XAT

2020
Previous Year Question Papers
with Solutions

www.jaipuria.ac.in
 English XAT 2020
Instructions
For the following questions answer them individually

Question 1

Carefully read the paragraph below:

A map is a useful metaphor for our brain when talking about _______ because at its most basic level our brain __________to be our atlas
of sorts, a system of routes _______to navigate us toward just one destination: staying alive!

From the options below, choose the set that MOST appropriately fills up the blanks.

A Perception, evolved, designed

B Understanding, progressed, shaped

C Connections, changed, molded

D Design, developed, shaped

E Comprehension, metamorphosed, designed

Answer: A

Explanation:
The first blank needs a word that means "the way it is understood" so from the options it can be either perception, understanding or
comprehension. In the second blank, the word we require is one that means develop, but as it concerns the human brain, it will make
more sense to use the word evolve (gradually develop).

Hence the correct option will be A.

Question 2

Carefully read the paragraph below:

__________, medicine has been operated by trial and error, in other words, __________. We know by now that there can be
entirely_________ connections between symptoms and treatment, and some medications succeed in medical trials for mere random
reasons.

From the options below, choose the one that MOST appropriately fills up the blanks.

A Formerly, randomly, accidental

B Traditionally, analytically, casual

C Initially, statistically, unexpected

D Periodically, logically, arbitrary

E Historically, arbitrarily, fortuitous

Answer: E

Explanation:
The first blank requires a word that refers to the events of the past; the best-suited word is "historically".
In the second blank, we need a word that goes with the idea of random choices; here, both "random" and "arbitrarily" are well suited.
The third blank requires a word that means by chance or luck, "fortuitous" is the best fit here.
Hence the correct choice is E.
Question 3
XAT 2020
Read the following sentences and answer the question that follows:
1. I have good knowledge of German.
2. Except for Rajiv, everybody was there.
3. Whole Delhi was celebrating Independence Day.
4. Neither the dog, nor is the cat responsible for this mess.
5. He knows to swim.
6. I look forward to seeing you.

Which of the above are grammatically INCORRECT?

A 2,4,6

B 4,5,6

C 1,3,5

D 3,5,6

E 1,2,5

Answer: C

Explanation:
In 1, though the sentence "I have good knowledge of German" is correct as a response to a question, when used by itself, the
appropriate phrasing is "I have good knowledge of the German language".
In 3, "whole" should be replaced with "the whole of" when used before a proper noun (Delhi).
In 5, similar to 1, the correct usage is "He knows how to swim".

So the incorrect options are 135; hence the answer is C.

Question 4

Which of the following is a grammatically CORRECT sentence?

A You had better told her everything, or else you will lose a friend.

B You had better told her everything, or else you would lose a friend.

C You had better tell her everything, or else you will lose a friend.

D You better had tell her everything, or else you will lose a friend.

E You better had tell her everything, or else you would lose a friend.

Answer: C

Explanation:
The first part of the sentence deals with the correct usage of the word "had" and "tell".

"had better" is a semi modal verb (used to express need or necessity) used to give strong advice and is the correct usage.
Since "had better" implies advice to be followed, the verb that follows cannot be in the past tense, so the correct selection is "tell".

In the second part of the sentence, the choices are between will and would, considering the first part of the sentence, we need future
perfect simple tense, in this case, "will".

Hence the correct option is C.

Instructions

Read the passage below and answer the 3 associated questions:

Once, during a concert of cathedral organ music, as I sat getting gooseflesh amid that tsunami of sound, I was struck with a thought:

for
a medieval peasant, this must have been the loudest human-made sound they ever experienced, awe-inspiring in now-unimaginable
XAT 2020
ways. No wonder they signed up for the religion being proffered. And now we are constantly pummeled with sounds that dwarf quaint
organs. Once, hunter-gatherers might chance upon honey from a beehive and thus briefly satisfy a hardwired food craving. And now we
have hundreds of carefully designed commercial foods that supply a burst of sensation unmatched by some lowly natural food. Once,
we had lives that, amid considerable privation, also offered numerous subtle, hard-won pleasures. And now we have drugs that cause
spasms of pleasure and dopamine release a thousandfold higher than anything stimulated in our old drug-free world.
An emptiness comes from this combination of over-the-top nonnatural sources of reward and the inevitability of habituation; this is
because unnaturally strong explosions of synthetic experience and sensation and pleasure evoke unnaturally strong degrees of
habituation. This has two consequences. First, soon we barely notice the fleeting whispers of pleasure caused by leaves in autumn, or
by the lingering glance of the right person, or by the promise of reward following a difficult, worthy task. And the other consequence is
that we eventually habituate to even those artificial deluges of intensity. If we were designed by engineers, as we consumed more, we’d
desire less. But our frequent human tragedy is that the more we consume, the hungrier we get. More and faster and stronger. What was
an unexpected pleasure yesterday is what we feel entitled to today, and what won’t be enough tomorrow.

Question 5

Which of the following options BEST reflects the author’s understanding of human perception of pleasure?

A Pleasure comes from whatever we are exposed to for the first time

B Pleasure comes from what we are deprived of

C Pleasure comes from what appears to be a valuable discovery or invention

D Pleasure comes from what is perceived to be extraordinary

E Pleasure comes from what we are accustomed to

Answer: D

Explanation:
The passage conveys the idea that what is "What was an unexpected pleasure yesterday is what we feel entitled to today, and what
won’t be enough tomorrow", this is because once it happens it is no longer unexpected or extraordinary. So pleasure comes from what
is perceived to be exceptional or extraordinary. Hence option D.

Question 6

Going by the author, which of the following options BEST answers the question “how can one sustain the pleasure derived from any
experience?"

A Training to appreciate sweet whispers and fleeting moments of joy to sustain pleasure

B Periodic displeasure with synthetic experiences leads to sustaining pleasure

C The harder to replicate, the more sustainable the pleasure from that experience

D The closer the experience is to nature, the more sustainable it is

E Awareness of a habituation moment helps sustain pleasure

Answer: C

Explanation:
Throughout the passage, the author puts forward the idea that the easy availability of a source makes it impossible for us to savour the
pleasure for long. Hence to sustain the joy, it must be derived from a source that is hard to replicate. In option C, this is the exact idea
being conveyed.

So the correct option is C.

Question 7

Which of the following options BEST describes “emptiness” as described in the passage?

A A feeling, evoked by the carefully designed commercial foods, alluring us to them

 A feeling of absence of sources of pleasure when extant sources are in abundance
B
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C Yearning for newer sources of pleasure when extant sources are in abundance

D A feeling of weariness around extant sources of pleasure that are in abundance

E The inevitability of habituation that one gets from repeated consumption of man-made foods or drugs

Answer: B

Explanation:
Emptiness, by definition, relates to the lack or absence of something, here "unnaturally strong explosions of synthetic experience and
sensation and pleasure evoke unnaturally strong degrees of habituation."

Hence the correct option is B.

Instructions
For the following questions answer them individually

Question 8

Read the following paragraph and answer the question that follows:

“People who work in law, hotel and food services, and technology were found the most likely to skip breakfast daily, according to a
recent study. As for people who do eat breakfast and prefer a savoury type (like an egg), the study found they tend to make more
money, be night owls and prefer cats over dogs. If you prefer a sweet breakfast like a donut you tend to be a morning person, like
romcoms and are a dog person”.

Which of the following can be BEST inferred based on the above paragraph?

IT professionals, who eat eggs for breakfast, are more likely to make more money than their counterparts who eat donuts for
A
breakfast.

B Lawyers, who eat savory breakfast daily, make more money than those lawyers who have early breakfast daily.

C Hoteliers who eat regular breakfast are more likely to make more money than those who watch romcoms regularly.

D Among regular breakfast eaters, early risers have more sugar in their breakfast than late risers.

E A preference for cats as pets over dogs, usually, is a result of eating eggs for breakfast daily.

Answer: A

Explanation:
While comparing any two cases, the parameters should be comparable as per the given statements. Option B is incorrect as savoury
(salty or spicy) breakfast cannot be compared with early breakfast. Similarly, C is wrong as there is no correlation between being
making more money and their tendency to eat breakfast regularly. As for option D, in the passage, it is stated that people who prefer
sweet breakfast tend to be an early riser and not the other way around, hence incorrect. As far as E is concerned again, there is no
mention of preference of pet being a direct result of the choice of food. In option A all the relations are directly mentioned in the
passage and hence is the right option.

Instructions

Read the poem below and answer the 2 associated questions:

Some say the world will end in fire,

Some say in ice.
From what I’ve tasted of desire
I hold with those who favor fire.
But, if it had to perish twice,
I think I know enough of hate
To know that for destruction ice
Is also great
And would suffice.
Question 9
XAT 2020
Which of the following statements will the poet agree with the MOST?

A Greed can destroy one’s world.

B Both desire and hate can create self-doubt.

C Hatred destroys what desire cannot.

D Desire overpowers hatred to control humans.

E Ambition is more powerful than envy.

Answer: A

Explanation:
Here we are looking for an option in which the idea is not directly given in the poem, but can be reasonably inferred from it.
Of the options, B C & D talk about the emotions already discussed in the poem.
Option E makes a comparison of two emotions which cannot be inferred from the poem.
Option A talks about greed, which can be considered a product of desire and hence is the apt choice.

Question 10

Which is the MOST UNSUITABLE title of the poem?

A The Annihilation Hypothesis

B Love and Detest- A Tale of Destruction

C How the World Ends

D Destruction by Fire and Ice

E Emotional Destruction of the World

Answer: E

Instructions
For the following questions answer them individually

Question 11

Read the following paragraph and answer the question that follows:

In a 2017 survey of 3,915 American workers, my colleagues and I found that workers report experiencing a sizable “voice gap” at
work — that is, a gap between how much say or influence they feel they ought to have and how much they actually have — on topics
such as wages, working conditions, fair treatment, and input into how they do their work.
And now a second study, I have just completed with a new team, finds that today’s workers want forms of voice and representation
that go well beyond traditional unions.

Based on the above paragraph, which of the following options would you agree with the MOST?

A The first study defines the concept and the second study uses the concept in a specific context.

B The first study shows the intensity of the problem and the second study shows limitations of the existing solutions.

The first study shows the frustration of the American workers and the second study shows the inability of unions in addressing
C
them.

D The first study focuses on the need for fair representation and the second study discusses forms of representation.
E The first study highlights the existence of the problem and the second study highlights the need for new ways o
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Answer: E

Explanation:
The first study identifies the existence of a problem, and it is that the voice of the workers is not given the desired importance. The
second study shows the need for new ways, beyond traditional ones such as unions, to solve the problem.

Hence the correct option is E.

Instructions

Read the passage below and answer the 3 associated questions:

There is nothing spectacularly new in the situation. Most old-societies-turned-young-nation-states learn to live in a world dominated by
the psychology and culture of exile. For some, the twentieth century has been a century of refugees. Others like Hannah Arendt have
identified refugees as virtually a new species of human being who have come to symbolize the distinctive violence of our time.
Refugees as contemporary symbols, however, proclaim something more than a pathology of a global nation-state system. They also
represent a state of mind, a form of psychological displacement that has become endemic to modernizing societies. One does not even
have to cross national frontiers to become a refugee; one can choose to be seduced by the ‘pull’ of self-induced displacement rather
than be ‘pushed’ by an oppressive or violent system at home. It is this changed status of territoriality in human life that explains why, in
immigrant societies like the United States, the metaphor of exile is now jaded. Some have already begun to argue that human beings
need not have a ‘home’ as it has been traditionally understood in large parts of the world, that the idea itself is a red herring. While the
idea of exile begins to appear trite in intellectual circles, an increasingly large proportion of the world is getting reconciled to living with
the labile sense of self. Exile no longer seems a pathology or an affliction. Displacement and the psychology of exile are in; cultural
continuities and settled communities are out; there is a touch of ennui about them.

Question 12

Which of the following options is CLOSEST to the meaning of the phrase “labile sense of self”?

A History does not confine the self.

B Humans are not meant to be shunted around.

C The self adapts to a new geography.

D Geography does not imprison the self.

E The self does not belong to a particular geography.

Answer: C

Explanation:
The word labile refers to the ability to the tendency to alter or adapt quickly. So the phrase "labile sense of self" concerning refugees and
exile means the ability of a refugee to adapt to new geography.

Hence the correct option is C.

Question 13

Based on the passage, which of the following will the author DISAGREE the MOST with?

A One does not have to cross frontiers to become a refugee.

B Intellectuals find the notion of exile irrelevant.

C Refugees symbolize exploitation and abuse of our times.

D Being a refugee is a state of mind.

E A feeling of alienation in modernizing societies is a common phenomenon.

Answer: C

Explanation:
The statement "one can choose to be seduced by the ‘pull’ of self-induced displacement rather than be ‘pushed’ by an oppressive or
violent system at home" is opposing the idea that refugees always symbolises exploitation and abuses of our time.
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The other options either agree with the views of the author or are not mentioned in the passage. We cannot use ungiven information to
make conclusions.

Hence the correct option is C.

Question 14
Project Affected Families (PAF are those that are physically displaced due to construction of a large project (dam, factory etc. in an
area where the PAF traditionally resided.
With insights from the passage, what would a project proponent, dealing with PAF, reading the following options agree the MOST
with?

A PAF as a concept is irrelevant since human displacement is a historical phenomenon.

B Industry and government should care equally about profits and people.

C Don’t worry about PAF, they will eventually resettle and rehabilitate.

D Emotional estrangement of PAF is not an area of concern.

E PAF do not have a labile sense of self.

Answer: D

Explanation:
From the sentence "They also represent a state of mind, a form of psychological displacement that has become endemic to
modernizing societies" it is clear that many people now consider refugees as a common occurrence or byproduct of development.
Hence emotional estrangement of the PAF is not going to a concern for a project proponent.
The other options are either irrelevant to the concern of someone who supports the project or is unrelated to the context.
So the correct choice is D.

Instructions
For the following questions answer them individually

Question 15

Read the following paragraph and answer the question that follows:
In Australia, jellyfish are most common between November and May. In Hawaii, jellyfish often show up on south-facing beaches eight
days after a full moon. In the Mediterranean, blooms usually appear in the summer. Unfortunately for travellers, there is no worldwide
database for recent jellyfish sightings, and tourism officials are sometimes reluctant to publicize jellyfish swarms out of fear that
such news will scare off visitors.
Which of the following can be BEST concluded from the above paragraph?

A Celestial bodies have an influence on jellyfish sightings.

B Economic interests influence security advisories.

C Tourism officials hide the truth about jellyfish sightings.

D Seasonal variations in the marine temperature impact jellyfish sightings.

E Tourists visiting north-facing beaches in Hawaii do not spot jellyfish.

Answer: A

Explanation:
While some of the other options can be assumed indirectly from the passage, "In Hawaii, jellyfish often show up on south-facing
beaches eight days after a full moon" clearly indicate that celestial bodies (moon) affect jellyfish sighting.

Hence we can conclude only option A from the passage.

Question 16
XAT 2020
Read the following paragraph and answer the question that follows:

Global surface temperatures in 2019 are on track to be either the second or third warmest since records began in the mid-1800s,
behind only 2016 and possibly 2017. On top of the long-term warming trend, temperatures in 2019 have been buoyed by a moderate
El Niño event that is likely to persist through the rest of the year.

Which of the following statements can be BEST inferred based on the above paragraph?

A El Niño event causes global surface temperatures to rise in the long-term.

B A moderate El Niño event increases temperature more than a weak El Niño event.

C El Niño event did not affect temperatures in 2016 and 2017.

D The long-term trend of global surface temperatures is unrelated to El Niño.

E Global surface temperatures are increasing at a constant rate for three years.

Answer: D

Explanation:
From the passage, we can understand that El Niño is an event that has affected the global surface temperatures only in 2019 and that it
is likely to persist through the rest of the year. So it is unlikely that it will have any long term effects.
There is no comparison of moderate and weak El Niño in the passage.
There is no mention about El Niño occurrence in 2016 and 2017, therefore, it would be incorrect to assume anything.
From the data given it is clear that in 2019 the termprature, though high, is less than that of 2016 and 2017 so it is not true that global
surface tempratures are increasing at a constant rate for the last three years.
Hence the correct option is A.

Question 17
Read the following paragraph and answer the question that follows:
If we can send a human to the Moon, why can’t we build sustainable cities? Defeat cancer? Tackle climate change? So, go the rallying
cries inspired by one of humanity’s greatest achievements, the US effort that put Neil Armstrong and Buzz Aldrin on the Moon on 20
July 1969.

Which of the following statements, if true, BEST communicates the intent of the paragraph?

A America’s moonshot was more about race to the moon and less about solving problems.

B America’s moonshot initiative was mainly a response to USSR’s competing initiative.

C The reason we celebrate 1969 moonshot is precisely because nothing significant has been done in that domain since then.

D Moonshot has a definitive ownership, whereas creating sustainable cities and curing cancer are public-good problems.

E The complexity of developing sustainable cities and curing cancer is far more than sending a human to the moon.

Answer: E

Explanation:
From the passage, it is clear that despite having sent man to the moon, we are yet to come up with a solution for cancer or the
development of sustainable cities. Hence from the paragraph, we can understand the intention to state that the lateral are more
complex issues than the former. Therefore the correct answer is E.
Question 18
XAT 2020
Read the following paragraph and answer the question that follows:

When asked what the politician will do for the nation’s economy, he attacked the opponent by saying, “Look at that face! Would
anyone vote for that? I mean, she’s a woman, and I’m not supposed to say bad things, but really, folks, come on. Are we serious?
Nevertheless, we’re going to defeat ISIS. ISIS happened a number of years ago in a vacuum that was left because of bad judgment.
And I will tell you, I will take care of ISIS.”

Which of the following statements BEST describes the politician’s intent?

A To make an emotional appeal to the voters

B To appeal to the macho voters and use fear as a tool to lure voters

C To divert attention towards ISIS as compared to the economy

D To make a sexist remark and share his concern about an important issue

E To digress and argue that security is more important than economy

Answer: A

Instructions

Read the passage below and answer the 3 associated questions:

The nature of knowledge cannot survive unchanged within this context of general transformation. It can fit into the new channels, and
become operational, only if learning is translated into quantities of information. We can predict that anything in the constituted body of
knowledge that is not translatable in this way will be abandoned and that the direction of new research will be dictated by the possibility
of its eventual results being translatable into computer language. The “producers” and users of knowledge must know, and will have to,
possess the means of translating into these languages whatever they want to invent or learn. Research on translating machines is
already well advanced. Along with the hegemony of computers comes a certain logic, and therefore a certain set of prescriptions
determining which statements are accepted as “knowledge” statements.
We may thus expect a thorough exteriorisation of knowledge with respect to the “knower,” at whatever point he or she may occupy in
the knowledge process. The old principle that the acquisition of knowledge is indissociable from the training (Bildung) of minds, or even
of individuals, is becoming obsolete and will become ever more so. The relationships of the suppliers and users of knowledge to the
knowledge they supply and use is now tending, and will increasingly tend, to assume the form already taken by the relationship of
commodity producers and consumers to the commodities they produce and consume - that is, the form of value. Knowledge is and will
be produced in order to be sold, it is and will be consumed in order to be valorised in a new production: in both cases, the goal is
exchange.
Knowledge ceases to be an end in itself, it loses its “use-value.”

Question 19

Which of the following statements BEST captures the essence of the passage?

A Knowledge shall no longer be evaluated by its truth but its commercial value.

B Translation of knowledge into machine language exteriorises it.

C Suppliers and users of knowledge have become its producers and consumers.

D Knowledge shall be exclusively produced to be sold.

E Market forces have taken over the process of knowledge production.

Answer: A

Explanation:
The author is trying to convey the idea that knowledge has gradually become a commercial entity that is no longer held accountable by
the value of truth it holds. From various instances in the passage like "knowledge is and will be produced in order to be sold, it is and will
be consumed in order to be valorised in a new production" infer this message.
Option B is irrelevant to the message of the passage, while C, D & E do not capture the essence entirely.

Hence the correct answer is option A.

 XAT 2020
Question 20

Based on the passage, which of the following statements can be BEST inferred?

A For knowledge to acquire an exchange-value, it should cease to have a use-value.

B Acquisition of knowledge need no longer transform its recipient.

C The locus of creation and accumulation of knowledge has shifted.

D Knowledge as a transactional commodity is indispensable to productive power.

E Mental discipline is not necessary for learning anymore.

Answer: B

Explanation:
The idea that knowledge no longer transforms the recipient can be inferred from the statement "The old principle that the acquisition of
knowledge is indissociable from the training (Bildung) of minds, or even of individuals, is becoming obsolete and will become ever more
so." While the other options contradict the statement or are irrelevant to the idea of the passage, option B states the same.
Hence B is the correct option.

Question 21

Which of the following options will the author agree the MOST with?

A A daughter of a lawyer must become a lawyer.

B A person with no passion for singing, if trained, will sing perfectly.

C To get promoted, an unempathetic manager can learn to display empathy.

D To teach poetry, one must not be a poet.

E MBA program has a high exchange-value but zero use-value.

Answer: C

Explanation:
The author tries to convey the idea that knowledge is no longer evaluated by its truth or originality but rather by its value as a
commodity. None except is option C goes well with this idea. In C, the manager hides his true self to get promoted, here the rather than
revealing the truth the manager puts forward a self which has more value as a commodity in the job industry.

Instructions

Read the passage below and answer the 3 associated questions:

It’s as if someone were out there making up pointless jobs just for the sake of keeping us all working. And here, precisely, lies the
mystery. In capitalism, this is precisely what is not supposed to happen. Sure, in the old inefficient socialist states like the Soviet Union,
where employment was considered both a right and a sacred duty, the system made up as many jobs as it had to. (This is why in Soviet
department stores it took three clerks to sell a piece of meat.) But, of course, this is the very sort of problem market competition is
supposed to fix. According to economic theory, at least, the last thing a profit-seeking firm is going to do is shell out money to workers
they don’t really need to employ. Still, somehow, it happens. While corporations may engage in ruthless downsizing, the layoffs and
speed-ups invariably fall on that class of people who are actually making, moving, fixing, and maintaining things. Through some strange
alchemy no one can quite explain, the number of salaried paper pushers ultimately seems to expand, and more and more employees
find themselves—not unlike Soviet workers, actually—working forty- or even fifty-hour weeks on paper but effectively working fifteen
hours just as Keynes predicted, since the rest of their time is spent organizing or attending motivational seminars, updating their
Facebook profiles, or downloading TV box sets. The answer clearly isn’t economic: it’s moral and political. The ruling class has figured
out that a happy and productive population with free time on their hands is a mortal danger. (Think of what started to happen when this
even began to be approximated in the sixties.) And, on the other hand, the feeling that work is a moral value in itself, and that anyone
not willing to submit themselves to some kind of intense work discipline for most of their waking hours deserves nothing, is
extraordinarily convenient for them.
Question 22
XAT 2020
Which of the following options, if true, BEST makes the author’s assertion on pointless jobs erroneous?

A Workers who carry out pointless jobs are more loyal to the organization than others.

B Pointless jobs add less value to the organization than the jobs of those who are making or fixing things.

C Pointless jobs decrease the efficiency of the organization since they replace those who are making, fixing and moving things.

D Organizations with a higher number of pointless jobs are more profitable than those with less.

Even though the rate of increase in pointless jobs is higher, their absolute number on an average is lower than that of meaningful
E
jobs.

Answer: D

Explanation:
In point put forward by the author in the passage is that despite being an unprofitable endeavour, organisations keep employing people
for pointless jobs to =keep the masses occupied and prevent them from meddling with the status quo.
Of the statements in the option, D if correct would mean that organisations are minting profits by employing people for pointless jobs,
this would directly contradict with the point put forth by the author. None of the other options makes a relevant stand to debunk the
author's views.
Hence D is the correct option.

Question 23

Which of the following can be BEST inferred from the passage?

A The ruling class abhors leisure so much that they encourage organizations to create unwanted jobs.

B Keeping people employed for longer hours serves the plans of the ruling class.

C Work as a moral right is the design of the ruling class to cut down on leisure.

D For political reasons, profit-making firms sometimes indulge in non-profitable decisions.

E Pointless jobs are here to stay, regardless of whether they are necessary or not.

Answer: B

Explanation:
From the statement "The ruling class has figured out that a happy and productive population with free time on their hands is a mortal
danger", it can be inferred that keeping people employed for more extended hours servers the plans of the ruling class. Moreover, there
is no clear indication for any of the other options to be inferred. Hence the correct answer is B.

Question 24

Which of the following statements will BEST explain the principle underlying the theme of the passage?

A Organizations that create more jobs are rewarded by the government for protecting political values.

B Work is a moral value in itself.

C People unwilling to submit to an intense work discipline deserve nothing.

D Keynes predicted that a happy and productive workforce is a force for the good.

E Peace and order in society require humans to be engaged in some activity most of the time, regardless of its meaninglessness.
Answer: E
Explanation:
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The author tries to understand why there are so many pointless jobs when there should be none in an efficient capitalist system. He
concludes that this is because the ruling class create these jobs to keep the masses occupied as they are a danger to the existing state
of affairs. The author states, "The ruling class has figured out that a happy and productive population with free time on their hands is a
mortal danger."

Hence the most appropriate answer is E.

Instructions
For the following questions answer them individually

Question 25

Go through the statements below and answer the question that follows:

P. Fast food intake for more than three times a week is associated with greater odds of atopic disorders such as asthma, eczema or
rhinitis. Thus, it should be definitely and strictly controlled in children as it does no good.
Q. Regular junk food intake can lead to physical and psychological issues among children.
R. Lack of Vitamins such as A and C, and minerals such as magnesium and calcium, encourage the development of deficiency
diseases and osteoporosis, as well as dental caries due to higher intake.
S. Junk food, which are rich in energy with lots of fat and sugar, are relatively low in other important nutrients such as protein, fiber,
vitamins and minerals.
T. Emotional and self-esteem problems, along with chronic illnesses in later life due to obesity, are the issues associated with the
junk food.

Which of the following combinations is the MOST logically ordered?

A QSRTP

B QRSPT

C TQSRP

D TSQRP

E RSQPT

Answer: A

Explanation:
Q is an opening statement that puts forward the idea that regular consumption of junk food can cause problems. S lists out the
nutritional facts about junk food and hence validates Q, while R is a supporting statement for S. T explains the various health hazards
caused by junk food and P takes it a step forwards and lists out the long term effects of regular fast food consumption.

Hence the correct order is QSRTP.

Question 26

Go through the statements below and answer the question that follows:

P. Surabhi’s Instagram profile has 1.4 million followers. It is filled with pictures of her posing in different settings.
Q. In India, reports suggest that WhatsApp (Much more than Facebook or Twitter) is the primary tool for the dissemination of political
communication.
R. Political campaigns pay social media companies to promote their content.
S. Political advertising on social media comes in many forms and remains underexamined in India.
T. Social media influencers are used for the dissemination of content.

Which of the following combinations is the MOST logically ordered?

A SQRTP
B QRTPS

C QRSTP
 SRQTP
D XAT 2020
E PRSTQ

Answer: D

Explanation:
S introduces the idea that political parties use social media for advertising. R explains how political parties pay social media for the
same. Q takes a look at how it is done in India and T explains the roles of influencers in implementing Q and P an example of Q.So the

correct order is SRQTP.

Decision Making
Instructions
Read the situation below and answer the 3 associated questions:
Vindhya, Shabnam and Amala are interning at a software organization as part of the requirement of their B-school curriculum.
The organization has allotted each of them a project based on their area of specialization. In the first meeting with the HR head, they
are informed of a PPO possibility (pre-placement offer, i.e., an offer to join the company after their MBA), based on their performance.
All of them are eager to convert their internship into a job offer.
Each of them is assigned a mentor who evaluates the intern's performance along with the HR head.

Question 27
In the second week of her eight-week internship, Amala realizes that the project requires inputs from subjects she studied in her third
trimester. However, during the third trimester, Amala was significantly distracted by an inter-college sports meet, affecting her grasp
of the subjects.
Which of the following is the MOST appropriate way forward for Amala?

A Amala should request her mentor to allocate a different project because of her limited familiarity with the inputs required.

B Amala should disclose to the mentor her limited understanding of the required inputs and seek his suggestions.

