24-11-2024

9610WMD801329240009 MD

PHYSICS

SECTION-A

1) In new system of untis unit of mass α kg, unit of length is β m & unit of time is γ sec then in this
system 10 J will be represented by :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

2) The frequency of vibration f of a mass m suspended from a spring of spring constant K is given by
a relation of this type, f = CmxKy. Where C is a dimensionless quantity. The values of x and y are :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

3) A particle of unit mass undergoes one-dimensional motion such that its velocity varies according
to v(x) = βx–2n where β and n are constants and x is the position of the particle. The acceleration of
the particle as a function of x, is given by :

(1) –2nβ2x–4n – 1
(2) –2β2x–2n + 1
(3) –2nβ2x–4n + 1
(4) –2nβ2x–2n – 1

4) Find the acceleration of particle at x = 5 m with the help of graph, where v is velocity and x is

displacement.
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

5) Ship A is moving at a speed of 3 m/s towards East and ship B towards North with a speed of 4 m/s.
If ship A is chosen as frame of reference, the direction and magnitude of velocity of ship B will be :-

(1) 5 m/s ; 53° North of West

(2) 5 m/s ; 37° North of East
(3) 5 m/s ; 37° East of South
(4) 5 m/s ; 53° South of West

6)

A body of mass 1 kg lies on smooth inclined plane. A force F = 10N is applied horizontally on the
block as shown. The magnitude of normal reaction by inclined plane on the block is:

(1)
(2) 40 N
(3) 10 N
(4) 20 N

7) For the system shown in figure, the pulleys and string are ideal. The tension in the string will be :-

(1)
θ

(2)
mg sinθ
(3) 2 mg sinθ
(4)
sinθ

8) Referring to figure (A) & (B) :-

(1) Reading of spring balance in (A) is 8 g and in (B) is also 8 g

(2) Reading in (A) is less than 8 g and in (B), it is 8 g
(3) Reading of spring balance in (A) is 8 g and in (B), it is less than 8 g
(4) Reading in both (A) and (B) is less than 8 g

9) In Fig. spring constant of the spring is 100 N/m. Extension produced in the spring is;(g = 10m/s2)

(1) 10 cm
(2) 20 cm
(3) 30 cm
(4) 40 cm

10) At time t = 0 particle starts moving along the x-axis. If its kinetic energy increases uniformly
with time 't', the net force acting on it must be proportional to :-

(1)
(2) constant
(3) t

(4)

11) A rod of length 1m and mass 0.5 kg hinged at one end, is initially hanging vertical. The other end
is now raised slowly until it makes an angle 60º with the vertical. The required work is :(use g = 10
m/s2)
(1)
J

(2)
J

(3)
J

(4)
J

12) If object is released from rest from given position than find height
upto which object can rise on inclined plane on other side.

(1) 0.2 m
(2) 1.2 m
(3) 0.6 m
(4) 0.1 m

13) A particle is released from a height H. At a certain height its kinetic energy is two times its
potential energy. Height and speed of particle at that instant are :-

(1)
,

(2)
,

(3)
,

(4) ,

14) A pump motor is used to deliver water at a certain rate from a given pipe. To obtain thrice as
much water from the pipe in the same time power of the motor has to be increased :-

(1) 3 times
(2) 9 times
(3) 27 times
(4) 81 times

15) A particle moves in a circular path of radius R with an angular velocity ω = a – bt where a and b
are positive constants and t is time. The magnitude of the acceleration of the particle after time
is :-
(1)

(2)
(3) R(a2 + b)
(4) a2R

16) A disc of radius R has a light pole fixed perpendicular to the disc at the circumference which in
turn has a pendulum of length R attached to its other end as shown in the following figure. The disc
is rotated with a constant angular velocity ω. The string is making an angle 30° with the rod, Then

the angular velocity ω of disc is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

17) If a particle starts from rest with constant angular acceleration over a circular path then find
ratio of angular displacements in first t sec, next t sec and in next t seconds. :-

(1) 1 : 2 : 3
(2) 1 : 3 : 5
(3) 1 : 4 : 9

(4)

18) A body of mass 'm' is moving with constant speed v on a track

shown in figure. At point A and point B radius of curvature is R. NA, NB and NC represents normal
reactions at A, B and C which of the following option is correct ?

(1)
NA = mg –
NB = mg +
(2)

(3) NC = mg
(4) All of these

19) A particle of mass m is released from the top of a smooth hemisphere of radius R. Calculate the
angle with vertical where it loses contact with the hemisphere.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

20) Three identical charged balls each of charge 2C are suspended from a common point P by silk
threads of 2m each (as shown in figure). They form an equilateral triangle of side 1m. The ratio of

net force on a charged ball to the force between any two charged balls will be : -

(1) 1 : 1
(2) 1 : 4
(3)
(4)

21) Two particles A and B having charges 20 μC and –5 μC respectively are held fixed with a
separation of 5 cm. At what position a third charged particle should be placed so that it does not

experience a net electric force?

(1) At 5 cm from 20 μC on the left side of system

(2) At 5 cm from –5 μC on the right side
(3) At 1.25 cm from –5 μC between two charges
(4) At midpoint between two charges

22) Shown in the figure are two point charges +Q and –Q inside the cavity of a spherical shell. The
charges are kept near the surface of the cavity on opposite sides of the centre of the shell. If σ1 is the
surface charge on the inner surface and Q1 net charge on it and σ2 the surface charge on the outer

surface and Q2 net charge on it then : -

 σ1≠ 0, Q1 = 0
(1)
σ2 = 0, Q2 = 0
σ1≠ 0, Q1 = 0
(2)
σ2≠ 0, Q2 = 0
σ1= 0, Q1 = 0
(3)
σ2 = 0, Q2 = 0
σ1≠ 0, Q1 ≠ 0
(4)
σ2≠ 0, Q2 ≠ 0

23) Consider the force F on a charge 'q' due to a uniformly charged spherical shell of radius R
carrying charge Q distributed uniformly over it. Which one of the following statements is true for F,
if 'q' is placed at distance r from the centre of the shell?

(1)
for r < R

(2)
> F > 0 for r < R

(3)
for r > R

(4)
for all r

24) A thin semi-circular ring of radius r has a positive charge q distributed uniformly over it. The net

field at the centre O is : -

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

25) In a cuboid of dimension 2L × 2L × L, a charge q is placed at the centre of the surfaces 'S'
having area of 4L2. The flux through the opposite surface to 'S' is given by :-

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

26) The equivalent capacitance of the combination shown is : -

(1)

(2) 4C
(3) 2C

(4)
C

27) A source of potential difference V is connected to the combination of two identical capacitors as
shown in the figure. When key 'K' is closed, the total energy stored across the combination is E1.
Now key 'K' is opened and dielectric of dielectric constant 5 is introduced between the plates of the
capacitors. The total energy stored across the combination is now E2. The ratio E1/E2 will be : -

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

28) Voltage rating of a parallel plate capacitor is 500 V. Its dielectric can withstand a maximum
electric field of 106 V/m. The plate area is 10–4 m2. What is the dielectric constant if the capacitance
is 15 pF? (given ε0 = 8.86 × 10–12 C2/Nm2)

(1) 3.8
(2) 8.5
(3) 4.5
(4) 6.2

29) Statement 1 : It is not possible to make a sphere of capacity 1 farad using a conducting
material.
Statement 2 : It is possible for earth as its radius is 6.4 × 106 m.

(1) Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is true, Statement 2 is the correct explanation of Statement 1.
(2) Statement 1 is false, Statement 2 is true.
Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is true, Statement 2 is not the correct explanation of
(3)
Statement 1.
(4) Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is false.

30) The electric current through a wire varies with time as I = I0 + βt, where I0 = 20 A and β = 3
A/s. The amount of electric charge crossed through a section of the wire in 20s is : -

(1) 1600 C
(2) 800 C
(3) 80 C
(4) 1000 C

31) In the given figure, a battery of emf E is connected across a conductor PQ of length ' ' and
different area of cross-sections having radii r1 and r2 (r2 < r1).

