Cambridge International AS & A Level

PHYSICS 9702/12
Paper 1 Multiple Choice February/March 2021
1 hour 15 minutes

You must answer on the multiple choice answer sheet.

*9943975723*

You will need: Multiple choice answer sheet

Soft clean eraser
Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

INSTRUCTIONS
• There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions.
• For each question there are four possible answers A, B, C and D. Choose the one you consider correct
and record your choice in soft pencil on the multiple choice answer sheet.
• Follow the instructions on the multiple choice answer sheet.
• Write in soft pencil.
• Write your name, centre number and candidate number on the multiple choice answer sheet in the
spaces provided unless this has been done for you.
• Do not use correction fluid.
• Do not write on any bar codes.
• You may use a calculator.

INFORMATION
• The total mark for this paper is 40.
• Each correct answer will score one mark.
• Any rough working should be done on this question paper.

This document has 20 pages. Any blank pages are indicated.

IB21 03_9702_12/2RP
© UCLES 2021 [Turn over
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1 What is a reasonable estimate for the density of sand?

A 2 × 102 g cm–3

B 2 × 103 g cm–3

C 2 × 101 kg m–3

D 2 × 103 kg m–3

2 Which physical quantity could have units of N s2 m–1?

A acceleration
B force
C mass
D momentum

3 A velocity vector is shown.

North

75 m s–1
30

East

What are the components of the velocity vector in the northerly and in the easterly directions?

component of vector component of vector

in northerly direction in easterly direction
/ m s–1 / m s–1

A 38 38
B 38 65
C 65 38
D 65 65

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4 A micrometer screw gauge is used to measure the diameter of a copper wire.

The reading with the wire in position is shown in diagram 1. The wire is removed and the jaws of
the micrometer are closed. The new reading is shown in diagram 2.

15 20
10 15
0 5 0 10

diagram 1 diagram 2

What is the diameter of the wire?

A 1.95 mm B 2.45 mm C 2.59 mm D 2.73 mm

5 A student measures the current and the potential difference for a resistor in a circuit.

current = (50.00 ± 0.01) mA

potential difference = (500.0 ± 0.1) mV

The measurements are used to calculate the resistance of the resistor.

What is the percentage uncertainty in the calculated resistance?

A 0.0002% B 0.0004% C 0.02% D 0.04%

6 Four cars, A, B, C and D, move from rest in a straight line. The cars take the same time to
accelerate to a velocity of 60 km h–1. Their velocity–time graphs are shown.

Which car reaches a velocity of 60 km h–1 in the shortest distance?

60
velocity
/ km h–1
A

B
C

0
0 time

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7 A cannon fires a cannonball with an initial speed v at an angle α to the horizontal.

v
H


Which equation is correct for the maximum height H reached?

H = v sin α H = (v sin α )
g sin α 2 g 2 sin α
A B H= C D H=
2g 2v 2g 2v

8 A ball strikes a horizontal surface with momentum p at an angle θ to the surface, as shown.

p p

 
surface

The ball rebounds with the same magnitude of momentum at an angle θ to the surface.

The ball is in contact with the surface for time t.

What is the magnitude of the average resultant force acting on the ball during the collision?

2p 2 pcosθ 2 psinθ
A zero B C D
t t t

9 A skydiver, who is falling vertically through the air, opens his parachute.

Which row describes the velocity of the skydiver immediately after he opens his parachute?

direction of magnitude of
velocity velocity

A downwards decreases
B downwards increases
C upwards decreases
D upwards increases

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10 A stationary firework explodes into four fragments which travel in different directions in a
horizontal plane. The diagram shows the velocity and mass of each fragment.

25 g 10 g

NOT TO
SCALE
240 m s–1 300 m s–1

v 300 m s–1

15 g X 20 g

What is the speed v of fragment X?

A 200 m s–1 B 240 m s–1 C 300 m s–1 D 360 m s–1

11 A particle with mass moves in a horizontal straight line through a uniform electric field in a
vacuum. The electric field is vertical.

horizontal path
of particle

electric field
particle
direction of
gravitational
field

There is a significant gravitational effect on the motion of the particle.

What could be the direction of the electric field and the sign of the charge, if any, on the particle?

electric field
sign of charge
direction

A downwards negative
B downwards positive
C upwards negative
D upwards no charge

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12 Two parallel forces, each of magnitude F, act on a rod of length 5d.

Which diagram shows the positions of the two forces that will produce the largest torque on the
rod?

A B
F
d

F F F

C D
F
2d

2d
F F F

13 A mass of 30 kg is suspended from the end of a wire. A horizontal force F acts on the mass so
that it is in equilibrium, with the wire at an angle of 30° to the vertical, as shown.

30°

mass 30 kg
F

What is the magnitude of F ?

A 17 N B 150 N C 170 N D 510 N

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14 A balance is used to measure the mass m of a number of cylindrical metal rods of length l. All the
metal rods have the same radius r.

The graph shows the variation with l of m.

0
0 l

The gradient of the graph is G.

Which expression gives the density of the metal?

A G B G2πr C G D Gπr 2
2πr πr 2

15 Two blocks, X and Y, are on a horizontal frictionless surface. The mass of block Y is greater than
that of block X. Block Y has a spring attached to its end.

The blocks are pushed together so that the spring is compressed between them and the blocks
are held stationary as shown.

compressed spring
frictionless
surface X Y

before release

When released, the blocks move in opposite directions.

Which statement is correct?

A After release, the kinetic energy of block X must equal the kinetic energy of block Y.
B After release, the sum of the kinetic energies of the blocks is equal to zero.
C The total energy of the spring and blocks immediately before release is zero.
D The total energy of the spring and blocks is equal to the energy needed to bring the blocks
together.

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16 A gas is contained in a cylinder by a movable piston.

final position
of piston
initial position
of piston

35.0 cm gas
30.0 cm
cylinder

20.0 cm

The cylinder has a circular cross-section of diameter 20.0 cm.

The pressure of the gas is 102 Pa and the piston is initially 30.0 cm from the base of the cylinder.

The gas is heated causing the piston to move up so that it is 35.0 cm from the base. The pressure
of the gas remains constant.

How much work does the gas do in moving the piston?

A 0.160 J B 0.641 J C 1.12 J D 4.49 J

17 An egg of mass 25 g falls vertically downwards from the surface of a table which is 900 mm above
the ground. Air resistance is negligible.

What is the kinetic energy of the egg when it hits the ground?

A 0.023 J B 0.22 J C 23 J D 220 J

18 An aircraft travels at a constant velocity of 90 m s–1 in horizontal flight. The diagram shows the
horizontal forces acting on the aircraft.

drag
thrust
2400 N

The mass of the aircraft is 2000 kg.

What is the power produced by the thrust force?

A 1.8 × 105 W B 2.2 × 105 W C 1.8 × 106 W D 2.0 × 106 W

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19 Which expression is equal to the stress on a wire?

extension
A
original length

force
B
cross-sectional area

force
C
extension

Young modulus
D
original length

20 A wire is stretched by applying increasing values of force F. For each value of force applied, the
extension x is recorded. A force–extension graph is plotted from the data obtained.

Which statement about the area under the graph must be correct?

A It can be calculated as 1
2
Fx .

B It is the elastic potential energy stored in the stretched sample.

C It is the work done in stretching the sample.
D It would be the same for any wire of the same material.

21 A progressive radio wave in a vacuum has a frequency of 75 MHz.

What is the phase difference between two points on the wave that are 50 cm apart from each
other?

A 23° B 45° C 90° D 180°

22 Which statement is correct for longitudinal waves but not correct for transverse waves?

A They can form stationary waves.

B They can only travel through a medium.
C They can transfer energy in the direction of travel.
D They consist of peaks and troughs.

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23 A loudspeaker emitting a sound wave of a single frequency is placed a distance L from a

reflecting surface, as shown.

reflector
loudspeaker

microphone
path of
microphone

A stationary wave is formed with an antinode at the loudspeaker. A microphone is moved from
the loudspeaker to the reflector.

Before the microphone reaches the reflector, it detects four points where the sound intensity is a
minimum.

What is the wavelength of the sound wave?

A 2L B 2L C 4L D 4L
9 8 9 8

24 A source of sound of frequency F at point Z is moving at a steady speed. The pattern of the
emitted wavefronts is shown.

X Z Y

Which row describes the frequencies of the sound heard by stationary observers at X and Y?

frequency frequency
heard at X heard at Y

A <F <F
B <F >F
C >F <F
D >F >F

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25 What is not a possible value for the wavelength of the named electromagnetic waves when it is
travelling in a vacuum?

electromagnetic
wavelength / m
wave

A γ-rays 3 × 10–13
B X-rays 3 × 10–10
C infrared 3 × 10–6
D microwaves 3 × 10–5

26 Two waves, P and Q, meet at a point X and superpose.

Initially, the two waves meet at X in phase (zero phase difference) so that the resultant wave has
an amplitude of 14.0 cm at that point.

The phase difference between the two waves is then changed so that they meet at X with a
phase difference of 180°. The resultant wave now has an amplitude of 4.0 cm at X.

What is the amplitude of one of the waves at point X?

A 2.0 cm B 5.0 cm C 10 cm D 18 cm

27 A water wave is diffracted as it passes through a gap between two barriers in a ripple tank. The
wave is observed to ‘spread out’ as it moves through the gap.

Which two factors both affect the amount of diffraction observed?

A the amplitude and frequency of the incident wave

B the amplitude of the incident wave and the width of the gap
C the wavelength and amplitude of the incident wave
D the wavelength of the incident wave and the width of the gap

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28 Two sources of microwaves P and Q produce coherent waves with a phase difference of 180°.
The waves have the same wavelength λ.

S
P

At the point S there is a minimum in the interference pattern produced by waves from the two
sources. The distance (QS – PS) is called the path difference.

Which expression could represent the path difference?

A λ B λ C λ D 3λ
4 2 2

29 A beam of red laser light of wavelength 633 nm is incident normally on a diffraction grating with
600 lines per mm.

first-order
maximum

light zero-order
beam maximum

diffraction first-order
grating maximum

screen

The beam of red light is now replaced by a beam of blue laser light of wavelength 445 nm. A
replacement diffraction grating is used so that the first-order maximum of the blue light appears at
the same position on the screen as the first-order maximum of the red light from the original laser.

How many lines per mm are there in the replacement diffraction grating?

A 420 mm–1 B 470 mm–1 C 600 mm–1 D 850 mm–1

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30 Which diagram best represents the field lines in the electric field produced by a combination of
one point positive charge and one point negative charge?

A B

+ – + –

C D

+ – + –

31 The diagram shows a thundercloud whose base is 500 m above the ground.

500 m

The potential difference between the base of the cloud and the ground is 200 MV. A raindrop with
a charge of 4.0 × 10–12 C is in the region between the cloud and the ground.

What is the electrical force on the raindrop?

A 1.6 × 10–6 N B 8.0 × 10–4 N C 1.6 × 10–3 N D 0.40 N

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32 The current I in a metal wire is given by the equation

I = Anvq.

What does the symbol n represent?

A the number of charge carriers in the wire

B the number of charge carriers per unit cross-sectional area of the wire
C the number of charge carriers per unit length of the wire
D the number of charge carriers per unit volume of the wire

33 A cell of negligible internal resistance is connected to resistors R1, R2 and R3, as shown. The cell
provides power to the circuit and power is dissipated in the resistors.

R1

R2 R3

Which word equation must be correct?

A power dissipated in R1 = power dissipated in R2 + power dissipated in R3

B power dissipated in R2 = power dissipated in R3
C power output of cell = power dissipated in R1 + power dissipated in R2 + power dissipated in
R3
D power output of cell = power dissipated in R1

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34 A fixed resistor and a diode are connected in series to a battery of electromotive force (e.m.f.)
6.0 V and negligible internal resistance. The graph shows the variation with potential difference
(p.d.) V of the current I for the diode.

50
6.0 V I / mA
40

30
40 mA
20

10

0
0 0.5 1.0 1.5
V/V

The current in the diode is 40 mA.

What is the resistance of the fixed resistor?

A 30 Ω B 120 Ω C 150 Ω D 180 Ω

35 An electrical cable consists of seven strands of copper wire, each of diameter 0.30 mm,
connected in parallel.

The resistivity of copper is 1.72 × 10–8 Ω m. The current in the cable is 13 A.

What is the potential difference (p.d.) between two points on the cable a distance of 1.0 m apart?

A 0.0045 V B 0.11 V C 0.45 V D 3.2 V

36 A cell that has internal resistance is connected to a switch S and a variable resistor. A voltmeter
is connected between the terminals of the cell, as shown.

When switch S is open, the voltmeter reads 1.5 V. The switch is then closed and the variable
resistor is adjusted to have a resistance of 4.0 Ω. The voltmeter now reads 0.75 V.

What is the internal resistance of the cell?

A 1.0 Ω B 2.0 Ω C 4.0 Ω D 8.0 Ω

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37 A cell of electromotive force (e.m.f.) E and negligible internal resistance is connected into a
circuit, as shown.

2Ω

E 12 Ω 4Ω V

The voltmeter has a very high resistance and reads a potential difference Vout.

Vout
What is the ratio ?
E

A 1 B 1 C 1 D 2
6 3 2 3

38 A battery is connected to a potentiometer. The potentiometer consists of a uniform resistance

wire and a sliding contact P.

P
Q R
d
resistance
V wire

The potential difference (p.d.) V between the sliding contact P and end Q of the wire is measured
using a voltmeter. The sliding contact P is moved from end Q to end R of the wire. Sliding contact
P is distance d from Q.

Which graph shows the variation with distance d of the p.d. V ?

A B C D

V V V V

0 0 0 0
0 d 0 d 0 d 0 d

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39 The figure shows part of a chart of nuclides where neutron number is plotted against proton
number.

An unstable nuclide X decays by emitting an α-particle.

Which nuclide is formed by the decay of nuclide X?

147
neutron C
number 146
X
145
D
144
B
143

142
A
141

140
91 92 93 94 95 96
proton number

40 The nuclei of common isotopes of hydrogen, helium, lithium and beryllium are shown.

Which nucleus contains equal numbers of up and down quarks?

1 4 7 9
A 1H B 2 He C 3 Li D 4 Be

© UCLES 2021 9702/12/F/M/21

 Cambridge International AS & A Level

PHYSICS 9702/11
Paper 1 Multiple Choice May/June 2021
1 hour 15 minutes

You must answer on the multiple choice answer sheet.

*9590154958*

You will need: Multiple choice answer sheet

Soft clean eraser
Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

INSTRUCTIONS
 There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions.
 For each question there are four possible answers A, B, C and D. Choose the one you consider correct
and record your choice in soft pencil on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Follow the instructions on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Write in soft pencil.
 Write your name, centre number and candidate number on the multiple choice answer sheet in the
spaces provided unless this has been done for you.
 Do not use correction fluid.
 Do not write on any bar codes.
 You may use a calculator.

INFORMATION
 The total mark for this paper is 40.
 Each correct answer will score one mark.
 Any rough working should be done on this question paper.

This document has 20 pages.

IB21 06_9702_11/3RP
© UCLES 2021 [Turn over
 4

1 What is a reasonable estimate of the volume of an adult person?

A 0.10 m3 B 0.50 m3 C 1.0 m3 D 2.0 m3

2 Which combination of units could be used for expressing the power dissipated in a resistor?

A newton per second (N s–1)

B newton second (N s)
C newton metre (N m)
D newton metre per second (N m s–1)

3 A force of 10 N and a force of 5 N act on an object.

10 N

150°
5N

object

The angle between the forces is 150.

The resultant force on the object can be resolved into a pair of perpendicular components.

Which row shows numerical expressions for a possible pair of perpendicular components?

force component / N force component / N

A 10 cos 30 – 5 10 cos 30

B 10 sin 30 – 5 10 cos 30
C 10 – 5 cos 30 5 sin 30
D 10 – 5 sin 30 5 cos 30

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4 A signal of frequency 25 Hz is displayed on the screen of a cathode-ray oscilloscope.

1 cm

1 cm

What is the time-base setting?

A 10 ms cm–1 B 20 ms cm–1 C 25 ms cm–1 D 40 ms cm–1

5 A micrometer screw gauge is used to measure the diameter of a wire.

The reading on the micrometer with the jaws closed is (–0.05  0.02) mm.

The reading with the wire in position between the two jaws is (+1.03  0.02) mm.

What is the diameter of the wire?

A (0.98  0.02) mm

B (1.08  0.02) mm

C (0.98  0.04) mm

D (1.08  0.04) mm

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6 A projectile is launched at an angle to the horizontal at time t = 0. It travels over horizontal

ground, as shown.

path of projectile

ground

Air resistance is negligible.

Which graph best shows the variation with t of the speed of the projectile from when it is launched
to when it lands on the ground?

A B

speed speed

0 0
0 t 0 t

C D

speed speed

0 0
0 t 0 t

7 A train, initially at rest at a station, has a uniform acceleration of 0.20 m s–2 until it reaches a
speed of 20 m s–1. It travels for a time at this constant speed and then has a uniform deceleration
of 0.40 m s–2 until it comes to rest at the next station. The distance between the two stations is
3000 m.

What is the time taken by the train to travel between the two stations?

A 75 s B 150 s C 230 s D 300 s

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8 A rocket is fired from the Earth into space.

Newton’s third law of motion describes how forces act in pairs. One of the forces of a pair is the
weight of the rocket.

What is the other force of this pair?

A air resistance
B force of the exhaust gases on the rocket
C force of the rocket on the exhaust gases
D gravitational force of the rocket on the Earth

9 The graph shows how quantity P varies with quantity Q for a body falling vertically downwards in
a uniform gravitational field with air resistance.

0
0 Q

Which pair of quantities could be represented by P and Q ?

P Q

A acceleration force of air resistance

B acceleration time
C velocity force of air resistance
D velocity time

10 Which quantities are conserved in an inelastic collision?

kinetic energy total energy linear momentum

A conserved not conserved conserved

B conserved not conserved not conserved
C not conserved conserved conserved
D not conserved conserved not conserved

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11 A charged oil drop is held stationary between two charged parallel plates.

top plate
charged oil drop

bottom plate

Which forces act on the oil drop?

A both electric and gravitational

B electric only
C gravitational only
D neither electric nor gravitational

12 Which pair of forces forms a couple with a torque of 30 N m?

A B
30 N 40 N

1.0 m
2.0 m
10 N

30 N

C D
25 N 15 N

1.0 m
2.0 m
5N

15 N

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13 A uniform rigid bar XZ with negligible mass is 1.20 m long. The bar is pivoted at point P. Three
coplanar forces act on the bar as shown. Forces of 16 N and 20 N act perpendicularly to the bar
at points X and Y respectively. Force F acts at point Z at an angle of 30 to the axis of the bar.

The distances along the bar of the pivot and of the forces are shown.

20 N Z 30

F

16 N Y 0.60 m
P
0.30 m
X 0.30 m

The bar experiences a resultant moment about P of 6.0 N m in a clockwise direction.

What is the magnitude of F?

A 9.2 N B 11 N C 16 N D 24 N

14 Water of depth 9.0 cm is covered by oil of depth 5.0 cm in a measuring cylinder.

The density of the water is 1000 kg m–3 and the density of the oil is 800 kg m–3.

What is the total pressure exerted on the base of the measuring cylinder due to the oil and water?

A 390 Pa B 880 Pa C 1200 Pa D 1300 Pa

15 A rocket is fired upwards.

As it accelerates upwards after leaving the launch pad, which forms of energy are changing?

A chemical energy, gravitational potential energy and kinetic energy

B chemical energy and gravitational potential energy only
C chemical energy and kinetic energy only
D gravitational potential energy and kinetic energy only

16 A roll of tape of length 50 m requires a constant force of 20 N to unwrap it.

20 N
roll of tape

tape

What is the work done in unwrapping the whole roll?

A 0.4 J B 2.5 J C 500 J D 1000 J

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17 A trolley of mass 600 kg is initially at point P on a slope, at a height of 80 m above ground level,
as shown. The trolley is released from rest and moves along the slope, first coming to rest at
point Q, at height h above ground level.

trolley
mass 600 kg

NOT TO
P SCALE
Q 80 m
1.5 km
slope
h ground level

The total distance PQ moved by the trolley along the slope is 1.5 km. A constant resistive force of
300 N opposes the motion of the trolley on the slope.

What is h ?

A 3.5 m B 76 m C 79 m D 80 m

18 An object of weight 15.0 N is pulled along a horizontal surface at a constant velocity of 2.00 m s–1.

The force pulling the object is 12.0 N at 30.0 to the horizontal, as shown.

2.00 m s–1
12.0 N

30.0

15.0 N

What is the power used to move the object?

A 12.0 W B 20.8 W C 24.0 W D 30.0 W

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19 The spring constants of four springs are determined by plotting the following graphs of force F
against extension x.

1 2 3 4
10 20 100 10
F/N F/N F/N F/N

0 0 0 0
0 5 0 4 0 0.1 0 0.5
x / mm x / mm x / mm x / mm

Which order of the graphs shows decreasing spring constants?

A 2134

B 3421

C 4213

D 4321

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20 Forces are applied to the ends of a rod so that its length increases. The variation with force F of
the extension e of the rod is shown.

e
P

0
0 F

The point P is the elastic limit.

Which shaded area represents the work done during the plastic deformation of the rod?

A B

e e
P P

0 0
0 F 0 F

C D

e e
P P

0 0
0 F 0 F

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21 Two identical waves are produced by sources at points P and Q. The waves travel along different
paths to reach point R, as shown.

80 cm
P R

100 cm

Both waves have a wavelength of 6.0 cm. The waves are in phase at point R.

What is the phase difference between the waves as they leave points P and Q?

A 0 B 60 C 90 D 120

22 A longitudinal wave travelling from left to right has vibrations parallel to the direction of transfer of
energy by the wave.

The wave can be represented on a graph showing the variation with distance of the displacement
of the particles from their equilibrium positions at one instant.

Which point on the graph is the centre of a compression?

direction of
transfer of energy
A
displacement
to the right

B D
0
0 distance
from source
displacement
to the left
C

23 A stationary wave is formed from two identical sound waves.

A microphone is placed at a position of maximum loudness. It is then moved along the stationary
wave from this first position of maximum loudness to the fourth position of maximum loudness.
The microphone moves a distance of 12 cm.

The speed of sound is 330 m s–1.

What is the frequency of the sound waves?

A 4100 Hz B 5500 Hz C 8300 Hz D 11 000 Hz

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24 An ambulance has a siren that emits sound of a constant frequency. The ambulance is moving
directly towards a stationary observer.

The ambulance decelerates as it is approaching the observer and then accelerates after it has
passed the observer.

How does the frequency of the sound heard by the observer change as the ambulance is
approaching and as it is moving away from the observer?

approaching moving away

observer from observer

A decreases decreases
B decreases increases
C increases decreases
D increases increases

25 Microwaves in a vacuum travel at speed X and have wavelength of order of magnitude Y.

What are the speed and a possible order of magnitude of wavelength of X-rays in a vacuum?

speed wavelength

A X 10–8 Y
B X 10–4 Y
C 104 X Y
D 108 X Y

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26 The diagram shows part of a stationary wave on a string.

X and Y are points on the string. The vibrations at X and Y are 180 out of phase.

X Y

string

positions of string
when X and Y are at
maximum displacement

What is the distance between X and Y?

A one-quarter of a wavelength
B half a wavelength
C one wavelength
D two wavelengths

27 Which wave behaviour is shown in the diagram?

horizon
sea wall sea
sea wall

beach

wavefronts

A diffraction
B Doppler shift
C interference
D superposition

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28 A teacher sets up the apparatus shown to demonstrate a double-slit interference pattern on a

screen.

double screen
single
slit
slit

source
of light q

p r

Which change to the apparatus will increase the fringe spacing?

A decrease the distance p

B decrease the distance q
C decrease the distance r
D decrease the wavelength of the light

29 Light of a single unknown wavelength and blue light of a single wavelength are both incident
normally on a diffraction grating. Two diffraction patterns are produced, one for each wavelength
of light.

The third-order maximum for the blue light occurs at the same angle as the second-order
maximum for the light of unknown wavelength. The wavelength of the blue light is 480 nm.

What is the unknown wavelength?

A 320 nm B 720 nm C 960 nm D 1440 nm

30 What is the electric field strength in a region where a proton accelerates at 2.00 m s–2 due to the
field?

A 11.4 pV m–1 B 5.22 nV m–1 C 10.4 nV m–1 D 20.9 nV m–1

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31 An oil drop of mass 2.6  10–15 kg and with a charge of – 4.8  10–19 C is in a vacuum between two
horizontal plates. The plates have a separation of 2.0 cm and a potential difference (p.d.) between
them of 1200 V, as shown.

+1200 V

oil drop
plates 2.0 cm

0V

Which statement describes the motion of the oil drop?

A It is stationary.
B It has a downward acceleration of 9.7 m s–2.
C It has an upward acceleration of 1.3 m s–2.
D It has an upward acceleration of 11 m s–2.

32 Which two units are used to define the coulomb?

A ampere and second

B ampere and volt
C volt and ohm
D volt and second

33 A mobile phone battery is charged by connecting it to a constant potential difference of 5.0 V.

After a time of 1.0 hour, the initial current of 0.50 A slowly decreases to zero, as shown.

0.5
current / A

0
0 1.0 2.0
time / hours

What is the best estimate of the energy transferred to the battery during the time of 2.0 hours
shown in the graph?

A 2700 J B 9000 J C 14 000 J D 18 000 J

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 18

34 A length of wire is connected into an electric circuit. The current in the wire is measured.

Which change on its own could increase the current in the wire?

A an increase in the length of the wire

B an increase in the radius of the wire
C an increase in the resistance of the wire
D an increase in the resistivity of the wire

35 A cell is described as having an electromotive force (e.m.f.) of 6 V.

What does this mean?

A 1 coulomb of charge always dissipates 6 J of energy in the internal resistance of the cell.
B 1 electron gains 6 J of energy when passing through the cell.
C There is a potential difference of 6 V applied across any external circuit connected to the cell.
D When 1 coulomb of charge passes through the cell, 6 J of chemical energy is transformed.

36 The diagram shows a network of resistors. Each resistor has resistance R.

R
X R R Y
R

What is the total resistance of the network between points X and Y?

A R B 6R C 11R D 6R
6 11 6

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37 Three resistors are connected in series with a battery, as shown. The battery has negligible
internal resistance.

120 Ω

6.0 V 180 Ω

150 Ω

What is the potential difference across the 180  resistor?

A 1.6 V B 2.4 V C 3.6 V D 4.0 V

38 A potentiometer circuit is used to determine the unknown electromotive force (e.m.f.) of a cell X.

In the circuit shown, E is a cell with an e.m.f. that is known accurately. QR is the potentiometer
wire, which has a movable contact S. Contact S is connected to a galvanometer and to cell X.

S
Q R

What is not a necessary requirement to determine the e.m.f. of X from the circuit?

A The e.m.f. of cell X must be lower than the e.m.f. of cell E.

B The internal resistance of cell X must be known.
C The lengths QS and QR must be determined accurately.
D The resistance of the wire QR must be proportional to its length.

235
39 A nucleus of uranium, 92 U, undergoes a series of decays. During the series of decays, two
–
-particles and one  particle are emitted.

As a result, a nucleus of actinium, Ac, is formed.

What is the correct notation for the nuclide of actinium that is formed?
227 227 231 231
A 87 Ac B 89 Ac C 87 Ac D 89 Ac

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40 Which particle is a fundamental particle?

A electron
B hadron
C neutron
D proton

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download
at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.

Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of
Cambridge Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which itself is a department of the University of Cambridge.

© UCLES 2021 9702/11/M/J/21

 Cambridge International AS & A Level

PHYSICS 9702/12
Paper 1 Multiple Choice May/June 2021
1 hour 15 minutes

You must answer on the multiple choice answer sheet.

*8469174933*

You will need: Multiple choice answer sheet

Soft clean eraser
Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

INSTRUCTIONS
 There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions.
 For each question there are four possible answers A, B, C and D. Choose the one you consider correct
and record your choice in soft pencil on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Follow the instructions on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Write in soft pencil.
 Write your name, centre number and candidate number on the multiple choice answer sheet in the
spaces provided unless this has been done for you.
 Do not use correction fluid.
 Do not write on any bar codes.
 You may use a calculator.

INFORMATION
 The total mark for this paper is 40.
 Each correct answer will score one mark.
 Any rough working should be done on this question paper.

This document has 20 pages. Any blank pages are indicated.

IB21 06_9702_12/2RP
© UCLES 2021 [Turn over
 4

1 What is not a reasonable estimate of the physical property indicated?

A 2  103 W for the power dissipated by the heating element of an electric kettle

B 4  102 m3 for the volume of water in a swimming pool

C 5  105 N s for the momentum of a lorry moving along a road

D 6  102 N for the weight of a fully grown racehorse

2 Which quantity could have units of N m V–1?

A acceleration
B charge
C current
D resistance

3 An object is acted upon by two forces, 10 N in the vertical direction and 6 N at 40 to the vertical,
as shown.

10 N

40
6N

What is the resultant force acting on the object?

A B C D

15 N 15 N

15
18

7.7 N
6.6 N
37
36

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 5

4 An analogue ammeter with a range of 0–250 mA is connected into an electrical circuit. The
diagram shows the ammeter’s display.

10
What is the reading on the ammeter? 0
A 76 mA B 165 mA C 183 mA D 190 mA

5 Students take readings of the volume of a liquid using three different pieces of measuring
equipment X, Y and Z.

The true value of the volume of the liquid is V.

The students’ results are shown.

X Y Z

number of number of number of

readings readings readings

0 0 0
0 V volume 0 V volume 0 V volume

How many pieces of equipment are precise and how many are accurate?

number of precise number of accurate

pieces of equipment pieces of equipment

A 1 1
B 1 2
C 2 1
D 2 2

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6 Which graph shows the variation with time t of the velocity v of an object falling vertically
downwards in a vacuum?

A B

v v

0 0
0 t 0 t

C D

v v

0 0
0 t 0 t

7 A projectile is fired from point P with velocity V at an angle  to the horizontal. It lands at point Q,
a horizontal distance R from P. Air resistance is negligible.

path of projectile
V

P  Q
horizontal
R

The acceleration of free fall is g.

Which equation for R is correct?

R = V sin  cos 
2
A
g

R = 2V sin  cos 
2
B
g

R = V sin  cos 
2
C
2g

V 2g sin  cos 
D R=
2

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8 A book of weight W is at rest on a table. A student attempts to state Newton’s third law of motion
by saying that ‘action equals reaction’.

book

table
W

If the weight of the book is the ‘action’ force, what is the ‘reaction’ force?

A the force W acting downwards on the Earth from the table

B the force W acting upwards on the book from the table
C the force W acting upwards on the Earth from the book
D the force W acting upwards on the table from the floor

9 Four balls are dropped at the same time from the top of a very tall tower. There is no wind
blowing.

Which ball hits the ground first?

A B C D

mass M mass 4M mass M mass 4M

diameter D diameter D diameter 2D diameter 2D

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10 A nitrogen molecule P travelling at a speed of 320 m s–1 in a vacuum collides with a stationary
nitrogen molecule Q.

After the collision, P travels at a velocity of 180 m s–1 at an angle of 55 to its original path.

Q travels in a direction at an angle of 34 to the initial path of P.

180 m s–1

320 m s–1 55

P Q
34

Q
v

before collision after collision

Assume that there are no external forces acting on the molecules.

What is the magnitude v of the velocity of Q after the collision?

A 120 m s–1 B 140 m s–1 C 180 m s–1 D 260 m s–1

11 A charged particle is placed in a uniform field of force. The direction of the force on the particle is
opposite to the direction of the field.

What is the field and what is the charge on the particle?

field charge on particle

A electric negative
B electric positive
C gravitational negative
D gravitational positive

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12 A disc of radius r is acted upon by two opposite forces, each of magnitude F. The forces form a
couple, as shown.

What is the torque of this couple?

1
A 2 Fr B Fr C 2Fr D 4Fr

13 A uniform square sign of weight 40 N is suspended vertically from its top edge by a horizontal
hinge, as shown.

front view side view

hinge hinge
sign

0.80 m sign

0.80 m

The hinge is not frictionless. When the sign is displaced from the vertical by an external force and
then released, it does not return to the vertical position.

The maximum torque exerted by the hinge on the sign is 6.0 N m. The sign is displaced by 90 so
that it is horizontal and then gradually released.

At which angle to the vertical does the sign hang after release?

A 11 B 22 C 68 D 79

14 Each foot of an elephant has a circular cross-section with a circumference of 1.4 m. The elephant
has a mass of 5400 kg.

The elephant is standing still with all four feet on the ground. Assume the pressure under each
foot is the same.

What is the approximate pressure exerted on the ground by each of the elephant’s feet?

A 8.7 kPa B 35 kPa C 85 kPa D 340 kPa

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15 A stone is falling vertically through the air at a constant (terminal) velocity.

Which energy change is occurring?

A gravitational potential energy to thermal energy

B gravitational potential energy to kinetic energy of the stone
C kinetic energy to gravitational potential energy of the stone
D kinetic energy of the stone to thermal energy

16 An object of weight 12 N rests on a platform on top of a container with two pistons, as shown. The
container contains a fixed mass of gas, and the pistons are free to move.

object

platform

piston

piston
plunger container

The plunger is slowly pushed 4.0 cm to the right. As a result, the object slowly moves upwards a
distance 0.50 cm.

How much work is done on the object?

A 0.060 J B 0.48 J C 6.0 J D 48 J

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17 A constant force F, acting on a car of mass m, moves the car up a slope through a distance s at
constant velocity v. The angle of the slope to the horizontal is .

The acceleration of free fall is g.

gravitatio nal potential energy gained by car

What is the ratio ?
work done by force F

mgs sin mv mv 2 mg sin

A B C D
Fv Fs 2Fs F

18 What is the definition of power?

A Power is the product of force and velocity.

B Power is the product of force and work done per unit time.
C Power is the product of force per unit time and velocity.
D Power is the rate at which work is done.

19 A steel bar of circular cross-section is under tension T, as shown.

The diameter of the wide portion is double the diameter of the narrow portion.

T T

What is the value of stress in the wide portion ?

stress in the narrow portion
A 0.25 B 0.50 C 2.0 D 4.0

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20 Two guitar strings are stretched by tensile forces.

String X is stretched by a tensile force F that causes an extension x.

String Y is stretched by a tensile force 2F that causes an extension 2x.

The strings obey Hooke’s law.

strain energy in stretched string X
What is the ratio ?
strain energy in stretched string Y

A 4 B 2 C 1
2
D 1
4

21 Two lasers emit light in a vacuum. One laser emits red light and the other emits green light.

Which property of the light from the two lasers must be different?

A amplitude
B frequency
C intensity
D speed

22 Two particles in a progressive wave are a distance 10 cm apart. The two graphs show the
variation with time t of the displacement d of the two particles.

d d

0 0
0 t 0 t

What could be represented by the two graphs?

A particles in a longitudinal wave with a compression and the nearest rarefaction separated by
10 cm
B particles in a longitudinal wave with a compression and the nearest rarefaction separated by
20 cm
C particles in a transverse wave with a peak and the nearest trough separated by 20 cm
D particles in a transverse wave with two adjacent peaks separated by 10 cm

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23 A sound wave is detected by a microphone that is connected to a cathode-ray oscilloscope

(CRO).

The screen of the CRO displays a waveform, as shown.

The time-base is set to 20 s div–1.

What is the frequency of the sound wave?

A 15 Hz B 15 000 Hz C 20 000 Hz D 30 000 Hz

24 A person stands at the side of a straight railway track. A train moves towards the person and
emits sound from its whistle. The person hears a sound of frequency 1690 Hz as the train
approaches him.

The person then hears sound of frequency 1500 Hz as the train moves away from him. The
speed of sound in air is 340 m s–1.

What is the speed of the train?

