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) – Practice Test 20

Product Title: 11+ Sutton (S.E.T.) Practice Test 20

Contents: Mathematics Test 28 pages

English Test 17 pages

Answer Sheets 2 pages

Answers 3 pages

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11+ Sutton
SELECTIVE ELIGIBILITY TEST (S.E.T.)
PRACTICE TEST 20

Mathematics
45 minutes

Instructions:

– This test contains 50 questions.

– Rough working can be done on the paper or on a separate sheet.
– For each question, choose the correct answer and then mark its letter on
the separate answer sheet provided.

Your time will start when you turn over the page.

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www.exampapersplus.co.uk © 11+ Sutton (S.E.T.) – Practice Test 20 – Mathematics
Page 1

Q1. Clara reads 105 words a minute.

If a page contains 210 words on average, how many pages will Clara read in
1 hour?

A 120 pages

B 60 pages

C 45 pages

D 15 pages
E 30 pages

Q2. Work out 47 – (10 – 6)

A 31

B 43

C 21

D 51

E 29

Q3. How many 20 p coins can I get for £32?

A 160

B 16

C 96

D 150

E 120

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Page 2

Q4. The time in Canberra is 9 hours ahead of the time in London.

In Canberra it is 13:00.

What is the time in London?

A 02:00

B 22:00

C 04:00

D 03:00

E 21:00

Q5. Tina and Gina collect soft animals and have 98 between them.

Gina has 14 more than Tina.

How many soft toys does Tina have?

A 48

B 44

C 58

D 54

E 42

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Page 3

Q6. Three pieces of wood, each 2 m 4 cm in length, are cut from an 8 m plank
of wood.

How much of the plank is left over?

A 88 cm

B 80 cm

C 1.88 m

D 1.82 m

E 1.48 m

Q7. What number goes in the box to complete the equation?

12 15
=
20

A 20

B 18

C 16

D 15

E 14

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Page 4

Q8. The diagram shows two angles on a straight line.

What is the value of y?

A 6

B 4

C 5

D 3

E 8

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Page 5

Q9. The diagram shows the distance from Mork to four other towns.

Mr Parth chooses one of the four directions shown and travels at an average
speed of 54 km/h for 50 minutes before arriving at a town.

At which town does Mr Parth arrive?

A Parf

B Whey

C Gart

D Helm

E none of them

Q10. 18 packets of crisps cost £10.26.

How many packets of crisps can I buy for £5?

A 4

B 5

C 6

D 7

E 8

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www.exampapersplus.co.uk © 11+ Sutton (S.E.T.) – Practice Test 20 – Mathematics
Page 6

Q11. Which of the moves (A–E) listed is a translation?

A 1→4

B 1→2

C 2→5

D 3→1

E 4 →3

Q12. What percentage of 1 million is 25000?

A 25%

B 0.25%

C 2.5%

D 4%

E 0.4%

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Page 7

Q13. Four circles are placed inside a square.

The circles are the same size and each has a radius of 3 cm.

What is the area of the square?

A 36 cm²

B 64 cm²

C 100 cm²

D 144 cm²

E 48 cm²

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Page 8

Q14. The three numbers below are alike in some ways.

1 64 729

Which one of the following is true?

A They are all odd numbers.

B They are all both square and cube numbers.

C They are all 1 away from prime numbers.

D They are the most written 1-digit, 2-digit and 3-digit numbers.

E They are either square or cube numbers.

Q15. Consider the digits 1, 2, 5 and 8.

The four different digits can be put together in different ways to form
4-digit numbers.

Which one of the following is NOT true about those results?

A A multiple of 5 can be formed.

B Both odd and even numbers can be formed.

C A number divisible by 4 can be formed.

D A multiple of 3 can be formed.

E A multiple of 8 can be formed.

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Page 9

Q16. The hexagon has a horizontal line of symmetry.

What is the area of the hexagon?

A 180 cm²

B 160 cm²

C 156 cm²

D 144 cm²

E 120 cm²

Q17. What is 898.989 to one decimal place?