Choose the correct option as one moves from P to Q : -

(1) Drift velocity of electron increases.

(2) Electric field decreases.
(3) Electron current decreases.
(4) All of these.

32) The equivalent resistance between points A and B in the given network is : -

(1) 65Ω
(2) 20Ω
(3) 5Ω
(4) 2Ω

33) Two cells are connected in opposition as shown. Cell E1 is of 8V emf and 2Ω internal resistance;
the cell E2 is of 2V emf and 4Ω internal resistance. The terminal potential difference of cell E2 is

_________ V.

(1) 6V
(2) –8V
(3) –6V
(4) 8V

34) Given below are two statements : One is labelled as

Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
Assertion A : Alloys such as constantan and manganin are used in making standard resistance coils.
Reason R : Constantan and manganin has very small value of temperature coefficient of resistance.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true but R is false.
(4) A is false but R is true.

35) A point charge 2×10-2 C is moved from P to S in a uniform electric field of 30 NC-1 directed along
positive x-axis. If coordinated of P and S are (1,2,0)m and (0,0,0)m respectively, the work done by
electric field will be -

(1) 1200 mJ
(2) 600 mJ
(3) –600 mJ
(4) –1200 mJ

SECTION-B

1) The refractive index of water measured by the relation is found to have

values of 1.34, 1.38, 1.32 and 1.36; the mean value of refractive index with percentage error :-

(1) 1.35 ± 1.48%

(2) 1.35 ± 0%
(3) 1.36 ± 6%
(4) 1.36 ± 0%

2) The diameter of a cylinder is measured using a vernier calliper with no zero error. It is found that
the zero of the Vernier scale lies between 5.10 and 5.15 cm of the main scale. The vernier scale has
50 divisions equivalent to 2.45 cm. The 24th division of the Vernier scale exactly coincides with one of
the main scale divisions. The diameter of the cylinder is

(1) 4.112 cm
(2) 5.124 cm
(3) 5.136 cm
(4) 5.148 cm

3) A stone dropped from a building of height h and it reaches after t seconds on earth. From the
same building if two stones are thrown (one upwards and other downwards) with the same speed u
and they reach the earth surface after t1 and t2 seconds respectively, then :-

(1) t = t1 – t2

(2)
t=
(3) t =
t=
(4)

4) A ball is dropped from a tower. If it takes 1 sec to cross the last 55 m before hitting the ground,
find the height from which it was dropped. (g = 10 m/s2)

(1) 55 m
(2) 50 m
(3) 90 m
(4) 180 m

5) The given graph shows the variation of velocity with displacement. Which one of the graph given

below correctly represents the variation of acceleration with displacement ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

6) Two balls are thrown horizontally from the top of a tower with velocities v1 and v2 in opposite
directions at the same time. After how much time the angle between velocities of balls becomes
90°?
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

7) A heavy uniform chain lies on horiozntal table top. If the coefficient of friction between the chain
and the table surface is 0.25, then the maximum fraction of the length of the chain that can hang
over one edge of the table is

(1) 20%
(2) 25%
(3) 35%
(4) 15%

8) The force required to just move a body up an inclined plane is 3 times the force required to just
prevent the body from sliding down the plane. The coefficient of friction is μ. The inclination θ of the
plane is :-

(1) tan–1 (μ)

(2) tan–1 (μ/2)
(3) tan–1 (2μ)
(4) tan–1 (3μ)

9) The upper half of an inclined plane of inclination θ is perfectly smooth while the lower half is
rough. A body starting from the rest at the top comes back to rest at the bottom if the coefficient of
friction for the lower half is given by

(1) μ= sinθ
(2) μ= cotθ
(3) μ= 2cosθ
(4) μ= 2tanθ

10) A single conservative force acts on a 2 kg particle that moves along the x-axis. The potential
energy is given by U = (x – 4)2 – 16. Here, x is in metre and U in Joule. At x = 6m, the kinetic energy
of particle is 8J then maximum kinetic energy of the particle is :-

(1) 16J
(2) –4J
(3) 8J
(4) 12J

11)
The force acting on a body moving along x-axis varies with the position of the particle as shown in
the figure. The body is in stable equilibrium at -

(1) x = x1
(2) x = x2
(3) Both x1 and x2
(4) Neither x1 nor x2

12) Two point charges Q each are placed at a distance d apart. A third point charge q is placed at a
distance x from mid-point on the perpendicular bisector. The value of x at which charge q will
experience the maximum Coulomb's force is : -

(1) x = d

(2)
x=
x=
(3)

(4)
x=

13) If the charge on a capacitor is increased by 2 C, the energy stored in it increases by 44%. The
original charge on the capacitor is (in C) : -

(1) 10
(2) 20
(3) 30
(4) 40

14) A Copper (Cu) rod of length 25 cm and cross-sectional area 3 mm2 is joined with a similar
Aluminium (Al) rod as shown in figure. Find the resistance of the combination between the ends A
and B. (Take Resistivity of Copper = 1.7 × 10–8 Ωm Resistivity of Aluminium = 2.6 × 10–8 Ωm )

(1) 2.170 mΩ
(2) 1.420 mΩ
(3) 0.0858 mΩ
(4) 0.858 mΩ
15) The current flowing through R2 is : -

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A

1) For the gaseous phase reaction: A(g) ⟶ product, occurring at constant volume the correct

relation between is:

[CA ⟶ Concentration of reactant A, nA ⟶ Moles of reactant A, PA ⟶ Partial pressure of reactant A]

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

2) For the reaction 3A → Products the value of k = 1×10–3 L mol–1 min–1. The value of in mol L–1
sec–1 when [A] = 2 M is

(1) 6.67 × 10–3

(2) 1.2 × 10–2
(3) 2 × 10–4
(4) 4 × 10–3

3) Consider the hypothetical reaction: A + 2B → C. The rate remains constant when the
concentration of A is doubled, and the concentration of B is held constant. The reaction rate doubles
when the concentration of B is doubled, and the concentration of A is held constant. What are the
orders of A and B in this reaction?
(1) A = 0, B = 1
(2) A = 0, B = 2
(3) A = 1, B = 2
(4) A = 1, B = 0

4) In a first order reaction the reacting substance has half-life period of ten minutes. What fraction
of the substance will be left after an hour ?

(1)
of initial concentration

(2)
of initial concentration

(3)
of initial concentration

(4)
of initial concentration

5) The role of a catalyst is to change:

(1) Gibbs energy of reaction.

(2) Enthalpy of reaction.
(3) Activation energy of reaction.
(4) Equilibrium constant.

6) For a first order reaction A → P, the temperature (T) dependent rate constant (k) was found to

follow the equation log k = – (2000) + 6.0. The pre-exponential factor A and the activation energy
Ea, respectively, are:

(1) 1.0 × 106 s–1 and 9.2 kJ mol–1

(2) 6.0 s–1 and 16.6 kJ mo1–1
(3) 1.0 × 106 s–1 and 6.6 kJ mo1–1
(4) 1.0 × 106 s–1 and 38.3 kJ mo1–1

7) A 1000 W radio transmitter operates at a frequency of at 880 kHz. How many photons per second
does it emit ?

