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) – Practice Test 18

Product Title: 11+ Sutton (S.E.T.) Practice Test 18

Contents: Mathematics Test 27 pages

English Test 16 pages

Answer Sheets 2 pages

Answers 3 pages

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www.exampapersplus.co.uk © 11+ Sutton (S.E.T.) – Practice Test 18 – Mathematics

11+ Sutton
SELECTIVE ELIGIBILITY TEST (S.E.T.)
PRACTICE TEST 18

Mathematics
45 minutes

Instructions:

– This test contains 50 questions.

– Rough working can be done on the paper or on a separate sheet.
– For each question, choose the correct answer and then mark its letter on
the separate answer sheet provided.

Your time will start when you turn over the page.

.
www.exampapersplus.co.uk © 11+ Sutton (S.E.T.) – Practice Test 18 – Mathematics
Page 1

Q1. What is (20 – 4) ÷ 4²?

A 2

B 1.5

C 1

D 0.25

E 0.1

1
Q2. What is [(4 × 2)² – 4] × ?
6

A 80

B 360

C 20

D 15

E 10

Q3. What is 99 – 4 × 25 + 14?

A 11

B 13

C 15

D 17

E 18

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Page 2

Q4. There are 360 apples on a tree.

12 apples are picked every day.

For how many days can this be done before the apples run out?

A 30

B 300

C 40

D 432

E 60

Q5. Small cubes each have lengths of 2 cm.

A number of these cubes are used to make a larger, solid cube of

length 6 cm.

How many such small cubes are required?

A 9

B 27

C 16

D 8

E 12

Q6. How many minutes are there from 09:17 to 13:03 on the same day?

A 204 minutes

B 232 minutes

C 230 minutes

D 216 minutes

E 226 minutes

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www.exampapersplus.co.uk © 11+ Sutton (S.E.T.) – Practice Test 18 – Mathematics
Page 3

Q7. Milk bottles each hold 750 ml.

600 litres of milk are required by a hotel kitchen one day.

How many bottles of milk should be delivered to meet this requirement?

A 450

B 8000

C 45

D 800

E 80

Q8. The length of a rectangle is 2 x + 1.

The width of the rectangle is half the length.

What is the perimeter of the rectangle?

A 6x + 6

B 6x + 3

C 4x + 2

D 8x + 4

E 8x + 3

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www.exampapersplus.co.uk © 11+ Sutton (S.E.T.) – Practice Test 18 – Mathematics
Page 4

Q9. The chart shows the results for eight athletes who took part in a 400 m
sprint and discus throw.

The athletes were awarded points for each event based on their finishing
position, from 8 points for first place down to 1 point for last place.

Which athlete scored the most points over both events?

A Athlete 6

B Athlete 1

C Athlete 2

D Athlete 3

E Athlete 8

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www.exampapersplus.co.uk © 11+ Sutton (S.E.T.) – Practice Test 18 – Mathematics
Page 5

7
Q10. of a number, N, is 434.
8

What is the value of N + 4?

A 520

B 501.5

C 480

D 383.75

E 500

Q11. Amy made a pie chart to show how she spent her leisure time on Sunday.

If Amy spent 72 minutes shopping, for how much time did she exercise?

A 80 minutes

B 84 minutes

C 96 minutes

D 100 minutes

E 2 hours

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Page 6

Q12. 12² + 16² = N²

What is the value of N?

A 22

B 18

C 20
D 24

E 26

1
Q13. 2.8 ÷ =
5

A 12

B 28

C 6

D 8

E 14

Q14. 45 y – 24 = 36 y + 3

What is the value of y?

A 4

B 6

C 2

D 3

E 5

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www.exampapersplus.co.uk © 11+ Sutton (S.E.T.) – Practice Test 18 – Mathematics
Page 7

Q15. A rectangle (R1) has sides of length L and 2L.

If both sides are trebled in length to make a larger rectangle (R2), what is
the ratio of the area of R1 to the area of R2?

A 1:3

B 1:9

C 3:1

D 2:5
E 2:9

Q16. How many hours is 0.25 of one-seventh of a week?