A 899.0

B 898

C 898.9

D 8989.8

E 89.9

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Page 10

Q18. Kim was t years old 5 years ago.

How old will Kim be in 8 years’ time?

A t+ 11

B t+ 3

C t–3
D t+ 13

E t – 13

Q19. Matilda maps out a shape in the snow.

She starts by facing north and then scoops out the snow for 4 m
travelling north.

She then turns 90° clockwise and scoops out the snow for 6 m in an
easterly direction.

Then Matilda again turns 90° clockwise and scoops out the snow in a
southerly direction for 10 m.

Finally, she turns 135° clockwise and scoops out the snow while returning
to her original starting point.

What shape has Matilda mapped out?

A rhombus

B trapezium

C rectangle

D parallelogram

E kite

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Page 11

Q20. The graph shows the number of bacteria on a surface over 12 days.

On which day number is there four times as many bacteria as on Day 8?

A Day 11

B Day 9

C Day 10

D Day 12

E Day 13

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Page 12

Q21. The graph shows the number of bacteria on a surface over 12 days.

To the nearest 1000, how many bacteria do you expect there to be on

Day 13 if the pattern of growth continues?

A 12000

B 5000

C 6000

D 7000

E 8000

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Page 13

Q22. 4 y + 2 – 3(y – 2) =

A y+ 6

B y+ 8

C y+ 10

D y+ 7

E y+ 4

1 3
Q23. Work out ×
6 4

A 0.25

B 0.2

C 0.125

D 0.375

E 0.3

Q24. The maximum weight allowed for a suitcase on a flight is 17.5 kg.

Currently, Jay’s suitcase weighs 17.045 kg.

How many extra 35 g snack bars can Jay pack in her suitcase?

A 10

B 11

C 12

D 13

E 14

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www.exampapersplus.co.uk © 11+ Sutton (S.E.T.) – Practice Test 20 – Mathematics
Page 14

Q25. Kit starts with a number, N.

Kit adds 3 to his number and then divides by 4.

Finally, Kit squares the result.

Which formula is equivalent to Kit’s operations?

A [(N + 3) ÷ 4]²

B (N + 3 ÷ 4)²

C (N + 3)² ÷ 4

D (N + 3) ÷ 4²

E (N + 3)² ÷ 4

Q26. What is 21.43 as a fraction?

2143
A
1000
2143
B
10

2143
C
100
2143
D
10000

21
E
4300

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Page 15

3 2 2
Q27. × ÷ =?
7 6 7

A 0.5

B 0.25

C 0.4

D 0.6

E 10.75

Q28. What is the 50th term of the sequence?

8, 15, 22, 29, 36, 43, ...

A 323

B 295

C 94

D 351

E 278

Q29. The formula for the nth term of a sequence is given by n³ + n + 4.

What is the difference between the 3rd term and the 6th term?

A 168

B 174

C 180

D 182

E 192

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Page 16

Q30. The graph converts British Pounds (£) to Swiss Francs (Fr).

How many Swiss Francs (Fr) is £60?

A 80 Fr

B 65 Fr

C 72 Fr

D 90 Fr

E 75 Fr

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Page 17

Q31. The ratio of the number of pupils absent from school on Monday to the
number of pupils present was 1 : 21.

If there are 990 pupils registered at the school, how many pupils were
absent on Monday?

A 52

B 50

C 45

D 42

E 40

Q32. Suri has a spelling test of 26 words every week for 6 weeks.

Suri gets 1 mark for every correct spelling.

After 5 tests her average result is 14.

After the 6th test her average goes up to 16.

What did Suri score in the 6th test?

A 24

B 26

C 20

D 21

E 22

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Page 18

Q33. The shape is made from two rectangles placed together.

What is the perimeter of the shape?

A a+b+x+y
B a + b + x + 2y
C 2(a + x)

D 2a + b+x+y
E a + b + 2x

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Page 19

Q34. The shape is made from two rectangles placed together.

What is the area of the shape?

A ay + b(x – y)
B ay + bx – y
C ax – by
D ax – by + ay
E bx + ay

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Page 20

Q35. Put these fractions in order of size, starting with the smallest.