(1) 2.51 × 1030

(2) 2.27 × 1030
(3) 1.72 × 1030
(4) 1.72 × 1027

8) Ratio of wavelength of series limit of Paschen and Brackett series for a single electronic species is
:

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

9) Orbital angular momentum of 3s and 3p are:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
0,

10) The correct quantum numbers of 3p-electrons are:

(1) n = 3, ℓ = 2, m = +2, s = +1/2

(2) n = 3, ℓ = 1, m = –1, s = –1/2
(3) n = 3, ℓ = –2, m = –2, s = +1/2
(4) none of these

11) An excited hydrogen atom returns to the ground state. The wavelength of emitted photon is λ.
The principal quantum number of the excited state will be:

(1)

(2) [λR (λR + 1)]1/2

(3)

(4)

12) The difference between the wave number of 1st line of Balmer series and last line of Paschen
series for Li2+ ion is :

(1)

(2)

(3) 4R

(4)

13) During an experiment an α-particle and a proton are accelerated by same potential difference,
their de Broglie wavelength ratio will be :

(1) 1 : 2
(2) 1 : 4
(3)
(4)

14) How many radial nodes does a 3d-orbital possess?

(1) 0
(2) 1
(3) 2
(4) 3

15) The reaction 3ClO–(aq) → ClO3¯(aq) + 2Cl–(aq) is an example of:

(1) oxidation reaction

(2) reduction reaction
(3) disproportionation reaction
(4) decomposition reaction

16)
When this equation is balanced with whole number coefficients , what is the H+/I2 coefficient ratio?

(1) 2/1
(2) 3/1
(3) 6/1
(4) Some other ratio

17) In the equation

SnCl2 + 2HgCl2 → Hg2Cl2 + SnCl4
The equivalent weight of stannous chloride (molecular weight = 190) will be :

(1) 190
(2) 95
(3) 47.5
(4) 154.5

18) 10 moles of ferric oxalate is oxidised by x mole of in acidic medium. The value of ‘x’ is :

(1) 12
(2) 4
(3) 40
(4) 18

19) Which of the following is most Acidic ?

(1) ZnO
(2) Ca(OH)2
(3) LiOH
(4) Na2O

20) Which has lowest anion to cation size ration?

(1) LiF
(2) NaF
(3) CsI
(4) CsF

21) Number of valence electron in Cr :

(1) 2
(2) 1
(3) 5
(4) None

22) Radius of the isoelectronic species :

(1) Increases with the increase of nuclear charge

(2) Decreases with the increase of nuclear charge
(3) Is the same for all
(4) First increases and then decreases

23) The correct order of increasing radii of the ions Br–, F–, O2– and S2– is as follows :

(1) Br– < F– < O2– < S2–

(2) S2– < O2– < F– < Br–
(3) F– < O2– < S2– < Br–
(4) F– < Br– < O2– < S2–

24) Select the correct order of EA.

(1) N < P < Si < C

(2) P < N < C < Si
(3) N < P < C < Si
(4) P < N < Si < C

25) Which of the following process can be exothermic.

(1) O + e– → O–
(2) O– + e– → O–2
(3) N–2 + e– → N–3
(4) N + e– → N–

26) Which of the following oxide is basic :-

(1) MgO
(2) SnO
(3) ZnO
(4) PbO

27) In which of the following molecule all bond angles and all bond lengths are identical ?

(1) PCl5
(2) IF7
(3) SF6
(4) CCl4

28) Which of the following pair contains isostructural species ?

(1) CO2, SiO2

(2) NH3, PH3
(3) CCl4, XeF4
(4)

29) N2 and O2 are converted into monoanions, N2– and O2– respectively. Which of the following
statements is wrong:

–
(1) In N2 , N–N bond weakens
–
(2) In O2 , O–O bond order increases
–
(3) In O2 , O–O bond order decreases
–
(4) N2 becomes paramagnetic

30) Maximum lattice energy would be –

(1) AlF3
(2) NaF
(3) MgF
(4) NaCl

31) Which compound is most soluble in benzene –

(1) LiCl
(2) BeCl2
(3) BCl3
(4) RbCl
32) Shape of XeO3 :

(1) Linear
(2) Planar
(3) Pyramidal
(4) T-shape

33) Which molecule pair has same bond order :

(1) CN–, NO+

(2) CN–, CN+
– –
(3) O2 , CN
(4) NO+, CN+

34) The pair of molecules in which one has linear shape while another has square pyramidal shape,
is :

–
(1) Br3 , PF5
(2) CO2, NF3
(3) SO2, CIF5
–
(4) I3 , BrF5

35) The sequence of ionic mobility in aqueous solution is

(1) Rb+ > K+ > Cs+ > Na+

(2) Na+ > K+ > Rb+ > Cs+
(3) K+ > Na+ > Rb+ > Cs+
(4) Cs+ > Rb+ > K+ >Na+

SECTION-B

1) The half-life period of a first order chemical reaction is 16.93 minutes. Time required for the
completion of 99% of the chemical reaction will be (log 2 = 0.301):

(1) 23.03 minutes

(2) 112.49 minutes
(3) 460.6 minutes
(4) 230.3 minutes

2) A → B kA = 1015 e–2000/T;
C→D kC = 1014 e–1000/T;
Temperature T K at which (kA = kc) is:

(1) 1000 K
(2) 2000 K
(3)
K

(4)
K

3) When the temperature of a reaction is raised from 300 K to 310 K, the reaction rate doubles.
Determine the activation energy, Ea, associated with the reaction.

(1) 6.45 kJ mol–1

(2) 60.6 kJ mol–1
(3) 53.6 kJ mol–1
(4) 178 kJ mol–1

4) Consider the following statements :

(a) Order of a reaction is an experimental quantity.
(b) Order is applicable only for elementary reactions.
(c) Rate constant for a first order gaseous reaction will have the unit of atm s–1.
(d) Half-life period of a reaction decreases with increases in temperature.
Which statements are correct ?

(1) b, c
(2) a, b, d
(3) a, d
(4) c, d

5) Uncertainty in position is twice the uncertainty in momentum. Uncertainty in velocity is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

6) The ionisation enthalpy of hydrogen atom is 1.372 × 106 J mol–l. The energy required to excite the
electron in the atom from n = 1 to n = 2 is:

(1) 8.51 × 105 J mol–1

(2) 6.56 × 105 J mol–1
(3) 7.56 × 105 J mol–1
(4) 9.84 × 105 J mol–1

7) The equivalent weight of MnSO4 is half of its molecular weight when it is converted to :

(1) MnO
 2–
(2) MnO4
(3) MnO2
(4) MnO4¯

8) Which of the following order is wrong ?

(1) NH3 < PH3 < AsH3 → Acidic nature

(2) Li < Be < B < C → IE1
(3) Al2O3 < MgO < Na2O < K2O → Basic nature
(4) Li+ < Na+ < K+ < Cs+ → Ionic radius

9) Which of the following orders for electron affinity is correct :-

(a) C < Si (b) Cl > F
(c) S > O (d) O > S
(e) N > P (f) C > N

(1) a, b, c, e
(2) a, b, c, f
(3) b, c, d, e
(4) b, c, d, f

10) Some compounds are given :-

XeF2, XeF6, XeF4, SO3, SO2, SF4, CCl4, SF6
Which has zero dipole moments ?

(1) SO3, SO2, SF4, SF6

(2) XeF6, SO2, CCl4, SF6
(3) XeF2, XeF4, SO3, SO2
(4) XeF4, SO3, SF6, XeF2

11) The hybridisation of orbitals of N atom in NO3–, NO2+ and NH4+ are respectively :

(1) sp, sp3, sp2

(2) sp2, sp3, sp
(3) sp, sp2, sp3
(4) sp2, sp, sp3

12) Current order of number of lone pair on central atom:

(1) IF7 < IF5 < ClF3 < XeF2

(2) XeF2 < XeF4 < XeF6
(3) IF7 < CIF3 < ClF5
(4) IF7 < XeF2 < XeF4 < ClF3

13) Statement 1 (S1) : CO2 and SO2 both are polar compounds.
Statement 2 (S2) : Both have polar bonds.

