Pre Nurture & Career Foundation Division

Date : 27-01-2024

QUESTIONS PAPER (SET – A)

INTERNATIONAL EARTH SCIENCE OLYMPIAD (INESO 2024)
NATIONAL ENTRANCE TEST

1. Green animals at 500 m in the ocean will appear

(a) Green (b) Blue (c) White (d) Black
2. Which of the following parameters limit marine primary production the least in the euphotic zone?
(a) Light (b) Carbon (c) Nitrate (d) Silicate
3. Which one is known as fossil water
(a) Juvenile water (b) Cosmic water (c) Connate water (d) Meteoric water
4. Which of the following statements about the telescope mounts is true?
(a) Alt-Azimuth mount is best for scanning the sky while Equatorial Mount is best for tracking objects.
(b) Alt-Azimuth mount is best for tracking objects while Equatorial Mount is best for scanning the
sky.
(c) Alt-Azimuth Mount is best for reflecting telescope while Equatorial Mount is best for refracting

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telescope.
(d) All-Azimuth Mount is best for refracting telescope while Equatorial Mount is best for reflecting
telescope.

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5. If the ocean remains in a steady state and the rate of input of a dissolved constituent increases, the
rate of removal of that constituent
(a) must remain the same.

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(b) must decrease.
(c) must increase.

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(d) may increase and decrease both depending upon the residence time.
6. The process of cooling and solidification of magma to form intrusive igneous rocks takes place:
(a) Beneath the Earth's surface (b) On the Earth's surface

A
(c) At the ocean floor (d) In the Earth's mantle
7. What is best described in the given equation:
Mg2SiO4 + 4CO2 + 4H2O ® 2Mg2+ + 4HCO3– + H4SiO4
(a) Carbonate formation (b) Silicate-silicate transition
(c) Nutrient recycling (d) Weathering
8. If a seawater sample of 2°C temperature and 34.5 salinity were collected from a depth of 4000 m in
the ocean, its density would be
(a) greater than its true density.
(b) less than its true density.
(c) same as its true density.
(d) same as that of 4°C temperature and 34.5 salinity water.
9. If a 1 L seawater sample has CI–/Na+ ratio 1.8. After 500 mL of evaporation, Cl–/Na ratio
(a) will remain the same. (b) will become 0.9.
(c) will become 3.6. (d) cannot be determined.
10. Nitrification in the ocean is mediated by
(a) Phytoplankton (b) Zooplankton (c) Bacteria and Archaea (d) Virus
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 Pre Nurture & Career Foundation Division
Date : 27-01-2024

QUESTIONS PAPER (SET – A)

INTERNATIONAL EARTH SCIENCE OLYMPIAD (INESO 2024)
NATIONAL ENTRANCE TEST

11. The baby fossil mammoth shown below was found in Siberia. The process of fossilisation it underwent
is known as

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(a) carbonisation (b) permineralisation
(c) cryo-conservation (d) petrification

E
12. Mangrove wetlands on the east coast of India which have been declared as RAMSAR sites are
(a) Godavari (b) Bhitarkanika

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(c) Vizag (d) Pichavaram and Sundarbans
13. Oceanic pelagic fish typically inhabit waters below
(a) Continental Shelf (b) Delta

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(c) Estuaries (d) Mangroves
14. While comparing the vertical profiles of particle reactive and bio-limiting elements for the Atlantic
and the Pacific Ocean, why are the deep-water concentrations are always higher in the Pacific?

A
(a) The particle flux to depth is stronger in the Pacific than in the Atlantic.
(b) The deep water in the Pacific is older than that in the Atlantic, so it has accumulated more of those
elements with time.
(c) Particles in the Atlantic sink faster, so much of the material reaches the sediments rather than being
remineralized in the water column.
(d) The Pacific is bigger than the Atlantic
15. In general, the ocean does not respond to the seasonally changing insolation as strongly as the
atmosphere. However, there is a region where the ocean circulation changes dramatically every year
between summer and winter. Where and why?
(a) In the northern Indian Ocean due to changing wind patterns (monsoons) causing a reversal of
currents
(b) In the Pacific, due to the changing wind patterns caused by the so-called El Nino events.
(c) In the Antarctic, winds change direction completely which becomes visible through the reversal
of the circumpolar current.
(d) In the wind-driven ocean gyres plastic accumulates every summer when the gyres spin up, and
where the plastic is released when the gyres slow down.