C Amala should seek Shabnam’s help who performed well in the third trimester.

D Amala should realize that she may not get a PPO and so focus on networking with the experienced talent in the organization.

E Amala, after studying the organization for a week, should design her own project and pitch it to her mentor.

Answer: B

Question 28
Vindhya’s project is about understanding employee perception regarding the organization’s HR policies. Against her own instinct, she
is suggested by her mentor to interview only the good performers identified by his office because poor performers, he believes,
usually crib against the policies.

Which of the following courses of action will BEST enable Vindhya to provide the organization with a complete picture?

A Vindhya should completely comply with her mentor’s suggestion.

Vindhya should ignore her mentor’s directive, collect data from all, but compile reports separately for the good performers and the
B
poor performers.

C Vindhya should report this restraint to the HR head requesting her immediate intervention in the project.

D Vindhya should request the HR Head to allot her another mentor without divulging the reason.
 XAT 2020

Vindhya should meet only those identified by her mentor, but also collect information from them as why their other colleagues are
E disgruntled.

Answer: E

Question 29

Shabnam, who is working on sales executives’ work-life balance, has collected the following details about their frequent travels:

1. Frequent meetings help strengthen relationships with key customers.

2. Travelling has no effect on the personal lives of the sales executives as most of them are single.
3. Travel enhances the financial health of the sales executives since their fixed salaries are low.
4. Frequent travel has no significant impact on market budget, given the current high margins from sales.
5. The sales executives have the autonomy to decide the frequency of their travel.

Shabnam thinks that the frequency of travel is higher than required.

Which of the following combinations of the above reasons can enable Shabnam BEST substantiate her thinking?

A 1, 2 and 4

B 2, 3 and 4

C 3, 4 and 5

D 2, 3 and 5

E 1, 3 and 5

Answer: C

Instructions

Read the situation below and answer the 3 associated questions:

A Multinational Company (MNC) sources pristine natural spring water from Bori, a village in Satpura mountains. The unprocessed
natural spring water is directly bottled by the MNC. The company brands it as “Natural Spring Water” and sells at 50% premium vis-a-vis
other brands that sell processed water.

The local panchayat, under the Panchayati Raj Act, 1992 controls the spring water usage. Hence, the company signed a 30-year contract
with the panchayat for exclusive access to the spring water for business purposes. This contract contributes 50% to the panchayat’s
revenues besides providing 250 jobs in the panchayat. The spring also meets domestic and agricultural needs of the people of Bori and
the surrounding villages.

Question 30

Chanchala owns a small parcel of farming land in Bori. She grows cannabis in some part of her land and earns a significant amount
of money from it. Soon after the bottling plant was commissioned, Chanchala, instigated by a landlord with a vested interest, starts
accusing the MNC of robbing her of water and impacting her livelihood. She threatens to take the MNC to court.
Which of the following options will BEST solve the MNC’s problem?

A Promise to employ Chanchala’s 17-year-old son as he turns 18

B Request the panchayat to excommunicate Chanchala for cultivating cannabis

C Buy Chanchala’s produce at a premium of 30% to the market price

D Get the villagers employed by the MNC to persuade Chanchala not to sue

E Compensate the monetary loss as perceived by Chanchala

Answer: D
Question 31
XAT 2020
The MNC has spotted traces of chemicals in their fortnightly water quality analysis. The MNC realizes that this is due to the
contaminated agricultural runoff, flowing into the spring from the nearby fields where farmers use pesticides and fertilizers.
This requires an immediate solution. Which of the following options will BEST resolve the situation for the MNC?

A Continue bottling the natural spring water without processing since the villagers drink it as it is

Since the customers trust the MNC to do what is good for them, remove the contaminants and continue to brand as “Natural Spring
B
Water”

C Rebrand “Natural Spring Water” as “Purified Spring Water” after removing the contaminants through charcoal filtering

D Close down the bottling plant until the problem is resolved and inform the media that customer interests override profit concerns

E Source water from an uncontaminated natural spring 150 kms away at an addition of 50% to the total cost

Answer: E

Question 32

The MNC is concerned about chemical contamination of the natural spring water due to the agricultural runoff with pesticides and
fertilizers. The MNC is looking for a sustainable solution to this contamination.

Which of the following courses of action will BEST solve the issue?

A Negotiate with the Panchayat to gain control of the entire spring and provide alternate sources of irrigation for farming

B Change branding from “Natural Spring Water” to “Processed Drinking Water”

C Move to another state with unexploited natural springs

D Coax the farmers in the natural spring’s catchment to move to organic farming

E Acquire all agricultural land in the natural spring’s catchment and afforest them

Answer: D

Instructions

Read the situation below and answer the 3 associated questions:

The Small Shop, selling computer peripherals, is the only one of its kind in the remote village of Turturunk. Because online purchases
take two weeks or more to arrive, The Small Shop is a quick stop for buying items such as pen drives and USB cables. Besides selling
computer peripherals, The Small Shop also undertakes repairs of out-of-warranty products.

Question 33

The Small Shop which earlier recorded an annual increase of approximately 12% in revenues has been stagnating at 4% for the last
three years, during which e-commerce sidelined brick and mortar outlets. The shop is struggling to increase profitability. In general,
The Small Shop has been offering a discount on MRP to compete with e-commerce prices.
Which of the following is the BEST reason for The Small Shop NOT to reduce the current discount offered to the customers?

A A large fading sign prominently placed behind the shop’s cash counter reads “in business and in life, always be fair”.

Recently customers from a nearby village have started shopping at The Small Shop for low-end peripherals, accounting for around
B
3% of the shop’s total revenues.

C To cover insurance costs, e-commerce has begun charging a delivery fee from last year.

D A new resident who earlier worked in the computer hardware industry is contemplating starting a business in Turturunk.

E Even though e-commerce offers a greater range of choices, villagers prefer buying readily available products from The Small Shop.
Answer: E
 XAT 2020
Question 34

The Small Shop wants to increase the variety of products sold, including expensive ones. However, it is averse to accumulating
unsold products, specifically of the expensive kind.
Which of the following is the BEST option if The Small Shop wants to increase the variety of the products it sells?

The Small Shop should make an arrangement with a retailer of the nearest city. The shop can spare one of its employees once a
A
week to procure the weekly requirements.

B The Small Shop should focus only on low-end peripherals that currently contribute to 60% of its revenues.

The Small Shop should get suppliers to courier its requirements to the shop whenever needed. The suppliers require that The Small
C
Shop orders a minimum quantity every month.

D The Small Shop should acquire extra space at lower rentals available at a distance of three kilometres from its current location.

E The Small Shop should focus exclusively on high-end peripherals which contribute to 10% of its revenues but 25% of its profits.

Answer: A

Question 35

An emerging brand offers a franchise to The Small Shop for repairing its products, on a condition that other brands are not to be
repaired. Repairs currently account for 15% of its revenues.
Which of the following, if true, will BEST help The Small Shop to decide on the franchise?

The Small Shop will have to send two of its employees for a three-month training if it wishes to be a franchisee. The emerging brand
A
will bear the training cost.

B The upcoming brand is very new and needs franchisees desperately.

C Revenues from repairs are expected to increase by about 3-5 percent annually.

D No big and reputed brand has shown any interest in franchising The Small Shop.

For the first three years, the emerging brand has offered to pay a fixed amount equal to the revenues earned from repairs the
E
previous year.

Answer: C

Instructions

Read the situation below and answer the 3 associated questions:

When Deepti opened the package, she was aghast. She received cotton pillow covers instead of satin pillow covers, she had ordered.
Deepti ordered them for her father from a popular e-commerce website that hosted products of many sellers.
Confused, Deepti contacted the seller’s office using the details given on the package. The seller’s representative profusely regretted and
promised to send the satin pillow covers at no extra cost. He added that Deepti need not return the cotton covers she received. Deepti
happily accepted the deal.
A few days later, Deepti received another package from the seller. Unfortunately, this package also contained cotton pillow covers.
Completely disillusioned with the seller’s professionalism, Deepti decided to put to use these cotton pillow covers also.

Question 36

A few days later, Deepti received an email from the e-commerce website, requesting her to share feedback about the seller. Deeply
frustrated with the overall online purchasing experience, she deliberately ignored it.
Later that evening, over supper, her father opined that the balcony curtains needed to be changed. He suggested that they be bought
from a local shop. “If something went wrong, we could at least yell at the seller,” he added.
Deepti stared at her laptop and began writing her feedback.
What would Deepti DEFINITELY achieve by giving feedback?
A Prove a point to her father
XAT 2020

B Release her frustration

C Coerce the e-commerce website to punish the seller

D Instigate people against the seller

E An act of social service

Answer: B

Question 37
In the feedback column, Deepti awarded 1-star out of the maximum 5 stars to the seller and described her negative experience.
Later that evening, the sales head called and pleaded with her to retract her feedback and upgrade them to 5-star, as they had already
fired the employee concerned. He appealed that they were a young organization and that their sales were getting badly affected.
Given the circumstances, what should be the IDEAL response?

A She should retain the feedback but award 3-star as a consolation measure.

B She should stick to her feedback and the stars awarded since she reported only what had taken place.

C She should retract the feedback and award 5-star as the seller has already punished the concerned employee.

D She should order again with the same seller and share her renewed experience.

E She should retract the feedback and award 5-star since sales are getting affected.

Answer: B

Question 38

After a few months, the sales head enquired, “In case you are using the cotton pillow covers and like them, kindly rate them on the e-
commerce website. It will help us serve our customers better.”
Later that evening, her father remarked, “You know, I really love these pillow covers though I am not sure why you bought so many of
them”.
Which of the following reasons gives Deepti the BEST rationale to ignore the sales head’s request?

A Acceding to the request will imply that she was wrong in ordering satin pillow covers in the first place.

B If the seller truly cared about customers, they should have shipped the satin pillow covers by now.

C Her review will lack credibility since there is no proof that she purchased the product.

D Acceding to the request benefits just the seller while her sore experience remains.

E Cotton pillow covers were delivered erroneously. Hence the seller does not deserve appreciation.

Answer: B

Instructions

Read the situation below and answer the 3 associated questions:

Rakesh, who hailed from Dhanbad, worked in Jamshedpur with SPCIL, a government construction company. Although HR policies
concerning job security & work-life balance attracted Rakesh to SPCIL, over time he found his work monotonous with no growth
opportunities. However, the proximity to Dhanbad enabled him to visit his parents at his convenience.

Recently Rakesh applied to Grow and Prosper (G&P), a multinational company engaged in construction related operations, making
inroads into many Indian states. G&P interviewed Rakesh and offered him three times his current salary at SPCIL.
Question 39
XAT 2020
While considering G&P’s offer, Rakesh pondered over the following facts:
1. A recent government policy made poor performance punishable by salary reduction or dismissal.
2. The first assignment at G&P is a bridge construction project in a village near Dhanbad.
3. With his current savings, Rakesh need not depend on regular income for at least six months.
4. Though an exemplary performer, Rakesh has hardly been recognized at SPCIL.
5. Based on the annual performance review at G&P, Rakesh will either earn double the salary or get fired.

Which of the following combinations of the above facts will BEST help Rakesh decide on joining G&P?

A 5, 4, 2

B 1, 3, 4

C 1, 4, 5

D 2, 4, 3

E 4, 3, 5

Answer: A

Question 40

While mulling over the offer, Rakesh consulted Manikandan, his trusted senior at SPCIL. Manikandan, who had friends in G&P,
disclosed that it preferred government employees for its projects in Jharkhand, Bihar and Chhattisgarh. “Once the project is
completed, G&P may not need your skills,” observed Manikandan.

Which of the following, if true, will BEST enable Rakesh to decide on the offer?

A During the interview, G&P quizzed if Rakesh would sustain his relationship with his former colleagues at SPCIL.

B Through social media, Rakesh discovered that Manikandan’s contact, who had left SPCIL to join G&P, is no longer with G&P.

Senior-level employees at G&P, who began their career in similar projects, are now confined to their desk at the head office for
C
almost a decade.

D As G&P also planned to enter two Southern states, it has decided to recruit people from those states.

E Manikandan stopped both of his sons from taking up private-sector jobs, given his loyalty to the government.

Answer: C

Question 41

Rakesh, in his current job, came across incidences of bribing by private sector officials. He wondered if he might have to bribe
government officials while at G&P.
He reflected on his interview with G&P:
1. The interviewers were puzzled how Rakesh could manage his EMIs with his current income.
2. One interviewer was constantly probing how Rakesh managed to meet his project deadlines with little cooperation from his
subordinates.
3. “What would you do if your project has a fortnight’s deadline and it takes a month to obtain a permit?,” asked another interviewer.
4. A question that intrigued Rakesh was, “Should a pack of dacoits share their loot with one of their gang, who had killed a bystander
against their motto ‘Thou shalt not kill’?”

Which of the following sequences of the above statements is in the MOST appropriate DESCENDING order of bribing undertones?

A 3, 4, 1 ,2
 4, 3, 2, 1
B XAT 2020
C 4, 1, 2, 3

D 1, 3, 2, 4

E 3, 1, 2, 4

Answer: E

Instructions

Read the situation below and answer the 3 associated questions:

Two industrial towns, Jayanagar and Ramnagar, about 15 kms. apart, are similar in land area, population, ethnic diversity and per capita
incomes.
Jagdeep Singh owns a bakery named Le Baguette in Jayanagar. He specializes in croissants, masala bread and whole wheat bread;
eggless cakes are also a favorite.
Among the four bakeries in Jayanagar, Jagdeep’s bakery with a market share of 30% is second only to the oldest Le Croissant bakery
whose market share is 40%. Le Croissant commands a loyal customer base and does not offer eggless varieties.

Question 42

Jagdeep has decided to open a branch in Ramnagar. Which of the following facts about Ramnagar will BEST support his decision?

A 3% of Le Baguette’s current revenue comes from Ramnagar.

B Jagdeep has managed to acquire a big space in Ramnagar at a nominal rent.

C Before starting his own bakery, Jagdeep was supplying bread to most bakeries in Ramnagar.

D Ramnagar is served by 4 bakeries, with the two largest bakeries having market shares of 55% and 25% respectively.

E Le Croissant’s Ramnagar branch struggles with a market share of 10%.

Answer: A

Question 43

Jagdeep wishes to open a 100% eggless branch in Ramnagar. To explore feasibility, he collected the following facts:
1. Eggless products account for 30% of Le Baguette’s sales.
2. At least 20% of all bakery sales in Ramnagar is from eggless products.
3. The eggless varieties of Le Baguette contain minute traces of egg.
4. Le Baguette currently makes 3% of its revenue from Ramnagar customers and all of it comes from eggless products.
5. Le Croissant’s Ramnagar branch struggles with a market share of 10%.

From the combinations below, in the DESCENDING order of effectiveness, choose the one that BEST supports Jagdeep’s decision.

A 5, 2, 1

B 2, 1, 3

C 2, 4, 1

D 4, 3, 2

E 5, 4, 1

Answer: C
Question 44
XAT 2020
From a newspaper, Jagdeep has learnt that Americans use their own ovens to bake ready-to-bake products, sold by some bakeries.
This idea is apparently catching up in Indian metros as well.
Jagdeep wants to try this out in his bakery. He has gathered the following facts:
1. US bakeries that also sell ready-to-bake products earned higher revenues compared to those that do not.
2. Around 7% of Jagdeep’s regular customers own baking ovens in their homes.
3. The sale of baking ovens in India is forecast to increase by 12% every year, for the next three years.
4. 50% of Jagdeep’s regular customers are fulltime working couples.
5. In Indian metros, ready-to-bake products give higher profit margins compared to finished products.

Select the BEST of the following sequences of the above facts, in DESCENDING order of effectiveness, to support Jagdeep.

A 2, 5, 1, 3, 4

B 3, 4, 5, 1, 2

C 1, 5, 3, 2, 4

D 2, 3, 5, 1, 4

E 3, 2, 1, 4, 5

Answer: D

Instructions

Read the situation below and answer the 3 associated questions:

A powerful, intelligent king Vanamali once ruled over an ancient kingdom, Vanarajya. The kingdom was known for its high mountains
and sprawling plains, and ninety percent of its land was under forest cover. Trade in forest produce was the mainstay of its economy,
supported by subsistence agriculture.
With the increase of population, over time the forest in the plains was cleared for agriculture. The forest in the mountains continued to
supply nutrient-enriched water and abundant forest produce to the plains. As a result, agricultural yields were bountiful. The plains
prospered as compared to the mountains.

Question 45

The increasing prosperity of the plains people tempted those in the mountains to divert forest land for agriculture. Vanamali was
afraid that expansion of agriculture would result in deforestation of the mountains.

Which of the following is the BEST course of action for Vanamali to conserve the mountain forest?

A Institute a mechanism that ensures plains people pay royalty, to be transferred to mountain people for maintaining forest cover

B Declare a “Mountain Day” when plains people meet and thank mountain people for sustaining their agriculture

C Constitute a committee to protect the forest with powers to punish those who fell trees

D Urge the elders of the mountains to come up with agricultural practices that ensure no erosion of forest cover

E Levy a tax on traded agricultural produce from the plains to cross-subsidize supplies to mountain people

Answer: A

Question 46
Vanamali, afraid of further deforestation, issued a diktat against felling of trees in the mountains. In due course, thanks to the
booming agriculture, the king along with plains people began to prosper. However, mountain people became relatively poor, thanks to
Vanamali’s diktat.

Which of the following options should mountain people choose to BEST protect their long-term interests?
A Sell forest produce exclusively to the neighbouring kingdoms
XAT 2020

B Seek employment in the plains

C Ignore Vanamali’s diktat and divert forest land for agriculture

D Charge a premium on forest produce and issue hunting permits

E Stop the flow of rivers to the plains

Answer: D

Question 47

The village elders of the mountains had informed Vanamali about the presence of a precious metal in abundance under a large part
of the forest. They pleaded with him to repeal his diktat and permit felling of trees for mining.
Vanamali knew that the precious metal would make his kingdom prosper. However, he was worried that mining would reduce the flow
of nutrients, water and forest produce to the plains.
Vanamali’s advisor Vanapandit presented the following action plans for his consideration:
1. Repeal the forest diktat and charge hefty royalty for mining in the mountains
2. Permit mining in the mountains and enforce rainwater harvesting in the plains
3. Permit mining in the mountains and begin afforestation in the plains
4. Continue with the forest diktat in the mountains
5. Permit limited mining in rotation but maintain the forest diktat in the rest of the mountains

Which of the following sequences of action plans, in the DESCENDING order of their ability to contribute to Vanarajya’s sustainable
prosperity, will be the MOST appropriate for Vanamali?

A 5, 2, 4, 3, 1

B 4, 5, 2, 3, 1

C 4, 2, 5, 1, 3

D 3, 5, 2, 1, 4

E 5, 3, 2, 4, 1

Answer: E

Quant
Instructions
For the following questions answer them individually

Question 48
Nalini has received a total of 600 WhatsApp messages from four friends Anita, Bina, Chaitra and Divya. Bina and Divya have
respectively sent 30% and 20% of these messages, while Anita has sent an equal number of messages as Chaitra. Moreover, Nalini
finds that of Anita’s, Bina’s, Chaitra’s and Divya’s messages, 60%, 40%, 80% and 50% respectively are jokes. What percentage of the
jokes, received by Nalini, have been sent neither by Divya nor by Bina?

A 65.12

B 38.6

C 61.4

D 57
 34.88
E XAT 2020
Answer: C

Question 49

A 125

B 200

C 95

D 74

E 275

Answer: C

Question 50

Two friends, Ram and Shyam, start at the same point, at the same time. Ram travels straight north at a speed of 10km/hr, while
Shyam travels straight east at twice the speed of Ram. After 15 minutes, Shyam messages Ram that he is just passing by a large
telephone tower and after another 15 minutes Ram messages Shyam that he is just passing by an old banyan tree. After some more
time has elapsed, Ram and Shyam stop. They stop at the same point of time. If the straight-line distance between Ram and Shyam
now is 50 km, how far is Shyam from the banyan tree (in km)? (Assume that Ram and Shyam travel on a flat surface.)

A 45

B 20 5 − 5

C 20 5 + 5
115
D 3

E 5 21
Answer: A

Question 51

Two lighthouses, located at points A and B on the earth, are 60 feet and 40 feet tall respectively. Each lighthouse is perfectly vertical
and the land connecting A and B is perfectly flat. The topmost point of the lighthouse at A is A’ and of the lighthouse at B is B’. Draw
line segments A’B and B’A, and let them intersect at point C’. Drop a perpendicular from C’ to touch the earth at point C. What is the
length of CC’ in feet?

A 20

B 25

C 30

D 24

E The distance between A and B is also needed to solve this

Answer: D
 XAT 2020

Question 52

A man is laying stones, from start to end, along the two sides of a 200-meterwalkway. The stones are to be laid 5 meters apart from
each other. When he begins, all the stones are present at the start of the walkway. He places the first stone on each side at the
walkway’s start. For all the other stones, the man lays the stones first along one of the walkway’s sides, then along the other side in an
exactly similar fashion. However, he can carry only one stone at a time. To lay each stone, the man walks to the spot, lays the stone,
and then walks back to pick another. After laying all the stones, the man walks back to the start, which marks the end of his work.
What is the total distance that the man walks in executing this work? Assume that the width of the walkway is negligible.

A 16400 metres

B 4100 metres

C 8050 metres

D 16200 metres

E 8200 metres

Answer: A

Question 53

A rectangular swimming pool is 50 meters long and 25 meters wide. Its depth is always the same along its width but linearly
increases along its length from 1 meter at one end to 4 meters at the other end. How much water (in cubic meters) is needed to
completely fill the pool?

A 2500

B 3125

C 3750

D 1875

E 1250

Answer: B

Question 54

A shop sells bags in three sizes: small, medium and large. A large bag costs Rs.1000, a medium bag costs Rs.200, and a small bag
costs Rs.50. Three buyers, Ashish, Banti and Chintu, independently buy some numbers of these types of bags. The respective
amounts spent by Ashish, Banti and Chintu are equal. Put together, the shop sells 1 large bag, 15 small bags and some medium bags
to these three buyers. What is the minimum number of medium bags that the shop sells to them?

A 5

B 9

C 4

D 10

E 7

Answer: E
 XAT 2020
Question 55

In the figure given below, the circle has a chord AB of length 12 cm, which makes an angle of 60∘ at the center of the circle, O. ABCD,
as shown in the diagram, is a rectangle. OQ is the perpendicular bisector of AB, intersecting the chord AB at P, the arc AB at M and CD
at Q. OM = MQ. The area of the region enclosed by the line segments AQ and QB,and the arc BMA, is closest to (in cm2 ):

A 215

B 137

C 35

D 63

E 69

Answer: E

Instructions

Read the information given below and answer the 3 associated questions.
During 2015-2019, the revenues of four companies P-S were as follows:

Question 56

Which of the given companies has seen the highest year-on-year growth (in percentage) in any single year during this five-year
period?

A P

B There was a tie among multiple companies

C R

D Q

E S
 Answer: D
XAT 2020
Question 57

It was discovered later that one of the companies misreported its revenue of one of the years. If the misreported revenue is replaced
by the correct revenue, the revenues of that company over the five-year period will be in an arithmetic progression. The company that
misreported its revenue was

A R or S

B S only

C P or R

D P or S

E P only

Answer: D

Question 58
During the period from 2014 to 2015, the revenue increased by 25% for three of the companies and by 50% for the remaining
company. The total increase in revenue, for all four companies put together, was Rs. 125 lakhs.
Which of the following CANNOT be true?

A From 2014 to 2015, the increases in revenues of at least two companies were the same

B The revenue of Q in 2014 was the same as the revenue of R in 2014

C The company that experienced the 50% increase in revenue also experienced the maximum increase in revenue in absolute terms

D The 2014 revenues of P and R cannot be determined uniquely

E From 2014 to 2015, the revenues of P and R increased by different amounts

Answer: A

Instructions
For the following questions answer them individually

Question 59

A box contains 6 cricket balls, 5 tennis balls and 4 rubber balls. Of these, some balls are defective. The proportion of defective cricket
balls is more than the proportion of defective tennis balls but less than the proportion of defective rubber balls.
Moreover, the overall proportion of defective balls is twice the proportion of defective tennis balls. What BEST can be said about the
number of defective rubber balls in the box?

A It is either 2 or 3

B It is exactly 2

C It is exactly 3

D It is either 3 or 4

E It is either 0 or 1

Answer: C
 XAT 2020

Question 60

When expressed in a decimal form, which of the following numbers will be non - terminating as well as non-repeating?

π 1 π
A ( 2 ) [( π ) + 1] − 2

B sin2 1∘ + sin2 2∘ + .... + sin2 89∘

4
C 2 (3 2 − 2) + 3

D
( 3 729 ) 22
3 + 7

π π 2 π 3
E (4 − π)[1 + ( 4 ) + ( 4 ) + ( 4 ) + ... (infinite terms)]

Answer: C

Question 61

A rectangular field is 40 meters long and 30 meters wide. Draw diagonals on this field and then draw circles of radius 1.25 meters,
with centers only on the diagonals. Each circle must fall completely within the field. Any two circles can touch each
other but should not overlap. What is the maximum number of such circles that can be drawn in the field?

A 38

B 39

C 36

D 37

E 40

Answer: D

Question 62

A hare and a tortoise run between points O and P located exactly 6 km from each other on a straight line. They start together at O, go
straight to P and then return to O along the same line. They run at constant speeds of 12 km/hr and 1 km/hr respectively. Since the
tortoise is slower than the hare, the hare shuttles between O and P until the tortoise goes once to P and returns to O. During the run,
how many times are the hare and the tortoise separated by an exact distance of 1 km from each other?

A 24

B 42

C 22

D 48

E 40

Answer: E
 XAT 2020
Question 63

Consider the four variables A, B, C and D and a function Z of these variables, Z = 15A2 − 3B4 + C + 0.5D It is given that A, B, C
and D must be non-negative integers and thatall of the following relationships must hold:
i) 2A + B ≤ 2
ii) 4A + 2B + C ≤ 12
iii) 3A + 4B + D ≤ 15
If Z needs to be maximised, then what value must D take?

A 15

B 12

C 0

D 10

E 5

Answer: B

Question 64
XYZ is an equilateral triangle, inscribed in a circle. P is a point on the arc YZ such that X and P are on opposite sides of the chord YZ.
Which of the following MUST always be true?

A XZ + YP = XY + PZ

B XP = XY

C XP + PZ = XY + YP

D XP = YP + PZ

E XP = XY + YZ

Answer: D

Question 65

X, Y and Z start a web-based venture together. X invests Rs. 2.5 lakhs, Y invests Rs. 3.5 lakhs, and Z invests Rs. 4 lakhs. In the first
year, the venture makes a profit of Rs. 2 lakhs. A part of the profit is shared between Y and Z in the ratio of 2:3, and the remaining
profit is divided among X, Y and Z in the ratio of their initial investments. The amount that Z receives is four times the amount that X
receives. How much amount does Y receive?

A Rs. 102,500

B Rs. 93,750

C Rs. 74,250

D Rs. 75,000

E Rs. 80,200

Answer: D
Question 66
XAT 2020
Mohanlal, a prosperous farmer, has a square land of side 2 km. For the current season, he decides to have some fun. He marks two
distinct points on one of the diagonals of the land. Using these points as centers, he constructs two circles. Each of these circles falls
completely within the land, and touches at least two sides of the land. To his surprise, the radii of both the circles are exactly equal to
2
3 km. Mohanlal plants potatoes on the overlapping portion of these circles. Calculate the area on which Mohanlal planted potatoes (in
sq. km).

5(π+4)
A 27

2(2π−3 3 )
B 27

(π−2)
C 9

2(π−2)
D 9

4(π−3 3 )
E 27

Answer: D

Instructions

Read the information given below and answer the 2 associated questions.

190 students have to choose at least one elective and at most two electives from a list of three electives: E1, E2 and E3. It is found that
the number of students choosing E1 is half the number of students choosing E2, and one third the number of students choosing E3.
Moreover, the number of students choosing two electives is 50.
Question 67

Which of the following CANNOT be obtained from the given information?

A Number of students choosing E1

B Number of students choosing either E1 or E2 or both, but not E3

C Number of students choosing both E1 and E2

D Number of students choosing E3

E Number of students choosing exactly one elective

Answer: C

Question 68

In addition to the given information, which of the following information is NECESSARY and SUFFICIENT to compute the number of
students choosing only E1, only E2 and only E3?

