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MASTER INDEX .
VOLUME 1:
Electrostatics
Capacitance
Current Electricity

VOLUME 2:
Magnetic Effect of Current
Magnetism and Matter
Electromagnetic Induction
Alternating Current & Electromagnetic Waves

VOLUME 3:
Ray Optics and Optical Instruments
Wave Optics

VOLUME 4:
Modern Physics
Semiconductors
 4

TABLE OF CONTENTS

MODERN PHYSICS

Theory ................................................................................................................................................ 06
Exercise - 1 : Basic Objective Questions............................................................................................ 20
Exercise - 2 : Previous Year JEE MAIN Questions ........................................................................... 27
Exercise - 3 : Advanced Objective Questions .................................................................................. 40
Exercise - 4 : Previous Year JEE Advanced Questions ..................................................................... 52
Answer Key ........................................................................................................................................ 111

SEMICONDUCTORS

Theory ................................................................................................................................................ 67
Exercise - 1 : Basic Objective Questions............................................................................................ 83
Exercise - 2 : Previous Year JEE MAIN Questions ........................................................................... 91
Exercise - 3 : Advanced Objective Questions .................................................................................. 101
Exercise - 4 : Previous Year JEE Advanced Questions ..................................................................... 108
Answer Key ........................................................................................................................................ 114
 10
10
MODERN PHYSICS
 Chapter 10
6

MODERN PHYSICS

1. PHOTONS A photon can collide with material particles like electron.

During these collisions, the total energy and total momentum
A photon is a packet of energy. It possesses energy remain constant.
given by, Energy of light passing through per unit area per unit time is
E = h known as intensity of light.

Where h = 6.62 × 1034 Js is Planck’s constant and  is E P

Intensity of light I   ...(i)
frequency of the photon. If  is wavelength of the photon, At A
then, Here P = power of source,
c =  A = Area, t = time taken
8 1
Here, c = 3 × 10 ms is velocity of light. Therefore, E = energy incident in t time = Nh
E = h = hc/ N = number of photon incident in t time
Energy of a photon is usually expressed in electron volt
N(h  ) n(h  )
(eV). 1eV = 1.6 × 1019 J Intensity I= = ...(ii)
At A
The bigger units are keV and MeV.
 N 

1keV = 1.6 × 1016 and 1 MeV = 1.6 × 1013 J n= = no. of photons per sec.
 t 
1.1 Properties of Photon
A photon is a particle of light moving with speed 299792458 P n(h  )
m/s in vacuum. From equation (i) and (ii), =
A A
The speed of a photon is independent of frame of reference.
This is the basic postulate of theory of relativity. P P
n = = = 5 × 1024 J–1 m–1 × P × 
The rest mass of a photon is zero. i.e. photons do not exist at h hc
rest. 1.2 Radiation Pressure
E hc h 1 When photons fall on a surface, they exert a force and
Effective mass of photon m = 2
= 2 = i.e. m  pressure on the surface. This pressure is called radiation
c c  c 
pressure.
So mass of violet light photon is greater than the mass of red
Force exerted on perfectly reflecting surface
light photon. (R > V)
Let 'N' photons are there in time t,
According to Planck the energy of a photon is directly
proportional to the frequency of the radiation. Nh
Momentum before striking the surface (p1)=
E or E = h 

hc hc 12400
E Joule ( c = ) or E= = eV
 e 
Here E = energy of photon, c = speed of light,
h = Planck's constant, e = charge of electron
h = 6.62 × 10–34 J–s,  = frequency of photon,
= wavelength of photon
E h h Fig 10.1
Linear momentum of photon p =  
c c 
Nh
Momentum after striking the surface (p2)= 


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2 Nh
Change in momentum of photons = p2 – p1 = F 2I cos 
 Pressure = 
A c
2 Nh
But change in momentum of surface = p =

; So that 2. MATTER WAVES

2Nh 2 h  2.1 De-Broglie Hypothesis

P
force on surface F =  n   but n =
t   hc Loius-Broglie put forward a bold hypothesis that matter
should also possess dual nature.
2h P  2P The following observations led him to the duality hypothesis
F=   and
 hc c for matter.
1. The whole energy in this universe is in the form of
F 2P 2I  P matter and electromagnetic radiation.
Pressure =  
A cA c  I  A 
  2. The nature loves symmetry. As the radiation has got
dual nature, matter should also possess dual nature.
Force exerted on perfectly absorbing surface
Thus, according to De-Broglie, a wave is associated with
every moving particle. These waves are called De-Broglie
waves or matter waves.
We know that momentum of a photon is given by

h
p

Fig. 10.2 Therefore, the wavelength of the photon is given by

Nh h
0 h P 
p1  p 2  Nh
F= =  =n ; F= p
t t t  c
Hence, De-Broglie wavelength is given by
 P 
 n   h
hc  
m

F P I This is called De-Broglie relation.

Pressure =  
A cA c 2.2 Conclusion

When a beam of light is incident at angle  on perfectly 1. Lighter the particle, greater is its De-Broglie
reflector surface wavelength.
2. The faster the particle moves, smaller is its De-Broglie
wavelength.
3. The De-Broglie wavelength of –particle is
independent of the charge or nature of the particle.
4. The matter waves are not electromagnetic in nature. If
the velocity of the particle is comparable to the velocity
of light, then mass of the particle is given by

Fig. 10.3 m0
m=
2P 1  v2 / c2
2 h  2 IA cos 
F= cos  = n   cos  
c 
  c

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2.3 De-Broglie Wavelength of Electron oscillate about their equilibrium position and result in the
emission of radiation of definite frequencies in the form of
Consider that an electron of mass m and charge e is
infra-red, visible or ultra-violet light.
accelerated through a potential difference V. If E is the
energy acquired by the particle, then Failure of Thomson’s Atom Model
E = eV …(i) It had to be discarded, because of the following reasons:
If v is the velocity of electron, then 1. It could not explain the origin of the spectral lines in
the form of series as in case of hydrogen atom.
1  2E  2. It could not account for the scattering of -particles
E= mv2 or v =   …(ii)
2  m through large angles as in case of Rutherford’s
-scattering experiment.
Now, De-Broglie wavelength of electron is given by
3.2 Rutherford’s Alpha Scattering Experiment
h h Observations
 = mv =
m 2E / m 1. Most of -particles were found to pass through the
gold foil without any appreciable deflection.
h 2. The different -particles in passing through the gold
Or = …(iii)
2mE foil undergo different amounts of deflections. A large
number of -particles suffer fairly large deflections.
substituting the value of E, we get
3. A very small number of -particles (about 1 in 8000)
h practically retracted their paths or suffered deflection
= …(iv) of nearly 180º.
2meV
4. The graph between the total number of –particles
Setting m = 9.1 × 1031 kg; e = 1.6 × 1019 C and h = 6.62 ×
N() scattered through angle  and the scattering angle
1034 Js, we get
 was found to be as shown in fig.
12.27
= ×1010 m
V

12.27
Or = A …(v)
V

For example, the de-Broglie wavelength of electrons, when Fig. 10.4

accelerated through a potential difference of 100 volt, will The experimental observations led Rutherford to the
be following conclusions:-
1. Since most of the -particles passed undeviated, the
12.27  atom has a lot of empty space in it.
=  1.227 A
100
2. Since fast and the heavy -particles could be deflected
Thus, the wavelength of de-Broglie wave associated with even through 180º, the whole of the positive charge
100 eV electrons is of the order of the wavelength of X-rays. and practically the entire mass of the atom was
confined to an extremely small central core. It was called
3. ATOMIC STRUCTURE AND ITS HISTORY
nucleus. Since 1 in about 8000 -particles is deflected
3.1 Thomson Atomic Model through 180º, the size of the nucleus is about 1/10000th
The positive charge is uniformly distributed over the entire of the size of the atom.
sphere and the electrons are embedded in the sphere of 3.3 Rutherford’s Atom Model
positive charges just like seeds in a watermelon or plums in
On the basis of the results of -scattering experiment,
the pudding. For this reason, Thomson’s atom model is
Rutherford suggested the following picture of the atom:
also known as plum-pudding model. The total positive
charge inside the atom is equal to the total negative charge 1. Atom may be regarded as a sphere of diameter 10–10 m
carried by electrons, so that every atom is electrically neutral. but whole of the positive charge and almost the entire
If the atom gets slightly perturbed, the electrons in the atoms

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mass of the atom is concentrated in a small central (ii) A stable orbit is that in which the angular momentum of
core called nucleus having diameter of about 10–14 m. the electron about nucleus is an integral (n) multiple of
2. The nucleus is surrounded by electrons. In other
h h
words, the electrons are spread over the remaining part . i.e. mvr = n ; n = 1 , 2 , 3 , .......(n  0).
2 2
of the atom leaving plenty of empty space in the atom.
3.4 Drawbacks of Rutherford’s Atom Model (iii) The electron can absorb or radiate energy only if the
1. When the electrons revolve round the nucleus, they electron jumps from a lower to a higher orbit or falls
are continuously accelerated towards the centre of the from a higher to a lower orbit.
nucleus. According to Lorentz, an accelerated charged (iv) The energy emitted or absorbed is a light photon of
particle should radiate energy continuously. Therefore, frequency  and of energy E = h
in the atom, a revolving electron should continuously
4.1 For hydrogen atom : (Z = atomic number = 1)
emit energy and hence the radius of its path should go
on decreasing and ultimately it should fall into the h
nucleus. However, electrons revolve round the (i) Ln = angular momentum in the nth orbit = n .
2
nucleus without falling into it. Therefore, Rutherford’s
atom model cannot explain the stability of the atom. (ii) rn = radius of nth circular orbit = (0.529 Aº) n2 ;
2. If the Rutherford’s atom model is true, the electron can (1Aº = 10-10 m) ; rn  n2.
revolve in orbits of all possible radii and hence it should
emit continuous energy spectrum. However, the atoms 13.6 eV
(iii) En Energy of the electron in the nth orbit =
like hydrogen possess line spectrum. n2
3.5 Distance of Closest Approach Total energy of electron in nth orbit :
Consider an -particle of mass m possesses initial velocity
1 Ze 2
u, when it is at a large distance from the nucleus of an atom KE  mv2  and
having atomic number Z. At the distance of closest 2 8  0 r
approach, the kinetic energy of -particle is completely
converted into potential energy. Mathematically. 1  Ze  e 
PE   2K.E.
4 0 r
2
2
1 2e Ze r  1 . 2 Ze
1/2 mu = . 0
40 1/ 2 mu 2 |PE| = 2 KE
4 0 r0
Total energy of the system E = KE + PE = –2KE + KE =

 Ze 2
– KE =
8  0 r

By putting the value of r, we get

Z2  me 4  Z2
E   8 2 h 2   n 2  E0
Fig. 10.5 n2  0 

4. BOHR ATOMIC MODEL where

Bohr adopted Rutherford model of the atom & added some 4

-  9.11×10-3 1.6×10-19 
arbitrary conditions. These conditions are known as his E0 = 2 2 eV
postulates : 8×  8.85×10-12  ×  6.625×10-34 
(i) The electron in a stable orbit does not radiate energy .
Note:-
2 2
mv k ze Total energy of the electron in an atom is negative, indicating
i.e.  2
r r that it is bound.

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(iv) Bracket Series : (Landing orbit n = 4)

13.6 V
Binding Energy (BE)n = – En = .
n2 1 1 
In the mid infrared region   R  2  2  ; n2 > 4
(iv) En2  En1 = Energy emitted when an electron jumps 4 n2 

from n2th orbit to n1th orbit (n2 > n1) . (v) Pfund Series : (Landing orbit n = 5)

1 1 1 1
E = (13.6 ev)  2  2  . In far infrared region   R  2  2  ; n2 > 5
n
 1 n 2  5 n2 

E = h ; = frequency of spectral line emitted . In all these series n2 = n1 + 1 is the  line
= n1 + 2 is the line
1
 v  wave no. [ no. of waves in unit length (1m)] = n1 + 3 is the line .... etc.

where n1 = Landing orbit
1 1 1 
=R 2  2  .
  n1 n 2 

Where R = Rydberg's constant for hydrogen = 1.097 ×

107 m-1 .
(v) For hydrogen like atom/species of atomic number Z:

Bohr radius 2 n2
rnz = n  0.529 A ;
Z Z

Z2
Enz = (– 13.6) ev Fig. 10.6
n2
Rz = RZ2 – Rydberg's constant for element of atomic no. Z. 5. FREE ELECTRONS IN METALS
Note:- Electron is a fundamental constituent of the atom. A metal
If motion of the nucleus is also considered, then m is replaced contains free electrons, which move about freely through
by . the atomic spaces in a random fashion. But as soon as an
Where = reduced mass of electron – nucleus system = electron leaves the metal, immediately an equal positive
mM/(m+M) . charge is produced on the surface of the metal. As a result,
the electron is pulled back into the metal and hence remains
Z2  confined to it. The pull on the electrons at the surface is
In this case En = (–13.6 ev) . , me - mass of electron
n 2 me found to depend on the nature of metal surface and is
4.2 Spectral Series described by a characteristic of the metal, called work
(i) Lyman Series : (Landing orbit n = 1) . function.
Work Function
1 1 
Ultraviolet region   R  2  2  ; n2 > 1 The minimum energy, which must be supplied to the electron
1 n2 
so that it can just come out of the metal surface is called the
(ii) Balmer Series : (Landing orbit n = 2) work function of the metal.
This process is called electron emission and may be achieved
 
Visible region   R  1  1  ; n2 > 2 in the following ways
2 2
2 n2  (i) Thermoionic emission. In this process of electron
emission, the additional energy is supplied in the form
(iii) Paschan Series : (Landing orbit n = 3)
of heat. The emitted electrons are known as thermo
electrons.
1 1 
In the near infrared region   R  2  2  ; n2 > 3
3 n2 

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(ii) Photoelectric emission. In this process, as already 2. The emission of photoelectrons starts as soon as light
discussed, the additional energy is supplied by means falls on metal surface.
of electromagnetic radiation. The emitted electrons are
known as photoelectrons. 3. The maximum kinetic energy with which an electron is
emitted from a metal surface is independent of the
(iii) Secondary emission, in this process, the fast moving intensity of the light and depends only upon its
electrons on collision with the metal surface knock out frequency.
electrons, called the secondary electrons.
4. The number of photoelectrons emitted i.e.
(iv) Field emission. In this process, the electron are forced photoelectric current is independent of the frequency
out of metal surface by strong electric field of the incident light and depends only upon its
6. PHOTOELECTRIC EFFECT intensity.
6.2 Einstein's Photoelectric Equation
The phenomenon of ejection from a metal surface, when light Einstein’s photo electric equation
of sufficiently high frequency falls upon it is known as the
photoelectric effect. The electrons so emitted are called h     KE max
photoelectrons. light of frequency  , when it interacts with matter, behaves
Experimental Study of Photoelectric Effect : The apparatus as discrete packet of energy known as photon.
consists of an evacuated glass tube fitted with two Energy of a photon E = hv, h is Planck’s constant.
electrodes. The electrode E is called emitting electrode and
the other electrode C is called collecting electrode. The minimum energy required to remove an electron from
the metal surface is known is photo electric work function of
When a suitable radiation is incident on the electrode E, the metal 
electrons are ejected from it. The electrons, which have
sufficient kinetic energy, reach the electrode C despite its  = hv0, where v0 = threshold frequencey.
negative polarity. The potential difference between the two If a photon of energy hv falls on the surface of a metal and
electrodes acts as the retarding potential. As the collecting hv0 is the work function of the metal, then
electrode is made more and more negative, fewer and fewer hv = hv0 + 1/2 mv 2max .
electrons will reach the cathode and the photo-electric
current recorded by the ammeter with fall. In case, the This is Einstein’s photo electric equation.
retarding potential equals V0, called the stopping potential, (i) Variation of photoelectric current with potential
no electron will reach the cathode and the current will difference : With the help of the above experimental setup,
become zero. In such a case, the work done by stopping a graph is obtained between current and potential difference.
potential is equal to the maximum kinetic energy of the The potential difference is varied with the help of a potential
electrons i.e. divider. The graph obtained is shown below.
eV0 = 1/2 m v2max

Fig. 10.8
The main points of observation are :
Fig. 10.7 (a) At zero anode potential, a current exists. It means that
6.1 Laws of Photoelectric Emission electrons are emitted from cathode with some kinetic
energy.
1. The emission of photoelectrons takes place only, when
the frequency of the incident radiation is above a (b) As anode potential is increased, current increases. This
certain critical value, characteristic of that metal. The implies that different electrons are emitted with different
critical value of frequency is known as the threshold kinetic energies.
frequency for the metal of the emitting electrode.

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(c) After a certain anode potential, current acquires

V0 (stopping potential)
aconstant value called saturation current. Current
acquires a saturation value because the number of
electrons emitted 7 per second from the cathode are
fixed.
(d) At a certain negative potential, the photoelectric current
0  (frequency)
becomes zero. This is called stopping potential (V0).
Stopping potential is a measure of maximum kinetic
Fig. 10.11
energy of the emitted electrons. Let KEmax be the
maximum kinetic energy of an emitted electron, then
KEmax = eV0. 7. X–RAYS
(ii) Variation of current with intensity V
glass
The photoelectric current is found to be directly proportional chamber anode
to intensity of incident radiation. C
water
–
T
–

F
W
filament
target
window X-rays

Fig. 10.12
Fig. 10.9 X-rays are emitted when fast moving electrons are stopped
(iii) Effect of intensity on saturation current and stopping by a metal target of high atomic number.
potential X-ray spectrum
(a) Saturation current increases with increase in intensity.
(b) Stopping potential (and therefore maximum kinetic
energy) is independent of intensity.

30 40 50 50 70 80 90
Wavelength (pm)
Fig. 10.13
7.1 Continuous spectrum of X–ray
Fig. 10.10
When high speed electron collides with the atom of target or
(iv) Effect of frequency
passes close to the nucleus, there is Coulomb attractive force
(a) Stopping potential is found to vary with frequency of on the electron. Due to this force, electron is decelerated i.e.
incident light linearly. Greater the frequency of incident kinetic energy decreases. The loss of energy during
light, greater the stopping potential. deceleration is emitted in the form of X–rays. X–ray produced
(b) There exists a certain minimum frequency 0 below in this way are called Braking or Bremstralung radiation and
which no stopping potential is required as no emission form continuous spectrum. In continuous spectrum of
of electrons takes place. This frequency is called X–rays, all the wavelengths of X–ray are present but below
threshold frequency. For photoelectric emission to take a minimum value of wavelength there is no X–ray. It is called
place, > 0. cut off or threshold or minimum wavelength of X–ray. The
minimum wavelength depends on applied potential.

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Loss in Kinetic Energy

1 1
mv12 – mv22 = h+ heat energy
2 2
if v2 = 0 , v1 = v (In first collision, heat = 0)
1
mv2 = hmax ...(i)
2
1
mv2 = eV ...(ii) [here V is applied potential]
2
hc
from (i) and (ii) hmax = eV  = eV
 min
Fig. 10.16
12400 12400 7.3 Moseley’s Law
min = × volt = × 10–10 m × volt
V V Moseley studied the characteristic spectrum of number of
Continuous X–rays also known as white X–ray. Minimum many elements and observed that the square root of the
wavelength of these spectrum only depends on applied frequency of a K– line is closely proportional to atomic
potential and doesn' t depend on atomic number. number of the element. This is called Moseley's law.
2 2
 (Z – b)   (Z – b) = a (Z – b) ...(i)
Z = atomic number of target
 = frequency of characteristic spectrum
b = screening constant (for K– series b=1, L series b=7.4)
a = proportionality constant

Wavelength of characteristic spectrum

Fig. 10.14
hc
7.2 Characteristic Spectrum of X–ray  for K 
EK  EL
When the target of X–ray tube collides with an energetic
electron, it emits two types of X–ray radiation. One of them hc hc
  for K  ,    for L ,
has a continuous spectrum whose wavelength depends on EK  EM E L  EM
applied potential while other consists of spectral lines whose
wavelength depends on nature of target. The radiation forming
the line spectrum is called characteristic X–rays. When highly
accelerated electron strikes with the atom of target then it
knocks out the electron of an orbit, due to this a vacancy is
created. To fill this vacancy another electron jumps from higher
energy level and electromagnetic radiation is emitted which
forms characteristic spectrum of X–ray, whose wavelength
depends on nature of target and not on applied potential.

Fig. 10.17

8. NUCLEUS

8.1 Isotopes
The atoms of an element, which have the same atomic
number but different mass numbers, are called isotopes.
Fig. 10.15

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(i) 8O16, 8O17, 8O18 (ii) 17cl35, 17Cl37 4

R3  A
(iii) 82Pb206, 82Pb207, 82Pb208. 3

8.2 Isotones Or R  A1/3 Or R = R0 A1/3 R0 = 1.2 × 10–15m

The atoms whose nuclei have same number of neutrons are 8.7 Nuclear density
called isotones. 6C14, 7N15 Mass of the nucleus of the atom of mass number A = A a.m.u
8.3 Isobars = A × 1.660565 × 10–27 kg. If R is radius of the nucleus, then
The atoms, which have same mass number but different 4 4 4
atomic numbers, are called isobars. Volume of nucleus = R3 =  (R0A1/3)3 =  R 30 A
3 3 3
(i) 1H3 and 1He3 (ii) 2Li7 and 4Be7
Taking R0 = 1.2 × 10–15m, we have
(iii) 28Ar40 and 29Ca40 (iv) 32Ge76 and 34Se76
8.4 Atomic mass unit mass of nucleus
Density of the nucleus,  =
The atomic mass unit (a.m.u) is a very small unit of mass volume of nucleus
and it is found to be very convenient in nuclear physics.
A  1.66065  10  27
Atomic mass unit is defined as 1/12th of the mass of one 6C12  3
atom. 
4 / 3 1.2  10  15  A

According to Avogadro’s hypothesis, number of atoms in

= 2.26 × 1017 kg m–3 (independent of A)
12 g of 6C12 is equal to Avogadro number i.e. 6.023 × 1023.
Discussion :
12  The density of the nuclei of all the atoms is same as it
Therefore, the mass of one carbon atom (6C12) is
6.023  10 23 is independent of mass number.
i.e. 1.992678 × 10–26 kg.  The high density of the nucleus ( 1017 kg m–3) suggests
the compactness of the nucleus. Such examples of high
1
Therefore, 1 a.m.u.   1.992678  10  26 kg densities are met in the form of neutron stars.
12
8.8 Mass defect
or 1 a.m.u. = 1.660565 × 10–27 kg
The difference between the sum of the masses of the nucleons
8.5 Energy equivalent of atomic mass unit constituting a nucleus and the rest mass of the nucleus is
According to Einstein’s mass-energy equivalence relation, known as mass defect. It is denoted by m.
the energy equivalent of mass m is given by E = mc2 Let us calculate the mass defect in case of the nucleus of an
Where c is speed of light. atom zXA. The nucleus of the atom contains Z protons and
Suppose that m = 1 a.m.u = 1.660565 × 10–27 kg (AZ) neutrons. Therefore, if mN (zXA) is mass of the nucleus
of the atom ZXA, then the mass defect is given by
Since, c = 2.998 × 108 ms1, the energy equivalent of 1 a.m.u
is given by 1 a.m.u = (1.660565 × 10–27 kg) × (2.998 × 108 ms1)2 m = [Zmp + (AZ)mnmN(ZXA)]
= 1.4925 × 10–10 J Since, 1 The binding energy of a nucleus may be defined as the energy
equivalent to the mass defect of the nucleus. It may be
1.4925 10 10 measured as the work required to be done to separate the
MeV = 1.602 × 10–13 J, we have eV
1.602  10 13 nucleon an infinite distance apart, so that they no longer
Or 1 a.m.u = 931.5 MeV intract with each other.

8.6 Nuclear size If m is mass defect of a nucleus, then according to

Einstein’s mass-energy relation, binding energy of the
The volume of the nucleus is directly proportional to the
nucleus = m c2 (in joule).
number of nucleons (mass number) constituting the nucleus.
If R is the radius of the nucleus having mass number A, Here, mass defect m has to be measured in kilogram. In
then case, mass defect is measured in a.m.u., then
Binding energy of the nucleus = m × 931.5 (in MeV)
Binding energy = [Zmp + (AZ)mn mN (ZXA)] × 931.5 MeV

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The reaction energy Q associated with a nuclear reaction is

8.9 Binding Energy defined as the total energy released as a result of the reaction.
The rest mass of the nucleus is smaller than the sum of the Thus,
rest masses of nucleons constituting it. This is due to the fact
that when nucleons combine to form a nucleus, some energy Q  (M a  M X  M Y  M b )c 2
(binding energy) is liberated. The binding energy is equal to A reaction for which Q is positive is called exothermic. A
the work that must be done to split the nucleus into the reaction for which Q is negative is called endothermic.
particles constituting it.
8.10 Binding Energy Per Nucleon
The difference between the total mass of the nucleons and
The binding energy per nucleon is the average energy
mass of the nucleus is called the mass defect of the nucleus
required to extract one nucleon from the nucleus.
represented by m = [Zmp + (A–Z)mn] – mnuc
Multiplying the mass defect by the square of the velocity of binding energy
Thus, binding energy per nucleon 
light, we can find the binding energy of the nucleus. A
BE = mc2 = [(Zmp + (A–Z)mn)–mnuc]c2
If the masses are taken in atomic mass unit, the binding
energy is given by
BE = [(Zmp + (A–Z)mn)–mnuc] 931.5 MeV
Let us take example of oxygen nucleus. It contains 8 protons
and 8 neutrons. We can discuss concept of binding energy
by following diagram.

Fig. 10.19
 The greater the binding energy per nucleon the more
stable is the nucleus. The curve reaches a maximum of
56
about 8.75 MeV in the vicinity of 26 Fe and then
Fig. 10.18
238
8mp + 8mn > mass of nucleus of oxygen gradually falls to 7.6 MeV for 92 U.
For nucleus we apply mass energy conservation, 8mp + 8mn  In a nuclear reaction energy is released if total binding
B.E. enegy is increasing. Let us make an example.
= mass of nucleus +
c2 Suppose a nucleus X, which has total binding energy
of 100 MeV converts into some other nucleus Y which
A
For general nucleus Z X , mass defect = difference between has total binding enegy 120 MeV. Then, in this process
total mass of nucleons and mass of the nucleus 20 MeV energy will be released. This is because
100 MeV energy has already been released during the
m = [Zmp + (A–Z)mn]–M
formation of X while in case of Y it is 120 MeV. So, the
B.E. = mc2 (joules) = (m)in amu × 931.5 MeV remaining 20 MeV will be released now.
8.9.1 Q-value of a nuclear reaction
Energy is released if E b is increasing.
Consider a nuclear reaction in which a target nucleus X is
bombarded by a particle ‘a’ resulting in a daughter nucleus  Eb in a nuclear process is increased if binding
Y and a particle b. energy per nucleon of the daughter products gets
aX Yb increased. Let us take an example. Consider a
nucleus X(A X = 100) breaks into ligher nuclei
Sometimes this reaction is written as X (a, b) Y
Y (AY = 60) and Z(AZ = 40).
X YZ

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Binding energy per nucleon of these three are say, For better understanding we discuss N/Z graph. There are
7 MeV, 7.5 MeV and 8.0 MeV. Then, total binding two type of unstable nuclides
energy of X is 100 × 7 = 700 Me and that of Y + Z is
(60 × 7.5) + (40 × 8.0) = 770 MeV. So, in this process
70 MeV energy will be released.
 Binding energy per nucleon is increased if two or more
lighter nuclei combine to form a heavier nucleus. This
process is called nuclear fusion.

Fig. 10.23
Fig. 10.20 -
•  type
In nuclear fission a heavy nucleus splits into two or
For A type nuclides (N/Z)A > (N/Z) stable
more ligher nuclei of almost equal mass.
To achieve stability, it increases Z by conversion of neutron
into proton
1
0
n1  1p1 + e–1 +  , ZXA  Z+1
YA +  eparticle   

This decay is called –1 decay. (  is anti-neutrino, its rest

mass and charge is zero)
Kinetic energy available for e–1 and  is, Q  K  K 
Fig. 10.21
In both the process Eb/A is increasing. Thus, energy K.E. of  satisfies the condition 0 < K< Q
will be released.

8.11 Radioactive Decays

Generally, there are three types of radioactive decays
(i)  decay (ii)  and  decay (iii)  decay
•  decay
In  decay, the unstable nucleus emits an  particle. By
emitting  particle, the nucleus decreases it's mass energy Fig. 10.24
number and move towards stability. Nucleus having A>210 +
•  type
shows  decay.By releasing  particle, it can attain higher
stability and Q value is positive. For B type nuclides (N/Z)B  (N/Z) stable
To achieve stability it decreases Z by the conversion of a
proton into
neutron. That is,

p  n  e   , Z X A  Z 1 Y A  e 
 positron   neutrino   particle 


(  is neutrino, its rest mass and charge is zero)

Fig. 10.22
•  decay
In beta decay (N/Z) ratio of nucleus is changed. This decay
is shown by unstable nuclei. In beta decay, either a neutron
is converted into proton or proton is converted into neutron.

Fig. 10.25

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•  decay : when an  or  decay takes place, the daughter disintegration constant or transformation constant. Its value
nucleus is usually in higher energy state, such a nucleus depends upon the nature of the radioactive sample. Further,
comes to ground state by emitting a photon or photons. the negative sign indicates that the number of the atoms of
the sample decreases with the passage of time.

dN
From equation, we have   dt.
N

N t
dN
Fig. 10.26
Inhigrating N N  0 –λdt
0

Order of energy of  photon is 100 KeV e.g.

67 67
27 Co  28 Ni *     , Or log N =t
 higher energy state  e
N0
67 67
28 Ni* 28 Ni   photon
N
t
Or N0 = e
8.12 Packing Fraction

Packing fraction = (mass defect)/A. Or N = N0et

9.3 Radioactive Decay Constant
9. RADIOACTIVITY
According to radioactive decay law, Integrating, we have
9.1 Natural Radioactivity
dN
  N
The spontaneous transformation of an element into another dt
with the emission of some particle (or particles) or
electromagnetic radiation is called natural radioactivity.
dN / dt
9.2 Laws of Radioactivity Decay Or 
N
Rutherford and Soddy studied the phenomenon of
radioactivity in details and formulated the following laws, Hence, radioactive decay constant of a substance (radioactive)
known as the laws of radioactive decay: may be defined as the ratio of its instantaneous rate of
disintegration to the number of atoms present at that time.
1. Radioactivity is a spontaneous phenomenon and one
cannot predict, when a particular atom in a given Again, N = N0 e t
radioactive sample will undergo distintegration. If t = 1/
2. When a radioactive atom disintegrates, either an then, N = N0 e 1/ = 1/e N0 = N0/(2.718) = 0.368 N0
-particle (nucleus of helium) or a -particle (electron)
Hence, radioactive decay constant of a substance may also
is emitted.
be defined as the reciprocal of the time, after which the number
3. The number of atoms disintegrating per second of a of atoms of a radioactive substance decreases to 0.368 (or
radioactive sample at any time is directly proportional 36.8%) of their number present initially.
to the number of atoms present at that time. The rate of
9.4 Half Life
disintegration of the sample cannot be altered by
changing the external factors, such as pressure, Consider that a radioactive sample contains N0 atoms at
temperature etc. It is known as radioactive decay law. time t = 0. Then, the number of atoms left behind after time
t is given by N = N0 e t
According to radioactive decay law, the rate of disintegration
at any time t is directly proportional to the number of atoms From the definition of half life, it follows that when t = t1/2, N =
N0/2.
dN dN
present at time t i.e.  N or   N. Setting the above condition in equation, we have
dt dt
N 0 / 2  N0 e t1/2
Where the constant of proportionally  is called decay
constant of the radioactive sample. It is also known as
Or e  t 1/ 2
 1/ 2 Or e t1/ 2  2

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Or T = loge 2 = 2.303 log10 2 = 2.303 × 0.3010 = 0.693 There is also another unit of radioactivity, called Rutherford
(rd).
0.693 The activity of a radioactive sample is called one Rutherford,
Or t1/ 2 
 if it undergoes 106 disintegration per second.

Thus, half life of a radioactive substance is inversely 1 Rutherford (rd) = 106 disintegration s1
proportional to its decay constant and is a characteristic 9.8 Nuclear fission and Nuclear fusion
property of its nucleus. It cannot be altered by any known Nuclear fission :
method.
The process of splitting of a heavy nucleus into two nuclei
9.5 Mean life or average life of nearly comparable masses with liberation of energy is
The average life of a radioactive substance is defined as the called nuclear fission.
average time for which the nuclei of the atoms of the U235 + 0n1  [92U236]  56Ba141+ 36Kr92 + 30n1 + Q
92
radioactive substance exist. It is defined by tavg.
Nuclear fusion :
Average Life :
It is the phenomenon of fusing two or more lighter nuclei to
 form a single heavy nucleus.
t

sum of ages of all the nuclei  N e

0
0 dt.t
1 A+B  C + Q (Energy)
t avg   
N0 N0  The product (C) is more stable then reactants (A and B) &
mC < (ma + mb) and mass defect
9.6 Activity of radioactive substance
m = [(ma + mb)– mc] amu
The activity of a radioactive substance may be defined as
Energy released is E = m 931 MeV
the rate at which the nuclei of its atoms in the sample
disintegrate. The total binding energy and binding energy per nucleon C
both are more than of A and B.
If a radioactive sample contains N atoms at any time t, then
E = Ec – (Ea + Eb)
dN
its activity at time t is defined as A =   Fusion of four hydrogen nuclei into helium nucleus :
dt
4(1H1)  2He4 + 2 + 0 + 2 + 26 MeV
The negative sign shows that with the passage of time, the
Energy released per fission >> Energy released per fusion.
activity of the radioactive substance decreases.
 200 
dN Energy per nucleon in fission    0.85 MeV  <<
Since according to the radioactive decay, law   N  235 
dt
the equation may be expressed as A = N. Since, N =N0 et,  24 
energy per nucleon in fusion    6MeV 
we have  4 
9.9 Nuclear Reactor
A  N 0 e  t
Or Main parts and their functions :-
A  A 0 e  t
1. Fuel : It is a fissionable material mostly U235.
Here,  N0 = A0 is activity of the radioactive sample at time t 2. Moderator: It is used to slow down the neutrons released
= 0. during the fission. The most common moderators are water,
heavy water and graphite.
9.7 Units of activity
3. Control Rods: these rods are cadmium or boron, which
The activity of a radioactive sample may be expressed as
control the chain reaction by absorbing neutrons.
disintegration per second. The practical unit of activity of a
4. Coolant and Heat Exchanger: The coolant takes away heat
radioactive sample is curie (ci).
from the reactor core and in turn heats the water in the heat
The activity of a radioactive sample is called one curie, if it exchanger to produce steam. The commonly used coolants
undergoes 3.7 × 1010 disintegrations per second. Thus, are liquid sodium and heavy water.
1 curie (ci) = 3.7 × 1010 disintegrations s1

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5. Radiation Shielding: These are thick concrete walls, 9.11 Safety Measures from Radiation Hazards
which stop the radiations from going out. Following precautions are observed by the workers
9.10 Radiation Hazards engaged in this field:

1. The exposure to radioation induces delecterious 1. The radioisotopes are transferred in thick walled lead
genetic effects. containers and are kept in rooms with thick walls of
leads.
2. The strong -ray exposure can cause lung cancer.
2. The radioisotopes are handled with the help of remote
3. The exposure to fast and slow neutrons can cause
control devices.
blindness.
3. The workers are asked to wear lead aprons.
4. The exposure to neutrons, protons and -particles can
cause damage to red blood cells. 4. The radioactive contamination of the work area is
avoided at all costs.
5. The exposure to -particles can cause disastrous
effects.
6. The strong exposures to protons and neutrons can
cause serious damage to productive organs.

