08-06-2025

5301CMD303361250003 MD

PHYSICS

1) A voltmeter having a resistance of 1800 Ω is used to measure the potential difference across a 200
Ω resistor which is connected to a power supply of emf 50 V and internal resistance of 20Ω. The
percentage decrease in the potential difference across the 200Ω resistor when the voltmeter is
connected across it is :-

(1) 1%
(2) 5%
(3) 10%
(4) 25%

2) Figure represents a part of the closed circuit. The potential difference between points A and B (VA

– VB) is

(1) + 9 V
(2) – 9 V
(3) + 3 V
(4) + 6 V

3) A cell of emf E having an internal resistance r is connected to an external resistance R. The

potential difference V across the resistance R varies with R as shown in Fig. by the curve :-

(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D

4) Determine the currents I for the network shown below (Fig.) :-

(1) 3A
(2) 1.5 A
(3) 4.5 A
(4) 1A

5) To get maximum current in a resistance of 3 ohm, one can use n rows of m cells (connected in
series) connected in parallel. If the total number of cells is 24 and the internal resistance of a cell is
0.5 ohm then :-

(1) m = 12, n = 2
(2) n = 3, m = 8
(3) m = 2, n = 12
(4) m = 6, n = 4

6) Find net resistance of following circuit at t = 0 and at t = ∞:-

(1)
3R, R

(2)
R, R

(3)
R, 3R

(4)
R, R

7) In the following circuit, the reading of the voltmeter V is :-

(1) 12 V
(2) 8 V
(3) 20 V
(4) 16 V

8) In the circuit shown below, the readings of the ammeter and voltmeter are :-
(1) 6 A, 60 V
(2) 0.6 A, 6 V
(3) 6 A, 6 V

(4)

9) For a cell, graph between the potential difference (V) across terminals of a cells and the current I
drawn from the cell is shown in figure the emf and internal resistance of a cell :-

(1) 5V, 0.5Ω

(2) 2V, 0.4Ω
(3) 0.5V, 0.5Ω
(4) 5V, 1Ω

10) Shown in the figure adjacent is meter bridge set up with null deflection in the galvanometer. The

value of the unknown resistor R is

(1) 13.75Ω
(2) 220 Ω
(3) 110 Ω
(4) 55 Ω

11) The resistance of an ideal ammeter is

(1) Infinite
(2) Very high
(3) Small
(4) Zero

12) The resistance of a moving coil galvanometer is 20Ω. It requires 0.01A current for full scale
deflection. Calculate the value of resistance required to convert it into a voltmeter of range 20 volt :-

(1) 1980 Ω
(2) 2000 Ω
(3) 1880 Ω
(4) 1500 Ω

13) A galvanometer can be converted into an ammeter by connecting :

(1) Low resistance in series

(2) High resistance in parallel
(3) Low resistance in parallel
(4) High resistance in series

14) In the circuit shown the readings of ammeter and voltmeter are 4A and 20 V respectively. The
meters are non ideal, then R is :-

(1) Equal to 5Ω
(2) Less than 5Ω
(3) Greater than 5Ω
(4) Between 4Ω and 5Ω

15) The resistance in the two arms of the meter bridge are 5 Ω and R Ω, respectively. When the
resistance R is shunted with an equal resistance, the new balance point is at 1.6 l1. The resistance R,

is :-

(1) 15 Ω
(2) 20 Ω
(3) 25 Ω
(4) 10 Ω
16) If the reading of ideal ammeter A in circuit shown here is zero, then the ratio of the emf's of

the two batteries must be

(1) 1

(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

17) Three identical capacitors are given a charge Q each and they are then allowed to discharge
through resistance R1, R2 and R3. Their charges as a function of time shown in the graph below. The

smallest of the three resistance is :-

(1) R3
(2) R2
(3) R1
(4) Cannot be predicted

18) A number of capacitors each of capacitance 1µF and each one of which get punctured if a
potential difference just exceeding 500 volt is applied, are provided. Then an arrangement suitable
for giving a capacitance of 2µF across which 3000 volt may be applied requires at least :-

(1) 18 component capacitors

(2) 36 component capacitors
(3) 72 component capacitors
(4) 144 component capacitors

19) The plates of a capacitor are charged to potential difference of V volts and then connected
across a resistor. The potential difference across the capacitor decreases exponentially with respect
to time. After one second, the potential difference between the plates is V/3; then after two seconds
from the start, the potential difference between the plates is :-

(1) 2V/3
(2) V/6
(3) V/9
(4) V/3

20) When the key K is pressed at time t = 0, then which of the following statements about the
current I in the resistor AB of the given circuit is true?

(1) I = 1 mA at all times

(2) I = 2 mA at all times
(3) I oscillates between 1 mA and 2mA
(4) At t = 0, I = 2mA and with time it goes to 1mA

21) Three capacitors are connected as shown in fig. Then the charge on capacitor C1 is :-

(1) 6μC
(2) 12μC
(3) 18μC
(4) 24μC

22) Find the equivalent capacitance of circuit and charge on 5µF capacitor :

(1) 4µF, 50µC

(2) 8µF, 25µC
(3) 4µF, 25µC
(4) 8µF, 50µC

23)

A network of six identical capacitors, each of value C, is made as shown in the figure. The equivalent
capacitance between the points A and B is:
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

24) A parallel plate condenser has a uniform electric field 100Vm–1 in the space between two plates.
If the distance between the plates is 1mm and area of each plate is 10 cm2, the energy stored in the
condenser is.

(1) 4.4 × 10–14 J

(2) 8.8 × 10–14 J
(3) 2.2 × 10–4 J
(4) 1.1 × 10–14 J

25) Four identical metal plates are located in air at equal distance d from one another as shown in
figure. The area of each plate is equal to A. Find the capacitance of the system between points A and

B-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

26) A parallel plate capacitor with air between the plates has a capacitance of 5 pF. What will be the
capacitance if distance between the plates is doubled and the space between them is filled with a
substance of dielectric constant 8?

(1) 10 pF
(2) 40 pF
(3) 20 pF
(4) 25 pF
27) A 2 μF capacitor is charged by a 10 V supply. It is then disconnected from the supply and is
connected to another uncharged capacitor of 2 μF capacitance. How much electrostatic energy is
lost in this process?

(1) 10 μJ
(2) 50 μJ
(3) 25 μJ
(4) 100 μJ

28) The dimensional formula of is :

(1) [ML2T–2]
(2) [ML–1T–2]
(3) [ML–2T–2]
(4) [ML–1T–1]

29) A parallel plate air capacitor has capacitance C. Now half of the space is filled with a dielectric
material having dielectric constant K = 3 as shown in the figure. The new capacitance is

(1) C/2
(2) 3C/2
(3) 2C/3
(4) 3C/4

30) Two conducting spheres A and B having radii rA = 12 cm, rB = 24 cm respectively are having
charges 20 μC each. If they are connected by a wire then the ratio of the charges on the spheres A
and B will be

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

31) A parallel plate capacitor having capacitance C is connected to a V volt supply. If each plate of
capacitor has area A. What is the electric field between the plates of capacitor considering vacuum
between the plates?
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

32) The equivalent capacitance between point A and B is

(1) C/4
(2) C/2
(3) C
(4) 2C

33) A parallel plate capacitor with air between the plates has a capacitance of 9 pF. The separation
between its plates is ‘d’. The space between the plates is now filled with two dielectrics. One of the
dielectrics has dielectric constant k1 = 3 and thickness d/3 while the other one has dielectric
constant k2 = 6 and thickness 2d/3. Capacitance of the capacitor is now :

(1) 45 pF
(2) 40.5 pF
(3) 20.25 pF
(4) 1.8 pF

34) In the circuit shown, the energy stored in capacitor is

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) None

35) In the circuit shown, a potential difference of 60V is applied across AB. The potential difference
between the points M and N is
(1) 10 V
(2) 15 V
(3) 20 V
(4) 30 V

36) Find the equivalent capacitance across A & B

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4) None

37) A parallel plate capacitor has an electric field of 105V/m between the plates. If the charge on the
capacitor plate is , then the force on each capacitor plate is

(1) 0.1 N
(2) 0.05 N
(3) 0.02 N
(4) 0.01 N

38) Find the equivalent capacitance of the circuit between point A and B.