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 Pre Nurture & Career Foundation Division
Date : 27-01-2024

QUESTIONS PAPER (SET – A)

INTERNATIONAL EARTH SCIENCE OLYMPIAD (INESO 2024)
NATIONAL ENTRANCE TEST

16. Identify the mineral which has specific gravity >5, hardness <3 and gives grey streak.
(a) Barite (b) Sphalerite (c) Graphite (d) Galena
17. The mineral phases associated with biogenic, hydrogenic, and hydrothcrmal processes, respectively,
are:
(a) carbonate, phosphorite, sulphide (b) carbonate, sulphide, phosphorite
(c) phosphorite, sulphide, carbonate (d) phosphorite, carbonate, sulphide
18. According to Koppen's climate classification, AW is
(a) tropical desert climate (b) tropical steppe climate
(c) tropical savanna climate (d) tropical dry-summer climate
19. Compared to the Earth, the Moon has a lower average density, because the Moon
(a) is a satellite (b) is smaller in size

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(c) has lighter crustal rocks (d) has a thinner core
20. When dust around stars absorbs starlight and re-emits it, in which wavelength will the radiation be
most intense?

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(a) Infrared (b) Optical (c) Ultraviolet (d) Microwave
21. Out of following, which section be considered as the best reference point in a stratigraphic section?

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(a) Turbidity deposit (b) Tsunami deposit (c) Limestone deposit (d) Tephra deposit
22. The average density of continental crust is
(a) 2.70 g/cm3 (b) 3.50 g/cm3 (c) 4.80 g/cm3 (d) 5.50 g/cm3

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23. Shear strain is measured by changes in
(a) length (b) angle (c) volume (d) viscosity
24. The last part of body of Trilobite is :

A
(a) Thorax (b) Cephalon (c) Glabella (d) Pygidium
25. The San Andreas Fault in California is an example of what type of fault?
(a) Normal fault (b) Reverse fault (c) Strike-slip fault (d) Thrust fault
26. Which type of seismic wave is responsible for the most significant damage during an earthquake?
(a) S-waves (b) P-waves
(c) Surface waves and Love waves (d) All of the above
27. The value of Poisson's ratio lies between
(a) –l and –2 (b) –l and +1/2 (c) –1/2 and + 1 (d) –l and –1/2
28. Breccia and conglomerate differ in
(a) size of the clasts (b) shape of the clasts
(c) cementing material (d) environment of deposition
29. The planet with the maximum greenhouse gases in its atmosphere is
(a) Venus (b) Mars (c) Neptune (d) Pluto
30. What is the most abundant element in Earth's crust?
(a) Iron (b) Nickel (c) Aluminium (d) Silicon

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 Pre Nurture & Career Foundation Division
Date : 27-01-2024

QUESTIONS PAPER (SET – A)

INTERNATIONAL EARTH SCIENCE OLYMPIAD (INESO 2024)
NATIONAL ENTRANCE TEST

31. Which scale is used to measure the magnitude of earthquakes based on the energy released?
(a) Richter scale (b) Mercalli scale (c) Beaufort scale (d) Fujita scale
32. In which type of stress do rocks deform by changing their shape without changing their volume?
(a) Tensile stress (b) Compressive stress
(c) Shear stress (d) Confining stress
33. The erosive power of a river depends on its velocity. If the velocity is doubled, the erosive power
increases by:
(a) Two times (b) Eight times (c) Four times (d) Thirty two times
34. Troposphere extends at the pole is to a height of
(a) 10 km (b) 6 km (c) 18 km (d) 20 km
35. The dry atmosphere lapse rate value is

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(a) 6.5 °C/km (b) 9.8°C/km (c) 5.6°C/km (d) 12.5 °C/km
36. Trace fossils arc signatures of activities of ancient organisms, depicting, specific behaviour, left behind

E
in soft sediments. From the morphology of trace fossils, geologists can infer substrate condition,
sedimentation rate energy conditions, availability of food etc. The photo below is of a trace fossil found
in limestone showing how an organism utilised limited resources with high efficiency.