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EXERCISE - 1 : BASIC OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS

Photons
h h
1. Photon of frequency v has a momentum associated with it. (c) (d)
If c is the velocity of light, the momentum is 2mE 2mE

v 8. After Absorbing a slowly moving neutron of mass mN

(a) (b) hvc (momentum ~ 0) a nucleus of mass M beaks into two nuclei
c
of masses m1 and 5m1 (6m1 = M + mN), respectively. If the
hv hv
(c) (d) de–Broglie wavelength of the nucleus with mass m1 is , then
c2 c
de–Broglie wavelength of the other nucleus will be
2. If filament is heated, then it emits :
(a) proton (b) photon (a) 25  (b) 5 

(c) electron (d)   particle (c) /5 (d) 

3. A 200 W sodium street lamp emitsyellow light of wavelength 9. For which of the following particles will it be most difficult
0.6 µm. Assuming it to be 25% efficient in converting to experimentally verify the de-Broglie relationship?
electrical energy to light, the number of photons of yellow (a) an electron (b) a proton
light it emits per second is
19 20
(c) an -particle (d) a dust particle
(a) 3 × 10 (b) 1.5 × 10
18 20 10. If elements with principal quantum number n > 4 were not
(c) 6 × 10 (d) 62 × 10 allowed in nature, the number of possible elements would
4. What will be the relation between wavelength of photon be :
and electron of same energy? (a) 60 (b) 32
(a)  ph   e (b)  ph   e (c) 4 (d) 64
Bohr’s Atomic Model and Atomic Collisions
(c)  ph   e (d) none of these.
11. The wavelengths involved in the spectrum of deuterium
5. The relationship between energy of a photon and its
wavelength  D  are slightly different from that of hydrogen spectrum,
2
1

(a) Energy is directly proprotional to wavelength because

(b) Energy is inversely proprotional to wavelength (a) sizes of the two nuclei are different
(c) Energy is independent of wavelength (b) nuclear forces are different in the two cases
(d) None of the above. (c) masses of the two nuclei are different
Matter Waves
(d) attraction between the electron and the nucleus is
6. The de-Broglie wavelength of a molecule of thermal energy different in the two cases.
kBT (kB = Boltzmann constant and T = absolute temperature), 12. Formation of covalent bonds in compounds exibits
is
(a) wave nature of electron
h h (b) particle nature of electron
(a)   (b) 2mk B T
2mk B T (c) both wave and particle nature of electron

h (d) none of the above

(c) h 2mk B T (d)
4m k B2 T 2
2
13. The surface a metal is illuminated with the light of 400 nm.
The kientic energy of the ejected photoelectrons was found
7. The de Broglie wavelength of a particle of mass m moving
to be 1.68 eV. The work function of the metal is (hc = 1240
with a kinetic energy E is
eV–nm)
h h (a) 3.09 eV (b) 1.42 eV
(a) (b)
2mE 2mE (c) 1.51 eV (d) 1.68 eV
MODERN PHYSICS 21

14. If 13.6 eV energy is required to ionize the hydrogen atom,

then the energy required to remove an electron from n = 2 is  h   h 
(a) 7   (b) 42  
 2   2 
(a) 10.2 eV (b) zero
(c) 3.4 eV (d) 6.8 eV  h   h 
(c) 7  (d) 56  
15. If the binding energy of the electron in a hydrogen atom is  2   2 
13.6 eV, the energy required to remove the electron from the
2+ 21. The ratio of the energies of the hydrogen atom in the first to
first excited state of Li is
(a) 30.6 eV (b) 13.6 eV the second excited state
(c) 3.4 eV (d) 122.4 eV (a) 4 : 1 (b) 1 : 4
16. Suppose an electron is attracted towards the origin by a (c) 4 : 9 (d) 9 : 4
force k/r, where k is a constant and r is the distance of the 22. In Bohr’s Model of hydrogen atom. The ratio between the
electron from the origin. By applying Bohr model to this period of revolution of an electron in orbit of n = 1 to the
th
system, the radius of the n orbital of the electron is found period of revolution of the electron in the orbit n = 2
to be rn and the kinetic energy of the electron to be Tn. Then (a) 1 : 2 (b) 2 : 1
which of the following is true. (c) 1 : 4 (d) 1 : 8

1 23. The ratio of areas between the electron orbits for the first
(a) Tn  , rn  n 2 excited state to the ground state for the hydrogen atom is
n2
(a) 2 : 1 (b) 4 : 1
(b) Tn is independent of n, rn  n
(c) 8 : 1 (d) 16 : 1
1 24. The kinetic energy of an electron in the first orbit of H atom
(c) Tn  , rn  n is 13.6 eV. The total energy of an electron in the second orbit
n +
of He is
1 (a) 13.6 eV (b) 3.4 eV
(d) Tn  , rn  n 2
n (c) –13.6 eV (d) –3.4 eV
2+
17. Energy required for the electron excitation in Li from the 25. Energy levels A, B, C of a certain atom correspond to
first to the third Bohr orbit is increasing values of energy i.e., EA < EB < EC. If 1,2,3, are
the wavelengths of radiations corresponding to the
(a) 36.3 eV (b) 108.8 eV
transitions C to B, B to A and C to A respectively, which of
(c) 122.4 eV (d) 12.1 eV the following statements is correct ?
18. An electron makes transition inside a hydrogen atom. The C
orbital angular momentum of the electron may change by B

h
(a) h (b) A
6
1 2
h h (a) 3 = 1 + 2 (b) 3 =   
(c) (d) 1 2
2 4
2 2 2
(c) 1 + 2 + 3= 0 (d) 3 = 1 + 2
19. An electron in the ground state of hydrogen has an angular
momentum L1, and an electron in the first excited state of 26. The ratio of the wavelength of the first line of Lyman series
lithium has an angular momentum L2. to the first line of Balmer series is

(a) L1 = L2 (b) L1 = 4L2 (a) 1 : 4 (b) 5 : 27

(c) L2 = 2L1 (d) L1 = 2L2 (c) 27 : 20 (d) 20 : 27

27. The wavelength of the first line of Lyman series of hydrogen
20. If an electron has, orbital angular momentum quantum
is 1216 Å. The wavelength of the second line of the same
number l = 7, then it will have an orbital angular momentum series will be
equal to
(a) 912 Å (b) 1026 Å
(c) 3648 Å (d) 6566 Å
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28. Electrons accelerated by potential V are diffracted from a 34. Sodium and copper have work functions 2.3 eV and 4.5 eV
crystal. If d = 1 Å and i = 30°, V should be about
–34 –31 –19
respectively. Then the ratio of the wavelengths is nearest to
(h = 6.6 × 10 J.s, me = 9.1 × 10 kg, e = 1.6 × 10 C)
(a) 1 : 2 (b) 4 : 1
(a) 2000 V (b) 50 V
(c) 2 : 1 (d) 1 : 4
(c) 500 V (d) 1000 V
35. Two identical, photocathodes receive light of frequencies f1
1 2 and f2. If the velocities of the photoelectrons (of mass m)
29. An alpha nucleus of energy mv bombards a heavy
2 coming out are respectively v1 and v2, then
nuclear target of change Ze. Then the distance of closest
1/ 2
approach for the alpha nucleus will be proportional to 2h  2h 
2
2 2
(a) v1  v 2   f1  f 2  (b) v1  v2   m  f1  f 2 
(a) v (b) 1/m m  
1/ 2
1 1 2h  2h 
(c)
v4
(d)
Ze
2 2
(c) v1  v 2   f1  f 2  (d) v1  v 2   m  f1  f 2  
m  
Photoelectric Effect
36. The work function of a substance is 4.0 eV. The longest
30. Light of two different frequencies whose photons have wavelength of light that can cause photoelectron emission
energies 1 eV and 2.5 eV successively illuminate a metal of from this substance is approximately
work function 0.5 eV. The ratio of the maximum speeds of
(a) 540 nm (b) 400 nm
the emitted electrons will be
(c) 310 nm (d) 220 nm
(a) 1 : 5 (b) 1 : 4
37. The threshold frequency for a metallic surface corresponds
(c) 1 : 2 (d) 1 : 1
to an energy of 6.2 eV and the stopping potential for a
31. The anode voltage of a photocell is kept fixed. The wavelength radiation incident on this surface is 5 V. The incident radiation
 of the light falling on the cathode is gradually changed. The lies in
plate current I of photocell varies as follows
(a) ultra-violet region (b) infra-red region
(c) visible region (d) X-rays region
38. Which one of the following graphs represents correctly the
(a) (b)
variation of photoelectric current (i) with intensity (I) of
incident radiations
Current (i)

Current (i)

(c) (d)
(a) (b)

Intensity (I) Intensity (I)

32. The work function of a metal in 4 eV. For the emission of
photoelectrons of zero velocity from the metal surface, the
wavelength of the incident radiation should be
Current (i)

Current (i)

(a) 1700 Å (b) 2700 Å

(c) 3100 Å (d) 5900 Å (c) (d)
33. Photons of frequency v fall on a metal surface for which the
Intensity (I) Intensity (I)
threshold frequency is v0. Then,
(a) All ejected electrons have the same kinetic energy h(v – v0)
(b) the ejected electrons have a distribution of kinetic energy
from zero to h(v – v0)
(c) the most energetic electrons have kinetic energy hv
(d) the average kinetic energy of ejected electrons is hv0.
MODERN PHYSICS 23

39. The anode voltage of a photocell is kept fixed. The 45. In a hydrogen like atom electron makes transition from an
wavelength  of the light falling on the cathode is gradually energy level with quantum number n to another with quantum
number (n – 1). If n >> 1, the frequency of radiation emitted
changed. The plate current I of the photocell varies as
is proportional to :
follows
1 1
(a) (b)
n n2

(a) (b) 1 1
(c) (d)
n4 n3
46. Hydrogen (1H1), Deuterium (1H2), singly ionised Helium
(2He4)+ and doubly ionised lithium (3Li6)+ + all have one
electron around the nucleus. Consider an electron
(c) (d) transition from n = 2 to n = 1. If the wave lengths of emitted
radiation are 1 ,   , 3 and  4 respectively then
X-Rays approximately which one of the following is correct ?
40. The production of characteristic X–rays is due to–
(a) transfer of momentum in collision of electrons with the
(a) 1  22  23   4 (b) 1   2  4 3  9 4
target atom
(b) transfer of energy in collision of electrons with the (c) 1  22  3 3  4 4 (d) 41  22  23   4
target atom
47. The absorption transition between the first and the fourth
(c) the transition of electrons in heavy target atoms from
high to low energy level energy states of hydrogen atom are 3. The emission
transitions between these states will be
(d) none of these
(a) 3 (b) 4
41. The KX–ray emission line of tungsten occurs at  = 0.021
nm. The energy difference between K and L levels in this (c) 5 (d) 6
atoms is about : 48. Which of the following transitions in the hydrogen atom
(a) 0.51 MeV (b) 1.2 MeV emit the photon of highest frequency ?
(c) 59 keV (d) 13.6 eV (a) n = 2 to n = 6 (b) n = 6 to n = 2
42. The wavelength of K line for an element of atomic number (c) n = 1 to n = 2 (d) n = 2 to n = 1
43 is . Then the wavelength of K line for an element of
atomic number 29 is :– 49. The ratio of minimum to maximum wavelength in Balmer
series is
(a) (43/29)  (b) (42/28) 
(a) 5 : 9 (b) 5 : 36
(c) (9/4)  (d) (4/9) 
(a) 1 : 4 (d) 3 : 4
43. The wavelengths of K X–rays of two metals 'A' and 'B' are
50. The transition from the state n = 4 to n = 3 in a hydrogen like
4 1
and respectively, where 'R' is Rydbergg atom results in ultraviolet radiation. Infrared radiation will
1 87 5 R 6 75 R
be obtained in the transition
constant. The number of elements lying between 'A' and 'B'
according to their atomic numbers is : (a) 2  1 (b) 3  2
(a) 3 (b) 6 (c) 4  2 (d) 5  4
(c) 5 (d) 4 51. Which of the following atoms has the lowest ionization
44. On operating an X–ray tube at 1 kV. X–rays of minimum potential ?
wavelength 6.22 Å are produced. If the tube is operated at 14
10 kV, then the minimum wavelength of X–rays produced (a) 7 N (b) 133
55 Cs
will be
40 16
(a) 0.622 Å (b) 6.22 Å (c) 18 Ar (d) 8 O
(c) 3.11 Å (d) 62.2 Å
MODERN PHYSICS 24

52. A hydrogen atom emits a photon corresponding to an 60. The binding energy per nucleon for the parent nucleus is E1
electron transition from n = 5 to n = 1. The recoil speed of and that for the daughter nuclei is E2. Then
hydrogen atom is almost (a) E2 = 2E1 (b) E1 > E2
–4 –1 –2 –1
(a) 10 ms (b) 2 × 10 ms (c) E2 > E1 (d) E1 = 2E2
–1 2 –1
(c) 4 ms (d) 8 × 10 ms 61. Li nucleus has three protons and four neutrons. Mass of Li
53. Let v1 be the frequency of the series limit of the Lyman nucleus is 7.016005 amu. Mass of proton is 1.007277 amu.
series, v2 be the frequency of the first line of the Lyman and mass of neutron is 1.008665 amu. Mass defect of lithium
series, and v3 be the frequency of the series limit of the nucleus is amu is
Balmer series. (a) 0.04048 amu (b) 0.4050 amu
(a) v1 – v2 = v3 (b) v2 – v1 = v3 (c) 0.04052 amu (d) 0.04055 amu
17
1 62. If M0 is the mass of an oxygen isotope 8O , Mp and and Mn
(c) v3 = (v1 + v2) (d) v1 + v2 = v3
2 are the masses of a proton and a neutron, respectively, the
Atomic Nuclei and its properties nuclear binding energy of the isotope is
2 2
54. In 88Ra226 nucleus, there are (a) (Mo – 8Mp)c (b) (Mo – 8Mp – 9Mn)c
2 2
(a) 138 protons and 88 neutrons (c) Mo c (d) (Mo – 17 Mn)c
(b) 138 neutrons and 88 protons 63. The function of a moderator in a nuclear reactor is
(c) 226 protons and 88 electrons (a) absorb the dangerous gamma radiation
(d) 226 neutrons and 138 electrons (b) react with the nuclear fuel to release energy
55. 1 a.m.u. equals (c) provide neutrons to the fission process
–27 –27
(a) 1.67 × 10 g (b) 1.67 × 10 kg (d) slow down fast neutrons so as to have greater probability
–29 27
(c) 1.67 × 10 g (d) 1.67 × 10 g for nuclear fission to occur
56. Density D of nuclear matter varies with nucleon number A as 64. The below is a plot of binding energy per nucleon Eb, against
3 2
(a) D  A (b) D  A the nuclear mass M; A, B, C, D, E, F correspond to different
0
(c) D  A (d) D  A nuclei. Consider four reactions :
57. The net force between two nucleons 1 fm apart is F1 if both (i) A + B  C +  (ii) C  A + B + 
are protons, F2 if both are neutrons, and F3 if one is a neutron (iii) D + E  F +  and (iv) F  D + E + 
and the other is a proton.
(a) F1 < F2 < F3 (b) F2 < F1 < F3
(c) F1 < F2 = F3 (d) F1 = F2 < F3
27
58. If radius of the 13 Al nucleus is estimated to be 3.6 fermi,
125
then the radius of 52 Te nucleus be nearly
(a) 6 fermi (b) 8 fermi where  is the energy released ? In which reactions is 
positive ?
(c) 4 fermi (d) 5 fermi
(a) (i) and (iv) (b) (i) and (iii)
59. The binding energy per nucleon of deuteron  H
2
1 and
(c) (ii) and (iv) (d) (ii) and (iii)
helium nucleus  4
2 
He is 1.1 MeV and 7 MeV respectively.. 65. Mp denotes the mass of a proton and Mn denotes the mass
If two deuteron nuclei react to form a single helium, nucleus of a neutron. A given nucleus of B.E. B contains Z protons
then the energy released is and N neutrons. The mass M (N, Z) of the nucleus is given
by (c is velocity of light)
(a) 13.9 MeV (b) 26.9 MeV
(a) M (N, Z) = N Mn + ZMp – B/c2
(c) 23.6 MeV (d) 19.2 MeV
(b) M (N, Z) = N Mn + ZMp + B/c2
(c) M (N, Z) = N Mn + ZMp – Bc2
(d) M (N, Z) = N Mn + ZMp + Bc2
MODERN PHYSICS 25

66. The binding energy per nucleon for the parent nucleus is E1 74. A nuclear transformation is denoted by X  n,    37 Li .
and that for the daughter nuclei is E2. Then
Which of the following is the nucleus of element X ?
(a) E1 > E2 (b) E2 > E1
12 10
(c) E1 > 2 E2 (b) E2 = 2 E1 (a) 6 C (b) 5 B
67. If a star can convert all the He nuclei completely into oxygen 11
(c) 95 B (d) 4 Be
nuclei, the energy released per oxygen nucleus is [Mass of
He nucleus is 4.0026 amu and mass of Oxygen nucleus is
15.9994 amu] 75. When 73 Li nuclei are bombarded by proton, and the resultant
(a) 7.6 MeV (b) 56.12 MeV nuclei are 84 Be , the emitted particle will be
(c) 10.24 MeV (d) 23.9 MeV
(a) alpha particles (b) beta particles
68. The binding energy of deutron is 2.2 MeV and that of 2He4
is 28 MeV. If two deutrons are fused to form one 2He4, then (c) gamma photons (d) neutrons
the energy released is 76. Consider  particles,  particles and -rays, each having an
(a) 19.2 MeV (b) 23.6 MeV energy of 0.5 MeV. In increasing order of penetrating powers,
(c) 25.8 MeV (d) 30.2 MeV the radiations are
69. An atom bomb weighing 1 kg explodes releasing 9 × 1013 (a) , ,  (b) , , 
joule of energy. What percentage of mass is converted into (c) , ,  (d) , , 
energy ?
77. The graph between the instantaneous concentration (N) of
(a) 1% (b) 2% a radioactive element and time (t) is
(c) 0.1% (d) 10%
70. Consider the following reaction
N N
1 H 2  1H 2 
 2 He4  Q (a) (b)
2 4
If m (1H ) = 2.0141 u ; m (2He ) = 4.0024 u. The energy Q t t
released (in MeV) in this fusion reaction is
(a) 12 (b) 6
N N
(c) 24 (d) 48
(c) (d)
236
71. Consider the fission reaction 92  X117  Y117  n  n
U  t t
i.e. two nuclei of same mass number 117 are found plus two 78. The activity of a radioactive sample is measured as 9750
–1 –1
neutrons. The binding energy per nucleon of X and Y is 8.5 counts (minute) at t = 0 and 975 counts (minute) at t = 5
236
MeV whereas of U is 7.6 MeV. The total energy liberated minute. The decay constant is nearly
is (a) 0.922 min
–1
(b) 0.691 min
–1

–1 –1
(a) 2000 MeV (b) 200 MeV (c) 0.461 min (d) 0.230 min
(c) 20 MeV (d) 2 MeV 79. The half life of radon is 3.8 days. After how many days will
Radioactivity 1
72. A nucleus nXm emits one alpha and two beta particles. The th of the radon sample remain behind
10
resulting nucleus is
(a) 1.262 days (b) 12.62 days
(a) n – 1Xm – 4 (b) n – 2Xm – 4
(c) 126.2 days (d) 1262 days
(c) n – 4Xm – 4 (d) n Xm – 4
80. A fraction f1 of a radioactive sample decays in one half life,
73. C12 absorbs an energetic neutron and emits a  particle.
6 and a fraction f2 decays in one mean life
The resulting nucleus is
(a) f1 > f2
(a) 7N14 (b) 7N13
(b) f1 < f2
(c) 7B13 (d) 6C13
(c) f1 = f2
(d) Data insufficient to arrive at a conclusion
MODERN PHYSICS 26

81. A radioactive isotope has a half life T years. How long will it 66
89. Starting with a sample of pure Cu, 7/8 of it decays into Zn
take the activity to reduce to 1% of its original value ? in 15 min. The corresponding half-life is
(a) 3.2 T years (b) 4.6 T years (a) 10 min (b) 15 min
(c) 6.6 T years (d) 9.2 T years
1
82. Half-lives of two radioactive substances A and B are (c) 5 min (d) 7 min
2
respectively 20 minutes and 40 minutes. Initially the samples
of A and B have equal number of nuclei. After 80 minutes, 90. The half-life of a radioactive substance is 20 min. The
approximate time interval (t2 – t1) between the time t2 when
the ratio of remaining numbers of A and B nuclei is
2/3 of it has decayed and time t1 when 1/3 of it had decayed
(a) 1 : 16 (b) 4 : 1 is
(c) 1 : 4 (d) 1 : 1 (a) 14 min (b) 20 min
83. The half-life period of a radioactive substance is 5 min. The (c) 28 min (d) 7 min
amount of substance decayed in 20 min. will be 91. Which of the following cannot be emitted by radioactive
(a) 93.75% (b) 75% substances during their decay ?
(a) Protons (b) Neutrinos
(c) 25% (d) 6.25%
(c) Helium nuclei (d) Electrons
84. Rn decays into Po by emitting an –particle with half life of
92. The half-life period of a radioactive element X is same as the
4 days. A sample contains 6.4 × 1010 atoms of Rn. After 12
mean life time of another radioactive element Y. Initially they
days, the number of atoms of Rn left in the sample will be
have the same number of atoms. Then
(a) 3.2 × 1010 (b) 0.53 × 1010
(a) X will decay faster than Y
(c) 2.1 × 1010 (d) 0.8 × 1010
(b) Y will decay faster than X
85. The half life of radium is about 1600 years. Of 100 g of radium
existing now, 25 g will remain unchanged after (c) Y and X have same decay rate initially

(a) 2400 yrs (b) 3200 yrs (d) X and Y decay at same rate always.

(c) 4800 yrs (d) 6400 yrs 93. Radioactive element decays to form a stable nuclide, then

86. C14 has half life 5700 years. At the end of 11400 years, the  dN 
the rate of decay of reactant   will vary with time (t)
actual amount left is  dt 
(a) 0.5 of original amount as shown in figure
(b) 0.25 of original amount dN dN
dt dt
(c) 0.125 of original amount
(a) (b)
(d) none of the above
215 t t
87. The half life of At is 100 s. The time taken for the
dN dN
1 dt dt
215
radioactivity of a sample of At to decay to th of its
16 (c) (d)
initial value is t t
– t
(a) 400 s (b) 6.3 s 94. If Nt = Noe then number of disintegrated atoms between
t1 to t2 ( t2 > t1) will be :–
(c) 40 s (d) 300 s
t 2
88. In N0 is the original mass of the substance of half-life period (a) No [e  e t1 ] (b) No [–e t2  e – t1 ]
t1/2 = 5yr, then the amount of substance left after 15 yr, is t1
(c) No [e  e – t 2 ] (d) None of these
N0 N0
(a) (b) 95. The half life of a radioactive element is 30 days, in 90 days
8 16
the percentage of disintegrated part is :–
N0 N0 (a) 13.5 % (b) 46.5 %
(c) (d)
2 4 (c) 87.5% (d) 90.15%
MODERN PHYSICS 27

EXERCISE - 2 : PREVIOUS YEARS JEE MAIN QUESTIONS

Questions marked with asterisk (*) are
deleted from JEE Main
1. The first three spectral lines of H-atom in the Balmer series (a) 48.8 × 1011 (2) 1.73 × 1010
are given 1 ,  2 ,  3 considering the Bohr atomic model, the (c) 17.3 × 1010 (d) 1.73 × 1012
7. Imagine that the electron in a hydrogen atom is replaced
 1  by a muon (µ). The mass of muon particle is 207 times
wave lengths of first and third spectral lines    are related
 3 that of an electron and charge is equal to the charge of
an electron. The ionization potential of this hydrogen
by afactor of approximately ‘x’ × 10-1. The value of x, to the
atom will be :- (2021)
nearest integer, is ____ (2021)
2. If an electron is moving in the nth orbit of the hydrogen (a) 13.6 eV (b) 2815.2 eV

atom, then its velocity (vn) for the nth orbit is given as : (c) 331.2 eV (d) 27.2 eV

(2021) 8. A proton and an   particle, having kinetic energies Kp

and K  , respectively, enter into a magnetic field at right

1
(a) vn  n (b) v n  angles. The ratio of the radii of trajectory of proton to
n
that of   particle is 2 : 1. The ratio of Kp : K  is :
1
(c) v n  n 2 (d) vn  (2021)
n2
(a) 1 : 8 (b) 8 : 1
3. Which level of the single ionized carbon has the same energy
(c) 1 : 4 (d) 4 : 1
as the ground state energy of hydrogen atom? (2021)
9. The stopping potential in the context of photoelectric effect
(a) 1 (b) 6
depends on the following property of incident
(c) 4 (d) 8 electromagnetic radiation : (2021)
4. The atomic hydrogen emits a line spectrum consisting of (a) Phase (b) Intensity
various series. Which series of hydrogen atomic spectra
(c) Amplitude (d) Frequency
is lying in the visible region? (2021)
10. The de-Broglie wavelength associated with an electron
(a) Brackett series (b) Paschen series
and a proton were calculated by accelerating them
(c) Lyman series (d) Balmer series through same potential of 100 V. What should nearly be
5. A particle of mass m moves in a circular orbit in a central the ratio of their wavelengths?
potential field U(r) = U0r . If Bohr’s quantization
4
( mP = 1.00727u, me = 0.00055u) (2021)
conditions are applied, radii of possible orbitals rn vary
(a) 1860 : 1 (b) (1860)2 : 1
1/ 
with n , where  is ______ (2021)
(c) 41.4 : 1 (d) 43 : 1
6. An oil drop of radius 2 mm with a density 3 g cm is held
-3

stationary under a constant electric field 3.55 × 105 V m-1

in the Millikan’s oil drop experiment. What is the number
of excess electrons that the oil drop will possess?
(consider g = 9.81 m/s2) (2021)
MODERN PHYSICS 28

Questions marked with asterisk (*) are (b) 8 times the mass of e -
deleted from JEE Main
(c) 16 times the mass of e -
11. An electron of mass m and a photon have same energy E.
The ratio of wavelength of electron to that of photon is: 1
(d) times the mass of e-
(c being the velocity of light) (2021) 8

1/ 2 1/ 2 14*. The half-life of Au198 is 2.7 days. The activity of 1.50 mg

1  2m  1 E 
(a)   (b)   of Au198 if its atomic weightis 198 g mol-1 is, (NA = 6 ×
c E  c  2m 
1023/mol) (2021)
1/ 2 (a) 240 Ci (b) 357 Ci
 E 
(c)   (d) c(2mE)
1/2
 2m  (c) 535 Ci (d) 252 Ci

15*. Calculate the time interval between 33% decay and 67%
12. Two identical photocathodes receive the light of
decay if half-life of a substance is 20 minutes. (2021)
frequencies f1 and f2 respectively. If the velocities of the
photo-electrons coming out are v1 and v2 respectively, then (a) 60 minutes (b) 20 minutes
(2021) (c) 40 minutes (d) 13 minutes

2h 16*. A radioactive sample disintegrates via two independent

(a) v1  v 2  [f1  f 2 ]
2 2

m decay processes having half lives T1/(1)2 and T1/(2)2

respectively. The effective half-life T1/2 of the nuclei is :

2h
(b) v1  v 2  [f1  f 2 ]
2 2

m (2021)

(a) None of the above (b) T1/ 2  T1/(1)2  T1/(2)2

1

 2h  2
(c) v1  v 2   (f1  f 2 ) 
 m  T1/(1)2 T1/(2)2 T1/( t2)  T1/(2)2
(c) T1/ 2  (d) T1/ 2 
T1/(1)2  T1/(2)2 T1/(1)2  T1/(2)2

1/ 2
 2h  17*. The decay of a proton to neutron is : (2021)
(d) v1  v 2   (f1  f 2 ) 
m 
(a) not possible as proton mass is less than the neutron
13. A particle is travelling 4 times as fast as an electron. mass
Assuming the ratio of de-Broglie wavelength of a particle (b) possible only inside the nucleus
to that of electron is 2 : 1, the mass of the particle is :-
(c) not possible but neutron to proton conversion is
(2021) possible

1 (d) always possible as it is associated only with 

(a) times the mass of e -
16
decay
MODERN PHYSICS 29

Questions marked with asterisk (*) are

deleted from JEE Main 23. A metal surface is illuminated by a radiation of
18. The light of two different frequencies whose photons wavelength 4500Å. The ejected photo-electron enters
have energies 3.8 eV and 1.4 eV respectively, a constant magnetic field of 2 mT making an angle of
illuminate a metallic surface whose work function is with the magnetic field. If it starts revolving in a
0.6 eV successively. The ratio of maximum speeds of circular path of radius 2 mm, the work function of the
emitted electrons for the two frequencies respectively metal is approximately: (JEE Main 2022)
will be: (JEE Main 2022) (a) 1.36 eV (b) 1.69 eV
(a) 1 : 1 (b) 2 : 1 (c) 2.78 eV (d) 2.23 eV
(c) 4 : 1 (d) 1 : 4 24. Let K1 and K2 be the maximum kinetic energies of
19*. Given below are two statements: photo-electrons emitted when two monochromatic
Statement I: Davisson-Germer experiment establishes beams of wavelength 1 and 2 respectively are
the wave nature of electrons. incident on a metallic surface. If 1 = 32 then:
Statement II: If electrons have wave nature, they can (JEE Main 2022)
interfere and show diffraction. K2 K
In the light of the above statements choose the correct (a) K1  (b) K1  2
3 3
answer from the option given below:
(JEE Main 2022) K2 K
(c) K1  (d) K 2  1
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are true 3 3
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are false 25. The de Broglie wavelengths for an electron and a
(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false photon are e and  p respectively. For the same
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true kinetic energy of electron and proton. Which of the
20. A proton, a neutron, an electron and an α-particle have following presents the correct relation between the de
same energy. If  p ,  p , e and  are the de Broglie's Broglie wavelengths of two? (JEE Main 2022)
wavelengths of proton, neutron, electron and α-particle (a)  p  e2 (b)  p  e
respectively, then choose the correct relation from the
following: (JEE Main 2022) 1
(a)  p  n  e   (c)  p  e (d)  p 
e
(b) a  n   p  e 26. A nucleus of mass M at rest splits into two parts
(c) e   p  n   M 2M 
having masses and  M   M  . The ratio of
(d) e   p  n   3 3
21. An α particle and a carbon 12 atom has same kinetic de Broglie wavelength of two parts will be:
energy K. The ratio of their de-Broglie wavelength (JEE Main 2022)
(a) 1 : 2 (b) 2 : 1
  : C12  is: (JEE Main 2022)
(c) 1 : 1 (d) 2 : 3
(a) 1: 3 (b) 3 :1 27. An electron (mass m) with an initial velocity

(c) 3 :1 (d) 2 : 3 v  v0iˆ  v0  0  is moving in an electric field
22. An electron with speed v and a photon with speed c 
E   E0iˆ  E0  0  where E0 is constant. If at t = 0 de
have the same de-Broglie wavelength. If the kinetic
h
energy and momentum of electron are Ee and pe and Broglie wavelength is 0  , then its de Broglie
mv0
that of photon are Eph and pph respectively. Which of wavelength after time t is given by
the following is correct? (JEE Main 2022) (JEE Main 2022)
Ee 2c Ee v  eE T 
(a)  (b)  (a) 0 (b) 0  1  0 
E ph v E ph 2c  mv0 
0
pe 2c pe v (c) 0 t (d)
(c)  (d)   eE0 t 
p ph v p ph 2c 1  
 mv0 
MODERN PHYSICS 30

Questions marked with asterisk (*) are 32. A metal exposed to light of wavelength 800 nm and
emits photoelectrons with a certain kinetic energy. The
deleted from JEE Main maximum kinetic energy of photo-electron doubles
28. With reference to the observations in photo-electric when light of wavelength 500 nm is used. The work
effect, identify the correct statements from below:
function of the metal is (Take hc = 1230 eV-nm).
A. The square of maximum velocity of photoelectrons
varies linearly with frequency of incident light. (JEE Main 2022)
B. The value of saturation current increases on (a) 1.537 eV (b) 2.46 eV
moving the source of light away from the metal (c) 0.615 eV (d) 1.23 eV
surface. 33. The ratio of wavelengths of proton and deuteron
C. The maximum kinetic energy of photo-electrons
accelerated by potential V p and Vd is 1: 2. Then, the
decreases on decreasing the power of LED (light
emitting diode) source of light. ratio V p to Vd will be (JEE Main 2022)
D. The immediate emission of photo-electrons out of
metal surface can not be explained by particle (a) 1 : 1 (b) 2 :1
nature of light/electromagnetic waves. (c) 2 : 1 (d) 4 : 1
E. Existence of threshold wavelength can not be 34. The stopping potential for photoelectrons emitted from
explained by wave nature of light/electromagnetic a surface illuminated by light of wavelength 6630 Å is
waves.
Choose the correct answer from the options given 0.42 V. If the threshold frequency is x 1013 / s , where
below: (JEE Main 2022) x is _____ (nearest integer). (JEE Main 2022)
(a) A and B only (b) A and E only 35*. In the following nuclear reaction,
(c) C and E only (d) D and E only 1
   
1.227 D   D1   D2   D3   D4
29. The equation   nm can be used to find the
x Mass number of D is 182 and atomic number is 74.
de-Broglie wavelength of an electron. In this equation Mass number and atomic number of D4 respectively
x stands for : will be _______ (JEE Main 2022)
Where, (a) 174 and 71 (b) 174 and 69
m = mass of electron (c) 172 and 69 (d) 179 and 71
P = momentum of electron
K = Kinetic energy of electron 36*. The disintegration rate of a certain radioactive sample
V = Accelerating potential in volts for electron at any instant is 4250 disintegrations per minute. 10
(JEE Main 2022) minutes later, the rate becomes 2250 disintegrations
(a) mK (b) P per minute. The approximate decay constant is :
(JEE Main 2022)
(c) K (d) V
(a) 0.02 min–1 (b) 2.7 min–1
30. Two streams of photons, possessing energies to five
(c) 0.063 min–1 (d) 6.3 min–1
and ten times the work function of metal are incident
on the metal surface successively. The ratio of the 37*. What is the half-life period of a radioactive material if
maximum velocities of the photoelectron emitted, in its activity drops to 1/16th of its initial value of 30
the two cases respectively, will be (JEE Main 2022) years (JEE Main 2022)
(a) 1 : 2 (b) 1 : 3 (a) 9.5 years (b) 8.5 years
(c) 2 : 3 (d) 3 : 2 (c) 7.5 years (d) 10.5 years
31. The kinetic energy of emitted electron is E when the 38*. The activity of a radioactive material is 6.4 × 10–4
light incident on the metal has wavelength . To curie. Its half life is 5 days. The activity will become
double the kinetic energy, the incident light must have 5 × 10–6 curie after (JEE Main 2022)
wavelength : (JEE Main 2022) (a) 7 days (b) 15 days
hc hc (c) 25 days (d) 35 days
(a) (b) 39*. The half life period of a radioactive substance is 60
E  hc E  hc
7
h hc days. The time taken for th of its original mass to
(c) (d) 8
E  hc E  hc
disintegrate will be : (JEE Main 2022)
(a) 120 days (b) 130 days
(c) 180 days (d) 20 days
MODERN PHYSICS 31

