Mark Group 12th-NEET (2023-24) Date : 24/03/2024

720 PCB PCB Test : 05 Time : 03 Hrs. 20 Mins.

Physics - 50 Chemistry - 50 Biology - 100

Question Booklet Version Question Booklet Sr. No.
Question Paper
11 (Write this number on
your Answer Sheet)

• Today’s Test Syllabus • • Next Test Syllabus (Date : 31/03/2024) •

Physics : Fluid Mechanics + Surface Tension +
Physics : Magnetic Effect of Electric Current +
Electromagentic Induction + Alternating
Magnetism and Matter + Gravitation
Current + Electromagnetic Waves
Chemistry : Thermodynamics + Alcohols, Phenols and Chemistry : Amines + Electrochemistry + Co-ordination
Ethers + Chemical Kinetics Compounds
Biology : Evolution + Locomotion & movement + Biology : Organisms and Populations + Ecosystem +
Plant Kingdom + Photosynthesis Biodiversity and Conservation + SRFP
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PHYSICS 2. The magnetic moment of a diamagnetic

atom is
Section ‘A’
1) much greater than one
1. Equal current are flowing in
2) 1
four infinitely long wires.
3) between zero and one
Distance between two wires
is same and directions of 4) equal to zero
currents are as shown in the 3. A positive charge particle
figure. of mass m and charge q is
projected with velocity v
Column I Column II as shown in figure. If
a) Force on wire ─1 i) inwards radius of curvature of
charge particle in magnetic
b) Force on wire ─2 ii) leftward
field region is greater
c) Force on wire ─3 iii) rightwards
than d , then find the time spent by the charge
d) Force on wire ─4 iv) zero particle in magnetic field.

1) (a) - iii , (b) - iii , (c) - ii , (d) - ii 2m  dqB  2m 1  mv 

1) sin 1   2) qB sin  dqB 
2) (a) - iii , (b) - ii , (c) - i , (d) - iv qB  mv   
3) (a) - i , (b) - ii , (c) - iii , (d) - iv m  dqB  m 1  mv 
3) sin 1   4) qB sin  dqB 
4) (a) - iv , (b) - iii , (c) - ii , (d) - i qB  mv   

PCB TEST : 05 1 Date : 24/03/2024

QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION : 11
4. A charged particle (charge q) is moving 10. A magnetised wire of moment M is bent

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in a circle of radius R with uniform speed v. into an arc of a circle subtending an angle
The associated magnetic moment µ is given by 60° at the centre, then the new magnetic
1) qvR 2 2) qvR2 /2 moment is
3) qvR 4) qvR/2 1) (2M/) 2) (M/)

5. A current loop in a magnetic field 3) (3 2 M /) 4) (3M/)

1) can be in equilibrium in two orientations,
11. Two electrons are moving parallel to each
both the equilibrium states are unstable.
other in opposite direction. The magnetic force
2) can be in equilibrium in two orientations, one between them is
stable while the other is unstable.
1) attractive
3) experiences a torque whether the field is
2) repulsive
uniform or non uniform in all orientations.
4) can be in equilibrium in one orientation 3) not present

6. An iron rod of susceptibility 599 is subjected 4) may be attractive or repulsive

to a magnetising field of 1200 A m –1 . The 12. A galvanometer of resistance G is connected
permeability of the material of the rod is in a circuit. Now, a resistance R is connected
(µ0 = 4 × 10–7 TmA–1) in series of galvanometer. To keep the main
current in the circuit unchanged, the
1) 2.4   10 4 T m A 1 2) 8   10 5 T m A 1 resistance to be put in parallel with the series
3) 2.4   10 5 T m A 1 4) 2.4   10 7 T m A 1 combination of G and R is
7. A charge particle is moving in a uniform G2 R2
magnetic field (2iˆ  3 jˆ)T . If it has an acceleration 1) G 2) G
R G
of (iˆ  4 jˆ) m/s2, then the value of will be
G2 R2
1) 3 2) 6 3) G 4) G
R G
3) 12 4) 2
13. The sensitivity of a Galvanometer of resistance
8. The magnetic field lines due to a bar magnet 171  becomes 20 times when we used shunt
are correctly shown in of x . Find x.
1) 171  2) 9 
3) 10  4) 15 
1) 2)
14. A charge is projected in a region of magnetic
field. (no other field is present)
Statement-1 : Kinetic energy of charge particle
will remain constant.

3) 4) Statement 2 : Work done by magnetic force on

moving charge particle is zero.
1) If both assertion and reason are true and the
reason is the correct explanation of the assertion
9. A magnet of pole strength m is divided into
four equal parts so that the length and breadth 2) If both assertion and reason are true and the
of each part is half that of the original magnet. reason is not the correct explanation of the
Then pole strength of each of the magnet is assertion
1) m 2) m/4 3) If assertion is true but reason is false
3) m/2 4) 4m 4) If both assertion and reason are false

PCB TEST : 05 2 Date : 24/03/2024

QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION : 11
15. A long solenoid with 20 turns per cm is 
20. The magnetic field dB due to a small current

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made to produces a magnetic field of 20 mT  
inside the solenoid, the necessary current element dl at a distance r is
will nearly be Or
1) 8.0 ampere 2) 4.0 ampere Vector form of Biot-Savart’s law is
 
   dl  r    2  dl  r 
3) 2.0 ampere 4) 1.0 ampere
0 0
16. A current-carrying loop is placed in the 1) dB  i  2) dB  i  
4  r  4  r 
uniform magnetic field the torque on loop is
 
  2  dl  r     dl  r 
0 0
3) dB  i   4) dB  i 
4  r 2  4  r 3 
21. A uniform electric field and a uniform
magnetic field are acting along the same
direction in a certain region. If an electron is
projected along the direction of the fields with
1) ( Ir 2 B) (iˆ) 2) Ir 2 B (  ˆj )
a certain velocity, then
1) it will turn towards left of direction of motion
3) ( Ir 2 B) ( ˆj ) 4) zero
2) it will turn towards right of direction of
17. The position of point P from with B where motion
net magnetic field is zero, due to following
3) its velocity will increase
current distribution, will be
4) its velocity will decrease
22. In the given figure, force on wire ABC will be
(B = 2T)

1) 5 cm at a point lying outside the wires

2) 3 cm at a point lying between the wires
3) 1 cm at a point lying between the wires
4) 2 cm at a point lying outside the wires
18. A current-carrying wire AB
of the length L turned 1) 4(3 +2)N 2) 20 N
along a circle, as shown in 3) 10 N 4) 40 N
figure. The magnetic field
23. An electron moves with a speed of 2 × 105 m/s
at the centre O is
along the +x-direction in a magnetic field
2 
 0 i  2     0 i  2    B  (iˆ  4 jˆ  3kˆ ) T. The magnitude of the force
1) 2)

L  2 
 L  2   (in newton) experienced by the electron is (the
charge on electron = 1.6 × 10–19 C)
 0 i  0 i 1) 1.18 × 10 –13 2) 1.28 × 10 –13
3) (2  ) 4) (2   )2
L L 3) 1.6 × 10 –13 4) 1.72 × 10 –13
19. Two long straight wires , each carrying a current 24. Statement I : The law of gravitation holds good
I in opposite direction, are separated by a for any pair of bodies in the universe.
distance R. The magnetic induction at a point
Statement II : The weight of any person becomes
midway between the wire is
zero when the person is at the cenre of the earth.
0 I 1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
1) zero 2)
R 2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
2 0 I 0 I 3) Statement I is true but Statement II are false
3) 4)
R 4 R 4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

