0% found this document useful (0 votes)
60 views384 pages

Class 8 Science Objective

Uploaded by

cyeazy
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
0% found this document useful (0 votes)
60 views384 pages

Class 8 Science Objective

Uploaded by

cyeazy
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
You are on page 1/ 384

MCQ for Class 8 Science Chapter 3

Synthetic Fibres and Plastics


Class 8 Science students should refer to the following
multiple-choice questions with answers for Chapter 3
Synthetic Fibres and Plastics in Class 8.

Chapter 3 Synthetic Fibres and Plastics MCQ


Questions Class 8 Science with Answers
Question. Polyester is made of repeating units of chemical
called as -
(A) Ester
(B) Cotton
(C) Ether
(D) None of these

Answer : A

Question. Petroleum is the main source of -


(A) Silk
(B) Plastic
(C) Cotton
(D) None of these
Answer : B

Question. Photochromic glass contains -


(A) Silver bormide
(B) Silver iodide
(C) Silver chloride
(D) All the above
Answer : D

Question. Which of the following is used in endoscopy-


(A) Optical fibres
(B) Glass fibres
(C) Glass wool
(D) None of these

Answer : A

Question. Purple-blue coloured glass is obtained by the


addition of -
(A) Chromium salts
(B) Ferrous oxide
(C) Cobalt salts
(D) None of the above
Answer : C

Question. Terra Cotta is -


(A) Kaolin
(B) Clay
(C) Unglazed primitive pottey
(D) Porcelain
Answer : C

Question. Which of the following is a natural polymer-


(A) Cellulose
(B) Nylon
(C) Polythene
(D) PVC
Answer : C

Question. Which of the following have long-chains of


protein -
(A) Jute
(B) Cotton
(C) Silk and wool
(D) All the above

Answer : C

Question. Thermocole is made from -


(A) Polythene
(B) Polystyrene
(C) Perspex
(D) Teflon

Answer : B

Question. Which of the following is thermoplastic -


(A) Polythene
(B) Bakelite
(C) Both the above
(D) None of the above

Answer : A

Question. Contacts lenses are made from -


(A) Polyvinyl chloride
(B) Polystyrene
(C) Lucite
(D) Teflon

Answer : C

Question. Which of the following are thermosets-


(A) Formica and Melamine
(B) Polystyrene
(C) Polythene
(D) Thermocole

Answer : A

Question. Which of the following is similar to cotton ?


(A) Nylon
(B) Dacron
(C) Rayon
(D) Terylene

Answer : C

Question. Which of the following do not soften upon


heating -
(A) Lucite
(B) Bakelite
(C) Polystyrene
(D) Polythene
Answer : B

Question. Which of the following does not produce


insoluble carbonates in hard water-
(A) Soap
(B) Detergents
(C) Both the above
(D) None of these

Answer : B

Question. Which of the following is alkaline in nature -


(A) Soap
(B) Detergents
(C) Both the above
(D) None of these

Answer : B

Question. The correct formula of washing soda is -


(A) Na2CO3
(B) Na2CO3.H2O
(C) Na2CO3.9H2O
(D) Na2CO3.10H2O

Answer : D
Question. If tartaric acid is not added in baking powder, the
cake will taste bitter due to the presence of -
(A) Sodium hydrogen carbonate
(B) Carbon dioxide
(C) Sodium carbonate
(D) All of these

Answer : C

Question. Soda-acid fire extinguisher extinguishes the fire


-
(A) By cutting the supply of air
(B) by removing the combustible substance
(C) By raising the ignition temperatue
(D) None of these

Answer : A

Question. The simplest formula of bleaching powder is -


(A) Ca(OCl2)
(B) CaOCl2
(C) CaOCl2.H2O
(D) Ca(OCl2).2H2O

Answer : B
Question. Which of the following fibre is natural polymer:
(a) rayon
(b) cotton
(c) polyester
(d) polythene

Answer : B

Question. PET is a very familiar form of


(a) chemical
(b) monomer
(c) polyester
(d) polyphenyl

Answer : C

Question. Which Of The Following Is Not A Common


Property Of Plastic?
(a) Non-reactive
(b) Light in weight
(c) Durable
(d) Good conductor of electricity

Answer : D

Question. The Material Similar To Silk In Appearance Is:


(a) Nylon
(b) Rayon
(c) Polyester
(d) Terylene

Answer : B

Question. Raw materials for preparation of synthetic fibres


are obtained from
(a) coal
(b) petroleum
(c) natural gas
(d) all of these

Answer : D

Question. In Which Of The Following Statement Is Or Are


Incorrect?
(a) Cotton fabrics do not wrinkle easily.
(b) Teflon is used to make non-stick cookware.
(c) Rayon is prepared by using wood pulp.
(d) Nylon is used for making parachute and stockings.

Answer : A

Question. Which of the following is not thermoplastics:


(a) acrylic
(b) polyethylene
(c) polystyrene
(d) melamine

Answer : D

Question. Cellulose is made up of a large number of


………………… units.
(a) glucose
(b) fructose
(c) protein
(d) none of these

Answer : A
Question. The plastic used for making water pipes :
(a) Melamine
(b) PVC
(c) Polyester
(d) Bakelite

Answer : B

Question. Which of the following is a bad conductor of


electricity?
(a) Plastic
(b) Copper
(c) Steel
(d) Brass

Answer : A

Question. A chain of small chemical units combined to


form a large single unit is called ____
(a) Polymer
(b) Poly
(c) Polythene
(d) None of the above

Answer : A

Question. Polythene and PVC are examples of


(a) Bio degradable substance
(b) Thermosetting plastics
(c) Thermoplastics
(d) Rayon
Answer : C

Question. Plastics which when moulded once, cannot be


softened by heating. Such plastics are called ____
(a) Polythene
(b) Thermoplastics
(c) Polyster
(d) Thermosetting plastics

Answer : D

Question. Polycot is made by mixing two types of fibres


namely
(a) Silk + Cotton
(b) Polythene + cotton
(c) Silk + Polyester
(d) Polyester + Cotton

Answer : D

Question. The 4 R Principle is


(a) Reduce, Reuse, Recycle, Recover
(b) Remember, reduce, Recycle, Rejoice
(c) Repeat, Rejoice, recycle, reduce
(d) None of the above

Answer : A

Question._____________ is an example of natural polymer


(a) Rayon
(b) Cellulose
(c) Nylon
(d) All of the above
Answer : B

Question. Which of the following is Non-biodegradable


(a) Woolen clothes
(b) Plastic bag,
(c) Cotton cloth
(d) Wood

Answer : B

Question. Bakelite and Melamine are examples of


(a) Thermosetting plastics
(b) Silk
(c) Nylon
(d) Rayon

Answer : A

Question. Fire proof plastic uniform worn by fire fighters


has a coating of _____ to make it fire resistant.
(a) Nylon
(b) Rayon
(c) Melamine plastic
(d) Silk

Answer : C

Question. The coating on modern non- stick cookware and


electric iron is of
(a) Terrycot
(b) Rayon
(c) Polyester
(d) Teflon
Answer : D

Question. Which of the following is a natural fibre?


(a) Wool
(b) Nylon
(c) PVC
(d) Polythene

Answer : A

Question. Which of the following is a characteristic of


plastics?
(a) Electrical conductors
(b) Heat conductors
(c) Biodegradable
(d) Non-biodegradable

Answer : D

Question. Pick The Synthetic Fibre Out Of The Following:


(a) Cotton
(b) Nylon
(c) Jute
(d). Wool

Answer : B

Question. The plastic which cannot be recycled is


(a) jute
(b) rayon
(c) petrochemicals
(d) bakelite
Answer : D

Question. Which of the following are made from


thermosetting plastic?
(a) Bottles
(b) Crockery
(c) Shoes
(d) Handbags

Answer : B

Question. Wood pulp is used to make


(a) plastic
(b) wool
(c) jute
(d) rayon

Answer : D

Question. Which of the following once set do not soften on


heating:
(a) thermoplastic
(b) thermosetting plastic
(c) polvthene
(d) none of these

Answer : B

Question. Which of the following is natural fibre obtained


from plants?
(a) Cotton
(b) Wool
(c) Rayon
(d) Ketone

Answer : A

Question. Which of the following cannot be recycled:


(a) plastic toys
(b) plastic bowls
(c) plastic covering on electric wires
(d) ball point pens

Answer : C

Question. Polymer present in plants is:


(a) cellulose
(b) nylon
(c) rubber
(d) P.V.C.

Answer : A

Question. Synthetic fibres are:


(a) strong
(b) durable
(c) hining
(d) all of these

Answer : D

Question. Which of the following garbage is biodegradable:


(a) broken plastics things
(b) fruit peels
(c) cement
(d) iron wastes

Answer : B

Question. Paheli Is Writing Some Statements. She Wants


To Know In Which Of The Following Statements Is Or Are
Incorrect?
(a) The fabric terry wool is obtained by mixing terylene and
wool.
(b) It is risky to wear synthetic clothes while working in the
kitchen.
(c) Most of the plastics are biodegradable.
(d) Synthetic fibres do not melt on heating.

Answer : D

Question. Which of the following is obtained from hair of


an animal:
(a) nylon
(b) silk
(c) cotton
(d) wool

Answer : D

Question. A synthetic fibre resembling wool is:


(a) rayon
(b) nylon
(c) acrylic
(d) none of these

Answer : C
Question. Which of the following is natural fibre?
(a) Rayon
(b) Nylon
(c) Polyester
(d) Cotton

Answer : D

Question. Which of the following is used to make non-stick


cookwares:
(a) polyester
(b) teflon
(c) rayon
(d) nylon

Answer : B

Question. Polycot Is Obtained By Mixing:


(a) Nylon and wool
(b) Polyester and wool
(c) Nylon and cotton
(d) Polyester and cotton

Answer : D

Question. Which of the following fibre has highest tensile


strength?
(a) Cotton
(b) Silk
(c) Rayon
(d) Nylon

Answer : D
Question. PET is form of:
(a) steel
(b) glass
(c) polyester
(d) nylon

Answer : C

More Science Study Material


(/taxonomy/term/323)

 Chapter 01 Crop Production and Management
MCQ for Class 8 Science Chapter 2
Microorganisms Friend or Foe
Class 8 Science students should refer to the following
multiple-choice questions with answers for Chapter 2
Microorganisms Friend or Foe in Class 8.

Chapter 2 Microorganisms Friend or Foe MCQ


Questions Class 8 Science with Answers
Chapter 2

Microorganisms: Friend or Foe

Question. Diseases like polio and chicken pox are caused


by _______

a) Bacteria

b) Fungi

c) Virus

d) Worms

Answer: C

Question. Examples of Multicellular Microorganism are

a) Algae, Bacteria

b) Bacteria and Fungi


c) Bacteria and Viruses

d) Algae and Fungi

Answer: D

Question. Some medicines obtained from micro-organisms


are applied to kill or stop the growth of disease-causing
microorganisms. Such medicines are called ______.

a) Antibodies

b) Antibiotics

c) Antiseptics

d) All of the above

Answer: B

Question. A common preservative used in jam and pickles


is

a) Sodium benzoate

b) Nitric acid

c) Sodium Chloride

d) Copper Sulphate

Answer: A
Question. Rhizobium found in root nodules of leguminous
roots is an

a) Atmospheric Carbon fixer

b) Atmospheric Oxygen fixer

c) Atmospheric Nitrogen fixer

d) All of the above

Answer: C

Question. Lactobacillus is commonly found in

a) Cake

b) Curd

c) Bread

d) All of the above

Answer: B

Question. The process of conversion of sugar into alcohol


by yeast is called

a) Fermentation

b) Pasteurisation

c) Alcoholism
d) All of the above

Answer: A

Question. . The pores in the bread is due to gas bubbles of

a) Oxygen

b) Nitrogen di oxide

c) Nitrogen

d) Carbon di oxide

Answer: D

Question. Deliberately injecting weak microbes into a


healthy body and producing antibodies to fight against
strong microbes is called _______

a) Medication

b) Antibiotics

c) Vaccination

d) All of the above

Answer: C

Question. The microbe for Malaria is carried by


a) Male Anopheles mosquito

b) Female Anopheles Mosquito

c) Male Aedes mosquito

d) Female Aedes mosquito

Answer: C

Question: Microorganisms are

a) Multi-cellular

b) Unicellular

c) Unicellular and multi-cellular

d) None of the options

Answer: A

Question: Penicillium is a

a) Fungus

b) Algae

c) Bacteria

d) Yeast

Answer: A
Question: Malaria Is caused by

a) Protozoa

b) Virus

c) Algae

d) Bacteria

Answer: A

Question: Rhizobium becteria

a) Help in nitrogen fixation

b) Help in digestion

c) Cause diseases

d) All of these

Answer: B

Question: Scientist who discovered fermentation is

a) Louis pasteur

b) Alexander fleming

c) John mendal

d) Edward jenner

Answer: A
Question: Amoeba belongs to

a) Protozoa

b) Algae

c) Fungi

d) Virus

Answer: A

Question: Mushroom belongs to

a) Fungi

b) Algae

c) Virus

d) None of the options

Answer: C

Question: Amount of nitrogen in the atmosohere is

a) 0.78

b) 0.58

c) 0.68

d) 0.88
Answer: A

Question: Vaccine for small pox is discorvered by

a) Edward jenner

b) Louis pasteur

c) Alexander fleming

d) John mendal

Answer: A

Question: Spyrogyra is

a) A fungi

b) An algae

c) A protozoa

d) A bacteria

Answer: A

Question. In Pasteurisation the milk is heated to about:


(a) 100°C
(b) 50°C
(c) 70°C
(d) 110°C
Answer : C

Question. Scientist who discovered fermentation is


(a) Alexander Fleming
(b) Louis Pasteur
(c) John Mendal
(d) Edward Jenne

Answer : B

Question. What helps in the rise of bread or dosa dough?


(a) Heat
(b) Grinding
(c) Growth of yeast cells
(d) Low pressure

Answer : C

Question. Yeast is not used in the preparation of :


(a) bread
(b) alcohol
(c) dhokla
(d) antibiotic

Answer : D

Question. Which of the following enzymes is secreted by


bacteria that can digest cellulose?
(a) Amylase
(b) Cellulase
(c) Lipase
(d) Protease
Answer : B

Question. Examples of Multicellular Microorganism are


(a) Algae, Bacteria
(b) Bacteria and Fungi
(c) Bacteria and Viruses
(d) Algae and Fungi

Answer : D

Question. Virus reproduce:


(a) only outside the cells of the host organisms
(b) only inside the cells of the host organisms
(c) both inside and outside the cells of the host organisms
(d) none of these

Answer : B

Question. A plant disease called citrus canker is caused by


a _________ .
(a) Virus
(b) Protozoa
(c) Bacteria
(d) Fungi

Answer : C

Question. What process takes place when yeast is added to


grape juice and left for a week?
(a) Decomposition
(b) Fermentation
(c) Distillation
(d) Oxidation
Answer : B

Question. Malaria is spread by:


(a) plasmodium
(b) female anapheles mosquito
(c) male anapheles mosquito
(d) none of these

Answer : B

More Science Study Material


(/taxonomy/term/323)

 Chapter 01 Crop Production and Management
MCQ for Class 8 Science Chapter 1 Crop
Production and Management
Class 8 Science students should refer to the following
multiple-choice questions with answers for Chapter 1 Crop
Production and Management in Class 8.

Chapter 1 Crop Production and Management MCQ


Questions Class 8 Science with Answers
Chapter 1

Crop Production and Management

Multiple Choice Questions

Question. The Crops which are grown in rainy season are


called
a) Rabi crop
b) Seasonal crop
c) Monsoon crop
d) Kharif crop

Answer: D

Question. Rabi Crops are grown in _______ season


a) Summer
b) Spring
c) Winter
d) rainy

Answer: C
Question. Now a days seed is sown in the field using
a) Seed Tractor
b) Seed drill
c) Seed Tiller
d) Seed Plough

Answer: B

Question. Which of the following description is true for


describing ‘fertiliser’
a) Used in large quantity
b) Organic in nature
c) Does not cause pollution
d) Produced in factories

Answer: D

Question. Rhizobium (a Bacteria) which fixes atmospheric


nitrogen are found in nodules growing in

a) Roots of leguminous plants


b) Leaves of leguminous plants
c) Stem of Leguminous plants
d) All of the above.

Answer: A

Question. Before sowing the seeds, it is necessary to break


soil to the size of grains to get better yield. The main tools
used for such are
a) Tractor, Hoe, Seed drill
b) Bullock, tiller, tractor
c) Plough, Hoe, Cultivator
d) Plough, Seed Drill, Tractor

Answer: C

Question. Growing different crops alternately on the same


land is technically called
a) Crop Alternation
b) Crop Rotation
c) Crop Revolution
d) Crop Change

Answer: B

Question. Moat, Dhekli and Rahat are different


a) Traditional methods of cultivation
b) Traditional methods of Weeding
c) Traditional methods of Seed sowing
d) Traditional methods of irrigation

Answer: D

Question. In the harvested crop the grain seed is separated


from the chaff. This process id called ___
a) Threshing
b) Seeding
c) Ploughing
d) Weeding

Answer: A
Question. The farm appliance ‘Combine’ is a combined
a) Plough and Harvester
b) Seed drill cum Thresher
c) Harvester and Thresher
d) Harvester cum Sprayer

Answer: C

Question. The ideal months for harvesting kharif crop are


(a) June/July
(b) August/September
(c) September/October
(d) November/December

Answer : C

Question. In which of the following methods of irrigation


rotating nozzles are used?
(a) Moat
(b) Drip system
(c) Chain Pump
(d) Sprinkler system

Answer : D

Question. The process of separating grains from chaff is


known as:
(a) threshing
(b) harvesting
(c) winnowing
(d) transplantation

Answer : A
Question. Which of the following can make their own food:
(a) humans
(b) animals
(c) plants
(d) all of these

Answer : C

Question. Which of the following nutrients replenishes the


soil after growing leguminous plants?
(a) Nitrogen
(b) Oxygen
(c) Phosphorus
(d) Potassium

Answer : A

Question. The tool used for removing weeds is:


(a) plough
(c) hoe
(b) leveller
(d) none of these

Answer : D

Question. Watering the crops is called


(a) sowing
(b) manuring
(c) tilling
(d) irrigation

Answer : D
Question. Pesticides are used to destroy:
(a) pests
(b) weeds
(c) crops
(d) none of these

Answer : A

Question. Which of the following is not a fertiliser:


(a) urea
(b) cow-dung
(c) potash
(d) super phosphate

Answer : C

Question. The farm appliance ‘Combine’ is a combined


(a) Plough and Harvester
(b) Seed drill cum Thresher
(c) Harvester and Thresher
(d) Harvester cum Sprayer

Answer : C

Question. The crops which are sown in the rainy season are
called:
(a) kharif crops
(b) rabi crops
(c) zayed crops
(d) none of these

Answer : A
Question. Animals like horse, donkey that carries load are
called
(a) Drought species
(b) Load carrying Animals
(c) Dairy Animals
(d) Draught Animal

Answer : B

Question.At home to store grains we use:


(a) wet neem leaves
(b) dried neem leaves
(c) dried mango leaves
(d) dried peepal leaves

Answer: B

Question. What is NPK?


(a) Fertiliser
(b) Manure
(c) Weedicide
(d) Weed

Answer : A

Question. Rhizobium bacteria is present in the nodules of


the roots:
(a) wheat
(b) leguminous plants
(c) maize
(d) onion

Answer : D
Question. Before sowing the seeds, it is necessary to break
soil to the size of grains to get better yield. The main tools
used for such are
(a) Tractor, Hoe, Seed drill
(b) Bullock, tiller, tractor
(c) Plough, Hoe, Cultivator
(d) Plough, Seed Drill, Tractor

Answer : C

Question. Which of the following is an important factor for


the growth of crops?
(a) Temperature
(b) Flumidity
(c) Rainfall
(d) All of the above

Answer : D

Question. The supply of water to crops at different


intervals is called
(a) watering
(b) irrigation
(c) harvesting
(d) none of these

Answer : B

Question. The process of loosening and turning of the soil


is called:
(a) sowing
(b) tilling or ploughing
(c) levelling
(d) none of these

Answer : D

Question. The process of separating grain from chaff is


called
(a) Threshing
(b) Weeding
(c) Sowing
(d) Winnowing

Answer : C
MCQ for Class 8 Science Chapter 18
Pollution of Air and Water
Class 8 Science students should refer to the following
multiple-choice questions with answers for Chapter 18
Pollution of Air and Water in Class 8.

Chapter 18 Pollution of Air and Water MCQ


Questions Class 8 Science with Answers
Chapter 18 POLLUTION OF AIR AND WATER

Question: Chlorofluorocarbon is used in


a) All
b) Refrigerators
c) Air conditioners
d) Perfumes

Answer: A

Question: Pollution of water is responsible for


a) All
b) Oil refineries
c) Paper factories
d) Sugar mills

Answer: A

Question: CNG is a
a) Clean fuel
b) Polluted fuel
c) Harmful fuel
d) None of the options
Answer: A

Question: What causes pollution


a) Human activities
b) Trees
c) Human activities and trees
d) None of the options

Answer: A

Question: The percentage of nitrogen is


a) 0.78
b) 0.21
c) 0.12
d) 0.87

Answer: A

Question: Green House gas is


a) Carbon dioxide
b) Nitrogen
c) Oxygen
d) Methane

Answer: B

Question: Air pollution causes


a) Respiratory problems
b) Global warming
c) Soil erosion
d) None of the options

Answer: A
Question: Most polluted river in the world is
a) Ganga
b) Yamuna
c) Cavery
d) Chenab

Answer: A

Question: The Taj Mahal is being affected by


a) Air pollution
b) Noise pollution
c) Water pollution
d) None of the options

Answer: C

Question: Highest percentage of air consists of


a) Nitrogen
b) Oxygen
c) Carbon dioxide
d) Argon

Answer: A

Question. The reason for greenhouse effect is:


(a) Decrease in quantity of CO2 in atmosphere
(b) Increase in quantity of CO2 in atmosphere
(c) Decrease in quantity of oxygen in atmosphere
(d) Increase in quantity of oxygen in atmosphere

Answer : B
Question. Trapping of unescapable radiations of sun in
Earth’s environment is called:
(a) Earth warming
(b) Greenhouse warming
(c) Greenhouse effect
(d) None of these

Answer : C

Question. Which Of The Following Is Not A Way To


Conserve Water?
(a) Replace
(b) Reduce
(c) Reuse
(d) Recycle

Answer : A

Question. Heat is reflected from the earth's surface and


trapped in the atmosphere. Which phenomena is being
referred to?
(a) Global warming
(b) Ozone depletion
(c) Greenhouse effect
(d) Thermal pollution

Answer : C

Question. The following gas is not an air pollutant:


(a) Carbon dioxide
(b) Oxides of nitrogen
(c) Sulphur dioxide
(d) Oxygen

Answer : D

Question. Air pollution causes


(a) Global warming
(b) Respiratory problems
(c) Soil erosion
(d) None of these

Answer : B

Question. Incomplete burning of fuels produces:


(a) Carbon dioxide
(b) Carbon particles
(c) Carbon monoxide
(d) None of these

Answer : C

Question. One Of The Following Does Not Contribute In


Producing Acid Rain. This One Is:
(a) Nitrogen dioxide
(b) Nitrogen monoxide
(c) Carbon monoxide
(d) Sulphur dioxide

Answer : C

Question. Most polluted river in the world is:


(a) Yamuna
(b) Cavery
(c) Chenab
(d) Ganga

Answer : D

Question. Most polluted river in the world is:


(a) Yamuna
(b) Cavery
(c) Chenab
(d) Ganga

Answer : D

Question. A poisonous gas emitted by Mathura Refinery


and other industries in and around Taj which cause acid
rain is:
(a) Carobon monoxide
(b) Methane
(c) Sulphur dioxide
(d) Oxygen

Answer : C

Question. Pollution of water is responsible for


(a) Oil refineries
(b) Paper factories
(c) Sugar mills
(d) All

Answer : D
Question. The water that is purified and fit for drinking is
called
(a) Potable water
(b) Pure water
(c) Hard water
(d) Saline water

Answer : A

Question. From which of the following bad effects does the


ozone layer in our atmosphere protect us?
(a) Carbon dioxide
(b) CFC's
(c) The sun's ultraviolet rays
(d) All of the above

Answer: C

Question. Identify the gas associated with greenhouse


effect.
(a) Carbon dioxide
(b) Oxygen
(c) Nitrogen dioxide
(d) Sulphur dioxide

Answer : A

Question. Instead of the fossil fuels for our energy


requirements we can use :
(a) Solar energy
(b) Hydropower
(c) Wind energy
(d) All of these

Answer : D

Question. Carbon monoxide in vehicle exhaust causes


a) Increased oxygen carrying capacity of RBCs
b) Reduced Nitrogen carrying capacity of RBCs
c) Reduced oxygen carrying capacity of RBCs
d) Reduced carbon carrying capacity of RBCs

Question. Smog =
a) Smoke in dog’s stomach
b) Smoke + fog
c) Smoke dog
d) frog in fog

Question. The gas used in refrigerating appliance causing


serious damage to ozone is
a) MFCs
b) CFCs
c) LPCs
d) DPCs

Question. Acid rain mainly contains


a) Sodium chloride
b) Sulphur di oxide and Nitrogen di oxide
c) Hydrochloric acid
d) Carbon tetra chloride
Question. Marble cancer is caused by
a) bacteria
b) virus
c) Acid rain
d) Alkali rain

Question. Greenhouse effect is


a) Painting house green in colour
b) Wearing green colour dress
c) Having green room in the house
d) Sun’s heat is trapped and not allowed to escape

Question. Greenhouse gases includes


a) CO2, Methane, Nitrous oxide
b) CO2, Argon, Nitrous oxide
c) CO2, Methane, Chlorine
d) CO2, Methane, Flourine

Question. _____ is a commonly used chemical method for


purifying water.
a) Brominization
b) Flourination
c) Filtration
d) Chlorination

Question. Ganga Action Plan is associated with


a) Increase of fish culture in the Ganges
b) Reduce Ganga water pollution
c) Construct more bridges over the Ganges
d) Increase water transport on the Ganges
Question. Van Mahotsav is
a) Planting trees in January
b) Cutting trees in January
c) Cutting trees in July
d) Planting trees in July

More Science Study Material


(/taxonomy/term/323)

 Chapter 01 Crop Production and Management

CBSE Class 8 Science Crop Production and Management


MCQs (/mcq-science-cbse-class-8-science-crop-
production-and-management-mcqs-296581.html)
MCQ for Class 8 Science Chapter 17
Stars and The Solar System
Class 8 Science students should refer to the following
multiple-choice questions with answers for Chapter 17
Stars and The Solar System in Class 8.

