28/10/2023

08/11/2024 All RM Batch Test-1 (Code-E) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2022

CODE-A
MM : 720 TEST - 1 Time : 3 Hrs.

[PHYSICS]
Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Phone : 011-47623456 Choose the correct answer:

SECTION-A 6. Some physical constants are given in column I and

MM : 720 All India
All India Aakash
Aakash Test
Test SeriesFor
Series For NEET
NEET 2024
2025 Time : 3.20 Hrs. their dimensional formulae are given in column II.
1. Natural science does not include Match the correct pairs in the columns.
Pre AIATS-01 (1) Social sciences
Column I Column II
(2) Physics
Topics covered: (3) Biology A. Gravitational (P) [ML2T 1]
constant
(4) Chemistry
Physics : Units & Measurements, Motion in a Straight Line, Motion in a Plane
2. 2 metre is the length of path travelled by light in B. (Q) [ML0T 3K 4]
vacuum during a time interval of C. (R) [M 1L3T 2]
Chemistry : Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry, Structure of Atom
constant
(1) of a second
Botany : Cell: The Unit of Life, Cell Cycle and Cell Division, The Living World D. (S) [ML2T 2K 1]

Zoology : Structural Organisation in Animals-Animal Tissues, Biomolecules (2) of a second (1) A(R), B(S), C(Q), D(P)
(2) A(P), B(Q), C(R), D(S)
(3) of a second (3) A(R), B(Q), C(S), D(P)
Instructions : (4) A(Q), B(R), C(P), D(S)
(4) of a second 7. The value of the product of two measured quantities
(i) There are two sections in each subject, i.e. Section-A & Section-B. You have to attempt all 35 questions from 414.4 and 94 upto correct significant figures is
3. Which of the following expresses the most accurate (1) 3.9 × 104 (2) 38953.6
Section-A & only 10 questions from Section-B out of 15.
measurement of length of a rod?
(3) 3.6 × 103 (4) 36853.5
(1) 600.1 mm (2) 6.1 mm
(ii) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from the total score. 8. The value of (994)1/3 according to binomial theorem
(3) 6.15 mm (4) 16.2 mm is
Unanswered / unattempted questions will be given no marks. 4. If the error in the measurement of area of a sphere (1) 9.46 (2) 9.98
is 2%, then the maximum error in calculation of
(3) 10.1 (4) 9.9
volume will be
(iii) Use blue/black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
(1) 2% 9. The value of 270° in radian is

(2) 1% (1) (2)

(iv) Mark should be dark and completely fill the circle.
(3) 4%
(4) 3% 3
(v) Dark only one circle for each entry. (3) (4)
2
5. The resistance of a wire is measured as
(6 ± 0.5%) ohm. The absolute error in measurement 10. Which of the following physical quantity has derived
(vi) Dark the circle in the space provided only. of resistance is unit?
(1) 0.03 ohm (1) Mass
(vii) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material (2) 0.3 ohm (2) Current

on the Answer sheet. (3) 0.02 ohm (3) Velocity

(4) 0.2 ohm (4) Amount of substance

Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Phone : 011-47623456

(1) 1/17
(2)
 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2022 Test-1 (Code-E) Test-1 (Code-E) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2022

11. The pair of quantities having same dimensions is 17. The position-time graph of a moving particle is as 21. The variation in velocity of a particle moving along 26. A vector of magnitude 2 acting in x-y plane is
(1) Acceleration, momentum shown in the figure. The speed of the particle a straight line is as shown in figure. The distance making an angle 30° with positive x-axis. The vector
travelled by the particle in first 5 s is
(2) Work, Torque will be

(3) Time, frequency (1) (2)

