XII – PHYSICS 2022-2023 Page |1

THERMODYNAMICS (HEAT) MCQ’s

HEAT, TEMPERATURE, MODES OF TRANSFER OF HEAT
1. Which scientist shows connection of mechanical and heat energy?
A) Newton B) Einstein
C) Joule D) Maxwell
2. Mechanical energy is the combination of
A) Kinetic energy B) Potential energy
C) Heat energy D) Both A & B
3. Which property of iron bar changes with temperature?
A) Length B) Color
C) Density D) All of these
4. The internal energy of an ideal gas depends upon only
A) Pressure B) Temperature
C) Volume D) All of these
5. The temperature of a body is increased from 200oC to 300oC. The change of temperature
at absolute scale is
A) 373 K B) 100K
C) 273K D) 473K
6. A temperature difference of 25oC is equivalent to a temperature difference of
A) 25oF B) 45oF
o
C) 67 F D) 77oF
o
7. If the temperature of a patient is 40 C, his temperature on the Fahrenheit scale will be
A) 72oC B) 96oF
o
C) 100 F D) 104oF
8. The correct value of 0oC on the Kelvin scale is
A) 273.15 K B) 272.85 K
C) 273 K D) 273.2 K
9. Device used to measure very high temperature is
A) Pyrometer B) Thermometer
C) Barometer D) Calorimeter
10. When water is heated from 0oC to 10oC its volume
A) First decreases and then increases B) Decreases
C) Increases D) Remain unchanged
11. A metal sheet with a circular hole is heated. The hole will
A) Contract
B) Expand
C) Remain unaffected
D) Contract or expand depending on the value of the linear expansion coefficient.
12. Sun’s heat reaches us by
A) Conduction B) Radiation
C) Convection D) Scattering
13. The speediest mode of heat transfer is
A) Conduction B) Convection
C) Radiation D) Combustion
14. By which of the following methods could a cup of hot tea lose heat, if situated on metal
table in a class room
A) Conduction B) Convection
C) Radiation and evaporation D) All of these
15. It is hotter at the same distance over the top of a fire than it is on the side of it mainly
because
A) Heat is radiated upwards B) Air conducts heat upward
C) Convection takes more heat upward
D) Conduction, convection and radiation all contribute significantly in transferring heat
upward.

PREPARED BY: SIR RONALD WILFRED

XII – PHYSICS 2022-2023 Page |2
16. The 122 0F is equal to
A) 50 0C B) 45 0C
0
C) 49 C D) 48 0C
0
E) 40 C
17. Clinical thermometer s read from 96 0F to
A) 105 0F B) 110 0F
0
C) 115 F D) 112 0F
0
E) 106 F
18. The temperature at which Fahrenheit and Kelvin scale read the same is
A) 472 B) 460
C) 574.25 D) 592.45
E) 473.15
19. One degree of centigrade scale is equal to
A) 320 of Fahrenheit B) 2.160 of Fahrenheit
0
C) 1.8 of Fahrenheit D) 10 of Fahrenheit
0
E) 2.1 of Fahrenheit
20. The internal energy of perfect gas is
A) Wholly Kinetic B) Wholly Potential
C) Sum of the potential and kinetic energy of the molecules
D) Difference of the potential and kinetic energy of the molecules
21. One Kelvin is defined as:
A) 1/100 of boiling point of water B) 1/273.16 of melting of ice
C) 1/273.16 of boiling point of water
D) 1/273.16 of temperature of triple point of water
GAS LAWS AND K.M.T
22. Which of the following conclusions results only, when the ideal gas law and kinetic
theory of gases are both considered to apply
A) P is proportional to T 2 B) P is proportional to v2
C) T is proportional to vrms D) P is proportional to 〈𝑣 2 〉
23. E0 and Eh respectively represent the average kinetic energy of a molecule of oxygen and
hydrogen. If the two gases are at same temperature, which of the following statements is
true?
A) E0 = Eh B) E0> Eh
C) E0< Eh
D) Nothing can be said about the magnitude of E0 and Eh as the information given its
sufficient.
24. The average kinetic energy of hydrogen molecules at 300K is E. At the same temperature,
the average kinetic energy of oxygen molecules will be
A) E/16 B) E
C) E/4 D) 4E
25. The root mean square speed of gas molecules
A) Is the same for all gases at the same temperature
B) Depends on the mass of the gas molecules and its temperature
C) Is independent of the density and pressure of the gas
D) Depends only on the temperature and volume of the gas.
26. The temperature of a gas is raised from 27 oC to 927oC. The root mean square speed of its
molecules
927
A) Becomes √ 27 times the earlier value B) Remains the same
C) Get halved D) Gets doubled
27. The temperature of an ideal gas is decreased from 120 K to 30 K. If at 120 K the root
mean square velocity of the gas molecules is V, at 30 K it becomes
A) 4V B) 2V
C) V/4 D) V/2
28. The pressure and temperature of a given mass of a gas is increased to 3 times each. In this
process the r.m.s velocity
A) Increases to 3 times B) Increases to 9 times
C) Increases to 3√3 times D) Increases to √3 times

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XII – PHYSICS 2022-2023 Page |3
29. The translational kinetic energy of the molecules for one mole of an ideal gas is equal to
3 2
A) 2 RT B) 3 KT
1 2
C) 2 RT D) 3 RT
30. Keeping the pressure constant, if the temperature of mono atomic ideal gas is doubled, the
average square speed of the atoms
A) Increases by a factor 4 B) Increases by a factor 2
C) Decreases by a factor 4 D) Decreases by a factor √2
31. The following four gases are at the same temperature. In which gas do the molecules have
maximum root mean square speed?
A) Nitrogen B) Oxygen
C) Hydrogen D) Carbon dioxide
32. The equation of state corresponding to 8 gm of O2 is
A) PV = 8RT B) PV = RT
RT RT
C) PV = 2 D) PV = 4
33. A liter of an ideal gas at 27oC is heated at constant pressure to 297oC. what is the
approximate final volume?
A) 1.9 liters B) 1.2 liters
C) 19 liters D) 0.19 liters
34. The volume of a given mass of gas will be doubled at atmospheric pressure if the
temperature of the gas is changed from 150 0C to
A) 300 0C B) 423 0C
C) 573 0C D) 600 0C
35. For an ideal gas the interparticle interaction is
A) Attractive B) Repulsive
C) Very large D) Zero
36. A real gas can be approximated to an ideal gas at
A) Low density B) High density
C) High pressure D) Low temperature
37. The rms velocity of oxygen molecules at STP is V ms -1. If it is heated at a constant
pressure until the volume becomes 4 times, the original volume, the new rms velocity will
be
A) V B) 2V
C) 3V D) 4V
38. Oxygen and Hydrogen are at the same temperature T. The ratio of the mean K.E. of
Oxygen molecules to that of the Hydrogen molecules will be
A) 16 : 1 B) 4 : 1
C) 1 : 1 D) 1 : 4
THERMAL EXPANSION
39. Metals are good conductors because
A) They contains free electron
B) The molecules in them are very close together
C) The molecules in them collide very freely
D) The contain reflecting surface
40. Which of the following is the best conductor of heat
A) Copper B) Brass
C) Aluminum D) Silver
41. Thermos flask prevents heat loss by
A) Conduction B) Convection
C) Radiation D) All of the above
42. Bimetallic strip use in
A) Breaks in car B) Fan
C) Galvanometer D) Thermostat

PREPARED BY: SIR RONALD WILFRED

XII – PHYSICS 2022-2023 Page |4
FIRST LAW OF THERMODYNAMICS AND ITS APPLICATION
43. The Adiabatic constant of air is
A) 1.41 B) 1.67
C) 1.29 D) None of these
44. Thermodynamics mostly deals with
A) Change of state
B) Transfer of heat
C) Conversion of heat to other forms of energy
D) Measurement of quantity of heat
45. First law of thermodynamics represents conservation of
A) Heat B) Work
C) Momentum D) Energy
46. Which of the following cases, the work done by a gas is minimum?

47. The property of the system that does not change during an adiabatic change in
A) Temperature B) Volume
C) Pressure D) Quantity of heat
48. If an ideal gas is isothermally expanded, its internal energy will
A) Remain the same
B) Increase
C) Decrease or increase depending on the nature of the gas
D) Decrease
49. Consider two processes on a system as shown in figure. The volumes in the initial states
are the same in the two processes and the volumes in the final states are also the same.
Let ∆𝑊1 and ∆𝑊2 be the work done by the system in the process A and B respectively.
p

A) ∆𝑊1 > ∆𝑊2

B) ∆𝑊1 = ∆𝑊2
C) ∆𝑊1 < ∆𝑊2
D) Nothing can be said about the relation between ∆𝑊1 and ∆𝑊2
50. 𝛾 for a gas is always:
A) Negative B) Zero
C) Between zero & one D) More than one
51. An inflated tire suddenly bursts. As a result of this, temperature of surrounded air:
A) Increases B) Decreases
C) May increase or decrease D) Remains constant
52. During an adiabatic expansion the increase in volume is associated with
A) Decrease in pressure and decrease in temperature
B) Increase in pressure and decrease in temperature
C) Increase in pressure and increase in temperature
D) Decrease in pressure and increase in temperature