Chapter 17 Stars and The Solar System MCQ


Questions Class 8 Science with Answers
Chapter 17

STARS AND SOLAR SYSTEM

Question. If I am 13 years old, I have gone round the sun


___ times.
a) Never gone round the sun
b) 13
c) 26
d) Shall go round the sun when I shall be 15

Answer : B

Question. The least dense planet is


a) Earth
b) Jupiter
c) Saturn
d) Uranus

Answer : C
Question.____ appears as a bright head with a long tail. The
tail grows in size as it approaches the sun.
a) Asteroid
b) Comet
c) Planet
d) Meteor

Answer : B

4 During a clear night sky, bright light streaks are often


visible. They are called shooting stars. They are actually
a) Falling stars
b) Comet
c) Meteors
d) Planet

Answer : C

5 _____ was the first Indian satellite.


a) INSAT
b) EDUSAT
c) IRS
d) Aryabhatta

Answer : D

6 If Saturn is thrown into an ocean,


a) It will float
b) It will sink
c) It will dissolve
d) It will soak all water

Answer : A
7 It is difficult to observe Mars because
a) It is the smallest planet of this universe
b) It is too far away from our planet
c) It is hidden by the glare of the sun
d) None of the above

Answer : C

8 Ravi was looking for Venus in the sky at midnight. Mohan


laughed at him because Venus
a) Appears 1-3 hours after sunrise or 1-3 hours after sunset
b) Appears 1-3 hours before sunrise or 1-3 hours after
sunset
c) Appears 1-3 hours before sunrise or 1-3 hours before
sunset
d) Appears 1-3 hours after sunrise or 1-3 hours before
sunset

Answer : B

9 Earlier we had 9 planets in our solar system of which one


name has been eliminated as per IAU (2006). The planet is
a) Uranus
b) Neptune
c) Pluto
d) Earth

Answer : C

10 Light Year is
a) Year full of light
b) Year having light work
c) Year which earth shall become lighter
d) Distance travelled by light in 1 year

Answer : D

Question: What is the gap between the orbit of mars and


Jupiter called?

a) Asteroids

b) Comets

c) Meteor

d) Meteorite

Answer: A

Question: The tilting of the earth is responsible for

a) Change of the season

b) Change of days

c) Change of the sun rays

d) None of the options

Answer: A

Question: Stars appear to move from

a) East to west
b) West to east

c) North to south

d) South to west

Answer: A

Question: Which is the largest planet in solar system?

a) Jupiter

b) Mercury

c) Mars

d) Saturn

Answer: A

Question: The first outside orbit of the earth planet is

a) Mars

b) Jupiter

c) Saturn

d) Earth

Answer: A

Question: Which is the farthest planet of solar system?


a) Neptune

b) Jupiter

c) Mercury

d) Earth

Answer: A

Question: Which planet appears to be yellowish?

a) Saturn

b) Asteroids

c) Mars

d) Uranus

Answer: A

Question: On which planet the life exists?

a) Earth

b) Moon

c) Jupiter

d) None of the options

Answer: A
Question: Which is the nearest planet to the sun?

a) Mercury

b) Neptune

c) Mars

d) Earth

Answer: A

Question: Which is the brightest planet in the universe?

a) Venus

b) Mercury

c) Earth

d) Saturn

Answer: A

Question. A group of small stars is called:


(a) Orion
(b) Pleiades
(c) Sirius
(d) The great bear

Answer : B
Question. Which of the following Is not outer planet:
(a) Venus
(b) Saturn
(c) Uranus
(d) Neptune

Answer : A

Question. Consider The Following Statements And Choose


The Incorrect One:
(a) Meteoroids are members of the Solar System because
they revolve around the Sun.
(b) A meteor is called a shooting star because, viewed from
the Earth, it looks like a streak of starlight shooting across
the night sky.
(c) A meteor which does not burn up completely on entering
the Earth’s atmosphere and lands on Earth, is known as
meteorite.
(d) None of the above.

Answer : D

Question. Identify the closest star to our solar system.


(a) Proxima centauri
(b) Sirius
(c) Swati
(d) Ashwini
Answer : A

Question. The brightest object in clear night sky is


(a) Venus
(b) Sun
(c) Moon
(d) Star
Answer : C
Question. Farthest planet of the solar system is:
(a) Neptune
(b) Jupiter
(c) Mercury
(d) Earth

Answer : A

Question. The Planet With A System Of Well-Developed


Rings Encircling It Is:
(a) Jupiter
(b) Venus
(c) Saturn
(d) Neptune

Answer : C

Question. Which planet appears to be yellowish?


(a) Asteroids
(b) Mars
(c) Uranus
(d) Saturn

Answer : D

Question. Stars appear to move from


(a) West to east
(b) East to west
(c) North to south
(d) South to west

Answer : B

Question. Which Of The Following Statement Is Or Are


Incorrect?
(a) Mars is also called the red planet because its surface
appears red.
(b) Jupiter is the biggest planet of our solar system.
(c) Saturn is also made up mainly of hydrogen and helium.
(d) None of the above.

Answer : D

Question. Distance between stars are measured in:


(a) metres
(b) kilometres
(c) light year
(d) None of these

Answer : C

Question. Star appear small because


(a) They are very far
(b) They have dim light
(c) They are smaller than moon
(d) They reflect the Sun
Answer : A

Question. Which Of The Following Is Not A Member Of The


Solar System?
(a) Asteroids
(b) Morning Star
(c) Satellites
(d) Constellation
Answer : D

Question. The Distances Between The Various Celestial


Objects Are Usually Expressed In The Unit Of:
(a) Kilometers
(b) Light minutes
(c) Light years
(d) Light seconds

Answer : C

Question. The various shapes of bright part of moon is


called
(a) Parts of moon
(b) Ring of moon
(c) Cover of moon
(d) Phases of moon
Answer : D
MCQ for Class 8 Science Chapter 16
Light
Class 8 Science students should refer to the following
multiple-choice questions with answers for Chapter 16 Light
in Class 8.

Chapter 16 Light MCQ Questions Class 8 Science


with Answers
Chapter 16

LIGHT

Question. If the angle of incidence of light falling on a


plane mirror is 30degree, what will be the angle of
reflection?
a) 90 degree
b) 60 degree
c) 30 degree
d) 0 degree

Answer: C

Question. When we stand in front of our dressing table, our


left hand seems to be right and right seems to be left. This
is called
a) Left-right confusion
b) Lateral inversion
c) Up -side down phenomenon
d) mirage

Answer: B

Question. Light passing through a prism splits into seven


colours. This is called
a) Dispersion
b) Dissolution
c) Division
d) None of the above

Answer: A

Question. Rainbow is a natural phenomenon showing


a) Reflection
b) Deflection
c) Dispersion
d) Diversion

Answer: C

Question. In the retina of the eye, the area having no


sensory cells is called
a) iris
b) Blind spot
c) cornea
d) Dark spot

Answer: B

Question. If light falls perpendicularly on a plane mirror,


what will be the angle in which it will be reflected?
a) 45 degrees
b) 90 degrees
c) 180 degrees
d) 360 degrees

Answer: B

Question. Which of the following is not a luminous object?


a) sun
b) candle
c) moon
d) Tube light

Answer: C

Question. To make a kaleidoscope we require


a) Three plane mirrors
b) Four plane mirrors
c) Three glass sheets
d) Four glass sheets
Answer: A

Question. In our eye _______cells can sense colour


a) Rod
b) Cone
c) Both rod and cone
d) Neither rod nor cone

Answer: B

Question. An owl can see clearly at night but not day time
because it has
a) More rods and few cones
b) Less rod and more cones
c) More rods and more cone
d) Less rods and less cones

Answer: A

In the following videos we have explained you about the


concept of Light and its properties. Watch this video to
understand the concepts and also post your questions and
comments in the comments section

Part 1
What is Light? - An overview of the propert

Part 2
Reflection of Light - Properties of light (Pa

Question. Which of the following results in diffused


reflection?
(a) Plane mirror
(b) Shiny surface
(c) Silver
(d) Wood

Answer : D

Question. Kaleidoscope is based on the pattern of:


(a) reflection
(b) multiple reflection
(c) spectrum
(d) diffused reflection

Answer : B

Question. If the angle of incidence is 50°, then calculate


the angle between the incident ray and the reflected ray.
(a) 50°
(b) 100°
(c) 130°
(d) 80°

Answer : B

Question. The perpendicular drawn to the reflecting


surface is called
(a) normal
(b) incident ray
(c) reflected ray
(d) none of these

Answer : A

Question. Visually impaired people can read and write


using:
(a) Degital pens
(b) Electronic writer
(c) Braille system
(d) Hearing aids

Answer : C

Question. The angle of reflection is equal to the angle of


incidence
(a) Sometimes
(b) Always
(c) Never
(d) Under special case

Answer : B

Question. Band of seven colours is called


(a) VIBGYOR
(b) dispersion
(c) spectrum
(d) reflection

Answer : C

Question. What is the nature of image formed on the retina


of human eye of an object?
(a) Virtual and erect
(b) Virtual and inverted
(c) Real and erect
(d) Real and inverted
Answer : D

Question. The cells present in the retina of eye and


responding to colour are:
(a) Rod-shaped cells
(b) Both of these
(c) Cones
(d) None of these

Answer : C

Question. Far point of a normal human eye is situated at:


(a) 25 m
(b) 25 mm
(c) 25 cm
(d) Infinity

Answer : D

Question. With what is glass coated in order to convert it


into a mirror?
(a) Silver
(b) Copper
(c) Aluminium
(d) Platinum

Answer : A
Question. What is the name of object through which light
can pass?
(a) Opaque
(b) Translucent
(c) Transparent
(d) Luminous

Answer : C

Question. A mirror has ____ surface.


(a) rough
(b) polished
(c) dark
(d) all of these

Answer : B

Question. Which of the following is not a source of light:


(a) Tubelight
(b) The sun
(c) The moon
(d) Fire fly

Answer : C

Question. Beam of light, bounced back by the surface after


falling on it is called
(a) Reflecting ray
(b) Incident ray
(c) Refracted ray
(d) normal

Answer : A

Question. Which Of The Following Represents The Correct


Statements?
(a) Outer zone of complete combustion is the hottest part
which is blue in colour.
(a) Middle zone of partial combustion is the moderate hot
part which is yellow in colour.
(a) Innermost zone of unburnt wax vapours is least hot
which is black in colour.
(a) All the above

Answer : D

Question. Mohan Is Writing Some Statements, Choose The


Correct Statements And Help Him:
(a) Phosphorus is the only non-metal which catch fire if
exposed to air.
(b) The lowest temperature at which a substance catches
fire is called its ignition temperature.
(c) Combustion is a chemical process in which a substance
reacts with oxygen to give off heat.
(d) All the above

Answer : D
Question. Consider The Following Statements, Choose The
Incorrect One:
(a) The forest fires occur during the hottest summer day.
(b) It is very difficult to burn a heap of dry leaves.
(c) The head of matchstick contains only antimony tri-
Sulphide and potassium chlorate.
(d) All the above

Answer : B

Question. The Substance That Does Not Burn With Flame


Is:
(a) LPG
(b) Camphor
(c) Dry grass
(d) Charcoal

Answer : D

Question. A full length image of a distant tall building can


definitely be seen by using
(a) a concave mirror
(b) a convex mirror
(c) a plane mirror
(d) both concave as well as plane mirror

Answer : B
MCQ for Class 8 Science Chapter 15
Some Natural Phenomena
Class 8 Science students should refer to the following
multiple-choice questions with answers for Chapter 15
Some Natural Phenomena in Class 8.

Chapter 15 Some Natural Phenomena MCQ


Questions Class 8 Science with Answers
Chapter 15

SOME NATURAL PHENOMENA

Question. It is a convention to call the charge acquired by a


glass rod when it is rubbed with silk as __________
a) Negative
b) Positive
c) Neutral
d) Can be any one

Answer: B

Question. A device used to test whether an object is


carrying charge or not is called ______.
a) Electrometer
b) Charge meter
c) Electroscope
d) Chargoscope

Answer: A
Question. During lightning actually _____________ takes
place
a) Electric discharge
b) Electric charging
c) Electric charge accumulation
d) All of the above

Answer: A

Question. During a thunderstorm which action may be


done?
a) Using Telephone having cord
b) Switching on / off electric lights
c) Using a mobile phone
d) None of the above

Answer: C

Question. To protect tall buildings from the damage of


lightning, what can be done?
a) Not to build tall buildings
b) Install lightning conductors
c) Install many TV antennas
d) Have a roof top garden with tall trees

Answer: B

Question. A major earthquake occurred on 26th January


2001 in which part of India?
a) Uri (Kashmir)
b) Mumbai (Maharastra)
c) Guwahati (Assam)
d) Bhuj (Gujarat)

Answer: D

Question. During thunderstorm it is safer to


a) Carry an open umbrella
b) Take shelter under short trees
c) Take shelter under tall trees
d) Stand in open fields

Answer: B

Question. The process of transferring charge from a


charged body to earth is called
a) transferring
b) Processing
c) Charging
d) Earthing

Answer: D

Question. Seismograph is an instrument used to


a) Record strength of wind
b) Record vibrations of earthquake
c) Record lightening
d) Record temperature

Answer: B
Question. The power of an earthquake is expressed in
terms of magnitude on a scale called
a) Righter Scale
b) Quake scale
c) Richter Scale
d) Earth Scale

Answer: C

Question: The charge acquired by a glass rod when it is


rubbed with silk is

a) Positive

b) Negative

c) Negative and positive

d) None of the options

Answer: A

Question: Benjamen Franklin showed lightening in

a) 1752

b) 1725

c) 1527

d) 1572

Answer: A
Question: Sparkers can be seen on electric pole. When
wires become

a) Loose

b) Tight

c) Wrinkle

d) None of the options

Answer: A

Question: Interaction of charges is called

a) Lightening

b) Electrical discharge

c) Earthing

d) Electricity

Answer: A

Question: Lightening occurs due to

a) Electric discharge

b) Rain

c) Wind
d) Lord varuns anger

Answer: A

Question: The shaking of earth is called

a) Earthquake

b) Tsunami

c) Volcano

d) All of these

Answer: A

Question: The like charges

a) Repel each other

b) Attract each other

c) No interaction takes place

d) All of these

Answer: A

Question: Name the resin which produces spark is

a) Amber

b) Gum
c) Gum and amber

d) None of the options

Answer: A

Question. The Electric Nature Of Lightning Was Established


By A Scientist Named:
(a) Isaac Newton
(b) Robert Hooke
(c) Benjamin Franklin
(d) Thales

Answer : C

Question. Which Of The Following Cannot Be Charged By


Friction, If Held By Hand?
(a) A plastic scale
(b) A copper rod
(c) An inflated balloon
(d) A woolen cloth

Answer : B

Question. The like charges


(a) Repel each other
(b) Attract each other
(c) No interaction takes place
(d) All of these

Answer : A
Question. When you touch a charged body, the charge
flows through you into the earth. What is this called?
(a) Induction
(b) Conduction
(c) Capacitance
(d) Earthing
Answer : D

Question. The two objects rubbed against each other:


(a) will gain elections
(b) will lose elections
(c) one will gain electrons and other will lose electrons
(d) noise of these

Answer : C

Question. Static electricity charges can be produced by


(a) Heating
(b) Rubbing
(c) Beating
(d) none of these
Answer : B

Question. The outermost layer of earth is called


(a) Mountain
(b) Core
(c) Crust
(d) Mantle
Answer : C
Question. On rubbing ………………… electricity is produced.
(a) static
(b) curent
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of these

Answer : A

Question. When object is rubbed than it is:


(a) worn out
(b) charged
(c) spoiled
(d) not charged

Answer : B

Question. The Boundaries Of The Earth Plate Are Known


As:
(a) Seismic zone and Fault zone
(b) Seismic zone and Mantle
(c) Mantle zone and Inner core
(d) Fault zone, Mantle and Inner core

Answer : A

Question. Which of the following cannot he charged easily


by fraction:
(a) a plastic scale
(b) a copper rod
(c) an inflated balloon
(d) swollen cloth

Answer : B
Question. Interaction of charges is called:
(a) lightning
(b) electrical discharge
(c) earthquake
(d) earthing
Answer : A

Question. The power of an earthquake is expressed on a


scale called
(a) seismic scale
(b) iron scale
(c) richter scale
(d) large scale

Answer : C

Question. Where is the lightning rod attached to protect the


building from lightning?
(a) On the top of the building
(b) On the bottom of the building
(c) In the middle of the building
(d) All of these

Answer : A

Question. It is a convention to call the charge acquired by a


glass rod when it is rubbed with silk as __________
(a) Negative
(b) Positive
(c) Neutral
(d) Can be any one
Answer : B

Question. Which is the surest test of charge on a body?


(a) Repulsion
(b) Lightning
(c) Combustion
(d) Insulation

Answer : A

Question. Seismograph is an instrument used to


(a) Record strength of wind
(b) Record vibrations of earthquake
(c) Record lightening
(d) Record temperature

Answer : B
MCQ for Class 8 Science Chapter 14
Chemical Effects of Electric Current
Class 8 Science students should refer to the following
multiple-choice questions with answers for Chapter 14
Chemical Effects of Electric Current in Class 8.

Chapter 14 Chemical Effects of Electric Current


MCQ Questions Class 8 Science with Answers
Chapter 14

CHEMICAL EFFECT OF ELECTRIC CURRENT

Question. In LEDs, the longer lead (wire) is always


connected to the _______ terminal
a) negative
b) neutral
c) positive
d) Any terminal

Answer: C

Question. Tap water is a good conductor of electricity while


distilled water is not because
a) Tap water contain salts
b) Distilled water do not contain salt
c) Only a) is correct
d) Both a & b is correct
Answer: D

Question. When electrodes are immersed in water and


electricity passed, the bubbles formed on the positive
terminal is actually _______ gas.
a) Hydrogen
b) Carbon di oxide
c) Oxygen
d) Nitrogen

Answer: C

Question. When electrodes are immersed in water and


electricity passed, the bubbles formed on the negative
terminal is actually _______ gas.
a) Hydrogen
b) Carbon di oxide
c) Oxygen
d) Nitrogen

Answer: A

Question. Why do we add little dilute sulphuric acid to


copper sulphate solution during electroplating?
a) To increase acidity
b) To increase conductivity
c) So that the colour becomes more prominent
d) To burn copper sulphate

Answer: B

Question. A coating of _________is deposited on iron to


protect it from corrosion and formation of rust
a) copper
b) aluminium
c) Zinc
d) silver

Answer: C

Question. Chromium plating is done on many objects such


as car parts, bath taps, kitchen gas stove etc. Why?
a) It does not corrode but prevents scratches
b) It looks beautiful
c) It costs less
d) Articles can be sold at higher price

Answer: A

Question. The process of depositing a layer of any desired


metal on another material by means of electricity is called
___________.
a) Electric plating
b) Electroplating
c) Electric depositing
d) None of the above

Answer: B

Question. Some liquids are good conductors of electricity


and some are poor conductors. Which one is a poor
conductor?
a) Acidic solution
b) Alkaline solution
c) Common Salt solution
d) Distilled water

Answer: D

Question. Tin cans, used for storing food, are made by


electroplating tin onto iron. Why?
a) Tin gives a shiny appearance
b) To make the vessel cheap
c) Tin is less reactive than iron.
d) To make the vessel lighter

Answer: C

Question: Plastic wire is

a) An insulator
b) A conductor

c) An insulator and a conductor

d) None of the options

Answer: A

Question: An electric lamp glows due to

a) Heating effect

b) Chemical effect

c) Magnetic effect

d) None

Answer: A

Question: Electroplating prevents

a) Rusting

b) Current

c) Chemical effect

d) All

Answer: A

Question: Flow of electron is called


a) Electric current

b) Electroplating

c) Electrodes

d) Electrolyte

Answer: A

Question: Distilled water is

a) Poor conductor

b) Good conductor

c) Poor conductor and good conductor

d) None

Answer: A

Question: Poor conductors are

a) All of these

b) Plastics

c) Clothes

d) Wood

Answer: A
Question: Copper wire is a

a) Good conductor

b) Poor conductor

c) Good conductor and poor conductor

d) None of the options

Answer: A

Question: An electrolyte is

a) A liquid that conducts current

b) A metal

c) A solution

d) All of these

Answer: A

Question: Adding common salt to distilled water makes it

a) Good conductor

b) Insulator

c) No

d) Both Good conductor and Insulator

Answer: A
Question: Electroplating is based on

a) Chemical effect of electricity

b) Magnetic effect of electricity

c) Heating effect of electricity

d) Physical effect of electricity

Answer: A

Question. The pure piece of metal which is used to be


plated, is made the
(a) anode
(b) cathode
(c) nematode
(d) posit rode

Answer : A

Question. Which of the following solutions is a good


conductor of electricity?
(a) Glucose solution
(b) Lemon juice
(c) Alcohol solution
(d) Distilled water
(d) Vegetable oil

Answer : B
Question. A sheet of pure copper is used as
(a) cathode
(b) anode
(c) positrode
(d) negatrode

Answer : A

Question. Which of the following non-metals can be


electroplated with copper?
(a) Sodium
(b) Iodine
(c) Silicon
(d) Carbon
(e) Phosphorus

Answer : D

Question. Which of the following is not used for


electroplating any metal?
(a) Gold
(b) Silver
(c) Sodium
(d) Nickel
(e) Copper

Answer : C

Question. Copper wire is a


(a) Good conductor
(b) Poor conductor
(c) Both a and b
(d) None of this

Answer : A

Question. Iron objects can be protected by electroplating


them with
(a) chromium
(b) nickel
(c) zinc
(d) all of these

Answer : D

Question. The substance which is conductor of electricity


is:
(a) rubber
(b) paper
(c) nails
(d) plastic

Answer : C

Question. Which of the following is a good conductor of


electricity:
(a) istilled water
(b) tap water
(c) kerosene
(d) none of these
Answer : B

Question. Which of the following does not conduct


electricity?
(a) Sugar solution
(b) Vinegar solution
(c) Lemon juice solution
(d) Caustic soda solution

Answer : A

Question. Magnetic compass connected In a circuit is used


to check:
(a) magnetism in electric current
(b) slow current
(c) small current
(d) none of these

Answer : C

Question. Waste from an electroplating factory must be


disposed off
(a) in the nearby river
(b) in the nearby pond
(c) in the nearby cornfield
(d) according to the disposal guidelines of Waste
Management Bodies
Answer : D

Question. The cans, used for storing food, are made by


electroplating ……………. on to irons
(a) chromium
(b) zinc
(c) tin
(d) none of these

Answer : C

Question. Adding lime water to tap water makes it:


(a) an electrolyte
(b) electrolysis
(c) no change occur
(d) none of these

Answer : A

Question. Waste from an electroplating factory must be


disposed off
(a) in the nearby river
(b) in the nearby pond
(c) in the nearby cornfield
(d) according to the disposal guidelines of Waste
Management Bodies

Answer : D
MCQ for Class 8 Science Chapter 13
Sound
Class 8 Science students should refer to the following
multiple-choice questions with answers for Chapter 13
Sound in Class 8.

