23-06-2024

9610WMD801016240008 MD

PHYSICS

SECTION-A

1) The charge flowing in a conductor varies with time as Q = at– bt2. Then which of the following is
not correct :–

(1) The current decreases linearly with time.

(2) Current reaches a maximum and then decreases.

(3)
Current falls to zero after time t =
(4) Current changes at a rate – 2b.

18 18
2) In an electrolyte 3.2 × 10 bivalent positive ions drift to the right per second while 3.6×10
monovalent negative ions drift to the left per second. Then ; the current is :-

(1) 1.6 Amp to the left

(2) 1.6 Amp to the right
(3) 0.45 Amp to the left
(4) 0.45 Amp to the right

3) A current of 5A is passing through a metallic wire of cross-section area 4 × 10–6 m2. If the density
of the charge carriers in the wire is 5 × 1026/m3, the drift velocity of the electrons is :-

(1)
m/sec

(2)
m/sec

(3)
m/sec

(4)
m/sec

4)

The ratio of drift velocities in the given two conductors of same materials A & B is :-
(1) 2 : 1
(2) 2 : 3
(3) 9 : 4
(4) 1 : 4

5) I v/s V graph is drawn at two different temperatures T1 and T2 for a metallic wire as shown. The

correct relation is

(1) T1 > T2
(2) T2 > T1
(3) T1 = T2
(4) None

6) Which part of the curve represents the negative resistance ?

(1) AB
(2) BC
(3) CD
(4) EF

7) The figure shows part of certain circuit. The magnitude of potential difference between points C
and B is
(1) 8 V
(2) 10 V
(3) 12.5 V
(4) 15 V

8)

The total current supplied to the circuit by the battery is :-

(1) 1 A
(2) 2 A
(3) 4 A
(4) 6 A

9) A conductor of resistance 3Ω is stretched uniformly till its length is doubled. The wire is now bent
in the form of an equilateral triangle. The effective resistance between the ends of any side of the
triangle (in ohm) are :-

(1)

(2)

(3) 2
(4) 1

10) The reading of the ammeter as per figure shown is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) 2A
11) In the adjoining circuit, the potential difference across 3Ω is :-

(1) 2V
(2) 4V
(3) 8V
(4) 16V

12) What is the potential difference between the points M and N for the circuits shown in figure

(1) 2.4
(2) 8.4 V
(3) 5.2 V
(4) 7 V

13) A part of circuit given in figure find VA–VC :-

(1) 2V
(2) Zero
(3) –1V
(4) –2V

14) The voltmeter reads 40 V across 60 Ω resistance. The resistance of voltmeter is :-

(1) 60 Ω
(2) 20 Ω
(3) 30 Ω
(4) 40 Ω
15) Five cell each of emf E and internal resistance r send the same amount of current through an

external resistance R whether the cells are connected in parallel or in series. Then the ratio is
:-

(1) 2
(2) 1/2
(3) 1/5
(4) 1

16) To get maximum current in a resistance of 3Ω one can use n rows of m cells connected in
parallel. If the total no. of cells is 24 and the internal resistance of a cell is 0.5 then

(1) m = 12, n = 2
(2) m = 8, n = 4
(3) m = 2, n = 12
(4) m = 6, n = 4

17) If X, Y, Z in figure are identical lamps, which of the following changes occur to the brightness of

the lamps when switch S is closed ?

(1) X stays the same, Y decreases

(2) X increases, Y decreases
(3) X increases, Y stays the same
(4) X decreases, Y increases

18) An electric kettle has two heating coils. When one coil is used, water in the kettle boils in 5
minutes, while when second coil is used, same amount of water boils in 10 minutes. If the two coils
are connected in parallel then same amount of water will boil in time :-

(1) 3 min 20 sec

(2) 3 min 33 sec
(3) 7 min 30 sec
(4) 2 min 30 sec

19) Two bulbs of power 30 W and 60 W are connected in series. What will be ratio of potential drop
across bulb :-

(1) 1 : 2
(2) 2 : 1
(3) 3 : 2
(4) 2 : 3

20)

This question has Statement I and Statement II. Of the four choice given after the Statements,
choose the one that best describes the two Statements.
Statement-I : Higher the range, greater is the resistance of ammeter.

Statement-II : To increase the range of ammeter, additional shunt needs to be used across it.
(1) Statement-I is true, Statement-II is true, Statement-II is the correct explanation of Statement-I
Statement-I is true, Statement-II is true, Statement-II is not the correct explanation of
(2)
Statement-I.
(3) Statement-I is true, Statement-II is false.
(4) Statement-I is false, Statement-II is true.

21) A battery of internal resistance 8Ω is connected to network as shown. In order to deliver

maximum power to network, R should be :

(1) 8 Ω
(2) 4 Ω
(3) 2 Ω
(4) None of these

22) For a wheatstone bridge shown; R1 > R2 and R3 = R4. The direction of current in wire AB is :

(1) From A to B
(2) No current flows in AB
(3) From B to A
(4) Data is not sufficient
23) The value of current i for the given circuit is

(1) 10 A
(2) 5 A
(3) 2.5 A
(4) 20 A

24) In the circuit shown in fig., the value of resistance X, when the potential difference between the
points B and D is zero, will be :-

(1) 9 Ω
(2) 8 Ω
(3) 6 Ω
(4) 4 Ω

25) A galvanometer having a coil resistance of 30Ω shows full scale deflection when a current of 2A
passes through it. It can be converted into an ammeter to read currents upto 10A by :-

(1) by putting in series a resistance of 240Ω

(2) by putting in parallel a resistance of 240Ω
(3) by putting in series a resistance of 7.5Ω
(4) by putting in parallel a resistance of 7.5Ω

26) The galvanometer has no deflection and the length of wire AB is 350 cm. then AC equals to :-
(1) 150 cm.
(2) 200 cm.
(3) 210 cm.
(4) 280 cm.

27) When 2 × 1016 electrons are transferred from one conductor to another, a potential difference of
10V appears between the conductors. Calculate the capacitance of the two conductor system.

