ETEST DIGITAL SAT COURSEBOOK

Foundation
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

Table of Contents
GETTING STARTED ............................................................................................................................................... 4

WHAT’S NEW IN SAT DIGITAL? ..................................................................................................................................... 4

ETEST SAT DIGITAL COURSE.......................................................................................................................................... 5

READING AND WRITING....................................................................................................................................... 7

STANDARD ENGLISH CONVENTIONS ........................................................................................................................ 7

Unit 1: Carbon Trading — Form, Structure, and Sense (I) ................................................................................... 8
Unit 2: Majoring in Liberal Arts— Form, Structure, and Sense (II) .................................................................... 34
Unit 3: Lost city of Atlantis— Boundaries (I) ..................................................................................................... 57
Unit 4: Ocean energy — Boundaries (II) ............................................................................................................ 70
CRAFT AND STRUCTURE ......................................................................................................................................... 86
Unit 5: How Generosity Builds Trust — Words in Context ................................................................................ 87
Unit 6: Invasive species — Text Structure and Purpose .................................................................................. 104
Unit 7: The Art of a Cat’s Laps — Cross-Text Connections .............................................................................. 122
INFORMATION AND IDEAS ................................................................................................................................... 138
Unit 8: Pluto: a planet or not? — Central Ideas and Details ........................................................................... 139
Unit 9: 3D printing — Command of Evidence : Textual ................................................................................... 158
Unit 10: US Politics - Command of Evidence : Quantitative ............................................................................ 174
Unit 11: Everything Everywhere All At Once —Command of Evidence : Inferences ........................................ 201
EXPRESSION OF IDEAS .......................................................................................................................................... 219
Unit 12: Helping others feels good - Transitions ............................................................................................. 220
Unit 13: The Plant Paradox – Rhetorical Synthesis ......................................................................................... 235
Unit 14: Practice Test 01 ................................................................................................................................. 256
Unit 15: Practice Test 02 ................................................................................................................................. 304

MATHEMATICS ................................................................................................................................................ 353

ALGEBRA .............................................................................................................................................................. 353

Unit 1 – Maths Fundamentals ......................................................................................................................... 354
Unit 2 – Linear Equations & Linear Functions ................................................................................................. 373
Unit 3 –System of Equations & Inequalities .................................................................................................... 410
STATISTICS AND DATA ANALYSIS.......................................................................................................................... 446
Unit 4 – Rates, Ratios, Proportions, Percents, and Units ................................................................................ 447
Unit 5 – Tables, Statistics, and Probability ...................................................................................................... 470
Unit 6 – Scatterplots........................................................................................................................................ 499
ADVANCED MATH ................................................................................................................................................ 524

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Unit 7 – Absolute value and Nonlinear functions ............................................................................................ 525

Unit 8 – Exponents, Radicals, Polynomials, and Rational Expressions ............................................................ 542
Unit 9 – Quadratics ......................................................................................................................................... 574
GEOMETRY........................................................................................................................................................... 605
Unit 10 – Geometry ......................................................................................................................................... 606
Unit 12 – Trigonometry ................................................................................................................................... 651
Unit 13 – Practice Test 01 ............................................................................................................................... 666
Unit 14 – Practice Test 02 ............................................................................................................................... 688

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Getting Started

What’s new in SAT DIGITAL?

The Digital SAT is the College Board's online version of the popular standardized test used for college
admissions in the United States. The Digital SAT is a modern, innovative way to assess college readiness
and is designed to support students in achieving their goals and fulfilling their potential.

The test is taken on a computer and offers several benefits over the traditional paper-and-pencil format:
• It offers the convenience of being able to take the test from anywhere with an internet connection,
eliminating the need to travel to a testing center.
• Results are delivered faster, typically within a few days of taking the test, providing students with
quicker feedback on their performance.Uses “styles” to create a structured document.
• The digital format provides a more interactive and personalized testing experience, with instant
scoring and automatic marking

The new digital SAT will have two Evidence-Based Reading & Writing modules (sections) and two Math
modules. The test will be adaptive—the second modules of both Reading/Writing and Math will change in
difficulty based on how students do on the first modules of each type. Students who perform better on the
first modules will have more challenging questions in the second modules, whereas students who do not
perform as well on the first will have easier questions in the second.

Test Structure
SAT Module Format
Reading & Writing Section
32 Minutes, 27 Questions, Standard Difficulty
One
32 Minutes, 27 Questions, Adaptive Difficulty (easier or harder
Reading & Writing Section
questions depending on how you did on the first Reading/ Writing
Two
section)
Break – 10 minutes
Maths Section One 35 Minutes, 22 Questions, Standard Difficulty
35 Minutes, 22 Questions, Adaptive Difficulty (easier or harder
Maths Section Two
questions depending on how you did on the first Math section)

Test Format
Test Procedures • Different test questions are adapted for different students.

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• Test is taken on laptops that students provide or test

centers make available.
• Students can still go back and review questions (questions
can be flagged).
• Countdown clock and calculator are built into the program,
although students can still bring a watch and calculator if
they would like.
• Students can write on provided scrap paper.
• A few experimental questions are incorporated into each
test section.
• Section scoring and total scoring is identical to the current
SAT—both individual sections are scored out of 800 points
Scoring and the total score out of 1,600 points.
• Many schools will likely continue to superscore test results.
• Scores will likely be available in only a few days.
• Reading & Writing passages are no longer than 150 words.
Each passage has just one question accompanying it.
Reading & Writing • A greater variety of reading genres be represented. Along
with the current SAT reading genres, the test will also
include humanities, drama, and poetry excerpts.
• Calculators are permitted throughout the test.
• Formula sheets and digital calculators are available in the
Maths program.
• Word problems are typically more concise than in the
current paper version.

ETEST SAT Digital Course

The Digital SAT coursebook developed by ETEST is a comprehensive study guide designed to help
students prepare for the online version of the College Board's standardized test. As the first in Vietnam
offering this course, ETEST is dedicated to providing students with the latest information and resources to
achieve their best possible score.

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This coursebook is based on the U.S Education standard and is updated regularly to reflect any changes
in the Digital SAT format. The coursebook covers all aspects of the test, including the reading, writing and
language, and mathematics sections. It provides students with in-depth explanations of the concepts
tested on the exam, as well as tips and strategies for tackling each question type.

ETEST online platform provides students with opportunities to practice their skills and get hands-on
experience with the test format. The platform is designed to be user-friendly and accessible, allowing
students to study at their own pace and on their own schedule. The platform also offers instant feedback
on their performance, allowing students to identify areas of strength and weakness and focus their studies
accordingly.

Students can gain access to ETEST’s platform by this link: https://sat.etest.edu.vn/

With its relevant content and focus on authentic exam materials, this coursebook is the ultimate study
guide for the Digital SAT. The flexible study pathway offered by the coursebook and online platform
allows each learner to tailor their studies to their individual needs, ensuring that students receive the
support they need to achieve their best possible score. Whether you are a first-time test taker or a
seasoned pro, this coursebook is the perfect resource to help you reach your goals and fulfill your
potential.

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READING AND WRITING

STANDARD ENGLISH CONVENTIONS

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Unit 1: Carbon Trading — Form, Structure, and Sense (I)

LEAD-IN_

What is Carbon Trading

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EXAM SKILLS_

SENTENCE CORE
Every sentence consists of one or more clauses. Independent clauses are phrases that can stand on
their own as sentences because they contain a subject, a verb, and any necessary verb
complements, and convey a complete thought.

Dependent clauses are phrases that include a subject, a verb, and any necessary verb complements,
but cannot stand on their own as sentences because they include elements that depend on other
clauses.

For instance, in the sentence

Although we were tired, we kept going.
the phrase before the comma is a dependent clause, and the phrase after the comma is an independent
clause. The first clause depends on the second one because it includes the word although.

Let's look at two sentences-one simple and one complicated and parse them into their clauses.

Sentence 1: Go!
This is the simplest sentence in the English language. It consists of just a single verb, go, and an implied
subject, you. That's all we need to convey an idea. In this case, the idea is a command to leave.

Sentence 2: Generally regarded as the most daunting course in the undergraduate science curriculum,
Introduction to Organic Chemistry provides a necessary foundation in the principles of physical chemistry;
moreover, it also introduces students to important experimental methods at the heart of modern medical
research.

This sentence is more complicated, because it conveys three ideas: two main ideas and one secondary
idea.
• Main idea 1: Introduction to Organic Chemistry provides a necessary foundation in the principles
of physical chemistry.
• Main idea 2: Introduction to Organic Chemistry introduces students to important experimental
methods at the heart of modern medical research.
• Secondary idea: [Introduction to Organic Chemistry is] generally regarded as the most daunting
course in the undergraduate science curriculum.

These three ideas are coordinated within the sentence to clarify the relationships among them. The two
main ideas are conveyed in independent clauses—that is, they could stand alone as independent
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sentences—while the secondary idea is conveyed in a dependent clause (which can't stand on its own
as a sentence). The transition moreover shows that the two main ideas express supporting facts.

TRIMMING SENTENCES

Trimming means eliminating modifiers and modifying phrases from a sentence to see its core—the
subject, verb, and any necessary verb complements of each clause. Once you've trimmed a sentence,
it's much easier to pinpoint any problems in grammar, logic, or clarity. Every sentence must convey a
clear and coherent idea even after it has been "trimmed."

Trimming involves three steps:

1. Eliminate any nonessential prepositional phrases.
2. Eliminate introductory, interrupting, or concluding modifying phrases.
3. Eliminate any remaining nonessential modifiers like adjectives and adverbs.

Prepositional Phrases
A preposition is any word—such as up, to, around, from, into, by, on, for, of, as, or with—that can be
used to complete sentences like these:
The squirrel ran ______ the tree.
Democracy is government ______ the people.
I went to the party ______ a brain surgeon.
A prepositional phrase consists of a preposition plus the noun phrase that follows it, such as
... from sea to shining sea...
...in the beginning...
... for the money...

Modifying Phrases
Modifying phrases, which include participial phrases, appositive phrases, adjectival phrases, and
adverbial phrases, are typically separated from the main clause by commas or dashes.
As luck would have it, we were saved at the last minute.
We were saved—as luck would have it—at the last minute.
We were saved at the last minute, as luck would have it.

Nonessential Modifiers
Nonessential modifiers are adjectives or adverbs that are not essential to conveying the central idea of
the clause.
I have a terrible headache.

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She ran quickly from the house.

Essential Modifiers
One type of essential modifier is the predicate adjective, which is tied to the subject by a linking verb.
Predicate adjectives should not be trimmed because they are essential to conveying the core idea of the
clause.
The sky is blue.
Prepositional phrases are also sometimes essential.
The cake is in the oven.

Trimming sentences helps you to eliminate clutter so you can better analyze the essential parts of the
sentence.
Untrimmed sentence: In one experiment in which subjects performed a word association task,
scientists measured the activity in the region of the brain called the aSTG.
Core: Scientists measured the activity.

SUBJECT-VERB AGREEMENT

After you've trimmed the sentence, ask: does every verb agree with its subject? For instance, in the
sentence My favorite team are losing, the verb disagrees with its subject in number: since team is a
singular subject, are should be changed to is. Subject-verb agreement problems often show up when
sentences have tricky subjects or inverted syntax.

Tricky Subjects
1
The phenomena studied by climate scientists _______ of interest to the entire planet.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English.?

A) is
B) have been
C) are
D) being

Inverted syntax
1
Behind every Portiello sculpture ______ countless hours of work.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English.

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A) lies
B) lie
C) laid
D) lain

In-class exercise:

1
The team of advisors, arriving slightly ahead of schedule, ______ met at the airport by the Deputy Prime
Minister.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) were
B) were being
C) was
D) being

2
Today, juggling the demands of family and work often ______ too difficult for many young professionals.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) seem
B) seems
C) will seem
D) would seem

3
The fact that even well-intentioned institutions can so easily become dysfunctional ______ many observers to
become cynical about social change.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) have forced
B) forced
C) has forced
D) are forcing

4
The Immigrant Defense Project, based in New York City, ______ expert legal advice and advocacy for
immigrants and their loved ones.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) provide
B) have provided
C) provides

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D) have been providing

5
The intensity of these workouts, which include both agility circuits and weight training, ______ for many who
are not already in good shape..

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) are a problem
B) are problems
C) are problematic
D) is a problem

6
The anthology focuses on the works of modern poets, ______ some older works as well.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) but includes
B) includes
C) but include
D) include

7
The theory of quantum electrodynamics, although maddeningly counterintuitive, ______ astonishingly
accurate predictions about the behavior of subatomic particles.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) makes
B) making
C) would make
D) make

8
Surprisingly absent from the game ______ traditional routine of taunting the opposing players.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) were the crowds

B) was the crowds
C) were the crowd's
D) was the crowd's

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VERB TENSE AND ASPECT

The tense of any verb must coordinate logically with that of any other verbs in the sentence, as well as
with the developmental pattern of the passage as a whole. Multiple verbs in the same sentence do not
always have to have the same tense, but they do have to work together to convey a clear and logical set
of ideas.

In standard English, historical facts take the past tense, but timeless facts or beliefs take the present
tense.

1
When Marie Curie shared the 1903 Nobel Prize in Physics with two other scientists-her husband Pierre Curie
and Henri Becquerel, she _______ the first woman to win the prize..

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) has been
B) would be
C) was
D) is

2
Although Frances Perkins was not the first government official to advocate for workplace safety, she ______
substantial labor reform through legislation such as the Fair Labor Standards Act of 1938.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) has been the first who implemented.

B) is the first to have implemented
C) was the first having implemented
D) was the first to implement

3
The laws of physics, such as gravity, ______

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) hold true throughout the universe.

B) held true throughout the universe.
C) has held throughout the universe.
D) had held true throughout the universe.

Facts about the content of currently available works of art or literature are considered timeless, and
therefore take the present tense.

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1
In Act V of King Lear, Cordelia and Lear ______ promised to show them no mercy.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) were captured by Edmund, who had

B) were captured by Edmund, who has
C) are captured by Edmund, who had
D) are captured by Edmund, who has

The aspect of a verb indicates how its action or status applies to the subject or situation. For instance,
here are examples of a present tense verb with five different aspects:
• I eat. = I am in the habit of eating. (habitual aspect)
• I am eating. = I am in the process of eating. (progressive aspect)
• I have to eat. = I feel compelled to eat. (compulsive aspect)
• I have eaten. = My present status is a consequence of previous eating. (consequential
aspect)
• I have been eating. = My present status is a consequence of previous eating, and I am still
eating. (consequential and progressive aspects)

1
Ever since it reached its peak in 1991, violent crime ______ precipitously, not just in the United States but
around the globe.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) declined
B) have declined
C) has declined
D) would decline.

Verbs in the consequential aspect always use the past participle form of the verb, as in had taken, has
taken, and will have taken. Some of these past participles take irregular forms.

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* When these participles are used as adjectives, they can also take the -en suffix, as in drunken sailor,
shrunken heads, and sunken ship. However, these alternative forms are not used in verb phrases. For
instance, we would never say baby “Leonard has drunken his milk.” Instead, we would say “baby Leonard
has drunk his milk.”

1
Douglas did not get the CEO position, even though he ______ one of the largest divisions within the company
for nearly ten years.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) has ran
B) runs
C) is running
D) has run

A present participle phrase indicates that the participial verb and the main verb have the same tense. If
you want to indicate that the participial verb precedes and extends a consequence to the main verb,
use the consequential participle. The consequential participle combines having with the past participle,
as in having spoken.

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______ the honors-level introductory physics course, Jess felt more than prepared to take AP physics level 2.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) Taking
B) Having took
C) Having taken
D) She took

In-class exercise:

1
______ to reveal it at the technology expo this December.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) Developing the first hydrogen cell engine, the team should hope
B) Having developed the first hydrogen cell engine, the team would hope
C) Developing the first hydrogen cell engine, the team hopes
D) Having developed the first hydrogen cell engine, the team hopes

2
Without ______ the first draft of her term paper.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) spending so much as an hour on research, Dale already wrote

B) having spent so much as an hour on research, Dale has already written
C) spending so much as an hour on research, Dale has written
D) having spent so much as an hour on research, Dale has already wrote

3
As soon as Hannah ______ immediately started to plan her next trip.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) arrived home from vacation, she had

B) had arrived home from vacation, she
C) had arrived home from vacation, she had
D) arrived home from vacation, she

4
______ that they might not be able to reach base camp by nightfall.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) Having taken the wrong path, the hikers feared

B) Taking the wrong path, the hikers feared
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C) Having taken the wrong path, the hikers had feared

D) Taking the wrong path, the hikers had feared

5
Although Pinocchio seems like a quaint children's story, its characters ______ some of the central archetypes
from Greek, Roman, Judeo-Christian, and even Babylonian mythological traditions.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) would represent
B) represented
C) represent
D) had represented

6
Elayna is well qualified for this position because she ______ very well as a team leader on many similar
projects.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) has performed
B) had performed
C) would perform
D) was performing

7
Hundreds of recreational divers come each year to explore the site where the galleon ______ over three
hundred years ago.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) had sank
B) sank
C) has sunk
D) has sank

8
At his death in 2010 , J. D. Salinger was regarded as one of the premier writers of the 20th century, ______
one full-length novel, The Catcher in the Rye.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) he had only published

B) although he would have published only
C) despite having published only
D) although he would publish only

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THE ACTIVE AND PASSIVE VOICES

When the subject of a verb is not the "actor" of that verb, the clause is in the passive voice. For instance,
“the boy kicked the ball” is an active voice clause because the subject, “boy”, indicates who is doing the
kicking. But “the ball was kicked by the boy” is in the passive voice, because the subject, “bal”l, indicates
what is receiving the kicking.

1
Henry ate all of his steak, but ______

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) his vegetables were uneaten.

B) left his vegetables.
C) had his vegetables left.
D) so his vegetables were.

2
Our lab experiment was designed by Amy and ______

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) Antonio ran it.

B) run by Antonio.
C) Antonio was the one who ran it.
D) was ran by Antonio.

Which Voice Should We Use? Passive clauses are usually wordier and less direct than active clauses. To be
concise and direct, use the active voice. However, on the SAT, the passive voice is not necessarily wrong.
Passive clauses can be used whenever it is helpful to emphasize the receiver of an action or status.

1
I came out of my physical examination feeling as if ______ a hundred needles.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) they had poked me with a hundred probes and somebody had stabbed me with
B) I had been poked by a hundred probes and they had stabbed me with
C) they had poked me with a hundred probes and I had been stabbed by
D) I had been poked by a hundred probes and stabbed by

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VERB MOOD

The mood of a verb indicates the general purpose of the clause.

• The indicative mood indicates factual claims, as in “I went to the park.”
• The imperative mood indicates suggestions or commands, as in “You should go to the park,” or
“Go to the park!”
• The interrogative mood asks questions, as in “Did you go to the park?”
• The subjunctive mood indicates counterfactuals, hypotheticals, or potentials, as in “I wish I had
gone to the park” or “You may go to the park after school.”

1
If the engine ______ for too long on low-grade fuel, the pistons will wear out.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) would run
B) were to run
C) runs
D) should run

The Imperative Mood

Commands or requests in the imperative mood can be indicated in three ways.
• To make a direct, second-person command, use the infinitive form without an explicit subject, as in “Stop
smoking!”
• To express a command or suggestion that is indicated by another verb (such as prefer that, suggest that,
demand that, propose that, or insist that) or adjective (such as it is necessary / important / imperative /
essential / better / vital / crucial that) use the infinitive form with an explicit subject, as in “My doctor
demanded that I stop smoking” or “My doctor said that it is imperative that I stop smoking.”
• To express a command or suggestion that is not indicated by another verb or adjective, use the auxiliary
should or must before the infinitive form, as in “My doctor said that I must stop smoking.”

1
After Ms. Parker scolded Daniel for the third time, she demanded that he ______ the room.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) left
B) must leave
C) leave
D) should

The Subjunctive Mood

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The subjunctive mood is usually indicated by subjunctive auxiliaries: can, could, may, might, and would.
A verb in the present subjunctive takes an auxiliary followed by the infinitive form of the verb, as in “We
might go to the beach.” A verb in the past subjunctive takes an auxiliary followed by the past
consequential form of the verb, as in “Your grandmother would have loved to see you in that dress.”

However, if a counterfactual is part of a conditional (if-) or wishful (I wish that-) clause that is not
indicating permission or potential, it does not take a subjunctive auxiliary.
• If a verb is in a present wishful or conditional counterfactual clause, it takes the simple past
form without an auxiliary, as in “I wish I had a million dollars” or “If I had a million dollars....”
• If the verb to be is in a present wishful or conditional counterfactual clause, it takes the form
were without an auxiliary, as in “I wish I were ten years younger” or “If I were ten years
younger....”
• If a verb is in a past wishful or conditional counterfactual clause, it takes the past
consequential form without an auxiliary, as in “I wish I had caught the bal”l or If I had caught the
ball....

1
After the game, the coach admitted that he ______ the trick play if his starting quarterback had been on the
field.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) would not have called

B) did not call
C) will not call
D) could not have called

Conditional Counterfactuals
Any present conditional counterfactual form of the verb to be is usually phrased starting with if-, but in
formal writing it can start with were:
Typical: If I were shorter, I could wear that outfit.
Formal: Were I shorter, I could wear that outfit.
Similarly, any past conditional counterfactual clause can be phrased starting with if- or with had:
Typical: If he had studied, he would have passed the test.
Formal: Had he studied, he would have passed the test.

1
The sailors would not have encountered the hurricane ______ only a day earlier.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

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A) had they departed

B) if they would have departed
C) if they departed
D) if they would depart

In-class exercise:

1
Samuel Langhorne Clemens, who would later come to be known as Mark Twain, ______ in 1861.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) would have been 25 years old when the Civil War started
B) would of been 25 years old when the Civil War had started
C) was 25 years old when the Civil War started
D) was 25 years old when the Civil War would have started

2
If the goalie ______ backward, he might not have blocked the shot and saved the game.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) had not slipped

B) did not slip
C) had not of slipped
D) would not have slipped

3
The ushers demanded that we ______ off our cell phones until the intermission.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) must turn
B) should turn
C) turn
D) turned

4
As we move through our daily routines, we tend to become agitated when our rituals are changed, our habits
are disrupted, or ______

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) something violates our expectations.

B) our expectations are violated.
C) something would violate our expectations.
D) something violated our expectations.

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5
As expected, ______, who even expressed sympathy with the workers who had registered their complaints.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) the rule against protests was dropped by the management

B) the rule against protests would have been dropped by the management
C) the management would have dropped the rule against protests
D) the management dropped the rule against protests

6
If the strong winds and rains ______ for much longer, the small island town probably would have lost power
completely.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) would have continued

B) had continued
C) continued
D) did continue

7
Our tour guide suggested that _______, which is nearly 17 centuries old.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) we explore the tiny hillside town

B) the tiny hillside town be explored by us
C) we should explore the tiny hillside town
D) we had explored the tiny hillside town

8
As Gina began climbing the long staircase, she wished that she ______ her pumps instead of high heels.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) would have wore

B) had worn
C) would have worn
D) wore

PRACTICE EXERCISES

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1
The creation of the European Union Emissions Trading System (EU ETS) in 2005 __________ a major
milestone in the effort to combat climate change.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) was
B) were
C) had been
D) has been

2
The challenge of the Clean Development Mechanism (CDM) under the Kyoto Protocol, which allows
developed countries to earn emissions credits for financing emissions-reducing projects in developing
countries, __________ the subject of much debate among environmental organizations.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) is
B) was
C) were
D) has been

3
The fluctuations in the price of carbon allowances, which are bought and sold in the European Union
Emissions Trading System, __________ been a major concern for participating countries and companies.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) has
B) have
C) is
D) are

4
Since the introduction of carbon trading programs, experts have argued that the system ________ a positive
impact on the environment, reducing greenhouse gas emissions and encouraging the development of clean
technologies.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) had
B) has had
C) has
D) had had

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As the global community recognizes the importance of reducing greenhouse gas emissions, governments
around the world _________ more stringent regulations on carbon markets.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) are implementing
B) will implement
C) have been implementing
D) are being implemented

6
Despite its initial criticism, the carbon trading system __________ widely accepted as a powerful incentive for
companies to invest in clean energy and low-carbon technologies.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) becomes
B) was becoming
C) had become
D) has become

7
The carbon trading scheme is believed to have reduced emissions by a significant amount and ________ by
many experts as a promising policy tool for mitigating climate change.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) was considered
B) has been considered
C) have been considered
D) had been considered

8
The new breakthrough in clean energy technology _________ by the team of scientists after years of
research and experimentation.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) was discovered
B) has been discovered
C) had been discovered
D) had discovered

9
Grizzlies rarely attack humans, but they will protect their territory from anyone they ______ as a threat.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) would have regarded

B) regarded
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C) had regarded
D) regard

10
After the company's efforts to reduce carbon emissions were successful, the CEO suggested that his CTO
________ more environmentally friendly practices in their daily routine.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) adopt
B) adopting
C) adopts
D) will adopt

11
If the European Union's carbon market had not been established, it is likely that the emissions of its member
states would have ______ higher.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) still been
B) be still
C) still be
D) still remain

12
If carbon trading ______ as easy as flipping a coin, sustainable development projects in developing countries
would receive sufficient funds from international investors.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) is
B) has been
C) were
D) will be

13
Bonnie Buratti of NASA's Jet Propulsion Laboratory ______ data about Saturn's rings collected by the
Cassini spacecraft when she made an interesting discovery: the tiny moons embedded between and within
Saturn's rings are shaped by the buildup of ring material on the moons' surfaces.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) studies
B) has been studying
C) will study
D) was studying

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14
Professional American football player Fred Cox invented one of the world's most popular toys. In the 1970s,
he came up with the idea for the Nerf football, which ______ of the harder and heavier regulation football.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) were a smaller, foam version

B) are smaller, foam versions
C) were smaller, foam versions
D) is a smaller, foam version

15
In the 1950s, a man named Joseph McVicker was struggling to keep his business afloat when his sister-in-
law Kay Zufall advised him to repurpose the company's product, a nontoxic, clay-like substance for removing
soot from wallpaper, as a modeling putty for kids. In addition, Zufall ______ selling the product under a child-
friendly name: Play-Doh.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) suggested
B) suggests
C) had suggested
D) was suggesting

16
In 1966, Emmett Ashford became the first African American to umpire a Major League Baseball game. His
energetic gestures announcing when a player had struck out and his habit of barreling after a hit ball to see if
it would land out of ______ transform the traditionally solemn umpire role into a dynamic one.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) bounds helped
B) bounds, helping
C) bounds that helped
D) bounds to help

17
The Progressive Era in the United States witnessed the rise of numerous Black women's clubs, local
organizations that advocated for racial and gender equality. Among the clubs' leaders ______ Josephine St.
Pierre Ruffin, founder of the Women's Era Club of Boston.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) was
B) were
C) are
D) have been

18

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In many of her landscape paintings from the 1970 s and 1980 s, Lebanese American artist Etel Adnan
worked to capture the essence of California's fog-shrouded Mount Tamalpais region through abstraction,
using splotches of color to represent the area's features. Interestingly, the triangle representing the mountain
itself ______ among the few defined figures in her paintings.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) are
B) have been
C) were
D) is

19
“Praise Song for the Day," Elizabeth Alexander's 2009 inaugural poem, asserts that “We cross dirt roads and
highways...to see what's on the other side." Alexander's use of "we" ______ Americans' collective efforts and
shared desire to seek new opportunity.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) evokes
B) are evoking
C) have evoked
D) evoke

20
By the time Hawaiian king Kamehameha III ______ the throne, the number of longhorn cattle, first introduced
to the islands in 1793 , had drastically increased, and so too had the need for paniolo (Hawaiian cowboys) to
manage the wild herds that then roamed throughout the volcanic terrain.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) will ascend
B) ascended
C) ascends
D) is ascending

21
Nuhād al-Haddād, known as Fairuz, was one of the most beloved Lebanese singers of the twentieth century.
Her broad singing repertoire—which included traditional forms, such as the Arabic qasida and maqam,
alongside modern pop and jazz styles—lent Fairuz a timeless, cross-generational appeal, ______ her the
moniker "the soul of Lebanon."

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) earned
B) had earned
C) earning
D) earn

22

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Known for her massive photorealistic paintings of African American figures floating or swimming in pools,
Calida Garcia ______ was the logical choice to design the book cover for Ta-Nehisi Coates's The Water
Dancer, a novel about an African American man who can travel great distances through water.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) Rawles—
B) Rawles:
C) Rawles,
D) Rawles

23
Because a cycle of lunar phases ______ 29.5 days to complete, it's possible to observe two full moons in a
single month, one at the beginning and one at the end.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) are taking
B) have taken
C) take
D) takes

24
After winning the 1860 presidential election, Abraham Lincoln appointed Edward Bates, Salmon P. Chase,
and William H. Seward to his cabinet. Lincoln's decision was surprising, since each of these men had run
against him, but historians have praised it, noting that Lincoln ______ his rivals' diverse talents to strengthen
his administration.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) has leveraged
B) leveraged
C) will leverage
D) is leveraging

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Unit 2: Majoring in Liberal Arts— Form, Structure, and

Sense (II)

LEAD-IN_

How Liberal Arts Can Help Students Get A Job

by CollegiateParent

Parents want to make sure their student’s college journey is a fruitful one. For most of us, that means hoping
the investment we've made in our student's college career will result in a quality education and, eventually,
a well-paying job.

Some fields of study lead to higher-paying careers than others. For example, a student with a computer
science degree can make about $70k a year right out of school, while entry-level salaries for biologists are
closer to $40,000 a year.

But choosing an academic major isn’t just about how much money our student might make.

It’s important for a student to be authentically interested in their major. If they’re disinterested in what
they’re studying, they could end up doing poorly, dropping out of school, or not pursuing a job related to
their major after graduation.

For many students, it’s genuine passion that drives them to choose a liberal arts college over a research
university or to declare a liberal arts major.

Some parents worry that the liberal arts don’t appear to have a direct connection to the job market. How
will studying philosophy, poetry, history or anthropology translate into employment?

The truth is that by studying liberal arts, our student can develop valuable skills which will have a powerful
impact in their professional and personal lives including:

• Superior written and oral communication

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• Critical thinking
• Teamwork and collaboration
• Creative problem-solving
Plus, the job market for liberal arts majors is a lot healthier than some people might think. Over 95% of
people with liberal arts degrees get a job right out of college. And their earning potential gets better
over time — by their peak earning age of around 50 to 60 years old, they’re earning as much if not more
than graduates with other kinds of degrees.

Not everyone is familiar with what a liberal arts degree entails. Let’s start by looking at what fields of study
are encompassed in a liberal arts program, and the types of skill sets our student can gain from these fields.

WHAT EXACTLY IS LIBERAL ARTS?

Liberal arts is shorthand for liberal arts and sciences, which in modern higher education refers to a body of
studies that include natural sciences, social sciences, arts and humanities.

Some liberal arts majors include:

• Physics
• Biology
• Linguistics
• History
• Literature
• Psychology
• Mathematics
• Political Science
• Film Studies
• And more..

WHY STUDY LIBERAL ARTS?

Any college degree is a valuable asset in the modern world — college graduates make 80% more than
their peers without college educations. Liberal arts degrees provide some unique benefits that students
may not be aware of.

1. There Are Many Job Opportunities

The world is full of career options for students with liberal arts degrees. While some of these careers require
grad school, a liberal arts degree could be the first step to any of these jobs:
• Lawyer
• Graphic designer
• Marketing director
• Real estate agent
• Writer (creative or technical — or both!)
• Journalist
• Scientific researcher
• Production manager
• Retail supervisor
• Web developer
• Sales manager
• Accountant or financial analyst
• Teacher/professor
• Social worker
• Nurse

2. Teaches Soft Skills Important in Professional Careers

The personal, interactive nature of liberal arts courses, with a heavy focus on sharing opinions and debating
topics, have a major impact on students’ soft skills. These include critical thinking, leadership,
communication and creative problem-solving.

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At its core, the liberal arts are about teaching students how to think rather than what to think.

Studies show that employers place a big premium on these types of skills. In fact, 93% of employers say
the ability to communicate clearly, think with a critical mindset, and find creative solutions to complex
problems is more important than whatever specific knowledge a candidate may bring to the workplace.

In today’s job market, our student’s major may not matter as much as their soft skill set. With more and
more jobs relying on high level soft skills that can’t be automated by computers, the value of a liberal arts
education is only going to go up.

Some of the most successful people in America earned liberal arts degrees. Madeleine Albright studied
political science. Toni Morrison studied English. Oprah has a B.A. in communications!

3. It’s A Well-Rounded Education

A liberal arts education is a broader education than other academic routes, something that employers value.

In a study by the Association of American Colleges and Universities, employers responded overwhelmingly
that their ideal job candidate has a “broad range of knowledge and skills.”

A broad education and the intellectual agility that comes with it can actually help, not hinder, our student’s
chances of getting a job after college.

Additionally, this type of education offers more flexibility throughout our student’s life. It’s easier to shift to
other careers, because our student isn’t confined to a limited field of knowledge.

This flexibility is a professional bonus in the ever-changing job market, and it’s got the personal benefit of
helping our student always find fulfillment in their work.

4. Post-Grad is Always an Option

A liberal arts degree doesn’t have to be the end of the academic road for our student. Our student’s
professional goals may change over time, even just within the four years of their undergraduate career.

With a liberal arts degree, students can go on to graduate school to become a doctor, lawyer, professor,
engineer, veterinarian and more.

SUPPORTING OUR STUDENT’S DECISION TO STUDY LIBERAL ARTS

Between the personal benefits of studying the arts and the professional advantages of obtaining a liberal
arts degree, we can come to peace with our student’s decision.

Keep in mind that our student is likely to be unhappy, and consequently less successful, if we pressure
them to pursue an academic program they aren’t truly interested in. They may end up with a mountain of
student loan debt and a job they dislike — not the positive outcome we hope for!

However, there are some questions students should ask themselves before choosing their major:
• What do I want to learn?
• What are the degree requirements? (internship, credits, cost, etc.)
• Have I spoken with an academic advisor and career counselor?
• What are recent graduates with the major I'm considering doing with it, and what do they think of
their choice?

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EXAM SKILLS_

PRONOUN-ANTECEDENT AGREEMENT

Every definite pronoun, such as it, him, herself, and their, must agree in number with its antecedent.
1
Our team of financial advisors safeguards the identity and confidentiality ______

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) of their clients.
B) of each and every client of theirs
C) of its clients
D) of every one of their clients

Interrogative pronouns are the pronouns we use to ask questions such as who? what? where? when?
why? and how? When used as definite pronouns, they must agree in category with their antecedents:
who refers to a person; what refers to a thing, action, or concept; where refers to a place; when refers to a
time; why refers to a reason; and how refers to an explanation.
1
The filibuster is a strategy ______ senators can extend debate in order to delay or prevent a vote.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) where
B) when
C) that
D) whereby

Every definite pronoun should have an unambiguous antecedent. Avoid using pronouns that could
refer to more than one antecedent.
1
After Mike had refused to follow team strategies, ______

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) the coach told Mike that he would have to miss the next game due to the infraction.
B) Mike was told by the coach that he would have to miss the next game due to the infraction.
C) the coach told Mike that, due to the infraction, Mike would have to miss the next game.
D) the coach told Mike that, due to the infraction, he would have to miss the next game.

Once you choose a pronoun to refer to a particular antecedent, stick with it.
1
My wife and I enjoy going to all of our alumni events because ______

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Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) you meet so many interesting people there.

B) the many people that you meet there are so interesting.
C) we meet so many interesting people there.
D) of meeting so many interesting people there.

In-class exercise:
1
There are many times during a match ______ if you fail to focus on the fundamentals.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) where you can lose points

B) where one's points can be lost
C) when you can lose points
D) when one's points can be lost

2
Although ______ read so quickly that you can't absorb the material, increasing your reading speed slightly
can actually help to increase your focus and retention.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) one should never.

B) you should never
C) one could never
D) you shouldn't even

3
Learning new vocabulary words requires much more than memorizing ______.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) their definitions
B) it's definition
C) they're definitions
D) its definition

4
The mission of the Arts Council is to encourage young students to appreciate the fine and the performing arts.
______ programs have been adopted by schools citywide.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) Their
B) It’s
C) Its
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D) They’re

5
Our study shows that the new training program has helped players to avoid injuries, and to recover more
quickly ______.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) when they do
B) if they do
C) when their injured
D) if they do get injured

6
The bonobo, Pan paniscus, may be the most peaceful primate species, but ______ not beyond occasional
outbreaks of violence.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) it is
B) its
C) they are
D) their

7
The nitrogen cycle is the process ______ nitrogen becomes converted into different chemical forms as it is
processed by marine and terrestrial ecosystems.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) when
B) where
C) by which
D) so that

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PRONOUN CASE

A pronoun must take the subjective case—I, he, she, we, or they—when it acts as or is being equated
with the subject of a verb. A pronoun must take the objective case—me, him, her, us, or them—when it
is acting as the object of a verb or a prepositional phrase.
1
As the waiter was talking to ______ could see the enormous tattoo on his neck.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) Jenna and me, we

B) Jenna and I, we
C) Jenna and I, both of us
D) Jenna and me both

2
I am honored that the team has selected ______ as captains.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) Alex and myself

B) Alex and I
C) Alex and myself for
D) Alex and me

Reflexive pronouns—myself, himself, herself, oneself, ourselves, or themselves—serve in two

situations:
• as the object of a verb or preposition when it is identical to the subject of the same verb.
I did it all by myself. She cut herself.
• as an emphatic adjective.
Joan had dinner with Oprah herself.
I myself would never have been invited.
1
After Ronaldo's written request was rebuffed by the board,_______.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) he took his case to Elena

B) he himself took his case to Elena
C) he took his case by himself to Elena
D) he took his case to Elena herself

Possessive pronouns—your, whose, their, its—do not use apostrophes. Their homophones with
apostrophes—you're, who's, they're, it's—are contractions.

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1
______ is becoming dehydrated unless you check it regularly.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) Its hard to know when you're dog

B) It's hard to know when your dog
C) Its hard to know when your
D) It's hard to know when you're

In-class exercise:

1
The challenge problems were much easier for Alexa and Jill than they were for ______.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) Julian and I
B) myself and Julian
C) Julian and me
D) mine and Julian's

2
Since our flight leaves on Saturday, it might be difficult for ______ to stay for the entire conference.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) him and me
B) him and I
C) he and I
D) him and myself

3
There really is no point in ______ delaying this decision any longer.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) us
B) ourselves
C) we
D) our

4
If we are going to resolve this matter, ______ are going to have to make some compromises.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) you and me

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B) you and myself

C) you and I
D) I and you

5
Although we haven't seen each other in years, Justine and ______ have always been closest friends.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) myself
B) me
C) I
D) mine

6
______ have suffered through our share of disappointing defeats.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) Us Giants fans
B) Us Giant’s fans
C) We Giants fan's
D) We Giants fans

7
The owner of the restaurant offered my wife and ______ a complimentary bottle of wine.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) me
B) myself
C) I
D) mine

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THE LAW OF PARALLELISM

When a sentence contains a list, contrast, or comparison, it must follow the Law of Parallelism: the items
being listed, contrasted, or compared should have the same grammatical form.

In Standard Written English, many contrasts or comparisons are made with standard parallel
constructions. When using any of these constructions, you must follow two rules:
• Use the standard phrasing precisely.
• Make sure the words or phrases in the A and B slots are parallel.
…rather A than B… …neither A nor B… …prefer A to B…
…both A and B… …less A than B… …not A but B…
…A more than B… …A is like B… …either A or B…
…not so much A as B… …the more A, the more B… …from A to B…

1
In the 70s and 80s, American high school math teachers taught almost exclusively by lecture; today,______.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) interactive and cooperative methods are more likely to be used

B) interactive and cooperative methods are more likely to be used by those teachers
C) they are more likely to use interactive and cooperative methods
D) they would be more likely to use interactive and cooperative methods

2
Ms. Kelly always tries to provide ______ fair to all of her students.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) clear instructions that show respect and are

B) clear instructions, showing respect and being
C) clear instructions that also are respectful and are
D) instructions that are clear, respectful, and

3
It often seems that politicians would rather give snappy sound bites ______ to solve our problems.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) instead of working
B) than work
C) rather than working
D) but not work

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Analyzing Parallel Constructions

Sometimes tackling parallelism problems can be tough. Here's a step-by-step approach to make it easier:
1. Underline any phrase that shows a list, contrast, or comparison.
2. Put parentheses around each item being listed, contrasted, or compared.
3. Make sure that anything outside the parentheses uses standard idiomatic phrasing.
4. Make sure the items inside the parentheses have parallel form.

1
The film festival was not so much a celebration of independent ______ a series of commercials for
overproduced blockbusters.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) artists; instead it was garish, not to mention

B) artists but rather a garish
C) artists as a garish
D) artists, instead it was a garish

Gerunds vs. Infinitives

Some nouns look like verbs. For instance, an infinitive — the basic to form of a verb such as to eat, to
think, or to be — serves as the subject of the sentence “To know her is to love her.” Likewise, a gerund
— a noun formed by adding -ing to a verb like eating, thinking, and being — serves as the subject of the
sentence “Being healthy is better than being thin.”

When constructing a list, contrast, or comparison, you can often choose between an infinitive form (for
example, I like to hunt, swim, and fish) and a gerund form (for example, I like hunting, swimming, and
fishing). Often, the two forms are interchangeable, but sometimes one is clearly preferable to the other.

When using an infinitive or gerund in a sentence, always ask: would the alternative form sound
better? There are few clear-cut rules for choosing between infinitives and gerunds, and most are based
on convention or idiom, so once you've taken care of all grammatical considerations, trust your ear.

1
The real purpose of this meeting is ______ ideas about opening new markets for our European product line.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) for brainstorming
B) to brainstorm
C) the brainstorming of
D) brainstorm

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In-class exercise:

1
The new party platform focuses on______, improving the schools, and repairing relations with the labor
unions.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) tax code reform

B) reformation of the tax code
C) reforming the tax code
D) tax code reformation

2
Good study habits are not so much about working ______.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) hard, but rather about how wisely you use your time
B) hard, but using your time wisely
C) hard as how wisely you use your time
D) hard as about using your time wisely

3
The food here is not only very fresh, but ______.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) the price is also very reasonable

B) also very reasonably priced
C) it is also very reasonably priced
D) also very reasonably priced as well

4
The financial crisis was exacerbated by two important factors: the skittishness of investors and ______.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) the fecklessness of regulators

B) the feckless regulators
C) how feckless the regulators were
D) the regulators' fecklessness

5
I can't decide whether ______ Caitlyn.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) I should give Maria the tickets or

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B) to give Maria the tickets or

C) Maria should get the tickets or
D) to give the tickets to Maria or to

6
I prefer Liszt's technical ______ Chopin's romantic beauty.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) virtuosity, as opposed to
B) virtuosity, rather than
C) virtuosity to
D) virtuosity, to

7
The festival draws tourists from all over who come not so much for the music ______ the free-wheeling,
Bohemian atmosphere.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) but rather because of

B) as for
C) but for
D) as because of

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LOGICAL COMPARISONS

All comparisons must be logical in two ways: they must compare only things in the same category, and
they must not be self-contradictory.

All comparisons must be logical in two ways: they must compare only things in the same category,
and they must not be self-contradictory.

1
Anna has earned the respect of her fellow teammates by working ______ on the team.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) harder than anyone

B) more hardly than anyone
C) more hardly than anyone else
D) harder than anyone else

2
The turnout for this year's art festival was even better than it was for _____.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) last year's
B) last year
C) that of last year's festival
D) last year's festival's turnout

Quantitative Comparisons
In general, we use less, much, and amount to refer to continuous or uncountable quantities, as in “less
traffic,” “much more money,” and “a large amount of food.” In contrast, we use fewer, many, and number
to refer to countable quantities, as is in “fewer cars,” “many more dollars,” and “a large number of pizzas.”

If you want to refer to a quantity that is both countable and continuous, you can go either way,
depending on which aspect of the quantity you want to emphasize. For instance, units like miles are
countable yet can take continuous values, so it is not technically incorrect to say either This car gets
fewer miles per gallon” or “This car gets less miles per gallon.” But both phrases are awkward. You can
avoid this awkwardness altogether by saying something like “This car is less fuel-efficient.”

1
In an attempt to decrease the ______ licenses to vendors of alcoholic beverages.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

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A) amount of violent incidents at the festival, authorities will be selling less

B) amount of violence at the festival, authorities will be selling fewer
C) number of violent incidents at the festival, authorities will be selling less
D) amount of violent incidents at the festival, authorities will be selling fewer

In-class exercise:

1
Ignoring online trolls, especially the persistent ones, is often more difficult than ______

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) attacking them outright.

B) to outright attack them.
C) to attack them outright.
D) it is attacking them outright.

2
Many critics agree that Kyrchek's latest film is better than ______

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) anything she has done.

B) everything she has done.
C) anything else she has done.
D) any of the work she did.

3
The motors of all-electric cars are much quieter than ______

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) combustion engine cars.

B) combustion engines.
C) cars with combustion engines.
D) those of combustion engines.

4
The Surrealists were as ______ the Dadaists.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) inscrutable, if not more so, than

B) inscrutable as, if not more inscrutable than,
C) inscrutable as, if not more so, than
D) inscrutable, if not more inscrutable, than

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5
Mathematics lessons given by the Japanese teachers, unlike______, were focused on solving a single
complex problem rather than many simpler but similar problems.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) teachers in American classrooms

B) American teachers
C) those given by American teachers
D) American classrooms

6
To contemporary readers, Modernist poetry is much less accessible than even ______.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) Victorian or Elizabethan poetry

B) Victorian or Elizabethan poets
C) those of Victorian or Elizabethan poets
D) that of Victorian or Elizabethan poetry

7
As transparency in banking increases, ______voluntarily pay unreasonable account fees.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) less customers will

B) fewer customers would
C) fewer customers will
D) less customers would

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DANGLING MODIFIERS

When a sentence begins with a modifying phrase, the subject of that phrase must match the subject of
the main clause. If these subjects don't match, then this phrase is called a dangling modifier.
• A modifier is a participial phrase that includes participles which are words, such as broken and
thinking, that derive from verbs but cannot, by themselves, serve as verbs in a sentence.
• Present participles are words that end in -ing, such as swimming, that serve either as
components of verb phrases (as in, “I am swimming”) or as adjectives (as in, “The swimming
children could not hear the ice cream truck”).
[Note: Although present participles and gerunds look identical, don't confuse them. Gerunds
are -ing words that serve as nouns, as in “I love swimming.”]
• Past participles are words, such as toasted or broken, that either end in -ed or take an irregular
past participle form, and that also serve either as components of verb phrases (as in, “I have
toasted the bagels or The glass has broken”) or as adjectives (as in, “I love toasted bagels or Be
careful of the broken glass”).
• Consequential (or "perfect") participles combine having with a past participle, as in “Having
broken the curse, Fiona could finally become her true self.” Consequential participles indicate that
some previous action or status extends a consequence to the subject of the participial phrase. In
this case, the breaking of the curse affects what Fiona can do.

In-class exercise:

1
Although she is little known today, sculptor Edmonia Lewis is an important figure in American art. Born in New
York in the mid-1800s, ______ crafted clay and plaster medallions of abolitionist leaders. The sale of these
extremely popular works enabled her, along with other expatriate American artists, to establish a studio in
Rome.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) Lewis's training took place in Boston; she

B) Lewis trained in Boston, where she
C) Boston was where Lewis trained and
D) it was in Boston that Lewis trained, and she

2
In 1973, DJ Kool Herc made his debut when he provided music for a party in his apartment building in the
West Bronx, a section of New York City. Herc would spin two copies of the same record on different
turntables, cuing up one record to play at the beginning of a break just as the other record was coming to the
end. By repeating this technique over and over, ______ from a short interlude lasting only a few seconds into
a percussion breakdown that could go on for minutes.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) a song's break could extend

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B) he could extend a song's break

C) it could extend a song's break
D) extending a song's break could be done

3
Early postal policymakers were instrumental in guaranteeing the right to privacy of correspondence, but new
forms of communication in the digital age mean that privacy matters are far from resolved. In grappling with
questions surrounding twenty-first-century methods, ______

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) courts will likely continue to be influenced by decisions made in colonial times.

B) it is by decisions made in colonial times that courts will likely continue to be influenced.
C) decisions made in colonial times will likely continue to influence courts.
D) the influence on courts will likely continue to be decisions made in colonial times.

4
When Lonnie Bunch accepted the job of founding director at the National Museum of African American
History and Culture (NMAAHC) in 2005, he took the first step in realizing a long-held vision. Since then, the
museum has become one of the most popular of the Smithsonian museums on the National Mall in
Washington, DC. Bunch's methodology is not without its critics, however. Writing in the New Yorker
magazine, ______

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) it runs the risk of seeming incoherent to tell a broad story about America through African American culture,
Vinson Cunningham argues.
B) an article by Vinson Cunningham argues that the effort to tell a broad story about America through African
American culture runs the risk of seeming incoherent.
C) Vinson Cunningham argues that the effort to tell a broad story about America through African American
culture runs the risk of seeming incoherent.
D) the effort to tell a broad story about America through African American culture runs the risk of seeming
incoherent, argues Vinson Cunningham.

5
Metropolitan population growth in the 1950s encouraged the construction of tall structures to house people
and support growing businesses. Architect Fazlur Rahman Khan realized that if a building's exterior walls
could be made to bear more weight and withstand lateral forces more effectively than they traditionally had,
the result would be a taller, safer, and more cost-effective building. Khan applied this idea to his 1961 design
for Chicago's Brunswick Building, which contains a shear-wall core and an exterior frame of closely spaced
columns. With support at both the center and perimeter, ______ the need for spaceconsuming columns to be
placed throughout the floor plan.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) this "tube-within-a-tube" layout could resist strong winds and reduce

B) strong winds could be resisted by this "tube-within-a-tube" layout, reducing
C) resistance to strong winds could result from this "tube-within-a-tube" layout, thereby
D) reducing there could be resistance to strong winds by this "tube-within-a-tube" layout and a reduction in

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6
In 2014, architectural designer Simon Schleicher followed a new biomimetic approach in solving a particular
engineering challenge: designing shading systems for irregularly shaped glass-paneled skyscrapers. External
awnings, which are assembled out of standardized parts, often don't fit the atypical contours of modern
buildings and are prone to weather damage. Recognizing the insufficiency of these traditional rigid-body
devices, ______ His solution was a single-material façade-shading structure that could cover a building like
the petals on a flower, able to open and contract in response to changing weather conditions.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) Schleicher's designs were modeled on the elastic movement principles of plants.

