CHAPTER 1: ELECTRIC CHARGES AND FIELDS

ELECTRIC CHARGES AND FIELDS

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ELECTRIC CHARGES AND FIELDS

Introduction:

Study of static charges is called electrostatics and this complete electrostatic will be
discussed in two chapters. In this chapter we begin with a discussion of electric
charge, some properties of charged bodies, and fundamental electric force between
two charged bodies.

What is Electric Charge?

Electric Charge is a fundamental property of a matter which is responsible for electric
forces between the bodies. Two electrons placed at small separation are found to
repeal each other, this repulsive force (Electric force) is only because of electric
charge on electrons.

When a glass rod is rubbed with silk, the rod acquires one kind of charge, and the silk
acquires the second kind of charge. This is true for any pair of objects that are
rubbed to be electrified. Now if the electrified glass rod is brought in contact with
silk, with which it was rubbed, they no longer attract each other.

Types of Electric Charge:

There are two types of charge exist in our nature.

 Positive Charge
 Negative Charge

If any object loses their electrons then they get positive charge. It is denoted by (+q)
sign. If any object gain electrons from another object, then they get negative charge.
It is denoted by (-q) sign. The charges were named as positive and negative by the
American scientist Benjamin Franklin. If an object possesses an electric charge, it is
said to be electrified or charged. When it has no charge it is said to be neutral.

Basic Properties of Electric Charge:

The important properties and characteristic of electric charge are given below.

Attraction and Repulsion: Like charges repel each other while unlike charges attract
each other.

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Electric Induction: When a charged object brings to contact with another uncharged,
it gets opposite charge of charged object. It is called charging by induction.

Charge is Quantized: An object that is electrically charged has an excess or deficiency

of some whole number of electrons. Since, electrons cannot be divided into fraction of
electrons, it means that the charge of an object is a whole-number multiple of the
charge of an electron. For example, it cannot have a charge equal to the charge of 0.5
or 1000.5 electrons.

Mathematically q = ± ne, here n = 1, 2, 3 and e = 1.6 × 10–19 coulomb.

Electric Charge is Conserved: According to this property, "An electric charge neither
can be created nor can be destroyed" i.e., total net charge of an isolated system is
always conserved. Thus, when a glass rod rubbed with silk cloth, both glass rod and
silk cloth acquire opposite charge in same quantity. Thus, total amount of charge
remains same before rubbing as well as after rubbing.

Conductors and Insulators:

Some substances easily allow passage of electricity through them while others do not.
Substances which allow electricity to pass through them easily are called ‘conductors.
They have electrons that are free to move inside the material. Metals, human and
animal bodies, earth etc. are example of conductors. Non-metals e.g., glass, plastic,
wood are ‘insulators’ because they do not easily allow passage of electricity through
them.

Most substances are either conductors or insulators. There is a third category called
‘semiconductors’ which are intermediate between conductors and insulators because
they partially allow movement of charges through them.

Charging by Induction:
Now as we know that two oppositely charged bodies attract each other. But it also has
been our observation that a charged body attracts a neutral body as well. This is
explained on the basis of charging by induction. In induction process two bodies (at
least one body must be charged) are brought very close, but they never touch each
other.

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Let us examine how a charged body attracts an uncharged body. Imagine a conducting
or partially conducting body (sphere here) is kept on an insulating stand and a charged
rod (positive, for example) is brought very close to it. It will attract electrons to its side
and the farther end of the sphere will become positively charged as it is deficient of
electrons.

Coulomb’s Law:
 In 1785 Charles Coulomb (1736-1806) experimentally established the
fundamental law of electric force between two stationary charged particles.
He observed that An electric force between two charge particles has the
following properties:
 It is directed along a line joining the two particles and is inversely proportional
to the square of the separation distance r, between them.
 t is proportional to the product of the magnitudes of the charges, |q1| and
|q2|, of the two particles.
 It is attractive if the charges are of opposite sign and repulsive if the charges have
the same sign.

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From these observations, Coulomb proposed the following mathematical form for the
electric force between two charges. The magnitude of the electric force F between
charges q1 and q2 separated by a distance r is given by
|q1||q1|
F=k
r2
where k is a constant called the Coulomb constant. The proportionality constant k in
Coulomb’s law is similar to G in Newton’s law of gravitation. Instead of being a very
small number like G (6.67 × 10–11), the electrical proportionality constant k is a very
large number. It is approximately.

k = 8.9875 × 109 N-m2C–2

The constant k is often written in terms of another constant, ε0, called the permittivity
of free space. It is related to k by
1
k=
4πε0
1 |q1||q1|
∴F=
4πε0 r 2

1 10−12C 2
ε0 = = 8.85 ×
4πk Nm2

Electric Field:
A charge produces something called an electric field in the space around it and this
electric field exerts a force on any charge (except the source charge itself) placed in it.
The electric field has its own existence and is present even if there is no additional
charge to experience the force.

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Intensity of Electric Field:

Intensity of electric field due to a charge configuration at a point is defined as the

force acting on a unit positive charge at this point. Hence if a charge q experiences an
electric force F at a point then intensity of electric field at this point is given as
F
E=
q

It has S.I. units of newtons per coulomb (N/C).

Electric Field due to a Point Charge:

To determine the direction of an electric field, consider a point charge q as a source

charge. This charge creates an electric field at all points in space surrounding it. A test
charge q0 is placed at point P, a distance r from the source charge. According to
Coulomb’s law, the force exerted by q on the test charge is.
1 qq 0
F= F= 2
4πε0 r

This force is directed away from the source charge q, since the electric field at P, the
position of the test charge, is defined by
F
E=
q0

we find that at P, the electric field created by q is

1 q
E=
4πε0 r 2

Electric Field Lines:

Electric field lines are a way of pictorially mapping the electric field around a
configuration of charges. An electric field line is, in general, a curve drawn in such a
way that the tangent to it at each point is in the direction of the net field at that point.

The field lines follow some important general properties:

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 The tangent to electric field lines at any point gives the direction of electric
field at that point.
 In free space, they are continuous curves which emerge from positive charge
and terminate at negative charge
 They do not intersect each other. If they do so, then it would mean two
directions of electric field at the point of intersection, which is not possible.
 Electrostatic field lines do not form any closed loops. This follows from the
conservative nature of electric field.

Electric Dipole:
A configuration of two charges of same magnitude q, but of opposite sign, separated
by a small distance (say 2a) is called an electric dipole.

Dipole moment for an electric dipole is a vector quantity directed from the negative
charge to the positive charge and its magnitude is p = q × 2a (charge × separation). The
SI unit of dipole moment is C-m (coulombmeter).

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Gauss’s Law:
 The flux of electric field through any closed surface S is 1/ε_0 times the
 Total charge enclosed by S.
 Electric field outside the charged shell is as though the total charge is
concentrated at the center. The same result is true for a solid sphere of
uniform volume charge density.
 The electric field is zero at all points inside a charged shell.

Deduction of Coulomb’s law from Gauss' Law:

Consider a charge +q in place at origin in a vacuum. We want to calculate the electric

field due to this charge at a distance r from the charge. Imagine that the charge is
surrounded by an imaginary sphere of radius r as shown in the figure below. This
sphere is called the Gaussian sphere.

Consider a small area element dS on the Gaussian sphere. We can calculate the flux
through this area element due to charge as follows:
∮ ⃑E . ⃑⃑⃑⃑
ds = E ∮ ds

∮ ⃑E . ⃑⃑⃑⃑
ds = E(4πr 2 )

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Using this in Gauss theorem we get

q
E(4πr 2 ) =
ε0
1 q
E=
4πε0 r 2

We know that
F = Eq 0
1 qq 0
F=
4πε0 r 2

This is the required Coulomb’s law obtained from Gauss theorem.

Dipole Placed in Uniform External Field:

Since the impact of an external electric field on charges is already known to us; a
dipole too will experience some form of force when introduced to an external field. It
is interesting to learn that, a dipole placed in an external electric field acquires a
rotating effect. This rotating effect is termed as ‘torque’ felt by the dipole. Excitingly,
the net torque can be calculated on the opposite charges present in a dipole for
estimating the overall rotation.

Torque on dipole:
Consider a dipole located in the same position ‘E’ to calculate the torque received by
the dipole when positioned outside. The compulsory charge will be placed below the
‘qE’ magnitude as you go up, while the negative charge will be placed below the ‘qE’
magnitude as you go down.

Since the absolute power is zero, it can be seen that the dipole is in the equation at
the moment. But what is the rotation rate? In this case, the dipole may remain stable
but rotates at a certain angular velocity. This fact has been demonstrated by

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experimentation, and it shows that both electrostatic forces (qE) act as clock-related
torque.

As a result, when a dipole is inserted into the same external electrical circuit, it
rotates. Torque always works with external force applied which will be in pairs.
Moreover, its size is a result of its strength and arm. The arm can be thought of as the
distance between the point of force applied and the point at which rotation occurs at
the dipole.

Torque

Torque (τ) = Force × distance separating forces

Torque is a vector whose direction is determined by the force acting on the axis. The
magnitude of the torque vector is determined as follows:

T = F r sinθ

Which means,

F - force acting on the axis

r - temporary arm length

θ - angle between force vector and temporary arm

τ - is the vector of torque

Derivation of Torque

Consider a dipole with the angles of + q and q forming a dipole because they are
separated by a distance of d. Positioned in the same electric field of power E, the
dipole axis forms an θ angle with an electric field.

Charging power, F = ± q E

Elements of power perpendicular to dipole, F = ± q E sinθ

Since ‘qd’ is the magnitude of the dipole moment (p), and the direction of the dipole
moment ranges from positive to negative; torque is the product of a dipole moment
cross and an electric field. When the direction of the electric field is positive, the
torque is in the clock (therefore negative) in the image above.

So,

τ = - pEsinθ

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An incorrect sign indicates that the torque is in the clockwise direction.

Potential energy of dipole:

Consider a dipole with charges q1 = +q and q2 = -q placed in a uniform electric field as

shown in the figure above. The charges are separated by a distance d and the
magnitude of an electric field is E. The force experienced by the charges is given as –qE
and +qE, as can be seen in the figure.

As we know that, when a dipole is placed in a uniform electric field, both the charges
as a whole do not experience any force, but it experiences a torque equal to τ which
can be given as,

τ=p×E

Consider a dipole with charges q1 = +q and q2 = -q placed in a uniform electric field as

shown in the figure above. The charges are separated by a distance d and the
magnitude of an electric field is E. The force experienced by the charges is given as –qE
and +qE, as can be seen in the figure.

As we know that, when a dipole is placed in a uniform electric field, both the charges

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as a whole do not experience any force, but it experiences a torque equal to τ which
can be given as,

= pE(cosθ0 – cosθ1)

As we know that the work done in bringing a system of charges from infinity to the given
configuration is defined as the potential energy of the system, hence the potential energy
U(Ɵ) can be associated with the inclination Ɵ of the dipole using the above relation.

U(θ) = pE(cosθ0 – cosθ1

From the above equation, we can see that the potential energy of dipole placed in an
external field is zero when the angle Ɵ is equal to 90° or when the dipole makes an angle of
90°.

Considering the initial angle to be the angle at which the potential energy is zero, the
potential energy of the system can be given as,
𝜋
U(θ) = pE(cos= - cos θ) = -pE cosθ= -p.E
2

Workdone by dipole:
A pair of force which is equal in magnitude, with opposite direction, and displaced by
perpendicular distance or moment is known as the couple.

When a couple acts on a dipole

Work done to rotate a dipole is given by

Total work done is given by

When the dipole is rotated from 0 to θ

degrees, work done is given by

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Hence, the work done to rotate a dipole in an external electric uniform field is

Work done if dipole rotated from 90 degree

Work done if dipole rotated from 180 degree

When

The dipole is said to be stable when the dipole is aligned in the direction of the electric field.

Stable and unstable equilibrium:

Stable equilibrium
“A body is said to be in stable equilibrium if after a slight tilt it returns to its previous
position.”stable equilibrium state

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Consider a book lying on the table. Tilt the book slightly about its one edge by lifting it from
the opposite side. It returns to its previous position when sets free. Such a state of the body
is called a stable equilibrium.

When a body is in stable equilibrium, its center of gravity is at the lowest position. When it
is tilted, its center of gravity rises. It returns to its stable equilibrium as long as the center of
gravity acts through the base of the body.

Examples of stable equilibrium:

 Chair lying on the floor

 The heavy base of the vehicle

 Table lying on the ground

 Cone lying on its base by lowering its center of gravity

 Bottle lying on its base

Unstable equilibrium:
“If a body does not return to its previous position when sets free after the slightest tilt
is said to be in unstable equilibrium.”unstable equilibrium state

Take a pencil and try to keep it in the vertical position on its tip. Whenever you leave it,
the pencil topples over about its tip and falls down. This is called an unstable
equilibrium. In an unstable equilibrium, a body may be made to stay only for a moment.
Thus a body is an unstable equilibrium.

The center of gravity of the body is at its highest position in the state of unstable
equilibrium. As the body topples over about its base (tip), its center of gravity moves
towards its lower position and does not return to its previous position.

Example of unstable equilibrium:

 When the ice cream cone is made to rest on its apex on a book, the movement of
the book will disturb the position of the ice cream cone. This is an example of
unstable equilibrium.

 When the weather changes from freezing to hot to freezing rapidly and without
reason, this is an example of a time when it is unstable. When a person has a bad
temper that can explode or flare up with no provocation at all, this is an example
of a person who would be described as unstable. Not firmly placed; unsteady.

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Electric Field on axial and equatorial line

Axial line: Axial line is the line which is passing through the positive and negative
charges and the point lies on that line is called the axial point.

Electric field on axial line of dipole is given by:

Equatorial line: Equatorial line is the perpendicular line to the line passing through the
positive and negative charges and the point lies on that line is known as the equatorial
point.

Electric field on equatorial line of dipole is given by:

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Relation between electric field at axial and equatorial line

Electric field due to an electric dipole at points situated at a distancer r along its axial
line is given as,

Electric field due to an electric dipole at points situated at a distance r along its
equatorial plane is given as,

From (i) and (ii)

Therefore, ratio is 2 : 1

Relation between E and V:

The electric field exists if and only if there is a electric potential difference. If the charge
is uniform at all points, however high the electric potential is, there will not be any
electric field. Thus, the relation between electric field and electric potential can be
generally expressed as – “Electric field is the negative space derivative of electric
potential.”

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Electric Field And Electric Potential

The relation between Electric field and electric potential is mathematically given by-

Where,

E is the Electric field.

V is the electric potential.

dx is the path length.

– Sign is the electric gradient

Direction of Electric Field

If the field is directed from lower potential to higher then the direction is taken to be
positive.

If the field is directed from higher potential to lower potential then the direction is
taken as negative.

Test charge Electric gradient

Formula

Positive Higher as you go

closer towards test
charge.

Negative Higher as you go

move away from
test charge.

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Equipotential Electric potential is

surface perpendicular to
Electric field lines.

Electric Field And Electric Potential Relation Derivation:

Where,
 F is the force applied
 dl is the short element of the path while moving it from a to b.
The force can be written as charge times electric field.

Dividing both sides by test charge q0

Workdone by the test charge is the potential Va-Vb

For equipotential surface, Va=Vb thus,

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Important Questions
Multiple Choice questions-
1. The surface considered for Gauss’s law is called
(a) Closed surface
(b) Spherical surface
(c) Gaussian surface
(d) Plane surface
2. The total flux through the faces of the cube with side of length a if a charge q is
placed at corner A of the cube is

3. Which of the following statements is not true about Gauss’s law?

(a) Gauss’s law is true for any closed surface.
(b) The term q on the right side of Gauss’s law includes the sum of all charges
enclosed by the surface.
(c) Gauss’s law is not much useful in calculating electrostatic field when the system
has some symmetry.
(d) Gauss’s law is based on the inverse square dependence on distance contained in
the coulomb’s law
4. A charge Q is placed at the center of the line joining two point charges +q and +q
as shown in the figure. The ratio of charges Q and q is

(a) 4
(b) 1/4
(c) -4
(d) -1/4

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5. The force per unit charge is known as

(a) electric flux
(b) electric field
(c) electric potential
(d) electric current
6. Electric field lines provide information about
(a) field strength
(b) direction
(c) nature of charge
(d) all of these
7. Which of the following figures represent the electric field lines due to a single
negative charge?

8. The SI unit of electric flux is

(a) N C-1 m-2
(b) N C m-2
(c) N C-2 m2
(d) N C-1 m2
9. The unit of electric dipole moment is
(a) newton
(b) coulomb
(c) farad
(d) Debye
10. Consider a region inside which, there are various types of charges but the total
charge is zero. At points outside the region
(a) the electric field is necessarily zero.
(b) the electric field is due to the dipole moment of the charge distribution only.

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(c) the dominant electric field is inversely pro-portional to r3, for large r (distance
from ori-gin).
(d) the work done to move a charged particle along a closed path, away from the
region will not be zero.

Very Short:
1. What is the value of the angle between the vectors 𝑃⃑ and 𝐸⃑ for which the
potential energy of an electric dipole of dipole moment 𝑃⃑ , kept in an
external electric field 𝐸⃑ , has maximum value.
2. Define electric field intensity at a point.
3. Two equal point charges separated by 1 m distance experience force of 8 N.
What will be the force experienced by them, if they are held in water, at the
same distance? (Given: Kwater = 80) (CBSE Al 2011C)
4. A charge ‘q’ is placed at the centre of a cube of side l. What is the electric
flux passing through each face of the cube? (CBSE AI 2012) (CBSE Sample
Paper 2019)
5. Why do the electric field lines not form closed loops? (CBSE Al 2012C)
6. Two equal balls having equal positive charge ‘q’ coulomb are suspended by
two insulating strings of equal length. What would be the effect on the force
when a plastic sheet is inserted between the two? (CBSE AI 2014)
7. What is the electric flux through a cube of side l cm which encloses an
electric dipole? (CBSE Delhi 2015)
8. Why are electric field lines perpendicular at a point on an equipotential
surface of a conductor? (CBSE Al 2015C)
9. What is the amount of work done in moving a point charge Q. around a
circular arc of radius ‘r’ at the centre of which another point charge ‘q’ is
located? (CBSE Al 2016)
10. How does the electric flux due to a point charge enclosed by a spherical
Gaussian surface get affected when its radius is increased? (CBSE Delhi
2016)
Short Questions:
1.
(a) Electric field inside a conductor is zero. Explain.
(b) The electric field due to a point charge at any point near it is given as

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what is the physical significance of this limit?

2. Define the electric line of force and give its two important properties.
3. Draw electric field lines due to (i) two similar charges, (ii) two opposite charges,
separated by a small distance.
4. An electric dipole is free to move in a uniform electric field. Explain what is the
force and torque acting on it when it is placed
(i) parallel to the field
(ii) perpendicular to the field
5. A small metal sphere carrying charge +Q. is located at the centre of a spherical
cavity in a large uncharged metallic spherical shell. Write the charges on the inner
and outer surfaces of the shell. Write the expression for the electric field at the
point P1 (CBSE Delhi 2014C)
6. Two-point charges q and -2q are kept ‘d’ distance apart. Find the location of the
point relative to charge ‘q’ at which potential due to this system of charges is zero.
(CBSE Al 2014C)
7. Two small identical electrical dipoles AB and CD, each of dipole moment ‘p’ are
kept at an angle of 120° as shown in the figure. What is the resultant dipole
moment of this combination? If this system is subjected to the electric field (𝐸⃑ )
directed along +X direction, what will be the magnitude and direction of the
torque acting on this? (CBSE Delhi 2011)
8. A metallic spherical shell has an inner radius R 1 and outer radius R2. A charge Q
is placed at the centre of the spherical cavity. What will be surface charge density
on (i) the inner surface, and (ii) the outer surface? (NCERT Exemplar)
Long Questions:
1.
(a) State Gauss theorem in electrostatics. Using it, prove that the electric field at a
point due to a uniformly charged infinite plane sheet is independent of the distance
from it.
(b) How is the field directed if (i) the sheet is positively charged, (ii) negatively
charged? (C8SE Delhi 2012)
2. Use Gauss’s law to derive the expression for the electric field (𝐸⃑ ) due to a straight
uniformly charged infinite line of charge λ Cm-1. (CBSE Delhi 2018)
Assertion and Reason Questions-
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1. For two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled
Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c)
and (d) as given below.
a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false.
d) A is false and R is also false.
Assertion (A): The electric flux emanating out and entering a closed surface are 8
× 103 and 2 × 103Vm respectively. The charge enclosed by the surface is 0.053μC.
Reason (R): Gauss's theorem in electrostatics may be applied to verify.
2. For two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled
Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c)
and (d) as given below.
a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false.
d) A is false and R is also false.
Assertion (A): Charge is quantized.
Reason (R): Charge which is less than I C is not possible.
Case Study Questions-
1. Electric field strength is proportional to the density of lines of force i.e., electric
field strength at a point is proportional to the number of lines of force cutting a unit
area element placed normal to the field at that point. As illustrated in the given
figure, the electric field at P is stronger that at Q.

(i) Electric lines of force about a positive point charge are:

a) Radially outwards.

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b) Circular clockwise.
c) Radially inwards.
d) Parallel straight lines.
(ii) Which of the following is false for electric lines of force?
a) They always start from positive charges and terminate on negative
charges.
b) They are always perpendicular to the surface of a charged conductor.
c) They always form closed loops.
d) They are parallel and equally spaced in a region of uniform electric field.
(iii) Which one of the following pattern of electric line of force in not possible in
filed due to stationary charges?
a)

b)

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c)

d)

(iv) Electric lines of force are curved:

a) In the field of a single positive or negative charge.
b) In the field of two equal and opposite charges.
c) In the field of two like charges.
d) Both (b) and (c).
(v) The figure below shows the electric field lines due to two positive charges. The
magnitudes EA, EB and EC of the electric fields at points A, Band C respectively
are related as:

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a) EA > EB > EC
b) EB > EA > EC
c) EA = EB > EC
d) EA > EB = EC
2. Net electric flux through a cube is the sum of fluxes through its six faces. Consider
a cube as shown in figure, having sides of length L = 10.0cm. The electric field is
uniform, has a magnitude E = 4.00 × 103N C-1 and is parallel to the xy plane at an
angle of 37º measured from the + x - axis towards the + y - axis.

(i) Electric flux passing through surface S 6 is:

a) -24N m2 C-1
b) 24N m2 C-1
c) 32N m2 C-1
d) -32N m2 C-1
(ii) Electric flux passing through surface S 1 is:

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a) -24N m2 C-1
b) 24N m2 C-1
c) 32N m2 C-1
d) -32N m2 C-1
(iii) The surfaces that have zero flux are:
a) S1 and S3
b) S5 and S6
c) S2 and S4
d) S1 and S2
(iv) The total net electric flux through all faces of the cube is:
a) 8N m2 C-1
b) -8N m2 C-1
c) 24N m2 C-1
d) Zero.
⃑⃑⃑ dS⃑ of an electric field is:
(v) The dimensional formula of surface integral ∮E.
a) [M L2 T-2 A-1]
b) [M L3 T-3 A-1]
c) [M L-1 T3 A-3]
d) [M L-3 T-3 A-1]
 Answer Key:
Multiple Choice Answers-
1. Answer: c
2. Answer: a
3. Answer: c
4. Answer: d
5. Answer: b
6. Answer: d
7. Answer: b
8. Answer: d
9. Answer: d

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 ELECTRIC CHARGES AND FIELDS
01

10. Answer: c
Very Short Answers:
1. Answer:
P.E. = -pEcos θ
P.E. is maximum when cos θ = - 1, i.e.
θ = 180°
2. Answer: Electric field intensity at a point is defined as the force experienced by
a unit test charge placed at that point. Mathematically
we have

3. Answer: The force in water is given by

4. Answer: Φ = q/6ε0
5. Answer: It is due to the conservative nature of the electric field.
1
6. Answer: It decreases because force ∝ = and k > 1.
𝑘
7. Answer: Zero
8. Answer: So that no net force acts on the charge at the equipotential surface,
and it remains stationary.
9. Answer: Zero.
10. Answer: No change, as flux does not depend upon the size of the Gaussian
surface.
Short Questions Answers:
1. Answer:

(b) It indicates that the test charge should be infinitesimally small so that it may
not disturb the electric field of the source charge.
2. Answer:
It is a line straight or curved, a tangent to which at any point gives the direction
of the electric field at that point.
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 ELECTRIC CHARGES AND FIELDS
01

(a) No two field lines can cross, because at the point of intersection two
tangents can be drawn giving two directions of the electric field which is not
possible.
(b) The field lines are always perpendicular to the surface of a charged
conductor.
3. Answer:
(a) The diagram is as shown.

(b) The diagram is as shown.

4. Answer:
(i) When an electric dipole is placed parallel to a uniform electric field, net
force, as well as net torque acting on the dipole, is zero and, thus, the dipole
remains in equilibrium.
(ii) When the dipole is placed perpendicular to the field, two forces acting on
the dipole form a couple, and hence a torque acts on it which aligns its dipole
along the direction of the electric field.
5. Answer:

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 ELECTRIC CHARGES AND FIELDS
01

6. Answer:
Let the potential be zero at point P at a distance x from charge q as shown

Now potential at point P is

Solving for x we have

x=d
7. Answer:
The resultant dipole moment of the combination is

since cos 120° = -1/2

This will make an angle of 30° with the X-axis, therefore torque acting on it is
τ=PE sin 30° = pE/2 (Along Z-direction)
Answer: The induction of charges is as shown.

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 ELECTRIC CHARGES AND FIELDS
01

Therefore, surface charge density on the inner and the outer shell is on the outer
surface is

Long Questions Answers:

1. Answer:

Consider an infinite plane sheet of charge. Let a be the uniform surface charge
density, i.e. the charge per unit surface area. From symmetry, we find that the
electric field must be perpendicular to the plane of the sheet and that the
direction of E on one side of the plane must be opposite to its direction on the
other side as shown in the figure below. In such a case let us choose a Gaussian
surface in the form of a cylinder with its axis perpendicular to the sheet of
charge, with ends of area A.
The charged sheet passes through the middle of the cylinder’s length so that
the cylinder’s ends are equidistant from the sheet. The electric field has a
normal component at each end of the cylinder and no normal component
along the curved surface of the cylinder. As a result, the electric flux is linked
with only the ends and not the curved surface.

Therefore, by the definition of electric flux, the flux Linked with the Gaussian
surface is given by

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 ELECTRIC CHARGES AND FIELDS
01

(b)
(i) directed outwards
(ii) directed inwards.
2. Answer:

Consider an infinitely Long, thin wire charged positively and having uniform
Linear charge density λ. The symmetry of the charge distribution shows that
must be perpendicular to the tine charge and directed outwards. As a result of
this symmetry, we consider a Gaussian surface in the form of a cylinder with
arbitrary radius r and arbitrary Length L. with its ends perpendicular to the wire
as shown in the figure. Applying Gauss’s theorem to curved surface ΔA 1 and
circular surface ΔA2.

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 ELECTRIC CHARGES AND FIELDS
01

This is the expression for the electric field due to an infinitely long thin wire.
The graph is as shown.

Assertion and Reason Answers-

1. (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
Explanation:
q
According to Gauss's theorem in electrostatics, 𝜙 =
ϵ0

2. (c) A is true but R is false.

Explanation:
The charge q on a body is given as q = ne where n is any integer positive or negative.
The charge on the electron is q = 1.6 × 10-19C which is less than 1C.
Case Study Answers-
1. Answer :
(i) (a) Radially outwards.
(ii) (c) They always form closed loops.
Explanation:
Electric lines of force do not form any closed loops.
(iii) (c)

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 ELECTRIC CHARGES AND FIELDS
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Explanation:
Electric field tines can't be closed.
(iv) (d) Both (b) and (c).
(v) (a) EA > EB > EC
2. Answer :

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CHAPTER 2: ELECTROSTATIC POTENTIAL AND CAPACITANCE
 ELECTROSTATIC POTENTIAL AND CAPACITANCE
02

ELECTROSTATIC POTENTIAL AND CAPACITANCE

Introduction:

In the previous chapter, we have learnt about "Electric Charges and Fields". In this
chapter, we shall focus Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance. The energy point of
view can be used in electricity, and it is especially useful. Energy is also a tool in solving
Problems more easily in many cases then by using forces and electric fields.
Electric energy can be stored in a common device called a capacitor, which is found in
nearly all electronic circuits. A capacitor is used as a storehouse for energy. Capacitors
store the energy in common photo flash units.

Electrostatic Potential:
The electrostatic potential (V) at any point in a region with electrostatic field is the work
done in bringing a unit positive charge (without acceleration) from infinity to that point.
If 'W' is the work done in moving a charge ‘q’ from infinity to a point, then the potential
W
at that point is V =
q

Electric Potential Difference:

Similar to electric potential, the electric potential difference is the work done by
external force in bringing a unit positive charge from point R to point P. i.e.,
UP − UR
VP − VR =
q

Here VP and VR are the electrostatic potentials at P and R, respectively and UP and UR
are the potential energies of a charge q when it is at P and at R respectively.

Note: As before, that it is not the actual value of potential but the potential difference
that is physically significant. If, as before, we choose the potential to be zero at infinity,
the above equation implies.

Unit for Electric Potential:

The unit of measurement for electric potential is the volt, so electric potential is often
called voltage. A potential of 1 volt (V) equals 1 joule (J) of energy per 1 coulomb (C) of
charge.
J
1V = 1
c

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Conservative Forces:
When one form of energy gets converted to another completely on application or
removal of external force, the forces are said to be conservative. Examples of
conservative forces are sum of kinetic and potential energies working on a body, spring
and gravitational force, coulomb force between two stationary charges, etc.

