PMI® Authorized PMP® Exam Prep Course

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Mastery Builders Questions
About Mastery Builders

These questions can help reinforce your learning from the PMI® Authorized PMP® Exam
Prep course.

These are NOT intended to be practice exam questions.

The answers are included at the end of this document.

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Table of Contents

ABOUT MASTERY BUILDERS 2

LESSON 1 | THE BUSINESS ENVIRONMENT 4

LESSON 2 | START THE PROJECT 8

LESSON 3 | PLAN THE PROJECT 13

LESSON 4 | LEAD THE PROJECT TEAM 19

LESSON 5 | SUPPORT PROJECT TEAM PERFORMANCE 24

LESSON 6 | CLOSE THE PROJECT/PHASE 30

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Lesson 1 | The Business Environment

1. For this project, the team may operate outside the standard
organizational formalized reporting structure. Which organizational
structure does this represent?
a. Functional
b. Composite
c. Project-oriented
d. Matrix

2. Is the following statement true or false?

The Agile Manifesto states, “We value individuals and interaction over
process and tools?”
True
False

3. The PMI Talent Triangle® reflects the skills needed for project
management. Which three of the following are those skills? (Choose
three)
a. Ways of Working
b. Power Skills
c. Business Acumen
d. Quality

4. Which three of the following are PESTLE factors? (Choose three)

a. Legal
b. Effectiveness
c. Social
d. Political

5. Often before a project starts, business analysts or engineers conduct

a needs assessment for project approval and funding. Which two of
the following are items identified or specified in a needs assessment
for a new project? (Choose two)
a. The project manager
b. Business goals and objectives
c. Potential constraints, assumptions, risks and dependencies
d. Individual or department who will handle procurement invoices
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6. Which three of the following are a financial-based benefit measure
method? (Choose three)
a. Net present value
b. Internal rate of return
c. Return of investment
d. Opportunity cost

7. The opportunity cost is defined as the value of a proposed project

selected. Is this statement true or false?
True
False

8. Which three of the following are essential for managing change in an

organization? (Choose three)
a. Managing changes in an organization requires different
strategies depending on the circumstances, people involved, and
timing.
b. Change management is an essential capability and a significant
professional practice in its own right.
c. It is important to have a robust theory and approach to change
management to support the business goals, objectives,
opportunities, and needs.
d. A change control board should be established to approve or
reject proposed changes to a project’s scope, schedule, or cost.

9. Is the following statement true or false?

Enterprise environmental factors (EEFs) are conditions either internal

or external to the organization that are not under the control of the
project team, which can influence, constrain, or direct the project at
the organizational, portfolio, program, or project level.
True
False

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10. Which three of the following are examples of external enterprise
environmental factors (EEFs)? (Choose three)
a. Economy
b. Government or industry standards
c. Employee capability
d. Legal restrictions

11. Which of the following is a financial tool that calculates the present
value of all cash outflows minus the present value of all cash inflows?
a. Internal rate of return
b. Net present value
c. Benefit cost value
d. Return on investment

12. Which of the following are effective guidelines for measuring project
compliance?
a. Tracking work completed in a Gantt chart
b. Using quality assurance outputs to confirm deliverable and
process compliance and identify the needs for corrective actions
c. Prioritizing effort using a Moscow analysis
d. Reporting progress by conducting a sprint review and
demonstration

13. In a multiphase project, which two of the following terms refers to a

decision to continue with the next phase or to end the project?
(Choose two)
a. Kill point
b. Phase gate
c. Threshold
d. Go/no go point

14. In a large organization that utilizes a project management office

(PMO), who is responsible for managing the governance of projects?
a. The project managers of the individual projects within the PMO
b. The PMO
c. The organization’s governance committee
d. The organization’s change control board

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15. Is the following statement true or false?

Predictive projects are plan driven, while adaptive projects focus on

team collaboration with stakeholders or customers to determine the
project need by writing user stories and hybrid projects can combine or
switch predictive or adaptive approaches as necessary.
True
False

16. In a multiphase project, when are assumptions validated and risks

analyzed?
a. At the end of the project
b. At the beginning of each phase
c. At the end of each phase
d. As specified in the project governance document

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Lesson 2 | Start the Project

1. Which two of the following are reasons that PMI® publishes a Code of
Ethics? (Choose two)
a. Set expectations for the project manager and the team.
b. Create a commitment to honesty, integrity, and commitment.
c. Ensure compliance with rules and laws.
d. Provide specific guidance on conflict resolution.

2. Which two of the following are components of a project agreement?

(Choose two)
a. Pricing and payment terms
b. Incentives and penalties
c. Team members
d. Complete product backlog

3. Which is a good practice for the use of collaboration technology?

a. Select tools with the best features.
b. Select tools that the team lead has experience using.
c. Define team goals and practices before selecting tools.
d. Use the tools that the previous project used.