A 8 hours

B 4 hours

C 6 hours

D 7 hours

E 3 hours

Q17. What is the difference between the smallest fraction and largest fraction?

2 4 5 13 8
5 9 11 20 15

A 0.2

B 0.25

C 0.3

D 0.45

E 0.6

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www.exampapersplus.co.uk © 11+ Sutton (S.E.T.) – Practice Test 18 – Mathematics
Page 8

Q18. Which number comes next in the sequence?

4, 5, 9, 14, 23, 37, ...

A 70

B 65

C 62

D 60

E 57

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Page 9

Q19. The graph shows the progress of a 20 km race between two boats.
The boats set off from the harbour at 10:00, went round a buoy and
then returned.

Which boat finished first and by what distance was it ahead?

A Boat A by 1 km

B Boat B by 1 km

C Boat A by 2 km

D It was a tie.

E Boat B by 100 m

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www.exampapersplus.co.uk © 11+ Sutton (S.E.T.) – Practice Test 18 – Mathematics
Page 10

Q20. The graph shows the progress of a 20 km race between two boats.

The boats set off from the harbour at 10:00, went round a buoy and
then returned.

What was the average speed of Boat B for the first 3 km?

A 8 km/h

B 14 km/h

C 9 km/h

D 10 km/h

E 12 km/h

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www.exampapersplus.co.uk © 11+ Sutton (S.E.T.) – Practice Test 18 – Mathematics
Page 11

Q21. In the sequence below, it takes two operations to go from one term to
the next.

8, 20, 44, 92, 188, …

What is the next term in the sequence?

A 360
B 380

C 386

D 390

E 396

Q22. What number is 1019 less than one-eleventh of 222222?

A 19183

B 1875

C 19236

D 1834

E -908

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Page 12

Q23. A donkey eats 35 kg of hay per week.

A bale of hay costs £8 and weighs 20 kg.

Approximately, how much does it cost to feed a donkey for a whole year?

A £700

B £890

C £730

D £840

E £960

Q24. Mr Cell works in a car showroom.

His pay, P, in pounds (£) is worked out as follows:

P = 15T + 100C, where T is the number of hours that Mr Cell works, and
C is the number of cars that Mr Cell sells.

Last week Mr Cell worked from 07:00 to 12 noon on all 7 days, and he sold
1 car every day, except Tuesday when he sold 2 cars.

How much money did Mr Cell earn last week?

A £1175

B £1225

C £1215

D £1325

E £1355

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www.exampapersplus.co.uk © 11+ Sutton (S.E.T.) – Practice Test 18 – Mathematics
Page 13

Q25. Grandma Giles has a new bag of treats for her grandchildren.
1
She gives out 3 treats to each grandchild, after which there is of the
5
original number of treats left in the bag.

If there are 9 treats left in the bag, how many grandchildren does Grandma
Giles have?

A 12

B 15

C 16

D 10

E 18

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Page 14

Q26. The table shows the number of coins collected during a school fair.

Type of Coin Number of Coins

copper coins 50 × 1 p and 60 × 2 p

5p 80

10 p 220

20 p 190

50 p 540

£1 601

£2 480

You are the treasurer of the finance committee.

What is the total value of the coins to the nearest £100?

A £1800

B £1900

C £2000

D £100

E £2050

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Page 15

31 21
Q27. + =?
7 8

3
A 7
56
1
B 7
56
31
C 6
56

13
D 6
56

5
E 7
56

Q28. What is the area of the shape?

A 24 cm²

B 25 cm²

C 26 cm²

D 27 cm²

E 28 cm²

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www.exampapersplus.co.uk © 11+ Sutton (S.E.T.) – Practice Test 18 – Mathematics
Page 16

Q29. What fraction of the diagram is shaded?

1
A
4

2
B
5

1
C
3

3
D
4

1
E
2

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www.exampapersplus.co.uk © 11+ Sutton (S.E.T.) – Practice Test 18 – Mathematics
Page 17

Q30. A sequence of patterns is made of circles and matchsticks.

Pattern 1 Pattern 2 Pattern 3

How many circles are in Pattern 6?

A 28

B 34

C 35

D 36

E 37

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Page 18

Q31. A sequence of patterns is made of circles and matchsticks.