Work done in moving an object from one point to another depends only on the initial
and final positions and is independent of the path taken.

Potential due to a Point Charge:

Consider a point charge q placed at point O. Consider any point P in the field of the
above charge. Let us calculate the potential at point P due to the charge q kept a point
O. Since work done is independent of path, we choose a convenient path, along the
radial direction.

Let the distance OP = r.

The electric force at P, due to q will be directed along OP, given by

1 qq 0
F= = 2
4πε0 r

If the work done by moving this positive charge to dr distance is dW then,

dW = F (-dr)

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 ELECTROSTATIC POTENTIAL AND CAPACITANCE
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dW = − ∫ F. dr

r
dW = − ∫ F. dr
∞

Hence, the total work done in bringing this charge from (∞) to 'r' will be,
r 1 qq 0
W=∫ 2 . dr
∞ 4πε 0 r

qq 0 r 1
W=− ∫ . dr
4πε0 ∞ r 2

qq 0 1r
W=− [− ]
4πε0 r ∞
1 qq 0
W=
4πε0 r 2
W
Hence, from V = electric potential is,
q0
1 q
V=
4πε0 r

This equation is true for any sign of charge q. For q < 0, V < 0, i.e., work done by the
external force per unit positive test charge to bring it form infinity to the point is
negative. Also, this equation is consistent with the choice that potential at infinity be
zero.

Equipotential Surfaces:
An equipotential surface is a surface with a constant value of potential at all points on
the surface. For a single charge q, the potential is given by
1 q
V=
4πε0 r

This shows that V is a constant if r is constant. Thus, equipotential surfaces of a single

point charge are concentric spherical surfaces centered at the charge.

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Example:

 Surface of a charged conductor.

 All points equidistant from a point charge.

Note:

 An equipotential surface is that at which, every point is at the same potential. As

the work done is given by (VA – VB)q0.
 Work done by electric field while a charge moves on an equipotential surface is
zero as VA = VB.

Electrostatics of Conductors:
Conductors contain mobile charge carriers. In metallic conductors, these charge carriers
are electrons. In a metal, the outer (valence) electrons part away from their atoms and
are free to move. These electrons are free within the metal but not free to leave the
metal.

Whenever a conductor is placed in an external electric field, the free electrons in it

experience a force due to it and start moving opposite to the field. This movement
makes one side of conductor positively charged and the other as negatively charged.
This creates an electric field in the conductor in a direction opposite to external electric
field (called induced field).

Important Points about Electrostatics of Conductors:

 Inside a conductor, electrostatic field is zero: In the previous chapter, we have

already discussed that “when there is no electric current inside or on the surface of
a conductor, the electric field inside the conductor is everywhere zero”.
 At the surface of a charged conductor, electrostatic field must be normal to the
surface at every point: If the field E is not normal to the surface, it will have a

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 ELECTROSTATIC POTENTIAL AND CAPACITANCE
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nonzero component along the surface. Hence the free charge on the surface will
move due to electrostatic force on it. But free charge on the surface in
electrostatics remains at rest. So, the electrostatic field at the surface of a charged
conductor must be normal to the surface.
 Electrostatic Shielding: In an electrostatic situation, if a conductor contains a cavity
and if no charge is present inside the cavity, then there can be no net charge
anywhere on the surface of the cavity. This means that if you are inside a charged
conducting box, you can safely touch any point on the inside walls of the box
without being electrocuted. This is known as electrostatic shielding.

Dielectrics and Polarization:

Dielectrics are non-conducting substances. In contrast to conductors, they have no (or
negligible number of) charge carriers. When a conductor is placed in an external electric
field, the free charge carriers move and charge distribution in the conductor adjusts
itself in such a way that the electric field due to induced charges opposes the external
field within the conductor. This happens until, in the static situation, the two fields
cancel each other and the net electrostatic field in the conductor is zero.

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When a dielectric material is kept in an electric field, the external field induces dipole
moment by stretching or reorienting molecules of the dielectric. This results in
development of net charges on the surface of the dielectric which produce a field that
opposes the external field.

In general, the dielectric can be classified into Polar and Non-polar dielectrics. In a non-
polar molecule, the centers of positive and negative charges coincide. The molecule
thus has no permanent dipole moment. Examples of non-polar molecules are oxygen
(O2) and hydrogen (H2) molecules which, because of their symmetry, have no dipole

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 ELECTROSTATIC POTENTIAL AND CAPACITANCE
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moment. On the other hand, a polar molecule is one in which the centers of positive
and negative charges are separated (even when there is no external field). Such
molecules have a permanent dipole moment. An ionic molecule such as HCl or a
molecule of water (H2O) are examples of polar molecules.

Behavior of a non–polar dielectric: In an external electric field, the positive and

negative charges of a nonpolar molecule are displaced in opposite directions. The
displacement stops when the external force on the constituent charges of the molecule
is balanced by the restoring force. The non-polar molecule thus develops an induced
dipole moment. The dielectric is said to be polarized by the external field.

Behavior of a polar dielectric: A dielectric with polar molecules also develops a net
dipole moment in an external field, but for a different reason. In the absence of any
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 ELECTROSTATIC POTENTIAL AND CAPACITANCE
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external field, the different permanent dipoles are oriented randomly due to thermal
agitation; so, the total dipole moment is zero. When an external field is applied, the
individual dipole moments tend to align with the field.

Capacitors and Capacitance:

A capacitor is a system of two conductors separated by an insulator. If two conductors
have a potential difference between them then, as any potential difference is able to
accelerate charges, the system effectively stores energy. Such a device that can
maintain a potential difference, storing energy by storing charge is called capacitor.
When charges +Q and –Q are given to two plates, a potential difference is developed
between the plates. The capacitance of the arrangement is defined as.
Q
C=
V
Definition of Capacitance: Capacitance is defined as the amount of charge required to raise
the potential of a conductor by one volt.

Capacity of an isolated spherical conductor:

Consider a sphere with center O and radius r, which is supplied with a charge = +q. This
charge is distributed uniformly over the outer surface of the sphere. Thus, the potential
at every point on the surface is same and is given by.
q
V=
4πε0r
Q
As C =
V
C = 4πε0r

The Parallel Plate Capacitor:

The arrangement consists of two thin conducting plates, each of area A and separated
by a small distance d. When charge q is given to first plate, a charge –q is induced on
the inner face of other plate and positive on the outer face of plate. As this face is
connected to earth, a net negative charge is left on this plate. Thus, the arrangement is
equivalent to two thin sheets of charge. As d is much smaller than the linear dimension
of the plates (d2<< A), we can use the result of electric field by an infinite sheet of
charge. The electric field between the plates is.

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 ELECTROSTATIC POTENTIAL AND CAPACITANCE
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σ σ
E= +
2ε0 2ε0
σ
E= … . (1)
ε0

For uniform field potential difference between the plates.

σd
V = Ed = … . From eq (1)
ε0
qd q
V= as σ =
ε0 A A
q
q qd
C= =
V ε0 A
ε0 A
C=
d
Effect of Dielectric on Capacitance:

When a dielectric slab of dielectric constant K is inserted between the plates filling the
entire space between the plates. The plates of the capacitor are given charge +Q and –

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 ELECTROSTATIC POTENTIAL AND CAPACITANCE
02

Q and hence induced charges –QP and +QP appear on the surfaces of the slab. So,
capacitance is increased to K times when the space between the plates is filled with a
dielectric of dielectric constant K.

Combination of Capacitors:

Series Grouping:

The arrangements shown in figure are examples of series grouping. When capacitors
can be arranged in a row, so that there is no connection from in between two
capacitors to any third capacitor, it is called a series combination. Or, when same
charge flows through each capacitor connected.

1 1 1 1
= + +
C C1 C2 C3

Parallel Grouping:The arrangements shown in figure are examples of parallel

combination. When two or more capacitors are connected between two given points,
they are said to be in parallel. Or, when capacitor bears same potential difference
across it.

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 ELECTROSTATIC POTENTIAL AND CAPACITANCE
02

C = C1 + C2 + C3

Van de Graaff Generator:

Van de Graaff generator is a machine that can built up voltages in order of a few million
volts. The resultant electric fields are used to accelerate charged particles (proton,
electrons, ions) to high energies required for experiments to examine small scale
structure of matter.

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 ELECTROSTATIC POTENTIAL AND CAPACITANCE
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Important Questions
Multiple Choice questions-
1. Which of the following statement is true?
(a) Electrostatic force is a conservative force.
(b) Potential at a point is the work done per unit charge in bringing a charge from any
point to infinity.
(c) Electrostatic force is non-conservative
(d) Potential is the product of charge and work.
2. 1 volt is equivalent to

3. The work done in bringing a unit positive charge from infinite distance to a point at
distance x from a positive charge Q is W. Then the potential at that point is

4. Consider a uniform electric field in the z-direction. The potential is a constant

(a) for any x for a given z
(b) for any y for a given z
(c) on the x-y plane for a given z
(d) all of these
5. Equipotential surfaces
(a) are closer in regions of large electric fields compared to regions of lower electric
fields.
(b) will be more crowded near sharp edges of a conductor.
(c) will always be equally spaced.
(d) both (a) and (b) are correct.
6. In a region of constant potential
(a) the electric field is uniform.
(b) the electric field is zero.

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(c) there can be no charge inside the region.

(d) both (b) and (c) are correct.
7. A test charge is moved from lower potential point to a higher potential point. The
potential energy of test charge will
(a) remain the same
(b) increase
(c) decrease
(d) become zero
8. An electric dipole of moment 𝑃⃗ is placed in a uniform electric field 𝐸⃗ . Then
(i) the torque on the dipole is 𝑃⃗ × 𝐸⃗
(ii) the potential energy of the system is 𝑃⃗ . 𝐸⃗
(iii) the resultant force on the dipole is zero. Choose the correct option.
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
(b) (i) and (iii) are correct and (ii) is wrong
(c) only (i) is correct
(d) (i) and (ii) are correct and (iii) is wrong
9. If a conductor has a potential V ≠ 0 and there are no charges anywhere else
outside, then
(a) there must be charges on the surface or inside itself.
(b) there cannot be any charge in the body of the conductor.
(c) there must be charges only on the surface.
(d) both (a) and (b) are correct.
10. Which of the following statements is false for a perfect conductor?
(a) The surface of the conductor is an equipotential surface.
(b) The electric field just outside the surface of a conductor is perpendicular to the
surface.
(c) The charge carried by a conductor is always uniformly distributed over the surface
of the conductor.
(d) None of these.
Very Short:
1. Express dielectric constant in terms of the capacitance of a capacitor.

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 ELECTROSTATIC POTENTIAL AND CAPACITANCE
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2. On what factors does the capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor depend?

3. What is the ratio of electric field intensities at any two points between the plates
of a capacitor?
4. Write a relation between electric displacement vector D and electric field E.
5. Write the relation between dielectric constant (K) and electric susceptibility χ e.
6. A hollow metal sphere c radius 5 cm is charged such that the potential on its
surface is 10 V. What is the potential at the center of the sphere? (CBSE AI 2011)
7. What is the geometrical shape of equipotential surfaces due to a single isolated
charge? (CBSE Delhi 2013)
8. Draw the equipotential surfaces due to an isolated point charge. (CBSE Delhi
2019)
9. ‘For any charge configuration, equipotential surface through a point is normal to
the electric field’. Justify. (CBSE Delhi 2014)
10. The given graph shows the variation of charge ‘q’ versus potential difference ‘V
for two capacitors C1 and C2. Both the capacitors have the same plate separation
but the plate area of C2 is greater than that of Cy Which line (A or B) corresponds to
C1 and why? (CBSEAI 2014C)

Short Questions:
1. Draw a plot showing the variation of (i) electric field (E) and (ii) electric potential
(V) with distance r due to a point charge Q. (CBSE Delhi 2012)
2. Two identical capacitors of 10 pF each are connected in turn (i) in series and (ii) in
parallel across a 20 V battery. Calculate the potential difference across each
capacitor in the first case and the charge acquired by each capacitor in the second
case. (CBSE AI 2019)
3. A point charge ‘q’ is placed at O as shown in the figure. Is V A - VB positive,
negative, or zero, if ‘q’ is an (i) positive, (ii) negative charge? (CBSE Delhi 2011,
2016).

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4. The graph shows the variation of voltage V across the plates of two capacitors A
and B versus charge Q stored on them. Which of the two capacitors has higher
capacitance? Give a reason for your answer.

5. A test charge ‘q’ is moved without acceleration from A to C along the path from A
to B and then from B to C in electric field E as shown in the figure,

(i) Calculate the potential difference between A and C

(ii) At which point (of the two) is the electric potential more and why? (CBSE AI
2012)
6. A slab of material of dielectric constant K has the same area as that of the plates
of a parallel plate capacitor but has the thickness d/2, where d is the separation
between the plates. Find out the expression for its capacitance when the slab is
inserted between the plates of the capacitor. (CBSE AI 2013)
7. Two-point charges q and -2q are kept ‘d’ distance apart. Find the location of the
point relative to charge ‘q’ at which potential due to this system of charges is zero.
(CBSE Al 2014C)
8. Four-point charges Q, q, Q., and q are placed at the corners of a square of side ‘a’
as shown in the figure.

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 ELECTROSTATIC POTENTIAL AND CAPACITANCE
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Find the potential energy of this system. (CBSEAI, Delhi 2018)

Long Questions:
1. Two-point charges 2 μC and -2 μC are placed at points A and B 6 cm apart.
(a) Draw the equipotential surfaces of the system.
(b) Why do the equipotential surfaces get closer to each other near the point charges?
(CBSEAI2O11C)
2.
(a) Obtain the expressions for the resultant capacitance when the three capacitors C 1,
C2, and C3 are connected (i) in parallel and then (ii) in series.
(b) In the circuit shown in the figure, the charge on the capacitor of 4 μF is 16 μC.
Calculate the energy stored in the capacitor of 12 μF capacitance. (CBSE 2019C)
Assertion and Reason Questions-
1. For two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled
Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c)
and (d) as given below.
a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true, but R is false.
d) A is false, and R is also false.
Assertion (A): An electric field is preferred in comparison to magnetic field for
detecting the electron beam in a television picture tube.
Reason (R): Electric field requires low voltage.
2. For two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled
Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c)
and (d) as given below.
a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

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02

b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.

c) A is true, but R is false.
d) A is false, and R is also false.
Assertion (A): An applied electric field will polarize the polar dielectric material.
Reason (R): In polar dielectrics, each molecule has a permanent dipole moment but
these are randomly oriented in the absence of an externally applied electric field.
Case Study Questions-
1. When an insulator is placed in an external field, the dipoles become aligned.
Induced surface charges on the insulator establish a polarization field ⃗Ei in its interior.
The net field ⃗E in the insulator is the vector sum of ⃗E0 and ⃗Ei as shown in the figure.

On the application of external electric field, the effect of aligning the electric dipoles in
the insulator is called polarisation, and the field is known as the polarisation field.

The dipole moment per unit volume of the dielectric is known as polarisation ⃗P. For

linear isotropic dielectrics, ⃗P. = χ ⃗E,where χ = electrical susceptibility of the

dielectric medium.sss
(i) Which among the following is an example of polar molecule?
a) O2
b) H2
c) N2
d) HCI
(ii) When air is replaced by a dielectric medium of constant K, the maximum force
of attraction between two charges separated by a distance:
a) Increases K times.
b) Remains unchanged.
c) Decreases K times.

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 ELECTROSTATIC POTENTIAL AND CAPACITANCE
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d) Increases 2K times.
(iii) Which of the following is a dielectric?
a) Copper.
b) Glass.
c) Antimony (Sb).
d) None of these.
(iv) For a polar molecule, which of the following statements is true?
a) The centre of gravity of electrons and protons coincide.
b) The centre of gravity of electrons and protons do not coincide.
c) The charge distribution is always symmetrical.
d) The dipole moment is always zero.
(v) When a comb rubbed with dry hair attracts pieces of paper. This is because the?
a) Comb polarizes the piece of paper.
b) Comb induces a net dipole moment opposite to the direction of field.
c) Electric field due to the comb is uniform.
d) Comb induces a net dipole moment perpendicular to the direction of field.
2. This energy possessed by a system of charges by virtue of their positions. When two
like charges lie infinite distance apart, their potential energy is zero because no work
has to be done in moving one charge at infinite distance from the other.
In carrying a charge q from point A to point B, work done W = q(V A - VB). This work
KE
may appear as change in of the charge. The potential energy of two charges q1 and
PE

q2 at a distance r in air is
It is measured in joule. It may be positive, negative or zero depending on the signs of
q1 and q2.

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 ELECTROSTATIC POTENTIAL AND CAPACITANCE
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 Answer Key:
Multiple Choice Answers-
1. Answer: a
2. Answer: c
3. Answer: b
4. Answer: d
5. Answer: d
6. Answer: d
7. Answer: c
8. Answer: b
9. Answer: c
10. Answer: d
Very Short Answers:
𝑐
1. Answer: It is given by the expression K = where C is the capacitance of the
𝑐0
capacitor with dielectric and C0 is the capacitance without the dielectric.
2. Answer:
 Area of plates,
 The separation between the plates and
 Nature of dielectric medium between the plates.
3. Answer: The ratio is one, as the electric field is the same at all points between
the plates of a capacitor.
4. Answer:

5. Answer: K = 1 + χe
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6. Answer: 10 V
7. Answer: Concentric circles.
8. Answer: These areas are shown.

9. Answer: This is because work done in moving a charge on an equipotential

surface is zero. This is possible only if the equipotential surface is perpendicular
to the electric field.
10. Answer: Since C = ε0 A/d, since the area for C2 is more, therefore capacitance of
C2 is more. From the graph greater the slope greater is than the capacitance,
therefore, graph A belongs to capacitor C2. While graph B belongs to capacitance
Cv.
Short Questions Answers:
Answer: The plot is as shown.

Answer:
(i) Since the two capacitors have the same capacitance, therefore, the potential will
be divided amongst them. Hence V = 10 V each
(ii) Since the capacitors are connected in parallel, therefore, potential difference =
20 V
Hence charge Q = CV = 10 × 20 = 200 pC
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 ELECTROSTATIC POTENTIAL AND CAPACITANCE
02

Answer:

As OA < OB
∴ If q is positive then VA- VB is positive and
if q is negative VA - VB is also negative.
Answer:
Capacitor A has higher capacitance. We know that capacitance C = Q/V.
For capacitor A

For capacitor B

As VB> VA
∴ CB < C A
Thus, capacitance of A is higher.
Answer:
(i) dV = - E dr = - E (6 - 2) = - 4E
(ii) Electric potential is more at point C as dV = - Edr, i.e. the electric potential
decreases in the direction of the electric field.

Answer:
Given t = d/2, C = ?
We know that when a dielectric of thickness ‘t’ is inserted between the plates of a
capacitor, its capacitance is given by

Hence we have

Answer:
Let the potential be zero at point P at a distance x from charge q as shown

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 ELECTROSTATIC POTENTIAL AND CAPACITANCE
02

Now potential at point P is

Solving for x we have

x=d
Answer:
The potential energy of the system

Long Questions Answers:

1. Answer:
(a) The diagram is as shown.

(b) We know that E = - dV/dr

Therefore, dr = - dV/E
Since near the charge, electric field E is large, dr will be less.
2. Answer:
(i) Parallel combination of three capacitors.
Let three capacitors of capacitances C1, C2, and C3 be connected in parallel, and
potential difference V be applied across A and B. If q be total charge flowing in
the circuit and q1 q2 and q3 be charged flowing across.
C1, C2, and C3 respectively, then
q = q1 + q2 + q3
or q = C1V + C2V + C3V …(i)

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 ELECTROSTATIC POTENTIAL AND CAPACITANCE
02

If CP is the capacitance of the arrangement in parallel, then

q = CP V
So equation (i) becomes
CPV = C1V + C2V + C3V
Or
C P = C1 + C2 + C 3
(ii) Series combination of three capacitors Let three capacitors C 1, C2, and C3 be
connected in series. Let q charge be flowing through the circuit.
If V1, V2, and V3 be potential differences across the plates of the capacitor and V
be the potential difference across the series combination, then

V = V 1 + V2 + V 3
Or

𝑞
If Cs is the capacitance of series combination, then V = .
𝐶𝑠

So the equation (i) becomes

Charge q across 4 μF Capacitor is 10 μc Potential difference across the capacitor

of capacitance 4 μF will be

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 ELECTROSTATIC POTENTIAL AND CAPACITANCE
02

∴ Potential across 12 μF Capacitors

= 12V - 4V = 8V
Energy stored in the capacitors of capacitance C = 12 μF

Assertion and Reason Answers-

1. (d) A is false, and R is also false.
Explanation:
If electric field is used for detecting the electron beam, then very high voltage will
have to be applied and very long tube will have to be taken.
2. (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Explanation:
If a material contain polar molecules, they will generally be in random orientations
when no electric field is applied. An applied electric field will polarize the material by
orienting the dipole moment of polar molecules.
Case Study Answers-
1. Answer :
(i) (d) HCI
Explanation:
ln polar molecule the centres of positive and negative charges are separated
even when there is no external field. Such molecule have a permanent dipole
moment. Ionic molecule like HCI is an example of polar molecule.
(ii) (c) Decreases K times.
Explanation:
F0
As Fm =
K
∴ The maximum force decreases by Klimes.
(iii) (b) Glass.
(iv) (b) The centre of gravity of electrons and protons do not coincide.
Explanation:
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 ELECTROSTATIC POTENTIAL AND CAPACITANCE
02

A polar molecule is one in which the centre of gravity for positive and negative
charges are separated.
(v) (a) Comb polarizes the piece of paper.
2. Answer :

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 ELECTROSTATIC POTENTIAL AND CAPACITANCE
02

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CHAPTER 3: CURRENT ELECTRICITY
 CURRENT ELECTRICITY
03

CURRENT ELECTRICITY
Introduction:

We considered all charges whether free or bound to be at rest in previous two

chapters. Charges in motion constitute an electric current. Lightening is one of the
natural phenomena in which charges flow from clouds to earth through the
atmosphere.

In this chapter we will study some basic laws concerning steady electric current and
their applications.

Electric Current:
The rate of flow of electric charge through any cross-section of a conductor is known
as electric current. If ΔQ amount of charge flows through any cross-section of
conductor in the interval t to (t + Δt), then it is defined as

∆Q
i=
∆t
Direction of current is taken as direction of motion of positively charged particles and
opposite to the direction of negatively charged particles. SI unit of current is ampere
(A). It is a scalar quantity.

∆i
⃗j =
∆A
The SI unit of current density is A/m2.

Drift Speed:
Drift Velocity is defined as the average velocity with which the free electrons move
towards the positive end of a conductor under the influence of an external electric
field applied. It is denoted by vd.

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 CURRENT ELECTRICITY
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eE
vd =
m

Relation between Current Density and Drift Speed:

Let, cross sectional area of any conductor be A, number of electrons per unit area be
n, drift velocity be vd, then number of total moving electrons in t second will be.

N = (nAvd t)
So, moving charge in t second Q = (nAvdt).e
Q
Hence, electric current in t second =
t

nAvd te
i=
t
i = neAvd
i
We know J =
A

Putting i = neAvd in above equation

⃗j = nevd

Ohm’s Law:
According to this law, "At constant temperature, the potential difference V across the
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 CURRENT ELECTRICITY
03

ends of a given metallic wire (conductor) in an circuit (electric) is directly proportional

to the current flowing through it". i.e.,

V ∝i

V = i.R
where, R = resistance of conductor

Mobility:

Mobility is defined as the magnitude of the drift velocity per unit electric field. It is
denoted by μ,
vd
μ=
E
Its SI unit is m2V-1s-1.

Resistance:

Resistance is the ratio of potential difference applied across the ends of conductor to
the current flowing through it.

V
R=
i
The SI unit of R is ohm (Ω).

Resistivity:

Resistivity is defined as the ratio of electric field applied at conductor to current

density of conductor. It is denoted by ρ

E
ρ= … (1)
J
If the length of conductor be 'l', cross sectional area be 'A', potential difference at the
end of conductor be 'V' and electric current be 'i', then ⃗E⃗ and ⃗j given by.

V
⃗E⃗ = … (2)
l
i
⃗j = … (3)
A
Putting the value of E and J, from equation (2) and (3) into (1), we get.

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 CURRENT ELECTRICITY
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V
l
ρ= i
A

V A
ρ= .
i l
A
ρ=R
l
The constant of proportionality ρ depends on the material of the conductor but not on
its dimensions. ρ is known as resistivity or specific resistance.

Conductivity:
Conductivity is defined as the reciprocal of resistivity of a conductor. It is expressed as,

1
σ=
ρ
SI unit is mho per meter (Ω-1 m-1).

Superconductivity:

The resistivity of certain metal or alloy drops to zero when they are cooled below a
certain temperature is called superconductivity.

Electrical Energy:
When electric current is moved in any electric circuit, then energy of work done by
taking a charge from one point to another point is called electric energy.

If a charge q at potential difference V is moved from one point to another point, then
doing work will be.

W = V. q ….. (1)

Putting q = i.t in equation (1), we get

W = Vit

Putting V = i.R in equation (1), we get

W = i2Rt

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 CURRENT ELECTRICITY
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Putting i =V/R in equation (1), we get

V2
W= t
R
Power:Electric power is the rate of doing work by electric charge. It is measured in
watt and represented by P.

W
P= [∵ 1HP = 746 watt]
t
V2
Hence, P = Vi = i2R =
R

Resistor Color Codes:

A carbon resistor has a set of coaxial colored rings in them, whose significance are
listed in above table. First two bands formed: First two significant figures of the
resistance in ohm. Third band; Decimal multiplier as shown in table. Last band;
Tolerance or possible variation in percentage as per the indicated value. For Gold ±
5%, for silver ± 10% and No color ± 20%.

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 CURRENT ELECTRICITY
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Combination of Resistors:
There are two types of resistance combinations.

Series Combination:

In Series Combination, different resistances are connected end to end. Equivalent

resistance can be obtained as the formula,

R = R1 + R2 + R3

NOTE: The total resistance in the series combination is more than the greatest
resistance in the circuit.

Parallel Combination:

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 CURRENT ELECTRICITY
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In Parallel combination, first end of all the resistances are connected to one point and
last end of all the resistances are connected to other point. Equivalent resistance can
be obtained by the formula.

1 1 1 1
= + +
R R1 R 2 R 3
NOTE: The total resistance in parallel combination is less than the least resistance of
the circuit.

Cells, EMF, Internal Resistance:

Cells: An electrolytic cell consisting of two electrodes, called positive (P) and negative
(N) immersed in an electrolytic solution as shown in figure.

Electrodes exchange charges with the electrolyte. Positive electrode P has a potential
difference V+ between itself and electrolyte solution A immediately adjacent to it.
Negative electrode N has a potential difference (V–) relative to electrolyte B adjacent

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 CURRENT ELECTRICITY
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to it.

ε = V+ − V−
EMF: It is the difference of chemical potentials of electrodes used. It is also defined as
the difference of potential across the electrodes of cell, when the electrodes are in
open loop.

ε = V+ − V−
Internal Resistance:It is the opposition offered by the electrolyte of the cell to the flow of
current through itself. It is represented by r and given by.
v
r=
i

Kirchhoff’s Laws:
Kirchhoff’s two rules are used for analyzing electric circuits consisting of a number of
resistors and cells interconnected in a complicated way.

Kirchhoff’s first rule: Junction rule

At any junction, the sum of the currents entering the junction is equal to the sum of
currents leaving the junction.

Σi=0

Kirchhoff’s second rule: Loop rule

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 CURRENT ELECTRICITY
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The algebraic sum of changes in potential around any closed loop involving resistors
and cells in the loop is zero.

Σ iR = ΣE

Wheatstone Bridge:
It is an application of Kirchhoff’s rules. The bridge is consisting of four resistances R 1,
R2, R3 and R4 as four sides of a square ABCD as shown in figure.

Across the diagonally opposite points between A and C, battery E is connected. This is

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 CURRENT ELECTRICITY
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called battery arm. To remaining two diagonally opposite points B and D, a

galvanometer G is connected to detect current. This line is known as galvanometer
arm.

Currents through all resistances and galvanometer are as shown in figure. In balanced
Wheatstone bridge we consider the special case Ig = 0. Applying junction rule to
junction B and D, we have

I2 = I4 and I1 = I3

Applying loop rule to loop ABDA

I2R2 + 0 - I1R1 = 0
I1 R2
= ….. (i)
I2 R1

Applying loop rule to loop BCDB

I4R4- I3R3 + 0 = 0

I2R4- I1R3 = 0 (Using I4 = I2 and I3 = I1)

I1 R4
= ….. (ii)
I2 R3

The equation (iii) relating the four resistor is called the balance condition for the
galvanometer to give zero or null deflection.

Potentiometer:
It is a versatile instrument consisting of a long piece of uniform wire AC across which a
standard cell B is connected.