(1) 3.2 × 10–4 F

(2) 1.6 × 10–4 F
(3) 2 × 10–4 F
(4) None

28) The net charge on a capacitor is :-

(1) 2q
(2) q/2
(3) 0
(4) infinity

29) The graph shows the variation of voltage V across the plates of two capacitors A and B with

charge ‘Q’. Relation between capacitance of A and B is:

(1) CA > CB
(2) CA = CB
(3) CA < CB
(4) None of these

30) The capacitance of a parallel plate air capacitor is 10μF. If now the overlapping area of plates is
doubled and separation between the plates is halved then new capacitance is :–

(1) 40 μF
(2) 10 μF
(3) 20 μF
(4) 80 μF

31) The radius of the circular plates of a parallel plate capacitor is 'R'. Air is dielectric medium
between the plates. If the capacitance of the capacitor is equal to the capacitance of sphere of radius
'R', then the distance between the plates is :

(1)

(2)

(3) R
(4) 2R

32) A slab of copper of thickness is introduced between the plates of a parallel plate capacitor
where d is the separation between its two plates. If the capacitance of the capacitor without the

copper slab is C and with copper slab is C' then is :-

(1)
(2) 2

(3)

(4)

33) Internal resistance of primary cell depends on :-

(1) the nature of electrolyte

(2) the area of plates immeresed in the electrolyte
(3) the concentration of electrolyte and distance between the plates
(4) all the above

34) Assertion:- On filling the space between the plates of a parallel plate air capacitor with a
dielectric, capacity of the capacitor is increased.
Reason :- The same amount of charge can be stored at a reduced potential.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Assertion is false but Reason is true.

35) The capacitance of a parallel plate condenser does not depend upon

(1) the distance between the plates

(2) area of the plates
(3) medium between the plates
(4) metal of the plates

SECTION-B
1) I-t curve is shown in figure. Calculate total charge flowing in circuit from t = 0 to t = 8 sec.

(1) 35 µC
(2) 40 µC
(3) 45 µC
(4) None of these

2) A potential difference is applied across the ends of a metallic wire. If the potential difference is
doubled, the drift velocity :-

(1) will be doubled

(2) will be halved
(3) will be quadrupled
(4) will remain unchanged

3) The ratio of the equivalent resistance of the network (shown in figure) between the points a and b
when switch is open and switch is closed is x : 8. Find the value of x.

(1) 5
(2) 7
(3) 3
(4) 9

4) Find the current in 3Ω resistance in the circuit

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4) zero

5) For a cell, the graph between the potential difference (V) across the terminals of the cell and the
current (I) drawn from the cell is shown in the figure. the emf and the internal resistance of the cell

are :-

(1) 2 V, 0.5 Ω
(2) 2 V, 0.4 Ω
(3) 3 V, 0.5 Ω
(4) 3 V, 0.4 Ω

6) N identical cells, each of emf e and internal resistance r, are joined in series. out of these, n cells
are wrongly connected, i.e., their terminals are connected in reverse of that required for series
connection (n < N/2). Let e0 be the emf of the resulting battery and r0 be its internal resistance :-

(1) e0 = (N–n)ε, r0 = (N–n)r

(2) e0 = (N–2n)ε, r0 = (N–2n)r
(3) e0 = (N–2n)ε, r0 = Nr
(4) e0 = (N–n)ε, r0 = Nr

7)

If power dissipated in the circuit is 150 W then R =

(1) 2Ω
(2) 3Ω
(3) 5Ω
(4) 6Ω

8) A galvanometer has 36 Ω resistance. If a 4 Ω shunt is added to this, the fraction of current that
passes through the galvanometer is :-

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

9) Circuit diagram of metre bridge is shown in figure. The null point is found at a distance of 40 cm
from A. If now a resistance of 12Ω is connected in parallel with S, the null point occurs at 64 cm.

Determine the value of R and S.

(1)
, 20Ω

(2)
, 10Ω
(3) 11Ω, 22Ω

(4)
, 40Ω

10) The maximum electric field that a dielectric medium of a capacitor can withstand without break
down (of its insulating property) is called its :

(1) polarisation
(2) capacitance
(3) dielectric strength
(4) dielectric constant

11)

The potential to which a conductor is raised, depends on :-

(1) the amount of charge

(2) the geometry and size of the conductor
(3) both (1) and (2)
(4) None of these

12) The earth has Volume 'V' and Surface Area 'A' then capacitance would be :-

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

13) The plates in a parallel plates capacitor are separated by a distance d with air as the medium
between the plates. In order to increase the capacity by 66% a dielectric slab of dielectric constant 5
is introduced between the plates. What is the thickness of the dielectric slab ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) d

14) A parallel plate capacitor is charged by a battery of potential difference V. If the distance
between the plate is d and area of each plate is A, the energy stored in the capacitor is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

15) The capacitance C of a capacitor is :-

(1) Independent of the charge and potential of the capacitor.

(2) Dependent on the charge and independent of potential.
(3) Independent of the geometrical configuration of the capacitor.
(4) Independent of the dielectric medium between the two conducting surfaces of the capacitor

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A

1) Hydrate isomer of [Cr(H2O)6]Br3 are/is :

(1) [Cr(H2O)5Br]Br2.H2O
(2) [Cr(H2O)4Br2]Br.2H2O
(3) [Cu(H2O)4]Cl2
(4) Both 1 and 2

2) [Co(NH3)3Cl3] constitute the type of isomers.

(1) Ionisation
(2) Hydrate
(3) Coordination
(4) Fac-mer isomers.

3) Which of the following is/are limitation of VBT?

(1) It doesn't explain the variation of magnetic properties of complex.

(2) It doesn't distinguish between strong and weak field ligand.
(3) It cannot interpret the spectra (colour) of complexes.
(4) All of the these

4) Which one of the following platinum complexes is used in cancer chemotherapy ?

(1) cis-[PtCl2(NH3)2]
(2) trans-[PtCl2(NH3)]
2+
(3) [Pt(NH3)4]
2–
(4) [Pt(Cl4)]

5) The C–O bond length is found to maximum in :

(1) H3B ← CO
(2) [V(CO)6]¯
0
(3) [Cr(CO)6]
+
(4) [Mn(CO)6]

6) How many compounds from following represents a double salt ?

(i) Carnallite (ii) Mohr’s salt (iii) Potash Alum (iv) K4[Fe(CN)6]

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

7) Find the incorrect relation

(1) SCN– → Ambidentate ligand

(2) N(CH2CH2NH2)3 → polydentate ligand
(3) H2O → Uni dentate ligand
(4) EDTA4– → didentate ligand
8) Hardness of water is estimated simple titration with-

(1) Na[EDTA]
(2) Na2[EDTA]
(3) Na3[EDTA]
(4) Na4[EDTA]

9) A reagent used for identifying nickel ion is :-

(1) Potassium ferrocyanide

(2) Phenolphthalein
(3) Dimethyl glyoxime
(4) EDTA

10) Which is/are organometallic compound :-

(I) Grignard reagent (II) Sodium methoxide (III) trimethyl boron (IV) TEL

(1) Only I
(2) I & II
(3) I, II, IV
(4) I, III, IV

11) Configuration of following chiral-C is

(1) 2R
(2) 3R
(3) 2S
(4) 3S

12)

(1) Enantiomers
(2) Diastereomers
(3) Identical
(4) Chain isomers

13) Which is optically inactive and have chiral carbon also ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

14) Which compound show S configuration ?