4. Which two are examples of virtual team collaboration tools? (Choose

two)
a. Shared task boards
b. Your laptop hard drive
c. Social media
d. Team chat boards

5. Which of the following is not a stakeholder in a financial project?

a. Someone opposed to the project
b. Project manager
c. Someone who is not interested in the project
d. Project sponsor
6. Which of the following is an artifact that outlines how the team will
operate and work together?
a. Team charter
b. Resource management plan
c. Project charter
d. Team acquisition plan

7. Which statement best describes project stakeholders?

a. Anyone affected by the project, its outputs, and its operation
b. Anyone making money from the project
c. A customer paying for the project’s output
d. The organization delivering the project’s products

8. Which of the following would be least likely to be included in a

stakeholder engagement plan?
a. List of identified project stakeholders
b. Documentation of the relationships between project stakeholders
c. Amount of money invested by the project stakeholders
d. Actions to be used interacting with project stakeholders

9. Your company has entered into a contract to develop a new and

improved website for another company. The contract specifies the
major deliverables, with details about what the website will contain, the
completion date, and budget. The appendix contains the change
control procedures that will be used. What project life cycle should be
used to deliver this project?
a. Predictive
b. Agile
c. Hybrid
d. Scrum

10. Is the following statement true or false?

In a predictive project, phase-to-phase relations can be sequential,

where a phase can start prior to the end of another phase, or
overlapping, where consecutive phases start when the previous phase
is finished.
True
False

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11. An organization is exploring a new project with many unknowns, and
most of the work to be done is designing software to build the best
solution in collaboration with the customer. Which project
management approach is best suited for this project?
a. Agile
b. Plan-driven
c. Phased
d. Predictive

12. Which two statements describe self-organization? (Choose two.)

a. Asking teams to assess and agree to work goals as a group
b. Allocating all resources before they get assigned to a different
project
c. Using a pull-based approach to ensure effective use of team
resources
d. Having the project manager stipulate roles and responsibilities
and assign all the work to individual team members

13. The business determines that the project you are managing must be
based on a plan-driven project management approach. This is partially
due to the SMART objectives the steering committee has set for the
project. In the acronym SMART, what does the T stand for?
a. Technical
b. Tentative
c. Timely
d. Testable

14. A meeting that is held at frequent intervals in an agile project is

referred to as which of the following?
a. Lessons learning meeting
b. End-of-phase meeting
c. Retrospective meeting
d. Status meeting

15. Every timeboxed iteration in the project has a demo scheduled at the
end during the iteration review session. What is the goal of this demo?
a. To reprioritize the iteration backlog
b. To revise the product roadmap
c. To solicit feedback from the product owner and other
stakeholders
d. To establish the features to be included in the product backlog

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16. Which two of the following should be included in a project charter?
(Choose two)
a. Measurable objectives
b. Detailed deliverables list
c. Key stakeholders list
d. Change request form

17. What is the typical length of a sprint/iteration?

a. 1 week
b. 2 weeks
c. 1 - 4 weeks
d. Up to 12 weeks

18. In which of the following artifacts will a list of stakeholders who will
receive communications about the project appear?
a. Communications requirements analysis
b. Communications management plan
c. Stakeholder register
d. Communications requirements analysis and communications
management plan

19. Which of the following is not a component of the communications

management plan?
a. Initiator and receiver of project information
b. Stakeholder register
c. Collection and transfer of institutional knowledge
d. Frequency of each communication

20. Which two of the following should be included in a communications

management plan? (Choose two)
a. How and when team meetings are run
b. Equipment assigned to each team members
c. Project charter
d. Preferred communication approaches with external stakeholders

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21. What are two techniques that a project manager can use to appraise
the skills of a potential team member? (Choose two)
a. Ability tests
b. Focus groups
c. Kanban boards
d. RACI matrix

22. You are working on a project that is part of a program. All the projects
within this program are being managed in an agile way.

What is a good technique to get the project teams aligned?

a. Hold one daily standup meeting for all the projects.
b. Assign one customer point of contact for all projects.
c. Develop one project management plan.
d. Conduct a Scrum of Scrums meeting.

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Lesson 3 | Plan the Project

1. Which is the best elicitation technique to use when your project team
wants to facilitate a discussion with a certain set of users to get a better
understanding on how they might use your project’s product?
a. Document analysis
b. Focus group
c. Benchmarking
d. Plurality

2. A project team is reviewing the requirements documentation that they

are responsible for working on. Which project artifact can they
reference to see the connection between the requirements and the
business and project objectives?
a. Requirements traceability matrix
b. RACI chart
c. Project charter
d. Scope management plan

3. An architectural firm has spent a great deal of time and effort creating
the design and blueprints for the building. They had to purchase
materials and hire consultants and have been working on this project
for 6 months. They have submitted all the invoices for the money they
have spent on the work, as well as an invoice for the fee of $90,000.