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 CURRENT ELECTRICITY
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 CURRENT ELECTRICITY
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Important Questions
Multiple Choice questions-
1. An electric heater is connected to the voltage supply. After few seconds, current
gets its steady value then its initial current will be
(a) equal to its steady current
(b) slightly higher than its steady current
(c) slightly less than its steady current
(d) zero
2. In the series combination of two or more than two resistances
(a) the current through each resistance is same.
(b) the voltage through each resistance is same.
(c) neither current nor voltage through each resistance is same.
(d) both current and voltage through each resistance are same.
3. Combine three resistors 5 Q, 4.5 Q and 3 Q in such a way that the total resistance
of this combination is maximum
(a) 12.5 Q
(b) 13.5 Q
(c) 14.5 Q
(d) 16.5 Q
4. A cell having an emf E and internal resistance r is connected across a variable
external resistance R. As the resistance R is increased, the plot of potential
difference V across R is given by

5. In parallel combination of n cells, we obtain

(a) more voltage
(b) more current
(c) less voltage

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 CURRENT ELECTRICITY
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(d) less current

6. If n cells each of emf e and internal resistance r are connected in parallel, then
the total emf and internal resistance will be

7. In a Wheatstone bridge if the battery and galvanometer are interchanged then

the deflection in galvanometer will
(a) change in previous direction
(b) not change
(c) change in opposite direction
(d) none of these.
8. When a metal conductor connected to left gap of a meter bridge is heated, the
balancing point
(a) shifts towards right
(b) shifts towards left
(c) remains unchanged
(d) remains at zero
9. In a potentiometer of 10 wires, the balance point is obtained on the 7 th wire. To
shift the balance point to 9th wire, we should
(a) decrease resistance in the main circuit.
(b) increase resistance in the main circuit.
(c) decrease resistance in series with the cell whose emf is to be measured.
(d) increase resistance in series with the cell whose emf is to be determined.
10. AB is a wire of potentiometer with the increase in the value of resistance R, the
shift in the balance point J will be

(a) towards B
(b) towards A
(c) remains constant
(d) first towards B then back towards A.
Very Short:

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 CURRENT ELECTRICITY
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1. A wire or resistivity ρ is stretched to double its length. What will be its new
resistivity?
2. What is the effect of temperature on the relaxation time of electrons in a metal?
3. Which physical quantity does the voltage versus current graph for a metallic
conductor depict? Give its SI unit.
4. Define drift velocity of electrons.
5. A resistance R is connected across a cell of emf ε and internal resistance r. A
potentiometer now measures the potential difference between the terminals, of
the cell as V., Write the expression for ‘r’ in terms of ε, V and R. (CBSE Delhi 2011)
6. How is the drift velocity in a conductor affected by the rise in temperature?
(CBSE Delhi 2019)
7. Two students A and B were asked to pick a resistor of 15 kΩ from a collection of
carbon resistors. A picked a resistor with bands of colours brown, green, orange,
while B chose a resistor with bands of black, green, red. Who picked the correct
resistor? (CBSE AI 2013C)
8. Define the term ‘Mobility’ of charge carriers in a conductor. Write its S.l. unit.
(CBSE Delhi 2014, AI 2015)
9. How does the mobility of electrons in a conductor change, if the potential
difference applied across the conductor is doubled, keeping the length and
temperature of the conductor constant? (CBSE Delhi 2019)
10. Graph showing the variation of current versus voltage for a material GaAs is
shown in the figure. Identify the region of
(i) negative resistance (ii) where Ohm’s

Short Questions:
1. Find the potential energy of this system. (CBSEAI, Delhi 2018)
2. The figure shows the V – l graph for a parallel and series combination of two
resistors A and B. Which line represents the parallel combination?

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 CURRENT ELECTRICITY
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3. V – l graph for a given metallic wire at two temperatures is shown. Which of

these is at a higher temperature?

4. In an experiment on a metre bridge, if the balancing length AC is ‘x’, what would

be its value, when the radius of the metre bridge wire AB is doubled? Justify your
answer. (CBSE AI 2011C)

5. The emf of a cell is always greater than its terminal voltage. Why? Give reason.
(CBSE Delhi 2013)
6. Draw a graph showing the variation of resistivity with temperature for
nichrome. Which property of nichrome is used to make standard resistance coils?
(CBSEAI 2013C)
7. Define the term ‘mobility’ for a charge carrier and state its SI unit.
Name the mobile charge carriers in
(i) an electrolyte,
(ii) a semiconductor and
(iii) an ionised gas. (CBSE Al 2015)

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 CURRENT ELECTRICITY
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8. Define the term current density of a metallic conductor. Deduce the relation
connecting current density (J) and the conductivity (a) of the conductor, when an
electric field E is applied to it. (CBSE AI 2015).
Long Questions:
1. Explain the term ‘drift velocity’ of electrons in a conductor. Hence obtain the
expression for the current through a conductor in terms of ‘drift velocity’. (CBSE AI
2013, 2013C)
2. Draw a plot showing the variation of resistivity of an (i) conductor and (ii)
semiconductor, with the increase in temperature.
How does one explain this behaviour in terms of the number density of charge
carriers and the relaxation time? (CBSE Delhi 2014C)
Assertion and Reason Questions-
1. For two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled
Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c)
and (d) as given below.
a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true, but R is false.
d) A is false, and R is also false.
Assertion: The current in a wire is due to flow of free electrons in a definite direction.
Reason: A current carrying wire should have non-zero charge.
2. For two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled
Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c)
and (d) as given below.
a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true, but R is false.
d) A is false, and R is also false.
Assertion: Though the same current flows through the live wires and the filament of
the bulb but heat produced in the filament is much higher than that in live wires.
Reason: The filament of bulbs is made of a material of high resistance and high
melting point.
Case Study Questions-

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 CURRENT ELECTRICITY
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1.Whenever an electric current is passed through a conductor, it becomes hot after

some time. The phenomenon of the production of heat in a resistor by the flow of an
electric current through it is called heating effect of current or Joule heating. Thus,
the electrical energy supplied by the source of emf is converted into heat. ln purely
resistive circuit, the energy expended by the source entirely appears as heat. But if
the circuit has an active element like a motor, then a part of the energy supplied by
the source goes to do useful work and the rest appears as heat. Joule's law of heating
form the basis of various electrical appliances such as electric bulb, electric furnace,
electric press etc.

(i) Which of the following is a correct statement?

a) Heat produced in a conductor is independent of the current flowing.
b) Heat produced in a conductor varies inversely as the current flowing.
c) Heat produced in a conductor varies directly as the square of the current
flowing.
d) Heat produced in a conductor varies inversely as the square of the
current flowing.
(ii) If the coil of a heater is cut to half, what would happen to heat produced?
a) Doubled.
b) Halved.
c) Remains same.
d) Becomes four times.
(iii) A 25W and 100W are joined in series and connected to the mains. Which
bulbs will glow brighter?
a) 100W.
b) 25W.
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 CURRENT ELECTRICITY
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c) Both bulbs will glow brighter.

d) None will glow brighter.
(iv) A rigid container with thermally insulated wall contains a coil of
resistance 100Ω, carrying current 1A. Change in its internal energy after 5
min will be:
a) 0kJ
b) 10kJ
c) 20kJ
d) 30kJ
(v) The heat emitted by a bulb of 100W in 1 min is:
a) 100J
b) 1000J
c) 600J
d) 6000J
2.Potentiometer is an apparatus used for measuring the emf of a cell or potential
difference between two points in an electrical circuit accurately. It is also used to
determine the internal resistance of a primary cell. The potentiometer is based on
the principle that, if V is the potential difference across any portion of the wire of
length l and resistance R, then V∝1 or V = kl where k is the potential gradient. Thus,
potential difference across any portion of potentiometer wire is directly proportional
to length of the wire of that portion. The potentiometer wire must be uniform. The
resistance of potentiometer wire should be high.

(i) Which one of the following is true about potentiometer?

a) Its sensitivity is low.
b) lt measures the emf of a cell very accurately.

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 CURRENT ELECTRICITY
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c) lt is based on deflection method.

d) None of the above.
(ii) A current of 1.0mA is flowing through a potentiometer wire of length 4cm and
of resistance 4Ω The potential gradient of the potentiometer wire is:
a) 10-3Vm-1
b) 10-5Vm-2
c) 2 × 10-3Vm-1
d) 4 × 10-3Vm-1
(iii) Sensitivity of a potentiometer can be increased by:
a) Decreasing potential gradient along the wire.
b) Increasing potential gradient along the wire.
c) Decreasing current through the wire.
d) Increasing current through the wire.
(iv) A potentiometer is an accurate and versatile device to make electrical
measurements of EMF because the method involves:
a) Potential gradients.
b) A condition of no current flow through the galvanometer.
c) A combination of cells, galvanometer and resistances.
d) Cells.
(v) In a potentiometer experiment, the balancing length is 8rn, when the two cells
E1 and E2 are joined in series. When the two cells are connected in opposition

the balancing length is 4m. The ratio of thee. m. f. of two cells ( EE )is:
1
2
a) 1 : 2
b) 2 : 1
c) 1 : 3
d) 3 : 1
 Answer Key:
Multiple Choice Answers-
1. Answer: b
2. Answer: a

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 CURRENT ELECTRICITY
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3. Answer: a
4. Answer: b
5. Answer: b
6. Answer: a
7. Answer: b
8. Answer: a
9. Answer: d
10. Answer: a
Very Short Answers:
1. Answer: The resistivity remains the same as it does not depend upon the length
of the wire.
2. Answer: The relaxation time of electrons decreases with the rise in
temperature of the metal.
3. Answer: It represents resistance. It is measured in ohm.
4. Answer: The mean velocity acquired by electrons in a conductor when an
external electric field is applied to it.
5. Answer:

6. Answer: It decreases.
7. Answer: A
8. Answer: Mobility of charge carriers in a conductor is defined as the magnitude
of their drift velocity per unit applied electric field. Its SI unit is m 2 V-1 s-1.
9. Answer: No change.
10. Answer: (i) DE (ii) AB
Short Questions Answers:
1. Answer: The potentiometer is based on the null method, or it does not draw
any (net) current from the cell and measures emf However, the voltmeter
draws some current from the cell when connected across it, hence measures
terminal voltage.
2. Answer: For the same potential, the current is less in series combination than
parallel combination. Therefore, from the graph, it is apparent that the same
potential current is less in A. Therefore, B represents the parallel combination.

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 CURRENT ELECTRICITY
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The slope of B > Slope of A

3. Answer: At higher temperature resistance of a metallic wire is more or its
conductance is low. Hence, graph (2) is at a higher temperature, i.e., T 2> T1.
4. Answer: In a metre bridge, at the balance point we have

As R1 and R2 remain the same, x will also remain the same. It does not depend
upon the diameter of the wire.
5. Answer: When current passes through a cell, there is a drop in potential across
it due to its internal resistance. This is called the lost volt. Thus, terminal
voltage is less than the emf of the cell.
6. Answer: The graph is as shown.

The property has a low-temperature coefficient of resistance.

7. Answer: Mobility is defined as the ratio of the drift velocity of the charge to the
applied electric field.
(i) Anions and cations.
(ii) Electrons and holes
(iii) Free electrons.
8. Answer: Current density is defined as the current flowing per unit area of the
conductor.

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Long Questions Answers:

1. Answer:
Drift velocity (Vd) is defined as the average velocity with which the free
electrons get drifted inside a conductor under the effect of the electric field,
opposite to the direction of the field.
Let n be the electrons per unit volume in the conductor. Here n is called the
number density of electrons. Assume that all electrons move with the same
drift velocity Vd. In a time, interval dt, each electron moves a distance vdt. Now
the volume of the cylinder covered by the electrons in time dt is
V = A vddt…(1)
and the number of electrons in this volume is
N = nV = nAvddt…(2)
If e is the charge on the electron, then charge flowing through the conductor in
small time dt is
dQ = e(nAvddt) …(3)
Hence the current through the conductor is

2. Answer: The plots are as shown.

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 CURRENT ELECTRICITY
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With a rise in temperature the average relaxation time for a conductor

decreases and resistivity increases, while for a semiconductor the number
density of charge carriers increases, hence the resistivity decreases.
Assertion and Reason Answers-
1. (c) A is true, but R is false.
Explanation:
The current in a wire is due to flow of free electrons in a definite direction. But the
number of protons in the wire at any instant is equal to number of electrons and
charge on electrons is equal and opposite to that of proton. Hence, net charge on the
wire is zero.
2. (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Explanation:
As filament of bulb and live wire are in series, hence current through both is same.
i2 Rt
Now, because H = and resistance of the filament of the bulb is much higher
4.2
than that of live wires, hence heat produced in the filament is much higher than that
in line wires.
Case Study Answers-
1. Answer :
(i) (c) Heat produced in a conductor varies directly as the square of the current
flowing.
Explanation:
According to Joule's law of heating, Heat produced in a conductor, H =
I2 Rt where, I = Current flowing through the conductor R = Resistance of the
conductor t = Time for which current flows through the conductor.

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 CURRENT ELECTRICITY
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(ii) (a) Doubled.

Explanation:
If the coil is cut into half, its resistance is also halved.

(iii) (b) 25W.

Explanation:

The bulbs are joined in series. Current in both the bulbs will same.
∴∴ The heat produced in them is given by H= I 2Rt

Therefore the bulb with low wattage or high resistance will glow brighter or we
can say the 25W bulb will glow brighter than the 100W bulb.
(iv) (d) 30kJ
Explanation:

Change in internal energy= heat generated in coil

= I2 Rt = ((1)2 × 100 × 300)J
= 30000J = 30kJ.
(v) (d) 6000J
Explanation:
Here, P = 100W, t = 1 min= 60s
Heat developed in time t
H = P × t = ( 100W)(60s) = 6000J.
2. Answer :
(i) (b) lt measures the emf of a cell very accurately.
(ii) (a) 10-5Vm-2
Explanation:
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 CURRENT ELECTRICITY
03

Given, l = 1.0mA = 10-3A;

Potential drop across potentiometer wire,

V = IR = 10-3 × 4V

Potential gradient,
= 10-3Vm-1
(iii) (a) Decreasing potential gradient along the wire.
(iv) (b) A condition of no current flow through the galvanometer.
Explanation:
A potentiometer is an accurate and versatile device to make electrical
measurements of EMF because the method involves a condition of no current
flow through the galvanometer. It can be used to measure potential difference,
internal resistance of a cell and compare EMF's of two sources.
(v) (d) 3 : 1
Explanation:

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CHAPTER 4: MOVING CHARGES AND MAGNETISM
 MOVING CHARGES AND MAGNETISM
04

MOVING CHARGES AND MAGNETISM

Magnetic Field:

We have discussed that a stationary charge creates electric field in its surrounding
space, similarly a moving charge creates a field in its surrounding space which exerts a
force on a moving charge this field is known as magnetic field which is a vector quantity
and represented by B.

Motion of charged particle in a Magnetic Field:

When a charged particle q is thrown in magnetic field B ⃗ with a velocity v then the force
acting on the particle is given by F = qvB.sinθ, where θ is the angle between the velocity
and the magnetic field. As the magnetic force on a charged particle is perpendicular to
the velocity, it does not do any work on the particle. Hence, the kinetic energy or the
speed of the particle doesn’t change due to the magnetic force.

Case I: θ = 0° or 180°

Path followed: Straight line

If a charged particle is thrown parallel or antiparallel to magnetic field it does not

experience any magnetic force as the angle θ between v and B will be zero or 180°. So,
it will continue to move in a straight line with constant velocity.

Case II: θ = 90°

Path followed: Circular

When a charged particle is projected perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field, its path

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 MOVING CHARGES AND MAGNETISM
04

is a circle. The magnetic Lorentz force acts as the centripetal force causing the charged
particle to move in a circular path of radius R with constant speed.

mv 2
F = qvB =
R
mv
⇒R=
qB
v qB
Angular velocity(ω) = =
R m
2π 2πm
Time period of revolutionT = =
ω qB
1 qB
Frequency of revolution= =
T q2πm

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 MOVING CHARGES AND MAGNETISM
04

Biot-Savart Law:
Consider an infinitesimal element dl of the conductor. The magnetic field dB due to this
element is to be determined at a point P which is at a distance r from it. Let θ be the
angle between dl and the position vector r. The direction of dl is same as the direction
of current.

According to Biot-Savart law, the magnitude of the magnetic field dB is proportional to

the current I, the element length dl is inversely proportional to the square of the
distance r. Its direction is perpendicular to the plane containing dl and r. Thus in vector
notation,

Idisinθ
⃗ ∝
dB
r2
u0 Idisinθ
⃗ =
dB
4π r 2
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 MOVING CHARGES AND MAGNETISM
04

u0
Where, is a constant of proportionality. The above expression holds when the
4π
u0
medium is vacuum. The proportionality constant in SI unit has value, = 10−7 T −
4π
m
. We call u_0 the permeability of free space.
A

Magnetic Field due to a Loop of Current:

Magnetic field lines due to a loop of wire are shown in the figure. The direction of
magnetic field on the axis of current loop can be determined by right hand thumb rule.
If the fingers of right hand are curled in the direction of current, the stretched thumb is
in the direction of magnetic field.

Consider a current loop placed in plane carrying current i in anticlockwise sense. Due to
a small current element i.dl shown in the figure, the magnetic field is given by

μ0 idl. sin90
dB =
4π r2

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 MOVING CHARGES AND MAGNETISM
04

Strength of Magnetic Field at the center of loop,

μ0 idl. sin90
∫ dB = ∫ 4π r2

μ0 i. sin90
B= ∫ dl
4π r 2
μ0 i
B= 2πr
4π r 2
μ0 i
B=
2r
If the loop has n round of wire,

μ0 ni
B=
2r
Relation between μ0 and ε0

1
= 9 × 109 … (1)
4πε0
μ0
= 10−7 … (2)
4π
Dividing by eq. (2) to eq. (1)
μ0
4π 10−7
1 =
9 × 109
4πε0

μ0 4πε0 1
× =
4π 1 9 × 109+7
1
μ0 ε0 =
(3 × 108 )2
1
μ 0 ε0 =
c2

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 MOVING CHARGES AND MAGNETISM
04

1
c=
√μ0 ε0

Ampere’s Circuital Law:

Ampere’s circuital law states that line integral of steady magnetic field over a closed
loop is equal to μ0 times the total current (Ie) passing through the surface bounded by
the loop i.e.,

∫ B. dl = μ0 Iewhere Ie is enclosed current

Magnetic Force:
It is observed that when charge is at rest it experiences almost no force. However, if the
charge q is given a velocity v in the direction of current, it is deflected towards the wire.
Hence, we conclude that magnetic field exerts a force on a moving charge particle. The
combination of electric and magnetic force on a point charge is known as Lorentz Force.
Consider a point charge q moving with velocity v located at position vector r at a given
time t. If an electric field E and a magnetic field B exist at that point, then force on the
electric charge q is given by

⃗ = q[E
F ⃗ + v ⃗]
⃗ × B
This force was first given by H. A. Lorentz; hence it is called Lorentz force.

Fleming’s left-hand rule:

If we stretch the thumb and first two fingers of our left hand in mutually perpendicular
directions such that forefinger points along B and middle finger points along v, then the
thumb points along F.

Cyclone Frequency:
A charge c completes a circular orbit on a plane normal to B which is the uniform
magnetic field. The uniform circular motion frequency is known as cyclone frequency.
This frequency is unaffected by the radius and speed of the particle. It can be
determined with the help of a machine known as cyclotron which is used to accelerate
the particles which are charged.

Current Loop as a Magnetic Dipole:

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 MOVING CHARGES AND MAGNETISM
04

A current carrying loop behaves like a magnetic dipole. It has two poles viz north and
south like that of a bar magnet. Following figures show magnetic field lines due to a bar
magnet and a current carrying loop.

The magnetic dipole moment vector for a current loop is given by

⃗⃗⃗
⃗⃗⃗ = NiA,
M
where, N = number of loops or turns

i = current through each turn

A = area of each turn

Current sensitivity: It is defined as the deflection produced per unit current passed
through the galvanometer.

Voltage sensitivity: It is defined as the deflection produced per unit voltage applied
across the galvanometer.

Galvanometer as Ammeter:

The galvanometer cannot as such be used as an ammeter to measure the value of the
current in a given circuit. This is for two reasons.

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 MOVING CHARGES AND MAGNETISM
04

 Galvanometer is a very sensitive device. It gives a full-scale deflection for a current

of the order of μA.
 For measuring currents, the galvanometer has to be connected in series, and as it
has a large resistance, this will change the value of the current in the circuit.

To overcome these difficulties, one attaches a small resistance r s called shunt

resistance, in parallel with the galvanometer coil, so that most of the current passes
through the shunt. The resistance of this arrangement is.

R G rs
= rs
R G + rs
We define the current sensitivity of the galvanometer as the deflection per unit current.
Thus

∅ NAB
=
i K

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 MOVING CHARGES AND MAGNETISM
04

Galvanometer as Voltmeter:
To use galvanometer to find the potential difference between a section of a circuit, it
must be connected in parallel to that section of the circuit. Further, it must draw very
small current, otherwise the voltage measurement will disturb the original setup by an
amount which is very large. Usually, we like to keep the disturbance due to the
measuring device below one percent. To ensure this, a large resistance R is connected
in series with the galvanometer.

We define voltage sensitivity as the deflection per unit voltage.

∅ NAB i
=( )
V K v

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 MOVING CHARGES AND MAGNETISM
04

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 MOVING CHARGES AND MAGNETISM
04

Important Questions
Multiple Choice questions-
1. A charged particle is moving in a cyclotron, what effect on the radius of path of
this charged particle will occur when the frequency of the ratio frequency field is
doubled?
(a) It will also be doubled.
(b) It will be halved.
(c) It will be increased by four times.
(d) It will remain unchanged.
2. Which of the following is not correct about cyclotron?
(a) It is a machine to accelerate charged particles or ions to high energies.
(b) Cyclotron uses both electric and magnetic fields in combination to increase the
energy of charged particles.
(c) The operation of the cyclotron is based on the fact that the time for one
revolution of an ion is independent of its speed or radius of its orbit.
(d) The charged particles and ions in cyclotron can move on any arbitrary path.
⃗ , then
3. If an electron is moving with velocity 𝑣produces a magnetic field 𝐵
⃗ will be same as the direction of velocity 𝑣.
(a) the direction of field 𝐵
⃗ will be opposite to the direction of velocity 𝑣.
(b) the direction of field 𝐵
⃗ will be perpendicular to the direction of velocity 𝑣.
(c) the direction of field 𝐵
⃗ does not depend upon the direction of velocity 𝑣.
(d) the direction of field 𝐵
4. Current flows through uniform, square frames as shown in the figure. In which
case is the magnetic field at the center of the frame not zero?

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 MOVING CHARGES AND MAGNETISM
04

5. Ampere’s circuital law is given by

6. Two identical current carrying coaxial loops, carry current I in opposite sense. A
simple amperian loop passes through both of them once. Calling the loop as C, then
which statement is correct?

(c) there may be a point on C where B and dl are

parallel.
(d) none of these
7. The correct plot of the magnitude of magnetic field B vs distance r from centre of
the wire is, if the radius of wire is R

8. The nature of parallel and anti-parallel currents are

(a) parallel currents repel and antiparallel currents attract.
(b) parallel currents attract and antiparallel currents repel.
(c) both currents attract.
(d) both currents repel.
9. The magnetic moment of a current I carrying circular coil of radius r and number of
turns N varies as
1
(a)
𝑟2
1
(b)
𝑟
(c) r

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 MOVING CHARGES AND MAGNETISM
04

(d) r2
10. A short bar magnet has a magnetic moment of 0. 65 J T-1, then the magnitude and
direction of the magnetic field produced by the magnet at a distance 8 cm from the
center of magnet on the axis is
(a) 2.5 × 10-4 T, along NS direction
(b) 2.5 × 10-4 T along SN direction
(c) 4.5 × 10-4 T, along NS direction
(d) 4.5 × 10-4 T, along SN direction
Very Short:
1. Under what condition is the force acting on a charge moving through a uniform
magnetic field minimum?
2. What Is the nature of the magnetic field in a moving coil galvanometer?
3. State two properties of the material of the wire used for suspension of the coil in
a moving coil galvanometer.
4. Write one condition under which an electric charge does not experience a force
in a magnetic field.
5. Mention the two characteristic properties of the material suitable for making the
core of a transformer. (CBSE AI 2012)
6. Write the expression, in a vector form, for the Lorentz magnetic force due to a
charge moving with velocity 𝑉 ⃗ in a magnetic field 𝐵
⃗ . What is the direction of the
magnetic force? (CBSE Delhi 2014)
7. Write the condition under which an electron will move undeflected in the
presence of crossed electric and magnetic fields. (CBSE Al 2014C)
8. What can be the cause of the helical motion of a charged particle? (CBSE Al 2016)
9. Write the underlying principle of a moving coil galvanometer. (CBSE Delhi 2016)
10. A proton and an electron traveling along parallel paths enter a region of the
uniform magnetic field, acting perpendicular to their paths. Which of them will
move in a circular path with a higher frequency? (CBSEAI and Delhi 2018)
Short Questions:
1. A charged particle having a charge q is moving with a speed of v along the X-axis.
It enters a region of space where the electric field is 𝐸⃗ (E𝑗̂) and a magnetic field 𝐵
⃗
are both present. The particle, on emerging from the region, is observed to be
moving, along the X-axis only. Obtain an expression for the magnitude of 𝐵 ⃗ in terms
⃗.
of v and E. Give the direction of 𝐵
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 MOVING CHARGES AND MAGNETISM
04

2. A stream of electrons traveling with speed v m s-1 at right angles to a uniform

magnetic field ‘B’ is reflected in a circular path of radius ‘r’.

3. Which one of the two, an ammeter or a milliammeter, has a higher resistance

and why?
4. A straight wire of length L carrying a current l stay suspended horizontally in mid-
air in a region where there is a uniform magnetic field 𝐵 ⃗ . The linear mass density of
the wire is l. Obtain the magnitude and direction of the magnetic field.
5. In the figure below, the straight wire AB Is fixed while the loop Is free to move
under the influence of the electric currents flowing in them. In which direction does
the loop begin to move? Give a reason for your

6. A coil of ‘N’ turns, and radius ‘R’ carries a current ‘l’. It is unwound and rewound
to make a square coil of side ‘a’ having the same number of turns (N). Keeping the
current ‘l’ same, find the ratio of the magnetic moments of the square coil and the
circular coil. (CBSE Delhi 2013C)
7. Write the expression for Lorentz magnetic force on a particle of charge ‘q’
moving with velocity v in a magnetic field B. Show that no work is done by this force
on the charged particle. (CBSE Al 2011)
8. (a) State Biot-Savart law in vector form expressing the magnetic field due to an
element ⃗⃗⃗
𝑑𝑙 carrying current l at a distance 𝑟 from the element.
Long Questions:
1.
(a) A particle of charge ‘q’ and mass ‘m’, moving with velocity 𝑣 is subjected to a
uniform magnetic field 𝐵 ⃗ perpendicular to its velocity. Show that the particle
describes a circular path. Obtain an expression for the radius of the circular path of
the particle.
(b) Explain, how its path will be affected if the velocity 𝑣 makes an angle (θ≠ 90°) with

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 MOVING CHARGES AND MAGNETISM
04

the direction of the magnetic field. (CBSE 2019C)

2.
(a) Obtain the conditions under which an electron does not suffer any deflection while
passing through a magnetic field.

Assertion and Reason Questions-

1. Two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason
(R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as
given below.
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false.
d) A is false and R is also false.
Assertion (A): A charge, whether stationary or in motion produces a magnetic field
around it.
Reason (R): Moving charges produce only electric field in the surrounding space.
2. Two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason
(R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as
given below.
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false.
d) A is false and R is also false.
Assertion (A): A charged particle moving in a uniform magnetic field penetrates a
layer of lead and there by loses half of its kinetic energy. The radius of curvature of its
path is now reduced to half of its initial value.
Reason (R): Kinetic energy is inversely proportional to radius of curvature.
Case Study Questions-
1. A charged particle moving in a magnetic field experiences a force that is
proportional to the strength of the magnetic field, the component of the velocity that
is perpendicular to the magnetic field and the charge of the particle.

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 MOVING CHARGES AND MAGNETISM
04

This force is given by where q is the electric charge of the particle, v

is the instantaneous velocity of the particle, and Bis the magnetic field (in tesla).
The direction of force is determined by the rules of cross product of two vectors.
Force is perpendicular to both velocity and magnetic field. Its direction is same
as if q is positive and opposite of if q is negative.
The force is always perpendicular to both the velocity of the particle and the magnetic
field that created it. Because the magnetic force is always perpendicular to the
motion, the magnetic field can do no work on an isolated charge. It can only do work
indirectly, via the electric field generated by a changing magnetic field.

(i) When a magnetic field is applied on a stationary electron, it:

a) Remains stationary.
b) Spins about its own axis.
c) Moves in the direction of the field.
d) Moves perpendicular to the direction of the field.
(ii) A proton is projected with a uniform velocity v along the axis of a current
carrying solenoid, then,
a) The proton will be accelerated along the axis.
b) The proton path will be circular about the axis.
c) The proton moves along helical path.
d) The proton will continue to move with velocity v along the axis.
(iii) A charged particle experiences magnetic force in the presence of magnetic
field. Which of the following statement is correct?
a) The particle is stationary and magnetic field is perpendicular.

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 MOVING CHARGES AND MAGNETISM
04

b) The particle is moving and magnetic field is perpendicular to the velocity.

c) The particle is stationary and magnetic field is parallel.
d) The particle is moving and magnetic field is parallel to velocity.
(iv) A charge q moves with a velocity 2m s-1 along x-axis in a uniform magnetic
field charge will experience a force.
a) In z-y plane.
b) Along -y axis.
c) Along +z axis.
d) Along -z axis.
(v) Moving charge will produce.
a) Electric field only.
b) Magnetic field only.
c) Both electric and magnetic field.
d) None of these.
2. A galvanometer can be converted into voltmeter of given range by connecting a
suitable resistance R, in series with the galvanometer, whose value is given by,

where Vis the voltage to be measured, lg is the current for full scale deflection of
galvanometer and G is the resistance of galvanometer.