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

15) Which is correct statement-

(1) If there is chiral carbon then it is optically active.

(2) If there is no plane of symmetry then compound will be optically active.
(3) In Fischer projection, vertical line represents group towards observer
(4) 2-Chlorobutane shows optical isomerism

16) Which is optically active ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

17)

Structure Number of chiral carbon

 (A) (P) 0

(B) (Q) 1

(C) (R) 3

(D) (S) 2

Correct match is
(1) A→P ; B→S ; C→Q ; D→R
(2) A→Q ; B→S ; C→R ; D→P
(3) A→Q ; B→P ; C→S ; D→R
(4) A→Q ; B→P ; C→R ; D→S

18) Which is neutral nucleophile

(1)

(2)

(3) PCl3
(4)

19) Which is/are ambident nucleophile

(a) (b) NH2–OH

(c) NH–CH3 (d) CH3–NO2

(e) SO3 (f)

(1) a, b, c, f
(2) b and d
(3) b, d, e
(4) b, c, f

20) Which is represents homolytic cleavage ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

21) Which is a pair of electrophile

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

22) Which of the following compound can exist in meso form –

(1) 1, 2–Dichlorobutane
(2) 2, 3–Dichloropentane
(3) 2, 3–Dichloro butane
(4) 1, 2–Dichloropentane

23) Which one of the following is correct for 2, 3–Dibromopentane?

(1) It can show geometrical isomerism.

(2) One of its stereoisomer is meso compound.
(3) It has only 3 optically isomers.
(4) It can show enantiomerism

24) Assertion : can exist in meso.

Reason : It can have plane of symmetry.
(1) If both Assertion and Reason are True and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) If both Assertion and Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) If Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) If both Assertion and Reason are False.

25) Which of the following compound show L-configuration :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

26) Which is Meso compound

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
27) Which can show enantiomerism ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) 2 and 3 both

28) Compound 'A' and Compound 'B' have same structure and configuration of compound 'A' and
compound 'B' is 2R, 3S and 2S, 3S respectively. Correct statement about compound 'A' and
compound 'B' is

(1) 'A' and 'B' are diastereomers.

(2) 'A' and 'B' are enantiomers if both are active.
(3) 'A' and 'B' are identical if both are inactive.
(4) 'A' and 'B' are position isomers.

29) Which of the following compounds has chiral carbon atom?

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

30) Which of the following compounds shows optical isomerism?

(1) CH3CH(CH3)COOH
(2) CH3CHOHCOOH
(3) CH3CH(CH3)CH2OH
(4) CH3CH(CH3)CH2Cl

31)
Number of chiral center present in above compounds are :-

(1) 0, 1
(2) 0, 2
(3) 0, 3
(4) 1, 2

32) In which of the following, chiral carbon is present ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

33) Correct match is

 Column-I Column-II

(P) (a) Meso compound

(Q) (b) Optically active

(R) (c) Optically inactive

(1) P → a ; Q → b ; R → c
(2) P → a ; Q → c ; R → b
(3) P → c ; Q → b ; R → a
(4) P → c ; Q → a ; R → b

34) Assertion : and are identical.

Reason : Both have same configuration and same structure.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
Both Assertion and Reason are true and but Reason is not a correct explanation of the
(2)
Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

35) Assertion : Pentane-2,3-diol can exist in meso form.

Reason : There may be plane of symmetry in one case.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
Both Assertion and Reason are true and but Reason is not a correct explanation of the
(2)
Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

SECTION-B

1) Assertion(A) :- Geometrical isomerism cannot be shown by tetrahedral complexes.

Reason(R) :- All four ligands in tetrahedral geometry have adjacent position to one another and all
four bond angles are the same (=109.5°)

(1) If both A and R are correct and R is correct explanation of A.

(2) If both A and R are correct and R is not correct explanation of A.
(3) Both are incorrect.
(4) A is correct and R is incorrect.

2) Statement-1 : Tetrahedral complexes of [Ma4], [Ma2b2] and [Ma3b] type are not able to show
optical isomerism.
Statement-2 : All the possible arrangements of the ligands rounds the central metal/ion M, are
exactly equivalent.

(1) Both statement-1 and statement-2 are correct.

(2) Both statement-1 and statement-2 are incorrect.
(3) Statement-1 is correct but statement-2 is incorrect.
(4) Statement-1 is incorrect but statement-2 is correct.

3) Incorrect match is :

(1) [Rh(PPh3)3Cl] : Wilkinson’s catalyst

–
(2) [Co(CO)4] : Bond order of Co—CO bond is greater than one
(3) [Zn(NH3)4][Be(OH)4] : Colorless complex
3–
(4) [Cr(CN)6] : Outer orbital low spin complex

4) Compound [Co(NH3)5(H2O)]+3 absorb blue green color than its complementary color will be-

(1) Red
(2) Voilet
(3) Yellow
(4) Purple

5) The complex formed in black and white photography is -

–3
(1) [(AgS2O3)2]
–3
(2) [Au(S2O3)2]
–3
(3) [Pt(S2O3)2]
–3
(4) [Hg(S2O3)2]

6)
(1) Identical
(2) Enantiomers
(3) Diastereomers
(4) Position isomers

7) Which is optically active ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8) Configuration of following chiral-C is

(1) R
(2) S
(3) d
(4) l

9) Statement-I :- Enantiomers are optically active compounds.

Statement-II :- Racemic mixture is obtained from equal mixture of enantiomers and is optically
inactive.

(1) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect.

(2) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct.
(4) Both statement I and statement II are correct.

10) Assertion :- Compound of which mirror image is non superimposable, is called optically active.
Reason :- Condition for a compound to be an optically active is that there should be chiral carbon.

(1) Both A and R correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R correct and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is correct but R is not correct.
(4) Both A and R are not correct.

11) Statement-I :- Mirror image of optically active will be optically active.

Statement-II :- Configuration of mirror image of R-2-Chlorobutane will be S-2-Chlorobutane.

(1) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect.

(2) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct.
(4) Both statement I and statement II are correct.