A Number of students choosing only E2, and number of students choosing both E2 and E3

Number of students choosing both E1 and E2, number of students choosing both E2 and E3, and number of students choosing both
B
E3 and E1

C Number of students choosing only E1, and number of students choosing both E2 and E3

D No extra information is necessary

 Number of students choosing both E1 and E2
E XAT 2020
Answer: A

Instructions
For the following questions answer them individually

Question 69

Ashok has a bag containing 40 cards, numbered with the integers from 1 to 40. No two cards are numbered with the same integer.
Likewise, his sister Shilpa has another bag containing only five cards that are numbered with the integers from 1 to 5, with no integer
repeating. Their mother, Latha, randomly draws one card each from Ashok’s and Shilpa’s bags and notes down their respective
numbers. If Latha divides the number obtained from Ashok’s bag by the number obtained from Shilpa’s, what is the probability that
the remainder will not be greater than 2?

A 0.8

B 0.91

C 0.73

D 0.94

E 0.87

Answer: E

Question 70
X, Y, and Z are three software experts, who work on upgrading the software in a number of identical systems. X takes a day off after
every 3 days of work, Y takes a day off after every 4 days of work and Z takes a day off after every 5 days of work.
Starting afresh after a common day off,
i) X and Y working together can complete one new upgrade job in 6 days
ii) Z and X working together can complete two new upgrade jobs in 8 days
iii) Y and Z working together can complete three new upgrade jobs in 12 days If X, Y and Z together start afresh on a new upgrade job
(after a common day off), exactly how many days will be required to complete this job?

A 3 days

B 4 days

C 2 days
D 3.5 days

E 2.5 days

Answer: E

Question 71

What is the remainder if 1920 − 2019 is divided by 7?

A 5

B 0

C 3

D 1
 6
E XAT 2020
Answer: A

Question 72

Six drums are used to store water. Five drums are of equal capacity, while the sixth drum has double the capacity of each of these
five drums. On one morning, three drums are found half full, two are found two-thirds full and one is found completely full. It is
attempted to transfer all the water to the smaller drums. How many smaller drums are adequate to store the water?

A Three but not two

B Four but not three

C Three or four, depending on which drum had how much water initially

D Five but not four

E Five may be inadequate, depending on which drum had how much water initially

Answer: D

Instructions
Read the information given below and answer the 3 associated questions.
The following graph depicts sector-wise percentage contributions to the gross domestic product (GDP) of nine nations, labelled “Nation
A”, “Nation B” and so on. It is known that these nations are Brazil, China, France, Germany,India, Japan, Russia, the UK and the USA, but
not necessarily in the same order.

The following, however, are known:

i) The GDPs of the nine nations (in US $ trillion) are:

ii) China has the highest agriculture sector GDP, valued at US $1 trillion, followed respectively by the USA and India
iii) In terms of percentage contribution to the respective nations’ GDPs by their service sectors, the UK and France are respectively the
first and the second
iv) Nation A, Nation B and Nation G have the same GDP
v) The GDPofIndia’s industry sector is lower than the GDP of Russia’s industry sector. However,it is larger than that of Brazil's industry
sector

Question 73

Based on the given information, how many nations can be uniquely identified?
A 6
XAT 2020

B 9

C 3

D 2

E 7

Answer: A

Question 74

Based on the given information, which of the following CANNOT be ruled out?

A US is Nation I

B Russia is Nation G

C China is Nation C

D Japan is Nation E

E India is Nation B

Answer: D

Question 75

Which of the following information, when considered in addition to the given information, does not allow us to completely identify the
nine nations in the graph?

A Germany’s industry GDP is US $1.2 trillion

B The nation ranked fourth in terms of agriculture GDP has its agriculture GDP valued at US $150 billion

C In terms of percentage contribution to the respective nations’ GDP, France and Japan’s agriculture sectors contribute the same

D Japan’s industry GDP is US $1.25 trillion

E Both Japan’s and Germany’s industry GDPs are more than US $1 trillion

Answer: A

General knowledge

Instructions
For the following questions answer them individually

Question 76

Margaret Atwood and Bernardine Evaristo have been recently awarded with:

A The Hugo Award

B The Man Booker Prize

C The Costa Book Awards

 The Pulitzer Prize
D XAT 2020
E The Nobel Prize

Answer: B

Question 77

In which Indian state did president Ram Nath Kovind serve as Governor?

A Jharkhand

B Bihar

C Uttar Pradesh

D West Bengal

E Chhattisgarh

Answer: B

Question 78

Malfunction of which of the following organs is the MOST common cause of vertigo?

A Stomach

B Kidney

C Ear

D Heart

E Lung

Answer: C

Question 79

Which Indian startup was acquired by Walmart?

A Big Basket

B Makemytrip

C Ola

D Flipkart

E Big Bazaar

Answer: D

Question 80

Which Indian bank was the FIRST to issue “Green Bonds” for financing renewable and clean energy projects?
A State Bank of India XAT 2020
B ICICI Bank

C Bandhan Bank

D Yes Bank

E Axis Bank

Answer: D

Question 81

Which organization’s mascot was R.K. Lakshman’s “the common man”?

A Air Deccan

B HMT

C Nerolac Paints

D Khadi Gramodyog Limited

E Asian Paints

Answer: A

Question 82

Which deer is also known as “the dancing deer” of Manipur?

A Sangai

B Hog deer

C Sambar

D Chital

E White tailed deer

Answer: A

Question 83

Which is the largest landlocked salt water lake in India?

A Vembanad Lake

B Chilika Lake

C Sambhar Lake

D Chital Lake

E Pulicat Lake

Answer: C
Question 84
XAT 2020
What did India commit to achieve under the Paris Climate Agreement (2015) as outlined in its Intended Nationally Determined
Contributions report submitted to the UNFCCC?

A Reduce the energy intensity of its GDP by 33 to 35 percent by 2030 from 2005 levels

B Reduce the pesticide intensity of its GDP by 33 to 35 percent by 2030 from 2005 levels

C Reduce the emissions intensity of its GDP by 33 to 35 percent by 2030 from 2005 levels

D Reduce the water intensity of its GDP by 33 to 35 percent by 2030 from 2005 levels

E Reduce the material intensity of its GDP by 33 to 35 percent by 2030 from 2005 levels

Answer: C

Question 85

What does the “Earth Overshoot Day” indicate?

It marks the date when humanity’s demand for ecological resources and services in a given year exceeds what the Earth can
A
regenerate in that year

B It marks the date when the Earth’s axis changes during its annual orbit around the Sun

It marks the date when humanity’s demand for natural resources and services in a given year exceeds what the Earth can
C
regenerate in that year

D It marks the date when humanity’s demand for material resources in a given year exceeds what the Earth can regenerate in that year

It marks the date when humanity’s demand for non-material resources in a given year exceeds what the Earth can regenerate in that
E
year

Answer: A

Question 86

In which state was the first ever environmental referendum held?

A Chhattisgarh

B Maharashtra

C Jharkhand

D Madhya Pradesh

E Odisha

Answer: E
Question 87
XAT 2020
Match the following folk theater forms with their associated states:

A ABCDE- RSTPQ

B ABCDE-PQRST

C ABCDE- QSTRP

D ABCDE-SRTQP

E ABCDE-RSTQP

Answer: D

Question 88

Omuamua is:

A An interstellar object

B A small primate

C A Buddhist chant

D NASA’s spaceship to Pluto

E A character in the TV series “Star Trek”

Answer: A

Question 89

In which Indian state is Sriharikota located?

A Andhra Pradesh

B Odisha

C Telangana

D Kerala

E Tamil Nadu

Answer: A

Question 90

What does the book "Silent Spring" (1962) by Rachel Carson highlight?

A The adverse health effects caused by the ozone layer depletion

 The adverse health effects caused by the indiscriminate use of lead in fuels
B XAT 2020
C The adverse environmental effects caused by the indiscriminate use of pesticides

D The adverse environmental effects caused by the indiscriminate use of plastics

E The adverse environmental effects caused by the indiscriminate destruction of forests

Answer: C

Question 91

“Rakhigarhi” is associated with:

A Mayan civilization

B Indus valley civilization

C Irrawaddy civilization

D Raksha Bandhan

E Kalasha people

Answer: B

Question 92

When Coca Cola exited India, which cola brand was created and marketed by the Government of India to provide jobs to those who
earlier were employed by Coca Cola?

A Double Cola

B Bovonto

C Campa Cola

D Double Seven

E Thums Up

Answer: D

Question 93

Which of the following rivers does not cross international borders?

A Ganga

B Brahmaputra

C Ravi

D Tapi

E Teesta

Answer: D
Question 94
XAT 2020
The phrase “How dare you?” is BEST associated with:

A Malala Yousafzai

B Greta Thunberg

C Michelle Obama

D Boris Johnson

E Emmanuel Macron

Answer: B

Question 95

Which Indian state enjoys special provisions under Article 371(D)?

A Jharkhand

B Arunachal Pradesh

C Tripura

D Andhra Pradesh
E Meghalaya
Answer: D

Question 96

Who among the following was awarded the Ramon Magsaysay award in 2019?

A T.M. Krishna

B Fayed Souza

C Shekhar Gupta

D Arnab Goswami

E Ravish Kumar

Answer: E

Question 97

Which organization funded the Indian Cricket League?

A Zee Entertainment Enterprises

B Board of Control for Cricket in India

C International Cricket Council

D Star Sports Enterprises

 Star Sports Global LLC
E XAT 2020
Answer: A

Question 98

Match the following foreign travelers with the rulers of that period

A ABCDE-RQSPT

B ABCDE-PRTQS

C ABCDE-RPQTS

D ABCDE-QRTSP

E ABCDE-PQRST

Answer: D

Question 99

Match the following authors with their works:

A ABCDE-SRPTQ

B ABCDE-RSPTQ

C ABCDE-PQRST

D ABCDE-TSPRQ

E ABCDE-TRQSP

Answer: B
 English XAT 2019
Instructions
For the following questions answer them individually

Question 1

Choose the option that would fill in the blanks meaningfully in the sentence(s) below:

______ the importance of ‘horizontal stratification’ ______ higher education is widely acknowledged, ______
attention has been applied to horizontal stratification ______ compulsory schooling.

A Whereas; with: too less; to

B While; within: far less; within

C While; without: further less; within

D While; on: far fewer; about

E Whereas; about: for less; of

Answer: B

Question 2

Please study the paragraph given below:

In 1942, the French writer Albert Camus composed an essay, ‘The Myth of Sisyphus’. It draws on the
Greek fable of a man condemned to roll a rock up a mountain only to have it roll back down under its own
weight, a ______ that lasts for eternity. Camus argues that this image ______ the human condition in a world
where we can no longer make sense of events; but instead of committing suicide, we should ______
ourselves to this ‘elusive feeling of absurdity’ and bear it as best we can. In this sense, Sisyphus is the
ideal hero.

Consider the following words:

1. surrender
2. choice
3. symbolises
4. quandary
5. attune
6. option
7. reconcile
8. depicts

Which of the following options is the most appropriate sequence that best fits the blanks in the above
paragraph?

A 4, 2, 6

B 2, 3, 1

C 4, 5, 1

D 2, 5, 7

E 4, 3, 7

Answer: E
Question 3
XAT 2019
Study the first sentence and then identify from among the options given the closest antonym of the
highlighted word in the second sentence:

It’s conventional wisdom that procreation between first cousins is unhealthy. But what are the actual
genetic risks?

A tangible

B relative

C abstract

D hard

E unfounded

Answer: E

Question 4

Carefully read the following paragraph:

Who could resist the idea of remembering everything they wanted to, without trying? Learning would be
made easy, exams a ______ and you would never forget where you left your keys. And memory-related
disorders like Alzheimer’s would have met their match. So, it is of little surprise that scientists have
turned their attention to ways of ______ human memory using techniques that ______, supplement or even
mimic parts of the brain. The immediate goal is to treat memory disorders, but the idea of a memory
______ for everyday life is gaining ground.

Fill in the blanks in the above paragraph, with the best option from among the following:

A ​joy; augmenting; awaken; crutch

B routine; expanding; invigorate; crutch

C breeze; enhancing; stimulate; prosthesis

D routine; expanding; trigger; support

E breeze; exploring; simulate; aid

Answer: C
Question 5
XAT 2019
Read the following statements and answer the question that follows:

They subjected the residues from sherds of the rhyta- vessels to radiocarbon dating to determine their
ages and chromatography - mass spectrometry (GC-MS) - to identify their structure and isotopic
composition and found that the vessels were used to store cheese.
In many Neolithic sites near the Adriatic Sea, researchers unearthed cone-shaped clay vessels, known as
rhyta, with four legs on the bottom and a round opening on the side.
Fresh milk couldn’t be kept for long without going bad; cheese, on the other hand, could be stored for
months at a time, providing much-needed calories to early farmers between harvests.
Archaeologists who used to assume animals such as cows and goats were mainly used for meat early in
their domestication history are thus forced to admit that humans might have been using animals for dairy
quite early in their domestication history.
“If you kill one cow, you eat meat for about a week until it goes off; but by milking the animals, the
farmer would be spreading the food gain from that animal over several months rather than just one
week”

Rank the above five statements so as to make it a logical sequence:

A 2, 1, 5, 4, 3

B 4, 5, 2, 1, 3

C 4, 2, 1, 3, 5

D 2, 1, 3, 5, 4

E 4, 1, 2, 5, 3

Answer: D

Question 6

Read the following statements and answer the question that follows:

An in-depth exploration of the Indian case and case studies of early adopters of mobile technology will
provide spectrum managers a pragmatic and modern approach whereby they could utilize their resources
efficiently and optimally.
Even as spectrum management regimes are moving from a command and control regime to a flexible use
regime, new technological developments are suggesting that there are significant opportunities in
managing large swathes of spectrum as a common property resource, in addition to flexible use.
Political legacies and market realities in different regimes pose unique challenges for spectrum managers
who must negotiate a tricky path to the land promised by technological possibility.
On the other hand, supply of spectrum is restricted due to competing nature of uses and vested interests
of incumbent holders.
The demand for spectrum has never been so acute as today's communication services extend beyond
simple voice to complex data and video, augmented by evolving technologies such as peer-to-peer
sharing, social networking, Fourth and Fifth Generation networks, Big Data, and cloud computing.

Rank the above five statements so as to make it a logical sequence:

A 1, 2, 4, 5, 3

B 5, 2, 3, 1, 4

C 4, 5, 2, 3, 1

D 3, 4, 5, 2, 1

E 2, 5, 4, 3, 1

Answer: E

Instructions
Read the poem given below and answer the question that follows it:
XAT 2019
Black lake, black boat, two black, cut-paper people.
Where do the black trees go that drink here?
Their shadows must cover Canada.

A little light is filtering from the water flowers

Their leaves do not wish us to hurry:
They are round and flat and full of dark advice.

Cold words shake from the oar.

The spirit of blackness is in us, it is in the fishes.
A snag is lifting a valedictory, pale hand;
Stars opening among the lilies.
Are you not blinded by such expressionless sirens?
This is the silence of abandoned souls.

Question 7

Which of the following options best explains the effect of the images in Line 1?

A The first line encapsulates the theme of the poem.

B The images are suffused with an overpowering sense of rebellion.

C The atmosphere indicates a cyclical nature of life and death.

D The black lake lacks regenerative potential; ‘black boat’ connotes the funerary boat; cut-paper people are unreal.

E The repeated use of black suggests evil.

Answer: D

Question 8

Which of the following options presents a convincing evaluation of the line, ‘Stars opening among the
lilies’?

A The stars are flowers in the sky and the flowers in the lake are stars in water.

B The ethereal light of the stars gets reflected among the lilies.

The spirit of blackness does not hinder the appearance of beauty in nature which is symbolic of hope blossoming in
C the soul.

D The mirror images, the worlds above and overlap.

E Lilies purify the ‘dark’ into ‘light’ as symbolized in and by stars.

Answer: C

Instructions

Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow it:

Does having a mood disorder make you more creative? That’s the most frequent question I hear about the relationship.
But because we cannot control the instance of a mood disorder (that is, we can’t turn it on and off, and measure that
person’s creativity under both conditions), the question should really be: Do individuals with a mood disorder exhibit
greater creativity than those without? Studies that attempt to answer this question by comparing the creativity of
individuals with a mood disorder against those without, have been well, mixed.

Studies that ask participants to complete surveys of creative personality, behavior or accomplishment, or to complete
divergent thinking measures (where they are asked to generate lots of ideas) often find that individuals with mood
disorders do not differ from those without. However, studies using “creative occupation” as an indicator of creativity
XAT 2019
(based on the assumption that those employed in these occupations are relatively more creative than others) have
found that people with bipolar disorders are overrepresented in these occupations. These studies do not measure the
creativity of participants directly, rather they use external records (such as censuses and medical registries) to tally
the number of people with a history of mood disorders (compared with those without) who report being employed in a
creative occupation at some time. These studies incorporate an enormous number of people and provide solid
evidence that people who have sought treatment for mood disorders are engaged in creative occupations to a greater
extent than those who have not. But can creative occupations serve as a proxy for creative ability?

The creative occupations considered in these studies are overwhelmingly in the arts, which frequently provide greater
autonomy and less rigid structure than the average nine-to-five job. This makes these jobs more conducive to the
success of individuals who struggle with performance consistency as the result of a mood disorder. The American
psychiatrist Arnold Ludwig has suggested that the level of emotional expressiveness required to be successful in
various occupations creates an occupational drift and demonstrated that the pattern of expressive occupations being
associated with a greater incidence of psychopathology is a self-repeating pattern. For example, professions in the
creative arts are associated with greater psychopathology than professions in the sciences whereas, within creative
arts professions, architects exhibit a lower lifetime prevalence rate of psychopathology than visual artists and, within
the visual arts, abstract artists exhibit lower rates of psychopathology than expressive artists. Therefore, it is possible
that many people who suffer from mood disorders gravitate towards these types of professions, regardless of creative
ability or inclination.

Question 9

Go through the following:

1.Mood disorders do not lead to creativity

2.The flexibility of creative occupations makes them more appealing to people with mood disorder
3.Mood swings in creative professions is less prevalent than in non-creative professions

Which of the following would undermine the passage’s main argument?

A 2&3

B 1&2

C 3 only

D 2 only

E 1, 2 & 3

Answer: C

Question 10

All of the following can be inferred from the passage except:

A Individuals with mood disorder often do better in creative job profiles than in regular nine-to-five jobs.

B In creative professions, people with mood disorder are more creative than those without mood disorder.

C Mood disorder is more prevalent among people in creative occupations than in non-creative occupations.

D An architect is more likely to have mood disorder than a botanist.

E An abstract painter is less likely to have mood disorder than an interpretive dance performer.

Answer: B

Question 11

Which of the following will make the authors contention in the passage fallacious?
A Everyone in a mental asylum is potentially a great artist. XAT 2019
B Patients in mental asylums prefer time-bound repetitive jobs.

C Creative geniuses never end up in mental asylum.

D Those with a creative spark will land up in a mental asylum.

E Creativity is a form of bipolar disorder.

Answer: B

Instructions

Lately it seems everyone’s got an opinion about women’s speech. Everybody has been getting his two cents in about
vocal fry, up-speak, and women’s allegedly over-liberal use of apologies. The ways women live and move in the world
are subject to relentless scrutiny, their modes of speech are assessed against a (usually) masculine standard. This is
increasingly true as women have entered previously male-dominated fields like industry and politics.

In his essay “On Speech and Public Release,” Joshua Gunn highlights the field of public address as an important arena
where social roles and norms are contested, reshaped, and upheld. Gunn argues that the field of public address is an
important symbolic arena where we harbor an “[ideological] bias against the feminine voice,” a bias, that is rooted in
positive primal associations with masculinity (and the corresponding devaluation of femininity, the voice that
constrains and nags—the mother, the droning Charlie Brown schoolteacher, the wife).

Gunn contends that masculine speech is the cultural standard. It’s what we value and respect. The low pitch and
assertive demeanor that characterize the adult male voice signify reason, control, and authority, suitable for the public
domain. Women’s voices are higher pitched, like those of immature boys, and their characteristic speech patterns have
a distinctive cadence that exhibits a wider range of emotional expression. In Western cultures, this is bad because it
comes across as uncontrolled. We associate uncontrolled speech - “the cry, the grunt, the scream, and the yawp” - with
things that happen in the private, domestic spheres (both coded as feminine). Men are expected to repress passionate,
emotional speech, Gunn explains, precisely because it threatens norms of masculine control and order.

The notion of control also relates to the cultural ideal of eloquence. Language ideologies in the U.S. are complex and
highly prescriptive, but not formal or explicit. They are internalized by osmosis, from early observations of adult
language use, criticism from teachers (i.e., telling little girls not to “be so bossy” and boys to “act like gentlemen”), and
sanctions imposed by peers. These norms become most obvious when they are violated. When men fall off the “control
and reason” wagon, they suffer for it. Gunn recalls Howard Dean’s infamous 2004 “I Have a Scream” speech, in which
Dean emitted a spontaneous high-pitched screech of joy after he rattled off a list of planned campaign stops. The rest,
as they say, is history. Women face a different dilemma—how to please like a woman and impress like a man. Women
in the public sphere have, historically, been expected to “perform” femininity and they usually do this by adopting a
personal tone, giving anecdotal evidence, using domestic metaphors, and making emotional appeals to ideals of wifely
virtue and motherhood.

Gunn arrives at the conclusion that “eloquence” is, essentially, code for values associated with masculinity, saying,
“Performances of femininity are principally vocal and related, not to arguments, but to tone; not to appearance, but to
speech; not to good reasons, but to sound. This implies that the ideology of sexism is much more insidious, much more
deeply ingrained than many might suppose.”

Question 12

Which of the following statements if true, is contrary to the ideas developed in the passage?

Women in their communicative behavior are said to prefer a high-involvement style and men a high-considerate
A
style.

Women who use the lowest frequency of women's vocal traits have an unusually high status and are well educated
B
professionals with middle class backgrounds.

In certain hierarchically organized Indian political parties, women can participate in discussions as long as they
C
appeal, persuade, and support others, and not initiate new ones.
 The linguistic ideology in vogue in ancient North India allowed only men of higher-castes and ruling dynasties to
D use Sanskrit; women and servants spoke Prakrit or Pali. XAT 2019
Studies show that male followers of powerful women political leaders in Indian states imitate their leaders’
E
cadence, rhetoric and rhythm.

Answer: E

Question 13

An American female politician might not be expected to exhibit the features of public discourse discussed
in the passage while ______.

A addressing her colleagues

B chatting with intimate colleagues

C speaking to members of a congregation

D giving testimony

E conversing with members of her community

Answer: B

Question 14

Which one of the following, if true, would make the core argument of the passage irrelevant?

Men seek to gain upper hand in conversation as they consider themselves competitive, while women use them as
A
a way to gain confirmation and support.

When a wife tells her husband that she's unwell, he normally offers to take her to a doctor. Invariably, she is
B
disappointed, as what she looks for is sympathy.

C Unlike men who use and prefer to hear direct imperatives, women prefer 'indirections.'

Where a management decision seems unattractive, men will often resist it vocally, while women may appear to
D
accede, but complain subsequently.

E Today, sharing of emotions and elaborations is more important than sharing information and being brief.

Answer: E

Instructions

Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow it:

There are no Commandments in art and no easy axioms for art appreciation. “Do I like this?” is the question anyone
should ask themselves at the moment of confrontation with the picture. But if “yes,” why “yes”? and if “no,” why “no”?
The obvious direct emotional response is never simple, and ninety-nine times out of a hundred, the “yes” or “no” has
nothing at all to do with the picture in its own right. “I don’t understand this poem” and “I don’t like this picture” are
statements that tell us something about the speaker. That should be obvious, but in fact, such statements are offered
as criticisms of art, as evidence against, not least because the ignorant, the lazy, or the plain confused are not likely to
want to admit themselves as such. We hear a lot about the arrogance of the artist but nothing about the arrogance of
the audience. The audience, who have given no thought to the medium or the method, will glance up, flick through,
chatter over the opening chords, then snap their fingers and walk away like some monstrous Roman tyrant. This is not
arrogance; of course, they can absorb in a few moments, and without any effort, the sum of the artist and the art.

Admire me is the sub-text of so much of our looking; the demand put on art that it should reflect the reality of the
viewer. The true painting, in its stubborn independence, cannot do this, except coincidentally. Its reality is imaginative
not mundane.
When the thick curtain of protection is taken away; protection of prejudice, protection of authority, protection of trivia,
XAT 2019
even the most familiar of paintings can begin to work its power. There are very few people who could manage an hour
alone with the Mona Lisa. Our poor art-lover in his aesthetic laboratory has not succeeded in freeing himself from the
protection of assumption. What he has found is that the painting objects to his lack of concentration; his failure to meet
intensity with intensity. He still has not discovered anything about the painting, but the painting has discovered a lot
about him. He is inadequate, and the painting has told him so.

When you say “This work is boring/ pointless/silly/obscure/élitist etc.,” you might be right, because you are looking at a
fad, or you might be wrong because the work falls so outside of the safety of your own experience that in order to keep
your own world intact, you must deny the other world of the painting. This denial of imaginative experience happens at
a deeper level than our affirmation of our daily world. Every day, in countless ways, you and I convince ourselves about
ourselves. True art, when it happens to us, challenges the “I” that we are and you say, “This work has nothing to do
with me.”

Art is not a little bit of evolution that late-twentieth-century city dwellers can safely do without. Strictly, art does not
belong to our evolutionary pattern at all. It has no biological necessity. Time taken up with it was time lost to hunting,
gathering, mating, exploring, building, surviving, thriving. We say we have no time for art. If we say that art, all art. is
no longer relevant to our lives, then we might at least risk the question “What has happened to our lives?” The usual
question, “What has happened to art?” is too easy an escape route.

Question 15

A young man visits a critically acclaimed modern art exhibition in his city and finds that he doesn’t like
any of the exhibits. If he were to share his experience with the author of the passage, which of the
following is most likely to be the author’s response?

A “Your feelings about art are totally insignificant because they are definitely prejudiced.”

B “Don’t deny the other world of art to hide your inadequacies."

C “You are as arrogant as the artists who produced those modern art exhibits.”

D “Modern art is, indeed, distasteful because of its abstract nature, and because it shows us up.”

E “You didn’t like modern art, that’s fine, but maybe you will like classical art forms.”

Answer: B

Question 16

What according to the passage is the prerequisite to appreciate art?

A Prior knowledge of the art in question

B Participation with an open-mind

C Protection of assumption

D Preconceived notions of how we would be affected

E Participation of the artist

Answer: B

Question 17

When the writer observes, ‘This is not arrogance; of course, they can absorb in a few moments, and
without any effort, the sum of the artist and the art’, he is being _____.

A ironical
 sarcastic
B XAT 2019
C objective

D hyperbolic

E naive

Answer: B

Instructions

Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow it:

Elevation has always existed but has just moved out of the realm of philosophy and religion and been recognized as a
distinct emotional state and a subject for psychological study. Psychology has long focused on what goes wrong, but in
the past decade there has been an explosion of interest in “positive psychology”—what makes us feel good and why.
University of Virginia moral psychologist Jonathan Haidt, who coined the term elevation, writes, “Powerful moments of
elevation sometimes seem to push a mental ‘reset button,’ wiping out feelings of cynicism and replacing them with
feelings of hope, love, and optimism, and a sense of moral inspiration.”

Haidt quotes first-century Greek philosopher Longinus on great oratory: “The effect of elevated language upon an
audience is not persuasion but transport.” Such feeling was once a part of our public discourse. After hearing Abraham
Lincoln’s second inaugural address, former slave Frederick Douglass said it was a “sacred effort.” But uplifting rhetoric
came to sound anachronistic, except as practiced by the occasional master like Martin Luther King Jr.

It was while looking through the letters of Thomas Jefferson that Haidt first found a description of elevation. Jefferson
wrote of the physical sensation that comes from witnessing goodness in others: It is to “dilate [the] breast and elevate
[the] sentiments … and privately covenant to copy the fair example.” Haidt took this description as a mandate.