PREPARED BY: SIR RONALD WILFRED

XII – PHYSICS 2022-2023 Page |5

53. If the internal energy of a gas decreases by an amount equal to the external work, the gas is
under going
A) Adiabatic expansion B) Adiabatic compression
C) Isothermal expansion D) Isochoric expansion
54. The formula connecting the pressure and volume of a gas undergoing an adiabatic change is
A) Pγ V = constant B) P V = constant
C) P Vγ-1 = constant D) PVγ = constant
55. If friction is negligible, when a gas is compressed rapidly
A) Its temperature remains the same B) Its temperature goes down
C) Its temperature rises D) It is liquefied
56. A bicycle pump provides a good example of
A) First law of thermodynamics B) Second law of thermodynamics
C) Third law of thermodynamics D) None of these
Cv
57. Cv – Cp and Cp are respectively equalto :
1
A) 𝑅 and γ-1 B) R and γ-1
C) R and γ D) – R and γ-1
58. If the amount of heat given to a system be 35 J and the amount of work done by the
system be 15 J, then the change in the internal energy of the system is
A) – 50 J B) 20 J
C) 30 J D) 50 J
59. For a diatomic gas Cv = 5R/2, therefore gamma ‘𝛾’ for this gas is:
A) 5/7 B) 4/35
C) 7/5 D) 35/4
60. A system does 600 J of work and at the same time has its internal energy increased by
320 J. How much heat has been supplied?
A) 280 J B) 920 J
C) 600 J D) 20 J
61. An ideal gas undergoes an expansion in volume from 1.6 x 10-4 m3 to 3.6 x 10-4 m3 at a
constant pressure of 1.5 x 105 Pa. During this expansion, 24 J of heat is supplied to the
gas. What is the overall change in the internal energy of the gas ?
A) Decrease of 54 J B) Decrease of 6 J
C) Increase of 6 J D) Increase of 54 J
SECOND LAW OF THERMODYNAMICS
62. The second law of thermodynamics implies:
A) Whole of the heat can be converted into mechanical energy
B) No heat engine can be 100% efficient
C) Every heat engine has an efficiency of 100%
D) A refrigerator can reduce the temperature to absolute zero.
63. The complete conversion of a given quantity of heat into useful mechanical work occurs:
A) Often B) Seldom
C) Never D) Depends on the device
64. A system X is neither in thermal equilibrium with Y nor with Z. The system Y and Z
A) Must be in thermal equilibrium B) Can not be in thermal equilibrium
C) May be in thermal equilibrium D) None of these
HEAT ENEGINE, REFIGERATOR AND CARNOT ENGINE
65. What is name of the device which is used to transfer heat from a sub system at lower
temperature to the surroundings at higher temperature
A) Heat engine B) Refrigerator
C) Carnot’s engine D) No such device exists
66. A refrigerator is
A) Heat engine B) An electric motor
C) Air cooler D) Heat engine working in backward
direction

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XII – PHYSICS 2022-2023 Page |6
67. Theoretically the efficiency of a Carnot engine is 100% when the temperature of the sink
is
A) 0oF B) 0oC
C) 0K D) 0oR
68. When the temperature difference between the source and the sink increases the efficiency
of the heat engine
A) Increases
B) Decreases
C) Is not affected
D) May increase or decrease depending upon the nature of the working substance
69. If a temperature of source and sink of a Carnot engine is increased by 10% its efficiency
A) Increases by 10% B) Decreases by 10%
C) Increases by 1% D) Remains the same
70. An ideal heat engine exhausting heat at 27oC is to have 25% efficiency. It must take heat
at
A) 127oC B) 227oC
o
C) 327 C D) 673oC
71. The efficiency of a Carnot engine can be increased by
A) Increasing both the temperature of source and sink.
B) Decreasing the temperature of source and sink
C) Decreasing the temperature of source and increasing the temperature of sink
D) Increasing the temperature of source and decreasing the temperature of sink
72. The efficiency of diesel engine roughly ranges from:
A) 25% to 35% B) 35% to 40%
C) 45% to 65% D) 65% to 85%
73. Petrol engine converts ______ of available heat energy into work.
A) 20% to 25% B) 25% to 30%
C) 30% to 35% D) 35% to 40%
HEAT CAPACITY, SPECIFIC HEAT AND MOLAR SPECIFIC HEAT AND
LATENT HEAT
74. The ratio of specific heat capacity to molar heat capacity of a body
A) Is dimensionless
B) Depends on the molecular weight of the body
C) Depends on the mass of the body
D) Is a universal constant
75. A cooking pot should have
A) High specific heat and low conductivity
B) High specific heat and high conductivity
C) Low specific heat and low conductivity
D) Low specific heat and high conductivity
76. The heat capacity of a body depends on
A) The heat given B) The mass of the body
C) The material of the body D) B and C both
77. The amount of heat required to change the unit mass of the liquid to its vapour state at its
boiling point is called
A) Latent heat of fusion B) Latent heat
C) Specific heat D) Latent heat of vaporization
78. On a cold morning a metal surface will feel colder to touch than a wooden surface,
because
A) Metal has high specific heat
B) Metal has high thermal conductivity
C) Metal has low specific heat
D) Metal has low thermal conductivity
79. The SI units of specific heat are:
A) K cal kg-1 K-1 B) Cal gm-1C-1
-1 -1
C) K. Cal kg C D) J kg-1 K-1

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XII – PHYSICS 2022-2023 Page |7
ENTROPY
80. Entropy of the universe is?
A) Decreasing B) Increasing
C) Same D) None of these
81. As a result of melting of ice the entropy
A) increases B) decreases
C) remains same D) none of these
82. If heat is removed from a body, the change in entropy is
A) Positive B) Negative
C) Remain constant D) None of these
83. The law of entropy states that
A) Heat always flows spontaneously from a colder body to a hotter one.
B) Every natural system will tend toward disorder.
C) Heat lost by one object must be gained by another.
D) Every natural system will tend toward lower entropy.
84. No entropy change is associated with:
A) Isothermal process B) Adiabatic process
C) Isochoric process D) Isobaric process
85. A hot stone is added to a jar of cold water, as a result the entropy of the system:
A) Increases B) Decreases
C) Remains constant D) First increases then decreases

PREPARED BY: SIR RONALD WILFRED

XII – PHYSICS 2022-2023 Page |8
ELECTROSTATICS MCQ’s
CHARGE AND COULOMB LAW
1. If the distance between two charges is halved, the coulombs force between the charges
will be?
A) 1/4 times B) 4 times
C) Half D) Twice
2. If magnitude of each charge is double and distance between them is halved the force
between will become
A) F B) 4F
C) 8F D) 16F
3. In which medium the force of repulsion between two equal charges would be minimum?
A) Oil B) Air
C) Vacuum D) Distilled water
4. Coulomb’s law is given by F=kq1q2rn where n is
A) ½ B)-2
C) 2 D) -1/2
5. Coulomb’s law the force
A) Between two hard metallic sphere B) Between two billiard balls
C) Between Two point charges D) None of these
6. Coulomb’s force between two point charges depends upon
A) The amount of charges on them B) The distance between them
C) The medium in which they are placed D) All of the above
7. The S.I unit of electric permittivity is
A) Nm2C -2 B) Am-1
-1
C) Nc D) C2N-1m-2
8. The force between two charges each of 1μc placed at a distance of 1 meter in air is
A) 9x10-12N B) 9x10-3N
9
C) 9x10 N D) None of these
9. If a oil droplet between two oppositely charged parallel plates is suspended then;
A) F g>Fe B) Fg<Fe
C) Fg=Fe D) None
10. The radius of the droplet in Millikan’s experiment is found by the formula ;
2ρg 9ηv
A) r=√9ηv B) r=√ 2ρgt
t

9ρg 9ηg
C) r=√2ηv D) r=√2ρv
t t
11. A body is charged by rubbing it, its weight;
A) Always decrease slightly B) Always increase slightly
C) May increase or decrease slightly D) Remains precisely the same
12. The apparatus used by coulomb is:
A) Cavendish B) Torsion balance
C) Physical balance D) Gold leaf electroscope
13. How many electrons will have a charge of one Coulomb?
A) 6.25x1018e B) 6.25x1019e
18
C) 5.25x10 e D) 5.25x1019e
14. There are two charges of 1μC and 5μC placed at certain distance. The ratio of the forces
acting on each other will be;
A) 1:5 B) 1 : 1
C) 5 : 1 D) 1 : 25
ELECTRIC FIELD,ELECTRIC FLUX GAUSSES LAW AND ITS APPLICATION
15. If the angle between electric field and vector area A is 𝜋/3 then electric flux will be?
A) 0.866 EA B) 0.5 EA
C) 0.707 EA D) EA/3
16. S.I unit of electric (field) intensity is
A) Newton-Coulomb B) Newton/Coulomb
C) Coulomb/Meter D) Newton

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XII – PHYSICS 2022-2023 Page |9
17. Electric lines of forces about a negative charge are
A) Circular, anticlockwise B) Circular, clockwise
C) Radial, inward D) Radial, outward
18. Electric flux through any surface depends upon
A) The electric intensity B) The area of the surface
C) Direction of surface relative to the field D) All of the above
19. Two thin infinite parallel plates have uniform charge densities + σ and - σ. The electric
field in the space between them is
A) σ /2ε0 B) σ /ε0
C) 2 σ /ε0 D) Zero
20. The electric flux through the surface of a sphere having a point charge at its centre
depends upon
A) Surface area of sphere B) Radius of sphere
C) Quantity of charge inside the sphere D) None of these
ELECTRIC POTENTIAL ENERGY AND ELECTRIC POTENTIAL
21. Which of the following is a volt
A) erg per cm B) joule coulomb
C) erg per ampere D) joule per coulomb
22. An electron initially at rest is accelerated through a P.D of one volt. The energy acquired
by electron is
A) 1 J B) 1.6x10-19erg
C) 10-19J D) 1.6x10-19J
23. An electron of mass “m” and charge “e” travels from rest through a potential difference
V. Its final energy is
A) meV B) eV
C) e/V D) eV/m
24. The relation between electric V and electric intensity E is
A) V=E/d B) V=Ed
C) Vd=E D) V=Ed2
25. An electron volt is equal to
A) 0.62x1013J B) 1.6x10-13J
19
C) 0.62x10 J D) 1.6x10-19J
26. Work done in moving a unit positive charge through a distance of ’x’ meter on an
equipotential surface is
A) X Joule B) 1/X Joule
C) zero D) X2 Joule
27. No current flows between two charged bodies when connected
A) If they have some capacity
B) If they have the same quantity of charge
C) If they have the same potential
D) If they have the same charge-to-potential ratio
28. An electron of mass “m” and charge “e” is accelerated from rest through a potential
difference V in vacuum. Its final speed will be
2𝑒𝑉 𝑒𝑉
A) √ 𝑚
B) √ 𝑚
C) eV/2m D) eV/m
29. Equal charges are given to two sphere of different radii. The potential will be
A) More on smaller sphere
B) More on bigger sphere
C) Equal on both the spheres
D) Dependant on nature of material of the spheres