12) The configuration of the compound is

(1) E
(2) R
(3) S
(4) Z

13) Statement-I : 2R, 3S-Butane-2, 3-diol and 2S, 3R-Butane-2, 3-diol are enantiomers.
Statement-II : Enantiomers are differ in optical rotation.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

14) Statement-I : Essential condition for a compound to be an optically active is presence of chiral
carbon.
Statement-II : If there is one chiral carbon then molecule have no symmetry.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

15) Meso tartaric acid and d-tartaric acid are

(1) Diastereomers
(2) Enantiomers
(3) Geometrical isomers
(4) Functional isomers

BIOLOGY-I

SECTION-A

1) Mark the correct statement :-

(1) Life appeared 500 billion years after the formation of earth
(2) The universe is very old almost 20 million years old
(3) The first non-cellular forms of life could have originated 3000 million years back.
(4) The first cellular form of life did not possibly originate till about 100 million years ago.

2) First mammals were like :-

(1) Rat
(2) Squirrel
(3) Shrew
(4) Monkey

3) Statement-I : Evolutionary biology is the study of history of life forms on earth.

Statement-II : The origin of life is considered a unique event in the history of universe.
Choose the correct option from the given statements:

(1) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect

(2) Both statement I and statement II are correct
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is not correct
(4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct

4) Pouched mammals (Metatheria) survived in Australia because of :-

(1) Continental drift

(2) Mutation
(3) Variation
(4) Lack of competition
5) Health for a long time, was considered as a state of body and mind where there was a balance of
certain ____ ?

(1) Chemical
(2) Ions
(3) Humors
(4) Hormons

6) Disease causing organisms are called :-

(1) Foreign antigen

(2) Toxins
(3) Pathogen
(4) Both (2) & (3)

7) _____ an intestinal parasite causes blockage of the intestinal passage, internal bleeding, muscular
pain, anaemia and fever :-

(1) Entamoeba histolytica

(2) Filarial worm
(3) Ascaris
(4) Typhoid

8) Which protect non infected cells from further viral infection ?

(1) Physical barriers

(2) Cellular barriers
(3) Antibodies
(4) Cytokine barriers

9) Which of the following is correct matching ?

(1) Cellular barrier - epidermal cells

(2) Physical barrier - Fever, acid in stomach, saliva
(3) Cytokine barrier - Interferons
(4) Physiological barrier - Natural killer cell Macrophages PMNL - Neutrophils

10) _____ is characterised by memory :-

(1) Acquired immunity

(2) Non specific immunity
(3) Specific immunity
(4) Both (1) & (3)

11) Discovery of blood circulation by :-

(1) William Harvey
(2) Robert Koch
(3) Louis Pasteur
(4) Ferdinand Kohn

12) Which of the following can be included under primary lymphoid organ :

(1) Peyer's patches

(2) Thymus
(3) Spleen
(4) Lymph nodes

13)

Which of the following is not a bacterial disease ?

(1) Dysentery
(2) Plague
(3) Diphtheria
(4) Common cold

14) How many of the following are bacterial disease :

Ascariasis, Filariasis, Ringworm, Polio, Plague, pneumonia, mumps, Common cold, typhoid

(1) 3
(2) 5
(3) 4
(4) 2

15) Which of the following options gives the correct categorisation of organs, structure/position and
type of lymphoid organs.

Column-I Column-II Column-III

(1) Spleen (a) Bilobed (i) Primary lymphoid organ
(2) Lymph node (b) Bean shaped (ii) Secondary lymphoid organ
(3) Thymus (c) Long bones (iii) Secondary lymphoid organ
(4) Bone marrow (d) Solid (iv) Primary lymphoid organ
(1) 1-a-ii, 2-b-iii, 3-c-i, 4-d-iv
(2) 1-b-ii, 2-d-iv, 3-a-i, 4-c-iii
(3) 1-b-ii, 2-d-iii, 3-a-i, 4-c-iv
(4) 1-c-iii, 2-d-iv, 3-c-i, 4-b-ii

16) In which one of the following options the two examples are incorrectly matched with their
particular type of immunity?
 Type of immunity Example

(1) Physiological barrier Saliva in mouth, tears from eyes

(2) Physical barrier Skin and mucus coating

(3) Cellular barrier Monocytes and macrophages

(4) Cytokine barrier Interferon, HCl in stomach

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

17)

The sustained high fever of 39°-40°C, weakness, stomach pain, constipation are common symptoms
of :

(1) Typhoid
(2) Pneumonia
(3) Amoebiasis
(4) Filariasis

18) Mary Mallon was a cook by profession and also a carrier of a particular disease. Which test is
commonly used for diagnosis of this disease.

(1) PCR
(2) Widal test
(3) Western blot
(4) ELISA

19) In life cycle of plasmodium, gametocytes are formed in :-

(1) Human liver

(2) Gut of mosquito
(3) Human RBC
(4) Salivary gland of mosquito

20) The disease like Malaria and Filariasis and transmitted through insect vectors ; vectors can be
controlled by introducing fish :

(1) Labeo
(2) Gambusia
(3) Hilsa
(4) Catla

21)
Which of the following statements are correct about 'SAHELI' ?
(A) Non steroidal pill
(B) Prevent implantation
(C) Developed by CDRI in Lucknow

(D) Daily oral pill with very few side effects

(1) A, C and D
(2) Only B and D
(3) Only A and B
(4) A, B and C

22) Assertion :- CuT is an effective contraceptive.

Reason :- It decreases sperms motility and fertilization capacity.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) Both assertion and reason are false.

23) Pick up the correct match :-

Transfer of embryo into the uterus after in vitro

(A) I.U.T. (1)
fertilization

Collect the semen from doner and transfer into the

(B) GIFT (2)
female genital tract

(C) AI (3) Sperm is directly injected into ovum

(D) ZIFT (4) Transfer of gamete into fallopian tube

(E) I.C.S.I. (5) Transfer of zygote into fallopian tube

A B C D E

(1) 1 2 5 3 4

(2) 1 3 5 4 2

(3) 1 4 3 5 2

(4) 1 4 2 5 3
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

24) If male is impotent and female is fertile then what possible assisted reproductive technology is
used for treating the infertility in particular couple ?

(1) GIFT
(2) Intra uterine insemination
(3) ZIFT
(4) Embryo transfer

25) Which of the following method of contraception is used alongwith spermicidal creams, Jellies and
foams ?

(1) Pills
(2) Lippe's loop
(3) Vaults
(4) Coitus interruptus

26) Which of the following sexually transmitted infections are completely curable ?