Elevation can so often give us chills or a tingling feeling in the chest. This noticeable, physiological response is
important. In fact, this physical reaction is what can tell us most surely that we have been moved. This reaction, and
the prosocial inclinations it seems to inspire, has been linked with a specific hormone, oxytocin, emitted from Vagus
nerve which works with oxytocin, the hormone of connection. The nerve’s activities can only be studied indirectly.

Elevation is part of a family of self-transcending emotions. Some others are awe, that sense of the vastness of the
universe and smallness of self that is often invoked by nature; another is admiration, that goose-bump-making thrill
that comes from seeing exceptional skill in action. While there is very little lab work on the elevating emotions, there is
quite a bit on its counterpart, disgust. It started as a survival strategy: Early humans needed to figure out when food
was spoiled by contact with bacteria or parasites. From there disgust expanded to the social realm—people became
repelled by the idea of contact with the defiled or by behaviors that seemed to belong to lower people. “Disgust is
probably the most powerful emotion that separates your group from other groups.” Haidt says disgust is the bottom
floor of a vertical continuum of emotion; hit the up button, and you arrive at elevation. Another response to something
extraordinary in another person can be envy, with all its downsides. Envy is unlikely, however, when the extraordinary
aspect of another person is a moral virtue (such as acting in a just way, bravery and self-sacrifice, and caring for
others).

Question 18

Which of the options below is false according to the passage?

A Elevated language is highly persuasive.

B Elevation results in a sense of moral inspiration of and purges us of negative emotions.

C Reactions to extraordinary external stimuli inevitably purge us of evil.

D Admiration is a more appropriate antonym of disgust than elevation.

Elevation is admiration of virtue; admiration for skill is known as admiration: awe inheres in admiration and is
E
generally caused by the majesty of nature.

Answer: C
 XAT 2019
Question 19

Which of the options will complete the statement given below meaningfully and appropriately, according
to the passage?

Disgust is not a self-transcending emotion because it ________.

A is the antonym of elevation

B springs from love

C is linked to invocation of nature

D it creates 'us versus them' divide based on group identities

E is about experiencing a moment when the ‘self’ reigns supreme

Answer: D

Question 20

Which of the options below correctly identifies the function of elevation?

A It helps us in creating national identities.

B It helps leaders to attract followers.

C It helps us become religious.

D It helps to enforce moral and ethical values in a society.

E It helps transcendence to a higher plane.

Answer: E

Instructions
For the following questions answer them individually

Question 21

Which of the statements below is least fallacious?

A Cheating in examinations is wrong because God will punish you.

B Mitigating risks often comes with costs.

C The snake in the temple likes milk because devotees offer it milk.

D Educated people do not oppose sale of hard drinks by governments. So drinking cannot be illegal.

E Marlon Brando was such a great actor because everyone liked him.

Answer: B

Question 22

Which option does not reflect the relationship implicit in ‘Emendation : Editor’?

A Injunction : Judge
 Examination : Doctor
B XAT 2019
C Discipline : Coach

D Illumination : Usher

E Renunciation : Saint

Answer: D

Question 23

Read the following paragraph and answer the question that follows:

Empirical observation told us years ago that goats were slowly becoming the new dog, and according to a
new study, they are truly qualified to be man’s best friend. The Royal Society released heart-warming
research showing that just like humans, goats have no desire to interact with people who come off as
angry or upset, and that they’re much more attracted to those with big smiles plastered across their
faces. When 12 males and 8 females were released into a pen decorated with images of happy and angry
humans, the scientists learned that goats can “distinguish between happy and angry images of the same
person,” and in general, they prefer their humans to be happy.

Which of the following statements is definitely true according to the passage?

A When they look at a smiling person, the goats are happy.

B When they look at a frowning person, goats are afraid of him.

C When they look at a straight-faced person, goats remain passive.

D When they look at a frowning person, the goats are sad.

E When they look at a smiling person, goats run towards him.

Answer: A

Question 24

Read the following paragraph and answer the question that follows:

An accurate measure of drug efficacy would require comparing the response of patients taking it with
that of patients taking placebos; the drug effect could then be calculated by subtracting the placebo
response from the overall response, much as a deli-counter worker subtracts the weight of the container
to determine how much lobster salad you’re getting. In the last half of the 1950s, this calculus gave rise
to a new way to evaluate drugs: the double-blind, placebo-controlled clinical trial, in which neither
patient nor clinician knew who was getting the active drug and who the placebo.

Which of the options is a wrong answer to this Question How does a double blind ensure a better trial of a
new drug?

A It increases the overall response to the drug.

B The patient does not know whether he/she is getting a placebo.

C It reflects the calculus exemplified by the deli-counter episode.

D The clinician cannot pick and choose patients to whom placebos can be administered.

E It gives rise to an unbiased testing of drugs.

Answer: A
Question 25
XAT 2019
Read the following paragraph and answer the question that follows:

Alligators are freshwater reptiles. However, people have come face to face with them in mud in a salt
marsh in Georgia. Finding alligators in the salt marsh is not a mystery or a miracle. At least 23 species of
predator have been spotted living in surprising habitats. Predators such as alligators, otters, mountain
lions, wolves and raptors are thriving in places they shouldn't, revealing some serious misunderstandings
about their behaviour and how to protect them. Scientific literature divulges that these creatures are
actually returning to places they once occupied. It gives us astonishing insights into the lives of animals
and helps conservationists improve the old stomping grounds of these creatures.

Which of the following statements provides the most plausible explanation of the predators' behaviour?

A Predators prefer to occupy different habitats, depending on the season and prevailing weather.

B Predators migrate to a habitat different from where they were born.

C Predators are fully aware of where they were born.

D Predators have a genetic memory of their traditional stomping grounds.

E Predators have no awareness of where they were born.

Answer: D

Question 26

Study the text given below and answer the question that follows it:

Dense, dirty air laced with grease best describes the atmosphere of most Lagos streets. Drive from one
corner of this great west African city to another and in no time you will find surfaces lightly dusted, like a
soft sprinkling of icing on cakes. Under the half-moons of fingernails, thick grime settles. It’s a scene
taken as typically African: polluted, bedraggled, unhealthy. This has only ever been made possible by the
exploitation of Africa’s people. This week five west African countries, Nigeria included, announced plans
to end the practice of European oil companies and traders exporting “African quality” diesel. “Dirty fuel”
has earned the name because it is imported diesel with sulphur levels as high as 3,000 parts per million
when the European maximum is 10ppm. To be clear, “African quality” fuel, is fuel not fit for European
humans.

Which of the options is not necessarily the underlying assumption of the author in the paragraph above?

A European oil companies dump their fuel on African countries.

B Economic exploitation, until challenged runs smoothly.

C Racism makes it easy for Europeans to justify the exploitation of inferior races.

D Typically, African cities today are not fit for human habitation.

E African nations had accepted ‘dirty fuel’ as the norm.

Answer: C

Decision Making

Instructions

Read the following caselet and answer the questions that follow:
 XAT 2019

You are a Human Resource (HR) Manager in the HR Department of Vikash Educational Charitable Trust. You organize
and support recruitment and training, provide secretarial support for disciplinary investigations and keep personnel
records of staff. You report to Ms. Deelipa, one of the two Senior HR Managers who reports to the HR Director.

Question 27

For the post of Consultant Professor in the Trust, two internal candidates, Mr. Rana and Mr. Charan were
interviewed. Mr. Charan was selected as he was considered to be academically gifted with impressive
leadership skills, even though he had less experience than the other. Three days later, Mr. Rana came to
your office complaining that the selection was unfair as he had more experience than Mr. Charan.

Which of the following is the best way to handle the issue raised by Rana?

Tell Mr. Rana, that you empathize with him, but the process was fair, and details of the assessment could be
A
shared with him.

Tell Mr. Rana that if he is interested, he could write to the HR Director and you would act as per the directives
B
received.

Offer tea to Mr. Rana and say that you can understand why he is upset. Let him have a bit of a moan and help him
C
get it out of his system.

D Tell Mr. Rana that the Institute finds the right person for the job, not the one who has been around the longest.

Warn Mr. Rana that his complaint will be construed as misdemeanour and held against him in the next promotion
E
cycle.

Answer: A

Question 28

Ms. Deelipa has asked you to conduct a Non Teaching Staff Induction Training. You are to call for a tender
from various agencies with specifications that include the contents, duration, experience, budget and
other relevant information. You then need to shortlist five agencies from the list of 20 and make a
presentation within two days.

Review the following responses:

1. Rate all 20 agencies on a scale of 1 to 5 on information available and select the top 5.
2. Select the five lowest bids based on the price quoted.
3. Seek selection criteria from Deelipa and the HR Director and shortlist the bidders accordingly.
4. Follow the advise of a person who has completed a similar task.

Select the best of the following responses in the descending order of effectiveness?

A 4,1,3

B 1,3,4

C 3,2,4

D 1,2,3

E 3,1,2
Answer: E
Question 29
XAT 2019
The Vikash Trust has recently been plagued by a high turnover of teaching assistants with many looking
for higher salary and better facilities. You have been asked to design and run a campaign to attract and
appoint 10 teaching assistants. One of your measures of success will be the retention of the new recruits.
You have 4 weeks for the interview.

Review the following:

1. Shortlist apt candidates who reflect values of the Trust from among respondees to your wide
advertisement campaign.
2.Design an ad that attracts candidates with values that matches the Trust's, release it at an appropriate
time and re-validate the candidates' credentials at the time of shortlisting.
3. Repeat the process that was followed by the Trust last time.
4. Seek expert advice on drafting an attractive advertisement.

Select the best of the following responses in the descending order of effectiveness?

A 4,1,2

B 2,1,3

C 4,3,1

D 1,2,3

E 2,3,4

Answer: B

Question 30

The new induction training program has been a roaring success. All new induction courses for the next 12
months have been tightly scheduled. This morning, you receive a call from Mr. Surya, the Head of the
Trust requesting you to train eight newly recruited teaching assistants before they start their job next
month. You explain that all the slots are fully booked for the next 3 months, but he insists that the new
teaching assistants be trained immediately, to hopefully reduce turnover among them. You speak to
Deelipa, who wants you to deal with the issue on your own.

Review the following responses that you wish to communicate to Mr. Surya:

1. Inform him that once the schedules are drawn up, it is not possible to effect any change as the
reputation of the Trust would be at stake.
2. Suggest that a new agency may be permitted to run induction sessions for these teaching assistants,
as a special case.
3. Tell him that if some inductees dropout in the first month, at least some teaching assistants can be
accommodated.
4. Tell him that since no space is available in the induction training sessions for three months, you, as the
HR manager would conduct induction sessions for them after office hours.

Select the best of the following responses in the descending order of effectiveness.

A 2,1,3,4

B 3,2,1,4

C 3,2,4,1

D 2,4,3,1

E 2,3,1,4

Answer: D
 XAT 2019
Instructions

Read the following caselet and answer the questions that follow:

The Public Relations Department of an organization has spent only 4 crores of its allocated 16 crores on publicity. There
are 2 months left in the financial year. Due to shortage of officers, the Assistant Director, Operations has been given an
additional charge of publicity. Because of his other commitments, he is unable to find time to undertake tasks such as
baseline study, ascertaining communication needs, testing proposed messages and media channels, deciding optimum
periodicity, measuring impact, etc. He also argues spending the rest of the budget is unnecessary because their
regular programs are already widely known. His boss, the Director, however, feels that only by utilizing the entire
budget can a similar amount be demanded the next year. He also thinks that there is nothing like enough publicity.

Question 31

Which of these is the best course of action for the department?

A Repeat the advertising done so far 3 times over and thus exhaust the entire amount.

Rely on the operational experience of the Director and the Assistant Director and start spending the optimal
B
amount right away.

C Surrender the budget right away so it can be utilized by other departments.

Hire a specialized external agency which will study the gaps and needs within a fortnight and follow it's
D
recommendations.

E Request higher authorities to reallocate the remaining amount to other departments of the organization.

Answer: D

Question 32

Which of these new developments, if true, would most justify a larger utilization of the advertising
budget?

A Advertising agencies have announced a 25% reduction in rates.

B An internal committee of the organization has made strong recommendations to improve service delivery.

C The organization has approved a new major scheme for immediate implementation.

D The findings of a baseline study on assessing communication needs are now available.

E A new Assistant Director has been posted to exclusively look after publicity.

Answer: C

Instructions

Read the following caselet and answer questions that follow:

Sanchit group of Hospitals seeks to improve the success rate and patient satisfaction rate by 100% in the next year.
However, the management can't afford to send doctors for professional development outside the country nor afford
purchasing more equipment. As an in-house measure, the managing board thought of having doctors with high patient
satisfaction to mentor those with less. Most of the doctors found it an interference by the management, judgmental
and an expression of distrust. There were, however, some isolated few who found it a novel way of learning from each
other. The doctors felt the management should instead increase consultancy fees and spend more on recruiting more
paramedics who could spend time with patients, rather than blame doctors and decided to call it quits. For the
management, this would mean loss of patients.
Question 33
XAT 2019
Consider the following actions:

1. Conduct a survey of all stakeholders and ascertain their needs and suggestions.
2. Build consensus among doctors and paramedics on a possible way forward.
3. Prepare an action plan that details the road map along with financial implications.
4. Design differential service packages based on the affordability of the patients.
5. Run a brainstorming session among the leading doctors of the area.

Which of the following sequence of actions is most appropriate for the hospital administration in
achieving their goal?

A 5,4,2

B 1,5,3

C 4,2,1

D 4,5,2

E 1,2,3

Answer: E

Question 34

Which of the following decisions is most likely to satisfy all the stakeholders?

A Increase the income of doctors and paramedics, and the ambiance of the hospital.

B Give 30% discount on medicines purchased from the hospital store.

C Increase the income of doctors and the number of paramedics.

D Raise income of doctors and reduce the waiting time of patients.

E Allow doctors to choose patients based on income levels, thus profiting both patients and the organization.

Answer: A

Question 35

Given the current situation, which of the following is the most interactive and effective way to increase
the learning among paramedics and doctors?

A Get doctors and paramedics with high satisfaction rates document their success stories for use of others.

Encourage paramedics and doctors to pursue courses over MOOC platform, at their own cost, which shall be
B
partially subsidized after successful completion.

C Ask doctors and paramedics with high satisfaction rate to give lectures to others before start of work.

D Implement professional development standards for staff linking it with an accountability framework.

E Create groups of paramedics and doctors, to meet everyday and discuss their insights and experience of the day.

Answer: E

Instructions

Read the following caselet and answer the questions that follow:
 XAT 2019

Thakur Raja, a young cabinet minister, glanced through the notes of his secretary regarding the recent controversies on
‘Racket’, the most popular game of the country. While International Racket Association (IRA) has agreed to implement
Drug Testing Code (DTC), the Racket Club which controls the entire Racket related activities had some reservations
regarding the initiative. A majority of the citizens eagerly awaited their country's participation and performance at the
international competitions during the Champions Trophy. Due to the popularity of the game, 70% of the total revenue
associated with the game originates from the country. Hence, the Racket Club has earned high bargaining power with
the IRA and can influence decisions not aligned with its interests. Three of the most popular and senior players of the
Club, including the captain, are against the imposition of DTC citing security reasons. A decision against the interests of
these players might result in law and order problems throughout the country. Other players support the decision of
their senior colleagues and if the Racket Club refuses, players may support the rebel Counter Racket Club, a new
national level initiative. The Counter Racket Club can challenge the monopoly of the Racket Club, if it succeeds in
attracting some popular players.

Raja was a great soccer player and has major reservations against racket. According to him, racket has negative
influence on the country’s youth and distracts them from productive work. He also considers drug testing as an
essential feature of any sports and games across the world. As the new cabinet minister for Youth and Sports, he needs
to take some important decisions on this contentious issue.

Question 36

If Thakur Raja wants to create a lasting impact, the most reasonable option for him is to:

A Force the Racket Club to accept all regulations relating to drug testing.

B Enforce drug testing while providing adequate security to all players.

C Get popular Racket players to endorse Soccer.

D Ban Racket as a sport, citing its negative influence on youth.

E Align with Counter Racket Club and reinforce their initiatives.

Answer: B

Question 37

Identify the best argument for Raja to decide in favor of the IRA.

A Raja is interested in making Racket less popular in the country.

B Three of the top international teams are keen on implementing DTC.

C The next World cup is scheduled to be held in a country which has made DTC mandatory.

Raja and the President of the Racket Club are political opponents and could use the present issue to settle their
D
mutual scores.

E Raja can justify his decision citing his position as a cabinet minister.

Answer: C
Question 38
XAT 2019
According to DTC, each athlete/sportsperson needs to submit their schedule for the next three months
specifying an hour each day when they can be randomly tested for drugs. DTC also ensures the
confidentiality of the submitted schedule by:

i. Limiting access of player-supplied information only to two senior officers.

ii. Allowing these officers to access the schedule of only those sports persons who are randomly selected
for testing.
iii. Introducing similar security features for DTC database as is the case with financial institutions.

The top three popular players realize security is the only reason for them to get a favorable decision from
Raja. Hence during discussions, they should focus on all options except:

A Recent report includes their country to be among the top five nations vulnerable to data security breach.

B DTC is unwilling to share details with security agencies of officers involved in background check.

Any leak of their private schedules may result in huge public gathering and it will make the job of security agencies
C
very difficult.

D Popular Racket players are on the hit list of terrorist organizations.

E It is difficult to provide adequate security coverage in large stadiums where Racket is played.

Answer: E

Instructions

Read the following caselet and answer the questions that follow:

Mrs. Bhalla is the principal of ‘Happy Public School’. While it is a private school, the trust is socially sensitive and as
part of their “Spread Happiness Policy” provides quality education to many needy students from low income
neighborhood for free. She received a strange complaint from some of the affluent parents regarding their discomfort
with allowing poor children to study along with their kids. They were concerned more about their manners, habits and
language than about schooling. They wanted the trust to either start a separate shift for such children or remove them
from the school since they are supporting them. On the other hand, the parents of the poor children complained of
bullying and teasing and shared their concern regarding the mental trauma their children undergo. While Mrs. Bhalla,
by no means wants to yield to the demands of the affluent parents, she also cannot ignore them since some of them
have been making substantial donations to the school.

Question 39

Which of the following is most likely to get the affluent parents to accept the school’s policy?

A Accept the suggestion of affluent parents to start a separate shift for the poor students.

Invite professionals to conduct workshop for the poorer children so that they learn basic manners, habits and
B
language.

C Meet the two parent groups separately, understand their key concerns and seek solutions from both.

D Invite the founder of the school to clarify to all parents the school’s policy.

E Share the fact, that the government instituted school ranking, places 25% weight to policies similar to the school's.

Answer: E
Question 40
XAT 2019
While Mrs. Bhalla understands the problems of overcrowded classrooms and classroom management, she
foresees in them an opportunity to develop more sensitive and self-motivated learners.

Mrs. Bhalla is considering the following actions:

1. Take the student and teacher councils on board and seek their ideas to redress the challenge the
school faces.
2. Brainstorm with teachers and students on a strategy to engage all learners in teams for meaningful
learning and healthy relationships.
3. Encourage students for self-learning and teachers into more supervisory roles to ensure discipline.
4. Engage students in a process of periodic reflection so that they can get in touch with their thoughts,
feelings and actions towards self and others.
5. Create achievement based student groups to encourage competition and ease classroom management.

Which of the following combination of actions would be most effective in developing sensitive and self-
motivated learners?

A 1,2,3

B 1,3,5

C 2,1,5

D 5,4,3

E 1,2,4

Answer: E

Question 41

Which of the following options will empower students the most?

A Ensure no kid from poor income group is detained.

B Maximise students learning achievement.

C Help students relate learning to their real life experiences.

D Ensure rich kids to get to know those on whom their money is spent.

E Encourage students to ask questions that teacher find difficult to answer.

Answer: C

Instructions

Read the following caselet and answer questions that follow:

Divya grew up in a business family in Hyderabad. As a Systems engineer she travelled extensively on business deals
and later settled in her in-law’s place in Warangal. Once during her visit to Thailand she got to taste some roll over ice
cream. Interestingly, a few weeks later, she came across an advertisement from a reputed Bangalore based Rollover
Handcrafted Ice Cream Company calling for expression of interest from potential franchises.

Warangal did not have any quality ice cream parlour. The company wanted the potential franchisees to invest Rs. 20
lacs and 700 square feet space. Profits were to be shared in 3:7 ratio between the company and the franchisee. Divya
was excited, but was wondering if Rs. 20 lacs was too much to invest. Further, she did not have the entire amount and
was thinking of taking a loan. She enquired with the Rollover franchisees and found that a franchisee in Hyderabad had
sales revenue varying between 5 and 6 lacs rupees per month with a profit margin between 25-30%. Divya decided to
go ahead.

Warangal had three main areas -Kazipet, Jangaon and Warangal. All areas were linked by good roads. Kazipet was a
business area where most high end retail formats were located. It was also the education hub of the city. Jangaon, on
the other hand, was a growing lower middle class business area and Warangal was mostly residential.
Divya favoured Kazipet. However, she soon encountered problems. Not only was it difficult to obtain space in Kazipet
XAT 2019
but property rentals touched 30-40 rupees per square feet per month as against Jangaon and Warangal where it was
15-20 rupees per square feet per month. Divya’s friend, who lived in Jangaon, told her that a few branded outlets were
opening in Jangaon and it appeared to be the fastest growing market in Warangal with the highest percentage of
teenagers. But, Divya was not in favour of Jangaon. She hoped to target college going crowd of Kazipet. High real
estate prices in Kazipet and lower profitability estimate in Jangaon market confused Divya.

Question 42

Which of the following options, if true, would most likely interest Divya to start a franchise?

A Doctors of the area do not consider Ice cream to be a major cause of obesity.

B A bank is ready to give her a quick loan.

C She can charge high prices for her ice creams without losing customers.

D Her friend who runs a restaurant recently in Kazipet is doing good business.

E In recent times, a couple of franchisees shut down within months of starting.

Answer: C

Question 43

Which of the following is least likely to demotivate Divya?

A Investing a huge amount may not bring expected returns.

B The bank would insist on loan repayment on a monthly basis.

C The property rentals would soon go up in Kazipet.

D Unlike Hyderabad, people in Kazipet don’t seem to like Rollover ice cream.

E Rollover franchise in Hyderabad is making huge profits.

Answer: E

Question 44

What could be the most likely reason for Divya opting for Kazipet?

A Spiralling real-estate prices in Kazipet.

B No branded outlets is likely to come up in Jangaon in the near future.

C High percentage of teenagers in Kazipet attracted to Rollover ice cream.

D High density of population in both Warangal and Jangaon.

E She felt, college going crowd is excited about the latest in ice creams.

Answer: E

Question 45

Which is the most important decision criterion for Divya to consider in such a business situation?

A Attracting customers through big discounts in the initial phase of business.

 Consistent increase in the number of customers in the future.
B XAT 2019
C Range and variety of ice-cream flavours.

D Availability of space in premium locality.

E Availability of loan at low interest rate.

Answer: B

Instructions

Read the following caselet and answer the questions that follow:

Due to increased competition, Electro Automobiles, the Indian subsidiary of Robert Automobile Company (RAC)
reported lower sales and profits. RAC expects its new model Limo, developed especially for value conscious customers
of India and China, would revive its fortunes. In order to prevent customers from buying competing products, RAC
announced the launch of Limo six months ahead of schedule. Unrest in its Indian supplier resulted in delayed delivery
of essential components to its main plant. Hence, Limo was launched on schedule only in China. Within a short span,
Limo captured 30% of the Chinese market , which was 200% higher than expectation. Indian customers were becoming
increasingly restless because they couldn't get a Limo in India. Electro’s dealers were worried, customers might switch
to other cars.

Question 46

The indian subsidiary is concerned that the delay in launching the product will give undue advantage to
some competitor. The organization was considering the following strategies to keep customers engaged
with the company:

1. Ask the dealers to encourage their prospective customers to seek similar products from the
competition, rather than wait for Limo’s launch.
2. Suggest the dealers to accept booking for Limo, announcing the launch within six months of booking,
while in reality plan to keep postponing launch indefinitely.
3. Run full page advertisements in the papers, every month, to keep the interest in the model from
ebbing, with no mention of the launch date.
4. Import parts from outside India, and launch the product, at a 30% premium, planning a relaunch a few
years later of the indianized version.
5. Go against its worldwide policy of non-interference in supplier plants, and announce a hefty bonus to
the employees of the supplier with a hope to temporarily bring the plant to life.
6. Promise the supplier plant (that has some unrest) a higher margin share of about 5% compared to what
was shared earlier, with an eye to stem the unrest.

Which of the following combination of responses above, will most likely keep the prospective customers
engaged with the company and not jump to some competitor’s product?

A 1,2,3

B 2,3,4

C 3,2,5

D 1,5,6

E 3,4,5

Answer: E
Question 47
XAT 2019
Mr. Murugan from Chennai experienced the comfort of Limo during his visit to China. He was willing to
deposit an approximate price of Limo to buy the first available unit from Mr. Ahmed, a dealer in Chennai.
Electro Automobile is yet to announce the actual price, and the process for allocation of the vehicles.
Which of the following is the best option for Ahmed?

Collect 50% of the entire amount Mr. Murugan is willing to deposit as advance and the remaining at the time of
A
launch.

Collect the entire amount Mr. Murugan is willing to deposit after clarifying that delivery and price is subject to the
B
company policy.

Collect the amount and transfer it to the account of Electro Automobiles, instead of keeping it in his personal
C
account.

D Collect the amount from Mr. Murugan. Later when the delivery is delayed, blame it on RAC’s problems.

E Not collect the amount, but suggest to Mr. Murugan to write to Electro Automobiles.

Answer: B

Quant
Instructions
For the following questions answer them individually

Question 48

A, B, C, D and E are five employees working in a company. In two successive years, each of them got hikes
in his salary as follows:

A : p% and (p+1)%,
B : (p+2)% and (p-1)%,
C : (p+3)% and (p-2)%,
D : (p+4)% and (p-3)%,
E : (p+5)% and (p-4)%.

If all of them have the same salary at the end of two years, who got the least hike in his salary?

A E

B D

C C

D A

E B

Answer: A

Explanation:
Let the initial salary of A,B,C,D,E be a, b, c, d, e respectively and let the final salary of everyone be x
p p+1
Now, a ∗ (1 + 100 ) ∗ (1 + 100 ) = x
p
x p+1
⇒a= (1+ 100 )∗(1+ 100 )

x∗100∗100
⇒a= (100+p)∗(100+p+1)

x∗100∗100
 x∗100∗100
⇒a= (p+100)∗(p+101)
XAT 2019
p+2
x p−1
Similarly, b = (1+ 100 )∗(1+ 100 )

x∗100∗100
⇒b= (p+102)∗(p+99)

p+3
x p−2
Similarly, c = (1+ 100 )∗(1+ 100 )

x∗100∗100
⇒c= (p+103)∗(p+98)

p+4
x p−3
Similarly, d = (1+ 100 )∗(1+ 100 )

x∗100∗100
⇒d= (p+104)∗(p+97)

p+5
x p−4
Similarly, e = (1+ 100 )∗(1+ 100 )

x∗100∗100
⇒e= (p+105)∗(p+96)

The numerators of the fractions are same, therefore the one with the smallest value of denominator will have the
greatest value. If we compare the denominators, we can find out the fraction with the highest value. The person with
the highest initial salary got the least raise, as we know that the final salary of all the candidates is same.

Thus, denominator of a, a den = (p + 100) ∗ (p + 101) = p2 + 201p + 100 ∗ 101

Similarly, bden = (p + 102) ∗ (p + 99) = p2 + 201p + 102 ∗ 99

cden = (p + 103) ∗ (p + 98) = p2 + 201p + 103 ∗ 98

dden = (p + 104) ∗ (p + 97) = p2 + 201p + 104 ∗ 97
eden = (p + 105) ∗ (p + 96) = p2 + 201p + 105 ∗ 96
We see that we need to compare only the last terms of the denominators as the other terms are same.

Thus, last term of a, a lt = 100 ∗ 101 = 100.52 − 0.52

last term of b, blt = 102 ∗ 99 = 100.52 − 1.52

last term of c, clt = 103 ∗ 98 = 100.52 − 2.52

last term of d, dlt = 104 ∗ 97 = 100.52 − 3.52

last term of e, dlt = 105 ∗ 96 = 100.52 − 4.52

Thus, we can see that since denominator of e is the smallest, therefore E has the highest initial salary.

