JD INSTITUTE OF BASIC SCIENCE

TIME-3 Hrs (BATCH- NEET) Maximum marks- 720

PHYSICS
1) If a vector 2 𝑖̂ + 3 𝐽̂ + 8 𝑘̂ is perpendicular to the vector 4 𝐽̂ − 4 𝑖̂ + 𝛼 𝑘̂ , then the value of α is
(a) 1/2 (b) –1/2 (c) 1 (d) –1
2) The vector sum of two forces is perpendicular to their vector differences. In that case, the forces
(a) are equal to each other (b) are equal to each other in magnitude
(c) are not equal to each other in magnitude (d) cannot be predicted.
3) A bullet of mass 10 g leaves a rifle at an initial velocity of 1000 m/s and strikes the earth at the same level
with a velocity of 500 m/s. The work done in joule for overcoming the resistance of air will be
(a) 375 (b) 3750 (c) 5000 (d) 500
4) A uniform force of ( 3 𝑖̂ + 𝑗̂ ) newton acts on a particle of mass 2 kg. Hence the particle is displaced from
position (2 𝑖̂ + 𝑘̂) metre to position (4 𝑖̂ + 3𝑗̂ - 𝑘̂ ) metre. The work done by the force on the particle is
(a) 13 J (b) 15 J (c) 9 J (d) 6 J

5) A body moves a distance of 10 m along a straight line under the action of a 5 N force. If the work done is 25J,
then angle between the force and direction of motion of the body is (a) 60° (b) 75° (c) 30° (d) 45°
6) A body, constrained to move in y-direction, is subjected to a force given by 𝐹⃗ = (-2 𝑖̂ + 15𝑗̂ +6 𝑘̂ ) N . The
work done by this force in moving the body through a distance of 10 𝑗̂ m along y-axis, is
(a) 150 J (b) 20 J (c) 190 J (d) 160 J
7) A bomb of mass 30 kg at rest explodes into two pieces of masses 18 kg and 12 kg. The velocity of 18 kg mass
is 6 m s–1. The kinetic energy of the other mass is (a) 324 J (b) 486 J (c) 256 J (d) 524 J.
8) A ball of mass 2 kg and another of mass 4 kg are dropped together from a 60 feet tall building. After a fall of
30 feet each towards earth, their respective kinetic energies will be in the ratio of
(a) √2 : 1 (b) 1 : 4 (c) 1 : 2 (d) 1 : √2
9) A stationary particle explodes into two particles of masses m 1 and m2 which move in opposite directions with
velocities V1 and V2. The ratio of their kinetic energies E1/E2 is (a) m2/m1 (b) m1/m2 (c) 1 (d) m1v2/m2v1
10) If kinetic energy of a body is increased by 300 % then percentage change in momentum will be
(a) 100 % (b) 150 % (c) 265 % (d) 73.2 %.
11) Two bodies of masses m and 4m are moving with equal kinetic energies. The ratio of their linear momenta is
(a) 1 : 2 (b) 1 : 4 (c) 4 : 1 (d) 1 : 1.
12) Two masses of 1 g and 9 g are moving with equal kinetic energies. The ratio of the magnitudes of their
respective linear momenta is (a) 1 : 9 (b) 9 : 1 (c) 1 : 3 (d) 3 : 1
13) A particle of mass M is moving in a horizontal circle of radius R with uniform speed v. When it moves from
one point to a diametrically opposite point, its (a) kinetic energy change by Mv 2 /4 (b) momentum does not
change (c) momentum change by 2Mv (d) kinetic energy changes by Mv 2
14) A body of mass 3 kg is under a constant force which causes a displacement s in metres in it, given by the
1
relation s = 𝑡 2 where t is in seconds. Work done by the force in 2 seconds is :
3
(a) 19 / 5 J (b) 5 / 19 J (c) 3 /8 J (d) 8 /3 J
15) A mass m is attached to a thin wire and whirled in a vertical circle. The wire is most likely to break when
(a) inclined at an angle of 60° from vertical (b) the mass is at the highest point
(c) the wire is horizontal (d) the mass is at the lowest point
16) The potential energy of a long spring when stretched by 2 cm is U. If the spring is stretched by 8 cm the
potential energy stored in it is
(a) U/4 (b) 4U (c) 8U (d) 16U
17) When a long spring is stretched by 2 cm, its potential energy is U. If the spring is stretched by 10 cm, the
potential energy stored in it will be (a) U/5 (b) 5U (c) 10U (d) 25U
18) A body of mass 1 kg is thrown upwards with a velocity 20 m/s. It momentarily comes to rest after attaining a
height of 18 m. How much energy is lost due to air friction? (g = 10 m/s 2 )
(a) 30 J (b) 40 J (c) 10 J (d) 20 J
19) A body of mass 1 kg begins to move under the action of a time dependent force 𝐹⃗ = (2𝑡 𝑖̂ + 3 𝑡 2 𝑗̂ ) N
where 𝑖̂ and 𝑗̂ are unit vectors along x and y axis. What power will be developed by the force at the time t ?
(a) (2t 3 + 3t 4 ) W (b) (2t 3 + 3t 5 ) W (c) (2t 2 + 3t 3 ) W (d) (2t 2 + 4t 4 ) W
20) The heart of a man pumps 5 litres of blood through the arteries per minute at a pressure of 150 mm of
mercury. If the density of mercury be 13.6 × 10 3 kg/m3 and g = 10 m/s2 then the power (in watt) is
(a) 3.0 (b) 1.50 (c) 1.70 (d) 2.35
21) A car of mass m starts from rest and accelerates so that the instantaneous power delivered to the car has a
constant magnitude P0. The instantaneous velocity of this car is proportional to
(a) t 2 P0 (b) t 1/2 (c) t –1/2 (d) 𝑡⁄
√𝑚
22) Water falls from a height of 60 m at the rate of 15 kg/s to operate a turbine. The losses due to frictional
forces are 10% of energy. How much power is generated by the turbine ? (g = 10 m/s 2 )
(a) 12.3 kW (b) 7.0 kW (c) 8.1 kW (d) 10.2 kW
23) How much water a pump of 2 kW can raise in one minute to a height of 10 m ? (take g = 10 m/s 2 )
(a) 1000 litres (b) 1200 litres (c) 100 litres (d) 2000 litres
24) A moving block having mass m, collides with another stationary block having mass 4m. The lighter block
comes to rest after collision. When the initial velocity of the lighter block is v, then the value of coefficient of
restitution (e) will be : (a) 0.5 (b) 0.25 (c) 0.8 (d) 0.4
25) A ball is thrown vertically downwards from a height of 20 m with an initial velocity v 0. It collides with the
ground, loses 50 percent of its energy in collision and rebounds to the same height. The initial velocity v 0 is
(Take g = 10 m s–2)
(a) 28 m s–1 (b) 10 m s–1 (c) 14 m s–1 (d) 20 m s–1
26) Two equal masses m1 and m2 moving along the same straight line with velocities + 3 m/s and –5 m/s
respectively collide elastically. Their velocities after the collision will be respectively
(a) – 4 m/s and +4 m/s (b) +4 m/s for both (c) – 3 m/s and +5 m/s (d) – 5 m/s and + 3 m/s.
27) A moving body of mass m and velocity 3 km/hour collides with a body at rest of mass 2m and sticks to it.
Now the combined mass starts to move. What will be the combined velocity?
(a) 3 km/hour (b) 4 km/hour (c) 1 km/hour (d) 2 km/hour
28) A system consists of three masses m1, m2 and m3 connected by a string passing over a pulley P. The mass m 1
hangs freely and m2 and m3 are on a rough horizontal table (the coefficient of friction = m). The pulley is
frictionless and of negligible mass. The downward acceleration of mass m 1 is (Assume m1 = m2 = m3 = m)