A 20 m s–1 B 38 m s–1 C 41 m s–1 D 43 m s–1

25 Which list shows electromagnetic waves in order of decreasing frequency?

A gamma-rays  infrared  ultraviolet  radio waves

B gamma-rays  ultraviolet  infrared  radio waves

C radio waves  infrared  ultraviolet  gamma-rays

D radio waves  ultraviolet  infrared  gamma-rays

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26 A pipe of length L is open at one end and closed at the other end. A loudspeaker is at the open
end and emits a sound wave into the pipe.

pipe

L
loudspeaker

When a stationary wave is formed, there is an antinode at the open end of the pipe.

Which wavelength of sound could be used to produce a stationary wave?

A 2L B L C 4L D 2L
3 3

27 Which diagram best shows how water waves diffract when they pass through a gap in a barrier?

A B

gap

barrier

C D

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28 In a two-source interference experiment, light of a single frequency is incident on a double slit.

The light waves emerging from the slits are coherent.

What is meant by coherent ?

A The waves are in phase.

B The waves have a constant phase difference.
C The waves have the same amplitude.
D The waves interfere constructively wherever they overlap.

29 A parallel beam of light consists of light of wavelength 420 nm and light of wavelength 630 nm.

The light is incident normally on a diffraction grating.

The diffraction maxima for the two wavelengths overlap only at an angle of 31 from the direction
of the incident light beam.

What could be the line spacing of the diffraction grating?

A 1.2 m B 1.6 m C 2.4 m D 3.7 m

30 A positively charged particle P is in an electric field, as shown.

X
P

The field lines (lines of force) are evenly spaced and parallel.

Which statement is correct?

A Moving P a small distance in any direction will not change the electric force on P.
B Moving P a small distance in direction Y will increase the electric force on P.
C Moving P a small distance in direction Z will increase the electric force on P.
D Moving P a small distance in direction X will increase the electric force on P.

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31 The diagram shows two parallel metal plates P and Q, separated by a distance of 5.0 mm. There
is a potential difference of 700 V between the plates. Plate Q is earthed.

–700 V

plate P

5.0 mm R

plate Q

0V

What is the magnitude and direction of the electric field at point R?

A 1.4  102 N C–1 from P towards Q

B 1.4  102 N C–1 from Q towards P

C 1.4  105 N C–1 from P towards Q

D 1.4  105 N C–1 from Q towards P

32 A wedge-shaped metal conductor of length L, varying width and uniform thickness is connected
to a cell, as shown.

Y
X

Which graph best shows how the average drift velocity v of electrons in the conductor varies with
distance x from end X?

A B C D

v v v v

0 0 0 0
0 L 0 L 0 L 0 L
x x x x

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 17

33 The power output of an electrical supply is 2.4 kW at a potential difference (p.d.) of 240 V. The
two wires between the supply and a kettle each have a resistance of 0.50 , as shown.

supply kettle
0.50 Ω
240 V
2.4 kW
0.50 Ω

What is the power supplied to the kettle and what is the p.d. across the kettle?

power / kW p.d. / V

A 2.3 230
B 2.3 235
C 2.4 230
D 2.4 235

34 The graph shows the variation with potential difference V of the current I in components X, Y
and Z.

I X
Z
Y

0
0 V

Which row correctly identifies the components?

metallic conductor at semiconductor filament

constant temperature diode lamp

A X Z Y
B Y X Z
C Y Z X
D Z Y X

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35 A wire of resistance 9.55  has a diameter of 0.280 mm.

It is made of metal of resistivity 4.90  10–7  m.

What is the length of the wire?

A 1.20 m B 4.80 m C 19.0 m D 76.0 m

36 A cell of constant electromotive force (e.m.f.) but with internal resistance is connected to a fixed
resistor R using a potentiometer. A voltmeter measures the potential difference (p.d.) between
the terminals of the cell.

Z
V
X
R

Which statement explains the change to the reading of the voltmeter as contact Z is moved
towards end X of the potentiometer?

A The voltmeter reading decreases because the current through the cell decreases.
B The voltmeter reading decreases because the current through the cell increases.
C The voltmeter reading increases because the current through the cell decreases.
D The voltmeter reading increases because the current through the cell increases.

37 A cell of electromotive force (e.m.f.) E and negligible internal resistance is connected to a circuit.

The circuit has currents I1, I2 and I3, and potential differences V1, V2 and V3, as shown.

V2
I1 I2
V1

V3

I3

Which equation represents a statement of Kirchhoff’s first law?

A I1 = I2 + I3 B I1 = I2 = I3 C E = V1 + V2 D V1 = V2 = V3

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 19

38 Two resistors are connected in series with a 6.0 V power supply, as shown.

+6.0 V

12 k

0V

What is the resistance of the variable resistor R to give a potential difference of 1.0 V across the
12 k resistor?

A 2.0 k B 10 k C 60 k D 72 k

+
39 A nucleus of magnesium decays into a nucleus X by emitting a  particle. The decay is
represented by the equation shown.

23
12 Mg  P
Q X + 1 
0 +

What are the values of P and Q?

P Q

A 22 11
B 22 13
C 23 11
D 23 13

40 In – decay, a neutron inside a nucleus changes to a proton.

Which statement describes the quark composition of the nucleus during the decay?

A The number of down quarks decreases by one.

B The number of down quarks increases by one.
C The number of down quarks stays the same.
D The number of up quarks stays the same.

© UCLES 2021 9702/12/M/J/21

 Cambridge International AS & A Level

PHYSICS 9702/13
Paper 1 Multiple Choice May/June 2021
1 hour 15 minutes

You must answer on the multiple choice answer sheet.

*9120297825*

You will need: Multiple choice answer sheet

Soft clean eraser
Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

INSTRUCTIONS
 There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions.
 For each question there are four possible answers A, B, C and D. Choose the one you consider correct
and record your choice in soft pencil on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Follow the instructions on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Write in soft pencil.
 Write your name, centre number and candidate number on the multiple choice answer sheet in the
spaces provided unless this has been done for you.
 Do not use correction fluid.
 Do not write on any bar codes.
 You may use a calculator.

INFORMATION
 The total mark for this paper is 40.
 Each correct answer will score one mark.
 Any rough working should be done on this question paper.

This document has 20 pages. Any blank pages are indicated.

IB21 06_9702_13/3RP
© UCLES 2021 [Turn over
 4

1 What is a reasonable estimate of the kinetic energy of an Olympic athlete sprinting in a 100 m
race?

A 40 J B 400 J C 4000 J D 40 000 J

2 What is a unit of momentum?

A kg m s–2 B N s–1 C Ns D kg s m–1

3 What is the horizontal component of the force shown?

20 N

53

horizontal

A 12 N B 16 N C 25 N D 27 N

4 The diagram shows two readings on a micrometer.

0 0 5 10 0
15

45
10

40

reading 1 reading 2

What is the difference between the two readings?

A 10.34 mm B 11.84 mm C 12.34 mm D 12.84 mm

5 The diameter of a circular disc is measured as (7.0  0.1) mm.

What is the area of the disc and the absolute uncertainty in the area?

area of disc absolute

/ mm2 uncertainty / mm2

A 38.5  0.5
B 38 1
C 154 2
D 154 4

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 5

6 The diagram shows a velocity–time graph for a car.

12
velocity
10
/ m s–1
8

0
0 1 2 3 4
time / s

What is the distance travelled during the first 4.0 s?

A 2.5 m B 3.0 m C 20 m D 28 m

7 A steel ball is dropped from rest from a height h above the ground. The ball hits the ground after
a time t.

This is repeated for a number of different heights.

The graph shows the variation of h with t 2 for the ball.

0
0 t2

The gradient of the graph is G.

Which expression gives the acceleration of the ball?

A G B G C 2G D G2
2

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8 Two masses, M and m, are connected by an inextensible string which passes over a frictionless
pulley. Mass M rests on a frictionless slope, as shown.

M
m

frictionless slope

The slope is at an angle  to the horizontal.

The two masses are initially held stationary and then released. Mass M accelerates down the
slope.

Which expression must be correct?

A sin < m B cos < m C sin > m D cos > m

M M M M

9 The weights and masses of four different objects on the surfaces of four different planets are
shown.

Which planet has the lowest value of acceleration of free fall at its surface?

weight mass

A 40 mN 6.0 g
B 3.0 N 500 g
C 10 N 1 kg
D 2.6 kN 750 kg

10 A rock in deep space is travelling towards a distant star and collides with a stationary spacecraft.

What is not a possible outcome of the collision?

A The rock becomes stationary and the spacecraft moves towards the star.
B The rock moves away from the star and so does the spacecraft.
C The rock moves away from the star and the spacecraft moves towards the star.
D The rock moves towards the star and so does the spacecraft.

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11 A steel ball is falling at a constant (terminal) speed in still air. The forces acting on the ball are
upthrust, viscous drag and weight.

What is the order of increasing magnitude of these three forces?

A upthrust  viscous drag  weight

B viscous drag  upthrust  weight

C viscous drag  weight  upthrust

D weight  upthrust  viscous drag

12 What is a couple?

A a pair of equal forces acting in the same direction but along different lines
B a pair of forces that are equal and opposite but acting along different lines
C a pair of forces that produce no resultant force and no resultant moment
D a pair of unequal forces acting in opposite directions but along the same line

13 Four coplanar forces act on a rigid rod, as shown. The rod is hinged at P.

Which force produces the greatest moment about point P?

6N 2N
B 4N
D
P 30° C 30°

1.0 m 1.0 m 1.0 m 1.0 m

A

10 N

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14 A book of weight W has a rectangular shape and is of uniform thickness. The book is held in a
vertical plane so that the longer sides of the book are vertical, as shown.

hand

b book

Which expression gives the approximate torque exerted by the hand on the book?

A Wa clockwise
2

B Wb anticlockwise
2
C Wa clockwise
D Wb anticlockwise

15 The derivation of the pressure equation p =  gh uses a number of relationships between
quantities.

Which relationship is not used in the derivation of this equation?

A density = mass
volume
B potential energy = mass  acceleration of free fall  height

C pressure = force
area
D weight = mass  acceleration of free fall

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16 A spring is initially neither compressed nor extended.

A force can be applied to this spring so that it is either compressed to a shorter length or
extended to a longer length.

What is the change in the elastic potential energy in the spring when it is extended and when it is
compressed?

change in the elastic potential energy

spring is extended spring is compressed

A decreases decreases
B decreases increases
C increases decreases
D increases increases

17 A sample of gas is sealed in a cylinder by a piston. The frictionless piston is free to move, so that
the pressure of the gas remains constant at 1.80  105 Pa.

The gas initially occupies a volume of 2.40  10–4 m3.

The gas now does 14.4 J of work.

What is the volume of the gas after doing this work?

A 0.80  10–4 m3

B 1.60  10–4 m3

C 3.20  10–4 m3

D 4.00  10–4 m3

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18 A car of mass 500 kg is at rest at point X on a slope, as shown.

The car’s brakes are released and the car rolls down the slope with its engine switched off. At
point Y the car has moved through a vertical height of 30 m and has a speed of 11 m s–1.

mass = 500 kg
speed = 0 m s–1

30 m
speed = 11 m s–1

What is the energy dissipated by frictional forces when the car moves from X to Y?

A 3.0  104 J B 1.2  105 J C 1.5  105 J D 1.8  105 J

19 Which expression cannot be used to calculate power?

(force  displacement)
A
time

B force  velocity

C work done
time

D work done  velocity

20 The stress  in a material is given by the equation shown.

= F
A

The strain  in the same material is given by the equation shown.

= x
L

Which expression gives the Young modulus of the material?

A  B Fx C x D F
 AL L A

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21 What is an example of plastic deformation?

A A rubber ball is momentarily compressed every time it hits the ground.

B A spoon stirring some coffee in a ceramic mug hits its surface and makes a clinking sound.
C A toolbox is left on a horizontal plank. When the toolbox is removed, the plank is no longer
straight.
D The spring in some bathroom weighing scales is compressed by a person standing on the
scales.

22 A transverse progressive wave of wavelength  is set up on a stretched string. The graph shows
the variation of displacement y with distance x at a particular instant of time. The wave has
displacement +y1 at distance x =  .
8

y1
0
0    3 2 5 x
8 2 2 2

What are the next two values of x where the displacement y is again equal to +y1?

A 3 and 5
8 8

B 3 and 9
8 8

C 5 and 9
8 8

D 9 and 17
8 8

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23 The graph shows the variation with time of the displacement of an air particle as a progressive
sound wave passes through the air. The speed of sound in air is 330 m s–1.

displacement

0
0 5 10 15 20 25 30 35 40 45 50 55
time / ms

What is the wavelength of the wave?

A 6.6 m B 8.3 m C 20 m D 25 m

24 A microphone is connected to a cathode-ray oscilloscope (CRO). A sound wave of constant

frequency is detected by the microphone. The screen of the CRO is shown.

1.0 cm

1.0 cm

The time-base is set at 1.0 ms cm–1.

What is the frequency of the sound wave?

A 250 Hz B 500 Hz C 670 Hz D 4000 Hz

25 A train’s whistle is emitting sound of frequency 500 Hz as the train moves with a speed of 20 m s–1
along a straight track. The train moves directly towards a stationary observer standing next to the
track and then passes the observer.

The speed of sound in air is 330 m s–1.

What is the difference between the frequencies of the sound heard by the observer before and
after the train has passed the observer?

A 29 Hz B 32 Hz C 40 Hz D 61 Hz

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26 Gamma-rays, microwaves, visible light and X-rays are four regions of the electromagnetic
spectrum.

Which list shows these four regions in order of increasing wavelength?

A microwaves  visible light  X-rays  gamma-rays

B gamma-rays  X-rays  visible light  microwaves

C X-rays  gamma-rays  microwaves  visible light

D microwaves  visible light  gamma-rays  X-rays

27 To produce a stationary wave, two waves must travel in opposite directions through the same
space.

Which statement about the properties of the two waves must also be correct?

A The waves must have equal frequencies, but different speeds and wavelengths.
B The waves must have equal speeds, but different wavelengths and frequencies.
C The waves must have equal speeds, frequencies and wavelengths.
D The waves must have equal wavelengths, but different speeds and frequencies.

28 The speed of sound in air is 330 m s–1.

Which size of architectural features in a large concert hall would best diffract sound waves of
frequency 0.44 kHz?

A 1.3 mm B 750 mm C 7.5 m D 17 m

29 A double-slit interference pattern using red light of wavelength 7.0  10–7 m has a fringe spacing
of 3.5 mm.

Which fringe spacing would be observed for the same arrangement of apparatus but using blue
light of wavelength 4.5  10–7 m?

A 2.3 mm B 3.5 mm C 5.4 mm D 9.0 mm

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30 A beam of light of a single wavelength is incident normally on a diffraction grating.

The angle of diffraction  is measured for each order of diffraction n. The distance between
adjacent slits in the diffraction grating is d.

A graph is plotted to determine the wavelength of the light.

Which graph should be plotted and how is the wavelength determined from the graph?

y-axis x-axis wavelength

A n d sin  gradient
B n d sin  1 / gradient
C sin  d/n gradient
D sin  dn 1 / gradient

31 A particle has a charge of +2.0 mC and is in a vertical uniform electric field. An electric force of
1.0  10–2 N acts upwards on the particle.

What is the electric field strength?

A 0.20 V m–1 downwards

B 0.20 V m–1 upwards
C 5.0 V m–1 downwards
D 5.0 V m–1 upwards

32 The diagram shows two parallel metal plates connected to a d.c. power supply through a resistor.

There is a uniform electric field in the region between the plates.

Which change would cause a decrease in the strength of the electric field?

A a small increase in the distance between the plates

B a small increase in the potential difference between the plates
C a small increase in the resistance of the resistor
D a small increase to the area of both plates

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33 A wire has a length of 12 cm and contains a total of 5.1  1022 free electrons.

When a potential difference is applied across the ends of the wire, the free electrons move with
an average drift speed of 4.0  10–6 m s–1.

What is the current in the wire?

A 0.0027 A B 0.0039 A C 0.27 A D 0.39 A

34 A battery is marked 9.0 V.

What does this mean?

A Each coulomb of charge from the battery supplies 9.0 J of electrical energy to the whole
circuit.
B The battery supplies 9.0 J of electrical energy to an external circuit for each coulomb of
charge.
C The potential difference across any component connected to the battery will be 9.0 V.
D There will always be a potential difference of 9.0 V across the battery terminals.

35 The diagram shows a circuit containing two batteries connected together.

12.0 V
1.0 Ω

I
8.0 V
0.5 Ω

What is the current I ?

A 2.7 A B 4.0 A C 8.0 A D 13 A

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36 The circuit shown includes a cell of constant internal resistance and an external resistor R.

cell

R
A

A student records the ammeter and voltmeter readings. She then connects a second identical
external resistor in parallel with the first external resistor.

What happens to the ammeter reading and to the voltmeter reading?

ammeter reading voltmeter reading

A decreases decreases
B decreases stays the same
C increases decreases
D increases stays the same

37 A battery of electromotive force (e.m.f.) E and negligible internal resistance is connected to four
resistors of resistances R1, R2, R3 and R4.

I1 I2

R1 R3

R2 R4

The currents I1 and I2 in the resistors are as shown.

Which equation is correct?

A 0 = I1(R1 + R2) + I2(R3 + R4)

B 0 = I1(R1 + R2) – I2(R3 + R4)

C E = I1(R1 + R2) + I2(R3 + R4)

D E = I1(R1 + R2) – I2(R3 + R4)

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38 In the circuit shown, a potentiometer of total resistance 120  is connected in parallel with a
resistor of resistance 150  and a resistor of resistance R.

The battery has electromotive force (e.m.f.) 12 V and negligible internal resistance.

150 Ω

12 V 120 Ω V

The voltmeter reads 0 V when the slider of the potentiometer is 1 of the way from its lower end,
4
as shown.

What is resistance R ?

A 30  B 38  C 50  D 450 

39 A beam of -particles is incident on a thin gold foil. One -particle collides head-on with a gold
nucleus and is deflected back along its original path.

Which statement could explain why the recoil speed of the gold nucleus is small compared with
the recoil speed of the -particle?

A Most -particles are only slightly deflected as they pass through the gold foil.

B The -particle and the gold nucleus repel each other.

C The mass of the gold nucleus is much greater than the mass of the -particle.

D The momentum of the -particle decreases as it approaches the gold nucleus.

40 A hadron is composed of three quarks. The hadron has a charge.

What is a possible quark composition of the hadron?

A down, down, up
B down, up, strange
C up, strange, strange
D up, up, strange

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1 What is essential when recording a measurement of a physical quantity?

A the measurement has an SI unit

B the measurement has a unit and a number
C the measurement has a unit given as a base unit
D the measurement is from an analogue scale

2 The mobility  of electrons travelling through a metal conductor can be calculated using the
equation

 
 =  e 
m

where e is the charge on an electron and m is its mass. The average time between the collisions
of an electron with the atoms in the metal is .

What are the SI base units of  ?

A A kg–1 B A s2 kg–1 C A s kg–1 D A s–2 kg–1

3 An aircraft heads in a direction at an angle  east of north with a horizontal velocity relative to the
air of 800 km h–1. The wind blows with a horizontal velocity of 200 km h–1 from east to west, as
shown.

NOT TO direction of resultant

SCALE velocity of aircraft
aircraft velocity relative
to air = 800 km h–1

wind velocity = 200 km h–1 T

W E

The resultant velocity of the aircraft is in a direction due north.

What is angle  and what is the magnitude of the resultant velocity?

resultant
/
velocity / km h–1

A 14 770
B 14 820
C 76 770
D 76 820

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4 A cathode-ray oscilloscope (CRO) is used to display a sound wave of frequency 2000 Hz.

The display of the CRO is shown.

1 cm

1 cm

What is the time-base setting on the CRO?

A 125 s cm–1 B 250 s cm–1 C 500 s cm–1 D 1000 s cm–1

5 Four possible sources of error in a series of measurements are listed.

1 an analogue meter whose scale is read from different angles

2 a meter which always measures 5% too high
3 a meter with a needle that is not frictionless, so the needle sometimes sticks slightly
4 a meter with a zero error

Which errors are random and which are systematic?

random error systematic error

A 1 and 2 3 and 4
B 1 and 3 2 and 4
C 2 and 4 1 and 3
D 3 and 4 1 and 2

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6 An archer shoots an arrow at a target. The diagram shows the path of the arrow.

path of arrow

target

archer

Air resistance is negligible.

The graphs show how three different quantities p, q and r vary with time.

p q r

0 0 0
0 time 0 time 0 time

Which quantity could be the horizontal component of displacement and which quantity could be
the vertical component of displacement of the arrow?

horizontal vertical
component of component of
displacement displacement

A p q
B q r
C r p
D r q

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7 Two cars X and Y are positioned as shown at time t = 0.

They are travelling in the same direction.

X is 50 m behind Y and has a constant velocity of 30 m s–1. Y has a constant velocity of 20 m s–1.

30 m s–1

X
20 m s–1

50 m

What is the value of t when X is level with Y?

A 1.0 s B 1.7 s C 2.5 s D 5.0 s

8 A constant resultant force acts on an object in the direction of the object’s velocity.

Which graph could show the variation with time t of the momentum p of the object?

A B

p p

0 0
0 t 0 t

C D

p p

0 0
0 t 0 t

9 Which statement must be true for an object in a gravitational field?

A If the object has mass then the field causes it to accelerate.

B If the object has mass then the field causes it to have weight.
C If the object has weight then the field causes it to accelerate.
D If the object has weight then the field causes it to have mass.

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10 A ball of mass 0.16 kg is travelling horizontally at a speed of 20 m s–1.

It collides with a wall and rebounds with a speed of 15 m s–1 along its original path. The ball is in
contact with the wall for a time of 1.0 ms.

What is the average force exerted by the wall on the ball?

A 800 N B 2400 N C 3200 N D 5600 N

11 A uniform solid block is fully submerged in a tank of water.

The dimensions of the block are x and y, as shown.

water surface

d x
x

The block is held vertically in the position shown. The density of the block is the same as the
density of the water.

If the block is always held at the same depth d below the surface of the water, which single
change would increase the magnitude of the upthrust force on the block?

A decrease the density of the block

B hold the block horizontally
C increase dimension y
D increase the density of the block

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12 A shelf XY is 0.40 m long and is attached to a wall at end X.

It is kept horizontal by a wire attached to Y and to the wall, as shown.

wire

wall 15 N

shelf
30q
X Y

0.40 m

The tension force in the wire is 15 N at an angle of 30 to the horizontal.

What is the moment of this force about point X?

A 3.0 N m B 5.2 N m C 6.9 N m D 12 N m

13 A statement about the principle of moments with some words omitted is shown.

‘For an object in a state of rotational equilibrium, the sum of the clockwise

moments about any point is equal to the sum of the anticlockwise moments
about ..................... .’

Which words correctly complete the statement?

A any point
B the centre of gravity of the object
C the pivot
D the same point

14 A bird dives to a depth of 1.50 m below the surface of a lake. Atmospheric pressure is 101 kPa.
The density of water is 1000 kg m–3.

What is the pressure at this depth?

A 14.7 kPa B 86.3 kPa C 103 kPa D 116 kPa

15 Which statement about energy is not correct?

A Energy is never lost but it may be transferred between different forms.

B In an inelastic collision, the total energy is constant.
C The efficiency of a system is the ratio of the useful energy output to the total energy input.
D When a machine does work, friction reduces the total energy.

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16 A pulley of radius 0.40 m supports weights of 20 N and 15 N by means of a thin string, as shown.

15 N

20 N

The weights are moved by slowly rotating the pulley clockwise through an angle of 60.

What is the increase in the total gravitational potential energy of the weights?

A 0.33 J B 2.0 J C 2.1 J D 15 J

17 A car of mass 1500 kg accelerates from an initial speed of 15 m s–1. This acceleration causes the
car to gain 3.0  105 J of kinetic energy.

What is the change in the speed of the car?

A 5.4 m s–1 B 10 m s–1 C 20 m s–1 D 25 m s–1

18 A car of mass 1500 kg travels at a constant velocity of 30 m s–1 down a slope. The slope is at an
angle of 6.0 to the horizontal, as shown.

car,
constant velocity
mass 1500 kg
of 30 m s–1
slope
resistive force,
2000 N

6.0q
horizontal

The magnitude of the total resistive force acting on the car is 2000 N.

What is the power output of the car’s engine?

A 14 kW B 60 kW C 110 kW D 380 kW

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19 A metal wire, of cross-sectional area A and unstretched length l, is subjected to stress . As a

result it has strain .

Which expression gives the Young modulus of the metal?

A  B A C  D l
 l  A

20 Two identical springs are connected in parallel.

A weight of 8.0 N is hung from the combination, as shown.

8
force / N
6

0
0 2 4 6 8 10
8.0 N length / cm

The graph shows the variation with length of the force applied to one of the springs.

What is the strain energy in one of the springs?

A 0.060 J B 0.12 J C 0.14 J D 0.24 J

21 Two balls float on the surface of the sea. The balls are separated by a distance of 1.30 m.

A wave travels on the surface of the sea so that the balls move vertically up and down.

direction of
ball
travel of wave
ball

0.90 m NOT TO
SCALE
1.30 m

The distance between a crest and an adjacent trough of the wave is 0.90 m.

What is the phase difference between the two balls?

A 55 B 110 C 160 D 260

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22 Which statement about transverse or longitudinal waves is not correct?

A Longitudinal waves can be used to demonstrate diffraction.

B Longitudinal waves can travel in a vacuum.
C Transverse waves can form stationary waves.
D Transverse waves can transfer energy.

23 A glass tube is closed at one end and has a loudspeaker at the other end.

glass tube

loudspeaker

A stationary wave is formed with a node at the closed end of the tube when the sound has
frequency f0. There are no other nodes.

The frequency of the sound is then slowly increased.

What is the frequency of the sound that produces the next stationary wave?

A 1.25f0 B 1.50f0 C 2.00f0 D 3.00f0

24 With which waves can the Doppler effect be observed?

A all waves including sound and light

B light waves only
C sound and light waves only
D sound waves only

25 Which radiation could consist of waves of wavelength 0.5 nm?

A -rays
B ultraviolet
C visible light
D X-rays

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26 A string is fixed between point P and an oscillator M. Another string is fixed between M and
point Q. M is midway between P and Q.

M
P Q

The frequency of the oscillator is adjusted until a stationary wave is formed on both strings. The
speed of the wave between P and M is twice the speed of the wave between M and Q.

Which diagram could represent the stationary wave pattern?

A B

M M
P Q P Q

C D

M M
P Q P Q

27 A water wave in a ripple tank is diffracted as it passes through a gap in a barrier.

Which two factors affect the angle of diffraction of the wave?

A the amplitude and frequency of the incident wave

B the amplitude of the incident wave and the width of the gap
C the wavelength and amplitude of the incident wave
D the wavelength of the incident wave and the width of the gap

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28 Light of wavelength  is incident normally on two narrow slits S1 and S2, a small distance apart.
Bright and dark fringes are observed on a screen a long distance away from the slits.

P
S1
screen
light,
wavelength O

S2

The n th dark fringe from the central bright fringe is observed at point P on the screen.

Which equation is correct for all positive values of n?

A S2P – S1P = n
2
B S2P – S1P = n

C S2P – S1P = (n – 1
2
)

D S2P – S1P = (n + 1
2
)

29 Green light is incident normally on a diffraction grating and forms a diffraction pattern on a distant
screen.

screen
diffraction
grating
green
light

Which change, on its own, would decrease the separation of the diffraction maxima on the
screen?

A Increase the distance between the screen and the diffraction grating.
B Replace the diffraction grating with a grating that has a smaller separation between the slits.
C Replace the diffraction grating with a grating that has fewer slits per unit length.
D Replace the green light with red light.

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30 What is meant by electric field strength?

A force per unit charge acting on a small mass

B force per unit charge acting on a small positive charge
C force per unit mass acting on a small mass
D force per unit mass acting on a small positive charge

31 Three parallel metal plates of the same area are fixed with a separation of 2.0 cm between the top
plate and the middle plate, and 1.0 cm between the middle plate and the bottom plate. The top
plate is held at a potential of +500 V, the middle plate at +200 V and the bottom plate is earthed,
as shown.

+500 V
X
2.0 cm

+200 V
1.0 cm Y
0V

magnitude of force on an electron at X

What is the value of the ratio ?
magnitude of force on an electron at Y

A 0.75 B 1.00 C 1.25 D 1.50

32 The current I in a wire is given by the equation

I = nAvq

where n is the number density of the free electrons, A is the cross-sectional area of the wire, v is
the average drift velocity of the free electrons and q is the charge of an electron.

Which relationship is not used in the derivation of this equation?

A charge = current  time

B distance = speed  time

C number = number density  area

D volume = length  area

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33 A circuit contains two resistors, P and Q, and a power supply of negligible internal resistance, as
shown.

P Q

The current in resistor P is 2.0 A and the power dissipated by resistor P is 18 W.

Resistor Q dissipates 240 J of energy when a charge of 40 C passes through it.

What is the electromotive force (e.m.f.) of the power supply?

A 3.0 V B 6.0 V C 9.0 V D 15 V

34 The I–V characteristics of two electrical components P and Q are shown.

2.0
I/A

1.5
P
Q
1.0

0.5

0
0 2.0 4.0 6.0 8.0
V/V

Which statement is correct?

A For a current of 0.5 A, the power dissipated in Q is double that in P.

B For a current of 1.9 A, the resistance of Q is approximately half that of P.
C The resistance of Q increases as the current in it increases.
D P is a fixed resistor and Q is a filament lamp.

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35 Two copper wires S and T, of equal length, are connected in parallel. Wire S has a diameter of
3.0 mm. Wire T has a diameter of 1.5 mm.

A potential difference is applied across the ends of this parallel arrangement.

What is the value of the ratio current in S ?

current in T

A 1 B 1 C 2 D 4
4 2

36 What is the circuit symbol for an oscilloscope?

A B C D

37 Three identical cells, each of electromotive force (e.m.f.) E and internal resistance r, are
connected as shown.

E
X r

E
r
r
E

current Y

What is the potential difference between points X and Y?

A 0 B E C 2E D 3E

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38 Potential differences across two resistors of resistances R1 and R2 are compared using a
potentiometer wire (uniform resistance wire) in the electrical circuit shown.

80 cm

60 cm

potentiometer
wire
R1 X R2 Y

One terminal of a galvanometer is connected to point X. The galvanometer reads zero when its
other terminal is connected to a point that is a distance of 60 cm from one end of the
potentiometer wire.

One terminal of a second galvanometer is connected to point Y. This galvanometer reads zero
when its other terminal is connected to a point that is a distance of 80 cm from the same end of
the potentiometer wire.

R2
What is the ratio ?
R1

A 1 B 3 C 3 D 4
3 4 1 3

238 234
39 A uranium-238 nucleus, 92 U, undergoes a series of nuclear decays to form uranium-234, 92 U.

Which series of decays could give this result?

A emission of four – particles

B emission of four -rays

C emission of one -particle and two – particles

D emission of two -particles and eight – particles

40 Which combination of up (u) and down (d) quarks forms a proton?

A uuu B uud C udd D ddd

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1 Which row shows what all physical quantities must have?

magnitude direction unit

A   
B   
C   
D   

2 What is an alternative way of expressing an energy of 43 dJ?

A 4.3  103 mJ

B 4.3  103 MJ

C 4.3  10–3 mJ

D 4.3  10–3 MJ

3 A tennis ball is hit so that it leaves the racket with velocity v at an angle  to the horizontal.

vy v

horizontal

The vertical component of the velocity is vy.

What is the magnitude of the horizontal component of v ?

1
A v sin B vy cos C vy sin D (v2 – vy2) 2

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4 Four cathode-ray oscilloscope (CRO) screens each display a waveform. The screen and the
time-base setting of each CRO is shown.

1 2

time-base setting: 0.02 s / div time-base setting: 0.04 s / div

3 4

time-base setting: 0.01 s / div time-base setting: 0.08 s / div

Which screens show waveforms of the same frequency?

A 1 and 2 B 1 and 3 C 1 and 4 D 2 and 3

5 A student measures the time T for one complete oscillation of a pendulum of length l.

Her results are shown in the table.

l/m T/s

0.420  0.001 1.3  0.1

She uses the formula

T = 2 l
g

to calculate the acceleration of free fall g.

What is the best estimate of the percentage uncertainty in the value of g ?

A 0.02% B 4% C 8% D 16%

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6 The graph shows the variation with time t of the velocity of a vehicle moving in a straight line.

16
velocity 14
/ m s–1
12
10
8
6
4
2
0
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7
t/s

The vehicle, moving at 4.0 m s–1, begins to accelerate at time t = 0.

What is the vehicle’s acceleration at time t = 3.0 s?

A 0.67 m s–2 B 1.0 m s–2 C 1.3 m s–2 D 2.0 m s–2

7 A stone is projected vertically upwards from the ground at an initial speed of 15 m s–1. Air
resistance is negligible.

What is the maximum height reached by the stone?

A 0.76 m B 11 m C 23 m D 110 m

8 What is meant by the mass of an object?

A the property of the object that resists a change in motion

B the pull of the Earth on the object
C the total number of atoms in the object
D the weight of the object

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9 The diagram shows two parachutists, X and Y, moving vertically downwards.

X Y

The total mass of parachutist Y and his parachute is twice the total mass of parachutist X and his
parachute. At this moment, the air resistance on parachute Y is twice the air resistance on
parachute X. Neither parachutist has reached his constant (terminal) velocity.

Which statement describes the acceleration of Y compared with the acceleration of X?

A The acceleration of Y is half the acceleration of X.

B The acceleration of Y is the same as the acceleration of X.
C The acceleration of Y is more than the acceleration of X, but less than twice the value.
D The acceleration of Y is twice the acceleration of X.

10 The table shows four different collisions between two blocks, each of mass 0.50 kg.

Which collision is perfectly elastic?

before collision after collision

4.0 m s–1 0.0 m s–1 2.0 m s–1
A
0.50 kg 0.50 kg 0.50 kg 0.50 kg

2.0 m s–1 2.0 m s–1 0.0 m s–1

B
0.50 kg 0.50 kg 0.50 kg 0.50 kg

2.0 m s–1 1.0 m s–1 2.0 m s–1 3.0 m s–1

C
0.50 kg 0.50 kg 0.50 kg 0.50 kg

4.0 m s–1 1.0 m s–1 1.0 m s–1 4.0 m s–1

D
0.50 kg 0.50 kg 0.50 kg 0.50 kg

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11 A cylindrical block of wood has cross-sectional area A and weight W. It is totally immersed in
water with its axis vertical. The block experiences pressures pt and pb at its top and bottom
surfaces respectively.

What is the upthrust on the block?

A (pb – pt)
B (pb – pt)A
C (pb – pt)A – W
D (pb – pt)A + W

12 Two forces, each of magnitude F, act on a disc of diameter s, as shown.

F
disc

What is the torque exerted on the disc?

A zero B 1
2
Fs C Fs D 2Fs

13 A mass of 500 g is attached at one end of a rod of length 1.50 m. The rod is pivoted at a distance
of 25 cm from the other end. The rod is horizontal.

pivot rod mass 500 g

25 cm
1.50 m

What is the moment about the pivot due to the mass?

A 0.63 N m B 1.2 N m C 6.1 N m D 7.4 N m

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14 A beam QR is held in position by a wire PQ. The structure is used to form a crane supporting a
stationary load of 4.0 kN, as shown.

P Q
vertical 30
wall

R 4.0 kN

What is the force exerted by the beam QR on point Q?

A 4.0 kN B 4.6 kN C 6.9 kN D 8.0 kN

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15 A metal cylinder, totally immersed in water, is hung from a newton meter.

newton meter

Y
water surface

L
X

The cylinder, of height L, is slowly raised vertically by lifting the newton meter.

As the base of the cylinder moves from line X in the water to line Y above the surface of the
water, the reading R on the newton meter is recorded. The velocity of the cylinder is constant.

Which graph best shows the variation of R with the distance d of the base of the cylinder from
line X?

A B

R R

0 0
0 d 0 d
L L

C D

R R

0 0
0 d 0 d
L L

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16 A ball is thrown vertically upwards into the air. It rises to the top of its path before beginning to fall
vertically downwards.

top of path

midpoint of path

starting position

Assume that the gravitational potential energy of the ball is zero at its starting position.

