TRY OUT 1

UJI KOMPETENSI TOEFL

SECTION 1
LISTENING COMPREHENSION
Time : Approximately 30 minutes
50 Questions

Part A
In this section of the test, you will have an opportunity to demonstrate your ability to understand
spoken english. There are three parts in this section, with special direction for each part.

DIRECTION:
In part A, you will hea short conversations between two speakers. At the end of each conversation, a
third voice will ask a question about what was said. The question wil e asked just one time. After you
hear a conversation and the question about it, read the four possible answers and decided which one
woul be the best answer to the question you have heard. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number
of the problem and mark your answer.

1. a. 5 b. 8 c. 13 d. 25

2. a. She likes it
b. She’s not sure whether she likes it
c. She hasn’t heard the music
d. She doesn’t like it

3. a. It’s to warm inside the house

b. The woman wants to buy a new house
c. The air-conditioning isn’t working
d. The woman wants to change the colour of the house

4. a. He thinks the woman should be in Florida

b. He thinks the woman s in Florida
c. He would ike to go to Florida too
d. He wishes she woud be with him

5. a. She won’t be able to play tennis

b. She should be able to play tennis
c. She will be able to play tennis
d. She will find out tomorrow if she can play

6. a. The man will never believe her

b. They fell through the ice once again
c. they didn’t go skating
d. They went skating only once

7. a. He is doing the washing up

 b. He wants to watch the program on now
c. The woman should change the program
d. The woman should wait until he wash finished washing

8. a. She really wants to eat

b. She’s going to eat horsemeat
c. She’s so hungry she’ll eat at the house
d. She’s hungry because she’s been walking so much

9. a. For the woman b. For John c. For John’s wife d. For the man’s wife

10. a. Their seats weren’t good enough b. The music could have been better
c. He didn’t like it at all d. He liked it very much

11. a. They were displeased

b. They found it sad
c. They thought it was shocking, but very funny
d. They became angry at the promiscuity

12. a. To the beach b. To a pay c. To a movie theater d. To a restaurant

13. a. He`s dying b. He doesn`t hear too well

c. He was at party d. He was reading something important

14. a. The class thought the demonstration was too complex

b. Too many students showed up
c. The professor didn`t show up
d. The professor canceled it

15. a. It`s more direct b.There`s traffic jam c.It`s faste d. It`s less expensive

16. a. Next month b. He isn`t joining the club

c.This month d. He joined last month

17. a. He doesn`t like the sculpture b.He likes it very much

c. He thinks the sculpture is very childish d. He doesn`t believe it`s sculpture

18. a. They are the same size b.The man`s c. Her car d. The man`s brother

19. a. Have coffee b.Look at the slides c.Make the coffee d. Have dinner

20. a. At three thirteen b.At half past three c.At three o`clock d.At three thirty three

21. a. To get a new credit card. b. To get money from the ATM with her credit card.
c. T o use her new credit card. d. To use her credit card in the bank.

22. a. She went on a diet b. She read some exercises on dieting

c. She didn’t use the diet d. She took exercise.
23. a. She really wants a seat then. b. She is very satisfied.
c. She can’t go until then. d. She wants to go before then.

24. a. The TV is not plugged in. b.The man wants to work and not wacht TV.
c. The woman is trying to plug it in, d. The man can’t see where the plug is.

25. a. The road is impassable. b. There’s no way round

c. They’ll never get through to the road. d. It’s started snowing.

26. a. He got one-away plane ticket. b. He went to wrong direction on a one-away street.
c. He made an improper turn. d. He slowed down at the wrong time.

27. a. Susan Flannigan is in a bell-ringing group.

b. Her name sounds familiar.
c. Susan Flannigan is ringing the bell now
d. Her name sounds melodic

28. a. Roy’s standing in line for a gold medal

b. Roy was the best
c. Nobody’s better than Roy at getting gold medals
d. Roy probably won’t win a gold medal.