(1) S1 & S2 both are correct

(2) S1 and S2 both are incorrect
(3) S1 is correct but S2 is incorrect
(4) S1 is incorrect but S2 is correct

14) Which species does not exist :

a. CIH3 b. FCl3
c. SH4 d. SF4
e. H2S f. NCl5
2–
g. CF6

(1) a, c, d and f
(2) a, b, c, e and f
(3) a, b, c, f and g
(4) a, b, c, e, f and g

15) Match List - I with List - II.

List-I List-II
(a) PCl5 (i) Square pyramidal
(b) SF6 (ii) Trigonal planar
(c) BrF5 (iii) Octahedral
(d) BF3 (iv) Trigonal bipyramidal
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
(1) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
(2) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
(3) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
(4) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)

BIOLOGY-I

SECTION-A

1) Which of the following taxa are closely related?

(1) Mango & Wheat

(2) Wheat & Rice
(3) Potato & sugarcane
(4) Dogs & Housefly

2) Choose the incorrect statement :-

(1) There are seven obligate categories in classification
(2) The real basic unit of classification is species
(3) All taxonomic categories together constitute taxonomic hierarchy
Taxonomic categories are indistinct biological entities and are merely morphological
(4)
aggregates

3) According to hierarchical system of classification which of the following is correct ?

(A) Similarities decrease from species to kingdom
(B) Similarities increase from kingdom to species
(C) Dissimilarities decrease from phylum to species
(D) Similarities decrease from species to class

(1) Only A,B,C

(2) Only B,C,D
(3) Only B,C
(4) A,B,C,D all

4) Identify the correct sequence of categories :-

(1) Kingdom → Species → Genus → Family

(2) Species → Genus → Family → Order
(3) Genus → Species → Family → Order
(4) Family → Kingdom → Genus → Species

5) Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : When the scientific nomenclature are printed it should be italicized.
Reason (R) : To indicate their latin origin
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
6) The given figure is representing:-

(1) Filamentous green algae

(2) Filamentous yellow green algae
(3) Filamentous Actinomycetes
(4) Filamentous BGA (Nostoc)

7)

Examine the figure given below and select the right option giving all the four parts (A, B, C, D)
correctly identified.

A B C D

(1) Head Collar Sheath Tail fibres

(2) Collar Tail fibres Head Sheath

(3) Tail fibres Sheath Collar Head

(4) Sheath Head Tail fibres Collar

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

8) Assertion : All viruses are obligate intracellular parasites

Reason : Viruses always require host cell to multiply

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

9) Assertion: Archaebacteria can survive in very harsh environmental condition.

Reason: Archaebacteria contain unique cell wall and plasma membrane composition.

(1) Both statement 1 and statement 2 are correct

(2) Statement 1 is incorrect but statement 2 is correct
(3) Statement 1 is correct but statement 2 is incorrect
(4) Both statement 1 and statement 2 are incorrect

10) Assertion : All the members of kingdom protista are unicellular eukaryotes.
Reason : All protistan contains single cell as well as defined nucleus and other membrane bound
organelles.

(1) Both assertion and reason are correct and reason is correct explanation of assertion
(2) Both assertion and reason are correct but reason is not correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is correct but reason is incorrect
(4) Both assertion and reason are incorrect

11) Assertion : During sexual reproduction dikaryophase is not observed in members of

phycomycetes.
Reason : In members of phycomycetes during sexual reproduction karyogamy occurs just after
plasmogamy.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

12) Assertion :- Euglena remove excess water with help of contractile vacuole.
Reason :- Euglena found in fresh water.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

13) Assertion :- Deuteromycetes known as imperfect fungi.

Reason :- The sexual and vegetative phases are present in deuteromycetes.

(1) Assertion and Reason both are correct and reason is correct explanation of assertion
(2) Assertion and Reason both are correct but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false

14) Assertion (A) : Chemosynthetic autotrophic bacteria oxidise various inorganic substances.
Reason (R) : Chemosynthetic autotrophic bacteria synthesized ATP from the energy released
during oxidation of inorganic substances.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

15) Assertion : Slime Moulds, Euglenoids and Dinoflagellates are considered as protists.
Reason : These are saprophytic, mixotrophic and photosynthetic mode of nutrition respectively.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion

16) Select the correct combination of the statements (a - d) regarding the characteristics of certain
organisms
(a) Sphagnum provide peat that have long been used as fuel.
(b) Mosses form dense mats on the soil and prevent soil erosion.
(c) Gemmae are green, multicellular, asexual buds which are developed on Marchantia thallus in
gemma cup.
(d) Asexual reproduction in liverworts takes place by conidia.
The correct statements are :-

(1) a, b, c, d
(2) a, d, c
(3) a, b, c
(4) b, c, d

17) Identify the following diagram (A, B, C & D) and select the correct option:-
 (A) (B) (C)

(1) Laminaria Funaria Salvinia

(2) Dictyota Sphagnum Salvinia

(3) Fucus Chara Salvinia

(4) Polysiphonia Sphagnum Salvinia

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

18) The thallus of liverwort is usually

A. Dorsiventral
B. Closely appressed to substrate
C. Diploid

(1) Only A is correct

(2) Only A & B are correct
(3) Only B & C are correct
(4) All are correct

19) Complex post fertilization development is seen in which algae :-

(1) Green algae

(2) Brown algae
(3) Yellow green algae
(4) Red algae

20) Select the mismatch from followings :-

(1) Chlorophyceae - Chlorophyll a & b, β-carotene

(2) Phaeophyceae - Chlorophyll a & c, β-carotene
(3) Rhodophyceae - Chlorophyll a & d, fucoxanthin
(4) Cyanophyceae - Chlorophyll - a

21) Protonema occurs in the life cycle of:-

(1) Riccia
(2) Funaria
(3) Anthoceros
(4) Spirogyra

22) Pyrenoids are the centres for formation of :-

(1) Vitamins
(2) enzymes
(3) fat
(4) starch

23) Assertion :- Bryophyta are amphibians of plant kingdom.

Reason :- Bryophyta are first seed producing plants.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

24) Match the column - I with column-II & III & choose correct option :-

Column-I Column-II Column-III

(A) (a) Axile (i) Onion

(B) (b) Parietal (ii) Pea

(C) (c) Marginal (iii) Mustard

(d) Free
(D) (iv) Dianthus
central

(1) A–c–i, B–a–ii, C–d–iv, D–b–iii

(2) A–d–iv, B–b–iii, C–c–ii, D–a–i
(3) A–c–ii, B–a–i, C–b–iii, D–d–iv
(4) A–a–i, B–c–ii, C–b–iii, D–d–iv

25) Choose the correct match for A,B,C & D

(1) (i) only
(2) (ii) and (iv)
(3) (iii) and (iv)
(4) (ii) and (iii)

26) Given floral diagram is related to which of the following floral formula ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

27) Identify the aestivation given in diagram with suitable example:-

(1) Imbricate, Cassia

(2) Imbricate, Bean
(3) Twisted, Mustard
(4) Vexillary, Pea

28) Assertion : All roots are not positively geotropic.

Reason : In Rhizophora many roots come out of the ground and grow vertically upwards.

(1) If both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) If both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) If Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) If both Assertion & Reason are False.

29) Assertion : Reticulate venation is found in dicots

Reason : Veinlets are absent in reticulate venation

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

30) Assertion : In Fabaceae family monocarpellary, unilocular ovary is present.

Reason : In Fabaceae, placentation is parietal

(1) If both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) If both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) If Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) If both Assertion & Reason are False.

31) Assertion : In some leguminous plants, the leaf base is swollen.

Reason : The swollen leaf base is called pulvinus.

(1) If both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion
If both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the
(2)
assertion
(3) If Assertion is true statement but Reason is false
(4) If both Assertion and Reason are false statements

32)

Find out the correct match from the following table :-

Column-I Column-II Column-III

(i) Tap roots Formed by the direct elongation of radicle Sugarcane

(ii) Fibrous roots Originate from the base of the stem Wheat

(iii) Adventitious roots Arise from parts of the plant other than the radicle Sweet potato
(1) i only
(2) i and ii
(3) iii only
(4) ii and iii

33) Edible part of Sweet Potato is

(1) Stem tuber

(2) Unripe fruit
(3) Adventitious root
(4) Rhizome

34) Which is not a type of xylem?