Chapter 13 Sound MCQ Questions Class 8 Science


with Answers

Chapter 13

SOUND

Question. Sound is produced by

a) Non-Vibrating objects only

b) Vibrating and non- vibrating objects

c) Vibration has no relation to sound

d) Vibrating objects only

Answer: D

Question. Sound cannot travel through

a) vacuum

b) air

c) water
d) solids

Answer: A

Question. Vibration is also known as

a) Vibratory motion

b) Translatory motion

c) Oscillatory motion

d) None of these

Answer: C

Question. Frequency is expressed in

a) Kilometer

b) Hertz

c) gram

d) Degree centigrade

Answer: B

Question. The number of oscillations per second is called

a) Amplitude of oscillation

b) Pitch of oscillation
c) Frequency of oscillation

d) None of the above

Answer: C

Question. Above _____ dB the sound becomes physically


painful

a) 60

b) 40

c) 120

d) 80

Answer: D

Question. When the amplitude of vibration is large, sound


produced is

a) No sound

b) feeble

c) loud

d) No relation between amplitude and sound

Answer: C
Question. Human can hear sound in the range of

a) 200-2000 Hz

b) 20-20,000 Hz

c) 2-20000 Hz

d) 2000-200000 Hz

Answer: B

Question. An ultrasound equipment works at frequency

a) Higher than 20,000 Hz

b) Higher than 10,000 Hz

c) Lower than 20,000 Hz

d) Lower than 10,000 Hz

Answer: A

Question. Voice of man is heavy compared to a woman


because

a) Female vocal cord is longer

b) Male vocal cord is shorter

c) Male vocal cord is longer

d) The concept is not related


Answer: C

Question: Noise pollution is harmful for

a) All

b) Human

c) Cat

d) Bird

Answer: A

Question: Sound propagates maximum in

a) Solid

b) Gas

c) Liquid

d) All

Answer: A

Question: Voice box or larynx of human process

a) Sound

b) Wind

c) Loudness
d) None of the options

Answer: A

Question: To an fro motion of an object is called

a) Vibration

b) Waves

c) Amplitude

d) All of these

Answer: A

Question: Sound is kind of

a) Energy

b) Work

c) Force

d) None of the options

Answer: A

Question: The pitch of sound depends on

a) Frequency

b) Amplitude
c) Frequency and amplitude

d) None of the options

Answer: A

Question: Large amplitude of sound vibrations will


produce:

a) Loud sound

b) Meak sound

c) Slow sound

d) Sheark

Answer: A

Question: The voice box is called:

a) Larynx

b) Stomach

c) Heart

d) Mouth

Answer: A

Question: The hearing range of human ear is


a) 20 hz to 20,000 hz

b) Less than 20 hz

c) More than 20,000 hz

d) 20 hz to 25,000 hz

Answer: A

Question: Eardrum is a part of

a) Hearing organ

b) Sound producing organ

c) Skeletal system

d) Reproductive organ

Answer: A

Question. An Object Is Vibrating At 50 Hz. What Is Its Time


Period?
(a) 0.02 s
(b) 2 s
(c) 0.2 s
(d) 20 s

Answer : A
Question. Consider The Following Statements And Choose
The Correct One:
(a) The pitch of a sound depends on the frequency of
vibration.
(b) If the frequency of vibration is low, the sound produced
has a low pitch.
(c) If the frequency of vibration is high, the sound produced
has a high pitch.
(d) All the above.

Answer : D

Question. The pitch of sound depends on


(a) frequency
(b) amplitude
(c) both of these
(d) none of these

Answer : A

Question. When the amplitude is small, the sound


produced is:
(a) loud
(b) feeble
(c) low pitched
(d) none of these

Answer : B

Quesiton. Large amplitude of sound vibrations will


produce:
(a) loud sound
(b) slow sound
(c) meak sound
(d) shreak

Answer : A

Question. Sound waves do not travel through


(a) solids
(b) gases
(c) liquids
(d) vacuum

Answer : D

Question. In sitar sound Is produced by:


(a) beating
(b) rubbing
(c) blowing
(d) plucking

Answer : A

Question. A shehnai produces sound from:


(a) vibrating strings
(b) vibrating membrane
(c) vibrating air column
(d) none of these

Answer : C

Question. Sound:
(a) can travel through vacuum
(b) cannot travel through vacuum
(c) sound can sometimes travel through
(d) none of these vacuum

Answer : B

Question. The Loudness Of Sound Is Determined By Its:


(a) Amplitude of vibration
(b) Ratio of amplitude and frequency of vibration
(c) Frequency of vibration
(d) Product of amplitude and frequency of vibration

Answer : A

More Science Study Material


MCQ for Class 8 Science Chapter 12
Friction
Class 8 Science students should refer to the following
multiple-choice questions with answers for Chapter 12
Friction in Class 8.

Chapter 12 Friction MCQ Questions Class 8


Science with Answers
Chapter 12

FRICTION

Question. It is difficult to walk on an oily floor because


a) Floor gets spoiled
b) There is more resistance
c) Force of friction is high
d) Force of friction is very less

Answer: D

Question. Spring balance is a device used for measuring


the _____________ acting on an object.
a) mass
b) pressure
c) force
d) None of the above

Answer: C
Question. A matchstick struck on a matchbox catches fire
easily because
a) Friction may cause fire
b) Of chemical reaction
c) Force heated the match stick
d) None of the above

Answer: A

Question. Tyres are treaded to


a) look good
b) Increase friction
c) increase its longivity
d) increase weight of the tyre

Answer: B

Question. Lubricants are substances which


a) Increase friction
b) Are used to light fire
c) Reduce friction
d) Are used to put out a fire

Answer: C
Question. Sliding friction is _________ than / to rolling
friction
a) smaller
b) greater
c) equal
d) None of the above

Answer: A

Question. The frictional force exerted by fluids is also


called ______
a) drug
b) drag
c) drop
d) drown

Answer: B

Question. Four children were asked to arrange forces due


to rolling, static and sliding frictions in an increasing order.
Their arrangements are given below. Choose the correct
arrangement.
a) Rolling, Static, Sliding
b) Static, Rolling, Sliding
c) Rolling, sliding, static
d) Sliding, Static, Rolling

Answer: C
Question. A boat or an aeroplane has a pointed or tapering
front / head. Why?
a) To increase the friction of fluid
b) To reduce the friction of fluid
c) To look good
d) For no reason

Answer: B

Question. The sole of the shoes becomes plain after


wearing it for several months. The reason is
a) Wearing out due to friction
b) Wearing out due to no friction
c) Sole is of bad quality
d) None of the above

Answer: A

Question: The shape of the airplane is like a

a) Bird

b) Car

c) Dog

d) All

Answer: A
Question: Rolling friction is smaller than?

a) All of these

b) Sliding friction

c) Static friction

d) Fluid friction

Answer: A

Question: Lubricants ________

a) Reduce friction

b) Increase friction

c) Increase friction and reduce friction

d) None of the options

Answer: A

Question: Friction is a /an_______

a) Evil and foe

b) Evil

c) Foe

d) None of the options


Answer: A

Question: On what force of friction depends?

a) All of these

b) Smoothness of surface

c) Roughness of surface

d) Inclination of surface

Answer: A

Question: Fluid are____

a) Gases and liquids both

b) Gases

c) Liquids

d) None of the options

Answer: A

Question: What kind of substances are known as lubricants

a) Decrease friction

b) Increase friction

c) Increase or decrease friction


d) None of the options

Answer: A

Question: Friction is a __________

a) Contact force

b) Non-contact force

c) Magnetic force

d) None of the options

Answer: A

Question: Which one of these characteristics does a


smooth surface has?

a) Less frictional force

b) More frictional force

c) Sometimes less and sometimes more force

d) All of these

Answer: A

Question: Complete the sentence. Friction always


____________
a) Opposes the motion

b) Helps the motion

c) Helps the motion and opposes the motion

d) None of the options

Answer: A

Question. Ball-bearings are used to convert static friction


into:
(a) drag
(b) sliding friction
(c) rolling friction
(d) none of these

Answer : C

Question. Which one of these characteristics does a


smooth surface has?
(a) Less frictional force
(b) More frictional force
(c) Sometimes less and sometimes more force
(d) All of above

Answer : A

Question. Lubricants ________


(a) Increase friction
(b) Reduce friction
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None

Answer : B

Question. Smooth surface has


(a) less frictional force
(b) more frictional force
(c) sometimes less and sometimes more force
(d) all the above

Answer : A

Question. Which Of The Following Is Not An Advantage Of


Fiction?
(a) It enables drawing to be made on paper
(b) It enables fallen things to be picked up
(c) It enables rubber pads to be rubbed off
(d) It enables vehicles to move on ground

Answer : C

Question. A Toy Car Released With The Same Initial Speed


Will Travel Farthest On:
(a) Muddy
(b) Polished marble surface
(c) Cemented surface
(d) Brick surface
Answer : B

Question. What type of a force is friction?


(a) Contact force
(b) Non-contact force
(c) Electrostatic force
(d) Magnetic force

Answer : A

Question. Which Of The Following Will Produce The


Maximum Friction?
(a) Rubbing of sand paper on glazed paper
(b) Rubbing of sand paper on glass table top
(c) Rubbing of sand paper on aluminium frame
(d) Rubbing of sand paper on sand paper

Answer : D

Question. Which of the following is characteristic of


friction?
(a) It is a non-contact force
(b) It works on only resting body
(c) It works opposite to direction of motion
(d) It can change the direction of motion

Answer : C
Question. Friction the rehuye motion between Io surfaces
In contact.
(a) favours
(b) opposes
(c) is
(d) none of these

Answer : B

More Science Study Material


(/taxonomy/term/323)

 Chapter 01 Crop Production and Management
MCQ for Class 8 Science Chapter 11
Force and Pressure
Class 8 Science students should refer to the following
multiple-choice questions with answers for Chapter 11
Force and Pressure in Class 8.

Chapter 11 Force and Pressure MCQ Questions


Class 8 Science with Answers
Question. A push or pull on an object is called
a) Pressure
b) Push-pull
c) Force
d) All of the above

Answer: C

Question. If two forces act in the opposite directions on an


object, the net force acting on it is the
a) Sum of the two forces
b) difference between the two forces
c) Multiplication of the two forces
d) Division of the two forces

Answer: B
Question. Which of the following is proper example(s) to
explain that force on an object may change its shape
a) A ball of dough rolled into chapati
b) Pressing a rubber ball kept on table
c) Making model using clay
d) All of the above

Answer: D

Question. A ball rolling on the ground slows down and


finally stops. This is because of
a) Force
b) Less force applied
c) Friction
d) None of the above

Answer: C

Question. Force of friction always acts on moving objects


and its direction shall be ____
a) On any direction
b) Along the direction of motion
c) Perpendicular to the direction of motion
d) Opposite to the direction of motion

Answer: D
Question. If In a tug-o-war, when two teams are pulling a
rope, and the rope does not move towards any team, it
implies that
a) Equal force is being applied in the same direction
b) Equal Force is being applied in opposite direction
c) No force is applied in any direction
d) Cannot be explained

Answer: B

Question. An example of a non- contact force is


a) Force exerted by us to lift a bucket
b) Push a stationary car
c) Force exerted by magnet
d) Hit a cricket ball for a 6 run

Answer: C

Question. Pressure =
a) Area / force on which it acts
b) force / area on which it acts
c) Volume / force on which it acts
d) Force / volume on which it acts

Answer: B
Question. Gravity is
a) Repulsive
b) Attraction + Repulsive force
c) Attractive force
d) Not a force

Answer: C

Question. A batsman hits the ball for a boundary past the


bowler i.e. four runs. The batsman thus
a) Changes the direction & speed of the ball
b) Does not change the direction but speed only
c) Does not change the speed but direction only
d) Does not change either direction or speed

Answer: A

Question: Leaves or fruits fall on the ground due to

a) Gravitational force

b) Magnetic force

c) Electostatic force

d) Muscular force

Answer: A

Question: Force acts on an object may change


a) All of these

b) Direction

c) Shape

d) Speed

Answer: A

Question: Magnetic force is

a) Non contact force

b) Contact force

c) Contact force and non contact force

d) None of the options

Answer: A

Question: When two forces act in opposite directions, then


net force acting two forces

a) Difference bwteen two factors

b) Sum of two factors

c) Sum of two factors and difference bwteen two factors

d) None of the options

Answer: A
Question: The force between two charged bodies is called

a) Electrostatic force

b) Muscular force

c) Gravitational force

d) Magnetic force

Answer: A

Question: The strength of force is expressed by?

a) Magnitude

b) Weight

c) Mass

d) Longitudinal force

Answer: A

Question: What is state of motion?

a) Both by the state of rest or motion

b) Position of rest

c) Position of motion

d) None of the options


Answer: A

Question: What is force?

a) Pull and push both

b) Pull

c) Push

d) None of the options

Answer: A

Question. Force acts on an object may change


(a) direction
(b) shape
(c) speed
(d) all of above

Answer : D

Question. The pressure exerted by a liquid:


(a) decreases with depth
(b) does not change with depth
(c) increases with depth
(d) is different in different directions at he same depth

Answer : C
Question. The weight of air that every square centimetre of
any surface carries is:
(a) 1 kg
(b) 10 kg
(c) 1 gm
(d) 100 kg

Answer : A

Question. Two objects repel each other. This repulsion


could be due to
(a) frictional force only
(b) electrostatic force only
(c) magnetic force only
(d) either a magnetic or an electrostatic force

Answer : D

Question. State of motion is described by


(a) Position of rest
(b) Position of motion
(c) Both by the state of rest or motion
(d) None of these

Answer : C

Question. A push or pull on an object is called


(a) Gravitation
(b) Pressure
(c) Push-pull
(d) Force

Answer : A

Question. 1 kilogram weight is equal to


(a) 98 N
(b) 9.8 N
(c) 0.98 N
(d) 0.098 N

Answer : B

Question. A man walking on the street slips on a banana


skin because:
(a) it is sticky
(b) his foot crushes it
(c) at that point there is very little friction
(d) all of these.

Answer : C

Question. A When does a body float on water?


(a) When no force is acting on it.
(b) When the net force acting on the body is zero
(c) When there is a gravitational pull.
(d) When there is friction between the body and the water

Answer : B
Question. Force acting on per unit area is called
(a) non-contact forces
(b) contact forces
(c) force
(d) pressure

Answer : D

Question. State of motion is described by


(a) Position of rest
(b) Position of motion
(c) Both by the state of rest or motion
(d) None of these

Answer : C

Question. The instrument used of measure atmospheric


pressure is:
(a) mercury barometer
(b) manometer
(c) pressure meter
(d) none of these

Answer : A

Question. Force is a :

(A) Vector quantity


(B) Scalar quantity
(C) Both (A) & (B)
(D) None of these
Answer: A

Question. When an object undergoes acceleraton:


(A) Its speed always increases
(B) Its velocity always increases
(C) It always falls towards the earth
(D) A force always acts on it
Answer: D

Question. External forcees are:


(A) Always balanced
(B) Never balanced
(C) May or may not be balanced
(D) None of these
Answer: C

Question. The ent force acting on a body of mass 1


kg moving with a uniform velocity of 5 ms–1 is;
(A) 5 N
(B) 0.2 N
(C) 0
(D) None of these
Answer: C

Question. How may dynes are equal to 1 N ?


(A) 106
(B) 104
(C) 105
(D) 103
Answer: C

Question. A force can :


(A) Change the direction of a moving body
(B) Change the state of rest or uniform motion of a body
(C) Change the shape of body
(D) All of the above
Answer: D

Question. SI unit of force is :


(A) dyne
(B) newton
(C) gf.
(D) can’t say
Answer: B

Question. If a rock is brought from the surface of the


moon.
(A) Its mass will change
(B) Its weight will change, but not mass
(C) Both mass and weight will change
(D) Its mass and weight will remain the same
Answer: B

Question. A body is moving with certain velocity towards


right.
A force of 5N is applied on it towards right and a force of 6
N is applied on it towards left then:
(A) Speed of body increases towards right
(B) Speed of body increases towards left
(C) Speed of body remains the same
(D) Speed of body decreases
Answer: D

Question. How much force is required to lift a mass of


100g:
(A) 10 N
(B) 1 N
(C) 100 N
(D) 1000 N
Answer: B

Question. A force can be completely described by


(A) Its magnitude
(B) Its direction
(C) Its magnitude and direction
(D) Neither magnitude nor direction
Answer: C

Question. When a body is stationary:


(A) There is no force acting on it
(B) The forces acting on it are not in contact with it.
(C) The combination of forces acting on it balance each
other
(D) The body is in vacuum
Answer: C

Question. If the normal reaction Rbetween the two


surfaces in contact is double what happen to
the coefficient of friction.
(A) Double
(B) Halved
(C) Unchanged
(D) Depend on the nature of surface.
Answer: A

Question. A stretching force of 10 N is applied at one


end of a spring balnce and an equal stretching force is
applied at the other end at the same time.
What will be reading of the balance ?
(A) 0 N
(B) 5 N
(C) 10 N
(D) 20 N
Answer: D

Question. Which of the following statements are true ? No


net force acts on:
(A) A drop of rain falling vertically with a constant speed
(B) A cork floating on water
(C) A car moving with constant velocity on rough road
(D) A body moving in a circular path at constant speed
Answer: D
Question. Which is not a non-contact force:
(A) Gravitational
(B) Eleectrostatic
(C) Magnetic
(D) Frictional
Answer: D

Question. 1 dyne is equal to :


(A) 104 N
(B) 105 N
(C) 10–5 N
(D) 10–4 N
Answer: C

Question. 1 Newton is a force which produces:


(A) An acceleration of 1 ms–2 in a body of mass 1g.
(B) An acceleration of ms–2 in a body of mass1kg
(C) AN acceleration of 1 cms–2 in a body of mass 1kg
(D) An acceleration of ms–2 in a body of mass 10g.
Answer: B

Question. When a boy weighing 30 kgf sits at one end of a


4 m long see-sew, it gets depreessed at this end. It can be
brought to the horizontal position if a man weighing 20 kgf
sits at :
(A) The opposite end of the see-sew
(B) 1.5 meter distance on the side of the boy
(C) 1.5 meter distance on the side opposite to the boy.
(D) The center of gravity of the whole system.
Answer: B

Answer: B

Question. Force changes ……………… of an object


(a) volume
(b) speed
(c) density
(d) none
Answer : B

Question. Which Of The Following Is Not A Non-Contact


Force?
(a) Electrostatic force
(b) Gravitational force
(c) Frictional force
(d) Magnetic force
Answer : C
Question. During Dry Weather, While Combing Hair,
Sometimes We Experience Hair Flying Apart. The Force
Responsible For This Is:
(a) Force of gravity.
(b) Electrostatic force.
(c) Force of friction.
(d) Magnetic force.
Answer : B

Question. A Pressure Of 10 KPa Acts On An Area Of 0.3


M2. The Force Acting On The Area Will Be:
(a) [A] 3000 N
(b) 30 N
(c) 3 N
(d) 300 N
Answer : A

Question. Gravity is the property of ……………..


(a) earth above
(b) every object
(c) moon above
(d) none
Answer : B

Question. Two Boys A (Left Side) And B (Right Side) Are


Applying Force On A Block. If The Block Moves Towards
The Right, Which One Of The Following Statements Is
Correct?
(a) Magnitude of force applied by A is greater than that of B.
(b) Magnitude of force applied by A is smaller than that of
B.
(c) Net force on the block is towards A.
(d) Magnitude of force applied by A is equal to that of B.
Answer : A

Question. Which One Of The Following Forces Is A Contact


Force?
(a) Force of gravity
(b) Force of friction
(c) Magnetic force
(d) Electrostatic force
Answer : B

Question. If two forces act in the opposite directions on an


object, the net force acting on it is the
(a) Sum of the two forces
(b) difference between the two forces
(c) Multiplication of the two forces
(d) Division of the two forces
Answer : B

Question. A Force Can Produce Many Effects. Choose The


Correct Statements:
(a) A force can change the speed of a moving object.
(b) A force can change the direction of a moving object.
(c) A force can change the shape and size of an object.
(d). All the above
Answer : D
Question. When We Press The Rubber Sucker On A Flat,
Smooth Surface. A Rubber Sucker Stays Attached Firmly
To A Flat Surface Due To:
(a) Gravity of the earth inside
(b) Low atmospheric pressure inside
(c) High atmospheric pressure inside
(d) High electrostatic force creates inside
Answer : B
Question. Which of the following is the action-at-distance
force ?

(A) muscular force


(B) frictional force
(C) magnetic force
(D) mechanical force

Answer : C

Question. The force exerted by one object on another by


virtue of their masses is
(A) magnetic force
(B) electrostatic force
(C) gravitational force
(D) frictional force

Answer : C

Question. The standard unit of force is


(A) metre/second
(B) newton
(C) metre/second2
(D) gram-weight

Answer : B

Question. A spring balance is used for measuring


(A) weight
(B) speed
(C) acceleration
(D) mass

Answer : D

Question. A force applied on a moving body may


(A) bring it to rest
(B) increase its speed
(C) decrease the speed
(D) all of the above

Answer : D

Question. Earth always pulls everything towards it due to


(A) muscular force
(B) mechanical force
(C) gravitational force
(D) electrostatic force
Answer : C

Question. A cart being carried by a horse is an example of


(A) muscular force
(B) mechanical force
(C) gravitational force
(D) electrostatic force

Answer : B

Question. If you press an inflated balloon, it deforms due to


a type of
(A) contact force
(B) non-contact force
(C) gravitational force
(D) none of these

Answer : A

Question. Force exerted by the muscless is known as


(A) mechanical force
(B) gravitational force
(C) electrostatic force
(D) muscular force

Answer : D

Question. A hockey player uses his hockey stick –


(A) To push the ball
(B) To pull the ball
(C) To change its direction
(D) All of these

Answer : D

Question. A force when applied brings change in –


(A) Direction of motion of the body
(B) Speed of moving body
(C) Shape of the body
(D) Any of these

Answer : D

Question. The force responsible for the wearing out of the


car tyres is –
(A) Frictional force
(B) Gravitational force
(C) Magnetic force
(D) Muscular force

Answer : A

Question. The force you will use to collect the iron


nails scattered on a sandy ground is –
(A) Frictional force
(B)Gravitational force
(C) Magnetic force
(D) None of these

Answer : C

Question. The force you use to stretch a rubber band is –


(A) Frictional force
(B)Gravitational force
(C) Magnetic force
(D) Muscular force

Answer : B

Question. The SI unit of force is


(A) metre
(B) newton
(C) pascal
(D) second

Answer : B

Question. A contact force cannot act through


(A) empty space
(B) touching
(C) touching with a metal rod
(D) touching with a wooden rod

Answer : A
Question. A force that opposes the motion of one surface
sliding over another is called
(A) friction
(B) newton
(C) lubrication
(D) ball bearing

Answer : A

Question. The force exerted by a charged body on another


charged or uncharged body is known as
(a) Magnetic force
(b) Gravitational force
(c) Electrostatic force
(d) Muscular force

Answer : C

Question. The force exerted by a charged body on another


char
(a) gravitational force
(b) electrostatic force
(c) non-contact force
(d) contact force

Answer : B
Question. A charged balloon attaches to a wall because of
______
(a) Muscular force
(b) Electrostatic force
(c) Magnetic force
(d) Gravitational force

Answer : B

Question. A spring balance is used for measuring


(a) mass
(b) weight
(c) pressure
(d) speed

Answer : B

Question. The strength of force is expressed by?