Questions marked with asterisk (*) are (d) The positively charged part of the atom possesses
most of the mass in Rutherford's model but not in
deleted from JEE Main Thomson's model
7 45. In Bohr's atomic model of hydrogen. let K. P and E arc
40*. A radioactive sample decays times its original
4 the kinetic energy, potential energy and total energy of
quantity in 15 minutes. The half-life of the sample is the electron respectively. Choose the correct options
(JEE Main 2022) when the electron undergoes transitions to a higher
(a) 5 min (b) 7.5 min
level : (JEE Main 2022)
(c) 15 min (d) 30 min
41. Read the following statements: (a) All K, P and E increase
(A) Volume of the nucleus is directly proportional to (b) K decreases, P and E increase
the mass number. (c) P decreases, K and E increase
(B) Volume of the nucleus is independent of mass (d) K increases, P and E decrease
number. 46. The ratio for the speed of the electron in the 3 orbit of
(C) Density of the nucleus is directly proportional to
He to the speed of the electron in the 3rd orbit of
the mass number.
(D) Density of the nucleus is directly proportional to hydrogen atom will be : (JEE Main 2022)
the cube root of the mass number. (a) 1 : 1 (b) 1 : 2
(E) Density of the nucleus is independent of the mass (c) 4 : 1 d (d) 2 : 1
number. 47. Which of the following figure represents the variation
Choose the correct option from the following  R 
(JEE Main 2022) of l n   with l n A (if R = radius of a nucleus and
(a) (A) and (D) only. (b) (A) and (E) only  R0 
(c) (B) and (E) only (d) (A) and (C) only A = its mass number) (JEE Main 2022)
42. The momentum of an electron revolving in nth orbit is
given by : (Symbols have their usual meanings)
(JEE Main 2022)
nh nh
(a) (b)
2 r 2r
nh 2 r
(c) (d)
2 nh (a)
43. Hydrogen atom from excited state comes to the ground
by emitting a photon of wavelength . The value of
principal quantum number ‘n’ of the excited state will
be: (JEE Main 2022)
R R
(a) (b)
 1  R 1
(b)
  R2
(c) (d)
 R 1  R 1
44. Choose the correct option from the following options
given below (JEE Main 2022)
(a) In the ground state of Rutherford's model
electrons are in stable equilibrium. While in
Thomson's model electrons always experience a (c)
net-force
(b) An atom has a nearly continuous mass distribution
in a Rutherford's model but has a highly non-
uniform mass distribution in Thomson's model
(c) A classical atom based on Rutherford's model is
doomed to collapse
(d)
MODERN PHYSICS 32

Questions marked with asterisk (*) are (D) Product of decay constant () and half-life time
 
deleted from JEE Main  T1  is not constant
48. A hydrogen atom in its ground state absorbs 10.2 eV  
 2
of energy. The angular momentum of electron of the Choose the most appropriate answer from the options
hydrogen atom will increase by the value of given below : (JEE Main 2022)
(JEE Main 2022) (a) (A) and (B) only (b) (B) and (D) only
(a) 2.10 × 10–34 Js (b) 1.05 × 10–34 Js (c) (B) and (C) only (d) (C) and (D) only
(c) 3.15 × 10–34 Js (d) 4.2 × 10–34 Js 53. The Q-value of a nuclear reaction and kinetic energy
49*. How many alpha and beta particles are emitted when of the projectile particle, KP are related as:
Uranium 92 U
238
decays to lead 82 PB
206 (JEE Main 2022)
(JEE Main 2022) (a) Q  K p 
(b) K p  Q  0
(a) 3 alpha particles and 5 beta particles
(c) Q  K p (d)  K P  Q   0
(b) 6 alpha particles and 4 beta particles
(c) 4 alpha particles and 5 beta particles 54*. The half life of a radioactive substance is 5 years.
(d) 8 alpha particles and 6 beta particles After x years a given sample of the radioactive
50*. A radioactive nucleus can decay by two different substance gets reduced to 6.25% of its initial value.
processes. Half-left for the first process is 3.0 hours The value of x .is ------- (JEE Main 2022)
while it is 4.5 hours for the second process. The 55. In a hydrogen spectrum, λ be the wavelength of first
effective half-life of the nucleus will be: transition line of Lyman series. The wavelength
(JEE Main 2022) difference will be “aλ” between the wavelength of 3
(a) 3.75 hours (b) 0.56 hours transition line of Paschen series and that of 2nd
(c) 0.26 hours (d) 1.80 hours transition line of Balmer Series where a = _______
51. Given below are tun statement: (JEE Main 2022)
Statement I: In hydrogen atom, the frequency of 56. Two lighter nuclei combine to form a comparatively
radiation emitted when an electron jumps from lower heavier nucleus by the relation given below:
energy orbit (E1) to higher energy orbit (E2). is given 2
1X  12 X  42Y
as hf  E1  E2
2
Statement II: The jumping of electron from higher The binding energies per nucleon 1X and 42Y are 1.1
energy orbit (E2) to lower energy orbit (E1) is MeV and 7.6 MeV respectively. The energy released
associated with frequency of radiation given as in this process is _________. MeV
f   E2  E1  / h. This condition is Bobr's frequency (JEE Main 2022)
condition. 57*. A freshly prepared radioactive source of half life 2
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct
hours 30 minutes emits radiation which is 64 times the
answer from the options given below
(JEE Main 2022) permissible safe level. The minimum time, after which
(a) Both statement I and statement II are true it would be possible to work safely with source, will
(b) Both statement I and statement II are false be ________ hours. (JEE Main 2022)
(c) Statement I is correct but statement II is false 58*. Two radioactive materials A and B have decay
(d) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is true
constants 25 and 16 respectively. If initially they
52*. Following statements related to radioactivity are given have the same number of nuclei, then the ratio of the
below number of nuclei of B to that of A will be ''e'' after a
(A) Radioactivity is a random and spontaneous 1
time . The value of a is ______
process and is dependent on physical and a
chemical conditions. (JEE Main 2022)
(B) The number of un-decayed nuclei in the 59*. A sample contains 10–2 kg each of two substances A
radioactive sample decays exponentially with and B with half lives 4s and 8s respectively. The ratio
time. of their atomic weights is 1: 2. The ratio of the
(C) Slope of the graph of log (no. of undecayed nuclei)
x
Vs. time represents the reciprocal of mean life time amounts of A and B after 16s is . The value of x is
100
  . ________ (JEE Main 2022)
MODERN PHYSICS 33

60. A beam of monochrome light is used to excite the 65. Given below are two statements:
electron in Li++ from the first orbit to the third orbit. Statement I : Stopping potential in photoelectric
The wavelength of monochrome light is found to be effect does not depend on the power of the light
x  10 10 m. The value of x is ______________ [Given source.
hc =1242 eV nm] (JEE Main 2022) Statement II : For a given metal, the maximum kinetic
energy of the photoelectron depends on the
61. From the photoelectric effect experiment following wavelength of the incident light.
observations are made. Identify which of these are In the light of above statements, choose the most
correct: appropriate answer from the options given below.
A. The stopping potential depends only on the work (JEE Main 2023)
function of the metal. (a) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
B. The saturation current increases as the intensity of (b) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
incident light increases. (c) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
C. The maximum kinetic energy of a photo electron (d) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
depends on the intensity of the incident light. 66. The threshold wavelength for photoelectric emission
D. Photoelectric effect can be explained using wave from a material is 5500Å. Photoelectrons will be
theory of light. emitted, when this material is illuminated with
Choose the correct answer from the options given monochromatic radiation from a
below: (JEE Main 2023) (A) 75 W infra-red lamp
(a) B, C only (b) A, C, D only (B) 10 W infra-red lamp
(c) B only (d) A, B, D only (C) 75 W ultra-violet lamp
62. Match List I with List II (JEE Main 2023) (D) 10 W ultra-violet lamp
List I List II Choose the correct answer from the options given
A. Planck’s Constant (h) I.  M 1 L2T 2  below: (JEE Main 2023)
  (a) B and C only (b) A and D only
B. Stopping potential II.  M L T 
1 1 1 (c) C only (d) C and D only
(Vs) 67. The ratio of de-Broglie wavelength of an  -particle
C. Work function   III.  M 1 L2T 1  and a proton accelerated from rest by the same
1
D. Momentum (p) IV.  M 1 L2T 3 A1  potential is , the value of m is (JEE Main 2023)
m
(a) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV (a) 4 (b) 16
(b) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II (c) 8 (d) 2
(c) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I 68. A small object at rest, absorbs a light pulse of power
(d) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II 20mW and duration 300ns. Assuming speed of light as
63. An α-particle, a proton and an electron have the same 3 108 m / s . the momentum of the object becomes
kinetic energy. Which one of the following is correct
equal to: (JEE Main 2023)
in case of their De-Broglie wavelength: 17
(a) 0.5  10 kgm / s (b) 2  10 17 kgm / s
(JEE Main 2023)
(a)    p  e (b)    p  e (c) 3  10 17 kgm / s (d) 1  10 17 kgm / s

(c)    p  e (d)    p  e 69. An electron accelerated through a potential difference

64. Electron beam used in an electron microscope, when V1 has a de-Broglie wavelength of λ. When the
accelerated by a voltage of 20 kV. has a de-Broglie potential is changed to V2, its de-Broglie wavelength
wavelength of λo. If the voltage is increased to 40 kV.
V 
then the de-Broglie wavelength associated with the increases by 50%. The value of  1  is equal to :
electron beam would be: (JEE Main 2023)  V2 
(a) 30 (b) 90 (JEE Main 2023)
0 0 (a) 3 (b) 9/4
(c) (d)
2 2 (c) 3/2 (d) 4
MODERN PHYSICS 34

Questions marked with asterisk (*) are 75. Proton (P) and electron (e) will have same de-Broglie
wavelength when the ratio of their momentum is
deleted from JEE Main (assume, mp = 1849 me): (JEE Main 2023)
70*. Given below are two statements: One is labelled as (a) 1 : 43 (b) 1 : 1
Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R (c) 43 : 1 (d) 1 : 1849
Assertion A: The beam of electrons shows wave 76. The de Broglie wavelength of a molecule in a gas at
nature and exhibit interference and diffraction.
room temperature (300 K) is λ1. If the temperature of
Reason R : Davisson Germer Experimentally verified
the wave nature of electrons. the gas is increased to 600 K, then the de Broglie
In the light of the above statements. Choose the most wavelength of the same gas molecule becomes
appropriate answer from the options given below : (JEE Main 2023)
(JEE Main 2023) 1
(a) A is correct but R is not correct (a) 21 (b) 1
2
(b) A is not correct but R is correct
(c) Both A and R are correct but R is Not the correct 1
(c) 21 (d) 1
explanation of A 2
(d) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct 77. The ratio of the de-Broglie wavelengths of proton and
explanation of A
electron having same Kinetic energy:
71. If the two metals A and B are exposed to radiation of
wavelength 350 nm. The work functions of metals A (Assume mp = me × 1849) (JEE Main 2023)
and B are 4.8 eV and 2.2 eV. Then choose the correct (a) 1 : 30 (b) 1: 62
option. (JEE Main 2023) (c) 1 : 43 (d) 2 : 43
(a) Metals B will not emit photo-electrons 78. A proton and an α-particle are accelerated from rest by
(b) Both metals A and B will not emit photoelectrons 2V and 4V potentials, respectively. The ratio of their
(c) Both metals A and B will emit photo-electrons de-Broglie wavelength is: (JEE Main 2023)
(d) Metals A will not emit photo-electrons
(a) 8:1 (b) 4:1
72. A proton moving with one tenth of velocity of light
(c) 2:1 (d) 16:1
has a certain de Broglie wavelength of  . An alpha
79. The de Broglie wavelength of an electron having
particle having certain kinetic energy has the same de-
kinetic energy E is λ. If the kinetic energy of electron
Broglie wavelength  . The ratio of kinetic energy of
E
proton and that of alpha particle is: becomes , then its de-Broglie wavelength will be:
4
(JEE Main 2023)
(JEE Main 2023)
(a) 2 : 1 (b) 4 : 1
(c) 1 : 2 (d) 1 : 4 
(a) 2 (b)
73. The threshold frequency of metal is f 0 . When the 2
light of frequency 2 f 0 is incident on the metal plate, 
(c) (d) 2
2
the maximum velocity of photoelectron is v1 . When
80*. A radio active material is reduced to 1/8 of its original
the frequency of incident radiation is increased to 5 f 0 .
amount in 3 days. If 8×10–3 kg of the material is left
the maximum velocity of photoelectrons emitted is v2 .
after 5 days the initial amount of the material is
The ratio of v1 to v2 is: (JEE Main 2023)
(JEE Main 2023)
v1 1 v1 1
(a)  (b) 
v2 2 v2 8 (a) 40 g (b) 64 g
v1 1 v1 1 (c) 32 g (d) 256 g
(c)  (d) 
v2 16 v2 4 81*. The half life of a radioactive substance is T. The time
74. The kinetic energy of an electron, α-particle and a
7
proton are given as 4K, 2K and K respectively. The taken, for disintegrating th part of its original mass
8
de-Broglie wavelength associated with electron (λe),
α-particle (λα) and the proton (λp) are as follows: will be: (JEE Main 2023)
(JEE Main 2023) (a) 8T (b) 3T
(a)    p   e (b)    p   e
(c) T (d) 2T
(c)    p   e (d)    p   e
MODERN PHYSICS 35

Questions marked with asterisk (*) are 89. The energy levels of an atom is shown in figure.
Which one of these transitions will result in the
deleted from JEE Main emission of a photon of wavelength 124.1 nm? Given
82*. Two radioactive elements A and B initially have same
 h  6.62 10 34
Js  (JEE Main 2023)
number of atoms. The half life of A is same as the
average life of B. If λA and λB are decay constants of A
and B respectively, then choose the correct relation
from the given options. (JEE Main 2023)
(a) A  B ln 2 (b) A  2B
(c)  A ln 2  B (d)  A  B
83*. The half-life of a radioactive nucleus is 5 years. The
fraction of the original sample that would decay in 15
years is: (JEE Main 2023)
7 1 (a) B (b) A
(a) (b)
8 4 (c) C (d) D
1 3 90*. If a radioactive element having half-life of 30 min is
(c) (d)
8 4
undergoing beta decay, the fraction of radioactive
84. The waves emitted when a metal target is bombarded
with high energy electrons are (JEE Main 2023) element remains undecayed after 90 min. will be :
(a) Radio Waves (b) Microwaves (JEE Main 2023)
(c) X-rays (d) Infrared rays
1 1
85*. The decay constant for a radioactive nuclide is (a) (b)
8 16
1.5 105 s 1 . Atomic weight of the substance is 60g 1 1
(c) (d)
mole–1, (NA = 6×1023). The activity of 1.0 μg of the 4 2
substance is _______×1010 Bq. (JEE Main 2023) 91*. Substance A has atomic mass number 16 and half life
86*. Consider the following radioactive decay process of 1 day. Another substance B has atomic mass

   
218
A   A1   A2   A3   1
84 number 32 and half life of day. If both A and B

A4  A5 
 A6  2
simultaneously start undergo radio activity at the same
The mass number and the atomic number A6 are given
time with initial mass 320g each, how many total
by : (JEE Main 2023)
atoms of A and B combined would be left after 2 days.
(a) 210 and 82 (b) 210 and 84
(JEE Main 2023)
(c) 210 and 80 (d) 211 and 80
(a) 3.38 1024 (b) 6.76 10 24
87. A photon is emitted in transition from n = 4 to n = 1
level in hydrogen atom. The corresponding (c) 6.76 10 23 (d) 1.69 1024
wavelength for this transition is
(given, h = 4 × 10-15 eVs): (JEE Main 2023) 92. Speed of an electron in Bohr's 7th orbit for Hydrogen
(a) 94.1 nm (b) 941 nm atom is 3.6  106 m / s . The corresponding speed of the
(c) 97.4 nm (d) 99.3 nm
88. The ratio of the density of oxygen nucleus  16
8 O  and
electron in 3rd orbit, in m/s is : (JEE Main 2023)

(a) 1.8  10 6
 (b)  7.5 106 
helium nucleus  4
2 He  is (JEE Main 2023)

(a) 4 : 1 (b) 8 : 1 (c)  3.6 10 6  (d)  8.4 10 6 

(c) 1 : 1 (d) 2 : 1
MODERN PHYSICS 36

Questions marked with asterisk (*) are 98. An electron of a hydrogen like atom, having Z = 4,
jumps from 4th energy state to 2nd energy state, The
deleted from JEE Main
93. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as energy released in this process, will be:
Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R. (Given Rch = 13.6eV)
Assertion A : The nuclear density of nuclides
10 6 56 20 209 Where R = Rydberg constant, c = Speed of light in
5 B , 3 Li , 26 Fe, 10 Ne and 83 Bi can be arranged as

    
N
Bi
N
Fe
N
Ne
N
B
N
Li
vacuum, h = Planck's constant (JEE Main 2023)
Reason R : The radius R of nucleus is related to its (a) 13.6 eV (b) 10.5 eV
1
mass number A as R  R0 A , where R0 is a constant.
3 (c) 3.4 eV (d) 40.8 eV
In the light of the above statement, choose the correct 99. Assume that protons and neutrons have equal masses.
answer from the options given below :
(JEE Main 2023) Mass of a nucleon is 1.6 × 10-27 kg and radius of
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct nucleus is 1.5 × 10-15 A1/3 m. The approximate ratio of
explanation of A
(b) A is false but R is true the nuclear density and water density is n × 1013. The
(c) A is true but R is false value of n is _______ . (JEE Main 2023)
(d) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct 240
explanation of A 100. The energy released per fission of nucleus of X is
94*. A free neutron decays into a proton but a free proton 200 MeV. The energy released if all the atoms in 120g
does not decay into neutron. This is because of pure 240
X undergo fission is _____ ×1025 MeV.
(JEE Main 2023)
(Given NA = 6 × 1023 ) (JEE Main 2023)
(a) neutron is an uncharged particle
(b) proton is a charged particle 101. The wavelength of the radiation emitted is 0 when an
(c) neutron is a composite particle made of a proton
electron jumps from the seconds excited state to the
and an electron
(d) neutron has larger rest mass than proton first excited state of hydrogen atom. If the electron
95. Match List I with List II: jumps from the third excited state to the second orbit
List I List II of the hydrogen atom, the wavelength of the radiation
A. Microwaves I. Physiotherapy
20
B. UV rays II. Treatment of cancer emitted will be 0 . The value of x is _____.
C. Infra-red light III. Lasik eye surgery x
D. X-ray IV. Aircraft navigation (JEE Main 2023)
Choose the correct answer from the options given 102. A nucleus disintegrates into smaller parts, which have
below: (JEE Main 2023) their velocities in the ratio 3 : 2. The ratio of their
(a) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III 1
 x 3
(b) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV nuclear sizes will be   . The value of ‘ x ’ is:
(c) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I 3
(d) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II (JEE Main 2023)
96. The radius of electron's second stationary orbit in 103*.A radioactive element 242
92 X emits two  -particles,
Bohr's atom is R. The radius of 3rd orbit will be one electron and two positrons. The product nucleus is
(JEE Main 2023) represented by 234
P Y . The value of P is ____ .
R (JEE Main 2023)
(a) (b) 2.25R
3
104*.A radioactive nucleus decays by two different process.
(c) 9R (d) 3R
The half life of the first process is 5 minutes and that
97. The mass of proton, neutron and helium nucleus are
of the second process is 30s. The effective half-life of
respectively 1.0073u, 1.0087 u and 4.0015u. The

binding energy of helium nucleus isL the nucleus is calculated to be s. The value of  is
11
(JEE Main 2023)
_______. (JEE Main 2023)
(a) 14.2 MeV (b) 28.4 MeV
(c) 56.8 MeV (d) 7.1 MeV
MODERN PHYSICS 37

105. For hydrogen atom, 1 and 2 are the wavelengths 110. 238
92 A 90
234
B  24 D  Q
corresponding to the transitions 1 and 2 respectively as In the given nuclear reaction, the approximate amount
x of energy released will be:
shown in figure. The ratio of 1 and 2 is . The
32 238
[Given, mass of 92 A  238.05079  931.5 MeV / c 2 ,
value of x is mass of 234
B  234.04363  931.5 MeV / c 2 , mass of
90
4
2 D  4.00260  931.5 MeV / c 2 (JEE Main 2023)
(a) 2.12 MeV (b) 4.25 MeV
(c) 3.82 MeV (d) 5.9 MeV
111. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as
Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R
Assertion A: The binding energy per nucleon is
(JEE Main 2023)
practically independent of the atomic number for
106. If the binding energy of ground state electron in a
nuclei of mass number in the range 30 to 170.
hydrogen atom is 13.6eV, then, the energy required to
Reason R: Nuclear force is short ranged.
remove the electron from the second excited state of
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct
Li 2  will be x 101 eV . The value of x is
answer from the options given below
(JEE Main 2023)
(JEE Main 2023)
107. A light of energy 12.75 eV is incident on a hydrogen (a) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct
atom in its ground state. The atom absorbs the explanation of A
radiation and reaches to one of its excited states. The
(b) A is true but R is false
angular momentum of the atom in the excited state is (c) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
x explanation of A
 10 17 eVs . The value of x is ______
 (d) A is false but R is true
(use h  4.14  1015 eVs, c  3  108 ms 1 ). 112. The energy levels of an hydrogen atom are shown
(JEE Main 2023) below. The transition corresponding to emission of
108. Nucleus a having Z = 17 and equal number of protons shortest wavelength is (JEE Main 2023)
and neutrons has 1.2MeV binding energy per nucleon.
Another nucleus B of Z = 12 has total 26 nucleons and
1.8MeV binding energy per nucleons.
The difference of binding energy of B and A will be
MeV. (JEE Main 2023)
A
109. For a nucleus Z X having mas number A and atomic
number Z
2
A. The surface energy per nucleon  bs   – a1 A 3 .
(a) B (b) C
B. The Coulomb contribution to the binding energy
(c) A (d) D
Z  Z  1 113. A small particle of mass m moves in such a way that
bc  a2 4
A3 1
its potential energy U  m 2 r 2 where  is
C. The volume energy bv  a3 A 2
D. Decrease in the binding energy is proportional to constant and r is the distance of the particle from
surface area.
origin.
E. While estimating the surface energy, it is assumed
that each nucleon interacts with 12 nucleons. (a1, a2 Assuming Bohr's quantization of momentum and
and a3 are constants) circular orbit, the radius of nth orbit will be
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options
proportional to, (JEE Main 2023)
given below: (JEE Main 2023)
(a) B, C, E only (b) B, C only (a) n2 (b) n
(c) A, B, C, D, only (d) C, D only
MODERN PHYSICS 38

1 119. The difference between threshold wavelengths for two

(c) n (d)
n metal surfaces A and B having work function
 A  9eV and B  4.5eV in nm is:
114. The angular momentum for the electron in Bohr's orbit
is L. If the electron is assumed to revolve in second {Given, hc = 1242 eV nm} (JEE Main 2023)
orbit of hydrogen atom, then the change in angular (a) 540 (b) 138
momentum will be (JEE Main 2023) (c) 264 (d) 276
120. Given below are two statements:
L
(a) zero (b) Statement I: Out of microwaves, infrared rays and
2
ultraviolet rays, ultraviolet rays are most effective for
(c) 2L (d) L
the emission of electrons from a metallic surface.
115. The variation of stopping potential (V0) as a function
Statement II: Above the threshold frequency, the
of the frequency (v) of the incident light for a metal is
maximum kinetic energy of photoelectrons is inversely
shown in figure. The work function of the surface is
proportional to the frequency of the incident light.
(JEE Main 2023)
In the light of above statements, choose the correct
answer from the options given below.
(JEE Main 2023)
(a) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(c) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(d) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
121. The work functions of Aluminium and Gold are 4.1 eV
and 5.1 eV respectively. The ratio of the slope of the
stopping potential versus frequency plot for Gold to
(a) 1.36 eV (b) 2.07 eV that of Aluminium is (JEE Main 2023)
(c) 2.98 eV (d) 18.6 eV (a) 2 (b) 1
(c) 1.24 (d) 1.5
122. In photo electric effect
116. A metallic surface is illuminated with radiation of A. The photocurrent is proportional to the intensity of
wavelength λ, the stopping potential is V0. If the same the incident radiation.
surface is illuminated with radiation of wavelength 2λ, B. Maximum Kinetic energy with which
V photoelectrons are emitted depends on the intensity
the stopping potential becomes 0 . The threshold
4 of incident light.
wavelength for this metallic surface will be C. Max. K.E. with which photoelectrons are emitted
(JEE Main 2023) depends on the frequency of incident light.
 D. The emission of photoelectrons require a minimum
(a) (b) 4λ threshold intensity of incident radiation.
4
E. Max. K.E of the photoelectrons is independent of
3
(c)  (d) 3λ the frequency of the incident light.
2
Choose the correct answer from the options given
117. The energy of He+ ion in its first excited state is, (The
below: (JEE Main 2023)
ground state energy for the Hydrogen atom is –13.6
(a) A and B only (b) A and C only
eV): (JEE Main 2023)
(c) A and E only (d) B and C only
(a) –54.4 eV (b) –27.2 eV
123. A nucleus with mass number 242 and binding energy
(c) –13.6 eV (d) –3.4 eV
118. A 12.5 eV electron beam is used to bombard gaseous per nucleon as 7.6 MeV breaks into two fragment each
hydrogen at room temperature. The number of spectral with mass number 121. If each fragment nucleus has
lines emitted will be: (JEE Main 2023)
binding energy per nucleon as 8.1 MeV, the total gain
(a) 2 (b) 4
(c) 1 (d) 3 in binding energy is _______ MeV.
(JEE Main 2023)
MODERN PHYSICS 39

124. A nucleus disintegrates into two nuclear parts, in such 131. As per given figure A, B and C are the first, second
1/3
a way that ratio of their nuclear sizes is 1 : 2 . Their and third excited energy levels of hydrogen atom
respectively. If the ratio of the two wavelength (i.e.
respective speed have a ratio of n : 1. The value of n is
1 7
________ (JEE Main 2023) ) is , then the value of n will be ___________.
2 4n
125. A common example of alpha decay is
Given:
92 U  238.05060 u ,
238

234
90 U  234.04360 u ,
MeV
4
2 He  4.00260 u and lu  931.5
c2
The energy released (Q) during the alpha decay of
238 (JEE Main 2023)
92 U is _____ MeV (JEE Main 2023)
132. The radius of 2nd orbit of He+ of Bohr's model is r1 and
126. The radius of fifth orbit of the Li++ is __________ ×
that of fourth orbit of Be3+ is represented as r2. Now
10-12 m.
r
Take: radius of hydrogen atom = 0.51 Å the ratio 2 is x :1 . The value of x is __________
(JEE Main 2023) r1
127. Experimentally it is found that 12.8 eV energy is (JEE Main 2023)
required to separate a hydrogen atom into a proton and 133. An atom absorbs a photon of wavelength 500 nm and
an electron. So the orbital radius of the electron in a emits another photon of wavelength 600 nm. The net
9 energy absorbed by the atom in this process is n × 10-4
hydrogen atom is  1010 m . The value of the x is : eV. The value of n is _____.
x
________. [Assume the atom to be stationary during the
absorption and emission process]
1
(1 eV = 1.6×10-19 J,  9  109 Nm2/C2 and (Take h = 6.6×10-34 Js and c = 3×108 m/s).
4 0
(JEE Main 2023)
electronic charge = 1.6×10-19 C) (JEE Main 2023)
128. The ratio of wavelength of spectral lines H and H 
x
in the Balmer series is . The value of x is
20
________ (JEE Main 2023)
129. If 917 Å be the lowest wavelength of Lyman series
then the lowest wavelength of Balmer series will be
__________ Å. (JEE Main 2023)
130. A monochromatic light is incident on a hydrogen
sample in ground state. Hydrogen atoms absorb a
fraction of light and subsequently emit radiation of six
different wavelengths. The frequency of incident light
is x 1015 Hz . The value of x is _______. (Given h =
4.25 × 10-15 eVs) (JEE Main 2023)
MODERN PHYSICS 40

EXERCISE - 3: ADVANCED OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS

Single Answer Type Questions

6. In the nuclear fusion reaction 12 H  13 H  42 He  n, given
1. In Bohr’s model, the atomic radius of the first orbit is r0 ,
that the repulsive potential energy between the two nuclei
then the radius of the third orbit is
is –7.7 × 10–14 J, the temperature at which the gases must
(a) r0/9 (b) r0 be heated to initiate the reaction is nearly
(c) 9r0 (d) 3r0 [Boltzmann’s constant k = 1.38 × 10–23 J/K]
(a) 109 K (b) 107 K
2. Find the ratio of ionisation energy of Bohr’s hydrogen atom 5
(c) 10 K (d) 103 K
and hydrogen­like lithium atom. 7. An electron has a mass of 9.1 × 10–31 kg. It revolves round
(a) 1/9 (b) 7/9 the nucleus in a circular orbit of radius 0.529 × 10–10 metre
(c) 1/3 (d) none of the above at a speed of 2.2 × 106 m/s. The magnitude of its linear
momentum in this motion is
3. The ionisation potential of hydrogen atom is 13.6 volt.
The energy required to remove an electron in the n = 2 (a) 1.1 × 10–34 kg–m/s (b) 2.0 × 10–24 kg–m/s
state of the hydrogen atom is (c) 4.0 × 10–24 kg–m/s (d) 4.0 × 10–31 kg–m/s
(a) 27.2 eV (b) 13.6 eV 8. The kinetic energy of the electron in an orbit of radius r in
(c) 6.8 eV (d) 3.4 eV hydrogen atom is
4. If m is mass of electron, v its velocity, r the radius of (e = electronic charge)
stationary circular orbit around a nucleus with charge Ze,
e2 e2
then from Bohr’s first postulate, the kinetic energy (a) 2 (b)
r 2r
1
K mv 2 of the electron in C.G.S. system is equal to e2 e2
2 (c) (d)
r 2r2
1 Ze 2 1 Ze 2 9. Ionization potential of hydrogen atom is 13.6 V. Hydrogen
(a) (b) atoms in the ground state are excited by monochromatic
2 r 2 r2
radiation of photon energy 12.1 eV. The spectral lines
Ze 2 Ze emitted by hydrogen atoms according to Bohr’s theory
(c) (d) will be
r r2
(a) One (b) Two
5. If in hydrogen atom, radius of nth Bohr orbit is rn, frequency
of revolution of electron in nth orbit is fn choose the correct (c) Three (d) Four
option 10. An energy of 24.6 eV is required to remove one of the electrons
from a neutral helium atom. The energy (in eV) required to
rn remove both the electrons from a neutral helium atom is
rn
log –– (a) 79.0 (b) 51.8
r1
(c) 49.2 (d) 38.2
(a) (b)
11. When an electron jumps from its ground state to the first
o o log n
n excited state, the average value of its potential energy ?
(a) rises
fn (b) stays the same
log ––
f1 (c) falls
(c) (d) Both (a) and (b) (d) we cannot determine the answer without more
information
o log n
MODERN PHYSICS 41

12. A ground­state electron (in a hydrogen atom) absorb a 17. An X-ray tube is operated at 50 kV. The minimum
photon of energy 3E0. How much kinetic energy does the wavelength produced is
electron now have ? (a) 0.5 Å (b) 0.75 Å
(a) E0 (b) 2E0 (c) 0.25 Å (d) 1 Å
18. As the electron in Bohr orbit of Hydrogen atom passes
(c) 3E0 (d) 4 E0
from state n = 2 to n = 1, the kinetic energy K and potential
13. Which of the following transitions in a hydrogen atom energy U change as
emits photon of the highest frequency
(a) K two­fold, U four­fold
(a) n = 1 to n = 2 (b) n = 2 to n = 1
(b) K four­fold, U two­fold
(c) n = 2 to n = 6 (d) n = 6 to n = 2
(c) K four­fold, U also four­fold
14. If max is 6563 Å, then wave length of second line for (d) K two­fold, U also two­fold
Balmer series will be 19. An electron jumps from the 4th orbit to the 2nd orbit of
hydrogen atom. Given the Rydberg’s constant R = 105
16 36 cm–1. The frequency in Hz of the emitted radiation will be
(a)   (b)  
3R 5R
3 3
4 (a)  10 5 (b)  1015
(c)   (d) None of the above 16 16
3R
9 3
15. Which one of the series of hydrogen spectrum is in the (c)  1015 (d)  1015
16 4
visible region
20. If the wavelength of the first line of the Balmer series of
(a) Lyman series (b) Balmer series hydrogen is 6561 Å, the wavelength of the second line of
(c) Paschen series (d) Bracket series the series should be
(a) 13122 Å (b) 3280 Å
16. The energy levels of the hydrogen spectrum is shown in
figure. There are some transitions A, B, C, D and E. (c) 4860 Å (d) 2187 Å
Transition A, B and C respectively represent 21. Ratio of the wavelengths of first line of Lyman series and
first line of Balmer series is
–0.00 eV
(a) 1: 3 (b) 27 : 5
n=6 –0.36 eV
n=5 –0.54 eV (c) 5 : 27 (d) 4 : 9
n=4 –0.85 eV 22. The mass number of He is 4 and that for sulphur is 32. The
C
n=3 –1.51 eV radius of sulphur nucleus is larger than that of helium, by times
B D
n=2 –3.39 eV
(a) 8 (b) 4
A E (c) 2 (d) 8
n=1 23. One requires energy En to remove a nucleon from a nucleus
–13.5 eV
and an energy ‘Ee’ to remove an electron from the orbit of
(a) First member of Lyman series, third spectral line of an atom. Then
Balmer series and the second spectral line of Paschen (a) En = Ee (b) En < Ee
series (c) En > Ee (d) En > Ee
24. The Rutherford ­particle experiment shows that most of
(b) Ionization potential of hydrogen, second spectral line
the ­particles pass through almost unscattered while
of Balmer series and third spectral line of Paschen
some are scattered through large angles. What information
series
does it give about the structure of the atom
(c) Series limit of Lyman series, third spectral line of Balmer (a) Atom is hollow
series and second spectral line of Paschen series
(b) The whole mass of the atom is concentrated in a small
(d) Series limit of Lyman series, second spectral line of
centre called nucleus
Balmer series and third spectral line of Paschen series
(c) Nucleus is positively charged
(d) All the above
MODERN PHYSICS 42