(1) Xylem fibres

(2) Tracheids
(3) Vessels
(4) Sieve tube elements

35) Find out the correct sequence of labelling :-

A B C
Subsidiary Epidermal
(1) Guard cells
cells cells
Subsidiary Epidermal
(2) Guard cells
cells cells
Epidermal Subsidiary
(3) Guard cells
cells cells
Subsidiary Epidermal
(4) Guard cells
cells cells
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

SECTION-B

1)
Identify the given figure and what are a & b ?

(1) Radial vascular bundle, a-phloem, b-xylem

(2) Conjoint vascular bundle a-phloem, b-xylem
(3) Conjoint vascular bundle a-xylem, b-phloem
(4) Radial vascular bundle, a-xylem, b-phloem

2) Which of the following structure is shown in given figure?

(1) Maize Leaf

(2) Sunflower leaf
(3) Gram leaf
(4) Maize Stem

3)

Which statement is/are correct?

(1) Xylem-transport water and minerals

(2) Phloem-transport food material
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Phloem-transport water and minerals

4) Assertion : Endodermis is also called as starch sheath in Dicot stem.

Reason : The cells of endodermis are rich in starch grain.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

5) Assertion : Pith is large and well developed in monocots root.

Reason : Monocot root do not undergo any secondary growth.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

6) Grass stem elongates mainly by the activity of :-

(1) Lateral meristem

(2) Secondary meristem
(3) Intercalary meristem
(4) Apical meristem

7) L.S. of a maize grain is given below. Identify labelled structures [A] & [B] :-

(1) [A] Embryo , [B] Scutellum

(2) [A] Scutellum , [B] Embryo
(3) [A] Endosperm, [B] Scutellum
(4) [A] Scutellum , [B] Endosperm

8) Identify the A and B in given figure & choose right option regarding them :-

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

9) Given below is diagramatic sketch of transverse section of young anther. Identify the parts
labelled A, B, C and D :

PART A PART B PART C PART D

(1) Epidermis Middle layers Endothecium Tapetum
(2) Epidermis Endothecium Middle layers Tapetum
(3) Exodermis Endothecium Middle layers Tapetum
Sporogenous
(4) Epidermis Endodermis Middle layers
tissu
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

10) The diagram are related to Castor seeds. Identify A, B, C and D respectively.

(1) Endosperm, Seed coat, Cotyledon and Hypocotyl

(2) Seed coat, Endosperm, Hypocotyl and Cotyledon
(3) Seed coat, Cotyledon, Endosperm and Hypocotyl
(4) Seed coat, Endosperm, Cotyledon, and Hypocotyl

11) Identify the incorrect (A, B, C, D and E) shown in the diagram.

(1) C - Primary endosperm cell

(2) B - Egg cell
(3) D - Primary endosperm nucleus
(4) E - Degenerating antipodal cell

12) Assertion : Megaspore mother cell (MMC) forms only one functional megaspore commonly in
angiosperms.
Reason : Ovules generally differentiate the single megaspore mother cell in nucellus.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason. is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are false.

13) Assertion (A) :- Apomixis is a form of asexual reproduction that mimics sexual reproduction.
Reason (R) :- Apomixis involves the production of seeds without the fusion of gametes.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
(3) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A) .

14) In Water hyacinth and Water lily, pollination takes place by

(1) Insects or wind

(2) Water currents only
(3) Wind and water
(4) Insects and water

15) Which of the following is not correct for sporopollenin?

(1) It is nonbiodegradable.
(2) Highly resistant organic material.
(3) It is biodegradable.
(4) It shows resistance against all enzymes.

BIOLOGY-II

SECTION-A

1) What will happen if the pH of lysosome is equivalent to cytoplasm.

(1) Hydrolytic enzymes work more efficiently.

(2) Hydrolytic enzymes becomes more active.
(3) Hydrolytic enzymes perform specific function only.
(4) Hydrolytic enzymes do not work.

2) _____A____ proteins are tightly binds with phospholipid, thus they can not easily removed from
membrane. Carbohydrates are present in the form of _____B_____ on the outer surface of plasma
membrane are involved in ___C__.

(1) A-Peripheral, B-Glycolipid, C-Transport

(2) A-Integral, B-Glycoprotein, C-Cell to cell recognition
(3) A-Integral, B-Glycolipid, C-Endocytosis
(4) A-Pereipheral, B-Glycoprotein, C-Cell Division

3) Given below are some statements

A. Centrosome is an organelle usually containing four cylindrical structures called centrioles.
B. Both the centrioles in a centrosome lie opposite to each other.
C. Centrioles form the basal body of cilia or flagella.
D. The location of centrioles during cell division decides the plane of division.
How many of the given statements are correct.

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

4) 'X' organelle is involved in process of glycosylation and glycosidation.

This organelle is also known as dictyosome in plant cells.
Identify this 'X' organelle.

(1) Endoplasmic reticulum

(2) Golgi body
(3) Cytoskeleton
(4) Peroxisomes

5) Which of the following statement is correct.

(1) Common layer between two plant cells is middle lamella.

(2) Middle lamella is composed of Na and Mg pectates.
(3) Plasmodesmata are characterstic of multicellular organisms.
(4) Secondary cell wall is present in meristem cells.

6) Assertion : If a chloroplast do not have quantosome, then it doesn't show photosynthesis.

Reason : Thylakoid membrane possess about 250 to 400 molecules of various pigments like chl-a,
chl-b, carotene etc.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is not correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(4) Assertion is incorrect but Reason is correct.

7) Consider the following statements -

(A) Protein is the main component of cell membrane.
(B) Phospholipids layer provide fluidity to plasma membrane.
(C) Integral proteins are only partially buried in the membrane.
(D) Polar molecules require a carrier protein to facilitate their transport across the membrane.
Which of the above statement is/are correct.

(1) (A), (B) and (C)

(2) (B), (C) and (D)
(3) (A), (C) and (D)
(4) (B) and (D)

8) Statement I: Pectoral and pelvic girdle bones help in the articulation of the lower and upper
limbs respectively with the axial skeleton.
Statement II: Fibrous joint is shown by the flat skull bones which fuse end to end with the help of
dense fibrous connective tissues in the form of sutures.

(1) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect.

(2) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is correct.
(3) Both Statement I and II are correct.
(4) Both Statement I and II are incorrect.

9) Assertion (A): Gout is inflammation of muscles.

Reason(R): Gout is due to accumulation of uric acid crystals

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) Both A and R are false
(4) A is false but R is true.

10) A shallow depression in the scapula which receives the head of the upper arm bone is called

(1) Acetabulum
(2) Acromion process
(3) Glenoid cavity
(4) Neural canal.

11) Statement I : The two halves of the pelvic girdle meet dorsally to form the pubic symphysis
containing fibrous cartilage.
Statement II : The first seven pairs of ribs are called vertebrochondral ribs as they are directly
attached with sternum.

(1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.

(2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
(3) Both Statement I and II are correct.
(4) Both Statement I and II are incorrect.

12) Assertion (A): White fibres are also called aerobic muscles.
Reason(R): They contain plenty of mitochondria and utilise oxygen for ATP production.
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) Both A and R are false
(4) A is true but R is false.

13) It is a diagrammatic sectional view of male reproductive system, In which identify ejaculatory

duct :-

(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D

14) Which sequence is correct of male genital tract?