(1) C
(2) 2C
(3) C/2
(4) 5C

39) In the given circuit, a charge of is given to the upper plate of the capacitor. Then in
the steady state, the charge on the upper plate of the capacitor is

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

40) A parallel plate capacitor of capacitance C is as shown. A thin metal plate A is placed between
the plates of the given capacitor in such a way that its edges touch the two plates as shown. The
capacity now be comes.

(1) 0
(2) 3C
(3) 4C
(4)

41) The density of charge at point P on the conductor is σ C/m2. The resultant electric field near P

(just outside) will be :-

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

42) Three equal charges Q are placed at the vertices of an equilateral triangle. What should be the
value of a charge so that when placed at the centroid, self energy of the system becomes zero.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

43) Point charge Q is placed at point P in the plane of circular face of sphere. The electric flux

passing through the spherical part shown in the figure is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) Can not be calculated.

44) If we have an irregularly shaped conductor as shown and a charge is given to it, choose the

correct statement.

(1) the electric field and electric potential at P is maximum among all points of conductor.
(2) the electric field at P is maximum and electric potential is same at all points of conductor.
(3) the electric field and electric potential at P is same at all points of conductor.
(4) the electric field and electric potential at P is minimum among all points of conductor.
45) The net electric field on two sides of a large charged nonconducting sheet kept in an external
electric field is shown in the figure. The charge density on the sheet in S.I. Units is given by (ε0 is the

Permittivity of free space in S.I. Units) :-

(1) 2ε0
(2) 4ε0
(3) 10ε0
(4) Zero

CHEMISTRY

1) obtained carbon dioxide will be :-

(1) CO2
(2)

(3) CO &
2

(4) Reaction will not occur

2) Arrange these compounds in decreasing order of basic strength

(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(1) (i) > (ii) > (iii) > (iv)

(2) (ii) > (iii) > (i) > (iv)
(3) (iv) > (i) > (iii) > (ii)
(4) (iv) > (i) > (ii) > (iii)

3)

Identify the strongest base from the given compounds :-

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4) All have same basic strength

4)

Which of the following not give CO2 gas with NaHCO3 ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

5)
Compare acidic strength :-

(1) a > c > d > b

(2) d > a > c > b
(3) d > c > a > b
(4) d > c > b > a

6) Incorrect stability order is :

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

7) Effect of –NO2 operating an –NH2 group in this molecule :-

(1) Only –I effect

(2) Only +M effect
(3) Only –M effect
(4) Both –M and –I effect

8) Which of the following compound will not undergo tautomerism?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

9) Which will not show tautomerism?

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

10) Which of following compound forms highly unstable enol ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

11) Which have most stable enol form :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

12) The bond dissociation energy at the C–H bond for the compound :-
(I) CH3H (II) CH3–CH2–H
(III) CH2=CH–CH2–H (IV) C6H5–H

(1) I > II > III > IV

(2) IV > III > II > I
(3) IV > I > II > III
(4) II > I > IV > III

13) Which of following orders is correct for heat of

hydrogenation of these compounds ?

(1) I > II > III

(2) III > II > I
(3) II > III > I
(4) III > I > II

14) Hyperconjugation essentially involves delocalisation of :-

(1) π e–
(2) Lone pair e–
(3) σ e–
(4) Unpaired e–

15) The decreasing order of stability of following cation is :-

(1) P > Q > R > S

(2) Q > S > R > P
(3) Q > P > S > R
(4) Q > P > R > S

16) Statement-I :-

Statement-II :-

(1) Statement I & II both are correct

(2) Statement I & II both are incorrect
(3) Statement I is correct but statement-II is incorrect.
(4) Statement-I is incorrect but II is correct

17) Assertion: Tertiary carbocation are generally formed more easily than primary carbocation.
Reason: Hyperconjugation due to more α-H as well as inductive effect of additional alkyl groups
stabilize tertiary carbocation.

(1) If both Assertion and Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) If both Assertion and Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) If Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) If both Assertion & Reason are false.
18) Assertion : CHCl3 is less acidic than CHF3.
Reason : –I effect of Cl is more than F.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

19) Assertion (A) : Formic acid is a weaker acid than acetic acid.
Reason (R) : pKa of formic acid is greater than acetic acid.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explaination of Assertion
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explaination of Assertion
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false

20) Assertion :- The pKa of acetic acid is lower than that of phenol.
Reason :- Phenoxide ion is more resonance stabilized then acetate ion.

(1) Both assertion & reason are true & the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) Both assertion & reason are true but reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but the reason is false.
(4) Both assertion & reason are false.

21) Product is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

22) , which of the following statements is correct for this reaction ?

(1) It is an electrophilic addition

(2) It follows Markovnikov rule
(3) First H⊕ attacks on vinyl bromide followed by and product is CH3–CBr2–CH3
(4) All of these
23) Propene when react with hydrochloric acid in presence of peroxide gives product via formation
of

(1) Carbon free radical

(2) Carbocation
(3) Carbanion
(4) Transition state

24) Product 'A' of following reaction is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

25) Carbocation rearrangement is not observed in :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

26) Product :-

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

27) Product

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

28) Product

Correct statement will be :-

(1) Product is optically inactive

(2) It is an example of anti addition
(3) Racemic mixture will not be formed
(4) All

29) Product (major)

Bromination take place at :-

(1) a
(2) b
(3) c
(4) d

30) CH3—C≡C—CH3 Product :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

31) Major product :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

32) The order of decreasing reactivity in electrophilic addition of the following compounds is :-
Ph–CH=CH–COOH
(I)
p–NO2–C6H4–CH=CH–COOH
(II)
p-MeO–C6H4–CH=CH–COOH
(III)
p-Cl–C6H4–CH=CH–COOH
(IV)

(1) II > I > IV > III

(2) III > IV > I > II
(3) III > I > IV > II
(4) II > IV > I > III

33) major product is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

34) +
Select the correct statement :

(1) A is major & B is minor product

(2) B is major product & A is minor
(3) Above Rxn is a example of FRAR
(4) Both form in equal amount

35) 'A'
Product 'A' :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

36) In the reaction :

The major product formed is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

37) CH3 – C C – CH3

?
Indentify end product in above reaction sequence.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) Both (2) and (3)

38) How many number of monochloroderivatives are obtained when following compound is

chlorinated ? [Excluding Stereo isomers]

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 5

39) Which of the following cannot undergo E2 reaction?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) none of these

40) Propene on reaction with Cl2 at 600ºC produces

(1) 1, 2-dichloropropene
(2) 1-Chloropropene
(3) 3-Chloropropene
(4) 2-Chloropropene

41)
Product is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

42) The number of different substitution products possible when bromine and ethane are allowed to
react, is :-

(1) 6
(2) 8
(3) 7
(4) 9

43) The reaction of propene with HOCl proceeds via the addition of :-

(1) H+ in the first step

(2) Cl+ in the first step
(3) in the first step
(4) Cl+ and in the single step

44) Which of the following is not suitable to obtain from Wurtz reaction :-

(1) Ethane
(2) n-Butane
(3) n-hexane
(4) Isobutane

45) Which of the following give white precipitate on reaction with (AgNO3 + NH4OH) solution ?

