05-04-2025

6001CMD30303124APTS03 MD

PHYSICS

1) A plane polarized wave is incident on a boundary separating two media at brewster’s angle. The
plane of vibration of electric field is same as the plane of incidence. Then :-

(1) There is no refracted ray

(2) There no reflected ray.
(3) Reflected ray and refracted ray are both partially polarized.
(4) Reflected ray and refracted ray are polarized in a plane perpendicular to the plane of incidence.

2) Interference fringes were produced in Young's double slit experiment using light of wavelength
5000 Å. When a film 2.5 × 10–3 cm thick was placed over one of the slits, the fringe pattern shifted
by a distance equal to 20 fringe width. The refractive index of the material of the film can be :

(1) 1.25
(2) 1.33
(3) 1.5
(4) 1.4

3) Radius of the first orbit of the electron in a hydrogen atom is . So, the radius of the third
orbit will be

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

4) In the uranium radioactive series the initial nucleus is 92U238, and the final nucleus is 82Pb206. When
the uranium nucleus decays to lead, the number of α – particles emitted is.. and the number of β-
particles emitted...

(1) 6, 8
(2) 8, 6
(3) 16, 6
(4) 32, 12
5) In Bohr model of hydrogen, the force on electron depends on the principal quantum number as :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

6) A closed loop PQRS carrying a current is placed in a uniform magnetic field. If the magnetic
forces on segments PS, SR and RQ are F1, F2 and F3 respectively and are in the plane of the paper
and along the directions shown, the force on the segment QP is :-

(1) F3 – F1 – F2

(2)

(3)

(4) F3 – F1 + F2

7) Magnetic field at the centre of a circular loop of area A is B. The magnetic moment of the loop will
be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8) Figure below shows regular hexagon, with different charges placed at the vertices. In which of
the following cases is the electric field at the centre zero?

(1) IV
(2) III
(3) I
(4) II

9) A soap bubble is given a negative charge; then its radius :-

(1) decreases
(2) increases
(3) remains unchanged
(4) nothing can be predicted as information is insufficient

10) The charge on a parallel plate capacitor varies as q = q0 cos 2πυt. The plates are very large and
close together (area = A, separation = d). The displacement current through the capacitor is:-

(1) q02πυ sinπυt

(2) –q02πυ sin 2πυt
(3) q02π sinπυt
(4) q0πυ sin 2πυt

11) A cell of emf E is connected across a resistance R. The potential difference between the
terminals of the cell is found to be V. The internal resistance of the cell must be

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

12) The electric current in the circuit is given by for some time. Calculate RMS current
for the period t = 0 to t = τ :-
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

13) A rod of length 10 cm made up of conducting and non-conducting material (shaded part is non-
conducting). The rod is rotated with constant angular velocity 10 rad/sec about point O, in constant
magnetic field of 2 Tesla as shown in the figure. The induced emf between the point A and B of rod
will be

(1) 0.029 v
(2) 0.1 v
(3) 0.051 v
(4) 0.064 v

14) In the circuit shown, X is joined to Y for a long time, and then X is joined to Z. The total heat
produced in R2 is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

15) Find current through Zener diode–

(1) 5 mA
(2) 7.5 mA
(3) 2.5 mA
(4) 12.5 mA

16) If K represents kinetic energy, V represents velocity and T represents time, and these are chosen
as the fundamental units then, the dimensional formula of surface tension is (Given : surface tension
is force per unit length) :-

(1) [KV–2T–2]
(2) [KV–1T–2]
(3) [K2V–1T–3]
(4) [KV–2T–1]

17) A student measures the resistance R1 = 10 ± 1Ω and R2 = 20 ± 0.5 Ω. What is the range of value
of resistance obtained when they are connected in parallel ?

(1)

(2)

(3) 30 ± 1.5 Ω
30 ±
(4)

18) Out of the following sets of forces, the resultant of which cannot be zero.

(1) 10, 20, 40

(2) 10, 20, 20
(3) 10, 10, 20
(4) 10, 10, 10

19) If then what is the value of :–

(1) 2
(2)
(3) 1
(4) 0

20)

A scooter is going towards east at 10 ms–1 turns right through an angle of 90°. If the speed of the
scooter remains unchanged in taking this turn, the change in the velocity of the scooter is :

(1) 20.0 ms–1 in south–western direction

(2) zero
(3) 10.0 ms–1 in southern direction
(4) 14.14 ms–1 in south–western direction

21) A ball is hit by a batsman at an angle of 37° as shown in figure. The man standing at P should
run at what minimum velocity so that he catches the ball before it strikes the ground. Assume that
height of man is negligible in comparison to maximum height of projectile

(1) 3 ms–1
(2) 5 ms–1
(3) 9 ms–1
(4) 12 ms–1

22) In the given figure, find mass of the block A, if it remains at rest, when the system is released

from rest. Pulleys and strings are ideal.

(1) m
(2) 2m
(3) 2.5m
(4) 3m

23)

In which of the following cases the magnitude of acceleration of the block A will be maximum
(Neglect friction, mass of pulley and string) :

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

24) Two blocks (A) 2 kg and (B) 5 kg rest one over the other on a smooth horizontal plane. The
coefficient of static and dynamic friction between (A) and (B) is the same and equal to 0.60. The
maximum horizontal force F that can be applied to (B) in order that both (A) and (B) do not have any
relative motion is :

(1) 42 N
(2) 42 kgf
(3) 5.4 kgf
(4) 1.2 N

25) For the pulley system the kinetic energy of the 6 kg block after 5s is :-

(1) 100 J
(2) 300 J
(3) 500 J
(4) 800 J
26)

A mass of 0.5 kg moving with a speed of 1.5 m/s on a horizontal smooth surface, collides with a
nearly weightless spring of force constant k = 50 N/m. The maximum compression of the spring
would be

(1) 0.12m
(2) 1.5m
(3) 0.5m
(4) 0.15m

27) The figure shows a smooth curved track terminating in a smooth horizontal part. A spring of
spring constant 400 N/m is attached at one end to a wedge fixed rigidly with the horizontal part. A
40 g mass is released from rest at a height of 5m on the curved track. The maximum compression of

the spring will be :-

(1) 4 cm
(2) 2 cm
(3) 3 cm
(4) 10 cm

28) A shell is fired from a connon with velocity v m/s at an angle q with the horizontal direction. At
the highest point in its path, it explodes into two pieces of equal mass. One of the pieces retraces its
path to the cannon and the speed (in m/s) of the other piece immediately after the explosion is :-

(1) 3 v cos θ
(2) 2 v cos θ

(3)

(4)

29) Two bodies of masses 2 kg and 4 kg are moving with velocities 2 m/s and 10 m/s respectively
towards each other. What is the speed of their centre of mass ?