29. a. The cartridge does not need to be replace.

b.He does not intend to change the cartridge.
c. He already changed the
d. He is uncomfortable because the woman is watching him

30. a. Every week, there are three direct flights from Atianta to Chicago
b. Next week, the three flights from Atianta to Chicago will be stopped
c. Three plane which travel from Atianta to Chicago each week make nine stops enroute.
d. The number of planes that travel from Atianta to Chicago will be reduced within the next three
weeks.

Part B

DIRECTIONS :
In Part B, you will hear longer conversations. After each conversation, you will be asked some
question. The conversations and questions will be spoken just one time. They will no bw written out
for you, so you will have to listen carefully in order to understand and remember what the speakers
say.
When you hear a question, read the possible answers in your test book and decide which one would be
the best answer the question you have heard. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the
problem and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen.

31. a. All her expenses will be paid

 b. She’ll earn a great deal of money
c. She can pratice her Spanish
d. She can spend her free time at the beach

32. a. One week c. Six weeks

b. Immediately d. A few hours

33. a. Swimsuit c. Books

b. A Spanish dictionary d. Money

34. a. Interview local artist c. Write her story

b. Photograph the craftsmen d. Listen to mariachi music

35. a. He dosen’t have enough money. c. He can’t play footbal there.

b. It’s out of state. d. It’s in his home town.

36. a. By taking the examination c. By studying in his home town

b. By studying out of state d. By playing football

37. a. Right now c. In the autumn

b. In the winter d. In the spring

38. a. Curious c. Antagonistic

b. Sympathetic d. Indifferent

Part C

DIRECTIONS:
In Part C, you will hear several talks. After each talk, you will be asked some questions.
The talks and questions will be spoken and asked just one time. They will not be written out for you,
so you will have to listen carefully in order to understand and remember what the speaker says.
When you hear question, read the four possible answer inyour test book and decide which one
would be the best answer to the question you have heard. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number
of the problem and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen.

39. a. To talk about different kinds of guns c. To make people think about gun laws
b. To carry out an opinion poll d. To examine murder rates

40. a. The prohibitions of guns c. Too many laws

b. Other Americans d. Handguns

41. a. 30 million c. 130 million

b. 3 million d. 13 million

42. a. He thinks people should have the right to keep them.

b. He feels you should not infringe the right of the people.
 c. He thinks there should be changes in the law
d. He agrees with the lobbying of the NRA

43. a. He was struck by lightning c. He was in a car accident

b. He was very old d. He fell down in his yard

44 a. His wife c. A clock

b. A three d. Lightning

45 a. Edwards had been blind for nine years.

b. Edwards was unconscious for twenty minutes after the lighting had struck him.
c. Doctors believe that Edwards was never really blind of deaf.
d. Edwards awoke with his face in a puddle of water.

46.a. Hiding from the storm under a three

b. Climbing a tree
c. Driving car
d. Lying on the ground

47.a. He regained his sight from a head injury when he fell from a tree.
b. He was happy after his wife entered his room for the first time in nine years.
c. The lightning took the feeling from his legs and gave feeling in his eyes.
d. Because the blow that blinded him was very serve, it took another very serve blow to
restore his sight

48.a. An animal
b. A group of people
c. An insect
d. A bird

49.a. In their own homes.

b. In the forest.
c. In rotting wood.
d. In water

50.a. Less than two years.

b. Two tenths of a year.
c. Eight weeks.
d. Up to ten years

This Is The End Of The Listening Comprehension Section Of The Test.

The Next Part Of The Test Is Section 2.
 SECTION 2
STRUCTURE AND WRITTEN EXPRESSION
Time : 25 Minutes
40 Questions

This section is designed to measure your ability to recognize language that is appropriate for
standart written English. There are two types of question in this section,with special.with special
directions for each type.
DIRECTIONS :
Question 1-15 incomlete sentences. Beneath each sentence you will see four words or
phrases,marked (A ) , (B ) ,(C ) ,and ( D).choose the one word or phrase that best completes the
sentence. Then,on your answer sheet,find the number of the questionand fill in the space so that the
letter inside the oval cannot be seen.
The sentence should read, begin work on the questions.