Which statement about the ball is not correct?

A As it rises, its kinetic energy is transferred to gravitational potential energy.

B At the midpoint of its path, its gravitational potential energy is equal to its initial kinetic
energy.
C At the top of its path, its kinetic energy is zero.
D At the top of its path, its total energy is less than its initial total energy.

17 An object slides with constant velocity across a horizontal sheet of ice. Friction is negligible.

A constant horizontal force of 2.1 N is then applied to the object as shown.

X
4.0 m

2.1 N 30

object
initial direction of
motion of object

A short time after applying the force, the object reaches point X at a displacement of 4.0 m from
its position when the force was first applied.

What is the work done by the force on the object as it travels to point X?

A 4.2 J B 4.8 J C 7.3 J D 8.4 J

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18 The energy conversions inside a power station burning fossil fuel can be simplified as shown.

chemical energy W  thermal energy X  electrical energy Y

Which expression gives the efficiency of the power station?

A Y B Y C Y D Y
W W + X  X W + X + Y 

19 Car X is travelling at half the speed of car Y. Car X has twice the mass of car Y.

Which statement is correct?

A Car X has half the kinetic energy of car Y.

B Car X has one quarter of the kinetic energy of car Y.
C Car X has twice the kinetic energy of car Y.
D The two cars have the same kinetic energy.

20 The total weight of a motorbike and rider is 1800 N. The motorbike travels in a straight line at
constant speed up a hill at an angle of 30 to the horizontal.

30
horizontal

The useful output power of the motorbike is 36 000 W. The total resistive force due to air
resistance and friction on the motorbike and rider is 2400 N.

What is the speed of the motorbike?

A 8.6 m s–1 B 11 m s–1 C 15 m s–1 D 24 m s–1

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21 Three springs are arranged vertically as shown.

P Q

Springs P and Q are identical and each has spring constant k. Spring R has spring constant 3k.

What is the increase in the overall length of the arrangement when a force W is applied as
shown?

A 5W B 4W C 7 kW D 4 kW
6 k 3 k 2

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22 A length of metal wire is attached to a fixed point and hangs vertically. Masses are then
suspended from the wire. Assume that the cross-sectional area of the wire remains constant.

fixed point
metal wire

masses

A stress–strain graph for the wire is plotted, as shown.

stress

0
0 strain

What is represented by the shaded area under the graph?

A strain energy in the wire

strain energy in the wire

B
cross - sectional area of the wire

strain energy in the wire

C
original length of the wire

strain energy in the wire

D
original volume of the wire

23 The table contains descriptions and examples of waves.

Which row is correct?

description of wave example

A oscillations are parallel to the direction of energy transfer gamma-rays

B oscillations are parallel to the direction of energy transfer ultraviolet waves
C oscillations are perpendicular to the direction of energy transfer sound waves
D oscillations are perpendicular to the direction of energy transfer X-rays

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24 A sound wave from a loudspeaker is reflected back along its original path by a reflector.

A microphone is initially at point X where the sound intensity is a minimum, as shown.

loudspeaker reflector
M M M M M M M = position of
X Y minimum intensity

70.0 cm

The microphone is moved towards the reflector and passes through four more intensity minima
until reaching a fifth minimum at point Y. The distance XY is 70.0 cm.

What is the wavelength of the sound?

A 11.7 cm B 14.0 cm C 23.3 cm D 28.0 cm

25 A train travels in a straight line at a constant speed of 30 m s–1. The train’s horn continuously
emits sound of frequency 2400 Hz.

A stationary observer stands next to the train track. The train approaches the stationary observer,
passes him and then moves away.

The speed of sound is 340 m s–1.

What is the maximum difference in the frequencies of the sound heard by the stationary
observer?

A 190 Hz B 230 Hz C 430 Hz D 460 Hz

26 Electromagnetic waves of frequency 30 THz are in a vacuum.

In which region of the electromagnetic spectrum are the waves?

A infrared
B microwave
C ultraviolet
D visible light

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27 A stationary wave is produced on a string that is stretched between two fixed points that are a
distance of 1.35 m apart, as shown.

string

1.35 m

The speed of the waves on the string is 450 m s–1.

What is the frequency of oscillation of the stationary wave?

A 333 Hz B 405 Hz C 500 Hz D 1000 Hz

28 A beam of laser light is directed towards a narrow slit.

cross-section panel
of beam of light

slit

After emerging from the other side of the slit, the diffracted light then falls on a screen.

What is the pattern of light seen on the screen?

A B C D

29 Two waves, each with a constant amplitude, interfere and produce an interference pattern. The
pattern has minima at fixed points where the displacement is zero at all times.

Which statement describes the two waves?

A They must be coherent and of the same amplitude.

B They must be coherent but not necessarily of the same amplitude.
C They must be of the same amplitude but not necessarily coherent.
D They must not be coherent or of the same amplitude.

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30 Light of wavelength 5.5  10–7 m is incident normally on a diffraction grating.

grating second-order maximum

light 80

second-order maximum

The angle between the second-order diffraction maxima is 80, as shown.

What is the number of lines per metre of the diffraction grating?

A 5.8  105 lines per metre

B 9.0  105 lines per metre

C 1.2  106 lines per metre

D 2.3  106 lines per metre

31 Four diagrams representing the electric field between two oppositely charged point charges are
shown.

Which diagram correctly shows the electric field lines?

A B

+ – + –

C D

+ – + –

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32 A proton enters the uniform electric field between two parallel vertical metal plates in a vacuum.

One plate is at a potential of 0 V and the other plate is at a potential of +10 V, as shown.

0V +10 V

path of
proton

metal
plates

What is the initial change in the motion of the proton caused by the electric field, immediately
after the proton enters the field?

A It begins to move downwards.

B It begins to move upwards.
C Its speed decreases.
D Its speed increases.

33 What is a description of the coulomb?

A the electric charge of one electron

B the electric charge transferred by a current of one ampere in one second
C the kinetic energy gained by an electron accelerated through a potential difference of
one volt
D the kinetic energy of an electron moving at a speed of one metre per second

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34 A battery of electromotive force (e.m.f.) 10 V and internal resistance 5.0  is connected to a 5.0 
load resistor.

10 V
5.0 Ω

5.0 Ω

Which change occurs when the 5.0  load resistor is replaced with a 50  load resistor?

A The current in the circuit increases.

B The potential difference across the load resistor increases.
C The power dissipated in the internal resistance of the battery increases.
D The total power dissipated in the circuit increases.

35 The graphs show the variation with potential difference V of the current I for three circuit
components.

I I I

0 0 0
0 V 0 V 0 V
graph X graph Y graph Z

The components are a metal wire at constant temperature, a semiconductor diode and a filament
lamp.

Which row correctly identifies these graphs?

metal wire
semiconductor filament
at constant
diode lamp
temperature

A X Z Y
B Y X Z
C Y Z X
D Z X Y

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36 The electromotive force (e.m.f.) of a cell is 6.0 V. It has negligible internal resistance and is
connected across a resistor. The potential difference (p.d.) across the resistor is also 6.0 V.

The e.m.f. and the p.d. have the same numerical value but represent different processes.

Which statement about the different processes is correct?

A The e.m.f. is the energy transferred from chemical energy to electrical energy in the cell and
the p.d. is the energy transferred from electrical energy to thermal energy in the resistor.
B The p.d. is the energy transferred from chemical energy to electrical energy in the cell and
the e.m.f. is the energy transferred from electrical energy to thermal energy in the resistor.
C The e.m.f. is the energy transferred per unit charge from chemical energy to electrical energy
in the cell and the p.d. is the energy transferred per unit charge from electrical energy to
thermal energy in the resistor.
D The p.d. is the energy transferred per unit charge from chemical energy to electrical energy
in the cell and the e.m.f. is the energy transferred per unit charge from electrical energy to
thermal energy in the resistor.

37 A battery of negligible internal resistance is connected to three resistors, as shown.

2V
0.4 A
2V
0.3 A
2V

The potential difference across each resistor is 2 V.

The current from the battery is 0.4 A and the current through one of the resistors connected in
parallel is 0.3 A.

What is the current through the other resistor connected in parallel and what is the electromotive
force (e.m.f.) of the battery?

current / A e.m.f. / V

A 0.1 4
B 0.3 4
C 0.1 6
D 0.3 6

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38 A battery of electromotive force (e.m.f.) 9.0 V and internal resistance 1.0  is connected to a fixed
resistor of resistance 5.0  and a potentiometer of maximum resistance 3.0 , as shown.

9.0 V
1.0 Ω

5.0 Ω 3.0 Ω

The sliding contact of the potentiometer is moved over its full range of movement.

What is the maximum value of the potential difference that is measured by the voltmeter?

A 3.0 V B 3.4 V C 4.5 V D 5.4 V

39 An unstable nucleus decays by emitting a + particle.

Which statement is correct?

A An antineutrino is also emitted.

B A neutron changes into a proton.
C Mass–energy is conserved.
D The nucleon number is not conserved.

40 Which statement is not correct?

A An antineutrino is a fundamental particle.

B An electron is made up of a quark and an antiquark.
C A neutrino is a lepton.
D A neutron is composed of three quarks.

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1 A paperback book contains 210 sheets of paper (pages). Its thickness is measured with a ruler,
as shown.

book

0 1 2 3 4 5 6
cm

What is the average thickness of one sheet of the paper in the book?

A 0.013 mm B 0.017 mm C 0.13 mm D 0.17 mm

2 What is the unit of resistance when expressed in SI base units?

A kg–1 m–2 s A2
B kg–1 m–2 s3 A2
C kg m2 s–1 A–2
D kg m2 s–3 A–2

3 Which list consists only of scalar quantities?

A acceleration, displacement, force, weight

B density, energy, frequency, velocity
C distance, pressure, temperature, time
D momentum, power, volume, wavelength

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4 The output of a signal generator is connected to a cathode-ray oscilloscope (CRO). A trace is

shown on the screen.

1.0 cm

1.0 cm

The time-base of the CRO is set at 2.00 ms cm–1.

What is the frequency of the signal?

A 50 Hz B 125 Hz C 250 Hz D 500 Hz

5 After measuring the width of a shelf to be 305 mm, it is found that the graduations on the ruler
used are 1.0% further apart than they should be.

Which type of measurement error is this and what is the true width of the shelf?

type of error true width / mm

A random 302
B random 308
C systematic 302
D systematic 308

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6 The graph shows the variation with time of the acceleration of a car.

acceleration

0
0 time

What must the shaded area under the graph represent?

A the average velocity of the car

B the change in velocity of the car
C the final velocity of the car
D the initial velocity of the car

7 A stone is thrown horizontally off a cliff and then lands in the sea. Air resistance is negligible.

Which statement about the stone’s motion is not correct?

A The final displacement of the stone depends upon its initial horizontal velocity.
B The stone travels with a constant horizontal component of velocity until it hits the water.
C The stone travels with an increasing vertical component of velocity.
D The time taken for the stone to hit the surface of the water depends on its initial horizontal
velocity.

8 Water is pumped through a hose-pipe at a rate of 90 kg per minute. Water emerges horizontally
from the hose-pipe with a speed of 20 m s–1.

What is the minimum force required from a person holding the hose-pipe to prevent it moving
backwards?

A 30 N B 270 N C 1800 N D 110 000 N

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9 A skydiver leaves a stationary balloon and falls vertically through a long distance.

Which graph best represents the variation of the acceleration a of the skydiver with the distance s
travelled as she falls through the air?

A B

a a

0 0
0 s 0 s

C D

a a

0 0
0 s 0 s

10 The diagram shows two spheres approaching each other head-on. Each sphere has speed u.
One sphere has mass 2m and the other has mass m.

2m m
u u

Which diagram shows the result of a perfectly elastic collision?

A B

2m m 2m m
u 5u u 2u
3 3 6 3

C D

2m m 2m m
u 2u u
6 3 3
the spheres stick together

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11 A spherical object falls through water at a constant speed. Three forces act on the object.

Which diagram, showing these three forces to scale, is correct?

A B C D

12 Two forces act as a couple.

Which statement about the two forces must not be correct?

A They act along the same straight line.

B They act in opposite directions.
C They are the same type of force.
D They have the same magnitude.

13 A sign outside a shop is suspended from a rusty horizontal hinge at its top end. The sign hangs in
equilibrium at an angle of 25 to the vertical, as shown.

hinge

25

sign

The sign is a square of side length 52 cm and uniform thickness. It has a mass of 36 kg.

What is the moment of the weight of the sign about the hinge?

A 39 N m B 78 N m C 83 N m D 92 N m

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14 A uniform rod of length 200 cm is freely pivoted at point P. The rod is held horizontally in
equilibrium by a 60 N weight that is attached to the rod by a string passing over a frictionless
pulley.

string frictionless
40 cm uniform rod pulley
30°

P
200 cm
weight

60 N

What is the weight of the rod?

A 30 N B 60 N C 80 N D 140 N

15 The diagram shows two blocks X and Y.

block X block Y

a
a

2a
1
a

2a
a

Block X has sides of length a. When block X is placed in a liquid of density  with the shaded face
level with the liquid surface, it experiences an upthrust U.

Block Y has horizontal sides of length a and 2a and height 1

2
a . Block Y is placed in a liquid of
density 2, also with the shaded face level with the liquid surface.

What is the upthrust on block Y?

A 1
2
U B U C 2U D 4U

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16 A gas is contained inside a syringe, as shown.

syringe

gas

The initial volume of the gas is 2.00 cm3.

Atmospheric pressure is 101 kPa.

What is the work done by the gas on the atmosphere when the gas is heated and expands to a
volume of 6.00 cm3?

A 404 J B 404 mJ C 404 J D 404 kJ

17 A mechanical device does useful work at rate X and wastes energy at rate Y.

Which expression gives the efficiency of this device?

X (X Y ) X (X Y )
A B C D
Y Y (X Y) (X Y)

18 Car P has kinetic energy 240 kJ.

Car Q has half the mass and twice the speed of car P.

What is the kinetic energy of car Q?

A 120 kJ B 240 kJ C 480 kJ D 960 kJ

19 A water pump is driven by an engine. The pump raises a volume of 0.50 m3 of water in 1.0 minute
from a depth of 30 m. The pump has an efficiency of 70%.

The density of water is 1000 kg m–3.

What is the useful output power from the engine?

A 2.5 kW B 3.5 kW C 150 kW D 210 kW

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20 Which spring combination has an overall spring constant of 8.0 N m–1?

A B

extension
= 0.20 m extension extension
= 0.075 m = 0.075 m

extension
= 0.20 m 1.2 N

1.6 N

C D

extension extension extension extension

= 0.075 m = 0.075 m = 0.075 m = 0.075 m

extension extension
extension = 0.075 m = 0.075 m
= 0.15 m

1.8 N 2.4 N

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21 A metal wire is stretched to breaking point and the force–extension graph is plotted.

Which graph is correctly labelled with the elastic region, the plastic region and the area
representing the work done to stretch the wire until it breaks?

A B

plastic elastic
elastic region plastic region
region region
force force

work done work done

0 0
0 extension 0 extension

C D

plastic plastic
elastic region elastic region
region region
force force

work done work done

0 0
0 extension 0 extension

22 A longitudinal wave travels through a long spring. The spring is shown at one instant.

What is the wavelength of the wave?

spring

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23 Which statement about waves is correct?

A Both longitudinal and transverse waves can travel through a vacuum.

B Both longitudinal and transverse waves transfer matter.
C Longitudinal progressive waves consist of alternate nodes and antinodes.
D The particles of a transverse wave vibrate perpendicular to the direction of energy
propagation.

24 A stationary sound wave is formed in a pipe that is closed at one end and open at the other end.
The wave has two antinodes. One of these antinodes is at the open end of the pipe.

The length of the pipe is 0.600 m. The speed of sound in the air column in the pipe is 340 m s–1.

What is the frequency of the sound wave?

A 425 Hz B 850 Hz C 1130 Hz D 2270 Hz

25 A train travels at constant speed along a straight track. The train’s horn emits sound of frequency
500 Hz.

A person standing by the side of the track hears sound of frequency 450 Hz.

The speed of sound in air is 340 m s–1.

What is the speed of the train and in which direction is it travelling relative to the person?

speed / m s–1 direction

A 34 away from the person

B 34 towards the person
C 38 away from the person
D 38 towards the person

26 A smooth surface has bumps on the surface that are smaller than the wavelength of visible light.

What is the approximate maximum size of the largest bumps on the surface?

A 20 nm B 350 nm C 720 nm D 5.0 m

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27 Two progressive waves travel in opposite directions and form a stationary wave. The graph
shows the variation with distance x of the displacement of the stationary wave and of one of the
two progressive waves at the same instant in time.

progressive wave

10
displacement
/ mm 5
J K L
0
0 5 10 15 20 25
x / cm
–5

–10
stationary wave

What are the approximate displacements of the other progressive wave at the positions J, K
and L?

displacement / mm
J K L

A –5 0 –10
B –5 +5 0
C 0 +5 +10
D +5 –5 0

28 Which diagram shows the diffraction of water waves in a ripple tank?

A B

C D

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29 Interference fringes are produced on a screen by double-slit interference using light of

wavelength 600 nm. The fringe separation is 4.0 mm and the separation of the slits is 0.60 mm.

What is the distance between the double slit and the screen?

A 0.25 m B 0.40 m C 2.5 m D 4.0 m

30 A ray of green light is incident normally on a diffraction grating. Several bright spots are produced
on a screen on the other side of the grating, as shown.

bright spots

ray of
green light

diffraction
grating

NOT TO SCALE
screen

Which pair of changes could result in bright spots at exactly the same angles as previously?

A Use blue light and increase the distance between the grating and the screen.
B Use blue light and increase the number of lines per unit length in the grating.
C Use red light and increase the distance between the grating and the screen.
D Use red light and increase the number of lines per unit length in the grating.

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31 Two parallel metal plates are at electric potentials of +800 V and +1300 V.

Which diagram best represents the electric field between the metal plates?

A B

+800 V +1300 V +800 V +1300 V

C D

+800 V +1300 V +800 V +1300 V

32 An electron is in a uniform electric field of field strength 1500 V m–1.

What is the acceleration of the electron due to the electric field?

A 8.5  10–9 m s–2

B 1.6  10–5 m s–2

C 1.4  1011 m s–2

D 2.6  1014 m s–2

33 A lightning strike transfers 1  1020 electrons past a point in a time of 30 s.

What is the average current during the lightning strike?

A 0.5 mA B 0.5 A C 500 A D 500 kA

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34 A cell has an electromotive force (e.m.f.) of 6 V and internal resistance R. An external resistor,
also of resistance R, is connected across this cell, as shown.

cell
6V
R

Power P is dissipated by the external resistor.

The cell is replaced by a different cell that has an e.m.f. of 6 V and negligible internal resistance.

What is the new power that is dissipated in the external resistor?

A 0.5P B P C 2P D 4P

35 A wire of uniform cross-section has resistance R.

A second wire is made of the same material but is twice as long and has twice the diameter of the
first wire.

What is the resistance of the second wire?

A R B R C R D 8R
8 2

36 The diagram shows two resistor networks.

network 1 network 2

2R R

R 2R

2R R

What is the ratio total resistance of network 1 ?

total resistance of network 2

A 4 B 5 C 1 D 2
5 4 2 1

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37 The circuit shown contains three cells of electromotive forces 3.0 V, 2.0 V and 4.0 V, in series with
a resistor of resistance 5.0 . The cells have negligible internal resistance.

3.0 V
5.0 Ω

I 4.0 V

2.0 V

What is the current I in the circuit?

A 0.20 A B 0.60 A C 1.0 A D 1.8 A

38 When -particles are fired at a thin metal foil, most of the particles pass straight through but a few
are deflected by a large angle.

Which change would increase the proportion of -particles deflected by a large angle?

A using -particles with greater kinetic energy

B using a double thickness foil
C using a foil made of a metal with fewer protons in its nuclei

D using a source emitting more -particles per unit time

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39 A nucleus of neptunium-236 contains 93 protons and 143 neutrons. This nucleus decays with the
emission of an -particle. The nucleus formed then emits a – particle.

Which diagram shows the changes in the number P of protons and the number N of neutrons in
these nuclei?

A B
146 146
N N
144 144

142 142

140 140

138 138
90 92 94 96 90 92 94 96
P P

C D
146 146
N N
144 144

142 142

140 140

138 138
90 92 94 96 90 92 94 96
P P

40 Which combination of quarks could not be the quark composition of the hadron shown?

p = proton
n = neutron

– = sigma particle of charge –e

+ = sigma particle of charge +e

u = up quark
d = down quark
s = strange quark

quark
hadron
composition

A – dds
B + uds
C p uud
D n udd

© UCLES 2021 9702/13/O/N/21

 Cambridge International AS & A Level

PHYSICS 9702/12
Paper 1 Multiple Choice February/March 2022
1 hour 15 minutes

You must answer on the multiple choice answer sheet.

*2069473947*

You will need: Multiple choice answer sheet

Soft clean eraser
Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

INSTRUCTIONS
 There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions.
 For each question there are four possible answers A, B, C and D. Choose the one you consider correct
and record your choice in soft pencil on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Follow the instructions on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Write in soft pencil.
 Write your name, centre number and candidate number on the multiple choice answer sheet in the
spaces provided unless this has been done for you.
 Do not use correction fluid.
 Do not write on any bar codes.
 You may use a calculator.

INFORMATION
 The total mark for this paper is 40.
 Each correct answer will score one mark.
 Any rough working should be done on this question paper.

This document has 16 pages.

IB22 03_9702_12/4RP
© UCLES 2022 [Turn over
 3

1 What could not be a measurement of a physical quantity?

A 10 K B 11 J N–1 m–1 C 17 Pa m3 N–1 D 25 T m

2 A computer memory stick is labelled as having a storage capacity of 128 GB.

The letter B stands for byte, which is a unit.

What is the equivalent storage capacity?

A 1.28  108 B

B 1.28  1011 B

C 1.28  1014 B

D 1.28  1017 B

3 A man of mass 75.2 kg uses a set of weighing scales to measure his mass three times. He
obtains the following readings.

mass / kg

reading 1 80.2
reading 2 80.1
reading 3 80.2

Which statement describes the precision and accuracy of the weighing scales?

A not precise to  0.1 kg and accurate to  0.1 kg

B not precise to  0.1 kg and not accurate to  0.1 kg

C precise to  0.1 kg and accurate to  0.1 kg

D precise to  0.1 kg and not accurate to  0.1 kg

4 Which statement about scalar and vector quantities is correct?

A A scalar quantity has direction but not magnitude.

B A scalar quantity has magnitude but not direction.
C A vector quantity has direction but not magnitude.
D A vector quantity has magnitude but not direction.

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5 How can the acceleration of an object be determined?

A from the area under a displacement–time graph

B from the area under a velocity–time graph
C from the gradient of a displacement–time graph
D from the gradient of a velocity–time graph

6 A sprinter takes a time of 11.0 s to run a 100 m race. She first accelerates uniformly from rest,
reaching a speed of 10 m s–1. She then runs at a constant speed of 10 m s–1 until the finish line.

What is the uniform acceleration of the sprinter for the first part of the race?

A 0.5 m s–2 B 0.91 m s–2 C 1.7 m s–2 D 5.0 m s–2

7 A single horizontal force F is applied to a block X which is in contact with a separate block Y, as
shown.

F
X
Y

The blocks remain in contact as they accelerate along a horizontal frictionless surface. Air
resistance is negligible. X has a greater mass than Y.

Which statement is correct?

A The acceleration of X is equal to force F divided by the mass of X.

B The force that X exerts on Y is equal to F.
C The force that X exerts on Y is less than F.
D The force that X exerts on Y is less than the force that Y exerts on X.

8 A car of mass 750 kg has a horizontal driving force of 2.0 kN acting on it. It has a forward
horizontal acceleration of 2.0 m s–2.

resistive force
driving force

What is the resistive force acting horizontally?

A 0.50 kN B 1.5 kN C 2.0 kN D 3.5 kN

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9 An object falls freely from rest in a vacuum. The graph shows the variation with time t of the
velocity v of the object.

0
0 t

Which graph, using the same scales, represents the object falling in air?

A B C D
v v v v

0 0 0 0
0 t 0 t 0 t 0 t

10 A rock of mass 2m, travelling in deep space at velocity v, explodes into two parts of equal mass,
one of which is then stationary.

What is the kinetic energy of the moving part after the explosion?

A 1
2
mv2 B mv2 C 3
2
mv2 D 2mv2

11 A horizontal metal bar PQ of length 50.0 cm is hinged at end P. The diagram shows the metal bar
viewed from above.

16.0 N

30° Q

5.0 N
P
50.0 cm

Two forces of 16.0 N and 5.0 N are in the horizontal plane and act on end Q, as shown.

What is the resultant moment about P due to the two forces?

A 1.5 N m B 4.4 N m C 6.5 N m D 9.4 N m

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12 A cube WXZY has sides of length 2.0 cm and mass 24.0 g. The cube rests on a metre rule of
negligible mass. The geometrical centre of the cube is vertically above the 70.0 cm mark on the
scale of the rule.

mass
24.0 g
mass W X NOT TO
23.4 g SCALE
Y Z
30 50 69 71

The cube has a non-uniform density so that its centre of gravity is not at its geometrical centre.
The centre of gravity of the cube is in the plane of the diagram.

The rule rests on a pivot at the 50.0 cm mark. A mass of 23.4 g is placed vertically above the
30.0 cm mark. The rule is horizontal and in equilibrium.

What can be determined about the position of the centre of gravity of the cube?

A It must be somewhere along a horizontal line that is 0.5 cm from line WX.
B It must be somewhere along a horizontal line that is 0.5 cm from line YZ.
C It must be somewhere along a vertical line that is 0.5 cm from line WY.
D It must be somewhere along a vertical line that is 0.5 cm from line XZ.

13 A rigid sphere is held at rest on the sea bed. When the sphere is released, it rises to the surface
of the sea. The seawater has a uniform density.

Which statement about the sphere, from its release until it reaches the surface, is correct?

A The sphere always moves with constant acceleration.

B The sphere always moves with constant velocity.
C The upthrust on the sphere always decreases.
D The upthrust on the sphere is always constant.

14 What is a unit for density?

A N m–3 B g mm–1 C kg cm–2 D g mm–3

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15 The total energy input Ein in a process is partly transferred to useful energy output U and partly
transferred to energy that is wasted W.

What is the efficiency of the process?

A U 100%
E in

B W  100%
Ein

C U  100%
W

D U  W  100%
E in

16 An escalator is 60 m long and lifts passengers through a vertical height of 30 m, as shown.

30 m
60 m

To drive the escalator against the forces of friction when there are no passengers requires a
power of 2.0 kW.

The escalator is used by passengers of average mass 60 kg and the power to overcome friction
remains constant.

How much power is required to drive the escalator when it is carrying 20 passengers and is
travelling at 0.75 m s–1?

A 4.4 kW B 6.4 kW C 8.8 kW D 10.8 kW

17 A rock of mass 40 kg is released from rest from a height of 20 m above the surface of a planet.

The rock has a kinetic energy of 32 kJ when it hits the surface of the planet. The planet does not
have an atmosphere.

What is the weight of the rock on the surface of the planet?

A 1.6 N B 390 N C 1.6 kN D 64 kN

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18 A metal wire is stretched. The wire obeys Hooke’s law.

Which quantity has a value that does not change?

A extension
B strain
C stress
D Young modulus

19 An object is stretched until it reaches the elastic limit.

Which statement must describe the stress on the object when it is at the elastic limit?

A It is the maximum stress for which the object obeys Hooke’s law.
B It is the maximum stress that can be applied to the object before it has elastic deformation.
C It is the maximum stress that can be applied to the object before it has plastic deformation.
D It is the maximum stress the object can withstand before it breaks.

20 Which statement about progressive waves is correct?

A They are always transverse waves.

B They can exist in solids but not liquids.
C They decrease in frequency as their speed increases.
D They transfer energy away from their source.

21 A cathode-ray oscilloscope (CRO) is used to determine the frequency of a sound wave.

The diagram shows the waveform on the screen.

The time-base setting is 5.0 ms div–1.

What is the best estimate of the frequency of the sound wave?

A 50 Hz B 71 Hz C 100 Hz D 143 Hz

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22 The warning signal on an ambulance has a frequency of 600 Hz. The speed of sound is 330 m s–1.
The ambulance is travelling with a constant velocity of 25 m s–1 towards an observer. The
ambulance passes, and then moves away from the observer with no change in velocity.

initial position final position

of ambulance of ambulance

observer

Which overall change in observed frequency takes place between the times at which the
ambulance is a long way behind the observer and when it is a long way in front of the observer?

A 49 Hz B 84 Hz C 91 Hz D 98 Hz

23 Brief pulses of red, blue and green light are emitted from the Sun at the same time.

The pulses travel the same distance to reach Mars. Assume that the pulses travel in a vacuum
for the full duration of their journey.

In which order would these pulses of light arrive at Mars?

A all arrive at the same time

B blue first, then green, then red
C red first, then blue, then green
D red first, then green, then blue

24 Two coherent progressive waves from different sources meet at a point.

Which condition must be satisfied for there to be zero resultant amplitude at the point where the
waves meet?

A The two waves must be emitted from their sources with the same intensity.
B The two waves must be in phase with each other at the point.
C The two waves must be travelling in opposite directions.
D The two waves must have the same amplitude at the point.

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25 A corridor is 13.2 m long and has closed doors that reflect sound at both ends. The speed of
sound in the air in the corridor is 330 m s–1.

13.2 m
closed door closed door

wall position of node

What is the lowest frequency of sound that could create a stationary wave in the corridor with a
node halfway along it?

A 0.040 Hz B 13 Hz C 25 Hz D 50 Hz

26 Water waves of wavelength  are formed in a ripple tank. The waves are diffracted as they pass
through a narrow gap of width d (d is greater than ).

Which gap width and which wavelength will cause the largest decrease in the amount of
diffraction?

gap width wavelength

A 1
2
d 1
2

B 1
2
d 2
C 2d 1
2

D 2d 2

27 Two loudspeakers X and Y emit sound waves that are in phase and of wavelength 0.75 m.

An observer O is able to stand anywhere on a straight line that passes through X and Y, as
shown. The observer stands at a point where the sound waves from X and Y meet in phase.

O
X Y

What could be the distances OY and XY?

distance OY / m distance XY / m

A 1.25 3.50
B 2.00 2.75
C 2.75 2.00
D 3.25 1.50

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28 Light of a single wavelength is incident normally on a diffraction grating.

The resulting diffraction pattern is displayed on a screen.

Which change makes the first orders of intensity maxima further apart from each other on the
screen?

A placing the screen closer to the diffraction grating

B using a diffraction grating with less separation between adjacent slits
C using a diffraction grating with more slits but keeping the same separation between adjacent
slits
D using light with a shorter wavelength

29 For a current-carrying wire, the current can be calculated using the equation shown.

I = Anvq

What is the meaning of n?

A the number of charge carriers in the wire

B the number of charge carriers multiplied by the volume of the wire
C the number of charge carriers per unit length of the wire
D the number of charge carriers per unit volume of the wire

30 The number of free electrons passing a point in a wire in 24 hours is 6.0  1023.

What is the average current in the wire?

A 6.3 pA B 1.1 A C 67 A D 4.0 kA

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31 In the circuit shown, lamp P is rated 250 V, 50 W and lamp Q is rated 250 V, 200 W. The two
lamps are connected in series to a 250 V power supply.

250 V

P Q

Assume that the resistance of each lamp remains constant.

Which statement most accurately describes what happens when the switch is closed?

A Lamp P emits four times as much power as lamp Q.

B Lamp P emits twice as much power as lamp Q.
C Lamp Q emits four times as much power as lamp P.
D Lamp Q emits twice as much power as lamp P.

32 A piece of wire has a length of 0.80 m and a diameter of 5.0  10–4 m. The I–V characteristic of
the wire is shown.

5.0
I/A

2.5

0
0 5 10
V/V

What is the resistivity of the metal from which the wire is made?

A 1.2  10–7  m

B 1.6  10–7  m

C 4.9  10–7  m

D 2.0  10–6  m

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 13

33 Ten cells, each of electromotive force (e.m.f.) 1.5 V, are connected together, as shown.

X Y

What is the combined e.m.f. between terminals X and Y?

A 8V B 9V C 12 V D 15 V

34 A cell of electromotive force (e.m.f.) E and internal resistance r is connected to a variable resistor,
as shown.

E
r

The resistance of the variable resistor is gradually increased from r to 3r.

Which graph shows the variation of the potential difference (p.d.) v across the internal resistance
with the p.d. V across the variable resistor?

A B
1.0E 1.0E
v v

0.5E 0.5E

0 0
0 0.5E 1.0E 0 0.5E 1.0E
V V

C D
1.0E 1.0E
v v

0.5E 0.5E

0 0
0 0.5E 1.0E 0 0.5E 1.0E
V V

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35 Each of Kirchhoff’s two laws presumes that some quantity is conserved.

Which row states Kirchhoff’s first law and names the quantity that is conserved?

statement quantity
A the algebraic sum of currents charge
into a junction is zero
B the algebraic sum of currents energy
into a junction is zero

C the e.m.f. in a loop is equal to the charge

algebraic sum of the product of
current and resistance round the loop

D the e.m.f. in a loop is equal to the energy

algebraic sum of the product of
current and resistance round the loop

36 A cell has an electromotive force (e.m.f.) of 8.0 V and negligible internal resistance. The cell forms
part of a circuit, as shown.

8.0 V

R V V1
4.0

4.0

V
V2

The reading V1 is 4.0 V and the reading V2 is also 4.0 V.

What is the resistance of resistor R?

A 0.50  B 2.0  C 4.0  D 8.0 

© UCLES 2022 9702/12/F/M/22

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37 In the circuit shown, the cells have negligible internal resistance and the reading on the
galvanometer is zero.

4.0 V

9.0
3.0

6.0
R

9.0 V

What is the value of resistor R ?

A 2.0  B 6.0  C 12  D 18 

38 When -particles are directed at gold leaf:

1 almost all -particles pass through without deflection

2 a few -particles are deviated through large angles.

What are the reasons for these effects?

1 2
A most -particles have enough energy gold is very dense so a few low
to pass right through the gold leaf energy -particles bounce back
from the gold surface
B most -particles miss all gold atoms a few -particles bounce off gold atoms
C the gold nucleus is very small occasionally the path of an
so most -particles miss all nuclei -particle is close to a nucleus
D the positive charge in an occasionally an -particle
atom is not concentrated experiences many small
enough to deflect an -particle deflections in the same direction

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39 A nucleus X is radioactive and decays into a nucleus Y.

X and Y are isotopes of the same element.

Which combination of particles could have been emitted during the decay process?

A 1 -particle and 1 – particle

B 1 -particle and 2 – particles

C 2 -particles and 1 – particle

D 2 -particles and 2 – particles

40 A positively charged meson consists of a quark and an antiquark.

What could be the quark and antiquark?

A charm and antiup

B down and antitop
C strange and antibottom
D up and antistrange

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download
at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.

Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of Cambridge Assessment. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of Cambridge
Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which is a department of the University of Cambridge.

© UCLES 2022 9702/12/F/M/22

 Cambridge International AS & A Level

PHYSICS 9702/11
Paper 1 Multiple Choice May/June 2022
1 hour 15 minutes

You must answer on the multiple choice answer sheet.

*6540158902*

You will need: Multiple choice answer sheet

Soft clean eraser
Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

INSTRUCTIONS
 There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions.
 For each question there are four possible answers A, B, C and D. Choose the one you consider correct
and record your choice in soft pencil on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Follow the instructions on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Write in soft pencil.
 Write your name, centre number and candidate number on the multiple choice answer sheet in the
spaces provided unless this has been done for you.
 Do not use correction fluid.
 Do not write on any bar codes.
 You may use a calculator.

INFORMATION
 The total mark for this paper is 40.
 Each correct answer will score one mark.
 Any rough working should be done on this question paper.

This document has 20 pages. Any blank pages are indicated.