(1) HIV infection and Trichomoniasis

(2) Syphilis and trichomoniasis
(3) Hepatitis – B and Genital herpes
(4) Genital herpes and Genital warts

27) Which of the following is a mechanical barrier used in birth control?

(1) Condom
(2) Mala-D
(3) Saheli
(4) Lippes loop

28) The family planning programming in India were initiated in:

(1) 1951
(2) 1971
(3) 2000
(4) 2003

29) Surgical removal or cutting and ligation of the ends of oviduct is known as :-

(1) Tubectomy
(2) Oviductomy
(3) castration
(4) vasectomy

30) Improved varieties of dogs, plants developed by :-

(1) Environmental selection

(2) Natural selection
(3) Artificial selection
(4) Protective selection
31) Which dinosaur was about 20 feet in height and had huge fearsome dagger like teeth :-

(1) Ichthyosaurs
(2) Tyrannosaurus rex
(3) Stegosaurus
(4) Triceratops

32) Analogous oragans are :-

(1) They are not anatomically similar structures though they perform similar functions
(2) Evolved as a result of convergent evolution
(3) Found in species having different ancestry
(4) All of the above

33) Which of the following is not an example of natural selection?

(1) Drug resistance in microbes

(2) Industrial Melanism
(3) Sickle cell anemia and malaria
(4) Domestic Pigeons

34) Brain capacity of Homo erectus was :-

(1) 650-800 cc
(2) 900 cc
(3) 1300 cc
(4) 1400 cc

35) Read the sentences carefully about fossils. Choose the correct option, which defines the word
“Fossil” better :-

(1) Fossils are soft part of life forms found in rocks

(2) Fossils are hard part of life forms found in water
(3) Fossils are hard part of life forms found mostly in Igneous rocks
(4) Fossils are remains of hard part of life forms found in rocks

SECTION-B

1) (I) Fossils are generally found in sedimentary rocks

(II) Fossils provides most evident proof of evolution
(III) Fossils can’t represent extinct organisms
(IV) Fossils show the evolutionary pedigree of animals
Which one from the above given statements is wrong

(1) I
(2) III
(3) IV
(4) II

2) Appearance of dry, scaly lesions on various parts of the body such as skin, nails and scalp, intense
itching are the main symptoms of ?

(1) Allergy
(2) Chicken pox
(3) Ring worm
(4) Ascariasis

3) Assertion : The yellowish fluid colostrum secreted by mother during the initial days of lactation
provides passive immunity.
Reason : The yellowish fluid colostrum has abundant ready-made antibodies IgA which protect the
infant.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

4) The infective stage of Plasmodium for human reproduces in-

(1) Only in liver cells

(2) Only in RBCs
(3) Both in Liver cells and RBCs.
(4) In mosquito gut

5) (A) (B)
Identify figure A & B.

(1) A - Elephantiasis, B - Roundworm

(2) A - Ringworm, B - Elephantiasis
(3) A - Elephantiasis, B - Ringworm
(4) A - Ascariasis, B - Amoebiasis
6) Study the given diagram and name the labelled A, B, C and D :

A B C D
(1) Gametocytes Salivary glands Sporozoites Asexual reproduction of parasite in RBC
(2) Sporozoites Salivary glands Gametocytes Sexual reproduction of parasite in RBC
Asexual reproduction of parasite in liver
(3) Salivary gland Sporozoites Gametocytes
cell
(4) Salivary gland Gametocytes Sporozoites Sexual reproduction of parasite in liver cell
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

7) Given below are two statements one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R).
Assertion (A) :- Subsequent encounter with the same pathogen elicit a highly intensified
anamnestic response.
Reason (R) :- This is the fact that our body appears to have memory of the first encounter
Choose the most appropriate answer -

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct

8) Which of the following statement in incorrect with respect to MALT ?

(1) It is the primary lymphoid organ

(2) It constitutes about 50% of the lymphoid tissue in human body
(3) It is the site of proliferation of B-lymphocytes and T-lymphocytes
(4) It is located within the lining of digestive, respiratory and urinogenital tracts

9) In which one of the following options the two examples are correctly matched with their
particular type of immunity?

Examples Type of immunity

Saliva in mouth and Tears
(1) Physical barriers
in eyes
 Mucus coating of
epithelium lining the
(2) Physiological barriers
urinogenital tract and the
HCl in stomach
Polymorpho nuclear
(3) Cellular barriers
leukocytes and monocytes
Anti-tetanus and anti-snake
(4) Active immunity
bite injections
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

10) How many of the following cells are included in cellular barrier ?
(i) Neutrophils (ii) Macrophages
(iii) Helper T-cell (iv) B-cell
(v) Natural killer-cell (vi) T-Killer cell

(1) Four
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three

11) What is correct about test tube baby :-

(1) Fertilization inside female genital tract and growth in test tube
(2) Rearing of prematurely born baby in incubator
(3) Fertilization outside and gestation inside womb of mother
(4) Both fertilization and development are effected outside the female genital tract

12) Which of the following are examples of copper releasing IUDs?

(1) Cu7, LNG – 20

(2) LNG – 20, Progestasert
(3) CuT, Multiload 375
(4) Lipppes loop, Multiload 375

13) Assertion (A) :- Condoms are used to prevent pregnancy.

Reason (R) :- Condoms are the type of barrier methods.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

14) Match the Column - I with Column - II :-

 Column – I Column – II

(a) Non – Medicated I.U.D (i) Progestasert

(b) Daily Oral Pill (ii) Today

(c) Spermicidal agent (iii) Lippes loop

(d) Hormone Releasing I.U.D (iv) Prevent Ovulation

(1) (a)-(ii); (b)-(iv); (c)-(i); (d)-(iii)
(2) (a)-(iii); (b)-(iv); (c)-(ii); (d)-(i)
(3) (a)-(iii); (b)-(iv); (c)-(i); (d)-(ii)
(4) (a)-(ii); (b)-(iv); (c)-(iii); (d)-(i)

15)

Diaphragm is :-

(1) Barrier method

(2) IUDs
(3) Pills
(4) Implants

BIOLOGY-II

SECTION-A

1) S. L. Miller observed formation of which organic molecules in his experiment

(1) Starch
(2) Amino acids
(3) Nucleic acids
(4) Fats

2) S.L. Miller an American scientist created electric discharge experiment in a closed flask
containing CH4, H2 ____ and water at 800°C temperature :

(1) CO2
(2) O2
(3) NH3
(4) N2

3) Development of analogous structure in organisms is an example of :-

(1) Divergent evolution

(2) Chemical evolution
(3) Convergent evolution
(4) Retrogressive evolution

4) According to Darwin, variations are :-

(1) Small and discontinuous

(2) Large and discontinuous
(3) Small and directional
(4) Large and directional

5) Directional selection favour :-

(1) One extreme form over other extreme

(2) Both extreme form of a trait
(3) Intermediate form of trait
(4) Environmental differences

6) Connecting link between apes and human was :

(1) Australopithecus
(2) Shivapithecus
(3) Ramapithecus
(4) Dryopithecus

7) Which of the following are different in fundamental structure but evolving for the same function
as a result of convergent evolution :-

(1) Wing of birds and bats

(2) Flippers of penguin and dolphins
(3) Heart of pigeon and rabbit
(4) Mouth parts of insects

8) The bird with toothed beak :-

(1) Archeopteryx
(2) Geospiza
(3) Ostrich
(4) Dodo

9) Which theory is favourite idea of some astronomers?