Pattern 1 Pattern 2 Pattern 3

How many matchsticks are in Pattern 5?

A 40

B 42

C 44

D 46

E 48

Q32. Three fair dice are thrown at the same time.

The uppermost numbers are added together.

How many different results are possible?

A 18

B 15

C 16

D 14

E 13

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Page 19

Q33. 56000 ÷ 0.07 = ?

A 8000000

B 800000

C 80000

D 8000

E 800

Q34. Let 5* = 5 × 4 × 3 × 2 × 1

What is the value of 9* ÷ 5*?

A 5136

B 3244

C 6028

D 4260

E 3024

Q35. Let 5* = 5 × 4 × 3 × 2 × 1

What is the value of 67* ÷ 66*?

A 4422

B 67

C 1

D 66

E 2

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Page 20

Q36. The gradient of a line is a measure of how steep it is.

The gradient is found by taking two points on the line and then calculating
the change (difference) in the y-coordinates divided by the change in the
x-coordinates.

For example, take the 2 points (6, 6) and (0, 0) on Line A.

The gradient is (6 – 0) ÷ (6 – 0) = 1.

What is the gradient of Line B?

A -2

B -1

C 2

D 1

E -3

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Page 21

Q37. 98989 × 89898 = ?

A 8898913122

B 4567813111

C 8561343236

D 6745213454

E 9274551848

Q38. 4 caramel bars and 2 chocolate bars cost £5.60.

A caramel bar costs 20 p more than a chocolate bar.

What is the price of 1 chocolate bar?

A 80 p

B 85 p

C 90 p

D 95 p

E £1

Q39. A triangle has coordinates (1, 5), (5, 1) and (1, 1).

What type of triangle is it?

A equilateral triangle

B scalene triangle

C right-angled isosceles triangle

D isosceles triangle with no right angle

E right-angled triangle but not isosceles

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Page 22

Q40. A 20 p coin weighs 5 g.

A 50 p coin weighs 8 g

What is the ratio of the weight of £ y of 20 p pieces to the weight of £ y of

50 p pieces?

A 4:5

B 18 : 15

C They will be the same weight.

D 25 : 16

E 5:4

Q41. A cuboid has a square base, a height of 12 cm and a volume of 192 cm³.

What is the length of one side of the square base?

A 3 cm

B 2 cm

C 6 cm

D 8 cm

E 4 cm

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 www.exampapersplus.co.uk © 11+ Sutton (S.E.T.) – Practice Test 18 – Mathematics
Page 23

Q42. A hexagon and an isosceles triangle are shown.

The hexagon is irregular but does have a vertical line of symmetry.

Which shape has the largest area and by how much?

A hexagon by 10 cm²

B triangle by 4 cm²

C The areas are the same.

D hexagon by 2 cm²

E triangle by 8 cm²

Q43. Amy is 4 years old, Andy is 7 and Ali is 11.

Auntie Agatha gives the children £110 and asks them to share it in the ratio
of their ages.

How much more money should Ali receive than Amy?

A £7

B £14

C £25

D £28

E £35

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Page 24

Q44. Carl says:

“My number is 2 lower than Cara’s number.

When we both cube our numbers, my result is 98 less than Cara’s result.”

What was Carl’s original number?

A 2

B 3

C 4

D 5

E 6

Q45. The radius of the quarter circle is 4 cm.

The perimeter of the quarter circle is (2  + 8) cm.

What is the circumference of the complete circle?

A 6  cm

B 8  cm

C 4 cm

D 4  cm

E 2.5 cm

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www.exampapersplus.co.uk © 11+ Sutton (S.E.T.) – Practice Test 18 – Mathematics
Page 25

Q46. Using the fact that 4076624 ÷ 16 = 254789, or otherwise, what is the value
of 254789 × 32?

A 4153244

B 9156248

C 8153248

D 6153642

E 2183246

Q47. 1 ml = 1 cm³.

An empty tank measures 20 cm × 40 cm × 60 cm.

How many litres of water can the tank hold?