Series resistor(R,) increases range of voltmeter and the effective resistance of

galvanometer. It also protects the galvanometer from damage due to large
current. Voltmeter is a high resistance instrument and it is always connected in
parallel with the circuit element across which potential difference is to be measured.
An ideal voltmeter has infinite resistance. In order to increase the range of voltmeter
n times the value of resistance to be connected in series with galvanometer is R s = (n -
1)G.

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 MOVING CHARGES AND MAGNETISM
04

(i) 10mA current can pass through a galvanometer of resistance 25Ω What
resistance in series should be connected through it, so that it is converted into a
voltmeter of 100V?
a) 0.975Ω
b) 99.75Ω
c) 975Ω
d) 9975Ω
(ii) There are 3 voltmeter A, B, C having the same range but their resistance
are 15000Ω,10000Ω and 5000Ωrespectively. 'Tile best voltmeter amongst
them is the one whose resistance is
a) 5000Ω5000Ω
b) 10000Ω10000Ω
c) 15000Ω15000Ω
d) all are equally good.
(iii) A milliammeter of range 0 to 25mA and resistance of 10Ω is to be converted
into a voltmeter with a range of 0 to 25V. 'Tile resistance that should be
connected in series will be:
a. 930Ω
b. 960Ω
c. 990Ω
d. 1010Ω
(iv) To convert a moving coil galvanometer (MCG) into a voltmeter:
a. A high resistance R is connected in parallel with MCG.
b. A low resistance R is connected in parallel with MCG.
c. A low resistance R is connected in series with MCG.
d. A high resistance R is connected in series with MCG.
(v) To increase the current sensitivity of a moving coil galvanometer, we should
decrease:
a. Zero.

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 MOVING CHARGES AND MAGNETISM
04

b. Low.
c. High.
d. Infinity.

 Answer Key:
Multiple Choice Answers-
1. Answer: d
2. Answer: d
3. Answer: c
4. Answer: c
5. Answer: b
6. Answer: b
7. Answer: b
8. Answer: b
9. Answer: d
10. Answer: b
Very Short Answers:
1. Answer: When the charge moves parallel to the direction of the magnetic field.
2. Answer: Radial magnetic field.
3. Answer:
 High tensile strength.
 Small value of torque per unit twist.
4. Answer: When it moves parallel to the direction of the magnetic field.
5. Answer:
 Low retentivity
 High permeability
6. Answer: The expression is 𝐹 = q(𝑉⃗ ×𝐵⃗ ). The force is perpendicular to both the
velocity and the magnetic field vector.
7. Answer: An electron moves perpendicular to both fields.
8. Answer: The charge enters the magnetic field at any angle except 0°, 180°, and

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 MOVING CHARGES AND MAGNETISM
04

90°.
9. Answer: A current-carrying loop placed in a magnetic field experiences a torque.
10. Answer:
The frequency of revolution is given by

As for me< mp
therefore ve> vp
Short Questions Answers:
1. Answer: Since the particle continues to move along the X-axis, therefore, the
magnetic force acting on it should be completely balanced by the electric force.
Since the electric force acts along the Y-axis, therefore, the magnetic force must
be along the Z-axis.
Thus, is equilibrium q E = B q v or v = E/B
2. Answer: Let a stream of electrons be traveling with speed v at right angles to a
uniform magnetic field B then force due to magnetic field provides the required
centripetal force which deflects the electron beam along a circular path of radius
‘r’ such that

where e = electronic charge and m = mass of the electron.

3. Answer:

4. Answer: The magnetic force acting on the straight wire balances the weight of
the wire.
Therefore, in equilibrium we have Mg = BIL, here M = L l, therefore we have L l g
= BlL or B = l/ l g
This field acts vertically upwards.

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 MOVING CHARGES AND MAGNETISM
04

5. Answer: The loop moves towards the straight wire AB. In the loop in the side
nearer to the wire AB current l2 is in the same direction as l1 and hence attractive
force acts. However, on the side farther away from the wire AB current l 2 is in
the opposite direction and the force is repulsive. But as the magnitude of
attractive force is greater than the repulsive force, the net force is attractive in
nature and hence, the loop moves towards the wire AB.
6. Answer:

7. Answer:

8. Answer:
(a) It states that for a small current element dl the magnetic field at a distance r
is given by

(b) The magnetic field at the centre of a circular loop is given by

The field lines are as shown.

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 MOVING CHARGES AND MAGNETISM
04

Long Questions Answers:

1. Answer:
(a) Let a charged particle of charge q and mass m be moving with velocity 𝑣 right
angle to the field (i.e., in the plane of the paper), then magnetic force 𝐹 acting
on the charge q will be

As this forces fact at a right angle to the velocity V of the charged particle, the
slot is unable to change the velocity but can make the charged particle move In a
circular path.
If r is the radius of the circle, then the centripetal force required by the charged
particle will be

This centripetal force Is provided by the magnetic force acting on the charged
particle.

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 MOVING CHARGES AND MAGNETISM
04

(b) If (θ ≠ 90°), the velocity 𝑣 of the moving charge can be resolved into two
components v cos θ, in the direction of the magnetic field and make it v sin θ, in
the direction perpendicular to the magnetic field. The charged particle under the
combined effect of the two components of velocities wilt cover linear as well as
a circular path, i.e., helical path whose axis is parallel to the magnetic field.
2. Answer:
(a) No deflection suffered by the electron if it moves parallel or anti-parallel to
the magnetic field.
(b) The radius of the circular path travelled by a charged particle in a magnetic
field is given by

Assertion and Reason Answers-

1. (d) A is false and R is also false.
Explanation:
A charge, whether stationary or in motion, produces an electric field around it. If it is
in motion, then in addition to the electric field, it also produces a magnetic field,
because moving charges produce magnetic field in the surrounding space.
2. (b) Both A and Rare true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
Explanation:
The radius of curvature of a charged particle in a magnetic re rs given y,

When kinetic energy is halved, the radius is reduced to (√12)times its initial value.
Case Study Answers-
1. Answer :

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 MOVING CHARGES AND MAGNETISM
04

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 MOVING CHARGES AND MAGNETISM
04

2. Answer :

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CHAPTER 5: MAGNETISM AND MATTER
 MAGNETISM AND MATTER
05

MAGNETISM AND MATTER

Bar Magnet:

When iron filings are sprinkled on a sheet of glass placed over a short bar magnet, a
particular pattern is formed and following conclusions are drawn
 The bar magnet has poles similar to the positive and negative charge of an
electric dipole.
 One pole is designated as north pole and other as south pole.
 When suspended freely, these poles point approximately towards the
geographic north and south poles.
 Like poles repel each other and unlike poles attract each other.
 The poles of a magnet can never be separated.

Magnetic Field Lines:

 Magnetic field line is an imaginary curve, the tangent to which at any point gives
direction of magnetic field B at that point.
 The magnetic field lines of a magnet form close-continuous loop.
 Outside the body of magnet, the direction of magnetic field lines are from north
pole to south pole.
 No two magnetic field lines can intersect each other. This is because at the point

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 MAGNETISM AND MATTER
05

of intersection, we can draw two tangents. This would mean two directions of
magnetic field at the same point, which is not possible.
 Larger the number of field lines crossing per unit area, the stronger is the
magnitude of the magnetic field B.

Coulomb’s Law of Magnetism:

Let pole strength of a monopole be qm, then magnetic force between two isolated poles
kept at separation r is.
q m (1) × q m (2)
F ∝
r2

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 MAGNETISM AND MATTER
05

μ0 q m (1) × q m (2)
F=
4π r2
This force will be attractive if one pole is North and other is South and force will be
repulsive if both poles are of same type (i.e., North-North or South-South).

Magnetic Field due to a Monopole:

Magnetic field due to monopole at a point is equal to magnetic force experienced by a
unit pole strength if kept at that point.
μ0 m
B=
4π r 2
It is away from pole if it is N-pole and it is towards pole if it is S-pole.

Magnetic Dipole Moment of a Bar Magnet:

It is equal to the product of any one pole strength and separation between two poles.

M = m × 2l

It is directed from South-pole to north-pole.

Gauss’s Law in Magnetism:

This law states that “the surface integral of a magnetic field over a closed surface is zero
i.e., the net magnetic flux through any closed surface is always zero”.

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∮ ⃗B. ⃗⃗⃗⃗
ds = 0

Earth’s Magnetism:

1. The earth’s magnetism was assumed to arise from a very large bar magnet placed
deep inside earth along its rotational axis but main argument against theory is
that the interior of earth is too hot to maintain any magnetism.
2. The pattern of earth’s magnetic field varies with position as well as time. This is
most affected by solar wind.
3. The magnetic field lines of earth appear same as a magnetic dipole located at the
center of the earth.
4. The pole near the geographic north pole is called the north magnetic pole and
the pole near the geographic south pole is called the south magnetic pole.
5. Geographic meridian: It is a vertical plane passing through the geographic north-
south direction. It contains the longitude circle and axis of rotation of the earth.
6. Magnetic meridian: It is a vertical plane passing through N-S line of freely
suspended magnet.

Magnetic Declination:
It is angle between the true geographic north-south direction and the north south line
shown by a compass needle at a place. Its value is more at higher latitude and smaller
near equator. The declination in India is small.

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Magnetic Inclination or Dip:

It is angle between axis of needle, (in magnetic meridian) which is free to move about a
horizontal axis and horizontal. Thus, dip is an angle that total magnetic field of earth Be
makes with the surface of the earth. Angle of dip is maximum δ = 90º at poles. It is zero
at magnetic equator.

Classification of Magnetic Materials:

Magnetic materials are broadly classified as:
Diamagnetic: Diamagnetism is a fundamental property of all matter, although it is
usually very weak. It is due to the non-cooperative behavior of orbiting electrons when
exposed to an applied magnetic field.

Paramagnetic: This class of materials, some of the atoms or ions in the material have a
net magnetic moment due to unpaired electrons in partially filled orbitals.

Ferromagnetic: When you think of magnetic materials, you probably think of iron,
nickel, or magnetite. Unlike paramagnetic materials, the atomic moments in these
materials exhibit very strong interactions.

Curie’s Law:
Magnetic susceptibility of paramagnetic substance is inversely proportional to absolute
temperature T.

1
xm ∝
T
C
xm =
T
The constant C is called Curie’s constant.

Curie-Weiss law:
At temperature above the Curie temperature, a ferromagnetic substance becomes an
ordinary paramagnetic substance whose magnetic susceptibility obeys the Curie-Weiss
law according to which

C
xm =
T − Tc

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Hard and Soft Magnets:

Hard Magnets:

The ferromagnetic material which retainsmagnetization for a long period of time are
called hard magnetic material or hard ferromagnets. Some hard magnetic materials are
Alnico (an alloy of iron, aluminium, nickel, cobalt and copper) and naturally occurring
lodestone.

Soft Magnets:

The ferromagnetic material which retainsmagnetizationas long as the external field

persists are called soft magnetic materials or soft ferromagnets. Soft ferromagnets is
soft iron. Such material is used for making electromagnets.

Permanent Magnets and Electromagnets:

Permanent Magnets:The substances which at room temperature retain their
magnetization for long period of time are called Permanent magnets. Permanent
magnets should have.

 High retentivity
 High coercivity.

As the material in this case is never put to cyclic changes of magnetization, hence
hysteresis is immaterial. From the viewpoint of these facts, steel is more suitable for
the construction of permanent magnets than soft iron. The fact that the retentivity of
iron is little greater than that of steel is outweighed by the much smaller value of its
coercivity.

Electromagnets:An electromagnet is a temporary strong magnet and is just a solenoid

with its winding on a soft iron core which has high permeability and low retentivity.

Hysteresis:

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 When intensity of magnetization (I) of ferromagnetic substances is plotted

against magnetic intensity for a complete cycle of magnetization and
demagnetization the resulting loop is called hysteresis loop.
 When intensity of magnetizing field (H) is increased, the intensity of
magnetization increases, because more and more domains are aligned in the
direction of applied field.
 When all domains are aligned, material is magnetically saturated. Beyond this
if intensity of magnetizing field (H) is increased, intensity of magnetization (I)
does not increase.
 The value of intensity of magnetization (I) left in the material at H = 0, is called
retentivity or remanence.
 Now if magnetizing field is applied in reverse direction and its intensity H is
increased, material starts de-magnetizing. The value of magnetizing field
needed to reduce magnetization to zero is called coercivity (OC).
 As reverse magnetizing field is increased further, the material again becomes
saturated. Now, if the magnetizing field is reduced after attaining the reverse
saturation, the cycle repeats itself.
 The area enclosed by the loop represents loss of energy during a cycle of
magnetization and demagnetization.

Relation Between Horizontal and Vertical Component:

Squaring and adding equation (1) and (2), we get

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Dividing equation (2) by (1)

Relative Permeability (𝛍𝐫 ):

It is the ratio of permeability of a medium to that of permeability of free space.
μ
μr =
μ0

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Important Questions
Multiple Choice questions-
1. The earth behaves as a magnet with magnetic field pointing approximately from
the geographic
(a) North to South
(b) South to North
(c) East to West
(d) West to East
2. The strength of the earth’s magnetic field is
(a) constant everywhere.
(b) zero everywhere.
(c) having very high value.
(d) vary from place to place on the earth’s surface.
3. Which of the following is responsible for the earth’s magnetic field?
(а) Convective currents in earth’s core
(b) Diversive current in earth’s core.
(c) Rotational motion of earth.
(d) Translational motion of earth.
4. Which of the following independent quantities is not used to specify the earth’s
magnetic field?
(a) Magnetic declination (θ).
(b) Magnetic dip (δ).
(c) Horizontal component of earth’s field (BH).
(d) Vertical component of earth’s field (BV).
5. Let the magnetic field on earth be modelled by that of a point magnetic dipole at
the centre of earth. The angle of dip at a point on the geographical equator is
(a) always zero
(b) positive, negative or zero
(c) unbounded
(d) always negative
6. The angle of dip at a certain place where the horizontal and vertical components

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 MAGNETISM AND MATTER
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of the earth’s magnetic field are equal is

(a) 30°
(b) 75°
(c) 60°
(d) 45°
7. The vertical component of earth’s magnetic field. at a place is √3 times the
horizontal component
the value of angle of dip at this place is
(a) 30°
(b) 45°
(c) 60°
(d) 90°
8. At a given place on earth’s surface the horizontal component of earth’s magnetic
field is 2 × 103-5 T and resultant magnetic field is 4 × 103-5 T. The angle of dip at this
place is
(a) 30°
(b) 60°
(c) 90°
(d) 45°
9. Which of the following property shows the property of ferromagnetic substances?
(a) The ferromagnetic property depends on tem-perature. ‘
(b) The ferromagnetic property does not depend on temperature.
(c) At high enough temperature ferromagnet becomes a diamagnet.
(d) At low temperature ferromagnet becomes a paramagnet.
10. The primary origin of magnetism lies in
(a) atomic current and intrinsic spin of electrons.
(b) polar and non-polar nature of molecules.
(c) pauli exclusion principle.
(d) electronegative nature of materials.
9. The magnetic moment of a current I carrying circular coil of radius r and number of
turns N varies as

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1
(a)
𝑟2
1
(b)
𝑟
(c) r
(d) r2
10. A short bar magnet has a magnetic moment of 0. 65 J T-1, then the magnitude and
direction of the magnetic field produced by the magnet at a distance 8 cm from the
center of magnet on the axis is
(a) 2.5 × 10-4 T, along NS direction
(b) 2.5 × 10-4 T along SN direction
(c) 4.5 × 10-4 T, along NS direction
(d) 4.5 × 10-4 T, along SN direction
Very Short:
1. A small magnetic needle pivoted at the center is free to rotate In a magnetic
meridian. At what place will the needlebe vertical?
2. What is the angle of dip at a place where the horizontal and vertical components
of the earth’s magnetic field are equal?
3. How does the intensity of a paramagnetic sample vary with temperature?
4.What should be the orientation of a magnetic dipole in a uniform magnetic field
so that its potential energy is maximum?
5. What is the value of angle of dip at a place on the surface of the earth where the
ratio of the vertical component to the horizontal component of the earth’s
1
magnetic field is ?
√3
6. Where on the surface of the earth is the angle of dip 90°? (CBSE Al 2011)
7. Where on the surface of the earth is the angle dip zero? (CBSE Al 2011)
8. What are permanent magnets? Give one example. (CBSE Delhi 2013)
9. At a place, the horizontal component of the earth’s magnetic field is B, and the
angle of dip is 60°. What is the value of the horizontal component of the earth’s
magnetic field at the equator? (CBSE Delhi 2017)
10. Is the steady electric current the only source of the magnetic field? Justify your
answer. (CBSE Delhi 2013C)
Short Questions:
1.

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(a) Define the term magnetic susceptibility and write its relation in terms of relative
magnetic permeability.
(b) Two magnetic materials A and B have relative magnetic permeabilities of 0. 96
and 500. Identify the magnetic materials A and B. (CBSE Al, Delhi 2018C)
2. A magnetic needle free to rotate in a vertical position orient itself with its axis
vertical at a certain place on the earth. What are the values of?
(a) the angle of dip and
(b) the horizontal component of the earth’s magnetic field at this place? Where will
this place be on the earth?
3. Out of the two magnetic materials ‘A’ has relative permeability slightly greater
than unity while ‘B’ has less than unity. Identify the nature of the material’s ‘A’ and
‘B’. Will their susceptibilities be positive or negative? (CBSE Delhi 2014)
4. A magnetic needle free to rotate in a vertical plane parallel to the magnetic
meridian has its northern tip down at 60° with the horizontal. The horizontal
component of the earth’s magnetic field at the place is known to be 0.4 G.
Determine the magnitude of the earth’s magnetic field at the place. (CBSE Delhi
2011)
5. The susceptibility of a magnetic material is -0.085. Identify the type of magnetic
material. A specimen of this material is kept in a non-uniform magnetic field. Draw
the modified field pattern.
6. A uniform magnetic field gets modified as shown below when two specimens X
and Y are placed in it.

(a) Identify the two specimens X and Y.

(b) State the reason for the behavior of the field lines in X and Y.
7. Three identical specimens of magnetic materials nickel, antimony, and aluminum
are kept in a non-uniform magnetic field. Draw the modification in the field lines in
each case. Justify your answer.
8. Define neutral point. Draw lines of force when two identical magnets are placed
at a finite distance apart with their N-poles facing each other. Locate the neutral
points.

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Long Questions:
1. Write the expression for the magnetic dipole moment for a closed current loop.
Give its SI unit. Derive an expression for the torque experienced by a magnetic dipole
in a uniform magnetic field.
2.
(a) State Gauss’s law for magnetism. Explain Its significance.
(b) Write the four Important properties of the magnetic field lines due to a bar
magnet. (CBSE Delhi 2019).
Assertion and Reason Questions-
1. Two statements are given-one labelled Assertion(A) and the other labelled Reason
(R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes(a), (b), (c) and (d) as
given below.
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false.
d) A is false and R is also false.
Assertion (A): There is only one neutral points on a horizontal board when a magnet is
held vertically on the board.
Reason (R): At the neutral point the net magnetic field due to the magnetic and
magnetic field of the earth is zero.
2. Two statements are given-one labelled Assertion(A) and the other labelled Reason
(R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes(a), (b), (c) and (d) as
given below.
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false.
d) A is false and R is also false.
Assertion (A): The true geographic north direction is found by using a compass needle.
Reason (R): The magnetic meridian of the earth is along the axis of rotation of the
earth.
Case Study Questions-
1. The field of a hollow wire with constant current is homageneous.

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Curves in the graph shown give, as functions of radius distance r, the magnitude B of
the magnetic field inside and outside four long wires a, b, c and d, carrying currents
that are uniformly distributed across the cross sections of the wires. Overlapping
portions of the plots are indicated by double labels.

(i) Which wire has the greatest magnitude of the magnetic field on the surface?
a) a
b) b
c) c
d) d
(ii) The current density in a wire a is:
a) Greater than in wire c.
b) Less than in wire c.
c) Equal to that in wire c.
d) Not comparable to that of in wire c due to lack of information.
(iii) Which wire has the greatest radius?
a) a
b) b
c) c
d) d
(iv) A direct current I flows along the length of an infinitely long straight thin
walled pipe, then the magnetic field is:
a) Uniform throughout the pipe but not zero.
b) Zero only along the axis of the pipe.
c) Zero at any point inside the pipe.

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 MAGNETISM AND MATTER
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d) Maximum at the centre and minimum at the edges.

(v) In a coaxial, straight cable, the central conductor and the outer conductor carry
equal currents in opposite direction. The magnetic field is zero.
a) Outside the cable.
b) Inside the inner conductor.
c) Inside the outer conductor.
d) In between the two conductor.
2. The magnetic field lines of the earth resemble that of a hypothetical magnetic
dipole located at the centre of the earth. The axis of the dipole is presently tilted by
approximately 11.3° with respect to the axis of rotation of the earth.

The pole near the geographic North pole of the earth is called the North magnetic pole
and the pole near the geographic South pole is called South magnetic pole.
(i) Magnetization of a sample is:
a) 105T
b) 10-6T
c) 10-5T
d) 108T
(ii) A bar magnet is placed North-South with its North-pole due North. The points of
zero magnetic field will be in which direction from centre of magnet?
a) North-South
b) East- West
c) North-East and South-West
d) None of these.
(iii) The value of angle of dip is zero at the magnetic equator because on it:
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a) V and Hare equal.

b) The values of V and H zero.
c) The value of V is zero.
d) The value of His zero.
(iv) The angle of dip at a certain place, where the horizontal and vertical
components of the earth's magnetic field are equal, is:
a) 30º
b) 90º
c) 60º
d) 45º
(v) At a place, angle of dip is 300. lf horizontal component of earth's magnetic field
is H, then the total intensity of magnetic field will be.

 Answer Key:
Multiple Choice Answers-
1. Answer: b
2. Answer: d
3. Answer: a
4. Answer: d
5. Answer: b
6. Answer: d
7. Answer: c
8. Answer: b
9. Answer: a
10. Answer: a

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Very Short Answers:

1. Answer: At the potes
2. Answer: 450
3. Answer: it decreases with the increase in temperature.
4. Answer: It should be anti-parallel to the applied magnetic field.
5. Answer:

Therefore, δ = 30°
6. Answer: Poles.
7. Answer: Magnetic equator
8. Answer: It is an arrangement that has a permanent dipole moment, e.g. bar
magnet.
9. Answer: Zero.
10. Answer: No, the magnetic field is also produced by alternating current.
Short Questions Answers:
1. Answer:
(a) It refers to the ease with which a substance can be magnetized. It is defined
as the ratio of the intensity of magnetization to the magnetizing field. The
required relation is µr = 1 + χm
(b)
A: Paramagnetic,
B: Ferromagnetic
2. Answer: The angle of dip is 90° and the horizontal component of the earth’s
magnetic field is zero. This place is the magnetic pole of the earth.
3. Answer:
 ‘A’ is paramagnetic and ‘B’ is diamagnetic.
 ‘A’ will have positive susceptibility while
 ‘B’ will have negative susceptibility.
4. Answer:
Given δ = 30°, BH = 0.4 G, B = ?
Using the expression
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 MAGNETISM AND MATTER
05

BH = Bcos δ we have

5. Answer: The material is a diamagnetic material as diamagnetic materials have

negative susceptibility. The modified field pattern is as shown below.

6. Answer:
(a) X is a diamagnetic substance and Y is a paramagnetic substance.
(b) This is because the permeability of a diamagnetic substance is less than one
and that of a paramagnetic substance is greater than one.
7. Answer: Nickel is ferromagnetic, antimony is diamagnetic, and aluminium is
paramagnetic. Therefore, they will show the behaviour as shown in the following
figures.

8. Answer: It is a point near a magnet where the magnetic field of the earth is
completely balanced by the magnetic field of the magnet. The figure is as shown
below.

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The cross indicates the neutral point.

Long Questions Answers:
1. Answer:
The required expression is m = nIA.
It is measured in A m².
Consider a uniform magnetic field of strength B. Let a magnetic dipole be
suspended in it such that its axis makes an angle 6 with the field as shown in the
figure below. If ‘m’ is the strength of each pole, the two poles experience two
equal and opposite force ‘B’ each. These forces constitute a couple that tends to
rotate the dipole. Suppose the couple exerts a torque of magnitude τ.

Then

τ = either force × arm of the couple

= mB × AN = mB × 2 L sin θ
or
Since m × 2L is the magnetic dipole moment of the magnet.
Therefore τ = MB sin θ in vector form

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2. Answer:
(a) Gauss’s Law for magnetism states that “The total flux of the magnetic field,
through any closed surface, is always

This law implies that magnetic monopoles do not exist” or magnetic field lines
form closed loops.
(b) Four properties of magnetic field lines are as follows:
 Magnetic field lines always form continuous closed loops.
 The tangent to the magnetic field line at a given point represents the
direction of the net magnetic field at that point.
 The larger the number of field lines crossing per unit area, the stronger is
the magnitude of the magnetic field.
 Magnetic field lines do not intersect.
Assertion and Reason Answers-
1. (b) Both A and Rare true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
Explanation:
There will be only one neutral point on the horizontal board. This is because field of
earth magnetic field is from south to north; and the field of pole on the board is
radially outwards. At any point towards south of magnetic pole, field of earth and field
of pole will cancel out to give a neutral point.
2. (d) A is false and R is also false.
Explanation:
From the compass we are able to know the poles. The north of compass points
towards the magnetic south pole.

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If we know the magnetic declination at that particular place (which is angle between
geographic meridian and magnetic meridian) we can easily find out the true
geographic north-south direction. Imaginary lines drawn along the earth's surface in
the direction of the horizontal component of the magnetic field of the earth at all
points passing through the north and south magnetic poles. This is similar to the
longitudes of the earth, which pass through the geographic north and south poles.
Case Study Answers-
1. Answer :
(i) (a) a
Explanation:
It can be seen that slop of curve for wire a is greater than wire c.
(ii) (b) Less than in wire c.
Explanation:
Inside the wire

(iii) (c) c
Explanation:

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 MAGNETISM AND MATTER
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Wire c has the greatest radius.

(iv) (c) Zero at any point inside the pipe.
(v) (a) Outside the cable.
2. Answer :
(i) (c) 10-5T
(ii) (b) East- West
(iii) (c) The value of V is zero.
Explanation:
At equator vertical component of magnetic fields is zero.
(iv) (d) 45º
Explanation:

(v) (b)
Explanation:
Given: Biot-Savart law can be expressed alternatively as Ampere circuital law.

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CHAPTER 6: ELECTROMAGNETIC INDUCTION
 ELECTROMAGNETIC INDUCTION
06

ELECTROMAGNETIC INDUCTION
Electromagnetic induction:

Whenever the magnetic flux linked with an electric circuit changes, an emf is induced in
the circuit. This phenomenon is called electromagnetic induction.

Faraday’s Laws of Electromagnetic Induction:

 Whenever the magnetic flux linked with a circuit changes, an induced emf is
produced in it.
 The induced emf lasts so long as the change in magnetic flux continues.
 The magnitude of induced emf is directly proportional to the rate of change in
magnetic flux, i.e.,

dφ dφ
E∝ ⇒E=−
dt dt
where constant of proportionality is one and negative sign indicates Lenz’s law.

Here, flux = NBA cosθ, SI unit of φ = weber,

CGS unit of φ = maxwell, 1 weber = 108 maxwell,

Dimensional formula of magnetic flux

[φ] = [ML−2 T −2 A−2 ]

Lenz's Law:
 The induced emf/ induced current direction is determined by this law.
 The direction of induced emf or current in a circuit, according to this law, is such
that it opposes the source that generates it. The law of conservation of energy
underpins this rule.
 When the N-pole of a bar magnet advances towards the coil, the flux associated
with the loop increases, causing an emf. Induced current flows through the loop
circuit since it is closed.
 Because the approaching north pole is the cause of this induced current, the
induced current in the loop is directed in such a way that the front face of the
loop behaves like the north pole. Therefore, induced current as seen by the
observer O is an anticlockwise direction.
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 The cause of generated emf in the coil can also be referred to as relative motion
if the loop is free to move. As a result, the relative motion between the two
objects works against the cause.
 The loop and the incoming magnet should be in opposition. As a result, the loop
will begin to move in the direction of the magnet is moving.
 It is critical to keep in mind that whenever the reason of induced the new
motion is always in the direction of the emf.

Eddy Current:

When a changing magnetic flux is given to a large piece of conducting material, it

induces circling currents known as eddy currents. Eddy currents have huge magnitudes
and heat up the conductor because the bulk conductor's resistance is usually low.
 These are circulating currents, similar to water eddies.
 The "Foucault current" is named after Focault's experimental hypothesis.
 In a metallic block, the generation of eddy currents results in the loss of electric
energy in the form of heat.
 As a result of the lamination and slotting processes, the resistance channel for
eddy current circulation increases, weakening and lowering them and also
reducing losses caused by them.

Eddy Current Applications:

Although eddy currents are generally unwelcome, they do have some helpful
applications, as listed below.