(1) 5 m s–1
(2) Zero
(3) 6 m s–1
(4) 8 m s–1

30) When a particle moves in a circle with uniform speed :-

(1) its velocity and acceleration are both constant

(2) its velocity is constant but the acceleration changes
(3) its acceleration is constant but the velocity changes
(4) its velocity and acceleration both change

31) Find moment of inertia of system about diagonal of square :-

(1) 2 mℓ2
(2) mℓ2

(3)

(4)

32) A particle of mass 1 kg is moving along the line y = x+2 (here x and y are in meters) with speed
2m/s. The magnitude of angular momentum of the particle about origin is :-

(1) 4 kg m2/s
(2) kg m2/s
(3) kg m2/s
(4) 2 kg-m2/s

33) A satellite is in an elliptic orbit around the earth with aphelion of 6RE and perihelion of 2RE,
where RE is the radius of the earth. The eccentricity of the orbit is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

34) A copper solid cube of 60 mm side is subjected to a pressure of 2.5 × 107 Pa. If the bulk modulus
of copper is 1.25 × 1011 N/m2, the change in the volume of cube is
(1) – 43.2 m3
(2) – 43.2 mm3
(3) – 43.2 cm3
(4) – 432 mm3

35) In the given figure, the velocity v3 will be :-

(1) 2 ms–1
(2) 4 ms–1
(3) 1 ms–1
(4) 3 ms–1

36) There are two identical small holes on the opposite sides of a tank containing a liquid. The tank
is open at the top. The difference in height of the two holes is h as shown in the figure. As the liquid
comes out of the two holes, the tank will experience a net horizontal force proportional to:

(1) h1/2
(2) h
(3) h3/2
(4) h2

37) An ideal gas is compressed from same initial volume V1 to same final volume V2 by different
process. Which of the following processes will result in maximum final pressure?

(1) Isothermal compression

(2) Adiabatic compression
(3) Isobaric compression
(4) Same in all of the above

38) A string with a mass density of is under tension of 360 N and is fixed at both ends.
One of its resonance frequencies is 375 Hz. The next higher resonance frequency is 450 Hz. Find the
mass of the string.

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

39) The equation of SHM of a particle is a + 4π2x = 0 where a is instantaneous linear acceleration at
displacement x. The frequency of motion is :-

(1) 1 Hz
(2) 4π Hz
(3) 1/4 Hz
(4) 4 Hz

40) NOT gates are connected at the two inputs of a NAND gate. This combination will behave as:-

(1) NAND gate

(2) AND gate
(3) OR gate
(4) NOR gate

41) A container is filled with water upto height 1m. Find out diameter of
disc at top of water surface from which light is coming out.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

42) Total internal reflection of a ray of light is possible when the ray goes from

(1) Denser to rarer medium and the angle of incidence is greater than the critical angle
(2) Denser to rarer medium and the angle of incidence is less then the critical angle
(3) Rarer to denser medium and the angle of incidence is greater than the critical angle
(4) Rarer to denser medium and the angle of incidence is less then the critical angle

43) Focal length of thin lens .......

(1) decreases with increase in refractive index
(2) increases with increase in refractive index
(3) doesn't change with refractive index
(4) none of these

44) Assertion :- A beam of white light when passed through a hollow prism, cannot give spectrum.
Reason :- Because refractive index of air inside and outside the prism is same, so no refraction and
hence no deviation will take place.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

45) Assertion :- A parallel plate capacitor is connected across battery through a key. A dielectric
slab of constant K is introduced between the plates. The energy which is stored becomes K times.
Reason :- The surface density of charge on the plate remains constant or unchanged.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

CHEMISTRY

1) In the following sequence of reactions

CH3 – Br A B C,
the end product (C) is:

(1) Acetaldehyde
(2) Ethyl alcohol
(3) Acetone
(4) Methane

2)

Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below :-

List I List II
[Reagent] [Used as test reagent for]

A Ammonical AgNO3 a Primary amine

B Victor Mayer Test b Aldehyde

C Cold dil. Alkaline KMnO4 c Alcohol identification

D Chloroform + NaOH d Double bond

Options
A B C D

(1) b c a d

(2) d b a c

(3) b c d a

(4) d c b a
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

3)
The compounds A, B and C in the above reaction sequence are :-

(1) Chlorobenzene, benzene, methyl benzoate

(2) Triphenyl phosphate, benzene, phenyl acetate
(3) Benzyl chloride, benzene, phenyl acetate
(4) Benzyl chloride, benzene, phenylacetyl chloride

4) Which of the following will not undergo friedel craft reaction

(1) Benzene
(2) Toluene
(3) Chlorobenzene
(4) Aniline

5) Write the reactivity order of following compounds in electrophilic substitution reaction.