(1) CH2 = CH2

(2) CH3–CH3

(3)

(4) CH3 – C ≡ CH

BIOLOGY

1) Which of the following cross gives 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 phenotypic ratio ?

(1) AABb × AaBB

(2) AaBBCcDDEE × AaBBCcDDEE
(3) AaBB × AaBb
(4) aaBBCc × AAbbCc

2) Which of the following is incorrect for garden pea?

Character Genotype Phenotype

Homozygous
(1) Flower position Terminal
or heterozygous

Homozygous
(2) Seed colour Yellow
or heterozygous
 Homozygous
(3) Pod colour Green
or heterozygous

Homozygous
(4) Pod shape Inflated
or heterozygous
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

3) If Tt pea plant is crossed with Tt pea plant, then the offsprings will be -
A- 75% plants are Tall
B- 25% plants are Dwarf
C- 50% plants are homozygous
D- 50% plants are heterozygous
Select the correct option -

(1) Only A, C, D
(2) A, B, C, D
(3) Only B, C, D
(4) Only A, B, C

4) In a dihybrid cross in garden pea plants, 1024 plants were obtained in F2 generation. How many
plants will show dominant trait for both characters ?

(1) 218
(2) 324
(3) 123
(4) 576

5) Mendel selected :-

(1) 7 true breeding pea plant varieties

(2) 12 true breeding pea plant varieties
(3) 14 true breeding pea plant varieties
(4) 10 true breeding pea plant varieties

6) In dihybrid Mendelian cross how many types of genotype and phenotype will be obtained :-

(1) 4 and 9 respectively

(2) 16 and 4 respectively
(3) 9 and 4 respectively
(4) 4 and 16 respectively

7) Recessive traits are seen due to :

(1) Formation of non functional enzyme

(2) Enzyme is not produced
(3) (1) and (2) both
(4) Formation of functional enzyme

8) How many types of gametes are formed from AaBbCc.

(1) 4
(2) 8
(3) 16
(4) 12

9) Assertion (A) :- The unmodified allele, which represents the original phenotype is the dominant
allele and the modified allele is generally the recessive allele.
Reason (R) :- The unmodified allele is responsible for production of a non functional enzyme or no
enzyme at all.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true

10) Mendel's work remain unrecognised for long time due to :-

I. Communication was not easy.
II. Concept of factors which did not blend was not accepted
III. Use of mathematics to explain biological problem was unacceptable
IV. He could not provide any physical proof for the existance of factors.
Choose the right combinations

(1) Only I and II

(2) Only II and III
(3) Only III and IV
(4) I, II, III and IV

11) Read the following statements regarding Mendelian inheritance and choose the correct option:
A. Mendel's experiments had small sample size which gave greater credibility to the data.
B. A true breeding line shows a stable trait inheritance and expression for several generations.
C. In a dissimilar pair of factors, one member of the pair dominates over the other.
D. A recessive parental trait is expressed only in its heterozygous condition.
E. Two alleles of a gene are located at same locus on homologous chromosomes.

(1) B alone is correct

(2) B, C and E are correct
(3) A and D are correct
(4) A, C and E are correct

12) Read the given following statements :

(a) Characters are controlled by discrete units called factors
(b) Factors occur in pairs
(c) Law of dominance also explains the proportion of 3 : 1 obtained at the F2
(d) Law of segregation is based on the fact that the alleles do not show any blending.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) (b), (d) only

(2) (a), (b), (c), (d)
(3) (a), (c), (d) only
(4) (b) only

13) Assertion :- Punnett square is a graphical representation to calculate the probability of all
possible genotypes of offsprings in a genetic cross.
Reason :- It was developed by a British geneticist, Reginald C. Punnett.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

14) Assertion : Mendel obtained phenotypic ratio 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 in the dihybrid cross.

Reason : When two pairs of traits are combined in a hybrid, segregation of one pair of character is
independent of the other pair of character.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but reason is false
(3) Assertion is false but reason is true
(4) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

15) In a family, both husband and wife have blood group 'A'. The first child born to them was found
to have 'O' Blood group. What will be the probability of their next child will have blood group 'A' ?

(1) 0.5
(2) 0.75
(3) 0.25
(4) 1

16) Experimental verification of chromosomal theory of inheritance was given by

(1) Thomas Hunt Morgan

(2) Gregor Johann Mendel
(3) Hugo de Vries
(4) Langdon Down

17) Statement-I :- In case of incomplete dominance F1 hybrid does not resemble to any of the
parent.
Statement-II :- In incomplete dominance both alleles are equally dominant in heterozygous
condition.
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
(2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

18) When a pea plant with intermediate sized starch grain in seed is crossed with other plant having
small sized starch grain in seed. The total number of seeds obtained in progeny is 700. What is
correct of this progeny?

(1) 350 (large size), 350 (small size)

(2) 330 (small size), 630 (medium size)
(3) 350 (intermediate size), 350 (small size)
(4) 158 (large size), 158 (small size), 314 (intermediate size)

19) The plasma membrane of the red blood cells has....A....polymers that protrude from its surface
and the kind of sugar is controlled by the gene. The gene I has three alleles....B... .The alleles IA and
IB produce a slightly different form of the sugars, while allele i doesn't produce any....C..... Choose
the correct option for A, B and C :-

(1) A-protein, B–IAIBi, C-protein

(2) A-protein, B–IAIBi, C-sugar
(3) A-sugar, B–IAIBi, C-protein
(4) A-sugar, B–IAIBi, C-sugar

20) The figure below shows three steps (A,B,C) of meiosis. Select the option giving correct
identification.

(1) C- Meiosis I Anaphase showing segregation of homologus chromosomes.

(2) A -Meiosis I Prophase showing crossing over
(3) B- Meiosis II Anaphase showing separation of chromatids
(4) A- Meiosis II Zygotene stage showing pairing of chromosomes.

21) If the genotypes of husband and wife are IAIB and IAIO respectively. Among the blood types of
their children, how many different genotypes and phenotypes are possible?

(1) 2 genotypes, 3 phenotypes

(2) 3 genotypes, 4 phenotypes
(3) 4 genotypes, 4 phenotypes
(4) 4 genotypes, 3 phenotypes

22) Given below is the list of organelles.

Endoplasmic reticulum, golgi complex, mitochondria, peroxisomes, lysosomes, chloroplast, vacuoles.
How many of the above are part of endomembrane system?

(1) four
(2) five
(3) Three
(4) six

23) Which of the following statement is incorrect regarding mitochondria ?

(1) Mitochondria, unless specifically stained, are not easily visible under the microscope
(2) The number of mitochondria per cell is variable.
(3) The number of mitochondria depends on the physiological activity of cells.
It is sausage-shaped or cylindrical having a diameter of 2.2-10.0 μm (average 5 μm) and length
(4)
1.0-4.1 μm.

24) Which of the following is an incorrect statement?

(1) Microbodies are present both in plant and animal cells.

The nuclear membrane forms a barrier between the materials present inside the nucleus and
(2)
that of the cytoplasm.
Nuclear pores act as passages for proteins and RNA molecules in both directions between
(3)
nucleus and cytoplasm.
(4) Mature sieve tube elements possess a conspicuous nucleus and usual cytoplasmic organelles.