(a)g(1- gμ)/9 (b) 2gμ/3

(c) g(1- 2μ)/3 (d) g(1- 2μ)/2

29) The upper half of an inclined plane of inclination 𝜃 is perfectly smooth while lower half is rough. A block
starting from rest at the top of the plane will again come to rest at the bottom, if the coefficient of friction
between the block and lower half of the plane is given by
1 2
(a) μ = 2 tan 𝜃 (b) μ = tan 𝜃 (c) μ = (d) μ =
𝑡𝑎𝑛 𝜃 𝑡𝑎𝑛 𝜃
30) A conveyor belt is moving at a constant speed of 2 m s–1. A box is gently dropped on it. The coefficient of
friction between them is μ = 0.5. The distance that the box will move relative to belt before coming to rest on it,
taking g = 10 m s–2, is
(a) 0.4 m (b) 1.2 m (c) 0.6 m (d) zero
31) A block of mass m is in contact with the cart C as shown in the figure. The coefficient of static friction
between the block and the cart is m. The acceleration α of the cart that will prevent the block from falling
satisfies
𝑚𝑔 𝑔
(a) α > 𝜇
(b) α > 𝜇𝑚
𝑔 𝑔
(c) α ≥ 𝜇
(d) α < 𝜇

32) A block of mass 10 kg placed on rough horizontal surface having coefficient of friction μ= 0.5, if a
horizontal force of 100 N acting on it then acceleration of the block will be

(a) 10 m/s2 (b) 5 m/s2 (c) 15 m/s2 (d) 0.5 m/s2

33) On the horizontal surface of a truck a block of mass 1 kg is placed (μ = 0.6) and truck is moving with
acceleration 5 m/s2 then the frictional force on the block will be (a) 5 N (b) 6 N (c) 5.88 N (d) 8 N
34) Consider a car moving along a straight horizontal road with a speed of 72 km/h. If the coefficient of static
friction between the tyres and the road is 0.5, the shortest distance in which the car can be stopped is (taking g =
10 m/s2 )

(a) 30 m (b) 40 m (c) 72 m (d) 20 m

35) A heavy uniform chain lies on horizontal table top. If the coefficient of friction between the chain and the
table surface is 0.25, then the maximum fraction of the length of the chain that can hang over one edge of the
table is