(1) A > B > C > D

(2) B > C > D > A
(3) B > D > C > A
(4) C > D > A > B

6) Which of the following will give Carbyl amine test ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

7) Assertion :- Reduction of ester / Acid / Acid halide with LiAlH4 gives Alcohol while amide gives
amine.
Reason :- –NH2 has poor leaving tendency

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
Both Assertion and Reason are true and but Reason is not a correct explanation of the
(2)
Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

8) Scurvy is a disease caused by :-

(1) a virus
(2) deficiency of vitamin E
(3) deficiency of ascorbic acid
(4) deficiency of vitamin D

9) Consider the following reaction,

The product A is :

(1) C6H5CHO
(2) C6H5OH
(3) C6H5COCH3
(4) C6H5Cl
10) The compound B is :

(1) CH3CH2OH
(2) CH3CH2COCl
(3) CH2=CHCOOH
(4) CH3–CHCl–COOH

11) What will be the order of reactivity of the following carbonyl compounds with nucleophile?

(I) (II)

(III) (IV)

(1) I > II > III > IV

(2) IV > III > II > I
(3) II > I > IV > III
(4) III > II > I > IV

12) Which of the following does not shows tautomerism ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

13) In the given reaction, CH3–C≡CH [X], [X] will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

14)
Product B is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None

15) In Kjedlahl's process, 5gm of an organic compound produced ammonia enough to neutralise 500

ml of H2SO4 solution. The percentage of nitrogen, by mass, in the organic compound is :-

(1) 21%
(2) 14%
(3) 28%
(4) 42%

16) Rotational angle required in ethane to obtain minimum to maximum stable conformer is :-

(1) 60°
(2) 120°
(3) 45°
(4) 109.5°

17) The number of carbon atoms in parent C-chain:-

(1) 7
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4) 6

+ – +
18) The types of hybrid orbitals of nitrogen in NO2 , NO3 and NH4 respectively are expected to be
(1) sp, sp3 and sp2
(2) sp, sp2 and sp3
(3) sp2, sp and sp3
(4) sp2, sp3 and sp

19) Which of the following has maximum ionic character ?

(1) LiCl
(2) NaCl
(3) KCl
(4) CsCl

20) Which of the following two are isostructural :-

(1) NH3, BF3

(2)
(3) PCl5, ICl5
(4)

21) Which of the following pair contains only ambidenate ligand ?

–
(1) CN , NH3
– –
(2) NO2 , SCN
(3) H2O, en
(4) en, dien

22) Which complex is most stable ?

Where kd = Dissociation constant

– –16
(1) [Cu(CN)2] ; Kd = 1 × 10
–4 –37
(2) [Fe(CN)6] ; Kd = 1 × 10
–3 –44
(3) [Fe(CN)6] ; Kd = 1 × 10
– –20
(4) [Ag(CN)2] ; Kd = 1 × 10

23) Maximum C–O bond length present in :-

(1) Fe(CO)5
–
(2) [Fe(CO)5]
+
(3) [Fe(CO)5]
(4) All have equal

24) For a catalyst which condition is not essential:

(1) Variable oxidation states

(2) High ionisation energy
(3) Vacant orbitals
(4) Free valency on the surface

25) Which among the following order of oxidising power is correct-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

26) List - I List - II

(Molecule) (Characteristic Odour)
(P) CO2 (1) Rotten egg smell
(Q) I2 (2) Violet fumes
(R) H2S (3) Reddish brown vapours
(S) Br2 (4) Odour less

(1) P - 4, Q - 2, R - 1, S - 3
(2) P - 2, Q - 4, R - 1, S - 3
(3) P - 3, Q - 1, R - 2, S - 4
(4) P - 2, Q - 4, R - 3, S -1

27)
Structure of 'A' and type of isomerism in the above reaction are respectively.

(1) Prop-1-en-2-ol, metamerism

(2) Prop-1-en-1-ol, tautomerism
(3) Prop-2-en-2-ol, geometrical isomerism
(4) Prop-1-en-2-ol, tautomerism

28) Nesseler's reagent is used to detect.

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

29) Which of the following pair of chalcogen group have minimum and maximum electron affinity
respectively :-

(1) O, S
(2) S, Po
(3) Po, O
(4) Se, O

30) Identify d block element :-

(1) [Xe] 4f14 5d10 6s2

(2) [Xe] 4f14 5d1 6s2
(3) [Rn] 5f14 6d1 7s2
(4) All

31) If radius of 3rd shell of He+ ion is x Å, then the radius of 2nd shell will be :

(1)
Å

(2)
Å

(3)
Å

(4)
Å

32) One mole of N2O4(g) at 300 K is kept in a closed container under 1 atm pressure. It's heated to
600 K when 20% by mass of N2O4(g) decomposes to NO2(g). The resultant pressure is :-

(1) 1.2 atm

(2) 2.4 atm
(3) 2.0 atm
(4) 1.0 atm

33) For the reaction A + B → C; starting with different initial concentration of A and B, initial rate of
reaction were determined graphically in three experiments.

[A]0/M [B]0/M rate/

S.No.
(Initial conc.) (Initial conc.) (M s–1)

1 1.6 × 10–3 5 × 10–2 10–3

2 3.2 × 10–3 5 × 10–2 4 × 10–3

3 1.6 × 10–3 10–1 2 × 10–3

Rate law for reaction from above data is:-
(1) r = k[A]2 [B]2
(2) r = k[A]2 [B]
(3) r = k[A] [B]2
(4) r = k[A] [B]

34)

The standard oxidation potential Eº for the half reactions are as :

Zn → Zn2+ + 2e– ; Eº = + 0.76 V
Fe → Fe2+ + 2e– ; Eº = + 0.41 V
The EMF for the cell reaction
Fe2+ + Zn → Zn2+ + Fe is :

(1) – 0.35 V
(2) + 0.35 V
(3) + 1.17 V
(4) 0.117 V

35) The specific conductance of a 0.1N KCl solution at 23ºC is 0.012 ohm–1 cm–1. The resistance of
cell containing the solution at the same temperature was found to be 55 ohm. The cell constant will
be :

(1) 0.142 cm–1

(2) 0.66cm–1
(3) 0.918cm–1
(4) 1.12cm–1

36) Calculate the degree of ionisation of 0.01 M solution of HCN, Ka for HCN is 4.8 × 10–10 :-