PCB TEST : 05 3 Date : 24/03/2024

QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION : 11
25. The distance between Sun and Earth is R. The 31. The ratio of the weights of a body on the

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duration of year if the distance between Sun Earth’s surface to that on the surface of a planet
and Earth becomes 3R will be
1
is 9 : 4. The mass of the planet is th of that of
1) 3 years 2) 3 years 9
3) 9 years 4) 3 3 years the Earth. If ‘R’ is the radius of the Earth, what
is the radius of the planet ? (Take the planets
26. Three identical particles A, B and C of mass to have the same mass density).
100kg each are placed in a straight line with
AB = BC = 13 m. The gravitational force on a R R
fourth particle P of the same mass is F, when 1) 2)
3 4
placed at a distance 13 m from the particle B
on the perpendicular bisector of the line AC. R R
The value of F will be approximately 3) 4)
9 2
1) 21 G 2) 101 G
32. Assuming the earth to be a sphere of uniform
3) 59 G 4) 42 G density, the acceleration due to gravity inside
27. A object is taken to a height above the surface the earth at a distance of r from the centre is
5 proportional to
of earth at a distance R from the centre of
4 1) r 2) r –1
the earth. Where radius of earth, R = 6400 km.
3) r 2 4) r –2
The percentage decrease in the weight of the
object will be 33. Assertion A : If we move from poles to equator,
1) 36% 2) 50% the direction of acceleration due to gravity of
earth always points towards the centre of earth
3) 64% 4) 25%
without any variation in its magnitude.
28. The radii of two planets A and B are in the
Reason R : At equator, the direction of acceleration
ratio 2 : 3. Their densities are 3 and 5
due to the gravity is towards the centre of earth.
respectively. The ratio of their acceleration
due to gravity is 1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
1) 9 : 4 2) 9 : 8 explanation of A
3) 9 : 10 4) 2 : 5 2) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct
explanation of A
29. Two solid spheres of
same size of a certain 3) A is true but R is false
metal are placed in 4) A is false but R is true
contact with each 34. Which of the following most closely depicts
other. Gravitational the correct variation of the gravitational
force acting between potential V(r) due to a large planet of radius R
them will be directly proportional to the n th and uniform mass density? (Figures are not
power of their radius, then n will be drawn to scale)
1) 4 2) 2 3) –2 4) –4
30. Suppose that the angular velocity of rotation
of earth is increased. Then, as a consequence
1) There will be change in weight anywhere on 1) 2)
the earth
2) Weight of the object, everywhere on the earth,
will decrease
3) Weight of the object, everywhere on the earth,
will increase 3) 4)
4) Except at poles, weight of the object on the
earth will decrease

PCB TEST : 05 4 Date : 24/03/2024

QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION : 11
35. Two satellites, A and B, have masses m and 39. Four particles each of mass

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2m respectively. A is in a circular orbit of M , move along a circle of
radius R, and B is in a circular orbit of radius radius R under the action
2R around the earth. The ratio of their kinetic of their mutual
energies , TA/TB is gravitational attraction as
shown in figure. The
1 speed of each particle is
1) 2) 1
2
1 GM 1 GM
1 1) 2 2) (2 2  1)
3) 2 4) R(2 2  1) 2 R
2
Section ‘B’ 1 GM GM
3) (2 2  1) 4)
36. Two stars of masses m and 2m at a distance d 2 R R
rotate about their common centre of mass in 40. The minimum and maximum distances of a
free space. The period of revolution is planet revolving around the Sun are x1 and x2 .
If the maximum speed of the planet on its
1 d3 d3 trajectory is v0 then its minimum speed will be
1) 2) 2 
2  3Gm 3Gm
v0 x12 v0 x22
1) 2)
1 3Gm 3Gm x22 x12
3) 4) 2
2 d 3 d3
v0 x1 v0 x 2
37. If one wants to remove all the mass of the 3) 4)
x2 x1
earth to infinity in order to break it up
completely. The amount of energy that needs 41. The susceptibility of a ferromagnetic material
is K at 27°C. At what temperature will its
x GM 2
to be supplied will be where x is susceptibility be 0.5 K?
5 R
1) 54°C 2) 327°C
______(Round off to the Nearest Integer). (M
is the mass of earth , R is the radius of earth, 3) 600°C 4) 237°C
G is the gravitational constant). 42. Assertion : Torque on the coil is the maximum,
when coil is suspended in a radial magnetic field.
1) x = 4 2) x = 3
Reason : The torque tends to rotate the coil on
3) x = 1 4) x = 5 its own axis.
38. From a solid sphere of mass M 1) If both assertion and reason are true and the
reason is the correct explanation of the assertion
and radius R, a spherical
2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason
portion of radius R/2 is
is not the correct explanation of the assertion
removed, as shown in the
figure. Taking gravitational 3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
4) If assertion is false but reason is true.
potential V = 0 at r   , the potential at the
centre of the cavity thus formed is (G = 43. A circular current carrying coil has a radius
gravitational constant) R. The distance from the centre of the coil
on the axis where the magnetic induction
2GM 2GM will be (1/8)th of its value at the centre of the
1) 2) coil, is
3R R
1) R / 3 2) R 3
GM GM
3) 4)
2R R 3) 2 R 3 4) (2 3)R

PCB TEST : 05 5 Date : 24/03/2024

QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION : 11
44. An electron is circulating in a loop, as shown 48. A positively charged disk is

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in the figure. Direction of magnetic moment
rotated clockwise as shown
is
in figure. The direction of
the magnetic field at point A
in the plane of the disk is
1)  (into the page) 2) 
3)  4)  (out of the page)
1) upward perpendicular to plane of loop 49. Three identical bars A, B and C are made of
2) downwards perpendicular to the plane of loop different magnetic materials. When kept in a
3) upwards in the plane of loop uniform magnetic field, the field lines around
them look as follows.
4) downwards in the plane of loop
45. An electron moving in a circular orbit of
radius r makes n rotations per second. The
magnetic field produced at the centre has
magnitude
Make the correspondence of these bars with
 n2 e their materials being diamagnetic (D),
1) zero 2) 0
r ferromagnetic (F) and paramagnetic (P)

 0 ne  0 ne 1) A  D, B  P, C  F
3) 4)
2r 2 r 2) A  F, B  D, C  P
46. A wire in the form of a square of side a carries
3) A  P, B  F, C  D
a current i. The magnetic induction at the centre
of the square wire is (Magnetic permeability 4) A  F, B  P, C  D
of free space = 0)
50. Three identical bar magnets, each of magnetic
moment M , are placed in the form of an
0i 0i 2
1) 2) equilateral triangle with north pole of one
2 a a touching the south pole of the other (see
figure). The net magnetic moment of the
2 2 0 i  0i system is
3) 4)
a 2 a
47. A point charge is moving in clockwise direction
in a circle with constant speed. Consider the
magnetic field produced by the charge at a fixed
point P (not at the centre of circle) on the axis of
the circle. Then,
1) it is constant in magnitude only
1) zero 2) 3M
2) it is constant in direction only
3) it is constant both in direction and magnitude 3) 3M/2 4) M 3
4) it is constant neither in magnitude nor in
direction.