B) Schleicher modeled his designs on the elastic movements of plants.
C) the elastic movements that Schleicher's designs were modeled on were those of plants.
D) the elastic movements of plants provided the model for Schleicher's designs.

7
Raï, an Arabic word that connotes the desire for free expression, is the name given to a genre of Algerian
popular music. Rooted in Arabic folklore, ______. Raï musicians draw on styles and instruments from around
the world to explore the themes of home, belonging, and yearning found in the vernacular traditions of the
folklore.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) Spanish folk undertones and American hip-hop and disco styles are fused with complex African and Arabic
rhythmic patterns to create Raï music and produce unique and compelling songs.
B) the production of unique and compelling songs is accomplished when Raï music fuses complex African
and Arabic rhythmic patterns, Spanish folk undertones, and American hip-hop and disco styles.
C) the fusion of complex African and Arabic rhythmic patterns, Spanish folk undertones, and American hip-
hop and disco styles is what Raï music uses to produce unique and compelling songs.
D) Raï music fuses complex African and Arabic rhythmic patterns, Spanish folk undertones, and American
hip-hop and disco styles to produce unique and compelling songs.

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PRACTICE EXERCISES

1
Classical composer Florence Price's 1927 move to Chicago marked a turning point in her career. It was there
that Price premiered her First Symphony-a piece that was praised for blending traditional Romantic motifs
with aspects of Black folk music-and supportive relationships with other Black artists.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) developing
B) developed
C) to develop
D) having developed

2
On April 5, 1977, Kitty Cone and 150 other disability rights activists entered a San Francisco federal building.
After pleading for years—to no effect—for the passage of key anti-discrimination legislation, ______ until their
demands were addressed. Finally, on April 28, the legislation was signed.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) pressure on lawmakers increased when the activists staged a sit-in protest

B) a sit-in protest staged by the activists increased pressure on lawmakers
C) lawmakers came under increased pressure when the activists staged a sit-in protest
D) the activists increased pressure on lawmakers by staging a sit-in protest

3
Based on genetic evidence, archaeologists have generally agreed that reindeer domestication began in the
eleventh century CE. However, since uncovering fragments of a 2,000-year-old reindeer training harness in
northern Siberia, ______ may have begun much earlier.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) researcher Robert Losey has argued that domestication

B) researcher Robert Losey's argument is that domestication
C) domestication, researcher Robert Losey has argued,
D) the argument researcher Robert Losey has made is that domestication

4
African American Percy Julian was a scientist and entrepreneur whose work helped people around the world
to see. Named in 1999 as one of the greatest achievements by a US chemist in the past hundred years,
______ led to the first mass-produced treatment for glaucoma.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) Julian synthesized the alkaloid physostigmine in 1935; it

B) in 1935 Julian synthesized the alkaloid physostigmine, which
C) Julian's 1935 synthesis of the alkaloid physostigmine
D) the alkaloid physostigmine was synthesized by Julian in 1935 and

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5
Cheng Dang and her colleagues at the University of Washington recently ran simulations to determine the
extent to which individual snow ______ affect the amount of light reflecting off a snowy surface.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) grain's physical properties'

B) grains' physical properties
C) grains' physical property's
D) grains physical properties

6
Far from being modern inventions, ______ more than 5,000 years ago.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) Sumerians in ancient Mesopotamia used drinking straws

B) drinking straws were used by Sumerians in ancient Mesopotamia
C) the use of drinking straws by Sumerians in ancient Mesopotamia happened
D) ancient Mesopotamia was home to Sumerians who used drinking straws

7
In Death Valley National Park's Racetrack Playa, a flat, dry lakebed, are 162 rocks—some weighing less than
a pound but others almost 700 pounds—that move periodically from place to place, seemingly of their own
volition. Racetrack-like trails in the ______ mysterious migration.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) playas sediment mark the rock's

B) playa's sediment mark the rocks
C) playa's sediment mark the rocks'
D) playas' sediment mark the rocks'

8
The human brain is primed to recognize faces—so much so that, due to a perceptual tendency called
pareidolia, ______ will even find faces in clouds, wooden doors, pieces of fruit, and other faceless inanimate
objects. Researcher Susan Magsamen has focused her work on better understanding this everyday
phenomenon.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) she
B) they
C) it
D) those

9
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Official measurements of the Mississippi River's length vary: according to the US Geologic Survey, the river is
2,300 miles long, whereas the Environmental Protection Agency records its length as 2,320 miles. This
disparity can be explained in part by the fact that rivers such as the Mississippi expand and contract as
______ sediment.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) they accumulate
B) one accumulates
C) it accumulates
D) we accumulate

10
Slam poet Elizabeth Acevedo's debut novel The Poet X, winner of the 2018 National Book Award for Young
People's Literature, is composed of ______ protagonist, fifteen-year-old Xiomara Batista.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) poems putatively written by the novel's

B) poem's putatively written by the novel's
C) poem's putatively written by the novels'
D) poems putatively written by the novels'

11
In 1930, Japanese American artist Chiura Obata depicted the natural beauty of Yosemite National Park in
two memorable woodcuts: Evening at Carl Inn and Lake Basin in the High Sierra. In 2019, ______ exhibited
alongside 150 of Obata's other works in a single-artist show at the Smithsonian American Art Museum.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) it was
B) they were
C) this was
D) some were

12
Inventor John Friedman created a prototype of the first flexible straw by inserting a screw into a paper straw
and, using dental floss, binding the straw tightly around the ______ When the floss and screw were removed,
the resulting corrugations in the paper allowed the straw to bend easily over the edge of a glass.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) screw's thread's.
B) screws' threads.
C) screw's threads.
D) screws threads'.

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13
Oglala Lakota poet Layli Long Soldier's star quilt poems offer an unusually open-ended reading experience.
With ______ eight panels of text stitched together in the shape of a traditional eight-pointed Lakota star quilt,
the poems present viewers with a seemingly infinite number of ways to read them.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) their
B) it's
C) they're
D) its

14
The violins handmade in the seventeeth century by Italian craftsman Antonio Stradivari have been celebrated
as some of the finest in the world. In close collaboration with musicians, Stradivari introduced changes to the
shape of a traditional violin, flattening some of the instrument's curves and making ______ lighter overall.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) those
B) one
C) them
D) it

15
A pioneer in the field of taphonomy (the study of how organic remains become fossils), ______ may be just
as prevalent in the fossil record as those of thick-shelled organisms.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) fossils of thin-shelled organisms, Anna Behrensmeyer demonstrated in a 2005 analysis,

B) Anna Behrensmeyer demonstrated in a 2005 analysis that fossils of thin-shelled organisms
C) it was demonstrated in a 2005 analysis by Anna Behrensmeyer that fossils of thin-shelled organisms
D) a 2005 analysis-by Anna Behrensmeyer-demonstrated that fossils of thin-shelled organisms

16
"There is no audience to see you," she said one day in Japanese, as I gestured expansively to ____ my
anguish at the death of one of my fellow soldiers. "You don't need to project like you would in the theater, as
if you're trying to be seen by the person in the last row."

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

A) convey
B) conduct
C) guide
D) experience

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Unit 3: Lost city of Atlantis— Boundaries (I)

LEAD-IN_

Lost city of Atlantis rises again to fuel a dangerous myth

For a story that was first told 2,300 years

ago, the myth of Atlantis has demonstrated
a remarkable persistence over the
millennia. Originally outlined by Plato, the
tale of the rise of a great, ancient civilisation
followed by its cataclysmic destruction has
since generated myriad interpretations.

Many versions have been intriguing and

entertaining – but none have been as
controversial as its most recent outing in
the Netflix series Ancient Apocalypse.

Presented by the author Graham Hancock,

the programme argues that a once
sophisticated culture was destroyed by floods triggered by a giant comet which crashed on Earth, a disaster
that inspired the legend of Atlantis, it is claimed.

According to Hancock, survivors of the calamity spread round the world – which was then populated by
simple hunter-gatherers – bringing them science, technology, agriculture and monumental architecture. We
owe everything to these near godlike individuals, it is claimed.

For good measure, Hancock – who has been promoting these ideas in his books for decades – argues that
archaeologists have deliberately covered up this catastrophic vision of civilisation’s spread and accuses
mainstream academia of its “extremely defensive, arrogant and patronising” attitudes.

These stark claims have helped the series reach the top of viewing lists on both sides of the Atlantic, to the
chagrin of archaeologists who, for their part, have denounced Ancient Apocalypse on the grounds that it
provides little evidence to support its grandiose claims and for promoting conspiracy theories dressed up
as science.

Flint Dibble, an archaeologist at Cardiff University, described Hancock’s basic thesis as “flawed thinking”.
Archaeologists don’t hate him, as he claims. “It is simply that we strongly believe he is wrong,” says Dibble
in an article in The Conversation last week.

The confrontation is intriguing and raises many issues of which the most basic is the simple question: why
has the story of Atlantis – compared with other ancient myths – maintained its popularity for so long? What
is the essential attraction of the tale?

For answers we only have to look at the works of Tolkien, CS Lewis, HP Lovecraft, Conan Doyle, Brecht
and a host of science fiction writers who have all found the myth an irresistible inspiration.

As to the suggested location of this lost civilisation, these have ranged from the Sahara to the Antarctic and
countless places in between.

Nor is Hancock the first to suggest the destruction of a once great civilisation led to the flowering of culture
elsewhere. In 1882, the maverick US congressman and popular writer Ignatius Donnelly published Atlantis:
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The Antediluvian World which argued that a

highly complex, sophisticated culture had been
wiped out by a flood 10,000 years ago and
claimed that its survivors had spread round the
world teaching the rest of humanity the secrets
of farming and architecture. Sounds familiar.

Then there were the Nazis. Many swore by the

idea that a white Nordic superior race – people
of “the purest blood” – had come from Atlantis.
As a result, Himmler set up an SS unit, the
Ahnenerbe – or Bureau of Ancestral Heritage –
in 1935 to find out where people from Atlantis
had ended up after the deluge had destroyed
their homeland.

And that, in part, explains why the myth of an ancient, lost civilisation is so useful. It is a basic tale of a rise
and fall that can be corralled and exploited for all sorts of causes. Plato meant his tale to be an allegory.
Atlantis was destroyed by the gods who had grown angry with the hubris displayed by its inhabitants and
so destroyed it. Don’t get too big for your boots, in other words.

But Hancock – who describes himself as a journalist presumably to avoid being called a pseudo-scientist –
takes the story to a new controversial level in suggesting that survivors of such a deluge were the instigators
of the great works of other civilisations, from Egypt to Mexico and Turkey to Indonesia. As Dibble states,
such claims reinforce white supremacist ideas. “They strip indigenous people of their rich heritage and
instead give credit to aliens or white people.” In short, the series promotes ideas of “race science” that are
outdated and long since debunked.

As to the likely site of the original Atlantis, the serious money goes on the destruction of the Greek island
of Santorini and its impact on Crete and puts the blame on volcanic eruptions – not errant comets, as
Hancock argues.

In addition, while Ancient Apocalypse suggests that destruction happened 12,000 years ago, most
proponents of the alternative view believe it occurred around 1630BC when the island of Santorini exploded
in one of the most violent volcanic events in human history.

Fourteen cubic miles of rock were hurled into the atmosphere, triggering huge tsunamis and a hail of ash
that would have destroyed the Minoan civilisation which then flourished on Crete.

It was this cataclysm that was remembered more than 1,000 years later in Plato’s time. He attributed it to
a civilisation that he called Atlantis, little knowing how his brief description of a lost culture would resonate
so strongly – and often controversially – through the ages.

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EXAM SKILLS_

RUN-ONS & FRAGMENTS

Two independent clauses are NEVER and will be NEVER connected by a comma.

Four ways to connect two independent clauses: (1) period .

(2) colon :
(3) semi-colon ;
(4) comma + FANBOYS

Two ways to connect Independent clause and dependent clause: (1) using comma
(2) none at all.

Example: Although I go to school in the early morning, I still get stuck in the traffic.
I still get stuck in the traffic although I go to school in the early morning.

SEMI-COLONS
A semicolon connects two independent clauses, which is quite similar to a period.

There are several differences between a semi-colon and a period:

• The first letter after a semi-colon is normally in lowercase while that after a period is in uppercase.
Example: ……. ; therefore, …… ………. . Therefore, ……….
• Two independent clauses connected by a semi-colon should address the same subject,
whenever possible.
Example: Archaeologists in Chicago, Illinois, made an exciting discovery during excavations for
a new park; they uncovered the remains of an 18th-century British fort which shedded new light
on the early history of the city and its role in the American Revolution.
• A semi-colon never ends a paragraph.

In-class exercise: Count how many independent/dependent clauses in each sentence and Identify if the
sentence has run-ons, fragments, or improper punctuations.

1. Research indicates that learning to play a musical instrument has profound implications for the
mind and that musicians reap lifelong benefits from their craft.
2. Most research addressing the cognitive benefits of playing musical instruments finds that music
lessons have positive effects on school-age children, as the formative years facilitate easy
absorption of new skills.

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3. Due to the fact that musical skill increases and preserves neuroplasticity—the brains' ability to
reorganize functions in response to stimuli—continued practice may also help to lessen the
ordinary deterioration of cognitive ability that can accompany age.
4. While pests such as sea lice, capable of eating a live fish to the bone, thrived in the artificial
environment, as did viral, fungal, and bacterial diseases, which spread to wild fish populations.
5. Therefore, Dave Roeser, owner of Garden Fresh Farms, has created a unique farm-in-a-bubble
system in which plants and fish meet each other's needs.
6. In this system, fish exhale what plants inhale, excrete what plants eat, and swim in water that
plants clean.
7. While unique in its particulars, Garden Fresh Farms signals a broader trend: once primarily a wild
food caught with nets and hooks and luck, fish on the dinner table today were likely ordered
wholesale.
8. In addition to being used in astronomy and medicine. Digital image processing techniques are
used in fields as diverse as conservation, industrial inspection, and law enforcement.
9. Similarly unknown is which of the Nasutoceratops had those characteristic horns atop their
heads.
10. A 2009 study conducted at Texas Woman's University revealed that eating pistachios every day
reduces the risk of lung cancer.
11. Stress levels, immune system strength, male fertility, and weight and cholesterol—which all
appear to benefit from the regular consumption of nuts.
12. The survey found that regular nut eaters were more likely to have leaner physiques, be more
active, and not smoke; however, its methodology couldn't ascertain whether regular nut
consumption helped those people live healthier, longer lives or already generally healthy people
simply ate nuts more frequently.
13. Because individuals speak and write in their own unique ways, or "idiolects," studying a writer's
language patterns can reveal who is, or isn't, responsible for writing a given document.
14. On the day of the eruption, Pliny the Elder was initially just curious 40 at first to see the strange
cloud from the volcano, but upon receiving word that a friend was in danger, he sailed toward
Pompeii to try to rescue her.
15. Many thought that it was possible that this treasure could be the one that had been wondered
about for centuries.
16. A mother will pass on the mtDNA to all of her children, regardless of gender, but the mtDNA will
only continue to be transmitted through the generations if female descendants of a family have
female descendants.
17. Although its requirements may be daunting, this challenge is worth embracing for those who seek
to set the highest standards for sustainable building.

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18. The project, however, evolved as he got to know his subjects and began posting snippets of his
casual interviews with them — the happiest moment in their life, what they love most about their
partner, or what their greatest struggle has been — as captions beneath the picture.
19. Therefore, Stanton was turned down at least 90 percent of the time — especially by women, who
were understandably wary of having her picture taken by a man they didn't know.
20. So began the Delta blues, an influential style of music that originated among the African
American farmhands of the Delta region of northwest Mississippi and was characterized by
uneven rhyme schemes, moaning vocals, and mixes of sung and spoken passages.

PRACTICE EXERCISES

1
In 2019, archaeologists uncovered a well-preserved apartment building in Rome, Italy, ______ dates back to
the second century AD.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) it
B) in specific, it
C) which
D) the scientists

2
During excavations in the heart of Oslo, Norway, a 700-year-old house was discovered. The structure is
remarkably well-preserved, ______.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) it contains many valuable artifacts from the time period.

B) has been attracting attention from historians and archaeologists.
C) the house is in need of significant restoration work.
D) and it is one of the oldest wooden houses ever found.

3
Recently discovered in Venice, Italy, an ancient pharmacy that was likely in use during the 17th century is an
extraordinary find. The pharmacy, which features elaborately designed interiors, contains diverse collection of
medicinal ______ offers valuable insights into the use of herbal remedies in ancient medicine.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) herbs, it
B) herbs,
C) herbs and
D) herbs; and it

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4
In 2018, archaeologists discovered a well-preserved apartment building in Rome which consisted of around
80 rooms arranged around a central courtyard, with multiple levels and a heated floor system. Because the
excavated items could provide details on the social and economic structures of acient Rome, ______ storage
room was set up.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) so a special
B) and a special
C) but a special
D) a special

5
Despite the potential historical significance of the tomb believed to be the final resting place of the philosopher
______ the local authorities have yet to allocate sufficient funding for its excavation; historians and
archaeologists fear that the valuable clues and artifacts contained within the tomb may be lost forever.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) Aristotle, where
B) Aristotle;
C) Aristotle,
D) Aristotle:

6
Historians and archaeologists are eager to uncover the mysteries and secrets that lie within the ancient
palace believed to have been built by King ______ may offer valuable insights into the history of the region.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) David;
B) David; for it
C) David, it
D) David, which

7
Archaeologists and historians sometimes disagree on the original layout and design of ancient cities, ______
that they were planned and deliberately laid out, while others argue that they were more organic and
developed over time.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) some suggest
B) suggesting
C) with some suggesting
D) moreover, some suggest

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There is often tension between archaeologists, local communities, and government officials over the
ownership and management of archaeological sites ______ they are located in densely populated urban
areas.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) ; particularly when
B) , particularly when
C) : particularly when
D) because when

9
______ a key indicator for economic growth, the rapid pace of urban development can pose a threat to
archaeological sites, with many sites being destroyed or altered to make way for new construction.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) Praised as
B) It is praised as
C) People praise it as
D) It is

10
Some argues that it is important to involve local communities in the excavation and interpretation of
archaeological ______ others worry that this can lead to the commodification of the past and damage to the
site.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) sites; but
B) sites,
C) sites; however,
D) sites, however,

11
When excavating in urban areas, it is important to preserve the context of the site. This is only one part of the
whole ______ local residents and stakeholders in the excavation and interpretation of the site is another
factor that archaeologists must take into account.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) process. However, involving

B) process however involving
C) process, however, involving
D) process, however. Involving

12
Due to the limited space and complex conditions of urban environments, it can be difficult to excavate sites
without causing damage to surrounding buildings and ______ to this problem is to use non-destructive
methods such as ground-penetrating radar or laser scanning to survey and map sites before excavation,
allowing for a more precise and targeted approach to digging.
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Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) infrastructure. One solution

B) infrastructure; one solution
C) infrastructure, one solution
D) infrastructure — one solution

13
The Mission 66 initiative, which was approved by Congress in 1956, represented a major investment in the
infrastructure of overburdened national ______ it prioritized physical improvements to the parks' roads,
utilities, employee housing, and visitor facilities while also establishing educational programming for the
public.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

A) parks and
B) parks
C) parks;
D) parks,

14
As British scientist Peter Whibberley has observed, "the Earth is not a very good timekeeper." Earth's slightly
irregular rotation rate means that measurements of time must be periodically adjusted. Specifically, an extra
"leap second" (the 86,401 st second of the day) is ______ time based on the planet's rotation lags a full nine-
tenths of a second behind time kept by precise atomic clocks.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) added, whenever
B) added; whenever
C) added. Whenever
D) added whenever

15
Po'Pay was a Tewa leader from Ohkay Owingeh, a pueblo located about twenty-five miles north of present-
day Santa Fe, New Mexico. He was instrumental in organizing the Pueblo Revolt of ______ as a result of his
leadership, the Spanish colonizers were expelled from the region for a time.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) 1680
B) 1680 and
C) 1680,
D) 1680, and

16
Detroit natives Timothy Paule and Nicole Lindsey have combined their two passions, Detroit and beekeeping,
to improve the health of their city's flowers and other vegetation. In 2017, the couple converted a vacant lot in
the city into an in the years that followed they acquired nine additional lots and established more than 35
hives.
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Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) apiary,
B) apiary, and
C) apiary and
D) apiary

17
Nine months before Rosa Parks made history by refusing to comply with the segregated seating policy on a
Montgomery, Alabama, bus, a fifteen-year-old Montgomery girl named Claudette Colvin was arrested for the
same ______ to some historians, Colvin's arrest led to Parks's action and eventually to the desegregation of
Montgomery's bus system.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) offense. According
B) offense, according
C) offense according
D) offense and according

18
The first computerized spreadsheet, Dan Bricklin's VisiCalc, improved financial recordkeeping not only by
providing users with an easy means of adjusting data in spreadsheets but also by automatically updating all
calculations that were dependent on these ______ to VisiCalc's release, changing a paper spreadsheet often
required redoing the entire sheet by hand, a process that could take days.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) adjustments prior
B) adjustments, prior
C) adjustments. Prior
D) adjustments and prior

19
It is generally true that technological change is a linear process, in which once-useful technologies are
replaced by new and better ______ the reawakening of interest in the steam engine (from advocates of
carbon-neutral rail travel) reminds us that ostensibly obsolete technologies may be brought back into service
to address society's changing needs.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) ones, even so;

B) ones even so,
C) ones; even so,
D) ones, even so,

20
In 2017, artists Isabel and Ruben Toledo redesigned the costumes and sets for The Miami City Ballet's
production of The ______ to reviewers, the Toledos' designs helped infuse the production with elements of
Miami's Latin American culture.
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Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) Nutcracker according,
B) Nutcracker, according
C) Nutcracker according
D) Nutcracker. According

21
Seneca sculptor Marie Watt's blanket art comes in a range of shapes and sizes. In 2004 , Watt sewed strips
of blankets together to craft a 10-by-13-inch ______ in 2014, she arranged folded blankets into two large
stacks and then cast them in bronze, creating two curving 18-foot-tall blue-bronze pillars.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) sampler later,
B) sampler;
C) sampler,
D) sampler, later,

22
Humans were long thought to have begun occupying the Peruvian settlement of Machu Picchu between
1440 and 1450 CE. However, a team led by anthropologist Dr. Richard Burger used accelerator mass
spectrometry to uncover evidence that it was occupied ______ 1420CE, according to Burger, humans were
likely inhabiting the area.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) earlier. In
B) earlier, in
C) earlier, which in
D) earlier in

23
Materials scientist Marie-Agathe Charpagne and her colleagues believed they could improve on the
multicomponent alloy NiCoCr, an equal-proportions mixture of nickel (Ni), cobalt (Co), and chromium (Cr), by
replacing chromium with ruthenium ______ the alloy that resulted, NiCoRu, turned out to be an unsuitable
replacement for NiCoCr.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) (Ru)
B) (Ru) but
C) (Ru),
D) (Ru), but

24
In 2010, archaeologist Noel Hidalgo Tan was visiting the twelfth-century temple of Angkor Wat in Cambodia
when he noticed markings of red paint on the temple ______ the help of digital imaging techniques, he
discovered the markings to be part of an elaborate mural containing over 200 paintings.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?
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A) walls, with
B) walls with
C) walls so with
D) walls. With

25
According to Naomi Nakayama of the University of Edinburgh, the reason seeds from a dying dandelion
appear to float in the air while ______ is that their porous plumes enhance drag, allowing the seeds to stay
airborne long enough for the wind to disperse them throughout the surrounding area.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) falling,
B) falling:
C) falling;
D) falling

26
In 1727, dramatist Lewis Theobald presented a new play, Double Falsehood, at a London theater. Theobald
claimed that his drama was based on a little-known play by William Shakespeare, Cardenio. Many, including
poet Alexander Pope, were ______ historians have determined that Shakespeare's company did perform a
play called Cardenio in 1613.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) skeptical but
B) skeptical, but
C) skeptical,
D) skeptical

27
A conceptual artist and designer embraced by both the art world and the fashion ______ Mary Ping was
chosen to curate the exhibition Front Row: Chinese American Designers for the Museum of Chinese in
America.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) world
B) world:
C) world;
D) world,

28
How do scientists determine what foods were eaten by extinct hominins such as Neanderthals? In the past,
researchers were limited to studying the marks found on the fossilized teeth of skeletons, but in 2017 a team
led by Laura Weyrich of the Australian Centre for Ancient DNA tried something ______ the DNA found in
Neanderthals' fossilized dental plaque.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?
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A) new: sequencing
B) new; sequencing
C) new, sequencing:
D) new. Sequencing

29
In ancient Greece, an Epicurean was a follower of Epicurus, a philosopher whose beliefs revolved around the
pursuit of pleasure. Epicurus defined pleasure as "the absence of pain in the body and of trouble in the
______ that all life's virtues derived from this absence.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) soul," positing
B) soul": positing
C) soul"; positing
D) soul." Positing

30
In her analysis of Edith Wharton's The House of Mirth (1905), scholar Candace Waid observes that the novel
depicts the upper classes of New York society as "consumed by the appetite of a soulless ______ an apt
assessment given that The House of Mirth is set during the Gilded Age, a period marked by rapid
industrialization, economic greed, and widening wealth disparities.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) materialism"; and
B) materialism" and
C) materialism,"
D) materialism"

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Unit 4: Ocean energy — Boundaries (II)

LEAD-IN_

Ocean energy: An important ally in the fight against climate change

It’s no secret that one of the biggest threats our oceans face is the impact of climate change. Marine habitats
and wildlife are already suffering the consequences of rising sea temperatures and acidification, as are the
coastal communities that depend on them.

Less obvious, perhaps, is that the sea itself is part of the solution. Covering 70% of the world’s surface, the
oceans are one of the planet’s most abundant sources of renewable energy. Their power can be captured
and transformed into clean electricity—enough, potentially, to power the world twice over. And because this
energy is carbon-free and infinite, it is an important weapon in the fight against climate change.

Electricity without emissions

Ocean-energy technologies use the predictable currents produced by the tides, the constant bobbing
motion of the waves or natural differences in seawater temperatures and salinity. But they have one thing
in common: they need no fuel and produce no emissions. Once installed, these machines can continue to
produce power—without pollution—for decades.

Installing more ocean energy also gives a boost to other carbon-free, renewable-energy sources, such as
wind and solar power. The sea is always on the move, meaning that ocean energy is perfectly positioned
to stabilise the power supply when the sun isn’t shining, or when the wind doesn’t blow. A complementary
mix of renewables is essential to make sure supply and demand are balanced in a zero-carbon electricity
system.

Of course, manufacturing and transporting these machines isn’t carbon-free, but luckily the production
footprint is similar to other renewable-energy sources and very low when compared to coal and gas. As the
steel, cement and transport sectors continue to reduce their emissions, this “life-cycle” impact will drop even
further.

Creating safe havens for wildlife

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Because ocean-energy sites are closed to fishing and to sea traffic, evidence shows that they can have a
“marine-reserve effect”, as some species shelter under and around the structures, hiding from predators,
and feeding and reproducing undisturbed.

An “artificial-reef effect” is also a common occurrence, as the structures are colonised by organisms which
in turn attract fish and other animals. Hard surfaces are rare in marine ecosystems, and trawling often
removes those which exist naturally. The foundations of ocean-energy devices offer an ideal home for many
fish, crayfish and molluscs, just as sunken shipwrecks and offshore wind turbines help to boost biodiversity
in their vicinity.

In harmony with the environment

The other good news is that ocean energy can peacefully coexist with all manner of flora and fauna, as
recent studies show no evidence of a negative impact on the marine environment.

Ocean-energy devices share the sea with plants, fish and mammals, so it is reasonable to consider how
they interact. In all the monitoring that has taken place to date, not a single case of marine wildlife colliding
with a device has been recorded. Tidal-stream and wave-energy machines are in sync with the motion of
the sea, have few moving parts, and move much more slowly than a wind turbine turns through the air.

Noise from human activity is often cited as a concern when looking at marine environments, but installing
ocean-energy devices is typically quick—and relatively quiet. There is no disruptive pile-driving to secure
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foundations, and fish and mammals that leave the area during installation return quickly afterwards. The
noise generated by the machines themselves is minimal, certainly no louder than ambient sea noise and
well below the noise levels of ships and other vessels.

Electromagnetic fields occur naturally in the marine environment but are often singled out as a potential
issue for wildlife. While power cables can alter these fields, evidence shows that the ecological impacts are
limited and animals living nearby are unlikely to be harmed.

Monitoring matters
As ocean energy grows in scale, making sure these innovative technologies respect their habitat is a top
priority for project developers. Rigorous impact studies are undertaken at all proposed project sites—not
only before installation, but also during the entire lifetime of the project.

Choosing project sites carefully, with due consideration for the local environment, is paramount to the
success of this new industry. The advantage to ocean energy being a second-generation renewable-power
source is that we can use not only our own experience and data to work in harmony with the underwater
world, but also decades of science from the offshore and renewable-energy sectors.

It is fair to ask questions about how any new technology interacts with the natural environment, but it is
equally important that decisions taken around ocean-energy projects are based on scientific evidence and
real-world monitoring data. Ocean energy is first and foremost a force for good, and the sector is committed
to making sure it stays that way.

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EXAM SKILLS_

INTERRUPTERS
Interrupting modifiers must be bracketed by identical punctuation marks: either both commas or both
dashes. Dashes are slightly more emphatic than commas and draw more attention to the interrupter.

1
The ______ found primarily in the tropical waters of the Indian Ocean.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) coelacanth—a fish species once widely believed to be extinct, is

B) coelacanth—a fish species once widely believed to be extinct—is
C) coelacanth: a fish species once widely believed to be extinct—is
D) coelacanth, a fish species once widely believed to be extinct is

APOSTROPHES
Apostrophes should be used exclusively for possessives and contractions. Never use apostrophes to
pluralize.

1
Only after a class-action suit was filed did the landlord consider giving the ______ money back.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) renters there
B) renter's their
C) renter's they’re
D) renters their

POSSESSIVES
To turn a plural noun ending in -s sinto a possessive, just add an apostrophe at the end. For
instance, the boys' swim team. For singular nouns that end in -s, tack on -'. For instance, Mr. Jones'
class.

Possessive pronouns—your, whose, their, its—do not use apostrophes. Their homophones with
apostrophes—you're, who's, they're, it's—are contractions.

1
They did not know it at the time, but Gwen was ______ daughter.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) Chris's cousin's
B) Chris' cousin's
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C) Chris's cousins
D) Chris' cousins

USE COMMAS SPARINGLY

As a rule of thumb, use commas only where necessary. Commas are more often overused than
underused.

1
The ______ calculus.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) subject, that intimidates me the most, is

B) subject that intimidates me the most, is
C) subject, that intimidates me the most is
D) subject that intimidates me the most is

The primary job of a comma is to separate

• items in a list, as in
He was fat, dumb, and lazy.
• coordinate adjectives, as in
He gave a long, boring speech.
• modifying phrases from the main clause, as in
In fact, I am appalled.
• dependent clauses from the main clause, as in
Whenever I try, I fail.
• independent clauses from other independent clauses, but only with a conjunction, as in
I think, therefore I am.

WHEN TO USE COMMAS

Commas can also be used to
• introduce a quotation, as in
Tom said, "I ain't goin'!"
• indicate an appositive title, as in
She read from her book, Blue Nights.
• format an address or date, as in
Saturday, July 19, 2014 or Cleveland, Ohio.
• signal an addressee, as in
Get going, buster!

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1
The ______ that they were essential to his thought process.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) philosopher, Immanuel Kant was known to take long, regimented walks, he claimed
B) philosopher, Immanuel Kant was kno'wn to take long, regimented walks; he claimed
C) philosopher Immanuel Kant was known to take long regimented walks, he claimed
D) philosopher Immanuel Kant was known to take long, regimented walks; he claimed

COLONS AND SEMICOLONS

Colons and semicolons should always be preceded by independent clauses.
• A semicolon must also be followed by an independent clause that supports the first one.
The girls were tired; they needed a nap.
• A colon must be followed by a list, a specifier, or an explanatory independent clause.
They were a party of three: Elisa, Jen, and Kate.
The girls needed only one thing: sleep.
The girls were tired: they had practiced for hours.
(These rules apply to the SAT, but they have obscure exceptions. For example, semicolons can also be
used instead of a comma to separate items in a list when those items themselves contain commas, as in
We will visit Providence, Rhode Island; Concord, Massachusetts; and Mystic, Connecticut.)

1
But there was one more factor that the experimenters hadn't ______.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) considered; peer pressure

B) considered: peer pressure
C) considered peer pressure
D) considered, peer pressure

In-class exercise:

1
Unlike linear accelerators, ______ magnets to accelerate subatomic particles in a circular path.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) cyclotrons—such as the one Ernest Lawrence built in Berkeley, California, use

B) cyclotrons, such as the one Ernest Lawrence built in Berkeley, California—use
C) cyclotrons, such as the one Ernest Lawrence built in Berkeley, California use
D) cyclotrons—such as the one Ernest Lawrence built in Berkeley, California—use

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2
______ be disqualified.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) Runners, who step out of they're lanes during the first two laps, will
B) Runners who step out of their lanes during the first two laps, will
C) Runners, who step out of their lanes during the first two laps, will
D) Runners who step out of their lanes during the first two laps will

3
Many electric cars do save money on energy, but they are not ______ has its price.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) cheap: efficiency
B) cheap, efficiency
C) cheap—efficiency,
D) cheap: efficiency,

4
Don't adopt a rescue ______ free of parasites and infectious diseases.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) dog, until your sure they're

B) dog until you're sure it's
C) dog, until your sure it's
D) dog; until you're sure its

5
______ reputation as the City of Love.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) Its easy to see-even on the dreariest of days, how Paris earned it's
B) It's easy to see, even on the dreariest of days, how Paris earned its
C) Its easy to see, even on the dreariest of days, how Paris earned its
D) It's easy to see even on the dreariest of days how Paris earned it's

6
Having decided to postpone her ______ to look for a job in social media.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) education, for at least two years Jill began

B) education for at least two years, Jill began
C) education, for at least two years, Jill began

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D) education for at least two years Jill began

7
Our project was plagued by two main ______ bureaucratic red tape.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) issues; cost overruns and

B) issues: cost overruns, and
C) issues: cost overruns and
D) issues; cost overruns, and

PRACTICE EXERCISES

1
Recent advancements in tidal turbine technology have led to three major improvements ______ lower
maintenance costs. These developments have made tidal energy a more viable option for renewable energy
production. Governments and private companies are now investing more resources into harnessing the power
of tides.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) , increased efficiency, reduced environmental impact, and

B) — increased efficiency, reduced environmental impact, and
C) : increased efficiency, reduced environmental impact, and
D) : increased efficiency; reduced environmental impact; and

2
Marine energy parks which often combine multiple types of renewable energy sources ______ are gaining
popularity for their ability to produce clean energy on a large scale. These parks have the potential to
contribute significantly to the global effort to reduce greenhouse gas emissions. Experts believe that the
growth of marine energy parks will continue in the coming years.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) — such as tidal, wave, and offshore wind power —

B) , such as: tidal, wave, and offshore wind power,
C) such as tidal, wave, and offshore wind power —
D) , such as tidal, wave, and offshore wind power,

3
As tidal energy developers collaborate to advance ______ on several key areas, including optimizing turbine
designs, streamlining installation processes, and improving environmental assessments. Their combined
efforts are expected to have a positive impact on the industry, helping to establish tidal energy as a more
prominent source of renewable energy worldwide.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

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A) the industry. They focus

B) the industry, they focus
C) the industry; they focus
D) the industry they focus

4
Tidal stream farms are being developed around the world to harness the power of ocean ______ show great
promise in providing clean, renewable energy. However, before large-scale implementation can occur,
developers must overcome several challenges, such as assessing potential environmental impacts, securing
the necessary permits, and ensuring the technology is economically viable.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) currents and these farms

B) currents; these farms
C) currents, these farms,
D) currents: these farms

5
Advanced materials are being incorporated into tidal turbine designs to enhance performance; carbon fiber is
one such ______ benefits such as increased strength and reduced weight. By utilizing these materials,
developers can create more efficient turbines and lower the overall cost of energy production; this makes tidal
energy a more competitive option in the renewable energy market..

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) material: offering
B) material; offering
C) material. Offering
D) material, offering

6
The constantly evolving Wave energy conversion technology has prompted researchers to improve efficiency,
reduce environmental impact, and decrease ______ advancements are made, wave energy is becoming a
more attractive option for renewable energy production, with the potential to power millions of homes around
the world.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) costs. As these
B) costs, as these
C) costs: As these
D) costs — as these

7
To help finance the high costs of developing tidal energy projects, developers are exploring innovative funding
models, such as crowdfunding and community _____ provide an additional source of capital. By involving the
public in the financing process, these projects not only gain financial support, but also build public awareness
and acceptance of tidal energy.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?
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A) ownership which can

B) ownership, which can
C) ownership — which can
D) ownership; which can

8
The high initial investment cost of tidal energy projects poses a significant challenge. Various solutions are
being developed to address this ______ such solution is the establishment of public-private partnerships,
which can help distribute the financial burden and minimize risks associated with these capital-intensive
projects.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) issue. However, one

B) issue; however, one
C) issue, however, one
D) issue, however. One

9
Minimizing environmental impacts when constructing tidal energy systems is a key priority for developers, and
they must implement various measures to achieve this ______ thorough environmental assessments,
engaging with local communities and stakeholders, and adopting best practices for habitat protection can help
ensure the sustainability of these renewable energy projects.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) goal. For example, conducting

B) goal, for example, conducting
C) goal ( for example, conducting
D) goal, for example: conducting

10
Variability and predictability of tidal energy are significant factors in its integration into power grids, which can
be challenging ______ these issues, energy storage solutions, such as batteries, and grid management
strategies are being developed that can help balance the supply and demand of tidal-generated electricity.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) to address and to overcome

B) to address to overcome
C) to address. To overcome
D) to address, to overcome

11
While both tidal energy and wind energy are renewable sources of power, they have distinct ______
environmental impact, and installation costs. Tidal energy, for example, benefits from a more predictable
energy source due to the consistent nature of tides, whereas wind energy can be more variable and harder to
forecast.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?
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A) differences in terms of predictability,

B) differences, in terms of predictability,
C) differences; in terms of predictability,
D) differences: in terms of predictability,

12
Tidal energy and solar energy, both forms of renewable power, offer unique advantages and face distinct
______ energy benefits from the predictable nature of tides, but solar energy production depends on sunlight
availability, which can be affected by weather conditions and time of day.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) challenges. While tidal

B) challenges while tidal
C) challenges, while tidal
D) challenges. Tidal

13
A study led by scientist Rebecca Kirby at the University of Wisconsin-Madison found that black bears that eat
human food before hibernation have increased levels of a rare carbon isotope,______ due to the higher 13C
levels in corn and cane sugar. Bears with these elevated levels were also found to have much shorter
hibernation periods on average.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) carbon-13, (13C)
B) carbon-13 (13C)
C) carbon-13, (13C),
D) carbon-13 (13C),

14
Photosynthesis, the mechanism by which plants use sunlight to turn carbon dioxide and water into ______ is
fueled in part by an enzyme called Photosystem II that harvests energy-giving electrons from water
molecules.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) nutrients
B) nutrients and
C) nutrients,
D) nutrients—

15
After a spate of illnesses as a child, Wilma Rudolph was told she might never walk again. Defying all odds,
Rudolph didn't just walk, she ______ the 1960 Summer Olympics in Rome, she won both the 100- and 200-
meter dashes and clinched first place for her team in the 4x100-meter relay, becoming the first US woman to
win three gold medals in a single Olympics.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

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A) ran—fast—during
B) ran—fast during
C) ran—fast, during
D) ran—fast. During

16
Beatrix Potter is perhaps best known for writing and illustrating children's books such as The Tale of Peter
Rabbit (1902), but she also dedicated herself to mycology, the study of ______ more than 350 paintings of
the fungal species she observed in nature and submitting her research on spore germination to the Linnean
Society of London.
.
Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) fungi; producing
B) fungi. Producing
C) fungi, producing
D) fungi producing

17
Gathering accurate data on water flow in the United States is challenging because of the country's millions of
______ miles of the volume and speed of water at any given location can vary drastically over time.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) waterways and the fact that,

B) waterways, and the fact that,
C) waterways, and, the fact that
D) waterways and the fact that

18
In 2008, two years after the death of science fiction writer Octavia Butler, the Huntington Library in ______
received a collection of more than 8,000 items, including Butler's private notes, research materials,
manuscripts, photos, and drawings. Today, the Octavia E. Butler Collection is one of the most researched
archives at the library.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) California,
B) California
C) California-
D) California:

19
Archaeologists have estimated that the pre-Columbian Native American city of Cahokia, located across the
Mississippi River from modern-day St. Louis, Missouri, had as many as 20,000 inhabitants in the year 1150
______ it one of the largest cities in North America at the time.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) CE making

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B) CE. Making
C) CE, making
D) CE; making

20
Eli Eisenberg, a genetics expert at Tel Aviv University in Israel, recently discovered that ______ have a
special genetic ability called RNA editing that confers evolutionary advantages.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) cephalopods, ocean dwellers that include the squid, the octopus, and the cuttlefish
B) cephalopods—ocean dwellers—that include the squid, the octopus, and the cuttlefish,
C) cephalopods, ocean dwellers that include: the squid, the octopus, and the cuttlefish,
D) cephalopods—ocean dwellers that include the squid, the octopus, and the cuttlefish—

21
The city of Pompeii, which was buried in ash following the eruption of Mount Vesuvius in \(79 \mathrm{CE}\),
continues to be studied by archaeologists. Unfortunately, as ______ attest, archaeological excavations have
disrupted ash deposits at the site, causing valuable information about the eruption to be lost.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) researchers, Roberto Scandone and Christopher Kilburn,

B) researchers, Roberto Scandone and Christopher Kilburn
C) researchers Roberto Scandone and Christopher Kilburn
D) researchers Roberto Scandone, and Christopher Kilburn

22
Santa Clara Pueblo artist Roxanne Swentzell's sculpture Mud Woman Rolls On consists of five human
figures made of clay and plant fiber and arranged in descending size; each figure holds the smaller one in
front of it. The arrangement of the figures, according to ______ represents her idea that "we all come from
the Earth, generation after generation."

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) Swentzell
B) Swentzell,
C) Swentzell:
D) Swentzell—

23
The forty-seven geothermal springs of Arkansas' Hot Springs National Park are sourced via a process known
as natural groundwater recharge, in which rainwater percolates downward through the earth—in this case,
the porous rocks of the hills around Hot ______ collect in a subterranean basin.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) Springs to
B) Springs: to
C) Springs—to
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D) Springs, to

24
Luci Tapahonso is the inaugural poet laureate of the Navajo Nation. Her book Sáanii Dahataal/The Women
Are Singing—a combination of fiction and memoir, poetry and serves as a testament to her versatility as a
writer.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) prose;
B) prose
C) prose,
D) prose—

25
Swedish scientists Eva Engvall and Peter Perlmann developed a method for measuring the concentration of
different proteins in a biological sample. Their ______ ELISA (enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay), is used
to detect and measure proteins that indicate the presence of certain diseases.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) method (called
B) method—called
C) method, called
D) method called

26
To humans, it does not appear that the golden orb-weaver spider uses camouflage to capture its ______ the
brightly colored arachnid seems to wait conspicuously in the center of its large circular web for insects to
approach. Researcher Po Peng of the University of Melbourne has explained that the spider's distinctive
coloration may in fact be part of its appeal.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) prey, rather,
B) prey rather,
C) prey, rather;
D) prey; rather,

27
The Lion Light system, developed by Kenyan inventor Richard Turere, consists of LED lights installed around
the perimeter of livestock pastures. Powered with ______ the blinking LEDs keep lions away at night, thus
protecting the livestock without risking harm to the endangered lions.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) energy collected, by solar panels, during the day

B) energy collected by solar panels during the day
C) energy collected by solar panels during the day,
D) energy, collected by solar panels during the day,

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28
The 2022 Nobel Prize in Chemistry was awarded to three pioneers in the field of click chemistry: two-time
Nobel laureate Barry Sharpless, who coined the term "click chemistry" in 1998; Carolyn Bertozzi, founder of
the Bertozzi Group at ______ and Morten Meldal, a professor at the University of Copenhagen in Denmark.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

A) Stanford
B) Stanford,
C) Stanford:
D) Stanford;

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CRAFT AND STRUCTURE

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Unit 5: How Generosity Builds Trust — Words in Context

LEAD-IN_

How Generosity Builds Trust

Around the globe, levels of trust are down. Fortunately, ethical leaders can take specific actions to signal
trustworthiness. Research shows that when it comes to building trust during a first impression, you can't
beat generosity.

Only 37%. That is the percentage of people who believe CEOs are credible, according to the 2017 Edelman
Trust Barometer. This number plummeted 12 points during 2016, settling at a new all-time low. And this
figure is only part of a larger trend. Across society and across the world levels of trust are down—not only
in business, but in media, in government, and in NGOs.

Here’s the good news: levels of trust remain much higher for business than for other social institutions like
the government and the media. And 75% of those who responded to the Edelman survey agreed that “a
company can take specific actions that both increase profits and improve economic and social conditions
in the community where it operates.”

In other words, in our current climate, many now depend on business to lead the way toward a better future.
This means high-trust organizations have a tremendous business advantage. Here are just a few of the
benefits of trust that will help them succeed:

• Trust makes our relationships resilient, allowing us to navigate change smoothly. A trusted leader
can, for example, guide an organization successfully during rapid growth or through a merger or
acquisition.
• Trust allows us to act even when we have incomplete information. When two business partners
trust one another, they can enter into an agreement without attempting to double-check every last
detail. Since it reduces the complexity of transactions, it also decreases the cost of doing business.
• In high-trust organizations employee engagement and productivity soar.

In order to help you build trust in your organization, let's take a look at the science behind what causes trust
to increase or decrease.

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The Science of Trust

Imagine you are given $10. You are told you can keep that
money, or you can choose to send any amount of it to a
person you've never met. This stranger will triple any
money you send. But here's the catch: that person is under
no obligation to send any money back to you. Would you
decide to trust this stranger? Researchers call this scenario
the "Trust Game." They use variations on this game to
measure how much we trust others and to determine what
factors contribute to our trust decisions. Their discoveries
about when we trust, who we trust, and how much we trust
may surprise you.

First, the decision to trust is more emotional than

rational. When I decide to trust you, I am not making a
calculation based on the potential costs and benefits. If you
ask players in the Trust Game whether they predict the
other player will send them money, they will often express
doubts. But both players typically choose to send money
anyway. When we trust, we do form expectations. But our
expectations are about respect, cooperation, and
reciprocation. They are not about specific financial
outcomes. To harness the emotional side of trust, you must
resist the temptation to think like an economist.

So if you want to develop trust, start by appealing to

this emotional side. Know that when a person is trying to
decide whether to trust you, he or she is probably not
thinking about the rules or incentives affecting your
behavior. Instead, that person is thinking about your
intentions: are you friendly or are you hostile?

Start with Generosity

When a new employee joins your team or you begin to
work with a new business partner, you might think that
caution is the best way to interact with them at first—at
least until you get to know them better. But in fact, research
shows that you should do just the opposite: start by being
generous. Offer the new employee your time and energy.
Don’t be tight-fisted with your new business partner. Keep
in mind that these individual are also sizing you up.
Generosity is the best way to make your values and
motivations clear. It signals that you genuinely care about
others and that you are motivated to help them.

If this sounds like a recipe for being taken advantage of, keep in mind another surprising discovery
researchers have made: we tend to grossly underestimate how much we can trust other people
(Fetchenhauer & Dunning, 2009). Most participants in the trust game do not give enough. If player one
would give more money to player two, most of the time both participants would end up better off.
Researchers suggest that we don’t trust others more because we receive "asymmetrical feedback" about
our trust decisions. If I trust you and I get "burned," I'll know right away, and that experience will stick with
me. I won't forget it, and it will shape my behavior for years to come. But when I choose not to trust you, I
never receive similar information about all the benefits I’ve missed out on (Fetchenhauer & Dunning, 2010).

When you begin a relationship with generosity, you’re not acting on blind faith. You’re also shaping
the other person’s behaviors in three key ways.

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1. Trust invites trust. Trust is reciprocal; by showing that you trust that person, you’re inviting others
to trust you.

2. Others know where you stand. By making it clear that you are an other-oriented person, not a
self-oriented person, you’re cutting through “noise.” If the other person ever has reason to doubt
you, they will remember the way you set the tone for your relationship with generosity. One study
revealed that because it guards against the effects of inevitable errors and disappointments in our
relationships, generosity is a more effective way to sustain long-term collaboration than a tit-for-tat
or give-what-you-get strategy (Klapwijk & Van Lange, 2009).

3. First impressions set the tone for future interactions. As an old Dutch proverb says, “Trust
comes on foot, but it leaves on horseback.” Since trust is so difficult to build, you cannot afford to
miss the opportunity a first impression offers. If you begin an interaction with doubt, trust will be
very difficult to rebuild.

Begin with generosity – but keep your eyes open. While we can trust most people more than we think, there
are some people who will not reciprocate, no matter how generously we treat them. In fact, the more we
are generous, the more they take advantage of generosity and use it for their own personal gain. So be
generous initially, but don’t be naive. Researchers recommend being ready to switch to a tit-for-tat strategy
when you encounter this kind of person. Generosity includes risk, but it does not mean you need to develop
a reputation as someone who is routinely taken advantage of.

Still, even when you encounter someone who seems to act selfishly, keep in mind that we all make
mistakes. Even after switching to a tit-for-tat strategy, it is still a good idea to remain flexible enough to be
generous now and then. Game Theorists call this strategy “Generous Tit-for-Tat,” and they have proven
over and over again that this strategy is the most successful over the long term since it maximizes the
benefits that come from cooperation while still allowing us to remain realistic about the fact that many people
do not choose to cooperate.

Remember that even when you’ve been disappointed, there is still a chance for a more trusting and
cooperative exchange. Don’t let the harmful effects of a few bad exchanges cause you to miss out on all
the benefits that come from high-trust relationships.

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EXAM SKILLS_

On the SAT Reading and Writing section, "Words in Context" questions require you to select the most
precise and logical word or phrase for a given sentence or passage.

To determine the most "precise" word, we need to understand the context and connotation of the words.
The word should fit the sentence perfectly and reinforce the text's meaning.