What type of contract was this?

a. Time and materials
b. Cost-plus-incentive-fee (CPIF)
c. Fixed-Price Economic Price Adjustment (FP EPA)
d. Cost-reimbursable

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4. What is included in activity cost estimates?
a. Supporting data or additional information needed to justify the
cost estimates
b. Estimates on probably costs necessary to finish project work,
including direct costs, labor, materials, equipment, facilities
services, information technology, and contingency reserves
c. Estimates on probable costs necessary to finish project, work
based on the responsible bids obtained from vendors
d. Estimates on probable costs necessary to finish the project work,
including direct labor, materials, equipment, facilities, services,
information technology, contingency reserves, and indirect costs

5. What is the process to create a project budget?

a. Take the rough order of magnitude (ROM) and decompose it into
the cost of work packages
b. Combine all individual activity cost estimates and contingencies
and aggregate them for the entire project. Submit this to the
sponsor, and modify it if necessary
c. Estimate costs necessary to finish project work, including direct
costs, labor, materials, equipment, facilities, services, information
technology, and contingency reserves
d. Create an S-curve with cost on the Y axis and time on the X axis

6. A project manager is using a time-phased budget to measure the cost

performance. What is that budget called?
a. Cost baseline
b. Cost estimate
c. Rough order of magnitude
d. Release budget

7. The project manager informs the project sponsor that the project
management plan will continuously increase in the level of detail as
the project moves forward. In project management, what is this
process known as?
a. Life cycle
b. Progressive elaboration
c. Resource planning
d. Scope creep

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8. Which of the following would not be part of the quality management
plan?
a. Quality standards and roles
b. Minimum viable product
c. Quality tools to be used
d. Major procedures for dealing with nonconformance

9. Which two are components of a resource calendar? (Choose two)

a. Working days
b. Training strategies
c. Availability of physical resource
d. Recognition plans

10. In which of the following situations would brainstorming be an

appropriate technique?
a. Conflict resolution
b. Sprint reviews and demos
c. Identifying and prioritizing options
d. Running a standup meeting

11. Which of the following is not a technique for estimation?

a. Planning poker
b. T-shirt sizing
c. Product box
d. Modified Fibonacci

12. Which of the following is the best approach for estimating effort?
a. The project manager estimates all the work.
b. A team lead estimates all the work.
c. The work is estimated by the people who will be asked to do the
work.
d. The estimates are inflated to avoid second guessing from the
customer.

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13. Which of the following is a good example of mitigating the probability
of the risk of becoming overwhelmed with a fire in a newly constructed
building?
a. Install smoke detectors.
b. Install fireproof components.
c. Hire another company to do the part of the work that could result
in a fire.
d. Keep the phone number of the fire department handy.

14. What is the difference between avoiding a threat and mitigating it?
a. Avoid means to reduce the impact or probability; mitigate means
to change the management plan to remove the risk.
b. Avoid means to outsource the work to remove the risk; mitigate
means to reduce the impact or probability.
c. Avoid means to change the management plan to remove the risk;
mitigate means to reduce the impact or probability.
d. Avoid means to change the management plan to remove the risk;
mitigate means to accept the impact or probability.

15. Which of the following is an agile method to prioritize project

objectives, features, user stories, and tasks?
a. Information radiator
b. Planning poker
c. First in, first out
d. MoSCoW analysis

16. Early in the establishment of a project, the project manager spends

time looking for historical data that might be helpful in planning the
new project. The project manager is looking for examples of project
documents for similar, completed projects that may be used as
templates for the new project. In addition, the project manager is also
looking for information about established processes and procedures
that will help the project run more smoothly.

What is the term used to define these documents?

a. Organizational process assets (OPAs)
b. Enterprise environment factors (EEFs)
c. Progressive elaboration
d. Organizational project management

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17. A business is unclear on the direction and when features are to be
expected for an agile-managed project. What project artifact helps
communicate the goals, milestones, and potential deliverables,
releases, or other work outputs?
a. Product roadmap
b. Project charter
c. Requirements documentation
d. Configuration management plan

18. A business is anxious to get a portion of the project’s creations out into
the marketplace to get end user feedback and impressions before the
entire product is finished. What must the project team establish for
their release to end users?
a. Minimum viable product
b. Sprint cycle
c. Velocity
d. Transition plan

19. What does it mean if an “R” is next to your name in a RACI chart?
a. You are accountable for the result.
b. You should be engaged to provide required inputs.
c. You should be kept up to date on the status.
d. You are responsible for the activity’s execution.

20. Which of the following is not a benefit of planning for a minimum viable
product?
a. Risk reduction
b. Early feedback
c. Early value from the service
d. Project team disbands early

21. After integrating the communications management plan into the

overall project plan, what would be the next logical step?
a. Determining whether there will be changes to the proposed
technology before the project is over
b. Creating a schedule for the production of each type of
communication
c. Creating a description of stakeholder communication
requirements
d. Distributing the plan to all the stakeholders

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22. Which of the following is the correct definition of the critical path?
a. The critical path is the fastest path through the network diagram
which represents the longest time in which the project can be
completed.
b. The critical path is the shortest path through the network diagram
which represents the longest time in which the project can be
completed.
c. The critical path is the earliest path through the network diagram
which represents the latest time in which the project can be
completed.
d. The critical path is the longest path through the network diagram
which represents the earliest the project can be completed.