25) Consider the following statements (A to D) :-

(A) Prokaryotic flagella is structurally similar to eukaryotic flagella.
(B) Axonemal arrangement of microtubules in cilia/flagella is '9 + 2'.
(C) Centrioles play important role in cell division in both plants and animals
(D) Centrioles show 'Cart-wheel' organization of microtubules
Choose the correct statements :-

(1) A,B,C & D

(2) B & D only
(3) only C
(4) A & B only
26) Statement-I : The grana, in the plastid is the site for light reactions and the stroma of dark
reactions.
Statement-II : Leucoplasts store carbohydrates in potato called aleuroplast.

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect

(2) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct.
(4) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct.

27) Read the following statements

i) Matthias Schleiden, a British botanist, examined a large number of plants.
ii) Matthias Schleiden observed that all plants are composed of different kinds of cells which form
the tissues of the plant.
iii) Theodre Schwann, a zoologist, studied different types of animal cells.
iv) Schwann reported that cells had a thin outer layer which is today known as the 'plasma
membrane'.
v) Schleiden concluded, based on his studies on the plant tissues, that the presence of cell wall is a
unique character of the plant cells.
vi) Schwann proposed the hypothesis that the bodies of animals and plants are composed of cells
and products of cells.
Which of the above statement/s are incorrect wrt cell theory

(1) i & v
(2) Except i & v
(3) All
(4) ii, iii, iv & vi

28) (A) Primary wall is capable of growth

(B) Cell wall is living
(C) Primary wall diminishes as the cell matures
(D) Secondary wall is formed on the outer side of the existing cell wall
(E) Cytoplasm of neighbouring plant cells are connected by plasmodesmata Choose the correct
option for correct statements for cell wall :-

(1) A, C, D only
(2) A, B, C, D
(3) A, C, E only
(4) A, C, D, E

29) Which of the following is correct :

(a) The cytoplasm is the main arena of cellular activities in both plant and animal cells.
(b) Ribosome are membrane bound organelles found in all cells.
(c) Inside the both prokaryotic & eukaryotic cells dense membrane bound structures are present
(d) Animal cells contain non membrane bound organelle centrosome which help in cell division.

(1) a & b
(2) b & c
(3) a & d
(4) a & c

30) Statement-I: ER is the important site of formation of glycoprotein and glycolipids.

Statement-II: Golgi body modifies protein synthesized by ribosomes on ER.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below:

(1) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.

(2) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.
(3) Both Statement-I and II are correct.
(4) Both Statement I and II are incorrect.

31) Find out the odd one (with reference to number of membrane) :-

(1) Mitochondria
(2) Nucleus
(3) Chloroplast
(4) E.R.

32) Assertion (A) : The isolated lysosomal vesicles have been found to be very rich in almost all
type of hydrolytic enzymes.
Reason (R) : Lysosomes are membrane bound vesicular structures.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason correct and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are correct, but Reason is not correct explanation of Assertion
(3) Assertion is correct, but Reason is incorrect
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are incorrect

33) Space between two parallel membrane of nucleus is :-

(1) 10 – 50 nm
(2) 2-4 nm
(3) 100 nm
(4) 1 nm

34) Which of the following is (true) for the marked ones (A, B, C, D) is diagram?

(1) A-Cell Envelope

(2) B-Peripheral microtubule
(3) C-central bride
(4) D-Central Sheath

35)
What is X :-

(1) Centrosome
(2) Centriole
(3) Kinetochore
(4) Centromere

36) Phenotypic and genotypic ratio in F2 generation of pea plant when considered starch grain size
as a character :-

(1) phenotypic ratio = 3 : 1 genotypic ratio = 1 : 2 : 1

(2) phenotypic ratio = 1 : 2 : 1 genotypic ratio = 1 : 2 : 1
(3) phenotypic ratio = 1 : 2 : 1 genotypic ratio = 3 : 1
(4) All of these

37) The cross between of F1 and homozygous recessive parent is called

(1) Out cross

(2) Test cross
(3) Incomplete Dominance
(4) Co-dominance

38) The phenotypic ratio obtained in monohybrid test cross is :–

(1) 1 : 1
(2) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1
(3) 1 : 1 : 1 : 1
(4) 4 : 0

39) Which of the following conclusions of Mendel can not be explained by monohybrid cross ?

(1) Dominance
(2) Unit factor and segregation
(3) Independent assortment
(4) All the above

40) In a dihybrid cross between AABB and aabb the ratio of AABB, AABb, aaBb, aabb in F2
generation is :-

(1) 9:3:3:1
(2) 1:1:1:1
(3) 1:2:2:1
(4) 1:1:2:2

41) Which of the following statements regarding chloroplast is/are incorrect?

(a) A thylakoid is made up of many grana.
(b) Outer chloroplast membrane is more permeable.
(c) Stroma has enzymes for the synthesis of proteins.
(d) Chloroplast pigments are present in stroma.
Options :-

(1) (a) and (d)

(2) (a), (b) and (c)
(3) (b) and (d)
(4) (d) only

42) ________ united the knowledge of chromosomal segregation with Mendelian principles.

(1) Morgan
(2) Sturtevant
(3) Sutton
(4) Boveri

43) Recognise the figure and find out the correct matching :-

A-Male drosophila
(1)
B-Female drosophila
A-Female drosophila
(2)
B-Male drosophila
(3) A & B both are male drosophila
(4) A & B both are female drosophila

44) The law of dominance is used to explain the expression of only one of the parental characters in
a monohybrid cross in ..... and the expression of both in ..... .
(1) F1 and F2
(2) F2 and F3
(3) F1 and F3
(4) F2 and F1

45) When a violet flower of unknown genotype is crossed with white flower, the progenies are violet
and white in equal proportion. Then read the following statements.
(i) This is called test cross
(ii) Unknown flower is homozygous
(iii) Unknown flower is heterozygous
(iv) This test is used to determine the phenotype of the plant at F2.
(v) In test cross, violet or white flower is crossed with the recessive parent instead of self–crossing.
Select the incorrect statement :

(1) iii, iv, v

(2) ii, iv
(3) i, ii, v
(4) ii, iv, v

46) Which of the following sexually transmitted disease (STD) is not caused by a bacteria ?

(1) Gonorrhoea
(2) Syphilis
(3) Chlamydiasis
(4) Trichomoniasis

47) Consider the statement given below regarding contraception and answering as directed there
after :-
(A) Medical termination of pregnency MTP during first trimester is generally safe
(B) Generally chances of conception are nil until mother breast feeds the infant up to two year.
(C) Intrauterine devices like copper T are effective contraceptive
(D) Chances of fertilisation are very high during first 7 days of menstruation cycle.
Which two of above statements are correct ?

(1) A,C
(2) A,B
(3) B,C
(4) C,D

48) One could be free of venereal diseases by following the simple principles given below :-

(1) Avoid sex with unknown partner/multiple partners

(2) Always use condoms during coitus
(3) In case of doubt, one should go to a qualified doctor
(4) All of above

49) Which of the following method of contraception is effective only upto a maximum period of six
months following parturition ?

(1) Coitus interruptus

(2) Lactational Amenorrhoea
(3) Cu T
(4) Condoms

50) Cu ions released from copper–releasing intra uterine devices (IUDs) helps in :-

(1) Prevent ovulation

(2) Block the uterus
(3) Increase phagocytosis of ovum
(4) Suppress sperm motility

51) Which of the following are natural contraceptive methods?

(A) Periodic abstinence
(B) Coitus interruptus
(C) Lactational amenorrhoea
(D) M.T.P.

(1) A, B and D
(2) A, C, D
(3) A, B, C
(4) B, D

52) Identify the contraceptive device shown below as well as the related right place of its

implantation into a woman and select the correct option together :

Contraceptive Site of
device implant

Fallopian
(1) LNG – 20
tube

(2) Lippes loop Uterine wall

(3) Copper–T Uterine cavity

(4) Multiload 375 Oviduct

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

53) In a female undergoing tubectomy, which one of the following event will not occur?