Context
To understand the context, we must read the provided text carefully. We need to match the word we're
looking for with the equivalent idea in the text. For example:

1
The manager ___________ the team to work together to achieve their goals.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

A) forced
B) encouraged
C) threatened
D) criticized

In this example, the context suggests that the manager wants the team to work together to achieve their
goals. The most appropriate word would be "encouraged" as it best matches the context and the positive
connotation associated with it. So B is correct.

Connotation
Connotation refers to the associations that come with different words. It's crucial to understand the
connotations of the words and how they fit within the given context. For example:

1
The author's ___________ writing style was praised by the critics.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

A) simplistic
B) unrefined
C) poetic
D) verbose

In this example, the word "praised" suggests that the author's writing style was highly regarded. The most
appropriate word would be "poetic" as it best matches the context and the positive connotation associated
with it. So C is correct.

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Avoid unknowns
To avoid guessing and improve your chances of getting Words in Context questions right, it's better to
eliminate what you can from the words you do know, rather than choosing an unfamiliar word.

1
The politician's ___________ speech failed to impress the audience.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

A) convincing
B) intolerable
C) brief
D) eloquent

In this example, " convincing," " intolerable," and " brief " are all common academic words that students
may encounter in their studies. The word " eloquent," on the other hand, is less familiar. By eliminating "
eloquent " from the options, students are left with three choices that they might be more familiar with.
Based on the context of the sentence, the most appropriate answer is likely " intolerable," as it suggests a
negative connotation and matches the context of the speech failing to impress the audience. So B is
correct.

Note: the only time you should choose a word you don't know is if you have confidently eliminated ALL
the other options. This strategy will help you avoid making wild guesses and improve your chances of
selecting the most appropriate word in context.

How to approach words in context questions

To solve a words in context question, follow these three steps:

Step 1: Understand the passage

It's important to read the passage carefully and understand its main idea. Try to summarize the text in
your own words and identify the key points. This can help you get a better grasp of the context and what
the passage is trying to communicate.

Step 2: Identify the key word or idea

The passage provides all the information you need to know. Look for words or phrases that are important
in the context and that may help you determine the meaning of the missing word. Often, the correct
answer will reinforce the idea expressed in the text.

Step 3: Choose the correct word in context

Choose the word that best matches the context and emphasizes the idea being expressed in the
passage. Avoid choosing words that change the meaning of the text or introduce new ideas or

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perspectives. Only one of the options will be the most precise word in context, and selecting it will help
increase your chances of getting the answer right.

1
The artist's ___________ painting was sold for a record-breaking amount at the auction.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

A) amateurish
B) avant-garde
C) mediocre
D) traditional

In this example, the word "record-breaking" suggests that the artist's painting was exceptional and
valuable. By identifying the key word and context clues, we can eliminate options like "amateurish" and
"mediocre" as they do not match the context of the sentence. The word "traditional" does not convey the
same level of exceptionalism as the unfamiliar word " avant-garde," which suggests a work that was highly
regarded. Therefore, the most precise word in context is choice B: " avant-garde."

In-class activity: (Optional)

Activity Name: Generosity Chain

Objective: This activity aims to illustrate the power of generosity in building trust among group members,
emphasizing the ripple effect of kindness and the importance of paying it forward.

Materials:
• A small, lightweight object (e.g., a ball or beanbag)
• A timer or stopwatch

Instructions:
1. Arrange the students in a circle.
2. Explain that they will be playing a game to show the impact of generosity in building trust among
the group members.
3. One student will start with the small object, representing a generous act. They can choose to
pass the object to any other student in the circle.
4. Before passing the object, the giver should briefly describe a generous act they would like to do
for the recipient (e.g., helping with a difficult assignment, sharing lunch, or offering a compliment).
5. The recipient then thanks the giver and repeats the process, passing the object to another
student in the circle while describing a generous act for the new recipient.
6. The game continues until the object returns to the starting player, creating a chain of generosity.

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7. During the game, encourage students to pay attention to the feelings of trust that emerge as
generosity is demonstrated and reciprocated among group members.
8. After completing the activity, gather the group for a debriefing session to discuss their
experiences and insights:
a. How did it feel to receive and give acts of generosity during the game?
b. Did the game change your perception of trust within the group? Why or why not?
c. How did the acts of generosity contribute to building trust among group members?
d. What are some real-life examples of generosity building trust between individuals or
communities?

Through this activity, students will gain a better understanding of how generosity contributes to trust-
building and recognize the importance of giving and receiving kindness in various aspects of their lives.

PRACTICE EXERCISES

1
According to Nickerson (1998), confirmation bias is a cognitive error in which individuals selectively interpret
information in a way that confirms their preexisting beliefs or hypotheses. This phenomenon is commonly
observed in scientific research, as researchers may unintentionally _______ evidence that does not support
their initial hypothesis.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

A) overlook
B) highlight
C) criticize
D) generalize

2
Motivated reasoning is a phenomenon where individuals process information in a way that is biased toward
their preexisting beliefs or preferences. This type of reasoning can be observed in many situations, such as
when individuals seek out information that confirms their beliefs while ignoring evidence that contradicts them.
Kunda argues that motivated reasoning can lead to _________ thinking, in which individuals become
resistant to changing their beliefs even when presented with contradictory evidence.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

A) critical
B) rational
C) biased
D) skeptical

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Research on lie detection has found that people often rely on nonverbal cues, such as facial expressions and
body language, to determine whether someone is lying. However, according to Vrij et al. (2010), relying solely
on nonverbal cues can lead to _______ results. For example, people may believe that someone is lying
based on their nonverbal behavior, even if that person is actually telling the truth.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

A) accurate
B) irrelevant
C) misleading
D) consistent

4
Trust is an important component of many social and organizational relationships. However, when someone
violates our trust, it can be difficult to restore that trust even if they make amends. This is because the violated
trust can lead to feelings of _________ towards that person's future actions.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

A) satisfaction
B) disappointment
C) skepticism
D) curiosity

5
Organizational trust is an important factor in the success of many companies and institutions. According to
Mayer (1995), organizational trust is composed of three dimensions: ability, benevolence, and ________. The
ability dimension refers to the skills and competence of an organization, while benevolence refers to its
intentions and motivations. The third dimension refers to an organization's consistency in its actions and
behavior over time.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

A) integrity
B) flexibility
C) creativity
D) persistence

6
Einhorn and Hogarth (1978) studied the phenomenon of overconfidence in decision-making. They found that
people often overestimate the accuracy of their judgments, even when the evidence suggests otherwise. This
is known as the "illusion of validity," and it can lead to poor decision-making outcomes. In their study,
participants were asked to predict the success of job candidates based on interviews. Despite the lack of
evidence to support their judgments, participants maintained a high level of ________ in their predictions.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

A) skepticism
B) confidence
C) uncertainty
D) pessimism

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7
Trust in leadership is an important factor in employee satisfaction, commitment, and performance. According
to Dirks and Ferrin (2002), trust in leadership is based on perceptions of _______ which refers to the leader's
good intentions and concern for others.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

A) benevolence
B) transparency
C) accountability
D) creativity

8
There are a number of verbal and nonverbal cues that can indicate when someone is being deceptive.
Common nonverbal cues include avoiding eye contact, fidgeting, and _______ behavior. Verbal cues can
include hesitations, inconsistencies, and using complex language to obscure the truth.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) defensive
B) evasive
C) confident
D) cooperative

9
Lewicki and Bunker's (1995) model of trust in relationships suggests that trust develops over time as parties
engage in reciprocal acts of vulnerability, communication, and _______.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

A) dominance
B) cooperation
C) competition
D) deception

10
According to Bhattacherjee's (2002) research on individual trust in online firms, trust in online firms is
influenced by _______ factors such as website quality, reliability, and security.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

A) psychological
B) cultural
C) political
D) economic

11

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In their study on social perception and attribution processes, Ross, Greene, and House (1977) discovered
the "false consensus effect," which refers to the tendency of individuals to ______ their own views and
behaviors onto others.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

A) judge
B) project
C) dismiss
D) conceal

12
The followers of a doomsday cult were initially convinced that the end of the world was imminent, but when
the predicted apocalypse failed to materialize, many experienced _________.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

A) confirmation bias
B) cognitive dissonance
C) social loafing
D) conformity pressure

13
Despite the evidence against it, conspiracy theorists continue to _____ their belief that the USA’s moon
landing was faked. Gilbert's research suggests that mental systems have a tendency to maintain preexisting
beliefs, even in the face of contradictory evidence.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

A) challenge
B) reinforce
C) suspend
D) replace

14
In a study on social comparison and intergroup competition, Cohen found that individuals were more likely to
show in-group favoritism and out-group derogation when they were in a competitive context with another
group.

As used in the text, what does the word “competitive” most nearly mean?

A) altruistic
B) cooperative
C) hostile
D) individualistic

15
A recent study found that people were more likely to overestimate the knowledge of others when discussing
topics they were personally interested in. This phenomenon, known as the 'curse of knowledge,' can result in
miscommunication and misunderstanding.

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As used in the text, what does the word “overestimate” most nearly mean?

A) underestimate
B) exaggerate
C) evaluate
D) undermine

16
Although many people believe that wealthy individuals are the most generous donors, research by Bekkers
and Wiepking shows that in the Netherlands, the highest proportion of giving comes from those with
___________ incomes.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

A) humble
B) average
C) median
D) low

17
According to the research of Dunn, Aknin, and Norton (2014), individuals who spent money on others
experienced greater levels of happiness than those who spent money on themselves, even when the amount
spent was identical. The authors suggest that the relationship between prosocial spending and happiness
may be attributed to the ______ effect, where acts of kindness towards others can increase one's own
positive emotions.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

A) empathy
B) altruism
C) contagion
D) reciprocity

18
In a study by Gächter, Johnson, and Herrmann (2007), participants were given the choice between a certain
gain of $50 or a _____ gamble with an equal chance of winning $100 or nothing. The majority of participants
chose the certain gain, indicating a preference for avoiding losses even when the potential gain is greater.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

A) risky
B) conservative
C) ambiguous
D) unpredictable

19
In a study by Heinrichs et al. (2003), participants were subjected to a psychosocial stress test while receiving
either social support or placebo. The researchers found that social support led to a significant reduction in
stress hormone, indicating a(n) ______ effect on stress response.
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Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

A) exacerbating
B) mediating
C) intensifying
D) amplifying

20
The research of Lensvelt-Mulders (2008) found that potential donors often hesitate to contribute to charity
due to communication barriers, including a lack of information, an unclear understanding of the charity's
goals, and a perceived _____ in the donation process.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

A) convenience
B) inadequacy
C) uncertainty
D) interest

21
During a 2014 archaeological dig in Spain, Vicente Lull and his team uncovered the skeleton of a woman
from El Algar, an Early Bronze Age society, buried with valuable objects signaling a high position of power.
This finding may persuade researchers who have argued that Bronze Age societies were ruled by men to
______ that women may have also held leadership roles.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

A) waive
B) concede
C) refute
D) require

22
Although science fiction was dominated mostly by white male authors when Octavia Butler, a Black woman,
began writing, she did not view the genre as ______ : Butler broke into the field with the publication of
several short stories and her 1976 novel Patternmaster, and she later became the first science fiction writer
to win a prestigious MacArthur Fellowship.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

A) legitimate
B) impenetrable
C) compelling
D) indecipherable

23
The work of molecular biophysicist Enrique M. De La Cruz is known for ______ traditional boundaries
between academic disciplines. The university laboratory that De La Cruz runs includes engineers, biologists,
chemists, and physicists, and the research the lab produces makes use of insights and techniques from all
those fields.
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Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

A) epitomizing
B) transcending
C) anticipating
D) reinforcing

24
In Nature Poem (2017), Kumeyaay poet Tommy Pico portrays his ______ the natural world by honoring the
centrality of nature within his tribe's traditional beliefs while simultaneously expressing his distaste for being
in wilderness settings himself.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

A) responsiveness to
B) ambivalence toward
C) renunciation of
D) mastery over

25
To develop a method for measuring snow depth with laser beams, NASA physicist Yongxiang Hu relied on
______ identifying broad similarities between two seemingly different phenomena, Hu used information about
how ants move inside colonies to calculate how the particles of light that make up laser beams travel through
snow.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

A) a collaboration
B) an accessory
C) a contradiction
D) an analogy

26
A journalist and well-respected art critic of nineteenth-century Britain, Lady Elizabeth Rigby Eastlake did not
hesitate to publish reviews that went against popular opinion. One of her most divisive works was an essay
questioning the idea of photography as an emerging medium for fine art: in the essay, Eastlake ______ that
the value of photographs was informational rather than creative.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

A) exposed
B) asserted
C) discovered
D) doubted

27
Stephen Hannock's luminous landscape paintings are appealing to viewers but have elicited little
commentary from contemporary critics, a phenomenon that may be due to the very fact that the paintings
seem so ______. Many critics focus their attention on art that is cryptic or overtly challenging.

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Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

A) innovative
B) subversive
C) profound
D) accessible

28
Bicycle sharing systems allow users to rent a bicycle at one location within a city and return it to any other
designated location in that city, which can cause serious problems of bicycle supply and user demand within
the city's system. Tohru Ikeguchi uses open-source data and statistical modeling to identify when a high
number of users making one-way trips is likely to leave some locations within the system ______ bicycles
and other areas with insufficient supply.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

A) susceptible to
B) contingent on
C) saturated with
D) depleted of

29
In the Indigenous intercropping system known as the Three Sisters, maize, squash, and beans form an
______ web of relations: maize provides the structure on which the bean vines grow; the squash vines cover
the soil, discouraging competition from weeds; and the beans aid their two "sisters" by enriching the soil with
essential nitrogen.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

A) indecipherable
B) ornamental
C) obscure
D) intricate

30
In 2008 a complete set of ancient pessoi (glass game pieces) was uncovered from beneath a paving stone in
modernday Israel. Due to their small size, pessoi were easily misplaced, making a whole set a rare find. This
has led some experts to suggest that the set may have been buried intentionally; however, without clear
evidence, archaeologists are left to ______ what happened.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

A) speculate about
B) dismiss
C) expand on
D) catalog

31
Some researchers believe that the genes that enable groundhogs and certain other mammals to hibernate
through the winter by slowing their breathing and heart rates and lowering their body temperature may be
______ in humans: present yet having essentially no effect on our bodily processes.
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Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

A) decisive
B) lacking
C) variable
D) dormant

32
Handedness, a preferential use of either the right or left hand, typically is easy to observe in humans.
Because this trait is present but less ______ in many other animals, animal-behavior researchers often
employ tasks specially designed to reveal individual animals' preferences for a certain hand or paw.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

A) recognizable
B) intriguing
C) significant
D) useful

33
Like the 1945 play it reimagines—Federico García Lorca's The House of Bernarda Alba—Marcus Gardley's
2014 play The House That Will Not Stand prominently features women. In both plays, the all-female cast
______ an array of female characters, including a strong mother and several daughters dealing with
individual struggles.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

A) engulfs
B) encourages
C) comprises
D) provokes

34
Business researcher Melanie Brucks and colleagues found that remote video conference meetings may be
less conducive to brainstorming than in-person meetings are. The researchers suspect that video meeting
participants are focused on staring at the speaker on the screen and don't allow their eyes or mind to wander
as much, which may ultimately ______ creativity.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

A) recommend
B) criticize
C) impede
D) construct

35
Set in a world where science fiction tropes exist as everyday realities, Charles Yu's 2010 novel How to Live
Safely in a Science Fictional Universe traces a time traveler's quest to find his father. Because the journey at
the novel's center is so ______, with the protagonist ricocheting chaotically across time, the reader often
wonders whether the pair will ever be reunited.
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Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

A) haphazard
B) premeditated
C) inspirational
D) fruitless

36
Mineralogical differences are detectable in samples collected from two locations on the near-Earth asteroid
Ryugu, but such differences may not indicate substantial compositional variations in the asteroid.
Cosmochemist Kazuhide Nagashima and colleagues note that at the small scale of the samples, the
distribution of minerals is unlikely to be ______ .

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

A) neglected
B) redundant
C) ongoing
D) uniform

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Unit 6: Invasive species — Text Structure and Purpose

LEAD-IN_

It’s time to stop demonizing “invasive” species

Climate change is forcing some animals to move. Don’t call them “invasives.”

Marine ecologist Piper Wallingford was doing fieldwork on the rocky shore of Laguna Beach, California, in
2016 when she noticed a dime-sized creature she’d never seen before. It was a dark unicorn snail, a
predator that drills into mussels and injects an enzyme that liquefies their flesh. “Then,” Wallingford
explains, “they basically suck it out like soup.”

The animal is native to the Mexican state of Baja California, Wallingford later learned, and it’s been
migrating up the coast over the last few decades in search of new habitat, eating into local mussel
populations along the way. It’s also one of countless species around the world — from white-tailed deer to
lobsters to armadillos to maple trees — that are moving with the climate.

Ecologists expect climate change to create mass alterations in the habitats of these “range-shifting” or
“climate-tracking” species, as they’re sometimes called, which will reshuffle ecosystems in ways that are
hard to predict. The migrations are critical to species’ ability to survive hotter temperatures.

The scientific community largely views this kind of habitat shift as a good thing, Wallingford and other
ecologists told Vox. But the primary lens available to the general public and to policymakers is less forgiving.
“Invasive species” is a concept so ingrained in American consciousness that it’s taken on a life of its own,
coloring the way we judge the health of ecosystems and neatly dividing life on Earth into native and invasive.

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A 2018 Orange County Register story on Wallingford’s work, for example, called the dark unicorn snails
“climate invaders.” “I think any time you introduce this idea of a new species, there’s sort of this inherent
reaction of, ‘Oh, that’s bad, right?’” Wallingford says. But she encouraged local stakeholders not to try to
remove them.

For decades, invasion has been a defining paradigm in

environmental policy, determining what gets done with limited
conservation budgets. Species deemed invasive have often
been killed in gruesome ways. Even though invasion biologists
readily point out that many non-native species never become
problematic, the invasion concept almost by definition makes
scientists skeptical of species moving around. But a growing
community of scientists and environmental philosophers now
question whether a concept defined by a species’ geographic
origin can capture the ethical and ecological complexities of life
on a rapidly changing planet. In the 21st century, there’s no
such thing as an undisrupted ecosystem, and this will only
become truer as climate change and habitat loss accelerate. It’s
crucial that we get this right.

Range shifts have “been a real problem for the hardcore invasion biologists to deal with,” says Mark Davis,
a biology professor at Macalester College and a critic of the invasion framework.

In a controversial recent paper published in Nature Climate Change, Wallingford and a team of co-authors
argued that the tools of invasion biology — for example, looking at a species’ impact on local food or water
sources, or figuring out if it’s encountering prey that aren’t used to predators — could be adjusted to
understand the impacts of range-shifters.

The proposal got “a lot of pushback,” says Wallingford, who doesn’t necessarily oppose the “invasion” lens.
Detractors said that merely linking climate-tracking species with invaders taints them by association.
Range-shifters ought to be seen “not as invasive species to keep out, but rather as the refugees of climate
change that need our assistance,” University of Connecticut ecologist Mark Urban argued in a comment
published in the same journal issue.

Climate change and the range shifts it’s causing are extraordinary circumstances. If a species flees a habitat
that is burning or melting, is it ever fair to call it invasive? Even outside of a climate context, this tension
reflects a more fundamental problem within the invasive species paradigm. If the label is so stigmatizing
that the only appropriate response feels like extermination, perhaps something else needs to take its place.

The invasion model has a nativist bias

Some conceptions of invasive species’ harms are questionable.

For example, invasives can be considered a threat not only by killing or outcompeting native species but
also by mating with them. To protect the “genetic integrity” of species, conservationists often go to
extraordinary lengths to prevent animals from hybridizing, environmental writer Emma Marris points out in
her book Wild Souls: Freedom and Flourishing in the Non-Human World. Consider the effort in North
Carolina to prevent coyotes from breeding with endangered red wolves, which bears uncomfortable
parallels to Western preoccupations with racial purity that only recently went out of fashion.

That’s why some scientists look askance at the influence of invasion biology and argue that the field has a
baked-in, nativist bias on documenting negative consequences of introduced species and preserving nature
as it is. Invasion biology is like epidemiology, the study of disease spread, biologists Matthew Chew and
Scott Carroll wrote in a widely read opinion piece a decade ago, in that it is “a discipline explicitly devoted
to destroying that which it studies.”

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A “curse word” that harms entire species

One important set of interests isn’t considered in invasive species management at all: those of the
“invasives” themselves. Arian Wallach, an ecologist at the University of Technology Sydney who is well
known for her criticism of invasion biology, calls invasive species “nothing less and nothing more than a
curse word” used to demonize species and exclude them from moral consideration. She first began to
question invasion biology after she moved for her PhD to Australia, which has some of the most militant
invasive species management programs in the world, aimed at protecting the country’s own unique species.

“I started seeing conservationists blowing up animals with bombs, shooting them from helicopters,
poisoning them, spreading diseases through them,” she says. Australia has shot feral goats, camels, deer,
pigs, and other animals from the sky (a method also used in the US), and the country kills many small
mammals with 1080, a poison that is widely regarded as causing an extremely painful death. Invasion
biology, Wallach believes, is “a bad idea that’s had its run.”

Wallach’s own research looks at how dingoes, dog-like

animals that are thought to have been brought to the
continent thousands of years ago, can control the
populations of more recently introduced cats and foxes
that eat some of Australia’s iconic marsupial species, such
as the eastern barred bandicoot. Her work serves as a
proof of concept for “compassionate conservation,” a
movement that opposes the mass killing of some animals
in an attempt to save others. A core tenet of this framework
is to value animals as individuals with their own moral
value, rather than just a member of a species.

It might seem, then, that there’s a trade-off between caring

about animals as individuals and caring about them in the
context of species and ecosystems, but Wallach argues
it’s more complicated. Bias against non-natives doesn’t
just harm individuals; it can harm entire species.

In a 2019 study, Wallach and a team of researchers pointed out that non-native species are excluded from
world conservation goals. This creates situations where, for example, a species like the hog deer, a small
deer native to South Asia, is endangered in its home range but hunted and treated as feral in Australia.
Using a sample of 134 animals introduced into and out of Australia, the team found that formal conservation
counts significantly underestimated their ranges, and that 15 of them could be downgraded from
“threatened” or “near threatened” status if their non-native ranges were counted. For many endangered
species, non-native habitats can be part of the solution, providing refuge to wildlife that can no longer
survive in their native ranges.

If we try to think outside the invasive species framework, what else can we look to? For now, the dark
unicorn, the thumbnail-sized snail that caught marine ecologist Piper Wallingford’s eye, continues inching
up the coast of California. “The question of how they’re getting from one site to another is still one that we
can’t answer,” Wallingford says.

There is something humbling in seeing other species’ will to survive in an interconnected world undone by
climate change. Though the dark unicorns’ movements elude our understanding, they already know where
they need to go.

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EXAM SKILLS_

The Digital SAT's Reading and Writing section includes questions that present you with a short passage
to read. Your task is to identify the main purpose or overall structure of the passage or a part of it.

Question type #01: Whole-Text Relationship

Whole-text relationship questions require you to delve deeper into the reasons and methods behind a
passage rather than just focusing on the content. They may relate to purpose or structure, so let's explore
each aspect:
1. Purpose: The purpose pertains to the motivation behind the passage. It involves the author's
intentions and main message. Examples of text purposes may include:
a. explaining something
b. demonstrating a concept
c. critiquing an idea
d. arguing a point
e. comparing/contrasting ideas
f. introducing a topic
g. summarizing information
2. Structure: The structure deals with the organization of a passage in order to achieve its purpose.
Pay attention to how ideas transition and how certain sections are emphasized by the author.

To tackle whole-text relationship questions, follow these steps:

• Step 1: Identify the question type. Quickly scan the question to determine if it relates to "overall
structure" or "main purpose." Focus on the specific aspect as you read the passage.
• Step 2: Summarize the passage. Read the passage carefully, identify key ideas, and create a
summary in your own words. Keep your focus on either structure or purpose.
• Step 3: Compare with answer choices. Match your summary with the answer choices. Look for
an answer choice that closely aligns with your summary, and select it with confidence!

Example:
1
In a groundbreaking study published in 2017, Dr. Seebens revealed that there is no saturation in the
accumulation of alien species worldwide. The researchers discovered that human activities, particularly
international trade and transport, have led to an unprecedented introduction and spread of non-native
species. They also highlighted that the continued increase in alien species introductions could cause
significant ecological, economic, and social consequences. Seebens and his colleagues emphasized the
importance of implementing proactive measures and regulations to limit the introduction of new alien species
and reduce the negative impacts associated with them.

Which choice best states the main purpose of the text?

A) To discuss the economic benefits of increased global trade

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B) To explore the role of human activities in introducing alien species

C) To present the findings of Dr. Seebens’ study on the accumulation of alien species worldwide
D) To criticize the methods used by Dr. Seebens in the study

Question type #02: Part-to-Whole Relationship

These questions require you to grasp the author's purpose for the passage and how the text serves that
goal. However, they focus on a specific underlined sentence in the passage.

To address part-to-whole relationship questions, follow these steps:

• Step 1: Summarize the passage. Read the passage carefully, summarize the main ideas, and
pay special attention to the underlined sentence.
• Step 2: Create a hypothesis. Understand the "whole" context of the passage and try to express
the function of the underlined sentence in your own words.
• Step 3: Evaluate answer choices. Compare your hypothesis with the answer choices. Find the
option that aligns with your prediction, and select it confidently!
Example:
1
Strayer (2012) conducted a comprehensive study to address eight critical questions about invasions and
ecosystem functioning. One of the key questions investigated was how invasive species impact the
biodiversity of native ecosystems. Strayer found that invasive species can significantly alter the balance within
an ecosystem, leading to disruptions in its functioning. This may result in the displacement or extinction of
native species, changes in the physical structure of habitats, and modifications in nutrient cycles. In order to
better understand and manage the consequences of invasions, Strayer suggested that further research
should focus on the specific factors that influence the impacts of invasive species on ecosystems.

Which choice best states the function of the underlined sentence in the text as a whole?

A) It highlights the central research question of Strayer's study.

B) It summarizes the primary conclusion reached by Strayer.
C) It provides an introduction to one of the eight questions that Strayer explored.
D) It emphasizes the importance of ecosystem functioning in the context of invasions.

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In-class activity: (Optional)

Activity Name: Invasive Species Charades

Objective: This activity aims to teach students about invasive species through an engaging game of
charades, encouraging them to learn about the characteristics and impact of these species on the
environment.

Materials:
• Index cards or slips of paper with the names of invasive species
• A timer or stopwatch

Instructions:
1. Before the activity, prepare a set of index cards or slips of paper with the names of various
invasive species. Make sure to choose species that are relevant to your region or have significant
environmental impacts.
2. Divide the students into two teams.
3. Explain that they will be playing a game of charades to learn about invasive species. One team
will be the "actors," while the other will be the "guessers."
4. A student from the acting team will pick an index card and act out the invasive species without
speaking or making any noises. The guessing team will have a limited time (e.g., one minute) to
guess the name of the invasive species based on the actor's performance.
5. If the guessing team successfully identifies the invasive species within the time limit, they earn a
point. If not, no points are awarded.
6. After each round, teams switch roles, and the game continues until each student has had a turn
acting out an invasive species or until a predetermined score is reached.
7. Throughout the game, provide brief descriptions of the invasive species and discuss their impacts
on the environment as each species is revealed.
8. After the activity, gather the group for a debriefing session to discuss their experiences and
insights:
o Which invasive species were the most challenging to act out or guess? Why?
o What did you learn about the characteristics and impacts of invasive species?
o How can the knowledge gained in this activity be applied to real-life situations or
environmental protection efforts?

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PRACTICE EXERCISES

1
In a comprehensive review conducted by Vilà (2011), the impact of alien plants on pollinator visitation and
reproduction of co-flowering native plants was investigated. The study revealed that alien plants often
attracted more pollinator visits than their native counterparts, leading to a decrease in pollinator visitation
rates for native plants. This subsequently resulted in reduced reproductive success for native plants in the
presence of invasive species. Vilà concluded that the invasion of alien plants could have significant negative
effects on the reproduction and survival of native plants that rely on pollinators.

Which choice best states the main purpose of the text?

A) To argue for the importance of controlling the spread of alien plant species to protect native plants.
B) To explain the methodology used in Vilà's study on the impact of alien plants on pollinator visitation.
C) To summarize Vilà's findings on the effects of alien plants on pollinator visitation and native plant
reproduction.
D) To discuss the various factors that contribute to the success of invasive plants in attracting pollinators.

2
In Lonsdale's research on global patterns of plant invasions and the concept of invasibility, the factors that
contribute to a habitat's vulnerability to invasion by non-native plant species were explored. Lonsdale
discovered that certain characteristics of ecosystems, such as the availability of resources, the level of
disturbance, and the presence of native species, can influence their invasibility. By understanding these
factors and how they contribute to invasibility, researchers and conservationists can develop better strategies
to protect vulnerable ecosystems from invasive plants.

Which choice best states the main purpose of the text?

A) To argue for the importance of addressing global patterns of plant invasions to protect ecosystems.
B) To explain the factors that influence a habitat's invasibility according to Lonsdale's research.
C) To discuss the different methods used by researchers and conservationists to control invasive plants.
D) To describe the impact of invasive plants on ecosystems and native species around the world.

3
In Catford's 2016 research, the intermediate disturbance hypothesis (IDH) is applied to understand plant
invasions. IDH posits that species richness is maximized in environments experiencing intermediate levels of
disturbance. Catford demonstrated how this concept can be used to predict and manage the impact of
invasive plant species on ecosystems. By applying IDH, conservationists can develop targeted management
strategies that focus on the right balance of disturbances to maintain species richness and prevent invasions.

Which choice best states the main purpose of the text?

A) To compare the different theories that are used to study plant invasions and their effects on ecosystems.
B) To reveal the application of the intermediate disturbance hypothesis in understanding and managing plant
invasions.
C) To evaluate the success of current management strategies in preventing the spread of invasive plant
species.
D) To argue for the importance of maintaining species richness in ecosystems to prevent plant invasions.

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4
In his recent study, Bradley critiques the idea that climate is the sole driving factor behind the spread of this
invasive plant. The study highlights the complex interplay between climate, propagule pressure, and land use
in shaping the distribution of Parthenium hysterophorus. By considering all three factors, Bradley argues for a
more nuanced understanding of the processes governing invasive plant species' distribution and emphasizes
the importance of addressing multiple factors when devising management strategies.

Which choice best states the main purpose of the text?

A) To critique the notion that climate is the only determining factor in the spread of the invasive plant
Parthenium hysterophorus
B). To propose new methods for predicting the future distribution of invasive plant species like Parthenium
hysterophorus.
C) To describe the current and future impacts of Parthenium hysterophorus on ecosystems and human
populations.
D) To examine the effectiveness of different management strategies for controlling the spread of invasive
plants.

5
Doherty's 2017 study argues that the relationship between these two fields has evolved significantly over
time. The authors contend that invasion biology has matured into a distinct discipline, which has in turn
reshaped the study of biological invasions. By tracing the historical developments in both fields, they
emphasize the importance of interdisciplinary collaboration and assert that continued cooperation is key to
addressing the complex challenges posed by biological invasions.

Which choice best states the main purpose of the text?

A) To provide a comprehensive overview of the history of invasion biology and biological invasions.
B) To examine the current state of research in invasion biology and biological invasions.
C) To argue that the relationship between invasion biology and biological invasions has evolved and that
interdisciplinary collaboration is vital for tackling the challenges posed by invasions.
D) To discuss specific case studies that exemplify the importance of invasion biology and biological invasions.

6
A recent research explores the various ways native species might influence the establishment and spread of
invasive species. The author's findings are compared to those from another study, which also examined the
potential of native species as barriers to biological invasions. Both studies highlight the complex relationships
between native and invasive species, emphasizing the need for more research to develop effective
management strategies.

Which choice best states the main purpose of the text?

A) To argue that Ficetola's research is superior to the other study in understanding native species as barriers
to invasions.
B) To provide a detailed overview of the various ways native species can influence the spread of invasive
species.
C) To discuss the specific management strategies that are proposed by both Ficetola's research and the other
study.
D) To compare the similarities between Ficetola's research and another study on native species acting as
barriers to biological invasions, illustrating the complexity of native-invasive species interactions.

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7
Richardson's 2012 study delves into the distinctions between naturalized and invasive alien plants. The paper
aims to provide a clear understanding of these terms, as well as an overview of the factors that influence the
naturalization and invasion of alien plant species. This research serves as a primer to the broader subject of
plant invasions and their ecological impacts.

Which choice best states the main purpose of the text?

A) To argue that the distinctions between naturalized and invasive alien plants are unnecessary.
B) To introduce the topic of naturalization and invasion of alien plants.
C) To offer a detailed analysis of the specific factors that lead to the naturalization and invasion of alien
plants.
D) To discuss the ecological impacts of plant invasions in various ecosystems around the world.

8
In Jeschke's 2014 study, 'Don't judge species on their origins,' the author discusses the implications of
categorizing species based solely on their native or non-native status. Jeschke contends that such
categorization can sometimes be problematic, as it may overlook the potential benefits or threats a species
can have within an ecosystem. Instead, the author advocates for an evaluation of species based on their
ecological roles and functions, rather than their origin. This approach allows for a more comprehensive
understanding of how species interact with their environment."

Which choice best states the function of the underlined sentence in the text as a whole?

A) It introduces a contrasting perspective to the previous discussion of species categorization.

B) It elaborates on the implications of judging species based on their native or non-native status.
C) It provides examples of the potential benefits or threats a species can have within an ecosystem.
D) It offers a solution to the issues presented in the text by suggesting a different approach to evaluating
species.

9
In the 2021 study by Riccardo Scalera, the author explores the ecological impacts of invasive species in
Europe and discusses the various policies in place to address these challenges. Scalera examines the
success of different strategies, noting that some have proven to be more effective than others in managing
invasive species. Importantly, the author highlights the need for a collaborative approach among European
countries, as invasive species often cross national boundaries and require coordinated efforts for successful
management. This research emphasizes the importance of understanding the ecological dynamics of invasive
species and fostering international cooperation in addressing this issue.

Which choice best states the function of the underlined sentence in the text as a whole?

A) It introduces the main topic of the study by providing a brief overview of the research's focus.
B) It emphasizes a key conclusion from the study, advocating for increased collaboration among European
countries.
C) It offers specific examples of policies and strategies employed to manage invasive species in Europe.
D) It provides a summary of the ecological impacts of invasive species in the European context.

10
In her 2021 article, Linda Geddes discusses the potential economic and environmental consequences of
invasive species. Geddes cites various examples of invasive species that have caused significant damage to
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agriculture and natural ecosystems. One striking example presented is the brown marmorated stink bug,
which has been known to cause extensive harm to fruit crops and has rapidly spread across multiple
continents. The article underscores the importance of monitoring and managing invasive species to mitigate
their potentially devastating impacts on the environment and the economy.

Which choice best states the function of the underlined sentence in the text as a whole?

A) It provides a specific example to illustrate the general point about the harmful effects of invasive species
on agriculture and the environment.
B) It serves as a counterpoint to the author's overall argument about the dangers of invasive species.
C) It introduces the main topic of the article by offering a brief overview of the economic and environmental
consequences of invasive species.
D) It summarizes the various mitigation strategies discussed in the article to address the issue of invasive
species.

11
In Helena Horton's 2021 article, 'Invasive species pose serious risk to UK wildlife, study finds,' the author
discusses the threat that invasive species pose to native wildlife in the United Kingdom. Horton explains that
these non-native species can outcompete native flora and fauna, disrupt ecosystems, and even lead to the
extinction of some species. One example provided is the American mink, which has been responsible for the
decline in water vole populations across the UK. The article emphasizes the need for action to protect native
wildlife from the growing threat of invasive species.

Which choice best states the function of the underlined sentence in the text as a whole?

A) It offers a contrasting viewpoint to the article's primary argument on the negative effects of invasive
species.
B) It introduces the main topic of the article by discussing the general dangers of invasive species to the UK's
native wildlife.
C) It provides a specific example to support the broader claim about the impact of invasive species on native
UK wildlife.
D) It suggests a solution for addressing the problem of invasive species in the United Kingdom.

12
Laura Poppick's 2020 article, 'Invasive species causing decline in amphibians across the globe,' examines
the decline in amphibian populations due to the invasion of non-native species. The article highlights various
factors contributing to this decline, including habitat loss, climate change, and disease. One key example
Poppick discusses is the chytrid fungus, which has devastated amphibian populations worldwide by causing
chytridiomycosis, a deadly skin disease. Poppick emphasizes the urgency of addressing invasive species to
protect and conserve the world's amphibian biodiversity."

Which choice best states the function of the underlined sentence in the text as a whole?

A) It introduces the main topic of the article by discussing the general dangers of invasive species to
amphibians.
B) It provides a specific example to support the broader claim about the impact of invasive species on global
amphibian populations.
C) It contrasts the negative effects of invasive species with other factors that contribute to amphibian decline.
D) It suggests a potential solution for addressing the problem of invasive species in amphibian habitats.

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13
Early in the Great Migration of 1910-1970, which involved the mass migration of Black people from the
southern to the northern United States, political activist and Chicago Defender writer Fannie Barrier Williams
was instrumental in helping other Black women establish themselves in the North. Many women hoped for
better employment opportunities in the North because, in the South, they faced much competition for
domestic employment and men tended to get agricultural work. To aid with this transition, Barrier Williams
helped secure job placement in the North for many women before they even began their journey.

Which choice best states the main purpose of the text?

A) To introduce and illustrate Barrier Williams's integral role in supporting other Black women as their
circumstances changed during part of the Great Migration
B) To establish that Barrier Williams used her professional connections to arrange employment for other
Black women, including jobs with the Chicago Defender
C) To demonstrate that the factors that motivated the start of the Great Migration were different for Black
women than they were for Black men
D) To provide an overview of the employment challenges faced by Black women in the agricultural and
domestic spheres in the southern United States

14
Archeological excavation of Market Street Chinatown, a nineteenth-century Chinese American community in
San Jose, California, provided the first evidence that Asian food products were imported to the United States
in the 1800s: bones from a freshwater fish species native to Southeast Asia. Jinshanzhuang-Hong Kong-
based import/export firms-likely. coordinated the fish's transport from Chinese-operated fisheries in Vietnam
and Malaysia to North American markets. This route reveals the (often overlooked) multinational dimensions
of the trade networks linking Chinese diaspora communities.

Which choice best describes the function of the underlined sentence in the text as a whole?
A. It explains why efforts to determine the country of origin of the items mentioned in the previous sentence
remain inconclusive.
B. It provides information that helps support a claim about a discovery's significance that is presented in the
following sentence.
C. It traces the steps that were taken to locate and recover the objects that are described in the previous
sentence.
D. It outlines a hypothesis that additional evidence discussed in the following sentence casts some doubt on.

15
Using NASA's powerful James Webb Space Telescope (JWST), Mercedes López-Morales and colleagues
measured the wavelengths of light traveling through the atmosphere of WASP-39b, an exoplanet, or planet
outside our solar system. Different molecules absorb different wavelengths of light, and the wavelength
measurements showed the presence of carbon dioxide \(\left(\mathrm{CO}_2\right)\) in WASP-39b's
atmosphere. This finding not only offers the first decisive evidence of \(\mathrm{CO}_2\) in the atmosphere of
an exoplanet but also illustrates the potential for future scientific breakthroughs held by the JWST.

Which choice best describes the overall structure of the text?

A. It discusses a method used by some researchers, then states why an alternative method is superior to it.
B. It describes how researchers made a scientific discovery, then explains the importance of that discovery.
C. It outlines the steps taken in a scientific study, then presents a hypothesis based on that study.
D. It examines how a group of scientists reached a conclusion, then shows how other scientists have
challenged that conclusion.

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16
Yawn contagion occurs when one individual yawns in response to another's yawn. Studies of this behavior in
primates have focused on populations in captivity, but biologist Elisabetta Palagi and her colleagues have
shown that it can occur in wild primate populations as well. In their study, which focused on a wild population
of gelada monkeys (Theropithecus gelada) in Ethiopia, the researchers further reported that yawn contagion
most commonly occurred in males and across different social groups instead of within a single social group.

Which choice best describes the function of the first sentence in the text as a whole?
A. It defines a phenomenon that is discussed in the text.
B. It introduces a problem that is examined in the text.
C. It makes a claim that is challenged in the text.
D. It presents a hypothesis that is evaluated in the text.

17
In 1973, poet Miguel Algarín started inviting other writers who, like him, were Nuyorican—a term for New
Yorkers of Puerto Rican heritage—to gather in his apartment to present their work. The gatherings were so
well attended that Algarín soon had to rent space in a cafe to accommodate them. Thus, the Nuyorican Poets
Cafe was born. Moving to a permanent location in 1981, the Nuyorican Poets Cafe expanded its original
scope beyond the written word, hosting art exhibitions and musical performances as well. Half a century
since its inception, it continues to foster emerging Nuyorican talent.

Which choice best describes the overall purpose of the text?

A. To explain what motivated Algarín to found the Nuyorican Poets Cafe
B. To situate the Nuyorican Poets Cafe within the cultural life of New York as a whole
C. To discuss why the Nuyorican Poets Cafe expanded its scope to include art and music
D. To provide an overview of the founding and mission of the Nuyorican Poets Cafe

18
Musician Joni Mitchell, who is also a painter, uses images she creates for her album covers to emphasize
ideas expressed in her music. For the cover of her album Turbulent Indigo (1994), Mitchell painted a striking
self-portrait that closely resembles Vincent van Gogh's Self-Portrait with Bandaged Ear (1889). The image
calls attention to the album's title song, in which Mitchell sings about the legacy of the postimpressionist
painter. In that song, Mitchell also hints that she feels a strong artistic connection to Van Gogh—an idea that
is reinforced by her imagery on the cover.

Which choice best describes the overall structure of the text?

A. It presents a claim about Mitchell, then gives an example supporting that claim.
B. It discusses Van Gogh's influence on Mitchell, then considers Mitchell's influence on other artists.
C. It describes a similarity between two artists, then notes a difference between them.
D. It describes the songs on Turbulent Indigo, then explains how they relate to the album's cover.

19
For his 1986 album Keyboard Fantasies, Beverly Glenn-Copeland wrote songs grounded in traditional soul
and folk music, then accompanied them with futuristic synthesizer arrangements featuring ambient sounds
and complex rhythms. The result was so strange, so unprecedented, that the album attracted little attention
when first released. In recent years, however, a younger generation of musicians has embraced the stylistic
experimentation of Keyboard Fantasies. Alternative R&B musicians Blood Orange and Moses Sumney,
among other contemporary recording artists, cite the album as an influence.

Which choice best describes the function of the underlined sentence in the text as a whole?
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A. It urges contemporary musicians to adopt the unique sound of Keyboard Fantasies.

B. It responds to criticism of Keyboard Fantasies by some younger musicians.
C. It offers examples of younger musicians whose work has been impacted by Keyboard Fantasies.
D. It contrasts Keyboard Fantasies with the recordings of two younger musicians.

20
In the Here and Now Storybook (1921), educator Lucy Sprague Mitchell advanced the then controversial idea
that books for very young children should imitate how they use language, since toddlers, who cannot yet
grasp narrative or abstract ideas, seek reassurance in verbal repetition and naming. The most enduring
example of this idea is Margaret Wise Brown's 1947 picture book Goodnight Moon, in which a young rabbit
names the objects in his room as he drifts off to sleep. Scholars note that the book's emphasis on repetition,
rhythm, and nonsense rhyme speaks directly to Mitchell's influence.

Which choice best describes the overall structure of the text?

A. The text outlines a debate between two authors of children's literature and then traces how that debate
shaped theories on early childhood education.
B. The text summarizes an argument about how children's literature should be evaluated and then discusses
a contrasting view on that subject.
C. The text lists the literary characteristics that are common to many classics of children's literature and then
indicates the narrative subjects that are most appropriate for young children.
D. The text presents a philosophy about what material is most suitable for children's literature and then
describes a book influenced by that philosophy.

21
When ancient oak planks were unearthed during subway construction in Rome, Mauro Bernabei and his
team examined the growth rings in the wood to determine where these planks came from. By comparing the
growth rings on the planks to records of similar rings in oaks from Europe, the team could trace the wood to
the Jura region of France, hundreds of kilometers from Rome. Because timber could only have been
transported from distant Jura to Rome by boat, the team's findings suggest the complexity of Roman trade
routes.

Which choice best describes the function of the underlined sentence in the text as a whole?
A. It presents a conclusion about Roman trade routes based on the team's findings.
B. It questions how the team was able to conclude that the planks were used to build a boat.
C. It explains why the planks were made from oak rather than a different kind of wood.
D. It describes common methods used in Roman subway construction.

22
Works of moral philosophy, such as Plato's Republic or Aristotle's Nicomachean Ethics, are partly concerned
with how to live a morally good life. But philosopher Jonathan Barnes argues that works that present a
method of living such a life without also supplying a motive are inherently useful only to those already wishing
to be morally good-those with no desire for moral goodness will not choose to follow their rules. However,
some works of moral philosophy attempt to describe what constitutes a morally good life while also proposing
reasons for living one.

Which choice best describes the overall structure of the text?

A. It provides a characterization about a field of thought by noting two works in it and then details a way in
which some works in that field are more comprehensive than others.

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B. It mentions two renowned works and then claims that despite their popularity it is impossible for these
works to serve the purpose their authors intended.
C. It summarizes the history of a field of thought by discussing two works and then proposes a topic of further
research for specialists in that field.
D. It describes two influential works and then explains why one is more widely read than the other.

23
Industrial activity is often assumed to be a threat to wildlife, but that isn't always so. Consider the silver-
studded blue butterfly (Plebejus argus): as forest growth has reduced grasslands in northern Germany, many
of these butterflies have left meadow habitats and are now thriving in active limestone quarries. In a survey of
multiple active quarries and patches of maintained grassland, an ecologist found silver-studded blue
butterflies in 100% of the quarries but only 57% of the grassland patches. Moreover, butterfly populations in
the quarries were four times larger than those in the meadows.

Which choice best describes the function of the underlined portion in the text as a whole?
A. It challenges a common assumption about the species under investigation in the research referred to in
the text.
B. It introduces discussion of a specific example that supports the general claim made in the previous
sentence.
C. It suggests that a certain species should be included in additional studies like the one mentioned later in
the text.
D. It provides a definition for an unfamiliar term that is central to the main argument in the text.

24
Horizontal gene transfer occurs when an organism of one species acquires genetic material from an
organism of another species through nonreproductive means. The genetic material can then be transferred
"vertically" in the second speciesthat is, through reproductive inheritance. Scientist Atma Ivancevic and her
team have hypothesized infection by invertebrate parasites as a mechanism of horizontal gene transfer
between vertebrate species: while feeding,a parasite could acquire a gene from one host, then relocate to a
host from a different vertebrate species and transfer the gene to it in turn.

Which choice best describes the function of the underlined portion in the text as a whole?
A. It explains why parasites are less susceptible to horizontal gene transfer than their hosts are.
B. It clarifies why some genes are more likely to be transferred horizontally than others are.
C. It contrasts how horizontal gene transfer occurs among vertebrates with how it occurs among
invertebrates.
D. It describes a means by which horizontal gene transfer might occur among vertebrates.

25
By combining Indigenous and classical music, Cree composer and cellist Cris Derksen creates works that
reflect the diverse cultural landscape of Canada. For her album Orchestral Powwow, Derksen composed new
songs in the style of traditional powwow music that were accompanied by classical arrangements played by
an orchestra. But where an orchestra would normally follow the directions of a conductor, the musicians on
Orchestral Powwow are led by the beat of a powwow drum.

Which choice best states the main purpose of the text?

A. To examine how Derksen's musical compositions blend cultures
B. To argue that Derksen should be recognized for creating a new style of music

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C. To describe the difficulties Derksen encountered when producing her album

D. To establish a contrast between Derksen's classical training and her Cree heritage

26
Part of the Atacama Desert in Peru has surprisingly rich plant life despite receiving almost no rainfall.
Moisture from winter fog sustains plants once they're growing, but the soil's tough crust makes it hard for
seeds to germinate in the first place. Local birds that dig nests in the ground seem to be of help: they churn
the soil, exposing buried seeds to moisture and nutrients. Indeed, in 2016 Cristina Rengifo Faiffer found that
mounds of soil dug up by birds were far more fertile and supported more seedlings than soil in undisturbed
areas.

Which choice best describes the function of the underlined portion in the text as a whole?
A. It elaborates on the idea that the top layer of Atacama Desert soil forms a tough crust.
B. It describes the process by which seeds are deposited into Atacama Desert soil.
C. It identifies the reason particular bird species dig nests in Atacama Desert soil.
D. It explains how certain birds promote seed germination in Atacama Desert soil.

27
Michelene Pesantubbee, a historian and citizen of the Choctaw Nation, has identified a dilemma inherent to
research on the status of women in her tribe during the 1600s and 1700s: the primary sources from that era,
travel narratives and other accounts by male European colonizers, underestimate the degree of power
conferred on Choctaw women by their traditional roles in political, civic, and ceremonial life. Pesantubbee
argues that the Choctaw oral tradition and findings from archaeological sites in the tribe's homeland
supplement the written record by providing crucial insights into those roles.

Which choice best describes the overall structure of the text?

A. It details the shortcomings of certain historical sources, then argues that research should avoid those
sources altogether.
B. It describes a problem that arises in research on a particular topic, then sketches a historian's approach to
addressing that problem.
C. It lists the advantages of a particular research method, then acknowledges a historian's criticism of that
method.
D. It characterizes a particular topic as especially challenging to research, then suggests a related topic for
historians to pursue instead.

28
Many archaeologists assume that large-scale engineering projects in ancient societies required an elite class
to plan and direct the necessary labor. However, recent discoveries, such as the excavation of an ancient
canal near the Gulf Coast of Alabama, have complicated this picture. Using radiocarbon dating, a team of
researchers concluded that the 1.39kilometer-long canal was most likely constructed between 576 and 650
CE by an Indigenous society that was relatively free of social classes.

Which choice best describes the overall structure of the text?

A. It describes a common view among archaeologists, then discusses a recent finding that challenges that
view.
B. It outlines a method used in some archaeological fieldwork, then explains why an alternative method is
superior to it.

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C. It presents contradictory conclusions drawn by archaeologists, then evaluates a study that has apparently
resolved that contradiction.
D. It identifies a gap in scientific research, then presents a strategy used by some archaeologists to remedy
that gap.