(a) weight
(b) mass
(c) magnitude
(d) longitudinal force

Answer : C

Question. A boat comes to rest if we stop rowing it due to:


(a) gravitation force
(b) force of friction
(c) muscular force
(d) none of these

Answer: B

Question. Which of the following actions describe pushing


force?
(a) Kicking
(b) Lifting
(c) Picking
(d) Opening

Answer : A

Question. The force exerted by the earth to pull the object


towards itself is called
(a) electrostatic force
(b) gravitational force
(c) muscular force
(d) contact force

Answer : B

Question. The ratio of force, acting perpendicular to the


area, on which it acts is known as ________.
(a) Force
(b) Friction
(c) Presuure
(d) Density
Answer : C

Question. The force involved in falling an apple from a tree


is:
(a) Magnetic force
(b) Contact force
(c) Electrostatic force
(d) Gravitational force

Answer : D

Question. The pressure exerted by the air is known as:


(a) air pressure
(b) gas pressure
(c) atmospheric pressure
(d) none of these

Answer : C

Question. Pushing a rock from a hill top is an example of:


(a) muscular force
(b) magnetic force
(c) frictional force
(d) electrostatic force

Answer : A
Question. By decreasing the contact area the pressure:
(a) is decreased
(b) remain same
(c) is increased
(d) none of these

Answer : C

More Science Study Material


(/taxonomy/term/323)

 Chapter 01 Crop Production and Management
MCQ for Class 8 Science Chapter 10
Reaching the Age of Adolescence
Class 8 Science students should refer to the following
multiple-choice questions with answers for Chapter 10
Reaching the Age of Adolescence in Class 8.

Chapter 10 Reaching the Age of Adolescence


MCQ Questions Class 8 Science with Answers
Chapter 10

REACHING THE AGE OF ADOLESCENCE

Question. The period of life, when the body undergoes


changes, leading to reproductive maturity, is called

a) childhood

b) adolescence

c) Grown up

d) Old age

Answer: B

Question. The human body undergoes several changes


during adolescence. These changes mark the onset of

a) Puberty
b) Prematurity

c) Post adolescence

d) ageing

Answer: A

Question. Adam’s apple is prominent in

a) Boys of any age

b) Adolescent girls

c) Girls of any age

d) Adolescent boys

Answer: D

Question. Larynx is also called

a) Voice box

b) Sound box

c) Black box

d) All of the above

Answer: A
Question. Acne and pimples on the face is due to secretion
of

a) bile from liver

b) Oil glands during puberty

c) Enzymes in the digestive tract

d) Tear from tear glands

Answer: B

Question. Testosterone is a hormone found in human ___

a) Children

b) males and females

c) Females only

d) Males only

Answer: D

Question. The first menstrual flow is called

a) Menstruation

b) Mensuration

c) Menarche

d) Menopause
Answer: C

8 Menopause occurs at the age of

a) 10-12 years in boys

b) 45-50 years in men

c) 10-12 years in girls

d) 45-50 years in women

Answer: D

Question. When a sperm containing Y chromosome


fertilizes an egg with X chromosome, the zygote develops
into a _____ child

a) Female

b) Either a male or female

c) Male

d) No child

Answer: C

Question. The change from larvae to adult is called

a) Metabolism
b) Metamorphosis

c) Metastasis

d) Morphology

Answer: B

Question: The male hormone is


a) Testosterone
b) Estragon
c) Projestrone
d) All of these

Answer: A

Question: The number of chromosomes are


present in human cell.
a) 23 pairs
b) 22 pairs
c) 24 pairs
d) 24 pairs

Answer: A

Question: Puberty age in females is


a) 10 - 12 years
b) 12 - 14 years
c) 8 - 10 years
d) More than 14 years

Answer: A

Question: Fertilisation is called


a) Fusion of sperms and eggs
b) To produce sperm
c) To produce eggs
d) All of these

Answer: A

Question: The period of maturity of


reproductive organs is called.
a) Adolescene period
b) Mensuration
c) Gestation period
d) None of the options

Answer: A

Question: Initially girls grow _____ than boys.


a) Faster
b) Slower
c) Faster and slower
d) None of the options
Answer: A

Question: There are__ __ pairs of chromosome


in human cell.
a) 23
b) 46
c) 22
d) All are wrong

Answer: A

Question: Thyroxin produced by


a) Thyroid gland
b) Pituitary gland
c) Adrenal gland
d) Testes

Answer: A

Question: The egg is


a) Female gamete
b) Egg gamete
c) Egg gamete and female gamete
d) None of the options

Answer: A
Question: Larynx is called
a) Voice box
b) Music box
c) Respiratory organ
d) None of the options

Answer: A

Question. There are__ __ pairs of chromosome in human


cell.
(a) 23
(b) 46
(c) 22
(d) All are wrong

Answer : A

Question. Which of the following hormones is secreted by


pituitary gland:
(a) insulin
(b) thyroxine
(c) growth
(d) adrenalin

Answer : C

Question. Progesterone level falls during


(a) Menopause
(b) Lactation
(c) Gestation
(d) Menstruation

Answer : A

Question. Which one is another terms for teenage is


(a) Maturity
(b) Puberty
(c) Adolescence
(d) Thyroid

Answer : C

Question. Which or ht ronowing proIdes iron to our body:


(a) leafy vegetabks
(b) citrus
(c) meat
(d) all of these

Answer : A

Question. The male hormone is


(a) Estragon
(b) Projestrone
(c) Testosterone
(d) All of these
Answer : C

Question. Which of the following will occur in females at


puberty?
(a) Ovulation
(b) Enlargement of breasts
(c) Broadening of hips
(d) All of these

Answer : A

Question. In girls, secondary sexual characteristics


develop between
(a) 9 and 11 years.
(b) 11 and 14 years.
(c) 15 and 18 years.
(d) 19 and 21 years.

Answer : B

Question. Hormones reaches to different parts:


(a) with lymph
(b) by ducts
(c) with blood
(d) none of these

Answer : C
Question. Which chromosomes determine the sex of an
individual?
(a) Autosomes
(b) Allosomes
(c) Plasmid
(d) Giant chromosomes

Answer : B

More Science Study Material


(/taxonomy/term/323)

MCQ for Class 8 Science Chapter 9
Reproduction in Animals
Class 8 Science students should refer to the following
multiple-choice questions with answers for Chapter 9
Reproduction in Animals in Class 8.

Chapter 9 Reproduction in Animals MCQ


Questions Class 8 Science with Answers
Chapter 9

REPRODUCTION IN ANIMALS

Question. Human Male germ cell is


a) zygote
b) ovum
c) testis
d) sperm

Answer: D

Question. Every month ____ mature egg(s) can be released


from human ovary
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
Answer: A

Question. Internal fertilization does not occur in


a) human
b) dog
c) fish
d) cow

Answer: C

Question. Fertilization results into formation of


a) egg
b) zygote
c) sperm
d) individual

Answer: B

Question. Which one is not an oviparous animal?


a) human
b) crow
c) hen
d) crocodile

Answer: A
Question. The transformation of the larva into an adult
through drastic changes is called
a) Metaphase
b) Metastasis
c) Meteorite
d) Metamorphosis

Answer: D

Question. In asexual reproduction involves _______


a) Two parents
b) Four parents
c) One parent
d) No parents

Answer: C

Question. Dolly the famous animal was a


a) donkey
b) girl
c) Cloned sheep
d) Normal sheep

Answer: C

Question. During a cell division


a) Nucleus divides first and then cytoplasm
b) Cytoplasm divides first and then Nucleus
c) Nucleus and cytoplasm divides together
d) No such relationship

Answer: A

Question. Budding is found in


a) Yeast
b) Hydra and Yeast
c) Hydra
d) None

Answer: B

Question: Cloning is a mode of

a) Asexual production

b) Sexual production

c) Sexual production and asexual production

d) None of the options

Answer: Asexual production

Question: Viviparous organisms are the ones which

a) Produce young ones

b) Produce eggs
c) Produce eggs and produce young ones

d) None of the options

Answer: Produce young ones

Question: Foetus is the

a) Well developed embryo

b) Developing embryo

c) A zygote

d) Male gamete

Answer: Well developed embryo

Question: A sperm consists of

a) Three parts

b) One part

c) Two parts

d) Four parts

Answer: Three parts

Question: How many modes of reproduction are there in


animals?
a) Two types

b) One type

c) Three types

d) Four types

Answer: Two types

Question: Egg are formed in the

a) Ovary

b) Testes

c) Penis

d) None of the options

Answer: Ovary

Question: The cell formed after fertisation is called

a) Zygote

b) Foetus

c) Embryo

d) None of the options

Answer: Zygote
Question: Where does the fusion of male and female
gametes generally take place?

a) Fallopian tube

b) Ovary

c) Uterus

d) Zygote

Answer: Fallopian tube

Question: Tadpole is the developing stage of which of these

a) Frogs

b) Dogs

c) Cats

d) Humans

Answer: Frogs

Question: The animals that produce new young ones are


known as

a) Viviparous

b) Oviparous

c) Oviparous and viviparous


d) None of the options

Answer: Viviparous

Question. Where does the fusion of male and female


gametes generally take place?
(a) Fallopian tube
(b) Ovary
(c) Uterus
(d) Zygote

Answer : A

Question. Which of the following are male reproductive


organs:
(a) ovary, testis, scrotum, penis
(b) ovary, uterus, testis, scrotum
(c) uterus, testis, scrotum, penis
(d) urinary bladder, testis, scrotum, penis.

Answer : D

Question. Animals in which male and female are distinct


are called :
(a) bisexual
(b) unisexual
(c) sexual
(d) none of these
Answer : B

Question. A fertihsed ovum deirelops into a baby in the:


(a) vagina
(b) fallopian tubes
(c) uterus
(d) ovary

Answer : C

Question. Which is not a viviparous animal?


(a) Human being
(b) Cow
(c) Dog
(d) Butterfly

Answer : D

Question. Test tube babies grow in:


(a) mother’s uterus
(b) mother’s oviduct
(c) none of these
(d) test tubes

Answer : A

Question. Viviparous organisms are the ones which


(a) Produce eggs
(b) Produce young ones
(c) Both I and II
(d) None of these

Answer : B

Question. The developing zygote is called:


(a) baby
(b) foetus
(c) embryo
(d) none of these

Answer : C

Question. The process leading to the fusion of the gametes


in plants and inimals is called:
(a) grbwth
(b) fertihsation
(c) development
(d) fusion

Answer : B

Question. Internal fertilization occurs:


(a) in female body
(b) outside female body
(c) in male body
(d) outside male body

Answer : A
MCQ for Class 8 Science Chapter 8 Cell
Structure and Functions
Class 8 Science students should refer to the following
multiple-choice questions with answers for Chapter 8 Cell
Structure and Functions in Class 8.

Chapter 8 Cell Structure and Functions MCQ


Questions Class 8 Science with Answers
Chapter 8

CELL- STRUCTURE AND FUNCTIONS

Question. Hen’s egg is


a) An organ
b) A Single cell
c) A tissue
d) Is none of the above
Answer: B

Question. Projections of different lengths protruding out of


the body of Amoeba is called
a) Walking legs
b) Legs
c) Pseudopodia
d) Needle
Answer: C
Question. Which of the following cells can change its
shape
a) White blood cell
b) Egg cell
c) Red blood cell
d) All of the above
Answer: A

Question. One millionth of a metre is


a) Millimetre
b) Micrometre
c) Nanometre
d) Centimetre
Answer: B

Question. Which of the following combinations are present


in plant cell but not in animal cell
a) Cell Wall & Plastid
b) Cell wall and Cell membrane
c) Plastid and Nucleus
d) Cell Membrane and Cytoplasm
Answer: A

Question. Nucleus is separated from cytoplasm by


a) Protoplasm
b) Cell membrane
c) Cell Wall
d) Nuclear membrane
Answer: D
Question. Robert Hooke first observed
a) Nucleus
b) Cells
c) organs
d) virus
Answer: B

Question. A cell without organized nucleus is called


a) Prokaryotic cell
b) Eukaryotic cell
c) Virus
d) None of the above
Answer: A

Question. Jelly-like substance present between the cell


membrane and the nucleus is
a) Water
b) Nucleoplasm
c) Cytoplasm
d) oil
Answer: C

Question. Chromosome carry _____ which transfers


characters from parents to offsprings
a) Ribosome
b) Genes
c) Plastid
d) Mitochondria
Answer: B

Question: Hens egg is a


a) Cell

b) Tissue

c) Organ

d) Organ system

Answer: A

Question: The calls capable of changing shapes are

a) Amoeba cell and wbc

b) Amoeba cell

c) Wbc

d) None of the options

Answer: A

Question: Cell is discovered by

a) Robert hooke

b) Robert brown

c) John mendal

d) Charse darwin

Answer: A

Question: Tissue is a

a) Group of cells

b) Group of organs
c) Group of tissues

d) Group of organisms

Answer: A

Question: Single celled organisms are called

a) Unicellular

b) Multi-cellular

c) Unicellular and multi-cellular

d) None of the options

Answer: A

Question: The control unit of cell is

a) Nucleus

b) Cell wall

c) Cytoplasm

d) All of these

Answer: A

Question: Chloroplast is found in

a) Plant cell only

b) Animal cell only

c) Plant cell only and animal cell only

d) None of the options


Answer: A

Question: The functional unit of life is called

a) Cell

b) Egg

c) Vacuoles

d) None of the options

Answer: A

Question: The kitchen of the cell is called

a) Plastids

b) Cell wall

c) Nucleus

d) Vacuoles

Answer: A

Question: The power house of cell is called

a) Mitochondria

b) Cell wall

c) Ribosomes

d) Nucleus

Answer: A
Question. Centriole is associated with –

(A) DNA synthesis


(B) Reproduction
(C) Spindle formation
(D) Respiration
Answer: C

Question. The cell organelle associated with cell secretion


is
(A) Plastids
(B) Mitochondria
(C) Golgi apparatus
(D) Nucleolus
Answer: C

Question. Which of the following is an inclusion?


(A) Mitochondrion
(B) Lysosome
(C) Golgi complex
(D) Starch grain
Answer: D

Question. Which of the following would not be


considered part of a cell's cytoplsm?
(A) Ribosome
(B) Nucleus
(C) Mitochondrion
(D) Microtubule
Answer: B
Question. Which of the following is called the brain of the
cell?
(A) Nucleus
(B) Mitochondria
(C) Ribosomes
(D) Plasma membrane
Answer: A

Question. Which one is not a part of nucleus?


(A) Chromatin
(B) Nucleolus
(C) Centrosome
(D) Nucleoplasm
Answer: C

Question. The common feature amongst nucleus,


chloroplast and mitochondrion is –
(A) DNA
(B) Lamellae
(C) Cristae
(D) All of these
Answer: A

Question. Nucleus is separated from surrounding


cytoplasm by a nuclear envelope which is –
(A) Single and porous
(B) Double and porous
(C) Single and nonporous
(D) Double and nonporous
Answer: B

Question. Nucleoplasm is continuous with cytoplasm


through –
(A) Centriole
(B) Golgi apparatus
(C) Nuclear pores
(D) Endoplasmic reticulum
Answer: C

Question. Nucleolus was discovered by


(A) Fontana
(B) Schleiden
(C) Altmann
(D) Robert Brown
Answer: C

Question. The function of the nucleolus in the cell is


(A) Secretory
(B) Synthesis of DNA
(C) Synthesis of RNA and ribosomes
(D) None of these
Answer: C

Question. Which of the following phenomena is commonly


referred as 'cell drinking'?
(A) Exocytosis
(B) Pinocytosis
(C) Endocytosis
(D) Phagocytosis
Answer: B

Question. The cell organelle taking part in photorespiration


is:
(A) Glyoxysome
(B) Dictyosome
(C) Peroxisome
(D) Endoplasmic reticulum
Answer: C

Question. Endoplasmic reticulum sometime contains –


(A) Ribosomes
(B) Lysosomes
(C) Golgi bodies
(D) None of these
Answer: A

Question. Ribosomes are composed of –


(A) 1 subunit
(B) 5 subunits
(C) 2 subunits
(D) 4 subunits
Answer: C

Question. Double membrane is absent in –


(A) Mitochondrion
(B) Chloroplast
(C) Nucleus
(D) Lysosome
Answer: D

Question. Animal cell is limited by–


(A) Plasma membrane
(B) Shell membrane
(C) Cell wall
(D) Basement membrane
Answer: A

Question. The radiant energy of sunlight is converted to


chemical energy and stored as –
(A) AMP
(B) ADP
(C) ATP
(D) APP
Answer: C

Question. Root hair absorbs water from soil through –


(A) Osmosis
(B) Active transport
(C) Diffusion
(D) Endocytosis
Answer: A

Question. The barrier between the protoplasm and outer


environment in a plant cell is –
(A) Cell membrane
(B) Nuclear membrane
(C) Cell wall
(D) Tonoplast
Answer: C

Question. An animal cell differs from a plant cell in


respect of –
(A) ER
(B) Cell wall
(C) Ribosomes
(D) Cell membrane.
Answer: B

Question. If the nucleus is a cell's "control centre"


and chloroplasts its "solar collectors". Which of
the following might be called the cell's combination "food
processor" and "garbage disposer"?
(A) Lysosome
(B) Ribosome
(C) Golgi apparatus
(D) Nucleolus
Answer: A

Question. The longest cell in human body is –


(A) Neuron
(B) Muscle fibre
(C) Epithelial cell
(D) Bone cell
Answer: A

Question. Identify human cells which lack nucleus–


(A) WBC
(B) RBC
(C) Platelets
(D) Nerve cells
Answer: B

Question. The energy currency of a cell is –


(A) ADP
(B) AMP
(C) ATP
(D) CTP
Answer: C

Question. Which organelle releases oxygen?


(A) Ribosome
(B) Golgi apparatus
(C) Mitochondria
(D) Chloroplast.
Answer: D

Question. The term "protoplasm" to the living


substance present inside the cell, was given by
(A) Robert Hooke
(B) Robert Brown
(C) J.E. Purkinje
(D) W.Flemming
Answer: C

Question. Ribosomes are the centre for –


(A) Respiration
(B) Photosynthesis
(C) Protein synthesis
(D) Fat synthesis.
Answer: C

Question. Lysosomes are the reservoirs of


(A) Fat
(B) RNA
(C) Secretory glycoproteins
(D) Hydrolytic enzymes.
Answer: D

Question. The membrane surrounding the vacuole of


a plant cell is called
(A) Tonoplast
(B) Plasma membrane
(C) Nuclear membrane
(D) Cell wall
Answer: A

Question. Centriole is associated with –

(A) DNA synthesis


(B) Reproduction
(C) Spindle formation
(D) Respiration
Answer: C

Question. The cell organelle associated with cell secretion


is
(A) Plastids
(B) Mitochondria
(C) Golgi apparatus
(D) Nucleolus
Answer: C

Question. Which of the following is an inclusion?


(A) Mitochondrion
(B) Lysosome
(C) Golgi complex
(D) Starch grain
Answer: D

Question. Which of the following would not be considered


part of a cell's cytoplsm?
(A) Ribosome
(B) Nucleus
(C) Mitochondrion
(D) Microtubule
Answer: B

Question. Which of the following is called the brain of the


cell?
(A) Nucleus
(B) Mitochondria
(C) Ribosomes
(D) Plasma membrane
Answer: A

Question. Which one is not a part of nucleus?


(A) Chromatin
(B) Nucleolus
(C) Centrosome
(D) Nucleoplasm
Answer: C

Question. The common feature amongst nucleus,


chloroplast and mitochondrion is –
(A) DNA
(B) Lamellae
(C) Cristae
(D) All of these
Answer: A

Question. Nucleus is separated from surrounding


cytoplasm by a nuclear envelope which is –
(A) Single and porous
(B) Double and porous
(C) Single and nonporous
(D) Double and nonporous
Answer: B

Question. Nucleoplasm is continuous with cytoplasm


through –
(A) Centriole
(B) Golgi apparatus
(C) Nuclear pores
(D) Endoplasmic reticulum
Answer: C

Question. Nucleolus was discovered by


(A) Fontana
(B) Schleiden
(C) Altmann
(D) Robert Brown
Answer: A

Question. The function of the nucleolus in the cell is


(A) Secretory
(B) Synthesis of DNA
(C) Synthesis of RNA and ribosomes
(D) None of these
Answer: C

Question. Which of the following phenomena is commonly


referred as 'cell drinking'?
(A) Exocytosis
(B) Pinocytosis
(C) Endocytosis
(D) Phagocytosis
Answer: B
Question. The cell organelle taking part in
photorespiration is
(A) Glyoxysome
(B) Dictyosome
(C) Peroxisome
(D) Endoplasmic reticulum
Answer: C

Question. Endoplasmic reticulum sometime contains –


(A) Ribosomes
(B) Lysosomes
(C) Golgi bodies
(D) None of these
Answer: A

Question. Ribosomes are composed of –


(A) 1 subunit
(B) 5 subunits
(C) 2 subunits
(D) 4 subunits
Answer: C
Question. Who is known as father of microbiology?
(a) Alexander Fleming
(b) Robert Hook
(c) Leeuwenhoek
(d) E. Adams

Answer : C
Question. Cheek Cells Do Not Have:
(a) Cell membrane
(b) Golgi apparatus
(c) Nucleus
(d) Plastids

Answer : D

Question. Identify the statement which is true for cells.