Question 49

A firm pays its five clerks Rs. 15,000 each, three assistants Rs. 40,000 each and its accountant Rs. 66,000.
Then the mean salary in the firm comprising of these nine employees exceeds its median salary by rupees

A 14000

B 14600

C 15200

D 15480

E 14720

Answer: A

Explanation:
There are 6 employees in the firm. Median of any set is the element which occurs in the middle of the set when the
XAT 2019
elements are positioned in increasing or decreasing order. The number of elements in this set = 5+3+1 = 9
9+1
Thus, the middle element will be in the position 2 = 5th. Since we know that the clerks are paid the least so the clerk
salaries would be in the beginning of the set if arranged in ascending order. Thus, the 5th element will be a clerk's
salary as the number of clerks is 5.

Thus, median of the set = Rs 15,000.

To find the mean salary, we first need to find the sum total salary of the people involved.

Total salary = (Number of clerks*salary of 1 clerk) + (Number of assistants*salary of 1 assistant) + (Number of

accountants*salary of 1 accountant)

⇒ Total salary = (5*15,000)+(3*40,000)+(1*66,000)

⇒ Total salary = 75,000+1,20,000+66,000
⇒ Total salary = 2,61,000
Total Salary
Mean salary = Total number of employees
261000
⇒ Mean salary = 9

⇒ Mean salary = Rs 29,000 /-

Thus, difference between mean and median salary = 29,000-15,000 = Rs 14,000

Question 50

Two numbers a and b are inversely proportional to each other. If a increases by 100%, then b decreases
by:

A 200%

B 100%

C 150%

D 80%

E 50%

Answer: E

Explanation:
Inverse proportionality is expressed as follows :
1
a∝ b

⇒ a*b = constant
When value of a changes, the value of b changes accordingly such that their product remains same.
′
Thus, new value of a a = a + a = 2a
′
Thus, the new value of b b can be solved by :
′ ′
a ∗b =a∗b
′
⇒ 2a ∗ b = a ∗ b
′ b
⇒b = 2

Thus b decreases by 50%.

Question 51

If
3
7a × 35b+1 × 20c+2 is a whole number then which one of the statements below is consistent with it?

A a = 2, b = 1, c = 1
 a = 1, b = 2, c = 2
B XAT 2019
C a = 2, b = 1, c = 2

D a = 3, b = 1, c = 1

E a = 3, b = 2, c = 1

Answer: E

Explanation:
In the given statement, the expression becomes a whole number only when the powers of all the prime numbers are
also whole numbers.

Let us first simplify the expression a bit by expressing all terms in terms of prime numbers.
3
7a × 35b+1 × 20c+2
⇒
3
7a × 5b+1 × 7b+1 × 22(c+2) × 5c+2
⇒ 3
22c+4 × 5b+c+3 × 7a+b+1
2c+4 b+c+3 a+b+1
⇒2 3
5 3
7 3

Now, from the given options, we can put in values of the variables and check the exponents of all the numbers.

Option A : a = 2, b = 1, c = 1 :
b+c+3 5
In this case, we can see that exponent of 5 ie 3 = 3 is not a whole number.

Option B : a = 1, b = 2, c = 2
2c+4 8
In this case, we can see that exponent of 2 ie 3 = 3 is not a whole number.

Option C : a = 2, b = 1, c = 2
2c+4 8
In this case, we can see that exponent of 2 ie 3 = 3 is not a whole number.

Option D : a = 3, b = 1, c = 1
b+c+3 5
In this case, we can see that exponent of 5 ie 3 = 3 is not a whole number.

Option E : a = 3, b = 2, c = 1

In this case, we can see that all exponents are whole numbers.

Thus, option E is the correct option.

Question 52

A gold ingot in the shape of a cylinder is melted and the resulting molten metal molded into a few
identical conical ingots. If the height of each cone is half the height of the original cylinder and the area
of the circular base of each cone is one fifth that of the circular base of the cylinder, then how many
conical ingots can be made?

A 60

B 10

C 30

D 20

E 40
 Answer: C
XAT 2019
Explanation:
Let the radius of the cylinder be r and height be h (as shown).

Let the dimensions of the cone be rc and hc (as shown).

h
It is given that hc = 2
2
Area of base of cone Ac = π × rc

Area of base of cylinder A = π × r2

1
Given, Ac = 5 × A
2 1
⇒ π × rc = 5 × π × r2
2 1
⇒ rc = 5 × r2
r22
⇒ rc =5
Now we know that the volume of cylinder = total volume of cones

Let the number of cones be n.

So, volume of cylinder = n x volume of each cone

⇒ V = n × Vc
1 2
⇒ π × r2 × h = n × 3 × π × rc × hc
1 2
⇒ r2 × h = n × 3 × rc × hc
r22 h
⇒ rc × hc ×3=n

⇒5× 2×3=n
⇒ 30 = n
Thus, 30 conical ingots can be made.

Question 53

Given that a and b are integers and that 5x + 2 7 is a root of the polynomial x2 − ax + b + 2 7 in x, what
is the value of b?
A 5
XAT 2019

B 2

C 9

D 7

E 14

Answer: A

Explanation:
Note: For this question, discrepancy is found in question/answer. Full Marks is being awarded to all candidates.

Question 54
2
An article is marked x% above the cost price. A discount of 3 x% is given on the marked price. If the profit
is 4% of the cost price and the value of x lies between 25 and 50, then the value of 50% of x is?

A 12

B 16

C 13

D 15

E 20

Answer: D

Explanation:
Let CP of object be a.
4
It is given that SP = (1 + 100 ) x CP

⇒ SP = 1.04 x CP
x
It is given that MP = (1 + 100 ) x CP
2x
3
It is also given that SP = (1 − 100 ) x MP
2x x
⇒ SP = (1 − 300 ) x (1 + 100 ) x CP
4 2x x
⇒ (1 + 100 ) x CP = (1 − 300 ) x (1 + 100 ) x CP
4 2x x
⇒ (1 + 100 ) = (1 − 300 ) x (1 + 100 )
104 2x x
⇒ 100 = (1 − 300 ) x (1 + 100 )
104 300−2x x+100
⇒ 100 = ( 300 ) x ( 100 )
104
⇒ 100 × 300 × 100 = (300 − 2x) x (x + 100)
⇒ 31200 = (300 − 2x) x (x + 100)
Now, we look at the options.
25
Since the question says that xϵ[25, 30] so 50% of x ie 0.5x cannot be less than 12.50 ie 2 and cannot be more than 25
50
ie 2

This eliminates option A.

Putting values of x given in the remaining options in the final expression, [here we need to be careful to use the value
of x and not the value of 50% of x as given in the expression]
Look carefully in the remaining options : 16,13,15 as 0.5x ie 32,26,30 as possible values of x.
2
XAT 2019
3x
In the question since the discount rate offered is %, then a safer choice would be to check for the option of 30 in the
beginning. It is a safer choice because the percentage of discount that we get in the other options are not whole
numbers.

NOTE : THIS IS JUST A SAFE CHOICE AND NEVER MARK AN ANSWER DIRECTLY ON THIS PRESUMPTION WITHOUT
CHECKING IT.

Putting x=30 in the expression :

(300 - (2x30))x(30+100) = (300-60)x(100+30) = 240x130 = 24x13x100= 312x100 = 31200= LHS of expression.

Thus the value of x is 30.

Therefore value of 50% of x = 0.5x30 = 15

Question 55

A computer is sold either for Rs.19200 cash or for Rs.4800 cash down payment together with five equal
monthly installments. If the rate of interest charged is 12% per annum, then the amount of each
installment (nearest to a rupee) is:

A Rs.2880

B Rs.2965

C Rs.2896

D Rs.2990

E Rs.3016

Answer: B

Explanation:
Amount on which interest will be charged = 19200 - 4800 = 14400

The total amount paid will be equal to the sum of all monthly instalments. Therefore, we have

14400 ∗ k5a = I(k4a + k3a + k2a + ka + 1) .....(1)

12 1
where, k = 1 + 100 & a = 12

We know that, k5a − 1 = (k − 1)(k4a + k3a + k2a + ka + 1)

k5a−1
=>k4a + k3a + k2a + ka + 1 = k−1 ....(2)

Substituting in equation (1) we get

k−1
I = 14400 ∗ k5a ∗ [ k5a−1 ] ....(3)

On substituting the values of k and a in equation (3) we get

I ≈ 2965

Hence, option B.
 XAT 2019

Question 56

When opening his fruit shop for the day a shopkeeper found that his stock of apples could be perfectly
arranged in a complete triangular array: that is, every row with one apple more than the row immediately
above, going all the way up ending with a single apple at the top.
During any sales transaction, apples are always picked from the uppermost row, and going below only
when that row is exhausted.
When one customer walked in the middle of the day she found an incomplete array in display having 126
apples totally. How many rows of apples (complete and incomplete) were seen by this customer? (Assume
that the initial stock did not exceed 150 apples.)

A 15

B 14

C 13

D 12

E 11

Answer: D

Explanation:
The stack of apples can be imagined as shown below. For every row, there is an increase of 1 apple from the previous
row.

This means that the sum total of the apples present in the stack will be sum of AP given as : 1,2,3,4.... ie the sum of
numbers from 1.
n×(n+1)
This is given by the formula S = 2

Since the initial number of apples was not more than 150, we find the maximum number of rows that was possible.

Let S be the total initial sum of apples in the cart.

We know that S ≤ 150

n×(n+1)
⇒ 2 ≤ 150
⇒ n × (n + 1) ≤ 300
⇒ n2 + n ≤ 300
Since the biggest number with square less than 300 is 17, we try to see if 17 works in the expression by hit and trial
method.

So, 17 x 18 = 306 > 300, therefore the maximum number of rows possible is not 17.

Since 306 is JUST over 300, let us check at 16.

So, 16 x 17 = 272 < 300, therefore the maximum number of rows possible is 16.

Let us tabulate the total number of apples present in the cart based on the number of rows :
 XAT 2019

Since the total number of apples from row 15 is less than 126 (which was found by the customer), we can safely say
that the total number of rows of apples with the shopkeeper that day was 16.
16×17 n×(n+1)
Now, if 'n' rows of apples are sold, the total available apples can be calculated as : 2 − 2

Let us tabulate the result obtained in this case :

From the table we can see that when the customer saw 126 apples, the apples in the top 4 rows had been sold.

Therefore, the number of rows = 16 - 4 = 12 rows.

Question 57

Let P be the point of intersection of the lines

3x + 4y = 2a and 7x + 2y = 2018
and Q the point of intersection of the lines
3x + 4y = 2018 and 5x + 3y = 1
If the line through P and Q has slope 2, the value of a is:

A 4035

B 1/2

C 3026

D 1

E 1009

Answer: C

Explanation:
On solving for x and y from the equations

3x + 4y = 2018 and 5x + 3y = 1

we get Q(-550,917)

Let, P(x,y)
y−917
So, x+550 = 2

=> y - 2x = 2017 ....(1)

Considering the equations

3x + 4y = 2a ........(2)
7x + 2y = 2018 .....(3)
XAT 2019
On subtracting equation (2) from (3) we have,

4x - 2y = 2018 - 2a

=> 2x - y = 1009 - a

=> y - 2x = a -1009 .....(4)

From equation (1) and (4)

2017 = a - 1009

=> a = 3026

Hence, option C.

Question 58

Let C be a circle of radius 20 cm. Let L1, L2 be the lines given by 2x − y −1 = 0 and x + 2y−18 = 0,
respectively. Suppose that L1 passes through the center of C and that L2 is tangent to C at the point of
intersection of L1 and L2. If (a,b) is the center of C, which of the following is a possible value of a + b?

A 11

B 17

C 8

D 20

E 14

Answer: B

Explanation:

As mentioned in the question,

Lines L1 and L2 intersect at point P as shown in the figure.

On solving for x and y from equations

x + 2y - 18 = 0

2-y-1=0
We get x = 4 and y =7.
XAT 2019
Given, radius = 20
Using the equation of a circle, we have

(4 − a)2 + (7 − b)2 = 20
The only possible solution is 16 and 4.

Case 1:

(4 − a)2 = 16 & (7 − b)2 = 4

Possible values of a = 0,8 and b= 5,9 in any order

Possible sum values = 5,9,13 & 17

Case 2:

(4 − a)2 = 4 & (7 − b)2 = 16

Possible values of a = 2,6 and b= 3,11 in any order

Possible sum values = 5,9, 13 & 17

From the given options only B satisfies.

Hence, option B.

Question 59
log(97−56 3 )
log 7+4 3 equals which of the following?

A None of the others

B -2

C -4

D -3

E -5

Answer: C

Explanation:
Simplify the expression a bit to remove the root sign in the denominator

log 97 − 56 3
1
2 × (log 7 + 4 3)

log 97 − 56 3
⇒ 2 × log 7 + 4 3

To move further, let us see the root of the numerator.

Assume the root of the numberator to be a− b.

When we square it, we get a + b − (2 × a b) = a + b − 2 ab
comparing the value of terms under root with the terms in the numerator, we get

ab = 28 3 and a + b = 97
From solving this, we get to know that a = 7 and b = 4 3
 log 7 − 4 3
XAT 2019
Thus the expression can be written as 2 × 2 × log 7 + 4 3

log 7 − 4 3
⇒ 4 × log 7 + 4 3

Now, let us look at the reciprocal of the term in log in the denominator.

1 1 7−4 3
log 7 + 4 3 = log 7 + 4 3 × 7−4 3

7−4 3
⇒ 7 − (4 3)
2 2

7−4 3
⇒ 49 − 48 = 7 − 4 3

Thus the value of the expression can be further simplified as

(−1) × (7 + 4 3)
4× 7+4 3

⇒ 4 × (−1) = −4
Hence the correct answer is option C

Question 60
sin∠BAC
In the trapezium ABCD the sides AB and CD are parallel. The value of sin∠BAD is

BC
A AD

AB
B CD

AC
C CD

AD
D AC

AC
E AD

Answer: D

Explanation:
Construct a perpendicular in the trapezium. Let its height be 'h'
 XAT 2019

h
Now, sin∠BAC = AC

h
and sin∠BAD = AD
h
AC
sin∠BAC h AD
Thus, sin∠BAD = AD = AC

Question 61

In the picture below, EFGH, ABCD are squares, and ABE, BCF, CDG, DAH are equilateral triangles. What is
the ratio of the area of the square EFGH to that of ABCD?

A 3+2

B 2+ 3

C 1+ 3

D 2+2

E 3+ 2
Answer: A

Explanation:
Let the sides of the smaller square be x units and the sides of the larger square be y units.
 XAT 2019

Construct diagonal HF on the larger square. Let the point of intersection of AD and diagonal be I and point of
intersection of BC and diagonal be J.

We know that since EFGH is a square, the diagonal will bisect the angle. Therefore ∠EHF = 45o

Observe △AEH and △DHG :

AE=AH=DH=DG = x units and EH=HG= y units.

Thus by SSS property, △AEH ≅ △DHG

Thus, we know that ∠AHE= ∠DHG

Also, ∠AHE+ ∠DHG+∠AHD= 90o (angle of a square)

⇒ (2 × ∠AHE) + 60o = 90o (angle of an equilateral triangle)

⇒ (2 × ∠AHE) = 30o
⇒ ∠AHE = 15o
Since ∠AHE = 15o, ∠AHI = 45o − 15o = 30o
60o
Since 30o = 2 we can say that HF is the angle bisector of ∠AHD

Since △AHD is an equilateral triangle, we know that the angle bisector, median and altitude will all be the same line ie
HI in this case.

By symmetry, we know that JF will also be the angle bisector, median and altitude.
3×x
Also, length of altitude of equilateral triangle ie HI and JF = 2

Length of diagonal HF = 2×y

From the figure, we can express the length of diagonal HF as given :
XAT 2019
3×x 3×x
2×y= 2 +x+ 2

⇒ 2 × y = ( 3 × x) + x
⇒ 2 × y = x × ( 3 + 1)
3+1
⇒ y = x×( 2 )

y 3+1 4+2 3
2
Ratio of areas asked = ( x ) = ( 2 2
) = 2 =2+ 3

Question 62

What is the maximum number of points that can be placed on a circular disk of radius 1 metre (some of
the points could be placed on the bounding circle of the disk) such that no two points are at a distance of
less than 1 metre from each other?

A 6

B 9

C 7

D 8

E 5

Answer: C

Explanation:
In order to accommodate maximum number of points on the circular disk, all the points should be placed on the
boundary of the disk as any point if placed inside the boundary would be less than 1 metre apart from the centre of the
disk. Also, all the points have to be exactly 1 metre apart from each other to place maximum number of points. Hence,
a maximum of 6 points can be placed on the boundary of the disk (each adjacent points placed 60 degrees apart) and
1 point at the centre.

Hence, a total of 7 points can be placed on the disk.

Question 63

The figure below shows two right angled triangles ∆OAB and ∆OQP with right angles at vertex A and P,
respectively, having the common vertex O, The lengths of some of the sides are indicated in the figure.
(Note that the figure is not drawn to scale.) AB and OP are parallel.
What is ∠QOB?
 XAT 2019
A tan−1 (2/3)

B 45°

C 30°

D tan−1 (3/2)

E 60°
Answer: B

Explanation:

The figure can be redrawn as shown above.

∵ AB and OP are parallel, POAC is a square.

In right △QCB, QB = 5
△QBO is an isosceles right angled triangle with ∠OQB = 90° (By Pythagoras theorem)
∴ ∠QOB = 45°

Question 64

Consider the function f(x) = (x + 4)(x + 6)(x + 8) ⋯ (x + 98). The number of integers x for which f(x) < 0
is:

A 23

B 26

C 24

D 48
 49
E
XAT 2019
Answer: C

Explanation:
The critical points of the function are -4, -6, -8, ... , -98 ( 48 points).

For all integers less than -98 and greater than -4 f(x) > 0 always .

for x= -5, f(x) < 0

Similarly, for x= -9, -13, ...., -97 (This is an AP with common difference -4)

Hence, in total there are 24 such integers satisfying f(x)< 0.

Question 65

Let ABC be an isosceles triangle. Suppose that the sides AB and AC are equal and let the length of AB be
x cm. Let b denote the angle ∠ABC and sin b = 3/5. If the area of the triangle ABC is M square cm, then
which of the following is true about M?

x2
A M< 4

3x2
B 4 ≤ M < x2

C M ≥ x2

x2 3x2
D 2 ≤M< 4

x2 x2
E 4 ≤M< 2

Answer: E

Explanation:

△ ABC can be represented as shown above where AD ⊥ BC

3
Given, Sin b = 5
3x 4x
Hence, AD = 5 and BD = 5
8x
Now, BC = 2 BD = 5
1 1 8x 3x 12x2
∴ area of △ ABC = 2 * BC * AD = 2 * 5 * 5 = 25

Only option E satisfies.

Hence, option E.
Question 66
XAT 2019
If x2 + x + 1 = 0, then x2018 + x2019 equals which of the following:

A x+1

B x

C −x

D None of the others

E x−1
Answer: C

Explanation:
We know that,

x3 − 1 = (x − 1)(x2 + x + 1)
Since, x2 + x + 1 = 0

∴ x3 − 1 = 0
=> x3 = 1

Now, x2018 + x2019

= (x3 )672 ∗ x2 + (x3 )673

= 1672 ∗ x2 + 1673

= x2 + 1

= -x

Hence, option C.

Question 67

We have two unknown positive integers m and n, whose product is less than 100.

There are two additional statement of facts available:

mn is divisible by six consecutive integers { j, j + 1,...,j + 5 }
m + n is a perfect square.

Which of the two statements above, alone or in combination shall be sufficient to determine the numbers
m and n?

A Each statement alone is sufficient to answer the question.

B Both statements taken together are sufficient to answer the question, but neither statement alone is sufficient.

C Statement 2 alone is sufficient, but statement 1 alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

D Statements 1 and 2 together are not sufficient, and additional data is needed to answer the question.

E Statement 1 alone is sufficient, but statement 2 alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

Answer: B

Explanation:
Given, m and n are two positive integers having product less than 100

Statement 1:
mn is divisible by 6 consecutive integers. This means mn must be divisible by the LCM of these 6 integers its multiples.
XAT 2019
Only numbers from 1 to 6 satisfy this with LCM 60. Any other set of 6 consecutive integers clearly exceeds 100 as its
LCM.

Only such number satisfying the condition is 60.

60 can further be expressed as the product of two positive integers in the following ways:

1 x 60, 2 x 30, 3 x 20, 4 x 15, 5 x 12 and 6 x 10.

So, no unique values of m and n can be determined from the above.

Statement 2:

m + n is a perfect square.

From this statement alone too no unique set of solutions can be determined.

From Statements 1 and 2:

Only the pair 6 x 10 satisfies the condition.

Hence, both statements taken together are sufficient to answer the question, but neither statement alone is sufficient.

Question 68

A bag contains marbles of three colours-red, blue and green. There are 8 blue marbles in the bag.

There are two additional statement of facts available:

If we pull out marbles from the bag at random, to guarantee that we have at least 3 green marbles, we
need to extract 17 marbles.
If we pull out marbles from the bag at random, to guarantee that we have at least 2 red marbles, we need
to extract 19 marbles.

Which of the two statements above, alone or in combination shall be sufficient to answer the question
"how many green marbles are there in the bag"?

A Statement 1 alone is sufficient, but statement 2 alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

B Statement 2 alone is sufficient, but statement 1 alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

C Statements 1 and 2 together are not sufficient, and additional data is needed to answer the question.

D Each statement alone is sufficient to answer the question.

E Both statements taken together are sufficient to answer the question, but neither statement alone is sufficient.

Answer: B

Explanation:
From statement 1:

Red + Blue + Green = 17

Since, this ensures that there are at least 3 green marbles, so, remaining marbles must be red and blue.

∴ Red + Blue = 17 - 3 = 14
Blue = 14 - Red = 14 - 8 = 6

But, this doesn't give us the total number of green marbles. So, statement 1 alone is not sufficient.

From statement 2:

Red + Blue + Green = 19

Since, this ensures that there are at least 2 red marbles, so, remaining marbles must be blue and green

∴ Blue + Green = 19 - 2 = 17
Again, Green = 17 - Blue = 17 - 8 = 9.

Hence, statement 2 alone is sufficient to answer the question.

Instructions
XAT 2019
The break-up of the students in a university by subject major is given in the polar pie-chart. The bar chart shows the
number of students who major in physics by geographic location.

Question 69

How many students major in chemistry?

A 200

B 175

C 170
 190
D XAT 2019
E 180

Answer: B

Explanation:
Total number of Physics major from all locations = 225
225
∴ Total number of students = 0.18 = 1250

Number of students majoring in chemistry = 14 % * 1250 = 175

Hence, option B.

Question 70

If the proportion of physics majors who are from Delhi is the same as the proportion of engineering
majors who are from Delhi, how many engineering majors are from Delhi?

A 22

B 26

C 18

D 20

E 24

Answer: D

Explanation:
Total number of Physics major from all locations = 225
225
∴ Total number of students = 0.18 = 1250

Number of engineering students = 20% * 1250 = 250

So, basis the given condition we have

18 x
225 = 250

=> x = 20

Hence, option D

(Note: This question has been presented as was in the actual paper and has been solved by the aid of visual inference)

Question 71

12% of all students are from Chennai. What is the largest possible percentage of economics students that
can be from Chennai, rounded off to the nearest integer?

A 73%

B 77%

C 75%

D 71%

E 69%

Answer: A
Explanation:
Total number of Physics major from all locations = 225
XAT 2019
225
∴ Total number of students = 0.18 = 1250

Students from Chennai = 12% * 1250 = 150

Given, number of Physics majors from chennai = 40

∴ maximum possible number of economic students from chennai = 150 - 40 = 110

110
Maximum percentage of students = 150 * 100 % = 73.33 %

Hence, option A.

Instructions

Given below is the time table for a trans-continental train that cuts across several time zones. All timings are in local
time in the respective cities. The average speed of the train between any two cities is the same in both directions.

Question 72

Which of the following pairs of cities are in the same time zone?

A Yag and Vaq

B Vaq and Sab

C Zut and Yag

D No pair of cities are in the same time zone.

E Sab and Raz

Answer: C

Explanation:

The above figure shows the time taken in hrs:min to travel between two consecutive cities both for upward and
downward journeys.

The difference in time between two consecutive cities will be the average of the difference in time taken for upward
and downward journeys.

So, the difference of time for different consecutive pairs can be found as below:

Z-Y:

For both up & down motions time difference is 0. Hence, Z & Y are in same time zone.

Y-V:
Time taken for travelling from Y to V is less than that of from V to Y with a difference of 4 hrs. Hence, Y is 2 hours
ahead of V. XAT 2019
V-S:

Time taken for travelling from V to S is less than that of from S to V with a difference of 6 hrs. Hence, V is 3 hours
ahead of S.

S-R:

Time taken for travelling from S to R is less than that of from R to S with a difference of 2 hrs. Hence, S is 1 hour ahead
of R.

As shown above, only cities Zut and Yag are in same time-zone.

Hence, option C.

Question 73

What is the total time taken in minutes by the train to go from Zut to Raz?

A 22 hours, 40 minutes

B 28 hours, 40 minutes

C 16 hours, 40 minutes

D 20 hours, 40 minutes

E 24 hours, 40 minutes

Answer: A

Explanation:

The above figure shows the time taken in hrs:min to travel between two consecutive cities both for upward and
downward journeys.

The difference in time between two consecutive cities will be the average of the difference in time taken for upward
and downward journeys.

So, the difference of time for different consecutive pairs can be found as below:

Z-Y:

For both up & down motions time difference is 0. Hence, Z & Y are in same time zone.

Y-V:

Time taken for travelling from Y to V is less than that of from V to Y with a difference of 4 hrs. Hence, Y is 2 hours
ahead of V.

V-S:

Time taken for travelling from V to S is less than that of from S to V with a difference of 6 hrs. Hence, V is 3 hours
ahead of S.
S-R:
XAT 2019
Time taken for travelling from S to R is less than that of from R to S with a difference of 2 hrs. Hence, S is 1 hour ahead
of R.

Zut is 6 hours ahead of Rag. Also, the train departs from Zut at 6:00 am and arrives at Rag at 10:40 pm taking a total
of 16 hrs 40 min. Hence, the total time taken to travel from Zut to Rag is 22 hrs 40 min.

Hence, option A.

Question 74

What time is it at Yag when it is 12:00 noon at Sab?

A 5:00 pm

B 12:00 noon

C 9:30 am

D 7:00 am

E 2:30 pm

Answer: A

Explanation:

The above figure shows the time taken in hrs:min to travel between two consecutive cities both for upward and
downward journeys.

The difference in time between two consecutive cities will be the average of the difference in time taken for upward
and downward journeys.

So, the difference of time for different consecutive pairs can be found as below:

Z-Y:

For both up & down motions time difference is 0. Hence, Z & Y are in same time zone.

Y-V:

Time taken for travelling from Y to V is less than that of from V to Y with a difference of 4 hrs. Hence, Y is 2 hours
ahead of V.

V-S:

Time taken for travelling from V to S is less than that of from S to V with a difference of 6 hrs. Hence, V is 3 hours
ahead of S.

S-R:

Time taken for travelling from S to R is less than that of from R to S with a difference of 2 hrs. Hence, S is 1 hour ahead
of R.

It can be concluded that Yag is 5 hours ahead of Sab. Hence, it will be 5:00 Pm at Yag when it is 12 noon at Sab.

Hence, option A.
 XAT 2019
General Knowledge
Instructions
For the following questions answer them individually

Question 75

Which of the following countries does not border the Mediterranean Sea?

A Portugal

B Greece

C Spain

D Italy

E France

Answer: A

Question 76

The Mumbai Interbank Bid Rate (MIBID) and the Mumbai Interbank Offer Rate (MIBOR) are yardsticks that
control which of the following financial markets?

A FOREX markets

B Commodities markets

C Derivatives market

D Insurance market

E Call Money market

Answer: E

Question 77

Name the city which was the capital of the ‘undivided’ Assam state immediately after independence.