29
The field of study called affective neuroscience seeks instinctive, physiological causes for feelings such as
pleasure or displeasure. Because these sensations are linked to a chemical component (for example, the
release of the neurotransmitter dopamine in the brain when one receives or expects a reward), they can be
said to have a partly physiological basis. These processes have been described in mammals, but Jingnan
Huang and his colleagues have recently observed that some behaviors of honeybees (such as foraging) are
also motivated by a dopamine-based signaling process.

What choice best describes the main purpose of the text?

A. It describes an experimental method of measuring the strength of physiological responses in humans.
B. It illustrates processes by which certain insects can express how they are feeling.
C. It summarizes a finding suggesting that some mechanisms in the brains of certain insects resemble
mechanisms in mammalian brains.
D. It presents research showing that certain insects and mammals behave similarly when there is a possibility
of a reward for their actions.

30
Studying late nineteenth- and early twentieth-century artifacts from an agricultural and domestic site in Texas,
archaeologist Ayana O. Flewellen found that Black women employed as farm workers utilized hook-and-eye
closures to fasten their clothes at the waist, giving themselves a silhouette similar to the one that was popular
in contemporary fashion and typically achieved through more restrictive garments such as corsets. Flewellen
argues that this sartorial practice shows that these women balanced hegemonic ideals of femininity with the
requirements of their physically demanding occupation.

Which choice best states the main purpose of the text?

A. To describe an unexpected discovery that altered a researcher's view of how rapidly fashions among
Black female farmworkers in late nineteenth- and early twentieth-century Texas changed during the period
B. To discuss research that investigated the ways in which Black female farmworkers in late nineteenth- and
early twentieth-century Texas used fashion practices to resist traditional gender ideals
C. To evaluate a scholarly work that offers explanations for the impact of urban fashion ideals on Black
female farmworkers in late nineteenth- and early twentieth-century Texas
D. To summarize the findings of a study that explored factors influencing a fashion practice among Black
female farmworkers in late nineteenth- and early twentieth-century Texas

31
Astronomers are confident that the star Betelgeuse will eventually consume all the helium in its core and
explode in a supernova. They are much less confident, however, about when this will happen, since that
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depends on internal characteristics of Betelgeuse that are largely unknown. Astrophysicist Sarafina El-Badry
Nance and colleagues recently investigated whether acoustic waves in the star could be used to determine
internal stellar states but concluded that this method could not sufficiently reveal Betelgeuse's internal
characteristics to allow its evolutionary state to be firmly fixed.

Which choice best describes the function of the second sentence in the overall structure of the text?
A. It describes a serious limitation of the method used by Nance and colleagues.
B. It presents the central finding reported by Nance and colleagues.
C. It identifies the problem that Nance and colleagues attempted to solve but did not.
D. It explains how the work of Nance and colleagues was received by others in the field.

32
According to historian Vicki L. Ruiz, Mexican American women made crucial contributions to the labor
movement during World War II. At the time, food processing companies entered into contracts to supply
United States armed forces with canned goods. Increased production quotas conferred greater bargaining
power on the companies' employees, many of whom were Mexican American women: employees insisted on
more favorable benefits, and employers, who were anxious to fulfill the contracts, complied. Thus, labor
activism became a platform for Mexican American women to assert their agency.

Which choice best describes the function of the underlined portion in the text as a whole?
A. It elaborates on a claim about labor relations in a particular industry made earlier in the text.
B. It offers an example of a trend in the World War II-era economy discussed earlier in the text.
C. It notes a possible exception to the historical narrative of labor activism sketched earlier in the text.
D. It provides further details about the identities of the workers discussed earlier in the text.

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Unit 7: The Art of a Cat’s Laps — Cross-Text Connections

LEAD-IN_

The surprising physics of cats’ drinking

A new study reveals that even the way cats lap up liquid displays the perfect balance for which they’re
known.

Cat fanciers appreciate the gravity-defying grace and exquisite balance of their feline friends. But do they
know that those traits extend even to the way cats lap milk?

Researchers analyzed the way domestic and big cats lap and found that felines of all sizes take
advantage of a perfect balance between two physical forces. The results were published in the Nov. 11
online edition of the journal Science.

It was known that when cats lap, they extend their tongues straight down toward the bowl with the tip of
the tongue curled backwards, so that the top of the tongue touches the liquid first. That insight came from
a 1940 film of a cat lapping milk, made by Harold “Doc” Edgerton, the MIT electrical engineering
professor who first used strobe lights in photography to stop action.

But recent high-speed videos made by MIT, Virginia Tech and Princeton researchers reveal that the top
of the cat’s tongue is the only surface to touch the liquid. Cats, unlike dogs, don’t dip their tongues into
the liquid like ladles. The cat’s lapping mechanism is far more subtle and elegant. The smooth tip of the
tongue barely touches the surface of the liquid before the cat draws its tongue back up. As it does so, a
column of liquid forms between the moving tongue and the liquid’s surface. The cat then closes its mouth,
pinching off the top of the column for a nice drink, while keeping its chin dry.

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When the cat’s tongue touches the liquid surface, some of the liquid sticks to it through liquid adhesion,
much as water adheres to a human palm when it touches the surface of a pool. But the cat draws its
tongue back up so rapidly that for a fraction of a second, inertia — the tendency of the moving liquid to
continue following the tongue — overcomes gravity, which is pulling the liquid back down toward the
bowl. The cat instinctively knows just when this delicate balance will change, and it closes its mouth in the
instant before gravity overtakes inertia. If the cat hesitated, the column would break, the liquid would fall
back into the bowl, and the tongue would come up empty.

While the domestic cat averages about four laps per second, the big cats, such as tigers, know to slow
down. Because their tongues are larger, they lap more slowly to achieve the same balance of gravity and
inertia.

Ready for my close-up

Roman Stocker of MIT’s Department of Civil and

Environmental Engineering (CEE), Pedro Reis of
CEE and the Department of Mechanical
Engineering, Sunghwan Jung of Virginia Tech and
Jeffrey Aristoff of Princeton analyzed high-speed
digital video of domestic cats, including Stocker’s
family cat and a range of big cats (a tiger, a lion
and a jaguar), thanks to a collaboration with Zoo
New England’s mammal curator John Piazza and assistant curator Pearl Yusuf. And, in what could be a
first for a paper published in Science, the researchers gathered additional data by analyzing existing
YouTube.com videos of big cats lapping.

With these videos slowed way down, the researchers established the speed of the tongues’ movements
and the frequency of lapping. Knowing the size and speed of the tongue, the researchers then developed
a mathematical model of lapping, which involves the ratio between gravity and inertia. For cats of all
sizes, that number is almost exactly one, indicating a perfect balance.

To better understand the subtle dynamics of lapping, they also created a robotic version of a cat’s tongue
that moves up and down over a dish of water, allowing them to systematically explore different aspects of
lapping and, ultimately, identify the mechanism underpinning it.

“This work is as splendid a case as I can recall of things looked at but seen in a way that no one else has
seen,” says Professor Steven Vogel of Duke University, a biomechanics researcher who was not involved
in the project. “Now that I’ve been clued in, I can report that what these people describe and explain

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agrees entirely with my own casual observations of the lapping action of the feline in charge of this
establishment.”

The lapping research began three years ago, when Stocker, who studies the biophysics of the
movements of ocean microbes, was watching his cat drink. That cat, 8-year-old Cutta Cutta, stars in the
researchers’ videos and still pictures. And like a lot of movie stars (Cutta Cutta means “stars stars” in an
Australian aboriginal language), he doesn’t mind making people wait. Stocker and Reis spent hours at the
Stocker home with their cameras trained on Cutta Cutta’s bowl, waiting for him to drink.

“Science allows us to look at natural processes with a different eye and to understand how things work,
even if that’s figuring out how my cat laps his breakfast,” Stocker says. “This project for me was a high
point in teamwork and creativity. We did it without any funding, without any graduate students, without
much of the usual apparatus that science is done with nowadays.”

“Our process in this work was typical — archetypal, really — of any new scientific study of a natural
phenomenon. You begin with an observation and a broad question — ‘How does the cat drink?’ — and
then try to answer it through careful experimentation and mathematical modeling,” says Reis, a physicist
who works on the mechanics of soft solids. “To us, this study provides further confirmation of how exciting
it is to explore the scientific unknown, especially when this unknown is something that’s part of our
everyday experiences.”

Besides their obvious enthusiasm for the work itself, the researchers are also delighted that it builds on
Edgerton’s 1940 film of the cat lapping. That film appeared as part of an MGM-released movie called
Quicker’n a Wink, which won an Academy Award in 1941. Reis and Stocker say they’re moving on to
other collaborations closer to their usual areas of research. But their feline friend Cutta Cutta might have
Oscar hopes.

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EXAM SKILLS_

Cross-text connection questions are a distinct category of questions that you'll encounter in the SAT
Reading and Writing section. These questions consist of two brief readings on a common subject. Your
task is to read these passages and contrast the viewpoints of their authors.

Even though cross-text connection questions provide double the reading material, both readings will
pertain to the same topic. This mutual connection means that understanding one text can enhance your
comprehension of the other. Moreover, the focus of cross-text connection questions will always be on the
author's viewpoint, guiding your reading and analysis of the passages.

What exactly is a viewpoint?

A viewpoint is essentially the attitudes and perspectives held by a person. In the context of the SAT, we're
generally interested in the viewpoint of the author of the passage or of specific individuals mentioned in
the passage.

Here are some examples of how to discern a viewpoint:

Example 1:
Text: "As far as I'm concerned, the most effective approach to weight loss is through a balanced diet and
regular exercise."
Viewpoint: The author believes that weight loss is best achieved through a combination of a healthy diet
and consistent physical activity.

Example 2:
Text: "Despite some resistance, a significant number of scholars concur that climate change is primarily
caused by human activities."
Viewpoint: The author holds the view that human activities are the main driver of climate change, a
perspective shared by many scholars.

Example 3:
Text: "According to Elon Musk, the CEO of SpaceX, the future of human civilization depends on our ability
to colonize other planets."
Viewpoint: Mr. Musk believes that planetary colonization is essential for the survival of human civilization.

In a cross-text connections question, you'll be asked to contrast the viewpoints of multiple authors. For
example, you might need to contrast the viewpoint of the author of Text 1 with that of the author of Text 2.

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Remember, it's crucial that the viewpoints be directly substantiated by the text. Avoid selecting answers
that express extreme positions, switch viewpoints among different people, or make claims that are not
directly addressed in the text. Instead, pay close attention to the specific language used by each author to
support your selected answer.

To tackle cross-text connection questions, consider following these steps:

Step 1: Summarize the texts

Read each text closely and summarize the key ideas. Try to distill each text down to one or two key
points, with special attention to the viewpoint expressed in each text, as you know the question will be
focused on this aspect! If a text introduces a particular person, it's advisable to focus on their opinions. By
the end of this step, you should have a concise summary for each text.

Step 2: Identify the relationship

Now that you've summarized the viewpoints that the question focuses on, you need to determine how
these summaries relate to one another.
• Do the viewpoints concur?
• Do they diverge?
• Does one viewpoint expand on or modify the other?
By answering these questions, you should be able to ascertain how the two texts connect with each other
and how the ideas they contain interact. Once you can articulate this relationship in your own words, you
can proceed to the next step.

Step 3: Examine the choices

Compare your results with each of the options. Which choice best aligns with the relationship between
viewpoints that you identified? You can confidently select this choice! If you're still having difficulty
deciding among the choices, try eliminating options that go beyond the scope of the text or that amplify
the extremity of different viewpoints. Remember, the correct answer will be directly supported by the text.

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In-class activity: (Optional)

Activity Name: Physics of Animal Jumping

Objective: This activity aims to help students understand the physics behind how different animals jump
and how various factors influence the height and distance of a jump.

Materials:

• Index cards with names of different jumping animals (e.g., kangaroo, frog, rabbit, etc.)
• Measuring tape
• Calculator
• Whiteboard or chalkboard
• Markers or chalk
Instructions:
1. Divide the students into small groups and assign each group an animal from the index cards. The
animal should be known for its jumping ability.
2. Each group will have 10 minutes to research the specific characteristics of their assigned animal's
jump: how high and far it can jump, the animal's weight, leg structure, etc. They should also find
out about the physics concepts involved, such as potential and kinetic energy, force, and gravity.
3. Each group will then calculate the power exerted by their animal during a jump. They can use the
formula: Power = Force x Distance / Time. For simplicity, assume the time to be 1 second.
4. Groups will then present their findings to the class, explaining the physics behind their animal's
jump.
5. The teacher or group members can write the results on the board for comparison, discussion, and
further understanding.

This activity can help students to understand how physics applies to real-world scenarios, and in this
case, to animal behavior. It encourages research, teamwork, calculation, and presentation skills.

PRACTICE EXERCISE

1
Text 1: Researchers at the University of California, Davis have discovered that dogs have a unique ability to
minimize the force of impact on their joints when jumping. The study found that dogs can bend their legs in a
way that allows them to absorb shock and avoid injury. This finding is significant because it can help us better
understand how dogs are able to perform incredible feats of agility and may have implications for designing
better prosthetics for injured animals.

Text 2: A study conducted by the Canine Biomechanics Research Center observed dogs jumping from
varying heights and noticed that the animals adjusted their leg angles depending on the height of the jump. By
doing so, they effectively absorbed shock and distributed the impact across their joints, reducing the risk of
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injury. Additionally, the study found that dogs are more efficient at absorbing shock than humans, which could
provide valuable insights for the development of athletic gear and joint protection in the future.

Based on the texts, how does the perspective in Text 2 relate to the perspective in Text 1?

A) Text 2 challenges the findings of the study mentioned in Text 1, arguing that dogs do not possess unique
shock-absorbing abilities.
B) Text 2 narrows the focus of Text 1, concentrating on a specific aspect of the study to support the initial
findings.
C) Text 2 supports the viewpoint of Text 1 by providing additional examples and evidence to strengthen the
claim about dogs' shock-absorbing abilities.
D) Text 2 disagrees with Text 1's implications, arguing that the study's findings are not relevant to the
development of prosthetics or athletic gear.

2
Text 1: In a recent study published in the Journal of Comparative Physiology, scientists have uncovered a
fascinating aspect of elephant biology. They discovered that elephants use a hydraulic system in their trunks
to drink water and ingest food. This highly adaptive mechanism allows them to pick up even tiny items with
great precision. The researchers used high-speed videography and flow measurements to study the trunks of
two elephants and concluded that this unique hydraulic system helps elephants perform various tasks with
their trunks that would otherwise be challenging.

Text 2: A team of researchers led by Dr. Henry Richardson at the University of Oxford argue that elephants
rely more on the muscular and skeletal structure of their trunks for precision tasks, rather than hydraulics.
Using advanced imaging techniques, the team found that the elephant's trunk operates more like a multi-
jointed arm, with muscles and bones providing the primary support for manipulating objects.

Based on the texts, how would Dr. Henry Richardson (Text 2) most likely respond to the conclusion presented
in Text 1?

A) By corroborating the findings of Text 1, adding further evidence to the hydraulic system theory.
B) By contradicting Text 1, proposing an alternative explanation of how elephants use their trunks for
precision tasks.
C) By extending the implications of Text 1's study, suggesting additional applications for the hydraulic system
in elephants' trunks.
D) By refining the study of Text 1, offering a more detailed analysis of the hydraulic system in elephants'
trunks.

3
Text 1: A captivating study in the Journal of Ornithology describes the unique ability of penguins to "porpoise"
through water, leaping out of the water at high speeds and diving back in. This remarkable behavior is
enabled by their streamlined bodies and flippers, which reduce drag, and allows them to travel efficiently and
evade predators.

Text 2: A subsequent study by a team of researchers at the University of Bristol, led by marine biologist Dr.
Sophie Cox, examines the "porpoising" behavior of penguins. While acknowledging the role of the penguins'
streamlined bodies and flippers in reducing drag, they suggest that this behavior is primarily observed when
penguins are either escaping predators or have extra energy to expend. In conditions of food scarcity or
extreme exhaustion, they argue, penguins tend to swim rather than porpoise to conserve energy.

Based on the texts, how does the viewpoint in Text 2 relate to the perspective in Text 1?

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A) Text 2 refines Text 1's viewpoint, suggesting that the porpoising behavior is dependent on certain
conditions like predator presence and energy levels.
B) Text 2 counters Text 1's viewpoint, claiming that penguins don't use porpoising for efficient travel.
C) Text 2 supports the findings of Text 1, adding more examples of penguins porpoising in different
environments.
D) Text 2 and Text 1 are in complete disagreement about the reasons for penguins' porpoising behavior.

4
Text 1: In a recent ornithological journal, researchers outline their findings on the unique flight mechanics of
hummingbirds. They explain that hummingbirds can hover in place by rapidly flapping their wings in a figure-
eight pattern. This intricate motion creates a pocket of air that keeps them stationary, a feat few other birds
can achieve.

Text 2: A group of engineers from MIT, in a study published in the Journal of Fluid Mechanics, have delved
into the hovering abilities of hummingbirds. Although they agree that the figure-eight wing pattern is essential,
they suggest that the bird's ability to hover also heavily depends on the angle at which the wings strike the air
and the subsequent vortex it creates. They propose this vortex generation as a significant factor that allows
hummingbirds to remain stationary in the air.

Based on the texts, how does the viewpoint in Text 2 relate to the perspective in Text 1?

A) Text 2 supports the findings of Text 1 and extends them by examining the roles of wing angle and air
vortices in hummingbird hovering.
B) Text 2 contradicts Text 1, stating that the figure-eight wing pattern is not necessary for hummingbirds to
hover.
C) Text 2 questions the validity of Text 1's findings, suggesting that the proposed mechanism cannot fully
explain hummingbird hovering.
D) Text 2 completely disregards the viewpoint presented in Text 1, offering a new theory on hummingbird
flight mechanics.

5
Text 1: The ability of certain creatures to scale vertical surfaces and navigate upside-down has puzzled
scientists for centuries. Early theories ranged from the presence of minute suction cups on the creatures'
appendages, to the assumption of a special sticky secretion being involved. The mystery was eventually
partially solved when the phenomenon was observed in geckos, lizards renowned for their gravity-defying
abilities.

Text 2: A 2022 study by biologist Dr. Kellar Autumn and his team at Lewis & Clark College revealed the
secret behind geckos' remarkable climbing abilities. They found that geckos have millions of tiny hairs on their
feet that exploit the van der Waals forces – the weak intermolecular forces that cause attraction between
molecules. This discovery opened new possibilities for understanding how nature utilizes physical principles
and for developing biomimetic technology.

Based on the texts, how would Dr. Autumn and his team (Text 2) most likely perceive the early theories
presented in Text 1?

A) As misguided attempts that didn't consider the principles of physics.

B) As valid alternatives that could still hold potential for future research.
C) As theories that are entirely irrelevant to their own findings.
D) As preliminary hypotheses that paved the way for their groundbreaking discovery.

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6
Text 1: In a significant development, scientists have discovered a specialized tendon in kangaroos that
functions like a spring, enabling these marsupials to cover long distances efficiently. This tendon stores
kinetic energy when the animal lands and releases it when the animal jumps again. This mechanism allows
kangaroos to move swiftly across the Australian outback without expending much energy.

Text 2: The biomechanics team at the University of Melbourne, in a follow-up study, explored the wider
implications of this 'spring-like' tendon in kangaroos. They suggested that understanding the functioning of
this tendon could have implications for the design of prosthetics and robotics, as it could provide a natural
model for energy-efficient movement.

Based on the texts, how would the biomechanics team at the University of Melbourne (Text 2) most likely
discuss the discovery presented in Text 1?

A) As a fascinating but irrelevant fact about kangaroo anatomy.

B) As a crucial finding that has the potential to revolutionize prosthetics and robotics.
C) As a theory that needs to be further validated with additional studies.
D) As an overhyped discovery that has limited practical applications.

7
Text 1: A fascinating study reveals that bats have an incredible ability to navigate in complete darkness. They
emit high-pitched sounds, which bounce off surrounding objects and return as echoes. By interpreting these
echoes, bats can form a sonic map of their environment. However, this echolocation method is known to be
less effective in dense forest environments, causing some species of bats to become disoriented and collide
with obstacles.

Text 2: A team of researchers at Boston University has designed an ultrasonic sensor inspired by bats'
echolocation. The sensor, when mounted on a drone, mimics the bat's navigation ability and effectively avoids
obstacles, even in dense environments. The team believes this technology could significantly improve the
navigation of autonomous drones in complex environments.

Based on the texts, how would the team of researchers at Boston University (Text 2) most likely characterize
the issue discussed in Text 1?

A) As a minor obstacle that doesn't significantly impact the navigation of bats.

B) As an unavoidable problem inherent in the natural world.
C) As a challenge that has been resolved by their newly developed ultrasonic sensor.
D) As a disputed theory that needs more empirical evidence.

8
Text 1: A recent scientific revelation has captured the fascination of materials scientists around the world.
Researchers have determined that spider silk possesses a tensile strength five times that of steel, relative to
its weight. This remarkable feature allows spiders to spin intricate webs capable of entrapping prey much
larger than themselves.

Text 2: Engineers at BioSilk Inc. have developed a new lightweight, high-strength material based on spider
silk. This material, according to the engineers, could potentially be used in various applications, such as body
armor, bridge cables, and even surgical sutures, showcasing the far-reaching implications of the properties of
spider silk.

Based on the texts, how would the engineers at BioSilk Inc. (Text 2) most likely describe the application of the
findings presented in Text 1?

A) As a cautionary tale of how natural phenomena can be misinterpreted.

B) As a direct inspiration for the development of their new high-strength material.

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C) As an unrelated scientific discovery with no practical applications.

D) As a questionable theory that needs to be further validated by more research.

9
Text 1: A recent study conducted by a team of zoologists has revealed the fascinating ability of snakes to
climb trees. They utilize a method known as "concertina locomotion," in which they use their muscles to move
in an "inchworm" fashion, gripping onto the rough bark with specialized belly scales. This capability has been
hailed as an effective strategy for snakes to reach higher grounds for hunting or escaping predators.

Text 2: In a subsequent review, herpetologist Dr. Julia Patel suggests that while the "inchworm" theory is
certainly plausible for some species of snakes, it may not be a universal strategy. She posits that the variance
in snake anatomy, the environment, and tree surface textures might influence the locomotion methods used
by different snake species.

Based on the texts, how would Dr. Julia Patel (Text 2) most likely characterize the methodology used in the
study presented in Text 1?

A) As a comprehensive and universally applicable study of snake locomotion.

B) As a commendable effort that requires no further investigations or revisions.
C) As an uninteresting exploration of a common knowledge about snake behavior.
D) As a flawed approach that does not take into account the diversity of snake species and environmental
factors.

10
Text 1: Marine biologists have long marveled at the ability of sea turtles to navigate thousands of miles
across open ocean to return to the same beach where they hatched. This ability, often referred to as natal
homing, is believed to be guided by the Earth's magnetic field, allowing turtles to accurately sense their
location relative to their destination.

Text 2: In a 2023 article, geophysicist Dr. Helen Yu took a closer look at recent findings on ocean currents
and argued that while the Earth's magnetic field provides a "map" for sea turtles, the current and temperature
patterns of the ocean likely serve as additional environmental cues, allowing the turtles to adjust their course
as needed and optimize their energy usage during these long-distance migrations.

Based on the texts, how would Dr. Helen Yu (Text 2) most likely characterize the “conventional wisdom”
presented in Text 1?

A) As an outdated and debunked theory that doesn't stand up to scientific scrutiny.

B) As a fundamental aspect of sea turtle navigation, but one that is likely complemented by other
environmental factors.
C) As an entirely accurate explanation for the navigational abilities of sea turtles.
D) As an irrelevant theory that has little to no impact on the behavior of sea turtles.

11
Text 1: A recent study has revealed the secret behind bees' flight efficiency. It turns out bees flap their wings
at a frequency that matches the natural resonance of their bodies. This resonance, akin to a guitar string
vibrating at a specific pitch, allows bees to conserve energy and fly more efficiently than if they flapped their
wings at a non-resonant frequency.

Text 2: In a 2023 publication, aerospace engineer Dr. Antonia Martinez considers the implications of this
discovery for future drone technology. She proposes that, by mirroring the resonant frequency approach of
bees, it might be possible to develop drones that are more energy-efficient and capable of longer flights. This
could open up new possibilities for drone usage, from extended wildlife monitoring to improved delivery
services.
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Based on the texts, how would Dr. Martinez (Text 2) most likely describe the viewpoint presented in Text 1?

A) As an interesting fact about bees that has limited applications in the field of technology.
B) As a flawed study that overlooks many other important factors that contribute to bee flight.
C) As a crucial insight into bee behavior that could potentially revolutionize drone technology in the future.
D) As an irrelevant discovery that has no bearing on the development of future technologies.

12
Text 1: Recent scientific research has disclosed the fascinating process by which fireflies produce light. The
fireflies combine two chemicals in their bodies, initiating a chemical reaction that results in the emission of
light without any concurrent heat generation.

Text 2: In an editorial for the "Bugs Daily" humor column, Wally Wasp writes, "Fireflies must be the envy of
all other insects. They've got their own built-in nightlights! While we stumble in the dark, they're busy setting
the mood for a romantic evening. Isn't it just like Mother Nature to play favorites?"

Based on the texts, how would Wally Wasp (Text 2) most likely respond to the scientific discovery presented
in Text 1?

A) He would dismiss it as unimportant and irrelevant to the lives of other insects.

B) He would criticize it as a scientific obsession with trivial aspects of insect life.
C) He would challenge it as a flawed study that fails to explain why other insects can't produce light.
D) He would see it as a satirical example of nature's unfair favoritism.

13
Text 1: Microbes are tiny organisms in the soil, water, and air all around us. They thrive even in very harsh
conditions. That's why Noah Fierer and colleagues were surprised when soil samples they collected from an
extremely cold, dry area in Antarctica didn't seem to contain any life. The finding doesn't prove that there are
no microbes in that area, but the team says it does suggest that the environment severely restricts microbes'
survival.

Text 2: Microbes are found in virtually every environment on Earth. So it's unlikely they would be completely
absent from Fierer's team's study site, no matter how extreme the environment is. There were probably so
few organisms in the samples that current technology couldn't detect them. But since a spoonful of typical
soil elsewhere might contain billions of microbes, the presence of so few in the Antarctic soil samples would
show how challenging the conditions are.

Based on the texts, Fierer's team and the author of Text 2 would most likely agree with which statement
about microbes?
A. Most microbes are better able to survive in environments with extremely dry conditions than in
environments with harsh temperatures.
B. A much higher number of microbes would probably be found if another sample of soil were taken from the
Antarctic study site.
C. Microbes are likely difficult to detect in the soil at the Antarctic study site because they tend to be smaller
than microbes found in typical soil elsewhere.
D. Most microbes are probably unable to withstand the soil conditions at the Antarctic study site.

14
Text 1: The idea that time moves in only one direction is instinctively understood, yet it puzzles physicists.
According to the second law of thermodynamics, at a macroscopic level some processes of heat transfer are

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irreversible due to the production of entropy-after a transfer we cannot rewind time and place molecules back
exactly where they were before, just as we cannot unbreak dropped eggs. But laws of physics at a
microscopic or quantum level hold that those processes should be reversible.

Text 2: In 2015, physicists Tiago Batalhão et al. performed an experiment in which they confirmed the
irreversibility of thermodynamic processes at a quantum level, producing entropy by applying a rapidly
oscillating magnetic field to a system of carbon-13 atoms in liquid chloroform. But the experiment "does not
pinpoint ... what causes [irreversibility] at the microscopic level," coauthor Mauro Paternostro said.

Based on the texts, what would the author of Text 1 most likely say about the experiment described in Text
2?
A. It would suggest an interesting direction for future research were it not the case that two of the physicists
who conducted the experiment disagree on the significance of its findings.
B. It provides empirical evidence that the current understanding of an aspect of physics at a microscopic level
must be incomplete.
C. It is consistent with the current understanding of physics at a microscopic level but not at a macroscopic
level.
D. It supports a claim about an isolated system of atoms in a laboratory, but that claim should not be
extrapolated to a general claim about the universe.

15
Text 1: In a study of the benefits of having free time, Marissa Sharif found that the reported sense of life
satisfaction tended to plateau when participants had two hours of free time per day and actually began to fall
when they had five hours of free time per day. After further research, Sharif concluded that this dip in life
satisfaction mainly occurred when individuals spent all their free time unproductively, such as by watching TV
or playing games.

Text 2: Psychologist James Maddux cautions against suggesting an ideal amount of free time. The human
desire for both free time and productivity is universal, but Maddux asserts that individuals have unique needs
for life satisfaction.
Furthermore, he points out that there is no objective definition for what constitutes productivity; reading a
book might be considered a productive activity by some, but idleness by others.

Based on the texts, how would Maddux (Text 2) most likely respond to the conclusion Sharif (Text 1) reached
after her further research?
A. By acknowledging that free time is more likely to enhance life satisfaction when it is spent productively
than when it is spent unproductively
B. By challenging the reasoning in Text 1, as it has not been proved that productivity commonly contributes to
individuals' life satisfaction
C. By warning against making an overly broad assumption, as there is no clear consensus in distinguishing
between productive and unproductive activities
D. By claiming that the specific activities named in Text 1 are actually examples of productive activities rather
than unproductive ones

16
Text 1: The live music festival business is growing in event size and genre variety. With so many consumer
options, organizers are finding ways to cement festival attendance as a special experience worth sharing.
This phenomenon is linked to the growing "experiential economy," where many find it gratifying to purchase
lived experiences. To ensure a profitable event, venues need to consider the overall consumer experience,
not just the band lineup.

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Text 2: Music festival appearances are becoming a more important part of musicians' careers. One factor in
this shift is the rising use of streaming services that allow access to huge numbers of songs for a monthly fee,
subsequently reducing sales of full-length albums. With this shift in consumer behavior, musicians are
increasingly dependent on revenue from live performances.

Based on the texts, both authors would most likely agree with which statement?
A. Consumers are more interested in paying subscription fees to stream music than in attending music
festivals in person.
B. Consumers' growing interest in purchasing experiences is mostly confined to the music industry.
C. Changing consumer behaviors are leading to changes in music-related businesses.
D. The rising consumer demand for live music festivals also generates higher demand for music streaming
platforms.

17
Text 1: Stage lighting theorist Adolphe Appia was perhaps the first to argue that light must be considered
alongside all the various elements of a stage to create a single, unified performance. Researcher Kelly
Bremner, however, has noted that Appia lacked technical expertise in the use of light in the theater. As a
result of Appia's inexperience, Bremner argues, Appia's theory of light called for lighting practices that weren't
possible until after the advent of electricity around 1881.

Text 2: Adolphe Appia was not an amateur in the practice of lighting. Instead, it is precisely his exposure to
lighting techniques at the time that contributed to his theory on the importance of light. When working as an
apprentice for a lighting specialist in his youth, Appia observed the use of portable lighting devices that could
be operated by hand. This experience developed his understanding of what was possible in the coordination
of elements on the stage.

Based on the texts, how would the author of Text 2 most likely respond to the claim about Appia's level of
technical expertise made by Bremner in Text 1 ?
A. Many lighting technicians dismissed Appia's ideas about light on the stage.
B. Appia likely gained a level of technical expertise during his time as an apprentice.
C. Theater practitioners who worked with Appia greatly admired his work.
D. Appia was unfamiliar with the use of music and sound in theater.

18
Text 1: In 2021, a team led by Amir Siraj hypothesized that the Chicxulub impactor-the object that struck the
Yucatán Peninsula sixty-six million years ago, precipitating the mass extinction of the dinosaurs-was likely a
member of the class of longperiod comets. As evidence, Siraj cited the carbonaceous chondritic composition
of samples from the Chicxulub impact crater as well as of samples obtained from long-period comet Wild 2 in
2006.

Text 2: Although long-period comets contain carbonaceous chondrites, asteroids are similarly rich in these
materials. Furthermore, some asteroids are rich in iridium, as Natalia Artemieva points out, whereas long-
period comets are not. Given the prevalence of iridium at the crater and, more broadly, in geological layers
deposited worldwide following the impact, Artemieva argues that an asteroid is a more plausible candidate for
the Chicxulub impactor.

Based on the texts, how would Artemieva likely respond to Siraj's hypothesis, as presented in Text 1?
A. By insisting that it overestimates how representative Wild 2 is of long-period comets as a class
B. By arguing that it does not account for the amount of iridium found in geological layers dating to the
Chicxulub impact
C. By praising it for connecting the composition of Chicxulub crater samples to the composition of certain
asteroids

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D. By concurring that carbonaceous chondrites are prevalent in soil samples from sites distant from the
Chicxulub crater

19
Text 1: Philosopher G.E. Moore's most influential work entails the concept of common sense. He asserts that
there are certain beliefs that all people, including philosophers, know instinctively to be true, whether or not
they profess otherwise: among them, that they have bodies, or that they exist in a world with other objects
that have three dimensions. Moore's careful work on common sense may seem obvious but was in fact
groundbreaking.

Text 2: External world skepticism is a philosophical stance supposing that we cannot be sure of the
existence of anything outside our own minds. During a lecture, G.E. Moore once offered a proof refuting this
stance by holding out his hands and saying, "Here is one hand, and here is another." Many philosophers
reflexively reject this proof (Annalisa Coliva called it "an obviously annoying failure") but have found it a
challenge to articulate exactly why the proof fails.

Based on the texts, how would the author of Text 1 most likely respond to proponents of the philosophical
stance outlined in Text 2?
A. By agreeing with those proponents that Moore's treatment of positions that contradict his own is
fundamentally unserious
B. By suggesting that an instinctive distaste for Moore's position is preventing external world skeptics from
constructing a sufficiently rigorous refutation of Moore
C. By arguing that if it is valid to assert that some facts are true based on instinct, it is also valid to assert that
some proofs are inadequate based on instinct
D. By pointing out that Moore would assert that external world skepticism is at odds with other beliefs those
proponents must unavoidably hold

20
Text 1: Because literacy in Nahuatl script, the writing system of the Aztec Empire, was lost after Spain
invaded central Mexico in the 1500 s, it is unclear exactly how meaning was encoded in the script's symbols.
Although many scholars had assumed that the symbols signified entire words, linguist Alfonso Lacadena
theorized in 2008 that they signified units of language smaller than words: individual syllables.

Text 2: The growing consensus among scholars of Nahuatl script is that many of its symbols could signify
either words or syllables, depending on syntax and content at any given site within a text. For example, the
symbol signifying the word huipil (blouse) in some contexts could signify the syllable "pil" in others, as in the
place name "Chipiltepec." Thus, for the Aztecs, reading required a determination of how such symbols
functioned each time they appeared in a text.

Based on the texts, how would the author of Text 2 most likely characterize Lacadena's theory, as described
in Text 1?
A. By praising the theory for recognizing that the script's symbols could represent entire words
B. By arguing that the theory is overly influenced by the work of earlier scholars
C. By approving of the theory's emphasis on how the script changed over time
D. By cautioning that the theory overlooks certain important aspects of how the script functioned

21
Text 1: Digital art, the use of digital technology to create or display images, isn't really art at all. It doesn't
require as much skill as creating physical art. "Painting" with a tablet and stylus is much easier than using
paint and a brush: the technology is doing most of the work.

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Text 2: The painting programs used to create digital art involve more than just pressing a few buttons. In
addition to knowing the fundamentals of art, digital artists need to be familiar with sophisticated software.
Many artists will start by drawing an image on paper before transforming the piece to a digital format, where
they can apply a variety of colors and techniques that would otherwise require many different traditional tools.

Based on the texts, how would the author of Text 2 most likely respond to the claims of the author of Text 1 ?
A. By arguing that a piece of art created digitally can still be displayed traditionally
B. By explaining that it's actually much harder to use a tablet and stylus to create art than to use paint and a
brush
C. By insisting that digital art requires artistic abilities and skill even if it employs less traditional tools
D. By admitting that most digital artists don't think fundamental drawing skills are important

22
Text 1: A tiny, unusual fossil in a piece of 99-million-year-old amber is of the extinct species Oculudentavis
khaungraae. The O. khaungraae fossil consists of a rounded skull with a thin snout and a large eye socket.
Because these features look like they are avian, or related to birds, researchers initially thought that the fossil
might be the smallest avian dinosaur ever found.

Text 2: Paleontologists were excited to discover a second small fossil that is similar to the strange O.
khaungraae fossil but has part of the lower body along with a birdlike skull. Detailed studies of both fossils
revealed several traits that are found in lizards but not in dinosaurs or birds. Therefore, paleontologists think
the two creatures were probably unusual lizards, even though the skulls looked avian at first.

Based on the texts, what would the paleontologists in Text 2 most likely say about the researchers' initial
thought in Text 1 ?
A. It is understandable because the fossil does look like it could be related to birds, even though O.
khaungraae is probably a lizard.
B. It is confusing because it isn't clear what caused the researchers to think that O. khaungraae might be
related to birds.
C. It is flawed because the researchers mistakenly assumed that O. khaungraae must be a lizard.
D. It is reasonable because the O. khaungraae skull is about the same size as the skull of the second fossil
but is shaped differently.

23
Text 1: Many studies in psychology have shown that people seek out information even when they know in
advance that they have no immediate use for it and that they won't directly benefit from it. Such findings
support the consensus view among researchers of curiosity: namely, that curiosity is not instrumental but
instead represents a drive to acquire information for its own sake.

Text 2: While acknowledging that acquiring information is a powerful motivator, Rachit Dubey and colleagues
ran an experiment to test whether emphasizing the usefulness of scientific information could increase
curiosity about it. They found that when research involving rats and fruit flies was presented as having
medical applications for humans, participants expressed greater interest in learning about it than when the
research was not presented as useful.

Based on the texts, how would Dubey and colleagues (Text 2 ) most likely respond to the consensus view
discussed in Text 1 ?
A. By suggesting that curiosity may not be exclusively motivated by the desire to merely acquire information
B. By conceding that people may seek out information that serves no immediate purpose only because they
think they can use it later

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C. By pointing out that it is challenging to determine when information-seeking serves no goal beyond
acquiring information
D. By disputing the idea that curiosity can help explain apparently purposeless information-seeking behaviors

24
Text 1: Polar bears sustain themselves primarily by hunting seals on the Arctic sea ice, but rising ocean
temperatures are causing the ice to diminish, raising concerns about polar bear population declines as these
large predators' seal-hunting habitats continue to shrink. A 2020 study examining polar bear populations
across the Arctic concluded that populations affected by sea-ice loss are at great risk of extinction by the end
of the twenty-first century.

Text 2: Monitoring carried out by researchers from the Norwegian Polar Institute shows that the polar bear
population on the Arctic archipelago of Svalbard remains stable and well nourished despite rapidly declining
sea ice in recent years. The researchers attribute this population's resilience in part to a shift in feeding
strategies: in addition to hunting seals, the Svalbard polar bears have begun relying on a diet of reindeer
meat and birds' eggs.

Based on the texts, how would the researchers in Text 2 most likely respond to the conclusion presented in
the underlined portion of Text 1 ?
A. By noting that it neglects the possibility of some polar bear populations adapting to changes in their
environment
B. By suggesting that it is likely incorrect about the rates at which warming ocean temperatures have caused
sea ice to melt in the Arctic
C. By asserting that it overlooks polar bear populations that have not yet been affected by loss of seal-
hunting habitats
D. By arguing that it fails to account for polar bears' reliance on a single seal-hunting strategy

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INFORMATION AND IDEAS

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Unit 8: Pluto: a planet or not? — Central Ideas and Details

LEAD-IN_

Pluto is no longer a planet — or is it?

Some astronomers did not agree with Pluto’s 2006 demotion and even now call it a planet

For 76 years, Pluto was the beloved ninth planet. No one cared that it was the runt of the solar system,
with a moon half its size. No one minded that it had a tilted, oval-shaped orbit. Pluto was a weirdo, but it
was our weirdo.

“Children identify with its smallness,” wrote science writer Dava Sobel in her 2005 book The Planets.
“Adults relate to its … existence as a misfit.” People felt protective of Pluto.

So it was perhaps not surprising that there was public uproar when Pluto was relabeled a dwarf planet 15
years ago. The International Astronomical Union, or IAU, redefined “planet.” And Pluto no longer fit the
bill.

This new definition required a planet to do three things. First, it must orbit the sun. Second, it must have
enough mass for its own gravity to mold it into a sphere (or close). Third, it must have cleared the space
around its orbit of other objects. Pluto didn’t pass the third test. Hence: dwarf planet.

“I believe that the decision taken was the correct one,” says Catherine Cesarsky. She was president of
the IAU in 2006. She’s currently an astronomer at CEA Saclay in France. “Pluto is very different from the
eight solar-system planets,” she says. Plus, in the years leading up to Pluto’s reclassification,
astronomers had discovered more objects beyond Neptune that were similar to Pluto. Scientists either
had to add many new planets to their list, or remove Pluto. It was simpler to just give Pluto the boot.

“The intention was not at all to demote Pluto,” Cesarsky says. Instead, she and others wanted to promote
Pluto as one of an important new class of objects — those dwarf planets.

Some planetary scientists agreed with that. Among them was Jean-Luc Margot at the University of
California Los Angeles. Making it a dwarf planet was “a triumph of science over emotion. Science is all
about recognizing that earlier ideas may have been wrong,” he said at the time. “Pluto is finally where it
belongs.”

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Others have disagreed. Planets should not have to clear their

orbits of other debris, argues Jim Bell. He’s a planetary scientist at
Arizona State University in Tempe. An object’s ability to cast out
debris does not just depend on the body itself, Bell says. So that
shouldn’t disqualify Pluto. Everything with interesting geology
should be a planet, he says. That way, “it doesn’t matter where
you are, it matters what you are.”

Pluto certainly has interesting geology. Since 2006, we’ve learned

that Pluto has an atmosphere and maybe even clouds. It has
mountains made of water ice, fields of frozen nitrogen and
methane snow-capped peaks. It even sports dunes and volcanos.
That fascinating and active geology rivals any rocky world in the
inner solar system. To Philip Metzger, this confirmed that Pluto
should count as a planet.

“There was an immediate reaction against the dumb [IAU] definition,” says Metzger. He’s a planetary
scientist at the University of Central Florida in Orlando. But science runs on evidence, not instinct. So
Metzger and colleagues have been gathering evidence for why IAU’s definition of “planet” feels so wrong.

The rise and fall of Pluto

For centuries, the word “planet” was much more inclusive. When
Galileo turned his telescope on Jupiter in the 1600s, any large
moving body in the sky was considered a planet. That included
moons. In the 1800s, when astronomers discovered the rocky bodies
now called asteroids, they called those planets, too.

Pluto was seen as a planet from the very beginning. Amateur

astronomer Clyde Tombaugh first spotted it in telescope photos
taken in January 1930. At the time, he was working at the Lowell
Observatory in Flagstaff, Ariz. Upon his discovery, Tombaugh rushed
to the observatory director. “I have found your Planet X,” he
declared. Tombaugh was referring to a ninth planet that had been
predicted to orbit the sun beyond Neptune.

But things got weird when scientists realized Pluto wasn’t alone out
there. In 1992, an object about a tenth as wide as Pluto was seen
orbiting out beyond it. More than 2,000 icy bodies have since been
found hiding in this frigid outskirt of the solar system known as the Kuiper (KY-pur) Belt. And there may
be many more still.

Finding that Pluto had so many neighbors raised questions. What did these strange new worlds have in
common with more familiar ones? What set them apart? Suddenly, astronomers weren’t sure what truly
qualified as a planet.

Tensions over how to categorize Pluto came to a head in 2006. The drama peaked at an IAU meeting
held in Prague, the capital of the Czech Republic. On the final day of the August meeting, and after much
heated debate, a new definition of “planet” was put to a vote. Pluto was deemed a dwarf planet.

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Messy definitions

Right away, textbooks were revised and posters reprinted. But many planetary scientists — especially
those who study Pluto — never bothered to change. “Planetary scientists don’t use the IAU’s definition in
publishing papers,” Metzger says. “We pretty much just ignore it.”

In part, that might be sass or spite. But Metzger and others think there’s also good reason to reject IAU’s
definition of “planet.” They make their case in a pair of papers. One appeared as a 2019 report in Icarus.
The other one is due out soon.

For these, the researchers examined hundreds of scientific papers, textbooks and letters. Some of the
documents dated back centuries. They show that how scientists and the public have used the word
“planet” has changed many times. And why was often not straightforward.

In short, the IAU’s definition of “planet” is just the latest in a long line. The word has changed meanings
many times, for many different reasons. So there’s no reason why it couldn’t be changed once more.

Real-world usage

Defining “planets” to include certain moons, asteroids and Kuiper Belt objects is useful, Metzger now
argues. Planetary science includes places like Mars (a planet), Titan (one of Saturn’s moons) and Pluto
(a dwarf planet). All these places have extra complexity that arises when rocky worlds get big enough to
become spherical. Examples of that complexity span from mountains and atmospheres to oceans and
rivers. It’s scientifically useful to have an umbrella term for such complex worlds, Metzger says.

“We’re not claiming that we have the perfect definition of a planet,” he adds. Nor does Metzger think
everyone need adopt his. That’s the mistake the IAU made, he says. “We’re saying this is something that
ought to be debated.”

A more inclusive definition of “planet” might also give a more accurate concept of the solar system.
Emphasizing eight major planets suggests they dominate the solar system. In fact, the smaller stuff
greatly outnumbers those worlds. The major planets don’t even stay in fixed orbits over long time-scales.
Gas giants, for instance, have shuffled around in the past. Viewing the solar system as just eight
unchanging bodies may not do that complexity justice.

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Brown (@plutokiller) disagrees. Having the

gravitational oomph to nudge other bodies around is
an important feature of a planet, he argues. Plus,
the eight planets clearly dominate our solar system.
“If you dropped me in the solar system for the first
time, and I looked around … nobody would say
anything other than, ‘Wow, there are these eight —
choose your word — and a lot of other little things.’”

One common argument for the IAU definition is that

it keeps the number of planets manageable. Can
you imagine if there were hundreds or thousands of
planets? How would the average person keep track
of them all? What would we print on lunch boxes?

But Metzger thinks counting just eight planets risks turning people off to the rest of space. “Back in the
early 2000s, there was a lot of excitement when astronomers were discovering new planets in our solar
system,” he says. “All that excitement ended in 2006.”

Yet many of those smaller objects are still interesting. Already, there are at least 150 known dwarf
planets. Most people, however, are unaware, Metzger says. Indeed, why do we need to limit the number
of planets? People can memorize the names and traits of hundreds of dinosaurs or Pokémon. Why not
planets? Why not inspire people to rediscover and explore the space objects that most appeal to them?
Maybe, in the end, what makes a planet is in the eye of the beholder.

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EXAM SKILLS_

Central ideas and details are questions that require you to read a short excerpt from a literary work or an
academic article. After reading the passage, you will be asked to identify the primary concept of the text
or answer a particular question based on it.

These questions aim to test your reading comprehension in a direct manner, without requiring external
knowledge or in-depth analysis. You just need to read the passage attentively.

Central ideas questions require you to identify the primary concept or theme of the passage. These
questions typically use the prompt "Which choice best states the main idea of the text?" You should be
able to identify the main idea by looking for a concept that:
• Encompasses most of the details presented in the text.
• Addresses any key points emphasized in the text.
The main idea should not:
• Focus only on a single detail.
• Introduce any new concepts not found in the text.
• Contradict the information provided in the passage.

For example:
1
Scientists have discovered that the earth's temperature is increasing due to human activities, such as burning
fossil fuels and deforestation. This phenomenon, known as global warming, is causing significant changes to
the earth's climate patterns, including more frequent and severe natural disasters

Which choice best states the main idea of the text?

A) Global warming is causing natural disasters.

B) Human activities are mainly causing global warming.
C) The earth's temperature is increasing.
D) Deforestation is contributing to global warming.

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Details questions prompt you to answer a specific query related to an idea in the passage. These
questions can typically be answered using information from a single sentence in the text, and they contain
words or phrases that guide you to the relevant part of the passage where you'll find the detail needed to
answer the question. Questions such as "According to the text, what is true about...?" or "Based on the
text, how does...?" are common in Details questions.

For example:
1
Air pollution is a major problem in many cities around the world. It is caused by a variety of sources, including
cars, factories, and power plants. Exposure to air pollution can cause a range of health problems, including
respiratory issues, heart disease, and cancer.

According to the passage, what is the impact of air pollution on human health?

A) Air pollution is caused by a variety of sources.

B) Air pollution is a major problem in many cities.
C) Exposure to air pollution can cause respiratory issues, heart disease, and cancer.
D) Air pollution is a harmless problem.

To answer these questions effectively, you should follow these steps:

Step 1: Paraphrase the text

Read the passage carefully and try to rephrase the ideas in your own words. After reading, you should
have a solid understanding of the content.

Step 2: Identify the task

Determine your task based on the question following the passage. Is it asking for the "main idea" or a
specific piece of information?

Step 3: Review the passage

If the question concerns the main idea, review your paraphrased summary to identify the overall theme. If
it asks for specific information, refer to the relevant section of the passage to find the correct detail.

Step 4: Predict and eliminate

Using your understanding of the passage, you may be able to answer the question accurately without
considering the answer choices.

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In-class activity: (Optional)

Activity Name: Planet Sorting Game

Objective: This activity aims to help students understand the characteristics that define a planet and
distinguish planets from other celestial bodies.

Materials:
• Index cards with names of various celestial bodies (e.g., Earth, Mars, Xena, Ceres, Moon, Sun,
etc.)
• Index cards with the criteria for a body to be considered a planet (These criteria include: orbits the
sun, has sufficient mass to assume hydrostatic equilibrium, has cleared its orbit of other debris)
• A large table or open floor space

Instructions:
1. Mix up the celestial body cards and spread them out on the table or floor.
2. Ask the students to form teams of two or three. Each team will have a set of criteria cards.
3. Each team has 5 minutes to sort through the celestial bodies, deciding which ones fit the criteria
to be considered a planet. Teams can discuss and debate amongst themselves during the sorting
process.
4. After the time is up, each team will present their "planet" pile and explain why they chose those
specific celestial bodies.
5. The teacher or the other teams can challenge their choices, leading to further discussion and
understanding of what makes a planet.

This activity encourages teamwork, critical thinking, and reinforces the definition of a planet. It also
highlights how our understanding of planets has changed over time (e.g., the reclassification of Xena).

PRACTICE EXERCISE

1
Black holes have long been a subject of fascination for astronomers and the general public alike. Despite their
popularity, the elusive objects have never been directly observed. That changed in 2019 when the Event
Horizon Telescope project captured an image of a black hole. The team used eight radio telescopes scattered
around the world to create a virtual telescope the size of the Earth. The project allowed scientists to see the
boundary around a black hole, known as the event horizon, where the gravitational pull is so strong that
nothing, not even light, can escape. The image confirmed that black holes do indeed exist, and it provides
valuable insights into the behavior of these mysterious entities.