IB22 06_9702_11/3RP
© UCLES 2022 [Turn over
 3

1 Which term represents a physical quantity?

A metre
B percentage uncertainty
C quark flavour
D spring constant

2 Which two units are identical when expressed in terms of SI base units?

A J C–1 and kg m2 A–1 s–2

B J s and kg m2 s–1
C N m and kg m3 s–2
D N s and kg m s–3

3 A value for the acceleration of free fall on Earth is given as (10  2) m s–2.

Which statement is correct?

A The value is accurate but not precise.

B The value is both precise and accurate.
C The value is neither precise nor accurate.
D The value is precise but not accurate.

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4 Two cables are attached to a bracket and exert forces as shown.

bracket 15.0 N
20.0q
horizontal

6.00 N

40.0q

vertical

What are the magnitudes of the horizontal and vertical components of the resultant of the two
forces?

horizontal vertical
component / N component / N

A 9.73 0.534
B 9.73 10.2
C 18.0 0.534
D 18.0 10.2

5 The curved line PQR is the velocity–time graph for a car starting from rest.

velocity R

P S
0
0 5 time / s

What is the average acceleration of the car over the first 5 s?

A the area below the curve PQ

B the area of the triangle PQS
C the gradient of the straight line PQ
D the gradient of the tangent at Q

© UCLES 2022 9702/11/M/J/22

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6 A ball is thrown horizontally with a speed of 10.0 m s–1 above horizontal ground. The ball hits the
ground after a time of 3.0 s.

Air resistance is negligible.

What is the speed of the ball just before it hits the ground?

A 10 m s–1 B 29 m s–1 C 31 m s–1 D 39 m s–1

7 An object is moving along the ground in a straight line at a constant speed.

Which statement about the resultant force acting on the object is correct?

A The resultant force acting on the object is equal to its weight.

B The resultant force acting on the object is equal to the product of its mass and its velocity.
C The resultant force acting on the object is equal to the resistive force.
D The resultant force acting on the object is equal to zero.

8 Water flows out of a pipe and hits a wall.

wall

pipe velocity v
cross-sectional
area A

water

When the jet of water hits the wall, it has horizontal velocity v and cross-sectional area A.

The density of the water is . The water does not rebound from the wall.

What is the force exerted on the wall by the water?

v v 2
A B C Av D Av 2
A A

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9 A projectile is launched at an angle above horizontal ground and travels through the air.

projectile X
path of the projectile

ground

The projectile reaches its maximum height at position X. Assume that no upthrust acts on the
projectile.

Which diagram shows the directions of the force or forces acting on the projectile at position X?

A B C D

10 What is a statement of the principle of conservation of momentum?

A A force is equal to the rate of change of momentum of the object upon which it acts.
B In a perfectly elastic collision, the relative momentum of the objects before impact is equal to
their relative momentum after impact.
C The momentum of an object is the product of the mass of the object and its velocity.
D The total momentum of a system of interacting objects remains constant, providing no
resultant external force acts on the system.

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11 A horizontal wooden plank is pivoted at one end, as shown.

centre of gravity plank

pivot

4m
10 m

The plank has a mass of 100 kg and a length of 10 m. The centre of gravity of the plank is a
distance of 4 m from the pivot.

What is the moment of the weight of the plank about the pivot?

A 4  102 N m B 5  102 N m C 4  103 N m D 5  103 N m

12 When must an object be in equilibrium?

A when no resultant force acts on the object

B when no resultant force and no resultant torque act on the object
C when no resultant torque acts on the object
D when the upward force on the object is equal and opposite to its weight

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13 A uniform diving board is held by two fixed rods at points P and Q. A person stands at end R of
the diving board, as shown.

rod Q
P rod R

The forces exerted by the rods on the board are vertical. The board remains in equilibrium as the
person slowly moves towards point Q from end R.

Which row describes the changes to the magnitudes of the forces exerted by the rods on the
board?

force at P force at Q

A decreases decreases
B decreases increases
C increases decreases
D increases increases

14 A solid block has sides of length L, 2L and 4L. The block is submerged in water of uniform
density so that the faces with the largest area are horizontal, as shown.

surface of water

L 2L

4L

The upthrust acting on the block is U.

The block is now rotated to a new position so that the faces with the smallest area are horizontal.
The block remains fully submerged in the water.

What is the upthrust acting on the block in its new position?

U
A B U C 2U D 4U
4

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15 In a large container in an oil refinery, three oils of different densities are mixed. No chemical
activity occurs.

The mixture consists of:

1200 kg of oil of density 1100 kg m–3

1500 kg of oil of density 860 kg m–3
4000 kg of oil of density 910 kg m–3.

What is the density of the mixture?

A 927 kg m–3 B 933 kg m–3 C 957 kg m–3 D 1045 kg m–3

16 A box slides down a rough ramp.

The change in the gravitational potential energy of the box is 16 J as it moves between positions
X and Y. The box has 24 J of kinetic energy at X and 35 J of kinetic energy at Y.

box

X
ramp
Y

How much work is done against the frictional force?

A 5J B 19 J C 27 J D 43 J

17 The total energy supplied to an electric motor is E. Energy Q is wasted and the remaining energy
does useful work.

What is the efficiency of the motor?

Q Q    (1  Q )
A B E  – 1 C 1 – Q  D
E   E  E

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18 Objects with different masses are placed on the horizontal surface of a table. The objects are
then raised to different heights above the table. The gain in gravitational potential energy of each
object is the same.

Which graph best shows the variation of the height h of the objects above the table with their
mass m?

A B C D

h h h h

0 0 0 0
0 m 0 m 0 m 0 m

19 Two wires, P and Q, are made from the same metal and hang vertically from a steel girder.

Wire Q has half the length and twice the diameter of wire P.

Identical masses are attached to the bottom of each wire. Both wires obey Hooke’s law as they
are stretched by the weight of the masses.

extension of wire P
What is the ratio ?
extension of wire Q

8 4 1 1
A B C D
1 1 1 2

20 Which statement about elastic and plastic deformation must be correct?

A Elastic deformation and plastic deformation are proportional to the applied force.
B Elastic deformation and plastic deformation cause no change in volume.
C Elastic deformation causes heating of the material but plastic deformation does not.
D Elastic deformation is reversible but plastic deformation is not.

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21 The graph shows the variation with time of the displacement of a particle as a progressive wave
passes.

5
displacement / mm

0
0 5 10 15 20
time / ns
–5

What are the frequency and the amplitude of the wave?

frequency / MHz amplitude / mm

A 100 5
B 200 5
C 100 10
D 200 10

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22 The graph shows the variation of the displacement of an air particle with time as a sound wave
passes through air.

displacement

0
0 time

The intensity of the sound is halved while the frequency remains constant.

The four graphs below are drawn to the same scale as the graph above.

Which graph shows the displacement of the air particle?

A B

displacement displacement

0 0
0 time 0 time

C D

displacement displacement

0 0
0 time 0 time

23 Which statement is correct?

A Gases cannot transmit longitudinal waves.

B Longitudinal sound waves cannot form stationary waves.
C Solids can transmit both transverse and longitudinal waves.
D Transverse waves cannot pass through a vacuum.

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24 A car is travelling at a constant velocity directly towards a man standing in the middle of the road.

The driver sounds the car’s horn as a warning. The horn emits a sound wave of constant
frequency.

The frequency of the sound heard by the man is different from the frequency of the sound emitted
by the horn.

Which statement is correct?

A The frequency of the sound emitted by the horn is greater than the frequency of the sound
heard by the man.
B The frequency of the sound heard by the man depends on the distance between the car and
the man.
C The sound waves continually accelerate as they move from the horn to the man.
D The wavelength of the sound heard by the man is less than the wavelength of the sound
emitted by the horn.

25 Which statement about electromagnetic waves is correct?

A A wave of wavelength 5.0  10–6 m is invisible to the human eye.

B They can all travel at different speeds in free space.
C They cannot be polarised.
D They consist of vibrating atoms.

26 A stationary wave is set up on a string that is stretched between two fixed points that are 48 cm
apart.

At one instant, the appearance of the string is as shown.

fixed point fixed point

What is the wavelength of the stationary wave?

A 16 cm B 32 cm C 48 cm D 72 cm

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 14

27 A pipe, closed at one end, has a loudspeaker at the open end. For some frequencies of sound
from the loudspeaker, a stationary sound wave is formed in the air within the pipe with an
antinode at the open end of the pipe.

0.85 m
loudspeaker pipe

The length of the pipe is 0.85 m.

The speed of sound in air is 340 m s–1.

Which frequency of sound from the loudspeaker would not produce a stationary wave?

A 100 Hz B 200 Hz C 300 Hz D 500 Hz

28 Water waves of wavelength  are incident normally on an obstacle with a narrow gap. The width
of the gap is equal to . The waves from the gap emerge over an angle , as shown.

O
O

incident emerging
T
water waves water waves

The gap is slowly widened.

Which changes, if any, occur to  and to the wavelength of the emerging waves?

 wavelength

A decreases remains the same

B increases remains the same
C remains the same decreases
D remains the same increases

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 15

29 Light of a single frequency passes through two narrow slits and produces an interference pattern
on a screen some distance away. The interference fringes are very close together.

Which change would increase the distance between the fringes?

A Increase the brightness of the light source.

B Increase the distance between the slits and the screen.
C Increase the distance between the two slits.
D Increase the frequency of the light used.

30 Light of wavelength 5.4  10–7 m is incident normally on a diffraction grating.

The separation between adjacent lines in the grating is 2.0  10–6 m. The light that emerges from
the grating falls on a semicircular screen, as shown in the view from above.

screen
diffraction grating
light,
wavelength 5.4 u 10–7 m

VIEW FROM ABOVE

The grating is at the centre of the semicircle, and the lines of the grating are vertical.

How many bright dots are formed on the screen?

A 3 B 4 C 6 D 7

31 A straight copper wire of diameter 0.42  10–3 m has a number density of free electrons of
8.5  1028 m–3. In a given time interval, a charge of 0.15 C moves through the wire.

What is the average displacement of the free electrons along the wire in this time interval?

A 3.3  10–8 m B 2.0  10–5 m C 8.0  10–5 m D 2.5  10–4 m

32 What is the definition of the potential difference (p.d.) across a component?

A the electrical power supplied to the component

B the energy transferred to the component per unit charge
C the product of the current in the component and its resistance
D the voltage across the component

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 16

33 The graph shows the I–V characteristic for a semiconductor diode.

0
0 V

Which statement can be deduced from the graph?

A Above a certain positive potential difference the diode obeys Ohm’s law.
B Current is directly proportional to potential difference when the current in the diode is in one
direction.
C The diode has zero resistance when the current in the diode is in one direction.
D The resistance of the diode depends upon the potential difference across it.

34 A wire has a resistance of 30 . A second wire is made from the same material, has the same
mass and is three times as long as the first wire.

What is the resistance of the second wire?

A 10  B 30  C 90  D 270 

35 A cell has internal resistance r and electromotive force (e.m.f.) E. The cell is connected in series
with an ammeter and a variable resistor of resistance R.

E
r

When R is 10  the ammeter reads 0.3 A.

When R is 5  the ammeter reads 0.4 A.

What is the value of E ?

A 0.5 V B 2V C 3V D 6V

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 17

36 The sum of the currents entering a junction in an electrical circuit is always equal to the sum of
the currents leaving the junction.

Why is this?

A It is a consequence of the conservation of charge.

B It is a consequence of the conservation of electromotive force.
C It is a consequence of the conservation of energy.
D It is a consequence of the conservation of potential difference.

37 In the circuits shown, the temperature remains constant.

In which circuit does the potential difference (p.d.) V increase with increasing light intensity?

A B

V V

C D

V V

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 18

38 Carbon-14 decays into nitrogen-14 by emitting a – particle.

Which statement explains why the – particles are emitted with a range of different kinetic
energies?

A The carbon-14 nuclei have slightly different masses.

B The emitted – particles have a range of different masses.

C The energy released in the decay process is different for each carbon-14 nucleus that
decays.
D The energy released in the decay process is shared between the nitrogen-14 nucleus, a
– particle and an antineutrino.

39 A nucleus of a radioactive element emits an -particle, then a – particle and then another
– particle.

Which statement describes the final element that is produced?

A It is a different element of higher proton number than the original element.

B It is a different element of lower nucleon number than the original element.
C It is an isotope of the original element.
D It is the same element as the original element but with a different proton number.

40 How many hadrons, baryons and mesons are there in a nucleus of 94 Be?

hadrons baryons mesons

A 9 4 5
B 9 5 4
C 9 9 0
D 13 9 0

© UCLES 2022 9702/11/M/J/22

 Cambridge International AS & A Level

PHYSICS 9702/12
Paper 1 Multiple Choice May/June 2022
1 hour 15 minutes

You must answer on the multiple choice answer sheet.

*3154375392*

You will need: Multiple choice answer sheet

Soft clean eraser
Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

INSTRUCTIONS
 There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions.
 For each question there are four possible answers A, B, C and D. Choose the one you consider correct
and record your choice in soft pencil on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Follow the instructions on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Write in soft pencil.
 Write your name, centre number and candidate number on the multiple choice answer sheet in the
spaces provided unless this has been done for you.
 Do not use correction fluid.
 Do not write on any bar codes.
 You may use a calculator.

INFORMATION
 The total mark for this paper is 40.
 Each correct answer will score one mark.
 Any rough working should be done on this question paper.

This document has 20 pages. Any blank pages are indicated.

IB22 06_9702_12/2RP
© UCLES 2022 [Turn over
 3

1 Which estimate is reasonable?

A 1  10–3 kg for the mass of a grain of sand

B 1  10–2 m3 for the volume of a tennis ball

C 1  100 J for the work done lifting an apple from waist height to head height

D 1  104 W for the power of a light bulb in a house

2 What is the symbol for the SI base unit of temperature?

A C B K C C D K

3 Which statement about systematic errors is not correct?

A A systematic error can be caused by using an incorrectly calibrated instrument.

B One particular type of systematic error can affect all the measurements by the same amount.
C The effect of a systematic error can be reduced by repeating and averaging the
measurements.
D Zero error is a type of systematic error.

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 4

4 An object is moving with an initial velocity of 4.0 m s–1 to the right. The velocity of the object
changes so that its final velocity is 3.0 m s–1 downwards, as shown.

initial velocity final velocity

4.0 m s–1 3.0 m s–1

Which arrow represents the change in velocity of the object?

A B

C D

© UCLES 2022 9702/12/M/J/22

 5

5 A car travels anticlockwise along a horizontal circular road of radius 12 m, as shown.

The car takes a time of 4.0 s to move from position P to position Q.

direction of
travel of car
12 m
P

road

What is the magnitude of the average velocity of the car for the journey from P to Q?

A 4.2 m s–1 B 4.7 m s–1 C 6.0 m s–1 D 14 m s–1

6 The water surface in a deep well is 78.0 m below the top of the well. A person at the top of the
well drops a heavy stone down the well.

Air resistance is negligible. The speed of sound in the air is 330 m s–1.

What is the time interval between the person dropping the stone and hearing it hitting the water?

A 3.75 s B 3.99 s C 4.19 s D 4.22 s

7 Which statement is not a requirement of a pair of forces that obey Newton’s third law of motion?

A The forces act in opposite directions.

B The forces act on different objects.
C The forces act on objects in contact.
D The forces are of equal magnitude.

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 6

8 A child of mass 20 kg stands on the rough surface of a sledge of mass 40 kg. The sledge can
slide on a horizontal frictionless surface.

One end of a rope is attached to the sledge. The rope passes around a fixed frictionless pole,
and the other end of the rope is held by the child, as shown.

frictionless
horizontal rope pole

frictionless surface

The rope is horizontal. The child pulls on the rope with a horizontal force of 12 N. This causes the
child and the sledge to move with equal acceleration towards the pole.

What is the frictional force between the child and the sledge?

A 4.0 N B 6.0 N C 8.0 N D 12 N

9 A stone S and a foam rubber ball R are identical spheres of equal volume. They are released
from rest at time t = 0 and fall vertically through the air. Both reach terminal velocity.

Which graph best shows the variation with time t of the speed v of the stone and of the rubber
ball?

A B C D

v R v S v v S
R and S
R
S R

0 0 0 0
0 t 0 t 0 t 0 t

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 7

10 Two balls X and Y are moving towards each other with speeds of 5 m s–1 and 15 m s–1
respectively.

5 m s–1 15 m s–1

X Y

They make a perfectly elastic head-on collision and ball Y moves to the right with a speed
of 7 m s–1.

What is the speed and direction of ball X after the collision?

A 3 m s–1 to the left

B 13 m s–1 to the left
C 3 m s–1 to the right
D 13 m s–1 to the right

11 Two forces form a couple.

Which statement describes the two forces?

A They are in the same direction.

B They are perpendicular to each other.
C They have the same magnitude.
D They pass through the same point.

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 8

12 A uniform rod is attached by a hinge at one end to a wall. The other end of the rod is supported
by a wire so that the rod is horizontal and in equilibrium.

wire
wall

hinge
rod

Which arrow shows the direction of the force on the rod from the hinge?

A B C D

13 A diving board of length 5.0 m is hinged at one end and supported 2.0 m from this end by a spring
of spring constant 10 kN m–1. A child of mass 40 kg stands at the far end of the board.

mass of child
40 kg

diving board
2.0 m

spring
hinge

5.0 m

What is the extra compression of the spring caused by the child standing on the end of the
board?

A 1.0 cm B 1.6 cm C 9.8 cm D 16 cm

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 9

14 A granite rock at the surface of the Earth has density . The rock is transported to the surface of
another planet.

The acceleration of free fall on the surface of the other planet is twice that on the surface of the
Earth.

What is the density of the rock on the other planet?

A 0.5 B  C 2 D 4

15 A closed U-shaped tube contains a stationary liquid of density . One side of the tube contains a
gas at pressure p1 and the other side contains a gas at pressure p2, as shown.

gas,
pressure p2
gas, z
pressure p1
y

x
liquid, density U

The acceleration of free fall is g.

Which equation is correct?

A p1 =  gy

B p2 =  g(x – z)

C p1 – p2 =  g(y – z)

D p1 + p2 =  gx

16 Which product of two quantities is equal to power?

A force  distance

B force  velocity

C work done  time

D work done  velocity

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17 Researchers have developed a new type of filament lamp with an efficiency of 40%. Old-type
filament lamps have an efficiency of 5.0%. The two types of lamp produce the same useful output
power.

input power to new type of lamp

What is the ratio ?
input power to old type of lamp

A 0.13 B 0.63 C 1.6 D 8.0

18 A student attempts to derive the formula for kinetic energy EK. She begins by considering an
object of mass m which is initially at rest. A constant force F applied to the object causes it to
accelerate to final velocity v in displacement s. The kinetic energy gained by the object is equal to
the work done on the object by the force F.

Which equation would the student not need in order to derive the formula for EK?

A F = ma B W = Fs C E= 1
2
Fs D v 2 = u 2 + 2as

19 A metal wire obeys Hooke’s law and has a Young modulus of 2.0  1011 Pa. The wire has an
original length of 1.6 m and a diameter of 0.48  10–3 m.

What is the spring constant of the wire?

A 7.2  103 N m–1

B 2.3  104 N m–1

C 2.9  104 N m–1

D 9.0  104 N m–1

20 A wire is being stretched by a tensile force.

Which statement about the elastic limit must be correct?

A The deformation is plastic after the elastic limit has been reached.
B The deformation is plastic until the elastic limit is reached.
C The extension is proportional to the tensile force after the elastic limit has been reached.
D The extension is proportional to the tensile force until the elastic limit is reached.

21 Which statement is correct for all types of progressive wave?

A The distance from a peak to the next trough is equal to a wavelength.

B They can be demonstrated in ripple tanks.
C They consist of vibrating atoms.
D They transfer energy from one position to another.

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 11

22 A transverse water wave is moving along the surface of some water. This causes a ball to move
vertically without moving horizontally as it floats upon the surface. At one instant, the ball is at the
position shown.

ball

0.70 m
NOT TO direction of
SCALE wave travel

2.4 m

The wave has a frequency of 0.20 Hz and an amplitude of 0.70 m. The distance between a trough
and an adjacent peak is 2.4 m.

What is the distance travelled by the ball in a time of 20 s?

A 5.6 m B 9.6 m C 11.2 m D 19.2 m

23 A sound wave travels from left to right across a room. The variation with distance across the
room of the displacement of the air molecules at one instant is shown.

At which distance will the air pressure be lowest?

displacement
right

0
A B C D distance from left-hand
left end of room

24 A source emits a sound wave of a single frequency. The Doppler effect causes a different
frequency of sound to be heard by a stationary observer.

What is a requirement for the Doppler effect to occur?

A a source that is moving as it produces the sound wave

B a source that produces a polarised sound wave
C a source that produces a sound wave of changing amplitude
D a source that produces a sound wave of changing frequency

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 12

25 An electromagnetic wave in free space has a frequency of 2.5  1014 Hz.

Which region of the electromagnetic spectrum includes this frequency?

A infrared
B microwave
C ultraviolet
D X-ray

26 Two polarising filters are placed next to each other so that their planes are parallel.

The first polarising filter has its transmission axis at an angle of 50 to the vertical.

The second polarising filter has its transmission axis at an angle of 20 to the vertical. The angle
between the transmission axes of the two polarising filters is 30

A beam of vertically polarised light of intensity 8.0 W m–2 is incident normally on the first polarising
filter.

What is the intensity of the light that is transmitted from the second polarising filter?

A zero B 2.5 W m–2 C 2.9 W m–2 D 6.0 W m–2

27 A stationary wave on a stretched string is set up between two points P and T.

Q S
P
T

vibrator

Which statement about the stationary wave is correct?

A Point R is at a node.
B Points Q and S vibrate in phase.
C The distance between P and T is three wavelengths.
D The wave transfers energy from P to T.

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 13

28 A bar vibrates with frequency f to produce water waves in a ripple tank.

bar vibrating
with frequency f

barrier with
gap of width x

The waves pass through a gap of width x in a barrier so that diffraction occurs.

Which combination of vibration frequency and gap width will produce the smallest angle of
diffraction?

vibration
gap width
frequency

A f x
2 2

B f 2x
2

C 2f x
2
D 2f 2x

29 An outdoor concert has two large speakers beside the stage for broadcasting music.

In order to test the speakers, they are made to emit sound of the same wavelength and the same
amplitude.

The curved lines in the diagram represent wavefronts.

Where is the loudest sound heard?

A C

D
B

speakers
stage

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 14

30 The equation

d sin
=
n

is used to calculate the wavelength  of light in an experiment that uses a diffraction grating. The
light from the diffraction grating is displayed on a screen.

What do the symbols n and d represent?

n d

A number of slits in the grating distance between adjacent slits in the grating
B number of slits in the grating distance from grating to screen
C order of intensity maximum distance between adjacent slits in the grating
D order of intensity maximum distance from grating to screen

31 The diagram shows a metal block.

I I
c
a

The block has sides of length a, b and c as shown, and its volume is V. Each charge carrier has a
charge –q and the number density of the charge carriers in the metal is n. It takes each charge
carrier an average time of t to pass through the block.

What is an expression for the current I ?

nqV nqbc
A I = nqabc B I= C I= D I = nqaV
t t

© UCLES 2022 9702/12/M/J/22

 15

32 The circuit diagrams show two lamps X and Y each connected to a cell. The current in lamp X is
0.50 A and its resistance is 9.6 . The current in lamp Y is 3.0 A and its resistance is 1.2 .

0.50 A 3.0 A
lamp X lamp Y

9.6 : 1.2 :

power in lamp X
What is the ratio ?
power in lamp Y
A 0.22 B 0.75 C 1.3 D 4.5

33 The intensity of light incident on a light-dependent resistor (LDR) is increased. The temperature
of a thermistor is increased. In each case, the current in the component is maintained at a
constant value.

What happens to the potential difference across each component?

LDR thermistor

A increases increases
B increases decreases
C decreases increases
D decreases decreases

34 An iron wire has length 8.0 m and diameter 0.50 mm. The wire has resistance R.

A second iron wire has length 2.0 m and diameter 1.0 mm.

What is the resistance of the second wire?

A R B R C R D R
16 8 2

35 A cell with constant electromotive force (e.m.f.) is connected across a fixed resistor. Over time,
the internal resistance of the cell increases.

Which change occurs as the internal resistance of the cell increases?

A a decrease in the charge of each charge carrier

B a decrease in the potential difference measured across the cell
C an increase in the energy dissipated per unit time in the fixed resistor
D an increase in the number of charge carriers leaving the cell per unit time

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 16

36 Kirchhoff’s first and second laws are consequences of the conservation of different quantities.

What are those quantities?

Kirchhoff’s Kirchhoff’s
first law second law

A charge energy
B energy current
C current charge
D energy charge

37 A potentiometer circuit is used to determine the electromotive force (e.m.f.) EX of a cell. The
circuit includes a second cell of known e.m.f. E0 and negligible internal resistance, and a uniform
resistance wire PQ of known length.

EX is less than E0.

The movable connection J can be positioned anywhere along the length of the resistance wire.

Which circuit is suitable for determining EX?

A B
E0 EX

P Q P Q
J J

EX E0

C D
E0 EX

J
P Q P Q
J

EX E0

© UCLES 2022 9702/12/M/J/22

 17

38 In an experiment on -particle scattering, -particles are directed at a thin gold foil. Most of the
-particles pass straight through the foil or are deflected by a small angle. A small number of
-particles are deflected by a large angle.

Which statement cannot be deduced from this experiment?

A Atoms are mostly empty space.

B Most of the mass of an atom is concentrated in the nucleus.
C The nucleus of an atom contains protons.
D The nucleus of an atom is small compared to the size of an atom.

39 Four nuclei are represented below.

28 25 25 24
14 E 15 G 12 M 13 Q

Which statement about these nuclei is correct?

A An uncharged atom of element Q has 24 orbital electrons.

B Nuclei G and M are isotopes of the same element.

C When E absorbs a neutron and then emits an-particle, E transforms into M.

D When M emits a – particle, M transforms into Q.

40 A neutron is composed of one up (u) quark and two down (d) quarks. When a neutron decays to
a proton, a beta-particle is emitted.

What is the change in the quark structure of the neutron due to the emission of the beta-particle?

(The symbol for a neutrino is e and for an antineutrino is e .)

A d  u + – + e

B d  u + – + e

C u  d + + + e

D u  d + + + e

© UCLES 2022 9702/12/M/J/22

 Cambridge International AS & A Level

PHYSICS 9702/13
Paper 1 Multiple Choice May/June 2022
1 hour 15 minutes

You must answer on the multiple choice answer sheet.

*8903615403*

You will need: Multiple choice answer sheet

Soft clean eraser
Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

INSTRUCTIONS
 There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions.
 For each question there are four possible answers A, B, C and D. Choose the one you consider correct
and record your choice in soft pencil on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Follow the instructions on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Write in soft pencil.
 Write your name, centre number and candidate number on the multiple choice answer sheet in the
spaces provided unless this has been done for you.
 Do not use correction fluid.
 Do not write on any bar codes.
 You may use a calculator.

INFORMATION
 The total mark for this paper is 40.
 Each correct answer will score one mark.
 Any rough working should be done on this question paper.

This document has 20 pages.

IB22 06_9702_13/3RP
© UCLES 2022 [Turn over
 3

1 Which pair of quantities are physical quantities?

A charge and ampere

B efficiency and kilogram
C pascal and strain
D period and potential difference

2 Which list of unit prefixes decreases in magnitude from left to right?

A centi, deci, milli

B deci, milli, centi
C pico, kilo, milli
D kilo, milli, pico

3 The drag coefficient Cd is a number with no units. It is used to compare the drag on different cars
at different speeds. Cd is given by the equation

2F
Cd =
v n A

where F is the drag force on the car,  is the density of the air, A is the cross-sectional area of the
car and v is the speed of the car.

What is the value of n?

A 1 B 2 C 3 D 4

4 A micrometer screw gauge is used to measure the diameter of a small uniform steel sphere. The
measurement of the diameter is 5.00 mm  0.01 mm.

What is the percentage uncertainty in the calculated volume of the sphere, using these values?

A 0.2% B 0.4% C 0.6% D 1.2%

5 Forces of magnitudes 2 N, 4 N and 7 N combine to produce a resultant force.

The magnitudes of the three forces are fixed, but the forces may act in any direction in the same
plane.

What is not a possible magnitude of the resultant force?

A 0N B 5N C 8N D 13 N

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 4

6 Two projectiles, X and Y, are fired into the air from the same place on level ground and reach the
same maximum height, as shown.

path of X path of Y

ground

Projectile X is fired vertically upwards and projectile Y is fired at an angle to the horizontal.

Air resistance is negligible.

Which statement is correct?

A X and Y are at rest at their maximum heights.

B X and Y are fired with the same speed.
C X and Y take the same time to return to the ground.
D X and Y travel the same distance.

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 5

7 A small glider moves along a horizontal air track as shown.

buffer

glider

air track

air

At each end of the air track, the glider has a perfectly elastic collision with a fixed buffer.

The glider moves at a constant speed between collisions.

Which graph represents the variation with time t of the velocity v of the glider as it moves
between the two buffers?

A B
v v

0 0
0 t 0 t

C D
v v

0 0
0 t 0 t

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 6

8 A car accelerates from rest. The graph shows the variation of the momentum of the car with time.

momentum

0
0 time

What is the meaning of the gradient of the graph at a particular time?

A the kinetic energy of the car

B the rate of change of kinetic energy of the car
C the resultant force on the car
D the velocity of the car

9 A ball is dropped onto horizontal ground and bounces vertically upwards. When the ball is in
contact with the ground, the following forces act:

● the weight W of the ball

● the contact force P exerted on the ground by the ball
● the contact force N exerted on the ball by the ground.

ball

N
ground P

When the ball is in contact with the ground, the ball is momentarily stationary.

At this instant, which relationship is correct?

A N=P+W B N>P+W C N=W D N>W

© UCLES 2022 9702/13/M/J/22

 7

10 A person stands on the edge of a high cliff that is next to the sea. The person throws a stone
vertically upwards. Air resistance acts on the stone.

The stone eventually hits the sea.

Which velocity–time graph best shows the motion of the stone from when it is released until it hits
the sea?

A B

velocity velocity

0 0
0 time 0 time

C D

velocity velocity

0 0
0 time 0 time

11 Skaters of masses 80 kg and 40 kg move directly towards each other and collide.

Before the collision, the heavier skater is moving to the right at a speed of 2.0 m s–1 and the lighter
skater is moving to the left at a speed of 1.0 m s–1.

After the collision, the heavier skater moves to the right at a speed of 0.80 m s–1.

What is the relative speed of separation of the two skaters?

A 0.6 m s–1 B 1.4 m s–1 C 2.2 m s–1 D 2.6 m s–1

12 Which statement describes the two forces in a couple?

A They act in the same direction.

B They act through the same point.
C They produce zero resultant force.
D They produce zero resultant moment.

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13 A street lamp is fixed to a wall by a metal rod and a cable.

cable

wall
P

metal rod lamp

Which vector triangle could represent the forces acting on the end of the rod at point P?

A B

C D

14 An unknown mass and a 1.00 kg mass are fixed at opposite ends of a bar. The bar has negligible
mass and a length of 30.0 cm.

The bar balances when supported by a pivot placed 20.0 cm from the unknown mass, as shown.

30.0 cm
unknown mass
1.00 kg mass

20.0 cm bar
pivot

What is the unknown mass?

A 333 g B 500 g C 667 g D 1000 g

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15 A block of wood of density  w has sides of length a.

The block is immersed in a liquid of density  L. The top surface of the block is at a depth h below
the surface of the liquid.

liquid

block of wood a

The acceleration of free fall is g.

What is the upthrust acting on the block from the liquid?

A  La3g B  wa3g C  Lhg D  Lag

16 A technical article about diesel engines expresses the energy available from diesel fuel both as
41.8 MJ kg–1 and as 34.9 GJ m–3.

What is the density of diesel fuel?

A 8.35  102 kg m–3

B 1.20  103 kg m–3

C 8.35  105 kg m–3

D 1.20  106 kg m–3

17 What is meant by the efficiency of a system?

A the difference between the useful energy output from the system and the total energy input
B the difference between the useful energy output from the system and the wasted energy
output
C the ratio of the useful energy output from the system to the total energy input
D the ratio of the useful energy output from the system to the wasted energy output

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18 A car of weight 15 000 N is travelling along a horizontal road.

velocity
24 m s–1

resistive force thrust force

3000 N 12 000 N

At one instant, the thrust force acting on the car from the engine is 12 000 N and the resistive
force acting on the car is 3000 N. The velocity of the car at this instant is 24 m s–1.

What is the power output from the engine?

A 72 kW B 220 kW C 290 kW D 360 kW

19 The diagram shows the variation of a quantity y with a quantity x for objects in a uniform
gravitational field.

0
0 x

What could x and y represent?

x y
A mass for different objects kinetic energy
moving at the same speed
B speed for an object kinetic energy
of constant mass
C vertical distance fallen for change of gravitational
an object of constant mass potential energy
D mass for different objects change of gravitational
falling the same vertical distance potential energy

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 11

20 A steel wire has a length of 300 cm and a cross-sectional area of 0.50 mm2. The Young modulus
of steel is 2.0  1011 Pa.

One end of the wire is attached to a fixed point. A load of 10 N is hung from the other end. The
wire obeys Hooke’s law.

What is the extension of the wire?

A 3.0  10–7 m

B 3.0  10–5 m

C 3.0  10–4 m

D 3.0  10–2 m

21 The extension of a copper wire is measured for different forces applied to the wire. A graph is
plotted to show the variation of the force on the wire against extension. The maximum force is
applied at point P.

force
P
Q
R
S

0
0T extension

Which statement must be correct?

A Point R is the limit of proportionality.

B The elastic potential energy of the wire at point S is given by the area under the graph
between points T and S.
C There is no plastic deformation between points Q and P.
D The wire obeys Hooke’s law up to a point between R and Q.

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22 The variation with distance x of the displacement y of a transverse wave on a rope is shown at
time t = 0.

The wave has a frequency of 0.5 Hz.

A point P on the rope is marked. The diagram shows the original position of P and four new
positions.

What is the position of P at time t = 1 s?

direction of
P C D wave travel
y

A
0
0 x
B

23 A cathode-ray oscilloscope (CRO) is connected to a microphone which detects sound of constant

frequency.

The trace on the screen of the CRO is shown.

Which property of the sound wave is measured using only information from the CRO?

A amplitude
B period
C speed
D wavelength

24 A transverse wave and a longitudinal wave both travel in the same direction down a long
stretched spring.

Which statement is not correct for these two forms of wave?

A The displacement measurements for the particles of the two waves are made at right angles
to each other.
B The energy transferred by the two waves is in the same direction.
C The velocities of the two waves are in the same direction.
D The wavelength measurements for the two waves are made at right angles to each other.

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25 A man standing next to a stationary train hears sound of frequency 400 Hz emitted from the
train’s horn. The train then moves directly away from the man and sounds its horn when it has a
speed of 50 m s–1. The speed of sound in the air is 340 m s–1.

What is the difference in frequency of the sound heard by the man on the two occasions?

A 51 Hz B 69 Hz C 350 Hz D 470 Hz

26 Which list of regions of the electromagnetic spectrum is in order of increasing wavelength from
left to right?

A gamma-ray  ultraviolet  infrared

B infrared  microwave  ultraviolet

C microwave  X-ray  infrared

D X-ray  ultraviolet  gamma-ray

27 The principle of superposition states that a certain quantity is added when two or more waves
meet at a point.

What is this quantity?

A amplitude
B displacement
C intensity
D wavelength

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28 A stationary sound wave is formed in a gas-filled tube of length L, which is closed at one end by a
piston. The length of the tube can be altered by moving the piston.

The length of the tube and the frequency of the sound are varied so that the stationary wave
always has two antinodes and two nodes, as shown.

gas-filled tube piston

The graph shows the variation of the frequency f of the stationary sound wave with the length L of
the tube.

5000
f / Hz
4000

3000

2000

1000

0
0 5 10 15 20 25
L / cm

What is the speed of sound in the gas in the tube?