A 4800 litres

B 480 litres

C 40 litres

D 4.8 litres

E 48 litres

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www.exampapersplus.co.uk © 11+ Sutton (S.E.T.) – Practice Test 18 – Mathematics
Page 26

Q48. The lines y = 6, y = -3, x =2 and x = -2 are drawn on a pair of axes.

What is the area of the rectangle that is formed?

A 44 units²

B 40 units²

C 24 units²

D 36 units²

E 32 units²

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Page 27

Q49. Let the letters represent different positive whole numbers:

M×M=1

M×P =3

P+ Q =9

Q ÷ R=P

What is the value of M + P + Q + R?

A 12

B 9

C 8

D 10

E 11

Q50. Four children have 80 marbles between them.

Eva has 10 more marbles than Ethan.

Ethan has 8 more marbles than Esther.

Emma has 12 more marbles than Eva.

How many marbles does Esther have?

A 24

B 16

C 6

D 4

E 2

End of Test

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 www.exampapersplus.co.uk © 11+ Sutton (S.E.T.) – Practice Test 18 – English

11+ Sutton
SELECTIVE ELIGIBILITY TEST (S.E.T.)
PRACTICE TEST 18

English
50 minutes

Instructions:

– This test contains 34 questions, which are split over 4 sections

– You are advised to spend the time suggested below on each section:
Section A: Spelling – 5 minutes
Section B: Text 1 – 25 minutes
Section C: Text 2 – 10 minutes
Section D: Comparison of Texts 1 & 2 – 10 minutes
– These timings are just recommendations – you are allowed to spend as
much of the given time as you like on each section, and you may return to
questions at any time during the test.
– Read the instructions for each section carefully.
– Mark all your responses on the separate answer sheet provided.

Your time will start when you turn over the page.

.
 www.exampapersplus.co.uk © 11+ Sutton (S.E.T.) – Practice Test 18 – English
Page 1

Section A

Which of these is the correct spelling?

1. A Feral

B Feril

C Ferul

D Ferull

E Ferall

2. A Planetiv

B Planetive

C Plaintiv

D Plaintive

E Playntive

3. A Parranoyed

B Paranoyed
C Paranoyde

D Paranoid

E Paranoide

4. A Spectacular

B Spectackuler

C Specktacular

D Spectackulare
E Spectackular

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 www.exampapersplus.co.uk © 11+ Sutton (S.E.T.) – Practice Test 18 – English
Page 2

5. A Reminiss

B Remeniss

C Reminisce

D Remaniss
E Remmaniss

6. A Purmanent

B Permanant
C Pumanant

D Permanent

E Purmanant

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 www.exampapersplus.co.uk © 11+ Sutton (S.E.T.) – Practice Test 18 – English
Page 3

Section B
The poem below is Disabled, by Wilfred Owen.

Read the poem carefully and then answer the questions that follow.

Disabled

He sat in a wheeled chair, waiting for dark,

And shivered in his ghastly suit of grey,
Legless, sewn short at elbow. Through the park
Voices of boys rang saddening like a hymn,
5 Voices of play and pleasure after day,
Till gathering sleep had mothered them from him.

About this time Town used to swing so gay

When glow-lamps budded in the light-blue trees,
And girls glanced lovelier as the air grew dim,—
10 In the old times, before he threw away his knees.
Now he will never feel again how slim
Girls' waists are, or how warm their subtle hands,
All of them touch him like some queer disease.

There was an artist silly for his face,

15 For it was younger than his youth, last year.
Now, he is old; his back will never brace;
He's lost his colour very far from here,
Poured it down shell-holes till the veins ran dry,
And half his lifetime lapsed in the hot race
20 And leap of purple spurted from his thigh.

One time he liked a blood-smear down his leg,

After the matches carried shoulder-high.
It was after football, when he'd drunk a peg,
He thought he'd better join. He wonders why.
25 Someone had said he'd look a god in kilts.
That's why; and maybe, too, to please his Meg,
Aye, that was it, to please the giddy jilts,
He asked to join. He didn't have to beg;
Smiling they wrote his lie: aged nineteen years.
30 Germans he scarcely thought of, all their guilt,
And Austria's, did not move him. And no fears

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 www.exampapersplus.co.uk © 11+ Sutton (S.E.T.) – Practice Test 18 – English
Page 4

Of Fear came yet. He thought of jewelled hilts

For daggers in plaid socks; of smart salutes;
And care of arms; and leave; and pay arrears;
35 Esprit de corps; and hints for young recruits.
And soon, he was drafted out with drums and cheers.