(a) 20% (b) 25% (c) 35% (d) 15%

36) Starting from rest, a body slides down a 45° inclined plane in twice the time it takes to slide down the same
distance in the absence of friction. The coefficient of friction between the body and the inclined plane is

(a) 0.80 (b) 0.75 (c) 0.25 (d) 0.33

37) A car is moving in a circular horizontal track of radius 10 m with a constant speed of 10 m/s. A bob is
suspended from the roof of the car by a light wire of length 1.0 m. The angle made by the wire with the vertical
is (a) π/3 (b) π /6 (c) π /4 (d) 0°

38) A car of mass 1000 kg negotiates a banked curve of radius 90 m on a frictionless road. If the banking angle
is 45°, the speed of the car is

(a) 20 m s–1 (b) 30 m s–1 (c) 5 m s–1 (d) 10 m s–1

39) A gramophone record is revolving with an angular velocity 𝜔. A coin is placed at a distance r from the

centre of the record. The static coefficient of friction is μ . The coin will revolve with the record if

(a) r = mg 𝜔 2 (b) r < 𝜔 2 /μg (c) r ≤ μg / 𝜔 2 (d) r ≥ μg / 𝜔 2

40) A tube of length L is filled completely with an incompressible liquid of mass M and closed at both the ends.
The tube is then rotated in a horizontal plane about one of its ends with a uniform angular velocity 𝜔. The force
exerted by the liquid at the other end is :

(a) M L2 ω2 /2 (b) M Lω2 /2 (c) M L2 ω /2 (d)M L ω2

41) A ball of mass 0.25 kg attached to the end of a string of length 1.96 m is moving in a horizontal circle.The
string will break if the tension is more than 25 N. What is the maximum speed with which the ball can be
moved?

(a) 5 m/s (b) 3 m/s (c) 14 m/s (d) 3.92 m/s

42)On the horizontal surface of a truck (μ=0.6) a block of mass 1 kg is placed. If the truck is accelerating at the
rate of 5 m/s2 then friction force on the block will be :

(a) 5 N (b) 6 N (c) 5.88 N (d) 8 N

43) If momentum (P ), area (A) and time (T ) are taken to be fundamental quantities, then energy has the
dimensional formula

(a) (P1 A–1 T1) (b) (P2 A1 T1) (c) (P1 A–1/2 T1) (d) (P1 A1/2 T–1)

44)Percentage error in the measurement of mass and speed are 2% and 3% respectively. The error in the
measurement of kinetic energy obtained by measuring mass and speed will be

(a) 0.12 (b) 0.1 (c) 0.08 (d) 0.05

𝑎2 𝑏 3
45)A physical quantity A is related to four observable a,b,c and d as follows, A= the percentage errors of
𝑐√𝑑
measurement is a,b,c and d,are 1%,3%,2% and 2% respectively. What is the percentage error in the quantity A?

(a) 0.12 (b) 0.07 (c) 0.05 (d) 0.14

 CHEMISTRY
46) When propyne is passed through dil. H2SO4 in the presence of HgSO4, the compound formed is
(a) acetic acid (b) ketone (c) acetone (d) acetaldehyde
47) Acetylenic hydrogens are acidic because
(a) sigma electron density of C – H bond in acetylene is nearer to carbon, which has 50% s-character
(b) acetylene has only open hydrogen in each carbon
(c) acetylene contains least number of hydrogens among the possible hydrocarbons having two carbons
(d) acetylene belongs to the class of alkynes with molecular formula, C n H 2n–2.
48) Which of the following can be used as the halide component for Friedel–Crafts reaction?
(a) Chlorobenzene (b) Bromobenzene (c) Chloroethene (d) benzoic anhydride.
49) Which of the following compounds will not undergo Friedel-Crafts reaction easily?
(a) Nitrobenzene (b) Toluene (c) Cumene (d) Xylene
50) Among the following compounds the one that is most reactive towards electrophilic nitration is
(a) benzoic acid (b) nitrobenzene (c) toluene (d) benzene
51) Benzene reacts with CH3CH2OH in the presence of anhydrous AlCl3 to form
(a) chlorobenzene (b) benzyl chloride (c) xylene (d) Ethyl benzene
52) In Friedel-Crafts acylation, besides AlCl3 the other reactants are
(a) C6H6 + CH3Cl (b) C6H6 + CH4 (c) C6H6 + NH3 (d) C6H6 + CH3COCl
53) Which one of these is not compatible with arenes?
(a) Greater stability (b) Resonance (c) delocalisation of π – electrons (d)electrophilic addition
54) Select the true statement about benzene amongst the following
(a) because of unsaturation benzene easily undergoes addition (b) there are two types of C – C bonds in benzene
molecule (c) there is cyclic delocalisation of -electrons in benzene (d) monosubstitution of benzene gives three
isomeric products.
55) The order of decreasing reactivity towards an electrophilic reagent, for the following would be
(i) benzene (ii) toluene (iii) chlorobenzene (iv) phenol
(a) (ii) > (iv) > (i) > (iii) (b) (iv) > (iii) > (ii) > (i) (c) (iv) > (ii) > (i) > (iii) (d) (i) > (ii) > (iii) > (iv)
56) Reaction of HBr with propene in the presence of peroxide gives
(a) isopropyl bromide (b) 3-bromopropane (c) allyl bromide (d) n-propyl bromide

57) Consider the above chemical reaction. Product "A" is :

(a) (b) (c) (d)

58) Which of the compound with molecular formula C5H10 yields acetone on ozonolysis? (a) Cyclopentane (b)
2-Methyl-1-butene (c) 2-Methyl-2-butene(d) 3-Methyl-1-butene
59) Which of the following reagents will be able to distinguish between 1-butyne and 2-butyne?
(a) NaNH2 (b) HCl (c) O2 (d) Br2
60) Which of the following alkenes on ozonolysis give a mixture of ketones only?