(4) Wavelength, angular velocity
(3) (4)
12. If force is dimensionally correct, the
27. For a body thrown vertically up, which of the
(1) Constant
dimensions of [xy] are following best represents displacement-time graph?
(2) Continuously decreases (1) 20 m (Taking vertically upward direction positive)
(1) [M2L4T 4] (2) [ML3T 4]
(3) Continuously increases (2) 40 m
(3) [ML2T 2] (4) [M0L3T 4]
(4) First increases then decreases (3) 10 m
13. In a new system of units, unit of mass is taken as 10
kg, unit of length is 60 m and unit of time is 1 minute. 18. The variation of radius of a circle with time is given (1) (2)
(4) 50 m
The value of 20 N weight of a body in the new unit by the relation r = (2t + 3) m, where t is time in
22. A person travels along a straight road for the first
will be second. The rate of change of area of the circle at t
= 1 s will be time with speed v1 and for next time
(1) 20 unit
(1) 20 m2/s
(2) 60 unit with a speed v2. The average speed of the person (3) (4)
(3) 40 unit (2) 10 m2/s will be
(4) 120 unit (3) 15 m2/s
(1) (2) 28. A body is thrown vertically up with some velocity (at
14. A screw gauge has least count of 0.02 mm and (4) Zero
t = 0) crosses a fixed point P in its path at t = 4 s and
there are 100 divisions on its circular scale. The 19. The velocity-time graph of a particle moving in a again at t = 6 s. The velocity of projection of the body
pitch of the screw gauge is straight line is shown in the figure. The (3) (4) v1 + v2
will be
(1) 0.02 mm (2) 0.01 mm instantaneous acceleration of the particle is
23. Position of a particle moving along x-axis is given by (1) 20 m/s (2) 50 m/s
negative at the point
(3) 2 mm (4) 1.0 mm x = 6t 3t2, where x is in m and t is in s. Time (t) at (3) 10 m/s (4) 40 m/s
15. If the percentage error in measurement of a and b which particle will momentarily come to rest is 29. Two bodies one held 100 cm directly above the
are 3% each, then the maximum percentage error other are released simultaneously from the large
(1) (2) 2 s
in calculation of will be height and both fall freely under the gravity. The
separation between the bodies just after 2 s will be
(1) 3% (2) 9%
(3) 1 s (4) (1) 50 cm (2) 100 cm
(3) 4.5% (4) 1.5%
(3) 80 cm (4) 120 cm
16. The distance travelled by a person moving from A 24. Which of the following sets of vectors given below
may have zero resultant? 30. A food packet is released from a helicopter, which
to C on the circular path as shown in figure is 471
is rising vertically at 2 m/s. The magnitude of
m. The radius R of the circular path will be nearly (1) A (1) 12, 14, 28 (2) 14, 18, 36
velocity of the food packet after 2 s will be (g = 10
(2) B (3) 11, 22, 17 (4) 0.5, 1, 2 m/s2)
(3) D 25. v -east. (1) 10 m/s (2) 12 m/s
(4) C A man starts running towards north with
(3) 18 m/s (4) 5 m/s
acceleration a. The time after which man will feel the
20. A train of length 225 m is moving towards north with 31. At the top of the trajectory of a particle projected
wind blowing towards east is
a velocity of 10 m/s. A parrot flies at speed of 5 m/s obliquely, the velocity and acceleration are directed
(1) 50 m towards south parallel to the railway track. The time (1) (2) (1) Perpendicular to each other
(2) 100 m taken by parrot to cross the train will be
(2) Inclined to each other at an angle 45°
(3) 40 m (1) 10 s (2) 15 s
(3) (4) (3) Parallel to each other
(4) 120 m (3) 20 s (4) 5 s (4) Anti-parallel to each other
Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Phone : 011-47623456 Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Phone : 011-47623456
2/17
(3) 3/17
(4)
 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2022 Test-1 (Code-E) Test-1 (Code-E) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2022