(1) Menstruation cycle

(2) Ovulation
(3) Fusion of sperm and ovum
(4) Formation of graafian follicle

54) In case of a couple where the male is having a very low sperm count, which technique will be
suitable for fertilisation ?

(1) GIFT
(2) ZIFT
(3) IUT
(4) A.I.

55) Identify the true statements given below

(i) There are many side effect of tubectomy and vasectomy
(ii) Purpose of tubectomy is to prevent egg formation
(iii) The most important component of oral contraceptive pills is progesterone
(iv) Contraceptive pills help in birth control by preventing ovulation
(v) Genital wart is a sexually transmitted disease caused by herpes virus
(vi) In India there is rapid decline in MMR and IMR

(1) i, ii, iii

(2) i, ii and v
(3) iii, iv and vi
(4) iv, v and vi

56) Read the following 4 statements and mark the option that has both correct statements. (A) MTP
was legalized in 1971
(B) MTP’s are relatively safe upto 12 weeks of pregnancy
(C) Surgical method of contraception prevents gamete formation
(D) In ability to produce children even after one month of unprotected sex is called infertility

(1) A and B
(2) B and C
(3) C and D
(4) A and C

57) ‘Saheli’ is

(1) A daily oral contraceptive pill

(2) A weekly oral contraceptive pill, not developed by CDRI
(3) A norplant
(4) The world’s first non-steroidal contraceptive pill

58) What is true for an ideal contraceptive

(I) It should be user friendly
(II) It should be easily available
(III) It should be effective and reversible with least side effect
(IV) It should interfere with the sexual act of the user

(1) II, IV
(2) I, II, IV
(3) I, II, III
(4) All

59) Match the ARTs with their description below

(I) Collected gametes are fused to form the zygote in laboratory
(II) Zygote or early embryo with upto 8 blastomeres is shifted into the oviduct
(III) Embryo with more than 8 blastomeres is tranferred into the uterus
(IV) Transfer of ovum form a donor to the oviduct of the reccipient
(V) Sperm is injected into the ovum in vitro
(A) GIFT
(B) ZIFT
(C) AI
(D) ICSI
(E) IUT
(F) IVF

(1) I - C, II - B, III - F, IV - E, V - A
(2) I - F, II - B, III - A, IV - E, V - A
(3) I - F, II - B, III - E, IV - A, V - D
(4) I - A, II - B, III - C, IV - D, V - E

60) What is amniocentesis

(i) A pre-natal foetal determination test
(ii) A post-natal foetal determination test
(iii) It is based on chromosomal pattern of chorionic fluid
(iv) It is based on chromosomal pattern of amniotic fluid

(1) ii, iii

(2) i, ii
(3) i, iv
(4) All of these

61) The side effects of use of anabolic steroids in female does not include :-

(1) Masculinisation
(2) Enlargement of clitoris
(3) Regular and normal menstrual cycle
(4) Deepening of voice

62)

Contraceptive pill prevents ovulation by :

(1) Blocking fallopian tube

(2) Inhibiting the release of FSH, LH
(3) Stimulating the release of FSH, LH
(4) Inhibiting the release of progesterone and oestrogen

63) Diaphragms, Cervical cap and vaults prevent conception by :

(1) Increasing phagocytosis of sperm within uterus

(2) Blocking entry of sperm through cervix
(3) Supressing the release of FSH & LH
(4) Inhibiting ovulation

64) According to 2011 census report the population growth rate was -

(1) Less than 2%

(2) more than 2%
(3) 7.2%
(4) 5%

65) Which option is not incorrectly matched.

(a) Vaults : Disposable barrier method.
(b) Coitus interrupts : Removal of penis before ejaculation from vagina.
(c) Progestasert : Suppress sperm motility and fertilising capacity
(d) condom : Most widely accepted method in India
(e) GIFT : In vivo fertilisation.

(1) only d, e
(2) only b & e
(3) a, b, d, e
(4) b, c, d, e

66) Multiload-375 is a :-

(1) Hormone releasing IUD

(2) Copper releasing IUD
(3) Non-medicated IUD
(4) Emergency contraceptive pill

67) Assertion: STDs are a major threat to a healthy society.

Reason: Complication of STDs are PID, abortions, still births, infertility, ectopic pregnancies and
even cancer of the reproductive tract.
 If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of the
(1)
assertion.
If both the assertion and reason are true but the reason is not a correct explanation of the
(2)
assertion.
(3) If the assertion is true but the reason is false.
(4) If both the assertion and reason are false.

68) Assertion: Inability to conceive or produce children even after years of unprotected sexual
cohabitation is called infertility.
Reason: ART is commonly used for such couples.

If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of the
(1)
assertion.
If both the assertion and reason are true but the reason is not a correct explanation of the
(2)
assertion.AA
(3) If the assertion is true but the reason is false.
(4) If both the assertion and reason are false.

69) Person vulnerable to sexually transmitted disease belong to age group :-

(1) 12–15 years

(2) 15–24 years
(3) 25–30 years
(4) 40–50 years

70) Statement I : IUDs devices are inserted by doctors or expert nurses in the vagina through
uterus.
Statement II : IUDs increase phagocytosis of sperms within the uterus and the Cu ions released
increase sperm motility and the fertilising capacity of sperms.

(1) Statement I is correct, Statement II is incorrect

(2) Statement I is incorrect, Statement II is correct
(3) Both Statements are correct
(4) Both Statements are incorrect

71) Read following Column-I & Column-II and identify their correct match :-

Column-I Column-II

A. Non mediated IUD i. Non Hormonal pills

B. Saheli ii. Lippes loops

C. Hormonal IUD iii. LNG-20

D. MALA-N iv. Cu-T

v. Hormonal oral pills

vi. Hormonal Injection

(1) (A–i), (B–iii), (C–iv), (D–vi)
(2) (A–iii), (B–iv), (C–v), (D–i)
(3) (A–ii), (B–i), (C–iii), (D–v)
(4) (A–v), (B–ii), (C–iv), (D–ii)

72) Donor's semen is introduced into uterus through

(1) Intrauterine transfer (IUT)

(2) Intrauterine insemination (IUI)
(3) Gamete intra fallopian transfer (GIFT)
(4) Intracytoplasmic sperm injection (ICSI)

73) Purpose of tubectomy is to :-

(1) Prevent the development of embryo

(2) Prevent the implantation
(3) Prevent the completion of IInd meiotic division.
(4) Prevent the egg formation.

74) Assertion (A) : In India, there is statutory ban on pre-natal sex determination.
Reason (R) : It is legally aimed to increase female foeticide to maintain a balance in sex ratio of
population.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of A
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false

75) Given below are two statements :

Statement I :- Intra Cytoplasmic Sperm Injection (ICSI) is another specialised procedure of in-vivo
fertilisation.
Statement II :- Infertility cases due to inability of the male partner to inseminate female can be
corrected by artificial insemination (AI).
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) Statement I is correct but statement II is false

(2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.

76) Statement-I : Government of India ligalised MTP in 1971 with some strict conditions to avoid
misuse.
Statement-II : MTP is considered safe up to Eighteen weeks of pregnancy.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

77) Statement-I : Surgical method are generally advised for the male/female parther as a terminal
method to prevent any more pregnancies.
Statement-II : Surgical method blocks gamete transport and prevent conception.

(1) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect

(2) Both statement-I & II are correct
(3) Both statement-I & II are incorrect
(4) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct

78) Assertion A :- Saheli is a antioestrogenic pill, used as a contraceptive.

Reason R :- Saheli pill is non steroidal pill.