13 31 7 19 25
16 40 8 24 32

25 19 13 7 31
A
32 24 16 8 40

31 25 13 19 7
B
40 32 16 24 8

31 25 19 7 13
C
40 32 24 8 16

31 25 19 13 7
D
40 32 24 16 8

31 19 13 25 7
E
40 24 16 32 8

Q36. Isra says:

“Subtracting 3 from my number and then multiplying by 4 is the same as

multiplying my original number by 2.”

What is Isra’s number?

A 10

B 9

C 8

D 7

E 6

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Page 21

Q37. Four consecutive numbers multiply together to make 1680.

What is the sum of the four numbers?

A 24

B 25

C 26

D 27

E 28

Q38. Work out 60 ÷ 0.15 × 0.5

A 50

B 200

C 400

D 800

E 150

Q39. What is the range of these expressions if x is at least 1?

4x + 1 5x + 6 6x + 5 8x 10 x + 3

A 6x + 4

B 4x + 6

C 5x

D 6x + 2

E 14 x + 4

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Page 22

26 31
Q40. Work out –
6 10

1
A 1
6

B 1.2
7
C 1
30
17
D 1
30

1
E 2
30

Q41. A clock shows the correct time at 10:00.

After that, it speeds up and gains 30 seconds every 5 minutes.

When the clock says 12:45, what is the real time?

A 11:50

B 12:42

C 13:10

D 12:30

E 12:20

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Page 23

Q42. 5 rulers cost the same as 10 pencils.

6 pencils cost the same as 1 pencil sharpener.

How many rulers are the same price as 1 pencil sharpener?

A 4

B 8

C 5

D 6

E 3

Q43. There is a delivery of apples to a supermarket.

The ratio of bad apples to good apples in the batch is 1 : 9.

The bad apples are taken out and used as compost.

What percentage of the apples from the delivery can be sold?

A 90%

B 85%

C 91%

D 88%

E £89%

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Page 24

Q44. Which operation changes 234000 to 2.34?

A multiply by 0.001

B divide by 100000

C multiply by 0.0001

D subtract 2339998.66

E divide by 10000

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Page 25

Q45. A trapezium is drawn with vertices at (-2, 1), (2, 1), (3, -1) and (-3, -1).

A pin is stuck through the trapezium at the origin and the shape is rotated a
quarter turn anticlockwise.

What are the new coordinates of the vertices after the rotation?

A (-2, 1), (2, 1), (3, 1) and (3, -1)

B (-1, 2), (1, 3), (1, -3) and (-1, -2)

C (-1, 2), (-1, 3), (1, -3) and (1, -2)

D (-1, -2), (1, 3), (-1, -3) and (-1, -2)

E (-1, 2), (1, 3), (1, -3) and (-2, -1)

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Page 26

Q46. Mike’s patio measures 10 m × 12 m.

Patio tiles measure 25 cm × 25 cm.

The tiles are sold in packs of 20 tiles.

How many packs of tiles does Mike need to pave his patio?

A 24

B 96

C 21

D 86

E 128

Q47. Let r4.30 mean ‘the remainder when 4 is divided into 30’.

So r4.30 = 2.

What is the value of r(r3.10 + r4.15).18?

A 0

B 1

C 2

D 13

E 4

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Page 27

Q48. In 2016, Stefan had a height of S m and Amy had a height of A m.

After that, Stefan grew an average of g cm per year for 4 years.
Amy grew an average of h cm less than Stefan per year for 4 years.

What is Amy’s height in cm in 2020?

A 100 A + 4(g – h)
B A + 4(g + h)
C 100 A + 4(g + h )

D S – A + (g – h )
E 0.01 A + 4 g – h

Q49. The diagram shows a regular star with 5 lines of symmetry.

What is the size of angle s?

A 106°

B 108°

C 100°

D 104°

E 102°

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Page 28

Q50. Freya has some large building blocks and some smaller building blocks.

When 5 of the larger blocks are put together, they are 12 cm in length.

When 4 of the smaller blocks are put together, they are 7.2 cm in length.