L L
37.
(a) Inter tidal flat

A
What is the most likely environment this trace fossil depicts?
(b) lagoon
Ocean eastern boundary currents are.
(a) Warm currents in both hemispheres
(b) Cold currents in the both the hemispheres
(c) lake

(c) Warm currents in the Northern and cold currents in the Southern Hemisphere
(d) deep marine

(d) Cold currents in the Northern and warm currents in the Southern Hemisphere
38. While trekking in the Himalayas, you come across a bed of coral reefs. This observation suggests that
(a) This area was once a deep ocean floor
(b) It is most likely that area was a continental shelf located in area with rather warm waters
(c) It was a continental shelf with rather cold waters
(d) The area represents a subduction zone

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 Pre Nurture & Career Foundation Division
Date : 27-01-2024

QUESTIONS PAPER (SET – A)

INTERNATIONAL EARTH SCIENCE OLYMPIAD (INESO 2024)
NATIONAL ENTRANCE TEST

39. Climatic change due to greenhouse gasscs favours

(a) Reduction in short wave coming to earth atmosphere
(b) Reduction in long wave coming to earth atmosphere
(c) Reduction in long wave going out of atmosphere
(d) Increase in the longwave gong out of atmosphere
40. In the northern hemisphere if strong easterly winds is blowing then what should be the nature of the
pressure gradient
(a) High pressure is in east and low in the west
(b) High pressure in west and low in the east
(c) High pressure in high latitudes and low pressure in low latitudes
(d) High pressure in low latitudes low pressure in high latitudes

N
41. Which climate type is a direct result of air subsidence (sub-tropical high-pressure belt)?
(a) Desert (b) Tropical (c) Highland (d) Humid sub-tropic
42. Tropical Easterly Jet is observed in

E
(a) Lower troposphere (b) Mid-troposphere (c) Upper troposphere (d) Stratosphere
43. Re-ionisation of the universe 400 million years ago means
(a) The atoms were once again ionised under the gravitational compression

L
(b) The universe became electrically neutral as all protons and electrons combined to become atoms.
(c) The atoms colliding with each other at high energy ionised each other.

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(d) Atoms exchanged electrons and as a result, a dynamic but neutral universe was created.
44. The El Nino phenomena occurs in
(a) Atlantic Ocean (b) Pacific Ocean (c) Indian Ocean (d) Southern Ocean
45. y increases exponentially with x, which combination of the following is true?

A
(a) Temperature and relative humidity (b) Rainfall and wind speed
(c) Atmospheric pressure and altitude (d) Saturation vapour pressure and temperature
46. Which one of the following is high cloud?
(a) Stratus (b) Cumulus (c) Cirrus (d) Nimbostratus
47. Which one of the following represents the lines joining the places of equal rainfall?
(a) Isohytes (b) Isohypes (c) Isorain (d) Isoline
48. At which of the following tectonic settings, volcanism is likely to be more explosive than others?
(a) Mid-Oceanic Ridge (b) Hotspot
(c) Subduction Zone (d) Transform Fault
49. What is the approxiraate differencete between the energy released from a Richter-magnitude 6 and
5 earthquakes?
(a) Ten times higher in 6 magnitudes compared to the 5 magnitudes
(b) Thirty-one times higher in 6 magnitude than the 5 magnitude
(c) Six times higher in 6 magnitudes than the 5 magnitudes
(d) Twice in 6 magnitudes than the 5 magnitude.