(1) Rete testis → Vas deferens → Vasa efferentia → Epididymis → Urethra

(2) Tubuli recti → Rete testis → Vas deferens → Vasa efferenta → Seminal vesicle → Urethra
(3) Tubuli recti → Rete testis → Vasa efferentia → Vas deferens → Epididymis → Urethra
(4) Tubuli recti → Rete testis → Vasa efferentia → Epididymis → Vas deferens → Urethra

15)

Which of the following contributes in the formation of seminal plasma ?

(a) Sertoli cells
(b) Seminal vesicles
(c) Spermatogonia
(d) Leydig cells
(e) Bulbourethral gland
(f) Prostate gland

(1) b, c, e, f
(2) a, b, c, f
(3) b, c, d, e, f
(4) only b, e, f

16) Assertion (A) :- The opening of the vagina is always covered completely by a membrane called
hymen.
Reason (R) :- The presence or absence of hymen is not reliable indicator of virginity.
 Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are the true and Reason (R) is a correct
(1)
explanation of Assertion (A).
Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are the true but Reason (R) is not a correct
(2)
explanation of Assertion (A).
(3) Assertion (A) is true and Reason (R) is false.
(4) Assertion (A) is false and Reason (R) is true.

17) How many are part of external genitalia in female ?

Cervix, Hymen, Vagina, Clitoris, Labia minora

(1) 5
(2) 4
(3) 3
(4) 2

18) Assertion : Colostrum from mother is essential for new born babies.
Reason : Colostrum is nutritious contains protein and antibodies.

(1) Both assertion and reason are correct but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Assertion is correct but reason is not correct.
(3) Assertion is not correct but reason is correct.
(4) Both assertion and reason are correct and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

19) Refer the figure of mammary gland with few structures marked as A, B, C and D. Which
structure contains clusters of milk secreting cells?

(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D

20) The figure given below shows a flowchart on spermatogenesis. Identify the correct label marked
as A, B, C and D.

(1) A : 1st meiotic division; B : 2nd meiotic division; C; Differentiation; D ; 23.

(2) A : 2st meiotic division; B : Differentiation; C; 1st meiotic division; D ; 46.
(3) A : Differentiation; B : 2nd meiotic division; C; 1nd meiotic division; D ; 46.
(4) A : Mitosis differentiation; B : 1st meiotic division; C; 2nd meiotic division; D ; 23.

21) Longest phase of spermatogenesis is :-

(1) multiplication phase

(2) growth phase
(3) maturation phase
(4) germinal phase

22) Which of the following set involves only invitro fertilization methods?

(1) ZIFT, IUT

(2) GIFT, IUT, ICSI
(3) GIFT, ZIFT, IUT
(4) GIFT, ICSI

23) Select the hormone-releasing Intra-Uterine Devices :-

(1) Vaults, LNG-20

(2) Multiload 375, Progestasert
(3) Progestasert, LNG-20
(4) Lippes Loop, Multiload 375

24) MTP is relatively safe during?

(1) 12 week
(2) 18 week
(3) First trimester
(4) Both (1) and (3)
25) According to world health organisation, reproductive health means total well - being in

(1) physiological and chemical aspects of reproduction.

(2) structural and organisational aspect of reproduction.
(3) physical, emotional, behavioural and social aspects of reproduction.
(4) sex- related diseases.

26) Pre-natal defects in the foetus can be detected by

(1) Laproscopy
(2) Genetic engineering
(3) MRI
(4) Amniocentesis

27) Consider the following statements with two blanks A and B. Select the option which correctly
fills up these blanks. Government of India legalised MTP in ____A____ with some strict conditions to
avoid its misuse. Such restrictions are all the more important to check indiscriminate and illegal
____B____ foeticides which are reported to be high in India.

A B

(1) 1951 Female

(2) 1971 Male

(3) 1971 Female

(4) 1951 Male

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

28) Identify the correct match from the columns I, II and III :-

Column-I
Column-II Column-III
(Contraceptive
(Mechanism) (Example)
method)
Copper
Prevent
(A) releasing (a) (i) LNG–20
ovulation
IUDs
Hormonal
Destroy
(B) releasing (b) (ii) Today
sperms
IUDs
Daily oral Prevent
(C) (c) (iii) MALA-D
pill implantation
Vaginal Suppress
(D) (d) (iv) Multiload–375
tablets sperm motility
(1) A – d – iv, B – a – i, C – c – iii, D – b – ii
(2) A – b – iv, B – c – ii, C – a – i, D – d – iii
(3) A – d – iv, B – c – i, C – a – iii, D – b – ii
(4) A – d – i, B – a – ii, C – c – iv, D – b – iii

29) Identify the example of specialized connective tissue :-

(1) Tendon & ligament

(2) Blood and bones
(3) Cartilage and adipose
(4) Lymph and areolar

30) How many statements are incorrect for bones ?

(A) Bones have hard and non-pliable ground substances.
(B) Matrix is rich in collagen fibres.
(C) Osteoblasts are present in lacunae.
(D) Bone is specialized connective tissue.
(E) They serve weight-bearing function.

(1) 1
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 2

31) Match column-I and Column-II

Column I Column II

A. Adipose tissue i. Dense connective tissue

B. Ligament ii. Fluid connective tissue

C. Cartilage iii. Loose connective tissue

D. Blood iv. Skeletal connective tissue

(1) A-ii,B-i,C-iv,D-iii
(2) A-i,B-iii,C-ii,D-iv
(3) A-iii,B-i,C-iv,D-ii
(4) A-iii,B-i,C-ii,D-iv

32) Sinus venosus in frog :-

(1) Opens in right auricle and present on dorsal surface of heart

(2) Sac like opens in ventricle and present on ventral surface of heart
(3) Collects oxygenated blood from pulmonary veins and opens in ventricle
(4) Collects deoxygenated blood from vena cava and opens in left auricle

33) Following is the diagram of the male reproductive system of frog select the correct set of names
labelled A, B, C and D.
 A B C D

(1) Fat bodies Ureter Bidder's canal Vasa efferentia

(2) Fat bodies Bidder's canal Ureter Vasa efferentia

(3) Adrenal gland Bidder's canal Ureter Vasa efferentia

(4) Testes Adrenal gland Kidney Vasa efferentia

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

34) Given below is a figure of the mouth parts of cockroach labelled A,B and C :

Identify correct one :-

(1) A is mandible
(2) B is hypopharynx; acting as tongue
(3) C is upper lip known as labrum
(4) A is lower lip known as labium

35) Match the following columns with reference to cockroach and select the correct option :

Column I Column II
 (a) Grinding of the food particles (i) Hepatic caeca

(b) Secrete gastric juice (ii) 10 segment

(c) 10 pairs (iii) Proventriculus

(d) Anal cerci (iv) Spiracles

(v) Alary muscles

(1) a→(iii), b→(i), c→(iv), d→(ii)
(2) a→(iv), b→(iii), c→(v), d→(ii)
(3) a→(i), b→(iv), c→(iii), d→(ii)
(4) a→(ii), b→(iii), c→(i), d→(iv)

SECTION-B

1) Which of the following is not the function of mesosome in prokaryotes.

(1) Helps in respiration

(2) Helps in cell wall formation
(3) Helps in DNA replication
(4) Membranous extensions into cytoplasm contain pigments

2) Statement-I : The quasifluid nature of lipid enables lateral movement of protein with in the
overall bilayer.
Statement-II : The fluid nature of membrane is not important for cell growth, cell division,
endocytosis and secretion.
Choose the appropriate answer from given above statements.

(1) Both statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect.

(2) Statement-I is correct, statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect, Statement-I is correct.
(4) Both statement-I and Statement-II are correct.