23. A team member, who is new to the organization and working on

projects has several questions and asks the project manager to meet
and discuss these items to better understand the project planning
process. The project manager is delighted that the new team member
is taking so much interest. The team member asks, “If we must
complete the software code before we can create the user manual,
what type of dependency exists between these two work packages?”

How should the project manager reply?

a. Finish to finish
b. Finish to start
c. Start to finish
d. Start to start

24. What is a primary component used for integrating the project

management plan?
a. Outputs of the planning processes
b. When the product will be phased out
c. When the project will be chartered
d. Administrative duties of the project manager

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Lesson 4 | Lead the Project Team

1. Which two of the following will the project manager need to ensure
before effective training can take place? (Choose two.)
a. Training is successfully resourced and scheduled.
b. The final project sign-off has been received.
c. Reminders should be sent to confirm the trainees’ participation.
d. Billing for the training should have taken place.

2. A project team does not feel confident that they can complete the work
for the next set of deliverables for the project and would rather spend
more time exploring deliverables expected many months down the
line. What can a project manager do to get the team focused on the
near-term deliverables?
a. Change the scope of the scope of the deliverables.
b. Group the near-term deliverables into one deliverable.
c. Create a sense of urgency.
d. Make one person accountable for the deliverables.

3. Engaging with stakeholders is time intensive during a project.

Which of the following statements should the project manager use to

explain the need for a stakeholder engagement strategy to the project
sponsor?
a. To effectively engage stakeholders in project decisions and
execution based on the analysis of their needs, interests, and
potential impact
b. To ensure the stakeholders are receiving the reports in the
format they would like
c. To effectively place the right people in the correct role to support
achieving the project objectives on time and within budget
d. To be able to document which stakeholder is unaware, neutral,
leading, or supportive

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4. Which of the following statements best describes the stakeholder
engagement assessment matrix?
a. It describes the level of involvement of each stakeholder.
b. It describes the past performance of each stakeholder.
c. It compares the current and desired levels of engagement of
each stakeholder.
d. It compares the current and desired levels of engagement for the
project team members.

5. What does configuration management address?

a. Activities such as keeping track of all the changes the customer
makes to the product plans
b. The way in which the product is configured for use to satisfy the
end users and how that develops as it is being built
c. Documentation of the management of configuring the product for
use and how changes to the product will be incorporated into the
overall project plan.
d. Activities such as how version control of project documents and
changes to the product will be initiated, analyzed, and traced

6. Which of the following is concerned with revisions to project

documents?
a. Version control
b. Configuration management
c. Both version control and configuration management
d. Document control

7. Your project team holds weekly status meetings. Should the notes
from last week’s meeting be considered a project artifact?
a. This decision is up to the project manager.
b. Yes, if significant project issues were discussed.
c. Yes, even if the meeting resulted in only routine topics.
d. No, meeting notes are not artifacts.

8. What is the role of a configuration management system?

a. Track change requests
b. Prioritize the product backlog
c. Control versioning of all components
d. Define roles and responsibilities

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9. Why is stakeholder collaboration important to a project?
a. Creates more reporting
b. Requires more meetings
c. Aligns expectations
d. Encourages teams to do more than expected

10. Which two of the following are methods for training delivery? (Choose
two)
a. Virtual classroom
b. Self-paced eLearning
c. Prior knowledge
d. Testing and validation

11. Which of the following should not be considered as part of training

cost estimates?
a. Logistics and venue costs
b. Participants’ salaries
c. Courseware printing and distribution
d. Instructions

12. While you are working on a SWOT analysis for a risk response, a
team member asks you to show them how it’s done. Which type of
coaching is this?
a. Informal
b. Formal
c. Scheduled
d. Timeboxed

13. A team member asks you if they could lead an estimating meeting. In
which skill will you be coaching the team member?
a. Servant
b. Facilitating a meeting
c. Emotional
d. Leadership

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14. A product owner is unsure about how to participate in an iteration
review session. What should the project manager do?
a. Remove the product owner from the session.
b. Request the product owner to remain quiet and observe.
c. Point the product owner to a website about iteration reviews.
d. Coach the product owner on how to contribute in the meeting.