A Aizawl

B Agartala

C Kohima

D Imphal

E Shillong

Answer: E

Question 78

Name the European country that signed a pact with India in March 2018 to deepen the cooperation in the
field of environment management. The deal also affirms a commitment to fight climate change.
A France
XAT 2019

B UK

C Netherlands

D Portugal

E Spain

Answer: A

Question 79

Name the two countries with which India has inked agreements to enable the successful mission called
‘Gaganyaan’ that is slated for 2022.

A USA and China

B UK and USA

C France and Russia

D USA and France

E Russia and China

Answer: C

Question 80

The ‘Kyoto Protocol’ which was adopted in 1997 by several countries in Kyoto, Japan focusses on which of
the following aspects?

A Climate Change

B Repatriation of criminals

C Anti-terrorism

D Denuclearisation

E Free Trade Agreements

Answer: A

Question 81

Name the Russian leader whose name is synonymous with the two reforms of Glasnost and Perestroika.

A Yuri Andropov

B Leonid Brezhnev

C Konstantin Chernenko

D Boris Yeltsin

E Mikhail Gorbachev
 Answer: E
XAT 2019

Question 82

Name the Indian saint who wrote ‘Autobiography of a Yogi’.

A Satya Sai Baba

B Swami Abhedananda

C Sri Aurobindo

D Paramhansa Yogananda

E Hanuman Das Baba

Answer: D

Question 83

Sequence these four rivers in terms of their point of meeting the Bay of Bengal from north to south (i.e.
from Kolkata down southwards to Kanyakumari).

A Mahanadi, Krishna, Godavari, Cauvery

B Mahanadi, Godavari, Krishna, Cauvery

C Krishna, Godavari, Mahanadi, Cauvery

D Godavari, Krishna, Mahanadi, Cauvery

E Mahanadi, Godavari, Cauvery, Krishna

Answer: B

Question 84

According to the World Bank, which country is the highest recipient of remittances?

A China

B Mexico

C Philippines

D India

E Egypt

Answer: D

Question 85

Of the five members listed from the erstwhile royal families of Kerala, one was a nationally known painter
and artist. In his name, every year the government of Kerala award people for their excellence in the field
of art and culture. Name this painter.
A Marthanda Varma
XAT 2019

B Chitra Thirunal

C Avittom Thirunal

D Sree Mulam Thirunal

E Raja Ravi Varma

Answer: E

Question 86

Of the five people listed below, four are Managing Directors and one is the Chairman of the State Bank of
India (SBI) as of October 2018. Who among the five is the Chairman of SBI?

A Rajnish Kumar

B Arijit Basu

C PK Gupta

D Dinesh Kumar Khara

E Anshula Kant

Answer: A

Question 87

The prestigious Horlicks brand of GlaxoSmithKline has been recently brought over by another mega
FMCG brand. Name the buyer company.

A Cavinkare

B Patanjali

C Nestle

D Dabur

E Hindustan Unilever

Answer: E

Question 88

Which of the following countries is not a member of Union of European Football Association (UEFA)?

A Georgia

B Kazakhstan

C Azerbaijan

D Turkey

E Uzbekistan
 Answer: E
XAT 2019
Question 89

Which of the mobile service providers is going to launch GigaFiber broadband?

A Airtel

B Idea

C Vodafone

D Jio

E BSNL

Answer: D

Question 90

What is the common name of the acidic combination of nitric acid and hydrochloric acid that can actually
dissolve metals like gold and platinum?

A Aqua Pura

B Aqua Regia

C Aqua Fina

D Auro Dissolvo

E Aqua Aura

Answer: B

Question 91

Viacom18 is a popular entertainment network of India. Which of these channels does not belong to
Viacom18?

A Colors

B Rishtey

C MTV

D Nickelodeon

E Disney International

Answer: E

Question 92

Republic of Armenia is a UN member state but is not recognized by one of the UN member states. Identify
the state.

A Russia
 Georgia
B XAT 2019
C Azerbaijan

D Pakistan

E Iran

Answer: D

Question 93

The name of this dance and the name of the community that performs this dance is the same. It is a
Rajasthani folk dance and the intricate dance movements mimic the movement of snakes. Which dance
are we talking about?

A Lambadi dance

B Kalbelia dance

C Chhau dance

D Phag dance

E Bihu dance

Answer: B

Question 94

Which of the following countries is the largest source of imports to India as on 31st March 2018?

A Switzerland

B Pakistan

C China

D Saudi Arabia

E USA

Answer: C

Question 95

Which of the following is a winter game which is very similar to Ice Hockey and is often considered as the
national sport of Russia?

A Pato

B Bandy

C Tejo

D Arnis

E Bubkashi

Answer: B
Question 96
XAT 2019
Which of the following liquids demonstrates a convex meniscus when confined within a glass tube?

A Water in an anomalous expansion state between 0-4° C

B Water at room temperature

C Olive oil

D Petroleum

E Mercury

Answer: E

Question 97

Arrange these historical events in the order of their occurrence:

1. Introduction of Ryotwari System in India

2. Vernacular Press Act
3. Permanent settlement of Bengal
4. Introduction of Rowlatt Act

A iii, i, ii, iv

B i, ii, iv, iii

C i, iii, ii, iv

D i, iii, iv, ii

E iii, ii, i, iv

Answer: A

Question 98

What is Article 356 of Indian Constitution?

A Provision of special status to the state of Manipur.

B Provision of special status to the state of J & K.

C Suspension of Financial autonomy to a state.

D Provision of special status to the state of Arunachal.

E Imposition of President's Rule after the suspension of a state government.

Answer: E

Question 99

Which are the three sessions of the Parliament of India?

A New Year Session, Summer Session and Winter Session

B Budget Session, Diwali Session and Winter Session

 XAT 2018
English
Instructions

Please read the passage below and answer the questions that follow:

If history doesn’t follow any stable rules, and if we cannot predict its future course, why study it? It often seems that the
chief aim of science is to predict the future - meteorologists are expected to forecast whether tomorrow will bring rain
or sunshine; economists should know whether devaluing the currency will avert or precipitate an economic crisis; good
doctors foresee whether chemotherapy or radiation therapy will be more successful in curing lung cancer. Similarly,
historians are asked to examine the actions of our ancestors so that we can repeat their wise decisions and avoid their
mistakes. But it never works like that because the present is just too different from the past. It is a wast of time to
study Hannibal’s tactics in the Second Punic War so as to copy them in the Third World War. What worked well in
cavalry battles will not necessarily be of much benefit in cyber warfare. Science is not just about predicting the future,
though. Scholars in all fields often seek to broaden our horizons, thereby opening before us new and unknown futures.
This is especially true of history. Though historians occasionally try their hand at prophecy (without notable success),
the study of history aims above all to make us aware of possibilities we don’t normally consider. Historians study the
past not in order to repeat it, but in order to be liberated from it. Each and every one of us has been born into a given
historical reality, ruled by particular norms and values, and managed by a unique economic and political system. We
take this reality for granted, thinking it is natural, inevitable and immutable. We forget that our world was created by
an accidental chain of events, and that history shaped not only our technology, politics and society, but also our
thoughts, fears and dreams. The cold hand of the past emerges from the grave of our ancestors, grips us by the neck
and directs our gaze towards a single future. We have felt that grip from the moment we were born, so we assume that
it is a natural and inescapable part of who we are. Therefore we seldom try to shake ourselves free, and envision
alternative futures. Studying history aims to loosen the grip of the past. It enables us to turn our head this way and
that, and begin to notice possibilities that our ancestors could not imagine, or didn’t want us to imagine. By observing
the accidental chain of events that led us here, we realise how our very thoughts and dreams took shape - and we can
begin to think and dream differently. Studying history will not tell us what to choose, but at least it gives us more
options.

Question 1

Based on the passage, which of the following options would be the most appropriate for citizens to learn
history?

A British names of streets in India should not be changed.

B Every street in India should display a plaque that lists all its previous names.

C British names of streets in India should be changed to Indian names along with an explanation of their history.

D Names of Indian streets should be based on suggestions generated through an opinion poll.

E Names of Indian streets should be periodically changed.

Answer: B

Question 2

Which of the following options is the closest to the essence of the passage?

A History, unlike Physics, does not help predict future.

B History deals with long time periods.

C History documents the past events related to specific people.

D There is no strict cause and effect relationship in history.

E History has the potential to make us eclectic.

Answer: E
 XAT 2018
Question 3

Read the following sentences:

1. A historian successfully predicted a political crisis based on similar events of the last century.
2. Using the latest technology, doctors could decipher the microbe causing the disease.
3. Students who prepared for an examination by perusing past 10 years' question papers did not do well
in the examination.
4. A tribe in Andaman learns to predict epidemic outbreaks by listening to the stories of how their
ancestors predicted the past outbreaks.
Which of the statement(s) above, if true would contradict the view of the author?

A 1 and 2 only

B 3 and 4 only

C 2 and 3 only

D 1 and 4 only

E 1, 2 and 4 only

Answer: D

Instructions

Please read the passage below and answer the questions that follow:

Rene Descartes’ assertion that ideas may be held true with certainty if they are “clear and distinct” provides the
context for Peirce’s title, “How to Make Our Ideas Clear.” Peirce argued that an idea may seem clear if it is familiar.
Distinctness depends on having good definitions, and while definitions are desirable they do not yield any new
knowledge or certainty of the truth of empirical propositions. Peirce argues that thought needs more than a sense of
clarity; it also needs a method for making ideas clear. Once we have made an idea clear, then we can begin the task of
determining its truth. The method that Peirce offers came to be known as the pragmatic method and the epistemology
on which it depends is pragmatism. Peirce rejected Descartes’ method of doubt. We cannot doubt something, for the
sake of method, that we do not doubt in fact. In a later essay, he would state as his rule “Dismiss make-believes.” This
refers to Descartes’ method of doubting things, in the safety of his study, such things as the existence of the material
world, which he did not doubt when he went out on the street. Peirce proposed that a philosophical investigation can
begin from only one state of mind, namely, the state of mind in which we find ourselves when we begin. If any of us
examines our state of mind, we find two kinds of thoughts: beliefs and doubts. Peirce had presented the interaction of
doubt and belief in an earlier essay “The Fixation of Belief”.

Beliefs and doubts are distinct. Beliefs consist of states of mind in which we would make a statement; doubts are states
in which we would ask a question. We experience a doubt as a sense of uneasiness and hesitation. Doubt serves as an
irritant that causes us to appease it by answering a question and thereby fixing a belief and putting the mind to rest on
that issue. A common example of a doubt would be arriving in an unfamiliar city and not being sure of the location of
our destination address in relation to our present location. We overcome this doubt and fix a belief by getting the
directions. Once we achieve a belief, we can take the necessary action to reach our destination. Peirce defines a belief
subjectively as something of which we are aware and which appeases the doubt. Objectively, a belief is a rule of action.
The whole purpose of thought consists in overcoming a doubt and attaining a belief. Peirce acknowledges that some
people like to think about things or argue about them without caring to find a true belief, but he asserts that such
dilettantism does not constitute thought. The beliefs that we hold determine how we will act. If we believe, rightly or
wrongly, that the building that we are trying to reach sits one block to our north, we will walk in that direction. We have
beliefs about matters of fact, near and far. For example, we believe in the real objects in front of us and we believe
generally accepted historical statements. We also believe in relations of ideas such as that seven and five equal twelve.
In addition to these we have many beliefs about science, politics, economics, religion and so on. Some of our beliefs
may be false since we are capable of error. To believe something means to think that it is true.

Question 4

According to Peirce, for a particular thought, which of the following statements will be correct?

A A belief always leads to a doubt.

B A doubt always leads to a belief.
 A doubt and a belief may co-exist.
XAT 2018
C

D A belief and a doubt are not related.

E A doubt may lead to a belief.

Answer: E

Question 5

"A candidate has applied for XAT". According to Peirce, it indicates that:

A The candidate has a belief in the XAT application process.

B The candidate has a belief that XAT is a good test of ability.

C The candidate is doubtful about her/his performance in XAT.

D The candidate believes that s/he will perform well in XAT.

E The candidate has a doubt about her/his performance in other MBA entrance examinations.

Answer: A

Question 6

Which of the following words is the closest in meaning to "dilettantism"?

A Belief

B Doubt

C Guess

D Surety

E Unlikelihood

Answer: C

Question 7

A person thinks that s/he has to keep awake for twenty hours in a day to score well in an examination,
but is awake for only fifteen hours.
For the above statement, which of the following options will be right, according to Peirce?

A This person believes in a minimum sleep of 10 hours.

B This person does not have a true belief.

C It is a counter-argument of Pierce theory.

D It is only a thought, a pure thought, nothing to do with action.

E The person does not have a doubt.

Answer: B
 XAT 2018
Instructions

Please read the passage below and answer the questions that follow:

It is sometimes said that consciousness is a mystery in the sense that we have no idea what it is. This is clearly not
true. What could be better known to us than our own feelings and experiences? The mystery of consciousness is not
what consciousness is, but why it is.

Modern brain imaging techniques have provided us with a rich body of correlations between physical processes in the
brain and the experiences had by the person whose brain it is. We know, for example, that a person undergoing
stimulation in her or his ventromedial hypothalamus feels hunger. The problem is that no one knows why these
correlations hold. It seems perfectly conceivable that ventromedial hypothalamus stimulation could do its job in the
brain without giving rise to any kind of feeling at all. No one has even the beginnings of an explanation of why some
physical systems, such as the human brain, have experiences. This is the difficulty David Chalmers famously called ‘the
hard problem of consciousness’.

Materialists hope that we will one day be able to explain consciousness in purely physical terms. But this project now
has a long history of failure. The problem with materialist approaches to the hard problem is that they always end up
avoiding the issue by redefining what we mean by ‘consciousness’. They start off by declaring that they are going to
solve the hard problem, to explain experience; but somewhere along the way they start using the word ‘consciousness’
to refer not to experience but to some complex behavioural functioning associated with experience, such as the ability
of a person to monitor their internal states or to process information about the environment. Explaining complex
behaviours is an important scientific endeavour. But the hard problem of consciousness cannot be solved by changing
the subject.

In spite of these difficulties, many scientists and philosophers maintain optimism that materialism will prevail. At every
point in this glorious history, it is claimed, philosophers have declared that certain phenomena are too special to be
explained by physical science - light, chemistry, life - only to be subsequently proven wrong by the relentless march of
scientific progress.

Before Galileo it was generally assumed that matter had sensory qualities: tomatoes were red, paprika was spicy,
flowers were sweet smelling. How could an equation capture the taste of spicy paprika? And if sensory qualities can’t be
captured in a mathematical vocabulary, it seemed to follow that a mathematical vocabulary could never capture the
complete nature of matter. Galileo’s solution was to strip matter of its sensory qualities and put them in the soul (as we
might put it, in the mind). The sweet smell isn’t really in the flowers, but in the soul (mind) of the person smelling them
… Even colours for Galileo aren’t on the surfaces of the objects themselves, but in the soul of the person observing
them. And if matter in itself has no sensory qualities, then it’s possible in principle to describe the material world in the
purely quantitative vocabulary of mathematics. This was the birth of mathematical physics.

But of course Galileo didn’t deny the existence of the sensory qualities. If Galileo were to time travel to the present day
and be told that scientific materialists are having a problem explaining consciousness in purely physical terms, he
would no doubt reply, “Of course they do, I created physical science by taking consciousness out of the physical world!”

Question 8

Which of the following statements captures the essence of the passage?

A Materialists redefine the hard problem by changing the issues.

B The hard problem cannot be solved by materialists.

C Materialists can explain the reasons humans see a particular colour.

D Materialists and philosophers agree on the concept of consciousness.

E The hard problem can best be solved by segregation.

Answer: B

Question 9

Which of the following options would most likely be an example of the hard problem?

A Feeling the heat while holding a glass of hot water

B Experiencing joy after doing well in an examination

 What makes us tired after walking for 20 kilometres?
XAT 2018
C

D Why we prostrate in front of a deity?

E Why do humans take birth?

Answer: E

Question 10

Which of the following statements can be inferred from the passage?

A The passage argues that science could uncover all mysteries of the world.

B The passage argues that science could uncover all mysteries of the world by giving alternative explanations.

C The passage argues that science could never uncover all the mysteries of nature.

D The passage argues that science and consciousness are two different domains.

The passage argues that nature is so mysterious that humans are not even aware of the phenomena that can be
E
researched.

Answer: D

Instructions

Please read the passage below and answer the questions that follow:

Labor and capital are the opposite poles of capitalist society. This polarity begins in each enterprise and is realized on a
national and even international scale as a giant duality of classes which dominates the social structure. And yet this
polarity is incorporated in a necessary identity between the two. Whatever its form, whether as money or commodities
or means of production, capital is labor: it is labor that has been performed in the past, the objectified product of
preceding phases of the cycle of production which becomes capital only through appropriation by the capitalist and its
use in the accumulation of more capital. At the same time, as living labor which is purchased by the capitalist to set the
production process into motion, labor is capital. That portion of money capital which is set aside for the payment of
labor, the portion which in each cycle is converted into living labor power, is the portion of capital which stands for and
corresponds to the working population, and upon which the latter subsists. Before it is anything else, therefore, the
working class is the animate part of capital, the part which will set in motion the process that yields to the total capital
its increment of surplus value. As such, the working class is first of all, raw material for exploitation. This working class
lives a social and political existence of its own, outside the direct grip of capital. It protests and submits, rebels or is
integrated into bourgeois society, sees itself as a class or loses sight of its own existence, in accordance with the forces
that act upon it and the moods, conjunctures, and conflicts of social and political life. But since, in its permanent
existence, it is the living part of capital, its occupational structure, modes of work, and distribution through the
industries of society are determined by the ongoing processes of the accumulation of capital. It is seized, released,
flung into various parts of the social machinery and expelled by others, not in accord with its own will or self-activity,
but in accord with the movement of capital.

Question 11

While labor is capital, it is poles apart from each other because:

A Labor does not have a will of its own.

B The will of capital overpowers the will of labor.

C Capital is labor performed in the past.

D Labor exists outside the direct grip of capital.

E Labor is the animate part of capital.

 Answer: B
XAT 2018

Question 12

According to the passage, what does the working class subsists on?

A The benevolence of the bourgeois society

B The living labor

C Capital which is same as labor

D The labor that is performed in the past

E Living labor purchased by the capitalist

Answer: E

Question 13

Which of the following statements will be true, according to the passage?

A Capital exploits the working class.

B Working class when converted into capital is exploited by the bourgeois.

C Working class is exploited by the conflicts of social and political life.

D The pursuit of capital accumulation results in exploitation of the working class.

E Working class is the raw material for capital.

Answer: D

Instructions
For the following questions answer them individually

Question 14

Read the Following statements and answer the question that follows:

1. But its most advanced formulation is called superstring theory, which even predicts the precise number
of dimensions: ten.
2. However, the theory has already swept across the major physics research laboratories of the world and
has irrevocably altered the scientific landscape of modern physics, generating a staggering number of
research papers in the scientific literature (over 5,000 by one count).
3. Scientifically, the hyperspace theory goes by the names of Kaluza-Klein theory and supergravity.
4. The usual three dimensions of space (length, width, and breadth) and one of time are now extended by
six more spatial dimensions.
5. We caution that the theory of hyperspace has not yet been experimentally confirmed and would, in
fact, be exceedingly difficult to prove in the laboratory.
Rank the above five statements so as to make it a logical sequence:

A 3, 1, 4, 5, 2

B 3, 4, 1, 5, 2

C 5, 1, 4, 3, 2

D 3, 1, 4, 2, 5
 2, 5, 3, 1, 4
XAT 2018
E

Answer: A

Question 15

Read the Following statements and answer the question that follows:

1. It is less appealing, but morally more urgent, to understand the actions of the perpetrators.
2. It is easy to sanctify policies or identities by the deaths of the victims.
3. The victims were people; a true identification with them would involve grasping their lives rather than
grasping at their deaths.
4. The moral danger, after all, is never that one might become a victim but that one might be a
perpetrator or a bystander.
5. By definition the victims are dead, and unable to defend themselves from the use that others make of
their deaths.
Rank the above five statements so as to make it a logical sequence:

A 1, 2, 3, 5, 4

B 5, 3, 2, 4, 1

C 3, 5, 2, 1, 4

D 3, 1, 2, 4, 5

E 5, 3, 1, 2, 4

Answer: C

Question 16

Read the following paragraph and answer the question that follows:

Arti is planning for higher studies and her future goals include working as a manager of a non-profit
organization designed to provide assistance to under-represented populations. Arti researched the
mission statements of various colleges and discovered that college X, a small private college with a fee of
Rs. 8 lakhs per year, was dedicated to producing compassionate and curious leaders. College Y, a large
institute with a fee of Rs. 9 lakh per year, promoted itself as a leading research facility. Based on her
research, she decided to apply to college X rather than College Y.

Which of the following options is the most likely explanation of Arti's decision?

A A direct relationship exists between a college's cost and the quality of the education it provides.

B Students apply to smaller colleges that offer more personalized attention from professors.

C A large research university cannot prepare students for a career as a non-profit executive.

D Students apply to colleges with mission statements that align with their goals.

The best colleges have the best mission statements. Hence, students select a college with the best mission
E
statement.

Answer: D
Question 17
XAT 2018
Carefully read the following statement:

The payoff from ________ in education is so ______ and _______ that it is almost ________ as a predictor of
economic change over a five to ten year period.

Fill in the blanks meaningfully, in the above statement, from the following options.

A Expenditure, small, insignificant, irrelevant

B Productivity, small, erratic, useless

C Expenditure, fast, significant, powerful

D Investment, slow, erratic, useless

E Investment, slow, predictable, irrelevant

Answer: D

Question 18

Carefully read the following paragraphs:

The Lannisters had ______ gold than the Tyrells until the Lannister army sacked Highgarden and took the
Tyrell fortune to pay back the Iron Bank. On the other hand, the Northern army has ______ than 10,000
men and therefore, Jon needs to bend the knee to Daenerys. What happens in the story next is dependent
on George R. Martin, the writer of the series. For ______, he has not written anything further and we hope
George R. Martin will get around to finishing the book _______. But as it happens, ________, book releases
are delayed.

Fill in the blanks meaningfully, in the above paragraph, from the following options.

A less, fewer, some time, sometime, sometimes

B fewer, less, sometime, some time, sometimes

C less, fewer, sometime, some time, sometimes

D fewer, less, sometimes, sometime, some time

E fewer, less, some time, sometime, sometimes

Answer: A

Question 19

Which of the following sentences contains correct and meaningful usage of the underlined words?

A Vikram’s approach to the problem was unique from Harpreet’s, and he hadn’t expected no criticism from her.

B Vikram’s approach to the problem was different from Harpreet’s, but he hadn’t expected no criticism from her.

C Vikram’s approach to the problem was different from Harpreet’s, but he had expected no criticism from her.

D Vikram’s approach to the problem was unique from Harpreet’s, further he hadn’t expected no criticism from her.

E Vikram’s approach to the problem was different from Harpreet’s, and he had expected no criticism from her.

Answer: C
Instructions
XAT 2018
A spirit that lives in this world and does not wear the shirt of love, such an existence in a deep disgrace.
Be foolish in love, because love is all there is.
There is no way into presence except through love exchange.
If someone asks, But what is love? Answer, dissolving the will.
True freedom comes to those who have escaped the question of freewill and fate.
Love is an emperor. The two worlds play across him. He barely notices their tumbling game.
Love and lover live in eternity. Other desires are substitute for that way of being.
How long do you lay embracing a corpse? Love rather the soul, which cannot be held.
Anything born in spring dies in the fall, but love is not seasonal.
With wine pressed from grapes, expect a hangover.
But this love path has no expectations. You are uneasy riding the body?
Dismount, travel lighter. Wings will be given.
Be clear like mirror holding nothing.
Be clean of pictures and the worry that comes with images.
Gaze into what is not ashamed or afraid of any truth.
Contain all human faces in your own without any judgment of them.
Be pure emptiness. What is inside of that? You ask. Silence is all I can say.
Lovers have some secrets they keep.

Question 20

How are the words "freewill", "fate" and "will" used in the poem above?

A All the three words are opposites of love.

B These words are used as a hallmark of an intelligent person.

C Freewill and will connote self-determination while fate connotes loss of control.

D These are used as something that corpses do not possess.

E Freewill and will are synonymous while fate is an antonym to both.

Answer: A

Question 21

Which of the following is the closest interpretation of "lovers have some secrets that they keep"?

A The secret refers to profundity of knowledge.

B The secret is not to have any secret.

C The secret refers to freedom from emptiness.

D The secret refers to being a fine judge of human quality.

E The secret is about loving someone as much as you love yourself.

Answer: B

Instructions
For the following questions answer them individually

Question 22

Read the following paragraph and answer the question that follows:

The size of oceanic waves is a function of the velocity of the wind and of fetch, the length of the surface
of the water subject to those winds. The average impact of waves against a coastline is a function of the
size of the waves and the shape of the sea bottom. The degree of erosion on coastline is a function of the
average impact of waves and the geologic composition of the coastline.

According to the above paragraph, which of the following options will be true?
 XAT 2018
A The fetch of wind is related to the shape of the sea bottom.

B The size of oceanic waves will not fluctuate far from average.

C The size of oceanic wave is correlated with the shape of the sea bottom.

D Degree of erosion on coastline is not related with the velocity of wind.

E Degree of erosion on coastline is related to shape of the sea-bottom.

Answer: E

Question 23

Read the following paragraph and answer the question that follows:

Indian religious and ethical space is different from that of the western countries. The Vedas, the
Upanishads, the Bhagavad Gita, the Ramayana, and the Mahabharata etc. enrich Indian religious and
social space. Details of the treatment of human values and Dharmas have a long tradition. They are often
compared, contrasted and debated by the characters in the Ramayana and the Mahabharata. In the
process, it has given birth to a tradition of dharma, which has been transferred from generation to
generation. Ethical discourse was not a one-time affair. From time to time, religious leaders from various
regions of India nourished and strengthened the Indian ethical arena. Tiruvalluvar (second century B.C.),
Kabir from Uttar Pradesh (fifteenth century A.D.), Nanak from Punjab (fifteenth century A.D), Alvars and
Nayanmars of Tamil Nadu (eighth century A.D.), Basaveswara of Karnataka (Twelfth century A.D.), Sri
Chaitanya (Sixteenth century) were prominent.

Which of the following assumptions will make the above paragraph redundant?

All religious leaders, mentioned in the paragraph, preach the same message and it is transferred from one
A
generation to the next.

B Western religious spaces do not have details of treatment of principle of Dharma.

C Ramayana and Mahabharata have made it possible for religious leaders to build the tradition.

D Western civilizations have been traversed by a different kind of religious leaders.

E Western ethical and religious space has a long tradition of treatment of human values and Dharma.

Answer: E

Explanation:
The central idea of the given paragraph is that Indian religious and ethical space is different from that of the western
countries. The remaining part of the paragraph explains how Indian religious works placed emphasis on the concept of
Dharma. The author is trying to promote Dharma as something unique to the Indian culture. Therefore, any idea that
challenges this assumption will make the paragraph redundant. Option E states that the western culture also places
emphasis on human values and dharma, taking away the uniqueness of Indian culture. Therefore, option E is the right
answer.

Question 24

Read the following statement:

A manager seeks approval for conducting a training programme on 'openness'. He puts forward the
following arguments in favour of the program to his CEO.

Which of the following arguments is the least likely to have a logical fallacy?

We did a pilot training program with a group of employees. Post the program, one of the participants was open to
A
new ideas.
 This program should be good for our organization since it is designed by a leading consultant.
XAT 2018
B

C Internal studies conducted across groups and locations showed that 'openness' increases innovation.

D We have only two options; we can either train our employees on 'openness' or suffer the consequences.

E If you really care about the organization, you should approve this training program.

Answer: C

Question 25

Read the following paragraph:

"Music probably does something interesting," explains neuropsychologist Catherine Loveday of the
University of Westminster. "It stimulates the brain in a very powerful way, because of our emotional
connection with it." Unlike brain-games, playing an instrument is a rich and complex experience. This is
because it's integrating information from senses like vision, hearing, and touch, along with fine
movements. This can result in long-lasting changes in the brain. This can also be applicable in the
business world.