3)

(1) A - Cell membrane, B - Nucleus, C - Plastid, D - Centrosome

(2) A - Plasma membrane, B - Lysosome, C - Plastid, D - Centrosome
(3) A - Cell membrane, B - Nucleus, C - Nucleus, D - Lysosome
(4) A - Plasma membrane, B - Non-cytosolic, C - Plastid, D - Microbodies

4) How many among the following are the disorders of muscular system.
(i) Arthritis
(ii) Tetany
(iii) Myasthenia gravis
(iv) Gout
(v) Muscular dystrophy

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

5) Statement I : The portion of the myofibril between two successive ‘Z’ lines is considered as
anatomical unit of muscle.
Statement II : A globular head with a short arm and a tail comprises the Heavy meromyosin.

(1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.

(2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
(3) Both Statement I and II are correct.
(4) Both Statement I and II are incorrect.

6) Statement I : The hydrolysis of ATP by myosin head leads to breakage of cross bridge.
Statement II : Calcium binds with tropomyosin and thereby remove the masking sites for myosin

(1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.

(2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
(3) Both Statement I and II are correct.
(4) Both Statement I and II are incorrect.

7) 50 secondary oocytes in female and 50 secondary spermatocytes in male give rise to

(1) 100 ova and 100 sperms

(2) 200 ova and 50 sperms
(3) 100 ova and 200 sperms
(4) 50 ova and 100 sperms

8) Assertion : Ovaries are the primary sex organs of female.

Reason : Ovaries produce gametes and no hormones.

(1) Both assertion and reason are correct and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are correct but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is correct but reason is not correct.
(4) Assertion is not correct but reason is correct.

9) Match the Column–A with Column–B :-

Column-A Column-B

(A) Follicular phase (i) Release of secondary oocyte

(B) Luteal phase (ii) Fully mature graffian follicle

(C) Menstrual phase (iii) Formation of corpus luteum

(D) Ovulatory phase (iv) Breakdown of endometrium

(1) A–(i), B–(ii), C–(iv), D–(iii)
(2) A–(ii), B–(iii), C–(i), D–(iv)
(3) A–(ii), B–(iii), C–(iv), D–(i)
(4) A–(iv), B–(ii), C–(i), D–(iii)

10) What percentage of total number of conceived pregnancies in a year all over the world are
medically terminated?

(1) 30%
(2) 45%
(3) 20%
(4) 10%

11) Assertion : Immovable sperm are unable to fertilize the egg.

Reason : AI is the best technique for the formation of embryo in the laboratory.

(1) Both assertion and reason correct and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are correct, but reason is not correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is correct, but reason is incorrect.
(4) Both assertion and reason are incorrect.

12)

Which of the following are natural contraceptive methods :-

(A) Periodic abstience
(B) Coitus interruptus
(C) Lactational amenorrhoea
(D) M.T.P.

(1) A, B and D
(2) A, C, D
(3) A, B, C
(4) B, C, D

13) Identify the following cell/tissue?

(1) Unicellular glandular epithelium (Salivary gland)
(2) Multicellular glandular epithelium (Goblet gland)
(3) Unicellular glandular epithelium (Goblet gland)
(4) Multicellular glandular epithelium (Salivary gland)

14) Given below is a diagrammatic representation of internal organ of frog labelled A, B, C and D
showing digestive system :

Identify the incorrect statement :-

(1) A— is liver secrete bile juice

(2) B— is intestine and its length is reduced in frog due to its carnivorous nature
(3) C— is urinary bladder which opens in cloaca
(4) D— is kidney, which is metanephric

15) Sexual dimorphism in cockroach is shown by :-

(1) Anal cerci which are present in males only

(2) Anal styles which are present in males only
(3) Anal cerci which are present in females only
(4) Anal styles which are present in females only
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

SECTION-A

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 3 4 1 4 1 1 4 2 4 4 2 1 2 3 2 4 2 4 4 4
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35
A. 2 3 3 3 4 3 3 2 4 4 1 3 1 1 3

SECTION-B

Q. 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
A. 1 2 3 4 1 2 1 3 4 4 2 4 1 4 4

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A

Q. 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
A. 3 3 1 2 3 4 3 3 4 2 3 4 3 1 3 1 2 1 1 4
Q. 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 2 2 3 3 1 1 4 2 2 1 3 3 1 4 4

SECTION-B

Q. 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
A. 2 4 3 3 3 4 3 2 2 4 4 1 4 3 1

BIOLOGY-I

SECTION-A

Q. 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
A. 2 4 4 2 4 4 1 1 1 1 1 4 3 4 1 3 4 2 4 3
Q. 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135
A. 2 4 3 3 2 1 1 1 3 3 2 4 3 4 2

SECTION-B

Q. 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 4 1 3 1 2 3 3 4 1 4 2 2 4 1 3

BIOLOGY-II
 SECTION-A

Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 4 2 2 2 1 1 4 2 4 3 4 3 2 4 4 4 3 4 1 4
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180 181 182 183 184 185
A. 3 1 3 4 3 4 3 3 2 1 3 1 4 2 1

SECTION-B

Q. 186 187 188 189 190 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200
A. 4 2 1 3 4 4 4 3 3 3 3 3 3 4 2
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

2)

f = C m x ky
T–1 = [M]x [MT–2]y
0 0
M L T–1 = Mx+yT–2y
Comparing powers of M and T
M: x + y = 0

T : –2y = –1 ⇒ y =
OR
Time-period of simple pendulum
T = 2π

f=
f = C m x ky
Comparing powers of m and k

x=

3)

v = β x–2n

so = – 2nβ x–2n–1

Now a = v = (βx–2n) (–2nβ x–2n–1)

⇒ a = –2nβ2 x–4n–1

4) ⇒
5)

tan θ = , θ = 53°
53° North of west

6)
F.B.D. of block
N2 = F2 + (mg)2

7)

8) For (A) → For (B) →

T= T=
T = 3g T = 4g
Reading → T′ = 2T Reading → T′ = 2T
= 6g = 8g

9)

10)

KE ∝ t ⇒ u2∝t ⇒ u ∝
a=

11) Wext + Wc = ΔK = 0,

Wext – mg = 0 Wext = = (0.5) (10) = J.

12)

Wfr = Uf – Ui
–0.1mg × 10 = mgh – mg × 1.2
–1 = h – 1.2

h = 0.2 m

13)
At P point,
KE = 2 PE

mv2 = 2 mgh

× =2×g×h
H – h = 2h

⇒h=

and v = =2

14) Since P' = n3P

∵ n=3 P' = 27P

15)

At

⇒ Now

16) The bob of the pendulum moves in a circle of radius (R + R sin 30°) =
Force equations: T sin 30° =m
T cos 30° = mg

⇒ tan30° =

17)

∴ Required ratio = 1 : 3 : 5

18)

19)
h = R – R cos θ
v2 = u2 + 2 g h
= u2 + 2 g R(1 – cos θ) ....(i)

....(ii)
When the particle loses contact
N=0 ....(iii)
From (i), (ii) and (iii), we have
v2 = gR cos θ = u2 + 2gR(1 – cos θ)
3gR cos θ = u2 + 2gR
∴u=0

θ = cos–1

20)
Let force between two charge be F. Then

=
so, required ratio

21)
Let, charge q be placed at P.
At point P forces due to 20 μC & –5μC should be in opposite direction.

For net force & from coulomb's law force

22) Inside the cavity net charge is zero.

∴ Q1 = 0 and σ1 = 0
There is no effect of point charges +Q, –Q and induced charge on inner surface on the outer
surface.
∴ Q2 = 0 and σ2 = 0

23) For spherical shell

(if r ≥ R)
=0 (if r < R)
Force on charge in electric field, F = qE
∴F=0 (For r < R)

(For r > R)
24)
Let us consider a differential element subtending at angle dQ at the centre Q as shown in
the figure. Linear charge density

Charge on the element

Electric field at the centre O due to dq is

Resolving dE into two rectangular component, we find the component dE cos θ will be counter
balanced by another element on left portion. Hence resultant field at O is the resultant of the
component dE sinθ only.

The direction of E is towards negative y-axis

25)
After placing similar cubic at the bottom, we get cube of side 2L having change q at its centre.