(1) Pangensis
(2) Cosmic panspermia
(3) Autogensis
(4) Big bang theory

10)
According to Darwin, which is responsible for the origin of species :-

(1) Mutation
(2) Tropical isolation
(3) Natural selection
(4) Use and disuse of organs

11) Which is the correct pairs of animals showing adaptive radiation : ––

(1) Tasmanian tiger cat, flying phalanger

(2) Bobcat, Wombat
(3) Kangaroo, placental mouse
(4) Koala, placental wolf

12) Which of the following is an example of analogy in plants ?

(1) Mouth parts of insects

(2) Eye of octopus and mammals
(3) Sweet potato and potato
(4) Sting of honeybee and scorpion

13) Embryological support for evolution was proposed by -

(1) Mendel
(2) Darwin
(3) Lamarck
(4) Ernst Haeckel

14) During natural selection, which variety of Biston bitularia was completely wiped out from
England?

(1) White winged moth

(2) Dark winged moth
(3) Both of the varieties
(4) None of the varieties

15) Industrial melanism and DDT resistance in pest indicates which type of natural selection ?

(1) Stabilizing selection

(2) Disruptive selection
(3) Directional selection
(4) Artificial selection

16) Which of the following is responsible for large difference arising suddenly in a population :

(1) Gene recombination

(2) Genetic drift
(3) Both (1) & (2)
(4) Mutation

17) Which of the following statement is correct ?

(1) Sea weeds existed about 350 mya

(2) Origin of agriculture occurs about 10000 years ago.
(3) Lamarck gave mutation theory
(4) Potato and sweet potato are homologous organ

18) Which of the following set has homologous organs:

(1) Hands of man, monkey and kangaroo and trunk of elephant

(2) Wings of insects, birds and bats
(3) Hind limbs of grasshopper, horse and bat
(4) Mouthparts of cockroach, mosquito and honey bee

19) Genetic drift is -

(1) Orderly change in gene frequency.

(2) Random change in gene frequency.
(3) Greatest fluctuations in large population.
(4) Causes mutation in population.

20) What was the most significant trend in the evolution of modern man (Homo sapiens) from his
ancestors?

(1) Increasing cranial capacity

(2) Bipedal locomotion
(3) Reduction of body hair
(4) Absence of tail

21) Australian marsupials are example of :

(1) Divergent evolution

(2) Convergent evolution
(3) Parallel evolution
(4) None of these

22) Due to continental drift, the South American mammals were over ridden by :-

(1) Australian marsupials

(2) Sauropsids
(3) Synapsids
(4) North American fauna
23) Lichens don’t grow in :

(1) Polluted areas

(2) Non polluted areas
(3) Areas with rich biodiversity
(4) Areas with poor biodiversity

24) Which statement is correct :-

(1) Lamarck theory–Struggle for existence

(2) Darwin theory–Use and disuse of organ
(3) Darwin theory – Branching descent
(4) Lamarck theory–Theory of continuity of germplasm

25) Which of the following factors can lead to change in gene frequency in population.

(1) Genetic drift

(2) Mutation
(3) Genetic recombination
(4) All of the above

26) The common ancestor of the modern day crocodiles and birds was which animal ?

(1) Thecodonts
(2) Sauropsids
(3) Therapsids
(4) Pelycosaurs

27) Which of the following scientist experimentely supported the chemical evolution of Oparin and
Haldane ?

(1) Louis Pasteur

(2) Darwin
(3) S.L. Miller
(4) Herbert Spencer

28) Embryo pass through ancestral adult stages, proposed by -

(1) Von-Baer
(2) E.Haeckel
(3) Muller
(4) All of the above
29)
Identify A, B, C :-

A B C

(1) Light chain Heavy chain Paratope

(2) Heavy chain Light chain Epitope

(3) Light chain Heavy chain Epitope

(4) Heavy chain Light chain Antigen binding site

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

30) Which of the following immunoglobulins does constitute the largest percentage in human milk?

(1) Ig M
(2) Ig A
(3) Ig G
(4) Ig D

31) The helminth that causes elephantiasis is :

(1) Wuchereria
(2) Ascaris
(3) Taenia
(4) Planaria

32) Fill in the blanks and choose the correct option :

(A) Intestinal perforation and death may occur in severe cases of ____.
(B) In severe cases of ___, the lips and finger nails may turn gray to bluish in colour.
(C) ___ is responsible for the disease pneumonia in humans.

(1) A-Common cold, B-Typhoid, C-Ascariasis

(2) A-Pneumonia, B-Common cold, C-Haemophilus influenzae
(3) A-Pneumonia, B-Typhoid, C-Haemophilus influenzae
(4) A-Typhoid, B-Pneumonia, C-Haemophilus influenzae
33) Name the causative agent and the disease in which the following symptoms may appear in body-
sustained high fever, weakness, stomach pain, constipation, headache and loss of appetite.

(1) Salmonella typhi, Typhoid

(2) Streptococcus pneumoniae, Pneumonia
(3) Corynebacterium diphtheriae, Diphtheria
(4) Streptococcus, Plague

34) Which disease is caused by "Yersinia Pestis" :-

(1) Plague
(2) Black fever
(3) Asthma
(4) Dengue fever

35) In the list given below identify the infectious disease :-

(i) Cancer (ii) Influenza
(iii) Allergy (iv) Diabetes
(v) Arthritis

(1) i and ii
(2) ii and iii
(3) ii
(4) iv and v

SECTION-B

1) Amniocentesis is performed usually between -

(1) 11th & 12th week

(2) 12th & 13th week
(3) 14th & 16th week
(4) 13th & 14th week

2)

How many factors are known to affect

Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium in following list :-

Gene migration, Genetic drift, mutation,

natural selection, genetic recombination,
random mating
(1) Three
(2) Five
(3) Four
(4) Six
3) Choose the correct statement is case of Human evolution ?