PCB TEST : 05 6 Date : 24/03/2024

QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION : 11

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Chemistry : Thermodynamics + Chemical Kinetics + Alcohols, Phenols and Ethers
SECTION : A 55. An ideal monatomic gas is taken round the
51. Match the following processes with entropy cycle ABCD as shown in the figure. The Work
change: done during the cycle is [NCERT P. No. 156]
Reaction Entropy change
a) A liquid vapourises i) S = 0
2p,V 2p 12V
b) Reaction is non- ii) S = positive
D C
spontaneous at all P
A B
temperatures and
p1V p12V
H is positive
V
c) Reversible expansion iii) S = negative
of an ideal gas 1) pV 2) 2pV
1) a-ii ; b-iii ; c-i 2) a-ii ; b-i ; c-iii
1
3) a-iii ; b-ii ; c-i 4) a-i ; b-iii ; c-ii 3) pV 4) zero
2
52. Assertion: For the combustion of methane,
E > H. 56. During winters, moisture condenses in the
Reason: H is related to E by the expression, form of dew and can be seen on plant leaves
H = E + nRT. and grass. The entropy of the system in such
cases decreases as liquids possess lesser
1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
disorder as compared to gases. With reference
correct explanation of (A)
to the second law, which statement is correct,
2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the
for the above process? [NCERT P. No. 161]
correct explanation of (A)
1) The randomness of the universe decreases
3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct 2) The randomness of the surroundings
decreases
53. Assertion: There is no reaction known for which
 G is positive, yet it is spontaneous. 3) Increases in randomness of surroundings
equals to the decrease in randomness of
Reason:For phtochemical reactions, G is
system
negative.
1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the 4) The increase in rando mness of the
correct explanation of (A) surroundings is greater as compared to the
decrease in randomness of the system.
2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the
correct explanation of (A) 57. The molar heat capacities at constant pressure
3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct (asumed constant with respect to
temperature) at. A, B and C are in ration of 3
4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
: 15 : 2.0 The enthalpy change for the exothrmic
54. Assertion: Entropy of all crystalline solids is
reaction
taken as zero at the absolute zero of temperature.
Reason:At zero degree absolute, the constituent A + 2B  3C at 300 K and 310 K is  H300 and
particles become completely motionless. H310 respectively then [NCERT P. No. 162]
1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the 1)  H300 >  H310
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correct explanation of (A) 2)  H300 <  H310

2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the 3)  H300 =  H310
correct explanation of (A)
4) if T2 > T1 them  H310 >  H300 and if T2 < T1
3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
then  H310 <  H300
4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct

PCB TEST - 05 7 Date : 24/03/2024

QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION : 11

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58. One mole of a non-ideal gas undergoes a 63. Consider the plots, given below, for the types
change of state (2.0 atm, 3.0 L, 95 K)  (4.0 of reaction
atm, 5.0 L, 245 K ) with a change in internal nA  B + C [NCERT Page-107]
energy,  U = 30.0 L atm. The change in
enthalpy (H) of the process is
[NCERT P. No. 161] t 1/2 t1/2 t1/2
1) 40.0 L atm
[A] [A] 1/[A]
2) 42.3 L atm (i) (ii) (iii)
3) 44.0 L atm
4) not defined, because pressure is not constant These Plots respectively correspond to the
59. The standard enthalpies of formation at 300 reaction orders. [NCERT Page-105]
K for CCl4(l), H2O (g), CO2(g) and HCl (g) are 1) 0, 1, 2 2) 1, 2, 0
–107, –242, –394 and –93 kJ mol–1, respectively.
3) 1, 0, 2 4) None of these
The value of  U0300 for the reaction
64. For a zero order reaction, the plot of conc.
CCl4(l) + 2H2 O(g)  CO2(g) + 4HCl(g) is
[NCERT P. No. 170] (a –x) vs time is linear with. [NCERT Page-106]
–1
1) –170 kJ mol 2) –175 kJ mol–1 1) + ve slope and zero intercept
3) –182.5 kJ mol –1 4) –282.5 kJ mol –1 2) – ve slope and zero intercept
60. What is value of  E (heat change at constant
3) + ve slope and non-zero intercept
volume) for reversible isothermal evaporation
of 90 g water at 100°C. Assuming water 4) – ve slope and and non-zero intercept
vapour behaves as an ideal gas and 65. Which of the following expressions is correct
(  Hvap)water = 540 cal g –1 for zero order and first order respectively
1) 9 × 103 cal 2) 6 × 103 cal
[Where a is initial concentration] ?
3) 4.49 cal 4) none of these
[NCERT Page-111]
61. One mole of soda ash dissolves in water with
evolution of 25 kJ of heat. Dissolution of 1 mol
1
of the hydrate crystals in water resulted in 1) t1/2  a; t1/2  2) t1/2  a; t1/2  a0
a
the absorption of 67 kJ of heat. The heat
released due to hydration of soda ash is 3) t1/2  a0; t1/2  a 4) t1/2  a; t1/2 
1) – 92 kJ 2) + 42 kJ 66. Column – I Column –II
3) – 42 kJ 4) – 102 kJ
62. The reaction of heated graphite with 1
a) Zero order reaction i) t1/2  [A]
superheated steam is endothermic 0

C(graphite) + H2O(g)  CO(g) + H2(g)

b) First order reaction ii) t100% = [A]0/k
The heat required for this reaction is provided
by burning part of the graphite: c) Second order iii) Involves at least
C(graphite) + O2 (g)  CO2(g): reactions to reactants
–1
H (500K) = – 393.7 kJ mol
Pseudo
If 1.34 mole of graphite is required for the
d) unimolecular
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iv) [A] = [A]0e–kt

production of one mole of hydrogen at 500K, reaction
What is H (500 K) for reaction (l)?
[NCERT Page-102]
[NCERT P. No. 170]
1) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii 2) a-ii, b-iv, c-i, d-iii
1) 134 kJ/mol 2) 144 kJ/mol
3) 234 kJ/mol 4) 244 kJ/mol 3) a-ii, b-i, c-iii, d-iv 4) a-iii, b-ii, c-i, d-iv

PCB TEST - 05 8 Date : 24/03/2024

QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION : 11
67. For a homogeneous gaseous reaction A  3B,