A 150 m s–1 B 230 m s–1 C 300 m s–1 D 340 m s–1

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29 The diagrams show the diffraction of water waves in a ripple tank as they pass through a gap
between two barriers.

Which diagram is correct?

A B

C D

30 A beam of light from a laser is incident normally on a double slit. Interference fringes are seen on
a screen placed parallel to the double slit.

The separation of the two slits is a. The distance between the slits and the screen is D. The
distance between the centres of two adjacent bright fringes is x.

D and a are both halved.

What is the distance between the centres of two adjacent bright fringes after these changes?

x
A B x C 2x D 4x
2

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31 A beam of light of wavelength 400 nm is incident normally on a diffraction grating that has
300 lines per millimetre. The light passes through the grating and produces a series of maxima
which are observed on a semicircular screen, as shown.

screen
diffraction grating
light,
wavelength 400 nm

VIEW FROM ABOVE

What is the total number of maxima observed on the screen?

A 8 B 9 C 16 D 17

32 Two wires, X and Y, are made from the same metal.

The diameter of wire Y is twice that of wire X.

Wire X, wire Y and a battery are connected in series.

average drift speed of free electrons in wire X

What is the ratio ?
average drift speed of free electrons in wire Y

1 1 2 4
A B C D
4 2 1 1

33 A resistor has resistance R. When the potential difference (p.d.) across the resistor is V, the
current in the resistor is I. The power dissipated in the resistor is P. Work W is done when charge
Q flows through the resistor.

What is not a valid relationship between these variables?

A I= P B Q=W C R = P2 D R=V
V V I P

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34 A fixed resistor and a filament lamp are connected in series to a power supply.

The I–V characteristics for the two components are shown.

fixed resistor
0.5
I/A
0.4

0.3

0.2

0.1

0
0 2 4 6 8 10
V/V

filament lamp
0.5
I/A
0.4

0.3

0.2

0.1

0
0 2 4 6 8 10
V/V

The current in the fixed resistor is 0.34 A.

What is the resistance of the filament lamp?

A 0.081  B 12  C 15  D 18 

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 18

35 A piece of conducting putty (modelling clay) of constant resistivity is formed into a cylindrical
shape.

The resistance R between its flat ends (shaded) is measured.

The same volume of putty is re-formed into cylinders of different lengths L, and the resistance R
between the flat ends is measured for each value of L.

Which graph best shows the variation of R with L?

A B C D

R R R R

0 0 0 0
0 L 0 L 0 L 0 L

36 The diagram shows the symbol for a component that may be used in an electrical circuit.

Which component is represented by this circuit symbol?

A buzzer
B electric bell
C loudspeaker
D microphone

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 19

37 Which row correctly describes Kirchhoff’s laws?

physics principle physics principle

Kirchhoff’s first law applied for Kirchhoff’s second law applied for
first law second law

A The sum of the conservation The sum of the e.m.f.s conservation

currents entering a of charge around any closed loop of energy
junction equals the in a circuit equals the
sum of the currents sum of the p.d.s around
leaving the junction. the same loop.

B The sum of the conservation The sum of the e.m.f.s conservation

currents entering a of energy around any closed loop of charge
junction equals the in a circuit equals the
sum of the currents sum of the p.d.s around
leaving the junction. the same loop.

C The sum of the e.m.f.s conservation The sum of the currents conservation
around any closed of energy entering a junction of charge
loop in a circuit equals equals the sum of the
the sum of the p.d.s currents leaving the
around the same loop. junction.

D The sum of the e.m.f.s conservation The sum of the currents conservation
around any closed of charge entering a junction of energy
loop in a circuit equals equals the sum of the
the sum of the p.d.s currents leaving the
around the same loop. junction.

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download
at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.

Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of Cambridge Assessment. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of Cambridge
Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which is a department of the University of Cambridge.

© UCLES 2022 9702/13/M/J/22 [Turn over

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38 A potential divider circuit is formed by connecting a battery of negligible internal resistance in

series with two variable resistors, as shown.

RX RY

VX

The variable resistors have resistances RX and RY.

VX is the potential difference (p.d.) across the variable resistor with resistance RX.

RX and RY are both changed at the same time.

Which combination of changes must cause VX to increase?

RX RY

A larger larger
B larger smaller
C smaller larger
D smaller smaller

39 An actinium nucleus has a nucleon number of 227 and a proton number of 89. It decays to form a
radium nucleus, emitting a – particle and an -particle in the process.

What are the nucleon number and the proton number of this radium nucleus?

nucleon number proton number

A 223 87
B 223 88
C 224 87
D 225 86

40 Which statement is not correct?

A A meson consists of three quarks.

B A proton is a baryon.
C A quark is a fundamental particle.
D There are six flavours (types) of quark.

© UCLES 2022 9702/13/M/J/22

 Cambridge International AS & A Level

PHYSICS 9702/11
Paper 1 Multiple Choice October/November 2022
1 hour 15 minutes

You must answer on the multiple choice answer sheet.

*9291691125*

You will need: Multiple choice answer sheet

Soft clean eraser
Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

INSTRUCTIONS
 There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions.
 For each question there are four possible answers A, B, C and D. Choose the one you consider correct
and record your choice in soft pencil on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Follow the instructions on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Write in soft pencil.
 Write your name, centre number and candidate number on the multiple choice answer sheet in the
spaces provided unless this has been done for you.
 Do not use correction fluid.
 Do not write on any bar codes.
 You may use a calculator.

INFORMATION
 The total mark for this paper is 40.
 Each correct answer will score one mark.
 Any rough working should be done on this question paper.

This document has 20 pages. Any blank pages are indicated.

IB22 11_9702_11/2RP
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1 What is needed to accurately represent all physical quantities?

A a base unit and a number

B a unit and a number expressed in standard form (scientific notation)
C a unit and a numerical magnitude

D an SI unit and a numerical magnitude

2 A voltmeter connected across a resistor in a circuit reads 3.6 V.

What could be the current in the resistor and the resistance of the resistor?

current resistance

A 150 mA 0.24 k
B 15 mA 2.4 k
C 1.5 mA 0.24 M
D 15 A 240 k

3 In an experiment to determine the acceleration of free fall g, the time t taken for a ball to fall
through distance s is measured. The percentage uncertainty in the measurement of s is 2%. The
percentage uncertainty in the measurement of t is 3%.

The value of g is determined using the equation shown.

g  2s2
t

What is the percentage uncertainty in the calculated value of g?

A 1% B 5% C 8% D 11%

4 Which quantity is a vector?

A momentum
B speed
C temperature
D Young modulus

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5 A particle accelerates from rest.

The graph shows the variation of the velocity v of the particle with time t.

0
0 t

Which graph shows the variation of the velocity v with the acceleration a of the particle?

A B C D
v v v v

0 0 0 0
0 a 0 a 0 a 0 a

6 The graph shows the vertical velocity of a parachutist during the first 20 s of her jump.

60
velocity
/ m s–1

40

20

0
0 5 10 15 20
time / s

Approximately how far does she fall before opening the parachute?

A 390 m B 570 m C 710 m D 770 m

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7 What is the definition of linear momentum?

A force per unit time

B product of force and time
C product of velocity and mass
D velocity per unit mass

8 A mass of 0.20 kg is suspended from the lower end of a light spring. A second mass of 0.10 kg is
suspended from the first mass by a thread. The arrangement is allowed to come into static
equilibrium and then the thread is cut.

spring

0.20 kg
thread

0.10 kg

Immediately after the thread is cut, what is the upward acceleration of the 0.20 kg mass?

A 4.9 m s–2 B 6.5 m s–2 C 9.8 m s–2 D 15 m s–2

9 A snowflake and a raindrop are in still air. They both fall from rest at the same time and from the
same height, far above the ground.

The snowflake and raindrop contain the same mass of water. Assume that there is no
evaporation or melting. Also assume that, for a given speed, the drag force acting on the
snowflake is greater than the drag force acting on the raindrop.

Which statement about the snowflake and raindrop is correct?

A The raindrop takes more time than the snowflake to reach terminal velocity.
B The raindrop takes more time than the snowflake to reach the ground.
C They reach the same terminal velocity.
D They take the same amount of time to reach the ground.

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10 Two trolleys are held together on a horizontal surface with a compressed spring between them.

2 kg
1 kg

When they are released, the trolleys lose contact with the spring. The trolley of mass 2 kg moves
to the left at a final speed of 2 m s–1.

How much elastic potential energy was stored in the spring?

A 4J B 6J C 8J D 12 J

11 A square board, of side length x, hangs freely from a nail P, as shown.

The board has uniform thickness and is made from material of uniform density.

P Q
x
2x

2x

A second square board, of side length 2x, is made of the same material and has the same
thickness as the original board. This second board is then hung from a nail Q. Nails P and Q are
at the same height.

What is the vertical distance between the positions of the centres of gravity of the two boards?

x
A 0 B C x D x 2
2

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12 Forces are applied to a rigid object. The forces all act in the same plane.

In which diagram is the object in equilibrium?

A B C D

F F F F
2F 2F 2F 2F
1 1 1 1

2F 2F
1 1

F F F F

13 A rigid rod XY has negligible mass and length 75 cm. The rod is suspended from a fixed point P
by a string attached to end X. An object of mass 11 kg is suspended by a string that is attached to
the rod at a distance of 25 cm from end X, as shown.

P
75 cm
X Y
25 cm

11 kg

Which vertically upward force acting on end Y of the rod would hold the rod horizontally in
equilibrium?

A 3.7 N B 33 N C 36 N D 320 N

14 The density of water is 1.0 g cm–3 and the density of glycerine is 1.3 g cm–3.

Water is added to a measuring cylinder containing 40 cm3 of glycerine so that the density of the
mixture is 1.1 g cm–3. Assume that the mixing process does not change the total volume of the
liquid.

What is the volume of water added?

A 40 cm3 B 44 cm3 C 52 cm3 D 80 cm3

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15 A box, in the shape of a cube, falls from a ship into the sea. The box lands with its lower face
level with the surface of the sea.

box on the
surface of the sea surface of sea surface of sea

box sinking

The box begins to sink, becomes totally submerged and then sinks deeper into the sea.

As the box sinks, its lower face is always parallel to the surface of the sea.

Which graph best represents the variation of the upthrust acting on the box with the depth of its
lower face below the surface of the sea?

A B C D
upthrust upthrust upthrust upthrust

0 0 0 0
0 depth 0 depth 0 depth 0 depth

16 A spring is compressed by a mass, as shown.

mass

spring

before after

Which statement describes the changes to the energy of the spring when it is compressed by the
mass?

A The spring gains both gravitational potential energy and elastic potential energy.
B The spring gains gravitational potential energy and loses elastic potential energy.
C The spring loses both gravitational potential energy and elastic potential energy.
D The spring loses gravitational potential energy and gains elastic potential energy.

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17 A man of mass 75 kg runs up a staircase consisting of 30 steps. Each step is 20 cm high.

The man takes a time of 7.0 s to run from the bottom of the staircase to the top.

What is the average rate of increase of gravitational potential energy of the man?

A 64 W B 450 W C 630 W D 4400 W

18 An alpha-particle has 2.2  10–13 J of kinetic energy.

What is the speed of the alpha-particle?

A 4.1  106 m s–1

B 5.8  106 m s–1

C 8.1  106 m s–1

D 1.2  107 m s–1

19 Identical springs are joined in four arrangements.

Which arrangement has the same spring constant as a single spring?

A B C D

load

load load load

20 An unstretched spring has a length of 2.0 cm.

The spring is then stretched within its limit of proportionality by a tensile force of 1.5 N so that the
elastic potential energy stored in the spring is 0.045 J.

What is the stretched length of the spring?

A 3.0 cm B 5.0 cm C 6.0 cm D 8.0 cm

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21 A signal generator, amplifier and loudspeaker are used to produce different sound waves in the
air of a room. The relationships between the properties of these waves are investigated.

Which relationship is not correct?

A Amplitude is proportional to wavelength.

B Frequency is inversely proportional to wavelength.
C Intensity is proportional to amplitude squared at a given frequency.
D Period is equal to the reciprocal of frequency.

22 When a guitar string is plucked, it causes a longitudinal sound wave in the air, as shown.

0.0 0.2 0.4 0.6 0.8

distance / m

The speed of sound in the air is 340 m s–1.

What is the approximate frequency of the sound wave shown?

A 430 Hz B 680 Hz C 1100 Hz D 1400 Hz

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23 A transverse wave travels along a rope. The diagram shows the rope at time t = 0.

The wave is travelling from left to right. The period of the wave is T.

direction of
wave travel
X

One particle of the rope is labelled X.

Which graph shows the variation with time of the displacement of particle X between t = 0 and
t = 2T ?

A B
displacement displacement

0 t 0 t
0 2T 0 2T

C D
displacement displacement

0 t 0 t
0 2T 0 2T

24 A jet aircraft travels at a speed of 0.80v, where v is the speed of sound. The aircraft directly
approaches a stationary observer. The frequency of sound emitted by the aircraft is 100 Hz.

Which frequency does the observer hear?

A 56 Hz B 180 Hz C 400 Hz D 500 Hz

25 A telescope detects and analyses some electromagnetic radiation of wavelength 2 cm.

Which type of telescope is it?

A microwave telescope
B optical telescope
C radio telescope
D X-ray telescope

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26 Two waves of the same type overlap.

When does the principle of superposition apply?

A always
B only when the waves have the same amplitude
C only when the waves have the same frequency
D only when the waves travel in opposite directions

27 A stationary sound wave is formed in a tube of length L that is closed at one end.

The diagram shows the positions of the nodes and antinodes of the stationary wave.

node node

antinode antinode

Which graph shows the variation of the amplitude a of the wave with distance x measured from
the closed end of the tube?

A B
a a

0 x 0 x
0 L 0 L

C D
a a

0 x 0 x
0 L 0 L

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28 A wave on the surface of water passes through a gap between two barriers and is diffracted, as
shown.

barrier

barrier

What happens when the frequency of the wave is halved?

A Less diffraction is observed.

B More diffraction is observed.
C There is no diffraction.
D The same amount of diffraction is observed.

29 Observable interference fringes are produced using light from a double slit. The intensity of the
light emerging from each slit is initially the same.

The intensity of the light emerging from one of the slits is now reduced.

How does this affect the interference pattern?

A The bright fringes and the dark fringes all become brighter.
B The bright fringes and the dark fringes all become darker.
C The bright fringes become brighter and the dark fringes become darker.
D The bright fringes become darker and the dark fringes become brighter.

30 A diffraction grating has 4.00  105 lines per metre. A beam of light of wavelength 589  10–9 m is
incident normally on the diffraction grating.

What is the angle between the second-order maximum and the direction of the incident beam of
light?

A 13.6 B 27.3 C 28.1 D 56.2

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31 A length of wire RS has a circular cross-section.

area A area A
2

S
R

At end R of the wire, the cross-sectional area is A.

At end S of the wire, the cross-sectional area is A .

2

Charge Q takes time t to pass through end R of the wire. There is a constant electric current in
the wire.

t
How much charge will pass through end S in a time interval of ?
4
A Q B Q C Q D Q
8 4 2

32 A power supply is connected to a component by connecting wires of total resistance 4.9 .

The power supply has an output power of 3.6 W and a terminal potential difference of 12 V.

How much thermal energy is dissipated in the connecting wires in a time of 1.0 hour?

A 0.44 J B 29 J C 1.6 kJ D 11 kJ

33 A copper wire is to be replaced by an aluminium alloy wire of the same length and resistance.
Copper has half the resistivity of the alloy.

diameter of alloy wire

What is the ratio ?
diameter of copper wire
A 2 B 2 C 2 2 D 4

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34 Three identical filament lamps, P, Q and R, are connected to a battery of negligible internal
resistance, as shown.

The filament wire in lamp Q breaks so that it no longer conducts.

What are the changes in the brightness of lamps P and R?

lamp P lamp R

A brighter brighter
B brighter dimmer
C dimmer brighter
D dimmer dimmer

35 Which ratio has the same units as electromotive force (e.m.f.)?

A charge per unit energy transferred

B charge per unit time
C energy transferred per unit charge
D energy transferred per unit time

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36 A circuit consists of a battery, a voltmeter and five fixed resistors, as shown.

2.0 : 8.0 :

5.0 : 10.0 :

The voltmeter reading is zero.

What is the resistance of resistor R?

A 1.1  B 2.1  C 4.0  D 8.0 

37 A battery of electromotive force (e.m.f.) 6.0 V and negligible internal resistance is connected to a
voltmeter and four other components, as shown.

The voltmeter is connected between points X and Y. The positive terminal of the voltmeter is
connected to X and the negative terminal of the voltmeter is connected to Y.

+ –
6.0 V X V Y

Initially, the resistance of each of the four components is 1.0 k.

Which change, on its own, will cause the voltmeter to show a positive reading?

A Decrease the temperature of the thermistor.

B Increase the resistance of the variable resistor.
C Reduce the intensity of light incident on the light-dependent resistor (LDR).

D Replace the fixed resistor with a 500  resistor.

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38 An -particle passes close to a gold nucleus and is deflected through an angle greater than 90.

Which property of the -particle changes as a result of the deflection?

A charge
B momentum
C nucleon number
D proton number

238
39 A nucleus of 92 U decays in stages by emitting -particles and – particles, eventually forming a
206
nucleus of 82 Pb.

How many -particles and how many – particles are emitted during the decay chain?

-particles – particles

A 8 6
B 8 10
C 16 6
D 16 22

40 Which list of particles contains only fundamental particles?

A antineutrino, beta, meson

B baryon, neutrino, positron
C electron, neutrino, alpha
D lepton, quark, positron

© UCLES 2022 9702/11/O/N/22

 Cambridge International AS & A Level

PHYSICS 9702/12
Paper 1 Multiple Choice October/November 2022
1 hour 15 minutes

You must answer on the multiple choice answer sheet.

*2151627545*

You will need: Multiple choice answer sheet

Soft clean eraser
Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

INSTRUCTIONS
 There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions.
 For each question there are four possible answers A, B, C and D. Choose the one you consider correct
and record your choice in soft pencil on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Follow the instructions on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Write in soft pencil.
 Write your name, centre number and candidate number on the multiple choice answer sheet in the
spaces provided unless this has been done for you.
 Do not use correction fluid.
 Do not write on any bar codes.
 You may use a calculator.

INFORMATION
 The total mark for this paper is 40.
 Each correct answer will score one mark.
 Any rough working should be done on this question paper.

This document has 16 pages.

IB22 11_9702_12/3RP
© UCLES 2022 [Turn over
 3

1 Which quantity is a physical quantity?

A flavour
B kelvin
C minute
D potential difference

2 What is a power of 3.7 MW when expressed in kilowatts?

A 3.7  10–3 kW

B 3.7  10–3 KW

C 3.7  103 kW

D 3.7  103 KW

3 A spring is suspended from a fixed point and a force is applied. The position of a pointer attached
to the bottom of the spring against a vertical ruler is recorded.

Before the force is applied, the position of the pointer is (225  2) mm.

After the force is applied, the position of the pointer is (250  2) mm.

The extension of the spring is determined.

What is the percentage uncertainty in the extension?

A 1.6% B 1.8% C 8.0% D 16%

4 What is the difference between a scalar quantity and a vector quantity?

A A scalar quantity has direction but a vector quantity does not.

B A scalar quantity has magnitude but a vector quantity does not.
C A vector quantity has direction but a scalar quantity does not.
D A vector quantity has magnitude but a scalar quantity does not.

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5 A toy car travels on a circular track at a constant speed of 0.50 m s–1. It passes a point on the
track at time t = 0 and takes a time of 40 s to travel once around the track.

The magnitude of the average velocity of the car between t = 0 and t = 20 s is v20.

The magnitude of the average velocity of the car between t = 0 and t = 40 s is v40.

What are v20 and v40?

v20 / m s–1 v40 / m s–1

A 0.32 0
B 0.32 0.32
C 0.50 0
D 0.50 0.50

6 The graph shows how the velocity v of an object moving in a straight line varies with time t from
t = 0 to t = T.

0 t
0 T

Which graph could represent the displacement s of the object from time t = 0 to t = T ?

A B
s s

0 t
0 T

0 t
0 T

C D
s s

0 t 0 t
0 T 0 T

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7 A goods train passes through a station at a steady speed of 10 m s–1 at time t = 0. An express
train is at rest at the station. The express train leaves the station with a uniform acceleration of
0.5 m s–2 just as the goods train goes past. Both trains move in the same direction on straight,
parallel tracks.

At which time t does the express train overtake the goods train?

A 6s B 10 s C 20 s D 40 s

8 A constant resultant force F acts on an object of mass m for time t.

What is the change in momentum of the object?

F Ft F
A B C Ft D
t m mt

9 The acceleration of free fall on the surface of planet P is one-tenth of that on the surface of
planet Q.

On the surface of P, an object has a mass of 1.0 kg and a weight of 1.0 N.

What are the mass and the weight of the same object on the surface of planet Q?

mass on Q / kg weight on Q / N

A 1.0 0.1
B 1.0 10
C 10 10
D 10 100

10 A parachutist falls from rest from a balloon. The variation with time of the vertical velocity of the
parachutist is shown.

In which region is the force due to air resistance much greater than the weight of the parachutist?

vertical B
velocity

C
A

0
0 time

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11 Two solid spheres form an isolated system. Sphere X moves with speed 6 cm s–1 in a straight line
directly towards a stationary sphere Y, as shown.

sphere X sphere Y
6 cm s–1

The spheres have a perfectly elastic collision. After the collision, sphere X moves with speed
2 cm s–1 in the same direction as before the collision.

What is the speed of sphere Y?

A 2 cm s–1 B 4 cm s–1 C 6 cm s–1 D 8 cm s–1

12 What is not a necessary requirement of the forces in a couple?

A They act in opposite directions.

B They act along different lines.
C They have the same magnitude.
D They produce a resultant force.

13 A box of length 12 cm and weight 0.43 N is placed on a horizontal table, with the greater part of its
length overhanging the edge of the table. The edge of the table acts as a pivot. The centre of
gravity of the box is at its geometric centre.

To balance the box, a uniform sphere of diameter 2.4 cm is placed inside the box, touching one
end, as shown.

12 cm

box
2.4 cm
sphere

table
edge of table (pivot)

Assume that the forces acting on the box are in the plane of the diagram.

What is the minimum mass of the sphere that is needed to maintain the system in equilibrium?

A 0.066 kg B 0.13 kg C 0.22 kg D 1.3 kg

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14 An object is suspended by two ropes. One rope has a tension of 410 N at an angle of 60 to the
horizontal. The other rope has a tension of 210 N at an angle of 10 to the horizontal.

410 N
ropes

60q 210 N
10q

object

The object is in equilibrium.

What is the mass of the object?

A 40 kg B 42 kg C 390 kg D 410 kg

15 A solid cube is floating in equilibrium in liquid mercury. The cube is made of iron of density
7900 kg m–3.

The cube floats with 42% of its volume above the surface of the mercury.

What is the density of the mercury?

A 3300 kg m–3
B 4600 kg m–3
C 14 000 kg m–3
D 19 000 kg m–3

16 The diagram shows two vessels, P and Q, both with sides inclined at 45 to the horizontal.

vessel P vessel Q

Vessel P tapers outwards and vessel Q tapers inwards, as shown.

Both vessels contain a liquid. The depth of the liquid in the vessels is the same. The liquid in
vessel P is twice as dense as the liquid in vessel Q.

pressure due to the liquid on the base of P

What is the ratio ?
pressure due to the liquid on the base of Q
2 2 1 1
A B C D
1 1 2 2

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17 A motor is used to lift a load vertically upwards.

The load has weight W.

The motor produces useful power output P.

The load is lifted at constant velocity v.

Which expression gives the time taken for the motor to lift the load vertically upwards through a
distance d ?
P Wv Wd Pv
A B C D
Wd P P W

18 A lamp is switched on for 2.0 hours. The power input to the lamp is 1.0 W. The energy given out
by the lamp as light is 7.0  103 J.

How much energy is converted to other forms by the lamp?

A 120 J B 200 J C 3400 J D 7200 J

19 An object of mass m is dropped onto the surface of two planets, X and Y, which have no
atmosphere.

The height from which the object is dropped and the change in gravitational potential energy of
the object, for each planet, are given in the table.

change in gravitational
height / m
potential energy

planet X 3 ∆E
planet Y 4 4∆E

The acceleration of free fall near the surface of planet X is gX.

What is the acceleration of free fall near the surface of planet Y?

A 3g B 4g C 3gX D 4gX
X X
4 3

20 A known tensile force acts on a metal wire. The wire does not exceed its limit of proportionality.

Which two measurements enable the strain of the wire to be calculated?

A the unstretched length of the wire and the cross-sectional area of the wire
B the unstretched length of the wire and the extension of the wire
C the Young modulus of the metal and the extension of the wire
D the Young modulus of the metal and the unstretched length of the wire

© UCLES 2022 9702/12/O/N/22

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21 A wire is extended by different forces. The wire obeys Hooke’s law.

A graph is plotted to show the variation of a quantity y with a quantity x.

0
0 x

What could x and y represent?

x y

A elastic potential energy extension

B extension force
C force extension
D extension elastic potential energy

22 A wave pulse moves along a stretched rope in the direction shown.

Which diagram shows the variation with time t of the displacement s of the particle P in the rope?

A B

s s

0 0
0 t 0 t

C D

s s

0 0
0 t 0 t

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23 Which statement about progressive transverse and longitudinal waves is correct?

A Particles in a transverse wave have fixed equilibrium positions but those in longitudinal
waves do not.
B Transverse waves can be polarised but longitudinal waves cannot.
C Transverse waves transfer energy but longitudinal waves do not.
D Two-source interference can be demonstrated with transverse waves but not with
longitudinal waves.

24 A miniature loudspeaker, initially at rest, falls vertically from a window in a high building. When
the speaker has fallen a distance of 10.0 m, it emits a very short pulse of sound of constant
frequency 256 Hz in all directions. The pulse of sound, travelling at a speed of 330 m s–1, is heard
by a person leaning out of the window.

Air resistance is negligible.

What is the frequency of the pulse of sound heard by the person?

A 246 Hz B 249 Hz C 267 Hz D 313 Hz

25 Two electromagnetic waves have wavelengths of 5.0  10–7 m and 5.0  10–2 m in a vacuum.

Which row identifies the regions of the electromagnetic spectrum to which the waves belong?

wavelength wavelength
5.0  10–7 m 5.0  10–2 m

A ultraviolet infrared
B visible microwave
C ultraviolet microwave
D visible infrared

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26 The wavelength of sound in air may be determined by using stationary waves.

In one experiment, a loudspeaker produces a sound wave of constant frequency which is

reflected directly back along its original path by a metal plate approximately 1 m away. A
microphone connected to a cathode-ray oscilloscope (CRO) is moved between the loudspeaker
and plate to identify regions of high sound intensity (‘loud’ spots) and low sound intensity (‘quiet’
spots).

The wavelength of the sound is determined using the least possible number of measured
quantities.

Which row shows the quantities that are needed?

frequency mean separation speed of sound

of sound of ‘quiet’ spots in air

A    key
B     = needed
C     = not needed
D   

27 Two progressive waves meet at a fixed point P. The variation with time of the displacement of
each wave at point P is shown.

2
displacement
/ cm 1

0
0 0.1 0.2 0.3 0.4 0.5 0.6 0.7 0.8
–1 time / s

–2

The two waves superpose at point P.

What is the resultant displacement at time 0.38 s?

A +1.0 cm B –1.0 cm C +1.8 cm D –1.8 cm

28 In which situation does diffraction occur?

A A wave bounces back from a surface.

B A wave passes from one medium into another.
C A wave passes through a gap in a barrier.
D Waves from two identical sources are superposed.

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29 Light of a single frequency is incident on a pair of narrow slits that are a distance of 0.10 mm
apart. A series of bright and dark fringes is observed on a screen a distance of 2.0 m away. The
distance between adjacent bright fringes is 8.0 mm.

screen

slits
second-order dark fringe
light
zero-order bright fringe

distance between
2.0 m bright fringes = 8.0 mm

NOT TO SCALE

What is the path difference of the light waves from the two slits that meet at the second-order
dark fringe?

A 2.0  10–7 m

B 4.0  10–7 m

C 6.0  10–7 m

D 8.0  10–7 m

30 Red light of a single wavelength passes through a diffraction grating. Bright dots are formed on a
screen, as shown.

screen

bright dot

The red light is replaced with white light.

Which diagram, drawn to the same scale, shows a possible pattern of bright light on the screen?

© UCLES 2022 9702/12/O/N/22

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31 A nichrome wire has a resistance of 15  and a diameter of 3.0 mm. The number density of the
free electrons in nichrome is 9.0  1028 m–3.

A potential difference (p.d.) of 6.0 V is applied between the ends of the wire.

What is the average drift speed of the free electrons in the wire?

A 9.8  10–7 m s–1

B 3.9  10–6 m s–1

C 6.1  10–6 m s–1

D 2.5  10–5 m s–1

32 The diagrams show two different circuits.

R R R

The cells in each circuit have the same electromotive force (e.m.f.) and negligible internal
resistance. The three resistors each have the same resistance R.

In the circuit on the left, the power dissipated in the resistor is P.

What is the total power dissipated in the circuit on the right?

P P
A B C P D 2P
4 2

33 The potential difference (p.d.) across a filament lamp is increased.

Which statement is correct?

A The resistance of the lamp decreases because the temperature decreases.

B The resistance of the lamp decreases because the temperature increases.
C The resistance of the lamp increases because the temperature decreases.
D The resistance of the lamp increases because the temperature increases.

34 A metal wire has resistance R.

The wire is stretched so that its diameter decreases to 94.0% of the original diameter.

The volume of the wire is unchanged.

What is the resistance of the stretched wire?

A 1.06R B 1.13R C 1.20R D 1.28R

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 14

35 The diagram shows a cell of electromotive force (e.m.f.) 3.0 V and internal resistance 4.7 
connected across a lamp. The lamp has a resistance of 9.3 .

3.0 V
4.7 :

9.3 :

What is the power dissipated by the internal resistance of the cell?

A 0.22 W B 0.43 W C 0.64 W D 1.0 W

36 A circuit consists of a battery, a high-resistance voltmeter and four fixed resistors, as shown. The
battery has an electromotive force (e.m.f.) of 15.0 V and negligible internal resistance.

15.0 V

24.0 : 6.0 :

V
6.0 : 9.0 :

What is the reading on the voltmeter?

A 3.0 V B 6.0 V C 9.0 V D 12.0 V

© UCLES 2022 9702/12/O/N/22

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37 A potential divider circuit is designed to detect the difference in temperature between two different
places.

20 mV

Y V

The cell has electromotive force (e.m.f.) 20 mV and negligible internal resistance.

Initially, thermistors X and Y are at the same temperature and have the same resistance. The
voltmeter reads 10 mV. X is then placed in a cold environment and its resistance doubles. Y is
placed in a warm environment and its resistance halves.

What is the new reading on the voltmeter?

A 4 mV B 5 mV C 15 mV D 16 mV

38 In the -particle scattering experiment, a beam of -particles is aimed at a thin gold foil. Most of
the -particles go straight through or are deflected by a small angle. A very small proportion are
deflected by more than 90, effectively rebounding towards the source of the -particles.

Which conclusion about the structure of atoms cannot be drawn from this experiment alone?

A Most of the atom is empty space.

B Most of the mass of an atom is concentrated in the nucleus.
C The nucleus contains both protons and neutrons.
D The nucleus is charged.

39 Which two particles have opposite charges?

A alpha-particle and helium nucleus

B antiproton and beta-plus particle
C beta-minus particle and electron
D positron and proton

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 16

40 Which particle is a lepton?

A meson
B positron
C proton
D quark

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download
at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.

Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of Cambridge Assessment. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of Cambridge
Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which is a department of the University of Cambridge.

© UCLES 2022 9702/12/O/N/22

 Cambridge International AS & A Level

PHYSICS 9702/13
Paper 1 Multiple Choice October/November 2022
1 hour 15 minutes

You must answer on the multiple choice answer sheet.

*7056058865*

You will need: Multiple choice answer sheet

Soft clean eraser
Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

INSTRUCTIONS
 There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions.
 For each question there are four possible answers A, B, C and D. Choose the one you consider correct
and record your choice in soft pencil on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Follow the instructions on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Write in soft pencil.
 Write your name, centre number and candidate number on the multiple choice answer sheet in the
spaces provided unless this has been done for you.
 Do not use correction fluid.
 Do not write on any bar codes.
 You may use a calculator.

INFORMATION
 The total mark for this paper is 40.
 Each correct answer will score one mark.
 Any rough working should be done on this question paper.

This document has 20 pages. Any blank pages are indicated.

IB22 11_9702_13/2RP
© UCLES 2022 [Turn over
 3

1 A train of mass 600 000 kg moves with a speed of 100 km h–1.

What is the order of magnitude of the kinetic energy of the train?

A 106 J B 108 J C 1010 J D 1012 J

2 What are the SI base units of electromotive force (e.m.f.)?

A kg m2 s–1 A–1
B kg m2 s–3 A–1
C kg m2 s–1 A
D kg m s–3 A–1

3 A digital meter is used to measure the current in an electric circuit.

The reading on the meter fluctuates (varies) between 3.04 A and 3.08 A. The readings on the
meter have an accuracy of 1%.

What is the true value of the current, with its uncertainty?

A (3.06  0.02) A

B (3.06  0.04) A

C (3.06  0.05) A

D (3.06  0.07) A

4 Which quantity is a vector quantity?

A density
B mass
C volume
D weight

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 4

5 A stone is projected horizontally at time t = 0 and falls. Air resistance is negligible. The stone has
a horizontal component of velocity vH and a vertical component of velocity vV.

Which graph shows how vH and vV vary with time t ?

A B
velocity velocity
vV vH
vH vV

0 0
0 t 0 t

C vV D
velocity velocity
vH vH

vV
0 0
0 t 0 t

6 On the Earth, an object takes time TE to fall from rest through a vertical distance h.

On the Moon, the same object takes time TM to fall from rest through the same vertical distance h.

acceleration of free fall on the Earth

The ratio is equal to 6.
acceleration of free fall on the Moon

Air resistance is negligible for the object on the Earth and on the Moon.

TE
What is the ratio ?
TM
1 1
A B C 6 D 6
6 6

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7 A cyclist in still air pedals as hard as she can. She reaches a maximum speed. However, after a
certain time her maximum speed increases.

What could be a possible cause for this?

A She cycles into a wind.

B She cycles over rougher ground.
C She sits more upright on the bicycle.
D She starts to travel downhill.

8 A ball of mass 0.5 kg hits a vertical wall at a speed of 12 m s–1. It bounces back along its original
path with a speed of 8 m s–1. The collision lasts for 0.10 s.

12 m s–1

8 m s–1

What is the average force on the ball due to the collision?

A 0.2 N B 1N C 20 N D 100 N

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9 An air bubble in a tank of water is rising with terminal (constant) velocity. The forces acting on the
bubble are X, Y and Z, as shown.

velocity
air bubble

The upthrust on the bubble is X.

Which statement about the forces is correct?

A Z is the viscous force on the bubble, Y is the weight of the bubble and X = Y + Z.
B Z is the viscous force on the bubble, Y is the weight of the bubble and X > Y + Z.
C Z is the weight of the bubble, Y is the viscous force on the bubble and X = Y + Z.
D Z is the weight of the bubble, Y is the viscous force on the bubble and X > Y + Z.

© UCLES 2022 9702/13/O/N/22

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10 Two blocks are at rest on a frictionless horizontal surface. One block is made of wood and the
other block is made of steel.

A steel ball is fired horizontally with a speed v at the wooden block. The ball embeds itself in the
block, and the ball and block move together after impact.

A second identical steel ball is fired horizontally with speed v at the steel block. The steel ball
v
then rebounds back along its original path with speed .
2

before impact after impact

v
wood wood

v
v 2
steel steel

The wooden block and the steel block have equal mass.

Which statement about the blocks immediately after the collisions is correct?

A Both blocks must travel with the same speed.