1. The adder is a venomous snake……….. bite may rove fatal to humans.

a.its
b. whom its
c. that
d.whose

2. The sport of hang gliding…… by the federal aviation administration(FAA).

a.Regulated it
b. is regulkated
c.that was regulated
d. that it was regulated

3. The javelin used in competition must be between 260 and 270 centimeters……….
a. in leght
b. it is long
c. whose length
d. Lengthily

4. __________, he would have signed his name in the corner.

a. If he painted that picture
b. If he paints that picture
c. If he had painted that picture
d. If he would have painted that picture

5. The doctor insisted that his patient __________

a. That he not work too hard for three months
b. Take it easy for three months
c. Taking it easy for three months
d. To take some vocations for three months

6. The manager was angry because somebody __________

a. Had allowed the photographers to enter the building
b. Had let the photographers enter into the building
 c. Permitting the photographers enter into the building
d. The photographers let into the building without the proper documentations

7. To answer accurately is more important than __________

a. A quick finish
b. To finish quickly
c. Finishing quickly
d. You finish quicky

8. Weathering ………. The action whereby surface rock is disintegrated or decomposed

a. It is
b. Is that
c. Is
d. Being

9. Telephone recordering tells callers __________

a. What time the movie start
b. What time start the movie
c. What time does the movie start
d. The movie starts what time

10. Although Margaret mead several assistants during her long investigations of samoa, the bulk
of the research was done by ………. alone.
a. Herself
b. She
c. Her
d. Hers

11. ........... war correspondent, Hemmingway used his experiences for some of his most powerful
novels.
a. But a c. While
b. It is a d. A

12. Thirty-eight national sites are known as parks, another eighty-two as monuments, and .........
a. The another one hundred seventy-eight as historycal sites.
b. The other one hundred seventy-eight as historical sites.
c. Seventy-eight plus one hundred more as historical sites.
d. As historical sites one hundred seventy-eight.

13. Unlike the earth, which rotates once every twenty-four hours .......... once every ten hours.
a. The rotation of Jupiter
b. The occurrence of Jupiter’s rotation
c. Jupiter rotates
d. Jupiter’s rotating

14. ........... peaches are classified as freestone or clingstone depends on how difficult it is to remove
the pit.
a. The
 b. About
c. Wheter
d. Scientifically

15. Keynes argued that to avoid an economic depression the government ......... spending and lower
interest rates.
a. Is
b. Higher
c. Increase
d. Should Increase

DIRECTIONS:
In questions 16 - 40 each sentence has four underlined words or phrases. The four
underlined parts of the sentence are marked (A), (B), (C), and (D). Identify the one underlined
word or phrase that must be changed in order for the sentence to be correct. Then, on your answer
sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the
answer you have chosen.