32. The range of a projectile when launched at angle 2 39. A projectile projected from ground, with velocity v 48. A particle is moving in a circle of radius R with
45. If angle between two vectors is rad then constant speed. The time period of particle is T = 2 s.
is R. When launched at angle 3 , the range is still making angle 60° with vertical, attains maximum
R. Then value of should be (speed of projection in height H. The time interval for which projectile angle between vectors is In a time if the difference between average
both case is same) remains in air is
(1) rad (2) rad speed and magnitude of average velocity of the
(1) 30° (2) 60°
(1) (2) particle is 4 m s 1, then the radius R of the circle is
(3) 24° (4) 18º nearly
33. A body projected horizontally from the top of a tower (3) rad (4) rad (1) 14 m (2) 18.6 m
with initial velocity 30 m/s hits the ground at an (3) (4)
(3) 2.4 m (4) 7.4 m
angle 60° with the horizontal. The vertical 46. A mark on the rim of a rotating circular wheel of 0.75
component of velocity at the time of hitting the 40. For motion of an object along x-axis, the velocity v m radius is moving with a speed of 12 m/s. The 49. A ball of mass m and another ball of mass 2m are
ground is depends on the position x as v = (2x2 x) m/s, where angular speed of the rim will be dropped from equal heights. If the time taken by the
x is in m. The acceleration of the object at x = 1 m balls to reach the ground are t1 and t2 respectively,
(1) (2) (1) 12 rad/s (2) 8 rad/s then (neglect air drag)
will be
(3) 30 m/s (4) 15 m/s (3) 16 rad/s (4) 9 rad/s (1) t1 = t2 (2) 2t1 = t2
(1) 1 m/s2 (2) 3 m/s2
34. A person sitting in an open car moving at constant 47. The velocity of a particle as a function of time t is
(3) 2 m/s2 (4) Zero (3) t1 = 2t2 (4)
velocity throws a ball vertically up into air. The ball given as The displacement of the
41. Rain is falling vertically downwards with a speed of 50. A body is projected with velocity 60 m/s at an angle
falls (neglect air drag) particle in first 2 s will be
6 km/h. A girl moves on a straight road with velocity 30° with the horizontal. The velocity vector of the
(1) Outside the car 8 km/h. The magnitude of velocity of rain with (1) 12 m particle at t = 1 s will be (Assume horizontal direction
(2) In the car ahead of the person respect to girl is (2) 16 m x-axis and vertical upwards as y-axis)
(3) In the car to the side of the person (1) 14 km/h (2) 2 km/h (3) 20 m (1) (2)
(4) Exactly in the hand which threw it up (3) 10 km/h (4) 6 km/h (4) 6 m (3) (4)
42. A swimmer wishes to cross a 800 m river flowing at
35. The equation of a projectile is The 4 km/h. His speed with respect to water is
3 km/h. The shortest possible time to cross the river
[CHEMISTRY]
velocity of projection of the projectile will be
is (1) All P will be consumed
(1) 4 m/s (2) 8 m/s SECTION-A
(1) 20 min (2) 16 min (2) 4 mole of R will form
(3) 2 m/s (4) 1 m/s 51. Which of the following has maximum number of
(3) 12 min (4) 24 min (3) 2 mole of S will form
molecules?
SECTION-B (4) All Q will consumed
43. A body is moving in a circular path with a constant
(1) 1 g H2 (2) 28 g N2 55. The number of radial nodes in 3p orbital is
36. A boat is moving with velocity m/s with speed. It has
(3) 64 g O2 (4) 36 g C2 (1) 0 (2) 1
respect to ground. The water in the river is moving (1) A constant velocity (3) 2 (4) 3
52. Volume of N2 required at STP to produce 10 moles
with with respect to ground. The (2) A constant acceleration 56. For a multielectron atom, which among the following
of NH3
velocity of boat with respect to water is (3) An acceleration of constant magnitude orbital has maximum energy?
(1) 112 L (2) 224 L (1) 5f (2) 3d
(1) (2) (4) An acceleration which varies in magnitude with
(3) 145 L (4) 184 L (3) 4s (4) 2p
time
(3) (4) 53. 3.01 × 1022 molecules of glucose (C6H12O6) are 57. Select the incorrect statement among the following.
44. A particle is projected with an initial velocity
present in 100 ml of water (density of solution (1) Mathematically the uncertainty principle is
37. The magnitude of resultant of two vectors having The equation of trajectory of the
= 1 g/ml). The molality of the solution is presented as
magnitude 12 N and 6 N, can be particle will be (g = 10 m/s2) (Assume horizontal
direction as x-axis and vertically upward as positive (1) 0.25 m (2) 1 m (2) The value of m for orbital is non-zero
(1) 2 N (2) 20 N
y-axis) (3) 1.25 m (4) 0.5 m
(3) 3 N (4) 10 N (3) Two electrons occupying the same orbital of an
38. A force F makes an angle 40° with another force F. 3 2 54. In the reaction, atom are distinguished by spin quantum
(1) (2) y 12 x x
4 number
The resultant of two forces is P(g) + 2Q(g) 4R(g) + 3S(l)
(4) Electrons in the 3d orbitals have different spatial
(1) 2Fsin20° (2) Fcos20° When 1 mole of P and 1 mole of Q are allowed to distribution, consequently their shielding of one
(3) (4)
(3) 2Fcos20° (4) 2Fcos40° react to the completion of reaction, then another is relatively small

Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Phone : 011-47623456 Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Phone : 011-47623456
(5)
4/17 5/17
(6)
(7) (8)
(9) (10)
 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2022 Test-1 (Code-E)