PREPARED BY: SIR RONALD WILFRED

XII – PHYSICS 2022-2023 P a g e | 10
CAPACITOR AND ELECTRICAL ENERGY
30. Formula of capacitance is?
A) C/V B) CV
C) Q/V D) QV
31. Unit of CV2 is equivalent to?
A) Energy B) Work
C) Power D) Both A & B
32. Energy stored in capacitor is represented by
A) 1/2qV B) 1/3qV
C) 1/4qV D) None
33. Two capacitors of capacities C1 and C2 are connected in parallel. If a charge Q is given to
the assembly, it gets shared. Ratio of the charge on capacitor C1 to the charge on capacitor
C2 is given by
𝐶 𝐶
A) 𝐶1 B) 𝐶2
2 1
𝐶12 𝐶22
C) 𝐶22 D) 𝐶12
34. Three capacitor of capacitance 2μF each are connected in parallel. Their equivalent
capacitance is
A) 1μF B) 2.5μF
C) 6μF D) 8μF
35. Three capacitor of capacitance 3μF each are connected in series. Their equivalent
capacitance is
A) 9μF B) 6μF
C) 3μF D) 1μF
36. Three capacitors of capacitance 4μF, 6μF and 12μF are connected first on series and then
in parallel. What is the ratio of equivalent capacitance in the two cases
A) 2:3 B) 1:11
C) 11:1 D) 1:3
37. The equivalent capacitance of three capacitors of capacitance C 1,C2 and C3 connect in
parallel is 12 units and the product C1C2C3=48. When the capacitors C1 and C2are
connected in parallel the equivalent capacitance is 6 units. The capacitance are
A) 2,4,6 B) 1,5,6
C) 1.5, 2.5, 8 D) 2,3,7
38. Two capacitors of 3μF and 6μF are connected in series across a potential difference of
120 volt. Then the potential difference across 3μF capacitor is
A) 40V B) 60V
C) 80V D) 100V
39. When the capacitance are combined in series, the quantity which remains constant is
A) Intensity of electric field B) Charge
C) Potential difference D) Energy
40. Two capacitance 4μF and 6μF are connected in series. A potential difference of 500 V is
applied between the outer plates of the system. The charge on each Capacitor will be
A) 1200C B) 6000C
C) 1200μC D) 6000μC
41. A parallel plate capacitor has capacitance of 50PF in air and 105 PF when immersed in
oil. The dielectric constant of the oil is
A) 50/105 B) 1
C) 2.1 D) ∞
42. If a 2μF condenser is charged to 200 volts and its plates are connected by a wire, then the
heat produced in the wire is
A) 4x10-4 J B) 4x10-2J
-5
C) 4x10 J D) 2.5x10-2J
43. A 100 microfarad capacitor is to have an energy content of 50 J in order to operate a flesh
lamp. The voltage required to charge the capacitor is
A) 500V B) 1000V
C) 1500V D) 2000V

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XII – PHYSICS 2022-2023 P a g e | 11
44. A parallel plate capacitor with air between the plates has a capacitance of 4PF. What will
be the capacitance if the distance between the plates is reduced by half and the space
between them is filled with a substance of dielectric constant 6?
A) 6PF B) 12PF
C) 24PF D) 48PF
45. A condenser of 50μF is charged to 10 volts. Its energy in joules is
A) 2.5x10-3 B) 5x10-3
-4
C) 10x10 D) 2.5x10-4
46. Three capacitors. each of 1μF, are connected in parallel. To this combination, a fourth
capacitor of 1μF is connected in series. The equivalent capacitance of the system is

A) 1.4μF B) 4.3μF
C) 2μF D) 5μF
47. A capacitor remains connected to a battery, a dielectric slab is applied between the plates.
The energy will increase due to
A) Increase of potential difference
B) Increase of electric field strength
C) Increase of capacitance
D) None of above
48. The capacitance of a capacitors does not depend on
A) The shape of the plates
B) The size of the plates
C) The charges on the plates
D) The separation between the plates
49. The space between the plates of a capacitor is filled by a liquid of dielectric constant K.
The capacitance of the capacitor is
A) Increase by a factor K B) Increase by a factor K2
C) Decrease by a factor K D) Decrease by a factor K2
50. Increasing the charge on the plates of a capacitor means
A) Increasing the capacitance
B) Increasing the potential difference between the plates
C) Both A and B
D) None
51. In case of a parallel plate capacitor , ½ ∈r∈0 E2 give;
A) Energy density B) Energy per unit volume
C) Energy stored in a capacitor D) Both A & B
52. As 1 ohm × 1 farad=1second. For MΩ ×PF=
A) Second B) ms
C) μs D) ms
53. If time constant in R-C circuit is small, the capacitor is charged or discharged:
A) Rapidly B) Slowly
C) At constant rate D) Intermittently

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XII – PHYSICS 2022-2023 P a g e | 12
ELECTRIC CURRENT MCQ’s
CURRENT AND OHM’S LAW
1. A current of 4.8 A is flowing in a conductor. The number of electrons passing through
any cross section per second is
A) 3x1019 B) 3x1020
19
C) 7.68x10 D) 7.68x1020
2. If a charge of 180 coulomb flows through the cross section of a conductor in one minute,
the current flowing through it is
A) 1A B) 3A
C) 5A D) 7A
3. A current of 16 mA flows through a conductor. The number of electrons flowing per
second is
A) 1014 B) 1015
-17
C) 10 D) 1017
4. Ohms law states that Current is directly proportional to
A) Resistance conductor
B) Potential difference across conductor
C) Power of conductor
D) Conductance of conductor
5. If 1 ampere current flows through 2m long conductor, the charge flow through it in 1 hour
will be
A) 3600C B) 7200C
C) 1C D) 2C
6. The current carried through a copper wire is due to the motion of
A) Neutron B) Free electrons
C) Protons D) Protons and Neutrons
7. If the current through a fixed resistance is halved then
A) The potential difference is halved B) The power is halved
C) The resistance is halved D) None of these
8. The magnitude of the drift velocity is of the order of;
A) 10-3m/s B) 10-4m/s
-6
C)10 m/s D) 103m/s
9. Which of the following statements is not true
A) Conductance is the reciprocal of resistance and is measured in Siemens.
B) Ohm’s law is not applicable at very low and very high temperature
C) Ohm’s law is applicable to semiconductors
D) Ohm’s law is not applicable to electron tubes, discharge tubes and electrolysis
10. Which of the following statement is true?
A) Insulator do not contain electron.
B) Some of the electrons in conductor are free to move through the material.
C) Conductors always contain more electrons than insulator.
D) The atoms in a conductor can move about but those in an insulator cannot move.
11. Kirchhoff’s firs law ∑ 𝐼 = 0 at a junction deals with the conservation of:
A) Charge B) Energy
C) Momentum D) Angular Momentum
12. Kirchhoff’s first rule is a manifestation of law of conservation of;
A) Energy B) Charge
C) Momentum D) K.E
RESISTANCE, DIMENSION OF CONDUCTOR AND TEMPERATURE
13. The unit resistance “Ohm” is defined as
A) Ampere/Coulomb B) Ampere/Volt
C) Volt/Ampere D) Volt/Coulomb
14. Electrical resistance is the
A) Opposition to the flow of electrons B) Support to the flow of electrons
C) Neither support nor opposition to the flow of electrons
D) Additional of electrons

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15. The resistance of a conductor depends upon
A) The magnitude of current passing through it
B) The potential difference between its ends
C) Its physical state, dimension and nature of its material
D) All of the above
16. The reciprocal of resistance is
A) Conductance B) Resistivity
C) Conductivity D) None of the above
17. The resistance of a material increase with temperature. It is a
A) Metal B) Insulator
C) Semiconductor D) Semi-metal
18. The resistivity of the material of a conductor depends on
A) Its length B) Its resistance
C) Its area of cross section D) None
19. The S.I unit of resistivity is
A) Ohm B) Ohm/m
C) Ohm-m D) Ohm-m2
20. If the length of a wire is doubled, then its resistance will
A) Become four times B) Remain unchanged
C) Become two times D) Become one-fourth
21. The resistance of a wire of uniform diameter d and length L is R. The resistance of
another wire of the same material but diameter 2d and length 4L would be
A) R/4 B) R/2
C) R D) 2R
22. The conductivity of a super conductor is
A) Infinite B) Very large
C) Very small D) Zero
23. The resistance of a wire is R. It is stretched uniformly so that its length is tripled. The new
resistance of the wire
A) 3R B) R
C) R/3 D) 9R
24. Two unequal resistances are connected in parallel across a battery. Which of the
following statement is true?
A) Same current will flow through both resistances
B) Current through smaller resistance is higher
C) Current through larger resistance is higher
D) Current can be higher in any resistance depending upon e.m.f of the cell
25. How many times will the resistance of “n” identical conductors be increased if the
parallel resistance be changed to series one?
A) √𝑛 B) n
C) n2 D) n-2
26. In order to obtain maximum resistance from some given resistors, they should be joined
in
A) Parallel
B) Series
C) Mixture of series and parallel combinations
D) None of these
27. As the temperature of a conductor increases, its resistivity and conductivity change. The
ratio of resistivity to conductivity.
A) Increases
B) Decreases
C) Remain constant
D) May increase or decrease depending on the actual temperature.
28. The value of resistivity is the least for;
A) Silver B) Aluminum
C) Copper D) All of these

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29. The specific resistance of all metals is most affected by;
A) Temperature B) Pressure
C) Degree of illumination D) Applied magnetic field
30. The resistance of a metallic wire becomes 8 times when;
A) Length is doubled
B) Length is tripled
C) Length is doubled and radius is halved
D) Length is halved and radius is doubled
31. A wire of resistance R is cut into two equal parts, its resistance becomes R/2, what
happens to resistivity;
A) Double B) Same
C) Half D) One fourth
32. The product of resistance and conductance is;
A) 1 B) Resistivity
C) Conductance D) Zero
33. The fourth band is a;
A) Gold band B) Silver band
C) Brown band D) Both A & B
34. If there is no fourth band, tolerance of;
A) ±10% B) ±20%
C) ±5% D) 10%
ELECTRICAL ENERGY AND POWER
35. How much heat a 100 watt bulb will generate in 1 hour?
A) 60J B) 3600 J
C) 360000 J D) 0J
36. An electric iron is rated at 240V, 480W. The current through it will be
A) 240A B) 480A
C) 2A D) 0.5A
37. The power rating of an electric motor that draws a current of 3A when operated at 240
volt is
A) 720W B) 240W
C) 80W D) zero
38. Two bulbs in a house, one glows brighter than the other. Which of the two has a large
resistance.
A) The dim bulb
B) The bright bulb
C) Both have the same resistance
D) The brightness does not depend upon the resistance
39. Filament resistance in a 500 W, 200 V light bulb is;
A) 80 Ω B) 50Ω
C) 2.5 Ω D) 0.4 Ω
40. If a 40 watt bulb is on for 2 hr, how much heat is generated?
A) 280 × 105 J B) 280 × 103 J
C) 80 J D) 400 J
41. If R1 and R2 are the filament resistance of 200 Watt and a 100 Watt bulb respectively,
both designed to run at the same voltage, then
A) R1 is four times R2 B) R2 is four times R1
C) R1 is two times R2 D) R2 is two times R1
42. Which equation is used to define resistance?
A) Energy = (current)2× resistance × time
B) Potential difference = current × resistance
C) Power=(current)2× resistance
D) Resistivity = resistance × area + length
43. If n identical cells, each of e.m.f is E, are connected in series then the net e.m.f is
A) 𝐸⁄𝑛 B) n E
C) n2 E D) None of above