61) For an electrophilic substitution reaction, the presence of a halogen atom in the benzene ring _______.
(i) deactivates the ring by inductive effect (ii) deactivates the ring by resonance
(iii) increases the charge density at ortho and para position relative to meta position by resonance
(iv) directs the incoming electrophile to meta position by increasing the charge density relative to ortho and para
position .
62) Assertion (A) : Toluene on Friedal Crafts methylation gives o– and p–xylene.
Reason (R) : CH3-group bonded to benzene ring increases electron density at o– and p– position.
(i) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A. (ii) Both A and R are correct but R is not the
correct explanation of A. (iii) Both A and R are not correct. (iv) A is not correct but R is correct.
63) Assertion (A) : Nitration of benzene with nitric acid requires the use of concentrated sulphuric acid.
Reason (R) : The mixture of concentrated sulphuric acid and concentrated nitric acid produces the electrophile,
NO2 + .
64)Ozonolysis of an organic compound ‘A’ produces acetone and propionaldehyde in equimolar mixture .
Identify ‘A’ from the following compounds
(a) 1-Pentene (b) 2-Pentene (c) 2-Methyl -2- pentene (d) 2-Methyl -1- pentene
65)Hydration of propyne gives - (a) Acetone (b) 1-Propanol (c) Propene (d) Propanal
66)Which of the following has minimum boiling point ?
(a) 1- Butene (b) 1- Butyne (c) n-Butane (d)Isobutane
67)Which of the following would not given 2 - phenylbutane as the major product in a Friedel - Crafts reaction
with benzene? (a) 1-butene + HF (b) 2- butanol + H2SO4
(c) Butanoyl chloride + AlCl3 then Zn-Hg/HCl (d)Butyl chloride + AlCl3
68)Which of the following compounds will exhibit geometrical isomerism ?
(a) 2- Phenyl -1-butene (b) 1,1-Diphenyl -1-propene (c)1-Phenyl-2-butene (d)3-Phenyl-1-butene
69)When ethanol is heated with Conc. H2SO4, a gas is produced.The compound formed when the gas is treated
with cold dilute aqueous solution of Baeyer’s reagent is :
(a)Formaldehyde (b) Formic acid (c) Glycol (d) Ethanoic acid
70)The correct order for the acid strength of the compounds will be :
(a)CH3─C ≡ CH > HC ≡ CH > CH2 ═ CH2 (b) CH3─C ≡ CH > CH2 ═ CH2 > HC ≡ CH
(c) HC ≡ CH > CH3─C ≡ CH > CH2 ═ CH2 (d) HC ≡ CH > CH2 ═ CH2 > CH3─C ≡ CH
71) During the fusion of organic compound with sodium metal ,nitrogen present in the organic compound is
converted into (a)NaNO2 (b)NaNH2 (c) NaCN (d) NaNC
72)Kjeldahl method is applicable for which organic compound ?
(a) Pyridine (b) Aniline (c) Nitrobenzene (d) Benzene Diazonium Chloride
73)Compound added for detection of halogens before adding AgNO 3 is :
(a)HNO3 (b) H2SO4 (c) HCl (d) Can’t be determined
74)Which of the following carbocation would have the greatest stability ?
(a) CH3 – S –CH2 + (b) (CH3)2 NCH2 + (c) CH3 – O –CH2 + (d) F-CH2+
75) Electronegativity of carbon atoms depends upon their state of hybridisation. In which of the following
compounds, the carbon marked with asterisk is most electronegative?
(i) CH3 – CH2 – *CH2 –CH3 (ii) CH3 – *CH = CH – CH3
(iii) CH3 – CH2 – C ≡ *CH (iv) CH3 – CH2 – CH = *CH2
76)The fragrance of flowers is due to the presence of some steam volatile organiccompounds called essential
oils. These are generally insoluble in water at room temperature but are miscible with water vapour in vapour
phase. A suitable method for the extraction of these oils from the flowers is:
(i) Distillation (ii) Crystallisation (iii) Distillation under reduced pressure (iv) Steam distillation

77) In which of the following compounds the carbon marked with asterisk is expected to have greatest positive
charge?

(i) *CH3—CH2—Cl (ii) *CH3—CH2—Mg+Cl–(iii) *CH3—CH2—Br(iv) *CH3—CH2—CH3

78) Electrophilic addition reactions proceed in two steps. The first step involves the addition of an electrophile.
Name the type of intermediate formed in the first step of the following addition reaction.

