resistance or friction which is inherent in insulator is
a. Ohms b. Ampere c. Volt d. Watts
12. Unit of EMF
a. Ohms b. Ampere c. Volt d. Watts
13. The relationship of EMF, Current, Resistance
a. Ohm’s Law b. Ohm’s Principle c. Relativity Theory d. Impedance Law
14. How many cps is used for a residential single phase load?
a. 120 Hertz b. 180 Hertz c. 60 Hertz d. 240 Hertz
15. EMF used for household power supply
a. 115V b. 230V c. 120V d. 210V
MODULE 9: SYSTEM COMPONENTS OF BUILDING
MULTIPLE CHOICE: Choose the letter of the best answer.
1. Branch circuits are divided into three types by the PEC, and one of these is
a. 3P Circuit b. SP Circuit c. Integrated Circuit d. Independent Circuit
2. A branch circuit is protected by
a. Service Switch b. Circuit Breaker c. Switch Panel d. Service Board
3. It prevents flow of electric current
a. Conductor b. Insulator c. Wires d. Cable
4. This offers low resistance
a. Conductor b. Insulator c. Wires d. Cable
5. LED is a type of fixture
a. False b. True c. Not sure d. NOTA
6. A receptacle that is placed 0.30m from the floor where an appliance is plugged
a. Switch b. Jack c. Convenience Outlet d. Extension wire
7. Another term for channel is
a. Pipe b. Raceway c. Tubing d. Duct
8. Height of switch installation
a. 0.90m b. 1.20m c. 1.50m d. 1.80m
9. Point of entry of electrical service is
a. Service Cable b. Service Drop c. Gooseneck d. Service Oblique
10. The Service Switch is usually located at
a. Electrical Pole b. Carport c. Stairway d. Kitchen
11. One type of appliance that is considered an independent circuit
a. Electric Fan b. Range c. Microwave Oven d. Washing Machine
12. One type of appliance that is not considered an independent circuit
a. Pump b. Range c. Heater d. Washing Machine
13. Height of installation for a Power Panel
a. 6’ b. 7’ c. 6’7” d. 7’2”
14. A single line diagram showing system components
a. Key Plan b. Key Cock c. Riser d. Riser Diagram
15. A type of conduit used primarily for service entrance cable
a. EMC b. RSC c. IMC d. Riser
MODULE 10: A. WIRES AND CABLES
MULTIPLE CHOICE: Choose the letter of the best answer.
1. Flat conductor cable is used for
a. Range b. Aircon c. Heater d. All of the above
2. Thermoplastic used for ceiling
a. THHN b. TH c. TW d. THW
3 Thermoplastic used for Toilet & Bath
a. THHN b. TH c. TW d. THW
4. This is used for telecommunication and as a submarine cable
a. MI b. SNM c. NM d. ROMEX
5. Thermoplastic used for Kitchen
a. THHN b. TH c. TW d. THW
6. Used for Service Entrance Lateral
a. USE b. UF c. SE d. UE
7. Used for Service Entrance Oblique
a. USE b. UF c. SE d. UE
8. Directly buried to the ground
a. USE b. UF c. SE d. UE
9. Used for Freezers, 24/7 equipment, ATMs and Cable TVs
a. MI b. SNM c. NM d. ROMEX
10. Meaning of THHN
a. Thermoplastic, high-heat resistant, nylon jacket outer sheath b. Thermoplastic, heat resistant
c. Thermoplastic, heat resistant, nylon jacket outer sheath d. Thermoplastic, wet resistant
11. Assemblies of cables used for System furniture application and cable management
a. Flat Conductor Cable b. Power Cable c. Feeder d. Flat Cable Assemblies
12. Meaning of THWN
a. Thermoplastic, moisture resistant, nylon jacket outer sheath b. Thermoplastic, heat resistant
c. Thermoplastic, heat resistant, nylon jacket outer sheath d. Thermoplastic, wet resistant
13. This cable uses copper for insulation
a. SNM b. MI c. NM d. ROMEX
14. Another Term for Armored Cable
a. Thermoplastic b. ROMEX c. BX d. Flexible Non-metal
15. Conduit used for Underground Feeder
a. EMC b. RSC c. IMC d. Riser
MODULE 11: B. RACEWAYS
MULTIPLE CHOICE: Choose the letter of the best answer.