(1) 4.8 × 10–10

(2) 2.2 × 10–4
(3) 4.8 × 10–4
(4) 2.2 × 10–10

37) Which condition is not satisfied by an ideal solution

(1) Δ H mixing = 0
(2) Δ V mixing = 0
(3) Δ S mixing = 0
(4) Obeys Raoult's law

38)

200 gm CaCO3 heated and it decomposed into CaO and CO2. What is the weight of residue -(Atomic
weight of Ca= 40)

(1) 56 gm
(2) 200 gm
(3) 100 gm
(4) 112 gm

39) 10 mL of 10 M H2SO4 is mixed to 100 mL 1M NaOH solution. The resultant solution will be

(1) Acidic
(2) Neutral
(3) Weakly alkaline
(4) Strongly alkaline

40) The number of electrons required to balance the following equation are

(1) 2 on right side

(2) 3 on left side
(3) 3 on right side
(4) 5 on left side

41) Assertion : If in a zero order reaction, the concentration of the reactant is doubled, then half life
period is also doubled.
Reason : For a zero order reaction, the rate of reaction is independent of initial concentration.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is a correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) Both assertion and reason are false.

42) Assertion : Depression in freezing point for same concentration solutions of Na2SO4 & Hg2I2 in
the water is same (Assuming 100% ionisation)
Reason : Hg2I2 in water dissociates as
Hg2I2 ⇌ 2Hg+ + 2I–

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are correct but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are correct and Reason is correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Assertion is false but Reason is true.

43) Assertion (A) : ClO4– does not show disproportionation reaction.

Reason (R) : In ClO4–, chlorine is present in its highest oxidation state.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct

44) Assertion (A) : The solubility of salts in water increases with rise in temperature.
Reason (R) : For most of the ionic compounds, ΔH°sol is positive and the dissociation process is
endothermic.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

45) Assertion (A) : The phenomenon like flow of water down hill or fall of a stone on to the ground
is an example of spontaneous process.
Reason (R) : There is a net increase in potential energy in the direction of change

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

BIOLOGY

1) Metameric segmentation is the characteristic of

(1) Mollusca and Chordata

(2) Platyhelminthes and Arthropoda
(3) Echinodermata and Annelida
(4) Annelida and Arthropoda

2) One of the special / exclusive characters of phylum Cnidaria is the occurrence of

(1) Polymorphism
(2) Flame cells
(3) Hermaphroditism
(4) Nematocysts

3) Which of the following is an example of platyhelminthes?

(1) Plasmodium
(2) Planaria
(3) Trypanosoma
(4) Wuchereria

4) The weakest bond found in a biomolecule could be

(1) Peptide bond

(2) Ionic bond
(3) Phosphodiester bond
(4) Glycosidic bond

5) The volume of air involved in breathing movements can be estimated by spirometer, except

(1) Tidal volume

(2) Inspiratory reserve volume
(3) Residual volume
(4) Vital capacity

6) In the given figure the durations of the events of the cardiac cycle are given. Identify these events

and select the correct option.

A B C

Auricular Joint Ventricular

(1)
systole diastole systole

Ventricular Auricular
(2) Join diastole
systole systole

Ventricular Auricular
(3) Joint diastole
systole systole

Auricular Ventricular
(4) Joint diastole
systole systole
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

7) In human a pair of kidney is situated at the levels of

(1) T10 & L5

(2) T5 & T12
(3) T5 & L3
(4) T12 & L3

8) Muscles are characterized by

(1) Excitability and contractility

(2) Extensibility
(3) Elasticity
(4) All of these

9) Which of the following is incorrect about skeletal muscles?

(1) Striped appearance under microscope hence called striated muscle.

(2) They are voluntary muscles.
(3) Primarily involved in locomotory actions and changes the body postures.
(4) They are Involuntary muscles.

10) Schwann cell is absent with

(1) Myelinated neuron of PNS

(2) Non myelinated neuron of PNS
(3) Neurons of CNS
(4) Neurons of PNS

11) Which of the following hormone stimulates the synthesis and secretion of steroid hormones
called glucocorticoids from the adrenal cortex?

(1) TSH
(2) ACTH
(3) LH
(4) FSH

12) ............... acts on the smooth muscles of our body and stimulate their contraction.

(1) LH
(2) FSH
(3) Oxytocin
(4) GH

13) How many of the following is/are male sex accessory duct(s)
Rete testis, Vasa efferentia, Epididymis, Seminiferous tubules, Uriniferous tubules, vasa deferentia

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

14) Identify the incorrect statements

(1) According to the 2011 census report the population growth rate was around 2.5 percent
The birth control methods which deliberately prevent fertilization are referred to as
(2)
contraceptive method
Oral contraceptive pills inhibit ovulation and implantation as well as alter the quality of cervical
(3)
mucus to prevent or retard entry of sperm
(4) Progesterone present in OCP is meant for checking ovulation

15) Match the column

Column-I Column-II

(a) Natural method of

(p) Tubectomy&vasectomy
contraception
 (b) IUDs (q) Copper T

(c) Barriers (r) Condom & cervical cap

(d) Sterilization (s) Coitus interrupts

(1) a-p,b-r,c-q,d-s
(2) a-s,b-p,c-q,d-r
(3) a-s,b-q,c-r,d-p
(4) a-q,b-s,c-r,d-p

16) Earth was formed ____ billion years back.

(1) 4.5
(2) 5.5
(3) 3.5
(4) 1.5

17) Life appeared ____ years after the formation of earth.

(1) 1000 million

(2) 100 million
(3) 10 million
(4) 500 million

18) Who proposed the theory of chemical evolution for the first time?

(1) Oparin and Haldane

(2) Miller
(3) Louis Pasteur
(4) Darwin

19) The monomeric form of antibody consist

(1) Four polysaccharide chains (2 heavy and 2 light chains)

(2) Four polypeptide chains (3 heavy and 1 light chains)
(3) Four polypeptide chains (3 light and 1 heavy chains)
(4) Four polypeptide chains (2 heavy and 2 light chains)

20) Choose the correct match w.r.t. the causing pathogen and the diseases.