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XII – PHYSICS 2022-2023 P a g e | 15
44. If n identical cells, each of e.m.f E are joined in parallel , the net e.m.f is
A) E B) 𝐸⁄𝑛
C) 𝐸⁄𝑛2 D) n2 E
45. A car battery has e.m.f. 12 volts and internal resistance 5 x 10 -2 ohm. If it draws 60 amp
current, the terminal voltage of the battery will be
A) 15 volt B) 3 volt
C) 5 volt D) 9 volt.
46. A current of 2.0 A passes through a cell of e.m.f 1.5 V, having internal resistance 0.15 Ώ.
The potential difference, in volts across the ends of the cell will be
A) 1.35 B) 1,50
C) 1.00 D) 1.20
47. Dry cell supplies
A) Alternating current only
B) Direct current only
C) Both direct as well as alternating current.
D) None of the above.
SERIES AND PARALLEL COMBINATION OF RESISTOR
48. If three resistance R1, R2 and R3 are connected in series such that R1>R2>R3 then their
equivalent resistance will be
A) Lesser than R1 B) More than R1
C) Lesser than R3 D) Between R1 and R3
49. Three resistances of 3ohm, 5ohm and 9ohm are connected in series across a battery on
which resistance will there be highest potential drop?
A) 3 ohm B) 5 ohm
C) 9 ohm D) All will have same
50. Two resistance R1 and R2 have effective resistance Rs when connected in series and Rp
𝑅1
when connected in parallel. If RsRp=16 and =4. Calculate the value of R1 and R2.
𝑅2
A) R1=1, R2=0.25 B) R1=2, R2=0.5
C) R1=4, R2=1 D) R1=8, R2=2
51. Three resistors of 2ohm, 3ohm and 5ohm are connected in parallel across a battery of 10
V and of negligible internal resistance. The p.d across the 3 ohm resistor is
A) 2V B) 3V
C) 9V D) 10V
52. Domestic appliances (T.V, Radio, Bulb, Refrigerator etc) are connected
A) In parallel to each other
B) In series to each other
C) Low power appliances in parallel, high power appliances in series
D) High power appliances in parallel, low power appliances in series
53. When three resistance 2Ω,4Ωand 6Ωconnected in parallel the equivalent resistance is;
11 12
A) 12 Ω B) 11 Ω
C) 12Ω D) 0Ω
54. Two resistances R1 and R2 are connected in parallel. The equivalent resistance of the
combination is equal to;
𝑅 𝑅 𝑅 +𝑅
A) 1 2 B) 1 2
𝑅1 +𝑅2 𝑅1 𝑅2
C) 𝑅1 + 𝑅2 D) 𝑅2 − 𝑅1
55. The resistance of 2Ω, 3Ω, 4Ω are connected in parallel. Their equivalent resistance will
be minimum if they are connected in;
A) In series B) In parallel
C) In series D) Any of above

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XII – PHYSICS 2022-2023 P a g e | 16

ELECTRO MAGNETISM MCQ’s

MAGNETIC FIELD, MAGNETIC FORCE MAGNETIC TORQUE
1. The magnetic effect of an electric current was discovered by
A) Flemming B) Faraday
C) Ampere D) Oerested
2. Moving electric charges will interact with
A) Electric field only B) Magnetic field only
C) Both of these D) None of these
3. A proton enters in a magnetic field of B Weber/m2 making an angle of 300 with the
direction of magnetic field with velocity V. Lorentz force acting on the proton is
A) evB B) zero
C) ∞ D) evB/2
4. An electron moves with a velocity V in x-direction. If a magnetic field acts on it in y-
direction, the force on the electron acts in
A) x-direction B) y-direction
C) z-direction D) Arbitrary direction
5. Magnetic field is not associated with
A) A charge in uniform motion B) An accelerated charge
C) A decelerated charge D) A stationary charge
6. A current (I) carrying conductor (length-l) is placed in a magnetic field (B). The
maximum force acting on the conductor is
A) I B ℓ B) I B/ℓ
C) I/Bℓ D) B/Iℓ
7. One Weber/m2 is equal to
A) 104 gauss B) 102 gauss
-2
C) 10 gauss D) 10-4 gauss
8. 1Tesla = _________Gauss
A) 102 B) 103
4
C) 10 D) 106
9. Moving charge produces a
A) magnetic field B) electric field
C) both a and b D) none of these
10. Unit of intensity of magnetic induction is
A) N/Am B) Tesla
C) Wb/m2 D) All above
11. A magnetic needle is kept in a non-uniform magnetic field. It experiences
A) A force and a torque B) A force but not a torque
C) A torque but not a force D) Neither a force nor a torque
12. Magnetic lines of force.
A) Intersect at infinity B) Cannot intersect at all
C) Intersect with in the magnet D) Intersect at the neutral points
13. A charged particle of charge q moving with velocity V enters along the axis of a current
carrying solenoid. The magnetic force on the particle is
A) 0 B) q v B
C) Finite but not q v B D) Infinite
14. A charge q is moving with a velocity parallel to a magnetic field. Force on the charge due
to magnetic field is:
𝑞𝐵
A) qvB B) 𝑣
𝐵𝑣
C) 0 D) 𝑞
15. A current carrying conductor placed in a magnetic field parallel to it. The force
experienced by the conductor is:
A) F = O B) F = BIL
C) F = BIL sin 𝜃 D) F = BIL cos 𝜃

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16. The magnetic force experienced by a charge particle moving in a magnetic field will be
maximum when it moves:
A) Parallel to magnetic field B) Anti-parallel to magnetic field
C) Perpendicular to magnetic field D) None of these
17. The expression for torque acting on a current carrying coil placed in a uniform magnetic
field is equal to:
A) 𝜏 = BIAN cos 𝛼 B) 𝜏 = BA cos 𝛼
C) 𝜏 = BIA sin 𝛼 D) 𝜏 = IB cos 𝛼
18. Protons are shot perpendicular to a magnetic field:
A) The magnetic field will have no influence on the motion of the protons
B) The protons will continue to move in the same direction but will gain momentum
C) The protons will continue to move the opposite direction but will pain momentum
D) They will bend in an arc of a circle
19. The force acting on a charge q moving with a velocity v in a magnetic field of induction
B is given by:
A) q/(𝑣⃗ x 𝐵 ⃗⃗) B) (𝑣⃗ x 𝐵⃗⃗)/q
⃗⃗
C) q(𝑣⃗ x 𝐵) ⃗⃗
D) (𝑣⃗ .𝐵)q
20. If a charge is free to move in an electric field then acceleration produced in it will be:
𝑞𝐸
A) a = 𝑚 B) a = qEm
𝑞 𝑚
C) a = 𝐸𝑚 D) a = 𝑞𝐸
21. The direction of magnetic lines of force produced by passing a direct current in a
conductor is:
A) Perpendicular to the conductor and coming outward
B) Perpendicular to the conductor and going inward
C) Parallel to conductor
D) Surrounding the conductor and of circular nature
22. S.I unit of magnetic induction is:
A) Weber B) Tesla
C) Gauss D) Weber m-1
23. Work done by a magnetic force is:
A) Maximum B) Minimum
C) Zero D) None of these
24. A long straight current carrying conductor has current directed from bottom to top when
held vertical what will be direction of magnetic field line when observed from blow the
conductor
A) Clock wise B) Anti clock wise
C) Vertically upward D) Vertically downward
25. A proton moving with a velocity of 10 m/s enters a magnetic field first at 450 and then at
4

900 to the field. The forces acting on the proton in two cases are in the ratio.
A) √2:1 B) 1: √2
C) 1: √3 D) √3:1
26. An electron moving with a velocity of 2 x 105m/s enters a magnetic field at an angle of
300 to it. Another electron moving at 105m/s enters the same magnetic field at 600 to it.
The forces acting an electron are in the ratio.
A) 2:√3 B) √3:2
C) 1:√3 D) √3:1
27. Two parallel wires carrying current in opposite direction:
A) Repel each other B) Attract each other
C) No effect on each other D) None of these
28. If an electron enters the magnetic field at right angle from left and ⃗⃗⃗⃗
𝐵 is into paper,
electron will be deflected:
A) Upward B) Downward
C) No deflection D) None of these

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XII – PHYSICS 2022-2023 P a g e | 18
SOLENOID AND TOROID
29. The magnetic field inside the solenoid can be increased by:
A) Increasing number of turns B) Decreasing current
C) Increasing current D) Both A and C
30. Two thin long parallel wires separated by a distance b are carrying a current I amp each.
The magnitude of the force per unit length exerted by one wire on the other is
A) µ 0I 2 B) µ 0I 2
b2
2πb
C) µ 0I D)µ 0I 2
2πb 2πb2
31. The permeability of free space, in Weber is
Ampere x metre
A) 1 B) 1
4πx10-7 4πx107
C) 4πx10 -7
D) 4πx107
32. Magnetic field inside a solenoid is
A) Directly proportional to current
B) Inversely proportional to current
C) Directly proportional to its length
D) Inversely proportional to the total number of turns.
33. The magnetic field in the middle of a solenoid are
A) Circles B) Spirals
C) Parallel to the axis D) Perpendicular to the axis
34. A solenoid 15 cm, long has 300 turns, I = 5A, B =
A) 1.3 x 10-2 wbm-2 B) 1.3 x 102 wbm-2
-2
C) 1.3 x 10 G D) 1.3 x 10-2wb
35. When the length is of 2 times and of (Number of turns remains same) current is of 9 times
magnetic induction will be
A) 2/9 B B) 9/2 B
C) 18 B D) B/18
36. 𝜇𝑜 is the permeability of free space, its value is:
A) 4𝜋 x 10-7 Wb Am B) 4𝜋 x 10-7 Wb-1 Am-1
C) 4𝜋 x 10-5 Wb A-1m-1 D) 4𝜋 x 10-7 Wb A-1m-1
CHARGE TO MASS RATIO
37. A charged particle is projected into a uniform magnetic field with its velocity
perpendicular to the direction of the field. Which of the following quantities of the
particle will not change.
A) Momentum B) Speed
C) Velocity D) None of above
38. An electron enters region where magnetic field B and electric field E are mutually
perpendicular to one another then.
A) It will always move in the direction of E.
B) It will always move in the direction of B.
C) It always posses circular motion.
D) It can go undeflected also.
39. The radius of curvature of the path of a charged particle in a uniform magnetic field is
directly proportional to
A) The charge on the particle B) The momentum of the particle
C) The energy of the particle D) The intensity of the field
40. Lorentz force means the force acting on a particle, which is:
A) Magnetic force only B) Electric force only
C) Sum of electric and magnetic force D) None of these
41. In CRO when beam of electrons falls on a screen it makes a visible spot because the
screen is:
A) Rough B) Fluorescent
C) Polished D) Clear