B The steel block must travel faster than the wooden block.
C The wooden block must travel faster than the steel block.
D The masses of the blocks and the steel ball are needed to determine which block travels
faster.

11 Which diagram shows a couple formed by two forces, each of magnitude F, acting on a rod?

A B
F

F F F

C F D

F F

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12 A student states that:

‘If an object is in equilibrium, the sum of the clockwise moments about a point X is equal
to the sum of the anticlockwise moments about a point Y.’

Which condition would make the student’s statement correct?

A Either X or Y is the centre of gravity of the object.

B Either X or Y is the pivot of the object.
C X and Y are at opposite ends of the object.
D X and Y are the same point on the object.

13 A uniform rod of length 30 cm and weight 5.2 N is attached to a wall by a hinge at one end.

The other end of the rod is supported by a wire so that the rod is horizontal and in equilibrium.

The wire is at an angle of 40 to the horizontal.

wire
wall

rod
40q

hinge 30 cm

What is the tension in the wire?

A 3.4 N B 4.0 N C 6.8 N D 8.1 N

14 Water is pumped through a nozzle at the end of a hose. The nozzle has a circular cross-section
of diameter 50 mm. A mass of 100 kg of water takes a time of 2.0 s to move through the nozzle.
The density of water is 1000 kg m–3.

What is the speed of the water in the nozzle?

A 6.4 m s–1 B 13 m s–1 C 25 m s–1 D 51 m s–1

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15 A solid wooden cube rests on a horizontal surface.

What gives the pressure exerted by the weight of the cube on the horizontal surface?

A the product of the acceleration of free fall and the density of the cube
B the product of the acceleration of free fall, the density and the side length of the cube
C the product of the acceleration of free fall, the density and the area of one face of the cube
D the product of the acceleration of free fall, the density and the volume of the cube

16 Which expression could be used to calculate power?

(current)2
A
resistance
force  displaceme nt
B
time

C current  (resistance)2

weight
D
time

17 A bungee jumper jumps from a platform and is decelerated by an elastic bungee cord, as shown.

platform bungee
jumper

bungee cord bungee

cord

ground ground
NOT TO
before jumping SCALE during the jump

When the jumper makes the jump, his initial gravitational potential energy is converted into his
kinetic energy and into elastic potential energy in the cord.

At which part of the jump are all three types of energy non-zero?

A on the platform before the jump

B on the way down before the cord has started to extend
C on the way down as he decelerates
D at the bottom of the jump when he is stationary

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18 An object is displaced horizontally to the right in a uniform vertical gravitational field.

Which statement describes the change in the gravitational potential energy of the object?

A It decreases in direct proportion to the displacement.

B It does not change with the displacement.
C It increases in direct proportion to the displacement.
D It increases in direct proportion to the square of the displacement.

19 A copper wire of length 3.6 m and diameter 1.22 mm is stretched by a force of 37 N. The wire
obeys Hooke’s law. The Young modulus of copper is 1.17  1011 Pa.

Which extension is caused by this force?

A 0.24 mm B 0.76 mm C 0.97 mm D 3.1 mm

20 A spring has spring constant k. The spring obeys Hooke’s law and experiences extension x when
a force F is applied to it. The resulting elastic potential energy of the spring is EP.

The diagram shows two of these springs joined together in parallel and hanging from a fixed
beam.

spring

What is the extension and total elastic potential energy of this arrangement when the same
force F is applied?

total elastic
extension
potential energy
1 1
A 2
x 2
EP
1 1
B 2
x 4
EP
1
C x 2
EP
1
D x 4
EP

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21 The diagram shows a transverse wave on a rope. The wave is travelling from left to right.

At the instant shown, the points P and Q on the rope have zero displacement and maximum
displacement respectively.

direction of wave

Which row describes the direction of motion, if any, of the points P and Q at this instant?

point P point Q

A downwards stationary
B stationary downwards
C stationary upwards
D upwards stationary

22 The period of an electromagnetic wave in a vacuum is 1.0 ns.

What are the frequency and wavelength of the wave?

frequency / Hz wavelength / m

A 1.0 3.0  108

B 1.0  106 300
C 1.0  109 0.30
D 1.0  1012 3.0  10–4

23 An observer is standing on a railway platform. A train passes the observer at constant speed
while emitting sound of constant frequency f from its whistle.

What does the observer hear?

A sound of a decreasing frequency as the train approaches and of an increasing frequency as

it moves away
B sound of a higher frequency than f as the train approaches and of a lower frequency than f
as the train moves away
C sound of a lower frequency than f as the train approaches and of a higher frequency than f
as the train moves away
D sound of an increasing frequency as the train approaches and as it moves away

© UCLES 2022 9702/13/O/N/22 [Turn over

 12

24 Which microorganisms have a length that is equal to the wavelength in free space of an
electromagnetic wave that is visible to the human eye?

A algae of length 0.5 m

B bacteria of length 5.0 m

C fungi of length 50 m

D protozoa of length 100 m

25 Two progressive waves overlap.

What is an essential condition for the two waves to form a stationary wave?

A The waves are longitudinal.

B The waves are polarised.
C The waves travel in opposite directions.
D The waves travel in the same direction.

26 In an experiment to produce a stationary sound wave in air, a fine powder is initially evenly
distributed along the length of a horizontal glass tube which is closed at one end.

At the open end of the tube, a loudspeaker emits a sound wave of a constant wavelength. A
stationary wave is formed and the powder accumulates in regularly spaced piles, as shown.

glass tube

loudspeaker piles of
fine powder

Which statement explains the positions of the piles of powder within the tube?

A The piles are where the air molecules vibrate with maximum amplitude.
B The piles are where the air molecules vibrate with minimum amplitude.
C The piles are where the air molecules vibrate with the highest frequency.
D The piles are where the air molecules vibrate vertically.

© UCLES 2022 9702/13/O/N/22

 13

27 A sound wave of wavelength 0.50 m passes through a doorway of width 1.0 m between two
rooms.

Which change increases the amount of diffraction that takes place?

A Double the amplitude of the sound wave.

B Double the width of the doorway.
C Halve the frequency of the sound wave.
D Halve the period of the sound wave.

© UCLES 2022 9702/13/O/N/22 [Turn over

 14

28 A light source consists of a vertical slit illuminated by red light (R) and violet light (V). The
wavelength of R is approximately twice the wavelength of V. A parallel vertical double slit is
placed nearby. A white screen is placed so that fringes are formed on it.

white screen
slit double slit
light source

Which graph best represents the interference fringes formed on the screen?

intensity
R V R V
V R
R V

0
distance

intensity
R V R
V V

0
distance

intensity
V V R V
V R V R
V V
R R
C

0
distance

intensity
R R V R
R V R V
R R
V V
D

0
distance

© UCLES 2022 9702/13/O/N/22

 15

29 Which property of a light wave can be determined using a diffraction grating?

A amplitude
B intensity
C speed
D wavelength

30 There is an electric current in a copper wire.

Which statement describing the average drift speed of the charge carriers in the wire is correct?

A It is nearly 3  108 m s–1.

B It is proportional to the cross-sectional area of the wire.
C It is proportional to the length of the wire.
D It is proportional to the magnitude of the current.

31 A battery with a constant internal resistance is connected to a resistor of resistance 250 , as

shown.

250 :

The current in the resistor is 40 mA for a time of 60 s. During this time 6.0 J of energy is dissipated
by the internal resistance.

What is the energy supplied to the external resistor during the 60 s and the electromotive force
(e.m.f.) of the battery?

energy / J e.m.f. / V

A 30 2.5
B 30 7.5
C 24 10.0
D 24 12.5

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 16

32 Which component has the I–V graph shown?

0
0 V

A filament lamp
B metallic conductor at constant temperature
C resistor of fixed resistance
D semiconductor diode

33 Two wires, P and Q, have the same resistance. Wire Q is made of material that has twice the
resistivity of the material used to make wire P. The diameter of wire Q is twice the diameter of
wire P.

length of wire P
What is the ratio ?
length of wire Q

1 1 1 2
A B C D
8 4 2 1

© UCLES 2022 9702/13/O/N/22

 17

34 A voltmeter reads 9.000 V when it is connected across the terminals of a battery.

9.000 V
V

When a resistor of resistance 11.0  is connected in parallel with the battery, the voltmeter
reading changes to 8.800 V.

8.800 V
V

11.0 :

What is the internal resistance of the battery?

A 0.244  B 0.250  C 10.8  D 11.3 

35 Each of Kirchhoff’s laws is linked to the conservation of a physical quantity.

Which conserved physical quantities are used in the derivation of Kirchhoff’s first law and of
Kirchhoff’s second law?

Kirchhoff’s Kirchhoff’s
first law second law

A energy charge
B energy momentum
C charge energy
D momentum energy

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36 Three batteries and three identical resistors are connected in a circuit PQR, as shown.

9.6 V
P Q

8.4 V 6.3 V

The batteries have negligible internal resistance.

What is the potential difference between points P and Q?

A 1.5 V B 2.1 V C 7.1 V D 12.1 V

37 A cell E, of electromotive force (e.m.f.) 2 V and negligible internal resistance, is connected to a

uniform resistance wire of resistance 10  and length 1.0 m.

resistance wire

P Q

Z is a connection that may be made at any position along the resistance wire. A galvanometer is
connected between Z and a point Q.

A new source of e.m.f. of approximately 8 mV is connected between points P and Q. The e.m.f. of
the new source is determined by changing the position of Z until the reading on the galvanometer
is zero.

Which change to the circuit allows a much more precise value for the e.m.f. of the new source to
be obtained?

A Add a resistor of resistance 0.1  in series with cell E.

B Add a resistor of resistance 1000  in series with cell E.

C Add a resistor of resistance 10  in series with the new source.

D Add a resistor of resistance 800  in series with the new source.

© UCLES 2022 9702/13/O/N/22

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38 Which statement about the alpha-particle scattering experiment provides evidence for the
existence of the nucleus?

A A tiny proportion of the alpha-particles are deflected through large angles.

B Slower alpha-particles are deflected through larger angles.
C The kinetic energies of the deflected alpha-particles are unchanged.
D The number of alpha-particles deflected depends on the thickness of the foil.

39 A nucleus X undergoes + decay.

The products are a nucleus Y with proton number Z, a + particle and another particle P.

X  ZY + + + P

What is particle P and what is the proton number of nucleus X?

proton number
P
of nucleus X

A antineutrino Z–1
B antineutrino Z+1
C neutrino Z–1
D neutrino Z+1

40 A particle consists of two up quarks and a charm quark.

What is the charge of this particle, expressed in terms of the elementary charge e?

A –2e B –e C +e D +2e

© UCLES 2022 9702/13/O/N/22

 Cambridge International AS & A Level

PHYSICS 9702/12
Paper 1 Multiple Choice February/March 2023
1 hour 15 minutes

You must answer on the multiple choice answer sheet.

*8523742638*

You will need: Multiple choice answer sheet

Soft clean eraser
Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

INSTRUCTIONS
• There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions.
• For each question there are four possible answers A, B, C and D. Choose the one you consider correct
and record your choice in soft pencil on the multiple choice answer sheet.
• Follow the instructions on the multiple choice answer sheet.
• Write in soft pencil.
• Write your name, centre number and candidate number on the multiple choice answer sheet in the
spaces provided unless this has been done for you.
• Do not use correction fluid.
• Do not write on any bar codes.
• You may use a calculator.

INFORMATION
• The total mark for this paper is 40.
• Each correct answer will score one mark.
• Any rough working should be done on this question paper.

This document has 20 pages. Any blank pages are indicated.

IB23 03_9702_12/2RP
© UCLES 2023 [Turn over
 3

1 What represents a physical quantity?

A 3.0
B kilogram
C 7.0 N
D 40%

2 The relationship between the variables D and T is given by the equation

1 b
= +c
T D

where b and c are constants.

The unit of D is m2 and the unit of T is s.

What are the units of b and c?

unit of b unit of c

A ms s
B m s–1 s–1
C m–1 s s
D m–1 s–1 s–1

3 A hollow cylinder, which is open at both ends, has a radius of (3.0 ± 0.1) cm and a length of
(15.0 ± 0.1) cm.

What is the value, with its absolute uncertainty, of the surface area of the cylinder?

A (280 ± 10) cm2

B (282.7 ± 0.2) cm2

C (420 ± 30) cm2

D (424.1 ± 0.3) cm2

© UCLES 2023 9702/12/F/M/23 [Turn over

 4

4 A snooker ball of mass 0.20 kg has a collision so that its direction of movement changes by an
angle of 90°, as shown.

snooker ball, 0.30 m s–1

mass 0.20 kg
0.40 m s–1

before the collision after the collision

The ball has a speed of 0.40 m s–1 before the collision and a speed of 0.30 m s–1 after the collision.

What is the magnitude of the change in momentum of the snooker ball?

A 0.020 kg m s–1
B 0.10 kg m s–1
C 0.14 kg m s–1
D 0.50 kg m s–1

5 A ball is kicked upwards at an angle of 45° to horizontal ground. After a short flight, the ball
returns to the ground.

It may be assumed that air resistance is negligible.

What is never zero during the flight of the ball?

A the horizontal component of the ball’s acceleration

B the horizontal component of the ball’s velocity
C the vertical component of the ball’s momentum
D the vertical component of the ball’s velocity

© UCLES 2023 9702/12/F/M/23

 5

6 The graph shows the variation with time t of the displacement s of an object.

0
0 t

Which graph represents the variation with time t of the acceleration a of the object?

A B

a a

0 0
0 t 0 t

C D

a a

0 0
0 t 0 t

7 Which expression defines force?

A (mass × change in speed) × time taken

mass × change in speed

B
time taken

C (change of momentum) × time taken

change of momentum
D
time taken

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 6

8 A ship of mass 8.4 × 107 kg is approaching a harbour with speed 16.4 m s–1. By using reverse
thrust it can maintain a constant total stopping force of 920 000 N.

How long will it take to stop?

A 15 seconds
B 150 seconds
C 25 minutes
D 250 minutes

9 The velocity–time graphs of four different objects are shown.

Which graph represents an object falling from rest through a long distance in the Earth’s
atmosphere?

A B

velocity velocity

0 0
0 time 0 time

C D

velocity velocity

0 0
0 time 0 time

10 Which statement about collisions is correct?

A Kinetic energy is conserved in all collisions.

B Momentum is only conserved in perfectly elastic collisions.
C The relative speed of approach is equal to the relative speed of separation for perfectly
elastic collisions.
D When two objects of different masses collide, they exert forces of different magnitudes on
each other.

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11 A satellite uses two thrusters to adjust its motion in space.

Each thruster exerts a force of 40 N on the satellite. The line of action of each force is a
perpendicular distance of 2.3 m from the centre of gravity of the satellite. These two parallel
forces act in opposite directions.

40 N
2.3 m
thruster

thruster
2.3 m
40 N

satellite

What are the magnitudes of the torque and the resultant force acting on the satellite due to the
two thrust forces?

torque resultant
/Nm force / N

A 92 0
B 92 80
C 180 0
D 180 80

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12 The diagrams show two ways of hanging the same picture.

nail R2

nail R1
T2 T2
T1 T1

diagram 1 diagram 2

In both cases, a string is attached to the same points on the picture and looped symmetrically
over a nail in a wall. The forces shown are those that act on the nail.

In diagram 1, the string loop is shorter than in diagram 2.

Which information about the magnitude of the forces is correct?

A R1 = R2 T1 = T2
B R1 = R2 T1 > T2
C R1 > R2 T1 < T2
D R1 < R2 T1 = T2

13 An object shaped as a hemisphere rests with its flat surface on a table. The object has radius r
and density ρ.

table

The volume of a sphere is 4

3
πr 3.

Which average pressure does the object exert on the table?

A 1
3
ρr2 B 1
3
ρ r 2g C 2
3
ρr D 2
3
ρ rg

© UCLES 2023 9702/12/F/M/23

 9

14 A probe is used to monitor the quality of the water in the sea. The probe is suspended by a
vertical string which is attached to a sphere. The stationary sphere floats in equilibrium on the
surface of the sea, as shown.

sphere
air
sea

string
probe

The sphere has a weight of 5.00 N. The probe and string have a combined weight of 2.00 N.

The density of the seawater is 1.03 × 103 kg m–3. The upthrust acting on the probe and thread is
negligible.

What is the volume of the sphere below the surface of the sea?

A 1.98 × 10–4 m3

B 2.97 × 10–4 m3

C 4.95 × 10–4 m3

D 6.93 × 10–4 m3

15 What is the centre of gravity of an object?

A the geometrical centre of the object

B the point at which the weight of the object may be considered to act
C the point on the object about which there is a zero net torque
D the point where gravity acts on the object

16 A system with an efficiency of 74% wastes 230 W of power.

What is the useful output power of the system?

A 170 W B 310 W C 650 W D 880 W

17 A projectile of mass 0.25 kg is at a height of 30 m above horizontal ground and travelling at a

speed of 15 m s–1. A short time later, it is at a height of 35 m above the horizontal ground and
travelling at a speed of 5.0 m s–1.

How much work is done against air resistance during this time?

A 0J B 13 J C 25 J D 37 J

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18 A spring has an unstretched length of 4.50 cm. The spring is fixed at one end and a force of
35.0 N is applied to the other end so that the spring extends.

The spring obeys Hooke’s law and has a spring constant of 420 N m–1.

What is the strain of the extended spring?

A 0.019 B 0.083 C 1.85 D 2.67

19 A wire is fixed at one end and extended by a force that is applied to the other end. The force is
slowly increased from zero and then slowly decreased back to zero.

The force–extension graph for the wire is shown.

force

0
0 extension

The graph line for the wire being loaded is the same as the graph line for the wire being
unloaded.

Which statement describes the deformation of the wire?

A It is both elastic and plastic.

B It is elastic only.
C It is neither elastic nor plastic.
D It is plastic only.

© UCLES 2023 9702/12/F/M/23

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20 In a progressive water wave, two particles, P and Q, on the surface of the water, are a fixed
horizontal distance apart. P and Q oscillate vertically.

At time t = 0, the wave is as shown.

P surface of water

Which graph best represents the variation with time t of the phase difference φ between the
oscillation of the water particle P and the oscillation of the water particle Q?

A B

I I

0 0
0 t 0 t

C D

I I

0 0
0 t 0 t

21 Which statement about longitudinal waves and transverse waves is not correct?

A Both waves can be polarised.

B Both waves can form stationary waves.
C Both waves can transfer energy as progressive waves.

D Both waves obey the equation v = fλ.

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22 An observer hears a sound wave emitted from a moving source.

The observed frequency is less than the frequency of sound emitted from the source.

What could be the reason for this?

A The source is moving away from the observer.

B The source is moving towards the observer.
C The speed of the sound wave in air decreases due to the movement of the source.
D The speed of the sound wave in air increases due to the movement of the source.

23 What is the approximate range of frequencies of electromagnetic radiation visible to the human
eye?

A (430–750) kHz
B (430–750) MHz
C (430–750) GHz
D (430–750) THz

24 A beam of vertically polarised light is incident normally on a polarising filter. The filter can be
rotated so that it is always in a plane perpendicular to the beam. The transmission axis of the
filter is initially vertical.

beam of vertically
polarised light waves

transmission axis
of polarising filter

transmitted light
polarising filter

The filter is first rotated clockwise by an angle of 30° so that the transmitted light waves have
intensity I30.The filter is then rotated clockwise by a further angle of 30°.

What is the new intensity of the transmitted light waves?

A 0.25 I30 B 0.33 I30 C 0.75 I30 D 0.87 I30

© UCLES 2023 9702/12/F/M/23

 13

25 A musical instrument is made using a long tube with a mouthpiece at one end. The other end is
open and flared, as shown.

A musician maintains stationary sound waves with a node at the mouthpiece and an antinode at
the other end. The lowest frequency of sound that the instrument can produce is 92 Hz.

Which different frequencies of sound can be produced by the instrument?

A 92 Hz, 138 Hz, 184 Hz, 230 Hz

B 92 Hz, 184 Hz, 276 Hz, 368 Hz
C 92 Hz, 276 Hz, 460 Hz, 644 Hz
D 92 Hz, 276 Hz, 828 Hz, 1288 Hz

26 Two waves of equal frequency and amplitude are travelling in opposite directions along a stretched
string. When they meet, they form a stationary wave with three nodes and two antinodes.

The frequency of both waves is doubled and a new stationary wave is formed.

How many antinodes are there in the new stationary wave?

A 1 B 2 C 3 D 4

27 A transmitting mast sends out microwaves of wavelength 1.5 cm and radio waves of wavelength
1.5 km.

mountain

transmitting receiving
mast aerial
NOT TO SCALE

A receiving aerial behind a mountain can detect the radio waves but not the microwaves.

What is the reason for this?

A The radio waves are coherent but the microwaves are not.
B The radio waves are diffracted around the mountain but the microwaves are not.
C The radio waves are reflected by the mountain but the microwaves are not.
D The radio waves travel at the speed of light but the microwaves do not.

© UCLES 2023 9702/12/F/M/23 [Turn over

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28 Waves are emitted from two coherent sources.

Which statement about the waves must be correct?

A They are in phase.

B They are transverse waves.
C They have a constant phase difference.
D They have the same amplitude.

29 The diagram shows a screen that is a distance L from a diffraction grating. The grating has a total
number of N lines. Any two adjacent lines are a distance d apart. A beam of parallel light of
wavelength λ is incident normally on the grating.

screen
NOT TO
diffraction SCALE
grating

beam
first-order maxima
of light

Which quantities affect the distance between the first-order diffraction maxima on the screen?

d λ L N

A     key
B     = affects the distance
C     = does not affect the distance
D    

30 A wire carries a current of 0.10 µA. The potential difference across the wire is 10 mV.

How much energy is dissipated by the wire in a time of 10 s?

A 1.0 pJ B 10 pJ C 1.0 nJ D 10 nJ

31 What is the definition of the potential difference across an electrical component?

A energy transferred per unit charge

B energy transferred per unit current
C energy transferred per unit resistance
D energy transferred per unit time

© UCLES 2023 9702/12/F/M/23

 15

32 Which graph represents the way the current I through a filament lamp varies with the potential
difference V across it?

A B C D

I I I I

0 0 0 0
0 V 0 V 0 V 0 V

33 The table shows the properties of two different wires, P and Q.

resistivity
length resistance
of material

wire P l R ρ
wire Q 2l 1
4
R 1
3
ρ

Wire P has a cross-section of diameter d.

What is the diameter of the cross-section of wire Q?

A 0.41d B 1.6d C 2.7d D 7.1d

34 A cell has a constant electromotive force.

A variable resistor is connected between the terminals of the cell.

The resistance of the variable resistor is decreased.

Which statement about the change of the cell’s terminal potential difference (p.d.) is correct?

A The terminal p.d. is decreased because more work is done moving unit charge through the
internal resistance of the cell.
B The terminal p.d. is decreased because the current in the variable resistor is decreased.
C The terminal p.d. is increased because more work is done moving unit charge through the
variable resistor.
D The terminal p.d. is increased because the current in the variable resistor is increased.

© UCLES 2023 9702/12/F/M/23 [Turn over

 16

35 Kirchhoff’s two laws for electric circuits can be derived by using conservation laws.

On which conservation laws do Kirchhoff’s laws depend?

Kirchhoff’s Kirchhoff’s
first law second law

A charge current
B charge energy
C current mass
D energy current

36 A battery of electromotive force (e.m.f.) 10 V and internal resistance r is connected to three

resistors of resistances R, 2.0 Ω and 15 Ω, as shown. A current of 0.45 A is in the resistor of
resistance 2.0 Ω and a current of 0.48 A is in the resistor of resistance 15 Ω.

10 V
r

R 0.45 A 2.0 :

0.48 A 15 :

What are the values of r and R ?

r/Ω R/Ω

A 3.0 14
B 3.0 20
C 5.8 14
D 5.8 20

© UCLES 2023 9702/12/F/M/23

 17

37 A battery of negligible internal resistance is connected in series with a thermistor and a fixed
resistor of resistance 12.0 kΩ, as shown.

12.0 k: Vout

The table shows the resistance of the thermistor at two different temperatures.

temperature resistance of
/ °C thermistor / kΩ

20.0 12.0
50.0 5.00

The potential difference Vout across the fixed resistor is 4.50 V when the thermistor is at a
temperature of 20.0 °C.

What is Vout when the thermistor is at a temperature of 50.0 °C?

A 2.65 V B 3.18 V C 6.35 V D 10.8 V

38 What is a conclusion from the alpha-particle scattering experiment?

A Protons and electrons have equal but opposite charges.

B Protons have a much larger mass than electrons.
C The nucleus contains most of the mass of the atom.
D The nucleus of an atom contains protons and neutrons.

© UCLES 2023 9702/12/F/M/23 [Turn over

 18

39 Americium-241 is a radioactive nuclide used in smoke detectors. It undergoes α-decay to form

nuclide X. This decay may be represented by the equation shown.

241 A
95 Am → ZX + α

What are the values of A and Z?

A Z

A 237 93
B 239 91
C 241 94
D 241 96

40 A top quark has a charge of + 32 e, where e is the elementary charge.

What is the charge of an anti top quark?

A – 32 e B – 31 e C + 31 e D + 32 e

© UCLES 2023 9702/12/F/M/23

 Cambridge International AS & A Level

PHYSICS 9702/11
Paper 1 Multiple Choice May/June 2023
1 hour 15 minutes

You must answer on the multiple choice answer sheet.

*8516742668*

You will need: Multiple choice answer sheet

Soft clean eraser
Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

INSTRUCTIONS
 There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions.
 For each question there are four possible answers A, B, C and D. Choose the one you consider correct
and record your choice in soft pencil on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Follow the instructions on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Write in soft pencil.
 Write your name, centre number and candidate number on the multiple choice answer sheet in the
spaces provided unless this has been done for you.
 Do not use correction fluid.
 Do not write on any bar codes.
 You may use a calculator.

INFORMATION
 The total mark for this paper is 40.
 Each correct answer will score one mark.
 Any rough working should be done on this question paper.

This document has 20 pages. Any blank pages are indicated.

IB23 06_9702_11/RP
© UCLES 2023 [Turn over
 3

1 Which unit is not an SI base unit?

A A B kg C C D s

2 What is the best estimate of the number of atoms in a piece of metal of volume 50 cm3?

A 5  1015 B 5  1025 C 5  1029 D 5  1031

3 A copper pipe has a true diameter of 42.03 mm.

A builder measures the diameter of the pipe five times using digital calipers. The measurements
are shown.

diameter / mm

48.01
47.99
48.01
48.00
47.99

What describes the builder’s measurements?

A accurate and precise

B accurate but not precise
C not precise and not accurate
D precise but not accurate

4 Two forces, each of 10 N, act at a point P, as shown. The angle between the directions of the
forces is 120.

10 N

120°
10 N
P

What is the magnitude of the resultant force?

A 5N B 10 N C 17 N D 20 N

© UCLES 2023 9702/11/M/J/23 [Turn over

 4

5 One object moves directly from P to R.

In a shorter time, a second object moves from P to Q to R.

Which statement about the two objects is correct for the journey from P to R?

A They have the same average speed.

B They have the same average velocity.
C They have the same displacement.
D They travel the same distance.

6 A ball is kicked so that it has an initial velocity of 12 m s–1 at an angle of 50 to horizontal ground.

Assume that air resistance is negligible.

12 m s–1

50

What is the maximum height above the ground that is reached by the ball?

A 0.47 m B 3.0 m C 4.3 m D 7.3 m

© UCLES 2023 9702/11/M/J/23

 5

7 A camera drone of mass 1.20 kg hovers at a fixed point above the ground. The drone has four
propellers.

propeller

camera

In a time of 1.00 s, each propeller pushes a mass of 0.400 kg of air vertically downwards.

Assume that the air above the propellers is stationary.

What is the speed of the air leaving each propeller?

A 0.750 m s–1 B 3.00 m s–1 C 7.36 m s–1 D 29.4 m s–1

8 A box rests on the Earth, as shown.

Newton’s third law describes how forces of the same type act in pairs. One of the forces of a pair
is the weight W of the box.

Which arrow represents the other force of this pair?

box
D
NOT TO
W SCALE
C
A
Earth

© UCLES 2023 9702/11/M/J/23 [Turn over

 6

9 A small ball is held at the surface of liquid oil in a container. The ball is released from rest and
falls through the oil. The ball has velocity v. A viscous (drag) force F acts on the ball.

Which graph could show the variation with v of F?

A B C D

F F F F

0 0 0 0
0 v 0 v 0 v 0 v

10 An object of mass m, moving at speed u along a frictionless horizontal surface, collides head-on
with a stationary object of mass 4m.

u
m 4m

before the collision

1
After the collision, the object of mass m rebounds along its initial path with of its kinetic energy
4
before the collision.

What is the speed of the object of mass 4m after the collision?

u 3u 5u 3u
A B C D
8 16 16 8

11 The driver of a car applies two parallel forces to a steering wheel, as shown.

centre of
steering wheel
15 N

65°

65°

15 N

0.40 m

Each force has a magnitude of 15 N and acts in the direction shown. The steering wheel has a
diameter of 0.40 m.

What is the torque exerted on the steering wheel?

A 1.3 N m B 2.5 N m C 2.7 N m D 5.4 N m

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12 A farmer is trying to lift the corner of a large water tank. She uses a metal rod as a lever.

force
from farmer
metal rod
water tank

pivot

The vertical force from the farmer is constant and is always applied to the end of the rod.

Which change must increase the upward force on the water tank?

A using a longer rod and moving the pivot closer to the tank
B using a longer rod and moving the pivot further away from the tank
C using a shorter rod and moving the pivot closer to the tank
D using a shorter rod and moving the pivot further away from the tank

13 The diagram shows a ball of weight W hanging in equilibrium from a string.


T
string

ball
P

rod

The string is at an angle  to the vertical. The tension in the string is T. The ball is held away from
the wall by a horizontal force P from a metal rod.

Which relationship between the magnitudes of T, P and W is correct?

A P = T cos and W = T sin

B T=P+W
C T2 = P2 + W2

D W = P tan and W = T cos

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 8

14 Which expression for pressure is correct?

A force per unit area

B force per unit volume
C mass per unit area
D mass per unit volume

15 A ball has a mass of 0.50 kg and a volume of 1.3  10–3 m3. The ball is floating in equilibrium on
still water. The two forces that act on the ball are its weight and the upthrust due to the water.

The density of the water is 1.0  103 kg m–3.

What is the percentage of the volume of the ball above the surface of the water?

A 3.9% B 38% C 62% D 96%

16 A man sits on a buggy that is pulled along by a wire attached to a kite. The wire is at an angle of
40 to the horizontal and has a constant tension of 200 N. The man and buggy travel a distance of
20 m along a straight horizontal path. The wire and the path of the buggy are in the same vertical
plane.

kite

200 N
wire

40

buggy

What is the work done by the tension force on the man and buggy?

A 2.6 kJ B 3.1 kJ C 3.4 kJ D 4.0 kJ

17 A ball is thrown vertically upwards from the surface of the Earth.

Which statement describes the energy of the ball as it rises through the air?

A The kinetic energy of the ball decreases as the gravitational potential energy decreases.
B The kinetic energy of the ball decreases as the gravitational potential energy increases.
C The kinetic energy of the ball increases as the gravitational potential energy decreases.
D The total energy of the ball increases.

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18 A lamp is suspended in equilibrium from a fixed support by three long identical wires.

wires fixed support

lamp

The weight of the lamp causes each wire to have an extension of 0.40 cm. The height h of the
lamp above the floor is measured.

The middle wire suddenly breaks and the lamp falls a small distance as the extensions of the
remaining two wires increase. The wires obey Hooke’s law.

When the lamp is in equilibrium, the height h of the lamp above the floor is measured again.

What is the difference between the two values of h?

A 0.20 cm B 0.27 cm C 0.40 cm D 0.60 cm

19 The force–extension graph for a spring is shown.

force

0
0 extension

What represents the work done to extend the spring?

A the area under the graph

B the gradient of the graph
C the reciprocal of the gradient of the graph
D twice the area under the graph

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 10

20 In an experiment, a student uses a microphone and a cathode-ray oscilloscope (CRO) to analyse

a sound wave. The diagram shows the trace on the screen of the CRO.

The student is expecting a sinusoidal waveform to be shown on the screen.

Which changes should the student make to the time-base and the y-gain of the CRO so that the
screen shows a continuous trace for one complete cycle of the waveform?

time-base y-gain

A decrease decrease
B decrease increase
C increase decrease
D increase increase

21 The graph shows the variation with time of the displacement of a particle in a progressive wave.

displacement
x y
0
0 time

Two measurements, x and y, are labelled on the graph.

What do x and y represent?

x y

A amplitude period
B frequency period
C amplitude wavelength
D frequency wavelength

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 11

22 A car travels at a constant speed along a straight line PQ.

A loudspeaker attached to the car emits sound of constant frequency f. A stationary observer is
at point O.

P Q

What does the observer hear as the car moves from P towards Q?

A a frequency less than f that decreases as the car moves from P towards Q
B a frequency less than f that increases as the car moves from P towards Q
C a frequency more than f that decreases as the car moves from P towards Q
D a frequency more than f that increases as the car moves from P towards Q

23 Some sources of electromagnetic waves in free space are listed.

1 a radio wave transmitter

2 a source of X-rays
3 a 30 mm wavelength radar transmitter
4 a light-emitting diode that emits red light

Which list gives the sources in order of increasing wavelength, from left to right, of the waves
emitted by the sources?

A 1342

B 2413

C 2431

D 3142

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 12

24 A vertically polarised beam of light is incident normally on a polarising filter. The transmission axis
of the filter is at an angle of 40 to the horizontal.

beam of vertically
polarised light

transmission axis
of polarising filter

polarising filter
40

horizontal beam of
transmitted light

amplitude of transmitte d beam

What is the ratio ?
amplitude of incident beam

A 0.41 B 0.59 C 0.64 D 0.77

25 Two progressive waves meet at a point.

Which condition must be met for superposition of the waves to occur?

A The waves must be coherent.

B The waves must be of the same type.
C The waves must be travelling in opposite directions.
D The waves must meet in phase.

26 A string is stretched between a vibration generator and a fixed point.

When the vibration generator is vibrating at a frequency f, a stationary wave with five nodes is
created on the stretched string, as shown. There is a node at the end of the string that is attached
to the vibration generator.

fixed point

vibration
generator

The frequency of vibration of the vibration generator is slowly increased.

What is the next frequency that produces a stationary wave on the string?

A 1.25f B 1.50f C 1.75f D 2.00f

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 13

27 A ripple tank and a barrier with a single gap are used to demonstrate the diffraction of surface
ripples on water. Initially, the wavelength of the ripples is five times smaller than the gap in the
barrier.

barrier

gap

ripples

Which change increases the amount of diffraction observed?

A double the amplitude of the ripples

B double the width of the gap
C halve the frequency of the ripples
D halve the wavelength of the ripples

28 A laser produces a beam of light of wavelength 650 nm. The beam is incident normally on two
slits that are a distance of 0.12 mm apart.

A screen is placed parallel to the slits. The bright interference fringes on the screen have a
separation of 7.5 cm.

What is the distance between the screen and the two slits?

A 1.4 m B 2.8 m C 7.0 m D 14 m

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29 A beam of light from a laser is incident normally on a diffraction grating.

light beam

110

diffraction grating

The diagram shows only the second-order maxima that are produced.

The grating has a line spacing of 1.0  10–6 m. The angle between the two second-order maxima
is 110.

What is the wavelength of the light?

A 4.1  10–7 m

B 4.7  10–7 m

C 8.2  10–7 m

D 9.4  10–7 m

30 The electric current in a metal wire is 4.0 mA.

How many electrons pass a fixed point in the wire in a time of 10 hours?

A 2.5  1017 B 2.5  1020 C 9.0  1020 D 9.0  1023

31 What is the definition of the potential difference across an electrical component?

A the charge per unit time passing through the component

B the energy transferred per unit charge
C the force per unit charge
D the resistance per unit current

32 Which graph shows the I–V characteristic of a filament lamp?

A B C D

I I I I

0 0 0 0
0 V 0 V 0 V 0 V

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 15

33 A metal wire has a length of 2.50 m and a cross-sectional area of 4.50  10–6 m2. The resistivity of
the metal is 3.50  10–7  m.