94. Assuming x-axis to be internuclear axis, which of 98. Match the oxide given in Column A with its chemical
the following orbitals do not form bond on nature given in Column B
overlapping? Column-A Column-B
(1) 2s and 2s (2) 2s and 2px a. NO (i) Acidic
(3) 2px and 2px (4) 2px and 2py b. As2O3 (ii) Basic
95. Element A has 2 electrons in the outermost orbit c. SO3 (iii) Neutral
and element B has 7 electrons in the outermost d. Na2O (iv) Amphoteric
orbit. The possible formula of the compound formed
Which of the following options has all correct pairs?
by elements A and B is
(1) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii) (2) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii)
(1) AB (2) AB2
(3) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii) (4) a(i), b(iv), c(ii), d(iii)
(3) A2B (4) A2B3
99. An element having Z = 117 belongs to which of the
96. An organic compound contains carbon, hydrogen following group?
and oxygen. The elemental analysis of compound
(1) 14th (2) 15th
gives C: 41.38% and H: 3.45%. The empirical
(3) 16th (4) 17th
formula of the compound would be
100. Statement I : Mole fraction is the ratio of moles of a
(1) CHO (2) CH2O
substance to the total moles in the solution.
(3) C2H3O (4) CH3O Statement II : Mole fraction does not depend on
97. How many electrons can fit in an orbital for which temperature of solution.
n = 3 and l = 1? In the light of the above statements, choose the
(1) 6 correct answer from the options given below.

(2) 2 (1) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is true

(2) Statement I is correct but statement II is false
(3) 8
(3) Both statement I and statement II are true
(4) 10
(4) Both statement I and statement II are false

[BOTANY]
SECTION-A 102. According to IUCN, currently known and described
species of all organisms are between
101. Read the following statements and choose the
(1) 35 - 38 million (2) 3.8 - 4.0 million
option for the set of all the correct ones.
(3) 13 - 14 million (4) 1.7 - 1.8 million
a. All living organisms grow but growth is not a
103. Select the option in which the scientific name is
defining property of living organisms
printed correctly.
b. Reproduction is the fundamental characteristic
(1) Solanum Nigrum (2) Panthera leo
of all living organisms
(3) Mangifera indica (4) Homo sapiens
c. All the living organisms possess metabolic
104. Out of the following, which one is not a taxon
reactions
related to wheat?
d. Self-consciousness is seen in most of the (1) Poales (2) Angiospermae
animals species
(3) Dicotyledonae (4) Triticum
(1) (a), (c) and (d)
105. In both plant and animal cells, the main arena of
(2) (a) and (c) cellular activities is their
(3) (b), (c) and (d) (1) Nucleus (2) Cytoplasm
(4) (b) and (d) (3) Genetic material (4) Nucleoplasm

Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Phone : 011-47623456
(11) (12)
8/17
 Test-1 (Code-E) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2022 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2022 Test-1 (Code-E)

106. Which amongst the following cell organelles in 111. Select the incorrect statement from the following. 117. Consider the following diagram and select the 122. Select the incorrect statement from the following.
eukaryotes are not single membrane bound? option which is not true regarding the labelled part. (1) Galactans and mannans are found in the cell
(1) RNA is the only genetic material in bacteria
(a) Lysosome (b) Vacuole wall of algae
(2) Some bacteria are resistant to antibiotics due to
(c) Mitochondrion (d) Centrosome plasmid (2) Cell wall protects the cell from mechanical
(e) Chloroplast (f) Golgi complex damage
(3) Mesosomes in bacteria are infoldings of plasma
(g) Ribosome membrane (3) Plants never contain proteins in their cell wall
(1) (c) and (e) only (4) Inclusion bodies are also found in bacteria (4) Primary cell wall of young plant cell is capable
(2) (d) and (g) only of growth
112. In three layered envelope of bacterial cells, the
(3) (a), (b) and (f) outermost layer is 123. What is true for endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi
(4) (c), (d), (e) and (g) complex, lysosomes as well as vacuoles?
(1) Pellicle (2) Cell wall
107. Identify the option which is correct regarding the (1) They store protein digesting enzymes
(3) Plasma membrane (4) Glycocalyx
cell organelles which are also found within other cell (2) These are the sites of protein synthesis
113. The plasma membrane of prokaryotes and (1) A Performs the function of packaging
organelles.
eukaryotes are (3) They play important role in osmoregulation
material
(1) These are single membrane bound structures
(1) Similar in structure but different in function (4) They are included in endomembrane system
(2) They are composed of ribonucleic acid and (2) B Contains excretory products and other
(2) Similar in structure and function materials 124. The plastid store oils and fats whereas
proteins
(3) They store proteins and lipids (3) Different in both structure and function (3) C Made up of cellulose store proteins.