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42. A proton, a deuteron and an 𝛼-particle accelerated through the same potential difference
entre a region uniform magnetic field moving at right angles to B. what is the ratio of
their K.E?
A) 2 : 1 : 1 B) 2 : 2 : 1
C) 1 : 2 : 1 D) 1 : 1 : 2
43. If cathode rays are projected at right angles to magnetic field, their trajectory is:
A) Ellipse B) Circle
C) Parabola D) Unaltered
44. In a velocity selector, particle pass through it if:
A) ⃗⃗⃗⃗
𝐹𝑒 = ⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗
𝐹𝐵 B) ⃗⃗⃗⃗
𝐹𝑒 = ⃗⃗⃗⃗
𝐹𝑔
𝐹𝑒 = ⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗
C) ⃗⃗⃗⃗ 𝐹𝐵 2 D) ⃗⃗⃗⃗
𝐹𝑒 = −𝐹 ⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗
𝐵
ELECTROMAGNETIC INDUCTION, SELF INDUCTION, MUTUAL INDUCTION
45. If the magnetic field is directed along the normal to the area, then magnetic flux is:
A) Zero B) Maximum
C) Minimum D) None of them
46. The self inductance of a straight conductor is
A) Zero B) Infinity
C) Very large D) Very small
47. Lenz’s law is a consequence of the law of conservation of
A) Charge B) Mass
C) Energy D) Momentum
48. The self inductance of a coil is a measure of
A) Electrical inertia B) Electrical friction
C) Induced e.m.f D) Induced current
49. The phenomenon of electromagnetic induction was discovered by
A) Flemming B) Oerested
C) Faraday D) Henry
50. When a numbers of turns in a coil is double without any change in the length of the coil,
its self inductance becomes.
A) Four times B) Double
C) Halved D) Squared
51. Lenz’s law gives
A) Direction of magnetic field
B) Direction of motion of conductor
C) Direction of Induced current
D) Direction of current in any electrical circuit
52. Henry is equal to
A) 1 (Weber/Ampere) B) 1 (Weber/volt)
C) 1 Weber-Ampere D) 1 Weber-volt
53. The mutual inductance of a pair of coils is 2H. If the current in one of the coil changes
from 10A to zero in 0.1 s, the e.m.f induced in the other coil is
A) 2V B) 20V
C) 0.2V D) 200V
54. Ratio of e.m.f. induced in secondary to rate of change of current in the primary is called:
A) Mutual induction B) Rectification
C) Both A & B B) Self Induction
55. Energy stored in an inductor is:
A) 1/2 LI2 B) 1/2 CV2
2
C) 1/3 LI D) 1/2 L2I2
56. 1 Henry =
A) VsA-1 B) Vs-1A-1
C) V-1sA D) VsA-2
57. Unit of inductance is
A) VA/S B) VA-1S
2
C) webm / s D) T. web m2 s2

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58. Energy in a current carrying coil is stored in the form of:
A) Electric field B) Magnetic field
C) Dielectric strength D) Heat
59. Resistance opposes current, inductor opposes
A) Current B) Change in current
C) Oppose emf of a battery D) All of these
60. If current is increased 100 times what would be the effect on energy stored in inductor?
A) Increase to 10000 times B) Decrease to 10000 times
C) Remains the same D) None of these
TRANSFORMER
61. A transformer is used to convert
A) Mechanical energy into electrical energy
B) Alternating current into direct current
C) Direct current into alternating current
D) A.C of high voltage and low amperage into A.C of low voltage and high amperage
and vice versa.
62. In a step down transformer the input voltage is 22KV and the output voltage is 550V. The
ratio of the number of turns in the secondary to that in the primary is
A) 1:20 B) 20:1
C) 1:40 D) 40:1
63. In a noiseless transformer and alternating current of 2A is flowing in the primary coil.
The number of turns in the primary and secondary coils are 100 and 20 respectively. The
value of the current in the secondary coil is
A) 0.08A B) 10A
C) 0.4A D) 5A
64. An ideal transformer is used to step up an alternating of emf of 220V to 4.4KV to
transmit 6.6KW of power. The current rating of the secondary is.
A) 30A B) 3A
C) 1.5A D) 1A
65. In a transformer, the number of turns in the primary and secondary coils are 1000 and
3000 respectively. If the primary is connected across 80V AC, the potential difference
across each turn of the secondary will be
A) 240V B) 0.24V
C) 0.8V D) 0.08V
66. A step up transformer is used on a 120V line to provide a potential difference of 2400V.
If the primary coil has 75 turns, the numbers of turns in the secondary coil is
A) 1500 B) 1200
C) 150 D) 1575
67. Transformer cannot change
A) Current B) Voltage
C) Power D) Inductance
68. In a STEP UP transformer the voltage is
A) Vs = Vp B) Vp> Vs
C) Vs >Vp D) None of these
MOTIONAL E.M.F D.C MOTOR AND A.C GENERATOR
69. Induced e.m.f produced in a coil rotating in a magnetic field will maximum when the
angle between the axis of coil and direction of magnetic field is
A) 00 B) 900
0
C) 45 D) 1800
70. An electric motor
A) Creates electrical energy
B) Creates mechanical energy
C) Converts mechanical energy into electrical energy
D) Converts electrical energy into mechanical energy
71. Dynamo is based on the principle of
A) Electromagnetic induction B) Self induction
C) Mutual induction D) None of above

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72. A dynamo
A) Generates mechanical energy
B) Generated electrical energy into mechanical energy
C) Converts electrical energy into mechanical energy
D) Converts mechanical energy into electrical energy
73. To convert mechanical energy into electrical energy, one can use
A) A.C dynamo B) Transformer
C) D.C dynamo D) A and C both
74. What is time period of wave generator if it undergoes 25 waves in 5 seconds?
A) 1/25s B) 1/5s
C) 1/2s D) none of these
75. An emf of 10 v is observed in one coil when the current is changing at the rate of 5
Ampere sec-1 in the other coil. What is the mutual inductance of the coil?
A) 50H B) 40H
C) 5H D) 2H
76. For V=Vo sint find period
A) 𝜋 B) 2𝜋
C) 𝜋/2 D) zero
77. A charged particle moves through a magnetic field perpendicular to it. The energy of the
particle will.
A) Increases B) Decreases
C) Remains unchanged D) Becomes zero
78. Angle between coils of three phase supply is
A) 120o B) 240o
o
C) 360 D) Both A and C

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ELECTRONICS MCQ’s
SEMICONDUCTOR, P-TYPE SEMICONDUCTOR, N-TYPE SEMICONDUTOR
AND DOPING
1. The addition of impurity in pure semiconductor is called
A) Doping B) rectification
C) Both D) None
2. Silicon is a/an semiconductor
A) Intrinsic B) Extrinsic
C) Both D) None
3. The doping of group V with III is called?
A) Acceptor B) Donor
C) Both D) None
4. Acceptor doping make type semi-conductor
A) N B) P
C) k D) I
5. Impurity is added to a semi conductor in the ratio of
A) 1 : 106 B) 106 : 1
4
C) 10 : 1 D) 1 : 104
6. Both Ge and Si belong to the following group of periodic table
A) IV B) III
C) VI D) II
7. Donor impurities are
A) Germanium, Silicon etc B) Indium, Gallium etc
C) Antimony, Arsenic etc D) Sodium Zinc etc
8. In the pure form, the intrinsic semiconductor behaves like
A) Conductor B) Insulator
C) Metals D) Semi metals
9. To obtain a p – type semiconductor Ge crystal, it must be doped with foreign atoms
whose valency is;
A) 2 B) 3
C) 4 D) 5
10. A hole in a p-type semi-conductor is:
A) A donor level B) An excess electron
C) Missing electron D) A missing atom
11. The main difference between intrinsic and extrinsic semi – conductor, under ambient
condition, is;
A) Shape B) Density
C) Electron D) Resistivity
P-N JUNCTION AND SEMICONDUTOR DIDOE
12. A light emitting diode (LED) emits light only when
A) Forward biased B) Reverse biased
C) Unbiased D) None of them
13. Diffusion of free electrons across the unbiased p-n junction produces
A) Forward bias B) Reverse bias
C) Break down D) Depletion region

14. A depletion region of a semiconductor diode is due to

A) Absence of current carriers B) Reverse biasing
C) Forward biasing D) Crystal doping
15. The barrier potential across the p-n junction is created by
A) Majority carriers B) Minority carriers
C) Fixed rows of oppositely charged ions D) Depletion layer
16. The barrier potential of silicon diode at room temperature is
A) 0.3 V B) 0.7 V
C) 1 V D) 2 mV

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17. A p-n junction of semiconductor diode cannot be used as
A) An amplifier B) A rectifier
C) A detector D) Fan open or close switch
18. The specially designed semi conductor diodes used as fast counter in electronic circuit are
A) The light emitting diode B) The photo diode
C) Solar cells D) Photo voltaic cell
19. Photodiode is used in;
A) Automatic switch
B) Optical communication equipment
C) Light meters
D) All
20. LDR is a;
A) Conductor B) Semi-conductor
C) Insulator D) None
21. The photovoltaic cell is always;
A) Forward biased B) Reverse biased
C) No biasing is required D) None
22. A diode can be used as:
A) Modulator B) Demodulator
C) Amplifier D) Rectifier
23. A photo diode is usually made from
A) Bismuth B) Antimony
C) Silicon D) None of them
24. A light emitting diode (LED) is made from
A) Gallium arsenide (GaAs) B) Gallium phosphide (GaPO)
C) Gallium assented phosphide (GaAsP) D) All of the above
25. A photo diode can switch its current ON or OFF in
A) Milli second B) Micro second
C) Nano second D) Centi second
26. The potential barrier for Ge at room temperature is
A) 0.9 volts B) 0.7 volts
C) 0.3 volts D) 1 volt
27. The symbol for semi conductor diode is (ANSWER IS D)