16. Interest in automatic data processing has grown rapid since the first large calculators were
A B C D
introduced in 1950.
17. Vaslav Nijinsky achieved world recognition as both a dancer as well a choreographer.
A B C D
18. Airport must be located near to major population center for the advantage of air transportation
A B C
to be retained.
D
19. It is said that Einstein felt very badly about the application of his theories to the creation of
A B C D
weapons of war.
20. The plants that they belong to the family of ferns are quite varied in their size and structure.
A B C D
21. Despite of the increase in air fares, most people still prefer to travel by plane.
A B C D
22. All of we students must have an identification card in order to check books out of the
A B C D
library.
23. Columbus Day is celebrated on the twelve of October because on that day ini 1492, Christopher
A B C D
Columbus first landed in the Americas.
24. One of the most influence newspapers in the U.S. is The New York Times, which is
A B C
widely distributed throughout the world.
D
25. An unexpected raise in the cost of living as well as a decline in employment opportunities
A B
resulted in the rapid creation by Congress of new government programs for the unemployed.
C D
26. After the yolk is separated from the white, it must be boil immediately.
A B C D
27. At the awards banquet, the philanthropist was recognized for his generosity and careful in
A B C
aiding the poor.
D
28. Above 80 percent of the laborers at the construction site are temporary workers.
A B C D
29. The contracting of the heart cause the blood to circulate.
A B C D
30. The USS Bonhomme Richard was commanded by John Paul Jones, that won a notable sea
A B C
battle during the Revolution.
D
31. There exists more than 2,600 different varieties of palm tress, with varying flowers, leaves,
A B C D
and fruits.
32. Almost American Indian cultures have been agricultural societies since 2000 B.C.
A B C D
33. A huge winter storm has brought the snow to Northern California’s mountain countries.
A B C D
34. Nutritionists recommend that foods from each of the four basic graups be eaten on a
A B C
regularly daily basis.
D
35. Neon is often used in airplane beacons because neon beacons are very visible that they can
A B C
be ever seen through dense fog.
D
36. Neither of the girls have turned in the term papers to the intructor yet.
A B C D
37. After studying all the new materials, the student was able to rise his test score by
A B C D
twenty-five points.
38. The book that you see laying on the table belongs to the teacher.
A B C D
39. I suggest that he go to the doctor as soon as he returns from taking the exam.
A B C D
40. She is looking forward to going to Europe after she finishes her studies at the university.
A B C D

This is the end of the structure and written expression section

 SECTION 3
READING COMPREHENSION
Time : 55 Minutes
50 Questions

DIRECTIONS :
In this section, you will read a number of passages. Each one is followed by approximately ten
questions about it. For questions 1-50, choose the one best answer, (A), (B), (C), and (D), to each
question. Then, find the number of the question on your answer sheet, and fill in the space that
coresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen. Answer all questions following a passage on
the basis of what is stated or implied in that passage.

Question 1 through 11 are based on the following passage.

The food we eat seems to have profound effects on our health. Although science has
made enormous steps in making food more fit to eat, it has, at the same time, made many
foods unfit to eat. Some research has shown that perhaps eighty percent of all human illnesses.
5 are related to diet and forty percent of cancer is related to the diet as well, especially
cancer of the colon. People of different cultures are more prone to contract certain illnesses
because of the characteristic foods they consume.
10 That food is related to illness is not a new discovery. In 1945, government researchers realized
THE that nitrates and nitrites (commonly used to preserve color in meats) as well as other food
FACT additives caused cancer. Yet, these carcinogenic additives remain in our food, and it becomes
more difficult all the time to know which ingredients on the packaging labels of processed
food are helpful or harmful.
15 The additives that we eat are not all so direct. Farmers often give penicillin to cattle and
poultry, and because of this, penicillin has been found in the milk of treated cows. Sometimes
similar drugs are administered to animals not for medicinal purposes, but for financial reasons.
The farmers are simply trying to fatten the animals in order to
20 obtain a higher price on the market. Although the food and drug.
Administration (FDA) has tried repeatedly to control these proced the practices continue.
A healthy diet is directly related to good health.Often we are uni of the detrimental substances
we ingest. Sometimes well-me farmers of others who do not realize the consequences add
substances to food without our knowledge.

1. How has science done a disservice to people?

a. Because of science,disease caused by contaminated food has been veradicated.
b. It has caused a lack of information concerning the value of food
c. As a result of scientific intervention,some potentially harmful sub have been added to our
food.
d. The scientists have preserved the color of meats, but not of vegetables.
RAWAN
2. The word”prone” in line 6is nearest in meaning to…
a. Supine
b. Unlikely
c. Healthy
d. Predisposed CENDERUNG
3. What are nitrates used for? PARAGRAPH 2 SENTENCES 2
a. The preserve flavor in packaged foods
b. They preserve the color of meats
c. They are the objects of research
d. They cause the animals to become fatter