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 Dead-Beat Galvanometer:When a current is delivered via its coil, a deadbeat

galvanometer's pointer comes to rest in the final equilibrium position
instantaneously, with no oscillation around the equilibrium position.
This is accomplished by winding the coil around a metallic frame, which induces
significant eddy currents that give electromagnetic damping.
 When the train is running, the wheel moves in the air: When the train is stopped
by electric brakes,the wheel is made to move in an electromagnet created field.
Eddy currents created in the wheels as aresult of the changing flux work against
the cause and bring the train to a halt.
 Induction Furnace:The heat of Joule causes a metal item to melt when it is placed
in a rapidly changing magnetic field.
 Speedometer: In an automobile's speedometer, a magnet is geared to the vehicle's
main shaft and rotates in accordance with the vehicle's speed. Hair springs are
used to secure the magnet in an aluminium cylinder. When the magnet rotates, it
produces eddy currents in the drum and drags it through an angle, which indicates
the speed of the vehicle on a calibrated scale.
 Energy Meter: The armature coil of an energy meter has a metallic aluminium disc
that rotates between the poles of a pair of permanent horseshoe magnets. The
current induced in the disc as the armature spins tend to oppose the motion of the
armature coil. Deflection is proportional to the energy consumed due to this
braking effect.

Induced Charge Flow:

When a current is induced in the circuit due to the flux change, charge flows through
the circuit andthe net amount of charge which flows along the circuit is given as:
1 d∅ 1 |∆∅| |∆∅|
q = ∫ idt = ∫ | | dt = ∫ d∅ q = and q = N for N tums
R dt R R R

The Experiments of Faraday and Henry:

Figure shows a coil C1 connected to a galvanometer G. When the North-pole of a bar
magnet is pushed towards the coil, the pointer in the galvanometer deflects, indicating
the presence of electric current in the coil. The galvanometer does not show any
deflection when the magnet is held stationary. When the magnet is pulled away from
the coil, the galvanometer shows deflection in the opposite direction, which indicates
reversal of the current’s direction.

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Moreover, when the South-pole of the bar magnet is moved towards or away from the
coil, the deflections in the galvanometer are opposite to that observed with the North-
pole for similar movements. Further, the deflection is found to be larger when the
magnet is pushed towards or pulled away from the coil faster. Instead, when the bar
magnet is held fixed and the coil C1 is moved towards or away from the magnet, the
same effects are observed. It shows that it is the relative motion between the magnet
and the coil that is responsible for generation of electric current in the coil.

Fleming’s Right Hand Rule:

If we stretch the thumb, the fore finger and the central finger of right hand in such a
way that all three are perpendicular to each other, if thumb represent the direction of
motion, the forefinger represent tile direction of magnetic field, then centra} finger will
represent the direction of induced current.

If R is the electrical resistance of the circuit, then induced current in the circuit is given
E
byI =
R

If induced current is produced in a coil rotated in uniform magnetic field, then.

ωt
I = NBA ω sin = Io sin ωt
R

where, Io = NBA ω = peak value of induced current,

N = number of turns in the coil,

B= magnetic induction,

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 ELECTROMAGNETIC INDUCTION
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ω = angular velocity of rotation and

A = area of cross-section of the coil.

Self-Induction:

The phenomena of production of induced emf in a circuit due to change in current

flowing in its own, is called self-induction.

Mutual Induction:

The phenomena of production of induced emf in a circuit due to the change in magnetic
flux in its neighbouring circuit, is called mutual induction.

Magnetic Flux:
Like electric flux, magnetic flux is proportional to the number of magnetic field lines
passing through a surface. It is denoted by ΦB. It is a scalar quantity.

Mathematically, ∅B = ⃗B⃗A = BAcosθ

SI unit of magnetic flux is weber (Wb) (1Wb = 1 tesla-m2). C.G.S. unit of magnetic flux is
maxwell. The dimensional formula of magnetic flux is [ML 2T-2A-1].

Motional Emf:
If a rod of length 1 moves perpendicular to a magnetic field B, with a velocity v, then
induced emf produced in it given by.

E = B × v × l = Bvl

If a metallic rod of length 1 rotates about one of its ends in a plane perpendicular to the
magnetic field, then the induced emf produced across its ends is given by.

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 ELECTROMAGNETIC INDUCTION
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1
E= bωr 2 = BAf
2
where, ω = angular velocity of rotation, f = frequency of rotation and A = πr 2 = area of
disc.

The direction of induced current in any conductor can be obtained from Fleming’s right
hand rule.

A rectangular coil moves linearly in a field when coil moves with constant velocity in a
uniform magnetic field, flux and induced emf will be zero.

A rod moves at an angle θ with the direction of magnetic field, velocity E = -Blv sin θ.

An emf is induced:

 When a magnet is moved with respect to a coil.

 When a conductor falls freely in East-West direction.
 When an Aeroplan flies horizontally.
 When strength of current flowing in a coil is increased or decreased, induced
current is developed in the coil in same or opposite direction.
 When a train moves horizontally in any direction.

Induced Electric Field:

An electric field is induced in any region of space in which a magnetic field is changing
with time. Induced electric field and magnetic field are at right angles to each other.

Consider a particle of charge q0 moving around the ring in a circular path. The work
done by the induced electric field in one revolution is W = q0ε, where ε is the induced
emf.

Also work done

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⃗ . ⃗⃗⃗
W = ∫F dl

W = q 0 ∫ ⃗E . ⃗⃗⃗
dl

q 0 ε = q 0 ∫ ⃗E . ⃗⃗⃗
dl

ε = ∫ ⃗E . ⃗⃗⃗
dl

By Faraday's law
−d∅B
ε=
dt
−d∅B
∴ ∫ ⃗E . ⃗⃗⃗
dl =
dt
Lenz’s Law and Conservation of Energy:

Lenz's law is in accordance with law of conservation of energy. As the induced current
opposes the change in flux, work has to be done against the opposition offered by
induced current in changing the flux. The work done appears as electrical energy in the
loop.

AC Generator:
An ac generator converts mechanical energy into electrical energy.

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It consists of a coil mounted on a rotor shaft. The axis of rotation of the coil is
perpendicular to the direction of the magnetic field. The coil (called armature) is
mechanically rotated in the uniform magnetic field by some external means. The
rotation of the coil causes the magnetic flux through it to change, so an emf is induced
in the coil. The ends of the coil are connected to an external circuit by means of slip
rings and brushes.

When the coil is rotated with a constant angular speed ω, the angle θ between the
magnetic field vector B and the area vector A of the coil at any instant t is θ = ωt. As a
result, the effective area of the coil exposed to the magnetic field lines changes with
time, and the flux at any time to is.

ϕB = BAcosθ
ϕB = BAcosθ
From Faraday’s law, the induced emf for the rotating coil of N turns is, then,

dϕB
ε = −N
dt
d
ε = −NBA (cos ωt)
dt
Thus, the instantaneous value of the emf is,

ε = NBAω sin ωt
If we denote NBAω as ε0,

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ε = ε0 sin ωt
The direction of the current changes periodically and therefore the current is called
alternating current (ac).

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Important Questions
Multiple Choice questions-
1. The north pole of a long bar magnet was pushed slowly into a short solenoid
connected to a short galvanometer. The magnet was held stationary for a few
seconds with the north pole in the middle of the solenoid and then withdrawn
rapidly. The maximum deflection of the galvanometer was observed when the
magnet was
(a) moving towards the solenoid
(b) moving into the solenoid
(c) at rest inside the solenoid
(d) moving out of the solenoid
2. The magnetic flux linked with a coil of N turns of area of cross section A held with
its plane parallel to the field B is

3. Faraday’s laws are consequence of the conservation of

(a) charge
(b) energy
(c) magnetic field
(d) both (b) and (c)
4. Two identical coaxial coils P and Q carrying equal amount of current in the same
direction are brought nearer. The current in
(a) P increases while in Q decreases
(b) Q increases while in P decreases
(c) both P and Q increases
(d) both P and Q decreases
5. Direction of current induced in a wire moving in a magnetic field is found using
(a) Fleming’s left-hand rule
(b) Fleming’s right-hand rule
(c) Ampere’s rule
(d) Right hand clasp rule
6. Lenz’s law is a consequence of the law of conservation of
(a) charge
(b) energy
(c) induced emf
(d) induced current

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7. A solenoid is connected to a battery so that a steady current flows through it. If an

iron core is inserted into the solenoid, the current will
(a) increase
(b) decrease
(c) remain same
(d) first increase then decrease
8. Which of the following statements is not correct?
(a) Whenever the amount of magnetic flux linked with a circuit change, an emf is
induced in circuit.
(b) The induced emf lasts so long as the change in magnetic flux continues.
(c) The direction of induced emf is given by Lenz’s law.
(d) Lenz’s law is a consequence of the law of conservation of momentum.
9. There is a uniform magnetic field directed perpendicular and into the plane of the
paper. An irregular shaped conducting loop is slowly changing into a circular loop in
the plane of the paper. Then
(a) current is induced in the loop in the anti-clockwise direction.
(b) current is induced in the loop in the clockwise direction.
(c) ac is induced in the loop.
(d) no current is induced in the loop.
10. In the given figure current from A to B in the straight wire is decreasing. The
direction of induced current in the loop is A
(a) clockwise
(b) anticlockwise
(c) changing
(d) nothing can be said
Very Short:
1. What is the function of a step-up transformer? (CBSE AI 2011C)
2. State Lenz’s law. (CBSE AI 2012C)
3. How can the self-inductance of a given coil having ‘N’ number of turns, area of
cross-section of ‘A’ and length T be increased? (CBSE AI 2012C)
4. How does the mutual inductance of a pair of coils change when
(a) the distance between the coils is increased and
(b) the number of turns in the coils is increased. (CBSE AI 2013)
5. The motion of the copper plate is damped when it is allowed to oscillate between
the two poles of a magnet. What is the cause of this damping? (CBSE AI 2013)

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6. Why is the core of a transformer laminated? (CBSE Delhi 2013C)

7. A metallic piece gets hot when surrounded by a coil carrying a high frequency
alternating current. Why? (CBSE Delhi 2014C)
8. Name any two applications where eddy currents are used to advantage. (CBSE
Delhi 2016C)
9. A long straight current-carrying wire passes normally through the centre of the
circular loop. If the current through the wire increases, will there be an induced emf
in the loop? Justify. (CBSE Delhi 2017)
10. Predict the polarity of the capacitor in the situation described below. (CBSE AI
2017)

Short Questions:
1. An induced current has no direction of its own, comment.
2. How are eddy currents produced? Mention two applications of eddy currents?
3. Name and define the unit used for measuring the coefficient of mutual
inductance. State the relation of this unit with the units of magnetic flux and
electric current.
4. What are eddy currents? Write any two applications of eddy currents. (CBSE A!
2011)
5.
(a) Obtain the expression for the magnetic energy stored in a solenoid in terms of
the magnetic field B, area A and length l of the solenoid.
(b) How is this magnetic energy per unit volume compared with the electrostatic
energy per unit volume stored in a parallel plate capacitor? (CBSE Delhi 2011C)
6. State Lenz’s Law.
A metallic rod held horizontally along the east-west direction is allowed to fall
under gravity. Will there be an emf induced at its ends? Justify your answer. (CBSE
Delhi 2013)
7. Starting from the expression for the energy W = 1/2Ll2, stored in a solenoid of
self-inductance L to build up the current l, obtain the expression for the magnetic
energy in terms of the magnetic field B, area A and length l of the solenoid having n

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number of turns per unit length. Hence show that the energy density is given by
8z/2m0. (CBSE Delhi 2013C)
(i) The magnetic energy is
(ii) The magnetic energy per unit volume is
8. Define mutual inductance. A pair of adjacent coils has a mutual inductance of 1.5
H. If the current in one coil changes from 0 to 20 A in 0.5 s, what is the change of
flux linkage with the other coil? (CBSE Delhi 2016)
Long Questions:
1. 11 kW of electric power can be transmitted to a distant station at (i) 220 V or (ii)
22,000 V. Which of the two modes of transmission should be preferred and why?
Support your answer with possible calculations.
2. A coil A is connected to a voltmeter V and the other coil B to an alternating current
source D. If a large copper sheet C is placed between the two coils, how does the
induced emf in coil A change due to current in coil B. Justify your answer.

Assertion and Reason Questions-

1. Two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason
(R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b ), (c) and (d) as
given below.
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and Rare true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false.
d) A is false and R is also false.
Assertion (A): An aircraft flies along the meridian, the potential develops at the ends
of its wings.
Reason (R): Whenever there is change in the magnetic flux e.m.f. induces.

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2. Two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason
(R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b ), (c) and (d) as
given below.
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and Rare true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false.
d) A is false and R is also false.
Assertion (A): An artificial satellite with a metal surface is moving above the earth in a
circular orbit. A current will be induced in satellite if the plane of the orbit is inclined
to the plane of the equator.
Reason (R): The current will be induced only when the speed of satellite is more than
8km/ sec.
Case Study Questions-
1. In year 1820 Oersted discovered the magnetic effect of current. Faraday gave the
thought that reverse of this phenomenon is also possible i.e., current can also be
produced by magnetic field. Faraday showed that when we move a magnet towards
the coil which is connected by a sensitive galvanometer. The galvanometer gives
instantaneous deflection showing that there is an electric current in the loop.
Whenever relative motion between coil and magnet takes place an emf induced in
coil. If coil is in closed circuit then current is also induced in the circuit. This
phenomenon is called electromagnetic induction.

(i) The north pole of a long bar magnet was pushed slowly into a short solenoid
connected to a galvanometer. The magnet was held stationary for a few
seconds with the north pole in the middle of the solenoid and then withdrawn

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rapidly. The maximum deflection of the galvanometer was observed when the
magnet was:
a) Moving towards the solenoid.
b) Moving into the solenoid.
c) At rest inside the solenoid.
d) Moving out of the solenoid.
(ii) Two similar circular loops carry equal currents in the same direction. On moving
the coils further apart, the electric current will.
a) Remain unaltered.
b) Increases in one and decreases in the second.
c) Increase in both.
d) Decrease in both.
(iii) A closed iron ring is held horizontally and a bar magnet is dropped
through the ring with its length along the axis of the ring. The acceleration of
the falling magnet is.
a) Equal to g.
b) Less than g.
c) More than g.
d) Depends on the diameter of the ring and length of magnet.
(iv) Whenever there is a relative motion between a coil and a magnet, the
magnitude of induced emf set up in the coil does not depend upon the:
a) Relative speed between the coil and magnet.
b) Magnetic moment of the coil.
c) Resistance of the coil.
d) Number of turns in the coil.
(v) A coil of metal wire is kept stationary in a non-uniform magnetic field:
a) A n emf and current both are induced in the coil.
b) A current but no emf is induced in the coil.
c) An emf but no current is induced in the coil.
d) Neither emf nor current is induced in the coil.
2. Currents can be induced not only in conducting coils, but also in conducting sheets or
blocks. Current is induced in solid metallic masses when the magnetic flux threading

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through them changes. Such currents flow in the from of irregularly shaped loops
throughout the body of the metal. These currents look like eddies or whirlpools in water so
they are known as eddy currents. Eddy currents have both undesirable effects and
practically useful applications. For example it causes unnecessary heating and wastage of
power in electric motors, dynamos and in the cores of transformers.
(i) The working of speedometers of trains is based on:
a) Wattless currents.
b) Eddy currents.
c) alternating currents.
d) pulsating currents.
(ii) Identify the wrong statement.
a) Eddy currents are produced in a steady magnetic field.
b) Induction furnace uses eddy currents to produce heat.
c) Eddy currents can be used to produce braking force in moving trains.
d) Power meters work on the principle of eddy currents.
(iii) Which of the following is the best method to reduce eddy currents?
a) Laminating core.
b) Using thick wires.
c) By reducing hysteresis loss.
d) None of these.
(iv) The direction of eddy currents is given by:
a) Fleming's left hand rule.
b) Biot-Savart law.
c) Lenz's law
d) Ampere-circuital law.
(v) Eddy currents can be used to heat localised tissues of the human body. This branch of
medical therapy is called:
a) Hyperthermia.
b) Diathermy.
c) Inductothermy.
d) None of these.
 Answer Key:
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Multiple Choice Answers-

1. Answer: d
2. Answer: d
3. Answer: b
4. Answer: d
5. Answer: b
6. Answer: b
7. Answer: b
8. Answer: d
9. Answer: a
10. Answer: b
Very Short Answers:
1. Answer: The function of a step-up transformer is to step-up the alternating
voltage.
2. Answer: It states that the direction of induced emf is such that it opposes the
cause of its production.
3. Answer: By inserting a core of high permeability inside the coil.
4. Answer:
(a) decreases
(b) increases.
5. Answer: Production of eddy current.
6. Answer: To reduce the effects of eddy currents.
7. Answer: Due to the production of eddy current which generates heat.
8. Answer:
 Electromagnetic damping
 Induction furnace.
9. Answer: Yes, as there will be a change in magnetic flux.
10. Answer: The upper plate will be positive with respect to the lower plate in the
capacitor.
Short Questions Answers:

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1. Answer: Yes, it is perfectly correct to say that an induced current has no fixed
direction of its own. The direction of induced current depends upon the change
in magnetic flux because in accordance with Lenz’s law the induced current
always opposes the change in magnetic flux.
2. Answer: Eddy currents are the currents induced in the body of a thick conductor
when the magnetic flux linked with the conductor changes. When a thick
conductor is moved in a magnetic field, magnetic flux linked with it changes. In
situations like these, we can have induced currents that circulate throughout the
volume of a material.
Because their flow patterns resemble swirling eddies in a river, therefore they
are called eddy currents.
 Electromagnetic braking, and
 Induction furnace.
3. Answer:
In SI the unit of mutual inductance is henry (H). Now from the expression

Let ε = 1 volt and dl/dt = 1 As-1, then

M = 1 volt/1 As-1 = 1 henry.
The mutual inductance of a coil is said to be 1 henry if a rate of change of
current of 1 ampere per sec in the neighbouring coil induces in at an emf of 1
volt.
4. Answer:
Eddy currents are the currents induced in the body of a thick conductor when
the magnetic flux linked with a bulk piece of conductor changes.
 Dead Beat Galvanometer, and
 Induction furnace.
5. Answer:
1
The magnetic field stored in a solenoid is given by the expression U = - Ll2.
2
But for a solenoid B = μ0nl
or
l = B / μ0 n
Substituting in the above expression we have
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It is clear that in both cases the energy stored per unit volume is proportional to
the square of the field intensity.
6. Answer: Lenz’s law states that the polarity of the induced emf is such that it
tends to oppose the cause of its production.
Yes, as it will cut the horizontal component of the earth’s magnetic field.
7. Answer:
(i)

(ii)

8. Answer: Mutual inductance is numerically equal to the magnetic flux linked with
a coil when the unit current passes through the neighbouring coil.
Given M = 1.5 H, dl = 20 - 0 = 20 A,
dt = 0.5 s, Φ = ?

Long Questions Answers:

1. Answer:
1. Consider that 11000 watt of energy has to be transmitted. First at 220 V and
then at 22000 V. When the power is transmitted at 220 V then the current
flowing through the wires is 11000/220 = 50 A

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2. When power is transmitted at 22000 V then the current through the wires is
11000 / 22000 = 0.5 A. If R is the resistance of the line wire then the energy
dissipated in the two cases is 2500R joule per sec and 0.25R. joule per sec.
This shows that if energy is transmitted at low voltages there is more loss in
energy than when it is transmitted at high voltages. Furthermore, if power is to
be transmitted at low voltage, then the resistance of the line wire should be low,
as such thick wires will be required. To support these thick wires strong poles
situated close to each other will be needed. This will increase the cost of
transmission. But at high voltages, even thin wires will do.
2. Answer:
In the absence of sheet C, an induced emf is set up in coil due to mutual
induction phenomenon when an alternating current is passed through coil B.

However, when induced copper sheet C is placed, eddy currents are set up in the
sheet due to a change in flux.
Thus, now coil A has a positive effect due to coil B and a negative effect due to
eddy currents in C. Consequently, the flux of coil A and hence the induced emf in
coil A is decreased, i.e. the reading of voltmeter V is reduced.
Assertion and Reason Answers-
1. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
Explanation:
As the aircraft flies, magnetic flux changes through its wings due to the vertical
component of the earth's magnetic field. Due to this, induced emf is produced across
the wings of the aircraft.
2. (c) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
Explanation:
When the satellite move in inclined plane with equatorial plane the value of magnetic
field will change both in magnitude and direction. Due to this, the magnetic flux
through the satellite will change and hence induced currents will be produced in the
metal of the satellite. But no current will induce if satellite orbits in the equatorial

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plane because the magnetic flux does not change through the metal of the satellite in
this plane.
Case Study Answers-
1. Answer :
(i) (d) Moving out of the solenoid.
Explanation:
More rapid is the movement of bar magnet, more is the deflection observed in
the galvanometer.
(ii) (c) Increase in both.
Explanation:
Two circular loops carrying current in the same direction will attract each other.
If they are now separated, induced currents will try to keep status quo, by
increasing the current in both the coils.
(iii) (b) Less than g.
Explanation:
Acceleration of the magnet will not be equal tog. It will be less than g. This is
because, as the magnet falls, amount of magnetic flux linked with the ring
changes.
An induced emf is developed in the ring which opposes the downward motion of
the magnet.
(iv) (c) Resistance of the coil.
Explanation:
The magnitude of induced emf set up in the coil does not depend upon the
resistance of the coil whereas induced current set up in the coil depend upon the
resistance of the coil.
(v) (d) Neither emf nor current is induced in the coil.
Explanation:
As long as a coil of metal is kept stationary in a magnetic field, even if it is non-
uniform, unless it is changing with respect to time, there will be no induced
emfor current in the coil.
2. Answer :
(i) (b) Eddy currents.
Explanation:

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The working of speedometers is based on eddy currents.

(ii) (a) Eddy currents are produced in a steady magnetic field.
(iii) (a) Laminating core.
Explanation:
To reduce the eddy currents in the metal armature of motors, wire is wrapped
around a number of thin metal sheets called lamination.
(iv) (c) Increase.
Explanation:
Eddy currents also oppose the change in magnetic flux, so their direction is
given by Lenz's law.
(v) (c) Henry.

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CHAPTER 7: ALTERNATING CURRENT
 ALTERNATING CURRENT
07

ALTERNATING CURRENT
Alternating Current:

The magnitude of alternating current changes continuously with time and its direction
is reversed periodically. It is represented by

I = I0 sin ωt or I = I0 cos ωt
2π
ω= = 2πv
T

Direct current (DC):

Direct current (DC) is electrical current which flows consistently in one direction. The
current that flows in a flashlight or another appliance running on batteries is direct
current.

Mean value for half cycle of AC:

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Mean value of AC is the total charge that flows through a circuit element in a given time
interval divided by the time interval.emf.
T
∫ Idt
Imean = 0
T
For half cycle
T
∫0 Idt
2
Imean = T
2
T
2 2
Imean = ∫ I0 sin ωdt
T 0
T
2I0 − cos ωt 2
Imean = [ ]
T ω 0

2I0 2π
Imean = [− cos π − cos 0] … ( ∵ ω = )
2π T
2I0
Imean =
π
Note: For complete cycle, mean value = 0

Phasor Diagram:
In the a.c. circuit containing R only, current and voltage are in the same phase.
Therefore, in figure, both phasors ⃗⃗⃗
I0 and E⃗⃗⃗⃗0 are in the same direction making an angle
(ωt) with OX. This is so for all times. It means that the phase angle between alternating
voltage and current through R is Zero.

I = I0 sin ωt and E = E0 sin ωt

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Parts of a Single-phase Transformer

The major parts of a single-phase transformer consist of;

Core

The core acts as a support to the winding in the transformer. It also provides a low reluctance
path to the flow of magnetic flux. The winding is wound on the core as shown in the picture.
It is made up of a laminated soft iron core in order to reduce the losses in a transformer. The
factors such as operating voltage, current, power etc decide core composition. The core
diameter is directly proportional to copper losses and inversely proportional to iron losses.

Windings

Windings are the set of copper wires wound over the transformer core. Copper wires are
used due to:

 The high conductivity of copper minimizes the loss in a transformer because when the
conductivity increases, resistance to current flow decreases.

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 The high ductility of copper is the property of metals that allows it to be made into
very thin wires.

There are mainly two types of windings. Primary windings and secondary windings.

 Primary winding: The set of turns of windings to which supply current is fed.

 Secondary winding: The set of turns of winding from which output is taken.

The primary and secondary windings are insulated from each other using insulation coating
agents.

Insulation Agents

Insulation is necessary for transformers to separate windings from each other and to avoid
short circuit. This facilitates mutual induction. Insulation agents have an influence on the
durability and the stability of a transformer.

Following are used as an insulation medium in a transformer:

 Insulating oil

 Insulating tape

 Insulating paper

 Wood-based lamination

Capacitive Reactance (XC):

The opposing nature of capacitor to the flow of alternating current is called capacitive
reactance.

1 1
XC = =
ωC 2πfc
Where, C = capacitance

Choke Coil:

A choke coil is an inductor having a small resistance. It is a device used in ac circuits to

control current without wasting too much power. As it has low resistance, its power
factor cos ϕis low.

Wattless Current:

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 ALTERNATING CURRENT
07

The current in an AC circuit when average power consumption in AC circuit is zero, is

referred aswattless current or idle current.

A.C. Generator or A.C. Dynamo:

An a.c. generator/dynamo is a machine that produces alternating current energy from

mechanical energy. It is one of the most important applications of the phenomenon of
electromagnetic induction. The generator was designed originally by a Yugoslav
scientist, Nikola Tesla. The word generator is a misnomer because nothing is generated
by the machine. In fact, it is an alternator converting one form of energy into another.

Transformer:

A transformer which increases the a.c. voltage is called a step-up transformer. A

transformer which decreases the a.c. voltages are called a step-down transformer.

Step Up Transformer

If the secondary coil has more numbers of turns than the primary, the voltage is seen to
step up, that is how the name is given for this type of transformer. If the secondary coil
has less number of coils, it is referred to as a step-down type of transformer.

Transformer Types

Transformers are used in various fields like power generation grid, distribution sector,
transmission and electric energy consumption. There are various types of transformers
which are classified based on the following factors;

 Working voltage range.

 The medium used in the core.

 Winding arrangement.

 Installation location.

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 ALTERNATING CURRENT
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Based on Voltage Levels

Commonly used transformer type, depending upon voltage they are classified as:

Step-up Transformer: They are used between the power generator and the power grid.
The secondary output voltage is higher than the input voltage.

Step down Transformer: These transformers are used to convert high voltage primary
supply to low voltage secondary output.

Based on the Medium of Core Used

In a transformer, we will find different types of cores that are used.

Air core Transformer: The flux linkage between primary and secondary winding is
through the air. The coil or windings wound on the non-magnetic strip.

Iron core Transformer: Windings are wound on multiple iron plates stacked together,
which provides a perfect linkage path to generate flux.

Based on the Winding Arrangement

Autotransformer: It will have only one winding wound over a laminated core. The
primary and secondary share the same coil. Auto also means “self” in language Greek.

Based on Install Location

Power Transformer: It is used at power generation stations as they are suitable for high
voltage application

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Distribution Transformer: Mostly used at distribution lanes for domestic purposes.

They are designed for carrying low voltages. It is very easy to install and characterized
by low magnetic losses.

Measurement Transformers: These are further classified. They are mainly used for
measuring voltage, current, power.

Protection Transformers: They are used for component protection purposes. In circuits,
some components must be protected from voltage fluctuation etc. Protection
transformers ensure component protection.

The transformer works on the principle of Faraday’s law of electromagnetic induction

and mutual induction.

There are usually two coils primary coil and secondary coil on the transformer core. The
core laminations are joined in the form of strips. The two coils have high mutual
inductance. When an alternating current pass through the primary coil it creates a
varying magnetic flux. As per faraday’s law of electromagnetic induction, this change in
magnetic flux induces an emf (electromotive force) in the secondary coil which is linked
to the core having a primary coil. This is mutual induction.

Overall, a transformer carries the below operations:

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 Transfer of electrical energy from circuit to another

 Transfer of electrical power through electromagnetic induction

 Electric power transfer without any change in frequency

 Two circuits are linked with mutual induction

The figure shows the formation of magnetic flux lines around a current-carrying wire. The
normal of the plane containing the flux lines are parallel to normal of a cross-section of a
wire.

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The figure shows the formation of varying magnetic flux lines around a wire-wound. The
interesting part is that reverse is also true, when a magnetic flux line fluctuates around a
piece of wire, a current will be induced in it. This was what Michael faraday found in 1831
which is the fundamental working principle of electric generators as well as transformers.

Charging and Discharging of a Capacitor:

The instantaneous charge on a capacitor on charging at any instant of time t is given by
t
q = q 0 (1 − e − )
Rc
where RC = τ, is called time constant of a R – C circuit.

The instantaneous charge on a capacitor in discharging at any instant of time t is given by

t
q = q0 e −
Rc
Time constant of a R – C circuit is the time in which charge in the capacitor grows to
63.8% or decay to 36.8% of the maximum charge on capacitor.

Transient Current:An electric current which very for a small finite time, while growing
from zero to maximum or decaying from maximum to zero, is called a transient current.
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Differences between Alternating Current and Direct Current:

Alternating Current Direct Current

AC is safe to transfer longer distance even between two DC cannot travel for a very long distance. It
cities and maintain the electric power. loses electric power.

The rotating magnets cause the change in direction of The steady magnetism makes DC flow in a
electric flow. single direction.

