Bitsat - FST-05 (2023-24)
Bitsat - FST-05 (2023-24)
Competishun
52/6, Opposite Metro Mas Hospital, Shipra Path, Mansarovar
Date: 08/05/2024
Time: 3 hours Max. Marks: 390
BITSAT-FST-5 (2023-24)
Physics
Single Choice Question
c) d)
Q2 A uniform rope of length l lies on a table. If the coefficient of friction is μ, then the
maximum length of the part of this rope which can overhang from the edge of the
table without sliding down is
a) b) c) d)
Q4 In a pure silicon (nt = 1016/m3) crystal at 300 K, 1021 atoms of phosphorus are added
per cubic meter. The new hole concentration will be
a) 10 21 per m 3 b) 10 19 per m 3 c) 10 11 per m 3 d) 10 5 per m 3
Q5 One mole of a monoatomic ideal gas is mixed with one mole of a diatomic ideal gas.
The molar specific heat of the mixture at constant volume is
a) 8 b) c) 2R d) 2.5R
Q6 The length of second's hand in a watch is 1 cm. The change in velocity of its tip in 15
seconds is
a) Zero b) c) d)
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Q8 According to Newton, the viscous force acting between liquid layers of area A and
velocity gradient is given by Find Dimension of n.
Q9 Two planets revolve round the sun with frequencies N1 and N2 revolutions per year. If
their average orbital radii be R1 and R2 respectively, then is equal to
a) b) c) d)
Q10 The force required to take away a flat circular plate of radius 2 cm from the surface of
water, will be (the surface tension of water is 70 dynelcm)
a) 280 πdyne b) 250 πdyne c) 140 πdyne d) 210 πdyne
Q11 The volume of an ideal gas is 1 litre and its pressure is equal to 72 cm of mercury
column. The volume of gas is made 900 cm3 by compressing it isothermally. The
stress of the gas will be
a) 8 cm (mercury) b) 7 cm (mercury) c) 6 cm (mercury) d) 4 cm (mercury)
Q13 In the figure a carbon resistor has bands of different colours on its body as mentioned
in the figure. The value of the resistance is
Q14 The capacity of a condenser is 4 × 10–6 farad and its potential is 100 volts. The energy
released on discharging it fully will be
a) 0.02 Joule b) 0.04 Joule c) 0.025/Joule d) 0.05 Joule
Q15 Coefficient of real expansion of mercury is 0.18 × 10–3/°C. If the density of mercury
at 0°C is 13.6 gm/cc. its density at 473 K is
a) 13.11 gm/cc b) 26.22 gm/cc c) 52.11 gm/cc d) None of these
Q16 According to Kepler's second law, the radius vector to a planet from the sun sweeps
out equal areas in equal intervals of time. This law is a consequence of the
conservation of......
a) Angular momentum b) linear momentum
c) Energy conservation d) all are correct
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Q17 Figure here shows an incident pulse P reflected from a rigid support. Which one of A,
B, C, D represents the reflected pulse correctly
a) b)
c) d)
Q18 In Young's double slit experiment, the fringes are displaced by a distance x when a
glass plate of one refractive index 1.5 is introduced in the path of one of the beams.
When this plate in replaced by another plate of the same thickness, the shift of fringes
is (3/2)x. The refractive index of the second plate is
a) 1.75 b) 1.50 c) 1.25 d) 1.00
Q19 The moment of inertia of a ring about one of its diameters is 1. What will be its
moment of inertia about a tangent parallel to the diameter?