H3C—HC = CH2 + H+ → ?

(i) 2° Carbanion (ii) 1° Carbocation (iii) 2° Carbocation (iv) 1° Carbanion

79) Which of the following compounds contain all the carbon atoms in the same hybridisation state?

(i) H—C ≡ C—C ≡ C—H (ii) CH3—C ≡ C—CH3 (iii) CH2 = C = CH2 (iv) CH2 = CH—CH = CH2

80) Nucleophile is a species that should have

(i) a pair of electrons to donate (ii) positive charge

(iii) negative charge (iv) electron deficient species

81) Hyperconjugation involves delocalisation of ___________.

(i) electrons of carbon-hydrogen σ bond of an alkyl group directly attached to an atom of unsaturated system.
(ii) electrons of carbon-hydrogen σ bond of alkyl group directly attached to the positively charged carbon atom.
(iii) π-electrons of carbon-carbon bond (iv) lone pair of electrons

82) Assertion (A) : Energy of resonance hybrid is equal to the average of energies of all canonical forms.
Reason (R) : Resonance hybrid cannot be presented by a single structure.

83) Assertion (A) : Pent- 1- ene and pent- 2- ene are position isomers.

Reason (R) : Position isomers differ in the position of functional group or a substituent.

84) Assertion (A) : All the carbon atoms in H2C = C = CH2 are sp2 hybridised

Reason (R) : In this molecule all the carbon atoms are attached to each other by double bonds

85) Assertion (A) : All the carbon atoms in H2C = C = CH2 are sp2 hybridised

Reason (R) : In this molecule all the carbon atoms are attached to each other by double bonds .

86) Assertion (A): Components of a mixture of red and blue inks can be separated by distributing the
components between stationary and mobile phases in paper chromatography.

Reason (R) : The coloured components of inks migrate at different rates because paper selectively retains
different components according to the difference in their partition between the two phases.

87) In which of the following molecule/ion all the bonds are not equal?

(i) XeF4 (ii) BF4 – (iii) C2H4 (iv) SiF4

88) The types of hybrid orbitals of nitrogen in NO2 + , NO3 – and NH4 + respectively are expected to be

(i) sp, sp3 and sp2 (ii) sp, sp2 and sp3 (iii) sp2, sp and sp3 (iv) sp2, sp3 and sp

89) Which of the following species has tetrahedral geometry?

(i) BH4 – (ii) NH2 – (iii) CO3 2– (iv) H3O+

90) Which of the following angle corresponds to sp 2 hybridisation?

(i) 90° (ii) 120° (iii) 180° (iv) 109°

*****************

BIOLOGY
91. In mustard plant, roots are
(A) Tap root system.(B) Adventitious root system. (C) Fibrous root system.(D) All except (1).
92. Which of the following is/are the function(s) of the typical root system?
(a) Absorb water and minerals from soil (b) Provide anchorage to plant parts
(c) Store reserve food material (d) Synthesise plant growth regulators
(A) Only (a) and (b) (B) Only (a), (b), and (c)
(C) Only (a), (c), and (d) (D) All (a), (b), (c), and (d)

93. Adventitious roots are adventitious in their

(A) Position.(B) Function.
(C) Internal structure. (D) Place of origin.

94. Very fine delicate unicellular thread-like structure develop from the zone of root that is proximal to
(A) Region of maturation. (B) Region of cell elongation.
(C) Region of meristematic activity. (D) Region of cell differentiation.
95. The given figure shows the region of root tip with labelling A, B, and C. Identify the correct labelling.
Root hair

Root hair

Root cap

A B C
(A) Region of Region of Region of
maturatio elongation meristemat
n ic activity
(B) Region of Region of Region of
differentia cell meristemat
tion division ic activity
(C) Region of Region of Region of
elongation differentiati cell
on division
(D) Region of Region of Regionof
cell elongation maturation
division
96. Pneumatophore is a modification of roots for__________
(A) Support. (B) Storage. (C) Respiration. (D) Moisture absorption.

97. Prop roots

a. Arise from lower node of stem. b. Provide support as they hang from branches.
c. Are present in banyan tree. d. Help in gaseous exchange.
Choose correct option.
(A) (a) and (c) (B) (b) and (c)
(C) (a) and (d) (D) (b) and (d)

98. The main function of stem in most plants is

(A) Storage of food and photosynthesis.
(B) Conduction of water and minerals form leaves to root.
(C) Spreading out branches bearing leaves, flowers, and fruits.
(D) Vegetative propagation and synthesis of PGR.

99. The axillary bud of stems is modified into woody straight and pointed structure in
(A) Bougainvillea. (B) Citrus.
(C) Opuntia. (D) All except (3)

100. The androecium of Malvaceae is

(A) Didynamous (B) Tetradynamous (C) Diadelphous (D) Monadelphous

101. The underground stem of some plants such as grasses, strawberry is concerned with
(a) Perennation.(b) Vegetative propagation.(c) Moisture absorption.(d) Food assimilation.
(e) Spread to new niches.
(A) (a), (b), and (e) (B) (b), (c), and (e)
(C) (a), (e), and (d) (D) All except (d)

102. All of the following are adventitious roots that perform a vital function, except
(A) Stilt root. (B) Haustoria.
(C) Hygroscopic roots. (D) Photosynthetic roots.
103. The region of root a few millimetres above the root cap possessing very small cells with thin walls and
dense protoplasm is
(A) Region of meristems. (B) Region of elongation.
(C) Region of differentiation. (D) Root hair zone.