25. Binding energy of a nucleus is 32. A metal block is exposed to beams of X-ray of different
(a) Energy given to its nucleus during its formation wavelength. X­rays of which wavelength penetrate most
(b) Total mass of nucleus converted to energy units (a) 2 Å (b) 4 Å
(c) Loss of energy from the nucleus during its formation (c) 6 Å (d) 8 Å
(d) Total K.E. and P.E. of the nucleons in the nucleus 33. During a negative beta decay
A
26. If m, mn and mp are the masses of ZX nucleus, neutron and (a) An atomic electron is ejected
proton respectively
(b) An electron which is already present within the
(a) m < (A – Z) mn + Zmp (b) m = (A – Z) mn + Zmp nucleus is ejected
(c) m = (A – Z) mp + Zmn (d) m > (A – Z) mn + Zmp (c) A neutron in the nucleus decays emitting an electron
27. The masses of neutron and proton are 1.0087 a.m.u. and
1.0073 a.m.u. respectively. If the neutrons and protons (d) A part of the binding energy is converted into electron
combine to form a helium nucleus (alpha particles) of mass 235
34. What is the power output of 92U reactor if it takes 30 days
4.0015 a.m.u. The binding energy of the helium nucleus
to use up 2kg of fuel and if each fission gives 185 MeV. of
will be (1 a.m.u.= 931 MeV) 26
usable energy ? Avogadro’s number = 6.02 × 10 per kilomole.
(a) 28.4 MeV (b) 20.8 MeV
(a) 45 megawatt (b) 58.46 megawatt
(c) 27.3 MeV (d) 14.2 MeV
(c) 72 megawatt (d) 92 megawatt
2
28. The binding energy of deuteron 1 H is 1.112 MeV per
35. If the decay or disintegration constant of a radioactive
4
nucleon and an –particle He has a binding energy of
2 substance is  , then its half life and mean life are
7.047 MeV per nucleon. Then in the fusion reaction respectively
2
1 H  12 H  42 He  Q, the energy Q released is
1 log e 2 log e 2 1
(a) and (b) and
(a) 1 MeV (b) 11.9 MeV    
(c) 23.8 MeV (d) 931 MeV
29. The binding energies per nucleon for a deuteron and an 1  1
  particle are x1 and x2 respectively. What will be the (c)  log e 2 and (d) log 2 and 
 e

energy Q released in the reaction 1 H 2  1H 2  2 He 4  Q 36. A radioactive sample consists of two distinct species
(a) 4 (x1 + x2) (b) 4 (x2 – x1) having equal number of atoms initially. The mean life time
of one species is  and that of the other is 5. The decay
(c) 2 (x1 + x2) (d) 2 (x2 – x1)
30. If the binding energy per nucleon in Li7 and He4 nuclei are products in both cases are stable. A plot is made of the
respectively 5.60 MeV and 7.06 MeV, then energy of total number of radioactive nuclei as a function of time.
reaction Li7 + p  2 2He4 is Which of the following figures best represents the form
of this plot
(a) 19.6 MeV (b) 2.4 MeV
(c) 8.4 MeV (d) 17.3 MeV N N
31. Binding energy per nucleon plot against the mass number
for stable nuclei is shown in the figure. Which curve is correct
(a) (b)
D
Binding energy

t t
B
per nucleon

C N N
A
Mass number
(a) A (b) B (c) (d)
(c) C (d) D t t
MODERN PHYSICS 43

37. Radioactive element decays to form a stable nuclide, then

42. The half­life of Bi 210 is 5 days. What time is taken by
 dN 
the rate of decay of reactant   will vary with time (t) th
 dt  7
  part of the sample to decay
as shown in figure 8

(a) 3.4 days (b) 10 days

dN dN
dt dt (c) 15 days (d) 20 days

(a) (b) 43. The half life of the isotope 11 Na 24 is 15 hrs. How much
t t
7
time does it take for th of a sample of this isotope to decay
dN dN 8
dt dt
(a) 75 hrs (b) 65 hrs
(c) (d)
(c) 55 hrs (d) 45 hrs
t t 44. The half life of radioactive Radon is 3.8 days. The time at
38. The plot of the number (N) of decayed atoms versus activity the end of which 1/20th of the Radon sample will remain
(A) of a radioactive substance is undecayed is (Given log10e = 0.4343)

N N (a) 3.8 days (b) 16.5 days

(c) 33 days (d) 76 days
45. A radioactive isotope X with a half–life of 1.37 × 109 years
(a) (b) decays to Y which is stable. A sample of rock from the
A A
A B moon was found to contain both the elements X and Y
which were in the ratio of 1 : 7. The age of the rock is
N N
(a) 1.96 × 108 years (b) 3.85 × 109 years
(c) 4.11 × 109 years (d) 9.59 × 109 years

(c) (d) 46. The mean lives of a radio­active substances are 1620 years
A A
and 405 years for –emission and –emission respectively.
C D Find Out the time during which three­fourth of a sample will
39. In a radioactive substance at t = 0, the number of atoms is decay if it is decaying both by –emission and –emission
8 × 104. Its half life period is 3 years. The number of atoms simultaneously.
(a) 324 years (b) 449 years
1  10 4 will remain after interval
(a) 9 years (b) 8 years (c) 480 years (d) 425 years
(c) 6 years (d) 24 years
47. Assuming that all laws of thermodynamics can be applied to
40. The half life period of radium is 1600 years. The fraction of
a nucleus, the –decay of a nucleus may be regarded as an
a sample of radium that would remain after 6400 years is
(a) Isothermal process (b) Isobarric process
(a) 1/4 (b) 1/2
(c) 1/8 (d) 1/16 (c) Adiabatic process (d) Isochoric process

41. What percentage of original radioactive atoms is left after 48. In the given reaction z X A  z 1 Y A  z 1 K A  4  z 1 K A  4 .
five half lives Radioactive radiations are emitted in the sequence
(a) 0.3% (b) 1%
(a)  ,  ,  (b)  ,  , 
(c) 31% (d) 3.125%
(c)  ,  ,  (d)  ,  , 
MODERN PHYSICS 44

49. A radioactive nucleus undergoes a series of decay 55. The minimum wavelength of X­rays produced by electrons
according to the scheme accelerated by a potential difference of volts is equal to
   
A  A1  A 2  A 3  A4 eV eh
(a) (b)
If the mass number and atomic number of A are 180 and 72 hc cV
respectively, then what are these number for A4
hc cV
(a) 172 and 69 (b) 174 and 70 (c) (d)
eV eh
(c) 176 and 69 (d) 176 and 70
56. The potential difference applied to an X­ray tube is
50. Mosley’s law relates the frequencies of line X­rays with
the following characteristics of the target element increased. As a result, in the emitted radiation
(a) Its density (a) The intensity increases
(b) Its atomic weight (b) The minimum wavelength increases
(c) Its atomic number (c) The intensity decreases
(d) Interplaner spacing of the atomic planes
(d) The minimum wavelength decreases
51. The wavelength  of the K line of characteristic X­ray
57. For harder X-rays
spectra varies with atomic number approximately
(a) The wavelength is higher
(a)   Z (b)   Z (b) The intensity is higher
1 1 (c) The frequency is higher
(c)   (d)  
Z2 Z (d) The photon energy is lower
52. Mosley measured the frequency (f) of the characteristic 58. For production of characteristic K X-rays, the electron
X-rays from many metals of different atomic number (Z) transition is
and represented his results by a relation known as
(a) n = 2 to n = 1 (b) n = 3 to n = 2
Mosley’s law. This law is (a, b are constants)
(c) n = 3 to n = 1 (d) n = 4 to n = 2
(a) f = a (Z – b)2 (b) Z = a (f – b)2
(c) f2 = a (Z – b) (d) f = a (Z – b)1/2 59. The wavelength of K line for an element of atomic number
43 is . Then the wavelength of K line for an element of
53. The intensity of X­rays from a Coolidge tube is plotted atomic number 29 is
against wavelength as shown in the figure. The minimum
wavelength found is c and the wavelength of the Kline 43 42
is k. As the accelerating voltage is increased (a)  (b) 
29 28

I 9 4
(c)  (d) 
4 9

60. The K X-ray emission line of tungsten occurs at  = 0.021 nm.

The energy difference between K and L levels in this atom
(a) (K – C) increases (b) (K – C) decreases is about
(a) 0.51MeV (b) 1.2 MeV
(c) K increases (d) K decreases
54. The characteristic X­ray radiation is emitted, when (c) 59 KeV (d) 13.6 eV
(a) The electrons are accelerated to a fixed energy 61. When a beam of accelerated electrons hits a target, a
(b) The source of electrons emits a monoenergetic beam continuous X­ray spectrum is emitted from the target.
Which of the following wavelength is absent in the X­ray
(c) The bombarding electrons knock out electrons from
spectrum, if the X­ray tube is operating at 40,000 volts
the inner shell of the target atoms and one of the outer
electrons falls into this vacancy (a) 0.25 Å (b) 0.5 Å
(d) The valence electrons in the target atoms are removed (c) 1.5 Å (d) 1.0 Å
as a result of the collision
MODERN PHYSICS 45

62. The minimum frequency  of continuous X­rays is related 67. If an X–ray tube operates at the voltage of 10kV, find the
to the applied potential difference V as ratio of the de–Brogle wavelength of the incident electrons
to the shortest wavelength of X–rays produce(d) The
(a)   V (b)   V 11
specific charge of electron is 1.8 × 10 C/kg.
(a) 1 (b) 0.1
(c)   V 3 / 2 (d)   V 2
(c) 1.8 (d) 1.2
63. The figure shows the variation of photocurrent with anode
68. The momentum of a photon is 3.3 ×10–29 kg–m/sec. Its
potential for a photo­sensitive surface for three different
frequency will be
radiations. Let I a, Ib and Ic be the intensities and fa, fb and fc
be the frequencies for the curves a, b and c respectively (a) 3 × 103 Hz (b) 6 × 103 Hz
(c) 7.5 × 1012 Hz (d) 1.5 × 1013 Hz
Photo current 69. The approximate wavelength of a photon of energy 2.48
c eV is
b
(a) 500 Å (b) 5000 Å
a
(c) 2000 Å (d) 1000 Å
O Anode potential
70. There are n1 photons of frequency 1 in a beam of light. In
(a) fa = fb and la  lb (b) fa = fc and la = lc an equally energetic beam, there are n 2 photons of
frequency 2. Then the correct relation is
(c) fa = fb and la = lb (d) fa  fb and la = lb
n1 n1 1
64. The value of stopping potential in the following diagram (a) 1 (b) n  
n2 2 2

i (photoelectric
current) n1  2 n 1  12
(c) n   (d) 
2 1 n 2  22
71. The work function of a metal is 4.2 eV, its threshold
–4V –3V –2V –1V 0 V wavelength will be
(a) – 4V (b) – 3 V (a) 4000 Å (b) 3500 Å
(c) 2955 Å (d) 2500 Å
(c) – 2V (d) – 1 V
65. X­rays and gamma rays are both electromagnetic waves. 72. Ultraviolet radiations of 6.2 eV falls on an aluminium
Which of the following statements is true surface (work function 4.2 eV). The kinetic energy in joules
(a) In general X­rays have larger wavelength than of of the fastest electron emitted is approximately
gamma rays (a) 3.2 × 10–21 (b) 3.2 × 10–19
(b) X­rays have smaller wavelength than that of gamma rays (c) 3.2 × 10–17 (d) 3.2 × 10–15
(c) Gamma rays have smaller frequency than that of X-rays 73. A photon of energy 3.4 eV is incident on a metal having
(d) Wavelength and frequency of X-rays are both larger work function 2 eV. The maximum K.E. of photo­electrons
than that of gamma rays is equal to
66. Molybdenum is used as a target element for production (a) 1.4 eV (b) 1.7 eV
of X–rays because it is (c) 5.4 eV (d) 6.8 eV
(a) A heavy element and can easily absorb high velocity 74. Work function of lithium and copper are respectively
electrons 2.3 eV and 4.0 eV. Which one of the metal will be useful for
(b) A heavy element with a high melting point the photoelectric cell working with visible light ?
(c) An element having high thermal conductivity
(h = 6.6  10–34 J-s, c = 3  108 m/s)
(d) Heavy and can easily deflect electrons
(a) Lithium (b) Copper
(c) Both (d) None of these
MODERN PHYSICS 46

75. According to Einstein’s photoelectric equation, the graph 79. Light of wavelength  strikes a photo­sensitive surface
between the kinetic energy of photoelectrons ejected and and electrons are ejected with kinetic energy E. If the
the frequency of incident radiation is kinetic energy is to be increased to 2E, the wavelength
must be changed to  ' where
Kinetic energy

Kinetic energy

a)    (b) ’ = 2
2
(a) (b)

Frequency Frequency (c)     (d) ’ > 
2
80. A metal surface of work function 1.07 eV is irradiated with
light of wavelength 332 nm. The retarding potential
required to stop the escape of photo­electrons is
Kinetic energy

Kinetic energy

(a) 4.81 eV (b) 3.74 eV

(c) (d) (c) 2.66 eV (d) 1.07 eV

81. Photoelectric emission is observed from a metallic surface
Frequency Frequency
for frequencies 1 and 2 of the incident light rays (1 >2).
If the maximum values of kinetic energy of the
76. The stopping potential V for photoelectric emission from photoelectrons emitted in the two cases are in the ratio of
a metal surface is plotted along Y-axis and frequency  of 1 : k, then the threshold frequency of the metallic surface
incident light along X-axis. A straight line is obtained as is
shown. Planck’s constant is given by
1   2 k1   2
(a) (b)
k 1 k 1
V Y

k 2  1  2  1
0 X (c) (d)
v k 1 k

82. Which one of the following is true in photoelectric emission

(a) Slope of the line (a) Photoelectric current is directly proportional to the
amplitude of light of a given frequency
(b) Product of slope on the line and charge on the electron
(c) Product of intercept along Y-axis and mass of the (b) Photoelectric current is directly proportional to the
electron intensity of light of a given frequency at moderate
(d) Product of Slope and mass of electron intensities
77. When a metal surface is illuminated by light of wavelengths (c) Above the threshold frequency, the maximum K.E. of
400 nm and 250 nm, the maximum velocities of the photoelectrons is inversely proportional to the
photoelectrons ejected are  and 2 respectively. The frequency of incident light
work function of the metal is (h = Planck’s constant, c = (d) The threshold frequency depends upon the
velocity of light in air) wavelength of incident light
(a) 2 hc × 106 J (b) 1.5 hc × 106 J 83. The cathode of a photoelectric cell is changed such that
(c) hc × 106 J (d) 0.5 hc × 106 J the work function changes from W1 to W2 (W2>W1). If the
current before and after change are I1 and I2, all other
78. The work function of metal is 1 eV. Light of wavelength conditions remaining unchanged, then
3000 Å is incident on this metal surface. The velocity of
(assuming h > W2)
emitted photo­electrons will be
(a) I1= I2 (b) I1 < I2
(a) 10 m/sec (b) 1 × 103 m/sec
(c) I1 > I2 (d) I1 < I2 < 2I1
(c) 1×104 m/sec (d) 1 × 106 m/sec
MODERN PHYSICS 47

84. If intensity of incident light is increased in PE then which 90. When radiation is incident on a photoelectron emitter, the
of the following is true stopping potential is found to be 9 volts. If e/m for the
electron is 1.8 × 1011 Ckg–1 the maximum velocity of the
(a) Maximum K.E. of ejected electron will increase
ejected electrons is
(b) Work function will remain unchanged
(a) 6 × 105 ms–1 (b) 8 × 105 ms–1
(c) Stopping potential will decrease (c) 1.8 × 106 ms–1 (d) 1.8 × 10 5 ms–1
(d) Maximum K.E. of ejected electron will decrease
91. When a point source of monochromatic light is at a
85. Threshold frequency for a metal is 10 15 Hz.Light of  distance of 0.2 m from a photoelectric cell, the cut­off
= 4000 Å falls on its surface. Which of the following voltage and the saturation current are 0.6 volt and 18 mA
statements is correct
respectively. If the same source is placed 0.6 m away from
(a) No photoelectric emission takes place the photoelectric cell, then
(b) Photo­electrons come out with zero speed (a) The stopping potential will be 0.2 V
(c) Photo­electrons come out with 103 m/sec speed
(b) The stopping potential will be 0.6 V
(d) Photo­electrons come out with 105 m/sec speed
(c) The saturation current will be 6 mA
86. If the work function of a metal is ‘’ and the frequency of
(d) The saturation current will be 18 mA
the incident light is ‘’, there is no emission of
photoelectron if 92. The mass number of a nucleus is
(a) always less than its atomic number
 
(a)   (b)   (b) always more than its atomic number.
h h
(c) sometimes equal to its atomic number
 
(c)   (d)     (d) sometimes more than and sometimes equal to its atomic
h h number.
87. For intensity I of a light of wavelength 5000Å the 93. In Bohr’s model of the hydrogen atom
photoelectron saturation current is 0.40 A and stopping 2
(a) the radius of the nth orbit is proportional to n
potential is 1.36 V, the work function of metal is
(b) the total energy of the electron in nth orbit in inversely
(a) 2.47 eV (b) 1.36 eV proportional to n
(c) 1.10 eV (d) 0.43 eV (c) the angular momentum of the electron in an orbit is an
88. Two identical photo­cathodes receive light of frequencies integral multiple of h/2
f1 and f2. If the velocities of the photo electrons (of mass m) (d) the magnitude of potential energy of the electron in any
coming out are respectively 1 and 2, then orbit is greater than its K.E.
1/ 2 94. Which of the following statement(s) is/(are) correct
 2h 
(a) 1   2   f1  f 2  (a) The rest mass of a stable nucleus is less than the sum
 m 
of the rest masses of its separated nucleons
2 2 2h
(b)  1 –  2   f1  f 2  (b) The rest mass of a stable nucleus is greater than the
m sum of the rest masses of its separated nucleons.
1/ 2
 2h  (c) In nuclear fusion, energy is released by fusing two
(c) 1   2   f1  f 2  nuclei of medium mass (approximately 100 a.m.u.)
m 
(d) In nuclear fission, energy is released by fragmentation
2h of a very heavy nucleus
2
(d)    
1
2
2 f1  f 2 
m
95. From the following equations, pick out the possible nuclear
89. Stopping potential for photoelectrons reactions
(a) Does not depend on the frequency of the incident light
(b) Does not depend upon the nature of the cathode material (a) 6C13 + 1H1  6C14 + 4.3 MeV
(c) Depends on both the frequency of the incident light (b) 6C12 + 1H1  7N13 + 2 MeV
and nature of the cathode material (c) 7N14 + 1H1 8O15 + 7.3 MeV
(d) Depends upon the intensity of the incident light (d) U235 + 0n1 54X140 + 33Si94 + 20n1 +  + 200 MeV
92
MODERN PHYSICS 48

96. A radioactive sample has initial concentration N0 of nuclei. 100. When a monochromatic point source of light is at a distance
(a) The number of undecayed nuclei present in the sample of 0.2 m from a photoelectric cell, the cut­off voltage and the
decays exponentially with time saturation current are respectively 0.6 V and 18.0 m (A). If
the same source is placed 0.6 m away from the photoelectric
(b) The activity (R) of the sample at any instant is directly
cell, then
proportional to the number of undecayed nuclei present
in the sample at that time (a) the stopping potential will be 0.2 V

(c) The number of decayed nuclei grows exponentially with (b) the stopping potential will be 0.6 V
time (c) the saturation current will be 6.0 mA
(d) The number of decayed nuclei grows linearly with time. (d) the saturation current will be 2.0 mA
Multiple Correct Options Numeric Value Type Questions

97. An X-ray tube is operating at 50 kV and 20 mA. The target 101. The electric potential between a proton and an electron is
material of the tube has a mass of 1.0 kg and specific heat given by where V0 and r0 are constants and r is the radius of
495 J kg­1 °C–1. One percent of the supplied electric power the electron orbit around the proton. Assuming Bohr’s model
x
is converted into X-rays and the entire remaining energy to be applicable, it is found that r is proportional to n , where
n is the principal quantum number. Find the value of x.
goes into heating the target. Then
102. A doubly ionized lithium atom is hydrogen like with atomic
(a) A suitable target material must have a high melting
number 3. Find the wavelength of the radiation required to
temperature ++
excite the electron in Li from the first to be third Bohr orbit.
(b) A suitable target material must have low thermal Find the ionization energy (in Å) of the hydrogen atom is
conductivity 13.6 eV.
(c) The average rate of rise of temperature of target would Assertion Reason
be 2 °C/s
Read the assertion and reason carefully to mark the correct
(d) The minimum wavelength of the X-rays emitted is option out of the options given below :
about 0.25 × 10–10m (A) If both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the
correct explanation of the assertion.
98. When photons of energy 4.25 eV strike the surface of metal
A, the ejected photoelectrons have maximum kinetic energy, (B) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the
TA eV and de Broglie wavelength A. The maximum kinetic correct explanation of the assertion.
energy of photoelectrons liberated from another metal B by (C) If assertion is true but reason is false.
photons of energy 4.70 eV is TB = (TA – 1.50) eV. If the de (D) If the assertion and reason both are false.
Broglie wavelength of these photoelectrons is B = 2A, then (E) If assertion is false but reason is true.
(a) The work function of A is 2.25 eV 103. Assertion : Bohr had to postulate that the electrons in
(b) The work function of B is 4.20 eV stationary orbits around the nucleus do not radiate.
(c) TA = 2.00 eV Reason : According to classical physics all moving
(d) TB = 2.75 eV electrons radiate.
99. The threshold wavelength for photoelectric emission from (a) A (b) B
a material is 5200 Å. Photoelectrons will be emitted when
(c) C (d) D
this material is illuminated with monochromatic radiation
from a (e) E
(a) 50 watt infrared lamp
(b) 1–watt infra­red lamp
(c) 50 watt ultraviolet lamp
(d) 1–watt ultraviolet lamp
MODERN PHYSICS 49

104. Assertion : Between any two given energy levels, the 109. Assertion : The ionising power of –particles is less
number of absorption transition is always less than number compared –particles but their penetrating power is more.
of emission transition.
Reason : The mass of –particles is less than the mass of
Reason : Absorption transitions start from the lowest energy –particle.
level only and may end at any higher energy level. But
(a) A (b) B (c) C
emission transitions may start from any higher energy level
and end at any energy level below it. (d) D (e) E
A
110. Assertion : ZX undergoes 2–decays. 2–decays and
(a) A (b) B
2–decays and the daughter product is Z–2YA–8.
(c) C (d) D
Reason : In –decay the mass number decreases by 4 and
(e) E atomic number decreases by 2. In  –decay the mass
105. Assertion : Hydrogen atom consists of only one electron number remains unchanged, but atomic number increases
but its emission spectrum has many lines. by 1 only.
Reason : Only Lyman series is found in the absorption (a) A (b) B (c) C
spectrum of hydrogen atom whereas in the emission (d) D (e) E
spectrum, all the series are found. 111. Assertion : Intensity of X­rays can be controlled by
(a) A (b) B adjusting the filament current and voltage.
(c) C (d) D Reason : The intensity of X­rays does not depend on
(e) E number of X­ray photons emitted per second from the
target.
106. Assertion : According to classical theory, the proposed path
of an electron in Rutherford atom model will be parabolic. (a) A (b) B (c) C
(d) D (e) E
Reason : According to electromagnetic theory an
accelerated particle continuously emits radiation. 112. Assertion : The phenomenon of ­X­ray production is
basically inverse of photoelectric effect.
(a) A (b) B
Reason : X­rays are electromagnetic waves.
(c) C (d) D
(a) A (b) B (c) C
(e) E
(d) D (e) E
107. Assertion : Penetrating power of X­rays increases with
113. Assertion : Photoelectric effect demonstrates the wave
the increasing the wavelength.
nature of light.
Reason : The penetrating power of X­rays increases with Reason : The number of photoelectrons is proportional
the frequency of X­rays. to the frequency of light.
(a) A (b) B (c) C (a) A (b) B (c) C

(d) D (e) E (d) D (e) E

114. Assertion : Kinetic energy of photo electrons emitted by
108. Assertion : Radioactivity of 108 undecayed radioactive
a photosensitive surface depends upon the intensity of
nuclei of half life of 50 days is equal to that of 1.2 × 108
incident photon.
number of undecayed nuclei of some other material with
Reason : The ejection of electrons from metallic surface is
half life of 60 days possible with frequency of incident photon below the
Reason : Radioactivity is proportional to half­life. threshold frequency.
(a) A (b) B (c) C
(a) A (b) B (c) C
(d) D (e) E
(d) D (e) E
MODERN PHYSICS 50

–
115. Assertion : Photosensitivity of a metal is high if its work (C) If the process is  decay (R) Z and A will remain
function is small. unchanged
Reason : Work function = hf0 where f0 is the threshold
(D) If the process is  decay (S) Z will decrease but A
frequency.
will not change
(a) A (b) B (c) C
(d) D (e) E 120. When an electron moving at a high speed strikes a metal
surface, then match the columns :
Match the Column
(a) The entire energy of the electron may be converted into
116. In Bohr’s atomic model for hydrogen like atoms match the
following table : an X­ray photon
Column–I Column–II (b) Any fraction of the energy of the electron may be
(A) If electron jumps from (P) speed of electron will become converted into an X­ray photon.
n = 2 to n = 1 2 times (c) The entire energy of the electron may get converted to
(B) If electron jumps from (Q) kinetic energy of electron heat
n = 1to n = 4 will become 4 times
(d) The electron may undergo eleastic collision with the
(C) If electron jumps from (R) angular momentum of metal surface.
n = 4 to n = 1 electron will become 2 times
121. v versus z graph for characteristic X–rays is as shown in
(S) angular velocity of electron
figure. Match the following :
will become 4 times
(T) None v 1
117. Regarding transition of electrons match the following table: 2 3

Column–I Column–II 4
(A) n = 5 to n = 2 (P) Lymen series
(B) n = 8 to n = 4 (Q) Brackett series
z
(C) n = 3 to n = 1 (R) Paschen
(D) n = 4 to n = 3 (S) Balmer
Column–I Column–II
118. Match the following table :
(A) Line–1 (P) L
Column–I Column-II
(A) Sun (P) Nuclear fission (B) Line–2 (Q) L

(B) Nuclear reactors (Q) Nuclear fusion (C) Line–3 (R) K

(C) Total binding energy (R) Energy is released (D) Line–4 (S) K
in a process is increased 122. When photons of energy 4.25 eV strike the surface of a
(D) Total binding energy (S) Energy is absorbed metal A, the ejected photoelectrons have maximum kinetic
in a process is decreased energy TA eV and de Brogle wavelength A. The maximum
119. When a nucleus with atomic number Z and mass number A kinetic enegy of photoelectrons liberated from another metal
undergoes a radioactive decay process. B by photons of energy 4.70 eV is TB = (TA – 1.50) eV. If the
de Broglie wavelength of these photoelectrons is B = 2A.
Column–I Column–II
Column–I Column–II
(A) If the process is  decay (P) Z will increase but A will
not decrease (A) The work function of B (P) 2.25 eV
+
(B) If the process is  decay (Q) Both Z and A will (B) The work function of A (Q) 2.00 eV
decrease (C) TA (R) 4.20 eV
(D) TB (S) 2.75 eV
MODERN PHYSICS 51

Passage Type Questions Subjective Questions

Imagine another universe in which the value of planck’s 125. In Rutherford scattering experiment, the number of particles
constant is 0.0663 Js, but in which the physical laws and all observed at an angle of 10° is one million per minute. Find
other physical constants are the same as in our universe. In the difference in the number of particle (approximately) per
this universe, two physics students are playing catch. They minute that will be observed at angles of 90° and 180° ?
are 12 m apart, and one throws a 0.25 kg ball directly towards
126. The half life of radium is 1500 years. In how many years will
the other with a speed of 6.0 m/s
1 kg of pure radium lose 1 mg.
123. What is the uncertainty in the ball’s horizontal momentum,
127. An element of atomic number 9 emits K X­ray of wavelength
in a direction perpendicular to that in which it is being
. Find the atomic number of the element which emits K X­
thrown, if the student throwing the ball knows that it is
3 ray of wavelength 4.
located within a cube with volume 125 cm at the time she
throws it ? 128. The K X–rays emission line of tungsten occurs at  = 0.021
nm. What is the energy difference between K and L levels in
(a) 2.1 kg m/s (b) 21.0 kg m/s
this atom (in KeV).
(c) 32 kg m/s (d) 0.21 kg m/s
129. An electron falls from rest through a potential difference of
124. By what horizontal distance could the ball miss the second 100 V. What is its de Broglie wavelength (in nm) ?
student ?
(a) 3 m (b) 30 m
(c) 17 m (d) 1.7 m
MODERN PHYSICS 52

EXERCISE - 4 : PREVIOUS YEARS JEE ADVANCED QUESTIONS

1. Electrons with energy 80 KeV are incident on the tungsten target 5. A hydrogen like atom of atomic number Z is an excited state
of an X-ray tube. K shell electrons of tungsten have –72.5 keV of quantum number 2n. It can emit a maximum energy photon of
energy X-rays emitted by the tube contain (2000) 204 eV. If it makes a transition to quantum state n, a photon
(a) a continuous X-ray spectrum (Bremsstrahlung) with a of energy 40.8 eV is emitted. Find, n, Z and the ground state energy
minimum wavelength of about 0.155 Å. (in eV) of this atom. Also calculate the minimum energy (in
eV) that can be emitted by this atom during de-excitation.
(b) a continuous X-ray spectrum (Bremsstrahlung) with all
the wavelengths. Ground state energy of hydrogen atom is –13.6 eV. (2000)
2
(c) the characteristic X-ray spectrum of tungsten 6. When a beam of 10.6 eV photons of intensity 2.0 W/m
–4 2
falls on a platinum surface of area 1.0 × 10 m and work
(d) a continuous X-ray spectrum (Bremsstrahlung) with a function 5.6 eV. 0.53% of the incident photons eject
minimum wavelength of about 0.155 Å and the photoelectrons. Find the number of photoelectrons emitted per
characteristics X-ray spectrum of tungsten. second and their minimum and maximum energies (in eV).
–19
2. Imagine an atom made up of a proton and a hypothetical particle Take 1 eV = 1.6 × 10 J. (2000)
of double the mass of the electron but having the same charge 7. The electron emitted in beta radiation originates from
as the electron. Apply the Bohr atom model and consider all (2001)
possible transitions of this hypothetical particle to the first
excited level. The longest wavelength photon that will be (a) inner orbits of atoms
emitted has wavelength  (given in terms of the Rydberg (b) free electrons existing in nuclei
constant R for the hydrogen atom equal to) (2000) (c) decay of a neutron in a nucleus

9 36 (d) photon escaping from the nucleus

(a) (b) 8. The transition from state n = 4 to n = 3 in a hydrogen like
5R 5R
atom results in ultraviolet radiaiton. Infrared radiation will
18 4 be obtained in the transition (2001)
(c) (d)
5R R (a) 2  1 (b) 3  2
3. Two radioactive materials X1 and X2 have decay constants (c) 4  2 (d) 5  4
10  and  respectively. If initially they have the same number 9. The intensity of X-rays from a coolidge tube is plotted
of nuclei, then the ratio of the number of nuclei of X1 to that against wavelength  as shown in the figure. The minimum
of X2 will be 1/e after a time (2000) wavelength found is c and the wavelength of the K line is
k. As the accelerating voltage is increased (2001)
1 1
(a) 10  (b) 11

11 1
(c) 10  (d) 9 

4. The electron in a hydrogen atom makes a transition from an

excited state to the ground state. Which of the following
statement is true ? (2000)
(a) Its kinetic energy increases and its potential and total
energy decreases
(a) k – c increases (b) k – c decreases
(b) Its kinetic energy decreases, potential energy increases
(c) k increases (d) k decreases
and its total energy remains the same
(c) Its kinetic and total energy decreases and its potential
energy increases
(d) Its kinetic, potential and total energy decreases
MODERN PHYSICS 53

10. A radioactive sample consists of two distinct species having 16. Which of the following processes represents a gamma-
equal number of atoms initially. The mean life of one species decay? (2002)
is  and that of the other is 5. The decay products in both
A A A A3
cases are stable. A plot is made of the total number of (a) Z
X +  Z 1 X+a+b (b) Z
X + 10 n  Z2 X +c
radioactive nuclei as a function of time. Which of the A A A A
(c) Z
X Z
X+ f (d) Z
X + – 1e  Z 1 X+g
following figure best represents the form of this plot ?
17. A hydrogen-like atom (described by the Bohr model) is
(2001)
observed to emit six wavelengths, originating from all
possible transitions between a group of levels. These levels
have energies between –0.85 eV and –0.544 eV (including
both these values). (2002)
(a) (b) (a) Find the atomic number of the atom.
(b) Calculate the smallest wavelength emitted in these
transitions.
(Take hc = 1240 eV-nm, ground state energy of hydrogen
atom = –13.6 eV)
–4 2
18. Two metallic plates A and B each of area 5 × 10 m , are
(c) (d)
placed parallel to each other at separation of 1cm. Plate B
–12
carries a positive charge of 33.7 × 10 C. A monochromatic
235 beam of light, with photons of energy 5 eV each, starts
11. In nuclear reactor U undergoes fission liberating 200 MeV 16
falling on plate A at t = 0 so that 10 photons fall on it per
of energy. The reactor has a 10% efficiency and produces
square metre per second. Assume that one photoelectron is
1000 MW power. If the reactor is to function for 10 years, 6
emitted for every 10 incident photons. Also assume that all
find the total mass of uranium required. (2001)
the emitted photoelectrons are collected by plate B and the
12. A radioactive nucleus X decays to a nucleus Y with a decay work function of plate A remains constant at the value 2 eV.
–1
constant x = 0.1s , Y further decays to a stable nucleus Z
–1 Determine : (2002)
with a decay constant y = 1/30 s . Initially, there are only X
20
nuclei and their number is N0 = 10 . Set-up the rate (a) the number of photoelectrons emitted upt to t = 10 s,
equations for the populations of X, Y and Z. The (b) the magnitude of the electric field between the plates A
population of Y nucleus as a functions of time is given by and B at t = 10s and
Ny(t) = {N0x/(x–y)} [exp (–yt) –expt (–xt)]. Find the time (c) The kinetic energy of the most energetic photoelectrons
at which NY is maximum and determine the populations X emitted at t = 10s when it reaches plate B.
and Y at that instant. (2001) Neglect the time taken by the photoelectron to reach plate
–12 2 2
13. The potential difference applied to an X-ray tube is 5 kV and B. (Take 0 = 8.85 × 10 C /N-m ).
the current through it is 3.2 mA. Then the number of 19. The electric potential between a proton and an electron is
electrons striking the target per second is (2002)
16 16 given by V  V0 n r , where r0 is a constant. Assuming
(a) 2 × 10 (b) 5 × 10 r0
17 15
(c) 1 × 10 (d) 4 × 10
2+
Bohr’s model to be applicable, write variation of rn with n, n
14. A hydrogen atom and a Li ion are both in the second being the principal quantum number. (2003)
excited state. If lH and lLi are their respective electronic angular
1
momenta, and EH and ELi their respective energies, then (a) rn  n (b) rn 
n
(2002)
1
(a) lH > lLi and |EH| > |ELi| (b) lH = lLi and |EH| < |ELi| (c) rn  n 2 (d) rn  2
n
257
(c) lH = lLi and |EH| > |ELi| (d) lH < lLi and |EH| < |ELi| 20. If the atom 100Fm follows the Bohr’s model and the radius
215 257
15. The half-life of At is 100 s. The time taken for the of last orbit of 100Fm is n times the Bohr radius, then find
215
radioactivity of a sample of At to decay to 1/16th of its n
initial value is (2002) (a) 100 (b) 200 (2003)
(a) 400 s (b) 6.3 s (c) 4 (d) 1/4
(c) 40 s (d) 300 s
MODERN PHYSICS 54

21. The mass m of a uranium nucleus varies with its volume V

as (2003)