28. A p-n junction diode cannot be used for:

A) Rectification B) Amplification
C) Obtaining light radiation D) Detecting light intensity
BIASING, FORWARD AND REVERSE BIASING
29. Which one of the following statements is correct?
A) A p-n junction conducts only when it is forward biased
B) A p-n junction does not conduct when it is reverse biased
C) A p-n junction is unidirectional in action
D) All of the above

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30. The width of depletion region of a junction
A) Increase under forward bias
B) Is independent of applied voltage
C) Increase under revere bias
D) None of them
31. On increasing the reverse bias to a large value in a p-n junction diode current:
A) Increases slowly B) Remains fixed
C) Suddenly increases D) Decreases slowly
32. The p-n junction on forward biasing acts like a
A) Low resistor B) High resistor
C) Inductor D) Capacitor
33. Avalanche breakdown in a semiconductor diode occurs when:
A) Forward current exceeds a certain value
B) Reverse bias exceeds a certain value
C) Forward bias exceeds a certain value
D) The potential barrier is reduced to zero
34. When a p-n junction is forward biased its resistance is:
A) Very small B) Very large
C) Infinite D) Zero
35. In a forward biased p-n junction, the current is of the order of:
A) Ampere B) Milliampere
C) Microampere D) Nanoampere
RECTIFICATION
36. The rectification of electromagnetic wave is done by
A) Crystal diode B) Dynamo
C) Transformer D) Transistor
37. In full wave rectification, the output DC voltage across the load is obtained for
A) The half cycle of input AC only
B) The negative half cycle of input AC only
C) The complete cycle of input AC only
D) All of the above
38. AC is converted into DC by
A) Amplifier B) Rectifier
C) Transistor D) None of these
39. Rectification Is done by
A) Diode B) Choke
C) Capacitor D) Transformer
40. Rectifier is used to convert:
A) Electrical energy into mechanical energy
B) Heat energy into electrical energy
C) High voltage into low voltage
D) AC into DC
41. In a half – wave rectifier the diode conducts during;
A) Both halves of the input cycle
B) A portion of the positive half of the input cycle
C) A portion of the negative half of the input cycle
D) One half of the input cycle
TRANSISTOR
42. Types of transistors are
A) Two B) Three
C) One D) Four
43. The term transistor stands for
A) Transfer resistor B) Transfer of voltage
C) Transfer of power D) Transfer of current

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44. For common-emitter configuration of n-p-n transistor the current gain 𝛽 given by
A) IC / IB B) IC / IE
C) IE / IB D) IB / IE
45. For proper working of transistors in normal circuit
A) Emitter-base junction is reverse biased and collector base junction is forward biased.
B) Emitter-base junction is forward biased and collector base junction is reverse biased.
C) Emitter-base junction is forward biased and collector base junction is forward biased.
D) None of them.
46. Transistor is an electronic device which has
A) Two terminals B) Three terminals
C) Four terminals D) None of them
47. The emitter collector and base current IE, IC and IB respectively are related as
A) IE = IC – IB B) IB = IE – IC
C) IE = IC + IB D) IC = IE + IB
48. The value of total collector current in a common emitter circuit is
A) IC = β IB B) IC = IB / β
C) IC = β IE D) IC = β / IB
49. The emitter-base junction of a transistor is usually
A) Forward biased B) Reverse biased
C) Non-conduction D) Working in the break down region
50. For normal operation of the transistor collector base junction has to be
A) Forward bias B) Reverse bias
C) Non conduction D) Operating in the break down region
51. The symbol of p-n-p transistor is (ANSWER IS A)

52. When the emitter base junction of a transistor is reverse biased collector current
A) Reverses B) Increases
C) Decreases D) Stops
53. Transistor is also used as
A) Diode B) Switching device
C) Rectifier D) P-type material
54. Silicon transistor are preferred because;
A) High operating temperature B) Low leakage current
C) Suited to high frequency circuits D) All
55. Current gain of a transistor which has collector current of 10 mA and a base current of 40
𝜇𝐴 is;
A) 25 B) 250
C) 2500 D) 25000
56. Transistors are made from:
A) Conductors B) Insulators
C) Non-metals D) Doped semiconductors
E) Alternates between 0 and 1 value

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57. In a p-n-p transistor p-type crystal acts as:
A) Emitter only B) Base only
C) Collector only D) Either emitter or collector
ELECTROMAGNETIC WAVES AND MODULATION
58. The combination of audio frequency and radio frequency waves is called?
A) Modulation B) Demodulation
C) Frequency D) Transmission
59. In frequency modulation (FM), the carrier waves amplitude
A) Remains constant B) Increases
C) Decreases D) None of these
60. Which one of the following waves belongs to electromagnetic spectrum
A) Radio and TV waves B) Radar waves
C) Micro waves D) All of them.
61. Which one of the following Electro-magnetic wave have the highest frequency and
shortest wave-length
A) X- rays B) Ultraviolet rays
C) 𝛾 − rays D) All
62. Electromagnetic waves transmit energy equal to
1
A) 2 mv 2 B) m0 c 2
hf
C) c D) hf
63. transmitting antenna emits
A) magnetic waves B) electric waves
C) electromagnetic waves D) sound wave
64. in free space, the speed of electromagnetic waves is
A) 3 × 108 ms −1 B) 3 × 106 ms−1
C) 4 × 107 ms−1 D) 3 × 109 ms −1
65. When electrons in the transmitting antenna vibrate 94000 times per second, they produce
radio waves having frequency
A) 9.4 kHz B) 940 kHz
C) 94kHz D) None of these
66. The amplitude modulation A.M. transmission frequency range from:
A) 540 Hz to 1600 Hz B) 540 Hz to 1500 Hz
C) 540 KHz to 1600 KHz D) None of these
67. Modulation is the process of:
A) Combining low frequency signal with carrier wave
B) Separating the low frequency signal from higher frequency radio wave
C) Combing low frequency audio signal with high frequency radio wave
D) Both A & C
68. In Amplitude modulation, the frequency of carrier waves is:
A) Increases B) Remains constant
C) Decreases D) None of these

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XII – PHYSICS 2022-2023 P a g e | 27
ADVENT OF MODERN PHYSICS MCQ’s
PHOTON, BLACK BODY RADIATION
1. In Boltzmann expression E=𝜎T2 what does E stand
A) Power per unit area B) Energy per unit area
C) Intensity D) Both A& C
2. Black body emit radiation of
A) Visible light B) Infra-red
C) U.V D) All
3. Name the scientist who won noble for quantum physics and black radiation?
A) Newton B) Plank
C) Maxwell D) Einstein
4. Value of Wein’s constant is
A) 2.9 x 10-3mK B) 6.7 x 10-8mK
6
C) 3.4 x 10 mK D) 3.8 x 108Mk
5. A black body is a
A) A bad absorber and bad radiator B) A bad absorber but ideal radiator
C) Ideal absorber but radiator D) An ideal absorber and ideal
radiator
6. The phenomenon of black body radiations can be explained on the basis of
A) Wave theory B) Classical theory
C) Bohr’s theory D) Quantum theory
7. Which one of the following radiations has the strongest photon
A) T.V waves B) 𝛾 - rays
C) Micro waves D) X- rays
8. The S.I unit of plank’s constant is
A) Joule per sec B) Joule per sec2
C) Joule – sec D) Joule per sec3
9. The virtual mass of photon is
ℎ𝑣
A) Zero B) m = 𝑐
ℎ𝑣 𝑐2
C) m = 𝑐 2 D) m = ℎ𝑣
10. plank’s work was connected with
A) Wave nature of matter B) Photoelectric effect
C) Structure of atom D) Quantum nature radiation
11. According to Wein’s displacement law
A) 𝜆𝑚 = constant B) 𝜆𝑚 T = constant
2
C) 𝜆𝑚 T = constant D) 𝜆2 𝑚 T = constant
12. The total radiation emitted by a perfectly black body is proportional to
A) Temperature on ideal gas scale
B) Fourth root of temperature on ideal gas scale
C) Fourth power of temperature on ideal gas scale
D) Square of temperature on ideal gas scale
13. A black body does not
A) Absorb radiation B) Reflect radiation
C) Refract radiation D) B and C both
14. The SI unit of Stefan’s constant is
A) Wm−2 k −4 B) Nm−2 k −4
C) Jm−2 s−1 k −4 D) Jm−2 k −4
15. If the absolute temperature of a perfectly black body is doubled, then its rate of radiation
increases by a factor of
A) 2 B) 4
C) 8 D) 16

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XII – PHYSICS 2022-2023 P a g e | 28
2
16. A black body at high temperature TK radiates energy at the rate of E W/m . When the
temperature falls to T/2 K, the radiated energy in W/m2 will be
A) E/4 B) E/2
C) 2E D) E/16
17. A hot body will radiated maximum energy if its surface is
A) White and polished B) Black and polished
C) Black and rough D) White and rough
18. A black body at 227oC radiates heat at the rate of 5 cal/cm2/s. The rate of heat radiated in
cal/cm2/s at 727oC is
A) 40 B) 80
C) 160 D) 240
19. A black body at a temperature of 127oC radiates heat at the rate of 5 cal/cm2/s. At a
temperature of 927oC its rate of emission in units of cal/cm2/s will be
A) 405 B) 35
C) 45 D) 350
20. If the temperature of a black body increases from 7oC to 287oC, then the rate of energy
radiation increases by a factor
287 4
A) ( 7 ) B) 16
C) 4 D) 2
21. For a black body, the product of 𝜆max and T is equal to;
A) Wien’s constant B) Planks constant
C) Davison constant D) Dirac constant
22. Rest mass of photon is;
A) Zero B) Infinite
-31
C) 9.11× 10 kg D) None
23. Plank’s constant has the dimensions of:
A) Energy B) Mass
C) Frequency D) Angular momentum
24. The mass of a moving photon is:
ℎ𝑣 ℎ𝑣
A) 𝑐 2 B) 𝑐
C) hv D) Zero
25. The units of Plank’s constant in C.G.S system of units are:
A) eg s-1 B) sec (erg)-1
C) erg second D) erg per second
PHOTOELECTRIC EFFECT
26. The stopping potential depends upon
A) Intensity of incident light B) Frequency of incident light
C) Both a and b D) None
27. The emission of electron from a metal surface when exposed to light is
A) Pair production B) Compton effect
C) Photoelectric effect D) None
28. K.E of photoelectrons depends on
A) Intensity of Light B) Frequency of Light
C) Both of these D) None of these
29. Which rays can produce photoelectric effect?
A) Gamma rays B) UV rays
C) X rays D) All
30. Photon is a
A) Positively charged particle B) Negatively charged particle
C) Neutral particle D) None of these
31. The value of work function depends upon
A) Frequency of incident light B) Wave length of incident light
C) Nature of metal surface D) time for which metal is exposed