Causative
Diseases
pathogen

(1) Salmonella Cholera

(2) Streptococcus Pneumonia

Amoebic
(3) Plasmodium
dysentery
 Chicken
(4) Rhino virus
pox
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

21) Sustained high fever, weakness, stomach pain, constipation, headache and loss of appetite are
some of the common symptoms of

(1) Diphtheria
(2) Typhoid
(3) Measles
(4) Small pox

22) Disease filariasis is caused by

(1) Female Aedes mosquito

(2) Female Anopheles mosquito
(3) Female Culex mosquito
(4) Wuchereria malayi

23) Which enzyme produced by microbes is an important ingredient in detergent formulations?

(1) Urease
(2) Lipase
(3) Pectinase
(4) Chitinase

24) The fruit juices available commercially are clearer than ones which are homemade.
Which ingredient is added in commercially available fruit juices?

(1) Lipase and protease

(2) Pectinase and hydrolase
(3) Pectinase and protease
(4) Hydrolase and protease

25) Which diagram correctly represents the cutting of both strands of DNA by EcoRI ?

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

26) A foreign DNA and plasmid cut by same restriction endonuclease can be joined to form a
recombinant plasmid using

(1) Eco-RI
(2) Taq-polymerase
(3) Polymerase-III
(4) Ligase

27) DNA fragments generated by the restriction endonucleases in a chemical reaction can be
separated by

(1) Centrifugation
(2) Polymerase chain reaction
(3) Electrophoresis
(4) Biolistic

28) Humulin is a

(1) Natural insulin

(2) Human insulin synthesized by genetically engineered E.coli
(3) Human insulin synthesized by pancreas
(4) Chemically synthesized insulin

29) The two polypeptides of human insulin are linked together by

(1) Phosphodiester bond

(2) Peptide bond
(3) Disulphide bridge
(4) Hydrogen bond

30) Which structures are joined by tendons?

(1) Skeletal muscles to bones

(2) Skeletal muscles to ligaments
(3) Bone to Bone
(4) Bones to ligaments

31) Find the correct sequence of path of sperm

 Rete testes Vasa efferentia Urethra
(1)
Ejaculatory duct
Vasa efferentia Vas deferens
(2)
Ejaculatory duct Urethra
Seminiferous tubules Epididymis
(3)
Rete testes Urethra
Seminiferous tubules Vas deferens
(4)
Vasa efferens Urethra

32) Assertion: The shape of uterus is like an inverted pear

Reason: The inner glandular myometrium secrete uterine milk

(1) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion
(2) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false
(4) If both assertion and reason are false

33) Assertion: The Indian parliament has cleared 2nd Amendment of the Indian patent Bill.
Reason: All countries of the world are awarding biopatents.

(1) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false
(4) If both assertion and reason are false

34) In the following peptide chain the number of marked amino acid is _____.

(1) 2nd
(2) 4th
(3) 1st
(4) Can be 1 or 2

35) The air tight thoracic chamber is formed dorsally by __(A)__ and laterally by __(B)__. Fill up the
blanks

(1) A - Ribs, B - Intercostal muscles

(2) A - Sternum, B - Phrenic muscles
(3) A - Vertebrae, B-Dome-shaped diaphragm
(4) A - Backbone, B - Ribs
36) Identify A, B and C in the given diagram Choose the
correct option :

(1) A - Artery, B - Capaillary, C - Vein

(2) A - Artery, B - Vein, C - Capillary
(3) A - Vein, B - Artery, C - Capillary
(4) A - Capillary, B - Artery, C - Vein

37) Match the column

Column - I Column - II

(A) Protonephridia (i) Prawn

(B) Antennal gland (ii) Amphioxus

(C) Malpighian tubule (iii) Dogs

(D) Kidney (iv) Cockroach

(1) A - i, B - iii, C - iv, D - ii
(2) A - ii, B - iv C - i, D - iii
(3) A - ii, B - i, C - iv, D - iii
(4) A - iv, B - i, C - ii, D - iii

38) Question A and B is related to diagram given below. Which path of

nerve impulse transmission is correct?
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

39) Match the column :

Column-I Column-II

A. Gorgonia (i) Sea pen

B. Adamsia (ii) Sea fan

C. Physalia (iii) Sea anemone

Portuguese man
D. Pennatula (iv)
of water
(1) A-i, B-iv, C-iii, D-ii
(2) A-i, B-iii, C-ii, D-iv
(3) A-ii, B-iii, C-iv, D-i
(4) A-ii, B-iv, C-iii, D-i

40) All of the following animals can reproduce asexually, Except :-

(1) Dugesia
(2) Sponges
(3) Hydra
(4) Ctenoplana

41) Alimentary canal of frog is short due to ?

(1) Carnivores nature

(2) Omnivores nature
(3) Herbivores nature
(4) Frugivores nature

42) Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : When a particular restriction enzyme cuts strand of DNA, overhanging stretches or
sticky ends are formed.
Reason (R): Some restriction enzymes cut the strand of DNA a little away from the centre of
palindromic site.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
43) Signals from fully developed foetus and placenta ultimately lead to parturition which requires
the release of :

(1) Oxytocin from maternal pituitary

(2) Oxytocin from foetal pituitary
(3) Relaxin from foetal ovary
(4) Estrogen from placenta

44) The role of an enzyme in a reaction is to

(1) Decrease activation energy

(2) Increase activation energy
(3) Inorganic catalyst
(4) None of these

45) 'Smack' is:-

(1) Chemically formaline

(2) Sweet in taste
(3) Obtained by acetylation of morphine
(4) Extracted from the latex of Cannabis sativa

46) All of the given are specific epithets of genus Solanum, except

(1) tuberosum
(2) aestivum
(3) nigrum
(4) melongena

47) Lichens are symbiotic association between algae and fungi. Which one is not a function of fungi
in lichens?