The wire is stretched so that its length increases to 2.65 m. The wire remains cylindrical and the
volume of the wire remains constant.

What is the change in the resistance of the wire?

A 0.012  B 0.024  C 0.19  D 0.22 

34 Which circuit symbol represents a microphone?

A B C D

35 A battery with internal resistance is connected to a fixed resistor, an ammeter and a voltmeter, as
shown.

The battery is replaced by a different battery that has the same electromotive force (e.m.f.) but a
greater internal resistance.

What happens to the readings on the ammeter and voltmeter?

ammeter reading voltmeter reading

A decreases decreases
B decreases stays the same
C stays the same decreases
D stays the same stays the same

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36 Four potential divider circuits each consist of a battery of electromotive force (e.m.f.) 9 V and
negligible internal resistance connected to a combination of resistors. Each of the resistors in the
circuits has a resistance of X or 2X.

Which circuit has the largest output voltage V ?

A B

X X

9V 9V

X V 2X V

C D

X X 2X

9V 9V

X 2X V X V

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 17

37 A voltmeter is connected into a circuit with the polarity shown.

+ –
3V V

3V
P

The sliding contact is moved to end P of the potentiometer and then to end Q.

What are the two readings of the voltmeter?

sliding contact sliding contact

at end P at end Q

A 0V 3V
B 0V 6V
C 3V 3V
D 3V 6V

38 A proton has mass mp and charge +e.

What are the mass and charge of an antiproton?

mass charge

A –mp +e
B –mp –e
C mp +e
D mp –e

39 A uranium nucleus has 92 protons and 143 neutrons.

The nucleus emits a total of 3 -particles and 4 – particles to form nucleus X.

How can nucleus X be represented?

131 219 223 223
A 90 X B 87 X C 82 X D 90 X

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40 Which statement about a proton is correct?

A A proton is a baryon but not a meson.

B A proton is a meson but not a hadron.
C A proton is both a hadron and a meson.
D A proton is both a meson and a baryon.

© UCLES 2023 9702/11/M/J/23

 Cambridge International AS & A Level

PHYSICS 9702/12
Paper 1 Multiple Choice May/June 2023
1 hour 15 minutes

You must answer on the multiple choice answer sheet.

*1196329450*

You will need: Multiple choice answer sheet

Soft clean eraser
Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

INSTRUCTIONS
 There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions.
 For each question there are four possible answers A, B, C and D. Choose the one you consider correct
and record your choice in soft pencil on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Follow the instructions on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Write in soft pencil.
 Write your name, centre number and candidate number on the multiple choice answer sheet in the
spaces provided unless this has been done for you.
 Do not use correction fluid.
 Do not write on any bar codes.
 You may use a calculator.

INFORMATION
 The total mark for this paper is 40.
 Each correct answer will score one mark.
 Any rough working should be done on this question paper.

This document has 20 pages. Any blank pages are indicated.

IB23 06_9702_12/2RP
© UCLES 2023 [Turn over
 3

1 A stone sinks in water.

What is a possible value for the density of the stone?

A 8  102 kg m–3

B 2  103 kg m–3

C 8  103 N m–3

D 2  104 N m–3

2 Gm, Tm, m and pm are all units of length.

Which unit is the largest and which unit is the smallest?

largest smallest
unit unit

A Gm m
B Gm pm
C Tm m
D Tm pm

3 Two measurements for a solid sphere are shown.

mass = (32.5 ± 0.1) g

diameter = (1.87 ± 0.04) cm

These values are used to determine the density of the sphere.

What is the percentage uncertainty in the density?

A 2.4% B 4.6% C 6.1% D 6.7%

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4 An aircraft travels along a horizontal path. Two of the forces that act horizontally on the aircraft
are the thrust force of the engines and the force due to the wind. The vector diagram for these
forces is shown.

force due
to the wind

thrust force
of the engines

Which vector represents the resultant horizontal force acting on the aircraft due to these two
forces?

A B C D

5 A ball travels from point X to point Y around a semicircular track of radius 1.0 m, as shown.

north ball

west east

south 1.0 m

What is the displacement of the ball from X to Y?

A 2.0 m
B 2.0 m due south
C 3.1 m
D 3.1 m due south

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6 A rock is launched vertically upwards from the surface of the Earth and an identical rock is
launched vertically upwards from the surface of Mars. Each rock is launched with an initial
velocity of 12 m s–1.

Each rock then reaches its maximum height above the surface before returning back down to the
surface. The velocity–time graph for each rock is shown. In both cases, air resistance is
negligible.

15
velocity
/ m s–1 10

0 time / s
0 2.0 4.0 6.0 8.0
–5
Earth Mars
–10

–15

What is the difference in the maximum heights of the two rocks?

A 12 m B 15 m C 19 m D 24 m

7 Which statement describes the mass of an object?

A the force the object experiences due to gravity

B the momentum of the object before a collision
C the resistance of the object to changes in motion
D the weight of the object as measured by a balance

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8 A submarine of total mass 3200 kg is at rest underwater.

water surface

submarine
at rest

sea bed

The total mass of the submarine is suddenly decreased by 200 kg by pumping water out of the
submarine horizontally in a negligible time. The upthrust acting on the submarine is unchanged.

The change in the total weight of the submarine causes it to accelerate vertically upwards.

What is the initial upwards acceleration of the submarine?

A 0.613 m s–2 B 0.654 m s–2 C 9.81 m s–2 D 10.5 m s–2

9 A box in air slides with increasing speed down a rough slope from point P to point Q.

P box

The slope surface exerts a constant frictional force on the box.

As the box moves from P to Q, there are changes to the magnitudes of its acceleration and the
total resistive force acting on it.

Which row describes the changes?

magnitude of
magnitude of
total resistive
acceleration
force

A increases decreases
B decreases decreases
C increases increases
D decreases increases

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10 Two balls, X and Y, approach each other along the same straight line and collide. The collision is
perfectly elastic.

Their initial speeds are uX and uY respectively. After the collision they move apart with speeds vX
and vY respectively. Their directions are shown.

uX uY
before X Y

vX vY
after X Y

Which equation is correct?

A uX + uY = vX + vY
B uX + uY = vX – vY
C uX – uY = vX + vY
D uX – uY = vX – vY

11 A rod is pivoted at point O.

A force F is applied to the rod at point W, as shown.

rod
W

What is the moment of the force F about O?

A F  distance OX

B F  distance OY

C F  distance WO

D F  distance WX

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12 A uniform rod XY of weight 10.0 N is freely hinged to a wall at X. It is held horizontal by a force F
acting from Y at an angle of 30 to the horizontal, as shown.

wall

60q 30q
X Y

10.0 N

What is the value of F ?

A 5.0 N B 8.7 N C 10 N D 20 N

13 Two solid cubes X and Y are made of material of the same density. Cube X has twice the mass
of cube Y.

Cube X has sides of length x. Cube Y has sides of length y.

x
What is the ratio ?
y
A 1.26 B 1.41 C 2.00 D 8.00

14 A U-shaped glass tube contains liquid of density 2000 kg m–3, as shown.

tube

P liquid,
density 2000 kg m–3

Q
10.0 cm

6.0 cm

What is the difference in pressure due to the liquid between levels P and Q?

A 780 Pa B 1200 Pa C 1600 Pa D 2000 Pa

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15 A steam turbine is used to drive a generator. The input power to the turbine is PI and the output
power is PO. The power loss in the turbine is PL, as shown.

input power PI output power PO

turbine generator

power loss PL

What is the efficiency of the turbine?

PL PI PL PO
A B C D
PO PO PI PI

16 A variable force is applied to ensure that a constant power is supplied to a train.

Which graph best shows the variation of the force F applied with the velocity v of the train?

A B C D
F F F F

0 0 0 0
0 v 0 v 0 v 0 v

17 A block is released from rest and slides a distance x down a straight slope.

The slope is at an angle  to the horizontal.

block

slope
x
T

The slope is frictionless and air resistance is negligible.

The acceleration of free fall is g.

Which expression gives the final speed of the block?

gx sin 
A B 2gx sin  C 2gx D 2gx sin 
2

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18 What is meant by the spring constant of a spring?

A extension per unit force

B 1
2  force  extension

C force  extension
D force per unit extension

19 A child holds a thin metal wire that is attached to a kite. The graph shows how the extension of
the wire varies with its tension.

150
tension / N
wire kite 100

50

0
0 0.15 0.30 0.45
extension / mm

A gust of wind increases the tension from 100 N to 150 N.

What is the change in the elastic potential energy of the wire caused by the gust of wind?

A 3.8 mJ B 19 mJ C 34 mJ D 38 mJ

20 A microphone detects a sound wave. The microphone is connected to a cathode-ray oscilloscope

(CRO).

The shape of the trace on the screen of the CRO is shown.

Which property of the sound wave can be determined by using only the measurement of a
horizontal distance on the screen and the value of a control setting of the CRO?

A amplitude
B frequency
C speed
D wavelength

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 11

21 A longitudinal wave is travelling from left to right. The graph shows the variation of the
displacement of the particles with distance along the wave at one instant in time.

Displacements to the right are positive; displacements to the left are negative.

Which labelled point represents a compression?

A
displacement

B D
0
0 distance

22 A source X emits a sound wave of constant frequency f.

The wave is subsequently received at a stationary detector Y.

The frequency of the wave that is detected by Y is less than f.

What could be the reason for this?

A Between X and Y, the wave undergoes diffraction.

B Between X and Y, the wave undergoes reflection.
C X is moving away from Y.
D X is moving towards Y.

23 A beam of visible light is in a vacuum.

What could be the frequency of the light?

A 5.0  105 Hz B 5.0  108 Hz C 5.0  1011 Hz D 5.0  1014 Hz

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24 A vertically polarised beam of light of intensity I0 is incident normally on a polarising filter.

The transmission axis of the filter is at 45 to the vertical. The beam of light transmitted by this
filter is then incident normally on a second filter. The transmission axis of the second filter is
horizontal.

transmission axis
vertically 45q of second filter
polarised I0
light

transmission axis
of first filter

What is the intensity of the beam of light after transmission through the second filter?

A 0 B 1
4 I0 C 1
2 I0 D I0

25 A stationary wave is formed by two progressive waves travelling in opposite directions along the
same line of travel.

Which statement about the two progressive waves is not correct?

A They must have a constant phase difference.

B They must have the same frequency.
C They must have the same wavelength.
D They must travel at the same speed.

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26 The sound from a loudspeaker placed above a tube causes resonance of the air in the tube.

A stationary wave is formed with two nodes and two antinodes, as shown.

loudspeaker

60 cm

The tube has height 60 cm.

The speed of sound in the air is 340 m s–1.

What is the frequency of the sound?

A 430 Hz B 570 Hz C 850 Hz D 1700 Hz

27 A continuous progressive water wave in a ripple tank passes through a gap in a barrier and
diffracts.

The width of the gap is greater than the wavelength of the wave.

Which change causes the wave to spread over a larger angle as it passes through the gap?

A a small decrease in the wavelength of the wave

B a small decrease in the width of the gap
C a small increase in the frequency of the wave
D a small increase in the height of the barrier

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28 The diagram shows a view from above of a double-slit interference demonstration.

L is a monochromatic light source with a vertical filament. B is a barrier with two narrow vertical
slits and S is a screen upon which interference fringes form.

NOT TO
SCALE

B S

The intensity is I at the point on the screen where the centre of the fringe pattern forms.

When one of the slits is covered, what is the intensity at the same point on the screen?

A I B I C I D I
2 2 2 2 4

29 Green light of wavelength 550 nm is incident normally on a diffraction grating and produces a
diffraction pattern on a screen placed 3.5 m from the diffraction grating.

The third-order maximum on the screen is a distance of 0.75 m from the zeroth-order (central)
maximum.

screen
NOT TO
SCALE zeroth-order
3.5 m (central) maximum
green light

0.75 m
diffraction grating

third-order
maximum

What is the distance between two adjacent slits in the diffraction grating?

A 2.6  10–6 m

B 7.7  10–6 m

C 7.9  10–6 m

D 1.0  10–5 m

© UCLES 2023 9702/12/M/J/23

 15

30 Which charge can be carried by a charge carrier?

A 1.1  10–19 C

B 4.0  10–19 C

C 4.8  10–19 C

D 9.1  10–19 C

31 A resistor of resistance R is connected across a cell of electromotive force (e.m.f.) E and

negligible internal resistance.

Which single change to the circuit would lead to the largest increase in the power dissipated in
the resistor?

A doubling the value of E

B doubling the value of R
C halving the value of E
D halving the value of R

32 An electrical cable is made up of one thick strand of copper wire that is surrounded by eight thin
strands of copper wire. All nine strands of wire are connected in parallel with each other.

A cross-section of the cable is shown.

thick strand,
cross-sectional
thin strand, area 4A
cross-sectional
area A

Each thin strand of wire has cross-sectional area A and length L.

The thick strand of wire has cross-sectional area 4A and length L.

The cable has total resistance R.

Which expression gives the resistivity of copper?

4A 12 A 4 AR 12 AR
A B C D
33RL RL L L

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33 A car has sensors for detecting the light intensity and temperature of its environment.

The sensors make use of a light-dependent resistor (LDR) and a thermistor.

The car moves from a warm and dark environment into a cold and bright environment.

What are the changes to the resistances of the LDR and thermistor?

resistance resistance of
of LDR thermistor

A increases increases
B increases decreases
C decreases increases
D decreases decreases

34 A student assembles the circuit shown.

lamp 1 lamp 2

Which row describes the state of the two lamps?

lamp 1 lamp 2

A off off
B on off
C off on
D on on

35 Kirchhoff’s first law is a consequence of the conservation of which quantity?

A charge
B energy
C momentum
D potential difference

© UCLES 2023 9702/12/M/J/23

 17

36 Three identical cells each have electromotive force (e.m.f.) E and negligible internal resistance.
The cells are connected to three identical resistors, each of resistance R, as shown.

E
R

E
R
R
E

What is the potential difference across one of the resistors?

E 2E
A 0 B C D E
3 3

37 In the potentiometer circuit shown, the reading on the ammeter is zero.

power
supply

sliding contact

uniform metal wire

The light-dependent resistor (LDR) is then covered and the ammeter gives a non-zero reading.

Which change could return the ammeter reading to zero?

A decreasing the supply voltage

B increasing the supply voltage
C moving the sliding contact to the left
D moving the sliding contact to the right

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38 What are isotopes?

A nuclei of different elements with the same number of neutrons

B nuclei of different elements with the same number of nucleons
C nuclei of the same element with different numbers of neutrons
D nuclei of the same element with different numbers of protons

39 A neutron 10 n is fired at a 235

92 U nucleus. The neutron is absorbed by the nucleus which then splits
141 92
to form nuclei of 56 Ba and 36 Kr.

235
What is the number of free neutrons emitted when the 92 U nucleus splits?

A 0 B 1 C 2 D 3

40 A + meson has a charge of +e, where e is the elementary charge. It consists of an up quark and
one other quark.

What could be the other quark in the + meson?

A anti-down
B anti-up
C bottom
D charm

© UCLES 2023 9702/12/M/J/23

 Cambridge International AS & A Level

PHYSICS 9702/13
Paper 1 Multiple Choice May/June 2023
1 hour 15 minutes

You must answer on the multiple choice answer sheet.

*3539121654*

You will need: Multiple choice answer sheet

Soft clean eraser
Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

INSTRUCTIONS
 There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions.
 For each question there are four possible answers A, B, C and D. Choose the one you consider correct
and record your choice in soft pencil on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Follow the instructions on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Write in soft pencil.
 Write your name, centre number and candidate number on the multiple choice answer sheet in the
spaces provided unless this has been done for you.
 Do not use correction fluid.
 Do not write on any bar codes.
 You may use a calculator.

INFORMATION
 The total mark for this paper is 40.
 Each correct answer will score one mark.
 Any rough working should be done on this question paper.

This document has 20 pages. Any blank pages are indicated.

IB23 06_9702_13/2RP
© UCLES 2023 [Turn over
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1 What must be included in a record of a physical quantity?

A an integer value for the quantity

B an SI unit
C a numerical value for the quantity
D a unit expressed in base units

2 What is the ohm expressed in SI base units?

A kg m2 s–3 A–2 B kg–1 m–2 s3 A2 C J C–1 A–1 D W A–2

3 A desk has a true width of 50.0 cm.

Two students, X and Y, measure the width of the desk.

Student X uses a tape measure and records a width of (49.5  0.5) cm.

Student Y uses a metre rule and records a width of (51.4  0.1) cm.

Which statement about the measurement of student X is correct?

A It is less accurate and less precise than the measurement of student Y.

B It is less accurate but more precise than the measurement of student Y.
C It is more accurate and more precise than the measurement of student Y.
D It is more accurate but less precise than the measurement of student Y.

4 The diagram shows two vectors, X and Y, drawn to scale.

Y
X

If X = Y – Z, which diagram represents the vector Z?

A B C D

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5 Which equation, representing uniformly accelerated motion in a straight line, can be determined
using only the definition of acceleration?
1
A s = ut + 2 at 2
1
B s= 2
(u + v )t

C v = u + at
D v 2 = u 2 + 2as

6 An object moves from rest with uniform velocity horizontally and uniform acceleration vertically.

Which graph showing the variation with time of the displacement of the object from its initial
position is correct?

A B
horizontal vertical
displacement displacement

0 0
0 time 0 time

C D
horizontal vertical
displacement displacement

0 0
0 time 0 time

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7 A device for spraying paint consists of a box with its faces horizontal and vertical. One of its
vertical faces contains small holes. Paint is fed into the box under pressure via a vertical tube and
exits through the holes as fine streams moving horizontally.

paint in

paint out through holes

(only a few holes are shown)

The paint is ejected at a speed of 2.5 m s–1 through 400 holes, each of area 0.4 mm2. The density
of the paint is 900 kg m–3.

What is the horizontal force required to hold the device stationary as it ejects the paint?

A 0.36 N B 0.90 N C 2.3 N D 900 N

8 Each diagram illustrates a pair of forces of equal magnitude.

Which diagram gives an example of a pair of forces that is described by Newton’s third law of
motion?

A B

total gravitational
resistive driving Earth force
forces force

gravitational
Moon
force

C D

support force lift

weight

weight

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9 Two balls of identical shape and size but different masses are falling through the same liquid.

The sum of the drag force and upthrust acting on each ball is equal to its weight.

Which statement about the two balls is correct?

A The heavier ball has a larger acceleration than the lighter ball.
B The heavier ball has a smaller deceleration than the lighter ball.
C The heavier ball is falling at the same speed as the lighter ball.
D The heavier ball is falling at a larger speed than the lighter ball.

10 A perfectly elastic collision occurs between two objects X and Y. The mass of X is m and the
3v
mass of Y is 4m. Object X travels at speed v before the collision and speed in the opposite
5
direction after the collision. Object Y is stationary before the collision.

3v
v 5

X Y X Y
m 4m m 4m

before after

What is the kinetic energy of Y after the collision?

8 34 16 1
A mv 2 B mv 2 C mv 2 D mv 2
10 50 50 5

11 What is not a requirement for two forces to act as a couple?

A The two forces act in opposite directions.

B The two forces act through the same point.
C The two forces combine to produce zero resultant force.
D The two forces have equal magnitude.

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12 A uniform metre rule is pivoted at the 34.0 cm mark, as shown.

metre rule
4.0 cm
0 10 20 30 40 50 60 70 80 90 100

34.0 cm

64 g

The rule balances when a 64 g mass is hung from the 4.0 cm mark.

What is the mass of the metre rule?

A 38 g B 44 g C 120 g D 136 g

13 A volume of 1.5 m3 of water is mixed with 0.50 m3 of alcohol. The density of water is 1000 kg m–3
and the density of alcohol is 800 kg m–3.

The volume of the mixture is 2.0 m3.

What is the density of the mixture?

A 850 kg m–3 B 900 kg m–3 C 940 kg m–3 D 950 kg m–3

14 An object is falling at a constant speed through a viscous liquid. FU is the upthrust on the object
due to the liquid. WL is the weight of the liquid displaced by the object. WO is the weight of the
object.

Which equation must be correct?

A FU = W L
B FU = W O – W L
C FU = W O
D FU = W O + W L

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15 An airport has a mechanical system for moving luggage. The system uses a horizontal conveyor
belt, a sloping conveyor belt, a lift and a frictionless slide. A suitcase is moved around the airport
using this system.

12 m

10 m

8m

16 m

Resistive forces opposing the motion of the suitcase are negligible.

For which movement of the suitcase is the net work done on the suitcase greatest?

A moving the suitcase a distance of 8 m at a constant speed up the sloping conveyor belt
B moving the suitcase a distance of 16 m at a constant speed along the horizontal conveyor
belt
C moving the suitcase a distance of 10 m at a constant speed vertically upwards on the lift
D moving the suitcase a distance of 12 m at increasing speed downwards on the slide

16 A car moves along a horizontal road with a constant velocity v against a resistive force F.

The engine of the car has an efficiency of 25%.

What is the input power to the engine?

Fv 4.0 4.0F
A B C 4.0Fv D
4.0 Fv v

17 An object of mass 0.40 kg is projected into the air and follows a curved path above horizontal
ground.

path of object
object,
mass 0.40 kg

ground

18 m

The object takes a time of 1.5 s to move along its path. The object lands a horizontal distance of
18 m from its initial position. Air resistance is negligible.

What is the kinetic energy of the object at its maximum height?

A 0J B 2.4 J C 11 J D 29 J

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18 A metal wire has length 5.2 m and diameter 1.0 mm. The metal has Young modulus 360 GPa.

The wire is fixed at one end and a force is applied to the other end. The force extends the wire by
7.2 mm. The wire obeys Hooke’s law.

What is the force applied to the wire?

A 1.2  102 N

B 3.9  102 N

C 5.0  102 N

D 1.6  103 N

19 The graph shows how the length of a spring varies with the force applied to it.

force
F

0
0 L0 L1
length

The spring has unstretched length L0. When a force F is applied, the spring has length L1.

What is the work done in stretching the spring to length L1?

1 1
A FL1 B F(L1 – L0) C FL1 D F(L1 – L0)
2 2

20 A progressive wave of frequency 1.5 kHz travels in a medium at a speed of 340 m s–1.

What is the minimum distance between two points on the wave that have a phase difference of
70?

A 4.4 cm B 8.8 cm C 18 cm D 23 cm

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21 Graph 1 shows the variation with time of displacement at a fixed distance along a progressive
wave.

Graph 2 represents the same wave and shows the variation with distance of displacement at an
instant in time.

graph 1
2.0
displacement / cm
1.0
0 time / s
0 0.10 0.20 0.30 0.40
–1.0
–2.0

graph 2
2.0
displacement / cm
1.0
0 distance / cm
0 30 60 90 120
–1.0
–2.0

What is the speed of the wave?

A 5.0 cm s–1 B 48 cm s–1 C 150 cm s–1 D 300 cm s–1

22 A vehicle moves with constant velocity along a road directly towards an observer. The observed
frequency of the sound from the vehicle changes as the vehicle moves past the observer.

Which phenomenon explains the change in frequency?

A diffraction
B interference
C polarisation
D the Doppler effect

23 An electromagnetic wave has a wavelength of 2.1 cm in a vacuum.

Which region of the electromagnetic spectrum contains this wave?

A infrared
B microwave
C radio wave
D visible light

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24 A source of plane polarised light is observed through two polarising filters.

rotated
anticlockwise
rotated
clockwise
source of
polarised light

polarising filters
observer

The filters are positioned so that the source appears at its brightest. One of the filters is then
rotated clockwise and the other filter is rotated anticlockwise through the same angle.

How does the source appear when both filters have been rotated 90 and 180 from their initial
positions?

90 180

A brightest brightest
B brightest darkest
C darkest brightest
D darkest darkest

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25 The diagram shows a string stretched between fixed points X and Y. There is a stationary wave
on the string.

Q R
X Y
P

The solid curve shows the string at a position of maximum displacement at time t0. The dashed
curve shows the other position of maximum displacement. The straight central dashed line shows
the mean position of the string.

Point S on the string is directly above point P. Point T on the string is directly below point Q.

Which statement is correct?

A A short time after t0, point R on the string will be displaced.

B A short time after t0, points S and T on the string move in opposite directions.
C The distance between P and Q is one wavelength.
D Two moving points on the string that are equal distances from point R vibrate in phase.

26 The variation with distance x of the intensity I along a stationary sound wave in air is shown.

0
0 5.0 10.0 15.0
x / cm

The speed of sound in air is 340 m s–1.

What is the frequency of the sound wave?

A 1700 Hz B 2300 Hz C 3400 Hz D 6800 Hz

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27 An experiment is set up to demonstrate the diffraction of water waves in a ripple tank.

The waves pass through a gap of width w and some diffraction of the waves is observed.

The wavelength of the waves is now doubled.

What is the new gap width needed to cause the same amount of diffraction as before?

A 0.5w B w C 2w D 4w

28 Two coherent electromagnetic waves are travelling in a vacuum. The two waves meet at a point.
At this point, the two waves have different intensities.

Which statement about the waves is not correct?

A They have a constant phase difference at the point.

B They have the same amplitude at the point.
C They have the same frequency.
D They travel at the same speed.

29 A parallel beam of light of wavelength 600 nm is incident normally on a diffraction grating.

The distance between adjacent slits in the grating is 2.0  10–6 m. A screen is placed parallel to
the grating, at a distance of 1.50 m from the grating. Third-order diffraction maxima are observed
at the two ends of the screen, as shown.

screen
NOT TO
diffraction SCALE
grating

third-order maxima

beam of light of
wavelength 600 nm

1.50 m

What is the distance between the two ends of the screen?

A 1.4 m B 2.7 m C 3.1 m D 6.2 m

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30 A metal wire is connected between the terminals of a cell so that there is a current in the wire.

Which statement is correct?

A Negatively charged electrons in the wire move from the negative terminal to the positive
terminal.
B Negatively charged nuclei in the wire move from the negative terminal to the positive
terminal.
C Positively charged electrons in the wire move from the positive terminal to the negative
terminal.
D Positively charged nuclei in the wire move from the positive terminal to the negative terminal.

31 Two resistors of resistances R and 2R are connected in parallel with a battery of electromotive
force (e.m.f.) 12 V and negligible internal resistance.

12 V

2R

The total power dissipated by the two resistors is 36 W.

What is the value of R?

A 0.50  B 2.7  C 4.0  D 6.0 

32 A wire has a length of 3.0 m and is made of metal of resistivity 4.9  10–7  m.

A potential difference (p.d.) of 12 V is applied across the wire so that it has a current of 1.4 A.

What is the cross-sectional area of the wire?

A 1.2  10–7 m2

B 1.7  10–7 m2

C 1.1  10–6 m2

D 1.3  10–5 m2

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33 A cell of negligible internal resistance is connected in series with a thermistor, a fixed resistor and
an ammeter.

The thermistor is placed in a beaker of water and the temperature of the water is slowly
increased.

A graph of current I against the temperature T of the thermistor is plotted.

Which graph could show the variation of I with T ?

A B C D

I I I I

T T T T

34 A battery with internal resistance is connected to a parallel arrangement of two resistors and a
switch S, as shown.

A V

switch
S

Initially, switch S is open.

What happens to the voltmeter and ammeter readings when switch S is closed?

voltmeter ammeter
reading reading

A decreases increases
B decreases decreases
C increases increases
D increases decreases

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35 Kirchhoff’s first law states that the sum of the currents entering a junction in a circuit is equal to
the sum of the currents leaving it.

The law is based on the conservation of a physical quantity.

What is this physical quantity?

A charge
B energy
C mass
D momentum

36 Two resistors have a combined resistance of 34  when connected in series. The same resistors
have a combined resistance of 7.4  when connected in parallel.

What is the resistance of one of the resistors?

A 15  B 17  C 23  D 27 

37 A potentiometer circuit is used to investigate the electromotive force (e.m.f.) of a cell X.

driver cell
2.0 V

Q P R

sliding contact
X resistance wire

The e.m.f. of cell X is known to be approximately 0.50 V.

The driver cell has negligible internal resistance and an e.m.f. of 2.0 V. The sliding contact is
moved along the uniform resistance wire between ends Q and R to a point P where the reading
on the galvanometer is zero.

What is an expression for the approximate length QP?

QR QR 2QR 3QR
A B C D
4 3 3 4

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38 The table contains data for four different nuclei P, Q, R and S.

number nucleon
nucleus
of neutrons number

P 5 10
Q 6 10
R 6 14
S 8 16

Which two nuclei are isotopes of the same element?

A P and Q B P and S C Q and R D R and S

39 Which statement about – decay is correct?

A A neutron changes to a proton in the nucleus and an electron and an antineutrino are
emitted.
B A neutron changes to a proton in the nucleus and an electron and a neutrino are emitted.
C A proton changes to a neutron in the nucleus and an electron and an antineutrino are
emitted.
D A proton changes to a neutron in the nucleus and an electron and a neutrino are emitted.

40 What is the quark composition of a hydrogen-3 nucleus, 31H?

number of quarks
up down

A 4 5
B 5 4
C 5 7
D 7 5

© UCLES 2023 9702/13/M/J/23

 Cambridge International AS & A Level

PHYSICS 9702/11
Paper 1 Multiple Choice October/November 2023
1 hour 15 minutes

You must answer on the multiple choice answer sheet.

*4433348675*

You will need: Multiple choice answer sheet

Soft clean eraser
Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

INSTRUCTIONS
• There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions.
• For each question there are four possible answers A, B, C and D. Choose the one you consider correct
and record your choice in soft pencil on the multiple choice answer sheet.
• Follow the instructions on the multiple choice answer sheet.
• Write in soft pencil.
• Write your name, centre number and candidate number on the multiple choice answer sheet in the
spaces provided unless this has been done for you.
• Do not use correction fluid.
• Do not write on any bar codes.
• You may use a calculator.

INFORMATION
• The total mark for this paper is 40.
• Each correct answer will score one mark.
• Any rough working should be done on this question paper.

This document has 20 pages. Any blank pages are indicated.

IB23 11_9702_11/2RP
© UCLES 2023 [Turn over
 3

1 What is a reasonable estimate of the cross-sectional area of the wire in a paper clip?

A 1 × 10–3 m2 B 8 × 10–5 m2 C 8 × 10–7 m2 D 1 × 10–9 m2

2 Which quantity is not an SI base quantity?

A charge
B mass
C temperature
D time

3 A student determines the acceleration of free fall by using a small metal ball, as shown.

electromagnet
S

P
metal ball electronic timer

trapdoor

When switch S is opened, the ball is released from an electromagnet and an electronic timer is
started. The ball then falls vertically downwards. The timer stops when the ball hits a trapdoor.
The student measures the distance PQ between the electromagnet and the trapdoor. This
distance and the reading on the timer are then used to calculate the acceleration of free fall.

Which statement about errors in the experiment is correct?

A The random error can be reduced by adding the diameter of the ball to the distance PQ.
B The random error can be reduced by subtracting the diameter of the ball from the distance PQ.
C The systematic error can be reduced by adding the diameter of the ball to the distance PQ.
D The systematic error can be reduced by subtracting the diameter of the ball from the distance
PQ.

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4 The diagram shows two coplanar forces, P and Q, drawn to scale.

P
Q

Force R is given by R = Q – P.

Which diagram represents R ?

A B C D

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5 A parachutist falls from a stationary balloon at time t = 0. The velocity–time graph for the
parachutist from time t = 0 until the time when he is just above the ground is shown.

velocity

0
0 P Q R S time

Which graph best shows the variation with time of the acceleration of the parachutist?

A B

acceleration acceleration

0 0
0 P Q R S time 0 P Q R S time

C D

acceleration acceleration

0 0
0 P Q R S time 0 P Q R S time

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6 A projectile is fired from point P with velocity V at an angle θ to the horizontal. It lands at point Q,
a horizontal distance R from P, after time T.

path of projectile
V

T
P Q
horizontal
R

The acceleration of free fall is g. Air resistance is negligible.

Which equation is correct?

A R = VT cos θ

B R = VT sin θ

C R = VT cos θ – 21 gT 2

D R = VT sin θ – 21 gT 2

7 A man stands in a lift that is accelerating vertically downwards, as shown.

lift

acceleration

Which statement describes the force exerted by the man on the floor?

A It is equal to the weight of the man.

B It is greater than the force exerted by the floor on the man.
C It is less than the force exerted by the floor on the man.
D It is less than the weight of the man.

8 A ball of mass 200 g is thrown horizontally with a speed of 20 m s–1 against a vertical wall.

The ball is in contact with the wall for a time of 0.10 s before rebounding back along its original
path with a speed of 10 m s–1.

What is the average force exerted by the wall on the ball during the collision?

A 20 N B 60 N C 20 kN D 60 kN

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9 In an experiment, a metal ball is dropped into a viscous liquid. The terminal velocity of the ball in
the liquid is measured.

The experiment is repeated four times. For each repeat, a change is made to one of the following.

1 the density of the metal of the ball

2 the height from which the ball is dropped
3 the density of the liquid
4 the depth of the liquid

Which two changes separately affect the terminal velocity of the ball in the liquid?

A 1 and 2 B 1 and 3 C 2 and 4 D 3 and 4

10 Two objects move towards each other along the same straight line.

After colliding, the two objects stick together and are stationary.

Which statement must be correct?

A The total kinetic energy of the two objects does not change during the collision.
B The total momentum of the two objects before the collision is zero.
C The two objects have equal mass.
D The two objects have the same speed before the collision.

11 A minimum torque of 20 N m must be applied to the lid of a jar for it to open. The radius of the lid
is 4.0 cm.

4.0 cm

What is the minimum force F that must act on each side of the lid in order to open it?

A 2.5 N B 5.0 N C 250 N D 500 N

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12 A uniform bar of length L and weight W rests horizontally on two supports X and Y.

L RX RY
6

support X support Y
W

L
Support X exerts a vertical force RX at a distance of from one end of the bar.
6
Support Y exerts a vertical force RY at the other end of the bar.

The bar is in equilibrium.

RX
What is the ratio ?
RY
3 2 3 2
A B C D
2 3 5 5

13 A type of firework is made by connecting two rockets, facing in opposite directions, to a rod, as
shown.

The rod is attached to a frictionless pivot so that the firework can rotate in a vertical plane.

The firework has weight W. The pivot exerts a force R on the rod that is equal and opposite to W.

rod
d
F
R
rocket rocket

F d

pivot

Each rocket exerts a force of magnitude F on the rod at a perpendicular distance d from the pivot.
The forces exerted by the rockets are always in opposite directions.

Air resistance is negligible.

Which statement is correct?

A The firework is in equilibrium because the resultant force acting on it is zero.

B The firework is in equilibrium because the resultant torque acting on it is zero.
C The firework is not in equilibrium because the resultant force acting on it is not zero.
D The firework is not in equilibrium because the resultant torque acting on it is not zero.

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14 An object of weight W is suspended from a newton meter. When the object is completely
immersed in water, the newton meter reads P. When the object is completely immersed in oil, the
newton meter reads Q.

N N
P

water oil

density of oil
What is the ratio ?
density of water

A W −P B Q−P C W −P D W −Q
Q−P W −P W −Q W −P

15 A crate of mass 50 kg is pushed a distance of 6.0 m along a horizontal surface against a constant
resistive force of 70 N. The crate moves at a constant speed. It is then lifted, at a constant speed,
through a vertical distance of 1.2 m onto the back of a lorry.

What is the total work done in this process?

A 420 J B 480 J C 590 J D 1000 J

16 The input power to a television is Pin. The useful sound and light power emitted by the television
is Pout.

What is the efficiency of the television?

Pout Pin – Pout Pin Pout
A B C D
Pin Pin Pout Pin – Pout

17 A builder holding a brick of mass 3000 g drops the brick on his foot.

What is a reasonable estimate of the change in gravitational potential energy of the brick?