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32. Working of a photocell is based on
A) Photoelectric effect B) Compton effect
C) Pair production D) Uncertainty principle
33. A photon of frequency v is incident on a metal surface whose threshold frequency is v0.
The maximum kinetic energy of the emitted electron will be
A) h (𝑣 –𝑣0 ) B) h (𝑣 + 𝑣0 )
1 1
C) 2h (𝑣 – 𝑣0 ) D) 2h (𝑣 + 𝑣0 )
34. Photons frequency 𝑣 fall on a metal surface for which the threshold frequency is 𝑣0 then
A) All ejected electrons have the same kinetic energy 𝜆 (𝑣 – 𝑣0 )
B) The most energetic electrons have kinetic energy h𝑣
C) The ejected electrons have a distribution of kinetic energy from zero to h (𝑣 – 𝑣0)
D) The average kinetic energy of ejected electrons is h 𝑣0
35. The inverse of photoelectric effect is;
A) Emission of 𝛾-rays B) X – rays production
C) Thermionic emission D) None
36. Photoelectric effect was discovered by:
A) Hertz B) Hallwach
C) Lenard D) Millikan
37. A photoelectric cell converts:
A) Light energy into electrical energy B) Light energy into sound energy
C) Electric energy into light energy D) Light energy into heat energy
38. The work function of a photoelectric material is 3.3 eV. The threshold frequency will be
equal to:
A) 8 x 1014 Hz B) 8 x 1010 Hz
C) 5 x 1020 Hz D) 4 x 1014 Hz
COMPTON EFFECT
39. The maximum Compton shift is at
A) 90o B) 0o
o
C) 180 D) 45o
40. The process of x-ray scattering photon is called?
A) Pair production B) Compton effect
C) Photoelectric effect D) None
41. Particle nature of photon was confirmed in
A) De Broglie B) Compton effect
C) Photoelectric effect D) Uncertainty principle
42. After Compton scattering the frequency
A) Increases B) Decreases
C) Remains Same D) None of these
43. Compton effect is associated with
A) α -rays B) Alpha-rays
C) X-rays D) Positive rays
44. What is the momentum of a photon having frequency 1.5 x 1013 Hz?
A) 3.3 x 10-29 kg-m/s B) 3.3 x 10-24 kg-m/s
-234
C) 6.6 x 10 kg-m/s D) 6.6 x 10-30 kg-m/s
45. The change in frequency of scattered photon depends upon the
A) Wave length of incident light
B) Angle at which photon collides with electron
C) Angle of scattering
D) Frequency of incident light
PAIR PRODUCTION AND ANNHILATION OF MATTER
46. If m0 is the rest mass of an electron then the pair production takes place only the energy
of incident photon is greater or equal to
A) M0 c2 B) 2m0 c2
2𝑚0 2𝑐 2
C) 𝑐2
D) 𝑚0
47. The reverse process of pair production is called;
A) Materialization B) Compton Effect
C) Annihilation of matter D) None

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48. Pair production occur only when energy of photon is at least equal to;
A) 1.02 eV B) 1.02MeV
C) 1.2MeV D) All
DE BROGLIE HYPOTHESIS AND DAVISON GERMAN EXPERMENT
49. Who proposed matter waves?
A) De Broglie B) Einstein
C) Stephen Hawking D) Lewis
50. Anti-matter theory was proposed by
A) Einstein B) Bohr
C) Dirac D) Plank
51. Heisenberg uncertainty principle states
A) Position & momentum of a particle can be accurately measured simultaneously
B) Position & momentum of a particle can accurately measured simultaneously only
under certain condition
C) Position & velocity of a particle can be accurately measured simultaneously
D) Position & momentum of a particle cannot be accurately measured simultaneously
52. According to De Broglie, the momentum of a particle in terms of wave length associated
with it is given by
A) P =ℎ⁄𝜆 B) p = h𝜆
C) p = ⁄ℎ 𝜆 D) p =ℎ𝑐⁄𝜆
53. De Broglie waves are associated with
A) Moving charged particles only
B) Moving neutral particles only
C) All moving particles
D) All particles whether in motion or at rest
54. Of the following, the one which has the largest de Broglie wavelength for the same speed
is
A) Oxygen atom B) Proton
C) α – particle D) Electron
55. Tick the correct equation in case of Davison and Germer experiment;
A) ½ mV2=Ve B) mv=√2mVe
h
C) λ = D) None
√2mVe
56. The wavelength of de Broglie waves is independent of:
A) Charge B) Momentum
C) Velocity D) Mass
THEORY OF RELATIVITY
57. Twins paradox is consequence of?
A) Time dilation B) Mass dilation
C) Dirac D) Plank
58. Child paradox is a consequence of what?
A) Length Contraction B) Time Dilation
C) Mass Variation D) Compton Effect
59. According to special theory of relativity, mass of an object moving relative to an observer
with a velocity comparable to the velocity of light.
A) Increases B) Decreases
C) Remain constant D) None of the above
60. Time interval between two events as recorder by an observer in relative motion with
velocity comparable to velocity of light with respect to the point of occurrence of the
event.
A) Dilated B) Shortens
C) Remains constant D) None of the above
61. An observer shoots parallel to a metre stick at very high (relativistic) speed and finds that
the length of metre stick is
A) Greater than one metre B) Less than one metre
C) Equal to one metre D) none of the above

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62. Strictly speaking , the earth is;
A) Inertial frame of reference B) Non – inertial frame of reference
C) Both (a), (b) D) None
63. Time dilation applies to the timing process;
A) Chemical B) Physical
C) Biological D) All
64. The length contraction happens
A) Along the direction of motion B) Perpendicular to direction of
motion
C) Both A & B D) None
65. Mass of an object moving with 0.8 C is;
A) Zero B) Infinite
m
C) 0 D) √0.36m0
√0.36
66. Energy for 1 kg of mass is:
A) 1 × 106 eV B) 5.6 x 1035 eV
16
C) 9 x 10 eV D) 3 x 1019 eV
67. The energy of a photon corresponding to the visible light of maximum wavelength is
approximately:
A) 9 eV B) 1.6 eV
C) 3.2 eV D) 7 eV
68. The rest mass of electron is mo. What would be its mass if it moves with a speed of 0.8 C
3𝑚 5𝑚
A) 5 𝑜 B) 3 𝑜
4𝑚𝑜 2𝑚𝑜
C) 5
D)
√5
ℎ
69. Dimensions of 𝑚 𝑐:
𝑜
A) [LTM-1] B) [MoLTo]
C) [MLT-2] D) None

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XI – PHYSICS 2022-2023 P a g e | 32

ATOMIC SPECTRA MCQ’s

RUTHERFORD ATOMIC MODEL
1. Rutherford’s model of the atom accounts for the
A) Line spectra of elements B) Stability of electron orbits
C) Scattering of α-particles by metal foils D) Stability of nuclei
2. The size of the atom is approximately equal to:
A) 10-4 cm or 10-6metre B) 10-6 or 10-8metre
-8 -10
C) 10 cm or 10 metre D) 10-12 cm or 10-14metre
BOHAR’S ATOMIC MODEL
3. The ratio b/w 3rd and 6th orbit radii of hydrogen atom is
A) 3 : 6 B) 6 : 3
C) 1 : 4 D) None
4. Value of h bar (Reduced Planks Constant into Dirac Constant) is?
A) 1.05 x 10-34 B) 6.63 x 10-34
-19
C) 2.78 x 10 D) None of these
5. Radius of first orbit of Hydrogen atom is equal to
A) 5.3 A0 B) 0.53 A0
0
C) 53 A D) 5.53 A0
6. According to Bohr’s theory of atomic structure, as long as an electron remains in a given orbit its
energy
A) Decreases B) Increases
C) Remains constant D) None of these
7. Bohr’s atomic model
A) Assumes that an electron in an atom can never radiate
B) Assumes only certain values of angular momenta to be possible for orbital electrons
C) Assumes that electrons have wave properties
D) Has an origin from the theory of relatively
8. In the Bohr’s atomic model of the atom
A) The radius of the nth orbit is proportional to n2
B) The magnitude of the potential energy of the electron in an orbit is greater
C) The angular momentum of the electron in an orbit is an integral multiple of h/2π
D) All of the above
9. The ratio of the kinetic energy and the total energy of the electron in the hydrogen atom,
according to Bohr’s theory, is
A) 1: - 1 B) 1:1
C) 1:2 D) 1: - 2
10. The total energy of electron in an atom:
A) Vibrational energy + rotational energy
B) Vibrational energy + kinetic energy
C) Potential energy + kinetic energy
D) Rotational energy + kinetic energy
11. According to Bohr which of the following takes discrete values:
A) Momentum B) Angular momentum
C) Potential energy D) Kinetic energy
12. What is the ratio of the velocity of electron in third Bohr’s orbit to the velocity in 2 nd orbit?
9 2
A) B)
4 3
3 4
C) 2 D) 9
13. Dimension of Rydberg constant is:
A) LT-1 B) L-1T
-1
C) L D) None of these
th
14. Atomic hydrogen is excited to the 8 energy level. How many spectral lines can be observed in
spectrum?
A) 8 B) 16
C) 28 D) 64