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 Pre Nurture & Career Foundation Division
Date : 27-01-2024

QUESTIONS PAPER (SET – A)

INTERNATIONAL EARTH SCIENCE OLYMPIAD (INESO 2024)
NATIONAL ENTRANCE TEST

50. The value of gravitational acceleration ‘g’ is the maximum at

(a) surface of the Earth (b) centre of the Earth
(c) the Core-Mantle boundary (d) the D" layer
51. Deep-focus earthquakes can originate only at
(a) Mid-Oceanic Ridges (b) Subduction Zones
(c) Transform Faults (d) Beneath the mountain belts.
52. The heaviest object or group of objects in the Solar System is
(a) Inner Rocky Planets (b) Outer Gaseous Planets
(c) Kuiper Belt objects (d) The Sun
53. Which of the following is a rower in the south polar region of the moon?
(a) Vikram (b) Pragyan (c) Chang'e 5 (d) Luna 25

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54. Which of the following minerals is a framework silicate
(a) Orthoclase (b) Biotite (c) Olivine (d) Topaz
55. An extrusive igneous rock made up of Quartz, K-Feldspar and Plagioclase is

E
(a) Granite (b) Rhyolite (c) Basalt (d) Syenite
56. Which of the following minerals is NOT a mafic mineral?
(a) Olivine (b) Pyroxene (c) Biotite (d) Muscovite

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57. Which of the following rock will NOT become a gneiss by increasing grade of metamorphism?
(a) Granite (b) Andesite (c) Shale (d) Limestone

L
58. In two out of four Si-tetrahedra in Quartz, Si is substituted by Al, and one atom of Ca per formula
unit is accommodated in the structure to keep it charge neutral. Resulting mineral is
(a) Anorthite (b) Albite (c) Microcline (d) Topaz
59. Which of the following pairs is NOT a pair of polymorphs

A
(a) Calcite, Aragonite (b) Biotite, Phlogopite
(c) Kyanite, Sillimanite (d) Diamond, Graphit
60. A garnet having dominantly magnesium and aluminium as major cations other than Si is
(a) Pyrope (b) Almandine (c) Spessartine (d) Grossular
61. The age of the Earth, as known today, was first determined using decay of radioactive to radiogenic
isotopes of which of the following elemental pair?
(a) U to Pb (b) K to Ar (c) Rb to Sr (d) Sm to Nd
62. The samples that gave the age of the Earth were sourced trom
(a) Interior of the Earth (b) Surface of the Earth
(c) Meteorites (d) Apollo mission to the moon
63. The mineral zircon is considered best suited for U-Pb dating, because, at the time of its crystallization
it
(a) accommodates a significant amount of U but an insignificant amount of Pb
(b) accommodates a significant amount of Pb but an insignificant amount of U
(c) accommodates both U and Pb in almost equal amounts
(d) forms euhedral crystal devoid of any defects.

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 Pre Nurture & Career Foundation Division
Date : 27-01-2024

QUESTIONS PAPER (SET – A)

INTERNATIONAL EARTH SCIENCE OLYMPIAD (INESO 2024)
NATIONAL ENTRANCE TEST

64. A sample of wood discovered from an archaeological site is found to have 12.5% of the original
C-14 activity. If the half-life of C-14 is 6000 years, how old is the sample?
(a) 12000 years (b) 18000 years (c) 7500 years (d) 24000 years
65. Which of the following elements' isotonic ratios measured in samples of stalactites and stalagmites
can help understand the climatic conditions during their growth?
(a) O (b) S (c) Sr (d) H
66. Which of the following minerals might release water on breakdown of its crystal structure?
(a) Hornblende (b) Augite (c) Forsterite (d) Beryl
67. Which of the following observations is best explained by the sea-floor spreading theory?
(a) lack of volcanism at some places along mid-oceanic ridges
(b) magnetic reversals preserved in the rocks symmetrically on either sides of the mid-oceanic ridges

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(c) deep-focus earthquakes at mid-oceanic ridges
(d) black smokers at mid-oceanic ridges.
68. We assume that the distribution of different types of stars in a globular cluster is the same as that in

E
the galaxy. If we observe this cluster at 4000 and 7000 A with a low-resolution telescope where we
cannot fully resolve all the stars and with a low sensitivity filter, which ofrhe following statements will
be true?