a) 4 I b) 2 I c) d) 3 I
Q20 In the hydrogen atom, the electron is making 6.6 × 1015 r.p.s. If the radius of the orbit
is 0.53 × 10–10 metre then magnetic field produced at the centre of the orbit is
a) 140 Tesla b) 12.5 Tesla c) 1.4 Tesla d) 0.14 Tesla
Q21 The displacement–time graph for two particles A and B are straight lines inclined at
angles of 30° and 60° with the time axis. The ratio of velocities of VA : VB is
a) 1 : 2 b) c) d) 1 : 3
Q22 At the height 80 m, an aeroplane is moving with 150 m/s. A bomb is dropped from it
so as to hit a target. At what distance from the target should the bomb be dropped
(given g = 10 m/s2)
a) 605.3 m b) 600 m c) 80 m d) 230 m
Q23 A S.H.M. has amplitude ' a' and time period T. The maximum velocity will be
a) b) c) d)
Q24 A coil having an area A0 is placed in a magnetic field which changes from B0 to 4B0
in a time interval t. The e.m.f. induced in the coil will be
a) b) c) d)
Q25 A force of 100 dynes acts on mass of 5 gm for 10 sec. The velocity produced is
a) 2 cm/sec b) 20 cm/sec c) 200 cm/sec d) 2000 cm/sec
Q26 A man weighing 80 kg is standing in a trolley weighing 320 kg. The trolley is resting
on frictionless horizontal rails. If the man starts walking on the trolley with a speed of
1 m/s, then after 4sec his displacement relative to the ground will be
a) 5 m b) 4.8 m c) 3.2 m d) 3.0 m
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Q29 A beam of metal supported at the two ends is loaded at the centre. The depression at
the centre is proportional to
a) Y 2 b) Y c) d)
Q30 Two wires of same material have length L and 2L and cross–sectional areas 4A and A
respectively. The ratio of their specific resistance would be
a) 1 : 2 b) 8 : 1 c) 1 : 8 d) 1 : 1
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Chemistry
Single Choice Question
Q31 A compound on treatment with NaOH followed by addition of AgNO3 produce white
precipitate at room temperature the precipitate is soluble in NH4OH. The compound is
identified as
a) vinyl chloride b) benzyl chloride c) chlorobenzene d) ethyl bromide
a) low temp., high pressure and catalyst b) low temp., low pressure and catalyst
c) high temp., high pressure and catalyst d) high temp., low pressure and catalyst
Q35
Y is identified as
Q37 For which of the following sets of four quantum numbers, an electron will have the
highest energy?
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
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at constant temperature, is
a) b) c) d)
Q42 Which of the following ion has the highest magnetic moment?
a) Sc 3+ b) Zn 2+ c) Mn 2+ d) Ti3+
Q44 On adding 0.750gm of compound in 25gm of solvent lowered the freezing point of the
solvent by 0.502°C. The molecular wt. of the substance is [the molecular depression
constant = 50.2°C per 100gm of solvent]
a) 100 b) 200 c) 300 d) 400
.
The EMF for the cell reaction
will be
a) b) c) d)
Q48 Both ethane and methane can be obtained in one step reaction from
a) CH 3 OH b) C 2 H 5 OH c) CH 3 Br d) C 2 H 4 .
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Q49 If two moles of an ideal gas at 273°C occupy a volume of 44.8 lit., then pressure is
a) 1 atm b) 2 atm c) 3 atm d) 4 atm
c) d)
Q51
For the reaction,
2 moles of A and 3 moles of B are allowed to react. If the equilibrium constant is 4 at
400° C, then the mole of C at equilibrium is
a) 1 b) 2.4 c) 3.6 d) 4
Q53 H2 + CI2 → 2HCl, ΔH = –194 kJ. in the above reaction the heat of formation of HCl
is
a) +97 kJ b) –97 kJ c) +107 kJ d) –107 kJ
Q54 Which of the following reacts with chloroform and base to form phenyl isocyanide.
a) phenol b) benzene c) nitrobenzene d) aniline
Q56 Primary amine reacts with carbon di sulphide in presence of excess of mercuric
chloride and produce isothiocyanate. This reaction is known as
a) Hoffmann bromide reaction b) Hoffmann mustard oil reaction
c) Carbylamine reaction d) Per kin's reaction
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Q59 The reaction that does not give benzoic acid as the major product is
a) b)
c) d)
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English
Single Choice Question
Q61 In the given question, the given statement is "An annually conducted nationwide
survey by a leading health research organization shows a continuing marked decline
in the use of illegal drugs like hashish and charas by high school seniors over the last
five years."