(a) Cells can be easily seen with naked eyes.
(b) Insect's egg is not a cell.
(c) A single cell can perform all the functions in a unicellular
organism.
(d) The size and shape of cells is uniform in multicellular
organism
Answer : C

Question. Which of the following is present only in plants:


(a) plasma membrane
(b) cell wall
(c) nucleo membrane
(d) cytoplasm

Answer : B

Question. A cell with a definite nucleus and nuclear


membrane is called as ………….
(a) virus
(b) plant cell
(c) prokaryote
(d) eukaryote
Answer : D

Question. The kitchen of the cell is called


(a) Cell wall
(b) Nucleus
(c) Vacuoles
(d) Plastids

Answer : D

Question. Single celled organisms are called


(a) Unicellular
(b) Multi-cellular
(c) Both of these
(d) None of these

Answer : A

Question. Several small coloured bodies in the cytoplasm


of the cells of Tradescantia leaf are called ___.
(a) Organelle
(b) Plastids
(c) Vacuoles
(d) Mitochondria

Answer : B

Question. Which of the following is a locomotory organelle


in protozoa ?
(a) pseudocoelom
(b) tentacles
(c) flagella
(d) all of them
Answer : C

Question. The organelle not present in an animal cell is:


(a) cell membrane
(b) nucleus
(c) mitochondria
(d) chloroplast

Answer : D

Question. The coloured organelles which are found in


plants only are
(a) chlorophyll
(b) plastids
(c) vacuoles
(d) WBC

Answer : B

Question. Which Of The Following Organelle Is Not Found


In The Root Cells Of A Plant?
(a) Nucleus
(b) Vacuole
(c) Mitochondria
(d) Chloroplasts

Answer : D

Question. Which of the following statements is/are the


functions of golgi apparatus?
(a) Transporting proteins that are to be released from the
cell
(b) Packaging proteins into vesicles.
(c) Altering or modifying proteins.
(d) All of these
Answer : B

Question. The basic structural unit of living organisms is:


(a) cell
(b) tissue
(c) organ
(d) none of these

Answer : A

Question. A group of similar cells perfonning a specific


function is called:
(a) organ
(b) tissue
(c) cell organalle
(d) none of these

Answer : B

Question. Cheek cells are

(A) epithelial cells


(B) epidermal cells
(C) vascular cells
(D) guard cells
Answer: A

Question. The cell wall in plant cells is made up of


(A) Proteins
(B) Facts
(C) Plasma
(D) Cellulose
Answer: D

Question. Blood is a type of


(A) Epithelial tissue
(B) Connective tissue
(C) Nervous tissue
(D) Muscular tissue
Answer: B

Question. The brain and spinal cord are made up of


(A) Nervous tissue
(B) Epithelial tissue
(C) Muscular tissue
(D)Connective tissue
Answer: A

Question. Red blood cells


(A) have two nuclei
(B) have a cell wall
(C) have pigment-containing plastids
(D) do not have a nucleus
Answer: D

Question. The covering of an animal cell is:


(A) Cell wall
(B) Cell membrane
(C) Nuclear membrane
(D) Cytoplasm
Answer: B

Question. Organisms lacking a nucleus and


membranebound organe celles are called:
(A) Diploid
(B) Haploid
(C) Prokaryotes
(D) Eukaryotes
Answer: C

Question. Relatively large vacuoles are present in:


(A) all prokaryotes
(B) all eukaryotes
(C) Plant cells
(D) Animal cells
Answer: C

Question. The growth of cells is regulated by


(A) mitochondrion
(B) vacuole
(C) nucleus
(D) Golgi complex
Answer: C

Question. The centriole is associated with:


(A) DNA synthesis
(B) cell division
(C) Circulation
(D) respiration
Answer: B

Question. Proteins are formed in the:


(A) Golgi complex
(B) mitochondria
(C) plastids
(D) ribsosomes
Answer: D

Question. The name suicide bag has been given to:


(A) Centroiles
(B) Ribosome
(C) Mitochondrion
(D) Lysosome
Answer: D

Question. Genes are located on the:


(A) Nuclear membrane
(B) Chromosomes
(C) Lysosomes
(D) Cell membrane
Answer: B

Question. Biological membrane includes


(A) only nuclear membrane
(B) only membranes of Golgi complex
(C) only mitochondrial membrane
(D) all the intracellular membranes along with plasma
membrane
Answer: D

Question. Which of the following is the main difference


between onion peel cells and human cheek cells?
(A) Presence of mitochondria in onion peel cells only
(B) presence of cell wall in onion peel cells only
(C) Absence of plasma membrane in cheek cells
(D) Absence of endoplasmic reticulum in cheek cells
Answer: B

Question. Centrioles are found in


(A) onion peel cells
(B) human cheek cells
(C) all plant cells
(D) none of these
Answer: B

Question. The network of tube-like structure running


through the cytoplasm is called
(A) Golgi complex
(B) mitochondria
(C) endoplasmic reticulum
(D) ribosomes
Answer: C
Question. The semipermeable membrane in the plant cell
allows the diffusion of:
(A) solute molecules
(B) solvent molecules
(C) solute and solvent molecules
(D) none of these
Answer: B

Question. Entry of water into root hairs is an examples of :


(A) diffusion
(B) imbibition
(C) osmosis
(D) plasmolysis
Answer: C

Question. Gaseous exchange in plants takes place through:


(A) epidermal cells
(B) stomata
(C) stem
(D) vascular tissue
Answer: B

Question. When a cell is placed in strong salt solution, it


shrinks because:
(A) salt solution enters the cell
(B) cytoplasm of the cell begins to decompose
(C) water comes out of the cell to develop equilibrium
(D) all of these
Answer: C
Question. Tissue is defined as:
(A) group of similar cells having a common function
(B) different types of cells performing the same functions
(C) different types of cells performing different functions
(D) organised group of cells performing many functions
Answer: A

Question. Cartilage and bone are type of:


(A) epithelial tissue
(B) skeletal tissue
(C) muscular tissue
(D) nervous tissue
Answer: B

Question. Muscles involved in the movement of the arm


are:
(A) striated
(B) nonstriated
(C) cardiac
(D) smooth
Answer: A

Question. Blood is a type of:


(A) epithelial tissue
(B) nervous tissue
(C) connective tissue
(D) muscular tissue
Answer: C
Question. Which of the following is selectively permeable?
(a) cell membrane
(b) cell wall
(c) plasmid membrane
(d) capsule
Answer : A

Question. Which Of The Following Are Prokaryotes?


(a) Protozoa and blue – green algae
(b) Blue – green algae and fungi
(c) Protozoa and bacteria
(d). Blue – green algae and bacteria

Answer : D

Question. Of The Following Parts Of A Cell Listed Below,


Name The Part That Is Common To Plant Cell, Animal Cell,
And A Bacterial Cell:
(a) Chloroplast
(b) Cell wall
(c) Cell membrane
(d) Nucleus

Answer : C

Question. Vacuoles of plant cells are


(a) permanent
(b) semi-permanent
(c) temporary
(d) impermeable
Answer : A
Question. Cell walls is found in
(a) plant cells only
(b) animal cells only
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of them

Answer : A
A. Fill in the blanks

1. Cell wall is found only in ______ cells.


2. Ribosomes are located on the surface of _____
3. All the components of a cell including the cell membrae
is called _____
4. A true nucleus is absent in bacteria and ______
5. Two types of nucleic acids are ______and ________.

B. True & False type questions.

6. All living organisms consists of cells.


7. The main function of ribosomes is to synthesize proteins.
8. Plastids are the sites of photosynthesis.
9. Chloroplasts are colourless plastids.
10. Prokaryotic cells lack nuclear envelope.

ANSWER KEY

Fill in the blanks


1. plant
2. endoplasmic reticulum
3. protoplasm
4. BGA (Blue green algae)
5. RNA & DNA

True & False type questions.


6. True
7. True
8. True
9. False
10. True

C. Very short answer type questions.

11. Name the four types of animal tissue


12. What is the importance of ribosomes?
13. What is the function of mitochondria?
14. Name the following:
(a) structural and function unit of life
(b) powerhouse of the cell
15. Why does the plant cell remain more rigid then the
animal cell?

D. Short answer type questions

16. Why is the plasma membrane called selectively


permeable
17. Prokaryotes lack a true nucleus, Explain.
18. What is osmosis?
19. Difine diffusion
20. Why lysosomer are called suicidal bags?

E. Long answer type questions

21. What are the basic differences between plant cells and
animal cells?
22. Describe the ultrastructure of a typical animal cell.
23. Write short notes on the following:
Golgi complex, mitochondria, ribonsomes,nucleus,
chromosomes
24. Explain the type of animal tissue.
25. Explain the type of plant tissue.

Question. Power house of the cell is:


(a) nucleus
(b) chloroplast
(c) cytoplasm
(d) mitochondira

Answer : D

Question. Genes are located in


(a) chrpmosomes
(b) plastids
(c) cytoplasm
(d) lysosome

Answer : A
Question. Who discovered cell in 1665?
(a) Robert Hook
(b) Robert Crook
(c) David Thomson
(d) Marie Francois

Answer : A

Question. The life giving substance in a cell is:


(a) cytoplasm
(b) protoplasm
(c) nucleoplasm
(d) none of these

Answer : B

Question. Hen’s egg is a


(a) Tissue
(b) Organ
(c) Organ system
(d) cell

Answer : D

Question. The Jelly-Like Fluid Substance Present In Cells


Is Called:
(a) Protoplasm
(b) Chromosome
(c) Chloroplast
(d) Cytoplasm

Answer : C
Question. Lysosomes are the
(a) digestive centres
(b) respiratory centres
(c) excretory centres
(d) energy centres

Answer : A

Question. A suitable term for the various components of


cells is
(a) Tissue
(b) Cell organelles
(c) Chromosomes
(d) Genes

Answer : B

Question. Blue-green Algae are:


(a) Prokaryotes
(b) Eukaryotes
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Neither a) nor (b)

Answer : A

Question. Genes are located in


(a) chromosomes
(b) plastids
(c) cytoplasm
(d) lysosome

Answer : A
Question. Tissues combine to form
(a) nucleus
(b) cells
(c) organism
(d) organs

Answer : D

Question. Chromosomes are found in


(a) nucleus
(b) nucleolus
(c) nucleoplast
(d) vacuole

Answer : A

Question. The percentage amount of integral protein of


plasma membrane is
(a) 40%
(b) 50%
(c) 60%
(d) 70%

Answer : D

Question. Which of the following given below is in the


ascending order of the number of nuclei present in cells?
(a) Paramoecium, brain cell, RBC of mammals.
(b) RBC of mammals, brain cell, paramoecium.
(c) Brain cell, RBC of mammals, paramoecium.
(d) All of these
Answer : B
Question. The outermost layer of plant cell is:
(a) cell wall
(b) cell membrane
(c) nuclear membrane
(d) none of these

Answer : A

Question. Cells present in living organism differ in


(a) numbers
(b) shape
(c) size
(d) all of these

Answer : D

Question. Which structure makes the outer boundary of an


animal cell?
(a) Cell wall
(b) Cell membrane
(c) Nuclear membrane
(d) Cytoplasm

Answer : B

Question. Cells which lack nuclear membrane are


(a) eukaryotic cells
(b) prokaryotic cells
(c) single cells
(d) multicells

Answer : B
Question. The other name of cell membrane is
(a) plasma membrane
(b) cell wall
(c) nuclear membrane
(d) none of these

Answer : A

Question. The white part of egg is called:


(a) yolk
(b) albumen
(c) cytoplasm
(d) none of these

Answer : B

Question. Which of the following is called the functional


unit of life?
(a) Cell
(b) Egg
(c) Nucleus
(d) None of these

Answer : A

Question. The liquid material in the nucleus is


(a) chromosomes
(b) bacteria
(c) nucleoplasm
(d) nucleolus

Answer : B
Question. The control centre of all the activities of a cell is
(a) nucleus
(b) nucleoplasm
(c) cytoplasm
(d) organelles

Answer : A

Question. The basic structural unit of living organisms is:


(a) cell
(b) tissue
(c) organ
(d) none of these

Answer : A

Question. Yolk is:


(a) small part of cell
(b) yellow part of egg
(c) white part of egg
(d) none of these

Answer : B

Question. Largest cell visible to uniaded eye is:


(a) hen’s egg
(b) ostrich egg
(c) bactería cell
(d) nerve cell

Answer : B
MCQ for Class 8 Science Chapter 7
Conservation of Plants and Animals
Class 8 Science students should refer to the following
multiple-choice questions with answers for Chapter 7
Conservation of Plants and Animals in Class 8.

Chapter 7 Conservation of Plants and Animals


MCQ Questions Class 8 Science with Answers

Chapter 7

CONSERVATION OF PLANTS AND ANIMALS

Question. Deforestation means


a) Planting more trees
b) Designing a forest
c) Demanding a forest
d) Clearing of forests and using that land for other
purposes.

Answer: D

Question. Ill effect of deforestation is it


a) Increases temperature of earth
b) Increases pollution level
c) Increases CO2 level of atmosphere
d) All of the above
Answer: D

Question. Increased level of carbon dioxide in the


atmosphere traps the heat rays reflected by the earth
causing an increase in the temperature on the earth. This
is
a) Local warming
b) House warming
c) Global warming
d) Country warming

Answer: C

Question. Part of the earth which supports life where living


beings exists is called ____
a) Atmosphere
b) Biosphere
c) Biology
d) Biodiversity

Answer: B

Question. Variety of organisms existing on the earth, their


interrelationships and their relationship with the
environment is called
a) Diversity
b) Biosphere
c) Biology
d) Biodiversity

Answer: D

Question. Species of plants and animals which are found


exclusively in a particular area are called
a) Endemic species
b) Exotic species
c) Local species
d) Specific species

Answer: A

Question. Animals whose numbers are reducing to a level


that they might face extinction are
a) Reducing species
b) Extinction species
c) Endangered species
d) Dangerous species

Answer: C

Question. ____ is the Source book which keeps a record of


all the endangered animals and plants.
a) Blue Data book
b) Red Data book
c) Green data book
d) Black data Book

Answer: B

Question. Migratory birds fly to far off places in a particular


season of the year because that place becomes
a) Very cold
b) Very hot
c) People hunt birds
d) Birds donot

Answer: A

Question. Reforestation means


a) Planting trees
b) restocking of the destroyed forests by planting new trees.
c) Cutting trees
d) Burning trees

Answer: B

Question: Part of earth which supports the biodiversity is


called

a) Biosphere

b) Sanctuary
c) Ecosystem reserve

d) Biotic community

Answer: A

Question: Sanctuary is a place where

a) Animals are protected

b) Plants are protected

c) Office of forest department

d) None of the options

Answer: A

Question: Project Tiger was launched on

a) On 1 April 1973

b) On 23 May 1973

c) On 21 September 1973

d) On 25 December 1973

Answer: A

Question: The places where animals receive protection is


called
a) Zoo

b) National aparks

c) Rock shelters

d) None of the options

Answer: A

Question: Fauna indicates for

a) Animals

b) Plants

c) Bith plants and animals

d) None of the options

Answer: A

Question: The growing more and more of plants is called

a) Afforestaion

b) Deforestation

c) Reforestation

d) None of the options

Answer: A
Question: The species which are at the verge of the
extinction

a) Endangered

b) Endemic

c) Extinct

d) None of the options

Answer: A

Question: Deforestation takes place by

a) Human activities and only by natural resources

b) Human activities

c) Only by natural resources

d) None of the options

Answer: A

Question: Cutting of trees on large scale is called

a) Deforestation

b) Reforestation

c) Afforestation

d) None of the options


Answer: A

Question: A place in environment where an organism lives


is ________

a) Habitat

b) Home

c) Resort

d) Reservoir

Answer: A

Question. The growing more and more of plants is called


(a) Deforestation
(b) Afforestation
(c) Reforestation
(d) None of these

Answer : B

10. Species is a group of population capable of :


(a) interequilibrium
(b) interfeeding
(c) intercommunication
(d) interbreeding
Answer : A

Question. ‘Project Tiger’ was launched in:


(a) 1983
(b) 1973
(c) 1987
(d) 1976

Answer : B

Question. Part of earth which supports the biodiversity is


called
(a) Biosphere
(b) Sanctuary
(c) Ecosystem reserve
(d) Biotic community

Answer : A

Question. Environment in which an animal lives is called


its:
(a) habitat
(b) home
(c) reservoir
(d) resort

Answer : A

Question. Wildlife is depleting due to:


(a) soil erosion
(b) hunting and poaching
(c) loss of sunlight
(d) loss of minerals

Answer : B

Question. The species which are at the verge of the


extinction are called:
(a) Endemic
(b) Extinct
(c) Endangered
(d) None of these
Answer : C

Question. Different species are classified into different


threat categories in the:
(a) yellow data book
(b) black data book
(c) blue data book
(d) red data book

Answer : D

Question. National parks are:


(a) reserves which are large and diverse enough to protect
whole sets of ecosystems
(b) places where animals are protected in artificial setting
instead of their natural habitat
(c) some areas where wild animals are protected and
preserved
(d) none of these

Answer : A

Question. Species which are restricted only to a specific


area and not in any other geographical area are called:
(a) extinct
(b) endangered
(c) endemic
(d) none of these
Answer : C

More Science Study Material


(/taxonomy/term/323)

 Chapter 01 Crop Production and Management

CBSE Class 8 Science Crop Production and Management


MCQs (/mcq-science-cbse-class-8-science-crop-
production-and-management-mcqs-296581.html)

 Chapter 02 Microorganisms Friend or Foe


MCQ for Class 8 Science Chapter 6
Combustion and Flame
Class 8 Science students should refer to the following
multiple-choice questions with answers for Chapter 6
Combustion and Flame in Class 8.

Chapter 6 Combustion and Flame MCQ Questions


Class 8 Science with Answers
Chapter 6

COMBUSTION AND FLAME

Question. Combustion is a reaction in which a Substance


reacts with-
(a) Hydrogen
(b) Nitrogen
(c) Oxygen
(d) Chlorine

Answer : C

Question. Fuel may be-


(a) Solid
(b) Liquid
(c) Gas
(d) All of these

Answer : D

Question. Which one of the following is combustible?


(a) Paper
(b) Stone pieces
(c) Glass
(d) Iron nail

Answer : A

Question. Combustion is a
(a) Chemical process
(b) None of the options
(c) Both Chemical process and Physical process
(d) Physical process

Answer : A

Question. Which one of the following is fuel of our body?


(a) Food
(b) Water
(c) Diesel
(d) Petrol

Answer : A
Question. Which one of the following is fuel of our body?
(a) Petrol
(b) Diesel
(c) Food
(d) Water

Answer : C
Question. Combustion is a-
(a) Physical process
(b) Chemical process
(c) Both (a) & (b)
(d) None of these

Answer : B

Question. Which one of the following is combustible?


(a) Iron nail
(b) Glass
(c) Stone pieces
(d) Paper

Answer : D

Question. The lowest temperature at which a Substance


catches fire is called its-
(a) Boiling point
(b) Melting point
(c) Ignition temperature
(d) Critical temperature

Answer : C

Question. Which of the following is inflammable


Substances?
(a) Petrol
(b) Wood
(c) Paper
(d) Straw

Answer : A
Question. Essential requirements for producing fire are:
(a) Fuel
(b) Air
(c) Heat
(d) All of these

Answer : D

Question. Fire extinguisher-


(a) Cut off the supply of air
(b) Bring down the temperature of fuel
(c) Both (a) & (b)
(d) None of these

Answer : C

Question. For combustion ________is necessary


(a) Air
(b) Water
(c) Paper
(d) Fuel

Answer : A

Question. Rapid combustion is


(a) When gas burns, it produces heat and light
(b) When material suddenly burst into flames
(c) When there is evolution of heat
(d) None of these

Answer : A
Question. Which fuels are used for running automobiles?
(a) Wood
(b) Coal
(c) Diesel
(d) Charcoal

Answer : C

Question. When magnesium ribbon burnt it produce


(a) Magnesium hydroxide
(b) Magnesium oxide
(c) Magnesium chloride
(d) Magnesium sulphate

Answer : B

Question. Charcoal burns in air producing


(a) CO2
(b) O2
(c) H2
(d) CO

Answer : A

Question. When magnesium ribbon burnt it produce


(a) Magnesium oxide
(b) Magnesium chloride
(c) Magnesium sulphate
(d) Magnesium hydroxide
Answer : A

Question. Which fuels are used for running automobiles?


(a) Diesel
(b) Charcoal
(c) Coal
(d) Wood

Answer : A
Question. Charcoal burns in air producing-
(a) CO2
(b) CO
(c) H2
(d)O2

Answer : A

Question. Explosion is the evolution of


(a) Heat
(b) light
(c) Sound
(d) All of these

Answer : D

Question. Substance which vaporise during Burning gives


(a) Sound
(b) Flame
(c) Combustion
(d) None of these

Answer : B
Question. Which is the hottest part in the flame of the
candle
(a) Blue
(b) Yellow
(c) Black
(d) Wax part

Answer : A

Question. Innermost zone is the


(a) Hottest part
(b) Moderately hot part
(c) Least hot part
(d) Cold part

Answer : C

Question. Incomplete combustion gives


(a) CO2
(b) CO
(c) Carbon
(d) None of these

Answer : B

Question. Goldsmith uses ____part of the flame for melting


gold
(a) Outermost
(b) Middle
(c) Innermost
(d) Both (b) & (c)

Answer : A
Question. A chemical process in which a substance reacts
with oxygen to give off heat is called
(a) Conduction
(b) Conjunction
(c) Combustion
(d) Confusion

Answer : C

Question. Fuel may be


(a) Solid only
(b) Solid,Liquid or gas
(c) Liquid only
(d) Gas only

Answer : B

Question. The amount of heat energy produced on


complete combustion of_____ fuel is called its calorific
value.
(a) 1 litre
(b) 1 Kg
(c) 1 milli litre
(d) 1 gram

Answer : B

Question. The substances which have very low ignition


temperature and can easily catch fire with a flame are
called
(a) Inflammable substances
(b) Flaming substance
(c) Fire proof substance
(d) None of the above

Answer : A

Question. When we heat water in a paper bowl over a


candle, the paper does not catch fire because
(a) Paper is not inflamable
(b) Paper gets wet
(c) Due to water the ignition temperature of paper is not
reached
(d) This is not possible

Answer : C

Question. When oil or petrol catches fire, water is not used


to extinguish it because
(a) Water covers oil and oil burns under water layer which
may not be noticeable
(b) Water is heavier than oil / petrol and so remains below
the oil layer which continues to burn
(c) Water get mixed with oil and increases fire
(d) Water gets evaporated

Answer : B

Question. In combustion
(a) Both heat and light is produced
(b) Only heat is produced
(c) Only light is produced
(d) All are correct
Answer : A

Question. A person caught fire on clothes is wrapped with


blanket because
(a) The person suddenly feels cold
(b) To hide the burnt body parts
(c) The person’s clothes gets burnt
(d) To reduce air supply and put fire off

Answer : D

Question. Ignition temperature is


(a) The maximum temperature at which a substance
catches fire
(b) The minimum temperature at which a substance
catches fire
(c) The temperature of burning substance
(d) The temperature in the substance when fire if put off

Answer : B

Question. Explosion takes place because of


(a) Release of large amount of gas under pressure due to
sudden reaction
(b) Release of large amount of heat
(c) Release of large amount of light

(d) None of the above

Answer : A
Question. There are following zones of a flame
(a) Three
(b) Two
(c) Four
(d) None of the options

Answer : A

Question. The products of combustion are


(a) Carbon dioxide and water
(b) Oxygen and water
(c) Only carbon dioxide
(d) Only oxygen

Answer : A

Question. Combustion is a
(a) Chemical process
(b) Physical process
(c) Chemical process and physical process
(d) None of the options

Answer : A

Question. Ignition temperature is


(a) Lowest temperature at catch fire
(b) Higher temperature at catch fire
(c) Any temperature
(d) None of the options
Answer : A

Question. CNG and LPG are the examples of


(a) Gaseous fuels
(b) Solid fuels
(c) Liquid fuels
(d) They are not fuels

Answer : A

Question. The substances which have very low ignition


temperature will
(a) Catch fire easily
(b) Will not catch fire
(c) Catch fire after some time
(d) None of the options

Answer : A

Question. Burning of charcoal in a closed room will


produce
(a) Carbon monoxide
(b) Carbon dioxide
(c) Nitrogen dioxide
(d) All of these

Answer : A
Question. Coal burns with ______
(a) Only glow
(b) Flame
(c) Flame and only glow
(d) None of the options

Answer : A

Question. Like fuel the sun also provides heat and light.
The process taking place in the sun is called
(a) Nuclear process
(b) Combustion
(c) Burning
(d) All of these

Answer : A

Question. Which substance give heat and light after


combustion
(a) Fuel
(b) Flame
(c) Ombustion
(d) None of the options

Answer : A

Question. Which of the following has lower ignition


temperature?
(a) Kerosene oil
(b) Vegetable oil
(c) Paper
(d) Wood

Answer : A

Question. The lowest temperature at which a Substance


catches fire is called its
(a) Ignition temperature
(b) Critical temperature
(c) Melting point
(d) Boiling point