Some cheered him home, but not as crowds cheer Goal.

Only a solemn man who brought him fruits
Thanked him; and then inquired about his soul.

40 Now, he will spend a few sick years in institutes,

And do what things the rules consider wise,
And take whatever pity they may dole.
Tonight he noticed how the women's eyes
Passed from him to the strong men that were whole.
45 How cold and late it is! Why don't they come
And put him into bed? Why don't they come?

7. Why is the man’s outfit ‘Legless, sewn short at elbow’ (line 3)?

Select the most accurate explanation.

A He cannot afford a decent outfit.

B It is old and falling apart.

C It has been damaged in the war.

D He has lost limbs in the war.

E The weather is hot.

8. Select the TWO synonyms of the word ‘ghastly’ in line 2.

A Dreary

B Plain

C Repellent

D Dingy

E Awful

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 www.exampapersplus.co.uk © 11+ Sutton (S.E.T.) – Practice Test 18 – English
Page 5

9. Think about the rhyming scheme of the poem. Which of the following
statements is NOT true?

Select one answer.

A The rhyme scheme is not the same in each stanza.

B The rhyme scheme in stanza one is ABACBC.

C The rhyme scheme in stanza three is ABABCAC.

D The rhyme scheme in stanza six is the same as the rhyme scheme in
stanza two.

E The rhyme scheme in stanza six is ABCBCDD.

10. Which of the following words from the first stanza help to create a
gloomy atmosphere?

Select all that are correct.

A Grey

B Voices

C Dark

D Sleep

E Saddening

11. Select the TWO most accurate words to describe the man after the war.

A Rosy

B Helpless

C Portly

D Haggard

E Spirited

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 www.exampapersplus.co.uk © 11+ Sutton (S.E.T.) – Practice Test 18 – English
Page 6

12. Why did he join the army?

Select all that are correct.

A He wanted to please a girl.

B He liked the idea of looking good in a uniform.

C He was desperate to defeat the German army.

D He had a glorified vision of war.

E The money he would be paid appealed to him.

13. Look carefully at stanza one. Which of the following statements is NOT true?

Select one answer.

A It is dusk.

B It contains a simile.

C It contains alliteration.

D It contains repetition.

E Mothers called for their children to come inside.

14. Select the TWO ages that the man might have been when he joined
the army.

A Twenty

B Nineteen

C Eighteen

D Seventeen

E Sixteen

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Page 7

15. How did the man feel about himself before he became a soldier?

Select all that are correct.

A He felt that he did not have much to offer.

B He felt that he was attractive to women.

C He felt that he had a handsome face.

D He felt that he was a talented artist.

E He felt that he had a comical face.

16. Select the TWO most accurate words to describe the man’s decision to join
the army.

A Naïve

B Considered

C Informed

D Impulsive

E Reluctant

17. Select the TWO most accurate words to describe how the man felt about
joining the army.

A Scared

B Excited

C Resolute

D Unconcerned

E Embarrassed

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 www.exampapersplus.co.uk © 11+ Sutton (S.E.T.) – Practice Test 18 – English
Page 8

18. Look carefully at the stanza four. Which of these statements is NOT correct?

Select one answer.

A The man used to play football.

B The man’s departure for war was loudly applauded.

C Alcohol might have been involved in the man’s decision to join

the army.

D There is reason to believe the man joined a Scottish regiment.

E The man was going into the army as an officer.

19. How does the man feel about himself after serving in the army?

Select all that are correct.

A He feels that he is a broken man.

B He feels that he is unattractive to women.

C He feels that his situation is hopeless.

D He feels that his life is over.

E He feels that his experiences can make him more resilient.

20. What is the effect of the rhetorical questions at the end of the poem?

Select the most accurate explanation.

A They emphasise how impatient the man is.

B They emphasise how helpless the man feels.