4. FDA means…………….
a. Food Direct Additivies
b. Final Difficult Analysis
c. Food and Drug Administration
d. Federal Dairy Additivies

5. The word “these” in line 10 refers to…………..

a. Meats
b. Colors
c. Researchers
d. Nitrates and nitrites

6. In line 11,the word “carcinogenic” is closest in meaning to……..

a. Trouble-meaking
b. Color-retaining
c. Money-making
d. Cancer-causing PENYEBAB KANKER

7. All of the following statemens are true EXCEPT …………………………

a. Drugs are always given to animals for medical reasons
b. Some of the additivies in our food are added to the food it self and some are given to the
living animals
c. Researches have known about the potential hazards of food additivies for more than
forty-five years.
d. Food many cause forty percent of the cancer in the world

8. The word “additivies” in line 11 is closest in meaning to …………………………

a. Added substances c. Natural substances
b. Dangerous substances d. Benign substances

9. What is the best title for this passage ?

a. Harmful and Harmless substances in food
b. Improving Health through a Natural Diet
c. The Food You Eat Can Affect Your Health
d. Avoiding Injurious Substances in Food
PAS
10. In line 2, the word “fit” is closest in meaning to …………………………
a. Athletic c. Tasty
b. Suitable COCOK d. Adaptable

11. The fact that the topic has been known for some time is discussed in lines ?
a. 1-5 c. 14-16
 b. 8-10 d. 21-24

Question 12 through 21 are based on the following passage.

After inventing, dynamite, Swedish-born Alfred Nobel became a very rich man. However, he
foresaw its universally destructive powers too late. Nobel preferred not to be remembered as the
inventor of dynamite, so in 1985, just two weeks before his death, he created a fund to be used for
awarding prizes to people who ha made worthwhile contributions to humanity. Originally there were
five awards: literature, physics, chemistry, medicine, and peace. Economics was added in 1968, just
sixty-seven years after the first awards ceremony.
Nobel’s original legency of nine million dollars was invested, and I interest on this sum is used
for the awards which vary from $30,000 $125,000.
Every year on December 10, the anniversary of Nobel’s death, the awards (gold medel,
illuminated diploma, and money) are presented the winners. Sometimes politics plays an important
role in the judge decision. Americans have won numerous science awards, but relative few literature
prize
No awards were presented from 1940 to 1942 at the beginning World War II. Some people have
won two prizes, but this rare; othe have shared their prizes.
MERAMAL
12. The word “foresaw” in line 2 is nearest in meaning to……
a. Prevailed c. Prevented
b. Postponed d. Predicted

13. The Nobel Prize was established in order to…..

a. Recognize worthwhile contributions to humanity
b. Resolve political differences
c. Honor the inventor of dynamite
d. Spend money

14. In which area have americans received the most awards ?

a. Literature c. Economics
b. Peace d. Science

15. All of the following statement are true EXCEPT………..

a. Award vary in monetary value
b. Ceremonies are heid on December 10 to commemorate Nobel’s invention
c. Politics plays an important role in selecting the winners
d. A few individuals have won two awards

16. In how many fields are prizes bestowed ?

a. 2 c. 6
b. 5 d. 10

17. 17. It is imputed that Nobel’s profession was in……

a. Economics c. Literature
b. Medicine d. Scince
BERHARGA
18. In line 5, the word “worthwhile” is closest in meaning to…..
a. Economics c. Trivial
 b. Prestigious d. Valuable

19. How much money did Nobel leave for the prize ?
a. $30,000 c. $155,000
b. $125,000 d. $9,000,000

20. What is the main idea of this passage ?

a. Alfred Nobel became very rich when he invented dynamite
b. Alfred Nobel created awards in six categories for contributions to humanity
c. Alfred Nobel left all of his money to sciense
d. Alfred Nobel made a lasting contribution to humanity

21. The word “legacy” in line 9 means most nearly the same as ........
a. Legend c. Prize
b. Bequest d. Debt

Questions 22 through 31 are based on the following passage.