L
(a) The cluster will appear bigger at 7000
(b) The cluster will appear bigger at 4000

L
(c) The cluster will appear to be the same size in 4000 and 7000
(d) The data is now enough to make any definitive conclusion.
69. Which one of the following is the oldest supercontinent?
(a) Pangea (b) Gondwana (c) Rodinia (d) Columbia

A
70. Which one of the following marks a plate-boundary of Indian plate?
(a) Laccadive islands (b) Western Ghats
(c) Katchatheevu Island (d) Indo-Mynamar Ranges
71. Silica-rich viscous magmas often produce:
(a) Stratovolcano (b) Shield volcano (c) Dome (d) Fissure eruption
72. Wilson orogenic cycle in continents is initiated by
(a) rifting (b) Over riding (c) collision (d) subduction
73. Conglomerates are commonly deposited in
(a) aeolian dunes (b) tidal flats (c) alluvial fans (d) river flood plains
74. The correct order(s) of stability of silica polymorphs with increasing pressure is/are
(a) Quartz - Stishovite - Coesite (b) Tridymite - Coesite - Stishovite
c) Tridymite - Stishovite - Coesite (d) None of the above
75. Major mass extinction events occurred in the
(a) end Silurian (b) end Carboniferous
(c) end Permian (d) early Devonian

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 Pre Nurture & Career Foundation Division
Date : 27-01-2024

QUESTIONS PAPER (SET – A)

INTERNATIONAL EARTH SCIENCE OLYMPIAD (INESO 2024)
NATIONAL ENTRANCE TEST

76. Atoll is a geomorphic feature formed by

(a) glacial erosion (b) wind flow abrasion
(c) fluvial deposition (d) coral reef accumulation.
77. In clastic sediments, the correct order of decreasing grain size is
(a) Boulder > pebble > silt > sand (b) Granule > pebble > clay > silt
(c) Cobble > granule > silt > clay (d) Granule > pebble > sand > silt
78. Which of the following crystal systems has all three crystallographic axes equal in size?
(a) Isometric (b) Tetragonal (c) Orthorhombic (d) Triclinic
79. A polished, striated rock surface on a fault caused by the frictional movement of fault blocks against
each other is known as
(a) Slickensides (b) Plunge (c) Buckle (d) Pitch'

N
80. The first mineral to form as per the discontinuous series of Bowen's Reaction Series is
(a) hornblende (b) forsterite (c) fayalite (d) augite
81. The Si:0 ratio for a framework silicate is

E
(a) 5:11 (b) 1:2 (c) 2:7 (d) 1:4
82. Which mineral(s) among the following represent(s) AB2O4 composition?
(a) Spinel (b) Magnetite (c) Chromite (d) Ilmenite

L
83. The downward movement of wet soil along the slopes under the influence of gravity is known as
(a) Creep (b) Subsidence (c) Solifluction (d) Landslides

L
84. The reservoir rock of petroleum in the Bombay High oil field is
(a) Oligocene sandstone (b) Oligocene limestone
(c) Miocene sandstone (d) Miocene limestone
85. In the cores of stars which nuclear reactions are most common?

A
(a) 4H ® 4He + 2e+ (b) l2C + 4H®12C + 4He + 2e+
(c) 3 He4 ® 12C. (d) All occur with equal frequency
86. Mesozoic Era is also known as the Age of the
(a) Fishes (b) Mammals (c) Reptiles (d) Angiosperms
87. Fossil biota, in sedimentary strata, dominant in fossil fish suggest
(a) Permian age (b) Ordovician age (c) Miocene age (d) Devonian age
88. During the process of fossilisation, the soft tissues of an organism are replaced by mineral matter.
What type of fossilisation has taken place?
(a) Permineralisation (b) Carbonisation (c) Recrystallisation (d) Impression
89. Seafloor drilling and seismic analysis reveal a thick layer of salt at a certain depth in a large part of
the Arabian Sea. From these observations, it can be concluded that
(a) The Arabian Sea has an important deposit of economic value that has not yet been expolited
(b) There was a period in the history of the Arabian Sea when it almost dried out.
(c) The Arabian Sea is very young.
(d) The Arabian Sea is a relic of the Tethys Sea.