A 30 J B 300 J C 3000 J D 30 000 J

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18 An elastic cord of unstretched total length 16.0 cm and cross-sectional area 2.0 × 10–6 m2 is held
horizontally by two smooth pins a distance 8.0 cm apart.

The cord obeys Hooke’s law. A load of mass 0.40 kg is suspended centrally on the cord. The
angle between the two sides of the cord supporting the load is 60°.

unstretched cord
pin pin pin 8.0 cm pin

8.0 cm

cord
8.0 cm
60q

mass 0.40 kg

What is the Young modulus of the cord material?

A 5.7 × 105 Pa B 1.1 × 106 Pa C 2.3 × 106 Pa D 3.9 × 106 Pa

19 Which force–extension graph shows plastic deformation of a sample of material?

A B

force force

0 0
0 extension 0 extension

C D

force force

0 0
0 extension 0 extension

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20 Two waves pass through a point P. The graph shows the variation with time t of the displacement s
of the two waves at point P.

0
0 2 4 6 8 10 t/s

What is the phase difference between the two waves at point P?

A 0° B 45° C 90° D 180°

21 Which row is correct for both progressive transverse waves and progressive longitudinal waves?

transverse waves longitudinal waves

A contain compressions some can travel
and rarefactions in a vacuum
B can be polarised contain compressions
and rarefactions

C vibrations are perpendicular can be polarised

to the direction of travel of
the wave energy

D some can travel vibrations are perpendicular

in a vacuum to the direction of travel of
the wave energy

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22 A toy drone emits a sound of constant frequency 800 Hz. The speed of the sound in the air is
330 m s–1.

The drone moves along a straight path directly towards an observer and then continues in a
straight line directly away from the observer. The speed of the drone is constant.

toy drone

observer

What is the velocity of the drone when the frequency of the sound heard by the observer is
850 Hz?

magnitude of
direction of velocity
velocity / m s–1

A 19 away from the observer

B 21 away from the observer
C 19 towards the observer
D 21 towards the observer

23 Which statement about electromagnetic waves in a vacuum is correct?

A Infrared waves have shorter wavelengths than visible light waves.

B Microwaves have longer wavelengths than radio waves.
C Ultraviolet waves have higher frequencies than visible light waves.

D γ-rays have lower frequencies than X-rays.

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24 Vertically polarised microwaves are emitted from a source. The microwaves are detected by a
receiver that is connected to a cathode-ray oscilloscope (CRO). The waveform displayed on the
screen of the CRO has an amplitude of 2.6 cm.

A metal wire grid that acts as a polarising filter is now placed between the source and the
receiver. The filter is orientated so that the plane of polarisation of the transmitted wave is at an
angle of 20° to the vertical.

20°
source of vertically
polarised microwaves polarising filter

transmitted wave

transmission axis
of polarising filter
to receiver

The distance between the source and receiver is unchanged. The settings on the CRO are also
unchanged.

What is now the amplitude of the waveform displayed on the screen of the CRO?

A 0.30 cm B 0.89 cm C 2.3 cm D 2.4 cm

25 In an experiment, a stationary wave is formed on a string stretched horizontally between two fixed
points.

Which statement about the experiment is correct?

A At certain times, the string between two nodes is horizontal with all points having zero
displacement.
B Each point on the string between two antinodes has an oscillation of the same amplitude.
C The number of nodes is equal to the number of antinodes.
D Two adjacent antinodes oscillate in phase.

26 A musical organ produces notes by blowing air into a set of pipes that are open at one end and
closed at the other.

The speed of sound in the air in the pipes is 320 m s–1.

What is the lowest frequency of sound produced by a pipe of length 10 m?

A 4 Hz B 8 Hz C 16 Hz D 32 Hz

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27 In an experiment, water waves in a ripple tank are incident on a gap, as shown.

Some diffraction of the water waves is observed.

Which change to the experiment would provide a better demonstration of diffraction?

A Increase the amplitude of the waves.

B Increase the frequency of the waves.
C Increase the wavelength of the waves.
D Increase the width of the gap.

28 Light of wavelength λ is emitted from two point sources R and S and falls onto a distant screen.

screen

R NOT TO
SCALE
P
S

At point P on the screen, the light intensity is zero.

What could explain the zero intensity at P?

A Light from the two sources is emitted 180° out of phase and the path difference to P is 21 λ .

B Light from the two sources is emitted in phase and the path difference to P is λ.

C Light from the two sources is emitted 90° out of phase and the path difference to P is λ.

D Light from the two sources is emitted in phase and the path difference to P is 1
2
λ.

29 A beam of red light of wavelength 720 nm is incident normally on a diffraction grating and
produces a diffraction pattern on a screen placed parallel to the grating.

The beam of red light is replaced with a beam of electromagnetic radiation of wavelength X,
which is incident normally on the same diffraction grating.

The third-order maximum for the electromagnetic radiation of wavelength X is at the same
position on the screen as the second-order maximum for the red light.

What is wavelength X ?

A 480 nm B 540 nm C 960 nm D 1100 nm

© UCLES 2023 9702/11/O/N/23

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30 The current I in a conductor is given by the equation shown.

I = Anvq

What does the letter n represent in this equation?

A charge carried per charge carrier

B number of charge carriers per unit area
C number of charge carriers per unit volume
D total mass of charge carriers per unit volume

31 In the circuit shown, the battery has an electromotive force (e.m.f.) of 6.0 V and negligible internal
resistance.

The three resistors each have resistance R.

6.0 V

R R

The total power dissipated in the resistor network is 24 W.

What is the value of R ?

A 0.50 Ω B 1.0 Ω C 1.5 Ω D 2.3 Ω

32 Which graph could show how the resistance R of a filament lamp varies with the applied potential
difference (p.d.) V, as V is increased to the normal operating p.d.?

A B C D
R R R R

0 0 0 0
0 V 0 V 0 V 0 V

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33 A piece of conducting putty is in the shape of a cylinder of length 60 mm and diameter 20 mm.
The resistance between the ends of the cylinder is 20 Ω.

What is the resistivity of the putty?

A 0.033 Ω m B 0.10 Ω m C 0.42 Ω m D 5.2 Ω m

34 Which statement about the electromotive force (e.m.f.) of a cell is always correct?

A The e.m.f. is the energy converted from electrical to other forms in the cell.
B The e.m.f. is the energy provided by the cell per unit charge passing through it.
C The e.m.f. is the potential difference across the internal resistance of the cell.
D The e.m.f. is the potential difference across the terminals of the cell.

35 Kirchhoff’s first and second laws are a consequence of the conservation of which quantities?

A charge and energy

B charge and resistance
C mass and energy
D mass and resistance

36 A circuit contains a cell of electromotive force E and internal resistance r connected to a resistor
of resistance R. The current in the circuit is I.

E
r

Which equation is correct?

A E – Ir = IR B E = Ir – IR C E + Ir = IR D E = IR

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 17

37 A potential divider consists of two resistors of resistances R1 and R2 connected in series across a
source of potential difference (p.d.) Vin. The p.d. across R1 is Vout.

R2

Vin

R1 Vout

Which changes to R1 and R2 will increase the value of Vout?

R1 R2

A doubled doubled
B doubled halved
C halved doubled
D halved halved

38 Two alpha-particles with the same kinetic energy are moving towards, and are then deflected by,
a gold nucleus.

gold nucleus

alpha-particles

Which diagram could show the paths of the two alpha-particles?

A B

C D

© UCLES 2023 9702/11/O/N/23 [Turn over

 Cambridge International AS & A Level

PHYSICS 9702/12
Paper 1 Multiple Choice October/November 2023
1 hour 15 minutes

You must answer on the multiple choice answer sheet.

*2760948387*

You will need: Multiple choice answer sheet

Soft clean eraser
Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

INSTRUCTIONS
• There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions.
• For each question there are four possible answers A, B, C and D. Choose the one you consider correct
and record your choice in soft pencil on the multiple choice answer sheet.
• Follow the instructions on the multiple choice answer sheet.
• Write in soft pencil.
• Write your name, centre number and candidate number on the multiple choice answer sheet in the
spaces provided unless this has been done for you.
• Do not use correction fluid.
• Do not write on any bar codes.
• You may use a calculator.

INFORMATION
• The total mark for this paper is 40.
• Each correct answer will score one mark.
• Any rough working should be done on this question paper.

This document has 20 pages. Any blank pages are indicated.

IB23 11_9702_12/2RP
© UCLES 2023 [Turn over
 3

1 A student estimates the maximum speed of some different moving objects.

Which maximum speed is not a reasonable estimate?

A container ship: 10 m s–1

B Olympic sprinter: 0.1 km s–1
C racing car: 9000 cm s–1
D snail: 0.01 km h–1

2 Which quantity is an SI base quantity?

A force
B newton
C second
D time

3 A student takes measurements to determine the constant acceleration of a model car moving
from rest in a straight line. The measured values with their absolute uncertainties are shown.

measured
quantity uncertainty
value

displacement 16.5 m ± 0.1 m

time 15.0 s ± 1.0 s

The student uses the equation s = 1

2 at 2 to calculate the acceleration of the car.

What is the acceleration and its absolute uncertainty?

A (0.11 ± 0.01) m s–2

B (0.11 ± 0.02) m s–2
C (0.15 ± 0.01) m s–2
D (0.15 ± 0.02) m s–2

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 4

4 An aeroplane is moving at a constant speed in a straight line at an angle θ to the horizontal.

Four forces act on the aeroplane: thrust force T, weight W, lift force L and resistive force R.

L T

R

W

Which two equations must be correct?

A L = W cos θ and T = R + W sin θ

B L = W sin θ and T = R + W cos θ
C L = W cos θ and T = R – W sin θ
D L = W sin θ and T = R – W cos θ

5 What is the definition of acceleration?

A the rate of change of displacement

B the rate of change of kinetic energy
C the rate of change of momentum
D the rate of change of velocity

6 An astronaut on the Moon, where there is no air resistance, throws a ball. The ball’s initial velocity
has a vertical component of 8.00 m s–1 and a horizontal component of 4.00 m s–1, as shown.

initial velocity

path of ball
8.00 m s–1

4.00 m s–1

The acceleration of free fall on the Moon is 1.62 m s–2.

What is the speed of the ball 9.00 s after being thrown?

A 6.58 m s–1 B 7.70 m s–1 C 10.6 m s–1 D 14.6 m s–1

© UCLES 2023 9702/12/O/N/23

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7 Two blocks, of mass 0.20 kg and 0.50 kg, are connected by a light inextensible string that passes
over a frictionless pulley.

rough block,
horizontal mass 0.20 kg
surface
pulley

block,
mass 0.50 kg

The blocks are initially held stationary. The block of mass 0.20 kg rests on a rough horizontal
surface.

The block of mass 0.50 kg is suspended in air. Air resistance is negligible.

When the blocks are released, they have an acceleration of magnitude 2.0 m s–2.

What is the magnitude of the frictional force between the block of mass 0.20 kg and the rough
surface?

A 3.5 N B 3.9 N C 4.5 N D 6.3 N

8 A resultant force causes an object to accelerate.

What is equal to the resultant force?

A the acceleration of the object per unit mass

B the change in kinetic energy of the object per unit time
C the change in momentum of the object per unit time
D the change in velocity of the object per unit time

9 An object falls from a stationary helicopter and reaches terminal velocity.

What happens to the acceleration of the object between leaving the helicopter and reaching
terminal velocity?

A It decreases to 9.81 m s–2.

B It decreases to zero.
C It increases to 9.81 m s–2.
D It remains constant at 9.81 m s–2.

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 6

10 Two balls, of masses m and 2m, travelling in a vacuum with initial velocities 2v and v
respectively, collide with each other head-on, as shown.

m 2v v 2m

After the collision, the ball of mass m rebounds to the left with velocity v.

What is the loss of kinetic energy in the collision?

A 3
4
mv2 B 3
2
mv2 C 9
4
mv2 D 9
2
mv2

11 A force F is applied at an angle of 45° to a door handle at a distance d from the pivot of the
handle, as shown.

45 F pivot
handle

What is the moment of the force about the pivot?

A Fd B Fd C Fd 2 D 2Fd
2

12 A couple consists of two forces, each of magnitude F, that act in opposite directions in the same
plane.

The perpendicular distance between the two forces is d.

F
d

What is the torque of the couple?

Fd F
A B C Fd D 2Fd
2 d

© UCLES 2023 9702/12/O/N/23

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13 The diagram shows an experiment to determine the force exerted on a ball by a horizontal air
flow.

30

ball
air flow

The ball is suspended by a light string and weighs 0.15 N.

The deflection of the string from vertical is 30°. The ball is in equilibrium.

What is the force on the ball from the air flow?

A 0.075 N B 0.087 N C 0.26 N D 0.30 N

14 Two solid cylindrical objects X and Y are held fully submerged in a liquid, as shown.

surface of liquid

Y
X

The objects have the same volume. The density of the material of Y is twice the density of the
material of X. Both objects are stationary.

Which statement is correct?

A The force due to the liquid acting on the top surface of X is greater than that acting on the top
surface of Y.
B The pressure difference due to the liquid between the top and bottom surfaces of X is the
same as that for Y.
C The upthrust acting on X is the same as the upthrust acting on Y.
D The weight of X is the same as the weight of Y.

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15 An electric car travels at a constant speed of 70 km h–1 for 80 km on a straight horizontal road and
uses energy E from its battery.

The total resistive force acting on the car is proportional to (speed)2. Assume that the electric
motor is 100% efficient.

How much energy is used from the battery when the car travels at a constant speed of 60 km h–1
for 80 km on the straight horizontal road?

A 0.73E B 0.86E C 1.2E D 1.4E

16 What is meant by the efficiency of a system?

A the total energy input to the system divided by the useful energy output by the system
B the useful energy output from the system divided by the energy wasted by the system
C the useful energy output from the system divided by the total energy input to the system
D the energy wasted by the system divided by the total energy input to the system

17 When an object of mass m is raised through a vertical height ∆h, the gain of its gravitational
potential energy is ∆EP.

∆EP and ∆h are related by the equation

∆EP = mg∆h,

where g is the acceleration of free fall.

The definition of which physical quantity is needed to derive this equation?

A acceleration
B momentum
C power
D work done

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18 Three identical springs, each with the same spring constant, are connected together in four
different arrangements, as shown.

Which arrangement has the largest combined spring constant?

A B C D

19 The force–extension graph for a wire is shown.

X Y

force

0
0 extension

Which row could identify the labels X, Y and Z?

limit of region of elastic region of plastic

proportionality deformation deformation

A X Y Z
B Z Y X
C Y Z X
D Z X Y

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20 X and Y are two points on the surface of water in a ripple tank. A source of constant frequency
generates a wave which travels past X and Y, causing them to oscillate vertically.

direction of
wave travel
Y
water surface
X

What is the phase difference between X and Y?

A 45° B 135° C 180° D 270°

21 A transverse wave on a rope has wavelength λ and period T.

The graph shows the variation of the displacement of the particles of the rope with distance in the
direction of travel of the wave at time t = 0.

direction
displacement of travel

X
0
0 λ distance

A particle X is labelled.

Which graph shows the variation of the displacement of particle X with time t ?

A B

displacement displacement

0 0
0 T t 0 T t

C D

displacement displacement

0 0
0 T t 0 T t

© UCLES 2023 9702/12/O/N/23

 11

22 A source of sound waves is moving at a constant speed directly towards a stationary observer.

The sound waves have a speed of 340 m s–1 and a frequency of 480 Hz. The observer hears
sound waves of frequency 650 Hz.

What is the speed of the source?

A 89 m s–1 B 120 m s–1 C 250 m s–1 D 340 m s–1

23 A student is investigating two electromagnetic waves, X and Y, in a vacuum.

Wave X has a wavelength of 5.2 × 10–7 m. Wave Y has a frequency of 9.4 GHz.

Which principal regions of the electromagnetic spectrum contain waves X and Y?

X Y

A radio wave ultraviolet

B ultraviolet visible
C visible microwave
D microwave radio wave

24 A plane polarised light wave of intensity I0 is incident normally on a polarising filter. The initial
intensity of the transmitted wave is 0.

A second polarising filter is then inserted between the source and the first filter. Its transmission
axis is at 45° to the transmission axis of the first filter, as shown.

transmission axis
of second filter at 45
to transmission axis
source of polarised light, of first filter
intensity I0

transmission axis
of first filter

45
direction of travel
of light wave

What is the intensity of the transmitted wave from the filter combination?
I0 I0 I0
A 0 B C D
8 4 2

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25 What can explain how stationary waves are formed from progressive waves?

A diffraction
B polarisation
C superposition
D the Doppler effect

26 A pipe has a length of 2.0 m. It is open at one end and closed at the other end.

A stationary sound wave is set up within the pipe. There are four nodes (N) and four
antinodes (A) within the length of the pipe.

N A N A N A N A

2.0 m

What is the wavelength of the sound wave?

A 0.57 m B 1.1 m C 1.3 m D 1.6 m

27 A teacher is explaining diffraction to a group of students.

Which piece of apparatus is most appropriate for the teacher to use to demonstrate diffraction?

A a long spring
B a ripple tank
C a rope
D a stretched string

© UCLES 2023 9702/12/O/N/23

 13

28 Coherent light of constant wavelength is incident normally on a double slit. Interference fringes
are formed on a screen that is a fixed distance from the double slit. The screen is parallel to the
double slit.

The separation of the slits is varied.

Which graph best shows the variation with slit separation a of the spacing x of the interference
fringes?

A B
x x

0 0
0 a 0 a

C D
x x

0 0
0 a 0 a

29 Light of wavelength 690 nm passes through a diffraction grating with 300 lines per mm, producing
a series of bright spots (maxima) on a screen.

screen

diffraction
grating

What is the total number of bright spots that are produced?

A 4 B 5 C 8 D 9

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30 A fine mist of oil droplets is sprayed into air. As the oil droplets leave the nozzle of the spraying
device they can become electrically charged.

What is not a possible value for the charge on an oil droplet?

A zero

B 1.0 × 10–19 C

C 4.8 × 10–19 C

D 8.0 × 10–19 C

31 In the circuit shown, a fixed resistor X is connected in series with a battery and a variable resistor.

The power dissipated in resistor X is 7.2 W when a current of 3.0 A passes through it.

The variable resistor is adjusted so that the power dissipated in X increases by 50%.

What is the new current in the circuit?

A 2.4 A B 3.7 A C 4.5 A D 14 A

32 The potential difference across a metal wire is kept constant. The length l and the diameter d of
the wire are both varied. The type of metal is kept the same.

How is the current in the wire related to l and d ?

A It is directly proportional to l and inversely proportional to d.

B It is directly proportional to l and inversely proportional to d 2.

C It is inversely proportional to l and directly proportional to d.
D It is inversely proportional to l and directly proportional to d 2.

© UCLES 2023 9702/12/O/N/23

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33 A student sets up a circuit. The circuit diagram shows how the positive and negative terminals of
a voltmeter are connected to the circuit. The voltmeter has an initial reading that is positive.

+ –
V

Which changes, if any, in temperature and light intensity would cause the voltmeter reading to
decrease?

temperature light intensity

A increase increase
B no change decrease
C decrease no change
D decrease decrease

34 Some resistors and a battery of electromotive force (e.m.f.) E and negligible internal resistance
are connected in series, as shown.

Which statement is correct?

A The e.m.f. across each resistor equals the potential difference across the battery.
B The potential difference across each resistor equals the e.m.f. E of the battery.
C The sum of the e.m.f.s across the resistors equals the potential difference across the battery.
D The sum of the potential differences across the resistors equals the e.m.f. E of the battery.

© UCLES 2023 9702/12/O/N/23 [Turn over

 16

35 Kirchhoff’s first law is a consequence of the conservation of which physical quantity?

A charge
B energy
C linear momentum
D potential difference

36 The diagram shows a network of resistors. Each resistor has a resistance of 6.0 Ω.

X Y

What is the total resistance of the network between points X and Y?

A 3.0 Ω B 5.0 Ω C 7.2 Ω D 18 Ω

37 In the circuit shown, a battery of negligible internal resistance is connected in series with a pair of
fixed resistors R1 and R2.

R1 60 Ω

6.0 V
X
R2 20 Ω
Y

The circuit is to be used to test whether the electromotive force (e.m.f.) of a particular cell is 1.5 V.
The cell is connected between terminals X and Y in parallel with R2 and in series with a
galvanometer.

Which statement about the test is correct?

A Any non-zero reading on the galvanometer means the cell has an e.m.f. of 1.5 V.
B The battery does not need to have an e.m.f. of 6.0 V.
C The cell may be connected either way round between X and Y.
D The galvanometer does not need a scale calibrated in amperes.

© UCLES 2023 9702/12/O/N/23

 17

38 Two nuclides are different isotopes of the same element.

Which statement about the nuclides is correct?

A Neutral atoms of the nuclides have the same number of electrons.

B Nuclei of the nuclides have different numbers of protons.
C Nuclei of the nuclides have the same number of nucleons.
D Nuclei of the nuclides have the same number of neutrons.

39 The charge-to-mass ratio r of a particle is given by the equation shown.

charge on particle
r=
mass of particle

The value of r is determined for an α-particle, a β+ particle and a proton p.

Which list shows the particles in order of increasing magnitude of r from left to right?

A α → β+ → p

B α → p → β+

C p → α → β+

D p → β+ → α

40 Which combination of up (u) and down (d) quarks forms a neutron?

A uuu B uud C udd D ddd

© UCLES 2023 9702/12/O/N/23

 Cambridge International AS & A Level

PHYSICS 9702/13
Paper 1 Multiple Choice October/November 2023
1 hour 15 minutes

You must answer on the multiple choice answer sheet.

*1358886132*

You will need: Multiple choice answer sheet

Soft clean eraser
Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

INSTRUCTIONS
 There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions.
 For each question there are four possible answers A, B, C and D. Choose the one you consider correct
and record your choice in soft pencil on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Follow the instructions on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Write in soft pencil.
 Write your name, centre number and candidate number on the multiple choice answer sheet in the
spaces provided unless this has been done for you.
 Do not use correction fluid.
 Do not write on any bar codes.
 You may use a calculator.

INFORMATION
 The total mark for this paper is 40.
 Each correct answer will score one mark.
 Any rough working should be done on this question paper.

This document has 20 pages. Any blank pages are indicated.

IB23 11_9702_13/RP
© UCLES 2023 [Turn over
 3

1 What is the best estimate of the wavelength of green light?

A 260 nm B 540 nm C 780 nm D 920 nm

2 In an electric circuit, an ammeter reads 2 A.

In a second circuit, the ammeter reads 1 mA.

How many times larger is the current in the second circuit compared with the current in the first
circuit?

A 500 B 5000 C 500 000 D 5 000 000

3 A set of repeated measurements is made of a fixed quantity. An average of these measurements

is calculated.

What is the effect of averaging on the random error and the systematic error in the
measurements?

A Random error and systematic error are both reduced.

B Random error and systematic error are both unaffected.
C Random error is reduced but systematic error is unaffected.
D Random error is unaffected but systematic error is reduced.

© UCLES 2023 9702/13/O/N/23 [Turn over

 4

4 A boat is crossing a river in which the water is moving at a speed of 4.0 m s–1 from left to right.

river bank
NOT TO
SCALE
velocity of
water, 4.0 m s–1

velocity of boat in T
still water, 6.0 m s–1 resultant velocity, v

river bank

In still water, the speed of the boat is 6.0 m s–1. The boat is directed at an angle  to a line
perpendicular to the river banks. The resultant velocity v of the boat is in a direction perpendicular
to the river banks.

What are the values of  and v?

/ v / m s–1

A 42 4.5
B 42 7.2
C 48 4.5
D 48 7.2

5 A student walks at a constant speed for a distance of 50 m in a time of 40 s. The student rests for
a time of 10 s and then walks back to the starting point at a constant speed in a time of 30 s.

What is the distance–time graph for the motion of the student?

A B
100 100
distance / m distance / m
50 50

0 0
0 20 40 60 80 0 20 40 60 80
time / s time / s

C D
100 100
distance / m distance / m
50 50

0 0
0 20 40 60 80 0 20 40 60 80
time / s time / s

© UCLES 2023 9702/13/O/N/23

 5

6 The time taken for an object to fall from rest through a certain distance on Mars is TM. The time
taken for the same object to fall from rest through the same distance on Earth is TE. The
acceleration of free fall on Mars is 3.71 m s–2.

Assume that air resistance is negligible on both Earth and Mars.

TM
What is the ratio ?
TE
A 0.378 B 0.615 C 1.63 D 2.64

7 Which statement about mass is correct?

A Mass has a magnitude and a direction.

B Mass resists changes in motion.
C The greater the mass of an object, the greater its acceleration when falling in a vacuum.
D The mass of an object depends on its location.

8 A snooker ball has a mass of 200 g. It hits the cushion of a snooker table and rebounds along its
original path.

The ball arrives at the cushion with a speed of 14.0 m s–1 and then leaves it with a speed of
7.0 m s–1. The ball and the cushion are in contact for a time of 0.60 s.

What is the average force exerted on the ball by the cushion?

A 1.4 N B 2.3 N C 4.2 N D 7.0 N

9 A ball falls from rest through air and eventually reaches a constant velocity.

For this fall, forces X and Y vary with time as shown.

force X force Y

0 0
0 time 0 time

What could be forces X and Y ?

force X force Y

A air resistance resultant force

B air resistance weight
C upthrust resultant force
D upthrust weight

© UCLES 2023 9702/13/O/N/23 [Turn over

 6

10 An object X of mass 0.30 kg is travelling in a straight line at a constant velocity of 3.0 m s–1 on a
horizontal frictionless surface. Object X collides with a stationary object Y of mass 0.50 kg.

After the collision, X moves with a velocity of 2.0 m s–1 at an angle of 60 to its direction before the
collision. Object Y moves with a velocity v at an angle of 41 to the direction of X before the
collision, as shown.

Y v

3.0 m s–1 41q

X Y 60q
0.30 kg 0.50 kg X 2.0 m s–1

before collision after collision

What is the value of v?

A 0.80 m s–1 B 1.2 m s–1 C 1.6 m s–1 D 1.8 m s–1

11 A uniform rigid beam of length 3.2 m is pivoted at its centre. Two children sit at the opposite ends
of the beam, as shown.

child
mass 24 kg 3.2 m

child
mass 36 kg
pivot
20q

One child has a mass of 24 kg. The other child has a mass of 36 kg. The heavier child causes one
end of the beam to permanently rest on the ground, so that the beam makes an angle of 20 to
the horizontal ground.

What is the moment of the weight of the 24 kg child about the pivot?

A 72 N m B 130 N m C 350 N m D 380 N m

© UCLES 2023 9702/13/O/N/23

 7

12 Two parts of a sailing boat are the mast and the boom. The mast is a vertical rigid beam and the
boom is a horizontal rigid beam. One end of the boom is attached to the mast by a pivot. The
other end of the boom is connected to the mast by a rope, as shown.

rope

mast T

40q
pivot

boom
200 N

The rope is at an angle of 40 to the horizontal and exerts a tension force T on the boom. The
weight of the boom is 200 N. The mass of the boom is uniformly distributed along its length. The
boom is in equilibrium.

What is the magnitude of T ?

A 130 N B 160 N C 260 N D 310 N

13 Full-fat milk is made up of fat-free milk mixed with fat.

A volume of 1.000  10–3 m3 of full-fat milk has a mass of 1.035 kg. It contains 4.00% fat by
volume.

The density of fat-free milk is 1.040  103 kg m–3.

What is the density of fat?

A 1.25  102 kg m–3

B 9.15  102 kg m–3

C 9.28  102 kg m–3

D 1.16  103 kg m–3

14 Which expression for pressure is correct?

A force per unit area

B mass per unit area
C mass per unit volume
D weight per unit volume

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15 A wooden cylinder floats partially submerged in a bath of water. A force F is applied to the
cylinder until it is just fully submerged.

wooden cylinder

water
F

Which statement is not correct?

A Some of the water gains gravitational potential energy.

B The cylinder loses gravitational potential energy.
C Work is done by force F on the cylinder.
D Work is done by the upthrust on the cylinder.

16 A system has a useful power output of 4.0 W and a wasted power of 16 W.

What is the efficiency of the system?

A 5.0% B 20% C 25% D 80%

17 A parachutist is falling towards the ground at a constant speed v. The rate at which she is losing
gravitational potential energy is R.

The acceleration of free fall is g.

What is the mass of the parachutist?

gv R 2R v2
A B C D
R gv v2 2R

18 A copper wire of diameter 1.6 mm is stretched within its limit of proportionality by a tensile force of
430 N.

The Young modulus of copper is 130 GPa.

What is the strain in the wire?

A 4.1  10–4 B 1.3  10–3 C 1.6  10–3 D 5.2  10–3

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19 Compressive forces are applied normally to the end faces of a cylinder of initial length L. The
cylinder is compressed by the forces so that its length decreases to 0.6L. After the compressive
forces are removed, the cylinder’s length increases to 0.8L.

cylinder

L 0.6L 0.8L
before compressive compressive after compressive
forces applied forces applied forces removed

What describes the deformation of the cylinder when its length was 0.6L?

A both elastic and plastic

B elastic only
C plastic only
D neither elastic nor plastic

20 When sound travels through air, the air particles vibrate. A graph of displacement against time for
a single air particle is shown.

displacement

0 time
0 T 2T

Which graph shows how the kinetic energy of the air particle varies with time?

A B
kinetic kinetic
energy energy

0 time 0 time
0 T 2T 0 T 2T

C D
kinetic kinetic
energy energy

0 time 0 time
0 T 2T 0 T 2T

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21 A wave travels on the surface of water. P, Q, R and S are four particles of water on the surface.

The diagram shows the positions of the particles at one instant. The direction of travel of the
wave is from left to right.

direction of wave travel

P

R
Q

Which two particles are about to move upwards?

A P and R B P and S C R and S D Q and S

22 A loudspeaker emits sound of frequency fs. The loudspeaker is attached to a car that moves with
increasing speed directly towards a stationary observer.

Which statement describes the frequency of the sound heard by the observer?

A a frequency greater than fs and increasing

B a frequency greater than fs but decreasing
C a frequency less than fs and decreasing
D a frequency less than fs but increasing

23 Which statement about electromagnetic waves in a vacuum is correct?

A Amplitude is inversely proportional to velocity.

B Frequency is inversely proportional to wavelength.
C Intensity is proportional to amplitude.
D Velocity is proportional to wavelength.

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24 A vertically polarised electromagnetic wave of intensity I0 is incident normally on a polarising

filter. The transmission axis of the filter is at an angle of 30 to the vertical.

The transmitted wave from the first filter is then incident normally on a second polarising filter.
The transmission axis of this filter is at an angle of 90 to the vertical.

transmission axis
30q polarising
filters
transmission axis

vertically polarised
electromagnetic wave

What is the intensity of the wave after passing through the second filter?

A 0 B 0.063 I0 C 0.19 I0 D 0.56 I0

25 Which statement concerning a stationary wave is correct?

A All the particles between two adjacent nodes oscillate in phase.

B The amplitude of the stationary wave is equal to the amplitude of one of the waves creating it.
C The wavelength of the stationary wave is equal to the separation of two adjacent nodes.
D There is no displacement of a particle at an antinode at any time.

26 Stationary sound waves can be formed in the air columns of pipes. One type of pipe is closed at
one end and open at the other end. Another type of pipe is open at both ends.

Which pipe can form a stationary sound wave with the lowest frequency?

A B C D

2L 2L

L L

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27 Water waves in a ripple tank are made to pass through a small gap, as shown.

Which diagram shows the waves after they have passed through the gap?

A B

C D

28 Light of a single wavelength is incident normally on a double slit. The slit separation can be
varied.

A screen is placed a fixed distance away from the double slit. The screen and double slit are
parallel. A pattern of bright interference fringes is observed on a screen.

NOT TO
a SCALE
light

double
slit screen

Which graph best shows the variation of the separation x of the bright interference fringes with
the slit separation a?

A B C D

x x x x

0 0 0 0
0 a 0 a 0 a 0 a

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29 A diffraction grating is used to measure the wavelength of light.

The spacing of the slits in the grating is 1.15  10–6 m. The angle between the first-order
diffraction maxima is 60.0, as shown.

grating

light 60.0q

What is the wavelength of the light?

A 288 nm B 498 nm C 575 nm D 996 nm

30 What could not be used to create an electric current?

A alpha-particles
B beta-particles
C neutrons
D protons

31 What is the definition of the potential difference (p.d.) across a component?

A the energy transferred per unit charge

B the energy transferred per unit current
C the power transferred per unit charge
D the power transferred per unit current

32 The resistance of a filament lamp increases as the current in it increases.

What is the reason for this?

A The charge of each charge carrier increases.

B The potential difference across the filament decreases.
C The power dissipated by the filament decreases.
D The temperature of the filament increases.

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33 A battery of electromotive force (e.m.f.) 12 V and negligible internal resistance is connected to a

fixed resistor of resistance 40  and a thermistor of resistance RT, as shown.

40 :

12 V

RT

Initially, the temperature of the thermistor is 15 C and the current in the circuit is 0.10 A.

The temperature of the thermistor then changes, which causes the current to increase to 0.12 A.

How does the temperature of the thermistor change and what is RT at the new temperature?

temperature RT at new
of thermistor temperature / 

A increases 60
B decreases 60
C increases 100
D decreases 100

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34 A cell of electromotive force (e.m.f.) 3.0 V and internal resistance 0.50  is connected to a
variable resistor, a voltmeter and an ammeter, as shown. The resistance of the variable resistor is
varied.

The reading on the ammeter I and the reading on the voltmeter V are recorded.

3.0 V
0.50 :

A
V

Which graph shows how V varies with I ?

A B
0.50 3.0
V/V V/V

0 0
0 6.0 0 0.5
I/A I/A

C D
3.0 6.0
V/V V/V

0 0
0 6.0 0 3.0
I/A I/A

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35 Three resistors, R1, R2 and R3, are connected in parallel to a cell. The currents in the resistors are
I1, I2 and I3. The potential differences across the resistors are V1, V2 and V3. The current in the
cell is I0. The potential difference across the cell is V0, as shown.

V0

I0
V1

I1 R1
V2

I2 R2
V3

I3 R3

Which equation can be obtained by applying Kirchhoff’s second law to the circuit?

A I0 = I1 = I2 = I3

B I0 = I1 + I2 + I3
C V0 = V1 = V2 = V3
D V0 = V1 + V2 + V3

36 Three resistors, each of resistance R, are connected in a network, as shown.

X Y
R R

The total resistance between points X and Y is 8.0 .

What is the value of R ?

A 2.7  B 4.0  C 5.3  D 12 

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37 A potentiometer and a driver cell of electromotive force (e.m.f.) E are used to measure the e.m.f.
of a new cell.

A sliding contact at P is moved along a resistance wire QR until the reading on the galvanometer
is zero.

driver cell
E

Q R
P

new cell

What is an essential requirement for the e.m.f. of the new cell to be measured accurately?

A The e.m.f. of the driver cell must be less than the e.m.f. of the new cell.
B The galvanometer must have a large resistance.
C The internal resistance of the new cell must be zero.
D The resistance per unit length of the wire QR must be constant.

38 The table shows the number of nucleons and the total number of particles (protons, neutrons and
electrons) in neutral atoms of four nuclides W, X, Y and Z.

number of total number

nucleons of particles

W 19 30
X 19 31
Y 21 32
Z 22 31

Which two nuclides are isotopes of each other?

A W and X B W and Y C X and Z D Y and Z

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39 When a sample of a radioactive isotope decays by -particle emission, the -particles emitted
have a single discrete energy.

When a sample of a radioactive isotope decays by – particle emission, the – particles emitted
have a continuous range of energies.

What is the explanation for this?

A An antineutrino is emitted with a – particle but not with an -particle.

B An antineutrino is emitted with an -particle but not with a – particle.

C The -particles have much more energy than the – particles.

D The – particles have much more energy than the -particles.

40 Some particles are a combination of three quarks.

Which combination of quarks does not result in a particle with a charge of either +1.6  10–19 C or
zero?

A up, down, down

B up, strange, strange
C up, up, down
D up, up, up

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