Answer : A

Question. Fuel may be


(a) All of the options
(b) Gas
(c) Liquid
(d) Solid

Answer : A

Question. Combustion is a reaction in which a Substance


reacts with
(a) Oxygen
(b) Chlorine
(c) Nitrogen
(d) Hydrogen
Answer : A

Question: Which is the hottest part in the flame of the


candle

a) Blue

b) Wax part

c) Black

d) Yellow

Answer: Blue

Question: Substance which vaporise during Burning gives

a) Flame

b) None of the options

c) Combustion

d) Sound

Answer: Flame

Question: Explosion is the evolution of

a) All of the options

b) Sound
c) Light

d) Heat

Answer: All of the options

Question: Rapid combustion is

a) When gas burns, it produces heat and light

b) None of the options

c) When there is evolution of heat

d) When material suddenly burst into flames

Answer: When gas burns, it produces heat and light

Question: For combustion______is necessary

a) Air

b) Fuel

c) Paper

d) Water

Answer: Air

Question: Fire extinguisher-


a) Both Bring down the temperature of fuel and Cut off the
supply of air

b) None of the options

c) Bring down the temperature of fuel

d) Cut off the supply of air

Answer: Both Bring down the temperature of fuel and Cut


off the supply of air

Question: Essential requirements for producing fire are

a) All of the options

b) Heat

c) Air

d) Fuel

Answer: All of the options

Question: Which of the following is inflammable


Substances?

a) Petrol

b) Straw

c) Paper

d) Wood
Answer: Petrol

Question: In the presence of water, ignition Temperature of


paper is

a) Decrease

b) None of the options

c) Remain constant

d) Increase

Answer: Decrease

Question: Which one of the following is non Combustible?

a) Stone piece

b) Matchsticks

c) Straw

d) Paper

Answer: Stone piece

Question: Calorific value gives the

a) Fuel efficiency

b) None of the options


c) Amount of light

d) Amount of heat

Answer: Fuel efficiency

Question: Ideal fuel has______calorific value

a) High

b) Zero

c) Moderate

d) Low

Answer: High

Question: The most common fire extinguisher is

a) Water

b) Hydrogen

c) Oxygen

d) CO2

Answer: Water

Question: During the process of combustion______is given


out
a) Both heat & light

b) Sound

c) Light

d) Heat

Answer: Both heat & light

Question: Use of______in vehicle reduces pollution

a) CNG

b) None of the options

c) Diesel

d) Petrol

Answer: CNG

Question: Which is better domestic fuel

a) LPG

b) Coal

c) Wood

d) CNG

Answer: LPG
Question: On burning fuel produces______amount of heat

a) Large

b) No heat

c) Very less

d) Less

Answer: Large

Question: Good fuel is

a) All of the options

b) Burn easily in air

c) Cheap

d) Readily available

Answer: All of the options

Question: Yellow colour in the flame denotes

a) Middle zone

b) None of the options

c) Innermost zone

d) Outermost part

Answer: Middle zone


Question: Innermost zone is the

a) Least hot part

b) Cold part

c) Moderately hot part

d) Hottest part

Answer: Least hot part

Question: Burning of coal and diesel releases

a) SO2

b) CO

c) CO2

d) NO2

Answer: SO2

Question: Global warming is caused due


to______concentration of Co2 in air

a) Increased

b) None of the options

c) Both Increased and Decreased


d) Decreased

Answer: Increased

Question: Combustion of most fuels releases

a) CO2

b) Oxygen

c) NO2

d) SO2

Answer: CO2

Question: Which of the following is/are carbon fuel

a) All of the options

b) Petroleum

c) Coal

d) Wood

Answer: All of the options

Question: Element showing spontaneous combustion is

a) Lithium

b) Copper
c) Phosphorous

d) Calcium

Answer: Lithium

Question: Amount of heat energy produced


on______combustion of 1kg of fuel is Calorific value

a) Complete

b) None of the options

c) Half

d) Incomplete

Answer: Complete

Question: Goldsmith uses______part of the flame for


melting gold

a) Outermost

b) Innermost, Middle

c) Innermost

d) Middle

Answer: Outermost
Question: Incomplete combustion gives

a) CO

b) None of the options

c) CO2

d) Carbon

Answer: CO

Question: Unburnt carbon particles causes

a) Respiratory problems

b) Throat problems

c) Brain infections

d) Stomach infections

Answer: Respiratory problems

Question: Calorific value is measured in

a) Kilo joule per Kg

b) Kilometre

c) Kilograms

d) Kilo joule

Answer: Kilo joule per Kg


Question: Water is not suitable for fire involving

a) Both Petrol and Oil

b) None of the options

c) Petrol

d) Oil

Answer: Both Petrol and Oil

Question: CO2 is given off by chemicals like

a) Sodium bicarbonate

b) Sulphuric acid

c) Sodium sulphate

d) Calcium sulphate

Answer: Sodium bicarbonate

Question: CO2 is stored as a liquid in cylinder at

a) High pressure

b) Low pressure

c) High temperature

d) Low temperature
Answer: High pressure

Question: Best extinguisher for inflammable Materials is

a) CO2

b) CO

c) SO2

d) Water

Answer: CO2

Question: When the match struck against rubbing surface,


red phosphorous

a) Converts into white phosphorous

b) Reacts with potassium chlorate

c) None of the options

d) Ignite antimony trisulphide

Answer: Converts into white phosphorous

Question: The head of the safety match contains

a) Both Potassium Chlorate and Antimony trisulphide

b) None of the options


c) Potassium Chlorate

d) Antimony trisulphide

Answer: Both Potassium Chlorate and Antimony trisulphide

Question: In the sun, heat and light are produced by

a) Nuclear reactions

b) None of the options

c) Ionic reactions

d) Chemical reactions

Answer: Nuclear reactions

Question: Which is a solid fuel?

a) Wax

b) Wood

c) Diesel

d) Petrol

Answer: Wax

Question: Acid rain is caused by oxides of

a) Sulphur, Nitrogen
b) Sulphur, Carbon

c) Phosphorous, Carbon

d) Carbon, Nitrogen

Answer: Sulphur, Nitrogen

Question: Petrol engine gives off gaseous oxides of

a) Nitrogen

b) Carbon

c) Phosphorous

d) Sulphur

Answer: Nitrogen

Question: Water is not suitable for fire involving

a) Petrol and Oil

b) Petrol

c) Oil

d) None of the options

Answer: Petrol and Oil

Question: CO2 is given off by chemicals like


a) Sodium bicarbonate

b) Calcium sulphate

c) Sulphuric acid

d) Sodium sulphate

Answer: Sodium bicarbonate

Question: CO2 is stored as a liquid in cylinder at

a) High pressure

b) Low pressure

c) High temperature

d) Low temperature

Answer: High pressure

Question: Best extinguisher for inflammable Materials is

a) CO2

b) SO2

c) Water

d) CO

Answer: CO2
Question: When the match struck against rubbing surface,
red phosphorous

a) Converts into white phosphorous

b) Reacts with potassium chlorate

c) Ignite antimony trisulphide

d) None of the options

Answer: Converts into white phosphorous

Question: The head of the safety match contains

a) Potassium Chlorate and Antimony trisulphide

b) Potassium Chlorate

c) None of the options

d) Antimony trisulphide

Answer: Potassium Chlorate and Antimony trisulphide

Question: In the sun, heat and light are produced by

a) Nuclear reactions

b) Chemical reactions

c) Ionic reactions

d) None of the options


Answer: Nuclear reactions

Question: Which is a solid fuel

a) Wax

b) Wood

c) Diesel

d) Petrol

Answer: Wax

Question: Acid rain is caused by oxides of

a) Sulphur, Nitrogen

b) Sulphur, Carbon

c) Phosphorous, Carbon

d) Carbon, Nitrogen

Answer: Sulphur, Nitrogen

Question: Petrol engine gives off gaseous oxides of

a) Nitrogen

b) Sulphur

c) Phosphorous
d) Carbon

Answer: Nitrogen

Question: Burning of coal and diesel releases

a) SO2

b) CO

c) CO2

d) NO2

Answer: SO2

Question: Global warming is caused due


to______concentration of Co2 in air

a) Increased

b) Decreased

c) Increased and Decreased

d) None of the options

Answer: Increased

Question: Combustion of most fuels releases

a) CO2
b) NO2

c) SO2

d) Oxygen

Answer: CO2

Question: Which of the following is/are carbon fuel

a) All of the options

b) Petroleum

c) Wood

d) Coal

Answer: All of the options

Question: Element showing spontaneous combustion is

a) Lithium

b) Phosphorous

c) Calcium

d) Copper

Answer: Lithium
Question: Amount of heat energy produced on
_____combustion of 1kg of fuel is Calorific value

a) Complete

b) Half

c) None of the options

d) Incomplete

Answer: Complete

Question: Goldsmith uses ____part of the flame for melting


gold

a) Outermost

b) Innermost and Middle

c) Innermost

d) Middle

Answer: Outermost

Question: Incomplete combustion gives

a) CO

b) Carbon

c) CO2
d) None of the options

Answer: CO

Question: Unburnt carbon particles causes

a) Respiratory problems

b) Stomach infections

c) Brain infections

d) Throat problems

Answer: Respiratory problems

Question: Calorific value is measured in

a) Kilo joule per Kg

b) Kilograms

c) Kilo joule

d) Kilometre

Answer: Kilo joule per Kg

Question: Calorific value gives the

a) Fuel efficiency

b) Amount of heat
c) Amount of light

d) None of the options

Answer: Fuel efficiency

Question: Ideal fuel has ____ calorific value

a) High

b) Moderate

c) Low

d) Zero

Answer: High

Question: The most common fire extinguisher is

a) Water

b) CO2

c) Oxygen

d) Hydrogen

Answer: Water

Question: During the process of combustion ________is


given out
a) Both heat & light

b) Sound

c) Light

d) Heat

Answer: Both heat & light

Question: Use of______in vehicle reduces pollution

a) CNG

b) Diesel

c) None of the options

d) Petrol

Answer: CNG

Question: Which is better domestic fuel

a) LPG

b) CNG

c) Wood

d) Coal

Answer: LPG
Question: On burning fuel produces______amount of heat

a) Large

b) Less

c) Very less

d) No heat

Answer: Large

Question: Good fuel is

a) All of the options

b) Burn easily in air

c) Cheap

d) Readily available

Answer: All of the options

Question: Yellow colour in the flame denotes

a) Middle zone

b) Innermost zone

c) Outermost part

d) None of the options

Answer: Middle zone


Question: Innermost zone is the

a) Least hot part

b) Moderately hot part

c) Hottest part

d) Cold part

Answer: Least hot part

Question: Which is the hottest part in the flame of the


candle

a) Blue

b) Yellow

c) Black

d) Wax part

Answer: Blue

Question: Substance which vaporise during Burning gives

a) Flame

b) Sound

c) Combustion
d) None of the options

Answer: Flame

Question: Explosion is the evolution of

a) All of the options

b) Heat

c) Sound

d) Light

Answer: All of the options

Question: Rapid combustion is

a) When gas burns, it produces heat and light

b) When there is evolution of heat

c) When material suddenly burst into flames

d) None of the options

Answer: When gas burns, it produces heat and light

Question: For combustion ________is necessary

a) Air

b) Paper
c) Water

d) Fuel

Answer: Air

Question: Fire extinguisher

a) Bring down the temperature of fuel and Cut off the supply
of air

b) Bring down the temperature of fuel

c) Cut off the supply of air

d) None of the options

Answer: Bring down the temperature of fuel and Cut off the
supply of air

Question: Essential requirements for producing fire are

a) All of the options

b) Heat

c) Fuel

d) Air

Answer: All of the options


Question: Which of the following is inflammable
Substances?

a) Petrol

b) Wood

c) Paper

d) Straw

Answer: Petrol

Question: In the presence of water, ignition Temperature of


paper is-

a) Decrease

b) Remain constant

c) Increase

d) None of the options

Answer: Decrease

Question: Which one of the following is non Combustible?

a) Stone piece

b) Straw

c) Matchsticks
d) Paper

Answer: Stone piece

Question: Which of the following has lower ignition


temperature?

a) Kerosene oil

b) Vegetable oil

c) Wood

d) Paper

Answer: Kerosene oil

Question: The lowest temperature at which a Substance


catches fire is called its-

a) Ignition temperature

b) Melting point

c) Critical temperature

d) Boiling point

Answer: Ignition temperature

Question: Which one of the following is combustible?

a) Paper
b) Stone pieces

c) Glass

d) Iron nail

Answer: Paper

Question: Combustion is a

a) Chemical process

b) Physical process

c) Chemical process and Physical process

d) None of the options

Answer: Chemical process

Question: Which one of the following is fuel of our body?

a) Food

b) Diesel

c) Petrol

d) Water

Answer: Food

Question: Fuel may be


a) All of the options

b) Gas

c) Liquid

d) Solid

Answer: All of the options

Question: Combustion is a reaction in which a Substance


reacts with-

a) Oxygen

b) Chlorine

c) Nitrogen

d) Hydrogen

Answer: Oxygen

Question: Charcoal burns in air producing

a) CO2

b) CO

c) H2

d) O2

Answer: CO2
Question: When magnesium ribbon burnt it produce

a) Magnesium oxide

b) Magnesium hydroxide

c) Magnesium chloride

d) Magnesium sulphate

Answer: Magnesium oxide

Question: Which fuels are used for running automobiles

a) Diesel

b) Wood

c) Coal

d) Charcoal

Answer: Diesel
MCQ for Class 8 Science Chapter 5 Coal
and Petroleum
Class 8 Science students should refer to the following
multiple-choice questions with answers for Chapter 5 Coal
and Petroleum in Class 8.

Chapter 5 Coal and Petroleum MCQ Questions


Class 8 Science with Answers
Chapter 5

COAL AND PETROLEUM

Question. Which of the following is natural resources?


(a) Tea
(b) Cooked Food
(c) Air
(d) Toffee

Answer : C

Question. Inexhaustible natural resources in nature are


(a) limited
(b) Unlimited
(c) Scarce
(d) Not present

Answer : B
Question. Resources which are limited in nature are Known
as
(a) Exhaustible
(b) Inexhaustible
(c) unnatural
(d) None of these

Answer : A

Question. Which of the following is an exhaustible natural


resource?
(a) Air
(b) Water
(c) Soil (d) forest

Answer : D

Question. Sunlight is _________natural resource


(a) Inexhaustible
(b) Exhaustible
(c) Both (a) & (b)
(d) None of these

Answer : A

Question. Other uses of fuel includes


(a)Produce steam to run engine
(b)Produce electricity in thermal power plants
(c)Fuel in various industries
(d)All of these

Answer : D
Question. Coal is produced in industry to get
(a) Coke
(b) Coal tar
(c) Coal gas
(d) All of these

Answer : D

Question. Coke is used in the manufacturing of


(a) Lead
(b) Iron
(c) steel
(d) Copper

Answer : C

Question. Petroleum is ________natural resource


(a) Inexhaustible
(b) Exhaustible
(c) Both (a) & (b)
(d) None of these

Answer : B

Question. Fossils are the


(a) Dead remains of living organism
(b) Coal mines
(c) Kind of natural resource
(d) Living beings

Answer : A
Question. Coal can be formed from
(a) Sunlight
(b) Steam
(c) Fossils
(d) Plants

Answer : C

Question. Coal is ________in colour


(a) Black
(b) Blue
(c) Orange
(d) Red

Answer : A

Question. Coal is ________in nature


(a) Soft
(b) Hard
(c) Thin
(d) Hot

Answer : B

Question. Coal can be used as a


(a) Fertilizer
(b) Purifier
(c) Fuel
(d) Insecticide

Answer : C
Question. Which is an almost pure form of carbon?
(a) Coke
(b) Coal tar
(c) Coal gas
(d) None of these

Answer : C

Question. The characteristic of coal is


(a) tough
(b) Black in colour
(c) Porous
(d) All of these

Answer : D

Question. Coal tar has an _________ smell.


(a). Unpleasant
(b) Pleasant
(c) Both (a) & (b)
(d) None of these

Answer : A

Question. Coal tar is used in manufacture of


(a) Synthetic dyes
(b) Drugs
(c) Explosives
(d) All of these

Answer : D
Question. Naphthalene balls are obtained from
(a) Carbon
(b) Coke
(c) Coal tar
(d) Coal gas

Answer : C

Question. Useful substances obtained from petroleum &


natural gases are called
(a) Chemicals
(b) Petroleum products
(c) Petrochemicals
(d) None of these

Answer : C

Question. Resources present in unlimited quantity in


nature and are not likely to be exhausted by human
activities are called
(a) Exhaustible Natural Resources
(b) Inexhaustible Natural Resources
(c) Exhaustible Resources
(d) None of the above

Answer: B

Question. Coal, Petroleum and natural gas are examples of


(a) Exhaustible Natural Resources
(b) Inexhaustible Natural Resources
(c) Expensive Resources
(d) None of the above
Answer: A

Question. Naphthalene balls used to repel moth and insect


is derived from
(a) Petroleum
(b) Sugar
(c) Coal tar
(d) LPG

Answer: C

Question. CNG is the abbreviated form of


(a) Combined natural gas
(b) Compressed Natural Gas
(c) Confirmed Natural gas
(d) Condemned Natural gas

Answer: B

Question. The slow process of conversion of dead


vegetation into coal is called
(a) Carbonisation
(b) fuelification
(c) Coalification
(d) None of the above

Answer: A

Question. In India petroleum deposit was first found in the


state of
(a) Gujarat
(b) Maharastra
(c) Assam
(d) West Bengal

Answer: C

Question. Use of CNG in automobile is better than petrol


because it is
(a) cheaper
(b) Less polluting
(c) Cannot be adulterated
(d) All of the above

Answer: D

Question. To reduce fuel consumption in automobile one


should
(a) Drive very fast to reach early
(b) Not switch off the engine at traffic lights
(c) Not check tyre pressure regularly
(d) Ensure proper maintenance of the vehicle

Answer: D

Question. Black gold is actually


(a) Gold which became black on burning
(b) Petroleum
(c) Gold sold in black market
(d) Diamond

Answer: B
Question. The earth’s temperature is increasing due to
Global warming which is due to
(a) The Sun giving out more heat
(b) The Earth slowly moving toward the sun
(c) Increased use of fossil fuel
(d) Less duration of winter every year

Answer: C

Question. The slow process of conversion of dead


vegetation into coal is called
(a) Carbonisation
(b) Fuelification
(c) Coalification
(d) None of the above

Answer : A

Question. CNG is the abbreviated form of


(a) Cpmpressed Natural Gas
(b) Combined natural gas
(c) Confirmed natural gas
(d) Condemned natural gas

Answer : A

Question. Naphthalene balls used to repel moth and insect


is derived from
(a) LPG
(b) Petroleum
(c) Sugar
(d) Coal tar

Answer : D

Question. Coal, Petroleum and natural gas are examples of


(a) Expensive resources
(b) Inexhaustible Natural Resources
(c) Exhaustible Natural Resources
(d) None of the above

Answer : C

Question. Resources present in unlimited quantity in


nature and are not likely to be exhausted by human
activities are called
(a) Inexhaustible Natural Resources
(b) Exhaustible Natural Resources
(c) Exhaustible Resources
(d) None of the above

Answer : A

Question. The earths temperature is increasing due to


Global warming which is due to
(a) Increased use of fossil fuel
(b) The Sun giving out more heat
(c) The Earth slowly moving toward the sun
(d) Less duration of winter every year

Answer : A

Question. Black gold is actually


(a) Diamond
(b) Gold which became black on burning
(c) Gold sold in black market
(d) Petroleum

Answer : D

Question. To reduce fuel consumption in automobile one


should
(a) Ensure proper maintenance of the vehicle
(b) Drive very fast to reach early
(c) Not check tyre pressure regularly
(d) Not switch off the engine at traffic lights

Answer : A

Question. Use of CNG in automobile is better than petrol


because it is
(a) All of the above
(b) cheaper
(c) Less polluting
(d) Cannot be adulterd
Answer : A

Question. In India petroleum deposit was first found in the


state of
(a) Assam
(b) Gujarat
(c) Maharashtra
(d) West Bengal

Answer : A

Question. Which of the following is obtained from coal tar ?


(a) Naphthalene balls
(b) Petrol
(c) Coke
(d) Air

Answer : A

Question. Which of the following is manmade resource?


(a) Parks
(b) Air
(c) Water
(d) Soil

Answer : A

Question. Which of the following is natural resource?