Ever since humans have in habited the earth, they have made use of various forms of
communication. Generally, this expression of thoughts and feelings has been in the
form of oral speech. When there is a language barrier, communication is accomplished
through sign language
(5) in which motions stand for letters, words, and ideas. Tourists, thedeaf anthemute have
had to resort to this form of expression. Many of these symbols of whole words are
very picturesque and exact and can be used internationally ; spelling, however, cannot.
Body language transmits ideas or thoughts by certain actions, either
(10) intentionally or unintentionally. A wink can be away of flirting or indicating that the party
is only joking. A nod signifies approval, while shaking the head indicates a negative
reaction. Other forms of nonlingustic language can be found in Braille (a system of raised
dots read with the fingertips ), signal flags, Morse code, and
(15) smoke signals. Road maps an picture signs also guide, warn, and instruct people.
While verbalization is the most common form of language, other system and
techniques also express human thoughts and feelings.

22. Which of the following best summarizes this passage ?

a. When lannguage is a barrier, people will find other forms of communication
b. Everybody uses only one form of communication
c. Nonlinguistic language is invaluable to foreigners
d. Although other forms of communication exist, verbalization is the fastest

23. The word “these” in line 6 refers to. . .

a. Tourists
b. The deaf and the mute
c. Thoughts aand feelings
d. Sign language motions

24. All of the following statements are true EXCEPT . . .

a. There are many forms of communication in existence today
b. Verbalization is the most common form of communication
 c. The deaf and mute use an oral form of communication
d. Ideas and thoughts can be transmitted by body language

25. Which form other than oral speech would be most community used among blind people?
a. Picture signs
b. Braille
c. Body language
d. Signal flags

26. How many different forms of communication are mentioned here?

a. 5 b. 7 c. 9 d. 11

27. The word “wink” in line 19 means most nearly the same as . . .
a. Close one eye briefly
b. Close two eyes briefly
c. Bob the head up and down
d. Shake the head from side to side

28. Sign language is said to be very picturesque and exact and can be used Internationally
EXCEPT for . . .
a. Spelling
b. Ideas
c. Whole words
d. Expressions

29. People need to communicate in order to . . .

a. Create language barriers
b. Keep from reading with their fingertips
c. Be picturesque and exact
d. Express thoughts and feeling

30. What is the best title for the passage?

a. The Importance of Sign Language.
b. The Many Forms Of Communication
c. Ways Of Expressing Feelings
d. Picturesque Symbols Of Communication

31. Who would be MOST likely to use Morse code?

a. A scientist
b. A spy
c. An airline pilot
d. A telegrapher

Questions 32 through 41 are based on the following passage.

The ancient Egyptians firmly believe in the afterlife and spent their time on earth
preparing for it. Elaborate burial rituals included preparing the burial site, providing for all of
the deceased’s material needs ( food, clothing, jewels and tools of their trade ) and preserving
the copse so that it would not decay. This preservation was accomplised through a process of
 mummification. The ancients left no written account as to examine mummies and establish
their own theories. The embalming process might have taken up to seventy days for the
pharaohs and nobility and only a few days for the poor.
The embalmers spread a veriety of compounds of salt, spices, and resins in and over
the corpse to preserve it. They followed this with a prescribed wrapping, a procedure in which
they wound strips of fine linen around, over, and under the body while placing various
amulets within the wrappings to protect the deceased from harm on the long journey to the
after life. They also painted resins over the wrapped linen. Finally, a pharaoh or noble would
have been encased in a wooden box before being placed in a sarcophagus.

32. How have we been able to learn about the mummification process?
a. Accurate records have been handed down to us.
b. Interviews with embalmers who still use the process have revealed the secret.
c. After studying mummies, scientists have developed their own theories.
d. Chemical analysis of the compounds has led us to an explanation of the method used.