Which of the following, if true, would provide most support for concluding from the
survey results described above that the use of illegal drugs by people below the age of
20 is declining?
a) Another survey found an increase in the rate of smoking amongst the O high
school seniors.
b) In the past, high school seniors were consistently the population group most likely
to use illegal drugs and most likely to use them heavily.
c) The percentage of high school seniors who use illegal drugs is consistently very
similar to the percentage of all people below the age of 20 who use illegal drugs.
d) Both (2) and (3).
Q62 Most citizens are very conscientious about observing a law when they can see the
reason behind it. For instance, there has been very little need to actively enforce the
recently implemented law that increased the penalty for godmen duping people of
their money by playing with their emotions. This is because citizens are very
conscientious about duping someone in the name of religion, as it leaves their
religious gurus with a bad name.
Which of the following statements would the author of this passage be most likely to
believe?
a) The increased penalty alone is a significant motivation for most w citizens to
obey the law.
b) There are still too many inconsiderate citizens in the society.
c) Godmen should not be allowed to play with the emotions of the people.
d) Society should make an effort to teach citizens the reasons for its laws
Q63 Directions: In the question given below, a sentence with a blank is given. Choose the
alternative that completes the sentence grammatically and contextually.
As you sow ____ shall you reap.
a) when b) as c) like d) so
Q64 Directions: In the question given below, a sentence with a blank is given. Choose the
alternative that completes the sentence grammatically and contextually.
The pages of the book ____ by Ravi were lying on the floor.
a) torn off b) torn away c) torn of d) torn in
Q65 Find out the one word among the options which can not be formed by using the letters
of the word given in the question.
DEVASTATING
a) DATING b) VAST c) STING d) TEARING
Q66 Identify the type of word that is underlined in the given sentence.
It's sheer rubbish.
a) Noun b) Pronoun c) Adjective d) Verb
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Q67 Out of the four alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the
given word.
Spruce
a) Fat b) Natty c) Clear d) Happy
Q68 In the following question, a word is followed by four options. You have to choose the
option that is similar in meaning to the given word.
Rescind (to repeal)
a) Canel b) Enjoy c) Praise d) Receive
Q70 Every sentence (given below) is divided into three sections marked A, B, and C. Read
the sentence carefully and mark the section that contains an error. If there is no error
in the sentence, mark (D).
I declared (A)/that all will go wrong (B)/without her. (C)/no error. (D)
a) A b) B c) C d) D
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Logical Reasoning
Single Choice Question
Q71 A shop has 239 toys. Seventy more toys were brought with them and 152 of them
were sold. The number of toys left was ____.
a) 239 + 70 – 152 b) 239 – 70 – 152 c) 239 + 70 + 152 d) 239 – 70 + 152
Q72 Select the missing number based on the given related pair of numbers. 158 : 384 ::
140 : ?
a) 150 b) 248 c) 260 d) 348
Q74 Identify the next number in the series 2, 7, 17, 32, 52, 77, ___.
a) 107 b) 98 c) 101 d) 92
Q76 Four words have been given out of which three are alike in some manner, while the
fourth one is different.
Choose the word which is different from the rest.
a) Tibia b) Cortex c) Cranium d) Cerebellum
Q77 Pointing towards A, B said, he is the only brother of my father's wife. Who is A to B?
a) Maternal uncle b) father c) Paternal Uncle d) Nephew
Q79 DIRECTIONS: In each of the following questions, four alternatives are given, out of
which three are alike in a certain way while one is different. Choose the odd one.
a) Jupiter b) Saturn c) Venus d) Sun
Q80 Find the odd word/letters/number pair/number from the given alternatives.
a) 24 – 1614 b) 270 – 569 c) 120 – 4325 d) 162 – 6930
Q81 Sumit is facing east. He hears a sound and turns 135° in the anti-clockwise directions.