1. Known as closed raceway
a. Bus b. Conduit c. Busbar d. Cable Tray
2. Known as open wireway
a. Bus b. Conduit c. Busbar d. Cable Tray
3. Uses busduct or busway
a. Bus b. Conduit c. Busbar d. Cable Tray
4. Uses T-joist/ precast concrete slab with built in pipes
a. underfloor raceway b. cellular metal floor raceway
c. cellular concrete floor raceways d. underground raceway
5. Uses rib decking for cable installation
a. underfloor raceway b. cellular metal floor raceway
c. cellular concrete floor raceways d. underground raceway
6. Uses conventional electrical installation
a. underfloor raceway b. cellular metal floor raceway
c. cellular concrete floor raceways d. underground raceway
7. A type of tray cable
a. Rail type b. Rigid type. c. Conduit d. Flexible type
8. Characteristic of a bus
a. flat b. rounded c. grounded d. flexible
9. Characteristic of a busbar
a. flat b. rounded c. grounded d. flexible
10. Another name for bus
a. Conductor b. Feeder c. Busway d. Circuit
11. Purpose of louvers for cable bus
a. for insulation b. for cooling c. for aesthetics d. heat dissipation
12. Type of ceiling raceway used from transformers to switchboard
a. Bus b. Busbar c. Busway d. Cable Bus
13 Type of raceway used from Main Panel Board to Distribution Panelboard
a. Bus b. Busbar c. Busway d. Cable Bus
14. Type of raceway used from Distribution Panelboard to ceiling installation
a. Tray Cable . Busbar c. Busway d. Cable Bus
15. Mesh Wire type is for
a. Tray Cable b. Busbar c. Busway d. Cable Bus
MODULE 12: POWER HANDLING EQUIPMENT
MULTIPLE CHOICE: Choose the letter of the best answer.
1. An electromechanical device
a. Bus b. Circuit Breaker c. Busbar d. Cable Tray
2. Detects short circuit and overload
a. Service Switch b. Panelboard c. Fuse Box d. Circuit Protective Devices
3. Known as the final distribution point for convenience outlets and lighting
a. Service Switch b. Panelboard c. Fuse Box d. Circuit Protective Devices
4. Part of a circuit breaker that senses undue heating and overload
a. alloy link b. fusible link c. solenoid d. actuator switch
5. A service disconnecting means
a. Service Switch b. Panelboard c. Fuse Box d. Circuit Protective Devices
e.Switchboard
6. Used in apartments through meter banks
a. Service Switch b. Panelboard c. Fuse Box d. Circuit Protective Devices
e.Switchboard
7. A free standing assemblies of switches, fuses/circuit breakers
a. Service Switch b. Panelboard c. Fuse Box d. Circuit Protective Devices
e.Switchboard
8. A synthetic non-flammable liquid used to insulate transformers
a. Silicon b. Petroleum c. Glycerine d. Askarel
9. A transformer used for large facility
a. Service Switch b. Main Panelboard c. Generating Plant d. Unit Substation
10. Type of transformer used to change voltage from 230V to 115V
a. H-Frame b. Dry Type c. Cluster-mounted d. House Transformer
11. An equipment that controls the circuit breaker
a. Service Switch b. Panelboard c. Fuse Box d. Circuit Protective Devices
12. Type of fuse used for simple circuitry in residence
a. Cartridge Fuse b. Plug Fuse c. Solenoid Fuse d. Knife Blade Fuse
13 Type of fuse used for dwellings
a. Cartridge Fuse b. Plug Fuse c. Solenoid Fuse d. Knife Blade Fuse
14. Type of fuse used for complex circuitry buildings
a. Cartridge Fuse b. Plug Fuse c. Solenoid Fuse d. Knife Blade Fuse
15. Uses alloy link or wire; fusible link
a. Circuit Breaker b. Fuse c. Actuator Switch d. Fuselage
MODULE 13: UTILIZATION EQUIPMENT
MULTIPLE CHOICE: Choose the letter of the best answer.
1. A lighting fixture that has a housing is called
a. Troffer b. Luminaire c. Pinlight d. Pendant
2. Commercial base component for Incandescent Bulb
a. Phenolic Base b. Screw Base c. Plug Point d. Bi-Pin
3. Type of bulb that has filament
a. LED b. Incandescent c. Fluorescent d. Metal Halide
4. Type of lamp that has cathode
a. LED b. Incandescent c. Fluorescent d. Metal Halide
5. Meaning of PAR
a. Pin Actuated Resolution b. Pan Arc Release c. Phon Art Rays d. Parabolic Aluminized Reflector
6. Purpose of a starter
a. to start the switch b. to start the ballast
c. To start the filament d. to start the cathode
7. Purpose of Ballast
a. to start the switch b. to start the ballast
c. To start the filament d. to start the cathode
8. A type of lamp that has a pre-heat starting actuator
a. CFL b. LED c. Incandescent d. Metal Halide
9. A type of lamp that has instant starting actuator
a. Slimline Fluorescent b. Pre-heat starting Fluorescent
c. Rapid start fluorescent d. LED
10. Type of Fluorescent used for Cove Lighting
a. T5 b. T12 c. T24 d. T8
11. An electrical raceway either metallic or non-metallic
a. Conduit b. Tubing c. Pipe d. Flexible Tubing
12. A type of conduit used for feeders
a. EMC b. IMC c. RSC d. IMT
13 A type of conduit without thread
a. EMC b. IMC c . RSC d. IMT
14. A conduit fitting used for turning cables at 90°
a. LB Condulet b. LL c. Solenoid Fuse d. Long Sweep Elbow Fitting
15. A conduit fitting used for service entrance cable
a. LB Condulet b. SE c. Entrance Ell d. Cap
MODULE 14: UE: SWITCHES & CONVENIENCE OUTLETS
MULTIPLE CHOICE: Choose the letter of the best answer.