33. The word “they” in line 12 refers to ...

a. Embalmers c. Pharaoh
b. Spices d. The poor

34. The embalming process can best be described as ...

a. Lengthy and complicated
b. Short and simple
c. Strict and unfaltering
d. Wild and terrifying

35. The word “decay” in line 4 is closest in meaning to ...

a. Die c. Embalm
b. Deteriorate d. Rejuvenate

36. All of the following statements are true EXCEPT ...

a. Bodies were preserved as a matter of religious belief
b. All mummification took seventy days to complete
c. Special copounds were used to embalm the bodies
d. It has been difficult to determine the process used

37. Why did the ancient Egyptians mummify the deceased?

a. To preserve the body from destruction
b. To scare tomb robbers
c. To encase the body in a sarcophagus
d. To protect the body from harm on the journey to the afterlife.

38. It can be inferred that the Egyptians buried food, clothing, jewels, and tools with the
deceased because ...
a. The family didn’t want anyone else to share them
b. that was the wish of the deceased
c. They were afraid
d. The decease would need them while enroute to the afterlife
39. The word “amulets” in line 11 is closest in meaning to ...
a. Weapons c. Charms
b. Coins d. Curses

40. In line 4 “accomplished” is closest in meaning to ...

a. Performed c. Reproduced
b. Forsaken d. Dwindled

41. The distinction between mummification of bodies from different classes is explained in lines ...
a. 1-5 b. 6-8 c. 9-11 d. 12-15

Questions 42 through 50 are based on the following passage.

A tapeworm is a parasite that lives in the intestines of humans and animals. Some
tapeworms attach themselves to the intestinal wall by means of suckers in their heads. Others
float freely in the intestines and absorb food through the walls of their bodies.
A tapeworm consists of numerous segments. When a new segment forms, the older
ones move to the back of the animal. Each segment contains hermaphroditic sexual organs
(that is male and female organs). The uterus of each segment fills with eggs, which develop
into embryos. Generally, when the eggs are ready to hatch, the segment breaks off and is
eliminated through the host’s excretory system. These embryos hatch, develop into larvae,
and grow to adults only if ingested by an intermediate host.
One may be infected by tapeworms by eating undercooked beef, pork, or fish.
Symptoms include irregular appetite, abdominal discomfort, anemia, weakness, and
nervousness.

42. The passage implies that all of the following are true EXCEPT ...
a. An embryo will cease develop if not ingested by a host.
b. A tapeworm will continue to live even when segments break off
c. The segment farthest back on the tail is the oldest
d. Tapeworms always float freely in the digestive system.

43. The word “eliminated” in line 9 is closest in meaning to ...

a. Ingested b. Expelled c. Eaten d. d. Grown

44. A hermaphrodite is ...

a. A tapeworm
b. A segment containing an embryo
c. A being that contains male and female sexual organs
d. An animal made of segments

45. The word “others” in line 3 refers to ...

a. segment c. eggs
b. embryos d. tapeworms

46. Which of the following is probably NOT a symptom of tapeworm infestation?

a. Unusual eating habit c. Deficiency of red blood cells
 b. Excitability d. Euphoria

47. Which of the following statements is true?

a. A tapeworm uterus contains one egg.
b. Overcooked bef is a cause of tapeworms.
c. A male tapeworm must always be ingested before reproduction will occur.
d. Tapeworms vary in their methods of ingesting food.

48. What would be the best title for this reading passage?
a. Parasites c. The tapeworm, a Harmful Parasite
b. reproduction of the Tapeworm d. Segmented Parasite

49. A tapeworm attaches itself to the intestinal wall by ...

a. Suction c. Food
b. Liquid d. Teeth

50. In line 5, the word “segment” is closest in meaning to...

a. Types c. Organs
b. Sections d. Worms

Taken from : Test Your Own TOEFL SCORE by Octa Razaq

This is the end of the examination