(4) These are formed only in the nucleus (4) Different in structure but similar in function (4) D Contains xanthophylls Select the correct option to fill in the blanks (i) and
(ii).
108. The smallest individual which has nucleic acid either 114. In which of the following processes/functions, there 118. Cell membrane is mainly composed of
DNA or RNA is is no role of mesosome? (i) (ii)
(1) Lipids and cholesterol
(1) PPLO (2) Mycoplasma (1) DNA replication (1) Amyloplasts Elaioplasts
(2) Polysaccharides and polypeptides
(3) Virus (4) A typical bacteria (2) Chromoplasts Chloroplasts
(2) Distribution of daughter cells (3) Lipids and proteins
109. Match the following columns and select the correct (3) Aleuroplasts Elaioplasts
(3) Cell wall formation (4) Cellulose and phospholipids
option.
(4) Movement of cilia and flagella (4) Elaioplasts Aleuroplasts
119. The site for active ribosomal RNA synthesis in an
Column I Column II
115. All of the following informations regarding eukaryotic cell is 125. The location in a cell where cytoskeleton is found, is
A. White blood cells (i) Branched and long
chromatophores are correct, except (1) Cytosol (2) Nucleolus (1) Nuclear membrane (2) Cytoplasm
B. Tracheid (ii) Round and oval
(1) They contain genetic materials (3) Centromere (4) Perinuclear space (3) Cell wall (4) Plasma membrane
C. Mesophyll cells (iii) Amoeboid
(2) These are membranous extensions into the 120. Which of the following organelles are involved in the 126. Which of the following processes occur during cell
D. Nerve cells (iv) Elongated
cytoplasm formation of spindle fibres and basal body of cycle?
A B C D flagella? a. Synthesis of RNA
(3) They contain pigments
(1) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
(4) These are found in some photosynthetic (1) Centrioles (2) Ribosomes b. DNA replication
(2) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
prokaryotes (3) Kinetochores (4) Microbodies c. Protein synthesis
(3) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
116. In prokaryotes, the polysome has ribosomes with 121. The arrangement of axonemal microtubules in cilia d. Organelles duplication
(4) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
sub-units and flagella is referred as The correct ones are
110. Select the incorrect match from the following.
(1) 50S and 20S attached with mRNA (1) 9 + 2 array (1) All (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(1) Vibrio Comma shaped
(2) 40S and 30S attached with rRNA (2) 9 + 0 arrangement (2) Only (b) and (d)
(2) Bacillus Spherical
(3) 50S and 30S attached with mRNA (3) 12 + 1 array (3) Only (b), (c) and (d)
(3) Blue-green algae Naked genetic material
(4) 50S and 30S attached with rRNA (4) 12 + 2 arrangement (4) Only (a) and (c)
(4) Plasmid Small circular DNA
Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Phone : 011-47623456 Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Phone : 011-47623456
(13)
9/17 (14)
10/17
 Test-1 (Code-E) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2022 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2022 Test-1 (Code-E)