1
(a) m  V (b) m 
V

(c) m  V (d) m  V 2

22. A nucleus of mass number 220, initially at rest, emits an -

particle. If the Q value of the reaction is 5.5 MeV, the energy
of the emitted -particle will be (2003) (a) fa = fb and Ia  Ib (b) fa = fc and Ia = Ic
(a) 4.8 MeV (b) 5.4 MeV (c) fa = fb and Ia = Ib (d) fb = fc and Ib = Ic
(c) 6.0 MeV (d) 6.8 MeV 238 9 238
29. A rock containing U is 1.5 × 10 years old. U disintegrates
18 206 206
23. Characteristic X-rays of frequency 4.2 × 10 Hz are produced to form Pb Assuming that there was no Pb in the rock
when transitions from L-shell to K-shell take palce in a certain initially and it is the only stable product formed by the decay,
206 238
target material. Use Mosley’s law to determine the atomic calculate the ratio of number of nuclei of Pb to that of U
238 9
number of the target material. Given Rydberg’s constant in the rock at present. Half-life of U is 4.5 × 10 years
7 –1 1/3
R = 1.1 × 10 m . (2003) (Given : 2 = 1.259) (2004)
24. A radioactive element decays by -emission. A detector 30. Wavelengths of Balmer series lying in the range of 450 nm
records n beta particles in 2 s and in next 2 s it records 0.75 and 700 nm were used to eject photoelectrons from a metal
n beta particles. Find mean life correct to nearest whole surface of work function 2.2 eV. Determine the maximum
number. Given ln |2| = 0.6931, ln |3| = 1.0986. (2003) kinetic energy in eV of the emitted photoelectron. Take
25. In a photoelectric experiment set-up, photon energy 5 eV hc = 1242 eV nm. (2004)
falls on the cathode having work function 3 eV. (a) If the 31. A photon collides with a stationary hydrogen atom is ground
–5 2
saturation current is iA = 4 A for intensity 10 W/m , then state inelastically. Energy of the colliding photon is 10.2 eV.
plot a graph between anode potential and current. (b) Also After a time interval of the order of micro second another
–5 2
draw a graph for intensity of incident radiation 2 × 10 W/m . photon collide with same hydrogen atom inelastically with
(2003) an energy of 15 eV. What will be observed by the detector ?
26. After 280 days, the activity of a radioactive sample is 6000 (a) 2 photons of energy 10.2 eV (2005)
dps. The activity reduces to 3000 dps after another 140 days. (b) 2 photons of energy 1.4 eV
The initial activity of the sample in dps is : (2004)
(c) One photon of energy 10.2 eV and an electron of energy
(a) 6000 (b) 9000 1.4 eV
(c) 3000 (d) 24000 (d) one photon of energy 10.2 eV and another photon of
27. The energy of a photon is equal to the kinetic energy of a energy 1.4 eV
proton. The energy of the photon is E. Let 1 be the de- 32. K wavelength emitted by an atom of atomic number Z = 11
Broglie wavelength of the proton and  2 be the wavelength is . Find the atomic number for an atom that emits K
1 radiation with wavelength 4  (2005)
of the photon. The ratio  is proportional to (2004) (a) Z = 6 (b) Z = 4
2
0 1/2 (c) Z = 11 (d) Z = 44
(a) E (b) E
–1 –2 33. A beam of electron is used in an YDSE experiement. The slit
(c) E (d) E
width is d. When the velocity of electron is increased, then
28. The figure show the variation of photocurrent with anode
(a) no interference is observed (2005)
potential for a photosensitive surface for three different
radiations. Let Ia, Ib and Ic be the intensities and fa, fb and fc (b) fringe width increases
be the frequencies for the curves a, b and c respectively (c) fringe width decreases
(2004) (d) fringe width remains same.
MODERN PHYSICS 55

34. If a star can convert all the He nuclei completely into oxygen Match the Column
nuclei. The energy released per oxygen nuclei is :
40. Some laws/process are given in Column I. Match these with
(Mass of the helium nucleus is 4.0026 amu and mass of the physical phenomena given in Column II. (2006)
oxygen nucleus is 15.9994 amu) (2005)
Column I Column II
(a) 7.6 MeV (b) 56.12 MeV
(A) Nuclear fusion (P) Converts some matter into
(c) 10.24 MeV (d) 23.4 MeV
energy
35. X-rays are incident on a target metal atom having 30 neutrons.
(B) Nuclear fission (Q) Generally possible for nuclei
1/3
The ratio of atomic radius of the target atom and 42 He is (14) .
with low atomic number
(a) Find the mass number of target atom. (2005) (C) -decay (R) Generally possible for nuclei
(b) Find the frequency of K line emitted by this metal.
7 –1 8
with higher atomic number
(R = 1.1 × 10 m , c =3 × 10 m/s)
th
(D) Exothermic nuclear (S) Essentially proceeds by weak
36. If the wavelength of the n line of Lyman series is equal to
reaction nuclear forces
the de-Broglie wavelength of electron in initial orbit of a
hydrogen like element (Z = 11). Find the value of n. 41. The largest wavelength in the ultraviolet region of the
hydrogen spectrum is 122 nm. The smallest wavelength in
(2005)
the infrared region of the hydrogen spectrum (to the nearest
37. The potential energy of a particle of mass m is given by integer) is (2007)
(a) 802 nm (b) 823 nm
Vx = E 0forfor0xx11
0
(c) 1882 nm (d) 1648 nm
If the total energy of the particle is 3E0, determine the ratio 42. In the options given below, let E denote the rest mass
of de-Broglie wavelengths in the two ranges of x mentioned energy of a nucleus and n a neutron. The correct option is
above. (2005) (2007)
38. Half-life of a radioactive substance A is 4 days. The
probability that a nucleus will decay in two half-lives is :
(a) E  236
92 
U >E  137
53 
I +E  97
39 
Y + 2E (n)

1 3 (b) E  236
92 
U <E  137
53 
I +E  97
39 
Y + 2E (n)
(a) (b) (2006)
4 4
(c) E  236
92 
U <E  140
56 
Ba + E  94
36 
Kr + 2E (n)
1
(c) (d) 1
2 (d) E  236
92 
U =E  140
56 
Ba + E  94
36 
Kr + 2E (n)
39. The graph between 1/ and stopping potential (V) of three 43. Electrons with de-Broglie wavelength  fall on the target in
metals having work functions 1, 2 and 3 in an experiment an X-ray tube. The cut-off wavelength of the emitted X-ray
of photoelectric effect is plotted as shown in the figure. is (2007)
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct ? (Here 
is the wavelength of the incident ray). (2006) 2mc 2 2h
(a)  0  (b)  0 
h mc

2m 2 c2  2
(c)  0  (d) 0 = 
h2
ASSERTION REASON
(a) Ratio of work functions 1 : 2 : 3 = 1 : 2 : 4 (A) If Statement-I is true, Statement-II is true; Statement-II is
(b) Ratio of work functions 1 : 2 : 3 : 4 : 2 : 1 the correct explanation for Statement-I.
(c) tan  is directly proportional to hc/e, where h is Plank’s (B) If Statement-I is true, Statement-II is true; Statement-II is
constant and c is the speed of light. not a correct explanation for Statement-I.
(d) The violet colour light can eject photoelectrons from (C) If Statement I is true; Statement-II is false.
metals 2 and 3. (D) If Statement-I is false; Statement-II is true.
MODERN PHYSICS 56

44. Statement-1 : If the accelerating potential in an X-ray tube (c) If the intensity of light falling on slit 1 is reduced so that
is increased, the wavelengths of the characteristic X-ray do it becomes equal to that of slit 2, the intensities of the
not change. observed dark and bright fringes will increase.
Statement-2 : When an electron beam strikes the target in (d) If the intensity of light falling on slit 2 is increased so
an X-ray tube, part of the kinetic energy is converted into that it becomes equal to that of slit 1, the intensities of
X-ray energy. (2007) the observed dark and bright fringes will increase.
(a) A (b) B 49. Assume that the nuclear binding energy per nucleon (B/A)
(c) C (d) D versus mass number is as shown in the figure. Use this plot
45. Some laws/processes are given in Column I. Match these to choose the correct choice (s) given below. (2008)
with the physical phenomena given in Column II (2007) B/A

Column I Column II 8
(A) Transition between (P) Characteristic X-rays 6
4
two atomic energy levels
2
(B) Electron emission from (Q) Photoelectric effect A
0
a material 100 200
(a) Fusion of two nuclei with mass numbers lying in the
(C) Mosley’s law (R) Hydrogen spectrum
range of 1 < A < 50 will release energy
(D) Change of photon (S) -decay
(b) Fusion of two nuclei with mass numbers lying in the
energy into kinetic energy range of 51 < A < 100 will release energy
of electrons (c) Fission of a nucleus lying in the mass number range of
46. Which one of the following statements is Wrong in the 100 < A < 200 will release energy when broken into equal
context of X-rays generated from a X-ray tube ? (2008) fragments
(a) Wavelength of characteristic X-ray decreases when the (d) Fission of a nucleus lying in the mass number range of
atomic number of the target increases. 200 < A < 260 will release energy when broken into equal
(b) Cut-off wavelength of the continuous X-rays depends fragments.
on the atomic number of the target Passage Type Questions
(c) Intensity of the characteristic X-rays depends on the Using the following, solve Q.50 to Q. 52
electric power given to the X-rays tube + +
In a mixture of H – He gas (He is singly ionized He atom),
+
(d) Cut-off wavelength of the continuous X-rays depends H atoms and He ions are excited to their respective first
on the energy of the electrons in the X-ray tube. excited states. Subsequently, H atoms transfer their total
+
47. A radioactive sample S1 having an activity of 5 Ci has twice excitation energy to He ions (by collisions). Assume that
the number of nuclei as another sample S2 which has an the Bohr model of atom is exactly valid.
+
activity 10 Ci. The half lives of S1 and S2 can be (2008) 50. The quantum number n of the state finally populated in He
(a) 20 years and 5 years, respectively ions is (2008)
(b) 20 years and 10 years, respectively (a) 2 (b) 3
(c) 10 years each (c) 4 (d) 5
+
(d) 5 years each 51. The wavelength of light emitted in the visible region by He
ions after collisions with H atoms is (2008)
48. In a Young’s double slit experiment, the separation between –7 –7
the two slits is d and the wavelenght of the light . The (a) 6.5 × 10 m (b) 5.6 × 10 m
–7 –7
intensity of light falling on slit 1 is four times the intensity of (c) 4.8 × 10 m (d) 4.0 × 10 m
light falling on slit 2. Choose the correct choice(s). (2008) 52. The ratio of the kinetic energy of the n = 2 electron for the H
+
(a) If d = , the screen will contain only one maximum atom to that of He ion is : (2008)
(b) If  < d < 2, at least one more maximum (besides the (a) 1/4 (b) 1/2
central maximum) will be observed on the screen (c) 1 (d) 2
MODERN PHYSICS 57

53. Photoelectric effect experiments are performed using three 56. The speed of the particle, that can take discrete values is
different metal plates p, q, and r having work function p = proportional to
2.0 eV. q = 2.5 eV and r = 3.0 eV, respectively. A light beam –3/2 –1
(a) n (b) n
containing wavelengths of 550 nm, 450 nm and 350 nm with 1/2
equal intensities illuminates each of the plates. The correct (c) n (d) n
I-V graph for the experiment is (2009) Passage Type Questions
Using the following, solve Q.57 to Q. 59
Scientists are working hard to develop nuclear fusion reactor.
2
Nuclei of heavy hydrogen, 1H, known as deuteron and
(a) (b) denoted by D, can be thought of as a candidate for fusion
reactor. The D-D reaction is 12 H  12 H  32 He  n  energy..
In the core of fusion reactor, a gas of heavy hydrogen is
fully ionized into deuteron nuclei and electrons. This
collection of 12 H nuclei and electrons is known as plasma.
(c) (d) The nuclei move randomly in the reactor core and
occasionally come close enough for nuclear fusion to take
place. Usually, the temperatures in the reactor core are too
Passage Type Questions high and no material wall can be used to confine the plasma.
Using the following, solve Q.54 to Q. 56 Special techniques are used to confine the plasma for a time
When a particle is restricted to move along x-axis between t0 before the particles fly away from the core. If n is the density
x = 0 and x = a, where a is of nanometre dimension, its energy (number/volume) of deuterons, the product nt0 is called
can take only certain specific values. The allowed energies Lawson number. In one of the criteria, a reactor is termed
14 3
of the particle moving in such a restricted region, correspond successful if Lawson number is greater than 5 × 10 s/cm .
to the formation of standing waves with nodes at its ends It may be helpful to use the following : Boltzmann constant
x = 0 and x = a. The wavelength of this standing wave is
e2
related to the linear momentum p of the particle according to –5
k = 8.6 × 10 eV/k ;
–9
= 1.44 × 10 eVm. (2009)
the de Broglie relation. The energy of the particle of mass m 40

p2 57. In the core of nuclear fusion reactor, the gas becomes plasma
is related to its linear momentum as E = . Thus, the because of
2m
energy of the particle can be denoted by a quantum number (a) strong nuclear force acting between the deuterons
‘n’ taking values 1, 2, 3, .... (n = 1, called the ground state) (b) Coulomb force acting between the deuterons
corresponding to the number of loops in the standing wave.
(c) Coulomb force acting between deuteron-electron pairs
Use the model described above to answer the following
(d) the high temperature maintained inside the reactor core.
three questions for a particle moving in the line x = 0 to x = a.
–34
Take h = 6.6 × 10 J s and e = 1.6 × 10 C.
–19
(2009) 58. Assume that two deuteron nuclei in the core of fusion reactor
at temperature T are moving towards each other, each with
54. The allowed energy for the particle for a particular value of
kinetic energy 1.5 kT, when the separation between them is
n is proportional to
large enough to neglect Coulomb potential energy. Also
–2 –3/2
(a) a (b) a neglect any interaction from other particles in the core. The
–1 2
(c) a (d) a minimum temperature T required for them to reach a
–15
–30 separation of 4 × 10 m is in the range
55. If the mass of the particle is m = 1.0 × 10 kg and a = 6.6 nm,
9 9
the energy of the particle in its ground state is closest to (a) 1.0 × 10 K < T < 2.0 × 10 K
9 9
(a) 0.8 meV (b) 8 meV (b) 2.0 × 10 K < T < 3.0 × 10 K
9 9
(c) 80 meV (d) 800 meV (c) 3.0 × 10 K < T < 4.0 × 10 K
9 9
(d) 4.0 × 10 K < T < 5.0 × 10 K
MODERN PHYSICS 58

59. Results of calculations for four different designs of a fusion

reactor using D-D reaction are given below. Which of these  h2  2 h
2

n
(c)  2  (d) n  2 
is most promising based on Lawson criterion ?  8 I   8 I 
12 –3
(a) deuteron density = 2.0 × 10 cm , confinement time
–3 63. It is found that the excitation frequency from ground to the
= 5.0 × 10 s
first excited state of rotation for the CO molecule is close to
14 –3
(b) deuteron density = 8.0 × 10 cm , confinement time
–1 4
= 9.0 × 10 s 11
× 10 Hz. Then the moment of inertia of CO molecule
23 –3 
(c) deuteron density = 4.0 × 10 cm , confinement time = –34
–11
1.0 × 10 s about its centre of mass is close to (Take h = 2 × 10 Js)
–46 2 –46 2
24 –3
(d) deuteron density = 1.0 × 10 cm , confinement time (a) 2.76 × 10 kg m (b) 1.87 × 10 kg m
–12 –47 2 –47 2
=4.0 × 10 s (c) 4.67 × 10 kg m (d) 1.17 × 10 kg m
60. An -particle and a proton are accelerated from rest by a 64. In a CO molecule, the distance between C (mass = 12 a.m.u)
potential difference of 100 V. After this, their de Broglie
5 –27
and O (mass = 16 a.m.u.), where 1 a.m.u. = × 10 kg, is
p 3
wavelengths are  and p respectively. The ratio , to the
 close to
–10 –10
nearest integer, is (2010) (a) 2.4 × 10 m (b) 1.9 × 10 m
–10 –11
61. To determine the half life of radioactive element, a student (c) 1.3 × 10 m (d) 4.4 × 10 m
10
dN (t) 65. The activity of a freshly prepared radioactive sample is 10
dN (t) –9
plots a graph of ln versus t. Here is the rate disintegrations per second, whose mean life is 10 s. The
dt dt –25
mass of an atom of this radioisotope is 10 kg. The mass
of radioactive decay at time t. If the number of radioactive (in mg) of the radioactive sample is (2011)
nuclei of this element decreases by a factor of p after 4.16
66. A silver sphere of radius 1 cm and work function 4.7 eV is
years, find the value of p. (2010)
supspended from an insulating thread in free space. It is
under continuous illumination of 200 nm wavelength light.
6 As photoelectrons are emitted, the sphere gets charged and
acquires a potential. The maximum number of photoelectrons
5 Z
emitted from the sphere is A × 10 (where 1 < A < 10). The
4
value of Z is (2011)
3
67. A proton is fired from very far away towards a nucleus with
2
charge Q = 120 e, where e is the electronic charge. It makes
1 a closest approach of 10 fm to the the nucleus. The de-
2 3 4 5 6 7 8
Years
Broglie wavelength (in units of fm) of the proton at its start
–27 –
is [Take the proton mass, mp = (5/3) × 10 kg; h/e = 4.2 × 10

Passage Type Questions 15

1 9 –15
J-s/C; 4 = 9 × 10 m/F; 1 fm = 10 m] (2012)
Using the following, solve Q.62 to Q. 64 0

The key feature of Bohr’s theory of spectrum of hydrogen Passage Type Questions
atom is the quantization of angular momentum when an Using the following, solve Q.68 to Q. 69
electron is revolving around a proton. We will extend this to
a general rotational motion to find quantized rotational The -decay process, discovered around 1900, is basically
energy of a diatomic molecule assuming it to be rigid. The the decay of a neutron (n). In the laboratory, a proton (p)
–
rule to be applied is Bohr’s quantization condition. (2010) and the electron (e ) are observed as the decay products of
the neutron. Therefore, considering the decay of a neutron
62. A diatomic molecule has moment of interia I. By Bohr’s
th as a two-body decay process, it was predicted theoretically
quantization condition its rotational energy in the n level
that the kinetic energy of the electron should be a constant.
(n = 0 is not allowed) is
But experimentally, it was observed that the electron kinetic
energy has a continuous spectrum. Considering a three
1  h2  1  h2 
(a) 2  2  (b) n  2 
n  8 I   8 I 
MODERN PHYSICS 59
–
decays process, i.e., n  p + e + ve , around 1930, Pauli
9 9
explained the observed electron energy spectrum. Assuming (a) 32 R (b) 16 R
the anti-neutrino ( ve ) to be massless and possessing
negligible energy, and the neutron to be at rest, momentum 9 4
and energy conservation principles are applied. From this (c) 5R (d) 3R
calculation, the maximum kinetic energy of the electron is
6
0.8 × 10 eV. The kinetic energy carried by the proton is only 72. A freshly prepared sample of a radioisotope of half-life 1386
3
the recoil energy. (2012) s has activity 10 disintegrations per second. Given that ln
2
68. If the anti-neutrion had a mass of 3 eV/c (where c is the 2 = 0.693, the fraction of the initial number of nuclei
speed of light) instead of zero mass, what should be the (expressed in nearest integrer percentage) that will decay in
range of the kinetic energy K, of the electron ? the first 80 s after preparation of the sample is (2013)
6
(a) 0 < K < 0.8 × 10 eV Passage Type Questions
6
(b) 3.0 eV < K < 0.8 × 10 eV Using the following, solve Q.73 to Q. 74
6
(c) 3.0 eV < K < 0.8 × 10 eV The mass of a nucleus A
is less that the sum of the masses
ZX
6
(d) 0 < K < 0.8 × 10 eV of (A – Z) number of neutrons and Z number of protons in
69. What is the maximum energy of the anti-neutrino ? the nucleus. The energy equivalent to the corresponding
(a) Zero (b) Much less than 0.8 × 10 eV
6 mass difference is know as the binding energy of the nucleus.
6 A heavy nucleus of mass M can break into two light nuclei
(c) Nearly 0.8 × 10 eV (d) Much larger than 0.8×106 eV
of masses m1 and m2 only if (m1 + m2) < M. Also two light
70. Match List I of the nuclear process with List II containing nuclei of mass m3 and m4 can undergo complete fusion and
parent nucleus and one of the end products of each process form a heavy nucleus of mass M’ only if (m3 + m4) > M’. The
and then select the correct answer using the codes given masses of some neutral atoms are given in the table below :
below the lists. (2013)
1 2
1H 1.007825 u 1H 2.014102 u
List I List II
15 6 7
P. Alpha decay 1. 8 O  17
7 N  ... 3 Li 6.01513 u 3 Li 7.016004 u

152 206
+ 238
 234 64 Gd 151.919803 u 82 Pb 205.974455 u
Q.  decay 2. 92 U 90 Th  ...

3 4
185 1H 3.016050 u 2 He 4.002603 u
R. Fission 3. 83 Bi  184
82 Pb  ...

70 82
239 30 Zn 69.925325 u 34 Se 81.916709 u
S. Proton emission 4. 94 Pu  140
57 La  ...
209 210
Code : 83 Bi 208.980388 u 84 Po 209.982876 u

P Q R S 73. The correct statement is : (2013)

(a) 4 2 1 3
(a) the nucleus 36 Li can emit and alpha particle
(b) 1 3 2 4
210
(c) 2 1 4 3 (b) The nucleus 84 Po can emit a proton
(d) 4 3 2 1 (c) Deuteron and alpha particle can undergo complete fusion
71. The radius of the orbit of an electon in a Hydrogen-like 70 82
atom is 4.5 a0 where a0 is the Bohr radius. Its orbital angular (d) The nuclei 30 Zn and 34 Se can undergo complete fusion

3h 74. The kinetic energy (in KeV) of the alpha particle, when the
momentum is . It is given that h is Planck constant and 210
2 nucleus 84 Po at rest undergoes alpha decay, is (2013)
R is Rydberg constant. The possible wavelength(s), when
(a) 5319 (b) 5422
the atom de-excites, is (are) (2013)
(c) 5707 (d) 5818
MODERN PHYSICS 60

75. If Cu is the wavelength of K X-ray line of copper (atomic

number 29) and  Mo is the wavelength of the
K X-ray line of molybdenum (atomic number 42), then the
ratio Cu/Mo is close to (2014) (c) (d)

(a) 1.99 (b) 2.14

(c) 0.50 (d) 0.48 80. A nuclear power plant supplying electrical power to a village
76. A metal surface is illuminated by light of two different uses a radioactive material of half life T years as the fuel.
wavelengths 248 nm and 310 nm. The maximum speeds of The amount of fuel at the beginning is such that the total
the photoelectrons corresponding to these wavelengths power requirement of the village is 12.5% of the electrical
are u1 and u2 respectively. If the ratio u1:u2 =2:1 and hc = power available from the plant at the time. If the plant is
1240 eV nm, the work function of the metal is nearly (2014) able to meet the total power needs of the village for a
maximum period of nT years, then the value of n is (2015)
(a) 3.7 eV (b) 3.2 eV
81. Consider a hydrogen atom with its electron in the nth orbital.
(c) 2.8 eV (d) 2.5 eV
An electromagnetic radiation of wavelength 90 nm is used
77. A fission reaction is given by to ionize the atom. If the kinetic energy of the ejected
236 140 94 electron is 10.4 eV, then the value of n is (hc = 1242 eV nm)
92 U  54 Xe  38 Sr  x  y, where x and y are two
(2015)
236 82. For a radioactive material, its activity A and rate of change
particles. Considering 92 U to be at rest, the kinetic
energies of the products are denoted by KXe, KSr, Kx (2 dN dA
of its activity R are defined as A  and R   ,
MeV) and Ky (2 MeV), respectively. Let the binding dt dt
236 140 94 where N(t) is the number of nuclei at time t. Two radioactive
energies per nucleon of 92 U, 54 Xe and 38Sr be 7.5
sources P(mean life ) and Q(means life 2) have the same
MeV, 8.5 MeV and 8.5 MeV, respectively. Considering activity att = 0. Their rates of change of activities at t = 2
different conservation laws, the correct option(s) is(are)
RP n
(2015) are RP and RQ, respectively. If R  e , then the value of
Q
(a) x = n, y = n, KSr = 129 MeV, KXe = 86 MeV
n is (2015)
(b) x = p, y = e, KSr = 129 MeV, KXe = 86 MeV
83. Match the nuclear process given in column I with the
(c) x = p, y = n, KSr = 129 MeV, KXe = 86 MeV
appropriate option(s) in column II. (2015)
(d) x = n, y = n, KSr = 86 MeV, KXe = 129 MeV
Column–I Column–II
78. Planck’s constant h, speed of light c and gravitational
(A) Nuclear fusion (P) Absorption of thermal
constant G are used to form a unit of length L and a unit of
mass M. Then the correct option(s) is (are) (2015) 235
neutrons by 92 U
(a) M  c (b) M  G
60
(B) Fission in a nuclear (Q) 27 Co nucleus
(c) L  h (d) L  G
reactor
79. For photo-electric effect with incident photon wavelength (C) decay (R) Energy production in
, the stopping potential is V 0. Identify the correct stars via hydrogen
variation(s) of V0 with  and 1/. (2015)
conversion to helium
(D) ray emission (S) Heavy Water
(T) Neutrino emission
(a) (b)
MODERN PHYSICS 61

84. An accident in a nuclear laboratory resulted in deposition (a) e increases at the same rate as ph for ph < hc/
of a certain amount of radioactive material of half-life 18
(b) For large potential difference (V >> /e), e is
days inside the laboratory. Tests revealed that the
approximately halved if V is made four times
radiation was 64 times more than the permissible level
required for safe operation of the laboratory. What is the (c) e is approximately halved, if d is doubled
minimum number of days after which the laboratory can (d) e decreases with increase in  and ph
be considered safe for use? (2016) 87. In a historical experiment to determine Planck’s constant,
(a) 64 (b) 90 a metal surface was irradiated with light of different
(c) 108 (d) 120 wavelengths. The emitted photoelectron energies were
measured by applying a stopping potential. The relevant
85. The electrostatic energy of Z protons uniformly
data for the wavelength () of incident light and the
distributed throughout a spherical nucleus of radius R is
corresponding stopping potential (V0) are given below :
given by
 (µm) V0 (Volt)
2
3Z(Z  1)e 0.3 2.0
E
5 4  0 R 0.4 1.0
0.5 0.4
The measured masses of the neutron, 11 H , 15
7
N and 158 O
Given that c = 3 × 108 m s–1 and e = 1.6 × 10–19 C, Planck’s
are 1.008665 u, 1.007825 u, 15.000109 u and 15.003065 u, constant (in units of J s) found from such an experiment
15 is (2016)
respectively. Given that the radii of both the 7
N and
(a) 6.0 × 10–34 (b) 6.4 × 10–34
15
8
O nuclei are same, 1 u = 931.5 MeV/c (c is the speed of
2
(c) 6.6 × 10–34 (d) 6.8 × 10–34
2
light) and e /(4 0) = 1.44 MeV fm. Assuming that the 88. Highly excited states for hydrogen-like atoms (also called
15 15
difference between the binding energies of N and O Rydberg states) with nuclear charge Ze are defined by their
7 8
principal quantum number n, where n>>1. Which of the
is purely due to the electrostatic energy. The radius of
following statement(s) is (are) true? (2016)
either of the nuclei is
(a) Relative change in the radii of two consecutive orbitals
(1 fm = 10–15m) (2016)
does not depend on Z
(a) 2.85 fm (b) 3.03 fm
(b) Relative change in the radii of two consecutive orbitals
(c) 3.42 fm (d) 3.80 fm varies as 1/n
86. Light of wavelength ph falls on a cathode plate inside a (c) Relative change in the energy of two consecutive
vacuum tube as shown in the figure. The work function orbitals varies as 1/n3
of the cathode surface is  and the anode is a wire mesh of
(d) Relative change in the angular momenta of two
conducting material kept at a distance d from the cathode.
consecutive orbitals varies as 1/n
A potential difference V is maintained between the
electrodes. If the minimum de Broglie wavelength of the 89. The isotope 12
having a mass 12.014 u undergoes -
5 B
electrons passing through the anode is e, which of the
12 12
following statement(s) is(are) true? (2016) decay to 6 C. 6 C has an excited state of the nucleus

( 12 * 12
6 C ) at 4.041 MeV above its ground state. If 5 B decays

12 *
to 6 C , the maximum kinetic energy of the -particle in
units of MeV is (1 u = 931.5 MeV/c2, where c is the speed of
light in vacuum). (2016)
90. A hydrogen atom in its ground state is irradiated by light
of wavelength 970 Å. Taking hc/e = 1.237 × 10–6 eV m and
the ground state energy of hydrogen atom as –13.6 eV,
The number of lines present in the emission spectrum is
(2016)
MODERN PHYSICS 62

91. A photoelectric material having work-function 0 is 95. In a photoelectric experiment a parallel beam of
monochromatic light with power of 200 W is incident on a
 hc  perfectly absorbing cathode of work function 6.25 eV. The
illuminated with lightof wavelength      . The frequency of light is just above the threshold frequency so
 0 
that the photoelectrons are emitted with negligible kinetic
fastest photoelectron has a de Broglie wavelength d . A energy. Assume that the photoelectron emission efficiency
change in wavelength of the incident light by  results in is 100%. A potential difference of 500 V is applied between
the cathode and the anode. All the emitted electrons are
d incident normally on the anode and are absorbed. The anode
a change d. Then the ratio is proportional to :
 experiences a force F = n × 10–4 N due to the impact of the
(2017) electrons. The value of n is ............ (2018)
96. Consider a hydrogen-like ionized atom with atomic number
3 3
 d  d
Z with a single electron. In the emission spectrum of this
(a) 2 (b) atom, the photon emitted in the n = 2 to n = 1 transition has
 
energy 74. eV higher than the photon emitted in the n = 3 to
2d d n = 2 transition. The ionization energy of the hydrogen atom
(c) 2 (d) is 13.6 eV. The value of Z is ........... (2018)
 
40
97. In a radioactive sample, 19 K nuclei either decay into stable
92. An electron in a hydrogen atom undergoes a transition
40
from an orbit with quantum number ni to another with 20 Ca nuclei with decay constant 4.5 × 10-10 per year or into
40
stable 18 Ar nuclei with decay constant 0.5 × 10-10 per year..
quantum number n f · Vi and V f are respectively the
40 40
initial and final potential energies of the electron. If Given that in this sample all the stable 20 Ca and 18 Ar nuclei
40
Vi are produced by the 19 K nuclei only. In time t × 109 years, if
 6.25 , then the smallest possible n is (2017)
Vf f
the ratio of the sum of stable 40
Ca and 40
nuclei to the
20 18 Ar

93. 131
I is an isotope of Iodine that decays to an isotope of 40
radioactive 19 K nuclei is 99, the value of t will be. [Given ln
Xenon with a half-life of 8 days. A small amount of a serum
10 = 2.3] (2019)
labelled with 131I is injected into the blood of a person. The
activity of the amount of I injected was 2.4  105
131 (a) 9.2 (b) 1.15

Becquerel (Bq). It is known that the injected serum will get (c) 4.6 (d) 2.3
distributed uniformly in the blood stream in less than half 98. A free hydrogen atom after absorbing a photon of
an hour. After 11.5 hours, 2.5 ml of blood is drawn from the
wavelength λ a gets excited from the state n = 1 to the state
person’s body, and gives an activity of 115 Bq. The total
volume of blood in the person’s body, in liters is n = 4. Immediately after that the electron jumps to n = m

approximately (you may use e x  1  x for x  1 and state by emitting a photon of wavelength λ e . Let the change
in momentum of atom due to the absorption and the emission
2  0.7 ). (2017) λa
are Δpa and Δpe respectively. If λ =1/5, which of the
232 e
94. In a radioactive decay chain 90 Th nucleus decays to
option(s) is/are correct?
212
82 Pb nucleus. Let N and N be the number of  and – [Use hc=1242 eV nm; 1nm=10-9 m, h and c are Planck’s
particles, respectively, emitted in this decay process. Which constant and speed of light respectively] (2019)
of the following statements is(are) true : (2018) (a) The ratio of kinetic energy of the electron in the state n
(a) N = 5 (b) N = 6 = m to the state n = 1 is 1/4
(b) m = 2
(c) N = 2 (d) N = 4 Δpa
(c) 1 2
Δp e
(d) λ e  418nm
MODERN PHYSICS 63

99. A particle of mass m moves in circular orbits with potential of Balmer and Paschen series
energy V (r) = Fr, where F is a positive constant and r is its (c) The wavelengths of Lyman series are given by
distance from the origin. Its energies are calculated using
the Bohr model. If the radius of the particle’s orbit is denoted  1 
1  2   0 , where 0 is the shortest wavelength of
by R and its speed and energy are denoted by v and E,  m 
respectively, then for the nth orbit (here h is the Planck’s Lyman series and m is an integer
constant) - (2020) (d) The wavelength ranges of Lyman and Balmer series
(a) R  n 1/3
and v  n 2/3 do not overlap (2021)
103. An   particle (mass 4 amu) and a singly charged sulfur
(b) R  n 2/3 and v  n1/3
ion (mass 32 amu) are initially at rest. They are accelerated
1/3 through a potential V and then allowed to pass into a
3  n 2 h 2 F2 
region of uniform magnetic field which is normal to the
(c) E   
2  42 m 
 velocities of the particles. Within the region, the
1/3   particle and the sulfur ion move in circular orbits of
 n 2 h 2 F2 
(d) E  2   radii r and rS, respectively. The ratio (rS / r ) is ______.
2 
 4 m 
(2021)
100. In an X-ray tube, electrons emitted from a filament (cathode)
104. A heavy nucleus N, at rest undergoes fission N  P + Q,
carrying I current I hit a target (anode) at a distance d from
where P and Q are two ligher nuclei. Let
the cathode. The target is kept at a potential V higher than
the cathode resulting in emission of continuous and   M N  M P  M Q , where MP, MQ and MN are the masses
characteristic X-rays. If the filament current I is decreased to of P Q and N, respectively. The speeds of P and Q are vP
1 and vQ, respectively. If c is the speed of light, which of the
, the potential difference V is increased to 2V and the following statement(s) is(are) correct? (2021)
2

d (a) E P  E Q  c2 
separation distance , is reduced to then (2020)
2
 MP  2
(a) the cut-off wavelength will reduce to half, and the (b) E P    c 
wavelengths of the characteristic X-rays will remain the  M P  MQ 
same
(b) the cut-off wavelength as well as the wavelengths of the vP MQ
characteristic X-rays will remain the same (c) v  M
Q P

(c) the cut-off wavelength will reduce to half, and the

(d) The magnitude of momentum for P as well as Q is
intensities of all the X-rays will decrease
(d) the cut-off wavelength will become two times larger, and MP MQ
the intensity of all the X-rays will decrease c 2µ , where µ = (M  M )
P Q

101. A heavy nucleus Q of half-life 20 minutes undergoes alpha-

105. In a photoemission experiment, the maximum kinetic
decay with probability of 60% and beta-decay with
energies of photoelectrons from metals P, Q and R are EP,
probability of 40%. Initially, the number of Q nuclei is
EQ and ER, respectively, and they are related by EP = 2EQ
1000. The number of alpha-decays of Q in the first one
= 2ER. In this experiment, the same source of monochromatic
hour is (2021)
light is used for metals P and Q while a different source of
(a) 50 (b) 75 monochromatic light is used for the metal R. The work
(c) 350 (d) 525 functions for metals P, Q and R are 4.0 eV, 4.5eV and 5.5eV,
102. Which of the following statement(s) is(are) correct respectively. The energy of the incident photon used for
about the spectrum of hydrogen atom? metal R, in eV, is ________. (2021)

(a) The ratio of the longest wavelength to the shortest

wavelength in Balmer series is 9/5
(b) There is an overlap between the wavelength ranges
MODERN PHYSICS 64

106. When light of a given wavelength is incident on a metallic 109. In a radioactive decay chain reaction, 230
Th nucleus
90
surface, the minimum potential needed to stop the emitted 214
decays into 84 Po nucleus. The ratio of the number of α
photoelectrons is 6.0 V. This potential drops to 0.6 V if
to number of   particles emitted in this process
another source with wavelength four times that of the
is_______. (2022)
first one and intensity half of the first one is used. What
110. List-I shows different radioactive decay processes and
are the wavelength of the first source and the work
List-II provides possible emitted particles. Match each
function of the metal, respectively? (2022)
entry in List-I with an appropriate entry from List-II, and
hc choose the correct option. (2023)
[Take  124  106 JmC 1 ].
e