(1) Both A and R correct and R is the correct explanation of A

(2) Both A and R are correct, but R is not correct explanation of A
(3) A is correct, but R is incorrect
(4) Both A and R are incorrect

79) Assertion : Additional benefit of condoms is to protect the user from contracting STDs and
AIDS.
Reason : Condoms are used to cover the penis in the male or vagina and cervix in the female just
before coitus.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

80) Assertion : Our population reached around 1 billion by 2000 and crossed 1.2 billion in May
2011.
Reason : There has been a rapid decline in death rate, MMR and IMR as well as increase in number
of people in reproducible age.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

81) Read the following statements :-

(A) It is a chronic disorder
(B) Major cause of it is cigarette smoking
(C) It is an allergy
(D) Alveolar walls are damaged
(E) Respiratory surface is decreased
(F) It is due to inflammation of bronchi and bronchioles.
How many of the above statements are correct about Emphysema disorder ?

(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) One

82) ........(A)........ are used by most of the aqutic ........(B)........ and ........(C)........ whereas
vascularised bags called lungs are used by the ........(D)........ forms for the exchange of gases.

(1) A – Gills, B – Coelentrates

(2) B – Arthropods, C – Molluscs
(3) C – Molluscs, D – Fishes
(4) D – Fishes, A – Gills

83)

Blood analysis of a patient reveals an unusually high quantity of carboxyhaemoglobin content. the
patient most likely has been inhaling polluted air containing unusually high content of ?

(1) Carbon disulphide

(2) Chloroform
(3) Carbon dioxide
(4) Carbon monoxide

84)

Below a diagram of contraceptive method is given.

Choose the incorrect one for this method :-

(1) A barrier method which prevents physical meeting of sperm and ovum
(2) It can prevent conception
(3) It provides benefit of protecting the user from contracting STDs and AIDS.
This method is generally advised for the male/female partner as a terminal method to prevent
(4)
any more pregnancies.

85) When there is no air in initial bronchioles, they do not collapse, it is due to :-

(1) Presence of lecithin

(2) Presence of incomplete cartilagenous rings
(3) Presence of complete cartilagenous rings
(4) Presence of mucous

86) The chloride content of RBC will be higher than that of plasma in :-
(1) Systemic arteries and pulmonary veins
(2) Systemic veins and pulmonary arteries
(3) Systemic arteries and pulmonary arteries
(4) Systemic veins and pulmonary veins

87)

How much CO2 is delivered to the alveoli by every 200 ml of deoxygenated blood ?

(1) 4 ml
(2) 8 ml
(3) 12 ml
(4) 3 ml

88) The breathing rate of a normal healthy adult man is:-

(1) 10-20 times/min

(2) 6-12 times/min
(3) 20-22 times/min
(4) 12-16 times/min

89) Neural signal from which centre can reduce the duration of inspiration ?

(1) Chemosensitive area

(2) Respiratory rhythm centre
(3) Pneumotaxic centre
(4) Aortic body

90) Which can activate the chemosensitive area situated adjacent to the rhythm center :-

+
(1) High CO2, less H
+
(2) High CO2, high H
+
(3) Less CO2, Less H
+
(4) Less CO2, Less H
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 3 1 2 4 1 3 1 4 4 2 4 1 3 3 1 2 3 3 3 4
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 1 1 4 1 4 3 2 2 2 1 2 4 2 3 4 2 2 1 3 4
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 3 4 2 2 2

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 2 3 1 2 3 2 1 4 4 2 1 3 3 3 4 1 1 4 4 3
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 1 4 2 3 2 3 1 4 1 2 4 3 1 1 2 3 1 2 3 3
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 4 4 2 4 4

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 2 1 2 4 3 3 3 2 3 4 2 2 2 1 2 1 3 3 4 3
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 4 1 4 4 2 2 1 3 3 2 4 2 1 2 3 2 2 1 3 3
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 1 3 1 1 4 4 1 4 2 4 3 3 3 4 3 1 4 3 3 3
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 3 2 2 1 2 2 1 2 2 4 3 2 3 3 2 2 2 2 1 1
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 3 2 4 4 2 2 2 4 3 2
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

Current I =
Potential difference across 200 resistor is

V=
When the voltmeter is connected across the 200 Ω resistor, the effective resistance becomes

The current in the circuit becomes

I' =
The potential difference becomes

V' =
Decrease in p.d. = V – V'

= – 45 =
∴ Percentage decrease
10%

2) The given part of a closed circuit can be redrawn as follows. It should be remember that
product of current and resistance can be treated as an imaginary cell having emf = iR.

⇒
⇒ Hence VA – VB = +9 V

3)

current I = ...... (1)

Now potential difference across R is V
∴ V = IR
 = =

V=

Now if R = 0, V = 0

Now if R is incresing then is decresing

hence so V is increasing
hence option-3 will done

4)

5)

Ans. m = 12, n = 2

6)

Ans. R, 3R

7) 1. Question Explanation -
The circuit consists of resistors and a voltmeter measuring the potential difference across the
central resistor combination. Given a current of 2 A, we determine the voltmeter reading.

2. Concept:
Potential difference between two terminal.

3. Formula Used
Ohm's Law: V = IR
4. Concept Diagram (Visual - Aid) -

5. Calculation -
VA - VY = (16)(1) ----(1)

VB - VY = (4)(1) ----(2)

then eq (1) - eq (2)

VA – VB = 16 – 4 = 12V

Answer : (1)

9)

Ans. 5V, 1Ω

10)

11)

Ans. Zero

12) V = i (R + S)
20 = (0.01) (20 + S)
S = 1980 Ω

13)

Ans. Low resistance in parallel

14)

Measured value of R = = 5Ω
But current in R will actually be less than I, so R should be greater than 5Ω.

15)
Initial condition, ....(i)

Final condition, ....(ii)

(i)/(ii)
160 – 1.6 l1 = 200 – 3.2 l1

1.6 l1 = 40

From (i)

16)
No, current through r

I=

17) Slope

0
At t =0, Slope = i =
Q Slope 1 > Slope2 > Slope3
∴ R1 < R2 < R3

18)

n = 12
Total = 12 × 6 = 72

19) = Ve–1/RC or e–1/RC =

V' = Ve–2/RC = V(e–1/RC)2

=V =
20) Initially the current will pass through resistance between AB and capacitor C. The current
will not pass through the resistance which is in parallel to C. The only resistance in the circuit
= RAB = 1000Ω

∴ Current = = 2mA
The charging of capacitor takes place. Soon after the capacitor is fully charged, no current will
pass through C. The current will now flow through 1000Ω across C. Total resistance of the
circuit will be, 1000 + 1000 = 2000Ω.

Hence, new current = = 1mA

21)
2(6 – x) + 4 (0 – x) + 2 (6 – x) = 0
12 – 2x – 4x + 12 – 2x = 0
24 = 8x ∴ x = 3V
∴ qC1 = 2 (6 – 3) = 6 μC

22)

Ceq= 4µF

q5µF = = 50µC

23)

Ans.

24) Energy stored

= 4.4 × 10–14 J

25)

26) NCERT Reference: Class XII, Part-I, Page No. 86

27) NCERT Reference: Class XII, Part-I, Page No. 87

28) NCERT Reference: Class XII, Part-I, Page No. 85

29) NCERT Reference: Class XII, Part-I, Page No. 76 and 78

30) NCERT Reference: Class XII, Part-I, Page No. 88

31) NCERT Reference: Class XII, Part-I, Page No. 75

32)

Ans. 2C

33) C´ = = =

C´ = 40.5 PF

34) Potential difference across

35) ‘C’ is in series with two 2C capacitors. Equivalent of two 2C capacitors is ‘C’.