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71. If for a reaction tx/y represents time required
if pressure after time t was P T and after
x
completion of reaction, pressure was P  then for th fraction of reactant to react then
select correct relation [NCERT Page-109] y
identify the Correct option for a first order
1  p  1  2p  reaction
1) k  In   2) k  In  
t  3(P  Pt  t  (P  PT  Statement – I : t3/4 = t1/2 × 2
Statement – II : t15/16 = t1/2 × 4
1  3p  1  2p 
3) k  In   4) k  In   Statement – III : t7/8 = t3/4 × 2
t  2(P  Pt  t  3(P  PT 
Statement – IV : t15/16 = t3/4 × 3
68. Rate constant for a chemical reaction takes
place at 500K is expressed as k = A. e–1000 The [NCERT Page-102]
activation energy of the reaction is 1) All statements are correct
[NCERT Page-113] 2) Only Statements-I is correct
1) 100 cal/mol 3) Statement- III and Statement-IV are incorrect
2) 1000 kcal/mol 4) Statement-II and Statement-IV are correct
4
3) 10 kcal/mol 72. For N2(g) + 3H2(g)  2NH3(g) + 22 kcal, Ea for
6
4) 10 kcal/mol the reaction is 70 kcal. Hence, the activation
energy for 2NH3(g)  N2(g) + 3H2(g) is
69. A reaction rate constant is given by :
[NCERT Page-113]
25000
k = 1.2 × 1014 e sec–1. It means ? 1) 92 kcal
RT
2) 70 kcal
[NCERT Page-114]
3) 48 kcal
1) log k versus log T will give a straight line with
a slope as 25000 4) 22 kcal
2) log k versus log T will give a straight line with 73. Which equation is true to calculate the energy
a slope as –25000 of activation, if the rate of reaction is doubled
3) log k versus T will give a straight line with a by increasing temperature from T1 K to T2 K?
slope as –25000 [NCERT Page-115]
4) log k versus 1/T will give a straight line
 k1  Ea  1 1 
70. The rate constant for the reaction A  B is 1) log10      
2 × 10–4 L. Mol–1 . The concentration of A at  k 2  2.303R  T1 T2 

 1 5
which rate of the reaction is    10 M sce–1 is k  Ea  1 1 
12
  2) log10  2     
[NCERT Page-99]  k 1  2.303R  T2 T1 
RCC** RCC** RCC**

 1  5 1 Ea  1 1 
3) log10    
1) 0.25 M 2)   M 2 2.303R  T2 T1 
 20  3

3) 0. 5 M 4) none of these
Ea  1 1
4) log10 2 =   
2.303R  T1 T2 

PCB TEST - 05 9 Date : 24/03/2024

QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION : 11

RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC**
74. Assertion : Rate of a zero order reactions 77. Alcohol is dehydrated
depends on the concentration of reactants.
Reason : Order cannot be determined from
balanced chemical equation
[NCERT Page-105]. Major products X, Y and Z are respectively
1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the 1) C2H5HSO4, C2H5OC2H5,C2H4
correct explanation of (A) 2) C2H4, C2H5OC2H5,C2H5HSO4
2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the 3) C2H5HSO4, C2H4, C2H5OC2H5
correct explanation of (A) 4) C2H4, C2H5HSO4, C2H5OC2H5
3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct 78. Which of the following is not the product of
dehydration of
4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
75. Consider the following alcohols,

1) 2)

The order of decreasing reactivities of these 3) 4)

alcohols towards nucleophilic substitution
with HBr is :
79. For the following reaction, select the statement
1) III > I > IV > II that best describes the change.
2) III > I > II > IV RCH2OH + PCC [C2 H5NH+ ClCrO3–] 

3) I > III > IV > II 1) The alcohol is oxidized to an acid, and the Cr(VI) is
reduced
4) I > III > II > IV
2) The alcohol is oxidized to an aldehyde, and the
Cr(VI) is reduced
3) The alcohol is reduced to an aldehyde, and the
Cr(III) is oxidised
4) The alcohol is oxidized to a ketone, and the Cr(VI)
76. is reduced

Sum of number of 1 o alcoholic groups in 80.

product (P) and (Q) is
1) 1 CH3MgBr/H+ KMnO4(Cold dil.) CrO3 H+/
RCC** RCC** RCC**

2) 2 (1) (2) (3) (4)

3) 3 For the above conversion the correct order of

reagents used is :
4) 5
1) 1  2  3  4 2) 1  4  3  2
3) 1  4  2  3 4) 2341

PCB TEST - 05 10 Date : 24/03/2024

QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION : 11

RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC**
81. In the reaction, 85. Arrange the following compounds in
increasing order of boiling point.
Which of the following compounds will be Propan-1-ol, butan-1-ol, butan-2-ol, pentan-1-ol
formed ?
1) Propan-1-ol, butan-2-ol, butan-1-ol, pentan-1-ol
1)
2) Propan-1-ol, butan-1-ol, butan-2-ol, pentan-1-ol
3) Pentan-1-ol, butan-2-ol, butan-1-ol, propan-1-ol
2)
4) Pentan-1-ol, butan-1-ol, butan-2-ol, propan-1-ol
SECTION : A

3)
86. Column-I Column-II
(Equatons) (Type of Processes)
4) a. Kp > Q i. Non - spontaneous
82. In Reimer-Tiemann reaction molecular
b.  G° < RT in Q ii. Equilibrium
weight of phenol increases by
1) 28 2) 29 c. Kp = Q iii. Spontaneous and
3) 30 4) 31 endothermic

H
d. T  iv. Spontaneous
S
83. Products
1) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv 2) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i
3) a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii 4) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii
87. Assertion : In adiabatic process, energy
The hydroxy product is exchanged is zero.
Reason : Temperature of the system does not
change.
1) 2)
1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
correct explanation of (A)
2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the
correct explanation of (A)
3) 4)
3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
88. One mole each of CaC2, Al4C3 and Mg2C3 reacts
84. Which of the following is the strongest acid ? with H 2 O in separate open flasks at 25°C.
Numerical value of the work done by the
system is in the order [NCERT P. No. 156]
1) 2)
1) CaC2 < Al4C3 < Mg2C3
RCC** RCC** RCC**

2) CaC2 = Mg2C3 < Al4C3

3) CaC2 = Mg2C3 = Al4C3

3) 4) 4) CaC2 < Al4C3 = Mg2C3

PCB TEST - 05 11 Date : 24/03/2024

QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION : 11
93. Which of the following statements in

RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC**
89. I oni sati on energy of A l = 5137 k J mol –1 (  H)
incorrect? [NCERT Page-110]
hydration of Al 3+ = –4665 kJ mol –1 .
(  H)hydration for Cl– = – 381 kJ mol–1. Which 1) A second order reaction must be a bimolecular
elementary reaction
of the following statement is correct?
[NCERT P. No. 170] 2) A bimolecular elementary reaction must be a
second order reaction
1) AlCl 3 would remain covalent in aqueous
solution 3) Zero order reaction must be a complex
reaction.
2) Only at infinite dilution AlCl 3 undergoes
ionisation 4) First order reaction may be complex or
elementary reaction
3) In aqueous solution Alcl3 becomes ionic
94. The unit of rate constant of elementary reaction
4) None of these depends upon the. [NCERT Page-103]
90. For the gas-phase decomposition. 1) temperature of the reaction


PCl 5 (g) 

 PCl 3 (g)  Cl 2 (g) 2) concentration of reactant
3) activation energy of the reaction
[NCERT P. No. 176]
4) molecularity of the reaction
1)  H < 0.  S < 0 2)  H > 0.  S > 0
95. If ‘a’ is the initial concentration of the reactant,
3)  H > 0.  S < 0 4)  H < 0.  S > 0 the half-life period of the reaction of nth order
91. Consider the reaction A  B, graph between is directly proportional to [NCERT Page-111]
half life (t1/2 ) and initial concentration (a) of 1) an–1 2) an
the reactant is
3) a1–n 4) an+1
96. Which of the following reactions will yield 2-
t1/2 d[A] propanol ?
Hence graph between – and
dt H+
a 1) CH2 = CH – CH3 + H2O 
time will be. [NCERT Page-106] (i) CH3MgI, (ii) H2 O
2) CH 3 CHO 