Which choice best states the main idea of the text?

A) The Event Horizon Telescope project captured an image of a black hole.

B) Black holes have long been a subject of fascination for astronomers and the general public alike.

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C) The image of a black hole captured by the Event Horizon Telescope provides valuable insights into the
behavior of these mysterious entities.
D) Scientists have never been able to directly observe black holes until the Event Horizon Telescope project.

2
In 1998, two teams of astronomers studying supernovae discovered something unexpected. The light from
supernovae was dimmer than they expected, indicating that they were farther away than anticipated. This
finding led the teams to conclude that the expansion of the universe was actually accelerating, contrary to
what they had previously believed. This acceleration was unexpected because it had been assumed that
gravity would eventually slow the expansion of the universe. To explain this phenomenon, scientists proposed
the existence of a force called dark energy, which is thought to be responsible for accelerating the expansion
of the universe.

Which choice best states the main idea of the text?

A) The discovery of dark energy in 1998 was an unexpected result of studying supernovae.
B) The light from supernovae was dimmer than expected, leading scientists to conclude that the universe is
expanding.
C) Scientists had previously believed that the universe's expansion was slowing, but observations of
supernovae led to a different conclusion.
D) Scientists proposed the existence of a force called dark energy to explain the unexpected acceleration of
the universe's expansion.

3
In 2015, the New Horizons spacecraft embarked on a historic mission to explore the distant dwarf planet,
Pluto. After a journey of nearly a decade, New Horizons finally reached its destination and conducted a close
flyby of Pluto.

The images sent back by New Horizons revealed a complex and intriguing world. Contrary to early
expectations, Pluto displayed a diverse range of surface features, including towering mountains, vast plains,
and icy plains. Scientists were astonished by the presence of a massive heart-shaped region, officially named
"Tombaugh Regio" after Pluto's discoverer, Clyde Tombaugh. The images also unveiled evidence of
geological activity, with hints of possible cryovolcanism and icy plains undergoing constant change.

Which choice best states the main idea of the text?

A) The New Horizons spacecraft flew by Pluto, providing close-up images of the dwarf planet's complex
surface.
B) Scientists were astonished by the discovery of a heart-shaped region on Pluto's surface.
C) The New Horizons mission challenged previous assumptions about the nature and composition of Pluto.
D) Pluto's surface features include towering mountains, vast plains, and icy plains undergoing constant
change.

4
In 2012, scientists at CERN announced the discovery of the Higgs boson particle, which helps explain how
particles acquire mass. The Higgs boson is a crucial component of the Standard Model of particle physics.
According to this model, particles gain mass by interacting with the Higgs field that permeates the universe.
The discovery of the Higgs boson confirmed the existence of this mechanism and provided valuable insights
into the fundamental nature of matter. It was a significant milestone in the field of particle physics and a result
of extensive research and collaboration at CERN. This breakthrough opened up new possibilities for exploring
the mysteries of the universe and deepening our understanding of its building blocks.

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Which choice best states the main idea of the text?

A) The discovery of the Higgs boson particle was a significant milestone in particle physics research.
B) Scientists at CERN made a groundbreaking announcement about the Higgs boson particle.
C) The Higgs boson particle plays a crucial role in explaining the fundamental nature of matter.
D) The discovery of the Higgs boson particle at CERN revealed how particles acquire mass.

5
In 2016, a groundbreaking discovery was made by the Laser Interferometer Gravitational-Wave Observatory
(LIGO). For the first time, gravitational waves were directly detected, opening up a new window for studying
the universe. This achievement confirmed one of the major predictions of Albert Einstein's theory of general
relativity.

Gravitational waves are ripples in the fabric of spacetime that are produced by the acceleration of massive
objects. They carry information about cataclysmic cosmic events such as black hole mergers and
supernovae. However, these waves are extremely faint and challenging to detect.

Using advanced laser interferometry techniques, LIGO successfully detected the faint signals of gravitational
waves. This groundbreaking discovery provided a new tool for studying the universe, allowing scientists to
explore previously inaccessible phenomena. It also validated Einstein's theory of general relativity, which
predicts the existence of gravitational waves.

Which choice best states the main idea of the text?

A) LIGO detected gravitational waves for the first time, confirming Einstein's theory of relativity.
B) Gravitational waves are ripples in spacetime produced by massive cosmic events.
C) The discovery of gravitational waves by LIGO opened up new opportunities for studying the universe.
D) Einstein's theory of general relativity predicted the existence of gravitational waves.

6
In 2018, NASA launched the Parker Solar Probe, a revolutionary spacecraft designed to study the Sun up
close. The mission aimed to explore the sun's corona, the outermost part of its atmosphere, which is a region
of intense heat and magnetic activity.

The Parker Solar Probe made history by becoming the first spacecraft to venture into the sun's corona. It
faced extreme temperatures, reaching up to millions of degrees Celsius, and intense radiation as it flew closer
to the Sun than any previous mission.

The probe's primary objective was to collect valuable data on the Sun's magnetic fields, solar wind, and
energetic particles. By studying the corona at close proximity, scientists hoped to uncover crucial insights into
the mechanisms behind solar flares, coronal mass ejections, and other solar phenomena.

The new data gathered by the Parker Solar Probe allowed scientists to better understand the Sun's complex
dynamics and provided valuable information for studying space weather and its impact on Earth.

Which choice best states the main idea of the text?

A) The Parker Solar Probe mission aimed to study solar flares and coronal mass ejections.
B) The Parker Solar Probe is a spacecraft designed to explore the outermost part of the Sun's atmosphere,
known as the corona.
C) NASA's Parker Solar Probe successfully flew through the sun's corona, providing unprecedented data on
the Sun's magnetic fields and atmosphere.
D) By venturing closer to the Sun than any previous mission, the Parker Solar Probe collected valuable
information on space weather.

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7
In 2019, a team of researchers made a remarkable discovery using gravitational lensing, a phenomenon
predicted by Einstein's theory of general relativity. They identified the most distant known object in the solar
system, a dwarf planet named Farout.

Gravitational lensing occurs when the gravitational field of a massive object, such as a galaxy or a cluster of
galaxies, bends the path of light passing near it. This bending effect can magnify and distort the light, allowing
scientists to observe distant celestial objects that would otherwise be too faint or distant to detect.

By analyzing the distorted light from a distant object, the researchers were able to pinpoint the presence of
Farout, which orbits the Sun at an astonishing distance of about 120 astronomical units (AU), where 1 AU is
the average distance between the Earth and the Sun. The discovery of Farout provides valuable insights into
the outer reaches of our solar system and expands our understanding of its formation and evolution.

According to the text, how was the most distant object in the solar system, Farout, discovered in 2019?

A) By using gravitational lensing to magnify and distort the light from distant celestial objects.
B) Through direct observation using powerful telescopes.
C) By analyzing data from space probes sent to the outer reaches of the solar system.
D) Through mathematical modeling and simulations of the solar system's dynamics.

8
In 2020, scientists made a groundbreaking discovery in our solar system—an interstellar comet. This comet,
named 2I/Borisov, originated from outside our solar system, marking the first-ever detection of an object from
interstellar space passing through our neighborhood.

Interstellar comets are comets that originate in distant star systems and venture into our solar system. They
provide valuable insights into the composition, structure, and formation of objects beyond our immediate
cosmic neighborhood.

The discovery of 2I/Borisov was made possible through advanced telescopic observations. Scientists
analyzed its trajectory, speed, and chemical composition to determine its interstellar origin. Comparing it with
comets from our solar system, researchers identified key differences that suggest the distinct nature of
interstellar objects.

According to the text, how was the first-ever known interstellar comet in our solar system, 2I/Borisov,
discovered in 2020?

A) Through direct observation by amateur astronomers using high-powered telescopes.

B) By sending space probes to distant star systems to search for cometary objects.
C) Through advanced telescopic observations and analysis of its trajectory, speed, and chemical composition.
D) By studying ancient records and manuscripts that mentioned the presence of interstellar comets.

9
In 2018, researchers achieved a major breakthrough in our understanding of the Milky Way galaxy by creating
the most accurate 3D map to date. This milestone was made possible through the use of data collected by
the Gaia mission, a space observatory launched by the European Space Agency.

The Gaia mission has been tirelessly surveying the sky since 2013, measuring the positions, distances, and
motions of over a billion stars in our galaxy. By combining this vast dataset with sophisticated data analysis
techniques, scientists were able to construct a comprehensive 3D model of the Milky Way.

The resulting map provides intricate details about the structure, composition, and dynamics of our galaxy. It
reveals the distribution of stars, the shape of the galactic disk, and the presence of spiral arms, allowing
astronomers to gain valuable insights into the formation and evolution of the Milky Way.
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According to the text, what was the primary source of data used to create the most accurate 3D map of the
Milky Way galaxy in 2018?

A) Observations from ground-based telescopes.

B) Data obtained from previous space missions.
C) Information gathered by amateur astronomers.
D) Data collected by the Gaia mission.

10
In 2014, astronomers made a groundbreaking discovery that unveiled the largest known structure in the
universe, known as the BOSS Great Wall. This colossal formation, consisting of a vast collection of galaxies,
extends over an astounding distance, spanning billions of light-years.

However, despite the awe-inspiring nature of this discovery, it also presented scientists with a perplexing
problem. The existence of such an immense structure challenged prevailing cosmological theories, which
suggested that the universe should exhibit a more uniform distribution of matter on a large scale.

This discrepancy raised questions about our understanding of the fundamental principles governing the
formation and evolution of the universe. Researchers grappled with reconciling the presence of the BOSS
Great Wall with existing models, sparking renewed efforts to refine our understanding of cosmic structures
and the mechanisms driving their formation.

What problem did the discovery of the BOSS Great Wall in 2014 pose for scientists?

A) The nature of the galaxies within the BOSS Great Wall remained unexplored.
B) The structure's colossal size challenged prevailing cosmological theories.
C) The distribution of matter in the universe was found to be inconsistent.
D) The formation of such a massive structure was unexpected.

11
In 2019, a major breakthrough occurred in the field of astronomy with the discovery of a potentially habitable
exoplanet by NASA's TESS satellite. This remarkable finding opened up new avenues for scientists in their
quest to unravel the mysteries of extraterrestrial life.

However, the discovery also sparked a heated debate among researchers and experts in the field. One side
of the argument emphasizes the planet's location within the habitable zone of its star, suggesting favorable
conditions for liquid water and the potential for supporting life as we know it. Proponents of this view argue
that the exoplanet's proximity to its star and its favorable atmospheric conditions make it a prime candidate
for hosting life forms.

On the other hand, skeptics raise concerns about the limited information available and the need for further
investigation. They argue that while the exoplanet exhibits some promising characteristics, it is premature to
draw definitive conclusions about its habitability. These skeptics call for cautious interpretation of the
available data and the application of rigorous scientific scrutiny before making bold claims.

What is the key point of contention among scientists regarding the potentially habitable exoplanet discovered
by the TESS satellite in 2019?

A) The planet's location within the habitable zone and its potential for supporting life.
B) The discovery's significance in advancing our understanding of the universe.
C) The high possibility of extraterrestrial life existing on the exoplanet.
D) The lack of substantial evidence to definitively prove the exoplanet's habitability.

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12
In the vast expanse of the cosmos, a perplexing discovery was made by astronomers—a galaxy that seems
to defy our expectations. In this unusual galaxy, scientists have found a surprising absence of dark matter, a
mysterious substance that is thought to play a crucial role in the formation and evolution of galaxies.

The revelation of a galaxy devoid of dark matter poses a significant challenge to our current understanding of
the universe. Dark matter is believed to be the gravitational glue that holds galaxies together, accounting for
the majority of their mass. However, this exceptional galaxy appears to exist without the presence of this
enigmatic substance.

This discovery required a meticulous research process, involving a series of observations and analyses.
Astronomers utilized advanced telescopes and instruments to study the galaxy's dynamics and mass
distribution. They carefully examined the gravitational effects on visible matter and conducted extensive
simulations to explore alternative explanations for its unusual properties.

Which step was involved in the research process to understand the galaxy devoid of dark matter?

A) Analyzing the galaxy's dynamics and mass distribution

B) Conducting simulations to explore alternative explanations
C) Utilizing advanced telescopes and instruments for observations
D) Identifying the absence of dark matter in the galaxy's composition

13
NASA's Aspera mission, led by Carlos Vargas, will investigate the circumgalactic medium (CGM), the huge
swaths of lowdensity gas that fill and surround galaxies. Specifically, the team will focus on portions of the
gas that exist in a "warmhot" phase: these portions haven't previously been observable but are thought to
fuel new star formation and hold most of the mass that makes up a galaxy. Using a telescope capable of
revealing these parts of the CGM, the Aspera mission should help answer long-standing questions about
how galaxies emerge, change, and even interact.

Which choice best states the main idea of the text?

A. As the leader of NASA's Aspera mission, Vargas will be the first person to investigate the makeup of the
CGM.
B. Although galaxies that are surrounded by the CGM have been studied, researchers have been unable to
directly observe low-density gas in the CGM in the "warm-hot" phase.
C. Researchers don't yet have a complete understanding of the process of galaxy evolution but have raised
the possibility that galaxies interact with each other at times.
D. The Aspera mission is expected to produce the first direct observations of CGM gas in the "warm-hot"
phase, which likely has an important role in the evolution of galaxies.

14
A common assumption among art historians is that the invention of photography in the mid-nineteenth
century displaced the painted portrait in the public consciousness. The diminishing popularity of the portrait
miniature, which coincided with the rise of photography, seems to support this claim. However, photography's
impact on the portrait miniature may be overstated. Although records from art exhibitions in the Netherlands
from 1820 to 1892 show a decrease in the number of both full-sized and miniature portraits submitted, this
trend was established before the invention of photography.

Based on the text, what can be concluded about the diminishing popularity of the portrait miniature in the
nineteenth century?

A. Factors other than the rise of photography may be more directly responsible for the portrait miniature's
decline.
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B. Although portrait miniatures became less common than photographs, they were widely regarded as having
more artistic merit.
C. The popularity of the portrait miniature likely persisted for longer than art historians have assumed.
D. As demand for portrait miniatures decreased, portrait artists likely shifted their creative focus to
photography.

15
Believing that living in an impractical space can heighten awareness and even improve health, conceptual
artists Madeline Gins and Shusaku Arakawa designed an apartment building in Japan to be more fanciful
than functional. A kitchen counter is chest-high on one side and knee-high on the other; a ceiling has a door
to nowhere. The effect is disorienting but invigorating: after four years there, filmmaker Nobu Yamaoka
reported significant health benefits.

Which choice best states the main idea of the text?

A. Although inhabiting a home surrounded by fanciful features such as those designed by Gins and Arakawa
can be rejuvenating, it is unsustainable.
B. Designing disorienting spaces like those in the Gins and Arakawa building is the most effective way to
create a physically stimulating environment.
C. As a filmmaker, Yamaoka has long supported the designs of conceptual artists such as Gins and
Arakawa.
D. Although impractical, the design of the apartment building by Gins and Arakawa may improve the well-
being of the building's residents.

16
Utah is home to Pando, a colony of about 47,000 quaking aspen trees that all share a single root system.
Pando is one of the largest single organisms by mass on Earth, but ecologists are worried that its growth is
declining in part because of grazing by animals. The ecologists say that strong fences could prevent deer
from eating young trees and help Pando start thriving again.

According to the text, why are ecologists worried about Pando?

A. It isn't growing at the same rate it used to.

B. It isn't producing young trees anymore.
C. It can't grow into new areas because it is blocked by fences.
D. Its root system can't support many more new trees.

17
Biologists have predicted that birds' feather structures vary with habitat temperature, but this hadn't been
tested in mountain environments. Ornithologist Sahas Barve studied feathers from 249 songbird species
inhabiting different elevations—and thus experiencing different temperatures—in the Himalaya Mountains.
He found that feathers of highelevation species not only have a greater proportion of warming downy
sections to flat and smooth sections than do feathers of low-elevation species, but high-elevation species'
feathers also tend to be longer, providing a thicker layer of insulation.

Which choice best states the main idea of the text?

A. Barve's investigation shows that some species of Himalayan songbirds have evolved feathers that better
regulate body temperature than do the feathers of other species, contradicting previous predictions.

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B. Barve found an association between habitat temperature and feather structure among Himalayan
songbirds, lending new support to a general prediction.
C. Barve discovered that songbirds have adapted to their environment by growing feathers without flat and
smooth sections, complicating an earlier hypothesis.
D. The results of Barve's study suggest that the ability of birds to withstand cold temperatures is determined
more strongly by feather length than feather structure, challenging an established belief.

18
Paleontologists searching for signs of ancient life have found many fossilized specimens of prehistoric human
ancestors, including several from the Pleistocene era discovered in a geological formation in the Minatogawa
quarry in Japan. However, to study the emergence of the earliest multicellular organisms to appear on Earth,
researchers must turn elsewhere, such as to the Ediacaran geological formation at Mistaken Point in
Canada. A UNESCO World Heritage Site, the 146 -hectare reserve contains more than 10,000 fossils that
together document a critical moment in evolutionary history.

What does the text indicate about the geological formation at Mistaken Point?

A. It holds a greater number of fossils but from a smaller variety of species than the formation in the
Minatogawa quarry does.
B. It has provided evidence that the earliest human species may have emerged before the Pleistocene era.
C. It is widely considered by paleontologists to be the most valuable source of information about prehistoric
life forms.
D. It contains specimens from an older time period than those found in the formation in the Minatogawa
quarry.

19
In 1934 physicist Eugene Wigner posited the existence of a crystal consisting entirely of electrons in a
honeycomb-like structure. The so-called Wigner crystal remained largely conjecture, however, until Feng
Wang and colleagues announced in 2021 that they had captured an image of one. The researchers trapped
electrons between two semiconductors and then cooled the apparatus, causing the electrons to settle into a
crystalline structure. By inserting an ultrathin sheet of graphene above the crystal, the researchers obtained
an impression—the first visual confirmation of the Wigner crystal.

Which choice best states the main idea of the text?

A. Researchers have obtained the most definitive evidence to date of the existence of the Wigner crystal.
B. Researchers have identified an innovative new method for working with unusual crystalline structures.
C. Graphene is the most important of the components required to capture an image of a Wigner crystal.
D. It's difficult to acquire an image of a Wigner crystal because of the crystal's honeycomb structure.

20
Philadelphia's Black Pearl Chamber Orchestra, founded by Jeri Lynne Johnson, performs classical music,
from wellknown compositions by Beethoven to contemporary works by Jessie Montgomery. For the
orchestra's iConduct! program, Johnson invites community members to learn some basic elements of
conducting and then experience conducting the Black Pearl orchestra themselves.

Which choice best states the main idea of the text?

A. The Black Pearl orchestra performs music from all over the world but mostly performs music composed by
Philadelphians.

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B. Johnson founded the Black Pearl orchestra to perform classical music by contemporary artist Jessie
Montgomery.
C. The Black Pearl orchestra gives community members the chance to both listen to and participate in
classical music performance.
D. Johnson has community members conduct an orchestra to demonstrate how difficult the task is.

21
In West Africa, jalis have traditionally been keepers of information about family histories and records of
important events. They have often served as teachers and advisers, too. New technologies may have
changed some aspects of the role today, but jalis continue to be valued for knowing and protecting their
peoples' stories.

Which choice best states the main idea of the text?

A. Even though there have been some changes in their role, jalis continue to preserve their communities'
histories.
B. Although jalis have many roles, many of them like teaching best.
C. Jalis have been entertaining the people within their communities for centuries.
D. Technology can now do some of the things jalis used to be responsible for.

22
To dye wool, Navajo (Diné) weaver Lillie Taylor uses plants and vegetables from Arizona, where she lives.
For example, she achieved the deep reds and browns featured in her 2003 rug In the Path of the Four
Seasons by using Arizona dock roots, drying and grinding them before mixing the powder with water to
create a dye bath. To intensify the appearance of certain colors, Taylor also sometimes mixes in clay
obtained from nearby soil.

Which choice best states the main idea of the text?

A. Reds and browns are not commonly featured in most of Taylor's rugs.
B. Taylor draws on local resources in the approach she uses to dye wool.
C. Taylor finds it difficult to locate Arizona dock root in the desert.
D. In the Path of the Four Seasons is widely acclaimed for its many colors and innovative weaving
techniques.

23
The painter María Izquierdo played an important role in the development of twentieth-century Mexican art,
but her work has never been well-known in the United States except among art historians. One reason for
Izquierdo's relative obscurity is the enormous popularity of some of her peers. In particular, the painters Frida
Kahlo and Diego Rivera have so captivated the interest of US audiences that Izquierdo and other Mexican
artists from the period often get overlooked, despite the high quality of their work.

Which choice best states the main idea of the text?

A. Izquierdo's work is not as well-known in the United States as it should be because Kahlo and Rivera draw
so much of the public's attention.
B. During Izquierdo's lifetime, her paintings were displayed in galleries in the United States much more
frequently than paintings by Kahlo and Rivera were.

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C. Izquierdo painted some of the same subjects that Kahlo and Rivera painted but used different techniques
than they used.
D. Few of Izquierdo's works are in galleries today because she produced only a small number of paintings.

24
Choctaw/Cherokee artist Jeffrey Gibson turns punching bags used by boxers into art by decorating them with
beadwork and elements of Native dressmaking. These elements include leather fringe and jingles, the metal
cones that cover the dresses worn in the jingle dance, a women's dance of the Ojibwe people. Thus, Gibson
combines an object commonly associated with masculinity (a punching bag) with art forms traditionally
practiced by women in most Native communities (beadwork and dressmaking). In this way, he rejects the
division of male and female gender roles.

Which choice best describes Gibson's approach to art, as presented in the text?

A. He draws from traditional Native art forms to create his original works.
B. He has been influenced by Native and non-Native artists equally.
C. He finds inspiration from boxing in designing the dresses he makes.
D. He rejects expectations about color and pattern when incorporating beadwork.

25
Many intellectual histories of the Black Power movement of the 1960 s and 1970 s rely heavily on essays and
other explicitly ideological works as primary sources, a tendency that can overrepresent the perspectives of a
small number of thinkers, most of whom were male. Historian Ashley D. Farmer has shown that expanding
the array of primary sources to encompass more types of print material—including political cartoons,
advertisements, and artwork—leads to a much better understanding of the movement and the crucial and
diverse roles that Black women played in shaping it.

Which choice best describes the main idea of the text?

A. Farmer's methods and research have enriched the historical understanding of the Black Power movement
and Black women's contributions to it.
B. Before Farmer's research, historians had largely ignored the intellectual dimensions of the Black Power
movement.
C. Other historians of the Black Power movement have criticized Farmer's use of unconventional primary
sources.
D. The figures in the Black Power movement whom historians tend to cite would have agreed with Farmer's
conclusions about women's roles in the movement.

26
In many of his sculptures, artist Richard Hunt uses broad forms rather than extreme accuracy to hint at
specific people or ideas. In his first major work, Arachne (1956), Hunt constructed the mythical character
Arachne, a weaver who was changed into a spider, by welding bits of steel together into something that,
although vaguely human, is strange and machine-like. And his large bronze sculpture The Light of Truth
(2021) commemorates activist and journalist Ida B. Wells using mainly flowing, curved pieces of metal that
create stylized flame.

Which choice best states the text's main idea about Hunt?

A. He often depicts the subjects of his sculptures using an unrealistic style.

B. He uses different kinds of materials depending on what kind of sculpture he plans to create.

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C. He tends to base his art on important historical figures rather than on fictional characters.
D. He has altered his approach to sculpture over time, and his works have become increasingly abstract.

27
The recovery of a 1,000-year-old Chinese shipwreck in the Java Sea near present-day Indonesia has yielded
a treasure trove of artifacts, including thousands of small ceramic bowls. Using a portable X-ray fluorescence
analyzer tool, Lisa Niziolek and her team were able to detect the chemical composition of these bowls without
damaging them. By comparing the chemical signatures of the bowls with those of the materials still at old
Chinese kiln sites, Niziolek and her team can pinpoint which Chinese kilns likely produced the ceramic bowls.

Which choice best states the main idea of the text?

A. Because of a new technology, researchers can locate and recover more shipwrecks than they could in the
past.
B. Researchers have been able to identify the location of a number of Chinese kilns in operation 1,000 years
ago.
C. With the help of a special tool, researchers have determined the likely origin of bowls recovered from a
shipwreck.
D. Before the invention of portable X-ray fluorescence, researchers needed to take a small piece out of an
artifact to analyze its components.

28
The ice melted on a Norwegian mountain during a particularly warm summer in 2019 , revealing a 1,700 -
year-old sandal to a mountaineer looking for artifacts. The sandal would normally have degraded quickly, but
it was instead well preserved for centuries by the surrounding ice. According to archaeologist Espen Finstad
and his team, the sandal, like those worn by imperial Romans, wouldn't have offered any protection from the
cold in the mountains, so some kind of insulation, like fabric or animal skin, would have needed to be worn on
the feet with the sandal.

What does the text indicate about the discovery of the sandal?

A. Temperatures contributed to both protecting and revealing the sandal.

B. The discovery revealed that the Roman Empire had more influence on Norway than archaeologists
previously assumed.
C. Archaeologists would have found the sandal eventually without help from the general public.
D. The sandal would have degraded if it hadn't been removed from the ice.

29
To protect themselves when being attacked, hagfish-jawless marine animals that resemble eels-will release
large quantities of slimy, mucus-like threads. Because these threads are unusually strong and elastic,
scientist Atsuko Negishi and her colleagues have been trying to recreate them in a lab as an eco-friendly
alternative to petroleum-based fibers that are often used in fabrics. The researchers want to reproduce the
threads in the lab because farming hagfish for their slime would be expensive and potentially harmful to the
hagfish.

Which choice best states the text's main idea?

A. The slimy threads that hagfish release might help researchers create a new kind of fabric.
B. Hagfish have inspired researchers to develop a new petroleum-based fabric.
C. Hagfish are not well suited to being raised in captivity.

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D. The ability of hagfish to slime their attackers compensates for their being jawless.

30
Culinary anthropologist Vertamae Smart-Grosvenor may be known for her decades of work in national public
television and radio, but her book Vibration Cooking: or, the Travel Notes of a Geechee Girl is likely her most
influential project. The 1970 book, whose title refers to Smart-Grosvenor's roots in the Low Country of South
Carolina, was unusual for its time. It combined memoir, recipes, travel writing, and social commentary and
challenged notions about conventions of food and cooking. Long admired by many, the book and its author
have shaped contemporary approaches to writing about cuisine.

Which choice best describes the main idea of the text?

A. Smart-Grosvenor's unconventional book Vibration Cooking: or, the Travel Notes of a Geechee Girl is an
important contribution to food writing.
B. Smart-Grosvenor held many different positions over her life, including reporter and food writer.
C. Smart-Grosvenor's groundbreaking book Vibration Cooking: or, the Travel Notes of a Geechee Girl didn't
receive the praise it deserved when it was first published in 1970.
D. Smart-Grosvenor was a talented chef whose work inspired many people to start cooking for themselves.

31
Cats can judge unseen people's positions in space by the sound of their voices and thus react with surprise
when the same person calls to them from two different locations in a short span of time. Saho Takagi and
colleagues reached this conclusion by measuring cats' levels of surprise based on their ear and head
movements while the cats heard recordings of their owners' voices from two speakers spaced far apart. Cats
exhibited a low level of surprise when owners' voices were played twice from the same speaker, but they
showed a high level of surprise when the voice was played once each from the two different speakers.

According to the text, how did the researchers determine the level of surprise displayed by the cats in the
study?

A. They watched how each cat moved its ears and head.
B. They examined how each cat reacted to the voice of a stranger.
C. They studied how each cat physically interacted with its owner.
D. They tracked how each cat moved around the room.

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Unit 9: 3D printing — Command of Evidence : Textual

LEAD-IN_

The future of 3D printing in healthcare

3D printing has shown promising results in supporting surgery, but more research is needed to
understand the technology’s full potential for the healthcare market

3D printing will be a $32bn industry by 2025, rising to over $60bn by 2030, according to estimates from
GlobalData. The Compound Annual Growth Rate between 2018 and 2025 will be 16%, with software
growing slightly faster than hardware, materials and services.

How much healthcare will contribute to this growth remains to be seen. In 2018, healthcare represented
only 10% of online printing demand. In contrast, the industrial and electrical sectors represented
approximately 50%.

But changing trends may see a necessity for more 3D printing in hospitals and places of care. As a new
GlobalData report on 3D printing in healthcare finds, the growing old-age population has driven the demand
for donor organs, while regenerative medicine using bioprinted, patient-derived stem cells allows for
personalised treatment of certain diseases.

It shouldn’t be a surprise to discover that the pandemic has played its part in galvanising the technology’s
use. The 3D printing community, from major manufacturers to start-ups and individuals, has responded to
the Covid-19 crisis by pledging to support the production of vital medical equipment such as ventilators and
personal protective equipment (PPE) for hospitals tackling the pandemic.

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Cost vs benefit: the medical view

A recent study into the costs versus benefits of introducing 3D printing technology into hospitals has shown
that the tech can aid complicated surgeries.

The June study, undertaken by Dr Atanu Chaudhuri, associate professor in technology and operations
management at Durham University Business School, alongside colleagues at ORT Braude College of
Engineering in Israel and the University of Southern Denmark, assessed the effectiveness of 3D printing
technologies used in hospitals. Results show 3D printing to be a key tool in easing both time and financial
pressures for hospitals.

“Surgeries with durations of 4-8 hours can be shortened by 1.5-2.5 hours if patient specific instruments are
used and 25-30 minutes shorter if only an anatomical model is used to plan the surgery,” Dr Chaudhuri tells
Verdict.

“Patient recovery times are also shorter (e.g. a patient is able to walk 1-2 days after surgery compared to
3-4 days before). Moreover, the patient will avoid any post-surgical complications and hence will not need
to visit hospital or undergo other kinds of treatment.”

Chaudhuri doesn’t specifically compare success rates, noting that even earlier surgeries had been
successful but could have led to post-surgical complications and longer recover time. “But, there are
certain surgeries which were not attempted before, especially for smaller children, which could now be
conducted with much more confidence,” he reveals.

Whilst the benefits are compelling, Chaudhuri and his fellow researchers advise caution. They
acknowledge that 3D printing is a significant financial investment for hospitals to make, particularly those
run by the British NHS already operating under heavy financial pressures, especially in pandemic times.

“Benefits can far outweigh costs both for hospitals as well as for patients,” says Chaudhuri. “But we must
know where to apply it and how to quantify the benefits.”

He also believes 3D printing should be a collaboration between surgeons and engineers, with no one
party having an advantage over another through clinical or technical knowledge.

“(One) myth is that surgeons should not be involved in design or 3D printing,” Chaudhuri says.” But
surgeons who are learning how to do segmentation, how to design a surgical guide, will be ahead of
others. Eventually many surgeons will like to learn about 3D printing and it will get integrated with the
medical curriculum.

“The other myth is that engineers from service providers do not understand clinical requirements well.
This may be initially true but many service providers have learnt the clinical aspects by working with many
surgeons and hence when they talk to a hospital, which has not applied the technology before, they will
already provide valuable experience and guidance, particularly on what is possible and what is not.”

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The future of 3D printing in healthcare

Clinical and operational outcomes of using 3D printing
in surgery have been demonstrated. But Chaudhuri
sees a need for systematic studies for which type of
surgeries and for which patient characteristics the
impacts are highest.

“For public health systems, such cost-benefits analysis

is critical,” he adds. “For private healthcare, there
should be value-for-money for patients.”

Chaudhuri says use of anatomical models will become

standard for surgery. 3D printed surgical guides and
implants, meanwhile, will be used where the benefits
are highest followed by advanced 3D printed models
for surgical simulations for more complex surgeries.

“3D bio printing, that is printing of organs, is further out

in the horizon, but development is happening at a rapid
pace. Use of virtual and augmented reality in
combination with 3D printing has high potential for
complex surgeries, which deal with challenges of high
visual-spatial complexity and extensive anatomic
variation.”

The physician also predicts a strong demand for tailor-made medical implants and surgical instruments to
individual patients.

“One of the leading applications of 3D printing in surgeries are in orthopaedics and orthopaedic oncology,
especially in complex restructuring operations, followed by cranio-maxillofacial, neurosurgeries and
cardiology,” he says. “But as I said before, more studies are needed across specialties and for different
types of patients.”

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EXAM SKILLS_

In the Reading and Writing sections of the SAT, certain questions will present a proposition about an
unfamiliar concept. The question will then require you to select the evidence that most compellingly
endorses this proposition.

Such questions that demand textual evidence could be framed as follows:

1
Economists Maria Gomez and Alex Liu assert that a particular economic policy, known as "Demand-Side
Economics," can stimulate economic growth more effectively than other policies, potentially aiding in
recession recovery. To corroborate their theory, they carried out an analysis comparing the economic growth
rates under Demand-Side Economics with those under other prevalent economic policies.

Which outcome from the analysis, if verified, would most convincingly affirm Maria Gomez and Alex Liu's
theory?

A) Countries implementing Demand-Side Economics had a more equitable income distribution than others.
B) Countries implementing Demand-Side Economics had more foreign direct investments than others.
C) Countries implementing Demand-Side Economics had more public sector investment than others.
D) Countries implementing Demand-Side Economics experienced significantly higher economic growth than
others.

In Command of Evidence: textual questions, a theory will be put forward about a science or social
science subject, often in the context of new research or analysis. No prior knowledge is required: all
necessary information will be contained in the brief passage. Your task is to understand the scientists’
theory, identify the outcome that would validate that theory, and then select the choice that provides that
outcome. This exercise should seem familiar if you've had to confirm or disprove a theory based on the
outcomes of an analysis in your science classes.

To effectively address a textual evidence question, you may follow these steps:

Step 1: Recognize the claim

Each textual evidence question will pose a central claim or argument. It could be an economic theory or
an interpretation of an economic scenario, but it will be clearly articulated. Your primary task is to
recognize this claim and distill it from the text.
For instance, in the given question, the theory is: "Demand-Side Economics can stimulate economic
growth more effectively than other policies, potentially aiding in recession recovery."

Step 2: Formulate a test phrase

After recognizing the claim you need to support, restate it in the most straightforward terms possible. For
instance, consider the Demand-Side Economics theory. Simplify the theory like so: Demand-Side
Economics = higher economic growth. The best choice will coincide with this claim.
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Step 3: Examine the options

Read each alternative while keeping your test phrase in mind. If an alternative conveys something
contrary to the test phrase, disregard that choice. Once you identify an option that corresponds with your
test phrase, you've found the answer. For example, option D in the above question states that countries
implementing Demand-Side Economics experienced significantly higher economic growth than others,
which aligns with the test phrase. Therefore, the correct answer is D.

In-class exercise: Let the students share their own experience with 3D printing they might have already
used at school or had prior-knowledge about.

PRACTICE EXERCIS

1
In a recent study conducted by engineers at the University of Michigan, it was found that 3D printing
technology could be used to design and create personalized prosthetics that fit more comfortably and function
more effectively for individuals with limb differences. To test their theory, the researchers developed a series
of prosthetic limbs using 3D printing technology, and compared the functionality and comfort of these limbs
with traditional prosthetics in a controlled trial.

Which finding, if true, would most directly support the researchers' hypothesis?

A) 3D printed prosthetics are more affordable to produce than traditional prosthetics.

B) The 3D printed prosthetics were rated significantly more comfortable and functional by the individuals
using them in the trial than the traditional prosthetics.
C) The 3D printing technology used by the researchers was able to create a wider variety of prosthetic
designs than traditional manufacturing methods.
D) The individuals using the 3D printed prosthetics in the trial were able to perform a wider range of physical
activities than those using traditional prosthetics.

2
A team of scientists at the University of Pennsylvania conducted a study to examine the effectiveness of 3D
printing technology in fabricating customized dental implants. They hypothesized that these personalized
implants would result in a better fit and enhanced patient satisfaction when compared to conventional dental
implants. To validate this theory, the researchers designed and produced a series of dental implants using 3D
printing and compared their performance and patient feedback with that of traditional implants in a controlled
trial.

Which finding, if true, would most directly support the scientists' hypothesis?

A) Patients who received the 3D printed implants reported significantly higher satisfaction scores and better fit
than those who received traditional implants.
B) 3D printed dental implants are quicker to produce than traditional implants.
C) 3D printing technology allowed for a greater variety of dental implant designs than traditional
manufacturing methods.
D) Patients with 3D printed implants reported fewer visits to the dentist for adjustments than those with
traditional implants.

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3
A team of engineers from the National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA) has been investigating
the potential applications of 3D printing technology in the aerospace industry. They hypothesized that by
using 3D printing to create complex parts, they could significantly reduce aircraft weight, which could in turn
improve fuel efficiency. To test this hypothesis, they designed and produced a range of aircraft parts using 3D
printing technology, then tested these parts in controlled simulations and compared the results to traditionally
manufactured parts.

Which finding, if true, would most directly support the engineers' hypothesis?

A) The 3D printing process allowed the engineers to produce complex designs that could not be achieved
with traditional manufacturing methods.
B) 3D printed parts can be produced more quickly and affordably than traditionally manufactured parts.
C) The 3D printed parts were found to be more durable and had a longer lifespan than traditionally
manufactured parts.
D) The 3D printed aircraft parts were lighter than traditionally manufactured parts and resulted in a
measurable improvement in simulated fuel efficiency.

4
A group of researchers at the Institute of Automotive Engineering has been exploring the use of 3D printing
technology in the automotive industry. They propose that 3D printing could be employed to produce
prototypes and customized components, thereby reducing lead time and manufacturing costs. To examine
this proposition, they used 3D printing to create several types of car parts, both for prototyping and for
customization. The production time and cost were then compared with traditional manufacturing methods for
similar parts.

Which finding, if true, would most directly support the researchers' proposition?

A) The 3D printed car parts had a significantly higher level of detail and precision compared to traditionally
manufactured parts.
B) The 3D printed car parts were manufactured in less time and at a lower cost than the traditionally
manufactured counterparts.
C) The 3D printing technology allowed for greater flexibility in design, enabling the creation of unique and
complex car parts.
D) The 3D printed car parts were found to be more durable and had a longer lifespan than traditionally
manufactured parts.

5
Fashion designers and researchers at the Institute of Advanced Textiles have conducted a study on the
potential use of 3D printing technology in the fashion industry. They argue that 3D printing can be utilized to
create customized clothing and accessories, allowing for unique designs and reduced waste. To validate their
claim, the team used 3D printing to create various clothing items and accessories, comparing the process to
traditional manufacturing in terms of design versatility, production waste, and customer satisfaction.

Which finding, if true, would most directly weaken the researchers' claim?

A) The 3D printed clothing and accessories were found to be less durable than items produced using
traditional manufacturing methods.

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B) The 3D printed clothing items were lauded for their innovative designs, winning several prestigious fashion
awards.
C) The 3D printing process allowed for customization of individual pieces, creating a more personalized
shopping experience for customers.
D) The 3D printing process reduced waste by allowing for precise measurements and the elimination of
excess fabric in the manufacturing process.

6
A group of food scientists from the International Institute of Nutritional Sciences have conducted a study on
the potential use of 3D printing technology in the food industry. They argue that 3D printing can be employed
to create personalized nutrition which improves food accessibility and customization. To validate their claim,
they used 3D printing technology to produce a variety of food items, tailoring the nutritional content to different
dietary requirements, and surveyed participants on the taste and overall satisfaction.

Which of the following findings, if true, would most directly weaken the scientists' claim?

A) The participants found the 3D printed food to have an unusual texture compared to traditionally prepared
food.
B) The 3D printed food was able to cater to a wide variety of dietary needs, from gluten-free to high-protein
diets.
C) The 3D printed food, while nutritionally tailored, lacked the rich flavors and aromas associated with
traditionally cooked meals.
D) The 3D printing technology allowed for precise nutritional customization, but the process was time-
consuming and required highly specialized equipment.

7
A team of researchers from the International Institute of Jewelry Design conducted a study exploring the use
of 3D printing technology in the jewelry industry. They assert that 3D printing can be used to produce intricate
and unique designs, enabling customization and rapid prototyping. To validate their claim, they used 3D
printing technology to create a range of jewelry pieces, varying in complexity and uniqueness of design.

Which of the following findings, if true, would most directly weaken the researchers' claim?

A) The 3D printed jewelry was found to be less durable than traditionally manufactured jewelry.
B) The 3D printing technology allowed for highly detailed and unique designs.
C) The 3D printed jewelry was highly customizable and rapidly prototyped.
D) Customers expressed satisfaction with the 3D printed jewelry, but the production times were marginally
longer than traditional methods.

8
A study conducted by the Global Institute of Medical Research stated that 3D printing can be used in the
medical field to create patient-specific organ models. These models assist surgeons in preoperative planning,
potentially enhancing surgical outcomes. The research was based on a number of surgical scenarios where
3D printed organ models were used.

Which of the following findings, if true, would most directly weaken the researchers' claim?

A) A separate study found that surgeons often prefer traditional imaging methods, like MRIs and CT scans,
over 3D printed models for preoperative planning.

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B) Some medical professionals argue that the use of 3D printed models may create a false sense of
precision, leading to overconfidence among surgeons.
C) There is a lack of standardized guidelines and protocols for the use of 3D printed organ models in surgical
planning.
D) A peer review of the study pointed out that the sample size was too small to draw definitive conclusions
about the effectiveness of 3D printed organ models.

9
Educators worldwide are increasingly adopting 3D printing as a tool to facilitate hands-on learning and
enhance students' understanding of complex concepts. The use of this technology in classrooms has been
shown to foster creativity, critical thinking, and problem-solving skills.

Which of the following quotations from works by prominent educators would best illustrate this claim?

A) "The ability to print 3D models can help students visualize and better understand abstract concepts that
are often difficult to grasp through traditional teaching methods."
B) "While technology has its place, nothing can replace the human touch in education. Personal interaction
and traditional teaching methods still hold significant value."
C) "Despite the potential of 3D printing, the high costs associated with acquiring and maintaining 3D printers
can be a significant barrier for many schools."
D) "There's a need to balance the use of technology with development of social skills in students. Over-
reliance on technology can lead to isolation."

10
The utilization of 3D printing in the art industry is revolutionizing the way we create and perceive artwork. This
technology allows for the creation of intricate sculptures and artworks, pushing the boundaries of traditional
artistic expression.

Which of the following quotations from works by renowned artists and art critics would best illustrate this
claim?

A) "The integration of 3D printing in art can democratize art production, enabling more artists to create
complex pieces without the need for expensive studio or materials."
B) "While 3D printing introduces a new dimension to art, it also raises questions about the authenticity and
originality of artwork in the digital age."
C) "The adoption of technology in art, such as 3D printing, is an inevitable evolution, but it cannot replace the
value of traditional craftsmanship."
D) "3D printing in art provides an innovative medium that broadens the realm of artistic expression, allowing
the creation of designs previously unattainable by conventional methods."

11
3D printing has begun to make its mark in the sports industry, with a specific focus on the production of
personalized equipment and gear. This technology has been shown to enhance athletes' performance and
comfort, according to recent studies.

Which of the following quotations from works by sports industry experts would best illustrate this claim?

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A) "With the help of 3D printing, we're able to create sports gear that fits like a second skin, significantly
enhancing athletes' comfort during performance."
B) "Although 3D printing is revolutionizing sports equipment, it's crucial to remember that technology can't
replace the importance of proper training and conditioning for athletes."
C) "3D printing has transformed the manufacturing process of sports equipment, allowing us to customize
gear to an athlete's exact specifications, improving their performance."
D) "The incorporation of 3D printing into the sports industry has the potential to level the playing field, as it
allows for affordable and accessible customization of equipment."

12
3D printing has been shown to provide significant advantages in the defense sector, particularly in the
production of lightweight and customized spare-parts for military equipment. These advancements improve
agility and performance, according to recent studies.

Which of the following quotations from works by defense industry experts would best illustrate this claim?

A) "The advent of 3D printing has revolutionized the defense industry, allowing for the production of
equipments that are not only lighter but also tailored to specific requirements, leading to increased agility and
performance."
B) "3D printing technology has great potential in the defense sector, but its real-world application faces
challenges due to regulatory and security concerns."
C) "3D printing has the ability to make military equipment more efficient and user-friendly, but it cannot
replace the need for strategic planning and training."
D) "Through 3D printing, we can now produce lightweight, custom equipment components. This technology is
transforming our defense capabilities, making us faster and more adaptable on the battlefield."

13
Although many transposons, DNA sequences that move within an organism's genome through shuffling or
duplication, have become corrupted and inactive over time, those from the long interspersed nuclear
elements (LINE) family appear to remain active in the genomes of some species. In humans, they are
functionally important within the hippocampus, a brain structure that supports complex cognitive processes.
When the results of molecular analysis of two species of octopus—an animal known for its intelligence—were
announced in 2022, the confirmation of a LINE transposon in Octopus vulgaris and Octopus bimaculoides
genomes prompted researchers to hypothesize that that transposon family is tied to a species' capacity for
advanced cognition.

Which finding, if true, would most directly support the researchers' hypothesis?

A. The LINE transposon in O. vulgaris and O. bimaculoides genomes is active in an octopus brain structure
that functions similarly to the human hippocampus.
B. The human genome contains multiple transposons from the LINE family that are all primarily active in the
hippocampus.
C. A consistent number of copies of LINE transposons is present across the genomes of most octopus
species, with few known corruptions.
D. O. vulgaris and O. bimaculoides have smaller brains than humans do relative to body size, but their
genomes contain sequences from a wider variety of transposon families.

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14
Accomplished printmaker and sculptor Elizabeth Catlett (1915-2012) used her art to explore the Black
experience in the United States. In a paper for an art history class, a student claims that Catlett had a
particular talent for unifying various artistic traditions and styles in her work.

Which quotation from a scholar describing Catlett's work would best support the student's claim?

A. "In Mother and Child, a sculpture of two Black figures, Catlett used an ancient Indigenous sculpting
technique and combined the visual aesthetic of modern Mexican muralists with that of German artist Kathe
Kollwitz."
B. "In her collage New Generation, Catlett overlaid fabric onto the canvas to represent the clothing of a father
and his toddler, positioned to evoke classic images of a mother and child."
C. “Created in 1968, Catlett's sculpture Black Unity, a stylized fist sculpted from mahogany and measuring
two feet across, remains an important piece and has received renewed and well-deserved attention in recent
years."
D. "One series of Catlett's prints, made by the artist using the linoleum cut method, depicts several notable
African American women, including Harriet Tubman and Sojourner Truth.”

15
A student is examining a long, challenging poem that was initially published in a quarterly journal without
explanatory notes, then later republished in a stand-alone volume containing only that poem and
accompanying explanatory notes written by the poet. The student asserts that the explanatory notes were
included in the republication primarily as a marketing device to help sell the stand-alone volume.

Which statement, if true, would most directly support the student's claim?

A. The text of the poem as published in the quarterly journal is not identical to the text of the poem published
in the stand-alone volume.
B. Many critics believe that the poet's explanatory notes remove certain ambiguities of the poem and make it
less interesting as a result.
C. The publishers of the stand-alone volume requested the explanatory notes from the poet in order to make
the book attractive to readers who already had a copy of the poem in a journal issue.
D. Correspondence between the poet and the publisher reveals that the poet's explanatory notes went
through several drafts.

16
Sandra Cisneros's 1984 novella The House on Mango Street made a lasting impact on US literature. Its
depiction of Mexican American culture inspired later authors to examine their own heritage within their
fictional works. Also influential was the book's portrayal of the main character, Esperanza, during a pivotal
year of her youth. This insightful depiction of a preteen girl encouraged authors who, like Cisneros herself,
are Latina to use fictional works to examine experiences from their own youth.

Which statement, if true, would most strongly support the claim in the underlined sentence?

A. In interviews, a number of Latina authors say that The House on Mango Street inspired them to write
about their own adolescence in their novels.
B. In published writings, several prominent authors who are not Latina say that reading The House on Mango
Street influenced their approach to writing fiction.

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C. The House on Mango Street has sold over six million copies and is one of the most commonly read books
among high school and university students in the US.
D. Since 1984, new novels about young Latina characters by Latina authors have often been compared to
The House on Mango Street.

17
Rivers rich in sediment appear yellow, while increases in red algae make rivers appear red. To track things
like the sediment or algae content of large US rivers, John R. Gardner and colleagues used satellite data to
determine the dominant visible wavelengths of light measured for various segments of these rivers. The
researchers classified wavelengths of 495 nanometers (nm) and below as red, wavelengths between 495
and 560 nm as blue, and wavelengths of 560 nm and above as yellow. The researchers concluded that for
the Missouri River, segments flowing into lakes tend to carry more sediment than those flowing out of lakes.

Which finding, if true, would most directly support the researchers' conclusion?

A. The segments of the Missouri River that had higher levels of chlorophyll-a, which contributes to the green
color of photosynthetic organisms, have dominant wavelengths of light between 490 and 560 nm .
B. In lakes through which segments of the Missouri River pass, the dominant wavelength of light tended to be
above 560nm near the lakes' shores and below 560nm in the lakes' centers.
C. The majority of the segments of the Missouri River were found to have dominant wavelengths of light
significantly higher than 560nm.
D. Segments of the Missouri River flowing into lakes typically had dominant wavelengths of light above
560nm, while segments flowing out of lakes typically had dominant wavelengths below 560nm.

18
Plants like potatoes, tomatoes, and soybeans are susceptible to bacterial wilt disease caused by the bacteria
Ralstonia solanacearum. A multinational team of scientists led by Zhong Wei studied whether other microbes
in the soil might influence the degree to which plants are affected by the disease. The team sampled soil
surrounding individual tomato plants over time and compared the results of plants that became diseased with
those that remained healthy. They concluded that the presence of certain microbes in the soil might explain
the difference between healthy and diseased plants.

Which finding, if true, would most directly support the team's conclusion?

A. The soil surrounding healthy plants contained significantly higher concentrations of microbes known to
inhibit Ralstonia solanacearum than the soil surrounding diseased plants did.
B. The soil surrounding the plants contained high concentrations of Ralstonia solanacearum regardless of
whether the plants were affected by wilt disease.
C. The soil surrounding healthy plants tended to have significantly higher moisture levels than the soil
surrounding diseased plants did.
D. By the end of the experiment, over half the plants had been affected by wilt disease regardless of
differences in the types and concentrations of microbes in the surrounding soil.