(a) Bus
(b) Carbon dioxide is formed
(c) Water
(d) Parks

Answer : C

Question. An example of fossil fuel is


(a) Coal
(b) Wood
(c) Animal waste
(d) All of these

Answer : A

Question. Coaltar contains about


(a) 300 substance
(b) 200 substance
(c) 400 substance
(d) 100 substance

Answer : B

Question. Purest form of carbon is


(a) Coke
(b) Cole
(c) Charcol
(d) All of these

Answer : A
Question. When coal burns in air then
(a) Carbon dioxide is formed
(b) Sulphur dioxide is formed
(c) Carbon monoxide is formed
(d) Hydrogen gas is formed

Answer : A

Question. Water is a ________


(a) Natural substance
(b) Man made substance
(c) Natural substance and man made substance
(d) None of the options

Answer : A

Question. PCRA stands for


(a) Petroleum conservation research association
(b) Public conservations research association
(c) Public council of research association
(d) Partial counting of remaining amendment

Answer : A

Question. The first oil well was drilled in


(a) Usa
(b) Ussr
(c) Uk
(d) India

Answer : A

Question: Coal is______in nature

a) Hard

b) Soft

c) Thin

d) Hot

Answer: Hard

Question: Coal is_______in colour

a) Black

b) Blue

c) Orange

d) Red

Answer: Black

Question: Coal can be formed from

a) Fossils
b) Sunlight

c) Steam

d) Plants

Answer: Fossils

Question: Fossils are the

a) Dead remains of living organism

b) Coal mines

c) Kind of natural resource

d) Living beings

Answer: Dead remains of living organism

Question: Petroleum is______natural resource

a) Exhaustible

b) Inexhaustible

c) Both Exhaustible and Inexhaustible

d) None of the options

Answer: Exhaustible

Question: Sunlight is______natural resource


a) Inexhaustible

b) Exhaustible

c) Both Inexhaustible and Exhaustible

d) None of the options

Answer: Inexhaustible

Question: Which of the following is an exhaustible natural


resource?

a) Forest

b) Air

c) Water

d) Soil

Answer: Forest

Question: Resources which are limited in nature are Known


as

a) Exhaustible

b) Inexhaustible

c) Unnatural

d) None of the options


Answer: Exhaustible

Question: Inexhaustible natural resources in nature are

a) Unlimited

b) Limited

c) Scarce

d) Not present

Answer: Unlimited

Question: Which of the following is natural resources?

a) Air

b) Tea

c) Cooked Food

d) Toffee

Answer: Air

Question: Coal tar has an______smell

a) Unpleasant

b) Pleasant

c) Both Unpleasant and Pleasant


d) None of the options

Answer: Unpleasant

Question: The characteristic of coal is

a) All of the options

b) Tough

c) Black in colour

d) Porous

Answer: All of the options

Question: Which is an almost pure form of carbon?

a) Coal gas

b) Coke

c) Coal tar

d) None of the options

Answer: Coal gas

Question: Coke is used in the manufacturing of

a) Steel

b) Lead
c) Iron

d) Copper

Answer: Steel

Question: Coal is produced in industry to get

a) All of the options

b) Coke

c) Coal tar

d) Coal gas

Answer: All of the options

Question: When heated in air produces

a) Carbon dioxide

b) Carbon monoxide

c) Nitrogen dioxide

d) Oxygen

Answer: Carbon dioxide

Question: Carbonisation is

a) Slow conversion of dead vegetation Into coal


b) Deposition of soil

c) Falling of trees

d) None of the options

Answer: Slow conversion of dead vegetation Into coal

Question: Coal mainly contains

a) Carbon

b) Hydrogen

c) Oxygen

d) Sodium

Answer: Carbon

Question: Other uses of fuel includes

a) All of the options

b) Produce steam to run engine

c) Produce electricity in thermal power plants

d) Fuel in various industries

Answer: All of the options

Question: Coal can be used as a


a) Fuel

b) Fertilizer

c) Purifier

d) Insecticide

Answer: Fuel

Question: LPG is used in / as

a) Home

b) Vehicles

c) Aviation Fuel

d) Road surfacing

Answer: Home

Question: Refining is

a) Separation of various fractions of petroleum

b) Extracting petroleum gas

c) Heating of coal

d) Sedimentation of fossil fuel

Answer: Separation of various fractions of petroleum


Question: The layer containing petroleum oil & gas is

a) Above that of water

b) Below water

c) Between water

d) Below sand

Answer: Above that of water

Question: Petroleum is mixture of

a) All of the options

b) Petrol

c) Diesel

d) Petroleum gas

Answer: All of the options

Question: Petroleum is formed from

a) Organisms in sea

b) Domestic animals

c) Dwild animals

d) Insects

Answer: Organisms in sea


Question: Petrol and diesel can be obtained from

a) Petroleum

b) Coal tar

c) Coal

d) Coal gas

Answer: Petroleum

Question: Heavy motor vehicles like trucks run on

a) Diesel

b) Petrol

c) Coal

d) Coal tar

Answer: Diesel

Question: Which gas is obtained during the processing of


coal?

a) Coal gas

b) Carbon dioxide

c) Carbon monoxide
d) Sulphur dioxide

Answer: Coal gas

Question: Naphthalene balls are obtained from

a) Coal tar

b) Carbon

c) Coke

d) Coal gas

Answer: Coal tar

Question: Coal tar is used in manufacture of

a) All of the options

b) Synthetic dyes

c) Drugs

d) Explosives

Answer: All of the options

Question: The fibres manufacture by petrochemicals are

a) All of the options

b) Nylon
c) Polyester

d) Acrylic

Answer: A

Question: Which of them is used as solvent for dry


cleaning?

a) Petrol

b) Diesel

c) Kerosene

d) Paraffin wax

Answer: A

Question: Which of them is used in extraction of metals?

a) Coke

b) Coal gas

c) Coal tar

d) Petroleum

Answer: A

Question: Diesel is used in


a) Electric generators

b) Coojing oil

c) Paints

d) Road surfacing

Answer: A

Question: Dead organisms are transformed into petroleum


& natural gas in

a) Absence of air

b) Presence of air

c) Presence of sun light

d) None of the options

Answer: A

Question: Hydrogen gas obtained from natural gas is used


in

a) Fertilizers

b) Motor fuel

c) Paints

d) Stoves
Answer: A

Question: Petrochemicals are used in the manufacture of

a) All of the options

b) Polythene

c) Fibres

d) Detergents

Answer: A

Question: Useful substances obtained from petroleum &


natural gases are called

a) Petrochemicals

b) Chemicals

c) Petroleum products

d) None of the options

Answer: A

Question: Kerosene is used in / as

a) Jet engines

b) Fuel
c) Ointments

d) Lubricants

Answer: A

Question: CNG is

a) Less polluting

b) Highly polluting

c) Not at all polluting

d) None of the options

Answer: A

Question: Which of the following is / are fossil fuels?

a) All of the options

b) Coal

c) Petroleum

d) Natural gas

Answer: A

Question: Petrol can be saved by

a) All of the options


b) Driving at a constant & moderate speed

c) Ensuring correct type pressure

d) Switching off the engine at traffic lights

Answer: B

Question: What is called black gold?

a) Petroleum

b) Coal

c) Coal Tar

d) Natural gas

Answer: A

Question: Bitumen is used in

a) Road surfacing

b) Electric generators

c) Coal tar

d) Natural Gas

Answer: A

Question: PCRA stands for


a) Petroleum conversation Research association

b) Pollution control research association

c) Petroleum control research association

d) Petrol, coal reserve association

Answer: A

Question: Burning of fossil fuel causes

a) Both Air pollution and Global warming

b) Air pollution

c) Global warming

d) None of the options

Answer: A

Question: In India, vast reserves of natural gas are found in

a) All of the options

b) Tripura

c) Maharashtra

d) Rajasthan

Answer: A
Question: CNG is used for

a) Power generation

b) Electric generators

c) Solvent

d) None of the options

Answer: A

Question: CNG is stored under

a) Electric Generators

b) Power generation

c) Solvent

d) None of the options

Answer: A

Question: Natural gas can be transported through

a) Pipes

b) Cylinders

c) Barriers

d) None of the options

Answer: A
Question. Which of the following is manmade resource?
(a) Air
(b) Water
(c) Soil
(d) Parks

Answer : D

Question. Petrochemicals are obtained from


(a) petroleum
(b) natural gas
(c) petroleum and natural gas
(d) none of these

Answer : C

Question. Which Of The Following Is A Pair Of Exhaustible


Natural Resources?
(a) Coal and soil
(b) Air and sunlight
(c) Water and petroleum
(d) Wildlife and minerals

Answer : D

Question. The first oil well was drilled in


(a) USA
(b) USSR
(c) UK
(d) India
Answer : A

Question. The percentage of methane in natural gas 15:


(a) 100%
(b) 90%
(c) 95%
(d) 80%

Answer : C

Question. Which Of The Following Is Not A Constituent Of


Petroleum?
(a) Paraffin wax
(b). Lubricating Oil
(c) Petrol
(d) Coke

Answer : D

Question. Which Substance Is Formed By The


Carbonization Of Dead Vegetation?
(a). Coal
(b) Coke
(c) Coal gas
(d) Coal tar

Answer : A

Question. Various Materials Which Are Obtained From


Nature Are Called Natural Resources. Which Of The
Following Is Not A Natural Resource?
(a) Minerals
(b) Water
(c) Soil
(d) Plastic

Answer : D

Question. The main gas present in LPG is:


(a) methane
(b) Propane
(c) Butane
(d) hexane

Answer : C

Question. Fossil Fuels Are Obtained From:


(a) Remains of non-living materials
(b) Dead remains of birds only
(c) Dead remains of insects only
(d) Dead remains of living organisms

Answer : D
MCQ for Class 8 Science Chapter 4
Materials Metals and Non Metals
Class 8 Science students should refer to the following
multiple-choice questions with answers for Chapter 4
Materials Metals and Non Metals in Class 8.

Chapter 4 Materials Metals and Non Metals MCQ


Questions Class 8 Science with Answers
Question. The property of metals by which they can be
beaten into thin sheets is called ____
a) Ductility
b) Sheetability
c) Metallic
d) Malleability

Answer : D

Question. The property of metal by which it can be drawn


into wires is called ______
a) Ductility
b) Sheetability
c) Metallic
d) Malleability

Answer : A
Question. The metal found in liquid state is
a) Iron
b) Aluminium
c) Mercury
d) Gold

Answer : C

Question. When a copper vessel is exposed to moist air for


long, it acquires a dull green coating. The green material is
a mixture of
a) Copper oxide and Copper Nitrate
b) Copper hydroxide & Copper Carbonate
c) Copper carbonate and Copper sulphate
d) Copper hydroxide and Copper Nitrate

Answer : B

Question. When sulphur dioxide is dissolved in water


__________ is formed.
a) Sulphuric acid
b) Sulphoxy acid
c) Sulphurous acid
d) Sulphur trioxide

Answer : C
Question. Sodium metal is stored in
a) water
b) Kept under open air
c) alcohol
d) Kerosene

Answer : D

Question. Phosphorus is stored in


a) water
b) Kept under open air
c) alcohol
d) Kerosene

Answer : A

Question. Since metals produce ringing sounds, they are


said to be ____.
a) Sound metal
b) Sonorous
c) Ring metal
d) malleable

Answer : B

Question. A substance which cannot be broken down


further by chemical reactions, by cooling, heating, or by
electrolysis, is called ______
a) Metal
b) Non Metal
c) Element
d) Compound

Answer : C

Question. They are not sonorous and are poor conductors


of heat and electricity. These materials are
a) elements
b) Metals
c) Compound
d) Non metals

Answer : A

Question: When non-metals react with water then

a) Non-metals do not react with water

b) Hydrogen gas is formed

c) Carbon dioxide gas is formed

d) None of the options

Answer : A

Question: The metal which can be cut with a knife

a) Sodium and potassium


b) Barium and calcium

c) Sodium and mercury

d) Potassium and calcium.

Answer : A

Question: Metal oxides are of nature

a) Basic

b) Acidic

c) Netural

d) None of the options

Answer : A

Question: All metals are solids except

a) Mercury

b) Sodium

c) Calcium

d) Hydrogen

Answer : A

Question: Materials around us can be classified into


a) Metals and non-metals

b) Elements and compounds

c) Acids and bases

d) None of the options

Answer : A

Question: The non-metal which is liquid at room


temperature is:

a) Bromine

b) Carbon

c) Iodine

d) Chlorine

Answer : A

Question: The metal which is stored in kerosene:

a) Sodium

b) Phosphorus

c) Magnesium

d) Magnesium

Answer : A
Question: Non-metals are:

a) Generally solids and gases

b) Generally liquids

c) Generally gases

d) Generally gases and liquids.

Answer : A

Question: The liquid metal at room temperature

a) Mercury

b) Bromine

c) Sodium

d) Gold

Answer : A

Question: The most reactive metal is:

a) Potassium

b) Iron

c) Gold

d) Zinc
Answer : A

Question: What is the product when sulphur reacts with


oxygen?

a) Sulphur dioxide

b) Sulphurous acid

c) Sulphuric acid

d) Sulphur trioxide

Answer : A

Question: The solution of ash of magnesium ribbon is

a) Basic

b) Acidic

c) Neutral

d) All of the options

Answer : A

Question: Which metal is found in liquid state t room


temperature?

a) Hg

b) Zn
c) Fe

d) Al

Answer : A

Question: The metals that produce ringing sounds, are said


to be

a) Sonorous

b) Malleable

c) Lustrous

d) Hard

Answer : A

Question: The property of metal by which it can be drawn


into wires is called

a) Ductility

b) Decorating

c) Malleability

d) Conductivity

Answer : A
Question: Which one of the following is a good conductor
of electricity?

a) Iron

b) Plastic

c) Wood

d) Glass

Answer : A

Question: All materials shown property of malleability


expect

a) Graphite

b) Iron

c) Aluminium

d) Silver

Answer : A

Question: The property of metals by which they can be


beaten in to thin sheets is called

a) Malleability

b) Ductility

c) Conduction
d) Expansion

Answer : A

Question: Which one of the following is metal?

a) Na

b) N

c) O

d) C

Answer : A

Question: Which one of the following is non metal?

a) N

b) Fe

c) Al

d) Zn

Answer : A

Question: Which gas are produced when metal react with


acids
a) Hydrogen
b) Carbon dioxide

c) Nitrogen

d) Oxygen

Answer: Hydrogen

Question: What is the chemical formula of copper


sulphate?

a) Cuco3

b) Cuso4

c) Cucl2

d) Cuo

Answer: Cuco3

Question: Which non-metal catches fire if the exposed to


air

a) Phosphorous

b) Sodium

c) Calcium

d) Uranium

Answer: Phosphorous
Question: Which metal is present in Calcium Hydroxide?

a) Ca

b) C

c) O

d) H

Answer: Ca

Question: Which one of the following metal reacts


vigorously with oxygen and water?

a) Sodium

b) Potassium

c) Calcium

d) Magnesium

Answer: Sodium

Question: Sodium metal is stored in

a) Kerosene

b) Water

c) Alcohol
d) Ether

Answer: Kerosene

Question: Oxides of non metals are _______

a) Acidic

b) Basic

c) Neutral

d) All of the options

Answer: Acidic

Question: The sulphuric acid turns blue litmus paper into

a) Red

b) Green

c) Yellow

d) Dark blue

Answer: Red

Question: What is the chemical formula of sulphurous acid

a) H2SO3

b) H2SO4
c) SO2

d) SO3

Answer: H2SO3

Question: When sulphur dioxide is dissolve in water then

a) Sulphuric acid is formed

b) Sulphurous acid is formed

c) Sulphur trioxide is formed

d) Sulphur is formed

Answer: Sulphuric acid is formed

Question: Which one of the following is applied on wounds


as an antiseptic?

a) Non metals

b) Metals

c) Metalloids

d) All of the options

Answer: Non metals

Question: Non metals used in


a) Fertilisers

b) Aeroplanes

c) Making machinery

d) Water boilers

Answer: Fertilisers

Question: Which non metal is essential for our life and


inhale during breathing?

a) O

b) H

c) C

d) N

Answer: O

Question: Which gas produced by piece of burning


charcoal?

a) CO

b) CO2

c) H2S

d) O2
Answer: CO

Question: On burning metals react with oxygen to produce

a) Metal oxide

b) Metal sulphate

c) Metal chloride

d) Metal hydroxide

Answer: Metal oxide

Question: What happens when dilute sulphuric acid is


poured on a copper plate?

a) Copper sulphate formed

b) Zinc sulphate formed

c) Copper chloride formed

d) Zinc sulphate formed

Answer: Copper sulphate formed

Question: Which of the following statements are correct?

a) Generally metals are ductile

b) Some metals are ductile


c) All metals are ductile

d) All non metals are ductile

Answer: Generally metals are ductile

Question: Which of the following can be beaten in to thin


sheets?

a) Zinc

b) Phosphorus

c) Sulphur

d) Oxygen

Answer: Zinc

Question: Which one of the following gas burns with the


pop - sound?

a) Hydrogen

b) Oxygen

c) Chlorine

d) Hydrogen sulphide

Answer: Hydrogen
Question: Which one of the following does not react with
acids?

a) O

b) Cu

c) Ni

d) Cr

Answer: O

Question: Which substance is present in fuel?

a) Carbon

b) Copper

c) Iron

d) Gold

Answer: Carbon

Question: Which one of the following cant be drawn into


wires?

a) Coal

b) Cu

c) Al

d) Fe
Answer: Coal

Question: Which one of the following metal is used


thermometers?

a) Mercury

b) Copper

c) Aluminium

d) Iron

Answer: Mercury

Question: Gold is used in

a) Jewellery

b) Thermometers

c) Fuel

d) Machinery

Answer: Jewellery

Question: Which material is hard in nature?

a) Iron

b) Coal
c) Oxygen

d) Wood

Answer: Iron

Question: Which material show shiny appearance?

a) Aluminium

b) Coal

c) Sulphur

d) Carbon

Answer: Aluminium

Question: Which one of the following is the good conducter


of electricity?

a) Iron rod

b) Sulphur

c) Coal piece

d) Wood

Answer: Iron rod


Question: Which one of the following are very reactive non
metals

a) Phosphorous

b) Carbon

c) Potassium

d) Sodium

Answer: Phosphorous

Question: Copper sulphate (CuSO4) possesses

a) Blue colour

b) Red colour

c) Green colour

d) Yellow colour

Answer: Blue colour

Question: Which metal is found in plants?

a) Mg

b) Fe

c) Cr

d) CO
Answer: Mg

Question: Moist air is the combination of

a) H2O+CO2+O2

b) H2O+ CO+O2

c) H2O+CO2+H2

d) H2O+O2+H2

Answer: H2O+CO2+O2

Question: Heat conduction is the property of

a) Metal

b) Non-metal

c) Metalloids

d) All of the options

Answer: Metal

Question: Which of the following cant be beaten into


sheets?

a) Sulphur

b) Aluminium
c) Iron

d) Zinc

Answer: Sulphur

Question: Hydrogen gas produce when metal react with

a) Base

b) Acid

c) Salt

d) Both acid & base

Answer: Base

Question: Which one of the following is in crackers?

a) Non-metal

b) Metals

c) Semi metals

d) All of the options

Answer: Non-metal

Question: Which one of the following enhances the growth


of plants?
a) Fertilisers

b) Industrial gadgets

c) Automobiles

d) Water boilers

Answer: Fertilisers

Question: Which one of the following is used for decorating


sweets?

a) Silver foil

b) Aluminium foil

c) Copper foil

d) All of the options

Answer: Silver foil

Question: Aluminium foil used for wrapping

a) Food

b) Clothes

c) Plastic

d) Wires

Answer: Food
Question: Metallic oxides are-

a) Basic in nature

b) Acidic is nature

c) Neutral

d) Either acidic or basic

Answer: Basic in nature

Question: Zinc replaces copper from-

a) Copper sulphate

b) Zinc sulphate

c) Sulphuric acid

d) Copper oxide

Answer: Copper sulphate

Question: Which substance is present in fuel


a) Carbon

b) Gold

c) Iron

d) Copper
Answer : A

Question: Which one of the following cant be drawn into


wires

a) Coal

b) Cu

c) Al

d) Fe

Answer : A

Question: Which one of the following metal is used


thermometers

a) Mercury

b) Copper

c) Aluminium

d) Iron

Answer : A

Question: Gold is used in

a) Jewellery
b) Machinery

c) Fuel

d) Thermometers

Answer : A

Question: Which material is hard in nature

a) Iron

b) Coal

c) Oxygen

d) Wood

Answer : A

Question: Which material show shiny appearance

a) Aluminium

b) Sulphur

c) Coal

d) Carbon

Answer : A
Question: Which one of the following is the good conducter
of electricity

a) Iron rod

b) Sulphur

c) Coal piece

d) Wood

Answer : A

Question: Which one of the following are very reactive non


metals

a) Phosphorous

b) Carbon

c) Potassium

d) Sodium

Answer : A

Question: Copper sulphate (CuSO4) possesses

a) Blue colour

b) Green colour

c) Yellow colour
d) Red colour

Answer : A

Question: Which metal is found in plants

a) Mg

b) CO

c) Cr

d) Fe

Answer : A

Question: Which one of the following is applied on wounds


as an antiseptic

a) Non metals

b) Metals

c) Metalloids

d) All the options

Answer : A

Question: Non metals used in

a) Fertilisers
b) Water boilers

c) Making machinery

d) Aeroplanes

Answer : A

Question: Which non metal is essential for our life and


inhale during breathing

a) O

b) C

c) H

d) N

Answer : A

Question: Which gas produced by piece of burning


charcoal

a) CO

b) H2S

c) O2

d) CO2

Answer : A
Question: On burning metals react with oxygen to produce

a) Metal oxide

b) Metal sulphate

c) Metal chloride

d) Metal hydroxide

Answer : A

Question: What happens when dilute sulphuric acid is


poured on a copper plate

a) Copper sulphate formed

b) Zinc sulphate formed

c) Copper chloride formed

d) Zinc sulphate formed

Answer : A

Question: Which of the following statements are correct

a) Generally metals are ductile

b) All non metals are ductile

c) Some metals are ductile


d) All metals are ductile

Answer : A

Question: Which of the following can be beaten in to thin


sheets

a) Zinc

b) Phosphorus

c) Sulphur

d) Oxygen

Answer : A

Question: Which one of the following gas burns with the


pop sound

a) Hydrogen

b) Chlorine

c) Oxygen

d) Hydrogen sulphide

Answer : A

Question: Which one of the following does not react with


acids
a) O

b) Cr

c) Ni

d) Cu

Answer : A

Question. Consider The Following Statements And Choose


The Incorrect One:

(a) Atom is the smallest part of an element.

(b) An element is a substance which is made up of only one


kind of atoms.

(c) An atom of liquid sulphur or vapour forms of sulphur


would be different as that of solid sulphur.

(d) Oxygen and nitrogen are two examples of elements.

Answer : C

Question. The metal which is liquid at room temperature is

(a) sodium

(b) bromine

(c) calcium

(d) mercury

Answer : D
Question. Which of the following dissolves in water to form
sulphuric acid?

(a) Sulphur dioxide

(b) Sulphur

(c) Sulphur trioxide

(d) Copper sulphate

Answer : C

Question. Which non-metal is used in making glass?

(a) Graphite

(b) Sulphur

(c) Silica

(d) None of these

Answer : C

Question. Brass is an alloy of:

(a) zinc – copper- tin

(b) copper – tin

(c) zinc – copper

(d) zinc – tin

Answer : C
Question. Phosphorus combines with oxygen to form
oxides. How many types of oxides are formed by it?

(a) One

(b) Two

(c) Three

(d) Four

Answer : B

Quetion. The best electrical conductor is

(a) gold

(b) copper

(c) silver

(d) aluminium

Answer : C

Question. Non-rpetals

(a) react with water

(b) do not react with water

(c) both (a) and (b)

(d) none of these

Answer : B
Question. The metal which is not corroded by air, water and
acid is

(a) copper

(b) zinc

(c) aluminium

(d) gold

Answer : D

Question. Metal are hard but _____ can be cut with a knife

(a) iron

(b) potassium

(c) mercury

(d) magnesium

Answer : B

Question: They are not sonorous and are poor conductors


of heat and electricity. These materials are

a) Non metals

b) Metals

c) elements

d) Compound

Answer: Non metals


Question: A substance which cannot be broken down
further by chemical reactions, by cooling, heating, or by
electrolysis, is called ______

a) Element

b) Metal

c) Non Metal

d) Compound

Answer: Element

Question: Since metals produce ringing sounds, they are


said to be ____.

a) Sonorous

b) Sound metal

c) Ring metal

d) Malleable

Answer: Sonorous

Question: Phosphorus is stored in

a) water

b) Kerosene
c) Kept under open air

d) alcohol

Answer: water

Question: Sodium metal is stored in

a) Kerosene

b) Water

c) Kept under open air

d) alcohol

Answer: Kerosene

Question: When sulphur dioxide is dissolved in water


__________ is formed.

a) Sulphurous acid

b) Sulphuric acid

c) Sulphoxy acid

d) Sulphur trioxide

Answer: Sulphurous acid


Question: When a copper vessel is exposed to moist air for
long, it acquires a dull green coating. The green material is
a mixture of

a) Copper hydroxide & Copper Carbonate

b) Copper oxide and Copper Nitrate

c) Copper carbonate and Copper sulphate

d) Copper hydroxide and Copper Nitrate

Answer: Copper hydroxide & Copper Carbonate

Question: The metal found in liquid state is

a) Mercury

b) Iron

c) Aluminium

d) Gold

Answer: Mercury

Question: The property of metal by which it can be drawn


into wires is called ______

a) Ductility

b) Sheetability

c) Metallic
d) Malleability

Answer: Ductility

Question: The property of metals by which they can be


beaten into thin sheets is called ____

a) Malleability

b) Ductility

c) Sheetability

d) Metallic

Answer: Malleability

Question: What is the product when sulphur reacts with


oxygen

a) Sulphur dioxide

b) Sulphur trioxide

c) Sulphurous acid

d) Sulphuric acid

Answer: Sulphur dioxide

Question: The solution of ash of magnesium ribbon is

a) Basic
b) All the options

c) Neutral

d) Acidic

Answer: Basic

Question: Which metal is found in liquid state t room


temperature?

a) Hg

b) Zn

c) Fe

d) Al

Answer: Hg

Question: The metals that produce ringing sounds, are said


to be-

a) Sonorous

b) Hard

c) Lustrous

d) Malleable

Answer: Sonorous
Question: The property of metals by which they can be
beaten in to thin sheets is called

a) Malleability

b) Expansion

c) Ductility

d) conduction

Answer: Malleability

Question: Which one of the following is metal?

a) Na

b) N

c) C

d) O

Answer: Na

Question: Which one of the following is non metal?

a) N

b) Fe

c) Al
d) Zn

Answer: N

Question: All materials shown property of malleability


expect

a) Graphite

b) Iron

c) Aluminium

d) Silver

Answer: Graphite

Question: Which one of the following is a good conductor


of electricity?