(i) C2 H5MgI, (ii) H2 O
d[A]
__ _ 3) CH 2 O 

d[A]
__ _ dt
1) dt 2) 4) CH2 = CH – CH3 
4

Neutral KMnO

t
1) 1 and 3 2) 2 and 4
3) 1 and 2 4) 3 and 4
d[A]
__ _ d[A]
__ _ 97. The reaction
3) dt 4) dt
NaH
OH  O – Na +
t t
Me  I
Me
92. For A(s) + B(s)  C(s): rate = k [A]1/2 [B]2, if   O
initial concentration of A and B are increased
can be classified as
RCC** RCC** RCC**

by factors 4 and 2 respectively, then the initial

1) Dehydration reaction
rate is changed by the factor
[NCERT Page-108] 2) Williamson alcohol synthesis reaction
3) Williamson ether synthesis reaction
1) 4 2) 6
4) Alcohol formation reaction
3) 8 4) 5

PCB TEST - 05 12 Date : 24/03/2024

QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION : 11

RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC**
98. An unknown alcohol is treated with the 100. Sodium phenoxide when heated with CO 2
Lucas reagent to determine whether the under pressure at 125°C yields a product
alcohol is primary, secondary or tertiary. which on acetylation produces C.
Which alcohol reacts fastest and by what ONa
H
mechanism ? 125 
+ CO2 
5atm  B Ac2 O  C

1) Tertiary alcohol by SN2
The major product C would be
2) Secondary alcohol by SN1
3) Tertiary alcohol by SN1 OCOCH3 OH
4) Secondary alcohol by SN2 COOH COCH3
1) 2)
99. The compound that does not liberate CO2, on
treatment with aqueous sodium bicarbonate OH
OH
solution is COOCH3
3) 4) COOH
1) Benzoic acid 2) Benzenesulphonic acid
3) Salicylic acid 4) Carbolic acid
RCC** RCC** RCC**

PCB TEST - 05 13 Date : 24/03/2024

 SAARTHI ONLINE

QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION : P-11

Section-C : Biology 110. A following criteria is used to study the plants.
I. Morphological Study
Section-A

RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC**
II. Anatomical Study
101. The Gametophyte of Pteridophytes is
I. Prothallus II. Multicellular III. Evolutionary relationship
III. Photosynthetic IV. Thalloid IV. Cytological study
1) I, II is True III & IV is false V. Phytochemicals study
2) I, II, III are false and IV is true How many of the above are belongs to
3) All are true except IV taxonomical study?
4) None is incorrect 1) I, II, III, IV, V 2) II, IV, V
102. The giant Redwood tree (Sequoia sempervirens) 3) Only IV 4) I and II
is a 111. Which of the following habitat of algae has most
1) Angiosperm 2) Free fern diversity?
3) Pteridophyte 4) Gymnosperm 1) Marine habitat
103. In Gymnosperm the gametophyte is 2) Terrestrial habitat
1) Independent 2) Photosynthetic 3) Fresh water habitat
3) Free living 4) Non free living 4) Brackish water habitat
104. The vegetative reproduction is carried out by
112. Which of the following is not correct for thallus
bud formation in Moss which is arise from
organisation?
1) Primary protonema only
1) Unicellular 2) Colonial
2) Secondary protonema
3) Filamentous 4) Heterothallus
3) Primary and secondary protonema
113. The flagellates structures are completely absent
4) Foot and seta
and fertilisation mostly internal or with help of
105. Dried mass of moss is called as water current in….
1) Peat 2) Sphagnum 1) Polysiphonia 2) Sargassum
3) Hydrocolloids 4) Fuel
3) Ulothrix 4) Porella
106. Sporophyte of ……. is….. than that of ………
114. Which of the following is not correct for
1) Moss, more Condensed, Cycus Oogamous reproduction in algae..
2) Moss, more elaborate, Pinus 1) Fucus – Motile male gametes
3) Moss, more reduced than Porella
2) Volvox – Motile male gametes
4) Moss, less developed,Pinus
3) Gelidium – Static male gametes
107. Marchantia gametophyte is
4) Polysiphonia– Non-static gametes
1) Monoecious 2) Dioecious
115. The algal plant body having distinct separation
3) Dependent 4) Parasitic
of thallus is in
108. The sporophytic development in liverworts is
1) Volvox 2) Dictyota
takes place in
1) Gametophyte 2) Female gametophyte 3) Gelidium 4) Chlorella
3) Male gametophyte 4) Capsule 116. Glycogen and Amylopectin like storage material
is in
109. Identify the ploidy of the following
Mid-rib, Gemma cup, Antherediophore, 1) Green algae
Archegoniophore, Rhizoids, Antherozoids 2) Brown algae
1) n, n, n, n, n, n 2) 2n, 2n, 2n, 2n, 2n, 2n 3) Red algae
3) 2n, n, n, n, 2n, 2n 4) 2n, n, 2n, n, 2n, n 4) all algae

SAARTHI ONLINE TEST : 05 14 Date : 24/03/2024

 SAARTHI ONLINE

QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION : P-11

117. Which of the following correctly described 124. Which one of the following was the first to stand
Pyrenoids erect/show bipedal movement?

RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC**
I. Contain protein besides starch [Old Pg. 140]
II. Outer layer is starch and inner is Protein 1) Dryopithecus
III. Protein majorly is RUBISCO enzyme 2) Australopithecus
IV. The number is vary from 1 to many 3) Homo erectus
1) I & II only 2) II & III only 4) Neanderthal man
3) I, II, IV only 4) I, II, III IV 125. Variety of darwin finches that drawin found in
118. Lichen and Sloth beer are the examples of galapagos island were differ in
1) Symbiotic relationship with algae [Old Pg. 133, Fig. 7.5]
2) Symbiotic Relationship with Moss 1) variety of feather
3) Non-symbiotic with Algae 2) variety of habit
4) Non-symbiotic with Moss 3) variety of beak
119. Which was absent in the atmosphere at the time 4) Variety of Anatomical structure
of origin of life? [Old Pg. 127] 126. Variations during mutations of meiotic
1) NH3 2) H2 recombination are [ Exemplar]
3) O2 4) CH4 1) Random and directionless
120. Among the following sets of examples for 2) Random and directionla
divergent evolution, select the incorrect option. 3) Random and small
[Old Pg. 131] 4) Random, small and directional
1) Forelimbs of man, bat and cheetah
2) Heart of bat, man and cheetah 127. First evidences of ceremonial burial of dead have
3) Brain of bat, man and cheetah been found with fossils of?
4) Eye of octopus, bat and man [Old Pg. 141]
121. Which of the following is used as an atmospheric 1) Cro - magnon man 2) Java ape man
pollution indicator?
3) Neanderthal man 4) Peking man
[Old Pg. 132, Intext Question]
128. Evolution for Darwin was gradual while de Vries
1) Lepidoptera believed mutation caused speciation and hence
2) Lichens called. [Old Pg. 135]
3) Lycopersicon 1) Genetic drift 2) Saltation
4) Lycopodium 3) Variation 4) Gene pool
122. Sum total of genes in a population is. 129. Carboniferous, Devonian and Silurian are the
[Old Pg. 136] periods of. [Old Pg. 138, Fig. 7.9]
1) Genotype 2) Karyotype 1) Coenozoic era 2) Mesozoic era
3) Genetic constitution 4) Gene pool 3) Palaeozoic era 4) All of these
123. According to Lamarckism long necked Giraffes 130. In forming the theory of evolution by natural
evolved because [Old Pg. 135] selection darwin was gretly influenced by.
1) Nature selected only long necked animals [Old Pg. 135]
2) of stretching of necks by short one over many 1) Mutations of Hugo de Vries
generations
2) Malthus idea of population control
3) Humans preferred long necked animals
3) Environmental factors
4) Mutation
4) Lamarck acquired characters