Freya uses a number of the blocks to make the following shape:

What is the length of the shape?

A 6.8 cm

B 7 cm

C 7.1 cm

D 7.8 cm

E 6.4 cm

End of Test

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11+ Sutton
SELECTIVE ELIGIBILITY TEST (S.E.T.)
PRACTICE TEST 20

English
50 minutes

Instructions:

– This test contains 34 questions, which are split over 4 sections

– You are advised to spend the time suggested below on each section:
Section A: Spelling – 5 minutes
Section B: Text 1 – 25 minutes
Section C: Text 2 – 10 minutes
Section D: Comparison of Texts 1 & 2 – 10 minutes
– These timings are just recommendations – you are allowed to spend as
much of the given time as you like on each section, and you may return to
questions at any time during the test.
– Read the instructions for each section carefully.
– Mark all your responses on the separate answer sheet provided.

Your time will start when you turn over the page.

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 www.exampapersplus.co.uk © 11+ Sutton (S.E.T.) – Practice Test 20 – English
Page 1

Section A

Which of these is the correct spelling?

1. A Picturesqu

B Pickturesq

C Picturesck

D Picturesque

E Picturesk

2. A Interagate

B Innterrogate

C Interogate

D Innteragate

E Interrogate

3. A Menial

B Meeneal
C Meaneal

D Meenial

E Meanial

4. A Rasberry

B Raspberry

C Rasburry

D Rarsberry
E Rarspbury

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 www.exampapersplus.co.uk © 11+ Sutton (S.E.T.) – Practice Test 20 – English
Page 2

5. A Broccolli

B Brocolea

C Brocolee

D Brocoli
E Broccoli

6. A Mallevalant

B Malevolent
C Mallevolant

D Malevolant

E Mallevoleant

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 www.exampapersplus.co.uk © 11+ Sutton (S.E.T.) – Practice Test 20 – English
Page 3

Section B
The extract below is taken from The Brief History of the Dead, by
Kevin Brockmeier.

Read the extract carefully and then answer the questions that follow.

The wind had been blowing for twenty-three days, first from the east and then from
the south, making a prolonged death moan inside the vents. Occasionally a gust of ice
would push its way through the hut’s system of turns and baffles, and hundreds of
clear grey crystals would come fanning out over the room, peppering down onto the
5 desk and the floor. Laura would stop whatever she was doing and watch them melt.
She was disheartened by how long it took. The heating panels were obviously
breaking down, if not crippled beyond repair. Next the lights would go, and after that,
if she was still alive, it would be the food stores. What a total damned disaster.
The trouble had started nearly a month ago, when the antenna had snapped off the
10 communications array. She and Puckett and Joyce had reconstructed the event as
best they could. The antenna was a slender aluminium stilt sheltered inside a large
satellite dish, and a thick casing of snow and ice had collected around it. The wind had
driven the temperature above freezing for a day or two — the same freak wind that
was slowly melting the ice shelf out from under them — and the mass of snow and ice
15 had slipped from the bowl of the array in one giant chunk, taking the antenna along
with it.
That was it. That was all that had happened. The whole thing was unbelievably stupid.

Why hadn’t the dish been constructed out of thermogenic metal? Or, failing that, why
hadn’t someone positioned it so that it would remain empty? Or, at the very least,
20 why hadn’t the three of them been provided with the equipment they might need to
repair it? Sometimes it seemed to Laura that the entire expedition had been slapped
together by monkeys. But no. It had been planned and financed entirely by the Coca-
Cola Corporation, as either a publicity exercise or a research expedition, depending on
where you read about it: an internal document or a news release.

25 The idea was to send a team of people to the Antarctic to explore methods of
converting polar ice for use in the manufacture of soft drinks. The ice cap was already
melting, after all, pouring into the ocean by the tankerload, and the corporation might
as well take advantage of it while they still could. That was their reasoning. The
advertising department had even devised a new slogan: “Coca-Cola — made from the
30 freshest water on the planet,” which, if it caught on, they planned to modify in a year
or two to “Coca-Cola — now that’s fresh!”