104. Select the incorrect statement about leaves.

(A) Leaf develops at the node. (B) Leaves originate from shoot apical meristem.
(C) Leaves bear a bud in its axile. (D) Leaves are arranged in basipetal order.

105. The presence of sheathing leaf base covering the stem partially or wholly is the characteristic of certain
(A) Monocots. (B) Fern. (C) Cycas.(D) Legumes

106. Most important character of Brassica campesteris is

(A) False septum (B) Parietal placentation (C) Ebracteate (D) Imbricate aestivation

107. In pea, the leaf is modified into special structure to

(A) Be defensive in nature. (B) Provide support to the plant in climbing.
(C) Store food. (D) Perform photosynthesis.

108. Root hairs develop from

(A) Region of maturation. (B) Region of elongation.
(C) Region of cell division. (D) Meristematic zone.

109. Select the incorrectly matched pair.

(A) Palmately compound leaf-Alstonia (B) Pinnately compound leaf-Neem
(C) Whorl phyllotaxy-Nerium (D) Fleshy leaves – Garlic
110. Which of the following represents the condition seen in the family composite
(A) Superior ovary, syngenesious, single basal ovule(B) Inferior ovary, monoadelphous, basal
placentation (C) Inferior ovary, syngenesious, axile, placentation
(D) Syngenesious, basal placentation and epigynous

111. In cymose inflorescence,

(a) The main axis terminates into flower. (b) Flowers are born in acropetal manner.
(c) Young flowers are present towards the base and older at the apex.
(A) Only (c) is correct. (B) Only (a) and (c) are correct.
(C) Only (a) is correct. (D) Only (a) and (b) are correct.

112. Identify the given diagram and choose the incorrect option.

(A) The main axis terminates into a flower. (B) Flowers are basipetally arranged.
(C) Growth of the peduncle is determinate. (D) The main axis continues to grow.

113. Verticillaster is a type of __A__ which is found in____B____.

A B
(A) Fruit Ocimum
(B) Inflorescence Ocimum
(C) Fruit Ficus
(D) Flower Salvia
114. A flower is a modified shoot because
(A) Certain flowers have well-developed nodes and internodes.(B) It arises in the axile of bracts.
(C) The growing point of thalamus may give rise to shoots (D) All of these
115. Mark the mismatched pair with respect to modification of stem.
(A) Rhizome-Turmeric (B) Corm-Banana (C) Bulb-Onion (D) Phylloclade-Euphorbia

116. Name the family having (9) +1 arrangement of stamens

(A) Solanaceae (B) Asteraceae (C) Liliaceae (D) Fabaceae

117. In the floral formula, K(n) denotes

(A) Polysepalous. (B) Gamosepalous. (C) Epis (D) Epiphyllous.

118. Persistent calyx is the character of plants belonging to the family

(A) Cruciferae (B) Liliaceae (C) Fabaceae (D) Solanaceae

119. Families with syncarpous, superior ovary and similar type of placentation are
(A) Cruciferae and Cucurbitaceae (B) Solanaceae and Fabaceae
(C) Liliaceae and Solanaceae (D) Fabaceae and Malvaceae
120. Which type of placentation is found in tomato and Argemone, respectively?
(A) Axile and free central (B) Axile and parietal (C) Parietal and axile (D) Marginal and parietal
121. A complete digestive system with two openings, mouth and anus, is absent in
(A) Annelida (B) Arthropoda (C) Platyhelminthes (D) Aschelminthes
122. Pseudocoelom is a feature of
(A) Platyhelminthes (B) Annelids (C) Aschelminthes (D) Arthropods
123. Open circulatory system is found in
(A) Arthropods and annelids (B) Annelids and molluscs
(C) Molluscs and arthropods (D) Cephalochordates and annelids
124. Blind sac body plan is found in
(A) Coelenterata (B) Porifera (C) Annelida (D) Mollusca
125. Pseudometamerism is found in
(A) Tapeworm (B) Round worm (C) Snail (D) Cockroach
126. Which of the following is incorrect?
(A) Sponges have cellular level of organization.
(B) Sponges are classified on the basis of their exoskeleton.
(C) Sponges are mostly found in marine environment.
(D) Euspongia is the common bath sponge.
127. Sponges have holozoic nutrition with intracellular digestion. This digestion of food occurs in
(A) Porocytes and Pinacocytes (B) Amoebocytes and Choanocytes
(C) Pinacocytes and Choanocytes (D) Archaeocytes and Sclerocytes
128. Which of the following is a true statement about sponges?
(A) They have one mouth and innumerable exits.
(B) They have innumerable mouths and one exit.
(C) Spicules are made of chitin (D) They have pseudocoelom.
129. Sponges have a water transport or canal system, in which the path of water is
(A) Osculum Ostia Spongocoel (B) Ostia Osculum Spongocoel
(C) Osculum Ostia Spongocoel (D) Ostia Spongocoel Osculum
130. Formation of canal system in sponges is due to
(A) Porous wall (B) Folding of inner wall (C) Tissue grade of organization (D) Totipotency