19
Although it's clear that Mars once had liquid water on its surface, astronomers have debated whether the
evidence of ancient water reflects a prolonged phase of warm, wet conditions—the so-called wet and warm
scenario—or a brief period of melting in an otherwise consistently frozen environment. Researchers
Benjamin T. Cardenas and Michael P. Lamb recently added to this debate by using data from NASA and the
Mars Orbiter Laser Altimeter to map the topography of what is now a large basin in Mars's northern
hemisphere. Cardenas and Lamb concluded that the wet and warm scenario is likely correct.

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Which finding about the basin, if true, would most directly support Cardenas and Lamb's conclusion?

A. Its dimensions and shape indicate that it is unlikely to have formed as the result of an asteroid or comet
impact.
B. It has features suggesting that it once held an ocean that underwent gradual sea-level changes over an
extended time.
C. Its physical characteristics are most consistent with it having formed as a result of a massive but short-
lived influx of liquid water.
D. It is surrounded by channels that could have been formed either by running water or by flowing lava.

20
Many insects are iridescent, or have colors that appear to shimmer and change when seen from different
angles. Scientists have assumed that this feature helps to attract mates but could also attract predators. But
biologist Karin Kjernsmo and a team had the idea that the shifting appearance of colors might actually make
it harder for other animals to see iridescent insects. To test this idea, the team put beetle forewings on leaves
along a forest path and then asked human participants to look for them. Some of the wings were naturally
iridescent. Others were painted with a nonchanging color from the iridescent spectrum, such as purple or
blue.

Which finding, if true, would most directly support the team's idea?

A. On average, participants found most of the purple wings and blue wings and far fewer of the iridescent
wings.
B. On average, participants found the iridescent wings faster than they found the purple wings or blue wings.
C. Some participants reported that the purple wings were easier to see than the blue wings.
D. Some participants successfully found all of the wings on the leaves.

21
Matthew D. Rocklage and team examined whether consumer ratings of movies can predict box office
success. The team considered both numeric star ratings and written reviews in their research. To analyze the
written reviews, the team measured the emotionality-—the degree to which a written review expresses an
emotional reaction—of user reviews on a movie rating website, assigning each review an emotionality score.
After reviewing this research, a student argues that the emotionality of movie reviews is unrelated to a
movie's success at the box office.

Which finding, if true, would most directly weaken the student's conclusion?

A. Movies that had the highest average emotionality scores received the lowest average star ratings on the
movie rating website.
B. The average emotionality score of a movie's reviews was a positive predictor of that movie's box office
earnings.
C. More than half of the movies that the team examined received an average star rating of 3 out of 5 stars.
D. The movies that were most successful at the box office tended to have high average star ratings.

22
Jan Gimsa, Robert Sleigh, and Ulrike Gimsa have hypothesized that the sail-like structure running down the
back of the dinosaur Spinosaurus aegyptiacus improved the animal's success in underwater pursuits of prey
species capable of making quick, evasive movements. To evaluate their hypothesis, a second team of
researchers constructed two batterypowered mechanical models of S. aegyptiacus, one with a sail and one
without, and subjected the models to a series of identical tests in a water-filled tank.

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Which finding from the model tests, if true, would most strongly support Gimsa and colleagues' hypothesis?

A. The model with a sail took significantly less time to complete a sharp turn while submerged than the model
without a sail did.
B. The model with a sail displaced significantly more water while submerged than the model without a sail
did.
C. The model with a sail had significantly less battery power remaining after completing the tests than the
model without a sail did.
D. The model with a sail took significantly longer to travel a specified distance while submerged than the
model without a sail did.

23
Pulitzer Prize-winning writer Héctor Tobar has built a multifaceted career as both a journalist and an author of
short stories and novels. In an essay about Tobar's work, a student claims that Tobar blends his areas of
expertise by applying journalism techniques to his creation of works of fiction.

Which quotation from a literary critic best supports the student's claim?

A. "For one novel, an imagined account of a real person's global travels, Tobar approached his subject like a
reporter, interviewing people the man had met along the way and researching the man's own writings."
B. "Tobar got his start as a volunteer for El Tecolote, a community newspaper in San Francisco, and wrote
for newspapers for years before earning a degree in creative writing and starting to publish works of fiction.”
C. "Many of Tobar's notable nonfiction articles are marked by the writer's use of techniques usually
associated with fiction, such as complex narrative structures and the incorporation of symbolism."
D. "The protagonist of Tobar's third novel is a man who wants to be a novelist and keeps notes about
interesting people he encounters so he can use them when developing characters for his stories."

24
Born in 1891 to a Quechua-speaking family in the Andes Mountains of Peru, Martín Chambi is today
considered to be one of the most renowned figures of Latin American photography. In a paper for an art
history class, a student claims that Chambi's photographs have considerable ethnographic value—in his
work, Chambi was able to capture diverse elements of Peruvian society, representing his subjects with both
dignity and authenticity.

Which finding, if true, would most directly support the student's claim?

A. Chambi took many commissioned portraits of wealthy Peruvians, but he also produced hundreds of
images carefully documenting the peoples, sites, and customs of Indigenous communities of the Andes.
B. Chambi's photographs demonstrate a high level of technical skill, as seen in his strategic use of
illumination to create dramatic light and shadow contrasts.
C. During his lifetime, Chambi was known and celebrated both within and outside his native Peru, as his work
was published in places like Argentina, Spain, and Mexico.
D. Some of the peoples and places Chambi photographed had long been popular subjects for Peruvian
photographers.

25
Although most songbirds build open, cupped nests, some species build domed nests with roofs that provide
much more protection. Many ecologists have assumed that domed nests would provide protection from
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weather conditions and thus would allow species that build them to have larger geographic ranges than
species that build open nests do. To evaluate this assumption, a research team led by evolutionary biologist
Iliana Medina analyzed data for over 3,000 species of songbirds.

Which finding from Medina and her colleagues' study, if true, would most directly challenge the assumption in
the underlined sentence?

A. Species that build open nests tend to have higher extinction rates than species that build domed nests.
B. Species that build open nests tend to be smaller in size than species that build domed nests.
C. Species that build open nests tend to use fewer materials to build their nests than species that build
domed nests do.
D. Species that build open nests tend to have larger ranges than species that build domed nests.

26
In 1967 the US Congress created the Corporation for Public Broadcasting, which in turn created National
Public Radio (NPR). NPR began producing and distributing high-quality news and cultural programming to
affiliate stations across the United States in 1971. In a research paper, a student claims that the Corporation
for Public Broadcasting and NPR were inspired by the British Broadcasting System (BBC), which had been
established in the 1920s.

Which quotation from a work by a historian would be the most effective evidence for the student to include in
support of this claim?

A. "Although the BBC had begun as a private corporation, politicians successfully argued to make it a public
company because they believed a public broadcaster could help build national unity in the aftermath of World
War I."
B. "For many decades, the BBC had no competition since it held Britain's only broadcasting license, whereas
in the United States, the Corporation for Public Broadcasting launched NPR in a broadcasting market already
filled with competitors."
C. "Congress's embrace of publicly funded broadcasting reflected a common belief among US politicians that
the role of government was not only to ensure people's safety and liberty but also to enrich people's lives in
other ways."
D. "The goal of the BBC was to support British democracy by promoting an informed citizenry, and US
legislators believed that ensuring access to high-quality programming could do the same for democracy in
the United States."

27
In the 1970s, a roughly 60,000 -year-old piece of hyena bone marked with nine notches was discovered at a
site in western France once inhabited by Neanderthals. Although many believe that only modern humans
developed systems for notating numbers, one archaeologist asserts that this artifact may be a sign that
Neanderthals also recorded numerical information. The notches on the bone are unevenly spaced but
approximately parallel, and microscopic analysis reveals that they were made with a single stone tool;
according to the archaeologist, this suggests that the notches were all made at one time by one individual as
a means of counting something.

Which finding, if true, would most directly weaken the underlined claim?

A. Parallel lines are a common feature in modern humans' early systems for recording numerical information.
B. More than nine approximately parallel notches made with a different stone tool are present on another
artifact found at a site in western France.

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C. It would have taken careful effort to make evenly spaced lines on bone with the stone tools typically used
by Neanderthals.
D. Decorative art discovered at another Neanderthal site in western France primarily features patterns of
unevenly spaced parallel lines.

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Unit 10: US Politics - Command of Evidence : Quantitative

LEAD-IN_

Immigrants and children of immigrants make up at least 15% of the

118th Congress

Immigrants and children of immigrants account for at least 15% of the 118th Congress, a share that has
steadily grown over the past three Congresses. At least 81 voting members of Congress are foreign born
or have at least one parent who was born in another country.

There are currently 18 foreign-born voting members of Congress, including 17 in the House of
Representatives and one in the Senate – Democrat Mazie Hirono of Hawaii, who was born in Japan.
Together, they represent 3% of all voting members across both legislative chambers. At least 63 additional
lawmakers – 47 representatives and 16 senators – have one or more immigrant parent. Overall, these
children of immigrants make up 12% of the House and Senate.

Looking at all 81 immigrants and children of immigrants in the current Congress, Democrats make up a
much larger portion of the group than Republicans. Among the 17 senators who are foreign born or have
an immigrant parent, 12 are Democrats, four are Republicans and one is an independent – Sen. Bernie
Sanders of Vermont, whose father emigrated from Poland.

In the House, 48 of the 64 lawmakers who are immigrants or

children of immigrants are Democrats, while 16 are Republicans.
The latter group includes New York Republican Rep. George
Santos, who is the son of Brazilian immigrants. However, key
aspects of Santos’ biography have been called into question.

Immigrants and children of immigrants represent 25 states in

Congress. About a quarter of these members (26%) represent
California – the largest share representing any one state. Smaller
shares represent Florida (9%), Illinois (7%) and New York (6%).

There are also regional trends. Almost half of members who are
immigrants or children of immigrants (48%) hail from states in the
West – 39 members in all. The South ranks as the second-most
common region represented by this group, with 17 lawmakers,
followed by the Northeast (13) and the Midwest (12).

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In a change from previous Congresses, Central America has surpassed Europe as the most common origin
region for lawmakers who are immigrants or the children of immigrants. Three-in-ten members in this group
claim heritage in Central American countries. About a quarter or fewer have roots in Europe (26%), Asia
(17%) and the Caribbean (16%).

Twenty-two lawmakers who are immigrants or have at least one immigrant parent have roots in Mexico, by
far the largest number from any one country. The next most common countries of origin are Cuba with nine
lawmakers, Germany with six and India with five.

Of the new members of Congress this year, Democratic Rep. Becca Balint, whose Hungarian father
survived the Holocaust, is the first woman and openly gay person to represent Vermont in Congress. And
Democratic Rep. Robert Garcia of California, who emigrated from Peru at age 5, is the first openly gay
immigrant to serve in Congress.

Under the U.S. Constitution, an immigrant taking office in the House must be a U.S. citizen for seven years
or more, be age 25 or older and live in the state where they are elected. Nine years of citizenship are
required to serve in the Senate, and the member must be 30 or older and live in the represented state when
elected.

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EXAM SKILLS_

In the Reading and Writing section of the SAT, you may encounter questions that include a graph or table
containing information about an unfamiliar subject. These questions provide context and require you to
complete a sentence using data from the graph or table.

To tackle quantitative evidence questions, think about the following three challenges:

• Grasping the argument: Quantitative evidence questions often provide more data than
necessary. To answer effectively, identify the relevant data by thoroughly reading the provided
text. This context helps you understand the argument that the quantitative evidence should
support, guiding your search for the appropriate data.
• Interpreting the data: Various formats may present the data, such as bar graphs, line graphs, or
tables. Drawing from your experience in math and science classes, accurately read and interpret
these visualizations. Keep in mind that extra data may be included, so ensure you're looking at
the correct information.
• Assessing the options: Quantitative evidence questions present correct answers alongside
incorrect choices that may include false statements or true statements that don't support the
argument. To eliminate false statements, compare them to the data in the graph or table. To
handle true statements, determine if they support the argument presented in the text.

To solve quantitative evidence questions, follow these steps:

1. Review at the graph: Quickly familiarize yourself with the graph or table's content, looking at the
title, labels, units, and key.
2. Examine the text: Focus on the text, as it guides your search for relevant data. Summarize the
argument in your own words, then test that summary against the available choices.
3. Verify the options: Check the choices against the graph or table's information to identify true
and false statements. Eliminate any false options.

Identify the strongest evidence: After eliminating false statements, compare the remaining choices to your
argument summary to find the one that provides the best support for the argument. Choose this option
with confidence.

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In-class exercise: Divide students into groups and let them debate their perspective on the following
graph:

• Potential explaination for the rise and fall within certain periods (1790s, 1820s-1840s, 1880s-
1930s, 1940s-2000s, 2010s-present)
• Potential implications on international students’ life and career prospect in the US if the figure
continue to increase for the years to come.

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PRACTICE EXERCISES

A global conference on sustainability and reporting utilized a customized mobile event app to improve
efficiency and simplify schedule changes. The app replaced traditional paper-based methods, saving time and
conserving resources. By encouraging participants to download the app, the event planner demonstrated how
technology can assist in coordinating successful conferences. New technologies may continue to emerge as
the number of event planners increases — the US Bureau of Labor Statistics expects a growth rate of 33
percent in the profession from 2012 to 2022. In addition, business and financial operations occupations are
projected to grow 13 percent in the same time span.

Should the underline sentence be kept in the text?

A) Yes, because it accurately summarizes the information about business and financial operations
occupations presented in the chart.
B) Yes, because it provides supporting information for the claims about employment growth made in the
paragraph.
C) No, because it fails to compare the growth rate of business and financial operations occupations with that
of all occupations.
D) No, because it provides an irrelevant statistic that does not support the paragraph's claims about how the
field of event planning is changing.

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Research by political scientists Robert Enoksen and Wlezine shows that, with few exception, debates have
not proved to swing public support for a candidate one way or the other. In the twenty-year span analyzed,
the debates had the least impact in 1992. The first debate during that election year gave the candidate from
the incumbent party a minuscule increase in public support of 0.17 percentage points. Furthermore, after all
three debates in that election year, ______

Which choice most effectively uses data from the graph to complete the text?

A) public support for that incumbent party candidate never rose above 43 percent.
B) the shifts in public support for the incumbent party candidate had varied, falling by 2.03 percentage points
after the second debate and rising by 0.40 percentage points after the third.
C) the incumbent party candidate saw an increase in public support of only 0.56 percentage points-just about
half of a percentage point.
D) public support for the incumbent party candidate remained lower than it was in any other debate period
between 1988 and 2008 .

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Yarn arts have also been shown to aid cognitive functioning. Professor Sharon Gutman of Columbia
University, who has studied the cognitive effects of knitting, explains that knitting activates multiple parts of
the brain simultaneously, stimulating and maintaining neural connections. A 2013 survey of knitters also found
that many respondents felt that knitting improved their memory and concentration. They felt that it helped
them organize their thoughts. Furthermore, ______, raising the possibility that the benefits of knitting may be
cumulative.

Which choice provides accurate and relevant data from the chart to support the claim made later in the
sentence?

A) the frequency of knitting seemed to have a greater effect on respondents' reports of improvement in
memory than on their reports of improved concentration.
B) those who knitted three or more times per week reported these results at a higher rate than did those who
knitted less frequently,
C) many respondents also reported that they used knitting to forget about the problems that were
preoccupying them,
D) the smallest gap between respondents who knitted three or more times per week and those who knitted
less frequently was in the use of knitting to forget about problems,

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4
Growth Curves for Tyrannosaurus
and Three Related Tyrannosaurids

Paleobiologist Gregory Erickson from Florida State University analyzed bones from 20 specimens of four
related tyrannosaurids, and found that they died between 2 and 28 years old. By plotting age against mass,
Erickson constructed growth curves for each species. Gorgosaurus and Albertosaurus gained weight more
rapidly from age 12 and reached their full size at about age 15, maxing out at around 1100 kilograms.
Daspletosaurus followed a similar trend but grew faster and reached 1800 kilograms. T. rex had a huge
growth spurt starting at age 14 and packed on 2 kilograms a day, reaching more than 5600 kilograms by age
18.5 years.

Which of the following choices best identifies a point of disagreement between the figure and Erickson’s
research?

A) The research lists the adult Albertosaurus as being equal in size to the adult Daspletosaurus, but the figure
indicates that at full size Daspletosaurus was heavier than Albertosaurus.
B) The research asserts that the four species lived at the same time, but the figure indicates that
Tyrannosaurus lived at a later period than the other three species did.
C) The research states that Albertosaurus and Gorgonsaurus reached full size at about age 15, but the figure
indicates that neither species reached full size until after 18.
D) The research implies that Tyrannosaurus had a faster rate of metabolism than the other three species, but
the figure indicates that all four species shared the same rate of metabolism.

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Scientists have found that trees growing over deeply buried deposits of gold ore sport leaves with higher-
than-normal concentrations of the glittering element. The finding provides an inexpensive, excavation-free
way to narrow the search for ore deposits.

According to the graph, the average concentration of gold in twigs between 200 and 400 meters from the
reference position is closest to the average concentration of gold in ______

A) leaves between 500 and 700 meters from the reference position.
B) soil between 200 and 400 meters from the reference position.
C) twigs between 500 and 700 meters from the reference position.
D) twigs between 800 and 1,000 meters from the reference position.

The English language has evolved over thousands of years, enabling us to communicate complex ideas
through abstraction. However, the recent resurgence of literal symbolism, like emojis, may limit our ability to
express abstract concepts. A Match.com study found that emojis are not replacing language, but rather
replacing inflection and making it easier to express emotions for some. Yet, emojis have a limitation: their
creation relies on existing language standards. This dependence on physical imagery and pre-existing
symbols prevents emojis from growing organically to represent abstract ideas, as they can only directly
translate the languages we speak now. While emojis may help convey emotions in certain contexts, they
could inadvertently hinder the development of language.

How would the author of the text response to the overall trend represented in the graph?

A) disapproval, because it suggests a decline in the complexity with which people communicate socially.
B) regret, because it indicates a loss of respect for the ancient history of contemporary English.
C) curiosity, because it hints at future developments in the ongoing evolution of language.
D) acceptance, because it points to continued growth in emoji use that is unlikely to reverse.

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The purple loosestrife, an invasive wetlands plant, has harmed native biodiversity in North America.
Evolutionary biologist Spencer Barrett and postdoctoral fellow Robert Colautti conducted a study to determine
whether the plant adapted to different climates. They found that the plant's adaptations, such as changes in
size and flowering times, were vital for its ability to thrive. The purple loosestrife in North America has more
genetic variability than its counterparts in Europe, Asia, or Africa, suggesting multiple introductions of the plant
from different continents. This genetic variability allowed for natural selection, enabling the plant's northward
migration.

Which choice best describes data from the graph that support the researchers' conclusion?

A) The total fruit production of North American purple loosestrife increases every year as the plants adapt
more completely to their surroundings.
B) The amount of fruit produced by purple loosestrife in North America each year exceeds that of purple
loosestrife on all other continents combined.
C) Purple loosestrife shows greater variation in mean fruit production from year to year in Virginia than it does
in Newmarket.
D) The mean fruit production of North American purple loosestrife is lower in climates with short growing
seasons than in climates with long growing seasons.

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A Georgetown University study by Douglas Blackiston found that adult tobacco hookworm moths can
remember things they learned as caterpillars. Blackiston trained the caterpillars to avoid the scent of ethyl
acetate, which is not naturally foul-smelling but reminiscent of pear drops. In the absence of electric shocks,
larvae exposed to the scent did not avoid it, nor did the adult moths they became. The study concluded that
some aspects of the caterpillar's nervous system carry over into adulthood, allowing them to retain memories
from their larval stage, but only if trained at the last stage before pupation, known as the “fifth instar”.

Which choice best describes data from the table that support the Blackiston’s theory about the adult tobacco
hornworms?

A) Adults that were trained with shocks during the third instar showed a greater preference for clean air than
did adult trained during the fifth instar.
B) Adults that were trained only with the shocks showed a greater preference for clean air than did adults that
were trained only with odor.
C) Adults that were trained only with shocks and ones only with odor showed about the same preference for
clean air as did untrained ones.
D) Adults that were trained with shocks and odors during the fifth instar showed about same preference for
clean air as did adults trained only with shocks.

A study found that people shown product images in color tend to focus on small details rather than practical
concerns such as cost and functionality. In contrast, viewing objects in black and white allows the brain to
focus on the most important aspects. The study revealed that students who saw product images in color were

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more likely to choose a more expensive, feature-rich product, even when those features were not useful, as
opposed to students who saw black-and-white images who made more practical choices.

Which statement about students' ratings of the importance of the radio's features in best supported by data in
the graph?

A) Students rated the radio's secondary feature as more important than its primary feature only when they
saw the radio in color.
B) Students rated the radio's primary feature as more important than its secondary feature regardless of
whether they saw the radio in black and white or in color.
C) Students rated the radio's primary feature as more important when they saw the radio in black and white
than when they saw it in color.
D) Students rated more features of the radio as very important when they saw it in black and white than when
they saw it in color.

10

Linda Henkel's study at the Bellarmine Museum of Art explored the impact of digital photography on memory.
Participants were given a digital camera and asked to view specific museum objects. They observed some
objects, photographed others whole, and zoomed in on details of some. The next day, their memory of the
objects and details was tested. Participants recognized fewer objects they'd photographed whole than those
they'd observed and were less accurate in recalling visual details. Henkel calls this the "photo-taking
impairment effect," suggesting that people dismiss objects from their memory if they know the camera
documented it. However, when participants zoomed in on objects, they remembered them as vividly as those
they had observed, overcoming the impairment effect. This implies that the act of zooming in on a detail
increases cognitive engagement.

Based on information provided in the table, which statement is true of both experiments?

A) Photographing a whole object leads to a less accurate recollection than does observing it.
B) Photographing a whole object leads to the most accurate recollection of its location.
C) Photographing part of an object leads to a more accurate recollection of detail than does observing it.
D) Photographing part of an object leads to greater accuracy in recalling the object's location than does
merely observing it.

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Studying moose metatarsal bones, researchers found that moose living on Isle Royale in Lake Superior have
evolved to be smaller than their mainland counterparts due to limited resources on the island. This
phenomenon, known as the "island rule," has been observed in other species like mini hippos and elephants
on Mediterranean islands, and a human ancestor in Indonesia.

Data presented in the figures most directly support which statement about metatarsal lengths in mainland
moose?

A) The metatarsal length interval with the highest frequency in females includes greater lengths than the
metatarsal length interval with the highest frequency in males.
B) More female metatarsals have been recovered than male metatarsals.
C) In males frequency increases as metatarsal length increases, whereas in females frequency decreases as
metatarsal length increases.
D) Female metatarsal lengths span a greater number of length intervals than do male metatarsal lengths.

12

Supplementing traditional training with virtual reality can make the training process faster. A recent
experiment demonstrated that welding students who took the training course with a virtual component
learned welding techniques more quickly than their peers who took the traditional course. On the relatively
simple horizontal fillet weld, which involves joining two perpendicular metal parts, students in the half-virtual
course completed the training in an average of 12.27 hours, while students in the traditional course took
15.05 hours, on average.

Which choice best describes data from the graph that support the researchers' conclusion?

A) The results demonstrated that half of the training for beginning welders can be carried out via virtual reality
technology.

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B) The results showed that this relatively simple weld actually took longer to learn than several more difficult
techniques.
C) The results were similar for the three more difficult welding techniques studied in the experiment.
D) The results suggested that virtual reality does not provide the same amount of training-time reduction for
every type of weld.

13

The Jordanelle Dam was built on the Provo River in Utah in 1992. Earth scientist Adriana E. Martinez and
colleagues tracked changes to the environment on the banks of the river downstream of the dam, including
how much grass and forest cover were present. They concluded that the dam changed the flow of the river in
ways that benefited grass plants but didn't benefit trees.

Which choice best describes data from the graph that support Martinez and colleagues' conclusion?

A. The lowest amount of grass cover was approximately 58,000 square meters, and the highest amount of
forest cover was approximately 75,000 square meters.
B. There was more grass cover than forest cover in 1987 , and this difference increased dramatically in 1993
and again in 2006.
C. There was less grass cover than bare soil in 1987 but more grass cover than bare soil in 1993 and 2006,
whereas there was more forest cover than bare soil in all three years.
D. Grass cover increased from 1987 to 1993 and from 1993 to 2006 , whereas forest cover decreased in
those periods.

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To understand how expressions of anger in reviews of products affect readers of those reviews, business
scholar Dezhi Yin and colleagues measured study participants' responses to three versions of the same
negative review-a control review expressing no anger, a review expressing a high degree of anger, and a
review expressing a low degree of anger. Reviewing the data, a student concludes that the mere presence of
anger in a review may not negatively affect readers' perceptions of the review, but a high degree of anger in
a review does worsen readers' perceptions of the review.

Which choice best describes data from the graph that support the students' conclusion?

A. On average, participants' ratings of the helpfulness of the review were substantially higher than were
participants' ratings of the reviewed product regardless of which type of review participants had seen.
B. Compared with participants who saw the control review, participants who saw the low-anger review rated
the review as slightly more helpful, whereas participants who saw the high-anger review rated the review as
less helpful.
C. Participants who saw the low-anger review rated the review as slightly more helpful than participants who
saw the control review did, but participants' attitude toward the reviewed product was slightly worse when
participants saw the low-anger review than when they saw the no-anger review.
D. Compared with participants who saw the low-anger review, participants who saw the high-anger review
rated the review as less helpful and had a less positive attitude toward the reviewed product.

15

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In high concentrations, hydrogen (H2S) is typically toxic to many plants. Frederick D. Dooley and colleagues
wanted to understand what effects low doses of H2S might have on plant growth. They treated bean, corn,
wheat, and pea seeds with various concentrations (measured in micromoles per liter) of H2S and tracked the
germination of those seeds along with the germination of untreated seeds. Treatment with particular
concentrations of H2S was associated with accelerated germination: for example, ______

Which choice most effectively uses data from the graph to complete the statement?

A. at 24 hours, less than 10% of seeds treated with H2S at a concentration of 10 micromoles per liter had
germinated, whereas more than 90% of those seeds had germinated at 168 hours.
B. at 48 hours, more than 70% of seeds treated with H2S at a concentration of 10 micromoles per liter had
germinated, whereas only approximately 50% of untreated seeds had germinated.
C. at 168 hours, more than 90% of seeds treated with H2S at concentrations of 10 or 500 micromoles per liter
had germinated, whereas less than H2S of untreated seeds had germinated.
D. at 48 hours, approximately 50% of seeds treated with H2S at a concentration of 10 micromoles per liter
had germinated, whereas only approximately 30% of untreated seeds had germinated.

16

Flint artifacts dating to 800,000 to 1,000,000 years ago have been recovered from the Evron Quarry in Israel.
Likely created by the hominin Homo erectus, the artifacts have no visual features suggesting that they were
exposed to fire, leading some scholars to conclude that these hominins had not acquired control of fire. But
Zane Stepka and colleagues recently used a new method to determine whether these artifacts had been
exposed to temperatures above 400°C (the typical temperature campfires reach) and concluded that the
hominins who inhabited the site may have had control of fire.

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Which choice best describes data in the graph that support the team's conclusion?

A. Artifacts K5_106 and K3_9 were exposed to temperatures above 400°C.

B. Artifacts L5_239 and K3_18 were exposed to temperatures of approximately 550°C and 650°C,
respectively.
C. All of the artifacts were exposed to temperatures above 100°C.
D. Artifact K3_9 was exposed to a higher temperature than was artifact K5_106.

17

A student is researching monthly hours of sunshine in different cities in Alaska. When comparing trends in
Anchorage and Fairbanks, the student concludes that the two cities show a similar pattern in the monthly
hours of sunshine from April to September.

Which choice best describes data from the graph that support the student's conclusion?

A. The monthly hours of sunshine in both Anchorage and Fairbanks hold steady in June and July before
beginning to decline in August.
B. The monthly hours of sunshine in both Anchorage and Fairbanks increase from April to June and then
decrease from June to September.
C. Anchorage and Fairbanks both have less than 200 monthly hours of sunshine from April to September.
D. Anchorage and Fairbanks both have more than 300 monthly hours of sunshine from April to June and less
than 200 hours from July to September.

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To investigate the effect of lizard predation on spider populations, a student in a biology class placed spiders
in two enclosures, one with lizards and one without, and tracked the number of spiders in the enclosures for
30 days. The student concluded that the reduction in the spider population count in the enclosure with lizards
by day 30 was entirely attributable to the presence of the lizards.

Which choice best describes data from the graph that weaken the student's conclusion?

A. The spider population count was the same in both enclosures on day 1 .
B. The spider population count also substantially declined by day 30 in the enclosure without lizards.
C. The largest decline in spider population count in the enclosure with lizards occurred from day 1 to day 10 .
D. The spider population count on day 30 was lower in the enclosure with lizards than in the enclosure
without lizards.

19

Many plants lose their leaf color when exposed to kanamycin, an antibiotic produced by some soil
microorganisms. Spelman College biologist Mentewab Ayalew and her colleagues hypothesized that plants'
response to kanamycin exposure involves altering their uptake of metals, such as iron and zinc. The
researchers grew two groups of seedlings of the plant Arabidopsis thaliana, half of which were exposed to
kanamycin and half of which were a control group without exposure to kanamycin, and measured the plants'
metal content five days after germination.

Which choice best describes data in the graph that support Ayalew and her colleagues' hypothesis?

A. The control plants contained higher levels of zinc than iron, but plants exposed to kanamycin contained
higher levels of iron than zinc.
B. Both groups of plants contained more than 200 parts per million of both iron and zinc.
C. Zinc levels were around 300 parts per million in the control plants but nearly 400 parts per million in the
plants exposed to kanamycin.
D. The plants exposed to kanamycin showed lower levels of iron and zinc than the control plants did.

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After a volcanic eruption spilled lava into North Pacific Ocean waters, a dramatic increase of diatoms (a kind
of phytoplankton) near the surface occurred. Scientists assumed the diatoms were thriving on nutrients such
as phosphate from the lava, but analysis showed these nutrients weren't present near the surface in forms
diatoms can consume. However, there was an abundance of usable nitrate, a nutrient usually found in much
deeper water and almost never found in lava. Microbial oceanographer Sonya Dyhrman and colleagues
believe that as the lava plunged nearly 300 meters below the surface it dislodged pockets of this nutrient,
releasing it to float upward, given that ______

Which choice most effectively uses data from the table to complete the statement?

A. at 5-45 meters below the surface, the average concentration of phosphate was about the same in the
seawater in the lava-affected area as in the seawater outside of the lava-affected area.
B. for both depth ranges measured, the average concentrations of nitrate were substantially higher in the
seawater in the lava-affected area than in the seawater outside of the lava-affected area.
C. for both depth ranges measured in the seawater in the lava-affected area, the average concentrations of
nitrate were substantially higher than the average concentrations of phosphate.
D. in the seawater outside of the lava-affected area, there was little change in the average concentration of
nitrate from 75–125 meters below the surface to 5–45 meters below the surface.

21

The share of the world's population living in cities has increased dramatically since 1970 , but this change
has not been uniform. France and Japan, for example, were already heavily urbanized in 1970 , with \(70 \%\)
or more of the population living in cities. The main contributors to the world's urbanization since 1970 have
been countries like Algeria, whose population went from ______

Which choice most effectively uses data from the graph to complete the assertion?

A. around 50% urban in 1970 to around 90% urban in 2020.

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B. less than 40% urban in 1970 to around 90% urban in 2020.

C. less than 20% urban in 1970 to more than 50% urban in 2020.
D. around 40% urban in 1970 to more than 70% urban in 2020.

22

Some whale species practice lunge feeding, in which they lunge toward prey with their mouths open at wide
angles, collect the prey and the surrounding water, and then filter out the water through baleen plates in their
mouths. Although the volume of water engulfed increases with whales' body length, the surface area of
whales' baleen plates, which influences the rate at which water can be filtered, does not increase with body
length to the same degree, which helps explain why ______

Which choice most effectively uses data from the table to complete the statement?

A. minke whales and humpback whales show similar average filter times.
B. humpback whales show an average of 6.28 lunges per dive.
C. fin whales show a longer average filter time than minke whales do.
D. blue whales show the longest average filter time and the highest average number of lunges per dive.

23

To investigate the influence of certain estrogen-responsive neurons on energy expenditure, biologist

Stephanie Correa et al. treated female and male mice with either saline solution or clozapine-N4-oxide
(CNO), which activates the neurons. Monitoring the activity levels of the mice by measuring how frequently
the animals broke infrared beams crossing their enclosures, Correa et al. found that the mice in their study
showed sex-specific differences in response to neuron activation: ______

Which choice most effectively uses data from the graph to complete the assertion?

A. the four groups of mice differed greatly in their activity levels before treatment but showed identical activity
levels at the end of the monitoring period.

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B. saline-treated females showed substantially more activity at certain points in the monitoring period than
salinetreated males did.
C. CNO-treated females showed more activity relative to saline-treated females than CNO-treated males
showed relative to saline-treated males.
D. CNO-treated females showed a substantial increase and then decline in activity over the monitoring
period, whereas CNO-treated males showed a substantial decline in activity followed by a steep increase.

24

E-books became an increasingly popular means of reading in the United States in the 2000s and 2010s,
though that popularity was concentrated in titles that, like those in most fiction genres, are meant to be read
straight through from beginning to end. For books in nonfiction genres that do not tell stories and require the
reader to flip back and forth through a volume, e-books were significantly less commercially successful. This
can be seen by comparing ______

Which choice most effectively uses data from the table to illustrate the claim?

A. the percentage of 2016 cookbook sales that were e-books with the percentage of 2016 science fiction and
fantasy sales that were e-books.
B. the percentage of 2006 romance sales that were e-books with the percentage of 2016 romance sales that
were ebooks.
C. the percentage of 2006 romance sales that were e-books with the 2006 science fiction and fantasy sales
that were ebooks.
D. the percentage of 2011 travel guide sales that were e-books with the percentage of 2016 travel guide
sales that were e-books.

25

"Hot Jupiters" are gas planets that have a mass of at least 0.25 Jupiters (meaning that their mass is at least
25% of that of Jupiter) and an orbital period of less than 10 days (meaning that they complete one orbit
around their star in less than 10 days), while "warm Jupiters" are gas planets that meet the same mass
criterion but have orbital periods of more than 10 days. In 2021, Michigan State University astronomer
Joseph Rodriguez and colleagues announced the discovery of five new gas exoplanets and asserted that
four are hot Jupiters and one is a warm Jupiter.

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Which choice best describes data from the table that support Rodriguez and colleagues' assertion?

A. None of the planets have an orbital period of more than 10 days, and TOI-628 b has a mass of 6.33
Jupiters.
B. TOI-1478 b has an orbital period of 153 days, and the masses of all the planets range from 0.85 to 6.33
Jupiters.
C. All the planets have a radius between 1.060 and 1.771 Jupiters, and only TOI-1333 b has an orbital period
of more than 10 days.
D. Each of the planets has a mass greater than 0.25 Jupiters, and all except for TOI-1478 b have an orbital
period of less than 10 days.

26

All other things being equal, the larger a wind turbine's rotor diameter (the diameter of the imaginary circle
swept by the turbine's rotating blades), the greater amount of energy the turbine can generate. In a research
paper on wind power, a student claims that in the United States, the amount of energy generated per newly
installed turbine increased substantially between 2011 and 2021.

Which choice best describes data in the graph that support the student's claim?

A. The percentage of newly installed turbines with rotor diameters greater than 130 meters increased every
year between 2011 and 2021.
B. In 2011 , nearly 80% of turbines installed had rotor diameters of less than 100 meters, whereas only a little
more than 20% of turbines installed that year had rotor diameters of 100-115 meters.
C. No turbines installed in 2011 had rotor diameters greater than 115 meters, whereas the majority of
turbines installed in 2021 had rotor diameters greater than 130 meters.
D. Most turbines installed in 2011 had rotor diameters of less than 100 meters, whereas most turbines
installed in 2021 had rotor diameters of at least 115 meters.

27

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Economists Kerwin Kofi Charles and Melvin Stephens Jr. investigated a variety of factors that influence voter
turnout in the United States. Using survey data that revealed whether respondents voted in national elections
and how knowledgeable respondents are about politics, Charles and Stephens claim that the likelihood of
voting is driven in part by potential voters' confidence in their assessments of candidates—essentially, the
more informed voters are about politics, the more confident they are at evaluating whether candidates share
their views, and thus the more likely they are to vote.

Which choice best describes data in the graph that support Charles and Stephens's claim?

A. At each point on the political orientation scale, high-information voters were more likely than low-
information voters to vote.
B. Only low-information voters who identify as independents had a voting probability below 50%.
C. The closer that low-information voters are to the ends of the political orientation scale, the more likely they
were to vote.
D. High-information voters were more likely to identify as strong Democrats or strong Republicans than low-
information voters were.

28

(Rows in table may not add up to 100 due to rounding.)

Georgia Tech roboticists De'Aira Bryant and Ayanna Howard, along with ethicist Jason Borenstein, were
interested in people's perceptions of robots' competence. They recruited participants and asked them how
likely they think it is that a robot could do the work required in various occupations. Participants' evaluations
varied widely depending on which occupation was being considered; for example,

Which choice most effectively uses data from the table to complete the example?

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A. 47% of participants believe that it is somewhat or very likely that a robot could work effectively as a
teacher, but 37% of respondents believe that it is somewhat or very unlikely that a robot could do so.
B. 9% of participants were neutral about whether a robot could work effectively as a television news anchor,
which is the same percent of participants who were neutral when asked about a robot working as a surgeon.
C. 82% of participants believe that it is somewhat or very likely that a robot could work effectively as a tour
guide, but only 16% believe that it is somewhat or very likely that a robot could work as a surgeon.
D. 62% of participants believe that it is somewhat or very unlikely that a robot could work effectively as a
firefighter.

29

To test the effects of a nitrogen fertilizer on cantaloupe production, researchers grew cantaloupe plants and
harvested their fruit over three years. In each year, half the plants were grown using a nitrogen fertilizer, and
the other half were grown using a control fertilizer that contained no nitrogen. The researchers concluded that
the nitrogen fertilizer increases cantaloupe yield.

Which choice best describes data in the graph that support the researchers' conclusion?

A. In every year of the experiment, plants treated with the nitrogen fertilizer had a yield of at least 30 pounds
per acre.
B. In every year of the experiment, plants treated with the nitrogen fertilizer had a greater yield than did plants
treated with the control fertilizer.
C. The 2018 yield for plants treated with the control fertilizer was greater than was the 2019 yield for plants
treated with the nitrogen fertilizer.
D. The yield for plants treated with the nitrogen fertilizer increased from 2017 to 2018.

30

In a survey of public perceptions of energy use, researcher Shahzeen Attari and her team asked respondents
to name the most effective action ordinary people can take to conserve energy. The team categorized each
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action as either an efficiency or a curtailment and found that respondents tended to name curtailments more
often than they did efficiencies. For example, 19.6% of respondents stated that the most effective way to
conserve energy is to turn off the lights, while only ______

Which choice most effectively uses data from the table to complete the text?

A. 6.3% of respondents said it was most effective to use efficient cars or hybrids.
B. 2.8% of respondents said it was most effective to change the thermostat setting.
C. 12.9% of respondents said it was most effective to use a bike or public transportation.
D. 3.6% of respondents said it was most effective to use efficient light bulbs.

31

Gabrielle Adams and colleagues reviewed suggestions for improving a university that had been submitted to
the university's president. They coded each suggestion as additive (the idea suggested adding something
new to the university), subtractive (the idea suggested removing something from the university), neither
additive nor subtractive, or invalid (the idea was not comprehensible). The data illustrated people's tendency
to overlook the possibility of removing things to achieve improvements:

Which choice most effectively uses data in the graph to complete the statement?

A. around 175 suggestions were coded as neither additive nor subtractive, whereas around 575 suggestions
were coded as additive.
B. more than 350 suggestions were coded as invalid, whereas fewer than 100 suggestions were coded as
subtractive.
C. fewer than 100 suggestions were coded as subtractive, whereas more than 550 suggestions were coded
as additive.
D. around 575 suggestions were coded as additive, whereas around 175 suggestions were coded as
subtractive.

32

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A group of researchers working in Europe, Asia, and Oceania conducted a study to determine how quickly
different Eurasian languages are typically spoken (in syllables per second) and how much information they
can effectively convey (in bits per second). They found that, although languages vary widely in the speed at
which they are spoken, the amount of information languages can effectively convey tends to vary much less.
Thus, they claim that two languages with very different spoken rates can nonetheless convey the same
amount of information in a given amount of time.

Which choice best describes data from the table that support the researchers' claim?

A. Among the five languages in the table, Thai and Hungarian have the lowest rates of speech and the
lowest rates of information conveyed.
B. Vietnamese conveys information at approximately the same rate as Spanish despite being spoken at a
slower rate.
C. Among the five languages in the table, the language that is spoken the fastest is also the language that
conveys information the fastest.
D. Serbian and Spanish are spoken at approximately the same rate, but Serbian conveys information faster
than Spanish does.

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Unit 11: Everything Everywhere All At Once —Command

of Evidence : Inferences

LEAD-IN_

Could Everything Everywhere All at Once write a new future for

Hollywood?
— Film critic says the industry is in the midst of change —

Hayden Szeto loved Everything Everywhere All At Once so much, he couldn't recall the last time he was
so excited to bring his friends to the movies — or anyone else.

"If aliens came down to Earth and were like, 'Hey, what's a movie?' I'd be like, show them that one. Show
them Everything Everywhere All At Once," said the Vancouver-born actor, best known for his role in 2016's
The Edge of Seventeen.

"That's a movie. Like, it encompasses everything that we want in a movie: Heart, action, acting, direction,
cinematography, humour, sadness, drama, anything. It's all in one bagel."

It's the darling of the 2023 awards season: Everything Everywhere All At Once is the most nominated film
at this Sunday's Oscars (11 nods), and a serious front-runner for best picture, best director, best actress
and best supporting actor.

But beyond the wave of accolades, the film's lightning-in-a-bottle success could also mark a watershed
moment for Asian representation in Hollywood — and not just a false start, according to Asian Canadian
actors, filmmakers and critics who spoke with CBC News.

A turning point for Asian representation

Everything Everywhere tells the story of a Chinese American immigrant named Evelyn (Michelle Yeoh),
the co-owner of a laundromat with her husband Waymond (Ke Huy Quan). She has a tense relationship
with their daughter Joy (Stephanie Hsu), who wants mom to acknowledge and accept that she is gay. The
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family is saddled with bills and debt, and the couple is on

the verge of divorce — crushed by the reality of the
American Dream.

Then Evelyn is pulled into a fantastic multiverse where she

discovers that all of existence is threatened. Only she can
save it by exploring its dimensions and experiencing the
alternate lives that she could have led, including that of a
kung fu fighter and a movie star — but she also begins to
understand her daughter's despair and her husband's
feelings of neglect.

Ethan Eng, a 22-year-old Chinese-Canadian filmmaker who co-stars in his directorial debut Therapy
Dogs, said that Everything Everywhere All At Once demonstrated that there isn't just a single blueprint for
Asian representation in film.

"You can be good, you can be bad, you can be wild. It's a whole universe, you could say, of possibilities
and I think that's what freedom of identity is," Eng said.

"What this movie has done, in terms of [showing] a scope of identity and really breaking that open and
letting everybody kind of experience that on the big screen — I think it's really special."

A mile-a-minute kaleidoscope of strange characters, high-powered action sequences and silly concepts
(hot dog fingers, anyone?), Everything Everywhere's success is a bizarre feat in the current industry
landscape, according to Toronto-based film critic Rachel Ho.

But even with its specific, tender depiction of the Chinese

American experience, people of all backgrounds have latched
onto the universal message of the film, a story of wanting
"other people to accept and love what you have discovered
about yourself," she said.

It's not the first time that a movie with a predominantly Asian
cast has prompted conversation of change in Hollywood. The 1993 film Joy Luck Club, for example, was
supposed to mark a crossroads in Asian representation on screen — "and then nothing happened," Ho
said.

"It wasn't until Crazy Rich Asians came out that it just seemed to hit at a time that the world kind of
seemed ready for it," she added, as audiences and the industry seek out diverse stories from underheard
perspectives, and as immigrant communities continue to grow and establish a diaspora.

"Sometimes it can be frustrating when you think that you're on the cusp of change and it doesn't happen,"
said Ho. "But I think we're definitely in the midst of it right now."

Leads show challenge for Asian actors in Hollywood

"The result of Everything Everywhere is the culmination of many, many things," said Szeto. When the
actor first moved to Los Angeles from Vancouver, his family members worried that there weren't enough
roles for Asian-Americans in Hollywood — and encouraged him to go to Hong Kong instead to do kung fu
cinema.

"I'm like, you know what, I'm not going to — no. The whole point is to run against the wave," he said. "And
you know, I went into this blind.… You just gotta keep running."

Szeto's determination echoes that of Everything Everywhere supporting actor Ke Huy Quan. The
Vietnamese American actor had a promising career as a child star in the 1980s, thanks to roles in Indiana
Jones and the Temple of Doom and The Goonies.
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But the roles dried up, and Quan thought he'd never be an actor
again, instead working as an assistant director and a stunt
coordinator to stay close to his dream. Until Everything
Everywhere came along — now, he'll forever be known as an
Academy Award-nominated actor.

His co-star Michelle Yeoh has had a completely different

trajectory, as one of the most successful actresses to come out of
Hong Kong cinema and its renowned kung fu subgenre.

Translating that success over to Hollywood, however, took a long

time — demonstrating the range of barriers that Asian actors
face. The actress has spoken candidly about the challenges of
working in the U.S., including the racism she experienced, or a
dearth of authentic, non-stereotypical roles for Asian women.

Yeoh and her Hong Kong cinema peers "weren't being offered the roles that they found interesting in
Hollywood. They were more stereotypical. They were more kind of just exactly what you would think that
they would be offered. Whereas [in] Hong Kong and in mainland China, they're being offered something a
lot more interesting," said Ho.

So while Yeoh's recognition in Hollywood is welcome, it wasn't necessary for the success of her career.
As the actress said during her Golden Globes acceptance speech, she had a really great run before
Everything Everywhere All At Once, but that film was "the best gift."

The success of these two performers might be historical, too: Yeoh, nominated for best actress, could be
the first Southeast Asian performer to win in her category, and Quan, nominated for best supporting actor,
could be the second-ever Asian performer to win best supporting actor during Sunday's Oscars
ceremony.

What more can be done?

"I don't think we're going to see a slew of movies that are going to be Everything Everywhere All At Once-
esque. But I think hopefully the best outcome for this is that we see a slew of movies that are just so fully
individual to the person that made it. And I think that's an important thing," said Eng, the young director.

There's still a ton of ground to break, both in Asian and Asian diaspora cinema, says Ho. The latter
category has seen several recent successes, like 2020's Minari, about a South Korean family who
immigrate to North America in the 1980s, or 2019's The Farewell, about a Chinese American woman's
relationship with her ailing grandmother, whose cancer diagnosis is known to everyone in the family but
her.

"I think there's always more to be done and I'd love to see more, particularly more of the diaspora," she
added. "It's nice to see that we're kind of getting into the arts a little bit more and we have our own stories
to tell and they're not necessarily always the sad, challenging immigrant story."

Szeto said he's glad the movie did what it did: "Everybody had an arc. Nobody was perfect. And it
happened to be an Asian American family, a Chinese American family," he said.

"You just happen to have these shepherds of this story be Asian, and you don't think about it."

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EXAM SKILLS_

Inference questions on the Reading and Writing section of the Digital SAT often require you to analyze a
passage that presents an unfinished discussion about an unfamiliar subject. Based on the provided
details, you are expected to select the choice that most logically concludes the text.

Here's how a Command of Evidence—Inferences question might appear:

1
The consumption of processed foods has increased significantly over the last few decades. The high amounts
of sugar and unhealthy fats in these foods contribute to an array of health problems, including obesity and
heart disease. As a result, frequent intake of processed foods can negatively impact overall health. This trend,
along with the rising prevalence of fast-food chains, elucidates the growing health crisis in urban areas: there
is a higher prevalence of lifestyle diseases in urban settings because ______

Which option most logically completes the text?

A) processed foods are convenient and readily available in urban areas.

B) most people in urban areas lack the knowledge about the health effects of processed foods.
C) maintaining a balanced diet in urban settings is challenging due to busy lifestyles.
D) urban areas have fewer options for fresh, unprocessed food.

Approaching Inferences Questions

Inference questions essentially test your ability to form connections between information and construct
logical arguments. Every argument comprises two main parts: premises and a conclusion.
• Premises are the building blocks of an argument. They provide the facts or statements on which
the argument is constructed. When linked appropriately, premises should offer robust evidence
supporting the argument's conclusion.
• The conclusion is the central point that the author of the argument aims to substantiate.

In the sample question above, we should first summarize the key points:
1. Processed food consumption has dramatically increased.
2. These foods often contain unhealthy components that can lead to health issues.
3. Regular consumption of processed foods can have a negative impact on health.
4. There is a higher occurrence of lifestyle diseases in urban environments.

In this case, the first three points act as premises, and the fourth point is the conclusion of the
argument.

The blank occurs after the word "because," indicating that we're looking for a premise that supports the
conclusion rather than another conclusion. Our objective is to select the option that completes the
premises and logically supports the given conclusion. The right choice would be Option A.

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Sometimes, an inference passage might present a set of premises and your job is to infer the logical
conclusion. In other cases, the passage might contain the conclusion, and you need to identify the gap in
the premises that needs to be filled.

Regardless of the scenario, the fundamental task remains the same: figure out what the argument is
missing and fill that gap with the correct choice from the provided options.

In-class activity: (Optional)

Activity: "Hollywood Meets Asia: Movie Poster Creation"

Objective: This activity encourages creativity and critical thinking, and students learn about the influence
of Asian cinema in Hollywood in an engaging and interactive way.

Materials Required:
• Laptops/tablets/phones with access to Canva

Instructions:

• Introduction (3 minutes): Briefly explain the rise and influence of Asian cinema in Hollywood.
Mention successful films like "Crazy Rich Asians," "Parasite," or actors like Jackie Chan, Bruce
Lee, who have played a significant role in this trend.
• Research (5 minutes): Divide students into groups and ask them to use their phones or laptops to
research a popular Asian movie or actor that has made a significant impact in Hollywood.
• Poster Creation (10 minutes): Each group creates a movie poster that represents the influence of
Asian culture in Hollywood. They can either redesign a poster of an existing movie or create a
new movie concept that embodies this fusion. The poster should clearly show the influence of
Asian culture.
• Presentation (10 minutes): Each group quickly presents their poster, explaining the elements of
Asian influence they included and why.