(a) 1.72  10 7 m,1.20eV

(b) 1.72  107 m,5.60eV

(c) 3.78 107 m,5.60eV

(d) 378  107 m,1.20eV

107. The binding energy of nucleons in a nucleus can be (a) P  4, Q  3, R  2, S  1

affected by the pairwise Coulomb repulsion. Assume that (b) P  4, Q  1, R  2, S  5

all nucleons are uniformly distributed inside the nucleus. (c) P  5, Q  3, R  1, S  4
p
Let the binding energy of a proton be E and the binding
b
(d) P  5, Q  1, R  3, S  2
n
energy of a neutron be E in the nucleus.
b
111. A hydrogen-like atom has atomic number Z. Photons
Which of the following statement(s) is(are) correct?
emitted in the electronic transitions from level n = 4 to
(2022)
level n = 3 I these atoms are used to perform photoelectric
p n
(a) E  E is proportional to Z (Z - 1) where Z is the
b b effect experiment on a target metal. The maximum kinetic
atomic number of the nucleus. energy of the photoelectrons generated is 1.95 eV. If the
p n 1/3
(b) E  E is proportional to A
b b where A is the mass phototelectric threshold wavelength for the target metal
number of the nucleus. is 310 nm, the value of Z is ____. [Given:
p n
(c) E  E is positive.
b b
hc  1240 eV  nm and Rhc  13.6eV , where R is the
Rydberg constant, h is the Planck’s constant and c is the
(d) Ebp increases if the nucleus undergoes a beta decay
speed of light in vacuum] (2023)
emitting a positron.
112. In a radioactive decay process, the activity is defined as
108. The minimum kinetic energy needed by an alpha particle
dN
to cause the nuclear reaction 16
N  42 He 11 H 19 O in a A , where N  t  is the number of radioactive
7 8
dt
16
laboratory frame is n (in MeV). Assume that N is at rest
7 nuclei at time t. Two radioactive sources, S1 and S2 have
16 1 19
in the laboratory frame. The masses of 7 N , H and O
1 8 same activity at time t = 0. At a later time, the activities of
can be taken to be 16.006 u, 4.003 u, 1008 u and 19.003 u, S1 and S2 are A1 and A2 , respectively. When S1 and S2
respectively, where 1 u = 930 MeV c-2. The value of n is have just completed their 3rd and 7th half-lives, respectively,
_______. (2022)
A1
the ratio A is _____. (2023)
2
MODERN PHYSICS 65

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1. SEMICONDUCTORS 1.3 Band theory

In case of a single isolated atom, there are single energy
1.1 Introduction to Semiconductor Materials levels in case of solids, the atoms are arranged in a systematic
When the electrons are liberated on breaking the covalent space lattice and hence the atom are greatly influenced by
bonds, they move randomly through the crystal lattice. neighbouring atoms. The closeness of atoms results in the
When an electric field is applied, these free electrons have a intermixing of electrons of neighbouring atoms of course, for
steady drift opposite to the direction of applied field. This the valence electrons in the outermost shells which are not
constitute the electric current. When a covalent bond is strongly bounded by nucleus. Due to intermixing the number
broken, a hole is created. For one electron set free, one hole of permissible energy levels increases or there are significant
is created. Thus, thermal energy creates an electron-hole changes in the energy levels. Hence in case of a solid, instead
pairs. of single energy levels associated with the single atom, there
will be bands of energy levels.
Hence, there are as many holes as free electrons. These
holes move through the crystal lattice in a random fashion 1.4 Valence Band, Conduction Band & Forbidden Energy Gap
like liberated electrons. When an external electric field is The band formed by a series of energy levels containing the
applied, the holes drift in the direction of applied field. Thus valence electrons is known as valence band. The valence
they constitute electric current. band may be defined as a band which is occupied by the
There is a strong tendency of semiconductor crystal to form valence electrons or a band having highest occupied band
a covalent bonds. Therefore, a hole attracts an electron from energy.
the neighbouring atom. Now a valence electron from nearby The conduction band may also be defined as the lowest
covalent bond comes to fill in the hole at A. This results in a unfilled energy band. The separation between conduction
creation of hole at B. The hole has thus effectively shifted band and valence band is known as forbidden energy gap.
from A to B. This hole moves from B to C from C to D and so There is no allowed energy state in this gap and hence no
on. electron can stay in the forbidden energy gap.
This movement of the hole in the absence of an applied field 1.5 Insulators, Semiconductors and Conductors
is random. But when an electric field is applied, the hole On the basis of forbidden energy band, the insulators,
drifts along the applied field. semiconductors and conductors are described as follows:
1.2 Carrier Generation and Recombination 1.5.1 Insulators
The electrons and holes are generated in pairs. The free In case of insulators, the forbidden energy band is very wide,
electrons and holes move randomly within the crystal lattice. due to this electrons cannot jump from valence band to
In such a random motion, there is always a possibility that a conduction band. In insulators the valence electrons are
free electron may have an encounter with a hole. When a bounded very tightly to their parent atoms. So , if there is
free electron meets a hole, they recombine to re-establish the increase in temperature it enables some electrons to go into
covalent bond. In the process of recombination, both the the conduction band.
free electron and hole are destroyed and results in the release
As, energy required is very high, hence, electron jump is
of energy in the form of heat. The energy so released, may in
almost impossible.
turn be re-absorbed by another electron to break its covalent
bond. In this way a new electron hole pair is created.
Thus the process of breaking of covalent bonds and
recombination of electrons and holes take place
simultaneously. When the temperature is increased, the rate
of generation of electrons and holes. This is turn increases,
the densities of electrons and hole increases. As a result,
the conductivity of semiconductor increases or resistivity
decreases. This is the reason that semiconductors have
negative temperature coefficient of resistance. Fig. 11.1

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SEMICONDUCTORS 68

1.5.2 Semiconductors 1.6 Types of Semiconductors

In semiconductors, the forbidden band is very small.
Germanium and silicon are the examples of semiconductors.
A semiconductor material is one whose electrical properties
lies between insulators and good conductors. Even if small
amount of energy is supplied, the electrons can easily jump
from valence band to the conduction band. For example,
when the temperature is increased the forbidden band is
decreased so that some electrons are liberated into the
conduction band.
Hence, semiconducotrs behave as conductors at elevated
temperatures.

Fig. 11.4
1.6.1 Intrinsic semiconductor
A semiconductor which is pure and contains no impurity is
known as an intrinsic semiconductor. In an intrinsic
semiconductor, the number of free electrons and holes are
equal. Common examples of intrinsic semiconductors are pure
germanium and silicon.
1.6.2 Extrinsic Semiconductors
Fig. 11.2 Electrons and holes can be generated in a semiconductor
crystal with heat energy or light energy. But in these cases,
1.5.3 Conductors
the conductivity remains very low. The efficient and
In case of conductors, there is no forbidden energy gap convenient method of generating free electrons and holes is
also the valence energy gap and conduction band overlap to add a very small amount of selected impurity inside the
each other. Here plenty of free electrons are available for crystal. The impurity to be added is of the order of 100 ppm
electric conduction. A slight potential difference across the (parts per million). The process of addition of a very small
conductor can cause the free electrons to constitute electric amount of impurity into an intrinsic semiconductor is called
current. The most important point in conductors is that due doping. The impurity atoms are called dopants. The
to the absence of forbidden band, there is no structure to semiconductor containing impurity atoms is known as impure
establish holes. The total current in conductors is simply or doped or extrinsic semiconductor..
the flow of electrons.
The impurity atoms are added to the semiconductor in its
molten state.
The pure semiconductor is bombarded by ions of impurity
atoms. When the semiconductor crystal containing the
impurity atoms is heated, the impurity atoms diffuse into the
host crystal. Usually, the doping material is either pentavalent
atoms (bismuth, antimony, phosphorous, arsenic which has
five valence electrons). Trivalent atoms (aluminium, gallium,
indium, boron which have three valence electrons). The
pentavalent doping atom is known as donor atom since it
donates one electron to the conduction band of the pure
semiconductor. The trivalent atom is called an acceptor atom
Fig. 11.3 because it accepts one electron from the pure semiconductor
atom.

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N–Type Extrinsic Semiconductor

When a small amount of pentavalent impurity is added to a
pure semiconductor crystal during the crystal growth, the
resulting crystal is called as N-type extrinsic semiconductor.
In case of N-type semiconductor, the following points should
be remembered
(i) In N-type semiconductor, the electrons are the majority
charge carriers while positive holes are minority charge
carriers.
(ii) Although N-type semiconductor has excess of electrons Fig. 11.7
but it is electrically neutral. This is due to the fact that
electrons are created by the addition of neutral
pentavalent impurity atoms to the semiconductor i.e.,
there is no addition of either negative changes or positive
charges.

Fig. 11.8
1.6.3 Semiconductor Current
Current flow in a semiconductor arises from the motion of
charge carriers in both the conduction and valence bands.
The mobile charges in the conduction band are electrons
Fig. 11.5
and those in the valence band are holes. The current is in
general made up of two components, drift current and
diffusion current, although in certain instances one or other
of these two· components may predominate. Drift current
occurs in the presence of an electric field which, as a result of
the force it causes to act on each charge carrier, produces a
net motion of positively charged carriers in the same sense
as the field, and negatively charged carriers in the opposite
sense.
i  ie  i h  n1e A vd 1  n 2 e Avd2
Fig. 11.6 1.6.4 Mobility
P–Type Extrinsic Semiconductor The term mobility in electronics refers to the ability to move.
When a small amount of trivalent impurity is added to a pure Mobility of electron In semiconductors gives the idea of the
crystal during the crystal growth, the resulting crystal is called movement of the electrons in the semiconductor materials. in
a P-type extrinsic semiconductor. this article, we are going to discuss the mobility of electro ns
and holes in the semiconductors and conductors.
In case of P-type semiconductor, the following points should
be remembered Formula of Mobility of charge carriers

(i) In P-type semiconductor materials, the majority carriers Let, after applying an external electric field E, the charge
are positive holes while minority carriers are the electrons. carriers get the drift velocity V. Then the formula for the
mobility of the charge carriers is mu = V/E
(ii) The P–type semiconductor remains electrically neutral
This is the formula of mobility of charges like free electrons,
as the number of mobile holes under all conditions
holes, ions, etc.
remains equal to the number of acceptors.

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Unit of Mobility ni = pi

The SI unit of drift velocity is m/s and the SI unit of the Simply,
electric field is V/m. ni : intrinsic carrier concentration, which refers to either the
Mobility of Electron in Semiconductor and Conductor intrinsic electron or hole concentration

Free electrons move in the conduction band. The mobility of Commonly accepted values of ni at T = 300°K
the electron is the drift velocity of the electron in presence of 10 –3
a unit amount of electric field. We can get the mobility of Silicon 1.5×10 cm
electrons both in conductors and semiconductors. The value 6 –3
Gallium arsenide 1.8×10 cm
of Electron mobility is different in different materials. 13 –3
Germanium 2.4×10 cm
2
Material Mobility of electron in cm /V.s b) Extrinsic Semiconductor
Metals (Al, Cu, Au, Ag) Oct-50
The doing process can greatly alter the electrical
Crystalline Sillicon 1400
characteristics of the semiconductor.
Gallium Arsenide (GaAs) 35000000
This doped semiconductor is called an extrinsic material.
Mobility of Holes in Semiconductor
n-Type Semiconductor (negatively charged electron by
As we all know , there is no hole in a conductor. So, hole adding donor)
mobility is applicable only for semiconductor. Mobility of
p-Type Semiconductor (positively charged hole by adding
holes is the ability of movement of holes in the semiconductor
acceptor)
in presence of an external electric field. The value of the
mobility of holes in crystalline silicon is 450 cm2/V.s c) Mass-Action Law

Mobility of free Electron greater than the Mobility of Hole n0 : thermal-equilibrium concentration of electron in extrensic
semiconductor
Holes are not physical objects. They are the absence of
electrons. So, the movement of holes is nothing but the p0 : thermal-equilibrium concentration of holes in extrensic
movement of electrons in the opposite direction. semiconductor

Now, free electrons move in the conduction band and the ni : concentration of charges in intrensic semiconductor
holes move in the valance band. The binding force of the n0p0 = n12 = f(T)
nucleus on free electrons is smaller than that on the holes (or
(function of temperature)
valence electrons) in the valence band as the valence band
as the valence band is closer to the nucleus. Hence, the free The product of n0 and p0 is always a constant for a given
electrons in the conduction band require a smaller electric semiconductor material at a given temperature.
field to move compared to the holes at the valence band.
Therefore, the mobility of free electrons in conduction band
is greater than that of holes at valence band. 2. P-N JUNCTION DIODE
1.6.5 Carrier Concentration 2.1 P-N Junction and Types of Junction Diodes
a) Intrinsic Semiconductors 2.1.1 P–N Junction Diode
-pure single-crystal material When a P-type material is intimately joined to N-type, a P-N
junction is formed. In fact, merely-joining the two pieces a P-
For an intrinsic semiconductor, the concentration of electrons N junction cannot be formed because the surface films and
in the conduction band is equal to the concentration of holes
other irregularities produce major discontinuity in the crystal
in the valence band.
structure. Therefore a P-N junction is formed from a piece of
We may denote, semiconductor (say germanium) by diffusing P-type material
ni : intrinsic electron concentration to one half side and N-type material to other half side.When
P-type crystal is placed in contact with N-type crystal so as
pi : intrinsic hole concentration to form one piece, the assembly so obtained is called P-N
However, junction diode.

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Fig. 11.9
2.1.2 Types of Junction Diodes
Fig. 11.11
P-N Junction diode under forward Bias This condition represents the low resistance path through
the PN junction allowing very large currents to flow through
When a diode is connected in a forward bias condition, a
the diode with only a small increase in bias voltage. The
negative voltage is applied to the N-type material and a
actual potential difference across the junction or diode is
positive voltage is applied to the P-type material. If this
kept constant by the action of the depletion layer at approxi-
external voltage becomes greater than the value of the mately 0.3v for germanium and approximately 0.7v for silicon
potential barrier, approx. 0.7 volts for silicon and 0.3 volts for junction diodes.
germanium, the potential barriers opposition will be overcome
and current will start to flow. Since the diode can conduct “infinite” current above this
knee point as it effectively becomes a short circuit, therefore
This is because the negative voltage pushes or repels resistors are used in series with the diode to limit its current
electrons towards the junction giving them the energy to flow. Exceeding its maximum forward current specification
cross over and combine with the holes being pushed in the causes the device to dissipate more power in the form of heat
opposite direction towards the junction by the positive than it was designed for resulting in a very quick failure of
voltage. This results in a characteristics curve of zero current the device.
flowing up to this voltage point, called the “knee” on the Forward Characteristics Curve for a Junction Diode
static curves and then a high current flow through the diode
with little increase in the external voltage as shown below.

Reduction in the Depletion Layer due to Forward Bias

Fig. 11.12
The application of a forward biasing voltage on the junction
diode results in the depletion layer becoming very thin and
narrow which represents a low impedance path through the
junction thereby allowing high currents to flow. The point at
which this sudden increase in current takes place is
represented on the static I-V characteristics curve above as
Fig. 11.10 the “knee” point.

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P-N Junction diode under reverse Bias One final point, if the reverse bias voltage Vr applied to the
When a diode is connected in a Reverse Bias condition, a diode is increased to a sufficiently high enough value, it will
positive voltage is applied to the N-type material and a cause the diode’s PN junction to overheat and fail due to the
negative voltage is applied to the P-type material. avalanche effect around the junction. This may cause the
The positive voltage applied to the N-type material attracts diode to become shorted and will result in the flow of maximum
electrons towards the positive electrode and away from the circuit current, and this shown as a step downward slope in
junction, while the holes in the P-type end are also attracted the reverse static characteristics curve below.
away from the junction towards the negative electrode. Reverse Characteristics Curve for a Junction Diode
The net result is that the depletion layer grows wider due to
a lack of electrons and holes and presents a high impedance
path, almost an insulator and a high potential barrier is created
across the junction thus preventing current from flowing
through the semiconductor material.
Increase in the Depletion Layer due to Reverse Bias

Fig. 11.15
Sometimes this avalanche effect has practical applications in
voltage stabilising circuits where a series limiting resistor is
used with the diode to limit this reverse breakdown current
to a preset maximum value thereby producing a fixed voltage
output across the diode. These types of diodes are commonly
known as Zener Diodes.
Fig. 11.13 I-V Characterstic

Fig. 11.14
This condition represents a high resistance value to the PN
junction and practically zero current flows through the
junction diode with an increase in bias voltage. However, a
very small reverse leakage current does flow through the
junction which can normally be measured in micro-amperes,
( µA ). Fig. 11.16

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2.2 Diodes as Rectifiers Note:

An electronic device which converts a.c. power into d.c. Here Frequency of Output signal is equal to frequency of
power is called a rectifier. input signal

2.2.1 Half Wave Rectifier 2.2.2 Full Wave Rectifier

Principle A rectifier which rectifies both halves of a.c. input is called
full wave rectifier.
Junction diode offers low resistive path when forward biased
and high resistive path when reverse biased. Principle

Arrangement Junction Diode offers low resistive path when forward biased
and high resistive path when reverse biased.
The a.c. supply is fed across the primary coil (P) of step
down transformer. The secondary coil ‘S’ of transformer is Arrangement
connected to the junction diode and load resistance RL. The The a.c. supply is fed across the primary coil (P) of step
output d.c. voltage is obtained across RL. down transformer. The two ends of S–coil (secondary) of
Theory transformer are connected to P-section of junction diodes D1
and D2. A load resistance RL is connected across the n–
Suppose that during first half of a.c. input cycle the junction sections of two diodes and central tapping of secondary
diode get forward biased. The conventional current will flow coil. The d.c. output is obtained across secondary.
in the direction of arrow heads.
Theory
P N
Suppose that during first half of input cycle upper end of s-
coil is at +ve potential. The junction diode D1 gets forward
biased, while D2 gets reverse biased. The conventional
current due to D1 will flow along path of full arrows.
~
When second half of input cycle comes, the condition will
be exactly reversed. Now the junction diode D2 will conduct
and the conventional current will flow along path of dotted
arrows. Since current during both the half cycles flows from
right to left through load resistance RL, the output during
Fig. 11.17
both the half cycles will be of same nature.
The upper end of RL will be at +ve potential w.r.t. the lower
The right end of RL is at +ve potential w.r.t. left end. Thus in
end. The magnitude of output across RL during first half at
full wave rectifier, the output is continuous.
any instant will be proportional to magnitude of current
through RL, which in turn is proportional to magnitude of
forward bias and which ultimately depends upon the value
of a.c. input at that time.

A.C.
input

D.C.
input

Fig. 11.18
Thus output across RL will vary in accordance with a.c. input.
During second half, junction diode get reverse biased and
hence no output will be obtained. Thus a discontinuous
supply is obtained. Fig. 11.19

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Note: When no biasing is applied across the Zener diode, the

electrons accumulate in the valence band of the p-type
Here Frequency of Output signal is double to frequency
semiconductor material and no current flow occurs through
of input signal
the diode. The band in which the valence electrons are present
2.3 Special Purpose p-n Junction Diodes is called the valence band electron. When external energy is
applied across the valence band, the electrons get easily
In the section, we shall discuss some devices which are ba-
moved from one band to another.
sically junction diodes but are developed for different appli-
cations. When the reverse bias is applied across the diode and when
the Zener voltage is equal to that of the supplied voltage, the
2.3.1 Zener diode
diode starts conducting in the direction of reverse bias. The
A Zener diode is a semiconductor device which makes the Zener diode voltage is the particular voltage at which the
current flow in the forward or in the backward direction. The depletion region vanishes completely.
diode usually consists of a p-n junction which is heavily
The intensity of the electric field increases across the
doped. The diode is designed to conduct the flow of current
depletion region when the reverse bias is applied across the
in the reverse direction after reaching a specified voltage.
diode. Hence, the electrons are free to move from the valence
The Zener diode has a reverse-breakdown voltage at which band of the P-type semiconductor material to the conduction
the diode starts conductivity electric current, and remains band of the N-type semiconductor material. This movement
continuous in the reverse-bias mode. The voltage drop across of electrons decreases the barrier between p type and n type
the diode always remains constant irrespective of the applied materials. Once the depletion region vanishes completely,
voltage, and this feature of the Zener diode makes it suitable the diode starts conducting current in the reverse bias
for voltage regulation. direction.
Zener Diode Circuit Diagram VI Characteristics of Zener Diode
The VI characteristics of the Zener diode is described through
the graph, mentioned in the figure below. This shows that
the Zener diode behaves like an ordinary diode when it is
connected in forward bias. But when the reverse voltage is
applied across the Zener diode, such that the reverse voltage
rises beyond the predetermined rating, breakdown occurs
on the Zener diode.
The electric current starts to flow in the reverse direction at
the breakdown voltage of the Zener diode. The graph
represents that the Zener diode has resistance. Further, it is
shown that the graph of Zener breakdown is not exactly
vertical. The voltage across the Zener diode is represented
by the equation given by.
Fig. 11.20
The above figure is the circuit diagram of Zener diode. The V = VZ + IZRZ
Zener diode has its application in reverse biasing. In reverse
biasing the P-type material of the diode is connected with
the negative terminal of the supply, and the n-type material is
connected with the positive terminal of the supply. The diode
consists of a very thin depletion region as it is made up of
heavily doped semiconductor material.
Zener Diode Working
In a Zener diode, high-level impurities are added to the
semiconductor material to make it more conductive. Due to
the presence of these impurities, the depletion region of the
diode becomes very thin. The intensity of the electric field is
increased across the depletion region, due to heavy doping
even if a small voltage is applied. Fig. 11.21

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Applications of Zener Diode Photodiode

The major use of Zener diode is in industrial and commercial A Photodiode is again a special purpose p-n junction diode
applications. These are some of the important applications fabricated with a transparent window to allow light to fall on
of the Zener diode. the diode. It is operated under reverse bias. When the
photodiode is illuminated with light (photons) with energy
As Voltage Stabilizer – The Zener diode is used for voltage (hv) greater than the enrgy gap (Eg) of the semiconductor,
regulation. It converts the fluctuating voltage of the source
then electron-hole pairs are generated due to the absorption
to a constant voltage and supplies it to the load. The Zener
of photons. The diode is fabricated such that the generation
diode is always connected in parallel with the load, and it
of e-h pairs takes place in or near the depletion region of the
maintains a constant voltage VZ, thus stabilizing the voltage.
diode. Due to electric field of the junction, electrons and
For Meter Protection – In multimeters, the Zener diode is holes are separated before they recombine. The direction of
used to control the movement of the meter against any the electric field is such that electrons reach n-side and holes
accidental overloads. The multimeter is connected in parallel reach p-side. Electrons are collected on n-side and holes are
with the Zener diode. When the overload occurs across the collected on p-side giving rise to an emf. When an external
diode, the major amount of current passes through the diode, load is connected, current flows. The magnitude of the
and in this way, the diode protects the meter from damage. photocurrent depends on the intensity of incident light
(photocurrent is proportional to incident light intensity).
For Wave Shaping – A sine wave is converted into a square
wave by using the Zener diode. This is done by connecting It is easter to observe the change in the current with change
two Zener Diodes in series with the resistance of the circuit. in the light intensity, if a reverse bias is applied. Thus photo-
It should be noted that the diode must be connected back to diode can be used as a photodetector to detect optical sig-
back and in the opposite direction to each other. nals. The circuit diagram used for the measurement of I-V
characteristics of a photodiode is shown in Fig. 11.22 and
Zener Breakdown typical I-V characteristics in Fig. 11.23
The Zener breakdown occurs either due to the Zener
breakdown effect which occurs when the voltage is below
5.5 V or due to the impact of ionization which occurs above
5.5 V. Both of these mechanisms occur in the same circuit.
However, they have different temperature coefficients.
The impact effect has a positive temperature coefficient, while
the Zener effect has a negative temperature coefficient. The
two temperature effects occur at an equal voltage of around
5.5V and cancel out each other, thus making the zener diode
operate at 5.5V.

2.4 Optoelectronic Junction Devices

Optoelectronic junction devices are p-n junction devices in Fig. 11.22

which, carriers are generated by photons. Photodiodes, light
emitting diodes (LEDs) and solar cells are examples of
optoelectronic devices.

(i) Photodiodes used for detecting optical signal

(photodetectors).

(ii) Light emitting diodes (LED) which convert electrical

energy into light.

(iii) Photovoltaic devices which convert optical radiation into

electricity (solar cells).

Fig. 11.23

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LED
A light-emitting diode (LED) is a semiconductor light source
that emits light when current flows through it. Electrons in
the semiconductor recombine with electron holes, releasing
energy in the form of photons. The color of the light
(corresponding to the energy of the photons) is determined
by the energy required for electrons to cross the band gap of
the semiconductor. White light is obtained by using multiple
semiconductors or a layer of light-emitting phosphor on the
semiconductor device.

Fig. 11.25

3. TRANSISTORS
3.1 Introduction to Transistors
It is three sectioned semiconductor, in which three sections
are combined so that the two at extreme ends have the same
type of majority carriers, while the section that separates
Fig. 11.24 them has the majority carriers in opposite nature. The three
LEDs have the following advantages over conventional sections of transistor are called emitter (E), Base (B), collector
incandescent low power lamps: (C).

(i) Low operational voltage and less power. Symbol :

(ii) Fast action and no warm-up time required. E n–p–n C E p–n–p C

(iii) The bandwidth of emitted light is 100 Å to 500 Å or in
other words it is nearly (but not exactly) monochromatic.
(iv) Long life and ruggedness.
–
(v) Fast on-off switching capability. B B
Solar Cell Fig. 11.26
A solar cell, or photovoltaic cell, is an electrical device that 3.2 Working of Transistors
converts the energy of light directly into electricity by the
photovoltaic effect, which is a physical and chemical Action of n-p-n Transistor
phenomenon. It is a form of photoelectric cell, defined as a
device whose electrical characteristics, such as current, n–p–n
voltage, or resistance, vary when exposed to light. Individual Ie E C Ic
solar cell devices are often the electrical building blocks of
photovoltaic modules, known colloquially as solar panels.
The common single junction silicon solar cell can produce a
maximum open-circuit voltage of approximately 0.5 volts to
0.6 volts. V EB VCB
B Ib
Solar cells are described as being photovoltaic, irrespective – + – +
of whether the source is sunlight or an artificial light. In addition forward bias reverse bias
to producing energy, they can be used as a photodetector
(for example infrared detectors), detecting light or other Fig. 11.27
electromagnetic radiation near the visible range, or measuring
Fig. shows that, the n-type emitter is forward biased by
light intensity.
connecting it to -ve pole of VEB (emmitter-base battery) and n-
The operation of a photovoltaic (PV) cell requires type collector is reverse biased by connected it to +ve pole
of VCB (collector-base battery).

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The majority carriers (e–) in emitter are repelled towards base Low input voltage is applied across emitter-base circuit. and
due to forward biase. The base contains holes as majority amplified signal is obtained across collector-base circuit. If
carriers but their number density is small as it is doped very Ie, Ib, Ic be the emitter, base and collector-current respectively
lightly (5%) as compared to emitter and collector. Due to this then,
the probability of e– and hole combination in base is small.
Most of e– (95%) cross into collector region where they are Ie  Ib  Ic …(i)
swept away by +ve terminal of battery VCB.
When current Ic flows in collector circuit, a potential drop
Corresponding to each electron that is swept by collector, an IcRc occurs across the resistance connected in collector -
electron enters the emitter from -ve pole of collector – base base circuit and base collector voltage will be
battery.
If Ie, Ib, Ic be emitter, base and collector current respectively Vcb  Vcc  Ic R c …(ii)
then using Kirchoff first law
(b) Amplifier circuit using p–n–p Transistor
Ie  I b  Ic
Action p–n–p Transistor
The p–type emitter is forward biased by connecting it to +ve
pole of emitter-base battery and p–type collector is reverse
biased by connected it to –ve pole of collector-base battery.
In this case, majority carriers in emitter i.e. holes are repelled
towards base due to forward biased. As base is lightly doped,
it has low number density of e–. When hole enters base
region, then only 5% of e– and hole combination take place. Fig. 11.30
Most of the holes reach the collector and are swept away by 1. When the positive half cycle of input a.c. signal voltage
–ve pole of VCB battery. comes, it supports the forward biasing of the emitter–base
circuit. Due to this, the emitter current increases and
consequently the collector current increases.
2. As Ic increases, the collector voltage Vc decreases.
3. Since the collector is connected to the negative terminal
of VCC battery of voltage VCB, therefore, the decrease in
collector voltage means the collector will become less
negative. This indicates that during positive half cycle of
Fig. 11.28 input a.c. signal voltage, the output signal voltage at the
3.3 Transistors as Amplifiers collector also varies through the positive half cycle.
3.3.1 Common base Amplifier 4. During negative half cycle of input a.c. signal voltage, the
In this base of the transistor is common to both emitter and output signal voltage at the collector also varies through
collector. the negative half cycle. Thus in common base transitor
(a) Amplifier circuit using n-p-n transistor : The emitter amplifier circuit the input signal voltage and the output
is forward biased using emitter base battery (VEB) & due to collector voltage are in the same phase.
this, resistance of output circuit is large.
3.3.2 Common Emitter Amplifier
n-p-n Amplifier circuit using n–p-n transitor
Input Ie E C Ic Output
voltage IR
cc voltage 1. The input (emitter base) circuit is forward biased with
Rc
~ Vcb battery VBB of voltage VEB, and the output (collector-
+ emitter) circuit is reversed biased with battery VCC of
VEB Vcc
B Ib – voltage VCE. Due to this, the resistance of input circuit is
– + low and that of output circuit is high. Rc is a load resistance
Fig. 11.29 connected in collector circuit.

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2. When no a.c. signal voltage is applied to the input circuit Power gain : It is defined as the ratio of change in output
but emitter base circuit is closed let us consider, that Ie, Ib power to the change in input power. Therefore,
and Ic be the emitter current, base current and collector
current respectively. Then according to Kirchhoff’s first change in output power

I c  R out
a.c. power gain =
law Ie = Ib + Ic change in input power I e  R in
I c2 Rout
 
I 2e Rin
2
Or a.c. power gain = αac × resistance gain.

3.3.4 Current and Voltage Gain in Common Ammeter

Amplifier
Fig. 11.31 a.c. current gain : It is defined as the ratio of the change in
3. When the positive half cycle of input a.c. signal voltage collector to the change in base current. It is denoted by ac.
comes, it supports the forward biasing of the emitter-base
circuit. Due to this, the emitter current increases and  Ic 
Therefore, ac =  I  [Vce = const.]
consequently the collector current increases. As a result  b v
of which, the collector voltage Vc decreases.
Its value is quite large as compared to 1 and lies between 15
4. Since the collector is connected to the positive terminal of to 50.
VCE battery, therefore decreases in collector voltage means
the collector will become less positive, which means Voltage gain : It is the ratio of the change in output voltage to
negative with respect to initial value. This indicates that the change in input voltage. It is denoted by A.
during positive half cycle of input a.c. signal voltage, the
output signal voltage at the collector varies through a
I c  R out 
I c R out

Av =
negative half cycle. I b  R in I b R in

5. When negative half cycle of input a.c. signal voltage Or Av = ac × resistance gain.
comes, it opposes the forward biasing of emitter-base
circuit, due to this the emitter current decreases and hence a.c. power gain : It is the ratio of the change in output power
collector current decreases; consequently the collector to the change in input power.
voltage Vc increases i.e., the collector becomes more
change in output power I c  R out
2
positive. This indicate that during the negative half cycle a.c. power gain = =
of input a.c. signal voltage, the output signal voltage varies change in input power I b 2 R in
through positive half cycle.
Or a.c. power pain = 2ac × resistance gain.
3.3.3 Current and Voltage Gain in Common Base amplifier
3.3.5 Relation between  and 
A.C. Current Gain : It is defined as the ratio of change in
collector current and the change in emitter current at constant For both the types of amplifier, we have
base to collect voltage. It is denoted by ac
ie = ib + ic
 I  Dividing both sides of the above equation by Ic, we get
 ac   c  [V = const.]
 CB
 I e 
ie ib
Voltage gain : It is defined as the ratio of change in output  1
ic ic
voltage to the change in input voltage. It is denoted by Av.

I c  R out 
I c R out

 1/ = (1/) + 1 or 1/ = (1/) 1 = (1)/
Av =
I e  R in I e R in or  = / (1)
Or Av = AC × resistance gain, 
Rearranging also gives another relation i.e.  
where Rout/Rin is called resistance gain.  1

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4. LOGIC GATES OR Gate

4.1 Types of Signal OR gate is an electronic device that combines A and B to

give Y as output. In this figure two inputs are A and B and
Analog Signals output is Y. In Boolean algebra OR is represented by +.
Signals which varies continuously with time is called analog
signal. A typical analog signal is shown in figure. Circuit
used for generating analog signal is called analog electronic A
Y=A+B
circuit. B
V
Fig. 11.34
0 t
Truth Table: A truth table may be defined as the table which
gives the output state for all possible input combinations.
V
Logic operations of OR gate are given in its truth table for all
0 t possible input combinations.

Input Output
Fig. 11.32
A B Y
Digital Signals
0 0 0
Signals having either of the two levels, 0 or 1, are called 0 1 1
digital signals. 1 0 1
V 1 1 1
5V
1 AND Gate
0V
0 t
In an AND gate there are two or more inputs and one output.
In Boolean algebra AND is represented by a dot (.).
V

0 t A
0V Y=A. B
B
1 (–5V)
Fig. 11.33 Fig. 11.35
4.2 Logic Gates Truth Table
A digital circuit which either stops a signal or allows it to
pass through it is called a gate. A logic gate is an electronic
circuit which makes logical decisions. Logic gate has one or In put Output
more inputs but one output. Logic gates are the basic building A B Y
blocks for most of the digital systems. Variables used at the 0 0 0
input and output are 1’s and 0’s. These are three basic logic 0 1 0
gates:
1 0 0
(i) OR gate (ii) AND gate 1 1 1
(iii) NOT gate.