(1) Preparation of food for algae

(2) Provide shelter to algae
(3) Absorb mineral nutrients
(4) Provide water to algae

48) Deuteromycetes are known as imperfect fungi because-

(1) They reproduce sexually without involvement of gametes

(2) They lack vegetative phase in their life cycle
(3) Sexual spores are endogenously produced
(4) Sexual phase of these fungi is not known

49) The prothallus of homosporous fern plant doesn't show

(1) The ability to produce gametes
(2) The free living nature
(3) The ability to produce spores
(4) The ability to bear both kinds of sex organs

50) Select the correct match-

Placentation Example

(i) Axile (a) Argemone

(ii) Parietal (b) China rose

(iii) Basal (c) Primrose

(iv) Free central (d) Marigold

(1) i = (b); ii = (c); iii = (d); iv = (a)
(2) i = (b); ii = (a); iii = (c); iv = (d)
(3) i = (d); ii = (a); iii = (b); iv = (c)
(4) i = (b); ii = (a); iii = (d); iv = (c)

51) Scattered vascular bundles can be seen in which plant stem :

(1) Cucurbita stem

(2) Gram stem
(3) Sunflower stem
(4) Maize stem

52) "Body of animals and plants are composed of cells and products of cells" this hypothesis was
proposed by :-

(1) Rudolf virchow

(2) Schwann
(3) Schleiden
(4) Flemming

53) If a diploid cell is treated with colchicine then it becomes

(1) Triploid
(2) Tetraploid
(3) Diploid
(4) Monoploid

54) a : Zygotene and diplotene are stage of prophase-I of meiosis.

b : Zygotene and diplotene are stage of prophase-II of meiosis.
c : Zygotene and diplotene stages are also present in mitosis.
d : After 1st meiosis, both nuclei has 1C amount of DNA.
In given statements which of the following is/are correct
(1) a and c
(2) b and d
(3) c and d
(4) Only a is correct

55) In majority of plants, the light saturation occurs at _______ of the total sunlight available to plants

(1) 70%
(2) 10%
(3) 50%
(4) 25%

56) The fate of Pyruvate formed at the end of glycolysis depends on

A. Cellular need
B. O2 – availability
C. Type of oxidation of food that an organism or cell exhibits

(1) Only A & B

(2) Only A & C
(3) Only B & C
(4) A, B & C

57) Humus is :
(a) Dark in colour
(b) Undergoes decompositon rapidly
(c) Amorphous in nature
(d) Being colloidal

(1) All are correct except (b) & (d)

(2) (a), (b) and (c) are correct
(3) All are correct except (b)
(4) Only (a), (c) are correct

58) Which of the following marks the end of juvenile phase in higher plants?

(1) Appearance of flowers

(2) Appearance of vegetative bud
(3) Inter flowering period
(4) Formation of stipule

59) As the anther develops, each cell of sporogenous tissue undergo how many meiotic division(s) to
produce pollen tetrad

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 1

60) Which of following property, doesn't belong to sporopollenin?

(1) Shows resistance to high temperature

(2) No enzyme found so far which can degrade it
(3) It is present continuously around entire pollen grain
(4) Can withstand strong acids & alkali treatment

61) Junction between ovule & funicle represent

(1) Scar in seed

(2) Hilum in ovule
(3) Placenta
(4) Both 1 & 2

62) Autosomal recessive disease where 'Hb' polypeptide is affected qualitatively is

(1) Thalassemia
(2) Sickled-cell anaemia
(3) Leukemia
(4) Haemophilia

63) Colour-blindness appears more in males than in females because

(1) Males are hemizygous (or) presence of single 'x' chromosome

(2) Males have higher level of testosterone
(3) Colour-blindness is Y-linked disease
(4) Females develop immunity to disease

64) Mendel crossed a pure white-flowered recessive pea plant with a dominant pure violet-flowered
plant. The first generation of hybrids would show

(1) 50 per cent white-flowered and 50 per cent violet-flowered plants

(2) All violet-flowered plants
(3) 75 per cent violet-flowered and 25 per cent white-flowered plants
(4) All white-flowered plants

65) 32P was used to radiolabel which component of bacteriophage in Hershey and Chase experiment
:-

(1) Viral protein

(2) Viral DNA
(3) Viral RNA
(4) Both DNA and protein
66) Select the statement which is incorrect w.r.t. species-area relationship

(1) For small areas, the value of slope of regression lies in the range of 0.1 to 0.2
(2) On logarithmic scale, the relationship becomes rectangular hyperbola
(3) For a very large area the regression coefficient ranges between 0.6 to 1.2
Alexander von Humboldt found that within a region species richness increases with increasing
(4)
explored area but only upto a limit

67) Assertion: In racemose inflorescence the main axis continue to grow.

Reason: In racemose inflorescence flowers are borne laterally in acropetal succession.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

68) Moll's Half leaf experiment proves that :

(1) Light is essential for photosynthesis

(2) CO2 is essential for photosynthesis
(3) O2 releases during photosynthesis
(4) Chlorophyll is essential for photosynthesis

69)

In the logistic growth curve, which of the following phases is seen, when the population density
reaches the carrying capacity ?

(1) Lag phase

(2) Acceleration
(3) Deceleration
(4) Asymptote

70) Match column I with column II and select the correct option:

Column I Column II

a Deuteromycetes i Conjugation fungi

b Ascomycetes ii Imperfect fungi

c Basidiomycetes iii Sac fungi

d Zygomycetes iv Club fungi

(1) a-iv, b-ii, c-i, d-iii
(2) a-ii, b-iv, c-iii, d-i
(3) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i
(4) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii
71) State true (T) or false (F) for the given statements and select the correct option.
(a) 7-celled & 8-nucleated female gametophyte in angiosperms is generally by monosporic
development.
(b) Multiplication by fragmentation is observed in filamentous fungi, filamentous algae and
protonema of mosses.
(c) Water is required for transfer of pollen in male flowers or Vallisneria plant.