15. A company was hiring for certain positions. For one position, they
were asking for people with skills such as leadership, team building,
motivation, conflict management, influencing, negotiating, and several
others. This position would require the individual to lead efforts to
satisfy specific objectives and complete them in a timely manner within
budget constraints.
What job position are they trying to fill and what type of skills were
they looking for?
a. Head of the PMO, communication skills
b. Project manager, management skills
c. Project manager, interpersonal skills
d. Program manager, business skills

16. A stakeholder is conversing with you regarding a potential change to a

specification. Which best exemplifies active listening by you?
a. Staring intently into their eyes
b. Paying close attention to the behaviors of the other stakeholders
c. Asking relevant follow-up questions
d. Correcting the stakeholder as soon as you can

17. During a meeting, you pay close attention to the emotions of yourself
and others as the discussion gets heated. Which interpersonal skill are
you leveraging?
a. Emotional intelligence
b. Meeting management
c. Leadership
d. Influencing

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18. Which of the following statements most reflects the approach of
servant leadership?
a. Lead by supporting the team’s needs.
b. Lead by assigning the team members’ tasks.
c. Lead by micromanaging the team activities.
d. Lead by facilitating the team reviews.

19. Which of the following is the best example of recognition?

a. Monetary bonus
b. Praise for effort
c. Additional time off
d. Meeting starting on time

20. When leading a project team, what is the best leadership style to use?
a. Totalitarian
b. Servant
c. Democratic
d. Most fitting for the team

21. Which conflict management approach is best suited for a situation

where both parties refuse to give in on their position?
a. Compromise/reconcile
b. Accommodate/smooth
c. Withdraw/avoid
d. Force/direct

22. Which is true about conflict in projects?

a. Too much conflict reflects poorly on the team.
b. Too much conflict reflects poorly on the project manager.
c. Conflict is inevitable.
d. Conflict is to be addressed only when it disrupts the project.

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Lesson 5 | Support Project Team Performance

1. Which of the following represents a risk?

a. We have determined that our schedule is not going to meet the
required deadline.
b. Due to a higher inflation rate, it is possible that future commodity
prices will be 3 to 7% higher over the next 2 years, thus
increasing the cost of the project.
c. There are not enough resources to complete the work on time.
d. The change in the prime rate has caused our funding source to
be unable to provide the money we need in the upcoming project
phase.

2. The product owner is unavailable to decide about a product feature.

What is this considered?
a. Work request
b. Impediment
c. Backlog refinement
d. Priority

3. Which of the following is a technique used by project teams to bring

everyone together on a set reoccurring basis to share what may be
blocking or impeding their work or plans?
a. Daily standup meeting
b. Iteration review
c. Retrospective
d. Project kickoff

4. Which of the following is the best example of a blocker?

a. The team cannot decide when to schedule the next iteration
review.
b. The demonstration is not ready for the iteration review.
c. Clearance from another team to use content for the demo won’t
be ready within the current iteration.
d. The demonstration fails in front of the product owner during the
iteration review.

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5. What is the aim of a retrospective?
a. To blamestorm problems
b. To identify who is not helping on the team
c. To look back at all the work that was not completed
d. To identify what went well and what can be improved

6. Which two of the following are types of project metrics that may be
appropriate for a given project? (Choose two)
a. Percentage of work completed
b. Defects
c. Subcontractor approvals
d. Process compliance

7. Which two of the following are objectives for running a retrospective?

(Choose two)
a. Provide the stakeholders access to the team
b. Generate insights
c. Agree to one to two experiments to try to improve team
performance
d. Get feedback on the product

8. What four of the following are reasons for performance variations in a

project? (Choose four)
a. Specification changes
b. New regulations
c. Missed requirements
d. New changes to the project plan
e. Inaccurate initial estimates

9. What is the name of the methodology used to systematically test

possible solutions, assess the results, and implement those that work?
a. Kaizen
b. Continuous improvement
c. Plan Do Study Act
d. Retrospective

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10. Who is regarded as the father of the continuous improvement
movement?
a. Crosby
b. Deming
c. Juran
d. Smith

11. Which of the following is an ideal location for an information radiator?

a. In the manager’s office
b. In a high-traffic area
c. In an unused conference room
d. On the project manager’s laptop

12. A problem occurs during the project execution. It is not a big problem,
but it does bother some of the stakeholders. The project manager
requests that it be added to the issue log.
What would be the reason for this?
a. The issue log serves as a place to document problems that occur
and to track their resolution.
b. The issue log will be reviewed by the risk team at its next
meeting to develop a contingency plan.
c. The issue log will be submitted to the change control board for a
change approval.
d. The issue log serves as a place to document the unidentified
risks.

13. Which of the following statements about issues is correct?

a. Stakeholders use the issue log to manage an issue.
b. An issue should be assigned to one person to resolve.
c. Risks always become issues.
d. Only issues that are behind schedule need to be discussed
during project status meetings.

14. When does a risk become an issue?

a. The project manager judges the risk to be significant enough that
it is stipulated to be an issue.
b. The risk has a high probability of happening in the immediate
future.
c. The risk has occurred.
d. The risk owner escalates the risk to an issue.