C They tell the reader that the man is loved and cared for.

D They tell us that the man gets tired easily.

E They tell us that the man is confused and has no idea what the time is.

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 www.exampapersplus.co.uk © 11+ Sutton (S.E.T.) – Practice Test 18 – English
Page 9

21. What is the difference between the reaction the man got from people when
he left for war and the reaction he got when he returned?

Select the most accurate explanation.

A He got a loud, celebratory reaction when he left and a subdued

reaction when he returned.

B He was quietly cheered by a huge crowd when he left and was greeted
by a solitary man when he returned.

C A concert was put on for him when he left, and he was thanked when
he returned.

D He was cheered when he left and showered with gifts when

he returned.

E He was lauded a hero when he left and ignored when he returned .

22. Select the TWO words that are synonyms of ‘dole’ in the final stanza.

A Regret

B Give

C Dispense

D Dismiss

E Sympathy

23. Select the TWO words that are themes of this poem.

A Loneliness

B Loss

C Restoration

D Camaraderie

E Guilt

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 www.exampapersplus.co.uk © 11+ Sutton (S.E.T.) – Practice Test 18 – English
Page 10

Section C
The poem below is The Soldier, by Rupert Brooke.

Read the poem carefully and then answer the questions that follow.

The Soldier

If I should die, think only this of me:

That there’s some corner of a foreign field
That is for ever England. There shall be
In that rich earth a richer dust concealed;
5 A dust whom England bore, shaped, made aware,
Gave, once, her flowers to love, her ways to roam,
A body of England’s, breathing English air,
Washed by the rivers, blest by suns of home.

And think, this heart, all evil shed away,

10 A pulse in the eternal mind, no less
Gives somewhere back the thoughts by England given;
Her sights and sounds; dreams happy as her day;
And laughter, learnt of friends; and gentleness,
In hearts at peace, under an English heaven .

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 www.exampapersplus.co.uk © 11+ Sutton (S.E.T.) – Practice Test 18 – English
Page 11

24. Select the TWO most accurate words to describe England as it is portrayed
in this poem.

A Flawed

B Impoverished

C Idyllic

D Urban

E Pastoral

25. Which of the following quotes from the poem are examples of personification?

Select all that are correct.

A ‘If I should die, think only this of me’

B ‘In that rich earth a richer dust concealed’

C ‘A dust whom England bore’

D ‘Gave once, her flowers to love’

E ‘And laughter, learnt of friends’

26. Select the TWO most accurate words to describe the narrator.

A Hardened

B Sentimental

C Incredulous

D Conceited

E Patriotic

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Page 12

27. Think about the structure of the poem. Which of the following statements
are true?

Select all that are correct.

A There are two stanzas.

B There are 14 lines altogether.

C The rhyme scheme in the first stanza is ABABCDCD.

D Most of the lines have ten syllables in them.

E The rhyme scheme in the first stanza is ABABCDDC.

28. ‘In that rich earth a richer dust concealed’

What does the word ‘dust’ refer to?

Select the most accurate explanation.

A Soil from the country the narrator has died in

B Soil the narrator intends to take from England to a foreign land

C The body of the narrator

D The belongings of the narrator

E An English statue that has been left to crumble into dust

29. Thinking about the first stanza, how does the narrator portray the possibility
of dying fighting for his country?

Select the most accurate explanation.

A It won’t be in vain because his fallen body will make wherever he dies
a part of England.

B It is a terrible tragedy and waste of a young life.

C It is something that is inevitable and not worth trying to avoid .

D It is something that is worth risking for the greater good of humanity.

E It is something that would be devastating for his family but good

for England.

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30. Think about the poem as a whole. Which of these statements is

NOT correct?

Select one answer.

A Alliteration is used in the poem.

B The first line implies that the narrator would not want anyone to grieve
for him.

C England is personified in the poem.

D England is portrayed as a beautiful place.

E The narrator thinks that fighting for your country is a necessary evil.

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Section D

Answer the following questions using BOTH poems.

31. Think about the narrators in both poems. Which of the following statements
are true?

Select all that are correct.

A The narrator in Disabled is omniscient.