Go through the following statements:

1. Playing a musical instrument is a unique experience involving vision, hearing and touch.
2. Instrumental musicians are far more creative than vocalists.
3. Playing brain games does not integrate various senses and movements as much as playing a musical
instrument.
4. Integrating the five senses is critical in the business world.

Which of the above statements can definitely be interpreted based on the passage above?

A Statement 1 only

B Statement 1 and 2

C Statement 3 only

D Statement 1 and 3

E Statement 3 and 4

Answer: C

Question 26

Carefully read the following statement:

Though he thought of himself as a/an ______ person, his boss's abusive behaviour made him talk back.
However, as he engaged in a/an _______ with his boss, all he got in response was a/an _______, which only
filled him with _____

Fill in the blanks meaningfully, in the above statement, from the following options:

A nonchalant, remonstration, philippic, ennui

B insouciant, philippic, remonstration, ennui

C philippic, remonstration, ennui, insouciance

D ennui, philippic, insouciance, remonstration

E nonchalant, ennui, philippic, remonstration

Answer: A
 XAT 2018

Decision Making
Instructions

Answer the following questions on the basis of information given in the following situation.

Satyender heads a branch of a Micro-Finance company. The company provides small-size loans catering to rural
households. As the head of the branch, he supervises three collection officers - Palani, Sayed, and Godwin. Palani was
recently transferred by the company from another branch.

Question 27

Sayed feared Palani's transfer may pull down the performance of the branch, as he felt Palani was
transferred due to his poor performance in the previous branch.

Which of the following information will most likely assuage Sayed's fear?

A In the past 12 years as the head of branch, Satyender has exceeded targets every time.

B Palani has been a top performer in the organization; his performance has deteriorated only in the last three years.

C The branch's performance has been good for the past 10 years; Sayed has joined the organization 3 years back.

When Sayed joined as a fresher in this branch, others in the branch had feared that he might bring down the
D
performance of the branch.

E While calculating the branch's performance, the branch head has the choice to exclude new joinee's performance.

Answer: E

Explanation:
We cannot predict the future performance using the past records. Therefore, any option that stresses on the track
record to allay the fear can be eliminated.

Options A, B, C, and D use the past performance as a tool to assert that the person will perform well. Therefore, we can
eliminate these options. Only option E states that Sayed has an option to exclude the new joinee's performance. Even if
Palani fails to perform, Sayed will not have to bear the brunt for the same. Therefore, option E will encourage Sayed to
provide Palani with a chance and hence, option E is the right answer.

Question 28

Three months later, Palani submitted local travel bills to Satyender for reimbursement. Satyender
realized that the bill amount was 30% higher than expected.

Which of the following options, if true, will enable Satyender take a decision that shall set a precedent,
which is least likely to be misused in the future?

Palani being new to the area uses autorickshaws which are more expensive than personal motorcycles used by
A
other collection officers.

B Unlike his colleagues, Palani's house has very poor public transport connectivity.

C Unlike his colleagues, Palani's sales territory has a powerful competitor.

D Unlike his colleagues, Palani's customers can meet him only during weekends.

E Unlike his colleagues, Palani has to visit customers repeatedly as they require additional persuasion.

Answer: A
 XAT 2018
Explanation:
Option A provides a justification why Palani's expenses are on a higher side. Also, the other options involve a level of
subjectivity. The truth in the claims cannot be verified in the other options and hence, a decision cannot be arrived.
Option A talks about a quantifiable reason and hence, Satyendar can make a decision. Therefore, option A is the right
answer.

Question 29

Satyender is allocating territories to his subordinates for the coming financial year. So far, Palani's
performance has been poor and this allocation will decide his future in the organization.

Which of the following information will be the least useful to Satyender in taking a fair allocation
decision?

A Sayed's territory has shown consistently good performance in the past three years.

B Sayed's territory faces stiff competition from a well-known brand.

C A new territory that faces competition from two relatively unknown brands.

D Godwin's territory has shown consistent results in the past three years.

E Godwin's territory performance has been flat for the past two years.

Answer: C

Instructions

Answer questions 30-32 on the basis of information given in the following situation.

Lal & Sons, a family business, comprises three different companies in three different industries. Sudarshan Lal was
heading this entire business from the inception. Two years ago, he hired three managers, one for each company and
Chhaganlal Jha as Chief Executive Officer (CEO) to look after the entire business. These three managers are reporting
to the CEO. However, Sudarshan Lal and his family still own the entire business, though they are not involved in day to
day operations.

Question 30

Two years after the handing over, Sudarshan was concerned that none of the companies, except one, is
profitable.

Which of the following information, if true, will most likely reduce Sudarshan's concerns?

A leading financial institution recently advised its investors to purchase the shares of the two loss making
A
companies with a long term outlook.

B The Corporation's performance was stagnant for three years, before Sudarshan handed it over to professionals.

C The best performing division belongs to an industry, which is growing in double digits.

D People holding senior positions have been replaced two years ago by fresh and young talent.

E The rate at which employees are leaving the best performing division is higher than the industry average.
Answer: A

Question 31

Some of the senior employees who left Lal & Sons in recent past have complained to Sudarshan that the
long cherished values of the organization such as respect for elders, job security etc. are being
compromised.

Which of the following options, if true, will indicate to Sudarshan that the employees are misleading him?
 XAT 2018
A The replaced employees have been average performers for many years.

B When senior employees were assigned to lead challenging but critical positions in the organization, they resigned.

C The senior employees were replaced by people below them and not from outside the organization.

The replaced senior employees had only 4 more years of service and were not compensated for the pre-mature
D
termination.

E The number of senior employees voluntarily leaving this organization is lower than the industry average.

Answer: B

Question 32

Chhaganlal Jha, the CEO, was certain that someone in his leadership team was leaking information to
Sudarshan Lal, well before Chhaganlal communicated.

Given the following options, how best should Chagganlal Jha respond to this situation?

Chhaganlal should request Sudarshan to kindly wait for him to communicate as informal sources may lead to
A
misinformation.

B Chhaganlal should complain about this to Sudarshan and threaten to resign.

Chhaganlal should request his team to continue passing information, since it brings down the communication
C
barrier.

D Chhaganlal should understand that this is bound to happen and should not bother.

Chhaganlal should threaten his team that one of them will be fired by the weekend if this practice of passing
E
information doesn't stop immediately.

Answer: A

Explanation:
The leakage of information should be prevented. Sudharsan Lal is supposed to know the proceedings of the company
but it should be through a formal communication channel.

We can eliminate option B since it proposes an immature course of action.

Option C can be eliminated as well since it proposes no step to curb the leak of information.
We can eliminate option D since it does not propose any course of action.
Option E can be eliminated as well since it spoils the relationship between him and the business heads. Also, it fails to
find out the person responsible for leaking the information and even if someone is fired, there is no way to know
whether Chhaganlal has fired the right person.

Chaganlal should request Sudharsan to be patient till he gives out the information. This will ensure that Sudharsan will
not have the need to depend on second-hand information and hence, will address the root cause of the issue.
Therefore, option A is the right answer.

Instructions

Answer questions 33-35 on the basis of information given in the following situation.

Rose is the Queen of Kingdom A and Emily is the Queen of Kingdom B; both share a common border. They also share a
border with Kingdom C, a much larger kingdom, ruled by King Jonathan who has expansive ambitions. Though
individually their armies were no match to his might, together their armies were more powerful than King Jonathan’s
army.

Jonathan’s kingdom also bordered Kingdom K on the opposite side, making Kingdom C a buffer state between
Kingdoms A, B and K. Kingdom K is ruled by King Summer Sault, who united a group of warring and belligerent tribes
under his aegis. Kingdom K and Kingdom C had continuous skirmishes with each other.
Question 33
XAT 2018
Jonathan realized that he has limited arms and ammunition to fight on all the three fronts simultaneously.
Therefore, he planned to double the arms and ammunition which will take a few years. When this news
reached Emily and Rose they held a secret meeting to discuss the situation.

Which of the following actions, by Emily and Rose, will be the best suited to delay Jonathan's plan?

A Emily and Rose should send arms and ammunition to Summer Sault for the next few years.

B The two queens should meet Jonathan and attempt to sign a peace pact.

C Emily and Rose should also double their armies.

D Emily and Rose should attack Jonathan immediately.

E The two queens should ignore the news.

Answer: D

Question 34

Jonathan aims to invade and annex Kingdom K once and for all.

Which of the following options will best enable him to accomplish the ambition?

A He should request the cooperation of Queen Rose and Queen Emily.

B He should sign a peace pact with Queen Rose and Queen Emily.

C He should try and create a rift between the two Queens.

D He should secretly invest in doubling his army, by reducing all other expenditure.

E He should attack all three kingdoms simultaneously, giving them no time to cooperate.

Answer: D

Question 35

King Summer Sault was growing tired of the warring tribes, who slowed down the overall economic
development of Kingdom K.

Which of the following is the best option for King Summer Sault to focus on economic development?

A Align with Jonathan to eliminate one or two of the tribes and instil fear in others.

B Align with the two Queens to eliminate a few tribes and unify the rest.

C Design annual economic plans, with each plan named after a different tribe.

D Create a rift among the tribes and instigate a civil war.

E Request Jonathan to send teachers, doctors and artists to improve economic development of Kingdom K.

Answer: C

Instructions

Answer questions 36-38 on the basis of information given in the following situation.

Ava is the CEO of Ratan Brothers, a bicycle manufacturing company. The organization is doing well financially, with a
steadily increasing share price. Recently, Ava promoted Bhushan, her nephew, to the position of head of procurement
 XAT 2018

after he completed five years in the organization. After the promotion, he was automatically inducted into the quality
council headed by Ava.

Dev and Sons is a supplier to Ratan Brothers. It supplies “ball bearings”, an important part of any bicycle. After
Bhushan took over, he switched to a new supplier citing quality deficiencies in Dev and Sons’ product. Dev and Sons
responded by publicly declaring that quality was not compromised. Further, it alleged that its competitor bribed
Bhushan to get the contract.

Question 36

Post this public allegation, the share price of Ratan Brothers started falling.

Which of the following is the best option for Ava to immediately stem the falling stock prices?

A Fire Bhushan, blacklist Dev and Sons and inform the press.

B Issue a press statement that a committee has been formed to look into the matter.

Issue a press statement that the company's quality standards have increased and that anyone is welcome to
C
scrutinize the relevant documents.

D Cancel the remaining order and call for a fresh tender.

E Do nothing, as Bhushan, as the head of procurement, has the right to decide on the supplier.

Answer: C

Question 37

Under pressure from media and suppliers, Ava constituted a cross-functional committee of senior
executives to investigate Dev and Sons' allegation against Bhushan. The committee exonerated Bhushan.
However, rumors within the organization began to spread that the decision was influenced by nepotism.

Which of the following should be the best response from Ava?

A Do nothing, as the committee has exonerated Bhushan.

B Force Bhushan to resign temporarily. Make an independent enquiry, if found innocent, reinstate Bhushan.

C Communicate to all shareholders that these kinds of practices are very common in organizations.

D Sack all those employees who questioned the authority of Ava.

E Explain in a town hall meeting, open to all the employees, how the decision to exonerate Bhushan was taken.

Answer: E
Question 38
XAT 2018
A few months after the issue of Dev and Sons, a vigilance committee discovered some financial
irregularities attributable to Bhushan in his earlier stint as a senior manager in marketing. The board of
directors was concerned about this and demanded a response from the CEO.

Ava contemplated following responses:

1. Offer to resign from the post of CEO, since as the CEO she is ultimately responsible for everything in
the organization.
2. Sack Bhushan immediately and make the reason public.
3. Have a town hall meeting with all the employees and deny any financial irregularities in the
organization.
4. Communicate to the board that as the CEO, the organization's financial health is her top priority, on
which she has delivered stellar performance in the last five years.
5. Inform the board that Bhushan was promoted because his initiatives helped the company immensely.

Which of the following sequence of actions is the most appropriate for Ava?

A 5,2,1

B 5,4,3

C 1,2,3

D 2,1,4

E 3,4,1

Answer: A

Instructions

A courier service has offices at three locations: Jamshedpur, Kharagpur and Howrah. Its employees travel by trains from
one location to another for pick-up and delivery. It takes 40 minutes for an employee to travel from any railway station
to the nearest office (and another 40 minutes for coming back); the paperwork to deliver the parcel at the respective
office takes an additional 10 minutes. Assume employees do not waste any time.

Employees have the option to choose front any of the trains, whose timetable is given in the table below. Assume all
trains travel on time and there is no time gap between arrival and departure of a train. Further, assume that the
employee boards the train as soon as it arrives at the station

Question 39

What will be the minimum time required to deliver a parcel at Kharagpur office from Jamshedpur station
and come back to Jamshedpur station?

A 4 hours 25 minutes

B 5 hours 5 minutes

C 6 hours 35 minutes

D 7 hours 30 minutes

E None of the above

Answer: B
 XAT 2018

Question 40

An employee, starting from Howrah station, has to deliver one parcel at Kharagpur office and another
parcel at Jamshedpur office. His task starts the moment he boards the train at Howrah station, and gets
completed immediately after delivering the second parcel.

Which of the following trains should he board at Howrah station to minimize the time required to
complete his task?

A T201

B T202

C T204

D Both Option A and Option B

E Both Option B and Option C

Answer: E

Question 41

An employee, starting from Kharagpur station, has to deliver one parcel at Howrah office and another
parcel at Jamshedpur office. His task starts the moment he boards the train at Kharagpur station, and
gets completed immediately after delivering the second parcel.

Which of the following trains should he board at Kharagpur station to minimize the time required to
complete the task?

A T102

B T103

C T202

D T203

E Both Option B and Option D

Answer: B

Instructions

Answer questions 42-43 on the basis of information given in the following situation.

Three persons, A, B and C, lived on an island hill. A lived on the top of the island hill, B occupied the middle portion of
the hill and C occupied the bottom of the hill. The top of the hill received good rainfall, the main source of water in the
hill, though this portion of the hill had few trees. The middle of the hill however was lush with trees offering timber. The
bottom of the hill had a good amount of stones and sand. A, B and C assessed their wealth in terms of ownership of
timber, water, stones and sand available in the island hill only. During heavy rains, stones and sand from the top and
middle portion of the hill rolled over to the bottom. When the rains stopped, both A and B claimed that some stones
rolled down from their lands to the land occupied by C. They wanted the stones back. But C argued that rolling down of
stones is a natural process.

Question 42

All three approached a wise man for the settlement of the ownership dispute.

Which of the following is the best option available for the wise man?
 XAT 2018
A Award ownership of stones to A.

B Permit A to build a dam so that B and C are deprived of water.

C Award ownership of stones to C, as stones rolled down naturally.

D Award equal rights to all three over all the resources.

E Award A, ownership of water and C, ownership of stones.

Answer: D

Question 43

Six months later, the three realized that the solution offered by the wise man in the previous question
wasn't working to the satisfaction of all, because it did not help them find the appropriate value of
resources. Therefore, they reverted to status quo ante. After one year, all three of them wanted to
construct a house each, on their respective property. Three types of resources-1.Timber, 2.water and
3.stone & sand- were required to build a house. While each had one resource in abundance none of them
had all the three in sufficient quantity. They still could not come to an agreement on how to fairly value
and use each other's resources to construct the house. They again approached the wise man for advice.

The wise man studied the situation carefully and proposed the following actions:
1. The governing body of the United Federation of Islands, of which the island hill is a part, should take
ownership of all the three properties and construct houses for the three.
2. Each person should own one third of each of the resources.
3. The three persons should arrive at the value of resources by trading the resources among them.
Which of the following is the most appropriate in the best interests of A, B and C?

A 1 only

B 2 only

C 3 only

D 1 and 2 only

E All of 1, 2 and 3

Answer: C

Instructions

Answer questions 44-45 on the basis of information given in the following situation.

Ramesh, the owner of an auto-component manufacturing company in Sanand, had just returned after attending the
funeral of his employee, Pankaj Kumar, who had died of cancer at the age of 35. Pankaj was a hardworking and sincere
employee with impeccable performance record. Pankaj was the sole bread earner for his family with negligible savings
and was survived by his wife and two school going children. His wife will get around 8 lakh rupees accrued to Pankaj as
social security benefit.

A large number of employees wanted the organization to employ Pankaj’s wife on compassionate grounds so that she
could support her family. Though Ramesh was sympathetic to the demand, he realized that this could set a
precedence, where the organization will have to provide jobs for everyone with similar conditions in the future. In fact,
only recently, Ramesh had refused a request for a job to the daughter of an employee, who had died a few months
before he was to retire.
Question 44
XAT 2018
Ramesh formed a committee to look into this matter and the committee came up with the following
suggestions:
1. Create a fund to take care of immediate family expenses.
2. Finance the school and college education of his children.
3. Sponsor the vocational education of his wife and subsequently help her find a job.
4. Purchase insurance for all the family members.
5. Request all employees of the organization to contribute towards the welfare of the family.

Which of the following options, from the above suggestions, will be the most sustainable for Pankaj's
family?

A 1 and 2

B 2 and 3

C 3 and 4

D 4 and 5

E 3 and 5

Answer: B

Question 45

Ramesh, along with senior managers, was in the process of designing a policy to deal with such issues in
the future.

Which of the following policy statements will be the least amenable to misuse in the future?

A The firm should provide one job to any of direct dependents of the deceased employee.

B The firm should provide one job to any dependent, if employee dies during the service.

The firm should provide one job to any dependent, if the family does not have any other support and employee dies
C
during service.

D The firm should provide help to the dependent family members in pursuing good education and employment.

The firm shall constitute a committee, with fair representation from all stakeholders, to decide on the course of
E
action based on specifics of the case.

Answer: E

Instructions

Madhuri Apte, a busy professional, rents out her studio apartment located in South Mumbai. Since she stays three hours
away from the studio apartment, she uses a networked digital lock to monitor the property remotely. Each customer
gets a temporary and unique access code for the digital lock that enables them to enter the studio apartment for the
duration of stay. The apartment’s entrance door can also be opened with physical keys and Madhuri Apte has two such
keys in her possession.

Madhuri Apte has employed a cleaner who has a permanent access code to enter the apartment for cleaning every
day. She is available only between 15:00 hrs and 17:00 hrs.

Madhuri Apte’s apartment caters largely to international customers. A customer typically stays for 3 days, paying an
average rent of $125 per day.
Question 46
XAT 2018
While Madhuri Apte's studio apartment gets good feedback on other aspects, many seem unhappy as
they found the operation of the digital lock complicated.

Which of the following options is the best for Madhuri Apte in this context?

A Madhuri should switch to a physical lock.

Madhuri, on request, should send one of the physical keys five days ahead of customer's arrival at an extra charge
B
of $75.

Madhuri should request the cleaner to explain the working of the digital access code to customers for an extra
C
charge.

D Madhuri should do nothing as digital locks shall be the norm in the future.

Madhuri should create a video manual on "how to use the digital access code" and e-mail it to the customers before
E
their arrival.

Answer: E

Explanation:
Switching to physical lock will be a retrograde step. Digital lock provides Madhuri with an option to monitor her
apartment remotely and a physical lock will not allow her to do the same. Therefore, we can eliminate option A.

We can eliminate option B too since it suffers from the same flaw as option A.

It has been given that the cleaner will be available only for a limited period every day. Therefore, the cleaner cannot be
asked to explain the working of digital lock and hence, we can eliminate option C as well.

Madhuri cannot afford to be indifferent. Doing so will result in unsatisfied customers. Therefore, we can eliminate
option D as well.

Option E states that Madhuri should educate her customers using a video on how to operate the digital lock. Releasing
such a tutorial will ensure that the grievance of the customers get redressed. Also, Madhuri can continue using the
digital lock as well. Therefore, option E is the right answer.

Question 47

Madhuri's apartment received good feedback from the guests, except with respect to the operation of the
digital lock. She decided to leave a spare physical key in the house for her guests. Recently some of the
guests had forgotten to leave the key behind during checkout. Making a spare key will cost $500 and will
take about 10 days to arrive. She was confused if she should continue leaving the spare key and was
looking for a way out.

Which of the following would be the best way out for her?

A Keep Digital lock as the only option and communicate to customers.

B Be present during checkout to ensure the key is returned.

C Request the cleaner to be present during checkout.

D Send polite reminders to guests before checkout date and on the day of checkout to leave the key behind.

E Charge security deposit of $100 which will be forfeited if the keys are not left behind.

Answer: D

Quant

Instructions
For the following questions answer them individually
XAT 2018
Question 48

Find the value of the expression: 10 + 103 + 106 + 109

A 1010101010

B 1001000010

C 1001000110

D 1001001010

E 100010001010

Answer: D

Explanation:
10 + 103 + 106 + 109 = 10 + 1000 + 1000000 + 1000000000
= 1001001010
Therefore, option D is the right answer.

Question 49

Abdul, Bimal, Charlie and Dilbar can finish a task in 10, 12, 15 and 18 days respectively. They can either
choose to work or remain absent on a particular day. If 50 percent of the total work gets completed after
3 days, then, which of the following options is possible?

A Each of them worked for exactly 2 days.

B Bimal and Dilbar worked for 1 day each, Charlie worked for 2 days and Abdul worked for all 3 days.

C Abdul and Charlie worked for 2 days each, Dilbar worked for 1 day and Bimal worked for all 3 days.

D Abdul and Dilbar worked for 2 days each, Charlie worked for 1 day and Bimal worked for all 3 days.

E Abdul and Charlie worked for 1 day each, Bimal worked for 2 days and Dilbar worked for all 3 days.

Answer: E

Explanation:
Let us assume the amount of work to be finished = LCM of {10, 12, 15, 18} = 180 units.
180
The amount of work which Abdul can complete in a day = 10 = 18 units.

180
The amount of work which Bimal can complete in a day = 12 = 15 units.
180
The amount of work which Charlie can complete in a day = 15 = 12 units.

180
The amount of work which Dilbar can complete in a day = 18 = 10 units.

It is given that 50 percent of the total work gets completed after 3 days. Therefore, we can say that 90 units of work
was completed in 3 days.

Let us check options.

Option A: Each of them worked for exactly 2 days.
In this case amount of work completed = 2*(10+15+12+18) = 110 units.
Option B: Bimal and Dilbar worked for 1 day each, Charlie worked for 2 days and Abdul worked for all 3 days.
XAT 2018
In this case amount of work completed = 1*(10+15)+2*(12)+3*(18) = 103 units.

Option C: Abdul and Charlie worked for 2 days each, Dilbar worked for 1 day and Bimal worked for all 3 days.
In this case amount of work completed = 1*(10)+3*(15)+2*(18+12) = 115 units.

Option D: Abdul and Dilbar worked for 2 days each, Charlie worked for 1 day and Bimal worked for all 3 days.
In this case amount of work completed = 1*(12)+3*(15)+2*(18+10) = 113 units.

Option E: Abdul and Charlie worked for 1 day each, Bimal worked for 2 days and Dilbar worked for all 3 days.
In this case amount of work completed = 1*(18+12)+2*(15)+3*(10) = 90 units.

Therefore, we can say that option E is the correct answer.

Question 50

If the diagonals of a rhombus of side 15 cm are in the ratio 3:4, find the area of the rhombus.

A 54 sq. cm.

B 108 sq. cm.

C 144 sq. cm.

D 200 sq. cm.

E None of the above

Answer: E

Explanation:
It is given that the length of the diagonals are in 3:4. Let '3x', and '4x' be the lengths of semi-diagonals as shown in the
figure. We know that diagonals of a rhombus intersect each other perpendicularly.

In right angle triangle AOB,

AB2 = AO2 + BO2
⇒ AB = AO2 + BO2

⇒ AB = (3x)2 + (4x)2

⇒ 15 = 5x
⇒ x = 3cm.
Therefore, we can say that the length of diagonals = 6x and 8x or 18 and 24 cm.
1
Hence, the area of the rhombus = 2 ∗ 18 ∗ 24 = 216 cm 2 . Therefore, option D is the correct answer.

Question 51

The price of a product is P. A shopkeeper raises its price by X% and then offers a discount of Y% on the
raised price. The discounted price again becomes P. If Y is the difference between X and Y, then find X.

A 20
 25
XAT 2018
B

C 50

D 100

E None of the above

Answer: D

Explanation:
Let the cost price of the article be Rs.100.
The shopkeeper raises the price by x% and then decreases it by y%.
As a result, he reaches the cost price of the article.
Also, it has been given that y is the difference between y% and x%.
y = x−y
2y = x
We know that (1 + 2y)(1 − y) ∗ 100 = 100
(1 + 2y)(1 − y) = 1
1 − y + 2y − 2y2 = 1
2y2 − y = 0
2y = 1
y = 1/2 or 0.5
x = 2y
=> x = 1 or x = 100%
Therefore, option D is the right answer.

Question 52

A mixture comprises water and liquids A and B. The volume of water is 1/3rd of the total mixture and the
volume of liquids A and B are in the ratio 5:3. To remove the water, the mixture is passed through a
porous medium which completely absorbs the water and partially absorbs liquid A. Altogether this porous
medium absorbs 200 ml of the initial mixture. If the ratio of volume of liquids A and B in the residual
concentrated mixture becomes 7:9 then find the volume of water absorbed by the porous medium.

A 60 ml

B 200/3 ml

C 80 ml

D 100 ml

E 120 ml

Answer: E

Explanation:
Liquids A and B are in the ratio 5:3. The volume of water is one-third the total mixture.
Let us assume the volume of the total mixture to be 24x.

Volume of liquid A = 10x

Volume of liquid B = 6x
Volume of water = 8x

The mixture is passed through some medium that absorbs water completely and some quantity of liquid A.
Water absorbed = 8x
Let the amount of liquid A absorbed be y.
8x+y = 200
XAT 2018
=> y = 200-8x -----(1)
It has been given that (10x-y)/8x = 7/9

Substituting (1), we get,

(10x-200+8x)/6x = 7/9
(18x-200)/6x = 7/9
162x-1800=42x
120x = 1800
=> x = 1800/120
Amount of water absorbed = 8*1800/120 = 120 ml.
Therefore, option E is the right answer.

Question 53

A coin of radius 3 cm is randomly dropped on a square floor full of square shaped tiles of side 10 cm each.
What is the probability that the coin will land completely within a tile? In other words, the coin should not
cross the edge of any tile.

A 0.91

B 0.5

C 0.49

D 0.36

E 0.16

Answer: E

Explanation:
The radius of the coin is 3 cm.
So, if the coin should not cross the edge, the centre of the coin should at least be 3 cm away from the edge of the tile.

As we can see, the area in which the centre of the coin can fall is a square of side 10-3-3 = 4 cm.
Therefore, the area in which the centre of the coin can fall is 16 square cm.
Area of the tile = 100 square cm.
Required probability = 16/100 = 0.16.
Therefore, option E is the right answer.

Question 54

It takes 2 liters to paint the surface of a solid sphere. If this solid sphere is sliced into 4 identical pieces,
how many liters will be required to paint all the surfaces of these 4 pieces.
 XAT 2018
A 2.2 liters

B 2.5 liters

C 3.0 liters

D 4.0 liters

E None of the above

Answer: D

Explanation:
2 litres are required to paint the surface of a solid sphere.
Surface area of the solid sphere = 4π ∗ r2
Now, the solid sphere is cut into 4 identical parts. This is possible only when the sphere is cut into 4 quarter spheres.
After making the first cut, 2 hemispheres will be formed. 2 circles of area π ∗ r2 will get exposed in addition to the
surface area of the sphere (the base surface of the bottom hemisphere and the base of the top hemisphere).
Now, another perpendicular cut will be made along the diameter of the sphere. 2 additional surfaces will get exposed
again (one on left hemisphere and the another on the right hemisphere).

Area exposed after making 4 identical pieces = 4 ∗ π ∗ r2 + 2 ∗ π ∗ r2 + 2 ∗ π ∗ r2

= 8 ∗ π ∗ r2
2 litres of paint is required to paint an area of 4π ∗ r2
=> 4 litres of paint will be required to paint an area of 8 ∗ π ∗ r2 .

Therefore, option D is the right answer.

Question 55

Every day a person walks at a constant speed,V1 for 30 minutes. On a particular day, after walking for 10
minutes at V1 , he rested for 5 minutes. He finished the remaining distance of his regular walk at a
constant speed, V2 , in another 30 minutes. On that day, find the ratio of V2 and his average speed (i.e.,
total distance covered /total time taken including resting time).