(1) Dryopithecus were existed about 3-4 mya.

(2) Ramapithecus was more ape like.
(3) Australopithecus probably lived in east and central Asia.
(4) Homo hobilis was the first human like being hominid.

4) Match the hominids with their correct brain size:

Hominids Brain Sizes

(A) Homo habilis (i) 900 CC

Homo neander
(B) (ii) 1350 CC
thalensis

(C) Homo Erectus (iii) 650-800 CC

(D) Homo Sapiens (iv) 1400 CC

(1) A-iii, B-ii, C-i, D-iv
(2) A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii
(3) A-iv, B-iii, C-i, D-ii
(4) A-iii, B-i, C-iv, D-ii

5) First evidence of ceremonial burial of dead body and use of hides to protect their bodies have
been found with which human ancestors ?

(1) Homo erectus

(2) Homo habilis
(3) Neanderthal man
(4) Australopithecus

6) A gene locus has two alleles A, a. If the frequency of dominant allele A is 0.4 then what will be the
frequency of homozygous dominant, heterozygous and homozygous recessive individuals in the
population ?

(1) 0.36 (AA); 0.48(Aa); 0.16 (aa)

(2) 0.16 (AA); 0.24 (Aa); 0.36 (aa)
(3) 0.16 (AA); 0.48 (Aa); 0.36 (aa)
(4) 0.16 (AA); 0.36 (Aa); 0.48 (aa)

7) Statement-I :- Homologous structures provide evidence for common ancestry among different
species.
Statement-II :- Homologous structures share a common evolutionary origin, despite their different
functions in different organisms.

(1) Statement-I and II both are correct.

(2) Statement-I and II both are incorrect.
(3) Only Statement-I is correct.
(4) Only Statement-II is correct.

8) Which of the following is not related with Darwin?

(1) Population has variations in characterstics.

(2) Fitness is the end result of the ability to adapt and get selected by nature.
(3) Evolution is driven by use and disuse of organs.
(4) Branching descent and natural selection.

9) Assertion :- The rate of appearance of new forms is linked to the life cycle or the life span of
organisms.
Reason :- The organism with short life span have ability to produce more progenies in shorter time
and that have chance to more exposure with nature.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

10) Hardy-Weinberg Principle states that

(1) The organism with better adaptation to the environment survives.

(2) Organism with mutations forms new species
(3) Living forms have evolved from rotten compounds
(4) Allele frequency in a population are stable and constant from generation to generation

11) Find the correct match from table :-

(1) only (i)

(2) (i) and (ii)
(3) (i) and (iv)
(4) (iii) and (iv)

12) Modern day frogs and salamanders might have evolved from–

(1) Lobefins
(2) Seymouria
(3) Pelycosaurus
(4) Archeopteryx

13) Factors which maintain the good health are-

(1) Balance diet

(2) Personal hygiene
(3) Regular exercise
(4) All of the above

14) For diseases such as ————————- that are transmitted through insect vectors, the most
important measure is to control or eliminate the vectors and their breeding places.

(1) pneumonia and common cold

(2) AIDS and cancer
(3) typhoid, amoebiasis and ascariasis
(4) malaria and filariasis

15) Identify A and B in above figure.

(1) A–Spleen, B–Thymus

(2) A–Bone morrow, B–Lymph nodes
(3) A–Lymph nodes, B–Thymus
(4) A–Appendix, B–Lymph nodes
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

SECTION-A

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 2 2 3 3 2 3 1 3 2 2 1 2 2 1 4 1 2 1 2 4
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35
A. 2 3 2 2 4 1 1 3 3 1 1 3 4 2 4

SECTION-B

Q. 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
A. 3 1 4 3 2 3 2 3 1 3 3 3 2 4 1

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A

Q. 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
A. 4 4 4 1 4 3 4 2 3 4 1 1 4 4 4 3 4 2 2 2
Q. 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 4 3 4 4 2 3 4 1 3 2 3 2 3 4 4

SECTION-B

Q. 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
A. 1 1 4 1 1 1 2 1 4 3 4 2 4 4 1

BIOLOGY-I

SECTION-A

Q. 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
A. 3 3 2 4 3 3 3 4 3 4 1 2 4 1 3 4 1 2 3 2
Q. 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135
A. 4 1 4 2 3 2 1 1 1 3 2 4 4 2 4

SECTION-B

Q. 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 2 3 1 3 3 1 1 1 3 4 3 3 4 2 1

BIOLOGY-II
 SECTION-A

Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 2 3 3 3 1 1 2 1 2 3 1 3 4 4 3 4 2 4 2 1
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180 181 182 183 184 185
A. 1 4 1 3 4 1 3 2 4 2 1 4 1 1 3

SECTION-B

Q. 186 187 188 189 190 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200
A. 3 2 4 2 3 3 1 3 1 4 3 1 4 4 3
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)
Q = at – bt2
i = a – 2bt

2)

I=(2×3.2×1018 × 1.6×10–19)
+(3.6×1018 × 1.6 × 10–19)
= 1.6 amp to right

3)

I = neAVd.

Vd = m/s

4)

5)

tanθ1 > tan θ2

⇒ T2 > T1
 6) Inverse of slope of I-V curve is resistance.

7)

Current through 2Ω is 4 + 2 = 6A
Using KVL
VC – 3 + 12 – 12 + 3 – 8 = VB
VC – VB = 8V

8) Parallel ,

9) In case of stretching of wire

10)

11)
V1 = 1 × 2 = 2V

12)

13)

VA – 4 + 2 × 2 = VC
VA – VC = 0

14) ;

15) Here, emf of each cell = E

Internal resistance of each cell = r
Number of cells, n = 5
In series,
The current through the external resistance R is

...(i)
In parallel,
The current through the external resistance R is

...(ii)
As per question, I = I'

or, 5r + R = r + 5R
 or, R=r or,

16)

In this question R = 3Ω, mn = 24, r = 0.5Ω and . On putting the values we get n = 2 and m
= 12.

17)

P= , Initially, I =

Power across PX = PY =

Finally, I = ,

power PX =
Hence PX increases, PY decreases.

18)

In parallel

⇒ tp =

= = 3.33 min = 3 min 20 sec

19)

In series V = V1 + V2 = IR1 + IR2

20) S =
For higher range (i) smaller shunt resistance(s).