From the Gauss's law electric flux through whole cube, ϕ =

Flux passing through shaded face

26) The circuit can be reduced to

The equivalent capacitance of the combination is

Ceq = C + C = 2C

27) When switch is closed then both capacitor will be parallel.

Ceq = 2C

Energy
E1 = CV2
When switch is opened charge on right capacitor remain CV while potential on left capacitor
remain same.
Dielectric K = 5
C' = KC
C' = 5C

28) Capacitance of a capacitor with a dielectric of dielectric constant k is given by

15 × 10–12 =
k = 8.5

29) Capacitance of sphere is given by :

If, C = 1F then radius of sphere needed :

9 × 109 m is very large, it is not possible to obtain such a large sphere. Infact earth has radius
6.4 × 106 m only and capacitance of earth is 711 μF.

30) Charge,

= 1000C
31)
Current is constant in the conductor, I = constant

Resistance of element of conductor,

Drift velocity,

As and

32)

33)

Applying Kirchhoff voltage law, KVL C to B

VC – 2 – 4 × 1 = VB
VC – VB = 6V

34) They have high resistivity, low-temperature coefficient of resistance ability to attain good
resistance values in small size.

35)
36) The mean value of refractive index,

and

Δμ =
= 0.02

Thus

37)

MSD = 0.05 cm, VSD =

Vernier constant = 1 MSD -1 VSD

= where 1 MSD = 0.5 mm

LC =
Reading =5.10+VC×24=5.10+0.024=5.124cm

38)

h= …(1)

....(2)

....(3)

39) =u+ (2n – 1)

55 = 0 + (2n – 1)
11 = 2n – 1 ⇒ n = 6
so total distance fallen by the particle

S = ut + at2= 0 + × 10 × (6)2 = 180 m

40)

From given v – x graph

Equation is v =
⇒ v = –3x + 30
as a =
⇒ a = (–3x + 30) (–3)
⇒ a = 9x – 90

41)
After time t.

Since

–v1v2 + g2t2 = 0 ⇒ t =

42) Let M is the mass of the chain of length L. If y is the maximum length of chain which can
hang outside the table without sliding, then for equilibrium of the chain, the weight of hanging
part must be balanced by the force of friction on the portion of the table.

W = fL ...(i)
But from figure

and

So that
Substituting these values of W and fL in eqn. (i), we get

or or
or

43)

F1 = mg sinθ + μ mg cos θ
F2 = mg sinθ – μ mg cos θ

∴ tanθ + μ = 3(tanθ – μ)
2μ = tanθ ⇒ θ = tan–1(2μ)

44) For the upper half

.....(1)
For the lower half

......(2)
From (1) & (2)

45) At x = 6, KE = 8J
P.E. = (6 – 4)2 – 16 = –12J
T.E. = K.E. + P.E. = 8 – 12 = –4J
U = (x – 4)2 – 16
at x = 4 U is minimum
Umin = –16J
K.E.max = T.E. – Umin = –4 –(–16) = 12J

46)

at x = x2, F = 0

(for stable equilibrium)

47)
We have, from the given figure
Fnet = 2F cosθ

Fnet =
For maximum Fnet

48) . As C = constant,

So,

⇒ 1.2q1 = q1 + 2 ⇒ 0.2 q1 = 2
⇒ q1 = 10C

49) In parallel combination, equivalent resistance,

or, ∴ R = 0.858mΩ

50)
Equivalent resistance,
Req = 2Ω
 At point D,
Current through

At point C,
Current through R2,

CHEMISTRY

51) PA × V = nA R T

PA = CART

52) –

53) Let rate of reaction,

r = k[A]x [B]y ...(1)
x y
r = k(2[A]) [B] ...(2)
2r = k[A]x (2[B])y ...(3)

⇒ 2x = 1
x=0

⇒ 2y = 2
y=1

54)

55)

Catalyst provides an alternate pathway by reducing the activation energy between reactants
and products.

56)
57) Number of photons emitted per second =

58)

59)
For 3s, ℓ = 0 ⇒ L = 0

and 3p, ℓ = 1 ⇒ L =

60) For 3p: n = 3, ℓ = 1, m = (–1, 0, 1), s = –1/2 or +1/2

61)

62)

63) mα = 4mp , qα = 2qp

64) Radial nodes = n – ℓ – 1 = 3 – 2 – 1 = 0

65)

66)

67) SnCl2 + 2HgCl2 → Hg2Cl2 + SnCl4

Sn2+ → Sn4+ + 2e–

68) Fe2(C2O4)3 ⇒ n.f. = 6 ;

10 × 6 = x × 5

69) Non-metal oxides/Hydroxides → Basic [Ca(OH)2, LiOH, Na2O]

ZnO → Amphoteric oxides.

70)

71) Cr = [Ar]4s13d5
Valence e– = 1

72)

73)
For isoelectronic species

74) N < P < C < Si

75) EAI is exothermic while successive EA is endothermic.

But for stable configuration of N, EA is endothermic.

76) Metal oxides are basic in nature MgO is basic.

Here PbO, SnO, ZnO are amphoteric oxide.

77)
All bond angles between C–Cl are 109°28’ and bond length is also same.
78)

79) BO of O2 = 2 BO of N2 = 3
BO of = (1.5) BO of = (2.5)

80) LE ∝ charge on cation & anion

81) Benzene is non polar solvent so non polar solute will be most soluble molecule to Benzene
BCl3 is non polar.

82)
Pyramidal

83) CN– & NO+ (14e–) have same bond order (3).

84)
2σ + 3LP = sp3d hybridisation 5σ + 1LP = sp3d2 hybridisation

85) Ionic mobility in aqueous solution ∝

Cs+ > Rb+ > K+ > Na+

86)

87) kA = kC
1015e–2000/T = 1014e–1000/T
 =

88)

89)

Order of a reaction is an experimental quantity. Order is applicable for elementary as well as

complex reaction.
Unit of rate constant for 1st order reaction is s–1.
As temperature increases, rate constant of reaction increases and hence half-life period
decreases.
Statement (a) and (d) are correct.

90) Δx = 2ΔP ⇒ 2(ΔP)2 ≥

91) E = 1.312 × 106 = 9.84 × 105 J/mol

92) Eq. weight =

= =

93)

Li < B < Be < C (correct order of IE1)

↓
2s2 → stable configuration

94) (i) S > O > Se

(ii) Cl > F > C > N (EA ∝ Zeff)

95)
 All have zero dipole moment

96)

97)

IF7 → 0 lp
IF5 → 1 lp
ClF3 → 2 lp
XeF2 → 3 lp
IF7 < IF5 < ClF3 < XeF2

98) CO2 is non-polar while SO2 is polar.

Both have polar bonds because of difference of EN.

99) NCl5, FCl3, CF6–2 → due to absence of vacant d-orbital

SH4, ClH3 → d-orbital contraction

100)

BIOLOGY-I

125)
 145)
A - Seed Coat
B - Endosperm
C - Cotyledon
D - Hypocotyl

BIOLOGY-II

151)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 96

152)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 93

153)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 99

154)

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155)

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156)

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158) NCERT XI Page # 226-227

159) NCERT XI Page # 227

160) NCERT XI Page #226

161) NCERT XI Page # 226

162) NCERT XI Page # 223

163)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 27

164)

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165)

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166)

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167)

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168)

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169)

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170)

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171)

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172)

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173)

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174)

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175)

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176)

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177)

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178)

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180) NCERT XI, Pg. # 104

181) NCERT XI, Pg. # 103, 104

182) NEW NCERT XI, Pg. # 82

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187) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 132

188)

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189) NCERT XI Page # 227

190) NCERT XI Page # 221

191) NCERT XI Page # 221

192)

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193)

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194)

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195)

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196)

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197)

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199) NEW NCERT XI, Pg. # 81

200) NCERT XI, Pg. # 112