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15. How do you describe an effective change control system?
a. An effective change control system includes the forms, tracking
methods, processes, and approval levels required for authorizing
or rejecting requested changes.
b. An effective change control system includes the documented
procedures for authorizing or rejecting requested changes in a
project.
c. An effective change control system specifies how the project
scope will be controlled, changed, and approved.
d. An effective change control system integrates all the changes for
a project.

16. A project manager is working with the project team as they perform
the work to create the project deliverables. Some adjustments need to
be made to the project plan and the baselines.
What is needed for the project manager to allow such changes?
a. Change requests
b. Input from stakeholders that their needs have adjusted from what
was originally planned
c. Approved change requests
d. The sponsor determines a different way to accomplish the work

17. Who can request changes? (Select all that apply)

a. Team members and project managers
b. Sponsor
c. Stakeholders
d. Customer

18. Your company is designing a game for families. They test whether the
game is easy enough for children by creating a prototype and then
establishing their test criteria. They create test groups of 100 boys and
100 girls between the ages of 3 and 5, at 50 schools across 30
regions. Then they modify and implement the prototype across the
country.
What process are they engaged in?
a. Benchmarking
b. Design of experiments
c. Statistical sampling
d. Force field analysis

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19. What is the focus of quality assurance and what does it result in?
a. Quality assurance is focused on the process and procedures
used, and it results in improved quality.
b. Quality assurance is focused on measuring the output of the
work package, and it results in improved quality.
c. Quality assurance is focused on measuring the output of the
work package, and it results in better metrics.
d. Quality assurance is focused on the process and procedures
used, and it results in a shorter schedule.

20. What is the purpose of decomposing the project work within the
hierarchical WBS structure?
a. To create smaller, more manageable chunks that can be better
estimated for cost, schedule, and resources, and that help
control the project
b. To create a sequence of work that can be used to track progress
throughout the life of the project, ensuring the project deadline
can be met
c. To select the requirements that will be included in the project to
the satisfaction of the stakeholders and the project sponsor
d. To draw out potential options to complete the work so the
stakeholders and the team members agree on the methods used

21. A project manager is reviewing the quality control chart with the
project team and the product owner. The response trend has been
going down over the last few reporting periods but is still above the
upper control limit.

What does that mean?

a. The project’s quality is outside the quality standards set for the
project.
b. The project’s burndown rate is above normal.
c. The project’s standards are too high.
d. The project’s quality is above expectations.

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22. The product owner is on vacation. A decision must be made on a
project change.

What should the team reference to determine next steps?

a. Project charter
b. Change management plan
c. Project time line
d. Configuration management plan

23. Which two of the following are used by quality management teams to
identify issues? (Choose two)
a. Audit reports
b. Planning poker
c. Design for X
d. Kano Model

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Lesson 6 | Close the Project/Phase

1. Last year, your company released a new service based on a project

you managed. The company wants to determine if the new service
has increased customer satisfaction.
Which tool measures the happiness of users based on their
willingness to encourage others to use your service against those who
would discourage others to use your service?
a. Net promoter score
b. Net value
c. AB testing
d. Planned value

2. What is the difference between a lessons learned register and a

lessons learned repository?
a. The two terms mean the same thing.
b. The register applies to a single project, and the repository applies
to many projects.
c. The repository applies to a single project, and the register applies
to many projects.
d. The register contains only areas that need improvement in future
projects, and the repository contains areas of improvement as
well as positive findings.

3. In which of the following situations would you not perform the Close
Project or Phase process?
a. When a project is terminated
b. When a project phase is complete
c. When a customer validates interim deliverables
d. When a project is complete

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4. If a project was terminated early, why would the project manager insist
that the team perform the Close Project or Phase process?
a. To document the reasons why the project was terminated early,
and determine how to transfer the finished and unfinished
deliverables to others
b. To document that the project was a waste of time and the project
and its output are no longer needed
c. To make sure everyone knows that the reason for the project
termination was either the team’s or the project manager’s fault.
d. To document lessons learned so mistakes won’t be repeated in
future project

5. The project manager wants to make sure all team members

understand the importance of the whole closing process and asks if
there are any more questions. One team member asks, “What would
happen if this process was not done?”
How should the project manager answer that question?
a. The customer would not be obliged to pay for the project.
b. The next related activity, phase, or project might not be
authorized to begin.
c. The stakeholders would not have any faith in the project team for
future projects.
d. The team members would not be allowed to be assigned to
future projects.

6. Which three of the following are purposes of the benefits management

plan? (Choose three)
a. The benefits identified in the benefits management plan will help
guide the measurement of the benefits after implementation.
b. The benefits owner will use or may change some of the metrics
identified in the benefits management plan to track the actual
benefits realized.
c. The benefits owner will ensure that the measurement metrics
and methods will be established, tracked, and monitored after
implementation.
d. The project manager is responsible for tracking the benefits from
the project for the time specified in the benefits management
plan.

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7. Often the benefits management plan is created before the project is
approved along with the business case document.