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HYDROGEN SPECTRUM
15. Which is of the following appear’s in INFRARED region?
A) Layman series B) Pachen series
C) Bracket series D) Both B & C
16. Which one of the following series of Hydrogen spectrum is in the visible region?
A) Lyman series B) Balmer series
C) Paschen series D) Brackett series
17. The shortest wavelength of the Lyman series is approximately
A) 1020 A0 B) 920 A0
0
C) 820 A D) 720 A0
18. The longest wavelength of the Lyman series is approximately
A) 1420 A0 B) 920 A0
0
C) 1020 A D) 1220 A0
19. Lyman series lies in ………….. region of hydrogen spectrum
A) Ultraviolet B) Infrared
C) Visible D) None of these
20. A Balmer line is emitted when the electron in a Hydrogen atom jumps from
A) A higher orbit to the first orbit B) The first orbit to a higher orbit
C) The second orbit to a higher orbit D) A higher orbit to the second orbit
The Rydberg constant R = 1.09 x 107 m-1 . The wavelength of the first line of the Balmer series is
A) 6563 A0 B) 6563 nm
C) 6563 micro m D) None of these
21. The required energy to detach one electron from Balmer series of hydrogen spectrum is:
A) 13.6 eV B) 10.2 eV
C) 3.4 eV D) -1.5 eV
22. The ratio of minimum to maximum wavelength in Balmer series is:
A) 5 : 9 B) 5 : 36
C) 1 : 4 D) 3 : 4
23. Which series is emitted when electron jumps from a higher orbit to fifth orbit?
A) Lyman B) Balmer
C) Pfund D) Brackett
24. The energy required to move an electron from ground state to higher energy state is called:
A) Excitation energy B) Ionization energy
C) Electron affinity D) Potential energy
25. The energy in electron volt needed to remove the most loosely bound electron from the natural
atom is:
A) Excitation potential B) Ionization energy
C) Threshold energy D) Potential energy
26. Band spectrum is also called:
A) Molecular spectrum B) Atomic spectrum
C) Flash spectrum D) Line absorption spectrum
27. The longest wavelength of light which ionizes a hydrogen atom is:
A) 0.74 Å B) 400 Å
C) 720 Å D) 912 Å
X-Rays
28. The quantum energy of x-ray is
A) 0.1 to 100ev B) 1 to 100ev
C) 1 to 100K ev D) None
29. Which of the following has shorter wavelength then red light?
A) Infrared B) X rays
C) Microwaves D) Radio waves
30. X –rays are
A) Protons B) Light of small wavelength
C) Light of high wavelength D) Electrons
31. Highly intense, monochromatic and coherent beam of light obtained by stimulating atoms of a
suitable material is called
A) X- rays B) Laser
C) Ultraviolet rays D) γ-rays

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32. X – rays travel with the speed of:
A) β – rays B) α – rays
C) Cathode rays D) Light
33. X – rays were discovered by
A) Roentgen B) Einstein
C) Newton D) Rydberg
34. When objects placed in a room are exposed to X- rays, they appear
A) Red B) Yellow
C) Blue D) Invisible
35. The transitions of inner shell electrons in heavy atoms give rise to the emission of:
A) γ –rays B) x – rays
C) β – rays D) None of these
36. X – rays are not affected by:
A) Electronic field B) Magnetic field
C) Both electric and magnetic field D) None of these
37. X – rays are:
A) Longitudinal waves B) Matter waves
C) Electromagnetic waves D) None of these
38. X – rays exhibit the phenomenon of:
A) Diffraction B) Interference
C) Polarization D) All of these
39. Quality of x-rays depends upon:
A) Accelerating voltage B) Filament current
C) Material of the target D) Both A & C
40. The reverse process of photo-electric effect is called:
A) Annihilation of matter B) Compton effect
C) Pair production D) X-rays production
LASER
41. A laser provides
A) A monochromatic beam of photons B) A coherent beam of photons
C) An intense beam of photons D) All of the above
42. The process by which lesser beam can be used to generate 3-dimensional images of objects is
called:
A) Holography B) Geography
C) Tomography D) Radiography
43. In the production of laser beam for each incident photon, we will have two photons going:
A) In the same direction B) In opposite direction
C) At right angle to each other D) In arbitrary direction
44. Meta stable states have life time of the order of:
A) 10–8 sec B) 10–6 sec
–3
C) 10 sec D) 10–10 sec
45. The velocity of laser light is:
A) Less than ordinary light B) More than ordinary light
C) Equal to ordinary light D) None of these
46. Reflecting mirrors in laser is used to:
A) Further stimulation B) For producing more energetic lasers
C) Both A & B D) None of these
47. Most commonly used type of gas laser is:
A) Helium-Neon B) Carbon dioxide
C) Argon ion D) All of above

PREPARED BY: SIR RONALD WILFRED

XI – PHYSICS 2022-2023 P a g e | 35

THE ATOMIC NUCLEUS MCQ’s

ATOMIC NUCLEUS
1. The number of electrons in an atom of atomic number Z and mass number A is
A) A-Z B) Z
C) A D) (A-Z)/2
2. Charge on an electron is
A) 1.6021 x 10-20C B) 1.6021 x 1019 C
-20
C) -1.6021 x 10 C D) 1.6021 x 10-19 C
3. Rest mass of electron is
A) 9.1 x 1031 kg B) 1.67 x 10-27 kg
-31
C) 9.1 x 10 kg D) 1.67 x 1027 kg
4. Atoms of the same element (equal atomic number Z) but of different mass number are called
A) Isotopes B) Allotropes
C) Isobars D) Isomers
5. The nucleus of an atom consists of
A) Electrons and neutrons B) Neutrons and protons
C) Electrons and protons D) Electrons, protons and neutrons
6. Particles which can be added to the nucleus of an atom without changing its chemical properties
are
A) Electrons B) Protons
C) Neutrons D) α-particles
RADIOACTIVITY AND LAW OF RADIOACTIVITY
7. Disintegration of a radioactive element is
A) Periodic B) Random
C) Depends on external conditions D) None of these
8. Gamma rays (γ-rays) are
A) Neutral particles B) Negatively charged particles
C) High energy photons D) Positively charged particles
9. Radioactivity was discovered by
A) M. Curie B) J.J Thomson
C) H. Becqueral D) Compton
10. Radioactive is the phenomenon associated with
A) Transmission of radio waves B) Decay of nucleus
C) Reception of radio waves D) Production of radio waves
11. The most penetrating radiation out of the following is
A) X-rays B) α-rays
C) β-rays D) γ-rays
12. Radioactive radiations are harmful to the living organs. To avoid harm during storage, radioactive
samples are stored in lead boxes. Lead is used because it is
A) Good absorbers B) Bad conductor
C) Heavy D) Strong
HALF LIFE
13. Half-life of an element is 5 days. If we have 50,000 of its atoms, then how many atoms would be
left after 10 days?
A) 15000 B) 25000
C) 50000 D) None of these
14. The half life of a certain radio isotope is such that 7/8 of the given quantity decays in 12 days.
What fraction will be left after 24 days?
77 1
A) 100 B) 32
1 1
C) 64 D) 128
15. The half life (T1/2) and the disintegration constant (λ) of a radioactive substance are related as
A) λT = 1 B) λT = 0.693
C) λ /T = 0.693 D) T/λ = 0.693
16. The reciprocal of the decay constant of a radioactive substance is known as
A) Mean life B) Half life
C) Total life D) Decay series

PREPARED BY: SIR RONALD WILFRED

XI – PHYSICS 2022-2023 P a g e | 36
17. The decay constant (λ) and the half life (T) of a radioactive isotope are related as
A) λ = loge2 / T B) λ = 1 /( loge2) T
C) λ = T / loge2 D) λ = 2 / T
FISSION REACTION FUSION REACTION AND NUCLEAR REACTOR
18. In a nuclear reactor terbine produced electricity by using energy obtained by
A) Sun B) Explosion
C) Steam D) None of these
19. Binding energy of a nucleus is
A) The amount of energy required to split a nucleus into its constituent nucleons.
B) The energy released when nucleons of a given nucleus are fused together.
C) According to Einstein’s special theory of relativity, it is the energy which corresponding to
mass defect of the nucleus
D) All of these
20. The process of splitting a nucleus into lighter nuclei with the release of energy is called
A) Radioactivity B) Chain reaction
C) Fusion reaction D) Fission reaction
21. The main source of solar energy is
A) Nuclear fission B) Nuclear fusion
C) Compton effect D) Radioactivity
22. The control rod in a nuclear reactor is made of
A) Plutonium B) Graphite
C) Uranium D) Cadmium
23. The process of combining two or more lighter nuclei to from a heavier nucleus with the release of
energy is called
A) Radioactivity B) Chain reaction
C) Fusion reaction D) Fission reaction
24. In a nuclear reactors, cadmium rods are used to
A) Produce neutrons B) Absorb neutrons
C) Slow down neutrons D) peed up neutrons
25. The moderator in reactor
A) Produce neutrons B) Absorb neutrons
C) Slow down neutrons D) Speed up neutrons
26. The process of fusion is used in the construction of
A) The atom bomb B) An ordinary bomb
C) Hydrogen bomb D) The neutron bomb

PREPARED BY: SIR RONALD WILFRED

XI – PHYSICS 2022-2023 P a g e | 37

NUCLEAR RADIATIONS MCQ’s

NUCLEAR RADIATION
1. The charge on α-particle is
A) +e B) +2e
C) -2e D) +3e
2. The charge on β-particles is
A) –e B) +e
C) Zero D) -2e
3. The penetration power of β-particles as compared to α-particle is
A) 10 times more B) 1000 times more
C) 100 times more D) None of these
4. Which one of the following radiations possesses greater penetration power
A) α-rays B) β-rays
C) γ-rays D) X-rays
5. Density of Nucleus is of the order of
A) 102kg/m3 B) 1014kg/m3
17 3
C) 10 kg/m D) 1018kg/m3
6. β-particles have erratic path due to their
A) Repulsion B) High speeds
C) Frequent deflections D) None of these
WILSON CLOUD CHAMBER
7. Wilson Cloud Chamber is an instrument used for
A) Accelerating negatively charged particles B) Accelerating positively charged particles
C) Making the path of ionizing particle visible D) All of the above
8. In which of the following the paths of ά and β-particles are observed
A) Geiger Counter B) Cyclotron
C) Wilson Cloud Chamber D) Betatron
GEIGER MULLER COUNTER
9. Geiger Counter is not suitable for
A) Slow counting B) Fast counting
C) Slow and fast counting D) None of these
SOLID STATE DETECTOR
10. A solid state detector basically consists of a
A) Silicon Crystal B) PN-junction diode
C) Transistor D) Germanium crystals
11. Solid state detector is suitable for
A) Slow counting B) fast counting
C) Slow and fast counting D) None of these
USES OF RADIATION
12. Various types of Cancer is treated by
A) C-14 B) Strotium-90
C) Cobalt-60 D) Caesium-137
13. The sterilization of surgical instruments, medical supplies and bandages can be done by exposing
them to a beam of
A) α-rays B) β-rays
C) γ-rays D) Both B and C
14. Which of the following materials is used for shielding γ-radiations?
A) Wood B) Lead
C) Air D) All of the above
15. Which of the following is not a radiation detector?
A) Wilson cloud chamber B) Geiger Counter
C) Cyclotron D) Solid state detector
16. Which of the following is the most useful tracer?
A) Iodine-131 B) Cobalt-60
C) Carbon-14 D) Strontium-90
17. The patient of skin disease is treated by α-radiations due to their
A) Low penetrating power B) High ionization power
C) Helium nuclei nature D) None of these

PREPARED BY: SIR RONALD WILFRED