A 1:1

B 1:2

C 2:3

D 2:1

E None of the above

Answer: A

Explanation:
The man walks with a speed of V1 for 30 minutes.
=> Distance covered = 30*V1.
On a particular day, he walks for 10 minutes at V1, takes a rest of 5 minutes, and then covers the distance by walking
at V2 for 30 minutes.
=> 10*V1 + 30*V2 = 30*V1
20*V1 = 30*V2
V1 = 1.5V2---------(1)
=> Total distance = 30*1.5*V2 = 45V2.
Now, we know that the person took 10 + 5 + 30 = 45 minutes to cover the entire distance.
=> Average speed = 45V2/45 = V2.
XAT 2018
Ratio of V2 and the average speed = 1:1.
Therefore, option A is the right answer.

Question 56

A boat, stationed at the North of a lighthouse, is making an angle of 30° with the top of the lighthouse.
Simultaneously, another boat, stationed at the East of the same lighthouse, is making an angle of 45°
with the top of the lighthouse. What will be the shortest distance between these two boats? The height of
the lighthouse is 300 feet. Assume both the boats are of negligible dimensions.

A 300 feet
600
B 3 feet

300
C 3 feet

D 600 feet

E None of the above

Answer: D

Explanation:
One boat is stationed to the North of the light house and the other boat is stationed to the East of the light house.

The boat stationed to the East subtends an angle of 45 degrees and the boat stationed to the North subtends an angle
of 30 degrees.
Now, distance between the boat stationed to the East and the light house,d1 = tan 45
300/d1 = 1
=> d1 = 300 feet

Distance between the boat stationed to the North and the light house,d2 = tan 30
300/d2 = 1/ 3
=> d2 = 300 3

3002 + (300 3)2

Shortest distance between the 2 boats =
= 300 ∗ 4
= 600 feet.
Therefore, option C is the right answer.
Question 57
XAT 2018
Two different quadratic equations have a common root. Let the three unique roots of the two equations
be A, B and C - all of them are positive integers. If (A + B + C) = 41 and the product of the roots of one of
the equations is 35, which of the following options is definitely correct?

A The common root is 29.

B The smallest among the roots is 1.

C One of the roots is 5.

D Product of the roots of the other equation is 5.

E All of the above are possible, but none are definitely correct.

Answer: C

Explanation:
It has been given that A+B+C = 41.
Let the common root be B.
All the roots are positive integers.
The product of the roots of one of the equations is 35.
35 can be obtained only in 2 ways - either as 5*7 or 35*1.
A+B+C = 41.
If A and B are 5 and 7 in any order, then C = 41 - 5 - 7 = 29.
If A and B are 35 and 1 in any order, then C = 41 - 35 - 1 = 5.
As we can see, in either case, 5 is one of the 3 roots.
Therefore, option C is the right answer.

Question 58

An antique store has a collection of eight clocks. At a particular moment, the displayed times on seven of
the eight clocks were as follows: 1:55 pm, 2:03 pm, 2:11 pm, 2:24 pm, 2:45 pm, 3:19 pm and 4:14 pm. If
the displayed times of all eight clocks form a mathematical series, then what was the displayed time on
the remaining clock?

A 1:53 pm

B 1:58 pm

C 2:18 pm

D 3:08 pm

E 5:08 pm

Answer: B

Explanation:
Let us find out the difference between the times given to figure out the pattern.
The times given are 1:55 pm, 2:03 pm, 2:11 pm, 2:24 pm, 2:45 pm, 3:19 pm and 4:14 pm.
The difference between 2 consecutive times given are 8 minutes, 8 minutes, 13 minutes, 21 minutes, 34 minutes, and
55 minutes.
We can observe that the difference between the times are in the Fibonacci series.
8 + 13 = 21
21 + 13 = 34
34 + 21 = 55

The Fibonacci series is as follows:

1,1,2,3,5,8,13,21,34,55.
XAT 2018
But the first difference in the times given is 8.
Therefore, the missing time must be such that it divides the interval of 8 minutes into 3 minutes and 5 minutes.
The missing time should be 1:58 pm and hence, option B is the right answer.

Question 59

The number of boys in a school was 30 more than the number of girls. Subsequently, a few more girls
joined the same school. Consequently, the ratio of boys and girls became 3:5. Find the minimum number
of girls, who joined subsequently.

A 31

B 51

C 52

D 55

E Solution not possible

Answer: C

Explanation:
Let the number of girls in the school be G.
=> Number of boys = G+30.
Some girls joined the class and the number of boys and girls became 3:5.
Let the number of girls who joined the class be 'X'.
It has been given that (G+30)/(G+X) = 3/5
5G + 150 = 3G + 3X
2G + 150 = 3X
=> X = (2G/3) + 50.
2G has to be divisible by 3.
Therefore, the least value that G can take is 3.
When G = 3, X = 2 + 50
X = 52.
The least number of girls who could have joined is 52.
Therefore, option E is the right answer.

Question 60

A girl travels along a straight line, from point A to B at a constant speed, V1 meters/sec for T seconds.
Next, she travels from point B to C along a straight line, at a constant speed of V2 meters/sec for another
T seconds. BC makes an angle 105° with AB. If CA makes an angle 30° with BC, how much time will she
take to travel back from point C to A at a constant speed of V2 meters/sec, if she travels along a straight
line from C to A?

A 0.53( 3 − 1)T

B T

C 0.5( 3 + 1)T

D 3

E None of the above

Answer: C

Explanation:
 XAT 2018

We draw BD perpendiculat to AC.

In right angled triangle BDC, BD / BC = sin 30°
or, BD = (V2 * T)/2 ......(i)
In right angled triangle BDA, BD / BA = sin 45°
Or, BD = (V1 * T)/ 2 ......(ii)
From (i) and (ii), we get
V2 / V1 = 2
Total distance to be travelled from C to A = CD + DA = 3BD + BD
= BD( 1 + 3)
Replacing BD = (V2 * T)/2 in the avove equation,
(V2 * T)
CA = 2 (1 + 3)
Time taken at speed V2 = 0.5( 3 + 1)T
Hence, option C is the correct answer.

Question 61

In the final semester, an engineering college offers three elective courses and one mandatory course. A
student has to register for exactly three courses: two electives and the mandatory course. The
registration in three of the four courses is: 45, 55 and 70. What will be the number of students in the
elective with the lowest registration?

A 35

B 40

C 42

D 45

E Either B or D

Answer: E

Explanation:
The number of candidates registered for 3 of the 4 courses is 45, 55, and 70.
There are 2 cases.
70 can be the total number of students registered in an elective or the mandatory course.
Case (i):
70 students have registered in an elective.
Each student will choose 2 elective.
=> Total number of electives chosen = 2* total number of students.
45+55+70 = 2*number of students.
Number of students = 170/2 = 85.
In this case, at least 45 students would have selected an elective.
 XAT 2018
Case (ii):
70 students have registered in the mandatory class.
=> 45+55+x = 2*70
=> x =40.
As we can see, the number of students registered in an elective can be 40 or 45. Therefore, option E is the right
answer.

Question 62

X and Y are the digits at the unit's place of the numbers (408X) and (789Y) where X ≠ Y. However, the
digits at the unit's place of the numbers (408X)63 and (789Y )85 are the same. What will be the possible
value(s) of (X + Y)?

A 9

B 10

C 11

D 12

E None of the above

Answer: B

Explanation:
All numbers from 1 to 9 repeat their last digits over a cycle of 4.
63 can be written as 4k+3.
85 can be written as 4k+1.
Some number's third power should yield the first digit as some number's first power.
23 will yield 8 as the last digit (2 and 8 is a possible solution).X+Y = 10
33 will yield 7 as the last digit (3 and 7 is a possible solution).X + Y = 10
43 will yield 4 as the last digit and hence, can be eliminated.
5 and 6 yield 5 and 6 respectively as the last digit for any power and hence, can be eliminated.
73 will yield 3 as the last digit (7 and 3 is a possible solution). X+Y=10.
83 will yield 2 as the last digit. 8+2 =10.
As we can see, X+Y = 10 in all the cases. Therefore, option B is the right answer.

Question 63

If 2 ≤ |x - 1| × |y + 3| ≤ 5 and both x and y are negative integers, find the number of possible
combinations of x and y.

A 4

B 5

C 6

D 8

E 10

Answer: E

Explanation:
2 ≤ |x - 1| × |y + 3| ≤ 5
The product of two positive number lies between 2 and 5.
As x is a negative integer, the minimum value of |x - 1| will be 2 and the maximum value of |x - 1| will be 5 as per the
question.

When, |x - 1| = 2, |y + 3| can be either 1 or 2

So, for x = -1, y can be - 4 or - 2 or - 5 or -1.
XAT 2018
Thus, we get 4 pairs of (x, y)

When |x - 1| = 3, |y + 3| can be 1 only

So, for x = - 2, y can be -4 or -2
Thus, we get 2 pairs of the values of (x, y)

When |x - 1| = 4, |y + 3| can be 1 only

So, for x = - 3, y can be -4 or -2
Thus, we get 2 pairs of the values of (x, y)

When |x - 1| = 5, |y + 3| can be 1 only

So, for x = - 4, y can be -4 or -2
Thus, we get 2 pairs of the values of (x, y)

Therefore, we get a total of 10 pairs of the values of (x, y)

Hence, option E is the correct answer.

Question 64

David has an interesting habit of spending money. He spends exactly £X on the Xth day of a month. For
example, he spends exactly £5 on the 5th of any month. On a few days in a year, David noticed that his
cumulative spending during the last 'four consecutive days' can be expressed as 2N where N is a natural
number. What can be the possible value(s) of N?

A 5

B 6

C 7

D 8

E N can have more than one value

Answer: B

Explanation:
The sum of 4 consecutive numbers should be a power of 2.
The powers of 2 are 1, 2, 4, 8, 16, 32, 64, 128. The maximum possible value that 4 consecutive days can take is 28 +
29 + 30 + 31 = 118.
We can eliminate 1, 2, 4, and 8 since sum of 4 consecutive integers is always greater than 9.
Let the first day be x.
x+x+1+x+2+x+3 = 16
=> 4x = 10
x = 2.5
We can eliminate 16.
Let us check for 32.
x+x+1+x+2+x+3 = 32
4x = 26.
x is not an integer.
Let us check the case in which x is the last day of the month.
Even in the month of February, the least value that x can take is 28.
28+1+2+3 = 34 > 32.
We can eliminate 32 as well.
Let us check for 64.
4x+6 = 64
4x = 58
The sum of no 4 consecutive days in the same month can be expressed as 4k+6.
Let us check the cases in which 2 months are involved.
29+30+1+2 = 62 < 64.
XAT 2018
30 + 31 + 1 + 2 = 64. This is a possible combination.
There are 7 months with 31 days in a year. We have to eliminate December since 1 will spill over to the 1st of January
of the next year.
Therefore, in a year, there will be 6 such instances. Therefore, option B is the right answer.

Question 65

A cone of radius 4 cm with a slant height of 12 cm was sliced horizontally, resulting into a smaller cone
(upper portion) and a frustum (lower portion). If the ratio of the curved surface area of the upper smaller
cone and the lower frustum is 1:2, what will be the slant height of the frustum?

A 12 − 3

B 12 − 2 3

C 12 − 3 3

D 12 − 4 3

E None of the above

Answer: D

Explanation:
The ratio of the curved surface area of the upper cone to the lower frustum is 1:2.
=> the ratio of the curved surface area of the upper cone to the total cone = 1:3.
Curved surface area (CSA) of a cone = π ∗ r ∗ l
For the given cone, the slant height, l = 12cm

CSA of the cone = 48 ∗ π

CSA of the smaller cone = 16 ∗ π
Both the slant height and the radius would have been reduced by the same ratio. Let that ratio be x.
x2 ∗ 48 ∗ π=16π
1
=>x2 = 3
1
x= 3
12
Slant height of the smaller cone = 3
12
Slant height of the frustum = 12 − 3
3 −1
= 12 ∗ 3
(3− 3 )
= 12 ∗ 3
= 12 − 4 3
Therefore, option D is the right answer.

Question 66

Two circles with radius 2R and 2R intersect each other at points A and B. The centers of both the circles
are on the same side of AB. O is the center of the bigger circle and ∠AOB is 60°. Find the area of the
common region between two circles.

A ( 3 − π − 1)R2

B ( 3 − π)R2
13π
C ( 6 +1− 3)R2

D 13π
( 6 + 3)R2
 None of the above
XAT 2018
E

Answer: C

Explanation:
Let us draw the diagram according to the given info,

1
We can see that AD = AO*cos60° = 2R* 2 = R

In triangle, ACD
AC
⇒ sinACD = AC
R 1
⇒ sinACD = 2∗R = 2

⇒ ∠ ACD = 45°
By symmetry we can say that ∠ BCD = 45°

Therefore we can say that ∠ ACB = 90°

270° 3
Hence, the area colored by green color = 360° ∗ π ∗ ( 2R)2 = 2 ∗ π ∗ R2 ... (1)

1
 1 XAT 2018
Area of triangle ACB = 2 ∗ R ∗ 2R = R2 ... (2)

60° 3 2
2
Area shown in blue color = 360° ∗ π ∗ (2R) − 4 ∗ (2R)2 = 3 ∗ π ∗ R2 − 3 ∗ R2 ... (3)

By adding (1) + (2) + (3)

3 2
Therefore, the area of the common region between two circles = 2 ∗ π ∗ R2 + R2 + 3 ∗ π ∗ R2 − 3 ∗ R2
13π
⇒( 6 +1− 3)R2

Hence, option C is the correct answer.

Question 67

These statements provide data that may help answer the respective questions. Read the questions and
the statements and determine if the data provided by the statements is sufficient or insufficient, on their
own or together, to answer the questions. Accordingly, choose the appropriate option given below the
questions.

A group of six friends noticed that the sum of their ages is the square of a prime number. What is the
average age of the group?

Statement I: All members are between 50 and 85 years of age.

Statement II: The standard deviation of their ages is 4.6.

A Statement I alone is sufficient to answer.

B Statement II alone is sufficient to answer.

C Either of the statement is sufficient to answer.

D Both statements are required to answer.

E Additional information is required.

Answer: A

Explanation:
Sum of the ages of the 6 friends is the square of a prime number.
 XAT 2018
Statement I states that all the members were aged between 50 and 85 years. There are 6 friends in total. Therefore,
the sum of the ages can vary from 6*50 to 6*85.
Sum of the ages of the 6 persons should lie between 300 and 510.
361 is the only square of a prime number (19) in the given range. Therefore, statement I alone is sufficient to answer
the question.

Statement II states that the standard deviation of their ages is 4.6. SD gives us how much the values deviate from the
mean. We cannot obtain the mean using the SD. Therefore, statement II alone is insufficient to answer the question
without knowing the values in the data set.

Therefore, option A is the right answer.

Question 68

These statements provide data that may help answer the respective questions. Read the questions and
the statements and determine if the data provided by the statements is sufficient or insufficient, on their
own or together, to answer the questions. Accordingly, choose the appropriate option given below the
questions.

Harry and Sunny have randomly picked 5 cards each from a pack of 10 cards, numbered from 1 to 10.
Who has randomly picked the card with number 2 written on it?

Statement I: Sum of the numbers on the cards picked by Harry is 5 more than that of Sunny.
Statement II: One has exactly four even numbered cards while the other has exactly four odd numbered
cards.

A Statement I alone is sufficient to answer.

B Statement II alone is sufficient to answer.

C Either of the statement is sufficient to answer.

D Both statements are required to answer.

E Additional information is required.

Answer: D

Explanation:
Harry and Sunny have cards numbered from 1 to 10.
Sum of the number of cards picked by them = 1+2+3+...+10 = 55.

Sum of the numbers on the cards picked by Harry is 5 more than that of Sunny.
Let x be the sum of the numbers picked by Sunny.
x+x+5 = 55
x = 25
25 can be written as 10+9+1+2+3 or 9+7+5+1+3 etc. (There are many such combinations). We cannot determine
the person who has card number 2.
Statement I alone is insufficient.

Statement II states that one of the 2 persons has exactly 4 even-numbered cards.
The person with 4 even-numbered cards might or might not contain card number 2. Therefore, statement II alone is
insufficient.

Combining both the statements, we know that the sum of the numbers on the cards with Harry is 5 more than the sum
of the number on the cards with Sunny. Therefore, the sum of the number of cards with Sunny should be 25 and Harry
should be 30.

Sum of the 5 even numbers = 2+4+6+8+10 = 30.

Sum of the 5 odd numbers = 1+3+5+7+9 = 25.
By replacing one of the odd numbers with even numbers, we have to make the sums 30 and 25. We cannot replace an
odd number with an even number and still get the sum as 25. Therefore, the set with 4 odd numbers must add up to
30 and the set with 4 even numbers must add up to 25. We can interchange 1 with 6 or 3 with 8 or 5 with 10. The card
with number 2 will always remain with the person with 4 even cards. The card with number 25 will always remain with
 XAT 2018
Sunny. Therefore, we can determine the answer using both the statements together and hence, option D is the right
answer.

Instructions

Six teams are playing in a hockey tournament where each team is playing against every other team exactly once. At an
intermediate stage, the status is as follows:

Notes:
• The team that scores more goals than it concedes wins the match, while if both the teams score the same no. of
goals, the match is declared drawn.
• Ina match played between Team X and Team Y, if team X scores 1 and concedes none. then the score line would
read: Team X — Team Y (1-0)

Question 69

Which of the following matches are yet to be played?

A Team A - Team B and Team C - Team D

B Team C - Team D and Team E - Team F

C Team E - Team F and Team B - Team D

D Team C - Team D and Team A - Team E

E Team A - Team B and Team E - Team F

Answer: E

Question 70

Which of the following score line is a possible outcome in the tournament?

A Team A - Team D (1-0)

B Team A - Team E (2-1)

C Team B - Team D (1-0)

D Team C - Team F (2-0)

E None of the above

Answer: B

Question 71

Which of the following score line is not a possible outcome in the tournament?

A Team A - Team F (4-0)

 Team B - Team F (4-0)
XAT 2018
B

C Team C - Team D (0-0)

D Team C - Team E (2-0)

E All of the above options are possible

Answer: A

Instructions

The graph below represent the performance of four professors, across years. measured on four variables: Percentage of
time spent on research, feedback on (a scale of 10. right-hand side) and number of publications (right-hand side).
Assume that the cumulative time spent per year on research and teaching activities are sane for all four professors and
each of them taught only one course of 90 classroom hours.

Question 72

Which of the following, shows the maximum year to year percentage growth in feedback?

A Professor Artihmetic during 2013-2014

B Professor Algebra during 2015-2016

C Professor Calculus during 2012-2013

D Professor Calculus during 2014-2015

E None of the above

Answer: C

Question 73

Count the number of instances in which "annual decreasing efforts in research" is accompanied with
"annual increase in feedback"?

A 5

B 7

C 9

D 11

E None of the above

Answer: C

Question 74

Research efficiency is the ratio of cumulative number of publication for a period of 3 years to the
cumulative number of hours spent on research activity in those 3 years. Which of the following professors
is the least efficient researcher for the period 2015 to 2017?

A Professor Artihmetic

B Professor Algebra
 Professor Geometry
XAT 2018
C

D Professor Calculus

E Cannot be determined as research is expressed in percentage

Answer: A

General Knowledge

Instructions
For the following questions answer them individually

Question 75

Which of the following is not a Cryptocurrency?

A Bitcoin

B Laxmicoin

C Etherium

D Paypal

E Litecoin

Answer: D

Question 76

Who won the Nobel Prize for Economics in 2017?

A Richard Thaler

B Raghuram Rajan

C Jean Tirole

D Bengt Holmstrom

E Oliver Hart

Answer: A

Question 77

What is Showrooming?

An individual browses the sites of e-retailers for products and then ends up purchasing the product from some
A
brick and mortar store.

An individual visiting a brick and mortar store to have a look and feel of the product and then ordering the same
B
product through some e-retailers.

C An individual visiting a big box retailer to have a look and feel of the product and then purchasing the same
product from nearby kirana (Mom and Pop) store.
 XAT 2018
An e-retailer using the kirana (Mom and Pop) stores to keep its stock of goods and meets the orders in the nearby
D localities.

E None of the above

Answer: B

Explanation:
Showrooming is the process in which an individual visits a showroom to know how a product looks and feels before
buying it online at a discount. Therefore, option B is the right answer.

Question 78

Which of these have not been included in Government of India Act, 1935?

A Separation of Burma from India

B Detachment of Aden from India to establish it as a crown colony

C Splitting of Bihar and Orissa as two separate provinces

D Separation of Khyber Pakhtunwala from India

E Separation of Sindh from Bombay presidency

Answer: D

Question 79

What is Article 35 a: of Indian Constitution?

A An article empowering Jammu and Kashmir state’s legislature to define permanent residents

B An article empowering Arunachal Pradesh state’s legislature to define permanent residents

C An article providing autonomous status to Jammu and Kashmir

D An article providing autonomous status to Arunachal Pradesh

E An article providing autonomous status to Manipur

Answer: A

Question 80

Which of the following is not a landlocked country?

A Kenya

B Niger

C Swaziland

D Chad

E Mali
Answer: A

Question 81

Which of the following options is the correct list of core industries as defined by IIP?
 XAT 2018
A Shipping, Coal, Natural Gas, Pharmaceuticals

B Coal, Natural Gas, Crude Oil, Fertilizers

C Coal, Steel, Cement, Information Technology

D Refinery, Fertilizers, Crude Oil, Telecommunication

E Coal, Steel, Crude Oil, Banking

Answer: B

Explanation:
IIP (Index of Industrial Production) defined 8 core industries in India. They are

1.Coal
2. Crude oil
3. Natural gas
4. Refinery products
5. Fertilizers
6. Steel
7. Cement
8. Electricity

Therefore, option B is the right answer.

Question 82

Match the surnames of head of states (former or current) to the countries.

A a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv, e-v

B a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-v, e-iii

C a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-v, e-iv

D a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-v, e-iii

E a-iv, b-ii, c-iii, d-i, e-v

Answer: B

Explanation:
Cristina Elisabet Fernández de Kirchner was the former President of Argentina.

Luiz Inácio Lula da Silva was the former President of Brazil.

Deng Xiaoping is the former President of China.

Recep Tayyip Erdogan is the President of Turkey.

Hugo Chavez is the former President of Venezuela.
XAT 2018

Therefore, option B is the right answer.

Question 83

Match the following Indus Valley sites to the states:

A a-iii, b-ii, c-iv, d-i

B a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii

C a-iii, b-ii, c-i, d-iv

D a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-ii

E a-iv, b-ii, c-iii, d-i

Answer: A

Explanation:
Harappa is located in the Punjab province of Pakistan.
Lothal is located in Gujarat in India.
Chanhudaro is located in the Sindh province of Pakistan.
Banawali is located in Haryana.

Therefore, option A is the right answer.

Question 84

Which of the following Indian business houses (conglomerate) started its operation with companies like
Philips Carbon Black, Asian Cables, Agarpara Jute and Murphy(India)?

A Aditya Birla

B C.K. Birla

C RPG Enterprises

D K.K.Birla

E Essar

Answer: C

Explanation:
The RPG group was founded by R.P.Goenka. The group initially started with companies such as Philips Carbon Black,
Asian Cables, Agarpara Jute and Murphy. Therefore, option C is the right answer.

Question 85

Which of the following spacecrafts, in 2017, plunged into the planet it was exploring?

A Apollo-8
 Voyager-2
XAT 2018
B

C Voyager-1

D Cassini

E Pioneer-11

Answer: D

Question 86

The Time magazine’s person of the year 2017 is:

A Donald Trump

B Emmanuel Macron

C The Peace Makers

D Silence Breakers

E Sarah Huckabee Sanders

Answer: D

Question 87

Which of the following is NOT one of the World Heritage Sites?

A Mountain Railways of India

B Jim Corbett National Park

C Khangchendzonga National Park

D Historic City of Ahmedabad

E Great living Chola temples

Answer: B

Question 88

Match the Music festivals to their states:

A a-iii, b-ii, c-iv, d-i,e-v

B a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii,e-v

C a-ii, b-i, c-v, d-iii,e-iv

 a-v, b-i, c-iii, d-ii,e-iv
XAT 2018
D

E a-iv, b-ii, c-iii, d-i,e-v

Answer: C

Explanation:
Hornbill is the music festival held in Nagaland.
Ziro is the name of the town in the Arunachal pradesh where the musical festival is held.
Escape is the musical festival held in Uttarakhand.
Enchanted Valley carnival is held in Aamby valley, Maharashtra.
Magnetic fields is the music festival held at Alsisar Mahal, Rajasthan.

Therefore, option C is the right answer.

Question 89

If a company encourages its employees to use its own products to understand customers’ perception,
then the company is engaging in:

A Dogfooding

B Lionhunting

C Moonlighting

D Spacetraveling

E Bikeriding

Answer: A

Question 90

Which of the following is not a video streaming service?

A Netflix

B Primevideo

C Youtube

D Roku

E Itunes
Answer: D

Question 91

Which of the following is not a French overseas territory?

A New Caledonia

B Guadeloupe

C Guam

D Reunion
 Mayotte
XAT 2018
E

Answer: C

Question 92

Match the rockets/missions to their space agencies:

A a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv, e-v

B a-iv, b-iii, c-v, d-ii, e-i

C a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-v, e-i

D a-v, b-iv, c-iii, d-ii, e-i

E a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-v, e-i

Answer: C

Explanation:
Falcon 9 is owned by Space X, the company founded by Elon Musk.
NASA owns the Mars rover mission.
Exo Mars Trace Gas orbiter is a project of the European Space Agency (ESA).
Yinghuo-I is the Chinese Mars exploration probe developed by China National Space Administration (CNSA).
Mangalyaan is the Mars Orbiter Mission developed by ISRO, India.

Therefore, option C is the right answer.

Question 93

Who is the independent athlete to win a gold medal at 2016 Summer Olympics?

A Abdullah Al-Rashidi

B Fehaid Al-Deehani

C Jasna Sekaric

D Yulia Stepanova

E Darya Klishna

Answer: B

Explanation:
Fehaid Al-Deehani is from Kuwait. Al-Deehani had won the bronze medal twice for Kuwait in Men's double trap shooting
in 2000 and 2012. Kuwait was banned from Olympics in 2016 and hence, Al-Deehani participated as an independent
athlete and won gold in the event. Therefore, option B is the right answer.
Question 94
XAT 2018
Which of the following mobile manufacturing companies DOES NOT have its headquarters in China?

A Xolo

B Xiaomi

C Vivo

D Oppo

E Lenovo

Answer: A

Question 95

Name the only Indian (or from Indian origin) to win Abel Prize?

A Manjul Bhargava

B Srinivasa Ramanujam

C S. R. Srinivasa Varadhan

D Mahan Maharaj (Swami Vidyanathananda)

E Harishchandra Mehta

Answer: C

Question 96

What is a Hundi?

A It is a financial instrument

B It is a utensil used for marriage functions

C It is a marriage ritual in Tibetan society

D It is Hyundai’s earlier name

E It is the name of the last Hun that ruled China

Answer: A

Question 97

Windhoek, Suva and Ulaanbaatar are the capital cities of:

A Mongolia, Hungary, Romania

B Namibia, Fiji and Mongolia

C Ghana, Fiji, Uruguay

D Guyana, Fiji, Mongolia

 Namibia, Guyana, Ghana
XAT 2018
E

Answer: B

Question 98

Which of the following is the most recent club to join ISL?

A FC Goa

B Chennaiyin FC

C North East United FC

D Jamshedpur FC

E Delhi Dynamos FC

Answer: D

Question 99

Match the brands with the companies:

A a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv, e-v

B a-iv, b-iii, c-v, d-ii, e-i

C a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-v, e-i

D a-v, b-iv, c-iii, d-v, e-ii

E a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-v, e-iii

Answer: B

Explanation:
Gillete is a subsidiary of Procter and Gamble (P&G).
Surf Excel is a brand owned by Hindustan Unilever.
Saffola oil is owned by Marico India.
Aashirvaad atta is owned by ITC.
Good Knight is owned by Godrej.

Therefore, option B is the right answer.