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PRACTICE EXERCISES

1
The recognition and acclaim of Asian films, especially South Korean cinema, has been increasing significantly
over the last few years. This trend reached its apex with the movie 'Parasite', which was awarded Best Picture
at the Oscars, a first for a non-English language film. This development, paired with the ongoing push for
diversity and representation in Hollywood, prompts a noticeable shift in the American film industry: The
increasing inclusion of diverse narratives and styles in Hollywood occurs because ______"

Which choice most logically completes the text?

A) American audiences have started appreciating foreign films more than domestic ones.
B) Hollywood is acknowledging the global influence and cinematic value of international films like 'Parasite'.
C) The Oscar recognition of 'Parasite' has encouraged more Asian filmmakers to work in Hollywood.
D) The successful financial returns of 'Parasite' has motivated Hollywood to invest in more foreign films.

2
The success of the Hollywood blockbuster, Crazy Rich Asians, has been linked to its unique storytelling
approach and representation of Asian culture. This has been regarded as a groundbreaking shift in an
industry where Asian characters have often been relegated to stereotypes. The phenomenon of the movie's
popularity was initially attributed to this paradigm shift in representation. However, new data shows a
significant correlation between the movie's success and the increasing global influence of Asian economies,
as well as the growing Asian diaspora communities worldwide. Given this data, it seems that the success of
Crazy Rich Asians isn't solely a result of its novel representation of Asian characters and culture, implying that
______

Which choice most logically completes the text?

A) Hollywood's previous attempts at diversifying representation have been ineffective.

B) there are other contributing factors to the success of Crazy Rich Asians that go beyond its unique
storytelling and representation.
C) Crazy Rich Asians would not have been successful without the global rise of Asian economies.
D) the representation of Asian characters and culture in Hollywood needs further exploration.

3
In recent years, the rise of Asian-American filmmakers in Hollywood has been noticeably significant. These
directors and writers have not only been gaining more recognition, but their films have also been achieving
great commercial success. For instance, films like 'The Farewell' and 'Minari' have earned critical acclaim and
box-office hits. This change is concurrent with an increased demand for diversity in storytelling and
representation in the film industry. Yet, a deeper look into the film industry's structure reveals a still-dominant
traditional system that usually favors well-established names. Despite this, the successful influx of Asian-
American filmmakers suggests that ______

Which choice most logically completes the text?

A) Hollywood is becoming more open to diversity, enabling Asian-American filmmakers to break through.
B) Asian-American filmmakers have been successful despite the traditional system, indicating a shift in
audience preferences.
C) The rise of Asian-American filmmakers is a temporary trend that might fade away soon.
D) The traditional system of Hollywood is beginning to collapse, making way for new filmmakers.

4
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The phenomenal success of Asian heroine Mulan has been witnessed predominantly in Asian markets, where
the story originates and resonates with local audiences. However, recent studies and box-office figures
suggest that the appeal of Mulan is not confined to these regions. In fact, this character is also gaining
substantial popularity in the Western market, particularly in Hollywood. This trend is surprising to some, given
the cultural differences between these regions. Analysts argue that Mulan's success in Hollywood occurs
because ______

Which choice most logically completes the text?

A) Asian stories are inherently more engaging and exciting.

B) Hollywood is making concerted efforts to diversify its content.
C) There is an increased interest in Asian culture and narratives among Western audiences.
D) Asian culture often has universal themes that transcend cultural boundaries.

5
Typically, an Oscar nomination is expected to happen under the condition of exceptional performance and
critical acclaim. But in the case of many talented Asian-American actors prior to Steven Yeun, this recognition
did not occur, despite their performances being lauded by critics and audiences alike. This historical oversight
suggests that the issue lies in ______

Which choice most logically completes the text?

A) The actors' inability to choose roles that appeal to the Oscar committee.
B) The lack of representation and diversity in the Oscar nomination committee.
C) The quality of films that these actors have participated in.
D) The lack of support and marketing by film production companies for these actors during the award season.

6
The theory that Hollywood films have historically been dominated by Western-centric narratives is widely
accepted, and this is often used to explain the scarcity of diverse and substantial roles for actors of Asian
descent. This trend has perpetuated stereotypes and limited opportunities for these actors. However, there
have been notable exceptions to this rule. One such instance is the case of Bruce Lee, an Asian actor who
not only made a name for himself in Hollywood but also significantly influenced the film industry. His roles
often broke away from the conventional portrayals of Asian characters, projecting a powerful and charismatic
image that was hitherto unseen. His impact on Hollywood and the roles he played could be much different
from ______

Which choice most logically completes the text?

A) The stereotypical roles typically offered to Asian actors, which often reinforced harmful stereotypes.
B) The roles played by other prominent Western actors of his time, which were largely diverse and complex.
C) The common expectation of Asian actors being confined to martial arts roles, even though Lee himself was
a martial artist.
D) The characters he portrayed in his own produced movies in Hong Kong, which were more aligned with the
cultural context there.

7
Hollywood has long been criticized for its lack of diversity and representation, specifically for
underrepresented Asian communities. Although the recent wave of Asian-led films such as 'Crazy Rich
Asians', 'The Farewell', and 'Parasite' has shown promising results in addressing this underrepresentation, it
still fails in situations where Asian characters are still frequently cast in stereotypical roles or not at all. For
example, a study conducted in 2020 revealed that despite the positive trend, a considerable proportion of top-

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grossing movies still lacked significant Asian or Asian-American characters. This demonstrates the ongoing
challenge of diversity and representation in the film industry. A possible solution would be ______

Which choice most logically completes the text?

A) To introduce quotas for Asian representation in all film genres.

B) To limit the number of Western-centric films being produced each year.
C) To create more opportunities for Asian directors and writers, who can bring authentic Asian narratives to
the big screen.
D) To only cast Asian actors in lead roles for a period of time.

8
Jackie Chan is not just a global icon in the world of martial arts cinema, but he has also successfully ventured
into various other fields of entertainment. His success in martial arts films such as 'Rush Hour' and 'Police
Story' is largely due to his unique blend of action and comedy, which has redefined the genre. Meanwhile,
Chan has also shown remarkable achievement in the field of music, having released several albums in
different languages and even won a few music awards. His musical style often blends pop, rock, and
traditional Chinese music elements, creating a unique listening experience for the audience. His work in
music has a distinct sense of humor and playfulness, which could be considered similar to ______

Which choice most logically completes the text?

A) The way he infuses humor into his martial arts sequences.

B) The traditional acting techniques used in Chinese theater.
C) The contemporary pop music scene in Hong Kong—Jackie Chan’s hometown.
D) The dramatic elements seen in Hollywood action movies.

9
Riz Ahmed's performance in 'Sound of Metal' has been hailed as powerful and transformative. In the film,
Ahmed plays a drummer who begins to lose his hearing, a role that required him to learn both drumming and
American Sign Language (ASL). Critics have lauded his performance for its authenticity and emotional depth.
Despite this, the film struggled to secure mainstream recognition initially, but as more and more people have
seen the film, word-of-mouth has led to a surge in its popularity. This suggests that the success of 'Sound of
Metal' is largely due to ______

Which choice most logically completes the text?

A) Riz Ahmed's prior fame and reputation.

B) The unique storyline of the film.
C) Riz Ahmed's authentic and emotionally deep performance.
D) The effective use of ASL in the movie.

10
The impact of Asian-American writers in Hollywood is gradually being acknowledged. Amy Tan, renowned for
her best-selling novel 'The Joy Luck Club', which was also adapted into a successful film, is often celebrated
for her contributions to literature. Less recognized, however, is her work in Hollywood's writers' rooms, where
she helped pave the way for other Asian-American voices. She served as a creative consultant on several
television series, lending her unique perspective and expertise to the crafting of compelling narratives.
Despite her literary fame, Tan's efforts in championing representation and diversity in Hollywood often fly
under the radar. This suggests that ______

Which choice most logically completes the text?

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A) Amy Tan's writing is more appreciated in the literary world than in Hollywood.
B) Hollywood doesn't value the contributions of Asian-American writers.
C) Amy Tan's full range of achievements is not adequately acknowledged.
D) Hollywood is resistant to increasing representation and diversity in writers' rooms.

11
Acclaimed filmmaker Ang Lee has directed several successful films in Hollywood, including the
groundbreaking 'Brokeback Mountain'. Lee's success has spotlighted the potential of Asian directors in
Western cinema. However, despite the increasing prevalence of successful films directed by Asian
filmmakers, there remains a lack of proportional representation of Asian directors in Hollywood. This pattern
has led to numerous calls for policy changes in the film industry to promote diversity and inclusion. Yet, the
slow progress, despite these calls, indicates that ______

Which choice most logically completes the text?

A) Ang Lee's success is an isolated case and doesn't reflect the overall state of Asian representation in
Hollywood.
B) The film industry has not effectively addressed the lack of Asian representation in directorial roles.
C) There is a lack of qualified Asian directors for Hollywood to consider.
D) The audience doesn't respond well to films directed by Asian filmmakers.

12
Renowned composer Tan Dun, known for his fusion of Western and Eastern musical traditions, initially
gained recognition in Hollywood for his distinct incorporation of Asian elements into film scores, like in the
Oscar-winning score for "Crouching Tiger, Hidden Dragon". However, his later compositions, such as the
score for "Hero", although less explicit in their use of Asian instruments and melodies, were still highly
acclaimed. This shift in Tan Dun's musical style and the continued success of his work imply that ______

Which choice most logically completes the text?

A) Tan Dun's versatility in composing music is a key to his enduring success.

B) Hollywood has grown less interested in Asian-influenced scores.
C) "Hero" was not as successful as "Crouching Tiger, Hidden Dragon".
D) Asian elements are no longer popular in Hollywood film scores.

13
There's a widely held belief in Hollywood that casting Asian actors in leading roles could limit a film's
commercial success due to a perceived lack of global appeal. However, Korean-American actor John Cho
has consistently challenged this notion. Cho's roles in the successful "Harold & Kumar" films and the "Star
Trek" reboot series, where he played the iconic character Hikaru Sulu, have shown that diverse casting can
resonate with a broad audience. In addition, his lead role in the groundbreaking film "Searching", which was
critically acclaimed and commercially successful, further defies traditional casting expectations. These recent
developments suggest that ______

Which choice most logically completes the text?

A) John Cho's acting skill is the primary factor in his success.

B) Hollywood's belief about casting Asian actors may not be universally accurate.
C) "Searching" was a turning point for Asian actors in Hollywood.
D) The "Star Trek" reboot series was critical in challenging Hollywood's casting notions.

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14
When British actor Dev Patel first emerged in the film industry with his breakthrough role in "Slumdog
Millionaire," many expected this to lead to a surge of diverse narratives in Hollywood, particularly those
showcasing South Asian stories. However, this trend did not immediately take off as anticipated. Instead,
Patel's career took a unique trajectory, with him choosing to portray a variety of characters in a range of film
genres. His critically acclaimed performance in "Lion" underscored his ability to authentically portray complex
characters, irrespective of the cultural context. This observed career path, diverging from the initial
expectations, suggests that ______

Which choice most logically completes the text?

A) Dev Patel's acting prowess is the key to his success.

B) The slow uptake of diverse narratives in Hollywood could be due to a lack of readiness in the industry to
embrace these stories.
C) There may be other variables at play influencing the relationship between Patel's success and the
expected increase in diverse narratives.
D) Patel's performance in "Lion" could have served as a catalyst in his career, leading to an increased
acceptance of diverse narratives.

15
Mindy Kaling, an American actress, writer, and producer, has been lauded for her groundbreaking work in the
TV industry. Known for her role on the hit show "The Office," she also created her own show, "The Mindy
Project," which showcases a strong and relatable South Asian female lead – a rarity in Hollywood. Despite
the widespread use of such strategies in addressing the issue of lack of representation in Hollywood, the
effectiveness of these approaches has been questioned due to the persistent problems of stereotyping and
lack of diversity. This situation, where even with examples like "The Mindy Project" the issue persists, implies
that ______

Which choice most logically completes the text?

A) There's a need for a broader systemic change in Hollywood beyond individual shows or actors.
B) "The Mindy Project" might not have had a wide enough audience to effect change.
C) Mindy Kaling's influence is limited to her own shows and doesn't extend to the wider industry.
D) The lack of representation is a result of casting decisions rather than the availability of diverse roles.

16
In the realm of blockbuster movies, the special effects that captivate audiences are often the product of
intense collaboration and innovation. Among the various contributors, Asian professionals have been
instrumental in pushing the envelope of what's achievable in this field. Notably, they have been involved in
the creation and implementation of groundbreaking software, as well as the development of techniques that
have transformed the visual storytelling landscape. Given this, it can be inferred from the continuous
advancement in special effects that ______

Which choice most logically completes the text?

A) The majority of blockbuster movies rely solely on Asian-created software for special effects.
B) Asian professionals are leading the entire special effects industry.
C) All innovative special effects techniques originate from Asian professionals.
D) Asian professionals have significantly influenced the evolution of special effects in blockbuster movies.

17

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In her 2021 article “Throwaway History: Towards a Historiography of Ephemera,” scholar Anne Garner
discusses John Johnson (1882–1956), a devoted collector of items intended to be discarded, including bus
tickets and campaign pamphlets. Johnson recognized that scholarly institutions considered his expansive
collection of ephemera to be worthless—indeed, it wasn’t until 1968, after Johnson’s death, that Oxford
University’s Bodleian Library acquired the collection, having grasped the items’ potential value to historians
and other researchers. Hence, the example of Johnson serves to ______

Which choice most logically completes the text?

A. demonstrate the difficulties faced by contemporary historians in conducting research at the Bodleian
Library without access to ephemera.
B. represent the challenge of incorporating examples of ephemera into the collections of libraries and other
scholarly institutions.
C. lend support to arguments by historians and other researchers who continue to assert that ephemera
holds no value for scholars.
D. illustrate both the relatively low scholarly regard in which ephemera was once held and the later
recognition of ephemera’s possible utility.

18
Some businesses believe that when employees are interrupted while doing their work, they experience a
decrease in energy and productivity. However, a team led by Harshad Puranik, who studies management,
has found that interruptions by colleagues can have a social component that increases employees’ sense of
belonging, resulting in greater job satisfaction that benefits employees and employers. Therefore, businesses
should recognize that ______

Which choice most logically completes the text?

A. the interpersonal benefits of some interruptions in the workplace may offset the perceived negative effects.
B. in order to maximize productivity, employers should be willing to interrupt employees frequently throughout
the day.
C. most employees avoid interrupting colleagues because they don’t appreciate being interrupted
themselves.
D. in order to cultivate an ideal workplace environment, interruptions of work should be discouraged.

19
Scholars have noted that F. Scott Fitzgerald’s writings were likely influenced in part by his marriage to Zelda
Fitzgerald, but many don’t recognize Zelda as a writer in her own right. Indeed, Zelda authored several works
herself, such as the novel Save Me the Waltz and numerous short stories. Thus, those who primarily view
Zelda as an inspiration for F. Scott’s writings ______

Which choice most logically completes the text?

A. overlook the many other factors that motivated F. Scott to write.

B. risk misrepresenting the full range of Zelda’s contributions to literature.
C. may draw inaccurate conclusions about how F. Scott and Zelda viewed each other’s works.
D. tend to read the works of F. Scott and Zelda in an overly autobiographical light.

20

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Songbirds learn to respond to and imitate their species’ songs from an early age. With each generation, small
differences are introduced that result in distinct variations—called dialects—among geographically isolated
populations of the same species. A research study examined whether twelve-day-old Ficedula hypoleuca
(pied flycatcher) nestlings prefer local dialects over the unfamiliar dialects of nonlocal F. hypoleuca
populations: the more begging calls the nestlings made in response to a song, the stronger their preference.
The researchers found that nestlings produced more begging calls in response to their own dialect than to
nonlocal dialects. Since song preference plays a role in songbird mate selection, the finding suggests that
______

Which choice most logically completes the text?

A. F. hypoleuca nestlings’ preference for their own dialect likely disappears as they mature to promote
socialization between different F. hypoleuca populations.
B. F. hypoleuca nestlings who show an early preference for their own dialect are likely to receive more food
from their caretakers than nestlings who show no preferences among any F. hypoleuca dialects.
C. F. hypoleuca nestlings’ preference for their own dialect likely drives them when they mature to reproduce
with other F. hypoleuca from local rather than nonlocal populations.
D. F. hypoleuca nestlings show a preference for both local F. hypoleuca dialects and the songs of other local
songbirds over the songs of nonlocal birds of any species.

21
In a study of the mechanisms underlying associative memory—or the ability to learn and remember
connections between inherently unrelated things—neuroscientists Kei Igarashi, Jasmine Chavez, and others
presented mice with memory tests. The team discovered that fan cells, a type of cell found in the medial
temporal lobe of the brain, are necessary for the acquisition of new associative memories. They also found
that fan cell activity requires dopamine, a chemical the brain produces in response to pleasure and rewards.
Consequently, receiving a reward should likely help to ______

Which choice most logically completes the text?

A. decrease an individual’s capacity to utilize dopamine.

B. increase an individual’s capacity to recognize differences between unrelated things.
C. increase an individual’s capacity to form associative memories.
D. decrease an individual’s capacity to create fan cells.

22
Although military veterans make up a small proportion of the total population of the United States, they
occupy a significantly higher proportion of the jobs in the civilian government. One possible explanation for
this disproportionate representation is that military service familiarizes people with certain organizational
structures that are also reflected in the civilian government bureaucracy, and this familiarity thus ______

Which choice most logically completes the text?

A. makes civilian government jobs especially appealing to military veterans.
B. alters the typical relationship between military service and subsequent career preferences.
C. encourages nonveterans applying for civilian government jobs to consider military service instead.
D. increases the number of civilian government jobs that require some amount of military experience to
perform.

23
Herbivorous sauropod dinosaurs could grow more than 100 feet long and weigh up to 80 tons, and some
researchers have attributed the evolution of sauropods to such massive sizes to increased plant production
resulting from high levels of atmospheric carbon dioxide during the Mesozoic era. However, there is no
evidence of significant spikes in carbon dioxide levels coinciding with relevant periods in sauropod evolution,
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such as when the first large sauropods appeared, when several sauropod lineages underwent further
evolution toward gigantism, or when sauropods reached their maximum known sizes, suggesting that ______

Which choice most logically completes the text?

A. fluctuations in atmospheric carbon dioxide affected different sauropod lineages differently.

B. the evolution of larger body sizes in sauropods did not depend on increased atmospheric carbon dioxide.
C. atmospheric carbon dioxide was higher when the largest known sauropods lived than it was when the first
sauropods appeared.
D. sauropods probably would not have evolved to such immense sizes if atmospheric carbon dioxide had
been even slightly higher.

24
Dutch painters in the sixteenth and seventeenth centuries often showed tables filled with large wheels of
cheese or carved shards of butter. Some art historians, noting that dairy products were a major component of
the Dutch diet, interpret these depictions as reflections of everyday Dutch eating habits. However, a group of
researchers recently reviewed hundreds of food-related paintings and found that lemons—which could only
be acquired in the Netherlands at great cost, since they had to be imported from warmer climates—feature in
Dutch paintings of the period more than three times as frequently as dairy products do, thereby casting doubt
on the idea that ______

Which choice most logically completes the text?

A. dairy products were a more significant component of the Dutch diet of the period than lemons were.
B. food was a more popular subject among Dutch painters than it was among painters from other countries at
the time.
C. depictions of food in Dutch paintings of the period should be taken as realistic representations of Dutch
eating habits.
D. Dutch painters of the period may have depicted foods for symbolic reasons rather than to show what
Dutch people typically ate.

25
Colonized by Spain in the 1600s, New Mexico is home to a dialect of Spanish that differs significantly from
dialects spoken in Spain’s other former colonies in the Americas. Most notably, the New Mexican dialect
retains older features of the language that other dialects lost in later centuries. But why would it have done
so? New Mexico was so distant from population centers in Spain’s other colonies that it attracted few
colonists after its initial colonization. Geographical isolation in turn would have limited the exposure of New
Mexican colonists to changes occurring to Spanish grammar and vocabulary elsewhere in the empire. Thus,
the present-day uniqueness of the New Mexican dialect suggests the extent to which ______

Which choice most logically completes the text?

A. a language can protect itself from being influenced by other languages.

B. the grammar and vocabulary of any given language change from one generation to the next.
C. geographical isolation can influence how a language develops.
D. speakers of one dialect of a language can understand speakers of another dialect of that language.

26
When the Vinland Map, a map of the world purported to date to the mid-1400s, surfaced in 1957, some
scholars believed it demonstrated that European knowledge of the eastern coast of present-day North
America predated Christopher Columbus’s 1492 arrival. In 2021, a team including conservators Marie-France
Lemay and Paula Zyats and materials scientist Anikó Bezur performed an extensive analysis of the map and

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the ink used. They found that the ink contains titanium dioxide, a compound that was first introduced in ink
manufacturing in the early 1900s. Therefore, the team concluded that ______

Which choice most logically completes the text?

A. mid-1400s Europeans could not have known about the eastern coast of present-day North America.
B. the Vinland Map could not have been drawn by mid-1400s mapmakers.
C. mapmakers must have used titanium compounds in their ink in the 1400s.
D. there isn’t enough information to determine when the ink was created.

27
It’s common for jazz musicians and fans to refer to certain songs as having “swing,” indicating that the songs
provoke a strong feeling, like the impulse to tap one’s foot or dance. The exact acoustic properties that give a
song swing, however, have long been thought to be undefinable. To investigate swing, a team led by
physicist Corentin Nelias delayed the downbeats and synchronized the offbeats in jazz piano solos and
asked jazz musicians to compare the intensity of swing in each modified piece with the intensity of swing in
the original piece. They found that participants were more than seven times likelier to characterize the
modified songs as having swing than to characterize the original versions as having swing, suggesting that
______

Which choice most logically completes the text?

A. synchronized offbeats tend to give a song swing regardless of whether downbeats are delayed.
B. the acoustic properties that give a song swing are not easy for jazz musicians to manipulate.
C. jazz songs that feature the piano are more likely to have swing than are jazz songs that do not feature the
piano.
D. the timing of downbeats and offbeats may play a crucial role in giving a song swing.

28
The Indus River valley civilization flourished in South Asia from 3300 BCE to 1300 BCE. Many examples of
the civilization’s writing system exist, but researchers haven’t yet deciphered it or identified which ancient
language it represents. Nevertheless, archaeologists have found historical artifacts, such as clay figures and
jewelry, that provide information about the civilization’s customs and how its communities were organized.
The archaeologists’ findings therefore suggest that ______

Which choice most logically completes the text?

A. investigating an ancient civilization is easier without knowledge of the civilization’s language.

B. knowing an ancient civilization’s language isn’t necessary in order to learn details about the civilization.
C. archaeological research should focus on finding additional artifacts rather than deciphering ancient
languages.
D. examining the civilization’s historical artifacts has resolved the debate about this civilization’s language.

29
To investigate the history of plate subduction—when one of Earth’s tectonic plates slides beneath another—
Sarah M. Aarons and colleagues compared ancient rocks from the Acasta Gneiss Complex in Canada to
modern rocks. Using isotope analysis, the researchers found that Acasta rocks dating to about 4.02 billion
years ago (bya) most strongly resemble modern rocks formed in a plume setting (an area in which hot rocks
from Earth’s mantle flow upward into the crust). By contrast, they found that Acasta rocks dating to about
3.75 bya and 3.6 bya have an isotope composition that is similar to that of modern rocks formed in a
subduction setting. Aarons’s team therefore concluded that ______

Which choice most logically completes the text?

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A. subduction-like processes began occurring in some locations no later than 3.75 bya.
B. subduction replaced mantle plume formation as the most common geological process by about 4.02 bya.
C. the majority of the rocks in the Acasta Gneiss Complex formed through subduction.
D. the rocks in the Acasta Gneiss Complex are of a more recent origin than scientists previously thought.

30
The Haitian Declaration of Independence was issued in 1804, bringing to an end the revolution against
colonial France that began in 1791. Written in French, which was not the first language of most Haitians but
which was used throughout Europe as the language of international diplomacy, the declaration notes that
Haiti will not bring rebellion to other Caribbean nations, promises to respect the sovereignty of its neighbors—
widely understood as a reassurance to the United States—and sets up Haiti as an example for future
struggles against colonizers (an implicit reference to the many colonies then found in the Americas). So even
though the declaration is explicitly addressed to the Haitian people, it’s reasonable to conclude that ______

Which choice most logically completes the text?

A. aspects of the declaration were modeled on similar documents from other countries.
B. the French government may have been surprised by the declaration.
C. many Haitian people opposed the revolution and the declaration.
D. the declaration actually had several intended audiences.

31
Euphorbia esula (leafy spurge) is a Eurasian plant that has become invasive in North America, where it
displaces native vegetation and sickens cattle. E. esula can be controlled with chemical herbicides, but that
approach can also kill harmless plants nearby. Recent research on introducing engineered DNA into plant
species to inhibit their reproduction may offer a path toward exclusively targeting E. esula, consequently
______

Which choice most logically completes the text?

A. making individual E. esula plants more susceptible to existing chemical herbicides.

B. enhancing the ecological benefits of E. esula in North America.
C. enabling cattle to consume E. esula without becoming sick.
D. reducing invasive E. esula numbers without harming other organisms.

32
By running computer simulations of the development of our solar system, André Izidoro, Rajdeep Dasgupta,
and colleagues concluded that the Sun may have been surrounded by three giant dust rings before the
planets started to form. The researchers suggest that the materials in the innermost ring became the four
planets closest to the Sun, the materials in the middle ring produced the rest of the planets, and the materials
in the outermost ring created the asteroids and other small bodies in the region beyond Neptune. In one
simulation, the researchers delayed the initial formation of the middle ring, causing oversized super-Earths to
begin developing from the innermost ring. The researchers therefore hypothesize that ______

Which choice most logically completes the text?

A. the middle ring formed earlier in the solar system’s development than the initial simulations suggested.
B. the timing of the initial formation of the middle ring played an important role in determining the eventual
size of Earth.
C. if the formation of the outermost ring had occurred earlier in a simulation, all the planets would have
become super-Earths.

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D. the innermost ring actually formed into all the planets in our solar system, not just the four closest to the
Sun.

33
In documents called judicial opinions, judges explain the reasoning behind their legal rulings, and in those
explanations they sometimes cite and discuss historical and contemporary philosophers. Legal scholar and
philosopher Anita L. Allen argues that while judges are naturally inclined to mention philosophers whose
views align with their own positions, the strongest judicial opinions consider and rebut potential objections;
discussing philosophers whose views conflict with judges’ views could therefore ______

Which choice most logically completes the text?

A. allow judges to craft judicial opinions without needing to consult philosophical works.
B. help judges improve the arguments they put forward in their judicial opinions.
C. make judicial opinions more comprehensible to readers without legal or philosophical training.
D. bring judicial opinions in line with views that are broadly held among philosophers.

34
Many mosquito repellents contain natural components that work by activating multiple odor receptors on
mosquitoes’ antennae. As the insects develop resistance, new repellents are needed. Ke Dong and her team
found that EBF, a molecular component of a chrysanthemum-flower extract, can repel mosquitoes by
activating just one odor receptor—and this receptor, Or31, is present in all mosquito species known to carry
diseases. Therefore, the researchers suggest that in developing new repellents, it would be most useful to
______

Which choice most logically completes the text?

A. identify molecular components similar to EBF that target the activation of Or31 receptors.
B. investigate alternative methods for extracting EBF molecules from chrysanthemums.
C. verify the precise locations of Or31 and other odor receptors on mosquitoes’ antennae.
D. determine the maximum number of different odor receptors that can be activated by a single molecule.

35
Astronomers investigated the Arabia Terra region of Mars because it appears to contain irregularly shaped
craters that may have been caused by massive volcanic explosions. In their investigations of Arabia Terra,
the researchers found remnants of ash deposits in an amount and thickness that would result from a massive
volcanic eruption. However, erosion and past resurfacing events could have modified the surface of the
planet. Therefore, ______

Which choice most logically completes the text?

A. the current makeup of the Arabia Terra region might not accurately reflect the volcanic activity of Mars’s
past.
B. eruptions from Mars’s volcanoes were likely not as massive as astronomers previously believed.
C. ash was most likely expelled from multiple different volcanoes on Mars’s surface.
D. the craters found in the Arabia Terra region were necessarily created by events other than volcanic
eruptions.

36
The ancient Sumerian civilization formed around 4000 BCE between two large rivers in an area that is now
Iraq and Syria. The extremely hot and sunny weather in that area helped crops grow very quickly, but it also
made it hard to keep the crops from drying up and dying. So, the Sumerians used water from the rivers in

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their farming. That method worked so well that they often could harvest even more crops than they needed in
a season. As a result, the Sumerians ______

Which choice most logically completes the text?

A. harvested crops only on the hottest days of each season.

B. found ways to shield their crops from the sun.
C. did not begin farming until long after 4000 BCE.
D. were able to store extra crops for later use.

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EXPRESSION OF IDEAS

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Unit 12: Helping others feels good - Transitions

LEAD-IN_

Altruism, happiness, and health: it's good to be good

It’s often been said that it’s better to give than to receive, but did you know that this cliché is actually backed
by research? While many of us feel too stressed and busy to worry about helping others with their burdens—
or would like to think about doing good deeds when we have more ‘spare’ time, energy, and money—
altruism is its own reward and can actually help you relieve stress.

Altruistic acts can improve your quality of life in several ways and are absolutely worth the effort. Here are
some ways that helping others helps you.

Psychological Well-being
Studies show that altruism is good for your emotional well-being and can measurably enhance your peace
of mind. For example, one study found that dialysis patients, transplant patients, and family members who
became support volunteers for other patients experienced increased personal growth and emotional well-
being.

Another study on patients with multiple sclerosis (MS) showed that those who offered other MS patients
peer support actually experienced greater benefits than their supported peers, including more pronounced
improvement of confidence, self-awareness, self-esteem, depression and daily functioning.

Increased Social Support

Studies also show that what goes around generally does come around. More specifically, when people
make altruistic personal sacrifices, they end up reaping what they sow in the form of favors from others.

These individuals earn the reputation as altruistic people and end up receiving favors from others who they
may not have even directly helped. The favors and social support you ‘earn’ through altruism, combined
with the good feelings you get from helping others, more than make up for the sacrifices made in the name
of altruism.

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Keeping Perspective
Many people don’t realize the strong
impact that their comparisons have on
their outlook. However, your
expectations of life and the people
you compare yourself to can make a real difference in your level of life satisfaction. For example, your home
may seem shabby to you if you’re comparing it to the living rooms you see in the pages of decorating
magazines, or it may seem palatial and opulent compared to the structures inhabited by people in
impoverished countries.

Helping others in need, especially those who are less fortunate than you, can provide you with a sense of
perspective on how fortunate you are to have what you do in life—be it health, money, or a safe place to
sleep, and help you focus less on the things you feel you lack. Helping others with their problems can also
help you gain a more positive perspective on the things in life that cause you stress.

Better Community
When you do something nice for someone else, often the positive effects go beyond just you and that other
person, influencing your whole community. One of my favorite illustrations of this phenomenon is in the
movie Pay It Forward where one boy’s good deeds have far-reaching positive consequences.

When you do nice things for others, you often enable them to do nice things for others, and the phenomenon
grows. Your children and your friends may see your good example and behave in more altruistic ways as
well. As Gandhi said, “You must be the change you want to see in the world," and you can contribute to a
more positive community.

Stress Relief
When you feel stressed and overwhelmed, you may feel like you’re least able to give. However, acts of
altruism can be a great form of stress relief.

Studies have shown that the act of giving can activate the area of the brain associated with positive feelings,
lifting your spirits and making you feel better the more you give. And given that altruism can lead to lasting
emotional well-being, a more positive perspective, a positive effect on others, and better social standing, it
certainly does the job as a healthy means for relieving stress and increasing life satisfaction.

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EXAM SKILLS_

Transitions are the glue that holds ideas together. They connect sentences in ways that tell the reader
how those sentences are related. Is there an argument being made? A story being told? The transitions
used in the text should reflect that relationship.

The relationships between ideas usually fall into the following categories:
• Cause - Effect: so, consequently, as a result, therefore, thus, hence,....
• Effect - Cause: as, for, because, since, due to the fact that,…
• Co-exist: and, moreover, in addition, furthermore, also, plus, similarly,..
• Contrast: but, however, in contrast, On the other hand, conversely,…
• Argument: but, however, yet, nevertheless, nonetheless, while, although, whereas, despite,…
• Explain: for example, for instance, in specific,…
• Simplify: in short, in sum, in conclusion, in other words,..
• Process (by time order or by steps): then, afterward, next, before, after, subsequently, likewise…

To answer a transitions question, follow these three steps:

• Step 1: Summarize the text in your own words
Don't just skim the passage . Read it closely, and try to summarize the main idea in your own
words. This can be tricky since an important transition word is missing. If you're struggling to
understand the text, try to translate each sentence into a simple bullet point.

• Step 2: Identify the relationship between the passage’s ideas

The transition we're asked to select will connect two ideas from the passage. How are those
ideas related? Do they disagree? Does one cause the other? We should be able to place the
relationship into one of the four categories discussed above.

• Step 3: Select the transition that matches the relationship

Only one of the choices will offer a transition that matches the relationship we identified. We can
select it with confidence! If you find yourself stuck between two choices, try plugging them each
into the blank and see which transition creates the clearest meaning when placed in context.

In-class exercise: Each student to share and reflect his/her feeling on an occasion that is considered a
good-deed.

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PRACTICE EXERCISES

1
A groundbreaking study in the Journal of Health Psychology unveiled the profound link between altruistic
behavior—like volunteering or assisting others—and elevated levels of happiness and well-being. In delving
into the factors that fostered this realization, the researchers discovered that helping others often boosts one's
own sense of purpose and value. ______, the impact of these findings has shaped our understanding of the
relationship between selflessness and personal fulfillment, and has influenced society's perspective on the
importance of altruism.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

A) Likewise,
B) Moreover,
C) Conversely,
D) Despite,

2
Pervasive worries often center around one's health and well-being. However, intriguing research from the
University of Exeter Medical School might put some of these fears to rest. Their studies illustrated that
individuals who frequently perform acts of kindness and altruism exhibit reduced inflammation in their
bodies—an indicator of improved health. _____, this compelling evidence suggests that the simple act of
being kind to others might be a potent strategy to improve our own health.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

A) Thus,
B) Conversely,
C) Instead,
D) Despite,

3
Numerous individuals have been found to exhibit higher levels of altruism and prosocial behavior, which are
thought to bolster life satisfaction and lessen symptoms of depression, according to a study published in a
leading journal of psychological research. ______, it's important to note that the causal relationship between
these two factors remains a subject of intense debate among scholars and researchers.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

A) Conversely,
B) Consequently,
C) Furthermore,
D) However,

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4
A culture of kindness and generosity, backed by traditions that emphasize these values, has been found to
have significant health benefits. Regular practice of these acts, according to research at a renowned
university, can lead to lower blood pressure and a decreased risk of cardiovascular disease. ________, the
contemporary relevance of these traditions can't be understated, as they provide a meaningful way to
promote public health in today's society.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

A) In contrast,
B) For example,
C) Nevertheless,
D) Therefore,

5
A lifestyle that encourages regular acts of altruism and helping behavior appears to have remarkable health
benefits, as suggested by a recent study published in a reputable health psychology journal. Participants
engaging in such practices reported lower levels of chronic pain and improved physical functioning.
________, it's critical to bear in mind that sustaining such a lifestyle could present its own set of challenges,
such as potential emotional exhaustion or the risk of neglecting one's own needs.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

A) Furthermore,
B) Conversely,
C) Nonetheless,
D) Similarly,

6
A policy encouraging regular volunteering has been suggested, following a longitudinal study published in a
leading public health journal. This study provided compelling evidence that such an engagement leads to
lower mortality rates and improved physical health over time. _____, it is essential to consider potential
downsides, such as the risk of overworking or the challenge of ensuring equitable access to volunteering
opportunities, before fully endorsing its implementation.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

A) Yet,
B) Thus,
C) Consequently,
D) Additionally,

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7
The dilution of cultural heritage is a significant issue faced by many societies today. Preservation of such
heritage can be challenging in a rapidly globalizing world. ________, engaging in social volunteering targeted
towards cultural preservation can serve as an effective strategy. Such involvement can foster a stronger
sense of identity among individuals and encourage the active transmission of cultural practices.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

A) Nonetheless,
B) To address this,
C) To make the matter worse,
D) As a result,

8
The impact of volunteering on social development and community engagement is a widely recognized
concept in the field of social sciences. It is posited that these activities promote a sense of unity and mutual
cooperation among participants. ________, a recent case study from a community-based initiative in a small
town provides a compelling example of this theory in action, showing marked increases in community
engagement following the implementation of a local volunteering program.
Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

A) Nevertheless,
B) Conversely,
C) For instance,
D) However,

9
Consider the case of a diverse community in the heart of a bustling city, where individuals from various
cultural backgrounds came together to participate in a social volunteering initiative. This initiative, aimed at
enhancing the local park, proved to be a transformative experience, fostering unity and understanding among
participants. ________, this story underscores the broader lesson that social volunteering can indeed play a
significant role in strengthening social cohesion in diverse communities.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

A) Similarly,
B) Thus,
C) Conversely,
D) However,

10
The financial burden experienced by volunteers, often referred to as the 'hidden cost' of volunteering, has
emerged as a significant challenge. This issue arises from the expenses incurred during volunteering
activities, which can sometimes be substantial and unaffordable for some individuals. ________, to manage
this issue effectively, institutions could consider implementing strategies such as providing financial aid or
reimbursements for volunteers, or even arranging for corporate sponsorships to offset costs.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

A) Furthermore,
B) Conversely,

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C) Nevertheless,
D) For example,

11
At the University of Michigan, a study was conducted to explore the potential health benefits of altruistic
behaviors. Initially, participants were asked to report their levels of altruism and helping behavior. _____,
these self-reported measures were compared with indicators of immune system strength and resistance to
illness, ascertained through various medical tests.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

A) However,
B) Subsequently,
C) Moreover,
D) Conversely,

12
The rise of volunteering as a catalyst for social change and cultural empowerment represents a significant
trend in contemporary societies. This shift is driven by an increasing recognition of the power of collective
action and community engagement in addressing societal challenges. ________, given the current
momentum and the persistent societal challenges, it is likely that volunteering will continue to gain
prominence as a tool for social change in the foreseeable future.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

A) Conversely,
B) For instance,
C) Hence,
D) However,

13
On the surface, the concepts of vacationing and volunteering might seem like two disparate ideas, one being
leisure-focused and the other service-oriented. ________, a rising trend known as 'voluntourism', the practice
of volunteering abroad for short periods, has blurred the lines between the two. However, this trend has
faced criticism for its potential negative impacts on local communities.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

A) However,
B) Furthermore,
C) Conversely,
D) Surprisingly,

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14
Consider the example of Malala Yousafzai, a globally recognized advocate for girls' education. Her tireless
efforts and resilience in the face of adversity have made a significant impact in promoting educational equity.
________, it's interesting to note that her early experiences in volunteering have played a crucial role in
enhancing her social skills and cultural awareness, which continue to inform her activism and enrich her
legacy.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

A) Likewise,
B) However,
C) Conversely,
D) Next,

15
The issue of unregulated volunteer programs is a contentious one. On one hand, critics argue that these
programs can be exploitative, taking advantage of well-meaning volunteers and potentially harming local
communities. ________, proponents of these programs argue that they provide much-needed support and
resources to underserved areas and that with proper oversight, potential negative impacts can be mitigated.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

A) Therefore,
B) On the contrary,
C) Moreover,
D) As a result,

16
A widely held belief suggests that all forms of volunteerism are inherently good, functioning solely to benefit
society and uplift marginalized communities. ________, the reality is more nuanced. Some critics argue that
certain volunteer activities, if not thoughtfully designed and implemented, can inadvertently reinforce existing
power dynamics, perpetuating issues of privilege and social inequality.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

A) Consequently,
B) Likewise,
C) Similarly,
D) However,

17
The study conducted at the University of Oxford presents a clear correlation: those who regularly partake in
altruistic activities have higher social support levels and stronger social connections, both key factors in
overall health and well-being. ________, these findings can be applied to real-life scenarios such as
community development initiatives or mental health programs, emphasizing the importance of promoting
altruism and kindness on a larger scale.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

A) In contrast,
B) In addition,

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C) Conversely,
D) Similarly,

18
The recent rise in voluntourism is a noteworthy phenomenon, with more and more individuals opting to
combine travel with volunteer work. This trend is driven by a desire to make meaningful contributions to the
communities they visit. ________, if not handled responsibly, there is a risk that this trend could inadvertently
harm the very communities it intends to help, through the creation of dependency or disruption of local
economies.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

A) Incidentally,
B) On the other hand,
C) Simultaneously,
D) Nonetheless,

19
A disturbing trend in volunteer programs is becoming increasingly evident: the exploitation of volunteers as
unpaid labor. According to a report published by the International Labor Organization, an estimated 43% of
all volunteers worldwide report feeling exploited or undervalued. ________, this statistic reveals a critical
issue in the structure and management of many volunteer programs that needs immediate attention and
reform.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

A) Coincidentally,
B) Ultimately,
C) Consequently,
D) Therefore,

20
The phenomenon known as volunteer burnout first gained recognition in the late 20th century, when
volunteer organizations noticed an alarming rate of turnover among their most committed members. These
dedicated individuals often experienced physical exhaustion, emotional fatigue, and diminished passion for
their cause. ________, this historical occurrence serves as a stark reminder of the need for balanced
commitment in today's volunteer sector.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

A) Consequently,
B) Alternatively,
C) Ironically,
D) Henceforth,

21
Most of the planets that have been discovered outside our solar system orbit G-type stars, like our Sun. In
2014, ______ researchers identified a planet orbiting KEL T-9, a B-type star more than twice as massive and
nearly twice as hot as the Sun. Called KEL T-9b, it is one of the hottest planets ever discovered.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

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A. likewise,
B. however,
C. therefore,
D. for example,

22
The Babylonian king Hammurabi achieved much during his forty-year reign. He conquered all of
Mesopotamia and built Babylon into one of the most powerful cities of the ancient world. Today, ______ he is
mainly remembered for a code of laws inscribed on a seven-foot-tall block of stone: the Code of Hammurabi.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

A. therefore,
B. likewise,
C. however,
D. for instance,

23
Some members of the US Supreme Court have resisted calls to televise the court’s oral arguments,
concerned that the participants would be tempted to perform for the cameras (and thus lower the quality of
the discourse). ______ the justices worry that most viewers would not even watch the full deliberations, only
short clips that could be misinterpreted and mischaracterized.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

A. However,
B. Additionally,
C. In comparison,
D. For example,

24
Award-winning travel writer Linda Watanabe McFerrin considers the background research she conducts on
destinations featured in her travel books to be its own reward. ______ McFerrin admits to finding the
research phase of her work just as fascinating and engaging as exploring a location in person.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

A. By contrast,
B. Likewise,
C. Besides,
D. In fact,

25
In 1873, Spanish scientist Santiago Ramón y Cajal observed that brain fibers have distinct boundaries with
clear end points, a finding that went against earlier assumptions about the brain. ______ scientists had
assumed that the brain was a continuous web of fused fibers, not a vast network of distinct, individual cells.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

A. However,

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B. Previously,
C. As a result,
D. Likewise,

26
For years, biologists have experimented with using grime-eating bacteria rather than harsh chemicals to
clean artworks, and results have been impressive overall. ______ these bacterial strains—which can
metabolize centuries’ worth of oil, glue, dirt, and other surface impurities without creating harmful
byproducts—have proven more effective than traditional chemical cleaning methods.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

A. However,
B. In many cases,
C. As a result,
D. Additionally,

27
Alexander Lawrence Posey (1873–1908) varied his focus and tone depending on the genre in which he was
writing. In his poetry, he used heartfelt language to evoke the beauty and peacefulness of his natural
surroundings; in his journalism, ______ he employed humor and satire to comment on political issues
affecting his Muskogee Creek community.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

A. that is,
B. granted,
C. similarly,
D. by contrast,

28
Okot p’Bitek’s poem Song of Lawino (1966) explores postcolonial Ugandan life through the eyes of a woman
living in a rural village. With its vibrant imagery, bitingly satiric tone, and dexterous use of traditional Acholi
song and phraseology, the poem inspired a generation of East African writers. ______ those who adopted its
style are often referred to as Okot School poets.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

A. Nevertheless,
B. Fittingly,
C. By comparison,
D. Instead,

29
Because an achiral molecule is symmetrical, flipping it yields a structurally identical molecule. A flipped chiral
molecule, ______ can be compared to a glove that has been turned inside out: it produces a structurally
inverted molecule rather than an identical one.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

A. in other words,
B. by contrast,

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C. for example,
D. similarly,

30
Jhumpa Lahiri’s story collection Interpreter of Maladies features multiple stories about romantic relationships.
In “This Blessed House,” newlyweds argue over whether to replace items left by the previous owners of their
new home. ______ in “A Temporary Matter,” a husband and wife attempt to rekindle their relationship during
a four-night blackout.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

A. Granted,
B. For example,
C. Likewise,
D. Hence,

31
Before California’s 1911 election to approve a proposition granting women the right to vote, activists across
the state sold tea to promote the cause of suffrage. In San Francisco, the Woman’s Suffrage Party sold
Equality Tea at local fairs. ______ in Los Angeles, activist Nancy Tuttle Craig, who ran one of California’s
largest grocery store firms, distributed Votes for Women Tea.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

A. For example,
B. To conclude,
C. Similarly,
D. In other words,

32
In 2019, researcher Patricia Jurado Gonzalez and food historian Nawal Nasrallah prepared a stew from a
4,000-year-old recipe found on a Mesopotamian clay tablet. When they tasted the dish, known as pašrūtum
(“unwinding”), they found that it had a mild taste and inspired a sense of calm. ______ the researchers,
knowing that dishes were sometimes named after their intended effects, theorized that the dish’s name,
“unwinding,” referred to its function: to help ancient diners relax.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

A. Therefore,
B. Alternately,
C. Nevertheless,
D. Likewise,

33
In 1933, the Twentieth Amendment to the US Constitution was ratified. The amendment mandates that
presidential inaugurations be held on January 20, approximately ten weeks after the November election.
______ this amendment requires newly elected US senators and representatives to be sworn into their
respective offices on January 3.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

A. Instead,
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B. For instance,
C. Specifically,
D. In addition,

34
The more diverse and wide ranging an animal’s behaviors, the larger and more energy demanding the
animal’s brain tends to be. ______ from an evolutionary perspective, animals that perform only basic actions
should allocate fewer resources to growing and maintaining brain tissue. The specialized subtypes of ants
within colonies provide an opportunity to explore this hypothesis.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

A. Subsequently,
B. Besides,
C. Nevertheless,
D. Thus,

35
In his 1925 book The Morphology of Landscape, US geographer Carl Sauer challenged prevailing views
about how natural landscapes influence human cultures. ______ Sauer argued that instead of being shaped
entirely by their natural surroundings, cultures play an active role in their own development by virtue of their
interactions with the environment.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

A. Similarly,
B. Finally,
C. Therefore,
D. Specifically,

36
Establishing Coordinated Universal Time (UTC) is no easy task. Each month, readings of a single second
from atomic clocks around the world are taken and sent to the International Bureau of Weights and Measures
(BIPM) in France. ______ BIPM metrologists perform the meticulous work of assembling these minutely
disparate readings into a globally shared time standard.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

A. There,
B. In particular,
C. For example,
D. Conversely,

37
Earth’s auroras—colorful displays of light seen above the northern and southern poles—result, broadly
speaking, from the Sun’s activity. ______ the Sun releases charged particles that are captured by Earth’s
magnetic field and channeled toward the poles. These particles then collide with atoms in the atmosphere,
causing the atoms to emit auroral light.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

A. Specifically,

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B. Similarly,
C. Nevertheless,
D. Hence,

38
When, in the 1800s, geologists first realized that much of Earth had once been covered by great sheets of
ice, some theorized that the phenomenon was cyclical, occurring at regular intervals. Each Ice Age is so
destructive, though, that it largely erases the geological evidence of its predecessor. ______ geologists were
unable to confirm the theory of cyclical Ice Ages until the 1960s.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

A. Hence,
B. Moreover,
C. Nevertheless,
D. Next,

39
Originally coined by economist Joan Robinson to refer to markets with multiple sellers of a product but only
one buyer, the term “monopsony” can also refer to markets where demand for labor is limited. In a product
monopsony, the single buyer can force sellers to lower their prices. ______ in a labor monopsony, employers
can force workers to accept lower wages.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

A. Earlier,
B. Instead,
C. Similarly,
D. In particular,

40
The chemical trimethylamine N-oxide not only gives fish their fishy smell but also protects them from crushing
hydrostatic pressure in deep waters. Trimethylamine N-oxide strengthens the bonds between water
molecules in a fish’s body. ______ these water molecules maintain their linked structure at extreme depths,
thus preventing pressure-related damage.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

A. Nevertheless,
B. As a result,
C. However,
D. For instance,

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Unit 13: The Plant Paradox – Rhetorical Synthesis

LEAD-IN_

Vegetables don’t want to be your food!

Polyphenols, Oxalates, Lectins, Oh My!

To quote Dr. Paul Saladino: “I’ve got bad news for you: Kale doesn’t love you back.”

In this day and age, when veganism is (seemingly) booming, I have a somber word of warning: Vegetables
want you dead. Little did you know that those green leaves in your smoothie are filled with poisons designed
to make you sick.

I know, it sounds unbelievable. After all, even if you’re not a vegan, most people eat plants regularly. How
could it be true that these foods are all poisonous?

Well, how else could they defend themselves? Sorry to burst your bubble, but plants do not want to be
eaten. It just isn’t evolutionarily feasible. What’s to stop grazing herbivores from eating plants to extinction?

As it turns out, nearly all plants contain defense chemicals designed for just this purpose: avoiding extinction
by making whatever chews on them sick.

Broccoli has sulforophane, and the high levels of oxalates in kale are plenty defense to keep would-be
consumers at bay. These materials, which are often lauded as healthy for humans, are actually there to
fight any would be predator.

Even Herbivores Don’t Binge

We’ll get into the basic biology of plant toxins soon, but first I want to address the way herbivores eat their
food. After all, these creatures eat almost exclusively plant material. If plants are poisonous, then what
gives? Why aren’t deer constantly sick and dying?