The frequency of AC is dependent upon the country. But DC has no frequency of zero frequency.
generally, the frequency is 50 Hz or 60 Hz.

In AC the flow of current changes its direction backwards It flows in a single direction steadily.
periodically.

Electrons in AC keep changing its directions – backward Electrons only move in one direction – that is
and forward forward.

Use of Transformers in Transmission:

 In electric power transmission, transformers allow transmission of electric power
at high voltages, which reduces the loss due to heating of the wires.
 In many electronic devices, a transformer is used to convert voltage from the
distribution wiring to convenient values for the circuit requirements.
 Signal and audio transformers are used to couple stages of amplifiers and to
match devices such as microphones and record players to the input of amplifiers.
 Audio transformers allowed telephone circuits to carry on a two-way
conversation over a single pair of wires.
 Resonant transformers are used for coupling between stages of radio receivers,
or in high-voltage Tesla coils.

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Important Questions
Multiple Choice questions-
1. Alternating voltage (V) is represented by the equation
(a) V(t) = Vmeωt
(b) V(t) = Vm sin ωt
(c) V(t) = Vm cot ωt
(d) V(t) = Vm tan ωt
2. The rms value of potential difference V shown in the figure is

3. The phase relationship between current and voltage in a pure resistive circuit is
best represented by

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4. In the case of an inductor

5. Which of the following graphs represents the correct variation of inductive

reactance XL with frequency u?

6. In a pure capacitive circuit if the frequency of ac source is doubled, then its

capacitive reactance will be

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(a) remains same

(b) doubled
(c) halved
(d) zero
7. Which of the following graphs represents the correct variation of capacitive
reactance Xc with frequency v u?

8. In an alternating current circuit consisting of elements in series, the current

increases on increasing the frequency of supply. Which of the following elements are
likely to constitute the circuit?
(a) Only resistor
(b) Resistor and inductor
(c) Resistor and capacitor
(d) Only inductor
9. In which of the following circuits the maximum power dissipation is observed?
(a) Pure capacitive circuit
(b) Pure inductive circuit
(c) Pure resistive circuit
(d) None of these
10. In series LCR circuit, the phase angle between supply voltage and current is

Very Short:

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 ALTERNATING CURRENT
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1. The instantaneous current flowing from an ac source is l = 5 sin 314 t. What is

the rms value of current?
2. The instantaneous emf of an ac source is given by E = 300 sin 314 t. What is the
rms value of emf?
3. Give the phase difference between the applied ac voltage and the current in an
LCR circuit at resonance.
4. What is the phase difference between the voltage across the inductor and the
capacitor in an LCR circuit?
5. What is the power factor of an LCR series circuit at resonance?
6. In India, the domestic power supply is at 220 V, 50 Hz, while in the USA it is 110
V, 50 Hz. Give one advantage and one disadvantage of 220 V supply over 110 V
supply.
7. Define the term ‘wattles current’. (CBSE Delhi 2011)
8. In a series LCR circuit, VL = VC ≠ VR. What is the value of the power factor? (CBSE
AI 2015)
9. Define capacitor reactance. Write its SI units. (CBSE Delhi 2015)
10. Define quality factor in series LCR circuit. What is its SI unit? (CBSE Delhi 2016)
Short Questions:
1. State the phase relationship between the current flowing and the voltage
applied in an ac circuit for (i) a pure resistor (ii) a pure inductor.
2. A light bulb is in turn connected in a series (a) across an LR circuit, (b) across an
RC circuit, with an ac source. Explain, giving the necessary mathematical
formula, the effect on the brightness of the bulb in case (a) and (b), when the
frequency of the ac source is increased. (CBSE 2019C)
3. An air-core solenoid is connected to an ac source and a bulb. If an iron core is
inserted in the solenoid, how does the brightness of the bulb change? Give
reasons for your answer.
4. A bulb and a capacitor are connected in series to an ac source of variable
frequency. How will the brightness of the bulb change on increasing the
frequency of the ac source? Give reason.
5. An ideal inductor is in turn put across 220 V, 50 Hz, and 220 V, 100 Hz supplies.
Will the current flowing through it in the two cases be the same or different?
6. State the condition under which the phenomenon of resonance occurs in a
series LCR circuit, plot a graph showing the variation of current with a frequency
of ac source in a series LCR circuit.

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 ALTERNATING CURRENT
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7. Give two advantages and two disadvantages of ac over dc.

8. In a series, LCR circuit connected to an ac source of variable frequency and
voltage v = vm sin ωt, draw a plot showing the variation of current (l) with
angular frequency (ω) for two different values of resistance R1 and R2 (R 1> R2).
Write the condition under which the phenomenon of resonance occurs. For
which value of the resistance out of the two curves, a sharper resonance is
produced? Define the Q-factor of the circuit and give its significance. (CBSE Delhi
2013C)
Long Questions:
1. Prove mathematically that the average power over a complete cycle of alternating
current through an Ideal inductor is zero.
2. Draw the phasor diagram of a series LCR connected across an ac source V= V o sin
ωt. Hence, derive the expression for the impedance of the circuit. Obtain the
conditions for the phase angle under which the current is
(i) maximum and
(ii) minimum. (CBSE AI 2019)
Assertion and Reason Question:
1. For two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled
Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c)
and (d) as given below.
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false.
d) A is false and R is also false.
Assertion: A bulb connected in series with a solenoid is connected to A.C. source.
If a soft iron core is introduced in the solenoid, the bulb will glow brighter.
Reason: On introducing soft iron core in the solenoid, the inductance decreases.
2. For two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled
Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c)
and (d) as given below.
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false.
d) A is false and R is also false.

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Assertion: An alternating current shows magnetic effect.

Reason: Magnitude of alternating current varies with time.
Case Study Questions:
1. Step-down transformers are used to decrease or step-down voltages. These are
used when voltages need to be lowered for use in homes and factories. A small town
with a demand of 800kW of electric power at 220V is situated 15km away from an
electric plant generating power at 440V. The resistance of the two wire line carrying
power is 0.5Q per km. The town gets power from the line through a 4000 - 220V step-
down transformer at a sub-station in the town.

(i) The value of total resistance of the wires is:

a) 25Ω
b) 30Ω
c) 35Ω
d) 15Ω
(ii) The line power loss in the form of heat is:
a) 550kW
b) 650kW
c) 600kW
d) 700kW
(iii) How much power must the plant supply, assuming there is negligible power loss
due to leakage?

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 ALTERNATING CURRENT
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a) 600kW
b) 1600kW
c) 500W
d) 1400kW
(iv) The voltage drop in the power line is:
a) 1700V
b) 3000V
c) 2000V
d) 2800V
(v) The total value of voltage transmitted from the plant is:
a) 500V
b) 4000V
c) 3000V
d) 7000V
2. When the frequency of ac supply is such that the inductive reactance and capacitive
reactance become equal, the impedance of the series LCR circuit is equal to the ohmic
resistance in the circuit. Such a series LCR circuit is known as resonant series LCR
circuit and the frequency of the ac supply is known as resonant frequency. Resonance
phenomenon is exhibited by a circuit only if both Land Care present in the circuit. We
cannot have resonance in a RL or RC circuit.
A series LCR circuit with L = 0.12H, C = 480nF, R=23Ω is connected to a 230V variable
frequency supply.

(i) Find the value of source frequency for which current amplitude is maximum.
a) 222.32Hz
b) 550.52Hz
c) 663.48Hz
d) 770Hz
(ii) The value of maximum current is:

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 ALTERNATING CURRENT
07

a) 14.14A
b) 22.52A
c) 50.25A
d) 47.41A
(iii) The value of maximum power is:
a) 2200W
b) 2299.3W
c) 5500W
d) 4700W
(iv) What is the Q-factor of the given circuit?
a) 25
b) 42.21
c) 35.42
d) 21.74
(v) At resonance which of the following physical quantity is maximum?
a) Impedance
b) Current
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) Neither (a) nor (b)
 Answer Key:
Multiple Choice Answers-
1. Answer: b
2. Answer: c
3. Answer: b
4. Answer: b
5. Answer: b
6. Answer: c
7. Answer: c
8. Answer: c
9. Answer: c
10. Answer: a
Very Short Answers:
1. Answer:

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 ALTERNATING CURRENT
07

2. Answer:

3. Answer:
The applied ac voltage and the current in an LCR circuit at resonance are in
phase.
Hence phase difference = 0.
4. Answer: The phase difference is 180°.
5. Answer: The power factor is one.
6. Answer:
Advantage: less power loses
Disadvantage: more fatal.
7. Answer: It is the current at which no power is consumed.
8. Answer: One.
9. Answer: It is the opposition offered to the flow of current by a capacitor. It is
measured in ohm.
10. Answer: The quality factor is defined as the ratio of the voltage developed across
the capacitor or inductor to the applied voltage. It does not have any unit.
Short Questions Answers:
1. Answer:
(i) Electric current and voltage applied in a pure resistor are in same phase, i.e. Φ
= 0°
(ii) Applied voltage leads electric current flowing through pure-inductor in an ac
circuit by phase angle of π/2.
2. Answer:
a) The current in LR circuit is given by

When the frequency of ac source ω increases, l decreases, and hence brightness

decreases.
(b) The current in RC circuit is given by

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 ALTERNATING CURRENT
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When the frequency of ac source ω increases, l increases, and hence brightness

increases.
3. Answer: Insertion of an iron core in the solenoid increases its inductance. This in
turn increases the value of inductive reactance. This decreases the current and
hence the brightness of the bulb.
4. Answer:

5. Answer:

6. Answer: The phenomenon occurs when the inductive reactance becomes equal
to the capacitive reactance., i.e., XL - XC

The graph is as shown below.

7. Answer:
Advantages of ac:
(a) The generation and transmission of ac are more economical than dc.
(b) The alternating voltage may be easily stepped up or down as per need by
using suitable transformers.
Disadvantages of ac:
(a) It is more fatal than dc.
(b) It cannot be used for electrolysis.

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8. Answer:
The plot is as shown.

Resonance occurs in an LCR circuit when

XL = XC.
The smaller the value of R sharper is the resonance. Therefore, the curve will be
sharper for R2. It determines the sharpness of the resonance. The larger the
value of Q sharper is the resonance.
Long Questions Answers:
1. Answer:
Let the instantaneous value of voltage and current in the ac circuit containing a
pure inductor are
V = Vm sin ωt and
l = lm sin (ωt – π/2) = – lm cos ωt
where π/2 is the phase angle by which voltage Leads currently when ac flows
through an inductor. Suppose the voltage and current remain constant for a
small-time dt. Therefore, the electrical energy consumed in the small-time dt is
dW = V l dt
The total electrical energy consumed in one time period of ac is given by

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 ALTERNATING CURRENT
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Therefore, the total electrical energy consumed in an ac circuit by a pure

inductor is W = 0
Now average power is defined as the ratio of the total electrical energy
consumed over the entire cycle to the time period of the cycle, therefore

Hence, the average power consumed in an ac circuit by a pure inductor is P av = 0

Thus, a pure inductor does not consume any power when ac flows through it.
Whatever energy is used in building up current is returned during the decay of
current.
2. Answer:
The voltages across the various elements are drawn as shown in the figure
below.

From the diagram, we observe that the vector sum of the voltage amplitudes VR,
VL, and VC equals a phasor whose length is the maximum applied voltage V m,

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 ALTERNATING CURRENT
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where the phasor Vm makes an angle φ with the current phasor lm. Since the
voltage phasors, VL and VC are in opposite direction, therefore, a difference
phasor (VL - VC) is drawn which is perpendicular to the phasor V R. Adding
vectorially we have

where XL = ω L and XC = 1 / ω C, therefore, we can express the maximum current

as

For maximum lm, Z should be minimum (Z = R) or X C = XL = 0 and Φ = 0

Assertion and Reason Answers:

1. (d) A is false and R is also false.
Explanation:
On introducing soft iron core, the bulb will glow dimmer. This is because on
introducing soft iron core in the solenoid, its inductance L increases, the inductive
reactance, XL = WL increases and hence the current through the bulb decreases.
2. (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Explanation:
Like direct current, an alternating current also produces magnetic field. But the
magnitude and direction of the field goes on changing continuously with lime.
Case Study Answers:
1. Answer :
(i) (d) 15Ω
Explanation:
Ω
Resistance of the two wire lines carrying power = 0.5
Km

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 ALTERNATING CURRENT
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Total resistance = (15 + 15)0.5 = 15Ω

(ii) (c) 600kW
Explanation:
Line power loss = I2R
RMS current in the coil,

∴ Power loss = (200)2 × 15 = 600kW

(iii) (d) 1400kW
Explanation:
Assuming that the power loss is negligible due to the leakage of the current.
The total power supplied by the plant,
= 800kW + 600kW = 1400kW
(iv) (b) 3000V
Explanation:
Voltage drop in the power line = IR
= 200 × 15 = 3000V
(v) (d) 7000V
Explanation:
Total voltage transmitted from the plant,
= 3000V + 4000V = 7000V
2. Answer :

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CHAPTER 8: ELECTROMAGNETIC WAVES
 ELECTROMAGNETIC WAVES
08

ELECTROMAGNETIC WAVES
Displacement Current:

The current which comes into play m the region in which the electric field and the
electric flux is changing with time. It is given by

dϕE
ID = ε0
dt
Ampere-Maxwell Law:

∮ B 0 =. dl = μ0 (I + ID )
Where, μ0 = Permeability

= 4π × 10−7 V /Am

Maxwell’s Equations:
Maxwell’s equations relate electric field E and magnetic field B and their sources which
are electric charges and current. In free space Maxwell’s equations are as follows.
q
1. ∮ ⃗E . ⃗⃗⃗⃗
ds =
ε0

This equation represents Gauss’s law in electrostatics.

2. ∮ ⃗B. ⃗⃗⃗⃗
ds = 0
This equation is considered as Gauss’s law in magnetism. It states that net
magnetic flux passing through a closed surface is zero.

dϕ
3. ∮ ⃗E. ⃗⃗⃗
dl =
dt
This equation is Faraday’s law of electromagnetic induction. This law relates
electric field with changing magnetic flux.

4. ∮ ⃗B. ⃗⃗⃗
dl = μ0 (Ic + Id )
This equation represents Ampere-Maxwell’s law or generalized from of Ampere's law.

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 ELECTROMAGNETIC WAVES
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Electromagnetic Waves:
An electromagnetic wave is a wave radiated by an accelerated or oscillatory charge in
which varying magnetic field is the source of electric field and varying electric field is
the source of magnetic field. Thus, two fields become source of each other, and the
wave propagates in a direction perpendicular to both the fields.

Electromagnetic waves are transverse in nature, i.e., electric and magnetic fields are
perpendicular to each other and to the direction of wave propagation. Electromagne-tic
waves are not. deflected by electric and magnetic fields.

Sources of electromagnetic waves:

1. An electric charge at rest produces only electrostatic field around it.

2. A charge moving with uniform velocity produces both electric and magnetic field,
here magnetic field does not change with time hence it does not produce time
varying electric field.
3. An accelerating charge produces both electric field and magnetic field which
varies with space and time which forms electromagnetic wave.
4. An accelerating charge emits electromagnetic wave of same frequency as
frequency of accelerating charge.
5. An electron orbiting around its nucleus in a stationary orbit does not emit
electromagnetic wave. It will emit only during transition from higher energy orbit
to lower energy orbit.
6. Electromagnetic wave (X-ray) is produced when high speed electron enters into
target of high atomic weight.
7. Electromagnetic wave (γ-rays) is produced during de-excitation of nucleus in
radioactivity.

Electromagnetic Spectrum:
The orderly distribution of electromagnetic radiations according to their frequency (or
wavelength) is called electromagnetic spectrum. Maxwell predicted the existence of
electromagnetic wave. Electromagnetic wave experimentally discovered by Hertz.

At the end of nineteenth century, visible light, ultraviolet, infrared, X-rays and γ-rays

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 ELECTROMAGNETIC WAVES
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had also been discovered.

We now know that electromagnetic waves include:

 γ-rays
 X-ray
 Ultraviolet rays
 Visible light
 Infrared
 Microwaves
 Radio waves.

Greenhouse Effect:
The greenhouse effect is a natural process that warms the Earth’s surface. When the
Sun’s energy reaches the Earth’s atmosphere, some of it is reflected to space and the
rest is absorbed and re-radiated by greenhouse gases. Greenhouse gases include
water vapour, carbon dioxide, methane, nitrous oxide, ozone, and some artificial
chemicals such as chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs).

Maxwell’s Experiments:
 Maxwell claimed that time-varying electric fields can generate magnetic fields.
 On the other hand, Faraday-Lenz law claims that a time varying magnetic field
generates an electric field.
 According to Faraday-Lenz law, an EMF is induced in a circuit whenever the
amount of magnetic flux linked with that circuit changes.
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 ELECTROMAGNETIC WAVES
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 As a result, electric current gets generated in the circuit which has an electric
field associated with it.
 Now, when Maxwell came across this, he claimed that the vice-versa must also
be true, i.e., a time varying electric field must also be able to generate a magnetic
field.

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 ELECTROMAGNETIC WAVES
08

Important Questions
Multiple Choice questions-
1. Maxwell in his famous equations of electromagnetism introduced the concept of
(a) ac current
(b) displacement current
(c) impedance
(d) reactance
2. The conduction current is same as displacement current when source is
(a) ac only
(b) dc only
(c) either ac or dc
(d) neither dc nor ac
3. If a variable frequency ac source is connected to a capacitor, then with decrease in
frequency the displacement current will
(a) increase
(b) decrease
(c) remains constant
(d) first decrease then increase
4. An electromagnetic wave can be produced, when charge is
(a) moving with a constant velocity
(b) moving in a circular orbit
(c) falling in an electric field
(d) both (b) and (c)
5. Which of the following statement is false for the properties of electromagnetic
waves?
(a) Both electric and magnetic field vectors attain the maxima and minima at the
same place and same time.
(b) The energy in electromagnetic waves is divided equally between electric and
magnetic field vectors.
(c) Both electric and magnetic field vectors are parallel to each other and
perpendicular to the direction of propagation of wave.

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 ELECTROMAGNETIC WAVES
08

(d) These waves do not require any material medium for propagation.
6. Which of the following has/have zero average value in a plane electromagnetic
wave?
(a) Both magnetic and electric fields
(b) Electric field only
(c) Magnetic field only
(d) None of these
7. A charged particle oscillates about its mean equilibrium position with a frequency
of 109 Hz. The frequency of electromagnetic waves produced by the oscillator is
(a) 106 Hz
(b) 107 Hz
(c) 108 Hz
(d) 109 Hz
8. If E and B denote electric and magnetic fields respectively, which of the following is
dimensionless?

9. The ultra-high frequency band of radio waves in electromagnetic wave is used as in

(a) television waves
(b) cellular phone communication
(c) commercial FM radio
(d) both (a) and (c)
10. The waves used by artificial satellites for communication is
(a) microwaves
(b) infrared waves
(c) radio waves
(d) X-rays
Very Short:
1. Name the part of the electromagnetic spectrum which has the longest
wavelength and write its one use. (CBSE 2019C)

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 ELECTROMAGNETIC WAVES
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2. The small ozone layer on the top of the stratosphere is crucial for human survival.
Why?
3. Name the part of the electromagnetic spectrum which is used in the
“greenhouse” to keep plants warm.
4. How are radio waves produced? (CBSE AI 2011)
5. How are X-rays produced? (CBSE Al 2011)
6. How are microwaves produced? (CBSE AI 2011)
7. A plane electromagnetic wave travels in a vacuum along the z-direction. What
can you say about the direction of electric and magnetic field vectors? (CBSE Delhi
2011)
8. What is the frequency of electromagnetic waves produced by the oscillating
charge of frequency v? (CBSE Delhi 2011C)
9. What are the directions of electric and magnetic field vectors relative to each
other and relative to the direction of propagation of electromagnetic waves? (CBSE
AI 2012)
10. Welders wear special goggles or face masks with glass windows to protect their
eyes from electromagnetic radiation. Name the radiations and write the range of
their frequency. (CBSE Al 2013)
Short Questions:
1. Radio waves and gamma rays both are transverse in nature and electromagnetic
in character and have the same speed in a vacuum. In what respect are they
different?
2. Show that the average energy density of the electric field equals the average
density of the magnetic field.
3. State four properties of electromagnetic waves.
4. Electromagnetic radiations with wavelength
(a) λ1 are used to kill germs in water purifiers.
(b) λ2 are used in TV communication systems.
(c) λ3 plays an important role in maintaining the earth’s warmth.
Name the part of the electromagnetic spectrum to which these radiations belong.
Arrange these wavelengths in decreasing order of their magnitude.
5. Name the constituent radiation of the electromagnetic spectrum which
(a) is used in satellite communication.
(b) is used for studying crystal structure.

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 ELECTROMAGNETIC WAVES
08

(c) is similar to the radiations emitted during the decay of a radioactive nucleus.
(d) is absorbed from sunlight by the ozone layer.
(e) produces an intense heating effect.
(f) has its wavelength range between 390 nm and 770 nm.
6. Name the radiations of the electromagnetic spectrum which are used in
(a) warfare to look through the haze.
(b) radar and geostationary satellites
(c) studying the structure and properties of atoms and molecules.
7. Why are microwaves used in RADAR?
8. Electromagnetic waves with wavelength
(a) λ1 are used to treat muscular strain.
(b) λ2 are used by an FM radio station for broadcasting.
(c) λ3 are used to detect fractures in bones.
(d) λ4 are absorbed by the ozone layer of the atmosphere.
Identify and name the part of the electromagnetic spectrum to which these
radiations belong. Arrange
these wavelengths in decreasing order of magnitude.
Long Questions:
1. Answer the following:
(a) Name the em waves which are used for the treatment of certain forms of cancer.
Write their frequency
(b) Thin ozone layer on top of the stratosphere is crucial for human survival. Why?
(c) An em wave exerts pressure on the surface on which it is incident. Justify. (CBSE
Delhi 2014)
2. Answer the following questions:
(a) Why is the thin ozone layer at the top of the stratosphere crucial for human
survival? Identify to which part of the electromagnetic spectrum does this radiation
belongs and write one important application of the radiation.
(b) Why are infrared waves referred to as heat rays? How are they produced? What
role do they play in maintaining the earth’s warmth through the greenhouse effect?
(CBSE Delhi 2015C)
Assertion and Reason Questions-
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 ELECTROMAGNETIC WAVES
08

1. Two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason
(R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as
given below.
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false.
d) A is false and R is also false.
Assertion: Electromagnetic waves exert pressure called radiation pressure.
Reason: Electromagnetic waves carries energy.
2. Two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason
(R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as
given below.
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false.
d) A is false and R is also false.
Assertion: When a charged particle moves in a circular path. It produces
electromagnetic wave.
Reason: Charged particle has acceleration.
Case study Questions-
1. Radio waves are produced by the accelerated motion of charges in conducting
wires. Microwaves are produced by special vacuum tubes. Infrared waves are
produced by hot bodies and molecules also known as heat waves. UV rays are
produced by special lamps and very hot bodies like Sun.
(i) Solar radiation is:
a) Transverse electromagnetic wave.
b) Longitudinal electromagnetic waves.
c) Both longitudinal and transverse electromagnetic waves.
d) None of these.
(ii) What is the cause of greenhouse effect?
a) Infrared rays.
b) Ultraviolet rays
c) X-rays.
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 ELECTROMAGNETIC WAVES
08

d) Radiowaves.
(iii) Biological importance of ozone layer is:
a) It stops ultraviolet rays.
b) It layer reduces greenhouse effect.
c) It reflects radiowaves.
d) None of these.
(iv) Ozone is found in.
a) Stratosphere.
b) Ionosphere.
c) Mesosphere.
d) Troposphere.
(v) Earth's atmosphere is richest in.
a) Ultraviolet.
b) Infrared.
c) X-rays.
d) Microwave.
2. Electrons oscillating in a circuit give rise to radiowaves. A transmitting antenna
radiates most effectively the radiowaves of wavelength equal to the size of the
antenna. The infrared waves incident on a substance set into oscillation all its
electrons, atoms and molecules. This increases the internal energy and hence the
temperature of the substance.
(i) If vg, vx and vm are the speeds of gamma rays, X-rays and microwaves
respectively in vacuum, the
a) vg >vx >vm
b) vg < vx <vm
c) vg >vx >vm
d) vg = vx = vm
(ii) Which of the following wi II deflect in electric field?
a) X-rays.
b) γ−rays.
c) Cathode rays.
d) Ultraviolet rays.

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 ELECTROMAGNETIC WAVES
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(iii) γ−rays are detected by:

a) Point contact diodes.
b) Thennopiles.
c) Ionization chamber.
d) Photocells.
(iv) The frequency of electromagnetic wave, which best suited to observe a
particle ofradius 3 × 10-4cm is the order of,
a) 1015Hz
b) 1014 Hz
c) 1013Hz
d) 1012Hz
(v) We consider the radiation emitted by the human body. Which one of the
following statements is true?
a) The radiation emitted is in the infrared region.
b) The radiation is emitted only during the day.
c) The radiation is emitted during the summers and absorbed during the
winters.
d) The radiation emitted lies in the ultraviolet region and hence it is not
visible.
Answer Key:
Multiple Choice Answers-
1. Answer: b
2. Answer: c
3. Answer: b
4. Answer: d
5. Answer: c
6. Answer: a
7. Answer: d
8. Answer: a
9. Answer: b
10. Answer: a

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 ELECTROMAGNETIC WAVES
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Very Short Answers:

1. Answer:
 In the electromagnetic spectrum, long radio waves have the longest
wavelength.
 Radio waves are used in communication systems.
2. Answer: The ozone layer absorbs the ultraviolet rays, emitted by the sun, which
are harmful to the living tissues of human beings.
3. Answer: Infrared rays.
4. Answer: They are produced by rapid acceleration and decelerations of electrons
in aerials.
5. Answer: By the transition of inner-shell electrons.
6. Answer: By using a magnetron.
7. Answer: The electric and magnetic field vectors will be along the x and y
directions.
8. Answer: The frequency of electromagnetic waves produced by the oscillating
charge of frequency v is also v.
9. Answer: The three are mutually perpendicular to one other.
10. Answer: UV radiations, 1015 to 1017 Hz.
Short Questions Answers:
1. Answer: The radio waves have an atomic origin, while gamma rays have a
nuclear origin. Further owing to their very small wavelength, gamma rays are
highly penetrating in comparison to radio waves.
2. Answer: The average density of the electric field is given by

3. Answer:
(a) They do not require any material medium to travel.

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 ELECTROMAGNETIC WAVES
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(b) They are transverse in nature, i.e. electric and magnetic fields are
perpendicular to each other and also to the direction of the propagation of the
wave.
(c) The energy of the wave is divided equally amongst the electric and the
magnetic field.
(d) They travel, in free space, with a velocity of 3 × 108 m s-1.
4. Answer:
(a) λ1 – Ultraviolet radiations.
(b) λ2 – Microwaves
(c) λ3 – Infrared rays
Their order is λ1< λ3< λ2.
5. Answer:
(a) Microwaves.
(b) X-rays
(c) Gamma rays
(d) UV rays
(e) Infrared rays
(f) Visible light.
6. Answer:
(a) Infrared rays
(b) Microwaves.
(c) Gamma rays.
7. Answer: Microwaves are electromagnetic waves of very short wavelength. Such
waves are used in RADAR due to the reason that they can travel in a particular
direction in the form of a beam without being deflected.
8. Answer:
(a) Infrared radiations are used to treat muscular strain.
(b) Radio and microwave radiations are used for FM transmission.
(c) X-rays are used to detect fractures in bones.
(d) Ultraviolet radiation is absorbed by the ozone layer of the atmosphere.
The decreasing order of their wavelength is
λ2> λ1> λ4> λ3.

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Long Questions Answers:

1. Answer:
(a) Gamma rays.
Frequency range > 3 × 1020 Hz
(b) The thin ozone layer on top of the stratosphere is crucial for human survival
because it absorbs most of the ultraviolet rays coming from the sun. If the ozone
layer had not been there, then ultraviolet rays would have entered the earth and
caused danger to the survival of the human race.
(c) An em wave carries a linear momentum with it. The linear momentum
carried by a portion of a wave having energy U is given by p = U/c.
Thus, if the wave incident on a material surface is completely absorbed, it
delivers energy U and momentum p = U/c to the surface. If the wave is totally
reflected, the momentum delivered is p = 2U/c because the momentum of the
wave changes from p to – p. Therefore, it follows that an em wave incident on a
surface exerts a force and hence a pressure on the surface.
2. Answer:
(a) The thin ozone layer on top of the stratosphere is crucial for human survival
because it absorbs most of the ultraviolet rays coming from the sun. If the ozone
layer had not been there, then ultraviolet rays would have entered the earth and
caused danger to the survival of the human race. This radiation is UV radiation. It
is used in sterilization.
(b) Infrared radiations heat up the material on which they fall, hence they are
also called heat rays. They are produced by the vibration of atoms and
molecules. After falling on the earth, they are reflected back into the earth’s
atmosphere. The earth’s atmosphere does not allow these radiations to pass
through as such they heat up the earth’s atmosphere.
Assertion and Reason Answers-
1. (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Explanation:
Electromagnetic waves transport linear momentum as well as energy. When
electromagnetic waves strike a surface, a pressure is exerted on the surface. If the
intensity of wave is I, the radiation pressure P (force per unit area) exerted on the
I
perfectly absorbing surface is p = .
c
2. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
Explanation:
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Accelerated charges radiate electromagnetic waves.