The expedition was supposed to last for six months. The planning board had
appointed Michael Puckett the polar specialist, Robert Joyce the soft drink specialist,

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 www.exampapersplus.co.uk © 11+ Sutton (S.E.T.) – Practice Test 20 – English
Page 4

and her, Laura, the wildlife specialist. There was some debate as to whether they
35 should call her a “wildlife” specialist or an “animal life” specialist — was Antarctica wild
in the same way that, say, the Amazon of the last century was wild? — but the
argument was quelled when someone suggested that the board consider the word
“wild” in its original sense, as a neglected or uncultivated region. So it was that the
photograph of Laura that appeared in all the newspapers, the embarrassing one that
40 depicted her stuffing underwear into a military-style canvas bag, bore a caption that
read, “Laura Byrd, wildlife specialist, prepares for the long winter.” Her first lover had
been a journalism professor, and she was well aware of the subtle ways that
newspaper editors contrived to mock the stories they found absurd. Even now, with
the cold gradually folding itself around the hut like a pair of hands, she could feel the
45 colour rising to her cheeks as she thought about it.
Photographs. Wildlife. Monkeys.

Wasn’t there an old television commercial that showed a family of monkeys sharing a
bottle of Coca-Cola at Christmas? She was pretty sure she remembered seeing
something like that when she was a little girl.

50 In any case, it was not long after the antenna splintered free of the satellite dish —
two days, to be exact — that the radio gave a few last splutters of white noise and
chopped-up syllables and then went silent. Why couldn’t she stop rehearsing the
details? The web and telephone connections fell dead along with the transceiver, so
that the three of them — she, Puckett and Joyce — had no way of contacting the
55 corporation for help. Puckett insisted that they search the shelter for any spare parts
they could use to patch the radio or the transceiver back together. There were only
two rooms to go through, a living area and a sleeping area; nevertheless, the
operation took them half the day. They uncovered several hundred bags of pemmican
and jerky, a jar of ten thousand vitamin C tablets, a bundle of electric blankets tied
60 together with elastic cords, two kerosene lanterns, six cans of freeze-dried coffee, a
Primus stove, an extra pair of collapsible tents, and even a rudimentary tool chest,
but nothing that would help them fix the radio or broken antenna.

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Page 5

7. Select the TWO most accurate words to describe how Laura is feeling in the
first paragraph.

A Discombobulated

B Dispirited

C Disorientated

D Confounded

E Concerned

8. What was the significance of the ice crystals not melting quickly?

Pick the most accurate explanation.

A It meant that Laura had to wait to be able to clear them away.

B It meant that the hut was not warm, indicating an issue with the
heating panels.

C It meant that Laura wasted a lot of time watching and waiting for them
to melt.

D It meant that they would damage the heating panels.

E It meant that Laura had forgotten to turn the heating on .

9. Look carefully at the first paragraph. Which of these is NOT correct?

Select one answer.

A There had been a strong wind for the best part of a month.

B Tiny bits of ice fell on the floor of the hut.

C The wind is personified.

D The layout of the hut baffles Laura.

E Laura felt that the heating panels would probably not be repairable.

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Page 6

10. Thinking about paragraph one, what are the issues that Laura feels
she faces?

Select all that are correct.

A Food supplies running out

B The lights not functioning

C The heating panels failing completely

D Dying from cold

E Being injured by falling shards of ice

11. Which of the following contributed to the antenna snapping off the
communications array?

Select all that are correct.

A The ice shelf melting

B The temperature rising above freezing

C Snow and ice collecting in the satellite dish

D Ice crystals coming into the hut

E The position of the satellite dish

12. What is the effect of the rhetorical questions in lines 18–21?

Select all that are correct.

A They emphasise Laura’s frustration that things had not been

done properly.

B They show that Laura does not understand much about satellite dishes.

C They show that Laura was baffled as to why things had not been
done properly.

D They show that Laura is being ignored by the others on the expedition .

E They suggest that Laura is starting to lose her mind .