(a) (b) (c)

(1) F T F

(2) T T T

(3) T F T

(4) F F F
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

72) Which of the following statements regarding gymnosperms are correct?

I. Ovules are naked as not enclosed by any ovary wall before fertilisation but seeds that develop after
fertilisation are covered.
II. In all living Gymnosperms, sporophyte is dominant over the gametophyte.
III. They are heterosporous.
IV. The male and female gametophytes do not have an independent existence.

(1) I, II and III

(2) I, III and IV
(3) II, III and IV
(4) I, II, III and IV

73) Read the statements carefully :

I. The ___(A)___ is the main arena of cellular activities in both plant and animal cells.
II. ___(B)___ not only gives shape to the cell but also protects the cell from mechanical damage &
infection.
III. ___(C)___ is the important site for the formation of glycoproteins and glycolipids.
Choose the correct option which correctly fills A, B & C to complete the statements?

A B C
(1) SER Cytoplasm Cell wall
(2) Cytoplasm Cell wall SER
(3) Cytoplasm Cell wall Golgi apparatus
(4) Mitochondria Cytoplasm SER
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4
74)
In the given diagram the type of chromosome is :

(1) Acentric
(2) Metacentric
(3) Submetacentric
(4) Telocentric

75) Which of the following is correct statement for below given equation ?

Acetyl Co.A + CO2 + NADH2

During this process 2 molecule of NADH2 are produced from the metabolism of two molecules of
(1)
pyruvic Acid
(2) It is a connecting link between glycolysis and Kreb's cycle.
(3) With the help of ETS this equation gives 3 ATP.
(4) All of the above are correct

76) In the given diagram, identify the labelled structures [A] and [B] :-

(1) [A] Epidermis, [B] Microspore tetrad

(2) [A] Epidermis, [B] Megaspore tetrad
(3) [A] Nucellus, [B] Megaspore tetrad
(4) [A] Nucellus, [B] Microspore tetrad

77) Which of the following type of inheritance is not possible with the given pedigree ?
(1) Autosomal recessive
(2) Autosomal dominant
(3) X-linked dominant
(4) X-linked recessive

78) Identify the correct representation showing interaction of charged tRNA with codon on mRNA :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

79) Identify the number of incorrect statement with respect to given diagram :

(a) This experiment gave unequivocal proof that DNA is

genetic material and was performed by Meselson and Stahl.
(b) A represents attachment of radioactive phages to bacteria.
(c) B represents removal of viral coats by agitating them in blender
(d) C is the separation of virus particle from bacteria by centrifugation.

(1) Three
(2) Four
(3) Two
(4) One

80) Population growth curve is given below, a and b respectively. Find the correct option having

correct labelling

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

81) A cross is being given here :- If B stands for pink flower then
(a) Identify the plant with this characteristic inheritance pattern.
(b) What percentage of F2 progeny will produce A?

(1) (a) Garden pea, (b) 25%

(2) (a) Snapdragon, (b) 25%
(3) (a) Garden pea, (b) 50%
(4) (a) Snapdragon, (b) 50%

82)

Sickle cell anemia is :-

(1) Characterized by elongated sickle like RBCs with a nucleus

(2) An autosomal linked dominant trait
(3) Caused by substitution of valine by glutamic acid in the beta globin chain of haemoglobin
(4) Caused by a change in a single base pair of DNA

83) Barnacles growing on the back of whale is an example of :-

(1) Mutualism
(2) Parasitism
(3) Amensalism
(4) Commensalism

84)

Go through the following figures and identify these plants (A, B, C and D) :-

A B C D

(1) Porphyra Laminaria Selaginella Chara

(2) Laminaria Equisetum Salvinia Sphagnum

(3) Marchantia Fucus Chara Laminaria

(4) Salvinia Sphagnum Equisetum Laminaria

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

85) One single maize root apical meristem can give rise to more than

(1) 17,500 new cells per minute

(2) 17,500 new cells per hour
(3) 17,500 new cells per day
(4) 17,500 new cells per week

86)
Which of the following is correct for given diagrammatic sketch ?

(1) Found in stems of grasses

(2) Presence of intra-fascicular cambium
(3) Found in stems of sunflower
(4) Presence of secondary xylem and secondary phloem

87) Find out the correct statement :-

(a) Division of centromeres takes place during anaphase-I of meiosis
(b) Spindle fibres disappear during telophase of mitosis
(c) Nucleoli reappear at telophase of mitosis
(d) Synapsis of homologous chromosomes takes place during prophase-I of meiosis

(1) (b) only

(2) (a), (b) and (c)
(3) (a), (b) and (d)
(4) (b), (c) and (d)

88) What is correct about C4 plant ?

p. They have special type of leaf anatomy
q. They tolerate high temperature
r. They lack photorespiration
s. Have lesser productivity
t. Show no response to high light intensities

(1) pst
(2) qrst
(3) prst
(4) pqr

89) After double fertilization, embryo sac posses :

(1) 1 diploid and 1 haploid cell

(2) 1 diploid and 1 triploid cell
(3) 2 haploid and 1 triploid cell
(4) 1 triploid and 1 haploid

90) If the minimum and maximum height of sugarcane plant is 50 cm and 200 cm respectively and
this character is regulated by 3 pairs of genes. Then find out the height of plants produced in the
progeny of cross aabbCC × AABBcc :-

(1) 75 cm
(2) 150 cm
(3) 50 cm
(4) 125 cm
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 2 4 2 2 2 2 3 2 2 2 3 2 3 1 3 1 1 1 4 4
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 2 4 3 1 2 4 4 1 3 4 2 2 1 2 3 2 2 2 1 3
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 3 1 1 1 3

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 2 3 2 4 2 3 1 3 1 3 1 4 3 2 3 1 2 2 4 2
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 2 3 2 2 2 1 4 4 1 1 1 2 2 2 2 2 3 4 1 2
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 2 3 1 4 2

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 4 4 2 2 3 4 4 4 4 3 2 3 4 1 3 1 4 1 4 2
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 2 4 2 3 2 4 3 2 3 1 2 3 3 2 4 1 3 1 3 4
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 1 1 1 1 3 2 1 4 3 4 4 2 2 4 2 4 3 1 4 3
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 4 2 1 2 2 2 2 2 4 3 2 3 3 3 4 3 3 3 4 2
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 2 4 4 2 2 1 4 4 2 4
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) In reflected ray polarization becomes perpendicular to the plane of incident. Here in the
incident ray there is no component perpendicular to the plane hence there will not be any
reflected ray.