Case Study Answers-
1. Answer :
(i) (a) Transverse electromagnetic wave.
(ii) (a) Infrared rays.
Explanation:
Greenhouse effect is due to infrared rays.
(iii) (a) It stops ultraviolet rays.
Explanation:
Ozone layer absorbs the harmful ultraviolet radiations coming from the sun.
(iv) (a) Stratosphere.
Explanation:
Ozone layer lies in stratosphere.
(v) (b) Infrared.
Explanation:
Heatmosphere of earth is richest in infrared radiation.
2. Answer :
(i) (d) vg = vx = vm
Explanation:
All electromagnetic waves travel in vacuum with the same speed.
(ii) (c) Cathode rays.
Explanation:
Cathode rays (beamofelectrons) get deflected in an electric field.
(iii) (c) Ionization chamber.
Explanation:
γ−rays are detected by ionization chamber.
(iv) (b) 1014Hz
Explanation:

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(v) (a) The radiation emitted is in the infrared region.

Explanation:
Every body at a temperature T > 0 K emits radiation in the infrared region.

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CHAPTER 9: RAY OPTICS AND OPTICAL INSTRUMENTS
 RAY OPTICS AND OPTICAL INSTRUMENTS
09

RAY OPTICS AND OPTICAL INSTRUMENTS

Ray Optics or Geometrical Optics:

In this optics, the light is considered as a ray which travels in a straight line. It states
that for each and every object, there is an image.

Reflection of Light:
The phenomenon in which a light ray is sent back into the same medium from which it
is coming, on interaction with a boundary, is called reflection. The boundary can be a
rigid surface or just an interface between two media.

Law of reflection:

The angle of reflection equals the angle of incidence ∠i = ∠r.

The incident ray reflected ray and the normal to the reflecting surface at the point of
incidence lie in the same plane.

Formation of Image by the Plane Mirror:

The formation of image of a point object O by a plane mirror is represented in figure.

The image formed I has the following characteristics:

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 The size of image is equal to the size of object.

 The object distance = Image distance i.e., OM = MI.
 The image is virtual and erect.
 When a mirror is rotated through a certain angle, the reflected ray is rotated
through twice this angle.

Spherical Mirrors:
A spherical mirror is a part of sphere. If one of the surfaces is silvered, the other surface
acts as the reflecting surface. When convex face is silvered, and the reflecting surface is
concave, the mirror is called a concave mirror. When its concave face is silvered and
convex face is the reflecting face, the mirror is called a convex mirror.

 Centre of curvature: Centre of curvature is the center of sphere of which, the

mirror is a part.

 Radius of curvature: Radius of curvature is the radius of sphere of which, the

mirror is a part.

 Pole of mirror: Pole is the geometric center of the mirror.

 Principal axis: Principal axis is the line passing through the pole and center of
curvature.

 Normal: Any line joining the mirror to its center of curvature is normal.

Reflection of Light from Spherical Mirror:

1. A spherical mirror is a part cut from a hollow sphere.

2. They are generally constructed from glass.
3. The reflection at spherical mirror also takes place in accordance with the laws of
reflection.

Refraction of light:

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Refraction is the bending of a wave when it passes from one medium to another. The
bending is caused due to the differences in density between the two substances.

“Refraction is the change in the direction of a wave passing from one medium to another.”

Laws of Refraction:

Two laws of refraction are given as below:

 The incident ray, refracted ray and the normal to the refracting surface at the
point of incidence lie in the same plane.

 The ratio of the sine of the angle of incidence to the sine of the angle of
refraction is constant for the two-given media. This constant is denoted by n and
is called the relative refractive index.
sin i
n= (snell’s law)
sin r

where, n is refractive index of the second medium when first medium is air.

Sign Convention:
Following sign conventions are the new cartesian sign convention:

 All distances are measured from the pole of the mirror & the distances
measured in the direction of the incident light is taken as positive. In other
words, the distances measured toward the right of the origin are positive.

 The distance measured against the direction of the incident light are taken as
negative. In other words, the distances measured towards the left of origin are
taken as negative.

 The distance measured in the upward direction, perpendicular to the principal

axis of the mirror, are taken as positive & the distances measured in the
downward direction are taken as negative.

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Focal Length of Spherical Mirrors:

When a parallel beam of light is incident on a concave mirror, and a convex mirror. The
rays are incident at points close to the pole P of the mirror and make small angles with
the principal axis. The reflected rays converge at a point F on the principal axis of a
concave mirror. For a convex mirror, the reflected rays appear to diverge from a point F
on its principal axis.

The point F is called the principal focus of the mirror. The distance between the focus F
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and the pole P of the mirror is called the focal length of the mirror, denoted by f.

If, R be the radius of curvature of the mirror then relation between R and f is given by
R
f=
2
Principal Axis of the Mirror:

The straight line joining the pole and the centre of curvature of spherical mirror
extended on both sides is called principal axis of the mirror.

Mirror Formula:
1 1 1
= +
f u v
Where u = distance of the object from the pole of mirror

v = distance of the image from the pole of mirror

f = focal length of the mirror

R
f = Where R is the radius of curvature of the mirror.
2

Lens:
Lens is a transparent medium bounded by two surfaces of which one or both surfaces
are spherical.

Lens Formula:

Lens formula relates the distance of object from the lens with distance of image from
the lens. It is given by.
1 1 1
= −
f v u
Where, u = object distance

v = image distance

f = focal length

Lens Maker’s Formula:

Lens Maker’s formula gives the focal length of a lens in terms of the nature of the
surfaces by which the lens is bounded and the nature of material of the lens.

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Let us consider the situation shown in figure. C 1 and C2 are the centers of curvature of
two spherical surfaces of the thin lens. O is the object and I' is the image due to first
refraction. Let radii of curvature be R1 and R2.

For the first refraction at image distance is v1. From the formula for refraction at a
curved surface, we get
n2 n1 n2 − n1
= = … . (i)
v1 u R1

Final image position is I, which is also the image due to second refraction. Let this image
distance be v. For the second refraction, v1 becomes the object distance. Hence we get,
n1 n2 n1 − n2
= = … . (ii)
v v1 R2

Adding (i) and (ii), we get

n1 n1 1 1
( − ) = (n2 − n1 ) ( − )
v u R1 R 2
1 1 n2 1 1
− = ( − 1) ( − )
v u n1 R1 R 2
1 1 1 1
− = (n − 1) ( − )
v u R1 R 2

According to the definition of the focal length f

1 1 1
= (n − 1) ( − )
f R1 R 2

This is called the “Lens Maker’s formula”.

Power of Lens:

The ability of a lens to converge or diverge the rays of light incident on it is called the
power of the lens.

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1
P=
f(in m)

SI unit of power lens = dioptre (D) = m-1

Prism:
prism, in optics, piece of glass or other transparent material cut with precise angles and
plane faces, useful for analyzing and reflecting light. An ordinary triangular prism can
separate white light into its constituent colors, called a spectrum. Each color, or
wavelength, making up the white light is bent, or refracted, a different amount; the
shorter wavelengths (those toward the violet end of the spectrum) are bent the most,
and the longer wavelengths (those toward the red end of the spectrum) are bent the
least. Prisms of this kind are used in certain spectroscopes, instruments for analyzing
light and for determining the identity and structure of materials that emit or absorb
light.

Dispersion: When white light is incident on a prism, different colors having different
wavelengths suffer different deviations. The phenomenon of splitting of light into its
component colors is known as dispersion. The pattern of color components of light
(VIBGYOR) is called the spectrum of light. The deviation produced by a thin prism
depends on the refractive index.

Angular Dispersion: Angular dispersion produced by a prism for white light is the
difference in the angles of deviation for two extreme colors i.e., violet and red. It is
given by.

θ = δV − δR

θ = (nV − nR )A

Dispersive Power: Dispersive power of a prism is defined as the ratio of angular

dispersion to the mean deviation produced by the prism.
δV − δR
ω=
δY

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 RAY OPTICS AND OPTICAL INSTRUMENTS
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Optical Instruments:
Optical instruments are the devices which help human eye in observing highly
magnified images of tiny objects, for detailed examination and in observing very far
objects whether terrestrial or astronomical.

The Eye: Light enters the eye through cornea a curved front surface. It passes through
the pupil which is the central hole in the iris. The size of pupil can change under control
of muscles. The light is further focused by the eye lens on the retina. The retina is a film
of nerve fibers covering the curved black surface of the eye. The retina contains rods
and cones which sense light intensity and color respectively and transmit electrical
signals via the optic nerve to the brain.

The shape (curvature) and therefore the focal length of the lens can be modified
somewhat by ciliary muscles. So, images are formed at the retina for objects at all
distances. This property of the eye is called accommodation.

The closest distance for which the eye lens can focus light on the retina is called the
least distance of distinct vision or the near point. The standard value for normal vision is
taken as 25cm (Symbol D). If the object is too close to eye; the lens cannot curve
enough to focus the image on the retina, and the image is blurred.

The microscope: A simple magnifier or microscope is a converging lens of small focal

length. The lens nearest the object, called the objective, forms a real, inverted,
magnified image of the object. This serves as the object for the second lens, the
eyepiece, which functions essentially like a simple microscope or magnifier, producing
an enlarged virtual final image.

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 RAY OPTICS AND OPTICAL INSTRUMENTS
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The first inverted image is thus near (at or within) the focal point of the eyepiece, at a
distance appropriate for final image formation at infinity, or a little closer for image
formation at the near point. Clearly, the final image is inverted with respect to the
original object.

Magnification power is given by

v0 D D
m= [ + ]
u0 v fe

Telescope:This device is used to observe objects which are far away. However, a
telescope has an objective lens of large aperture and considerable focal length and eye
lens that with a small aperture and focal length.

Magnifying power is given by

1 1
m = −f0 [ + ]
fe v

Reflecting Telescope (Cassegrain telescope):

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 RAY OPTICS AND OPTICAL INSTRUMENTS
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In such telescope, one objective lens is replaced by a concave parabolic mirror of large
aperture, which is free from chromatic and spherical aberrations.

In normal adjustment, magnifying power

R
f0
m= = 2
fe fe

Advantages of taking mirror objectives are:

 There is no chromatic aberration in a mirrors.

 If a parabolic reflecting surface is chosen, spherical aberration is also removed.
 Mechanical support is much less of a problem since a mirror weighs much less
than a lens of equivalent optical quality and can be supported over.
 Entire back surface not just over rim unlike lens.

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 RAY OPTICS AND OPTICAL INSTRUMENTS
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Important Questions

Multiple Choice questions-

1. For a total internal reflection, which of the following is correct?
(a) Light travels from rarer to denser medium.
(b) Light travels from denser to rarer medium.
(c) Light travels in air only.
(d) Light travels in water only.
2. Critical angle of glass is θ2 and that of water is θ2. The critical angle for water and
glass surface would be (μg = 3/2, μw = 4/3).
(a) less than θ2
(b) between θ1 and θ2
(c) greater than θ2
(d) less than θ1
3. Mirage is a phenomenon due to
(a) refraction of light
(b) reflection of light
(c) total internal reflection of light
(d) diffraction of light.
4. A convex lens is dipped in a liquid whose refractive index is equal to the refractive
index of the lens. Then its focal length will
(a) become zero
(b) become infinite
(c) become small, but non-zero
(d) remain unchanged
5. Which of the following forms a virtual and erect image for all positions of the
object?
(a) Concave lens
(b) Concave mirror
(d) Convex mirror
(d) Both (a) and (c)
6. Two lenses of focal lengths 20 cm and – 40 cm are held in contact. The image of an
object at infinity will be formed by the combination at
(a) 10 cm

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 RAY OPTICS AND OPTICAL INSTRUMENTS
09

(b) 20 cm
(c) 40 cm
(d) infinity
7. Two beams of red and violet color are made to pass separately through a prism
(angle of the prism is 60°). In the position of minimum deviation, the angle of
refraction will be
(a) 30° for both the colors
(b) greater for the violet color
(c) greater for the red color
(d) equal but not 30° for both the colors
8. Which of the following colours of white light deviated most when passes through a
prism?
(a) Red light
(b) Violet light
(c) Yellow light
(d) Both (a) and (b)
9. An under-water swimmer cannot see very clearly even in absolutely clear water
because of
(a) absorption of light in water
(b) scattering of light in water
(c) reduction of speed of light in water
(d) change in the focal length of eye lens
10. An astronomical refractive telescope has an objective of focal length 20 m and an
eyepiece of focal length 2 cm. Then
(a) the magnification is 1000
(b) the length of the telescope tube is 20.02 m
(c) the image formed of inverted
(d) all of these
Very Short:
1. When light undergoes refraction at the surface of separation of two media, what
happens to its frequency/wavelength?
2. Define the refractive index.
3. What is the distance between the objective and eyepiece of an astronomical
telescope in its normal adjustment?
4. Name the phenomenon responsible for the reddish appearance of the sun at
sunrise and sunset.

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 RAY OPTICS AND OPTICAL INSTRUMENTS
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5. What are the two main considerations that have to be kept in mind while
designing the ‘objective’ of an astronomical telescope?
6. Under what condition does a biconvex lens of glass having a certain refractive
index act as a plane glass sheet when immersed in a liquid? (CBSE Delhi 2012)
7. Write the relationship between the angle of incidence ‘i’, angle of prism ‘A’ and
angle of minimum deviation for a triangular prism. (CBSE Delhi 2013)
8. Why can’t we see clearly through the fog? Name the phenomenon responsible
for it. (CBSE Al 2016)
9. How does the angle of minimum deviation of a glass prism vary if the incident
violet light is replaced by red light? Give reason. (CBSE AI 2017)
10. The objective lenses of two telescopes have the same apertures but their focal
lengths are in the ratio 1: 2. Compare the resolving powers of the two
telescopes. (CBSE AI 2017C)
Short Questions:
1. The aperture of the objective lens of an astronomical telescope is doubled. How
does it affect
(i) the resolving power of the telescope and
(ii) the intensity of the image? (CBSE Sample Paper 2018-19)
2. How does the resolving power of a compound microscope change on (a)
decreasing the wavelength of light used, and (b) decreasing the diameter of the
objective lens?
3. The layered lens shown in the figure is made of two kinds of glass. How many
and what kinds of images will be produced by this lens with a point source
placed on the optic axis? Neglect the reflection of light at the boundaries
between the layers.
4. Monochromatic light is refracted from air into a glass of refractive index n. Find
the ratio of wavelengths of the incident and refracted light.
5. Draw a labelled ray diagram to show the image formation in a compound
microscope.
6. A ray of light while travelling from a denser to a rarer medium undergoes total
internal reflection. Derive the expression for the critical angle in terms of the
speed of light in the two media.
7. Draw a labelled diagram for a refracting type astronomical telescope. How will
its magnifying power be affected by increasing for its eyepiece (a) the focal
length and (,b) the aperture? Justify your answer. Write two drawbacks of
refracting type telescopes. (CBSE Sample Paper 2018-19)
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 RAY OPTICS AND OPTICAL INSTRUMENTS
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8. Draw a labelled ray diagram of a Newtonian type reflecting telescope. Write any
one advantage over refracting type telescope.
Long Questions:
1. Draw a labelled ray diagram to show the image formation in a refracting type of
astronomical telescope. Obtain an expression for the angular magnifying power
and the length of the tube of an astronomical telescope in its ‘normal adjustment’
position. Why should the diameter of the objective of a telescope be large?
2. Draw a ray diagram to show the formation of an erect image of an object kept in
front of a concave mirror. Hence deduce the mirror formula. (CBSE 2019C)
Assertion and Reason Questions:
1. Two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason
(R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as
given below.
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false.
d) A is false and R is also false.
Assertion: If optical density ofa substance is more than that of water, then the mass
density of substance can be less than water.
Reason: Optical density and mass density are not related.
2. Two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason
(R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as
given below.
a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c. A is true but R is false.
d. A is false and R is also false.
Assertion: A single lens produces a coloured image of an object illuminated by white
light.
Reason: The refractive index of the material of lens is different for different
wavelengths of light.
Case Study Questions:
1. An optical fibre is a thin tube of transparent material that allows light to pass
through, without being refracted into the air or another external medium. It make use
of total internal reflection. These fibres are fabricated in such a way that light

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 RAY OPTICS AND OPTICAL INSTRUMENTS
09

reflected at one side of the inner surface strikes the other at an angle larger than
critical angle. Even, if fibre is bent, light can easily travel along the length.

(i) Which of the following is based on the phenomenon of total internal reflection
of light?
a. Sparkling of diamond.
b. Optical fibre communication.
c. Instrument used by doctors for endoscopy.
d. All of these.
(ii) A ray of light will undergo total internal reflection inside the optical fibre, if it.
a. Goes from rarer medium to denser medium.
b. Is incident at an angle less than the critical angle.
c. Strikes the interface normally.
d. Is incident at an angle greater than the critical angle.
(iii) If in core, angle of incidence is equal to critical angle, then angle of refraction
will be.
a. 0º
b. 45º
c. 90º
d. 180º
(iv) In an optical fibre (shown), correct relation for refractive indices of core and
cladding is:

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 RAY OPTICS AND OPTICAL INSTRUMENTS
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a. n1 = n2
b. n1 > n2
c. n1 < n2
d. n1 + n2 = 2
(v) If the value of critical angle is 300 for total internal reflection from given optical
fibre, then speed of light in that fibre is:
a. 3 × 108ms-1
b. 1.5 × 108ms-1
c. 6 × 108ms-1
d. 4.5 × 108ms-1
2. An astronomical telescope is an optical instrument which is used for observing
distinct images of heavenly bodies libe stars, planets etc. It consists of two lenses. In
normal adjustment of telescope, the final image is formed at infinity. Magnifying
power of an astronomical telescope in normal adjustment is defined as the ratio of the
angle subtended at the eye by the angle subtended at the eye by the final image to
the angle subtended at the eye, by the object directly, when the final image and the
𝑓
object both lie at infinite distance from the eye. It is given by,𝑚 = 0 . To increase
𝑓𝑔
magnifying power of an astronomical telescope in normal adjustment, focal length of
objective lens should be large and focal length of eye lens should be small.
(i) An astronomical telescope of magnifying power 7 consists of the two thin lenses
40cm apart, in normal adjustment. The focal lengths of the lenses are
a) 5cm, 35cm
b) 7cm, 35cm
c) 17cm, 35cm
d) 5cm, 30cm
(ii) An astronomical telescope has a magnifying power of 10. In normal adjustment,
distance between the objective and eye piece is 22cm. The focal length of
objective lens is:
a) 25cm
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09

b) 10cm
c) 15cm
d) 20cm
(iii) In astronomical telescope compare to eye piece, objective lens has:
a) Negative focal length.
b) Zero focal length.
c) Small focal length.
d) Large focal length.
(iv) To see stars, use:
a) Simple microscope.
b) Compound microscope.
c) Endoscope.
d) Astronomical telescope.
(v) For large magnifying power of astronomical telescope.
a) f0 <<fe
b) f0 <<fe
c) f0 <<fe
d) None of these.

 Answer Key:
Multiple Choice Answers-
1. Answer: b
2. Answer: c
3. Answer: c
4. Answer: b
5. Answer: d
6. Answer: c
7. Answer: a
8. Answer: b
9. Answer: d

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10. Answer: d
Very Short Answers:
1. Answer: There is no change in its frequency, but its wavelength changes.
2. Answer: The Refractive index of a medium is defined as the ratio of the speed of
light in a vacuum to the speed of light in the given medium.
3. Answer: Distance between objective and eyepiece of telescope = f o + fe
4. Answer: Atmospheric refraction.
5. Answer: Two main considerations are
 Large light gathering power
 Higher resolution (or resolving power)
6. Answer: When the refractive index of the liquid is equal to the refractive index of
a glass of which the lens is made.
7. Answer: 2i = A + δm
8. Answer: Because it scatters light. Scattering of light.
1
9. Answer: It decreases as δm∝
λ
10. Answer: Same as resolving power does not depend upon the focal length of
lenses.
Short Questions Answers:
1. Answer:
𝐷
The resolving power of a telescope is given by the expression .
1.22λ
(i) When the aperture of the objective lens is increased, the resolving power of
the telescope increases in the same ratio.
(ii) The intensity of the image is given by the expression β ∝ D2, thus when the
aperture is doubled, the intensity of the image becomes four times.
2. Answer:
2nsinθ
The resolving power of a microscope is given by the expression RP =
λ
(a) If the wavelength of the incident tight is decreased, the resolving power of
the microscope increases.
(b)There is no effect of the decrease in the diameter of the objective on the
resolving power of the microscope.

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3. Answer: Two images will be formed as the lens may be thought of, as two
separate lenses of different focal lengths. The images will be surrounded by
bright halos.
4. Answer: Using the relation λ1n1 = λ2n2 we have
λ1
=n
λ2

5. Answer: The labelled diagram is as shown.

6. Answer:
Snell’s law can be used to find the critical angle. Now Snell’s law, when the ray
moves from denser medium ‘b’ to rarer medium ‘a’, is given by

𝑐
Now we know that n = , substituting in the above relation we have
𝑣
𝑐 1 𝑣
= or sin ic =
𝑣 𝑠𝑖𝑛ic 𝑐

7. Answer: The labelled diagram of the telescope is as shown in the figure.

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 RAY OPTICS AND OPTICAL INSTRUMENTS
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𝑓
(a) The magnifying power of a telescope is given by M = 𝑜 . If the focal length of
𝑓𝑒
the eyepiece is increased, it will decrease the magnifying power of the
telescope.
(b) Magnifying power does not depend upon the aperture of the eyepiece.
Therefore, there is no change in the magnifying power if the aperture of the
eyepiece is increased.
Drawbacks:
 Large-sized lenses are heavy and difficult to support.
 Large-sized lenses suffer from chromatic and spherical aberration.
8. Answer: The labelled diagram is shown below.

Due to the large aperture of the mirror as compared to a lens the image formed
is much brighter than that formed by a refracting type of telescope.
Long Questions Answers:
1. Answer:
A labelled diagram of the telescope is shown in the figure.

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The object subtends an angle at the objective and would subtend essentially the
same angle at the unaided eye. Also, since the observers’ eye is placed just to
the right of the focal point f’2, the angle subtended at the eye by the final image
is very nearly equal to the angle β.

The length of the telescope is the distance between the two lenses which is L = f o
+ feThe diameter of the objective of a telescope should be large so that it can
collect more light and image of distant objects is formed clear.
2. Answer:
An object AB is placed between P and F. The course of rays for obtaining erect
image A1B1 of object AB is shown in the figure.

Draw DG ⊥ on the principal axis.

Triangles DGF and A1B1C are similar

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Since Point G is close to P, so GF = PF

Multiplying and dividing both sides by uvf, we get

Assertion and Reason Answers:

1. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
Explanation:
Optical density and mass density are not related to each other. Mass density is mass
per unit volume. It is possible that mass density of an optically denser medium be less
than that of an optically rarer medium (optical density is the ratio of the speed of light
in two media). e.g., turpentine and water. Mass density of turpentine is less than that
of water but its optical density is higher.
2. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
Explanation:
Due to the variation of the refractive index of the material of the lens, the focal length
also varies accordingly. Now as white tight is composed of different colours of light,
each colour will produce its own image based on the focal length for that colour. This
particular phenomenon for a single lens is known as chromatic aberration.

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Case Study Answers:

1. Answer :
(i) (d) All of these.
Explanation:
Total internal reflection is the basis for following phenomenon:
a. Sparkling of diamond.
b. Optical fibre communication.
c. Instrument used by doctors for endoscopy.
(ii) (d) Is incident at an angle greater than the critical angle.
Explanation:
Total internal reflection (TlR) is the phenomenon that involves the reflection of
all the incident light off the boundary. TlR only takes place when both of the
following two conditions are met: The light is in the more denser medium and
approaching the less denser medium.
The angle of incidence is greater than the critical angle.
(iii) (c) 90º
Explanation:
If incidence of angle, i = critical angle C, then angle of refraction, r = 90º
(iv) (b) n1 > n2
Explanation:
In optical fibres, core is surrounded by cladding, where the refractive index of the
material of the core is higher than that of cladding to bound the light rays inside
the core.
(v) (b) 1.5 × 108ms-1
Explanation:

From Snell's law,

Where, C = critical angle = 30º and v1 and v2 are speed of light in medium and
vacuum, respectively. We know that, v2 = 3 × 108ms-1

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2. Answer :

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CHAPTER 10: WAVE OPTICS
 WAVE OPTICS
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WAVE OPTICS
Wave Optics:

Wave optics also called Physical optics deals with the study of various phenomena such
as polarization, diffraction, interference, and other occurrences where ray
approximation of geometric optics cannot be done. Thus, the section of optics that
deals with the behaviour of light and its wave characteristics is said to be wave optics.

Wave Front:
The locus of all those particles which are vibrating in the same phase at any instant is
called wave front. Thus, wave front is a surface having same phase of vibrating particles
at any instant at every point on it.

These are three types:

 Spherical wavefront
 Cylindrical wavefront
 Plane wavefront

Models of Light:
Corpuscular model:According to this model, a luminous body emits a stream of
particles in all directions. The particles are assumed to be very-very tiny. It explained
the laws of reflection and refraction of light at an interface using concepts of elastic
collisions and momentum conservation. Although this law could explain reflection and
refraction, this law could not satisfactorily explain phenomenon like interference,
polarization, and diffraction. In 1637, Descartes gave the corpuscular model of light.

Wave model:The wave theory of light was first put forward by Christian Huygen in
1678. On the basis of his wave theory, Huygen explained satisfactorily the phenomenon
of reflection, refraction and total internal reflection.

Huygens’s Principle:
Huygens’s principle is a geometrical construction, which can be used to obtain new
position of a wave front at a later time from its given position at any instant. Or we can
quote that this principle gives a method gives an idea about how light spreads out in
the medium.

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It is developed on the following assumptions:

 All the points on a given or primary wave front acts as a source of secondary
wavelets, which sends out disturbance in all directions in a similar manner as the
primary light source.

 The new position of the wave front at any instant (called secondary wave front) is
the envelope of the secondary wavelets at that instant.

These two assumptions are known as Huygens principle or Huygens’

construction.

Maxwell’s Electromagnetic Wave Theory:

 Light waves are electromagnetic waves which do not require a material medium
for their propagation.
 Due to transverse nature, light wave undergo polarization.
1
 The velocity of electromagnetic wave in vacuum is c =
μ0 ε0

 The velocity of electromagnetic waves in medium is less than that of light, v<
1 c
cv = =
√μ0 ε0 εr μr √μ0 εr

 The velocity of electromagnetic waves in a medium depend upon the electric and
magnetic properties of the medium.
where, μo = absolute magnetic permeability and
εo = absolute electrical permittivity of free space.
 It failed to explain the phenomenon of photoelectric effect, Compton effect and
Raman effect.

Max Planck’s Quantum Theory:

 Light emits from a source in the form of packets of energy called quanta or
photon.
 The energy of a photon is E = hv, where h is Planck’s constant and v is the
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frequency of light.
 Quantum theory could explain photoelectric effect, Compton effect and Raman
effect.
 Quantum theory failed to explain interference, diffraction and polarization of
light.

The Doppler’s Effect:

When light producing source moves away from the observer the frequency as
measured by the observer will be smaller than that is actually generated by the source.
Astronomers call the increase in wavelength due to Doppler effect as red shift.
When observer moves towards the source or the source moves towards observer, then
apparent wavelength decreases, and visible spectrum appear to be shifted towards
shorter wavelength. Hence, we call this as blue shift.

Coherent and Incoherent Sources of Light:

 Coherent sources:Two sources of light which continuously emit light waves of
same frequency (or wavelength) with a zero or constant phase difference
between them, are called coherent sources. Ex- LASER.
 Incoherent sources: Two sources of light which do not emit light waves with a
constant phase difference are called incoherent sources. Ex- Two different light
sources produce incoherent waves.

Interference of Light Wave:

Interference is the phenomenon in which two waves superpose to form the resultant
wave of the lower, higher or same amplitude. When the crest of one wave falls on the
crest of another wave such that the amplitude is maximum then interference is called
constructive interference. When the crest of one wave falls on the trough of another
wave such that the amplitude is minimum then interference is called destructive
interference.

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Conditions for sustained interference:

 Two sources of light must be coherent.

 The frequencies (or wavelength) of the two waves should be equal.
 The light must be monochromatic.
 The amplitudes of the interfering waves must be equal or nearly equal.
 The two sources must be narrow.

Diffraction: The phenomenon of bending of light around the corners of an obstacle is

called the diffraction of light.

Difference between Diffraction and Interference:

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S. Interference Diffraction
No.
Interference may be defined Diffraction, on the other hand, can
as waves emerging from two be termed as secondary waves that
1. different sources, producing emerge from the different parts of
different wavefronts. the same wave.
The intensity of all the points In diffraction, there is a variance of
2. on maxima is of similar the intensity of positions.
intensity in interference.
It is absolutely dark in the We see a variance in the intensity
3. region of minimum intensity, of interference in diffraction.
in the case of interference.
The width of the fringes in The width of the fringes is not
4. interference is equal in equal in interference.
interference.
The sources are referred to as If the number of sources is more
interference sources if the than to the sources are referred to
5.
number of sources is as few as diffraction sources.
as two sources.

Polarization: If the vibrations of a wave are present in just one direction in a plane
perpendicular to the direction of propagation, the wave is said to be polarized or
plane polarised. The phenomenon of restricting the oscillations of a wave to just one
direction in the transverse plane is called polarization of waves.