Then he turns 90° in the clockwise direction. Which direction is he facing now?
a) North b) East c) North-east d) South-east
Q82 Directions: Read the given information carefully and answer the questions given
below:
Megha walks 10 km towards North. She turns right and walks 15 km. She turns right
and walks 20 km. She turns right and walks 15 km. How far fin km) is she from her
starting point?
a) 15 b) 5 c) 10 d) 20
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Q83 Directions: In the following question, a piece of paper is folded and cut as shown
below in the question figures. From the given answer figures, indicate how it will
appear when opened.
Question Figures:
Answer Figures:
a) A b) B c) C d) D
Q84 A word is represented by only one set of numbers as given in any one of the
alternatives. The sets of numbers given in the alternatives are represented by two
classes of alphabets as in two Matrixes given below. The columns and rows of Matrix
I are numbered from 1 to 5 and that of Matrix II are numbered from 6 to 10. A letter
from these matrices can be represented first by its row and next by its column e.g., 'A'
can be represented by 11, 23 etc. and 'G' can be represented by 67, 78, 75 etc.
Similarly, you have to identify the set for the word given below:
BEE
Q85 If in the certain word 'DICKINSON' is written as '357950210' and DIPP' is written as
'3566', then write 'PICNIC using the same code?
a) 657507 b) 560757 c) 650757 d) 657057
Q86 A series is given with one term missing. Select the correct alternative from the given
ones that will complete the series.
a) vwx b) sap c) vdp d) vde
Q87 Following question contains six statements, followed by four options of combinations
of any three of the given sentences. Choose the option in which the combinations are
logically related.
(A) All balls are Barbie.
(B) All bats are Barbie.
(C) All bats are balls.
(D) Some bats are Barbie.
(E) Some Barbie are balls.
(F) No ball is Barbie.
a) CDE b) CEF c) ACD d) BEF
Q88 In the following question, various terms of an alphabet series are given with one or
more terms missing as shown by (?). Choose the missing terms out of the given
alternatives.
M, N, O, L, R, I, V,?
a) A b) E c) F d) H
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Q89 Select that combination of the given parts which can fit in to each other to form an
equilateral triangle.
a) b)
c) d)
Q90 Six surfaces of a dice are shown below. Which will be the opposite of four dots
pointed face?
a) 2 b) 4 c) 5 d) 3
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Mathematics
Single Choice Question
Q92
If f(a + b – x) = f(x) , then is equal to
a) b)
c) d)
Q93 The locus of the mid point of a chord of the circle x2 + y2 = 4 which subtends a right
angle at the origin, is
a) x + y = 2 b) x 2 + y 2 = 1 c) x 2 + y 2 = 2 d) x + y = 1
Q95 The minimum value of cos 2θ + cos θ for all real values of θ is
a) b) 0 c) –2 d) –3
Q97
If , then
a) b)
c) d) None of these
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Q98
a)
has a local maxima at x = 0 and x =
b)
has a local minima at x =
c)
has a local minima at x = and a local maxima at x = 0
d)
has a local minima at x = 0 and a local maxima at x =
Q99 The total number of permutation of n (n > 1) different things taken not more than r at
a time, when each thing may be repeated any number of times, is
a) 1 + n + n 2 + ... n r–1 b) 1 + n + n 2 + ….. n r
c) n + n 2 + n 3 + ..... + n r d) None of these
Q100 If p ⇒ (g r) is False, then the truth values of p, g, r are respectively, (where T is True
and F is False)
a) T, F, F b) F, T, T c) F, F, F d) T, T, F
Q102
If x is so small that x3 and higher powers of x maybe neglected, then
may be approximated as
a) b) c) d)
Q104
is equal to
a) 2 b) –1 c) zero d) Does not exist
Q105 The number of value(s) of x in the interval [0, 5π] satisfying the inequation 3sin2x –
7sinx + 2 < 0 such that sinx is an integer is
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) Infinite
Q106
Evaluate:
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Q107 A purse contains 4 copper and 3 silver coins and another purse contains 6 copper and