131. Metagenesis in Obelia is different from the alternation of generations in plants because
(A) Polyp is diploid, while medusa is haploid (B) Polyp is haploid, while medusa is diploid
(C) Both are diploid, and there is no change in ploidy(D) None of the above
132. Which of the following is an incorrect statement regarding Cnidarians?
(A) They are all aquatic. (B) They are diploblastic with blind sac body plan.
(C) Gastrovascular cavity serves for digestion and circulation
(D) Some cnidarians secrete endoskeleton of calcium carbonate and form coral reefs.
133. Hydra has
(A) 6-10 tentacles (B) Incomplete digestive tract
(C) Both intracellular and extracellular digestion (D) All of the above
134. Mesoglea of ctenophores has
(A) Amoebocytes (B) Smooth muscle cells (C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of the above.
135. Which of the following cells are present in ctenophores that help in adhesion and food capture?
(A) Cnidoblasts (B) Solenocytes (C) Colloblasts (D) Renette cells
136. The larval stage found in ctenophores is
(A) Planula (B) Cydippid (C) Bipinnaria (D) Nauplius
137. Bioluminescence is well-marked in
(A) Echinoderms (B) Ctenophores (C) Molluscs (D) Amphibians
138. Ctenophores possess statocysts in
(A) Base of comb plates (B) Base of tentacles (C) Oral region (D) Aboral region
139. External fertilization with indirect development is seen in
(A) Ascaris (B) Leech (C) Ctenoplana (D) Cockroach
140. Flame cells of flatworms are used for
(A) Respiration (B) Excretion (C) Circulation (D) Digestion
141.Which of the following is rightly matched ?
(A) Physalia-portuguese man of war (B) pennatula – Sea fan
(C)Adamsia – Sea pen (D)Gorgonia – Sea anemone
142.The bodybears external rods of ciliated comb plates in pleurobrachia
(A) 8 (B) 4 (C) 10 (D) 16
143. Which one first evolved in annelida
(A) Triploblastic development (B) Bilateral symmetry (C) Cephalisation (D) True coelom
144.Which of the following characteristics is not shared by birds and mammals
(A) Breathing using lungs (B) Viviparity (C) Warm blooded nature (D) Ossified endoskeleton
145.Which of the following features is not present in the in the phylum arthropoda

(A) Metameric segmentation (B) Parapodia

(C) Jointed appendages (D) Chitinous exoskeleton
146.Metagenesis referes to

(A) the presence of different morphic forms

(B) alternation of generation between asexual and sexual phases of an organism
(C) occurrence of a drastic change in form during post-embryonic development
(D) the presence of a segmented body and parthenogenetic mode of reproduction
147. A marine cartilaginous fish that can produce electric current is
(A) Pristis (B) Torpedo (C) Trygon (D) Scoliodon
148.One of the representative of Phylum arthropoda is

(A) Cuttle fish (B) Silver fish (C) Puffer fish (D) Flying fish

149.Pheretima and its close relatives derive nourishment from

(A) sugarcane roots (B) decaying fallen leaves and soil organic matter

(C) soil insects (D) small pieces of fresh fallen leaves of maize

150.Which one of the following kinds of animals are triploblastic

(A) Flatworms (B) Sponges (C) Ctenophores (D) Corals

(C) Blood plasma. (D) Serum.