127. Read the following statements and choose the 133. Select the correct sequence of different stages of 138. Match the following columns and choose the 143. For the first time, Rudolf Virchow told that Omnis
option which is true for them. karyokinesis. correct option. cellula-e-cellula. It means
Statement A : The steps of cell division are (1) Prophase, Anaphase, Metaphase, Telophase Column I Column II (1) All living organisms are composed of cells
themselves under genetic control. (2) Each cell has organelles that function in
(2) Anaphase, Metaphase, Prophase, Telophase A. Metaphase II (i) Duplication of centrioles
Statement B : Cell growth in terms of cytoplasmic coordinated manner
(3) Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase, Telophase B. Interkinesis (ii) Nucleolus reappears
increase is a continuous process. (3) All cells arise from pre-existing cells
C. Metaphase I (iii) Univalents align
(1) Only statement A is correct (4) Anaphase, Prophase, Telophase, Metaphase (4) Activities of an organism are the result of
themselves at equator
(2) Only statement B is correct activities of its constituent cells
134. Read the following events :
D Telophase I (iv) Alignment of bivalents at 144. In which of the following organisms, the outermost
(3) Both the statements are correct Spindle fibres attach to kinetochores. the equator boundary of cell is cell wall?
(4) Both the statements are incorrect
Chromosomes are moved to get aligned at A B C D (1) Amoeba (2) Mycoplasma
128. If a yeast cell divides into two daughter cells in 90 spindle equator. (1) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i) (3) Blue-green algae (4) Planaria
minutes then, how much time it takes to complete
During which stage of cell cycle, these events (2) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv) 145. Which of the following taxonomic aids provides
its M phase?
occur? (3) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii) information about both plants and animals?
(1) Less than 4.5 minutes
(1) Anaphase (4) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii) (1) Flora (2) Museum
(2) More than 85.5 minutes
139. Which of the following events occurs during the last (3) Botanical garden (4) Herbarium
(3) 12-15 minutes (2) Metaphase stage of prophase I of meiosis? 146. The chromosome that is said to be single armed is
(4) 50-55 minutes (3) Telophase (1) Terminalization of chiasmata (1) Metacentric (2) Telocentric
129. One of the stages of interphase also known as (4) Prophase (2) Dissolution of synaptonemal complex (3) Acrocentric (4) Sub-metacentric
synthesis phase occurs (3) Recombination of genetic material
135. Which event marks the start of the second phase of 147. Non-staining secondary constriction in some
(1) Just before Gap 1 phase (4) Pairing of homologous chromosomes chromosomes gives the appearance of a small
mitosis?
(2) During quiescent stage 140. Which of the following is not a significance of fragment called
(1) Complete disintegration of nuclear envelope mitosis?
(3) Just after Gap 2 phase (1) Microbody (2) Telomere
(2) Beginning of condensation of chromatin (1) It brings about reproduction in unicellular (3) Heterochromatin (4) Satellite
(4) Between Gap 1 and Gap 2 phases
material organisms
130. A cell undergoing reduction division has 28 148. A condition in cell division that leads to the formation
(3) Alignment of chromosomes at the equator (2) It is essential for growth and development in of syncytium is
chromosomes in its G1 stage. What would be the
multicellular organisms
number of chromosomes in this cell just after (4) Assemblage of nuclear envelope (1) Failure of segregation of chromatids after
(3) It increases genetic variability in the population
S phase? metaphase
(4) It produces new cells for healing the wounds
(1) 112 (2) 56 SECTION-B (2) Failure of pairing of homologous chromosomes
141. Select the incorrect statement from the following. during cell division
(3) 28 (4) 14
136. Which of the following events is not associated with (1) Unicellular organisms also show independent (3) Karyokinesis not followed by cytokinesis
131. Select the incorrect statement regarding the cells existence
anaphase? (4) Lack of nuclear envelope formation in telophase
which are in G0 phase.
(2) Some component of cells can also show
(1) These cells do not appear to exhibit division (1) Splitting of centromeres 149. If crossing over does not occur in meiosis then
independent living
which of the following would be true regarding the
(2) These cells exit G1 phase of cell cycle (2) Formation of cell plate (3) Cell is the fundamental structure of all living
resultant daughter cells?
(3) These cells are in inactive stage of cell division (3) Separation of chromatids organisms
(1) All the daughter cells will be genetically different
(4) Plants and animals are multicellular organisms
(4) These cells are metabolically inactive and can (4) Movement of chromatids to opposite poles (2) Four daughter cells will not be formed
never proliferate 142. The contribution of Anton von Leeuwenhoek in the
137. Double metaphasic plate is formed during study of cells was that (3) All the daughter cells will be genetically identical
132. Mitotic cell division occurs in
(1) Mitosis (1) He first saw and described a live cell (4) Only two genetically different types of daughter
(1) Diploid cells only cells will be formed
(2) He first described the structure of nucleus
(2) Meiosis I
(2) Haploid cells only 150. The process which is not included in taxonomy is
(3) He discovered and studied the cells from slice
(3) Gametes only (3) Meiosis II of cork (1) Identification (2) Phylogeny
(4) Both haploid and diploid cells (4) Mitosis and meiosis II (4) He described that how do the cells multiply (3) Classification (4) Nomenclature

Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Phone : 011-47623456 Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Phone : 011-47623456
(15)
11/17 (16)
12/17
(17) (18)
(19) (20)
(21) (22)
(23)