2 silver coins. One coin is drawn from any one of these two purses. The probability
that it is a copper coin is
a) b) c) d)
Q108 Which of the following is the simplified expression of sin (tan–1 x), for any real
number x
a) b) c) d)
Q109 Six boys and six girls sit along a line alternately in x ways and along a circle (again
alternatively in y ways), then
a) x = y b) y = 12x c) x = 10y d) x = 12y
Q110
For which positive integer n, is the ratio an integer –
Q112 The relation R is defined in the set {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6} as R = {(a, b) : b = a + 1}, then
a) R is neither reflexive nor symmetric nor transitive
b) R is neither reflexive nor symmetric but transitive
c) R is not reflexive but symmetric and transitive
d) R is reflexive, symmetric and transitive
Q113 Rolle's Theorem is valid for the given function f(x) = x3 + bx2 + cx, 1 ≤ x ≤ 2 at the
point x = , then values of b and c are respectively
a) b = 8, c = –5 b) b = –5, c = 8 c) b = 5, c = –8 d) 6 = –5, c = –8
Q115 Set of real values of k if the equation x2 – (k – 1)x + k2 = 0 has exactly one root in (1,
2) is
a) (2, 4) b) c) {3} d) ϕ
Q116 If A(2, –3) and B(–2, 1) are two vertices of a triangle and third vertex moves on the
line 2x + 3 y = 9, then the locus of the centroid of the triangle is
a) 2x – 3y = 1 b) x – y = 1 c) 2x + 3y = 1 d) 2x + 3y = 3
Q117 If PSQ is a focal chord of the ellipse , a > b, then the harmonic mean of SP
and SQ is
a) b) c) d)
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Q118 The angle of elevation of the sun, when the shadow of the pole is times the height
of the pole, is
a) 60° b) 30° c) 45° d) 15°
Q120
lf f(x) = xn + 4, then the value of is
a) 2n–1 b) 2n + 4
c) d) None of these
Q121 If → → → → → →
⃗ b,⃗ c ⃗
a, and p ,⃗ q ,⃗ r ⃗ are reciprocal system of vectors, then a × p + b × q + c × r
equals
a) ⃗ ⃗
⃗ c
[a b ]
b) (p ⃗ + q ⃗ + r )
⃗ c) 0 d) ⃗
a⃗ + b + c ⃗
Q122 Let f(x) = Max{x + 1, |x| + 1}. Then f(x) is non differentiable at
a) 0.5 b) 1 c) 0 d) 2
Q123
For what value of x, the matrix, is singular
a) x = 1, 2 b) x = 0.2 c) x = 0, 1 d) x = 0, 3
Q124 If the latus rectum of a hyperbola through one focus, subtends an angle 60° at the
other focus, then its eccentricity is _____
a) b) c) d)
Q125
The solution of with y(1) = 0 is
a) b) c) d)
Q126 The equation to the circle with center (2, 1) and touching the line 3x + 4y = 5 is
a) x 2 + y 2 – 4x – 2y + 5 = 0 b) x 2 + y 2 – 4x – 2y – 5 = 0
c) 2 2 d) x 2 + y 2 – 4x – 2y – 4 = 0
x + y – 4x – 2y + 4 = 0
Q127 The mean of a set of observations is . If each observation is divided by, α ≠ 0 and
then is increased by 10, then the mean of the new set is
a) b) c) d)
Q128
The value of is equal to-
a) 1 b) –i c) –1 d) i
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Q130 The area of the region bounded by the straight lines x = 0, x = 2 and the curves y = 2x,
y = 2x – x2 is
a) b)
sq. units sq. units
c) d)
sq. units sq. units
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Answer Key
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Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. B C A C C D B B D A
Que. 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. A A D A A A D A D B
Que. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. D A D A C C A C C D
Que. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans. B C B A B A B B C B
Que. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
Ans. B C B C D D C C B D
Que. 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans. B D B D D A D A C D
Que. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
Ans. C D D A D C B A B B
Que. 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Ans. A D B A D A A D D D
Que. 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
Ans. C C D B D C A B B A
Que. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
Ans. A B C C A A A D C A
Que. 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
Ans. C D A D C B D B D D
Que. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
Ans. B A B B D C A B D B
Que. 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
Ans. C C D B D C C B C A
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