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NOT Gate Truth Table :

NOT gate is an electronic circuit which has one input and
In put Output
one output. This circuit is so called because output is NOT
A B Y
the same as input.
0 0 1
0 1 0
–
A Y=A 1 0 0
1 1 0
Fig. 11.36 NAND Gate
Boolean expression for NOT gate is Y = A . A NAND gate has two or more inputs and one output.
Actually a NAND gate is a NOT–AND gate. If a NOT gate is
Truth Table:
connected at the output of an AND gate, we get NAND gate
as shown in figure and its truth table is given in table.
In put Output
A Y
A Y' = A . B Y
0 1
1 0 B Y = A+B

NOR Gate Fig. 11.39

A NOR gate has two or more inputs and one output. Actually
A B Y Y
NOR gate is a NOT-OR gate. If a NOT gate is connected at
the output of an OR gate, we get NOR gate as shown in 0 0 0 1
figure and its truth table is shown as under in the table. 0 1 0 1
1 0 0 1
Y 1 1 1 0
A Y' = A+B
B Y = A+B XOR Gate
XOR gate (sometimes EOR, or EXOR and pronounced as
Fig. 11.37 Exclusive OR) is a digital logic gate that gives a true (1 or
Truth Table : HIGH) output when the number of true inputs is odd. An
XOR gate implements an exclusive or from mathematical logic;
Y that is, a true output results if one, and only one, of the
A B Y
inputs to the gate is true. If both inputs are false (0/LOW) or
0 0 0 1
both are true, a false output results. XOR represents the
0 1 1 0 inequality function, i.e., the output
1 0 1 0
1 1 1 0

Boolean expression for NOT gate is Y = A  B and it is read Fig. 11.40

as Y equals A OR B negated. A NOR function is the reverse
of OR function. Input Outpout
A B A XOR B
A 0 0 0
Y = A+B 0 1 1
B
1 0 1
1 1 0
Fig. 11.38

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SUMMARY

1. SEMICONDUCTORS diffusion current, although in certain instances one or other

of these two· components may predominate. Drift current
Introduction to Semiconductor Materials
occurs in the presence of an electric field which, as a result of
When the electrons are liberated on breaking the covalent the force it causes to act on each charge carrier, produces a
bonds, they move randomly through the crystal lattice. net motion of positively charged carriers in the same sense
When an electric field is applied, these free electrons have a as the field, and negatively charged carriers in the opposite
steady drift opposite to the direction of applied field. This sense.
constitute the electric current. When a covalent bond is
Mobility
broken, a hole is created. For one electron set free, one hole
is created. Thus, thermal energy creates an electron-hole The term mobility in electronics refers to the ability to move.
pairs. Mobility of electron In semiconductors gives the idea of the
Band theory movement of the electrons in the semiconductor materials. in
In case of a single isolated atom, there are single energy this article, we are going to discuss the mobility of electro ns
levels in case of solids, the atoms are arranged in a systematic and holes in the semiconductors and conductors.
space lattice and hence the atom are greatly influenced by Carrier Concentration
neighbouring atoms. The closeness of atoms results in the c) Mass-Action Law
intermixing of electrons of neighbouring atoms of course, n0 : thermal-equilibrium concentration of electron
for the valence electrons in the outermost shells which are p0 : thermal-equilibrium concentration of holes
not strongly bounded by nucleus. Due to intermixing the n0p0 = n12 = f(T)
number of permissible energy levels increases or there are
(function of temperature)
significant changes in the energy levels. Hence in case of a
The product of n0 and p0 is always a constant for a given
solid, instead of single energy levels associated with the single
semiconductor material at a given temperature.
atom, there will be bands of energy levels.

Types of Semiconductors
2. P-N JUNCTION DIODE
When a P-type material is intimately joined to N-type, a P-N
junction is formed. In fact, merely-joining the two pieces a P-
N junction cannot be formed because the surface films and
other irregularities produce major discontinuity in the crystal
structure. Therefore a P-N junction is formed from a piece of
semiconductor (say germanium) by diffusing P-type material
to one half side and N-type material to other half side.When
P-type crystal is placed in contact with N-type crystal so as
to form one piece, the assembly so obtained is called P-N
junction diode.
Diodes as Rectifiers
Semiconductor Current
An electronic device which converts a.c. power into d.c.
Current flow in a semiconductor arises from the motion of
power is called a rectifier.
charge carriers in both the conduction and valence bands.
The mobile charges in the conduction band are electrons Rectifiers can be of two types.
and those in the valence band are holes. The current is in 1. Half Wave Rectifiers
general made up of two components, drift current and 2. Full Wave Rectifiers

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SEMICONDUCTORS
SEMICONDUCTORS 82

Special Purpose p-n Junction Diodes 4. LOGIC GATES

Zener diode A digital circuit which either stops a signal or allows it to
A Zener diode is a semiconductor device which makes the pass through it is called a gate. A logic gate is an electronic
current flow in the forward or in the backward direction. The circuit which makes logical decisions. Logic gate has one or
diode usually consists of a p-n junction which is heavily more inputs but one output. Logic gates are the basic building
doped. The diode is designed to conduct the flow of current blocks for most of the digital systems. Variables used at the
in the reverse direction after reaching a specified voltage. input and output are 1’s and 0’s. These are three basic logic
Optoelectronic Junction Devices gates:
Optoelectronic junction devices are p-n junction devices in (i) OR gate (ii) AND gate (iii) NOT gate.
which, carriers are generated by photons. Photodiodes, light
emitting diodes (LEDs) and solar cells are examples of
optoelectronic devices.
(i) Photodiodes used for detecting optical signal
(photodetectors).
(ii) Light emitting diodes (LED) which convert electrical energy
into light.
(iii) Photovoltaic devices which convert optical radiation into
electricity (solar cells).

3. TRANSISTORS
Introduction to Transistors
It is three sectioned semiconductor, in which three sections
are combined so that the two at extreme ends have the same
type of majority carriers, while the section that separates
them has the majority carriers in opposite nature. The three
sections of transistor are called emitter (E), Base (B), collector
(C).
Symbol :

E n–p–n C E p–n–p C

–
B B

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SEMICONDUCTORS
SEMICONDUCTORS 83

EXERCISE - 1 : BASIC OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS

Semiconductor Electronic Device 8. In pure form, Ge or Si, a semiconductor is called:
Semiconductor (a) intrinsic semiconductor, ne = nh = ni

1. A piece of copper and another of germanium are cooled (b) extrinsic semiconductor, ne = nh = ni
from room temperature to 77K, the resistance of (c) doped semiconductor
(a) copper increases and germanium decreases (d) p-type if ne < nh and n-type if ne > nh
(b) each of them decreases 9. If I is total current through an intrinsic semiconductor and
Ie is electron current and Ih is hole current, then :
(c) each of them increases
(d) copper decreases and germanium increases Ih Ie
(a) Ie  (b) I  I
2. One serious drawback of semiconductor devices is, that : I h

(a) they are costly (c) Ie – Ih = I (d) Ie + Ih = I

(b) they pollute the environment 10. In equilibrium condition, the rate of generation of electron-
(c) they do not last for long time hole pairs:
(d) they cannot be used to withstand high voltage. (a) is more than rate of recombination of electron and hole
3. By increasing the temperature, the specific resistance of a pairs
conductor and a semiconductor (b) is less than rate of recombination of electron and hole
(a) increases for both (b) decreases for both pairs
(c) increases, decreases (d) decreases, increases (c) equals to rate of recombination of electron and hole
pairs
4. At absolute zero, Si acts as :
(d) is always zero
(a) non-metal (b) metal
(c) insulator (d) None of these 11. A pure semicondutor behaves as a good conductor at :

5. A pure semiconductor at room temperature has (a) room remperature (b) low temperature
3
(a) more electrons/m in its conduction band than holes/ (c) high temperature (d) Both (b) and (c)
3
m in its valence band. 12. The probability of electrons to be found in the conduction
3
(b) more electrons/m in its conduction band than a typical band of an intrinsic semicondutor at a finite temperature:
metal. (a) decreases with increasing band gap.
3
(c) more electrons/m in its valence band than at T = 0 K. (b) increases with increasing band gap.
(d) None of the above. (c) decreases with increasing temperature.
6. An n-type and p-type silicon semiconductor can be (d) is independent of the temperature and the band gap.
obtained by doping pure silicon with :
13. The gap between the valence and conduction bands of a
(a) sodium and magnesium, respectively certain semiconductor is 0.85 eV. When this semiconductor
(b) phosphorus and boron, respectively is used to form a light emitting diode, the wavelength of
(c) boron and phosphorus, respectively the light emitted.
–6
(d) indium and sodium, respectively (a) is in a range above 1.5×10 m
–6
7. At elevated temperature, few of covalent bonds of Si or (b) is in a range below 1.5×10 m
Ge are broken and a vacancy in the bond is created. (c) is always 1.5×10 m
–6

Effective charge of vacancy or hole is : –6

(d) is in a range centered on 1.5×10 m.
(a) positive
14. Carbon is more resistive than germanium and silicon. Then,
(b) negative
order of energy gap is :
(c) neutral
(a) C > Ge > Si (b) C > Si > Ge
(d) sometimes positive and sometimes negative
(c) Si > Ge > C (d) C = Si = Ge
SEMICONDUCTORS 84

15. If ne is number density of electrons in conduction band 21. In the reverse-biased p-n junction, the current is of the
and nh is number density of holes in valence band, then for order of :
an extrinsic semiconductor at room temperature, (ni = (a) ampere (b) milliampere
number density of intrinsic pairs) (c) microampere (d) nanoampere
ne 2 nh 2 22. The depletion layer in the p-n junction region is
(a) n  n i (b) n  n i caused by:
h e
(a) drift of holes
(c) n e n h  n i2 (d) n e  n h  n i2
(b) diffusion of charge carriers
16. The forbidden energy gap in the energy bands of (c) migration of impurity ions
germanium at room temperature is about :
(d) drift of electrons
(a) 1.1 eV (b) 0.1 eV
23. Due to diffusion of electrons from n to p-side,
(c) 0.72 eV (d) 6.7 eV
I. electron-hole combination across p-n junction occurs.
17. When germanium is doped with phosphorus, the doped
II. an ionised acceptor is left in the p-region.
material has :
III. an ionised donor is left in the n-region.
(a) excess positive charge
IV. electrons of n-side comes to p-side and electron-hole
(b) excess negative charge combination takes palce in p-side
(c) more negative charge carriers Correct options are :
(d) more positive charge carriers (a) I and II (b) II and III
18. In a p-type semiconductor, the majority and minority charge (c) II and IV (d) II, III and IV
carriers are respectively,
24. Which of these are correct ?
(a) protons and electrons
I. In forward biasing, holes from p-side crosses junction
(b) electrons and protons and reach n-side.
(c) electrons and holes II. In forward biasing, electrons from n-side crosses
(d) holes and electrons junction and reach p-side.
19. Which statement is correct ? III. In n-side, holes are minority charge carriers.
(a) n-type germanium is negatively charged and p-type IV. In p-side, electrons are minority charge carriers.
germanium is positively charged (a) I, II and III (b) I, III and IV
(b) both n-type and p-type germanium are neutral. (c) II, III and IV (d) I, II, III and IV
(c) n-type germanium is positively charged and p-type 25. Which of the given statements are correct regarding
germanium is negatively charged unbiased p-n junction ?
(d) both n-type and p-type germanium are negatively I. Drift and diffusion currents occur p to n-side.
charged II. Initially, diffusion current is large and drift current is
20. The forward characteristic of p-n junction is shown in the small.
figure. What is the dynamical resistance of p-n junction at III. Finally, diffusion and drift current grow to be equal in
0.9 V ? magnitude
IV. Under equilibrium there is no net current across p-n
junction plane.
(a) I and IV (b) I, II and III
(c) II, III and IV (d) All of these
26. A silicon specimen is made into a p-type semiconductor
7
by doping, on an average, one Indium atom per 5×10
silicon atoms. If the number density of atoms in the silicon
28 3
specimen is 5×10 atoms/m , then the number of acceptor
atoms in silicon per cubic centimeter is :
30 3 13 3
(a) 2.5×10 atoms/cm (b) 1.0×10 atoms/cm
(a) 130 (b) 100 15 3 36 3
(c) 1.0×10 atoms/cm (d) 2.5×10 atoms/cm
(c) 50 (d) 30
SEMICONDUCTORS 85

27. Acceptor atoms introduced into a pure semiconductor at 32. Symbol of a p-n junction diode is an arrow, its direction
room temperature : indicates :
(a) increase the number of electrons in the conduction band
(b) increase the number of holes in the valence band
(c) lower the Fermi level.
(a) nothing its just a symbol
(d) increase the electrical resistivity.
(b) direction of flow of electrons
28. An n-type and p-type silicon can be obtained by doping
pure silicon with : (c) direction of conventional current when it is forward
biased
(a) arsenic and phosphorous, respectively
(d) direction of electric field
(b) indium and aluminium, respectively
33. In forward bias, forward current obtained from the p-n
(c) phosphorous and indium, respectively
junction diode is :
(d) aluminium and boron, respectively
(a) due to injection of electrons in p-side
P-N Junction Diodes
(b) due to injection of holes in n-side
29. Find VAB for the following circuit (consider ideal diode):
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) due to flow of electrons from negative terminal of
supply to its positive terminal
34. For the given circuit of p-n junction diode, which of the
following statement is correct ?

(a) 10 V (b) 20 V
(c) 30 V (d) None of these
30. Two ideal p-n junction diodes are connected in an electrical
circuit with resistances to a battery of 12V as shown in the
figure. What will be the current flowing in the circuit?

(a) in forward biasing, the voltagte across R is V

(b) In forward biasing, the voltatge across R is 2V
(c) In reverse biasing, the voltage across R is V
(d) In reverse biasing, the voltage across R is 2V
35. Which of the following is NOT true when a reverse bias is
applied to a p-n junction ?
(a) Electrons flow from the p to the n side.
(a) 0.2A (b) 1.7A
(b) Holes flow from the p to the n side.
(c) 2A (d) 2.4A
(c) the electric field in the depletion zone increases
31. In forward biasing of the p-n junction,
(d) The potential difference across the depletion zone
(a) the positive terminal of the battery is connected to
increases
p-side and the depletion region becomes thin.
36. Reverse bias applied to a junction diode
(b) the positive terminal of the battery is connected to
p -side and the depletion region becomes thick. (a) raises the potential barrier
(c) the positive terminal of the battery is connected to (b) increases the minority carriers of current
n-side and the depletion region becomes thin. (c) increases the majority carriers of current
(d) the positive terminal of the battery is connected to (d) lowers the potential barrier
n-side and the depletion region becomes thick.
SEMICONDUCTORS 86

37. Zener diode is used for : 42. A sinusoidal voltage of peak value 200 V is connected to a
(a) rectification (b) amplification diode and resistor R in the cirucuit shown so that half-
wave rectification occurs. If the forward resistance of the
(c) stabilization (d) modulation
diode is negligible compared to R, the rms voltage (in volt)
38. A Zener diode is connected to a battery and a load as across R is approximately :
shown below:
The currents I, IZ and IL are respectively

(a) 200 (b) 100

(c) 200 / 2 (d) 280

(a) 12.5 mA, 7.5 mA, 5 mA 43. A p-n photodiode is fabricated from a semiconductor with
a band gap of 2.5 eV. It can detect a signal of wavelength:
(b) 15 mA, 7.5 mA, 7.5 mA
(a) 4000 nm (b) 6000 nm
(c) 12.5 mA, 5 mA, 7.5 mA
(c) 4000 Å (d) 6000 Å
(d) 15 mA, 5 mA, 10 mA
44. When the forward bias voltage of a diode is changed from
39. A zener diode differs from a p-n junction that 0.6 V to 0.7 V the current changes from 5 mA to 15 mA.
(a) zener diode is made from very lightly doped p-n junction Then its forward bias resistance is :
(b) zener diode is made from a heavily doped p-n junction (a) 0.01  (b) 0.1 
(c) zener diode is made from a metal piece (c) 10  (d) 100 
45. In the given circuit, if the forward voltage drop for the
(d) zener diode is made from a heavily doped p-type
diode is 0.5 V, the current is
semiconductor
40. Dynamic resistance of a diode is given by :

V
(a) rd 
I

V
(b) rd  
I
(a) 3.4 mA (b) 2 mA
Threshold voltage (c) 2.5 mA (b) 3 mA
(c) rd  46. Current in the circuit shown here is
Current
(assume diodes are ideal):
Breakdown voltage
(d) rd 
Current
41. The electrical circuit used to get smooth DC output from a
rectifier circuit is called :
(a) oscillator (b) filter
(c) amplifier (d) logic gates
(a) (5/40) A (b) (5/50)A
(c) (5/10) A (d) (5/20) A
SEMICONDUCTORS 87

47. The reverse breakdown voltage of the Zener diode is 5.6 V 51. A transistor connected in common emitter configuration
in the given circuit. has input resistance RCE = 2 and load resistance of 5
k. If  = 60 and an input signal 12 mV is applied, calculate
the voltage gain, the power gain and the value of output
voltage.

The current I Z through the Zener (in mA) is:

48. The reading of the ammeter (in mA) (correct to one decimal
place after decimal) for a silicon diode (barrier potential (a) AV = 150, Vout = 1.8 V, and power gain = 9000
diff = 0.7V) in the given circuit is
(b) AV = 20, Vout = 1 V, and power gain = 2000
(c) AV = 150, Vout = 1.5 V, and power gain = 8500
(d) AV = 20, Vout = 1.5 V, and power gain = 2000
52. An n-p-n transistor circuit is arranged as shown in figure.
It is :

Transistors
49. The emitter of transistor is doped the heaviest because it:
(I) acts as a supplier of charges carriers. (a) a common-base amplifier circuit

(II) dissipates maximum powder. (b) a common-emitter amplifier circuit

(c) a common-collector amplifier circuit
(III) has a large resistance.
(d) none of the above
(IV) has small resistance. 53. A transistor is used in common-emitter mode as an
Which of the above statements are correct ? amplifer. Then :
(a) the base-collector junction is forward biased
(a) I and IV (b) I, II and III
(b) the base-emitter junction is reverse biased
(c) I and III (d) None of these
(c) the input signal is connected in series with the voltage
50. When a transistor is biased as follows: applied to the base-emitter junction
(d) the input signal is connected in series with the voltage
applied to the base-collector junction
54. A n-p-n transistor power amplifier in CE configuration
gives
(a) voltage amplification only
(b) currents amplification only
Then, it is said to be in :
(c) both current and voltage amplification
(a) solid state (b) active state (d) only
(c) inactive state (d) passive state
SEMICONDUCTORS 88

55. A transistor having a  equal to 80 has a change in base 62. The correct relationship between the two current gains 
current of 250  amp, then the change in collector current and  in a transistor is :
is :
 
(a) (280/80)  amp (b) (250 + 80)  amp (a)   (b)  
  
(c) (250 – 80)  amp (d) 250 × 80  amp
  
56. In an n-p-n transistor circuit, the collector current is 9 mA. (c)   (d)  
  
If 90% of the electrons emitted reach the collector, then
the emitter current is : 63. The current gain of the common base n-p-n transistor is
(a) 10 mA (b) 9 mA 0.96. What is the curent gain if it is used as common-emitter
amplifier ?
(c) 8 mA (d) 8.1 mA
(a) 16 (b) 24
57. In the case of constant  and  of transistor :
(c) 20 (d) 32
(a)  (b) 
64. The current gain for a transistor working as common base
(c)  (d)  amplifier is 0.96. If the emitter current is 7.2 mA, then the
58. In an n-p-n circuit transistor, the collector current is 10 base current is :
mA. If 80% electrons emitted reach the collector, then : (a) 0.29 mA (b) 0.35 mA
(a) the emitter current will be 7.5 mA (c) 0.39 mA (d) 0.43 mA
(b) the base current will be 2.5 mA 65. When the emitter current of a transistor is changed by 1
mA, its collector current changes by 0.990 mA. The
(c) the base current will be 3.5 mA common base short current gain  for the transistor is:
(d) the emitter current will be 15 mA (a) 0.099 (b) 1.01
59. In a common base amplifier, the phase difference between (c) 1.001 (d) 0.990
the input signal voltage and output voltage is 66. A transistor is operated in common emitter configuration
(a)  (b)  at constant collector voltage Vc = 1.5 V, such that a change
(c)  (d) 0 in the base current from 100 A to 150 A produces a
change in the collector current from 5 mA to 10 mA. The
60. The current gain  of a transistor in common base mode is current gain  is :
0.995. It gain  in the common emitter mode is
(a) 50 (b) 67
(a) 200 (b) 99 (c) 75 (d) 100
(c) 0.995 (d) None of these 67. In common emitter amplifier, the current gain is 62. The
61. For a transistor, in a common-emitter arrangement, the AC collector resistance and input resistance are 5 k and 500
current gain  is given by : respectively. If the input voltage is 0.01 V, the output
voltage.
(a)    Ic / IB vc  constant
(a) 0.62 V (b) 6.2 V
(b)    IB / Ic vc  constant (c) 62 V (d) 620 V
68. When npn transistor is used as an amplifier.
(c)    Ic / Ie  vc  constant (a) electrons move from collector to base
(b) holes move from emitter to base
(d)    Ie / Ic  vc  constant
(c) electrons move from the base to collector
(d) holes move from base to emitter
69. The minimum potential difference between the base and
emitter required to switch a silicon transistor ‘ON’ is
approximately
(a) 1 V (b) 3 V
(c) 5 V (d) 4.2 V
SEMICONDUCTORS 89

70. In an n-p-n transistor circuit, the collector current is 10 75. In the given circuit, the output Y becomes zero for the
mA. If 80% of hte electrons emitted reach the collector, inputs :
then the emitter current (in mA) is:
71. An n-p-n transistor operates as a common amplifier with a
power gain of 60dB. The input circuit resistance is 100
and the output load resistance is 10 k . The common
(a) A = 1, B = 0, C = 0 (b) A = 0, B = 1, C = 1
emitter current gain  is: (c) A = 0, B = 0, C = 0 (d) A = 1, B = 1, C = 0
72. A student performs an experiment to draw characteristic 76. Output Y is given by :
of a transistor in common emitter mode. He obtains output
characteristic as given below

(a) (X + Y) Z (b) (X – Y) Z

(c) X . Y  Z (d)  X  Y  . Z
77. Identify the gate and match A, B, Y in bracket to check.

Find the current gain of the transistor:

(a) AND (A = 1, B = 1, Y = 1)
(b) OR (A = 1, B = 1, Y = 0)
Logic Gates (c) NOT (A = 1, B = 1, Y = 1)
73. The correct option for getting X = 1 from the given circuit (d) XOR (A = 0, B = 0, Y = 0)
is
78. The following configuration of gate is equivalent to :

(a) NAND (b) XOR

(a) A = B = C = 1 (b) A = B = 1 and C = 0 (c) OR (d) None of these
(c) A = C = 1 and B = 0 (d) A = 0 and B = C = 1 79. In a negative logic, voltage representation the following
74. To get an output 1 from the circuit shown in the figure, the waveform corresponds to :
input must be

(a) A = 0, B = 1, C = 0 (b) A = 1, B = 0, C = 0
(a) 0000000000 (b) 0101101000
(c) A = 1, B = 0, C = 1 (d) A = 1, B = 1, C = 0
(c) 1111111111 (d) 1010010111
SEMICONDUCTORS 90

80. The following circuit represents : 82. The output of NAND gate is 0,
(a) if both inputs are 0
(b) if one input is 0 and the other input is 1
(c) if both inputs are 1
(d) either if both inputs are 1 or if one of the inputs is 1 and
other 0.
83. In the circuit below, A and B represent two inputs and C
(a) OR gate (b) XOR gate represents the output.
(c) AND gate (d) NAND gate
81. The circuit in the below figure represents which of the
logic operations?

(a) OR (b) AND

(c) NOT (d) NOR
The circuit represents
(a) NOR gate (b) AND gate
(c) NAND gate (d) OR gate
SEMICONDUCTORS 91

EXERCISE - 2 : PREVIOUS YEARS JEE MAIN QUESTIONS

Questions marked with asterisk (*) are
deleted from JEE Main

3. Zener breakdown occurs in a p-n junction having p and n

Semiconductor
both: (2021)
1*. Given below are two statements (a) lightly doped and have wide depletion layer.
Statement I: PN junction diodes can be used to function as (b) heavily doped and have wide depletion layer.
transistors, simply by connecting two diodes, back to back,
(c) lightly doped and have narrow depletion layer.
which act as the base terminal.
(d) heavily doped and have narrow depletion layer.
Statement II: In the study of transistor the amplification
4. A 5V battery is connected across the points X and Y.
factor  indicates ratio of the collector current to the base
Assume D1 and D 2 to be normal silicon diodes. Find the
current.
current supplied by the battery if the +ve terminal of the
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct
battery is connected to point X.
answer from the options given below. (2021)
(a) Statement I is false but Statement II are true
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(c) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(d) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
2. The logic circuit shown is equivalent to (2021)

(a) ~ 0.43A (b) ~ 0.5A

(c) ~ 1.5A (d) ~ 0.86A
5. For extrinsic semiconductors; when doping level is
increased;
(a) Fermi-level of p and n-type semiconductors will not be
affected.
(b) Fermi-level of p-type semiconductors will go downward
and Fermi-level of n-type semiconductor will go upward
(c) Fermi-level of p-type semiconductor will go upward
and Fermi-level of n-type semiconductor will go
downward.
(d) Fermi-level of both p-type semiconductors will go
upward T  TF K and downward for T  TF K, where
TF is Fermi temperature.
SEMICONDUCTORS 92

6. Match List with List II. (2021)

List I List II
(a) Rectifier (i) used for stepping up or
stepping down the a.c.
voltage
(b) Stabilizer (ii) Used to convert a.c. voltage
into d.c. voltage
(c) Transformer (iii) Used to remove any ripple
in the rectified output
voltage
(d) Filter (iv) Used for constant output
voltage even when the input
voltage or load current
change
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) (a-ii), (b-iv), (c-i), (d-iii) (b) (a-iii), (b-iv), (c-i), (d-ii) 9. The output of the given combination gates represents:
(c) (a-ii), (b-i), (c-iv), (d-iii) (d) (a-ii), (b-i), (c-iii), (d-iv) (2021)
7. LED is constructed from Ga-As-P semiconductor material.
The energy gap of this LED is 1.9eV. Calculate the
wavelength of light emitted and its colour. (2021)
(a) 654 nm and red colour
(b) 1046 nm and blue colour
(c) 1046 nm and red colour
(d) 654nm and orange colour (a) XOR Gate (b) NAND Gate
8. Draw the output signal Y in the given combination of gates. (c) AND Gate (d) NOR Gate
10. Which one of the following will be the output of the given
circuit? (2021)

(2021)

(a) NOR Gate (b) NAND Gate

(c) AND Gate (d) XOR Gate
SEMICONDUCTORS 93

Questions marked with asterisk (*) are

deleted from JEE Main
11*. The correct relation between  (ratio of collector current
to emitter current) and  (ratio of collector current to base
current) of a transistor is: (2021)

 1 15. The value of power dissipated across the zener diode

(a)   (b)  
1  1   Vz  15V  connected in the circuit as shown in the figure

  is x  10 1 watt. (2021)
(c)   (d)  
1  1 
12. In connection with the circuit drawn below, the value of
current flowing through 2k resistor is _____ 104 A.
(2021)

The valeu of x, to the nearest integer, is _____.

16*. An npn transistor operates as a common emitter amplifier
with a power gain of 106 . The input circuit resistance is
100 and the output load resistance is 10k . The
common emitter current gain '  ' will be ..... (Round off to
13. The circuit contains two diodes each with a forward the Nearest integer) (2021)
resistance of 50 and with infinite reverse resistance. If
17*. The typical output characteristics curve for a transistor
the battery voltage is 6V, the current through the 120
working in the common emitter configuration is shown in
resistance ____mA. (2021) figure. (2021)

14. In the logic circuit shown in the figure, if input A and B are
0 and 1 respectively, the output at Y would be ‘x’. The
value of x is _____. (2021)
The estimated current gain from the figure is ...
SEMICONDUCTORS 94

Questions marked with asterisk (*) are

deleted from JEE Main 23. In the circuit shown below, maximum zener diode
18. Two ideal diodes are connected in the network as current will be ____ mA (JEE Main 2022)
shown in figure. The equivalent resistance between A
and B is _____ . (JEE Main 2022)

24. A potential barrier of 0.4 V exists across a p-n

junction. An electron enters the junction from the n-
side with a speed of 6.0 × 105 ms–1. The speed with
x
19. The energy band gap of semiconducting material to which electron enters the p side will be 105 ms–1
3
produce violet (wavelength = 4000 Å). LED is _____
the value of x is _____. (JEE Main 2022)
eV. (Round off to the nearest integer)
25. A zener of breakdown voltage VZ  8V and maximum
(JEE Main 2022)
20. A 8 V Zener diode along with a series resistance R is zener current, I ZM  10mA is subjected to an input
connected across a 20 V supply (as shown in the
figure). If the maximum Zener current is 25 mA, then voltage V =10 V with series resistance R  100 . In
the minimum value of R will be _____Ω. the given circuit RL represents the variable load
(JEE Main 2022)
resistance. The ratio of maximum and minimum value
of RL is ____. (JEE Main 2022)

21. If the potential barrier across a p-n junction is 0.6 V.

Then the electric field intensity, in the depletion region 26. The cut-off voltage of the diodes (shown in figure) in
having the width of 6 × 10–6 m, will be _________ ×
forward bias is 0.6 V. The current through the resister
105 N/C. A (JEE Main 2022)
22*. The typical transfer characteristic of a transistor in CE of 40Ω is _______mA. (JEE Main 2022)
configuration is shown in figure. A load resistor of
2k is connected in the collector branch of the circuit
used. The input resistance of the transistor is 0.50 k.
The voltage gain of the transistor is
(JEE Main 2022)

27. As per the given circuit, the value of current through

the battery will be _____ A. (JEE Main 2022)
SEMICONDUCTORS 95

Questions marked with asterisk (*) are

deleted from JEE Main
28*. In an experiment of CE configuration of n-p-n
transistor, the transfer characteristics are observed as
given in figure.
(d)

31*. An n.p.n transistor with current gain β = 100 in

If the input resistance is 200 and output resistance is common emitter configuration is shown in figure. The
60, the voltage gain in this experiment will be output voltage of the amplifier will be
______. (JEE Main 2022) (JEE Main 2022)
29*. A transistor is used in common-emitter mode in an
amplifier circuit. When a signal of 10 mV is added to
the base-emitter voltage, the base current changes by
10μ A and the collector current changes by 1.5 mA.
The load resistance is 5 kΩ. The voltage gain of the
transistor will be __________ (JEE Main 2022) (a) 0.1 V (b) 1.0 V
30. In the circuit, the logical value of A = 1 or B = 1 when (c) 10 V (d) 100 V
potential at A or B is 5V and the logical value of A = 0 32*. For a constant collector-emitter voltage of 8V, the
or B = 0 when potential at A or B is 0 V.
collector current of a transistor reached to the value of
6 mA from 4 mA, whereas base current changed from
20 μ A to 25 μ A value. If transistor is in active state,
small signal current gain (current amplification factor)
will be : (JEE Main 2022)
(a) 240 (b) 400
The truth table of the given circuit will be : (c) 0.0025 (d) 200
(JEE Main 2022) 33. A logic gate circuit has two input A and B and output
(a)
Y. The voltage waveforms of A, B and Y are shown
below

(b)

The logic gate circuit is (JEE Main 2022)

(a) AND gate (b) OR gate
(c) NOR gate (d) NAND gate
(c)
SEMICONDUCTORS 96

Questions marked with asterisk (*) are

deleted from JEE Main
34*. Given below are two statements : One is labelled as
Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
Assertion A : n-p-n transistor penults more current
than a p-n-p transistor.
Reason R : Electrons have greater mobility as a
charge carrier. (a) 1 : 2 (b) 5 : 1
Choose the correct answer from the options given (c) 1 : 40 (d) 20 : 1
below (JEE Main 2022) 39. Identify the correct logic Gate for the following output
(a) Both A and R true. and R is correct explanation of (Y) of two inputs A and B (JEE Main 2022)
A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct
explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
35. For using a mustimeter to identify diode from
electrical components. choose the correct statement
out of the following about the diode
(JEE Main 2022)
(a) It is two terminal device which conducts current
in both directions
(b) It is two terminal device which conducts current
in one direction only
(a)
(c) It does not conduct current gives an initial
deflection which decays to zero
(d) It is three terminal device which conducts current
in one direction only between central terminal and (b)
either of the remaining two terminals
36*. In the following circuit, the correct relation between
output (Y) and inputs A and B will be:
(JEE Main 2022) (c)

(d)
40. Identify the logic operation performed by the given
circuit: (JEE Main 2022)

(a) Y  AB (b) Y  A  B
(c) Y  AB (d) Y  A  B
37*. For a transistor to act as a switch, it much be operated
in (JEE Main 2022)
(a) Active region (a) AND gate (b) OR gate
(b) Saturation state only (c) NOR gate (d) NAND gate
(c) Cut-off state only 41. Photodiode is used to detect the optical signals. These
(d) Saturation and cut-off state diodes are preferably operated in reverse biased mode
38. The I-V characteristics of a p-n junction diode in because: (JEE Main 2022)
forward bias is shown in the figure. The ratio of (a) Fractional change in majority carriers produce
dynamics resistance, corresponding to forward bias higher forward bias current
(b) Fractional change in majority carriers produce
voltage of 2V and 4V respectively is:
higher reverse bias current
(JEE Main 2022) (c) Fractional change in minority carriers produce
higher forward bias current
(d) Fractional change in minority carriers produce
higher reverse bias current
SEMICONDUCTORS 97

Questions marked with asterisk (*) are

45. Which of the following statement is not correct in the
deleted from JEE Main case of light emitting diodes?
42. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as A. It is a heavily doped p-n junction.
Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R B. It emits light only when it is forward biased.
Assertion A: Photodiodes are preferably operated in C. It emits light only when it is reverse biased.
reverse bias condition for light intensity measurement. D. The energy of the light emitted is equal to or
Reason R: The current in the forward bias is more slightly less than the energy gap of the
than the current in the reverse bias for a p – n junction semiconductor used.
diode. Choose the correct answer from the options given
In the light of the above statement, choose the correct below: (JEE Main 2023)
answer from the options given below :
(a) C and D (b) A
(JEE Main 2023)
(a) A is false but R is true (c) C (d) B
(b) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct 46. The effect of increase in temperature on the number of
explanation of A electrons in conduction band  ne  and resistance of a
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) Both A and R are true and R is the correct semiconductor will be as: (JEE Main 2023)
explanation of A (a) Both ne and resistance decrease
43. Given below are two statements: one is labeled as (b) Both ne and resistance increase
Assertion A and the other is labeled as Reason R
(c) ne increases, resistance decreases
Assertion A: Photodiodes are used in forward bias
usually for measuring the light intensity. (d) ne decreases, resistance increases
Reason R: For a p-n junction diode, at applied voltage 47*. Given below are two statements:
V the current in the forward bias is more than the Statement I: In a typical transistor, all three regions
current in the reverse bias for VZ  V  V0 where emitter, base and collector have same doping level.
V0 is the threshold voltage and VZ is the breakdown Statement II: In a transistor, collector is the thickest
and base is the thinnest segment.
voltage.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct
appropriate answer from the options given below:
answer from the options given below
(JEE Main 2023)
(JEE Main 2023)
(a) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(a) Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
A
(c) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(b) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct
(d) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
explanation A
48. Match the List I with List II
(c) A is false but R is true
List I List II
(d) A is true but R is false
A. Intrisic I. Fermi-level near
44. Statement I : When a Si sample is doped with Boron,
conduction band
it becomes P type and when doped by Arsenic it
B. n-type II. Fermi-level at
becomes N-type semi conductor such that P-type has
semiconductor middle
excess holes and N-type has excess electrons.
C. p-type III. Fermi-level near
Statement II : When such P-type and N-type semi-
semiconductor valence band
conductors, are fused to make a junction, a current will
automatically flow which can be detected with an D. Metals IV. Fermi-level inside
externally connected ammeter. In the light of above conduction band
statements, choose the most appropriate answer from Choose the correct answer from the options given
the options given below (JEE Main 2023) below: (JEE Main 2023)
(a) Both Statement I and statement II are incorrect (a) A  I , B  II , C  III , D  IV
(b) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct (b) A  II , B  I , C  III , D  IV
(c) Both Statement I and statement II are correct (c) A  II , B  III , C  I , D  IV
(d) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect (d) A  III , B  I , C  II , D  IV
SEMICONDUCTORS 98

49. Choose the correct statement about Zener diode: 51. Name the logic gate equivalent to the diagram attached
(JEE Main 2023) (JEE Main 2023)
(a) It works as a voltage regulator in reverse bias and
behaves like simple pn junction diode in forward
bias.
(b) It works as a voltage regulator in both forward and
reverse bias
(c) It works a voltage regulator only in forward bias
(d) It works as a voltage regulator in forward bias and
behaves like simple pn junction diode in reverse
bias
50. The resistivity (ρ) of semiconductor varies with
temperature. Which of the following curve represents
the correct behaviour (JEE Main 2023)
(a) AND (b) OR
(c) NOR (d) NAND
52. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as
Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R
Assertion A: Diffusion current in a p-n junction as
(a) greater than the drift current in magnitude if the
junction is forward biased.
Reason R: Diffusion current in a p-n junction is from
the n-side to the p-side if the junction is forward
biased.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most
appropriate answer from the options given below
(b)
(JEE Main 2023)
(a) A is not correct but R is correct
(b) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct
explanation of A
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is NOT the correct
explanation of A
(d) A is correct but R is not correct
(c)

(d)
SEMICONDUCTORS 99

Questions marked with asterisk (*) are

55. A zener diode of power rating 1.6 W is to be used as
deleted from JEE Main voltage regulator. If the zener diode has a breakdown
53. For the logic circuit shown, the output waveform at Y of 8 V and it has to regulate voltage fluctuating
is: (JEE Main 2023) between 3Vand 10V. The value of resistance Rs for
safe operation of diode will be (JEE Main 2023)

(a) 13.3 (b) 12

(c) 10 (d) 13
56. If each diode has a forward bias resistance of 25Ω in
(a)
the below circuit,

(b)

Which of the following options is correct.