36) are in parallel. Both the are in parallel.

Replacing the capacitors in parallel with their equivalent capacitor forms a wheatstone bridge

37) Edue to each plate =

38) Wheatstone bridge

39) The parallel combination of is in series with .

40) Pot. difference across plate = 0

41)

Resultant field near surface of conductor is .

42)

Self energy =

43) Only half of field lines would pass.

44)

Conceptual
 45) E0 – E = 8
E0 + E = 12
∴ 2E = 4

σ = 4ε0

CHEMISTRY

46)

47)

Basic strength

48)

Lone pair on sp3 N atom.

49)

Only those reaction are possible in which strong acid displaces weaker acid from their salt.
But vice versa is not true. This is called as feasibility of reaction.

50)

Carboxylic acid is more acidic then phenol and acidic strength

Ans. d > c > a > b

51)

Stability of C⊕ ∝
Stability of Co ∝ +M / Resonance / +H.C. / +I
Stability of C– ∝ –M / Resonance / –I

52) Solution:- We have to find the effect of NO2 group in given molecule. Concept:-

There is SIR effect between –NO2 and –CH3 group. Due to this
effect, –NO2 group becomes out of plane and operate only "–I" effect.
Answer:- (1)

53) do not show tautomerism due to absence of α-H.

54)

Question Explanation :
The question asks which will not show tautomerism.

Concept :
Conditions for tautomerism
1. Electron withdrawing group (-M) must be present.
2. At least one α H must be present (H attached to α sp3 carbon)
3. Double bond & OH group present at same atom (C or N).

Explanation :

Final Answer : (4)

55) Solution:-

(1) NON-AROMATIC
(2) ANTI AROMATIC

(3) AROMATIC

(4) AROMATIC
∴ Highly unstable enol is (2)

56)

Question Explanation :
The question asks which have most stable enol form.

Concept :
Comparison of % keto v/s % enol –
In general, % keto > % enol, due to BDE
% enol > % keto when enol has –
(a) Aromaticity (b) Intramolecular H–bonding (c) Extended conjugation etc.

Explanation :

3
 4

Final Answer : (1)

57) More dissociation energy is required to break C–H bond in order to get less stable carbon
free radical and vice-versa.

58) Heat of hydrogenation

59)

Fact

60) Stability of carbocation a ERG α

61) Question Explanation: The question asks

Statement-I :-

Statement-II :-

Concept: Comparison of physical properties of cis & Trans form of geometrical isomers.
specially Boiling point & Dipole moment of But-2-one.

Melting point Stability ∝ Melting point

Explanation:
Statement-I and Statement-II are correct.
Final Answer: (1)

62)

due to more H and +I effect

63)

In 'd' orbital resonance is present.

64) FACT

65)

Acidic strength ∝ stability of conjugate base.

A.

B. : equal resonance

C. (phenoxide ion)

D.
E. Unequal resonance in phenoxide ion.
F. So, Acetic acid is more acidic than phenol.
G. Assertion is true & reason is false.
66)

67)
It is an example of EAR in accordance with markownikoff's rule in which H⊕ first attack's on

vinyl bromide followed by Br– & desired product is formed.

68) It is EAR, HCl not shows peroxide effect.

69) C = B A

70)

71)

72) If = and ≡ bonds are in conjugation then reaction take place at tripple bond first.

73)

74) 3º-carbon will give major product

 75)

76) 3°H is most reactive

77)

Reactivity in EAR ∝ stability of carbocation

⇒ P-MeOC6H4 CH2COOH
> Ph CH2COOH
> P–ClC6H4 CH2COOH

> P–NO2C6H4 CH2COOH of carbocation

78) Hoffmann's rule

79) Most stable intermediate form major Product → major

80)

→ →

81) NCERT pg #381 Markownikoff's Rule

82)
83)

84) β-Hydrogen is absent.

85) CH3–CH=CH2

86) They are not resonating structure.

87)

88)

89) Isobutane → → unsymmetrical alkane not suitable to obtain from Wurtz

reaction.

90) Terminal Alkyne (CH–C ≡ C–H) give white ppt with Tollen reagent (AgNO3 + NH4OH).
BIOLOGY

91) The correct answer is 2: AaBBCcDDEE x AaBBCcDDEE.

Explanation:
A 9:3:3:1 phenotypic ratio typically results from a dihybrid cross where two traits are
independently inherited. However, it can also arise from more complex crosses, such as those
involving multiple genes that assort independently.
In this case:

A. AaBBCCDDEE × AaBBCcDDEE involves four genes (A, B, C, D, E), where each gene has two
alleles (dominant and recessive), and the traits assort independently according to Mendel's
laws of inheritance.
B. When two organisms heterozygous for multiple traits are crossed, the offspring's genotypes
and phenotypes follow the typical 9:3:3:1 ratio when the genes assort independently.
C. Option 1 (AABb x AaBB): This is a monohybrid cross involving two traits, but it will not give
a 9:3:3:1 ratio. It will give a different ratio for the two traits.
D. Option 3 (AaBB x AaBb): This is a dihybrid cross, but it involves only two genes (A and B),
and the resulting phenotypic ratio won't be 9:3:3:1. It will result in a different ratio due to the
inheritance pattern of these two traits.
E. Option 4 (aaBBCc x AAbbCc): This is a cross involving multiple traits, but it does not
produce a 9:3:3:1 ratio. It results in a different pattern of inheritance.

Thus, Option 2 (AaBBCcDDEE x AaBBCcDDEE) is the correct answer, as it will produce the
9:3:3:1 ratio due to the independent assortment of genes at multiple loci.
Ans. AaBBCcDDEE × AaBBCcDDEE

92)

NCERT XII pg no.72

93)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 57

94)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 63

95)

The correct answer is 3: 14 true breeding pea plant varieties

Explanation: Mendel selected 14 true breeding pea plant varieties for his experiments.
These varieties had distinct and easily observable traits, which helped him study inheritance
patterns.
Ans. 14 true breeding pea plant varieties

96) NCERT Pg. # 79

97) NCERT-XII Pg. # 60, 61

98)

Explanation: For the genotype AaBbCc, the number of possible gametes formed is
determined by the formula 2n, where n is the number of heterozygous pairs. Here, A,B and C
are all heterozygous (Aa, Bb, Cc), so n = 3. Therefore, the number of gametes formed is 23 = 8.

The correct answer is 2: 8

99)

NCERT XII, Pg. # 60,61

100) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 81

101)

NCERT Pg. # 54, 56

102) NCERT Pg. No. # 59

103)

NCERT pg no.73

104) NCERT-XII Pg. # 80

Mendel considered seed shape and seed colour in dihybrid cross which were present on non
homologous chromosomes that showed independent assortment leading to new phenatype.

105) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 77, Table-5.2

106) Ncert Pg No. 83

107) NCERT Pg. # 60

108) NCERT XII Pg.# 78

109) NCERT (XIIth) Pg. # 77

110) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 81

111) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 77

112) XI NCERT Page. No :- 133

113) XI NCERT Page. No :- 134

114) NCERT Page no.138,139,140

115)

NCERT XI, Pg # 137, 138

116) NCERT, Pg. # 98

117) NCERT Page 87 and 88.

118) NCERT Pg. # 132

119) NCERT Pg. No. # 126

120) NCERT-XI, Page # 96

Statement-I is incorrect because Golgi body is the important site of formation of glycoprotein
and glycolipids.

121)

Ncert Page 133.