SAARTHI ONLINE TEST : 05 15 Date : 24/03/2024

 SAARTHI ONLINE

QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION : P-11

131. Hardy–Weinberg used p2 + 2 pq + q2 expression 135. Match the column I with column II, and choose
to calculate the genotype and allele frequency of the correct option. [Old Pg. 129, 130, 133]

RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC**
a population. In this equation, p is
Column-I Column-II
[Old Pg. 137]
a Homologous organs i Potato and sweet
1) Frequency of recessive allele potato
2) Frequency of dominant allele b Analogous organs ii Tendril and thorn
3) Homozygous dominant individual c Adaptive radiation iii Fossils
4) Homozygous recessive individual d Palenotological iv Australian
132. Age of fossils is calculated by evidence marsupials
[Old Pg. 129, Intext Question]
1) a-ii, b-i, c-iii, d-iv
1) Chromatographic technique
2) Amount of calcium residue 2) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii
3) Association with other animal 3) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
4) Radio-active carbon dating 4) a-i, b-ii, c-iv, d-iii
133. Statement I : After huge explosion, universe Section-B
expanded and hence, the temperature came down 136. Evolutionary convergence is the development of.
and hydrogen and helium formed sometime later [Old Pg. 131]
Statement II : The gases condensed under 1) Common set of characters in groups of
gravitation and formed the galaxies of the present different ancestry
day universe. [Old Pg. 127] 2) Common set of characters in closely related
1) Statement I - correct, Statement II - Incorrect groups
2) Statement I - Incorrect, Statement II - correct 3) Dissimilar characters in closely related groups
3) Both Statements are correct 4) Random mating
4) Both Statements are incorrect 137. Which of the following statements are incorrect
regarding universe including earth?
134. Which of the following option is correct for
given statements? [Old Pg. 137 to 139] [Old Pg. 127]
i. About 2000 million years ago (mya) the first i. The Big Bang theory attempts to explain to us
cellular forms of life appeared on earth. the origin of universe
ii. Some of these cells had the ability to release ii. The universe expanded and hence, the
SO2 became multi-cellular life forms. temperature goes up. Hydrogen and Helium
iii. By the time of 50 mya, invertebrates were formed sometime later.
formed and active. iii. The gases condensed under gravitation and
iv. Jawless fish probably evolved around 350 bya formed the galaxies of the present day
universe.
v. About 350 mya fish with stout and strong fins
could move on land and go back to water iv. There was no atmosphere on early earth.
vi. Probably 200 mya some of land reptiles like v. Water vapour, methane, carbon dioxide and
dinosaurs went back into water to evolve into ammonia released from molten mass covered
fish like reptiles Ichthyosaurs. the earth surface
vii. Coelacanth called lobefins evolved into the vi. The UV rays from the sun brokeup water into
first amphibians that lived on both land and Hydrogen and Oxygen and the lighter O2
water. escaped.
1) ii, v and vi are incorrect 1) i, v and vi
2) Only i, ii, iii and iv are correct 2) ii, iv and v
3) Only vi and vii are incorrect 3) v and vi only
4) i, v and vii correct 4) ii and vi only

SAARTHI ONLINE TEST : 05 16 Date : 24/03/2024

 SAARTHI ONLINE

QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION : P-11

138. The following figure shows the forelimb bones 142. Assertion : In the beginning of earth formation,
pattern is some mammals. Select the correct source of H2 and oxygen were water.

RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC**
match. [Old Pg. 131, Fig. 7.3 (b)] Reason : The UV rays from the sun brokeup water
into hydrogen and oxygen.
[Old Pg. 127]
1) Assertion and reason both are true but reason
is correct explanation of assertion.
2) Assertion and reason both are true but reason
is not correct explanation of assertion.
3) Assertion is true but reason is wrong
1) a-cheetah, b-man, c-whale, d-bat 4) Assertion and reason both are wrong.
2) a-whale, b-cheetah, c-man, d-bat
143. Which of the following is incorrect regarding
3) a-man, b-cheetah, c-bat, d-whale Analogy? [Old Pg. 131]
4) a-man, b-cheetah, c-whale, d-bat i. Organs having similar functions but different
139. Mole-marsupial mole, Anteater-Numbat, in their basic plan of development are known
Lemur-Spotted cusus, Bobcat Tasmanian tiger as analogous organs.
cat, Placental wolf-Tasmainan wolf are some
ii. Vertebrate hearts or brains is a examples of
common relative example. It shows all are
analogy.
example of. [Old Pg. 134, Fig. 7.7]
iii. Analogous structures are result of convergent
1) Divergent evolution
evolution
2) Radiation
iv. Flippers of penguins and Dolphins are
3) Adaptive Radiation examples of analogy.
4) Convergent evolution
v. Sweet potato and Potato represents analogy
140. Match the followng. [Old Pg. 141, Fig. 7.11]
vi. Eyes of Rabbits and Rat are analogous organs
1) ii and vi
2) ii and iii
3) Only ii
4) None of these
1) a-skull of baby chimpanzee, b-skull of adult
144. Among the well-known systems to classify
chimpanzee, a-skull of adult human
flowering plants which of the following not
2) c-skull of baby chimpanzee, a-skull of adult consider in evolutionary study?
chimpanzee, b-skull of adult human
1) Natural System
3) b-skull of baby chimpanzee, c-skull of adult
chimpanzee, a-skull of adult human 2) Phylogenetic System
4) b-skull of baby chimpanzee, a-skull of adult 3) Artificial system
chimpanzee, c-skuli of adult human 4) More option correct
141. The factor that leads to Founder effect in a 145. The gametophyte of algae produces gametes by
population is. [Old Pg. 137]
1) Zygotic meiosis
1) Genetic drift
2) Zygotic Mitosis
2) Natural selection
3) Zygotic gametogenesis
3) Genetic recombination
4) Mutation 4) Mitosis

SAARTHI ONLINE TEST : 05 17 Date : 24/03/2024

 SAARTHI ONLINE

QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION : P-11

146. Which of the following statement is incorrect with 152. Which of the following is correct?
respect to Pteridophytes [Old NCERT Pg. 215]

RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC**
1) First Vascular cryptogams among land plant 1) Chemiosmosis requires a membrane, a proton
2) Sporophytic generation is dominant and pump, a proton gradient and ATPase
independent 2) Energy is used to pump protons across a
3) Leafy stage is adult stage in which sporophyte membrane, to create a gradient or a high
has leaf in two rows concentration of protons within the thylakoids
4) Gametophytic generation is observed in lumen
prothallus 3) Along with the NADPH produced by the
147. In Bryophytes male and female sex organs are movement of electrons, the ATP will be used
called _________ and __________. immediately
1) Sperm, Ovum 4) All of the above
2) Antheredium, Oogonium 153. Dark reaction of photosynthesis is called so
because : [Old NCERT Pg. 209]
3) Oogonium, Sperm
1) It can also occur in dark
4) Antheredium, Archegoinum
2) It does not require light energy
148. Heterospores are differ structurally and
functionally and they are observed in 3) Cannot occur during day time
1) Angiosperm 4) It occurs more rapidly in night
2) Gymnosperm 154. CO2 acceptor in C3 plants is :[Old NCERT Pg. 217]
3) Salvenia and Selaginella 1) Xylulose-5-phosphate
4) All of these 2) 3-phosphoglyceric acid
149. Water is required for sexual reproduction in 3) Ribulose-1, 5-diphosphate
1) Bryophytes 4) Phosphoenol pyruvic acid
2) Pteridophytes 155. Which of the following is present in Calvin
3) Gymnosperm cycle? [Old NCERT Pg. 217]