1. A surface mounted switch is called
a. Push Button b. Toggle c. Time Switch d. Master Switch
2. A flush mounted switch is called
a. Push Button b. Toggle c. Time Switch d. Master Switch
3. Controls the intensity of light
a. Push Button b. Dimmer c. Time Switch d. Master Switch
4. The symbol S1 or Sa means
a. Two Gang b. Single Gang c. Three Gang d. Three-way
5. The symbol S3W means
a. Two Gang b. Single Gang c. Three Gang d. Three-way
6. A device (at an outlet box) to which any plug-in extension line, appliance, or device can be connected
a. Switch b. Receptacle c. Pull Box d. Outlet Box
7. A point in a circuit where other devices can be connected.
a. Switch b. Receptacle c. Pull Box d. Outlet
8. A type of convenience outlet that is used outside located adjacent to Main and Service Entries
a. Single Convenience Outlet b. Weatherproof Outlet c. Outlet Box d. Special Purpose Outlet
9. The symbol S2 or Sab means
a. Two Gang b. Single Gang c. Three Gang d. Three-way
10. The type of convenience outlet that can receive both flat and round pins
a. General Purpose Outlet b. Special Purpose Outlet c. Universal Outlet d. Two-way Outlet

This module is the property of JPT Review Center, Inc.

MODULE 15: ELEVATORS
MULTIPLE CHOICE: Choose the letter of the best answer.
1. Primary component of an electric elevator
a. Plunger b. Guide Rail c. Guide Shoes d. Cable
2. Primary component of a hydraulic elevator
a. Plunger b. Guide Rail c. Guide Shoes d. Cable
3. Also known as a Cargo Lift
a. Dumbwaiter b. Conveyor c. Freight Elevator d. Passenger Elevator
4. Which of the following establishments would use a Dumbwaiter primarily to transport goods
a. Restaurant b. Hotel c. Hospital d. Mall
5. Which of the following establishments would use a Freight Elevator primarily to transport goods
a. Restaurant b. Hotel c. Hospital d. Senior Citizens Center
6. Used to carry light cargo and has a height of 1.20M
a. Dumbwaiter b. Conveyor c. Freight Elevator d. Passenger Elevator
7. How does a Hydraulic Elevator function?
a. water pressure b. oil pressure c. motor and pump with tankd. pressure tank
8. How does an Electric Elevator function?
a. Cable b. Gear c. Piston d. Guide rail
9. It is the inside movable part of a hydraulic jack
a. Alternator b. Pump c. Plunger d. Piston
10. Minimum depth of an elevator pit
a. 0.40m b. 0.60m c. 0.50m d. 0.30m
11. Another term for an Elevator
a. Cargo b. Lift c. Platform d. Carrier
12. Uses a permanent magnet synchronous gearless drive unit installed inside of the shaft
a. Dumbwaiter b. Freight Elevator c. Cargo Lift d. Machine room-less elevator
13. A large clamp that anchors the car to the building
a. Harness b. Cable c. Rods d. Safeties
14. Another term for spun and worm used for high-rise buildings
a. Tractionless b. Geared Traction c. Gearless Traction d. Full Gear Traction
15 Another term for gear and worm used for mid-rise buildings
a. Tractionless b. Geared Traction c. Gearless Traction d. Full Gear
Traction

This module is the property of JPT Review Center, Inc.

MODULE 16: ESCALATOR
MULTIPLE CHOICE: Choose the letter of the best answer.