151. Calcium is important in skeletal muscle contraction because it

(a) binds to troponin to remove the masking of active sites on actin for myosin
(b) activates the myosin ATPase by binding to it (c) detaches the myosin head from the actin filament (d) prevents
the formation of bonds between the myosin cross bridges and the actin filament.
152. Name the ion responsible for unmasking of active sites for myosin for cross-bridge activity during muscle
contraction.
(a) Calcium (b) Magnesium (c) Sodium (d) Potassium
153. Lack of relaxation between successive stimuli in sustained muscle contraction is known as
(a) tetanus (b) tonus (c) spasm (d) fatigue.
154. Sliding filament theory can be best explained as
(a) actin and myosin filaments do not shorten but rather slide pass each other
(b) when myofilaments slide pass each other, myosin filaments shorten while actin filaments do not shorten
(c) when myofilaments slide pass each other actin filaments shorten while myosin filaments do not shorten
(d) actin and myosin filaments shorten and slide pass each other
155. Stimulation of a muscle fibre by a motor neuron occurs at
(a) the neuro-muscular junction (b) the transverse tubules
(c) the myofibril (d) the sacroplasmic reticulum
156. The H-zone in the skeletal muscle fibre is due to
(a) the central gap between actin filaments extending through myosin filaments in the A-band
(b) extension of myosin filaments in the central portion of the A-band
(c) the absence of myofibrils in the central portion of A-band (d) the central gap between myosin filaments in
the A-band.
157. During muscle contraction in humans, the
(a) sarcomere does not shorten (b) A band remains same
(c) A, H and I bands shorten (d) actin filaments shorten.
158. The type of muscle present in our
(a) heart is involuntary and unstriated smooth muscle (b) intestine is striated and involuntary
(c) thigh is striated and voluntary (d) upper arm is smooth muscle and fusiform in shape
159. The contractile protein of skeletal muscle involving ATPase activity is
(a) troponin (b) tropomyosin (c) myosin (d) α-actinin
160. Which statement is correct for muscle contraction?
(a) Length of H-zone decreases. (b) Length of A-band remains constant.
(c) Length of I-band increases. (d) Length of two Z-line increases.
161. What is sarcomere?
(a) Part between two H-line (b) Part between two A-line
(c) Part between two I-band (d) Part between two Z-line
162. Which of the following is the contractile protein of a muscle?
(a) Tropomyosin (b) Tubulin (c) Myosin (d) All of these
163. The functional unit of contractile system in striated muscle is
(a) sarcomere (b) Z-band (c) cross bridges (d) myofibril.
164. Select the correct option.
(a) There are seven pairs of vertebrosternal, three pairs of vertebrochondral and two pairs of vertebral ribs.
(b) 8th, 9th and 10th pairs of ribs articulate directly with the sternum.
(c) 11th and 12th pairs of ribs are connected to the sternum with the help of hyaline cartilage.
(d) Each rib is a flat thin bone and all the ribs are connected dorsally to the thoracic vertebrae and ventrally to the
sternum.
165. Which of the following is not a function of the skeletal system?
(a) Production of body heat (b) Locomotion (c) Production of erythrocytes (d) Storage of minerals
166. Glenoid cavity articulates
(a) clavicle with scapula (b) humerus with scapula (c) clavicle with acromion (d) scapula with acromion
167. An acromion process is characteristically found in the
(a) pelvic girdle of mammals (b) pectoral girdle of mammals (c) skull of frog (d) sperm of mammals.
168. Which of the following components is a part of the pectoral girdle?
(a) Sternum (b) Acetabulum (c) Glenoid cavity (d) Ilium
169. Match the following joints with the bones involved:
(1) Gliding joint (i) Between carpal and metacarpal of thumb
(2) Hinge joint (ii) Between atlas and axis
(3) Pivot joint (iii) Between the carpals
(4) Saddle joint (iv) Between humerus and ulna.
Select the correct option from the following:
(a) (1)-(iii), (2)-(iv), (3)-(ii), (4)-(i) (b) (1)-(iv), (2)-(i), (3)-(ii), (4)-(iii)
 (c) (1)-(iv), (2)-(ii), (3)-(iii), (4)-(i) (d) (1)-(i), (2)-(iii), (3)-(ii), (4)-(iv)
170. Which of the following joints would allow no movements?
(a) Synovial joint (b) Ball and socket joint (c) Fibrous joint (d) Cartilaginous joint
171. Elbow joint is an example of
(a) hinge joint (b) gliding joint (c) ball and socket joint (d) pivot joint.
172. Which of the following pairs is correctly matched?
(a) Hinge joint – Between vertebrae (b) Gliding joint – Between zygapophyses of the successive vertebrae
(c) Cartilaginous joint – Skull bones (d) Fibrous joint – Between phalanges
173. The number of floating ribs in the human body is
(a) 3 pairs (b) 2 pairs (c) 6 pairs (d) 5 pairs.
174. Total number of bones in each limb of a man is
(a) 24 (b) 30 (c) 14 (d) 21.
175. Which of the following muscular disorders is inherited?
(a) Botulism (b) Tetany (c) Muscular dystrophy (d) Myasthenia gravis
176. Osteoporosis, an age-related disease of skeletal system, may occur due to
(a) immune disorder affecting neuromuscular junction leading to fatigue (b) high concentration of Ca++ and Na+
(c) decreased level of estrogen (d) accumulation of uric acid leading to inflammation of joints.
177. Select the correct statement with respect to locomotion in humans.
(a) The vertebral column has 10 thoracic vertebrae.
(b) The joint between adjacent vertebrae is a fibrous joint.
(c) A decreased level of progesterone causes osteoporosis in old people.
(d) Accumulation of uric acid crystals in joints causes their inflammation.
178. Select the correct statement with respect to disorders of muscles in humans.
(a) Failure of neuromuscular transmission in myasthenia gravis can prevent normal swallowing.
(b) Accumulation of urea and creatine in the joints causes their inflammation.
(c) An overdose of vitamin D causes osteoporosis.
(d) Rapid contractions of skeletal muscles cause muscle dystrophy
179. Select the correct statement regarding the specific disorder of muscular or skeletal system.
(a) Muscular dystrophy – Age related shortening of muscles
(b) Osteoporosis – Decrease in bone mass and higher chances of fractures with advancing age
(c) Myasthenia gravis – Autoimmune disorder which inhibits sliding of myosin filaments
(d) Gout – Inflammation of joints due to extra deposition of calcium
180. Long bones function in
(a) support (b) support, erythrocyte and leucocyte synthesis
(c) support and erythrocyte synthesis (d) erythrocyte formation.

******************