4) More option correct 1) Photophosphorylation

150. The branch of biology which deals with study of 2) Oxidative carboxylation
algae is called as 3) Reductive carboxylation
1) Photology 2) Mycology 4) Oxidative phosphorylation
3) Biology 4) Algophyta 156. C4 plants are adapted to : [Old NCERT Pg. 217]
Section-D : Biology 1) Hot and dry climate
2) Temperate climate
Section-A
3) Cold and dry climate
151. Why are the absorption spectrum of Chl-a and
the action spectrum of photosynthesis is almost 4) Hot and humid climate
identical? [Old NCERT Pg. 210, Graph] 157. Which of the following is true regarding effect
1) Chl-a absorbs both red and blue light of water on photosynthesis?
2) Chl-a reflects blue light 1) It directly affects photosynthesis
3) Accessory pigments contribute energy to drive 2) It more affects photosynthesis
photosynthesis 3) It less affect photosynthesis
4) Different wavelength of light have different 4) All of the above
energy

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QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION : P-11

158. How many statements are correct for 162. Which one occurs both during cyclic and non-
chemiosmotic hypothesis of ATP synthesis? cyclic modes of photophosphorylation?

RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC**
i. The chemiosmotic hypothesis has been put [Old NCERT Pg. 212, 213]
forward to explain the mechanism of ATP 1) Involvement of both PS I and PS II
synthesis in both respiration and
photosynthesis 2) Formation of ATP
ii. Like in respiration, in photosynthesis too, 3) Release of O2
ATP synthesis is linked to development of a 4) Formation of NADPH
proton gradient across a membrane 163. Primary carboxylation occurs in C3 and C4 plants
iii. In photosynthesis proton accumulation is with the help of [Old NCERT Pg. 217, 219]
towards the inside of the membrane, i.e., in
1) PEP carboxylase and pyruvate carboxylase
the lumen of thylakoids
respectively
iv. In respiration, protons accumulate in the
2) PEP carboxylase and RuBP carboxylase
intermembrane space of the mitochondria
respectively
when electrons move through the ETS
v. Protons or hydrogen ions that are produced 3) RuBP carboxylase and PEP carboxylase
by the NADH accumulate within the lumen respectively
of the mitochondria 4) RuBP carboxylase and pyruvate carboxylase
1) One 2) Two respectively
3) Three 4) Four 164. Assertion : ATP synthase enzyme has two parts;
one called the cF1 is embedded in the membrane
159. Which of the following experiments showed that
of thylakoid and forms a transmembrane channel
CO2 is essential for photosynthesis?
that carries out facilitated diffusion of proton
[Old NCERT Pg. 207] across the membrane. [Old NCERT Pg. 215]
1) Half-leaf experiment
Reason : The other portion is called cF 0 and
2) Variegated leaf experiment protrudes on the thylakoid membrane on the side
3) Priestley’s experiment that faces the stroma.
4) J. von Sachs’ experiment 1) If both assertion and reason are true and the
160. Photosynthesis is important and is the basis of reason is the correct explanation of the
life on earth because [Old NCERT Pg. 206] assertion.
1) Photosynthesis is the primary source of all food 2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason
on earth is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
2) Photosynthesis is responsible for release of 3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
oxygen into the atmosphere 4) Both assertion and reason are false.
3) Both 1 and 2
165. Assertion : Photorespiration is a wasteful process.
4) None of the above [Old NCERT Pg. 220]
161. The evidence that during photosynthesis oxygen Reason : In the photorespiratory pathway there
comes from water is no synthesis of ATP or NADPH.
1) Photosynthetic bacteria employ H2S and CO2 1) If both assertion and reason are true and the
to form carbohydrates, water and sulphur reason is the correct explanation of the
2) Isolated illuminated chloroplasts release assertion.
oxygen if provided with potassium
2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason
ferrocyanide
is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
3) Isotopic 18O provided as H218O appears as 18O2
3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
liberated in photosynthesis
4) Both assertion and reason are false.
4) All of the above

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QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION : P-11

166. Match column I with column II, and choose the 171. Sutures are found between
correct combination from the options given 1) parietal bones

RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC**
below. [Old NCERT Pg. 210, 219, 223]
2) humerus and radio ulna
Column-I Column-II 3) glenoid cavity and pectoral girdle
a Green house crops i Sorghum 4) thumb and metatarsal
b Carotene ii Bell pepper
172. How many statements are correct regarding a
c C4 plants iii Separation of leaf skeletal muscle cell ?
pigments
i) Multinucleated
d Paper chromatography iv Orange
ii) Binucleate
1) a-i, b-iii, c-iv, d-ii 2) a-ii, b-iv, c-i, d-iii
iii) Spindle shaped
3) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii 4) a-iv, b-ii, c-i, d-iii iv)Contains haemoglobin
167. Calvin and Bassham studied reactions in green v) Contains starch as glucose source
plants used to form sugars and other substances.
vi)Have T tubules
By using raw material, like CO2, H2O & minerals
& used …… for lebelling carbon dioxide. vii) Also called a myofibril
[Old NCERT Pg. 174 & New NCERT Pg. 132, Unit viii) Has Intercalated disc
Summary, 2nd Para, Line 4 to 7] ix) Has myofilaments
1) C14 2) C12 1) 4 2) 5
3) C14 & O15 4) C12 & O16 3) 3 4) 2
168. All the ribs are attached to 173. Statement A : Passage of ova through female
reproductive tract is facilitated by ciliary
1) Sternum
movement
2) Vertebral column
Statement B : Smooth muscles are involved in
3) Clavicle the transport of gametes through genital tract
4) Scapula From above two statements, incorrect statement
169. Progressive degeneration of skeletal muscle, is
mostly due to genetic disorder occurs in 1) a only 2) b only
1) Myasthenia gravis 3) a and b both 4) none of these
2) Muscular dystrophy 174. Red fibres of muscles are rich in:
3) Tetany 1) Myoglobin and haemoglobin
4) Osteoporosis 2) Cytochromes and haemoglobin
170. Which of the following is correct ? 3) Myoglobin only
A) Number of cranial bones in human are 22 4) Myoglobin and mitochondria
175. Joint between bones of human skull is
B) Foramen magnum is found at the base of
cranium and is opening of occipital bone 1) fibro cartilagenous joint
C) Sella turcica is depression in sphenoid for 2) cartilaginous joint
pineal gland 3) loose fibrous connective tissue
D) Number of sacral and caudal vertebra in 4) dense fibrous connective tissue
human adult are respectively 1 and 1 176. Which is the polymerised protein ?
E) The vertebrae which bears the whole weight 1) G actin 2) F actin
of the skull is axis 3) meromyosin 4) More than 1 correct
F) The corresponding bone to humerus is Ulna 177. Rib cage is made up of ________ bones
1) A, B, D 2) A, B, E 1) 37 2) 25
3) B, D, F 4) B, D, E 3) 24 4) 12

SAARTHI ONLINE TEST : 05 20 Date : 24/03/2024

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QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION : P-11

178. Out of the following given statements, true 185. Which of the following area of myofibril never
statements is/are includes actins ?

RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC**
a) H-Zone of striated muscle fibres represents 1) A band 2) I band
both thick and thin filament 3) H - zone 4) more than 1 correct
b) There are 12 ribs in man Section-B
c) Sternum is present on the ventral side of the
186. Select the correct match regarding the specific
body
disorder of muscular or skeletal system
d) Scapula is present on the ventral side of the
1) Myasthenia gravis - Auto immune disorder
body
which inhibits sliding of myosin filaments
1) b and c 2) b and d
2) Gout - inflammation of joints due to deposition
3) c only 4) a and c of uric acid
179. Chondroitin salts are found in : 3) Muscular dystrophy - age related shortening of
1) Bones 2) Cartilages muscles
3) Ligaments 4) Tendons 4) Osteoporosis - decrease in bone mass and higher
180. Myasthenia gravis is a chances of fractures with advancing age
specially in males
1) Autoimmune disorder
187. Recognize the figure and find out the correct
2) Genetic disorder
matching
3) Infectious disorder
4) All of these
181. Which of the following movements are
exhibited mainly by the cells of humans
a) Ciliary b) Tentacular
c) Flagellar
1) b & c
2) b only 1) 2-I band, 3-A band, 1-Z line, 4-sarcomere, 5-H zone
3) c only 2) 3-I band, 2-A band, 1-Z line, 5-sarcomere, 4-H
zone
4) a only
3) 2-I band, 3-A band, 1-Z line, 5-sarcomere, 4-H
182. Which one is required for muscle contraction
zone
and nerve impulse transmission ?
4) 3-I band, 2-A band, 1-Z line, 4-sarcomere, 5-H
1) Ca2+ 2) Mg2+
zone
3) Fe2+ 4) More than 1 correct
188. In the figure identify A to C respectively
183. Muscle bundles in skeletal muscles are held
together by a common fascia made up of
1) Elastic connective tissue
2) Collagenous connective tissue
3) Reticular connective tissue
4) Adipose connective tissue
184. The vertebrae of which regions are fused with
1) Ribs, Scapula , Thoracic vertebrae
each other ?
2) True ribs, sternum (mid dorsal side), Thoracic
a) lumbar b) sacral
vertebrae (mid ventral side)
c) cervical d) coccygeal
3) True ribs, sternum (mid ventral side), Thoracic
1) a, b, c 2) d only vertebrae (mid dorsal side)
3) b, c, d 4) b, d
4) True ribs, sternum, Lumbar vertebrae

SAARTHI ONLINE TEST : 05 21 Date : 24/03/2024

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QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION : P-11

189. Given below is a diagrammatic representation 192. Read the following statement about muscle
of vertebral column tissue.

RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC**
A. Muscle is a specialized tissue of endodermal
origin
B. 40-50 percent of body weight of human adult
is contributed by muscle
C. Muscle have property like excitibility,
contractility, extensibility and elasticity
D. Contractile property of muscles are
effectively used for locomotion and
movement
How many statement are correct ?
Which of the labelled structure forms thoracic 1) Four
cage?
2) Three
1) A 2) B
3) Two
3) C 4) D
190. Read the following statements and find out the 4) One
incorrect statements 193. Choose the correct matching
a. Movement is one of the significant features
of living beings – both plants and animals Column-I Column-II
(Synovial Joint) (Bones Involved )
b. Streaming of protoplasm in the unicellular
organisms like Amoeba is a simple form of a Ball and socket i Carpal and
movement metacarpal of thumb
c. Movement of cilia, flagella and tentacles are b Hinge ii Atlas and axis
shown by Euglena, Paramoecium and Hydra c Pivot iii Frontal and parietal
respectively bones
d. Human beings can move limbs, jaws, eyelids, d Saddle iv Knee
tongue and ear pinna. v Humerus and
e. Locomotion is generally for search of food, pectoral girdle
shelter, mate, suitable breeding grounds and
1) a - v, b - iv, c - ii, d - i
favourable climatic conditions or to escape
from enemy or predator 2) a - ii, b - v, c - iv, d - i
1) a and b 2) b and c 3) a - i, b - ii, c - v, d - iv
3) c and d 4) d and e 4) a - v, b - iv, c - iii, d - i
191. The following graph shows the 194. Which one is incorrect? [Old NCERT Pg. 223]
[Old NCERT Pg. 210]
1) The C3 and C4 plants respond similarly to CO2
concentration
2) At low light conditions neither C3 nor C4 plants
responde to high CO2 concentration
3) C4 plants attain saturation at much lower CO2
1) Absorption spectrum of chlorophyll a concentration (about 360 l/L) than C3 plants
2) Absorption spectrum of chlorophyll b (about 450 l/L)
3) Action spectrum of photosynthesis 4) Current availability of CO2 levels is limiting to
4) Both 1 and 2 the C3 plants

SAARTHI ONLINE TEST : 05 22 Date : 24/03/2024

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QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION : P-11

195. Light harvesting complexes (LHC) are made up 198. “If a chemical process is affected by > 1 factors
of hundreds of pigment molecules bound to then the rate of chemical process

RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC**
proteins. In LHC, reaction centre is formed by (photosynthesis) will be determined by minimal
[Old NCERT Pg. 211] value factor” the statement is known as :
1) A single chlorophyll a molecule [Old NCERT Pg. 222]

2) All the pigments except one molecule of 1) Law of efficiency (Bonnet)

chlorophyll a 2) Minimal factor (Liebig)
3) Carotenoids and xanthophylls 3) Law of limiting factor (Blackmann)
4) Both (2) and (3) 4) None of the above
196. Which one of the following statements correctly 199. Photosynthesis in C4-plants is relatively less
describes cyclic photophosphorylation? limited by atmospheric CO2 levels because:
[Old NCERT Pg. 213]
1) Four carbon acids are the primary initial CO2
1) Cyclic photophosphorylation has both PS-I and fixation products
PS-II
2) The primary fixation of CO2 is mediated via
2) Cyclic photophosphorylation produces neither
PEP carboxylase
ATP nor NADPH + H+
3) Effective pumping of CO2 into bundle sheath
3) Water is the ultimate source of e-in cyclic
cells
photophosphorylation
4) Electrons are cycled in cyclic 4) Rubisco in C4-plants has higher affinity for CO2
photophosphorylation 200. What effect would occur on photosynthesis, if
197. Which one statement is not true of the C 4 the amount of oxygen in the atmospher
pathway? decreases?
1) Overcomes loss due to photorespiration 1) Increase in C3 cycle and decrease in C4 cycle
2) The CO2 acceptor is a C3 compound 2) Increase in C4 cycle and decrease in C3 cycle
3) Inhibited by high CO2 concentration 3) Increase in C3 cycle and no change in C4 cycle
4) It requires more energy than the C3 pathways 4) Increase in C4 cycle and no change in C3 cycle
for production of glucose

SAARTHI ONLINE TEST : 05 23 Date : 24/03/2024