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 Pre Nurture & Career Foundation Division
Date : 27-01-2024

QUESTIONS PAPER (SET – A)

INTERNATIONAL EARTH SCIENCE OLYMPIAD (INESO 2024)
NATIONAL ENTRANCE TEST

90. The diagram shows the soil texture of samples from five (A to E) farms. The soil of which farm has
the highest permeability?
Clay
100
90 10
80 A 20
70 30
60 40
50 C 50
40 60

N
30 B 70
20 E 80
10 D 90

E
0% 100
Sand 100 90 80 70 60 50 40 30 20 10 0% Silt
(a) Farm A & E (b) Farm B & C (c) Fram C (d) Farm D

L
91. The rock unit in the picture below consists of rounded grains ranging in size from sand to small pebbles.
In which sedimentary environment did this rock form?

L
92.
(a) Dune A (b) River (c) Lake (d) Beach
A, B, M, and Q are fossils occurring in rocks exposed in continents X and Y. If you want to correlate
these two rock successions which fossil will help you best in the correlation?
M M M Q Q Q Q
A M A M
Q Q A A A A
AA A
A B B A
A A A A
Continent X Continent Y
(a) A (b) B (c) M (d) Q
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 Pre Nurture & Career Foundation Division
Date : 27-01-2024

QUESTIONS PAPER (SET – A)

INTERNATIONAL EARTH SCIENCE OLYMPIAD (INESO 2024)
NATIONAL ENTRANCE TEST

93. If the Earth's rotation axis becomes perpendicular to its plane of rotation, which of the following is
true?
(a) There will be no difference in the length of day and night over the year.
(b) Sun won't move through different zodiacs over a year.
c) The Phases of Moon will be constant.
(d) There will be no land winds and sea winds.
94. The heaviest element that can be created in the stars that stabilise the star is:
(a) Carbon (b) Uranium
(c) Oxygen (d) Iron
95. Average temperature of the Universe is:

N
(a) 2.73 K (b) 3.00 K
(c) 0.27 K (d) 20.0 K
96. The ratio of the diameter of the Sun: Jupiter: Earth is approximately

E
(a) 100:8:1 (b) 110:11:1
(c) 50:10:1 (d) 120:10:1

L
97. Re-ionisation of the universe 400 million years ago means
(a) The atoms were once again ionized under the gravitational compression
(b) The universe became electrically neutral as all protons and electrons combined to become atoms.

L
(c) The atoms colliding with each other at high energy ionised each other.
(d) Atoms exchanged electrons and as a result a dynamic but neutral universe was created.
98. We assume that the distribution of different types of stars in a globular cluster is the same as that in

A
the galaxy. If this cluster has 105 stars, how many B-type stars do you expect?
(a) About 1000 (b) About 100
(c) About 1 (d) About 10
99. We assume that the distribution of different types of stars in a globular cluster is the same as that in
the galaxy. If we observe this cluster at 4000 and 7000 Å with a low resolution telescope where we
cannot fully resolve all the stars and with a low sensitivity filter, which of the following statements
will be true?
(a) The cluster will appear bigger at 7000
(b) The cluster will appear bigger at 4000
(c) The cluster will appear to be the same size in 4000 and 7000
(d) The data is now enough to make any definitive conclusion.
100. When dust around stars absorbs starlight and re-emits it, in which wavelength will the radiation be
most intense?
(a) Ultraviolet (b) Optical (c) Infrared (d) Microwave

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