Well, for one thing, well adapted herbivores have a host of chemical defenses against plant toxins. Moose
and other grazers have enzymes in their saliva as well as multiple stomachs which deactivate plant toxins
such as tannins.

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Even with these adaptations, ruminant animals, the most well adapted
creatures to eating plants, don’t binge. Herbivores have been
observed to constantly shift between different plant food sources,
eating some old grass today, young grass tomorrow, chewing on a
twig later, etc.

It appears that herbivore’s palates change in order to keep them from

getting sick. As they consume a plant and ingest more of a particular
plant toxin, they begin to lose their appetite for the food. This appears
to be a complex system of learning and instinct that is innate to these
creatures.

This should be a warning sign for human onlookers. If even herbivores

have trouble with plant food, what about us? With a bit of knowledge
we can navigate plant toxins ourselves and keep our health.

Polyphenols: Panacea or Pesticides?

Inside plants are a host of chemicals that can cause you harm. If it isn’t a nutrient, it’s probably supposed
to hurt you.

Two of the most obvious examples of harmful plant compounds are lectins and oxalates. These compounds
have no functional purpose in animals and can be incredibly damaging in even small amounts.

Lesser known is the role of polyphenols. These compounds are often referred to as antioxidants, meaning
they (supposedly) lower inflammation in the human body when consumed. Examples of plant polyphenols
include resveratrol, quercetin, flavinoids, tannins, stilbenes, lignans, curcumin, capsaisin, and many more.

You may recognize many of these compounds. Most of them have been widely promoted as health
boosting. Resveratrol is thought to prevent cancer and curcumin from tumeric has become a certifiable
poster-child of the health and wellness industry.

What you may not know is that these compounds serve no purpose in plant metabolism. They do not help
the plants stay healthy. Instead, polyphenols are either pigments or plant defense mechanisms.

Animals do not have any polyphenols of their own. These molecules are 100% unique to plant biology.
When we consume these materials, they don’t become a part of our working biology. Instead, what really
occurs is that these compounds cause inflammation. In response, your body produces its own antioxidant,
glutathione, which is the compound that actually lowers inflammation.

This doesn’t necessarily mean that polyphenols are bad. If something acts as a stressor that signals your
body to improve, that’s still a good thing. Exercise, for example, improves your body first by stressing it.
This results in adaptations that include long term health benefits.

Still, good research on polyphenols has yet to show much benefit. Resveratrol has failed to show it’s
purported benefits in human trial and has been mild eat best. Heck, it’s even been linked to negative side
effects such as compromising androgen receptors.

In a placebo controlled interventional study on non-smokers, no effect was observed from consuming 600g
of fruits and vegetables a day over the course of 24 days.

In a review of the available literature, intervention studies have only shown benefit for short term use of
polyphenols, and even these are far less significant than expected. Between this information and the lack
of long-term studies, there is little evidence that these compounds are helpful.

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So where does this leave us? How about with a new view of polyphenols and what they actually are: mild
poisons and stressors that may cause us benefit in the short term but have not shown long term benefit in
research and may even have side effects.

Perhaps rotating plant foods regularly, rather than consuming any one thing all the time, could allow for
benefits from polyphenols. I do not think we should be taking megadoses of these compounds or using any
supplements, however.

If our goal is antioxidant effects for our body, better to rely on exercise and environmental stressors like
cold therapy than a scoop of turmeric powder.

EXAM SKILLS_

In the Reading and Writing sections of the SAT, you might come across questions that present a set of
bulleted notes related to a topic you may not be familiar with. The question will then ask you to use the
relevant information from the notes to achieve a specific objective. These are known as Rhetorical
Synthesis questions.

For example:

1
While investigating a subject, a student compiled these notes:

• Astrophysicist Dr. Laura Sullivan focuses on studying black holes.

• Black holes are regions in space where gravity is so strong that nothing can escape.
• They are formed from the remnants of massive stars after a supernova event.
• The Cygnus X-1 is a well-known black hole in the constellation Cygnus.
• It's one of the strongest black hole candidates based on observational evidence.

The student wants to explain the scientist's work and her area of focus to an unfamiliar audience. Which
choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

A) The Cygnus X-1, situated in the constellation Cygnus, is among the most compelling black hole candidates
based on observational evidence.
B) Astrophysicist Dr. Laura Sullivan studies black holes, regions in space where gravity is so powerful that
nothing can escape.
C) Housing intense gravity that allows nothing to escape, black holes, such as the Cygnus X-1, are
fascinating subjects for astrophysicists like Dr. Laura Sullivan.
D) As Dr. Laura Sullivan can attest, black holes, formed from remnants of massive stars, are intriguing
celestial bodies housing immense gravitational force.

How should we approach rhetorical synthesis questions?

Rhetorical synthesis questions present a wealth of information. If we get too caught up in the details, we
might lose sight of what the question is really asking us to do. The key to tackling these questions is to
initially disregard the specifics and concentrate on the goal highlighted in the question prompt.

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Understanding the structure of rhetorical synthesis questions can make identifying this goal
straightforward.

Every rhetorical synthesis question consists of:

• an introduction
• a list of bulleted facts
• a question prompt
• the answer choices
While many students might be tempted to start with the bulleted facts, it's more beneficial to pay attention
to the question prompt. The question prompt will define a goal for the correct answer choice. The goal
could be to highlight a comparison or contrast, introduce a research study and its results, or provide an
explanation and example of a specific concept.

Only one of the answer choices will achieve this goal. In fact, if you're pressed for time but keep the goal
in mind while reviewing the options, you can often answer rhetorical synthesis questions without even
looking at the bulleted information.

Follow these three steps to tackle a rhetorical synthesis question:

Step 1: Identify the goal
Start with the question prompt. What is the objective that the correct choice needs to fulfill?
This objective will be clearly stated. For instance, in the example given above, the goal is "to
explain the scientist's work and her area of focus to an unfamiliar audience".
If the stated goal seems confusing, reading the bulleted information can provide additional
context. But, you don't need to understand all the details to proceed to the next step.

Step 2: Test the choices

All of the options will be grammatically correct sentences that accurately reflect the information
from the bulleted notes. Therefore, you don't need to check for errors in the sentences. You only
need to concentrate on the goal.
As you read each option, ask yourself, "does this sentence meet the defined goal?"
If the answer is no, rule out that option.

Step 3: Select the choice that matches

After evaluating all the options, you should find that only one option successfully meets the goal
specified in the question. You can confidently select that option!

Remember, the key to tackling rhetorical synthesis questions is not to get overwhelmed by the details
provided in the bulleted information. Instead, focus on understanding the goal stated in the question

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prompt and then evaluate the answer choices based on this goal. This approach will help you find the
correct answer without getting lost in the sea of information.

In-class activity:
• Show this movie to the students: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=DVs3TReDkwon
• Divide students into groups. Each group research about one extreme diet: The meat-eaters, the
vegans, the fruitarians, or (other extreme diets that are known of)
• Conduct class discussion or debate over the topic of nutritional science.

PRACTICE EXERCISE

1
While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:
• Nutritionist Dr. Sarah Johnson has recently conducted research on plant-based diets.
• The study used a comprehensive analysis of various nutrient intakes from plant-based food sources.
• A key discovery of the study is that plant-based diets supply a diverse array of necessary nutrients,
including vitamins, minerals, fiber, and antioxidants.
• This discovery has potential implications for the healthcare and wellness industry.
• Dr. Sarah Johnson proposes further investigations and practical applications based on this new
discovery.

The student is tasked with summarizing the new findings of the study for a health magazine. Which choice
most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to fulfill this task?

A) Nutritionist Dr. Sarah Johnson suggests that further research and applications are necessary based on her
recent findings about plant-based diets.
B) Plant-based diets, according to a study by nutritionist Dr. Sarah Johnson, provide a variety of essential
nutrients, with implications for the healthcare and wellness industry.
C) The study, conducted by nutritionist Dr. Sarah Johnson, used a detailed analysis of nutrient intakes from
plant-based foods, proposing further research based on the findings.
D) The healthcare and wellness industry may benefit from a study by nutritionist Dr. Sarah Johnson that found
plant-based diets provide a range of essential nutrients.

2
While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:
• The research titled 'Dietary Habits and Colorectal Cancer Risks' was recently conducted by Dr.
Hannah Tantamango-Bartley.
• The study utilized statistical analysis of dietary patterns and cancer incidences among different
groups.
• It was found that adhering to a vegetarian diet, specifically vegan or lacto-ovo-vegetarian, was
correlated with a reduced risk of colorectal cancer compared to non-vegetarian diets.
• The general observation is that plant-based diets can help mitigate the risk of developing colorectal
cancer.
• This broad statement is backed by the lower cancer rates observed among the vegetarian and
vegan participants in the study.

The student wants to make and support a generalization about the new finding for a public health briefing.
Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

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A) The research by Dr. Hannah Tantamango-Bartley, which utilized statistical analysis, found that vegetarian
diets can help reduce the risk of colorectal cancer, as evidenced by lower cancer rates among vegetarians
and vegans.
B) A new study by Dr. Hannah Tantamango-Bartley found that vegan or lacto-ovo-vegetarian diets are
associated with a lower risk of colorectal cancer compared to non-vegetarian diets.
C) The study titled 'Dietary Habits and Colorectal Cancer Risks' by Dr. Hannah Tantamango-Bartley used
statistical analysis to support the general statement that plant-based diets can help mitigate the risk of
developing colorectal cancer.
D) The general observation from Dr. Hannah Tantamango-Bartley's research is that plant-based diets,
specifically vegan or lacto-ovo-vegetarian, can help reduce the risk of colorectal cancer, backed by the
evidence of lower cancer rates among these dietary groups in the study.

3
While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:
• Obesity is a significant health problem in many countries.
• This problem negatively affects the health and quality of life of millions of people.
• Adopting a vegetarian diet has been suggested as a possible way to address obesity.
• A vegetarian diet works by reducing the intake of high-calorie foods often found in non-vegetarian
diets.
• In a 2016 meta-analysis of randomized controlled trials by Huang, individuals following vegetarian
diets experienced significant weight loss.

The student wants to explain the proposed solution to obesity. Which choice most effectively uses relevant
information from the notes to fulfill this task?

A) Huang's 2016 meta-analysis of randomized controlled trials showed that vegetarian diets can lead to
significant weight loss.
B) To address the significant health problem of obesity, adopting a vegetarian diet, which reduces the intake
of high-calorie foods, has been suggested. This is supported by Huang's 2016 meta-analysis showing
significant weight loss in individuals following such diets.
C) A vegetarian diet can reduce the intake of high-calorie foods.
D) Obesity affects the health and quality of life of many people, which is why adopting a vegetarian diet could
be beneficial.

4
While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:
• A recent study conducted by the National Institute of Health has discovered a possible link between
plant-based diets and nutrient deficiencies.
• The research focused on the nutritional profiles of plant-based diets.
• The methodology used in the study included extensive dietary analysis and nutritional profiling.
• The finding has potential implications for those following or considering a plant-based diet.
• A potential increase in the prevalence of nutrient deficiencies, particularly in essential nutrients like
vitamin B12, iron, zinc, and omega-3 fatty acids, is a possible outcome of the recent research
finding.

The student wants to explain the possible application of the recent research finding. Which choice most
effectively uses relevant information from the notes to fulfill this task?

A) The National Institute of Health has conducted a study on the nutritional profiles of plant-based diets, which
might lead to an increase in nutrient deficiencies.

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B) The research conducted by the National Institute of Health suggests that a plant-based diet could lead to
deficiencies in essential nutrients like vitamin B12, iron, zinc, and omega-3 fatty acids.
C) The recent study indicates that adopting a plant-based diet requires careful planning or supplementation to
ensure adequate intake of essential nutrients like vitamin B12, iron, zinc, and omega-3 fatty acids.
D) The study's methodology included extensive dietary analysis and nutritional profiling, which revealed a link
between plant-based diets and nutrient deficiencies.

5
While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:
• The study "Risk of Iron Deficiency Anemia in Vegetarians" was conducted by Dr. Brown.
• Dr. Brown is known for his extensive research in nutritional science, particularly diet-based
deficiencies.
• The study depicts the potential risk of iron deficiency anemia among vegetarians.
• The study utilizes statistical data, dietary analysis, and health record reviews.
• The study is significant because it provides a better understanding of dietary deficiencies related to
vegetarian diets, which could influence dietary recommendations and interventions.

The student aims to describe Dr. Brown's research to an audience unfamiliar with the topic. Which choice
most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to fulfill this task?

A) Dr. Brown's study, "Risk of Iron Deficiency Anemia in Vegetarians," showcases his expertise in nutritional
science and diet-based deficiencies. It uses statistical data, dietary analysis, and health record reviews to
highlight the potential risk of iron deficiency anemia among vegetarians.

B) In his study "Risk of Iron Deficiency Anemia in Vegetarians," Dr. Brown, a nutritional scientist, explores the
risks vegetarians may face. This research, which employs a combination of statistical data, dietary analysis,
and health record reviews, can impact dietary recommendations and interventions.

C) Known for his research in nutritional science, Dr. Brown conducted a study titled "Risk of Iron Deficiency
Anemia in Vegetarians." Using statistical data, dietary analysis, and health record reviews, he was able to
show the potential risk of iron deficiency anemia in vegetarians, influencing future dietary guidelines.

D) Dr. Brown's study on the risk of iron deficiency anemia in vegetarians has a significant impact on dietary
recommendations. Using statistical data, dietary analysis, and health record reviews, he was able to provide a
better understanding of dietary deficiencies related to vegetarian diets.

6
While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:
• The study "Iodine Status of Vegetarians and Vegans" was conducted by Kudlackova in 2003.
• Vegans exclude all animal products from their diet, including dairy and eggs.
• Vegetarians typically exclude meat but may consume dairy and eggs.
• Iodine is an essential mineral that plays a crucial role in thyroid function and overall health.
• The study found that vegans had lower iodine levels compared to vegetarians.
• This difference in iodine status may be attributed to the exclusion of dairy and eggs from the vegan
diet.

The student wants to emphasize a difference between the iodine status of vegetarians and vegans. Which
choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to fulfill this task?

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A) The iodine status of vegetarians and vegans was examined in a study conducted by Kudlackova in 2003,
revealing that vegans had lower iodine levels compared to vegetarians.
B) The study conducted by Kudlackova in 2003 highlighted the importance of iodine in thyroid function and
overall health for both vegetarians and vegans.
C) In a study conducted by Kudlackova in 2003, it was found that while vegetarians may consume dairy and
eggs, vegans exclude these animal products, resulting in lower iodine levels for vegans.
D) Kudlackova's 2003 study focused on the iodine status of vegetarians and vegans, emphasizing the
significance of iodine for thyroid function and overall health.

7
While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:
• Dr. John Reynolds, a dental researcher, conducted a study on the dental health of vegetarian adults.
• Dr. Reynolds found that vegetarian adults tend to have a lower incidence of gum disease.
• This is hypothesized to be due to their increased intake of fruits and vegetables, which naturally
clean the teeth and gums.
• Dr. Maria Santos, another dental researcher, conducted a parallel study on the dental health of non-
vegetarian adults.
• Dr. Santos found that non-vegetarian adults also have a lower incidence of gum disease when they
maintain a diet rich in fruits and vegetables.
• Her research indicates that regardless of the overall diet, a higher consumption of fruits and
vegetables seems to be beneficial for dental health.

The student wants to emphasize a similarity between Dr. Reynolds’s research finding and Dr. Santos’s
research finding. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to fulfill this task?

A) Dr. Reynolds conducted a study on the dental health of vegetarian adults, while Dr. Santos focused her
research on non-vegetarian adults.
B) Both Dr. Reynolds and Dr. Santos found that adults, whether vegetarian or non-vegetarian, tend to have a
lower incidence of gum disease when their diet is rich in fruits and vegetables.
C) Dr. Reynolds hypothesized that the lower incidence of gum disease among vegetarians is due to their
increased intake of fruits and vegetables.
D) Dr. Santos found that a higher consumption of fruits and vegetables seems to be beneficial for dental
health, irrespective of the overall diet.

8
While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:
• Dr. Alice Hartley, a dietitian, states that plant-based diets can provide all necessary nutrients while
reducing the risk of certain diseases.
• According to Dr. Hartley, a balanced vegetarian or vegan diet can meet all nutritional needs.
• Dr. James Peterson, a nutritionist, argues that animal products are important sources of essential
nutrients that may be less bioavailable or absent in plant-based foods.
• Dr. Peterson's research indicates that meat-based diets can provide nutrients such as vitamin B12,
zinc, and iron in readily absorbable forms."

The student wants to make a mutual generalization about the nutritional adequacy of plant-based and meat-
based diets. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to fulfill this task?

A) Dr. Alice Hartley, a dietitian, believes that plant-based diets are nutritionally adequate and can reduce the
risk of certain diseases.
B) Dr. James Peterson's research emphasizes the importance of animal products for providing essential
nutrients in readily absorbable forms.
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C) Both Dr. Hartley and Dr. Peterson agree that whether it's plant-based or meat-based, a balanced diet can
provide all necessary nutrients, albeit with differences in bioavailability.
D) Dr. Hartley and Dr. Peterson have differing views on the nutritional adequacy of plant-based and meat-
based diets.

9
While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:
• Dr. Clark's study indicates that a diet high in protein can trigger feelings of fullness.
• According to Dr. Clark's research, this sense of satiety can help individuals avoid overeating.
• Dr. Clark suggests that a diet rich in lean meats, a good source of protein, can aid in weight
management.
• In a related study, Dr. Thompson demonstrates that protein-rich foods, particularly lean meats,
contribute to improved muscle growth and repair.

The student wants to explain the advantages of a protein-rich diet. Which choice most effectively uses
relevant information from the notes to fulfill this task?

A) A protein-rich diet, particularly one that includes lean meats, can trigger feelings of satiety, which can help
individuals avoid overeating and manage weight, as well as improve muscle development.
B) Dr. Clark's study suggests that a diet high in protein can make you feel fuller, but it does not necessarily
aid in muscle growth and repair.
C) A protein-rich diet can promote feelings of fullness according to Dr. Clark, but Dr. Thompson's research
connects this to muscle growth and repair.
D) Both Dr. Clark and Dr. Thompson's studies suggest that eating more protein can help with weight
management, but only Dr. Thompson mentions the role of muscle growth and repair.

10
While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:
• A trend of better nutrient absorption from animal sources, as opposed to plant-based sources, has
been noted.
• Dr. Lee conducted a study on nutrient absorption to better understand the underlying causes of this
trend.
• Dr. Lee discovered that the human body's higher bioavailability of nutrients like iron and zinc from
animal sources played a significant role in this trend.
• Furthermore, the presence of certain binding inhibitors in plant-based sources was also found to
contribute to the lower absorption rate.
• Dr. Lee suggested possible implications of this trend for diet planning and nutrient deficiency
prevention.

The student wants to emphasize the trend of better nutrient absorption from animal sources and specify why
this trend occurs. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to fulfill this task?

A) According to Dr. Lee, the human body has a higher bioavailability of nutrients from animal sources, while
plant-based sources contain binding inhibitors that reduce absorption. The implications of this are unclear.
B) Dr. Lee's research indicates that iron and zinc are absorbed more readily from animal-based foods due to
their greater bioavailability and certain inhibitors present in plant-derived foods.
C) Dr. Lee found that iron and zinc are more bioavailable from animal sources, and there are binding
inhibitors in plant-based sources. However, it's not clear how these factors contribute to the trend of better
nutrient absorption from animal sources.

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D) A study by Dr. Lee suggests that nutrient absorption is better from animal sources due to bioavailability
and binding inhibitors in plants. This absorption pattern carries notable implications for dietary management
and deficiency avoidance.

11
While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:
• Dietitian Dr. Keiko Tanaka specializes in the study of traditional Asian diets.
• Asian diets are typically low in meat and high in plant-based foods like vegetables, rice, and
legumes.
• Asian diets include a variety of fermented foods, such as kimchi, miso, and tempeh, which promote
gut health.
• The Okinawa diet is a type of Asian diet followed in the Okinawa islands of Japan.
• It is associated with one of the highest rates of centenarians (people living over 100 years) in the
world.

The student wants to introduce the scientist and her field of study to a new audience. Which choice most
effectively uses relevant information from the notes to fulfill this task?

A) Located in Japan, Okinawa is known for its diet, which is one type of Asian diet associated with one of the
highest rates of centenarians in the world.
B) As Dr. Keiko Tanaka knows well, Asian diets, like the Okinawan diet, are high in plant-based foods, and
associated with high rates of longevity.
C) Providing a variety of fermented foods, Asian diets are typically low in meat and high in plant-based foods,
thus of great interest to dietitians.
D) Dietitian Dr. Keiko Tanaka studies Asian diets, typically low in meat and high in plant-based foods, which
are associated with high rates of longevity, as evidenced in Okinawa, Japan.

12
While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:
• The ketogenic, or "keto", diet is a low-carb, high-fat diet that has been linked to weight loss and
improved cognitive function.
• One reason the diet might work is that high-fat foods can make you feel fuller, so you eat less
overall.
• The Paleo diet, an alternative to standard diets, emphasizes proteins and fats while reducing
carbohydrate intake.
• Because of its similar emphasis on fats and proteins, adopting the Paleo diet can lead to similar
benefits as the keto diet, such as weight loss and improved cognitive function.

The student wants to explain advantages of the Paleo diet. Which choice most effectively uses relevant
information from the notes to fulfill this task?

A) The keto diet is a low-carb, high-fat diet, which is similar to the principles of the Paleo diet.
B) Adopting the Paleo diet would help align with the principles of the keto diet.
C) Designed to emphasize proteins and fats, the Paleo diet can lead to similar benefits as the keto diet,
including weight loss and improved cognitive function.
D) The Paleo diet was developed as an alternative to standard diets, which often emphasize carbohydrate
intake.

13
While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

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• Organisms release cellular material into their environment by shedding substances such as hair or
skin.
• The DNA in these substances is known as environmental DNA, or eDNA.
• Researchers collect and analyze eDNA to detect the presence of species that are difficult to
observe.
• Geneticist Sara Oyler-McCance’s research team analyzed eDNA in water samples from the Florida
Everglades to
• detect invasive constrictor snake species in the area.
• The study determined a 91% probability of detecting Burmese python eDNA in a given location.

The student wants to present the study to an audience already familiar with environmental DNA. Which
choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

A. Sara Oyler-McCance’s researchers analyzed eDNA in water samples from the Florida Everglades for
evidence of invasive constrictor snakes, which are difficult to observe.
B. An analysis of eDNA can detect the presence of invasive species that are difficult to observe, such as
constrictor snakes.
C. Researchers found Burmese python eDNA, or environmental DNA, in water samples; eDNA is the DNA in
released cellular materials, such as shed skin cells.
D. Sara Oyler-McCance’s researchers analyzed environmental DNA (eDNA)—that is, DNA from cellular
materials released by organisms—in water samples from the Florida Everglades.

14
While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:
• Sam Maloof (1916–2009) was an American woodworker and furniture designer.
• He was the son of Lebanese immigrants.
• He received a “genius grant” from the John D. and Catherine T. MacArthur Foundation in 1985.
• The Museum of Fine Arts in Boston, Massachusetts, owns a rocking chair that Maloof made from
walnut wood.
• The armrests and the seat of the chair are sleek and contoured, and the back consists of seven
spindle-like slats.

The student wants to describe the rocking chair to an audience unfamiliar with Sam Maloof. Which choice
most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

A. With its sleek, contoured armrests and seat, the walnut rocking chair in Boston’s Museum of Fine Arts is
just one piece of furniture created by American woodworker Sam Maloof.
B. Sam Maloof was born in 1916 and died in 2009, and during his life, he made a chair that you can see if
you visit the Museum of Fine Arts in Boston.
C. Furniture designer Sam Maloof was a recipient of one of the John D. and Catherine T. MacArthur
Foundation’s “genius grants.”
D. The rocking chair is made from walnut, and it has been shaped such that its armrests and seat are sleek
and contoured.

15
While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:
• Species belonging to the Orchidaceae (orchid) family can be found in both tropical and temperate
environments.
• Orchidaceae species diversity has not been well studied in temperate forests, such as those in
Oaxaca, Mexico.
• Arelee Estefanía Muñoz-Hernández led a study to determine how many different Orchidaceae
species are present

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• in the forests of Oaxaca.

• Muñoz-Hernández and her team collected orchids each month for a year at a site in Oaxaca.
• Seventy-four Orchidaceae species were present at the site.

The student wants to present the study and its findings. Which choice most effectively uses relevant
information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

A. A study led by Arelee Estefanía Muñoz-Hernández identified a total of 74 Orchidaceae species in the
temperate forests of Oaxaca, Mexico.
B. There are orchids in many environments, but there are 74 Orchidaceae species in Oaxaca, Mexico.
C. Oaxaca, Mexico, is home to temperate forests containing 74 Orchidaceae species.
D. Arelee Estefanía Muñoz-Hernández and her team wanted to know how many different Orchidaceae
species are present in the forests of Oaxaca, Mexico, so they conducted a study to collect orchids.

16
While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:
• Platinum is a rare and expensive metal.
• It is used as a catalyst for chemical reactions.
• Platinum catalysts typically require a large amount of platinum to be effective.
• Researcher Jianbo Tang and his colleagues created a platinum catalyst that combines platinum with
liquid
• gallium.
• Their catalyst was highly effective and required only trace amounts of platinum (0.0001% of the
atoms in the
• mixture).
• The student wants to explain an advantage of the new platinum catalyst developed by Jianbo Tang
and his colleagues.
Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

A. Researcher Jianbo Tang and his colleagues created a platinum catalyst that combines platinum, a rare
and expensive metal, with liquid gallium.
B. Like other platinum catalysts, the new platinum catalyst requires a particular amount of the metal to be
effective.
C. Platinum is a rare and expensive metal that is used as a catalyst for chemical reactions; however,
platinum catalysts
typically require a large amount of platinum to be effective.
D. While still highly effective, the new platinum catalyst requires far less of the rare and expensive metal than
do other platinum catalysts.

17
While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:
• Allan Houser was a Chiricahua Warm Springs Apache sculptor, illustrator, and painter.
• Many of his sculptures featured Native American figures.
• He depicted this subject matter using abstract, modernist forms, developing a distinctive style that
influenced many other artists.
• His well-known sculpture Sacred Rain Arrow was pictured on the State of Oklahoma license plate.

The student wants to describe the distinctive style of Houser’s sculptures. Which choice most effectively uses
relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

A. A sculptor, illustrator, and painter, Houser developed a distinctive style for portraying Native American
figures.

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B. Houser’s sculptures employ abstract, modernist forms to depict Native American figures.
C. Many other artists have been influenced by the style of Houser’s sculptures.
D. The sculpture Sacred Rain Arrow is a well-known example of Houser’s style.

18
While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:
• In the midst of the US Civil War, Susie Taylor escaped slavery and fled to Union-army-occupied St.
Simons Island off the Georgia coast.
• She began working for an all-Black army regiment as a nurse and teacher.
• In 1902, she published a book about the time she spent with the regiment.
• Her book was the only Civil War memoir to be published by a Black woman.
• It is still available to readers in print and online.

The student wants to emphasize the uniqueness of Taylor’s accomplishment. Which choice most effectively
uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

A. Taylor fled to St. Simons Island, which was then occupied by the Union army, for whom she began
working.
B. After escaping slavery, Taylor began working for an all-Black army regiment as a nurse and teacher.
C. The book Taylor wrote about the time she spent with the regiment is still available to readers in print and
online.
D. Taylor was the only Black woman to publish a Civil War memoir.

19
While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:
• Cities tend to have a wide range of flowering vegetation in parks, yards, and gardens.
• This vegetation provides a varied diet for honeybees, strengthening bees’ immune systems.
• On average, 62.5 percent of bees in an urban area will survive a harsh winter.
• Rural areas are often dominated by monoculture crops such as corn or wheat.
• On average, only 40 percent of honeybees in a rural area will survive a harsh winter.

The student wants to make and support a generalization about honeybees. Which choice most effectively
uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

A. Cities tend to have a wider range of flowering vegetation than do rural areas, which are often dominated
by monoculture crops.
B. In urban areas, over 60 percent of honeybees, on average, will survive a harsh winter, whereas in rural
areas, only 40 percent will.
C. The strength of honeybees’ immune systems depends on what the bees eat, and a varied diet is more
available to bees in an urban area than to those in a rural area.
D. Honeybees are more likely to thrive in cities than in rural areas because the varied diet available in urban
areas strengthens the bees’ immune systems.

20
While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:
• In 2018 researchers Adwait Deshpande, Shreejata Gupta, and Anindya Sinha were observing wild
macaques in India’s Bandipur National Park.
• They saw macaques calling out to and gesturing at humans who were eating or carrying food.
• They designed a study to find out if the macaques were intentionally communicating to try to
persuade the
• humans to share their food.
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• In the study trials, macaques frequently called out to and gestured at humans holding food.
• In the study trials, macaques called out to and gestured at empty-handed humans less frequently.

The student wants to present the study’s results. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information
from the notes to accomplish this goal?

A. Macaques in the study called out to and gestured more frequently at humans holding food than at empty-
handed humans.
B. In 2018, researchers who had observed macaques in India’s Bandipur National Park calling out to and
gesturing at humans designed a study.
C. The researchers hoped to find out if the macaques were intentionally communicating to try to persuade
humans to share their food.
D. The researchers studied how macaques behaved around both humans holding food and empty-handed
humans.

21
While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:
• In 2013, archaeologists studied cat bone fragments they had found in the ruins of Quanhucun, a
Chinese farming village.
• The fragments were estimated to be 5,300 years old.
• A chemical analysis of the fragments revealed that the cats had consumed large amounts of grain.
• The grain consumption is evidence that the Quanhucun cats may have been domesticated.

The student wants to present the Quanhucun study and its conclusions. Which choice most effectively uses
relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

A. As part of a 2013 study of cat domestication, a chemical analysis was conducted on cat bone fragments
found in Quanhucun, China.
B. A 2013 analysis of cat bone fragments found in Quanhucun, China, suggests that cats there may have
been domesticated 5,300 years ago.
C. In 2013, archaeologists studied what cats in Quanhucun, China, had eaten more than 5,000 years ago.
D. Cat bone fragments estimated to be 5,300 years old were found in Quanhucun, China, in 2013.

22
While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:
• Muckrakers were journalists who sought to expose corruption in US institutions during the
Progressive Era (1897–1920).
• Ida Tarbell was a muckraker who investigated the Standard Oil Company.
• She interviewed Standard Oil Company executives, oil industry workers, and public officials.
• She examined thousands of pages of the company’s internal communications, including letters and
financial records.
• Her book The History of the Standard Oil Company (1904) exposed the company’s unfair business
practices.

The student wants to emphasize the thoroughness of Ida Tarbell’s investigation of the Standard Oil
Company. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

A. Ida Tarbell not only interviewed Standard Oil executives, oil industry workers, and public officials but also
examined thousands of pages of the company’s internal communications.
B. Ida Tarbell, who investigated the Standard Oil Company, was a muckraker (a journalist who sought to
expose corruption in US institutions during the Progressive Era, 1897–1920).

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C. As part of her investigation of the Standard Oil Company, muckraker Ida Tarbell conducted interviews.
D. Published in 1904, muckraker Ida Tarbell’s book The History of the Standard Oil Company exposed the
company’s unfair business practices.

23
While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:
• John Carver was one of the 41 signatories of the Mayflower Compact.
• The Mayflower Compact was a legal agreement among the pilgrims that immigrated to Plymouth
Colony.
• It was created in 1620 to establish a common government.
• It states that the pilgrims who signed it wanted to “plant the first colony in the northern parts of
Virginia” under King James.
• Carver became the first governor of Plymouth Colony.

The student wants to specify the reason the Mayflower Compact was created. Which choice most effectively
uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

A. Stating that its signatories wanted to “plant the first colony in the northern parts of Virginia,” the Mayflower
Compact was a legal agreement among the pilgrims that immigrated to Plymouth Colony.
B. Created in 1620, the Mayflower Compact states that the pilgrims wanted to “plant the first colony in the
northern parts of Virginia.”
C. The Mayflower Compact was created to establish a common government among the pilgrims that
immigrated to Plymouth Colony.
D. The Mayflower Compact had 41 signatories, including John Carver, the first governor of Plymouth Colony.

24
While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:
• Jordan Bennett is a Mi’Kmaq visual artist.
• The Mi’Kmaq are a First Nations people in North America.
• Bennett’s paintings pay homage to traditional Mi’Kmaq craftsmanship and have been displayed in
over 75 exhibitions.
• His 2017 exhibition Wije’wi was held at the Grenfell Art Gallery.
• His 2018 exhibition Ketu’elmita’jik was held at the Art Gallery of Nova Scotia.

The student wants to emphasize the order in which two of Jordan Bennett’s exhibitions were held. Which
choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

A. Jordan Bennett’s 2017 exhibition Wije’wi was followed a year later by his exhibition Ketu’elmita’jik.
B. Jordan Bennett’s paintings, some of which appeared in 2017 and 2018 exhibitions, pay homage to
traditional Mi’Kmaq craftsmanship.
C. Mi’Kmaq visual artist Jordan Bennett has displayed his work in over 75 exhibitions, including Wije’wi and
Ketu’elmita’jik.
D. Jordan Bennett’s 2018 exhibition Ketu’elmita’jik was held at the Art Gallery of Nova Scotia; another was
held at the Grenfell Art Gallery.

25
While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:
• Marine biologist Camille Jazmin Gaynus studies coral reefs.
• Coral reefs are vital underwater ecosystems that provide habitats to 25% of all marine species.
• Reefs can include up to 8,000 species of fish, such as toadfish, seahorses, and clown triggerfish.
• The Amazon Reef is a coral reef in Brazil.
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• It is one of the largest known reefs in the world.

The student wants to introduce the scientist and her field of study to a new audience. Which choice most
effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

A. Located in Brazil, the Amazon Reef is one of the largest known coral reefs in the world.
B. Marine biologist Camille Jazmin Gaynus studies coral reefs, vital underwater ecosystems that provide
homes to 25% of all marine species.
C. Providing homes to 25% of all marine species, including up to 8,000 species of fish, coral reefs are vital
underwater ecosystems and thus of great interest to marine biologists.
D. As Camille Jazmin Gaynus knows well, coral reefs are vital underwater ecosystems, providing homes to
thousands of species of fish.

26
While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:
• The Heartbeat of Wounded Knee: Native America from 1890 to the Present is a history book by
Ojibwe author David Treuer.
• In a review, a critic for The Economist noted that “Treuer’s storytelling skills shine” and that the book
is an “elegant handling of [a] complex narrative.”
• A critic for O, The Oprah Magazine called it “a marvel of research and storytelling.”
• A critic for the Missoulian dubbed it “a monumental achievement.”

The student wants to emphasize a similarity in how critics responded to Treuer’s book. Which choice most
effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

A. Treuer’s book, which was widely reviewed, focuses on Native American history from 1890 to the present.
B. Dubbed “a monumental achievement” by the Missoulian, Treuer’s book documents over a century of
Native American history.
C. Critics praised Treuer’s book for its compelling narrative, with O, The Oprah Magazine calling it “a marvel
of research and storytelling” and The Economist likewise writing that “Treuer’s storytelling skills shine” and
that the book is an “elegant handling of [a] complex narrative.”
D. While the Missoulian focused on the book’s broader achievement, The Economist zeroed in on Treuer’s
storytelling skills.

27
While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:
• In 2019, Emily Shepard and colleagues in the UK and Germany studied the effect of wind on auks’
success in landing at cliffside nesting sites.
• They found as wind conditions intensified, the birds needed more attempts in order to make a
successful landing.
• When the wind was still, almost 100% of landing attempts were successful.
• In a strong breeze, approximately 40% of attempts were successful.
• In near-gale conditions, only around 20% of attempts were successful.

The student wants to summarize the study. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the
notes to accomplish this goal?

A. For a 2019 study, researchers from the UK and Germany collected data on auks’ attempts to land at
cliffside nesting sites in different wind conditions.
B. Emily Shepard and her colleagues wanted to know the extent to which wind affected auks’ success in
landing at cliffside nesting sites, so they conducted a study.

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C. Knowing that auks often need multiple attempts to land at their cliffside nesting sites, Emily Shepard
studied the birds’ success rate, which was only around 20% in some conditions.
D. Emily Shepard’s 2019 study of auks’ success in landing at cliffside nesting sites showed that as wind
conditions intensified, the birds’ success rate decreased.

28
While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:
• In 2020, theater students at Radford and Virginia Tech chose an interactive, online format to present
a play about woman suffrage activists.
• Their “Women and the Vote” website featured an interactive digital drawing of a Victorian-style
house.
• Audiences were asked to focus on a room of their choice and select from that room an artifact
related to the
• suffrage movement.
• One click took them to video clips, songs, artwork, and texts associated with the artifact.
• The play was popular with audiences because the format allowed them to control the experience.

The student wants to explain an advantage of the “Women and the Vote” format. Which choice most
effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

A. “Women and the Vote” featured a drawing of a Victorian-style house with several rooms, each containing
suffrage artifacts.
B. To access video clips, songs, artwork, and texts, audiences had to first click on an artifact.
C. The “Women and the Vote” format appealed to audiences because it allowed them to control the
experience.
D. Using an interactive format, theater students at Radford and Virginia Tech created “Women and the Vote,”
a play about woman suffrage activists.

29
While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:
• Soo Sunny Park is a Korean American artist who uses light as her primary medium of expression.
• She created her work Unwoven Light in 2013.
• Unwoven Light featured a chain-link fence fitted with iridescent plexiglass tiles.
• When light passed through the fence, colorful prisms formed.

The student wants to describe Unwoven Light to an audience unfamiliar with Soo Sunny Park. Which choice
most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

A. Park’s 2013 installation Unwoven Light, which included a chain-link fence and iridescent tiles made from
plexiglass, featured light as its primary medium of expression.
B. Korean American light artist Soo Sunny Park created Unwoven Light in 2013.
C. The chain-link fence in Soo Sunny Park’s Unwoven Light was fitted with tiles made from iridescent
plexiglass.
D. In Unwoven Light, a 2013 work by Korean American artist Soo Sunny Park, light formed colorful prisms as
it passed through a fence Park had fitted with iridescent tiles.

30
While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:
• Bharati Mukherjee was an Indian-born author of novels and short stories.

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• She published the novel The Holder of the World in 1993.

• A central character in the novel is a woman living in twentieth-century United States.
• Another central character is a woman living in seventeenth-century India.

The student wants to introduce the novel The Holder of the World to an audience already familiar with Bharati
Mukherjee. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

A. Bharati Mukherjee’s settings include both twentieth-century United States and seventeenth-century India.
B. In addition to her novel The Holder of the World, which was published in 1993, Indian-born author Bharati
Mukherjee wrote other novels and short stories.
C. Bharati Mukherjee’s novel The Holder of the World centers around two women, one living in twentieth-
century United States and the other in seventeenth-century India.
D. The Holder of the World was not the only novel written by Indian-born author Bharati Mukherjee.

31
While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

• Severo Ochoa discovered the enzyme PNPase in 1955.

• PNPase is involved in both the creation and degradation of mRNA.
• Ochoa incorrectly hypothesized that PNPase provides the genetic blueprints for mRNA.
• The discovery of PNPase proved critical to deciphering the human genetic code.
• Deciphering the genetic code has led to a better understanding of how genetic variations affect
human health.

The student wants to emphasize the significance of Ochoa’s discovery. Which choice most effectively uses
relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

A. Ochoa’s 1955 discovery of PNPase proved critical to deciphering the human genetic code, leading to a
better understanding of how genetic variations affect human health.
B. Ochoa first discovered PNPase, an enzyme that he hypothesized contained the genetic blueprints for
mRNA, in 1955.
C. In 1955, Ochoa discovered the PNPase enzyme, which is involved in both the creation and degradation of
mRNA.
D. Though his discovery of PNPase was critical to deciphering the human genetic code, Ochoa incorrectly
hypothesized that the enzyme was the source of mRNA’s genetic blueprints.

32
While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:
• Pterosaurs were flying reptiles that existed millions of years ago.
• In a 2021 study, Anusuya Chinsamy-Turan analyzed fragments of pterosaur jawbones located in the
Sahara Desert.
• She was initially unsure if the bones belonged to juvenile or adult pterosaurs.
• She used advanced microscope techniques to determine that the bones had few growth lines
relative to the
• bones of fully grown pterosaurs.
• She concluded that the bones belonged to juveniles.

The student wants to present the study and its findings. Which choice most effectively uses relevant
information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

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A. In 2021, Chinsamy-Turan studied pterosaur jawbones and was initially unsure if the bones belonged to
juveniles or adults.
B. Pterosaur jawbones located in the Sahara Desert were the focus of a 2021 study.
C. In a 2021 study, Chinsamy-Turan used advanced microscope techniques to analyze the jawbones of
pterosaurs, flying reptiles that existed millions of years ago.
D. In a 2021 study, Chinsamy-Turan determined that pterosaur jawbones located in the Sahara Desert had
few growth lines relative to the bones of fully grown pterosaurs and thus belonged to juveniles.

33
While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:
• Some US reformers sought to improve society in the 1800s by building utopias.
• A utopia is a community intended to represent a perfect society based on a specific set of principles.
• One such community was Brook Farm near Boston, Massachusetts.
• It was founded in 1841 by writer George Ripley.
• Ripley wrote in a letter that his goal for Brook Farm was “to guarantee the highest mental freedom,
by providing all with labor, adapted to their tastes and talents, and securing to them the fruits of their
industry.”

The student wants to explain the goal of Brook Farm using a quotation from George Ripley. Which choice
most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

A. In a letter, writer George Ripley explained his goal to “guarantee the highest mental freedom.”
B. Utopias, such as Brook Farm, founded by George Ripley in 1841, were based on a specific set of
principles intended to create a perfect society.
C. Founded by George Ripley near Boston, Massachusetts, Brook Farm was part of a trend in the 1800s,
when reformers in the United States built utopias.
D. Established in 1841, Brook Farm was a utopian community created to “guarantee the highest mental
freedom, by providing all with labor... [and] the fruits of their industry,” according to founder George Ripley.

34
While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

• In 1999, astronomer Todd Henry studied the differences in surface temperature between the Sun
and nearby stars.
• His team mapped all stars within 10 parsecs (approximately 200 trillion miles) of the Sun.
• The surface temperature of the Sun is around 9,800°F, which classifies it as a G star.
• 327 of the 357 stars in the study were classified as K or M stars, with surface temperatures under
8,900°F (cooler than the Sun).
• 11 of the 357 stars in the study were classified as A or F stars, with surface temperatures greater
than 10,300°F (hotter than the Sun).

The student wants to emphasize how hot the Sun is relative to nearby stars. Which choice most effectively
uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

A. At around 9,800°F, which classifies it as a G star, the Sun is hotter than most but not all of the stars within
10 parsecs of it.
B. Astronomer Todd Henry determined that the Sun, at around 9,800°F, is a G star, and several other stars
within a 10-parsec range are A or F stars.
C. Of the 357 stars within ten parsecs of the Sun, 327 are classified as K or M stars, with surface
temperatures under 8,900°F.

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D. While most of the stars within 10 parsecs of the Sun are classified as K, M, A, or F stars, the Sun is
classified as a G star due to its surface temperature of 9,800°F.

35
While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:
• In 1851, German American artist Emanuel Leutze painted Washington Crossing the Delaware.
• His huge painting (149 × 255 inches) depicts the first US president crossing a river with soldiers in
the Revolutionary War.
• In 2019, Cree artist Kent Monkman painted mistikôsiwak (Wooden Boat People): Resurgence of the
People.
• Monkman’s huge painting (132 × 264 inches) was inspired by Leutze’s.
• It portrays Indigenous people in a boat rescuing refugees.

The student wants to emphasize a similarity between the two paintings. Which choice most effectively uses
relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

A. Monkman, a Cree artist, finished his painting in 2019; Leutze, a German American artist, completed his in
1851.
B. Although Monkman’s painting was inspired by Leutze’s, the people and actions the two paintings portray
are very different.
C. Leutze’s and Monkman’s paintings are both huge, measuring 149 × 255 inches and 132 × 264 inches,
respectively.
D. Leutze’s painting depicts Revolutionary War soldiers, while Monkman’s depicts Indigenous people and
refugees.

36
While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

• In the early 1960s, the US had a strict national-origins quota system for immigrants.
• The number of new immigrants allowed from a country each year was based on how many people
from that country lived in the US in 1890.
• This system favored immigrants from northern Europe.
• Almost 70% of slots were reserved for immigrants from Great Britain, Ireland, and Germany.
• The 1965 Hart-Celler Act abolished the national-origins quota system.

The student wants to present the significance of the Hart-Celler Act to an audience unfamiliar with the history
of US immigration. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this
goal?

A. Almost 70% of slots were reserved for immigrants from Great Britain, Ireland, and Germany at the time the
Hart-Celler Act was proposed.
B. Prior to the Hart-Celler Act, new immigration quotas were based on how many people from each country
lived in the US in 1890.
C. The quota system in place in the early 1960s was abolished by the 1965 Hart-Celler Act.
D. The 1965 Hart-Celler Act abolished the national-origins quota system, which favored immigrants from
northern Europe.

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Unit 15: Practice Test 02

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Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

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Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

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Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

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Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

352
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

MATHEMATICS

ALGEBRA

353
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

Unit 1 – Maths Fundamentals

354
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Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

355
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

356
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

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ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

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Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

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ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

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ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
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ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

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ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

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ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

364
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

365
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

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ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

367
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

368
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

369
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

-4.25 or -17/4

370
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

-4

371
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

372
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

Unit 2 – Linear Equations & Linear Functions

373
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

374
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

375
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

376
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

-2
3/2
-15/13
F = 9C/5 + 32
b = 2A/h - a

377
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

18

378
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

379
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

380
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

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ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

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ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

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ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

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ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

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ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

70

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ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

387
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Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

36

388
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

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ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

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ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

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ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

10

392
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

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ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

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ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

395
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

15

396
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

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ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

398
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

399
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

400
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

401
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

402
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

403
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

404
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

930

405
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

406
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

3.5

125

407
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

408
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

409
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

Unit 3 –System of Equations & Inequalities

410
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

200

411
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

412
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

413
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

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ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

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Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

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1/2

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Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

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Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

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Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

419
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

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ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

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Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

422
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

9/2

423
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

424
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

425
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

1,2,3, or 4

426
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

427
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

428
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

429
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

430
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

431
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

432
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

400

433
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Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

434
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

435
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

436
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

437
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

438
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

439
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

440
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

441
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

442
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

32

-5

443
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

444
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

445
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

STATISTICS AND DATA ANALYSIS

446
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

Unit 4 – Rates, Ratios, Proportions, Percents, and Units

447
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

756

5940

448
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

449
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

450
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

451
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

10.34

452
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

60

453
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

454
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

455
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

12

42

456
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

457
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

458
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

50

0.252

459
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

460
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

461
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

18

462
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

463
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

464
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

465
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

466
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

59

467
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

54

50

468
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

469
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

Unit 5 – Tables, Statistics, and Probability

470
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

471
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

649

472
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

473
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

474
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

475
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

476
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

477
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

478
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

300

479
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

480
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

481
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

482
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

483
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

484
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

485
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

486
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

487
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

488
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

489
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

490
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

491
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

492
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

493
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

494
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

495
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

496
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

1/3

6.2

497
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

498
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

Unit 6 – Scatterplots

499
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

500
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

501
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

502
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

503
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

504
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

505
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

506
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

18

507
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

508
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

509
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

510
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

511
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

512
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

513
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

514
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

515
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

516
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

18.54

517
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

518
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

519
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

520
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

1.92

521
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

522
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

523
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

ADVANCED MATH

524
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

Unit 7 – Absolute value and Nonlinear functions

525
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

-2

526
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

527
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

528
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

529
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

530
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

1.5

531
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

532
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

533
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

534
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

535
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

536
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

537
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

538
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

9620

-20

539
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

540
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

541
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

Unit 8 – Exponents, Radicals, Polynomials, and Rational

Expressions

542
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

543
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

544
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

545
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

546
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

81 64
-125 49x2
1 4
2 a10
9
1/b18

547
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

256

548
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

549
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

550
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

11/3
15

20

5/12
-4
10

18

9|x| / 8y2

x4 / y 6

551
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

16

552
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

553
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

554
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

555
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

556
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

557
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

558
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

559
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

560
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

561
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

562
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

563
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

564
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

74

17

160

565
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

566
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

567
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

568
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

569
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

570
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

571
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

572
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

573
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

Unit 9 – Quadratics

574
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

575
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

576
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

577
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

(a+3)(a+5) 5(x+1)(x+1)

(x-3)(x+7) 2(x-3)(x+9)

(b+2)(b-9) 3(x-1)(x-1)

(y-4)(y-6) (x+y)(x+2y)

(x+1)(x-1/2) 4(a-b)(a+2b)

578
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

579
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

580
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

581
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

582
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

583
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

584
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

585
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

586
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

587
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

588
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

589
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

590
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

591
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

5/2

592
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

593
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

594
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

-1/4

595
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

596
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

20

597
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

16/20

598
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

599
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

87

-2

600
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

-27

601
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

67

14

602
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

-11

603
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

604
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

GEOMETRY

605
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

Unit 10 – Geometry

606
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

607
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

608
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

609
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

610
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

611
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

612
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

613
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

70

614
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

330

615
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

616
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

617
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

618
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

14

619
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

620
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

621
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

622
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

426

623
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

624
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

625
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

626
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

627
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

628
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

629
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

630
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

30

631
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

632
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

633
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

634
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

635
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

636
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

637
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

638
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

639
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

640
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

641
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

68

642
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

643
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

644
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

645
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

646
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

126

647
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

648
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

55

649
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

650
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

Unit 12 – Trigonometry

651
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

7/25

652
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

653
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

654
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

12/5

12

18/30

655
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

656
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

657
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

11

658
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

40

659
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

7.5

660
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

661
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

70

662
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

663
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

664
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

665
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

Unit 13 – Practice Test 01

666
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

667
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

-1.5

668
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

-1

669
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

670
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

20

671
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

672
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

673
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

674
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

1440

1
675
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

10

676
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

677
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

0.8

678
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

20

679
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

680
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

16

681
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

682
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

683
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

684
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

0.4

685
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

432

686
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

687
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

Unit 14 – Practice Test 02

688
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

689
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

690
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

691
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

-4

692
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

1.5

693
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

11/4

694
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

695
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

696
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

697
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

972

698
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

699
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

700
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

701
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

702
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

1.5

703
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

704
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

705
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

-3 -4 or -5

706
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

-4

1/13

707
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

708
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen
Digital SAT Coursebook Jan 2024

709
ETEST Academy – by Jason Nguyen