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 www.exampapersplus.co.uk © 11+ Sutton (S.E.T.) – Practice Test 20 – English
Page 7

13. What is an ‘internal document’ (line 24)?

Select the most accurate explanation.

A A document that is in an envelope that has been sealed and addressed

B A document that is locked in a safe on the premises of a business

C A document that is publicly available to anybody who officially requests

to see it

D A document created within a business and not shared with anybody

outside of the business

E A photocopy of an original document

14. Select the TWO most accurate words to describe the people who had put
the expedition together.

A Canny

B Discerning

C Incompetent

D Lackadaisical

E Ingenious

15. Why is the word ‘that’s’ (line 31) in italics?

Select the most accurate explanation.

A It indicates that the word should be said quietly.

B It indicates that the word should be drawn-out .

C It indicates that the word should be said quickly.

D It indicates that there should be a pause before saying the word .

E It indicates that the word should be emphasised.

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Page 8

16. Which TWO quotes illustrate that humankind has not been taking care of
the planet?

A ‘pouring into the ocean by the tankerload’ (line 27)

B ‘a thick casing of snow and ice’ (line 12)

C ‘Amazon of the last century’ (line 36)

D ‘cold gradually folding itself around the hut’ (line 44)

E ‘two kerosene lanterns’ (line 60)

17. Select the TWO synonyms of ‘devised’ in line 29.

A Scrawled

B Doodled

C Concocted

D Invented

E Sung

18. Look carefully at lines 18–38. Which of these statements is NOT correct?

Select one answer.

A The Coca-Cola Corporation said publicly that the Antarctic expedition

was a publicity exercise.

B We can assume that the expedition will not last six months.

C The advertising department of the corporation came up with

two slogans.

D The argument about what to call Laura was resolved.

E Robert was an expert in non-alcoholic drinks.

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Page 9

19. Look carefully at lines 43–45. Which of the following language techniques
are used in these lines?

Select all that are correct.

A An allegory

B Onomatopoeia

C A pun

D A simile

E Personification

20. Select the TWO most likely words that Laura would use to describe
newspaper editors

A Sycophantic

B Clever

C Creepy

D Unkind

E Deceitful

21. Select the TWO most accurate words to describe how Laura felt about her
photograph that appeared in newspapers.

A Humiliated

B Ambivalent

C Mortified

D Undecided

E Remorseful

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22. Look carefully at the last paragraph. Which of these is NOT correct?

Select one answer.

A Laura, Robert and Michael had more vitamin C tablets than they
needed for a six-month expedition.

B Laura couldn’t stop the moment the radio stopped working from going
round and round in her head.

C The trio needed help.

D Puckett was hoping the radio could be mended.

E Laura was confident that the radio could be mended.

23. What items did the trio uncover when they searched the hut?

Select all that are correct.

A Food items

B Food supplements

C Two tents

D A basic toolkit

E An Aga

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Section C
The extract below is taken from The Voyages of Captain Scott, by
Charles Turley.

Read the extract carefully and then answer the questions that follow.

In June, 1899, Robert Falcon Scott was spending his short leave in London, and
happened to meet Sir Clements Markham in the Buckingham Palace Road. On that
afternoon he heard for the first time of a prospective Antarctic expedition, and on the
following day he called upon Sir Clements and volunteered to command it. Of this
5 eventful visit Sir Clements wrote: 'On June 5, 1899, there was a remarkable
coincidence. Scott was then torpedo lieutenant of the Majestic. I was just sitting down
to write to my old friend Captain Egerton about him, when he was announced. He came
to volunteer to command the expedition. I believed him to be the best man for so great
a trust, either in the navy or out of it. Captain Egerton's reply and Scott's testimonials
10 and certificates most fully confirmed a foregone conclusion.'

The tale, however, of the friendship between Sir Clements and Scott began in 1887,
when the former was the guest of his cousin, the Commodore of the Training Squadron,
and made the acquaintance of every midshipman in th e four ships that comprised it.
During the years that followed, it is enough to say that Scott more than justified the
15 hopes of those who had marked him down as a midshipman of exceptional promise.
Through those years Sir Clements had been both friendly an d observant, until by a
happy stroke of fortune the time came when he was as anxious for this Antarctic
expedition to be led by Scott as Scott was to lead it. So when, on June 30, 1900, Scott
was promoted to the rank of Commander, and shortly afterwards was free to undertake
20 the work that was waiting for him, one great anxiety was removed from the shoulders
of the man who had not only proposed the expedition, but had also resolved that nothing
should prevent it from going.