2)

3)

5) [Electrostatic force]
r ∝ n2

8) 1. Asking About:
We need to determine in which of the four cases the electric field at the center of the hexagon
is zero.
2. Concept:
The electric field at the center of a regular hexagon is zero if the vector sum of the electric
fields due to all the charges placed at the vertices cancels out. This happens when the charge
distribution is symmetric, ensuring that every charge's contribution is counterbalanced by an
equal and opposite charge.
(3) Formula:
The electric field E at the center due to a point charge q at a distance r is given by:

Where

A. k is Coulomb's constant,
B. q is the charge,
C. r is the distance from the charge to the center.

For multiple charges, the net electric field is the vector sum of the individual fields.
(4) Calculation/Explanation:

A. Case I: The charges are 6q, 5q, 4q, 3q, 2q, q. Since the charges are all different and not
symmetrically distributed, the electric fields at the center do not cancel. The net field is not
zero.
B. Case II: The charges are q, q, q, -q, q, q. Although there are two negative charges to balance
some of the positive ones, the distribution lacks complete symmetry. The electric field
 contributions do not fully cancel. The net field is not zero.
C. Case III: The charges are q, 2q, 2q, q, 2q, 2q. This charge distribution is symmetric along one
axis, and due to the presence of equal charges opposite to each other, their contributions
cancel out at the center. The net field is zero.
D. Case IV: The charges are q, 29, 2q, q, q, 2q. This arrangement is not completely symmetric,
meaning the electric field contributions do not fully cancel at the center. The net field is not
zero.

(5) Final Answer:

The correct option is (2) III.

10) Displacement current,

ID = conduction current, IC

0 0
∴ [q cos 2πυt] = –q 2πυ sin 2πυt

11) As &

13) ε =

= × (100 – 49) × 10–4

–3
= 10 × 51 = 0.051 volt.

14) Steady-state current in . Energy stored in = heat

produced in R2 during discharge.

15)

16)
0
[Surface tension] = [M1L T–2] ;

Surface tension =
Surface testion = KExVyTz; K is dimensionless
0
[M1L T–2] = [ML2T–2]x [LT–1]y [T]z
17)

R=

dR =

22) T1 = mAg and T2 = but T1 = 2T2 so mA = 3m

24) for block A

⇒ F = 42N

25)
Velocity of blocks at t = 5 sec.
v = u + at
v = 0 + (2)(5) = 10 m/s

KE of 6kg block =
= 300 J

27) mgh = kx2

40 × 10–3 × 10 × 5 = × 400 x2

28) In case of projectile motion as at the highest point

(v)vertical = 0 and (v)horizontal = v cos θ,
the initial linear momentum of the system will be mv cosθ.
Now, as force of blasting is internal and force of gravity is vertical, so linear momentum of the
system along horizontal is conserved, i.e.,
p1 + p2 = mv cos θ or m1v1 + m2v2 = mv cosθ

But, it is given that m1 = m2 = and as one part retraces its path, v1 = – v cos θ

∴ m(–v cos θ) + mv2 = mv cos θ

Solving, we get ; v2 = 3v cos θ
29)

so velocity of COM will be 6 m/s

31)

34) = –43.2 mm3

35) According to equation of continuity

A1v1 = A2v2 + A3v3
0.2 × 4 = 0.2 × 2 + 0.4 × v3
(v3 = 1 m/s)

38) and where p is number of loops

so
Mass of wire

40) OR gate

41) Diameter = 2r = m

42) TIR is possible when light goes from denser to rarer medium, and incidence angle is
greater than critical angle.
i > θC

45)
 U = CV2
∵ V is constant
∵U∝C
on inserting dielectric slab.

C becomes K times
So U will also become K times.

Now
∵ V and A are constants.
∴σ∝C
On inserting dielectric slab, C becomes K times
So, σ will also become K times.

CHEMISTRY

46)

47)

(A) Ammonical AgNO3 → Aldehyde

(B) Victor Mayer Test → Alcohol identification
(C) Cold dil. Alkaline KMnO4 → Double bond
(D) Chloroform + NaOH → Primary amine

48)

52)

54)
 55)

67)

[Kd↓ ⇒ Stability of complex↑]

68)

Metal with –ve ion shows more synergic bond.

70) Lower oxidation states of Mn are more stable.

75)

[Xe] 4f14 5d10 6s2

78)

NCERT Pg.No.99

84)
ngram eq. 10×2×10 100×1
= 200 mg eq. 100 mg eq.
Upon reaction → 100 milligram of acid remains

N= = 1.81 N ⇒ Acidic solution

BIOLOGY

106)

107)

108)

129) NCERT XIth (E) Pg.#50

131) NCERT Pg. # 116

132)

140) NCERT Pg # 75

144) NCERT XI, Page # 168

146) The fate of Pyruvic acid depends on Cellular need and O2 availability
NCERT PAGE : 229

157) NCERT Pg#72

159)

NCERT Pg. 231

165) NCERT Pg # 231, 14.4

166) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 26 (Fig. 2.8-a)

170) NCERT - 230

171) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 76

173)

NCERT Pg. # 23

174)

NCERT (XI) Pg. # 31, 34, 37

175)

NCERT Pg. 241

176) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 90, fig.-6.5(b)

178)
NCERT Pg # 218

179) NCERT Page - 34, 35