a) Iron

b) Plastic

c) Wood

d) Glass

Answer: Iron

Question: The property of metal by which it can be drawn


into wires is called
a) Ductility

b) Conductivity

c) Malleability

d) Decorating

Answer: Ductility

Question: Which gas are produced when metal react with


acids

a) Hydrogen

b) Carbon dioxide

c) Nitrogen

d) Oxygen

Answer: Hydrogen

Question: What is the chemical formula of copper sulphate

a) CuCO3

b) CuSO4

c) CuCl2

d) CuO

Answer: CuCO3
Question: Which non-metal catches fire if the exposed to
air

a) Phosphorous

b) Sodium

c) Calcium

d) Uranium

Answer: Phosphorous

Question: Which metal is present in Calcium Hydroxide

a) Ca

b) H

c) O

d) C

Answer: Ca

Question: Which one of the following metal reacts


vigorously with oxygen and water

a) Sodium

b) Calcium
c) Potassium

d) Magnesium

Answer: Sodium

Question: Sodium metal is stored in-

a) Kerosene

b) Ether

c) Alcohol

d) Water

Answer: Kerosene

Question: ides of non metals are _______ in nature

a) Acidic

b) Neutral

c) Basic

d) All the options

Answer: Acidic

Question: The sulphuric acid turns blue litmus paper into

a) Red
b) Green

c) Yellow

d) Dark blue

Answer: Red

Question: What is the chemical formula of sulphurous acid

a) H2SO3

b) SO3

c) SO2

d) H2SO4

Answer: H2SO3

Question: When sulphur dioxide is dissolve in water then

a) Sulphuric acid is formed

b) Sulphurous acid is formed

c) Sulphur trioxide is formed

d) Sulphur is formed

Answer: Sulphuric acid is formed


Question. Which of the following is not a heavy metal?
(A) Cu
(B) Hg
(C) Pb
(D) K

Answer: D

Question. Gold is mixed with copper to


(A) make gold soft
(B) make gold hard
(C) make gold more yellowish
(D) give gold lustre

Answer: B

Question. Metal surface reacts with oxygen and the


moisture present in air and get coated with
(A) oxide
(B) carbonate
(C) hydroxide
(D) any of these

Answer: D

Question. Eating away of metals by water, oxygen and


other chemicals is called
(A) carbonisation
(B) amalgamation
(C) oxidation
(D) corrosion

Answer: D
Question. Rusting of iron requires the presence of
(A) Air and water
(B) CO2 and water
(C) O2 and H2
(D) O2 and N2

Answer: A

Question. Al forms
(A) Basic oxide
(B) Amphoteric oxide
(C) Acidic oxide
(D) None of the above

Answer: B

Question. Corrosion of metals can be prevented when


contact between metal and_____________ is cut off.
(A) nitrogen
(B) hydrogen
(C) oxygen
(D) carbon

Answer: C

Question. Iron is galvanised when it is dipped in


(A) molten zinc
(B) molten copper
(C) molten carbon
(D) molten gold

Answer: A
Question. The process of giving a coating
of__________________to copper or brass is called tinning.
(A) zinc
(B) copper
(C) tin
(D) iron

Answer: C

Question. Metal which reacts vigorously with HCI to


produce salt and hydrogen is
(A) Na
(B) Zn
(C) Sn
(D) Pb

Answer: A

Question. Cu + HCl →
(A) react vigorously
(B) no reaction
(C) react modestly
(D) react slowly

Answer: B

Question. The nonmetal capable of gaining as well as


losing an electron is
(A) Hg
(B) Ca
(C) Ag
(D) H
Answer: D

Question. The metal with which hydrogen reacts to form


metal hydride is
(A) Hg
(B) Ca
(C) Ag
(D) H

Answer: B

Question. Nonmetals combine with oxygen to produce


(A) acidic oxides
(B) basic oxide
(C) amphoteric oxide
(D) none of these

Answer: A

Question. The oxides of nonmetal which is neutral is


(A) SO2
(B) NO2
(C) P2O3
{D)CO

Answer: D

Question. Phosphorus combine with oxygen to form _____


types of oxides.
(A) three
(B) two
(C) one
(D) four
Answer: B

Question. _____________dissolves in water to produce


sulphuric acid.
(A) SO2
(B) S
(C) SO3
(D) 2S

Answer: C

Question. Nonmetals + acids ® ?


(A) react slow
(B) react violently
(C) react moderately
(D) no reaction

Answer: D

Question. Nonmetals react with hydrogen to form


(A) covalent compounds
(B) ionic compounds
(C) electrovalent compounds
(D) coordinate compounds

Answer: A

Question. P4 + 6Cl2 →
(A) 2P2Cl6
(B) 4PCl3
(C) PCl6
(D) P2Cl5
Answer: B

Question. Mercury is used in thermometers because


(A) it does not wet the glass
(B) it expands on heating
(C) it is a liquid
(D) all of these

Answer: D

Question. ____________ is used to make photographic films.


(A) sodium chloride
(B) silver bromide
(C) potassium iodide
(D) copper chloride

Answer: B

Question. A crucible used in lab to heat solid at high


temperature is made of
(A) sulphur
(B) silicon
(C) graphite
(D) phosphorus

Answer: C

Question. The nonmetal used to treat rubber in the process


of vulcanisation is
(A) sulphur
(B) phosphorus
(C) carbon
(D) chloride

Answer: A

Question. Match–head contains


(A) N2
(B) I2
(C) P
(D) C

Answer: C

Question. ______________is used in the hydrogenation of


vegetable oils.
(A) Cl2
(B) N2
(C) O2
(D) H2

Answer: D

Question. Due to its semiconductor propertics, the


nonmetal used in computers, TV, etc. is
(A) carbon
(B) silicon
(C) bromine
(D) fluorine
Answer: B

Question. In the native state of metal, it is present


(A) as a mixture with a metal
(B) in free state
(C) as a mixture with a nonmetal
(D) as a mixture with a compound

Answer: B

Question. Which of the following metal is present in native


state?
(A) Platinum
(B) Iron
(C) Potassium
(D) Copper

Answer: A

Question. Which of the following is called as noble metal?


(A) Mercury
(B) Gold
(C) Lithium
(D) Cesium

Answer : B

Question. Which of the following statement is true?


(A) All minerals are ores
(B) All minerals are not ores
(C) All ores are not minerals
(D) Some ores are minerals

Answer : B

Question. Haematite is an ore of


(A) Fe
(B) Zn
(C) Cu
(D) Al

Answer : A

Question. Fe3O4 is the chemical formula of


(A) monazite
(B) magnetite
(C) haematite
(D) bauxite

Answer : B

Question. Copper, which is extracted from cuprite, is a/an


(A) sulphide ore
(B) carbonate ore
(C) oxide ore
(D) halide ore
Answer : C

Question. Which of the following is a carbonate ore of


copper?
(A) Cuprite
(B) Pyrite
(C) Copper glance
(D) Malachite

Answer: C

Question. Which of the following are the ores of zinc?


(A) Calamine and zinc blend
(B) Zinc blend and cerrusite
(C) Calomine and siderite
(D) Zinc blend and carnallite

Answer: A

Question. The metal extracted from limestone, marble and


chalk is
(A) sodium
(B) Calcium
(C) Aluminium
(D) iron

Answer: B

Question. The chemical formula of bauxite is


(A) CaFeS2
(B) MgCO3
(C) Al2O3·2H2O
(D) PbCO3

Answer: C

Question. Rocksalt is
(A) KCl
(B) CaCl2
(C) MgCl2
(D) NaCI

Answer: D

Question. Metals generally have_________number of


electrons in their valence shell.
(A) 1, 2 or 3
(B) 7, 8 or 9
(C) 10, 11 or 12
(D) 5, 6 or 7

Answer: A

Question. Nonmetals contain__________number of electrons


in their outmost shell.
(A) 1,2 or 3
(B) 8, 9 or 10
(C) 10, 20 or 30
(D) 5, 6 or 7

Answer: D

Question. Nonmetals form


(A) cations
(B) anions
(C) anions and cation
(D) do not form ions

Answer: B

Question. To become stable, metals


(A) lose or gain electrons
(B) neither lose or gain electrons
(C) lose electrons
(D) gain electrons

Answer: C

Question. Metals tends to form


(A) cations
(B) anions
(C) cations and anions
(D) do not form ions

Answer: A
Question. Antimony and arsenic belong to the category of
(A) metals
(B) metalloids
(C) nonmetals
(D) minerals

Answer: B

Question. Nobles gases do not react because they have


_________ electrons in their valence shell.
(A) 3
(B) 6
(C) 1
(D) 8

Answer: D

Question. As we go down in the electrochemical series of


metals, the reactivity
(A) decreases and then increases
(B) increases and then decreases
(C) decreases
(D) increases

Answer: C

Question. The element present below hydrogen in


electrochemical series is
(A) Mg
(B) Hg
(C) Pb
(D) Sn

Answer: B

Question. The metal which can replace magnesium from


its salt is
(A) Ca
(B) Al
(C) Zn
(D) Fe

Answer: A

Question. The most reactive of the following metals is


(A) Ca
(B) Al
(C) Ni
(D) Pb

Answer: A

Question. Metals can be hammered into thin sheets. This


property is called
(A) density
(B) malleability
(C) ductility
(D) strength

Answer: B

Question. Metals are malleable and ductile because


(A) metals can shine
(B) metals produce sound
(C) layers of metal atoms can slip over each other
(D) atoms form close clusters

Answer: C

Question. Metal which is the best conductor of electricity


(A) nickel
(B) silver
(C) gold
(D) sodium

Answer: B

Question. The colour of iodine is


(A) violet
(B) green
(C) white
(D) brown

Answer: A
Question. The nonmetal which exhibits yellow colour is
(A) silicon
(B) phosphorus
(C) sulphur
(D) carbon

Answer: C

Question. The nonmetal which is hard is


(A) sulphur
(B) chlorine
(C) graphite
(D) diamond

Answer: D

Question. Which of the following is a property of


nonmetals?
(A) Low densities
(B) Low melting points
(C) Poor conductor of electricity
(D) A11 the three

Answer: D

Question. The nonmetal which is a liquid at room


temperature is
(A) chlorine
(B) nitrogen
(C) bromine
(D) hydrogen

Answer: C

Question. Metal which does not react with HCI is


(A) Ag
(B) Mg
(C) Al
(D) Fe

Answer: A

Question. Metals are malleable and ductile because


(A) Metals can shine
(B) Metals produce sound
(C) Layers of metal atoms can slip over each other
(D) Atoms form close clusters

Answer: C

Question. The metal which can replace calcium from its


salt is
(A) Al
(B) Zn
(C) Fe
(D) K

Answer: D
Question. The most reactive of the following metals is
(A) Ca
(B) Al
(C) Ni
(D) Pb

Answer: A

Question. Which of the following elements is highly


resistant to corrosion
(A) Iron
(B) Nickel
(C) Silver
(D) Titanium

Answer: D

Question. Metals can be hammered into thin sheets. This


property is called
(A) Density
(B) Malleability
(C) Ductility
(D) Strength

Answer: B

Question. Metal which is the best conductor of electricity


(A) Nickel
(B) Silver
(C) Gold
(D) Sodium

Answer: B

Question. The non-metal which is hard is


(A) Sulphur
(B) Chlorine
(C) Graphite
(D) Diamond

Answer: D

Question. A non-metal used to preserve food stuffs


(A) Nitrogen
(B) Phosphorus
(C) Carbon
(D) None

Answer: C

Question. A metal which is liquid at room temperature is


(A) Hg
(B) Na
(C) K
(D) Al
Answer: A

Question. Which of the following statements is incorrect?


(A) Metals have no lustre
(B) All metal oxides are basic in nature
(C) Metals have 1, 2 or 3 electrons in the outermost shell
(D) Metals are malleable

Answer: A

Question. Which of the following is the second most


abundant metal in the earth’s crust?
(A) Copper
(B) Aluminium
(C) Iron
(D) Zinc

Answer: B

Question. Metallurgy is a process of


(A) extracting metal from its mineral
(B) extracting metal from its ore
(C) extracting pure metal from its ore
(D) extracting metal from its pure ore

Answer: C

Question. Matrix is defined as


(A) the unwanted foreign material present in the ore
(B) the flux added to remove the unwanted impurities from
ore
(C) the slag formed as a result of the reaction of flux with
gangue
(D) the material used in the reduction of metal oxide to
metal

Answer: C

Question. Which of the following is not an ore of


aluminium?
(A) Cryolite
(B) Feldspar
(C) Bauxite
(D) Azurite

Answer: A

Question. The function of adding cryolite in the extraction


of aluminium from pure alumina is
(A) to increase the fusion temperature
(B) to decrease the condcutivity of alumina
(C) to decrease the conductivity of alumina
(D) none of these

Answer: D
Question. Which of the following is not a heavy metal?
(A) Cu
(B) Hg
(C) Pb
(D) K

Answer : D

Question. Gold is mixed with copper to


(A) make gold soft
(B) make gold hard
(C) make gold more yellowish
(D) give gold lustre

Answer : B

Question. Metal surface reacts with oxygen and the


moisture present in air and get coated with
(A) oxide
(B) carbonate
(C) hydroxide
(D) any of these

Answer : D

Question. Eating away of metals by water, oxygen and


other chemicals is called
(A) carbonisation
(B) amalgamation
(C) oxidation
(D) corrosion

Answer : D
Question. Rusting of iron requires the presence of
(A) air and water
(B) CO2 and water
(C) O2 and H2
(D) O2 and N2

Answer : A

Question. Al forms
(A) Basic oxide
(B) Amphoteric oxide
(C) Acidic oxide
(D) None of the above

Answer : B

Question. Corrosion of metals can be prevented when


contact between metal and_____________ is cut off.
(A) nitrogen
(B) hydrogen
(C) oxygen
(D) carbon

Answer : C

Question. Iron is galvanised when it is dipped in


(A) molten zinc
(B) molten copper
(C) molten carbon
(D) molten gold

Answer : A
Question. The process of giving a coating
of__________________to copper or brass is called tinning.
(A) zinc
(B) copper
(C) tin
(D) iron

Answer : C

Question. Metal which reacts vigorously with HCI to


produce salt and hydrogen is
(A) Na
(B) Zn
(C) Sn
(D) Pb

Answer : A

Question. Cu + HCl →
(A) react vigorously
(B) no reaction
(C) react modestly
(D) react slowly

Answer : B

Question. The nonmetal capable of gaining as well as


losing an electron is
(A) Hg
(B) Ca
(C) Ag
(D) H
Answer : D

Question. The metal with which hydrogen reacts to form


metal hydride is
(A) Hg
(B) Ca
(C) Ag
(D) H

Answer : B

Question. Nonmetals combine with oxygen to produce


(A) acidic oxides
(B) basic oxide
(C) amphoteric oxide
(D) none of these

Answer : A

Question. The oxides of nonmetal which is neutral is


(A) SO2
(B) NO2
(C) P2O3
{D) CO

Answer : D

Question. Phosphorus combine with oxygen to form ..........


types of oxides.
(A) three
(B) two
(C) one
(D) four

Answer : B

Question. _____________dissolves in water to produce


sulphuric acid.
(A) SO2
(B) S
(C) SO3
(D) 2S

Answer : C

Question. Nonmetals + acids → ?


(A) react slow
(B) react violently
(C) react moderately
(D) no reaction

Answer : D

Question. Nonmetals react with hydrogen to form


(A) covalent compounds
(B) ionic compounds
(C) electrovalent compounds
(D) coordinate compounds

Answer : A
Question. P4 + 6Cl2 →
(A) 2P2Cl6
(B) 4PCl3
(C) PCl6
(D) P2Cl5

Answer : B

Question. Mercury is used in thermometers because


(A) it does not wet the glass
(B) it expands on heating
(C) it is a liquid
(D) all of these

Answer : D

Question. ____________ is used to make photographic films.


(A) sodium chloride
(B) silver bromide
(C) potassium iodide
(D) copper chloride

Answer : B

Question. A crucible used in lab to heat solid at high


temperature is made of
(A) sulphur
(B) silicon
(C) graphite
(D) phosphorus

Answer : C
Question. The nonmetal used to treat rubber in the process
of vulcanisation is
(A) sulphur
(B) phosphorus
(C) carbon
(D) chloride

Answer : A

Question. Match–head contains


(A) N2
(B) I2
(C) P
(D) C

Answer : C

Question. ______________is used in the hydrogenation of


vegetable oils.
(A) Cl2
(B) N2
(C) O2
(D) H2

Answer : D

Question. Due to its semiconductor propertics, the


nonmetal used in computers, TV, etc. is
(A) carbon
(B) silicon
(C) bromine
(D) fluorine
Answer : B

Question. In the native state of metal, it is present


(A) as a mixture with a metal
(B) in free state
(C) as a mixture with a nonmetal
(D) as a mixture with a compound

Answer : B

Question. Which of the following metal is present in native


state?
(A) Platinum
(B) Iron
(C) Potassium
(D) Copper

Answer : A

Question. Which of the following is called as noble metal?


(A) Mercury
(B) Gold
(C) Lithium
(D) Cesium

Answer : B

Question. Which of the following statement is true?


(A) All minerals are ores
(B) All minerals are not ores
(C) All ores are not minerals
(D) Some ores are minerals
Answer : B

Question. Haematite is an ore of


(A) Fe
(B) Zn
(C) Cu
(D) Al

Answer : A

Question. Fe3O4 is the chemical formula of


(A) monazite
(B) magnetite
(C) haematite
(D) bauxite

Answer : B

Question. Copper, which is extracted from cuprite, is a/an


(A) sulphide ore
(B) carbonate ore
(C) oxide ore
(D) halide ore

Answer : C

Question. Which of the following is a carbonate ore of


copper?
(A) Cuprite
(B) Pyrite
(C) Copper glance
(D) Malachite
Answer : C

Question. Which of the following are the ores of zinc?


(A) Calamine and zinc blend
(B) Zinc blend and cerrusite
(C) Calomine and siderite
(D) Zinc blend and carnallite

Answer : A

Question. The metal extracted from limestone, marble and


chalk is
(A) sodium
(B) Calcium
(C) Aluminium
(D) iron

Answer : B

Question. The chemical formula of bauxite is


(A) CaFeS2
(B) MgCO3
(C) Al2O3·2H2O
(D) PbCO3

Answer : C

Question. Rocksalt is
(A) KCl
(B) CaCl2
(C) MgCl2
(D) NaCI
Answer : D

Question. Metals generally have_________number of


electrons in their valence shell.
(A) 1, 2 or 3
(B) 7, 8 or 9
(C) 10, 11 or 12
(D) 5, 6 or 7

Answer : A

Question. Nonmetals contain__________number of electrons


in their outmost shell.
(A) 1,2 or 3
(B) 8, 9 or 10
(C) 10, 20 or 30
(D) 5, 6 or 7

Answer : D

Question. Nonmetals form


(A) cations
(B) anions
(C) anions and cation
(D) do not form ions

Answer : B

Question. To become stable, metals


(A) lose or gain electrons
(B) neither lose or gain electrons
(C) lose electrons
(D) gain electrons
Answer : C

Question. Metals tends to form


(A) cations
(B) anions
(C) cations and anions
(D) do not form ions

Answer : A

Question. Antimony and arsenic belong to the category of


(A) metals
(B) metalloids
(C) nonmetals
(D) minerals

Answer : B

Question. Nobles gases do not react because they have


_________ electrons in their valence shell.
(A) 3
(B) 6
(C) 1
(D) 8

Answer : D

Question. As we go down in the electrochemical series of


metals, the reactivity
(A) decreases and then increases
(B) increases and then decreases
(C) decreases
(D) increases
Answer : C

Question. The element present below hydrogen in


electrochemical series is
(A) Mg
(B) Hg
(C) Pb
(D) Sn

Answer : B

Question. The metal which can replace magnesium from


its salt is
(A) Ca
(B) Al
(C) Zn
(D) Fe

Answer : A

Question. The most reactive of the following metals is


(A) Ca
(B) Al
(C) Ni
(D) Pb

Answer : A

Question. Metals can be hammered into thin sheets. This


property is called
(A) density
(B) malleability
(C) ductility
(D) strength

Answer : B

Question. Metals are malleable and ductile because


(A) metals can shine
(B) metals produce sound
(C) layers of metal atoms can slip over each other
(D) atoms form close clusters

Answer : C

Question. Metal which is the best conductor of electricity


(A) nickel
(B) silver
(C) gold
(D) sodium

Answer : B

Question. The colour of iodine is


(A) violet
(B) green
(C) white
(D) brown

Answer : A

Question. The nonmetal which exhibits yellow colour is


(A) silicon
(B) phosphorus
(C) sulphur
(D) carbon

Answer : C

Question. The nonmetal which is hard is


(A) sulphur
(B) chlorine
(C) graphite
(D) diamond

Answer : D

Question. Which of the following is a property of


nonmetals?
(A) Low densities
(B) Low melting points
(C) Poor conductor of electricity
(D) A11 the three

Answer : D

Question. The nonmetal which is a liquid at room


temperature is
(A) chlorine
(B) nitrogen
(C) bromine
(D) hydrogen

Answer : C
Question. Metal which does not react with HCI is
(A) Ag
(B) Mg
(C) Al
(D) Fe

Answer : A

Question. Metals are malleable and ductile because


(A) Metals can shine
(B) Metals produce sound
(C) Layers of metal atoms can slip over each other
(D) Atoms form close clusters

Answer : C

Question. The metal which can replace calcium from its


salt is
(A) Al
(B) Zn
(C) Fe
(D) K

Answer : D

Question. The most reactive of the following metals is


(A) Ca
(B) Al
(C) Ni
(D) Pb

Answer : A
Question. Which of the following elements is highly
resistant to corrosion
(A) Iron
(B) Nickel
(C) Silver
(D) Titanium

Answer : C

Question. Metals can be hammered into thin sheets. This


property is called
(A) Density
(B) Malleability
(C) Ductility
(D) Strength

Answer : B

Question. Metal which is the best conductor of electricity


(A) Nickel
(B) Silver
(C) Gold
(D) Sodium

Answer : B

Question. The non-metal which is hard is


(A) Sulphur
(B) Chlorine
(C) Graphite
(D) Diamond

Answer : D
Question. A non-metal used to preserve food stuffs
(A) Nitrogen
(B) Phosphorus
(C) Carbon
(D) None

Answer : C

Question. A metal which is liquid at room temperature is


(A) Hg
(B) Na
(C) K
(D) Al

Answer : A

Question. Which of the following statements is incorrect?


(A) Metals have no lustre
(B) All metal oxides are basic in nature
(C) Metals have 1, 2 or 3 electrons in the outermost shell
(D) Metals are malleable

Answer : A

Question. Which of the following is the second most


abundant metal in the earth’s crust?
(A) Copper
(B) Aluminium
(C) Iron
(D) Zinc

Answer : B
Question. Metallurgy is a process of
(A) extracting metal from its mineral
(B) extracting metal from its ore
(C) extracting pure metal from its ore
(D) extracting metal from its pure ore

Answer : C

Question. Matrix is defined as


(A) the unwanted foreign material present in the ore
(B) the flux added to remove the unwanted impurities from
ore
(C) the slag formed as a result of the reaction of flux with
gangue
(D) the material used in the reduction of metal oxide to
metal

Answer : C

Question. Which of the following is not an ore of


aluminium?
(A) Cryolite
(B) Feldspar
(C) Bauxite
(D) Azurite

Answer : A

Question. The function of adding cryolite in the extraction


of aluminium from pure alumina is
(A) to increase the fusion temperature
(B) to decrease the condcutivity of alumina
(C) to decrease the conductivity of alumina
(D) none of these

Answer : D

More Science Study Material


(/taxonomy/term/323)

 Chapter 01 Crop Production and Management

CBSE Class 8 Science Crop Production and Management


MCQs (/mcq-science-cbse-class-8-science-crop-
production-and-management-mcqs-296581.html)

You might also like

pFad - Phonifier reborn

Pfad - The Proxy pFad of © 2024 Garber Painting. All rights reserved.

Note: This service is not intended for secure transactions such as banking, social media, email, or purchasing. Use at your own risk. We assume no liability whatsoever for broken pages.


Alternative Proxies:

Alternative Proxy

pFad Proxy

pFad v3 Proxy

pFad v4 Proxy