Great difficulties and troubles had, however, to be encountered before

the Discovery could start upon her voyage. First and foremost was the question of
25 money, but owing to indefatigable efforts the financial horizon grew clearer in the early
months of 1899. Later on, in the same year Mr. Balfour expressed his sympathy with
the objects of the undertaking, and it was entirely due to him that the Government
eventually agreed to contribute £45,000, provided that a similar sum could be raised
by private subscriptions.
30 In March, 1900, the keel of the new vessel, that the special Ship Committee had
decided to build for the expedition, was laid in the yard of the Dundee Shipbuilding
Company. A definite beginning, at any rate, had been made; but very soon after Scott
had taken up his duties he found that unless he could obtain some control over the

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various committees and subcommittees of the expedition, the only day to fix for the
35 sailing of the ship was Doomsday. A visit to Norway, where he received many practical
suggestions from Dr. Nansen, was followed by a journey to Berlin, and there he
discovered that the German expedition, which was to sail from Europe at the same
time as his own, was already in an advanced state of preparation. Considerably
alarmed, he hurried back to England and found, as he had expected, that all the
40 arrangements, which were in full swing in Germany, were almost at a standstill in
England. The construction of the ship was the only work that was progressing, and
even in this there were many interruptions from the want of someone to give
immediate decisions on points of detail.

24. Select the TWO words that are synonyms of ‘prospective’ in line 3.

A Lavish

B Costly

C Unlikely

D Intended

E Future

25. Why did Markham choose Scott to lead the Antarctic expedition?

Select all that are correct.

A He had faith in Scott.

B Egerton had faith in Scott.

C Scott had good references.

D Scott had led an expedition to the Antarctic before.

E Egerton persuaded him to against his better judgement.

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26. Look carefully at lines 11–22. Which of these statements is NOT true?

Select one answer.

A Scott and Markham first met in 1887.

B Scott was well-regarded in the navy.

C Markham’s decision for Scott to lead the expedition was a hasty one.

D Markham was determined that the Antarctic expedition would happen.

E Scott did not disappoint those that believed in him.

27. Look carefully at lines 23–29. Which of these statements is NOT correct?

Select one answer.

A Mr Balfour made it clear he supported the aims of the expedition.

B Mr Balfour secured funding for the expedition from the Government.

C The Government had a condition attached to their funding.

D The Government was keen to back the expedition.

E The Discovery was a ship.

28. Why do you think that Scott was ‘alarmed’ (line 39)?

Select the most accurate explanation.

A He did not like the idea of the German expedition being more
successful than the British expedition.

B He realised that the Germans were going to sabotage British attempts

to reach the Antarctic.

C The Germans declined to offer their assistance to him, making Scott

feel that his expedition was doomed.

D He realised that the British did not have the expertise to make their
expedition successful.

E He realised that the German expedition would leave the next day,
meaning they would reach the Antarctic first.

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29. Select the TWO most accurate words to describe the preparations for Scott’s
Antarctic expedition.

A Non-existent

B Problematic

C Pointless

D Purposeful

E Slow

30. Select the TWO most accurate words to describe Scott.

A Committed

B Frivolous

C Adventurous

D Surly

E Superficial

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Section D

Answer the following questions using BOTH extracts.

31. Which of the following are mentioned in BOTH extracts?

Select all that are correct.

A Government

B Funding

C The Antarctic

D A ship

E Flawed preparations

32. Think about the differences between the extracts. Which of the following
statements is NOT true?

Select one answer.

A Extract 1 is fictional and Extract 2 is non-fictional.

B Extract 1 is set in a later year than Extract 2.

C Extract 1 has a first-person narrator and Extract 2 has a third-person

narrator.