1. Minimum angle of inclination for an escalator
a. 38° b. 30° c. 35° d. 33°
2. The welded steel frame which act as the structural component of an escalator
a. Stabilizer b. Beam c. Truss d. Column
3. Where is the main drive gear of an escalator located?
a. Bottom Sprocket b. Top Sprocket c. Middle Part d. near truss
4. Where is the Drive Machine of an escalator located?
a. Bottom Sprocket b. Top Sprocket c. Middle Part d. near truss
5. It is the harness placed at both sides of the escalator steps
a. Balluster b. Balustrade c. Tread d. NOTA
6. This connects the bottom sprocket to the top sprocket
a. Linking Chain b. Chain c. Endless Belt d. NOTA
7. What do you call the steps of an escalator?
a. Track b. Riser c. Platform d. NOTA
8. This temporarily stop the escalator to prevent further accident
a. Emergency Brake b. Switch c. Emergency Stop d. Push Button
9. Less expensive arrangement of escalator
a. Stacked Parallel b. Crisscross c. Parallel d. Scissor
10. An arrangement of escalator used for transportational building
a. Stacked Parallel b. Crisscross c. Parallel d. Scissor
11. The commercial slope of an escalator
a. 32° b. 30° c. 35° d. 33°
12. The angle of an inclination for a moving ramp
a. 15° b. 20° c. 12° d. 10°
13. Conveyor used in airports
a. Escalator b. Freight c. Walkalator d. Travelator
14. Lineal length of a moving walk
a. 150m b. 250m c. 300m d. 200m
15. What can a moving ramp do that an escalator and elevator cannot?
a. move crates b. move trolleys c. move cargo d. move people
MODULE 17: WACU and SPLIT TYPE
MULTIPLE CHOICE: Choose the letter of the best answer.
1. Process of treating air to control its temperature
a. Refrigeration b. Cooling c. Air Conditioning d. Heating
2. Installed 2.10m on top of a wall
a. WACU b. Diffuser c. Ceiling Register d. Wall Register
3. What is the inside part of an air conditioning unit called?
a. Evaporator b. Condenser c. Compressor d. Ducting
4. What is the outside part of an air conditioning unit called?
a. Evaporator b. Condenser c. Compressor d. Ducting
5. Another term for Condenser used for split type air conditioner
a. AHU b. ACCU c. FCU d. NOTA
6. Another term for Evaporator used for split type air conditioner
a. AHU b. ACCU c. FCU d. NOTA
7. An appurtenance of Air Handling Unit is
a. AHU b. ACCU c. FCU d. NOTA
8. The use of windows to allow natural ventilation is known as
a. Naturality b. Active Fanning c. Active Cooling d. Passive Cooling
9. The use of mechanical equipment to allow artificial ventilation is known as
a. Naturality b. Active Fanning c. Active Cooling d. Passive Cooling
10. The floor to ceiling height for natural ventilation is
a. 2.10m b. 2.40m c. 2.70m d. 3.00m
11. The floor to ceiling height for artificial ventilation is
a. 2.10m b. 2.40m c. 2.70m d. 3.00m
12. The total developed length of a tubing for a split type air conditioner
a. 2.10m b. 2.40m c. 2.70m d. 3.00m
13. Which is not a part of a split type air conditioner
a. FHU b. AHU c. ACCU d. Condensate Pipe
14. A cassette type unit is mounted at the
a. Wall b. Ceiling c. Window d. Floor
15. A package type unit for split type is also known as
a. Free Standing b. Ceiling Mounted c. Cassette d. Wall Mounted
MODULE 18: VAV, CAV and CENTRALIZED AIR CONDITIONING
MULTIPLE CHOICE: Choose the letter of the best answer.
1. Disadvantage of Centralized Air Conditioning
a. Bulky b. Expensive c. Not energy efficient d. room temperature cannot be controlled
2. Air Conditioning preferred in hospitals
a. WACU b. Split Type c. Multi-Split d. Centralized Air Conditioning
3. Advantage of Variable Air Volume
a. Cheap b. Efficient c. Temperature can vary d. always available
4. Used to control temperature
a. Thermometer b. Scanner c. Thermostat d. Thermoscan
5. Uses fans and ducts to distribute air through a large volume of space.
a. VAV b. CAV c. WACU d. Split Type
6. Centralized Air Conditioner uses
a. Tubing b. Ducting c. Piping d. Ductwork
7. Best location for Chiller
a. Ground Floor b. Basement c. Roof Deck . Balcony
8. Where do you locate Cooling Towers?
a. Ground Floor b. Basement c. Roof Deck . Balcony
9. An inlet used in Centralized Air Conditioner to provide cool air inside a room during summer
a. Ceiling Register b. Wall Register c. Damper d. Wall Diffuser
10. An outlet used in Centralized Air Conditioner to accept hot air from a room during summer
a. Ceiling Register b. Wall Register c. Damper d. Wall Diffuser
11. Used to control humidity in Comfort Rooms
a. Humidifier b. Dehumidifier c. Exhaust Fan d. Wall Diffuser
12. Used to provide heat inside a room during winter
a. Heater b. Boiler c. Damper d. Register
13. The multi-zone system separates spaces for cooling
a. VAV b. CAV c. WACU d. Split Type
14. Mimics a centralized air conditioning system without the presence of a mechanical room and roof deck
a. VAV b. CAV c. WACU d. Split Type
15. The best air conditioning system for a branch bank
a. VAV b. CAV c. WACU d. Split Type