Why is the benefits management plan created?

a. The benefits management plan is a feasibility study used to
justify the project.
b. The benefits management plan is created to define the methods
for creating, tracking, and sustaining the benefits provided by the
project.
c. The benefits management plan describes how the project will be
planned, managed, controlled.
d. The benefits management plan is created by the project sponsor
and authorizes the project manager to start the project.

8. Which three of the following are reasons for accumulating new

organizational knowledge that the project manager, stakeholders and
team members discovered during the project? (Choose three)
a. Gather results from conducting retrospectives.
b. Gather results from conducting multiple lessons learned
meetings during the project.
c. Transfer knowledge gained in the lessons learned register to the
lessons learned repository.
d. Capture new knowledge is the project sponsor’s responsibility.

9. Is the following statement true or false?

The requirements traceability matrix is a grid that links product
requirements from their origin to the deliverables that satisfy them.
True
False

10. Which three of the following activities are part of closing a phase or
project? (Choose three)
a. Release resources (human, financial, and physical assets).
b. Initiate acceptance of deliverables or product by customer.
c. Archive project information and request updates to OPAs.
d. Transition responsibility to the project sponsor or a key
stakeholder, since project managers are not responsible for
project implementation.

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11. When can a contract closeout occur?
a. Only at the end of the project
b. Whenever the contract has been completed and accepted
c. Only at the end of a project, unless the project is terminated early
d. Whenever a seller is selected

12. Which three activities are required for contract closeout? (Choose
three.)
a. To arrange for final settlement of seller payments and claims
b. To verify work was done and delivered to specification
c. To provide performance evaluation of seller staff
d. To update contract artifacts

13. What is true of lessons learned during the project?

a. Should be documented only in the closeout report
b. Should consist of only project data
c. Should be documented throughout the project
d. Should consist of only things that went well during project
execution

14. A team member asks where to find a set of building codes. Which type
of knowledge is this?
a. Implicit
b. Explicit
c. Tacit
d. General

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Appendix A: Answers to Mastery Builders
Lesson 1 | The Business Environment

1. c. Project-oriented
2. True
3. a. Ways of Working
b. Power Skills
c. Business Acumen
4. a. Legal
c. Social
d. Political
5. b. Business goals and objectives
c. Potential constraints, assumptions, risks and dependencies
6. a. Net present value
b. Internal rate of return
c. Return of investment
7. False
8. a. Managing changes in an organization requires different strategies depending on
the circumstances, people involved, and timing.
b. Change management is an essential capability and a significant professional
practice in its own right.
c. It is important to have a robust theory and approach to change management to
support the business goals, objectives, opportunities, and needs.
9. True
10. a. Economy
b. Government or industry standards
d. Legal restrictions
11. b. Net present value
12. b. Using quality assurance outputs to confirm deliverable and process compliance
and identify the needs for corrective actions
13. a. Kill point
b. Phase gate
14. b. The PMO
15. True
16. b. At the beginning of each phase

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Lesson 2: Start the Project

1. b. Create a commitment to honesty, integrity, and commitment.

c. Ensure compliance with rules and laws.
2. a. Pricing and payment terms
b. Incentives and penalties
3. c. Define team goals and practices before selecting tools.
4. a. Shared task boards
d. Team chat boards
5. c. Someone who is not interested in the project
6. a. Team charter
7. a. Anyone affected by the project, its outputs, and its operation
8. c. Amount of money invested by the project stakeholders
9. a. Predictive
10. False
11. a. Agile
12. a. Asking teams to assess and agree to work goals as a group
c. Using a pull-based approach to ensure effective use of team
resources
13. c. Timely
14. c. Retrospective meeting
15. c. To solicit feedback from the product owner and other stakeholders
16. a. Measurable objectives
c. Key stakeholders list
17. c. 1 - 4 weeks
18. b. Communications management plan
19. b. Stakeholder register
20. a. How and when team meetings are run
d. Preferred communication approaches with external stakeholders
21. a. Ability tests
b. Focus groups
22. d. Conduct a Scrum of Scrums meeting

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Lesson 3 | Plan the Project

1. b. Focus group
2. a. Requirements traceability matrix
3. d. Cost reimbursable
4. b. Estimates on probably costs necessary to finish project work,
including direct costs, labor, materials, equipment, facilities services,
information technology, and contingency reserves
5. b. Combine all individual activity cost estimates and contingencies and
aggregate them for the entire project. Submit this to the sponsor, and
modify it if necessary
6. a. Cost baseline
7. b. Progressive elaboration
8. b. Minimum viable product
9. a. Working days
c. Availability of physical resource
10. c. Identifying and prioritizing options
11. c. Product box
12. c. The work is estimated by the people who will be asked to do the work.
13. a. Install smoke detectors.
14. c. Avoid means to change the management plan to remove the risk;
mitigate means to reduce the impact or probability.
15. d. MoSCoW analysis
16. a. Organizational process assets (OPAs)
17. a. Product roadmap
18. a. Minimum viable product
19. d. You are responsible for the activity’s execution.
20. d. Project team disbands early
21. d. Distributing the plan to all the stakeholders
22. d. The critical path is the longest path through the network diagram
which represents the earliest the project can be completed.
23. b. Finish to start
24. a. Outputs of the planning processes