D One person is going to lead the expedition in Extract 2 but there is no

obvious leader in Extract 1.

E The expedition is still in the planning stage in Extract 2 but the

expedition is underway in Extract 1.

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33. Both extracts contain at least one idiom. Select the TWO quotes that
support this statement.

A ‘the entire expedition had been slapped together by monkeys’

(Extract 1, lines 21–22)

B ‘Why hadn’t the dish been constructed out of thermogenic metal?’

(Extract 1, line 18)

C ‘The construction of the ship was the only work that was progressing’
(Extract 2, line 41)

D ‘all the arrangements, which were in full swing’ (Extract 2, lines 39–40)

E ‘The idea was to send a team of people to the Antarctic to explore

methods of converting polar ice’ (Extract 1, lines 25–26)

34. What can we infer from the titles of the books these extracts are taken from?

Select the most accurate explanation.

A Laura may not survive her expedition, but Scott goes on at least one
more expedition.

B The Antarctic expeditions are successful in both books.

C Scott and Laura both went on a number of Antarctic expeditions after

their first.

D Both the fictional and non-fictional expedition were thoroughly enjoyed

by all those involved with them.

E Both authors had a pessimistic view of expeditions.

End of Test

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Answer Sheet

11+ S.E.T. Practice Test 20 – Mathematics – Answer Sheet

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Answer Sheet

11+ S.E.T. Practice Test 20 – English – Answer Sheet

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Answers

11+ S.E.T. Practice Test 20 – Mathematics – Answers

1. E 26. C
2. B 27. A
3. A 28. D
4. C 29. E
5. E 30. E
6. C 31. C
7. C 32. B
8. B 33. C
9. C 34. A
10. E 35. D
11. B 36. E
12. C 37. C
13. D 38. B
14. B 39. D
15. D 40. C
16. A 41. D
17. A 42. E
18. D 43. A
19. B 44. B
20. C 45. B
21. E 46. B
22. B 47. C
23. C 48. A
24. D 49. D
25. A 50. D

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Answers

11+ S.E.T. Practice Test 20 – English – Answers

Marking Guidance

For each question, the maximum number of marks available is shown.

Where questions require multiple answers and use the rubric, ‘Select all that are
correct’, negative marking should also be applied, whereby 1 mark is deducted for
each incorrect answer selected down to 0 marks (note that the number of marks per
question cannot be negative).

For example:

If a question is worth 2 marks and requires options A, B and C to be selected:

Award 2 marks for A, B and C selected or 1 mark for any two correct answers selected.

Award 1 mark for A, B, C and D or E selected (2 marks – 1 incorrect = 1 mark).

Award 0 marks for A, B, C, D and E selected (2 marks – 2 incorrect = 0 marks).

Award 0 marks for A, B and E selected or equivalent (1 mark – 1 incorrect = 0 marks).

1. D [1 mark]
2. E [1 mark]
3. A [1 mark]
4. B [1 mark]
5. E [1 mark]
6. B [1 mark]
7. B, E (both answers must be correct) [1 mark]
8. B [1 mark]
9. D [1 mark]
10. A, B, C, D [3 marks]
11. B, C, E [2 marks]
12. A, C [2 marks]
13. D [1 mark]
14. C, D (both answers must be correct) [1 mark]
15. E [1 mark]
16. A, C (both answers must be correct) [1 mark]
17. C, D (both answers must be correct) [1 mark]
18. A [1 mark]
19. D, E [2 marks]

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Answers

20. B, D (both answers must be correct) [1 mark]

21. A, C (both answers must be correct) [1 mark]
22. E [1 mark]
23. A, B, C, D [3 marks]
24. D, E (both answers must be correct) [1 mark]
25. A, B, C [2 marks]
26. C [1 mark]
27. D [1 mark]
28. A [1 mark]
29. B, E (both answers must be correct) [1 mark]
30. A, C (both answers must be correct) [1 mark]
31. B, C, E [2 marks]
32. C [1 mark]
33. A, D (both answers must be correct) [1 mark]
34. A [1 mark]

Total: 43 marks