21)

We see a balanced wheatstone bridge. Therefore,

;
for maximum power Req = r
⇒ 2R = 8 ⇒ R = 4Ω
 22) As
∴ VB > VA ⇒ current from B to A

23) Upper circuit is balanced WSB.

Hence effective circuit is

i= = 5A

24)

Here, P = 15 + 6 = 21 Ω,

As

On solving, X = 8 Ω

25)

26)
AC + CB = 350 cm

AC = = 150 cm

27)

C = 3.2 × 10–4 F

28)

Charge on capacitor = Charge of positve plate or negative plate net charge on capacitor = 0

29)

= slope

slope ∝
so CB > CA

30)

C=

C’ =

31)

∵ plates are circular

32)

C=
 34)
Capacity ↑ ⇒ Same charge can be stored at reduced potential.

35)

The capacitance of a parallel plate condenser is,

Therefore, capacitance does not depend on the metal of the plates.

36)

Area of I-t curve is always equal to charge flow :-

So qtotal =
= 45 μC

37)

The drift velocity vd is given by

or
so when pot. diff. is doubled, the drift velocity will be doubled.

0
38) When switch is open R =

when switch is closed RC =

then x = 9

39)
 40) P.d. across call V = E – Ir
When I = 0, V = E = 2 V
When V = 0, 0 = E – 5r ⇒ 0 = 2 – 5r

r = 0.4 Ω

41)

If one cell is wrongly connected then, net emf is down by :

εnet = (n–2)ε
So for n cells wrongly connected
εnet = (N – 2n)ε.

42) 150 = ⇒ R = 3Ω

43)
VG = VR
⇒ 4(Ι – ΙG) = 36ΙG

⇒ 10ΙG = Ι ⇒ =

44) , .....(1)

....(2)
(1)/(2)

S = 20Ω, R =

45)

The maximum electric field that a dielectric medium can withstand without break down (of its
insulating property) is called its dielectric strength.

46) V =

47)

Here,

48)
The capacity in air, C =
The capacity when dielectric slab of dielectric constant 5 is introduced between the plates

C' =

⇒ 100 d = 166 d – 166

t=

49)

Energy stored = CV2 =

50) Capacitor does not depends on charge & voltage

CHEMISTRY

51)

(1) [Cr(H2O)5Br]2+ + 2Br– + H2O

(2) [Cr(H2O)4Br2]Br.2H2O → [Cr(H2O)4Br2]+ + Br– + 2H2O

52)

53) It doesn't explain magnetic property, ligands field strength and colour of complexes.

54)

Conceptual Question

55)
[V(CO)6]¯ : More will be negative charge on metal more will be extent of synergic bonding due to
which C–O bond order decreases thus C–O bond length increases.

56)

Double salts such as carnallite, KCl.MgCl2.6H2O, Mohr’s salt, FeSO4.(NH4)2SO4.6H2O, potash alum,
KAl(SO4)2.12H2O, etc. dissociate into simple ions completely when dissolved in water. However,
complex ions such as [Fe(CN)6]4– of K4[Fe(CN)6] do not dissociate into Fe2+ and CN– ions.

57)

H2O or NH3, the ligand is said to be unidentate.

When a ligand can bind through two donor atoms as in H2NCH2CH2NH2 (ethane-1,2-diamine) or
C2O42– (oxalate), the ligand is said to be bidentate and when several donor atoms are present in a
single ligand as in N(CH2CH2NH2)3, the ligand is said to be polydentate. EDTA4– is a polydentate
ligand.

58)

Hardness of water is estimated by simple titration with Na2EDTA. The Ca2+ and Mg2+ ions form
stable complexes with EDTA. The selective estimation of these ions can be done due to difference in
the stability constants of calcium and magnesium complexes.

59)

60)

(I) Grignard reagent R–MgX

(III) Trimethyl boron B(CH3)3
(IV) Tetraethyl lead (TEL) (C2H5)4Pb

61)

62)
63) (1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

64)

65)
Chiral carbon, show optical isomerism

66) (1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

67) (A) = 1 chiral carbon

(B) = No chiral carbon due to POS

(C) = 3 chiral carbon

(D) = 2 chiral carbon

68) Nucleophile which have zero charge,

69)

Nucleophile which attack through two different site called ambident nucleophile.
NH2OH and CH3–NO2 in which both N and O can donate electron pair.

70)

71)
 Electrophiles are electron deficient species having tendency to accept electrons are called
electrophiles.

72)

73)
→ dissimilar
→ optically active
→ shows enantiomerism

74)

No P.O.S. , No C.O.S. (Asymmetric molecule)

75) See configuration of last chiral carbon

76)

3 have POS and have chiral carbon also.

77)

It have chiral carbon then can show enantiomerism (may be active)

78)

'A' and 'B' are diastereomers.

79)

All 4 groups attached to carbon is different so it is chiral compound.

 80)

Optically active

81)

82)

Chiral carbon :- Carbon having four different groups.

83)

(P) → Optically inactive.

(Q) → No POS, No COS, so optically active.
(R) → Mirror images are super imposable, so meso compound.

84)

85)
Not meso form, symmetry is absent.

86) Since, relative positioning of all the ligands around the central metal atom/ ion in
tetrahedral geometry is same.

87) Since in tetrahedral geometry [Ma4], [Ma2b2] and [Ma3b] type, arrangement of ligands
around the central metal atom/ion are exactly equivalent

88)

[Cr(CN)6]3– Hybridization : d2sp3High or low spin is not defined because Cr3+ is an example of d3
system of configuration.

89)

Coordination entity Colour of light absorbed Colour of coordination entity

[Co(NH3)5(H2O)]3+ Blue Green Red

90)

In black and white photography, the developed film is fixed by washing with hypo solution which
dissolves the undecomposed AgBr to form a complex ion, [Ag(S2O3)2]3–

91)
Both are identical
92) (1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

93)

94)

Optically active isomer of compound which are non superimposable images to each other.
A racemic mixture is on equimolar mixture of two enantiomers that is optically inactive.

95)

Enantiomers are optically active isomer of compound which are Non-superimposable image of
each other.
Condition for a compound to be an optically active is that there should be chiral carbon and
absence of symmetry.
 96)
Both configuration are optically active

97)

Acc. to CIP Rule : The priority of atoms

are : Br > Cl > CH3 > H

Clockwise rotation (R) configuration

98)

Butane-2,3-diol is symmetric and one is R and another is S so net rotation zero So it is meso.

99)

For a compound to be optically active, asymmetry must be present. So statement-I is false.

100)

So they are diastereomers.

BIOLOGY-I

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BIOLOGY-II

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