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Lesson 4 | Lead the Project Team

1. a. Training is successfully resourced and scheduled.

c. Reminders should be sent to confirm the trainees’ participation.
2. c. Create a sense of urgency.
3. a. To effectively engage stakeholders in project decisions and execution
based on the analysis of their needs, interests, and potential impact
4. c. It compares the current and desired levels of engagement of each
stakeholder.
5. d. Activities such as how version control of project documents and
changes to the product will be initiated, analyzed, and traced
6. c. Both version control and configuration management
7. b. Yes, if significant project issues were discussed.
8. c. Control versioning of all components
9. c. Aligns expectations
10. a. Virtual classroom
b. Self-paced eLearning
11. b. Participants’ salaries
12. a. Informal
13. b. Facilitating a meeting
14. d. Coach the product owner on how to contribute in the meeting.
15. c. Project manager, interpersonal skills
16. c. Asking relevant follow-up questions
17. a. Emotional intelligence
18. a. Lead by supporting the team’s needs.
19. b. Praise for effort
20. d. Most fitting for the team
21. a. Compromise/reconcile
22. c. Conflict is inevitable.

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Lesson 5 | Support Project Team Performance

1. b. Due to a higher inflation rate, it is possible that future commodity

prices will be 3 to 7% higher over the next 2 years, thus increasing the
cost of the project.
2. b. Impediment
3. a. Daily standup meeting
4. c. Clearance from another team to use content for the demo won’t be
ready within the current iteration.
5. d. To identify what went well and what can be improved
6. a. Percentage of work completed
b. Defects
7. b. Generate insights
c. Agree to one to two experiments to try to improve team performance
8. a. Specification changes
b. New regulations
c. Missed requirements
e. Inaccurate initial estimates
9. c. Plan Do Study Act
10. b. Deming
11. b. In a high-traffic area
12. a. The issue log serves as a place to document problems that occur and
to track their resolution.
13. b. An issue should be assigned to one person to resolve.
14. c. The risk has occurred.
15. a. An effective change control system includes the forms, tracking
methods, processes, and approval levels required for authorizing or
rejecting requested changes.
16. c. Approved change requests
17. c. Stakeholders
18. c. Statistical sampling
19. a. Quality assurance is focused on the process and procedures used,
and it results in improved quality.

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20. a. To create smaller, more manageable chunks that can be better
estimated for cost, schedule, and resources, and that help control the
project
21. a. The project’s quality is outside the quality standards set for the project.
22. b. Change management plan
23. a. Audit reports
c. Design for X

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Lesson 6 | Close the Project/Phase

1. a. Net promoter score

2. b. The register applies to a single project, and the repository applies to many
projects.
3. c. When a customer validates interim deliverables
4. a. To document the reasons why the project was terminated early, and to
determine how to transfer the finished and unfinished deliverables to others
5. b. The next related activity, phase, or project might not be authorized to begin.
6. a. The benefits identified in the benefits management plan will help guide the
measurement of the benefits after implementation.
b. The benefits owner will use or may change some of the metrics identified in
the benefits management plan to track the actual benefits realized.
c. The benefits owner will ensure that the measurement metrics and methods
will be established, tracked, and monitored after implementation.
7. b. The benefits management plan is created to define the methods for creating,
tracking, and sustaining the benefits provided by the project.
8. a. Gather results from conducting retrospectives.
b. Gather results from conducting multiple lessons learned meetings during the
project.
c. Transfer knowledge gained in the lessons learned register to the lessons
learned repository.
9. True
10. a. Release resources (human, financial, and physical assets).
b. Initiate acceptance of deliverables or product by customer.
c. Archive project information and request updates to OPAs.
11. b. Whenever the contract has been completed and accepted
12. a. To arrange for final settlement of seller payments and claims
b. To verify work was done and delivered to specification
d. To update contract artifacts
13. c. Should be documented throughout the project
14. b. Explicit

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Appendix B: Errata – July 2023
This list provides details about updates to this document since the first release, with
version 3.0 of the instructor-led training.

In current version In original version

(3.2) (3.0, 3.1)
Same Lesson 1, Q10 Listed answers are correct, but the
corresponding letters were incorrect. The
correct answer letters are a, b, d (not a, b, a).
Lesson 5, Q20 Lesson 3, Q10 Listed answer is correct, but the letter of the
answer choice is incorrect. Answer letter
should be 'a', not 'e'.
Lesson 6, Q9 Lesson 6, Q9 Incorrect answer - The correct answer is
"true."
Lesson 5, Q17 Lesson 4, Q15 All answers are correct.

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