B The first-person narrator in The Soldier is only apparent in the

first line.

C The narrator in Disabled describes the thoughts and feelings of a

disabled ex-soldier.

D We can assume that the narrator in The Soldier is male.

E The narrator in Disabled is in the second person.

32. What is the most significant difference between the poems?

Select the most accurate explanation.

A Disabled is about one soldier, but The Soldier is about soldiers

in general.

B Disabled is about a real war, but The Soldier is about a fictional war.

C Disabled reveals the realities of war, but The Soldier glorifies war.

D Disabled has more stanzas than The Soldier.

E Disabled and The Soldier have different types of narrators.

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33. Why would it be helpful when studying the poems to know about the lives of
the poets and when the poems were written?

Select the most accurate explanation.

A We would know how old the poets were when they wrote the poems,
which would tell us how clever they were for their ages.

B We could investigate the rhyme schemes of other poems being written

at the time they wrote their poems.

C We could make a judgement about whether their poems are

worth reading.

D We could understand how their experiences influenced the poems

they wrote.

E We could decide which poet has used their imagination

more effectively.

34. Which of the following statements are true about BOTH poems?

Select all that are correct.

A Most of the lines have ten syllables.

B They contain rhyming couplets.

C They show how war can be glorified.

D They have war as their central theme.

E They must have been written in the same year.

End of Test

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Answer Sheet

11+ S.E.T. Practice Test 18 – Mathematics – Answer Sheet

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Answer Sheet

11+ S.E.T. Practice Test 18 – English – Answer Sheet

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Answers

11+ S.E.T. Practice Test 18 – Mathematics – Answers

1. C 26. B

2. E 27. A

3. B 28. C
4. A 29. E

5. B 30. D

6. E 31. B
7. D 32. C
8. B 33. B

9. D 34. E

10. E 35. B
11. C 36. B

12. C 37. A

13. E 38. A
14. D 39. C

15. B 40. D

16. C 41. E

17. B 42. C
18. D 43. E

19. A 44. B

20. E 45. B
21. B 46. C

22. A 47. E

23. C 48. D
24. D 49. A

25. A 50. C

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Answers

11+ S.E.T. Practice Test 18 – English – Answers

Marking Guidance

For each question, the maximum number of marks available is shown.

Where questions require multiple answers and use the rubric, ‘Select all that are
correct’, negative marking should also be applied, whereby 1 mark is deducted for
each incorrect answer selected down to 0 marks (note that the number of marks per
question cannot be negative).

For example:

If a question is worth 2 marks and requires options A, B and C to be selected:

Award 2 marks for A, B and C selected or 1 mark for any two correct answers selected.

Award 1 mark for A, B, C and D or E selected (2 marks – 1 incorrect = 1 mark).

Award 0 marks for A, B, C, D and E selected (2 marks – 2 incorrect = 0 marks).

Award 0 marks for A, B and E selected or equivalent (1 mark – 1 incorrect = 0 marks).

1. A [1 mark]
2. D [1 mark]
3. D [1 mark]
4. A [1 mark]
5. C [1 mark]
6. D [1 mark]
7. D [1 mark]
8. C, E (both answers must be correct) [1 mark]
9. D [1 mark]
10. A, C, E [2 marks]
11. B, D (both answers must be correct) [1 mark]
12. A, B, D, E [3 marks]
13. E [1 mark]
14. D, E (both answers must be correct) [1 mark]
15. B, C [2 marks]
16. A, D (both answers must be correct) [1 mark]
17. B, D (both answers must be correct) [1 mark]
18. E [1 mark]
19. A, B, C, D [3 marks]

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Answers

20. B [1 mark]
21. A [1 mark]
22. B, C (both answers must be correct) [1 mark]
23. A, B (both answers must be correct) [1 mark]
24. C, E (both answers must be correct) [1 mark]
25. C, D [2 marks]
26. B, E (both answers must be correct) [1 mark]
27. A, B, C, D [3 marks]
28. C [1 mark]
29. A [1 mark]
30. E [1 mark]
31. A, B, C, D [3 marks]
32. C [1 mark]
33. D [1 mark]
34. A, C, D [2 marks]

Total: 46 marks