(c)
(JEE Main 2023)
I I
(a) 1  2 (b) 2  1
I2 I3
I1 I3
(c) 1 (d) 1
I2 I4
(d)
57. The logic performed by the circuit shown in figure is
54*. For a given transistor amplifier circuit in CE equivalent to: (JEE Main 2023)
configuration VCC = 1V, RC = 1kΩ, Rb = 100 kΩ and
β = 100. Value of base current Ib is
(JEE Main 2023)

(a) AND (b) OR

(c) NAND (d) NOR
58. The logic operations performed by the given digital
circuit is equivalent to: (JEE Main 2023)

(a) I b  0.1 A (b) I b  100  A

(c) I b  10  A (d) I b  1.0  A
(a) AND (b) NAND
(c) OR (d) NOR
SEMICONDUCTORS 100

Questions marked with asterisk (*) are (c)

deleted from JEE Main

59*. In an n-p-n common emitter (CE) transistor the
collector current changes from 5 mA to 16 mA for the
change in base current from 100 μA and 200 μA,
respectively. The current gain of transistor is _______.
(d)
(JEE Main 2023)
(a) 0.9 (b) 9
(c) 110 (d) 210
60. In the given circuit, the current (I) through the battery
will be (JEE Main 2023)

62. The output from a NAND gate having inputs A and B

given below will be, (JEE Main 2023)

(a) 2A (b) 1.5A (a)

(c) 1A (d) 2.5A
61. For the following circuit and given inputs A and B,
choose the correct option for output 'Y'
(JEE Main 2023)
(b)

(c)

(d)

(a)
63*. From the given transfer characteristics of a transistor
in CE configuration, the value of power gain of this
configuration is 10x, for RB = 10 kΩ, and RC = 1kΩ.
The value of x is ______ (JEE Main 2023)

(b)
SEMICONDUCTORS 101

EXERCISE - 3: ADVANCED OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS

Single Choice Questions 10. Carbon, silicon and Germanium atoms have four valence
1. The nature of binding for a crystal with alternate and evenly electrons each. Their valence and conduction band are
spaced positive and negative ions is separated by energy band gaps represented by (Eg)C, (Eg)Si
(a) Covalent (b) Metallic and (E g) Ge respectively. Which one of the following
relationship is true in their case
(c) Dipolar (d) Ionic
2. The temperature coefficient of resistance of a conductor is (a) (Eg)C > (Eg)Si (b) (Eg)C = (Eg)Si
(a) Positive always (b) Negative always (c) (Eg)C < (Eg)Ge (d) (Eg)C < (Eg)Si
(c) Zero (d) Infinite 11. The probability of electrons to be found in the conduction
3. To obtain P–type Si semiconductor, we need to dope pure band of an intrinsic semiconductor at a finite temperature
Si with (a) Decreases exponentially with increasing band gap
(a) Aluminium (b) Phosphorous (b) Increases exponentially with increasing band gap
(c) Oxygen (d) Germanium (c) Decreases with increasing temperature
4. Let np and ne be the number of holes and conduction
(d) Is independent of the temperature and the band gap
electrons respectively in a semiconductor. Then
12. When Ge crystals are doped with phosphorus atom, then it
(a) np > ne in an intrinsic semiconductor
becomes
(b) np = ne in an extrinsic semiconductor
(a) Insulator (b) P-type
(c) np = ne in an intrinsic semiconductor
(d) ne > np in an intrinsic semiconductor (c) N-type (d) Superconductor
5. When the temperature of silicon sample is increased from 13. Which impurity is doped in Si to form N-type semi-
27°C to 100°C, the conductivity of silicon will be conductor?
(a) Increased (b) Decreased (a) Al (b) B
(c) Remain same (d) Zero (c) As (d) None of these
6. A Ge specimen is doped with Al. The concentration of 14. A semiconductor doped with a donor impurity is
acceptor atoms is ~1021 atoms/m3. Given that the intrinsic
(a) P–type (b) N–type
concentration of electron hole pairs is ~ 10 19 / m 3 , the
(c) NPN type (d) PNP type
concentration of electrons in the specimen is
15. Which of the following statements is not true
(a) 1017/m3 (b) 1015/m3
(c) 104/m3 (d) 102/m3 (a) The resistance of intrinsic semiconductors decrease with
increase of temperature
7. Bonding in a germanium crystal (semi- conductor) is
(a) Metallic (b) Ionic (b) Doping pure Si with trivalent impurities give P–type
semiconductors
(c) Vander Waal’s type (d) Covalent
8. In an insulator, the forbidden energy gap between the (c) The majority carriers in N–type semiconductors are holes
valence band and conduction band is of the order of (d) A PN–junction can act as a semiconductor diode
(a) 1 MeV (b) 0.1 MeV 16. In semiconductor the concentrations of electrons and holes
(c) 1eV (d) 5eV are 8  1018/m3 and 5  1018/m3 respectively. If the mobilities
9. In extrinsic semiconductors of electrons and hole are 2.3 m2/volt-sec and 0.01 m2/volt-
(a) The conduction band and valence band overlap sec respectively, then semiconductor is
(b) The gap between conduction band and valence band is (a) N-type and its resistivity is 0.34 ohm-metre
more than 16 eV (b) P-type and its resistivity is 0.034 ohm-metre
(c) The gap between conduction band and valence band is (c) N-type and its resistivity is 0.034 ohm-metre
near about 1 eV
(d) P-type and its resistivity is 3.40 ohm-metre
(d) The gap between conduction band and valence band
will be 100 eV and more
SEMICONDUCTORS 102

17. The majority charge carriers in P-type semiconductor are 24. Current in the circuit will be
(a) Electrons (b) Protons
(c) Holes (d) Neutrons
18. In P–type semiconductor, there is
(a) An excess of one electron
i
(b) Absence of one electron
(c) A missing atom 5V

(d) A donor level 5 5

(a) A (b) A
19. In a P-type semiconductor 40 50
(a) Current is mainly carried by holes
5 5
(b) Current is mainly carried by electrons (c) A (d) A
10 20
(c) The material is always positively charged
25. Find VAB
(d) Doping is done by pentavalent material
20. A silicon specimen is made into a P-type semi-conductor
by doping, on an average, one Indium atom per 5 × 107 30V
silicon atoms. If the number density of atoms in the silicon
VAB
specimen is 5 × 1028 atoms /m3 then the number of acceptor
atoms in silicon per cubic centimetre will be
(a) 2.5 × 1030 atoms /cm3 (b) 1.0 × 1013 atoms /cm3 (a) 10 V (b) 20 V
(c) 1.0 × 1015 atoms /cm3 (d) 2.5 × 1036 atoms /cm3 (c) 30 V (d) None of these
21. In forward bias, the width of potential barrier in a P-N 26. If the following input signal is sent through a PN-junction
junction diode diode, then the output signal across RL will be
(a) Increases
10V
(b) Decreases P N
0V
(c) Remains constant RL
(d) First increases then decreases
22. In the circuit given below, the value of the current is –10V

+ 4V PN 300 + 1V 20V
(a) (b)
–10V
(a) 0 amp (b) 10–2 amp
(c) 102 amp (d) 10–3 amp
10V
23. In the circuit, if the forward voltage drop for the diode is (c) (d)
0.5V, the current will be –20V
0.5V
27. Which one is reverse-biased

10V
8V –5V
(a) 15V (b)
–10V

(a) 3.4 mA (b) 2 mA –5V

–10V
(c) 2.5 mA (d) 3 mA (c) (d)
10V
SEMICONDUCTORS 103

28. In the circuit given below, V(t) is the sinusoidal voltage 31. The transfer ratio of a transistor is 50. The input resistance
source, voltage drop VAB(t) across the resistance R is of the transistor when used in the common-emitter
configuration is 1 K. The peak value for an A.C input
D1 D2 voltage of 0.01 V peak is
(a) 100 A (b) 0.01 mA
R VAB (c) 0.25 mA (d) 500 A
32. An NPN-transistor circuit is arranged as shown in figure.
~ V(t) It is

(a) Is half wave rectified (b) Is full wave rectified N

(c) Has the same peak value in the positive and negative P RL
half cycles N V out
V in
(d) Has different peak values during positive and negative
half cycle
29. Different voltages are applied across a P-N junction and
the currents are measured for each value. Which of the
following graphs is obtained between voltage and current (a) A common base amplifier circuit
(b) A common emitter amplifier circuit
I I
(c) A common collector amplifier circuit
(d) Neither of the above
(a) (b)
33. Consider an NPN transistor amplifier in common-emitter
–V +V –V +V configuration. The current gain of the transistor is 100. If the
collector current changes by 1 mA, what will be the change
I in emitter current
I
(a) 1.1 mA (b) 1.01 mA

(c) (d) (c) 0.01 mA (d) 10 mA

–V +V 34. In the following common emitter configuration an NPN
–V +V
transistor with current gain  = 100 is used. The output
30. The resistance of a germanium junction diode whose V– I voltage of the amplifier will be
is shown in figure is (Vk = 0.3V)

I
10mA Vout
1mV ~

(a) 10 mV (b) 0.1 V

V (c) 1.0 V (d) 10 V
Vk 2.3V
35. In an NPN transistor circuit, the collector current is 10 mA.
(a) 5 k (b) 0.2 k If 90% of the electrons emitted reach the collector, the
emitter current (iE) and base current (iB) are given by
 10  (a) iE = – 1 mA, iB = 9 mA (b) iE = 9 mA, iB = – 1 mA
(c) 2.3 k (d)   k
 2 .3 
(c) iE = 1 mA, iB = 11 mA (d) iE = 11 mA, iB = 1 mA
SEMICONDUCTORS 104

36. In NPN transistor the collector current is 10 mA. If 90% of 43. A common emitter amplifier is designed with NPN
electrons emitted reach the collector, then transistor ( = 0.99). The input impedance is 1 K and
(a) Emitter current will be 9 mA load is 10 K. The voltage gain will be
(b) Emitter current will be 11.1 mA (a) 9.9 (b) 99
(c) Base current will be 0.1 mA (c) 990 (d) 9900
(d) Base current will be 0.01 mA
44. The logic behind ‘NOR’ gate is that it gives
37. For the transistor circuit shown below, if  = 100, voltage
(a) High output when both the inputs are low
drop between emitter and base is 0.7 V then value of VCE will
be (b) Low output when both the inputs are low
(c) High output when both the inputs are high
(d) None of these
C
45. Which of the following logic gate is an universal gate
18V
VCE
B (a) OR (b) NOT
E
(c) AND (d) NOR
5V 46. The given truth table is of

(a) 10 V (b) 5 V
(c) 13 V (d) 0 V A X
38. When NPN transistor is used as an amplifier 0 1
(a) Electrons move from base to collector
1 0
(b) Holes move from emitter to base
(c) Electrons move from collector to base
(d) Holes move from base to emitter (a) OR gate (b) AND gate
39. If  = 0.98 and current through emitter ie = 20 mA, the (c) NOT gate (d) None of above
value of  is 47. This symbol represents
(a) 4.9 (b) 49
(c) 96 (d) 9.6 A
40. For a common base configuration of PNP transistor Y
B
Ic
 0.96 then maximum current gain in common emitter
Ie (a) NOT gate (b) OR gate
configuration will be (c) AND gate (d) NOR gate
(a) 12 (b) 24 48. The combination of the gates shown in the figure below
(c) 6 (d) 5 produces
41. For a transistor the parameter  = 99. The value of the
parameter  is A
(a) 0.9 (b) 0.99 A
(c) 1 (d) 9 Y
42. For a transistor, in a common emitter arrangement, the
alternating current gain  is given by B
B
 I   I B 
(a)    C 
 (b)    

 I B  VC  I C  VC (a) NOR gate (b) OR gate
(c) AND gate (d) XOR gate
 I   I 
(c)    C 
 (d)    E 

 I E  VC  I C  VC
SEMICONDUCTORS 105

49. Given below are four logic gate symbol (figure). Those for 54. The output of a NAND gate is 0
OR, NOR and NAND are respectively (a) If both inputs are 0
A y y (b) If one input is 0 and the other input is 1
A
B B (c) If both inputs are 1
(1) (2) (d) Either if both inputs are 1 or if one of the inputs is 1 and
A y A y the other 0
B B 55. Which gates is represented by this figure
(3) (4)
A
(a) 1, 4, 3 (b) 4, 1, 2 y
(c) 1, 3, 4 (d) 4, 2, 1 B
50. Sum of the two binary numbers (100010)2 and (11011)2 (a) NAND gate (b) AND gate
is
(c) NOT gate (d) OR gate
(a) (111101)2 (b) (111111)2
56. The truth-table given below is for which gate
(c) (101111)2 (d) (111001)2
A 0 0 1 1
51. Figure gives a system of logic gates. From the study of
truth table it can be found that to produce a high output (1) B 0 1 0 1
at R, we must have C 1 1 1 0
(a) XOR (b) OR
X (c) AND (d) NAND
P
Y R 57. A truth table is given below. Which of the following has
this type of truth table
O A 0 1 0 1
B 0 0 1 1
(a) X = 0, Y = 1 (b) X = 1, Y = 1 y 1 0 0 0
(c) X = 1, Y = 0 (d) X = 0, Y = 0 (a) XOR gate (b) NOR gate
52. A gate has the following truth table (c) AND gate (d) OR gate
P 1 1 0 0
Q 1 0 1 0
Assertion & Reason
R 1 0 0 0
(A) Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is the
The gate is correct explanation of the Assertion.
(a) NOR (b) OR (B) Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason is not a
(c) NAND (d) AND correct explanation of the Assertion.
53. Which logic gate is represented by the following (C) Assertion is true but the Reason is false.
combination of logic gates
(D) Assertion is false but the Reason is true.
58. Assertion : If the temperature of a semiconductor is
A
increased then it’s resistance decreases.
Y
Reason : The energy gap between conduction band & valence
B
band is very small
(a) A (b) B
(a) OR (b) NAND (c) C (d) D
(c) AND (d) NOR
SEMICONDUCTORS 106

59. Assetion : The electrical conductivity of n-type 63. Assertion : Zener diode works on a principle of breakdown
semiconductor is higher than that of p-type semiconductor voltage.
at a given temperature and voltage applied. Reason :Current increases suddenly after breakdown
Reason : The mobility of electron is higher than that of voltage.
hole. (a) A (b) B
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D
(c) C (d) D 64. Assertion : The color of light emitted by a LED depends
on its forward biasing.
60. Assertion : The number of electrons in a P-type silicon
semiconductor is less than the number of electrons in a Reason : The reverse biasing of p-n junction will increase
pure silicon semiconductor at room temperature. the width of depletion layer.
(a) A (b) B
Reason : It is due to law of mass action.
(c) C (d) D
(a) A (b) B
Multiple Choice Questions
(c) C (d) D
65. Which of the following statements concerning the depletion
61. Assertion : When PN–junction is forward biased then zone of an unbiased PN junction is (are) true
motion of charge carriers at junction is due to diffusion. In
(a) The width of the zone is independent of the densities
reverse biasing the cause of motion of charge is drifting.
of the dopants (impurities)
Reason : In the following circuit emitter is reverse biased
(b) The width of the zone is dependent on the densities of
and collector is forward biased.
the dopants
(c) The electric field in the zone is produced by the ionized
dopant atoms
(d) The electric field in the zone is provided by the electrons
in the conduction band and the holes in the valence band
66. Holes are charge carriers in
(a) Intrinsic semiconductors (b) Ionic solids
(c) P-type semiconductors (d) Metals
67. Which of the following statements concerning the
depletion zone of an unbiased PN junction is (are) true
(a) A (b) B (a) The width of the zone is independent of the densities
of the dopants (impurities)
(c) C (d) D
(b) The width of the zone is dependent on the densities of
62. Assertion : In the following circuit the potential drop across the dopants
the resistance is zero.
(c) the electric field in the zone is produced by the ionized
– 2V dopant atoms
(d) the electric field in the zone is provided by the electrons
in the conductor band and the holes in the valence band
68. When a potential difference is applied across, the current
– 5V passing through
Reason :The given resistance has low value. (a) an insulator at 0 K is zero
(a) A (b) B (b) a semiconductor at 0 K is zero
(c) C (d) D (c) a metal at 0 K is finite
(d) a p-n diode at 300 K is finite, if it is reverse biased
SEMICONDUCTORS 107

69. The following logic circuit represents 73. The output characteristics of a transistor is shown in the
figure. When VCE is 10V and I C  4.0mA, then value of
ac _______.

(a) NAND gate with ouput O  X  Y

(b) NOR gate with output O  X  Y

(c) NAND gate with outpur O  XY


(d) NOR gate with output O  X.Y

70. The breakdown in a reverse biased p-n junction diode is

more likely to occur due to
(a) large velocity of the minority charge carriers if the
74. In the following arrangement, if A = 1, B = 0 and C = 1,
doping concentration is small
then output Y is
(b) large velocity of the minority charge carriers if the
doping concentration is large
(c) strong electric field in a depletion region if the doping
concentration is small
(d) strong electric field in the depletion region if the doping
75. In a semiconductor, the number density of intrinsic charge
concentration is large.
carriers at 27° C is 1.5 1016 / m3 . If the semiconductor is
71. In the depletion region of a diode.
doped with impurity atom, the hole density increases to
(a) there are no mobile charges
4.5 1022 / m3 . The electron density in the doped
(b) equal number of holes and electrons exist, making the semiconductor is _______  109 / m3 .
region neutral
(c) recombination of holes and electrons has taken place
(d) in mobile charged ions exist.
Numeric Value Type Questions
72. The circuit shown below is working as a 9V dc regulated
voltage source. When 12V is used as input, the power
dissipated (in mW) in each diode is; (considering both
zener diode are identical).
SEMICONDUCTORS 108

EXERCISE - 4 : PREVIOUS YEARS JEE ADVANCED QUESTIONS

Objective Questions True/False

3
1. The plate resistance of a triode is 3 × 10  and its mutual 4. For a diode the variation of its anode current Ia with the
–3
conductance is 1.5 × 10 A/V. The amplification factor of anode voltage Va at two different cathode temperature T1
the triode is : (1981) and T2 is shown in the figure. The temperature T2 is greater
–5
than T1. (1986)
(a) 5 × 10 (b) 4.5
5
(c) 45 (d) 2 × 10

2. Two identical p-n junctions may be connected in series with

a battery in three ways, as shown in figure. The potential
drops across the two p-n junctions are equal in
(1982)

Subjective Question

5. A triode has plate characteristics in the form of parallel

lines in the region of our interest. At a grid voltage of –1 V
the anode current I (in mA) is given in terms of plate voltage
V by the algebraic relation :

I = 0.125 V – 7.5

For grid voltage of –3 V, the current at anode voltage of

300 V is 5 mA. Determine the plate resistance (r p)
transconductance (gm) and the amplification factor () for
(a) circuit 1 and circuit 2
the triode. (1987)
(b) circuit 2 and circuit 3
6. The impurity atoms with which pure silicon should be
(c) circuit 3 and circuit 1 doped to make a p-type semiconductor are those of(1988)

(d) circuit 1 only (a) phosphorus

3. For a given plate voltage, the plate current in a triode valve (b) boron
is maximum when the potential of : (1985)
(c) antimony
(a) the grid is positive and plate is negative
(d) aluminium
(b) the grid is zero and plate is positive

(c) the grid is negative and plate is positive

(d) the grid is positive and plate is positive

SEMICONDUCTORS 109

Fill in the Blanks 12. The electrical conductivity of a semiconductor increases

7. For the given circuit shown in figure to act as full wave when em radiation of wavelength shorter than 2480 nm is
rectifier, the a.c. input should be connected across ......... incident on it. The band gap (in eV) for the semiconductor
and ......... the d.c. output would appear across ......... and is (1997)
........ (1991) (a) 0.9 (b) 0.7
(c) 0.5 (d) 1.1
13. A full - wave rectifier the circuit shown in the figure contains
two diodes each with a forward resistance of 50 ohms and
with infinite backward resistance. If the battery voltage is
6V, the current through the 100 ohm resistance (in amperes)
is (1997)

8. In an n-p-n transistor circuit, the collector current is 10 mA.

If 90% of the electrons emitted reach the collector (1992)
(a) the emitter current will be 9 mA
(b) the base current will be 1 mA
(c) the emitter current will be 11 mA
(d) the base current will be –1 mA
9. In a ............. biased p-n junction, the net flow of holes is
from the n region to the p region. (1993)
10. The probability of electrons to be found in the conduction
band of an intrinsic semiconductor at a finite temperature. (a) zero (b) 0.02
(1995)
(c) 0.03 (d) 0.036
(a) increases exponentially with increasing band gap
14. In a p-n junction diode not connected to any circuit,
(b) decreases exponentially with increasing band gap
(c) decreases with increasing temperature (1998)
(d) is independent of the temperature and the band gap (a) the potential is the same everywhere
11. A full-wave rectifier circuit along with the out-put is shown (b) the p-type side is at a higher potential than the n-type
in figure. The contribution(s) from the diode 1 is (are) side
(1996)
(c) there is an electric field at the junction directed from
the n-type side to the p-type side.
(d) there is an electric field at the junction directed from
the p-type side to the n-type side.
15. A transistor is used in common emitter mode as an amplifier
then (1998)
(a) the base emitter junction is forward biased
(b)the base emitter junction is reverse biased
(c) the input signal is connected in series with the voltage
aplied to bias the base emitter junction
(d)the input signal is connected in series with the voltage
applied to bias the base collector junction
(a) C (b) A,C
(c) B, D (d) A, B, C, D
SEMICONDUCTORS 110

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SEMICONDUCTORS

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 111

Answer Key
CHAPTER -10 MODERN PHYSICS

EXERCISE - 1 : EXERCISE - 2 :
BASIC OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS PREVIOUS YEAR JEE MAIN QUESTIONS

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Scan the QR code and check detailed solutions. Scan the QR code and check detailed solutions.

1. (d) 2. (b) 3. (b) 4. (a) 1. (15) 2. (b) 3. (b) 4. (4)

5. (b) 6. (b) 7. (b) 8. (d) 5. (3) 6. (b) 7. (b) 8. (d)
9. (d) 10. (d) 11. (b) 12. (a)
9. (d) 10. (a) 11. (c) 12. (a)
13. (d) 14. (b) 15. (b) 16. (c)
13. (b) 14. (c) 15. (a) 16. (b) 17. (b) 18. (b) 19. (a) 20. (b)
17. (b) 18. (c) 19. (c) 20. (d) 21. (b) 22. (b) 23. (a) 24. (b)
25. (a) 26. (c) 27. (d) 28. (b)
21. (d) 22. (d) 23.(d) 24. (c)
29. (d) 30. (c) 31. (b) 32. (c)
25. (b) 26. (b) 27. (b) 28. (b) 33. (d) 34. (35.11) 35. (a) 36. (c)
29. (b) 30. (c) 31. (d) 32. (c) 37. (c) 38. (d) 39. (c) 40. (a)
33. (b) 34. (c) 35.(a) 36. (c) 41. (b) 42. (a) 43. (b) 44. (c)
45. (b) 46. (d) 47. (b) 48. (b)
37. (a) 38. (c) 39. (b) 40. (c)
49. (d) 50. (d) 51. (d) 52. (c)
41. (c) 42. (c) 43. (d) 44. (a) 53. (d) 61. (c) 62. (b) 63. (b)
45. (d) 46. (b) 47. (d) 48. (d) 64. (d) 65. (d) 66. (d) 67. (c)
49. (a) 50. (d) 51. (b) 52. (c) 68. (b) 69. (b) 70. (d) 71. (d)
72. (b) 73. (a) 74. (c) 75. (b)
53. (a) 54. (b) 55. (b) 56. (d)
76. (d) 77. (c) 78. (b) 79. (d)
57. (c) 58. (a) 59. (c) 60. (c) 80. (d) 81. (b) 82. (a) 83. (a)
61. (a) 62. (b) 63. (d) 64. (a) 84. (c) 85. (15.00) 86. (c) 87. (a)
65. (a) 66. (b) 67. (c) 68. (b) 88. (c) 89. (d) 90. (a) 91. (a)
69. (c) 70. (c) 71. (b) 72. (d) 92. (d) 93. (b) 94. (d) 95. (d)
96. (b) 97. (b) 98. (d) 99. (11.00)
73. (b) 74. (b) 75. (c) 76. (a)
100. (6.00) 101. (27.00) 102. (2) 103. (87.00)
77. (d) 78. (c) 79. (b) 80. (b) 104. (300.00) 105. (27.00)
81. (c) 82. (c) 83. (a) 84. (d) 106. (136.00) 107. (828.00) 108. (6.00) 109. (d)
85. (b) 86. (b) 87. (a) 88. (a) 110. (b) 111. (c) 112. (d) 113. (b)
114. (d) 115. (b) 116. (d) 117. (c)
89. (c) 90. (b) 91. (a) 92. (a)
118. (d) 119. (b) 120. (d) 121. (b)
93. (c) 94. (c) 95. (c) 122. (b) 123. (121) 124. (2) 125. (4)
126. (425) 127. (16) 128. (27) 129. (3668)
130. (3) 131. (5) 132. (2) 133. (4125)
ANSWER KEY
112
CHAPTER -10 MODERN PHYSICS

EXERCISE - 3 :
ADVANCED OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS

DIRECTION TO USE -
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1. (c) 2. (a) 3. (d) 4. (a) 77. (a) 78. (d) 79. (c) 80. (c)
5. (d) 6. (a) 7. (b) 8. (b) 81. (b) 82. (b) 83. (a) 84. (b)
9. (c) 10. (a) 11. (a) 12. (b) 85. (a) 86. (a) 87. (c) 88. (b)
13. (b) 14. (a) 15. (b) 16. (c) 89. (c) 90. (c) 91. (b) 92. (c)
17. (c) 18. (c) 19. (c) 20. (c) 93. (a,c,d) 94. (a,d) 95. (a,d) 96. (a,b,c)
21. (c) 22. (c) 23.(c) 24. (d) 97. (a,c,d) 98. (a,b,c) 99. (c,d) 100. (b,d)
25. (c) 26. (a) 27. (a) 28. (c) 101. (1) 102. (114.2Å) 103. (b) 104. (a)
29. (b) 30. (d) 31. (c) 32. (a) 105. (b) 106. (e) 107. (e) 108. (c)
33. (c) 34. (b) 35.(b) 36. (d) 109. (b) 110. (a) 111. (c) 112. (b)
37. (c) 38. (d) 39. (a) 40. (d) 113. (d) 114. (d) 115. (b)
41. (d) 42. (c) 43. (d) 44. (b) 116. (A - P, Q; B - T, C - T)
45. (c) 46. (b) 47. (c) 48. (b)
117. (A - S; B - Q; C - P; D - R)
49. (a) 50. (c) 51. (c) 52. (a)
118. (A - Q, R; B - P, R; C - R; D - S)
53. (a) 54. (c) 55. (c) 56. (d)
57. (c) 58. (c) 59. (c) 60. (c) 119. (A - Q; B - S ; C - P; D - R)
61. (a) 62. (b) 63. (a) 64. (a) 120. (a, b, c)
65. (a) 66. (b) 67. (b) 68. (d)
121. (A - S; B - R; C - Q; D - P)
69. (b) 70. (c) 71. (c) 72. (b)
122. (A - R; B - P; C - Q)
73. (a) 74. (a) 75. (d) 76. (b)
123. (d) 124. (d)
125. (173) 126. (29909 yrs.)
127. (5) 128. (59 KeV)
129. (122 nm)
ANSWER KEY 113

CHAPTER -10 MODERN PHYSICS

EXERCISE - 4:
PREVIOUS YEAR JEE ADVANCED QUESTIONS

DIRECTION TO USE -
Scan the QR code and check detailed solutions.

1. (d) 2. (c) 3. (d) 4. (a) 74. (a) 75. (b) 76. (a) 77. (d)

5. (n = 2, Z = 4, –217.6 eV, 10.58 eV) 78. (a, c, d) 79. (a,c) 80. (3) 81. (2)
11
6. (6.25 × 10 , zero, 5.0 eV) 82. (2) 83. (A–R,T; B–P,S; C–P,Q,R,T; D–P,Q,R,T)

7. (Decay of a neutron in a nucleus) 84. (c) 85. (c) 86. (b) 87. (b)
88. (a,b,d) 89. (9) 90. (6) 91. (a)
8. (d) 9. (a) 10. (d)
4
92. (5) 93. (5) 94. (a,c) 95. (24)
11. (3.845 × 10 kg) 12. (a)
96. (3.00) 97. (a) 98. (a,b) 99. (b,c)
13. (a) 14. (b) 15. (a) 16. (c) 100. (a,c) 101. (d) 102. (a,d) 103. (4.00)
17. (a) Z = 3; (b) 4052.3 nm 104. (a,c,d) 105. (6) 106.(a)
7 3
18. (a) 5 × 10 ; (b) 2 × 10 N/C; (c) 23 eV 107.(a,b,d) 108.(2.33) 109.(2.00)
19. (a) 20. (d) 21. (c) 22. (b) 110. (a) 111.(3.00) 112. (16.00)
23.(Z = 42) 24. (7) 25. (*) 26. (a)
27. (b) 28. (a) 29. (0.259) 30. (0.55)
31. (c) 32. (a) 33. (c) 34. (c)

1/ 2
3
35.(a) 36. ( n = 24) 37.   38. (b)
2

39. (a, c) 40. (A - p, q; B - p, r; C - p, s; D - p, q, r)

41. (b) 42. (a) 43. (a) 44. (a)
45. (A–P,R; B–Q,S; C–P; D–Q)
46. (b) 47. (a) 48. (a,b) 49. (b,d)
50. (c) 51. (c) 52. (a) 53. (a)
54. (a) 55. (b) 56. (d) 57. (d)
58. (a) 59. (b) 60. (3) 61. (8)
62. (d) 63. (b) 64. (c) 65. (1)
66. (7) 67. (7) 68. (d) 69. (c)
70. (c) 71. (a,c) 72. (4) 73. (c)
SEMICONDUCTORS 114

Answer Key
CHAPTER -11 SEMICONDUCTORS

EXERCISE - 1 : EXERCISE - 2:
BASIC OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS PREVIOUS YEAR JEE MAIN QUESTIONS

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1. (d) 2. (d) 3. (c) 4. (c) 1. (a) 2. (a) 3. (d) 4. (a)

5. (d) 6. (b) 7. (a) 8. (a) 5. (b) 6. (a) 7. (a) 8. (b)
9. (d) 10. (c) 11. (c) 12. (a)
9. (b) 10. (d) 11.(c) 12.(25)
13. (b) 14. (b) 15. (c) 16. (c)
17. (c) 18. (d) 19. (b) 20. (c) 13.(20) 14.(0) 15.(5) 16.(100)
21. (c) 22. (b) 23. (d) 24. (d) 17.(200.00) 18. (25) 19. (3) 20. (480)
25. (c) 26. (c) 27. (b) 28. (c) 21. (1) 22. (200) 23. (9) 24. (4/3)
29. (a) 30. (c) 31. (a) 32. (c)
25. (2) 26. (4) 27. (1) 28. (15)
33. (c) 34. (a) 35. (b) 36. (a)
37. (c) 38. (a) 39. (b) 40. (a) 29. (750) 30. (a) 31. (b) 32. (b)
41. (b) 42. (b) 43. (c) 44. (c) 33. (a) 34. (a) 35. (b) 36. (c)
45. (a) 46. (b) 47. (10.00) 48. (11.50)
37. (d) 38. (b) 39. (b) 40. (a)
49. (a) 50. (b) 51. (a) 52. (b)
53. (c) 54. (c) 55. (d) 56. (a) 41. (d) 42. (b) 43. (c) 44. (d)
57. (c) 58. (b) 59. (d) 60. (a) 45. (c) 46. (c) 47. (c) 48. (c)
61. (a) 62. (c) 63. (b) 64. (a) 49. (a) 50. (a) 51. (c) 52. (d)
65. (d) 66. (d) 67. (b) 68. (d)
53. (a) 54. (c) 55. (c) 56. (a)
69. (a) 70. (12.50)
71. (100.00) 72. (125.00) 57. (a) 58. (a) 59. (c) 60. (b)
73. (b) 74. (c) 75. (d) 76. (d) 61. (b) 62. (a) 63. (3.00)
77. (a) 78. (b) 79. (d) 80. (b)
81. (b) 82. (c) 83. (d)
SEMICONDUCTORS 115

CHAPTER -11 SEMICONDUCTORS

EXERCISE - 3:
ADVANCED OBJECTIVE QUESTION EXERCISE - 4:
PREVIOUS YEARS JEE ADVANCED QUESTIONS

DIRECTION TO USE -
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1. (d) 2. (a) 3. (a) 4. (c)
1. (b) 2. (b) 3. (d) 4. True
5. (a) 6. (a) 7. (d) 8. (d)
–3
9. (c) 10. (a) 11. (a) 12. (c) 5. 8 k, 12.5 × 10 A/V, 100 6. (b,d)

13. (c) 14. (b) 15. (c) 16. (a) 7. B and D, A and C

17. (c) 18. (b) 19. (a) 20. (c) 8. (b,c) 9. Reverse 10. (b) 11. (c)

21. (b) 22. (b) 23. (a) 24. (b) 12. (c) 13. (b) 14. (c) 15. (a, c)

25. (a) 26. (c) 27. (c) 28. (d)

29. (c) 30. (b) 31. (d) 32. (b)
33. (b) 34. (c) 35. (d) 36. (b)
37. (c) 38. (a) 39. (b) 40. (b)
41. (b) 42. (a) 43. (c) 44. (a)
45. (d) 46. (c) 47. (a) 48. (b)
49. (c) 50. (a) 51. (c) 52. (d)
53. (c) 54. (c) 55. (a) 56. (d)
57. (b) 58. (a) 59. (a) 60. (a)
61. (b) 62. (b) 63. (a) 64. (d)
65. (b, c) 66. (a, c) 67. (b, c)
68. (a) (b) (d) 69. (b, d) 70. (a, d)
71. (a, b, c, d) 72. (40.00)
73. (150.00) 74. (1.00) 75. 5.00