122)

Module

123)

NCERT XI, Pg.# 138

124) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 137

125) XI NCERT Pg. # 101

126) NCERT-XIIth Pg. # 78

 127) NCERT Page - 74

128) NCERT XII, Pg. # 79

129) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 80

130) Soln/Explanation:
Here's the breakdown:

A. Parent 1 (AABB) is homozygous dominant for both traits.

B. Parent 2 (aabb) is homozygous recessive for both traits.

F1 Generation:
All F1 offspring will be AaBb (heterozygous for both traits).
F2 Generation:
When F1 individuals (AaBb x AaBb) are crossed, the possible genotypes and their ratios in the F2
generation are as follows:

A. AABB: 1/16
B. AABb: 2/16
C. aaBb: 2/16
D. aabb: 1/16

Thus, the ratio of AABB AABb: aaBb: aabb in the F2 generation is:
1:2:2:1.

The correct answer is option 3.

131)

Ans. (a) and (d)

132)

Ans. Sutton

133) NCERT-XII, Pg. No. 83, fig. 5.10

134) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 73

135)

Ans. ii, iv, v

136)

Ans. Trichomoniasis
 137)

→ Lactational amenorrhea is valid up to 6 months if exclusively intense breast feeding is done.

→ Fertile period is 10 to 17 Days of menstrual cycle in which chances of fertilisation are very
high.

138) NCERT (E) Pg. 63 (H) 71

139)

Solution:
Lactational Amenorrhoea:
This method is based on the natural infertility that occurs during exclusive breastfeeding. It is
effective only for up to six months following childbirth, as long as the mother is exclusively
breastfeeding and has not resumed menstruation. After six months or when breastfeeding
frequency decreases, the effectiveness significantly decreases.

Final Answer: (2) Lactational Amenorrhoea

140) Question Asking About:

The question asks you to identify the mechanism by which copper ions released from copper-
releasing IUDs contribute to contraception.

Solution AND CORRECT ANSWER:

4. Suppress sperm motility:

This is the primary mechanism. Copper ions are toxic to sperm and suppress their motility, making it
difficult for them to reach and fertilize the egg.

Therefore, the correct answer is 4. Suppress sperm motility.

141)

Final Answer: (3) A, B, C

Periodic abstinence, coitus interruptus, and lactational amenorrhoea are all natural
contraceptive methods, while MTP is not.

142)

Question Asking About:

The question presents an image of a contraceptive device and asks you to:

A. Identify the device: Determine the type of contraceptive shown in the image.
B. Identify the implantation site: Determine the correct location within the female
reproductive system where this device is implanted.

Solution and Correct Answer:

A. Analysis of the image: While the image isn't very clear, the shape and the options provided
 suggest it's most likely a Copper-T IUD (Intrauterine Device).

Correct Implantation Site: Copper-T IUDs are inserted into the uterine cavity.

Correct Answer:Option (3)

143)

Explanation:

A. (1) Menstruation cycle: Menstruation will continue after tubectomy because the ovaries still
function and release eggs, but they cannot travel to the uterus.
B. (2) Ovulation: Ovulation still occurs after tubectomy, as the ovaries continue to release eggs.
C. (4) Formation of Graafian follicle: The formation of Graafian follicles still occurs in the ovaries
as part of the regular menstrual cycle.

However, (3) Fusion of sperm and ovum will not occur because the fallopian tubes are blocked
or cut during tubectomy, preventing the sperm from reaching the egg.

So, the correct answer is (3) . Fusion of sperm and ovum.

144)

Ans. A.I.

145)

Ans. iii, iv and vi

146) Ans. A and B

147)

Ans. The world’s first non-steroidal contraceptive pill

148)

NCERT-XII, Page # 43

149)

Ans. I - F, II - B, III - E, IV - A, V - D

150)

Ans. i, iv
151) Ans. Regular and normal menstrual cycle
NCERT XII Pg. # 162

152)

Ans. Inhibiting the release of FSH, LH

NCERT Pg No. 61

153)

Ans. Blocking entry of sperm through cervix

154)

Ans. Less than 2%

155)

Ans. only b & e

156)

Ans. Copper releasing IUD

157)

Solution/Explanation:

Assertion: True. Maternal and infant mortality rates have decreased due to advancements in
healthcare, better awareness, and improved facilities.

Reason: True. Increased awareness about sex-related matters, access to medical assistance
during deliveries, and better post-natal care have significantly contributed to the reduction in
maternal and infant mortality rates.

The reason correctly explains the assertion, as the factors mentioned are directly responsible
for the observed decrease in mortality rates.

The correct answer is : Option 1 (If both the assertion and the reason are true and the
reason is a correct explanation of the assertion).
Ans. If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of
the assertion.

158) Solution :
Assertion: The assertion is true. Infertility is defined as the inability to conceive or produce
children after years of regular, unprotected sexual intercourse.
Reason: The reason is also true. Assisted Reproductive Technologies (ART) are indeed
 commonly used to help couples who are facing infertility to conceive.

However, the reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion. While ART is a solution for
infertility, it doesn't cause or define infertility. Infertility is the problem, and ART is a set of
treatments used to overcome that problem. The reason explains a common consequence or
management strategy for infertility, not the definition itself.

Final Answer : option (2) If both the assertion and reason are true but the reason is
not a correct explanation of the assertion.

159) The correct answer is Option 2: 15–24 years.

This age group is particularly vulnerable to sexually transmitted diseases (STDs) due to
several factors:
Behavioral Risks: Increased likelihood of engaging in unprotected sex or having multiple
partners.
Biological Factors: Immature immune systems and higher susceptibility to infections.
Lack of Awareness:
Limited knowledge about STDs and preventive measures.
Social Influences: Peer pressure and experimentation during adolescence and early adulthood.
Preventive education and access to healthcare are crucial for reducing the risk in this age
group.

160)

Ans. Both Statements are incorrect

161) NCERT Pg # 44-45 (E)

Pg # 49-50 (E)

162) NCERT Pg. # 64

163)

EXPLANATION

In the context of meiosis—the second meiotic division of the egg only completes after
fertilization (when the sperm fuses with the egg). In this case, tubectomy would indeed
prevent the sperm from reaching the egg and therefore would prevent the completion of the
second meiotic division.

Correct Answer: (3). Prevent the completion of the 2nd meiotic division

164)

Question Asking About:

The question presents an assertion (A) and a reason (R) about the ban on pre-natal sex
determination in India. You need to determine if the assertion and reason are true or false, and
if the reason correctly explains the assertion.
 Solution and Correct Answer:

A. Analysis:

A. Assertion (A): This is true. India does have a statutory ban on pre-natal sex
determination under the Pre-conception and Pre-natal Diagnostic Techniques (PCPNDT)
Act, 1994.
B. Reason (R): This is false. The ban is in place to prevent female foeticide, not increase it.
The goal is to improve the sex ratio, not maintain an imbalance.
B. Finding the correct option:

A. Option 3 is the correct answer: (A) is true, but (R) is false.

Correct Answer: Option 3

165)

The correct answer is Option 2.

A. Statement I is incorrect because ICSI is actually an in-vitro fertilization (IVF) procedure,

not in-vivo. In ICSI.

B. Statement II is correct.

166) NCERT-XII Pg. # 46

167) NCERT Pg#45

168)

Ans. Both A and R are correct, but R is not correct explanation of A

169) NCERT Pg#60

170)

NCERT Pg No # 59

171)

Ans. Four

172)

Ans. B – Arthropods, C – Molluscs

173)

Ans. Carbon monoxide

174) NCERT (XIIth) Pg. # 60, Para-3

175)

Ans. Presence of incomplete cartilagenous rings

176)

Ans. Systemic veins and pulmonary arteries

177)

Ans. 8 ml

178)

Ans. 12-16 times/min

179) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 275; para-3

180)

Ans. High CO2, high H+