Malus' Law: It states that the intensity of plane-polarized light that passes through an
analyzer varies directly with the square of the cosine of the angle between the plane
of the polarizer and the transmission axes of the analyzer.

I = I0 cos 2 θ

Polarizer: A device that polarizes the unpolarized light passed through it is called a
polarizer.

Optical Activity: When plane polarized light passes through a certain substances, the
plane of polarization of the light is rotated about the direction of propagation of light
through a certain angle. This phenomenon is called optical activity or optical rotation
and the substances optically active.

Brewster’s Law:
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According to Brewster’s law, when an unpolarized light is incident on a transparent

substance surface, it experiences maximum plan polarization at the angle of incidence
whose tangent is the refractive index of the substance for the wavelength.

n = tan i (where, i = incident angle)

Double Refraction:

When unpolarized light is incident on a calcite or quartz crystal it splits up into two
refracted rays. one of which follows laws of refraction. called ordinary ray (O-ray) and
other do not follow laws of refraction. called extraordinary ray (E-ray). This
phenomenon is called double refraction.

Dichroism:

Few double refracting crystals have a property of absorbing one of the two refracted
rays and allowing the other to emerge out. This property of crystal is called dichroism.

Polaroid:

It is a polarizing film mounted between two glass plates. It is used to produce

polarized light.

A polaroid is used to avoid glare of light in spectacles.

Uses of Polaroid:

 Polaroids are used in sunglasses. They protect the eyes from glare.
 The polaroid’s are used in window panes of a train and especially of an aero
plane. They help to control the light entering through the window.
 The windshield of an automobile is made of polaroid. Such a mind shield
protects the eyes of the driver of the automobile from the dazzling light of the
approaching vehicles.
 The pictures taken by a stereoscopic camera. When seen with the help of
polarized spectacles, create three-dimensional effect.

Nicol Prism: A Nicol prism is an optical device which is used for producing plane
polarised light and analyzing light the same.

The Nicol prism consists of two calcite crystal cut at 68° with its principal axis joined by
a glue called Canada balsam.

Validity of Ray Optics: By diffraction of light travels, a parallel beam of light travels up
to distances as large as few meters can be broadened.

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Fresnel Distance: The minimum distance a beam of light can travel before its
deviation from straight line path becomes significant/ noticeable is known as Fresnel
distance.

a2
ZF =
λ
As the wavelength of light is very small, the deviation will be also very small, and light
can be assumed as travelling in a straight line.

So, we can neglect broadening of beam due to diffraction up to distances as large as a

few meters, i.e., we can assume that light travels along straight lines and ray optics
can be taken as a limiting case of wave optics.

Therefore, Ray optics can be considered as a limiting case of wave optics.

Resolving Power:

If two point objects are close to each other, images diffraction patterns of those
objects will also be close and overlap each other.

Limit of resolution of the instrument is the minimum distance between two objects
which can be seen separately by the object instrument.
1
Resolving Power (R.P) =
Limit of Revolution

Resolving power of Microscope:

2μ sin θ
R.P. of microscope =
λ

Where D is the aperture of the telescope.

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Important Questions
Multiple Choice questions-
1. The idea of secondary wavelets for the. propagation of a wave was first given by
(a) Newton
(b) Huygens
(c) Maxwell
(d) Fresnel
2. Light propagates rectilinearly, due to
(a) wave nature
(b) wavelengths
(c) velocity
(d) frequency
3. Which of the following is correct for light diverging from a point source?
(a) The intensity decreases in proportion with the distance squared.
(b) The wavefront is parabolic.
(c) The intensity at the wavelength does not depend on the distance.
(d) None of these.
4. The refractive index of glass is 1.5 for light waves of X = 6000 A in vacuum. Its
wavelength in glass is
(a) 2000 Å
(b) 4000 Å
(c) 1000 Å
(d) 3000 Å
5. The phenomena which is not explained by Huygen’s construction of wavefront
(a) reflection
(b) diffraction
(c) refraction
(d) origin of spectra
6. A laser beam is used for locating distant objects because
(a) it is monochromatic
(b) it is not chromatic
(c) it is not observed
(d) it has small angular spread.
7. Two slits in Young’s double slit experiment have widths in the ratio 81 :1. The ratio
of the amplitudes of light waves is

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(a) 3 :1
(b) 3 : 2
(c) 9 :1
(d) 6:1
8. When interference of light takes place
(a) energy is created in the region of maximum intensity
(b) energy is destroyed in the region of maximum intensity
(c) conservation of energy holds good and energy is redistributed
(d) conservation of energy does not hold good
9. In a double slit interference pattern, the first maxima for infrared light would be
(a) at the same place as the first maxima for green light
(b) closer to the center than the first maxima for green light
(c) farther from the center than the first maxima for green light
(d) infrared light does not produce an interference pattern
10. To observe diffraction, the size of the obstacle
(a) should beX/2, where X is the wavelength.
(b) should be of the order of wavelength.
(c) has no relation to wavelength.
(d) should be much larger than the wavelength.
Very Short:
1. Sketch the refracted wavefront emerging from convex tens, If a plane wavefront
is an incident normally on it.
2. How would you explain the propagation of light on the basis of Huygen’s wave
theory?
3. Draw the shape of the reflected wavefront when a plane wavefront is an
incident on a concave mirror.
4. Draw the shape of the refracted wavefront when a plane wavefront is an
incident on a prism.
5. Draw the type of wavefront that corresponds to a beam of light diverging from a
point source.
6. Draw the type of wavefront that corresponds to a beam of light coming from a
very far off source.
7. Name two phenomena that establish the wave nature of light.
8. State the conditions which must be satisfied for two light sources to be
coherent.

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9. Draw an intensity distribution graph for diffraction due to a single slit.

10. Name one device for producing plane polarised light. Draw the graph showing
the variation of intensity of polarised light transmitted by an analyser.
Short Questions:
1. How can one distinguish between an unpolarised and linearly polarised light
beam using polaroid? (CBSE Delhi 2019)
2. What is meant by plane polarised light? What type of waves shows the property
of polarisation? Describe a method of producing a beam of plane polarised light?
3. Write the Important characteristic features by which the Interference can be
distinguished from the observed diffraction pattern. (CBSE AI 2015)
4. State Brewster’s law. The value of Brewster’s angle for the transparent medium
is different for the light of different colours. Give reason. (CBSE Delhi 2016)
5. Discuss the intensity of transmitted light when a polaroid sheet is rotated
between two crossed polaroid’s.
6. Is energy conserved in interference? Explain.
7. An incident beam of light of intensity lo is made to fall on a polaroid A. Another
polaroid B is so oriented with respect to A that there is no light emerging out of
B. A third polaroid C is now introduced midway between A and B and is so
oriented that its axis bisects the angle between the axis of A and B. What is the
intensity of light now between (i) A and C (ii) C and B? Give reasons for your
answers.
8. One of the slits of Young’s double-slit experiment is covered with a semi-
transparent paper so that it transmits lesser light. What will be the effect on the
interference pattern?
Long Questions:
1. Define the term wavefront. Using Huygen’s wave theory, verify the law of
reflection.
Or
Define the term, “refractive index” of a medium. Verify Snell’s law of refraction when
a plane wavefront is propagating from a denser to a rarer medium. (CBSE Delhi 2019)
2.
(a) Sketch the refracted wavefront for the incident plane wavefront of the light from a
distant object passing through a convex lens.
(b) Using Huygens’s principle, verify the laws of refraction when light from a denser
medium is incident on a rarer medium.
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(c) For yellow light of wavelength 590 nm incident on a glass slab, the refractive index
of glass Is 1.5. Estimate the speed and wavelength of yellow light Inside the glass slab.
(CBSE 2019C)
Assertion and Reason Questions-
1.For question two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other
labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a),
(b), (c) and (d) as given below.
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false.
d) A is false and R is also false.
Assertion (A): When tiny circular obstacle is placed in the path of light from some
distance, a bright spot is seen at the centre of the shadow of the obstacle.
Reason (R): Destructive interference occurs at the centre of the shadow.
2.For question two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other
labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a),
(b), (c) and (d) as given below.
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false.
d) A is false and R is also false.
Assertion (A): One of the condition for interference is that the two source should be
very narrow.
Reason (R): One broad source is equal to large number of narrow sources.
Case Study Questions-
1.The phenomenon of bending oflight around the sharp corners and the spreading of
light within the geometrical shadow of the opaque obstacles is called diffraction of
light. The light thus deviates from its linear path. The deviation becomes much more
pronounced, when the dimensions of the aperture or the obstacle are comparable to
the wavelength of light.

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(i) Light seems to propagate in rectilinear path because.

a) Its spread is very large.
b) Its wavelength is very small.
c) Reflected from the upper surface of atmosphere.
d) It is not absorbed by atmosphere.
(ii) ln diffraction from a single slit the angular width of the central maxima does not
depends on:
a) λ of light used.
b) Width of slit.
c) Distance of slits from the screen.
d) Ratio of λ and slit width.
(iii) For a diffraction from a single slit, the intensity of the central point is:
a) Infinite.
b) Finite and same magnitude as the surrounding maxima.
c) Finite but much larger than the surrounding maxima.
d) Finite and substantially smaller than the surrounding maxima.
(iv) Resolving power of telescope increases when:
a) Wavelength of light decreases.
b) Wavelength of light increases.
c) Focal length of eye-piece increases.
d) Focal length of eye-piece decreases.
(v) ln a single diffraction pattern observed on a screen placed at D metre di stance
from the slit of width d metre, the ratio of the width of the central maxima to
the width of other secondary maxima is:
a) 2 : 1
b) 1 : 2

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c) 1 : 1
d) 3 : 1
2.Huygen's principle is the basis of wave theory of light. Each point on a wavefront
acts as a fresh source of new disturbance, called secondary waves or wavelets. The
secondary wavelets spread out in all directions with the speed light in the given
medium.
An initially parallel cylindrical beam travels in a medium of refractive
index are positive constants and I is the
intensity of the light beam. The intensity of the beam is decreasing with increasing
radius.

(i) The initial shape of the wavefront of the beam is:

a) Planar.
b) Convex.
c) Concave.
d) Convex near the axis and concave near the periphery.
(ii) According to Huygens Principle, the surface of constant phase is:
a) Called an optical ray.
b) Called a wave.
c) Called a wavefront.
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d) Always linear in shape.

(iii) As the beam enters the medium, it will:
a) Travel as a cylindrical beam.
b) Diverge.
c) Converge.
d) Diverge near the axis and converge near the periphery.
(iv) Two plane wavefronts oflight, one incident on a thin convex lens and another
on the refracting face of a thin prism. After refraction at them, the emerging
wavefronts respectively become.
a) Plane wavefront and plane wavefront.
b) Plane wavefront and spherical wavefront.
c) Spherical wavefront and plane wavefront.
d) Spherical wavefront and spherical wavefront.
(v) Which of the following phenomena support the wave theory of light?
1. Scattering.
2. Interference.
3. Diffraction.
4. Velocity of light in a denser medium is less than the velocity of light in the
rarer medium.
a) 1, 2, 3
b) 1, 2, 4
c) 2, 3, 4
d) 1, 3, 4
 Answer Key:
Multiple Choice Answers-
1. Answer: b
2. Answer: a
3. Answer: a
4. Answer: b
5. Answer: d
6. Answer: d
7. Answer: c
8. Answer: c
9. Answer: c

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10. Answer: b
Very Short Answers:
1. Answer: The figure is as shown.

2. Answer: To explain the propagation of light we have to draw a wavefront at a

later instant when a wavefront at an earlier instant is known. This can be drawn
by the use of Huygen’s principle.

3. Answer: The reflected wavefront is as shown.

4. Answer: The shape of the wavefront is as shown.

5. Answer: The wavefront formed by the light coming from a very far off source is a

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plane and for a beam of light diverging from a point, a wavefront is a number of
concentric circles.

6. Answer: The wavefront is as shown.

7. Answer: Interference and diffraction of light.

8. Answer:
(a) Two sources must emit light of the same wavelength (or frequency).
(b) The two light sources must be either in-phase or have a constant phase
difference.
9. Answer:
The intensity distribution for a single-slit diffraction pattern is as shown.

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10. Answer: Nicol prism can be used to produce plane polarised light. The graph is as
shown.

Short Questions Answers:

1. Answer: The two lights will be allowed to pass through a polariser. When the
polarizer is rotated in the path of these two light beams, the intensity of light
remains the same in all the orientations of the polariser, then the light is
unpolarised. But if the intensity of light varies from maximum to minimum then
the light beam is a polarised light beam.
2. Answer:
 The light that has its vibrations restricted in only one plane is called plane
polarised light.
 Transverse waves show the phenomenon of polarization.
Light is allowed to pass through a polaroid. The polaroid absorbs those
vibrations which are not parallel to its axis and allows only those vibrations to
pass which are parallel to its axis.
3. Answer:
(a) In the interference pattern the bright fringes are of the same width, whereas
in the diffraction pattern they are not of the same width.

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 WAVE OPTICS
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(b) In interference all bright fringes are equally bright while in diffraction they
are not equally bright.
4. Answer:
When the reflected ray and the refracted ray are perpendicular then μ = tani p
where ip is the polarising angle or Brewster angle.
Brewster’s angle depends upon the refractive index of the two media in contact.
The refractive index in turn depends upon the wavelength of light used
(different colours) hence Brewster’s angle is different for different colours.
5. Answer:
Let lo be the intensity of polarised light after passing through the first polarizer
P1. Then the intensity of light after passing through the second polarizer P 2 will
be l = locos 2θ, where θ is the angle between pass axes of P1 and P2. Since P1 and
P3 are crossed the angle between the pass axes of P2 and P3 will be (π/2 – θ).
Hence the intensity of light emerging from P3 will be
l = lo cos² θ cos² (90° – θ) = lo cos² θ sin² θ = (lo /4)sin² 2θ
Therefore, the transmitted intensity will be maximum when θ = π/4
6. Answer:
Yes, energy is conserved in interference. Energy from the dark fringes is
accumulated in the bright fringes. If we take

But if there is no interference then total intensity at every point on the screen
will be l = a² + a² = 2a², which is the same as the average intensity in the
interference pattern.
7. Answer: Polaroids A and B are oriented at an angle of 90°, so no light is emerging
out of B. On placing polaroid C between A and B such that its axis bisects the
angle between axes of A and B, then the angle between axes of polaroids A and
B is 45° and that of C and B also 45°.
l0
(a) Intensity of light on passing through Polaroid A or between A and C is l 1 =
2
(b) On passing through polaroid C, intensity of light between C and B becomes
l0 l0
l2 = l1 cos² θ = × cos² 45° =
2 4
8. Answer: There will be an interference pattern whose fringe width is the same as
that of the original. But there will be a decrease in the contrast between the

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maxima and the minima, i.e., the maxima will become less bright, and the
minima will become brighter.
Long Questions Answers:
1. Answer:
The wavefront is a locus of points that oscillate in the same phase.
Consider a plane wavefront AB incident obliquely on a plane reflecting surface
MM–. Let us consider the situation when one end A of was front strikes the
mirror at an angle i but the other end B has still to cover distance BC. The time
required for this will be t = BC/c.
According to Huygen’s principle, point A starts emitting secondary wavelets and
in time t, these will cover a distance c t = BC and spread. Hence, with point A as
centre and BC as radius, draw a circular arc. Draw tangent CD on this arc from
point C. Obviously, the CD is the reflected wavefront inclined at an angle ‘r’. As
incident wavefront and reflected wavefront, both are in the plane of the paper,
the 1st law of reflection is proved.

To prove the second law of reflection, consider ΔABC and ΔADC. BC = AD (by
construction),
∠ABC = ∠ADC = 90° and AC is common.
Therefore, the two triangles are congruent and, hence, ∠BAC = ∠DCA or ∠i = ∠r,
i.e. The angle of reflection is equal to the angle of incidence, which is the second
law of reflection.
Or
The refractive index of medium 2, w.r.t. medium 1 equals the ratio of the sine of
the angle of incidence (in medium 1) to the sine of the angle of refraction (in
medium 2), The diagram is as shown.

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 WAVE OPTICS
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From the diagram

2. Answer:

(b) Refraction from denser to the rarer medium: Let XY be plane refracting
surface separating two media of refractive index μ1 and μ2 (μ1> μ2)
Let a plane wavefront AB incident at an angle i. According to Huygen’s principle,
each point on the wavefront becomes a source of secondary wavelets and
Time is taken by wavelets from B to C = Time taken by wavelets from A to D

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(c)
Given λ = 590 nm, μ = 1.5
Velocity of light inside glass slab.

Assertion and Reason Answers-

1. (c) A is true but R is false.
Explanation:
The waves diffracted from the edges of circular obstacle, placed in the path of light,
interfere constructively at the centre of the shadow resulting in the formation of a
bright spot.
2. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
Explanation:
As a broad source is equivalent to a large number of narrow sources lying side by side.
Each set of these sources will produce an interference pattern of its own which will

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overlap on another to such an extent that all traces of a fringe system is lost and
results in general illumination. Because of this reason, for interference a narrow slit
should be used.
Case Study Answers-
1. Answer :
(i) (b) Its wavelength is very small.
Explanation:
The wavelength of visible light is very small, that is hardly shows diffraction, so it
seems to propagate in rectilinear path,
(ii) (c) Distance of slits from the screen.
Explanation:

Angular width of central maxima,

Thus, θ does not depend on screen i.e., distance between the slit and the screen.
(iii) (c) Finite but much larger than the surrounding maxima.
Explanation:
diffraction pattern is shown in the figure. From the graph it is clear that the
intensity of the central point is finite but much larger than the surrounding
maxima.

(iv) (a) Wavelength of light decreases.

Explanation:

Resolving power of telescope

∴ It increases when wavelength of light decreases and/or objective lens of
greater diameter is used.

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(v) (a) 2 : 1
Explanation:

Width of central maxima

width of other secondary maxima

∴ Width of central maxima: width ofother secondary maxima
=2:1
2. Answer :
(i) (a) Planar.
Explanation:
As the beam is initially parallel, the shape of wavefront is planar.
(ii) (c) Called a wavefront.
Explanation:
According to Huygens Principle, the surface of constant phase is called a
wavefront.
(iii) (c) Converge.
(iv) (c) Spherical wavefront and plane wavefront.
Explanation:
After refraction, the emerging wavefronts respectively become spherical
wavefront and plane wavefront as shown in figures (a) and (b).

(v) (c) 2, 3, 4

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CHAPTER 11: DUAL NATURE OF RADIATION AND MATTER
 DUAL NATURE OF RADIATION AND MATTER
11

DUAL NATURE OF RADIATION AND MATTER

Electron emission:

The phenomenon of emission of electrons from the surface of a metal. The minimum
energy needed by an electron to come out from a metal surface is known as “work
function” of the metal. It is denoted by Φ0 or W0 and measured in electron volt (eV).
hc
Work function W = hv =
λ

The electron emission can be obtained from the following physical processes:

Thermionic emission: It is the phenomenon of emission of electrons from the metal

surface when heated suitably.

Photoelectric emission:It is the phenomenon of emission of electrons from the surface

of metal when light radiations of suitable frequency fall on it.

Field emission or cold cathode emission: It is the phenomenon of emission of electrons

from the surface of a metal under the application of a strong electric field.

Photoelectric effect: It is the phenomenon of emission of electrons from the surface of

metals when light radiations of suitable frequency fall on them.

Work Function:

To pull out electron from the surface of the metal, a certain minimum amount of
energy is required. This minimum energy required by the electron is called the work
function of the metal. Work function is generally denoted by 'w' and measured in eV
(electron volt).

Threshold Frequency:

The minimum frequency of light which can emit photoelectrons from a material is
called threshold frequency or cut-off frequency of that material.

Threshold Wavelength:

The maximum wavelength of light which can emit photoelectrons from a material is
called threshold wavelength or cut-off wavelength of that material.

Electron Volt: One electron volt is the energy acquired by an electron, when it has been
accelerated by 1-volt potential difference. (1 eV = 1.602 × 10–19 J).

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Photoelectric Effect:
The phenomenon of emission of photoelectron from the surface of metal, when a light
beam of suitable frequency is incident on it, is called photoelectric effect. The emitted
electrons are called photoelectrons and the current so produced is called photoelectric
current.

Laws of Photoelectric Effect:

 For a given metal and a radiation of fixed frequency, the number of

photoelectrons emitted is proportional to the intensity of incident radiation.
 For every metal, there is a certain minimum frequency below which no
photoelectrons are emitted, howsoever high is the intensity of incident radiation.
This frequency is called threshold frequency.
 For the radiation of frequency higher than the threshold frequency, the
maximum kinetic energy of the photoelectrons is directly proportional to the
frequency of incident radiation and is independent of the intensity of incident
radiation.
 The photoelectric emission is an instantaneous process.

Hertz’ Observation:The phenomenon of photo electric emission was discovered in 1887

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by Heinrich Hertz during his electromagnetic wave experiment. In his experimental

investigation on the production of electromagnetic waves by means of spark across the
detector loop were enhanced when the emitter plate was illuminated by ultraviolet
light from an arc lamp.

Lenard’s Observation: Lenard observed that when ultraviolet radiation was allowed to
fall on emitter plate of an evacuated glass tube enclosing two electrodes, current flows.
As soon as, the ultraviolet radiations were stopped, the current flows also stopped.
These observations indicate that when ultraviolet radiations fall on the emitter plate,
electrons are ejected from it which are attracted towards the positive plate by the
electric field.

Cathode Rays:
Cathode rays are the stream of fast-moving electrons. These rays are produced in a
discharge tube at a pressure below 0.01 rom of mercury.

Properties of Cathode Rays:

 Cathode rays are not electromagnetic rays.

 Cathode rays are deflected by electric field and magnetic field.
 Cathode rays produce heat in metals when they Fallon them.
 Cathode rays can pass through thin aluminium or gold foils without puncturing
them.
 Cathode rays can produce physical and chemical change.
 Cathode ray travel in straight line with high velocity momentum and energy and
cast shadow of objects placed in their path.
 On striking the target of high atomic weight and high melting point, they
produce X-rays.
 Cathode rays produce fluorescence and phosphorescence in certain substance
and hence affect photographic plate.

Positive Rays:

Positive rays were discovered by Goldstein. Positive rays are moving positive ions of gas
filled in the discharge tube. The mass of these particles is nearly equal to the mass of
the atoms of gas.

 These consist of fast moving positively charged particles.

 These rays are deflected in magnetic and electric fields.
 These rays travel in straight line.

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 DUAL NATURE OF RADIATION AND MATTER
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 Speed of positive rays is less than that of cathode rays.

 These rays can produce fluorescence and phosphorescence.

Dual nature of radiation:

Wave theory of electromagnetic radiation explains the phenomenon of interference,

diffraction, and polarization. On the other hand, photoelectric effect is supported by
particle nature of light. Hence, we assume dual nature of light.

Einstein’s Photoelectric Equation:

To explain photoelectric effect in 1905, Albert Einstein proposed completely different

picture of electromagnetic radiation. In this picture radiation energy is built up of
discrete units and photoelectric emission does not take place by continuous absorption
of energy from radiation. These discrete units are called quanta of energy of radiation.
Each quantum of energy is hν, where v is the frequency of light and h is Planck’s
constant.

In photoelectric effect, an electron absorbs a quantum of energy (hv) of radiation. If this

absorbed energy exceeds the minimum energy (work function 'w' of the metal), the
most loosely bound electron will emerge with maximum kinetic energy, more tightly
bound electron will emerge with kinetic energies less than the maximum value.

Einstein’s photoelectric equation

Ek = hv − ω
Ek = hv − hv0
Ek = h(v − v0 )

X-rays:
When cathode rays strike on a heavy metal of high melting point. then a very small
fraction of its energy converts into a new type of waves, called X-rays.

Properties of X-rays:

 X-rays were discovered by Roentgen.

 X-rays are electromagnetic waves of wavelengths ranging from 0.1 A to 100 A
and frequencies ranging from 1016 Hz to 1018 Hz.
 Soft X-rays have greater wavelength and lower frequency.

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 DUAL NATURE OF RADIATION AND MATTER
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 Hard X-rays have lower wavelength and higher frequency.

 X-rays are produced by Coolidge tube.
 Molybdenum and tungsten provide suitable targets. These elements have large
atomic number and high melting point for the purpose.
 The intensity of X – rays depend on the heating voltage or filament current.

Moseley’s Law:

The frequency of X-ray is given by

V = a (Z - b)2

where a and b are constants and Z is atomic number of element.

Frequency of X-rays

v ∝ Z2
Wave Nature of Matter:

The wave nature of light shows up in the phenomena of interference, diffraction and
polarization. De Broglie proposed that the wavelength λ associated with a particle of
momentum p is given as.

h h
λ= =
p mv
Photocell:

 It is an arrangement which converts light energy into electric energy.

 It works on the principle of photoelectric effect.
 It is used in cinematography for the reproduction of sound.

Photoelectric current: Photoelectric current depends on the intensity of incident light

and the potential difference applied between the two electrodes.

Particle Nature of Light:

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 DUAL NATURE OF RADIATION AND MATTER
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Photoelectric effect thus gave evidence to the strange fact that light in interaction with
matter behaved as if it was made of quanta or packets of energy, each of energy hv. A
definite value of energy as well as momentum is associated with a particle. This particle
was later named photon.

We can summaries the photon picture of electromagnetic radiation as follows:

 In interaction of radiation with matter, radiation behaves as if it is made up of
particles called photons.
hv
 Each photon has energy E (= hv) and momentum p (= ), and speed c, the
c
speed of light.
 All photons of light of a particular frequency v, or wavelength #, have the same
hc hv h
energy E (= hv = )and momentum p (= = ). Photons are
λ c λ
electrically neutral and are not deflected by electric and magnetic fields.

 In a photon-particle collision (such as photon-electron collision), the total

energy and total momentum are conserved.

Davisson and Germer Experiment:

The wave nature of electrons was first experimentally verified independently by C. J.
Davisson and L. H. Germer in 1927 and by G. P. Thomson in 1928 while observing
diffraction effects with beams of electrons scattered by crystals. The experimental
arrangement is schematically shown in figure.

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 DUAL NATURE OF RADIATION AND MATTER
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It has an electron gun made up of a tungsten filament F, heated by a low voltage

battery and the filament is coated with barium oxide. Emitted electrons from filament
are accelerated to a desired velocity by applying required potential/ voltage from a
high-voltage power supply. C is a hollow metallic cylinder with a hole along the axis and
is kept at negative potential to get a convergent beam of electrons emitted from
filament. It acts as a cathode. A is a cylinder with fine hole along its axis acting as an
anode.

The cathode and anode form an electron gun by which a fine beam of electrons can be
obtained of different velocities by applying different accelerating potentials. N is a
nickel crystal cut along cubical diagonal, D is an electron detector which can be rotated
on a circular scale and is connected to a sensitive galvanometer which records the
current.

Working: From electron gun a fine beam of accelerated electrons is made to fall
normally on the surface of nickel crystal. The atoms of the crystal scatter the incident
electrons in different directions. The detector detects the intensity of the electron
beam scattered direction by rotating the electron detector on circular scale at different
positions.

According to de Broglie hypothesis, the wavelength of the wave associated with

electron is given by.

12.27
λ= A
√V

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 DUAL NATURE OF RADIATION AND MATTER
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Important Questions

Multiple Choice questions-

Question 1.Photoelectrons are being obtained by irradiating zinc by a radiation of
3100 Å. In order to increase the kinetic energy of ejected photoelectrons.
(a) the intensity of radiation should be increased.
(b) the wave length of radiation should be increased.
(c) the wavelength of radiation should be decreased.
(d) both wavelength and intesity of radiation should be increased.

Question 2.The de-Broglie wavelength of an electron moving with a speed of 6.6 ×

1015 ms-1 is nearly equal to
(a) 10-11m
(b) 10-9 m
(c) 10-7 m
(d) 10-5 m

Question 3.An electron accelerated through a potential difference of V volt has a

wavelength λ associated with it, Mass of proton is nearly 2000 times that of an
electron. In order to have the same λ for proton, it must be accelerated through a
potential difference (in volt) of:

Question 4.An electron of mass m, when accelerated through a potential difference

V, has de-Broglie wavelength λ. The de-Broglie wavelength associated with a proton
of mass M and accelerated through the same potential difference will be

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 DUAL NATURE OF RADIATION AND MATTER
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Question 5.The energy E and momentum p of a photon is given by E = hv h and p

= hλ. The velocity of photon will be:

Question 6.Ultra-violet radiation of 6.2 eV falls on an aluminium surface having

work-function 4.2 eV. The kinetic energy (in J) of the fastest electron emitted is
nearly.
(a) 3 × 10-19
(b) 3 × 10-15
(c) 3 × 10-17
(d) 3 × 10-21

Question 7.For light of wavelength 5000 Å, the photon energy is nearly 2.5 eV. For
X-rays of wavelength 1 Å, the photon energy will be close to:
(a) 2.5 × 5000 eV
(b) 2.5 ÷ 5000 eV
(c) 2.5 × (5000)² eV
(d) 2.5 ÷ (5000)² eV.

Question 8.A photocell is illuminated by a small bright source placed 1 metre away.
When the same source of light is placed 2 m away, the electrons emitted per sec.
(i.e. saturation current in the photo cell is) are

Question 9.Which one of the following graph represent correctly the variation of
maximum kinetic energy Emax with the intensity of incident radiations having a
constant frequency.

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 DUAL NATURE OF RADIATION AND MATTER
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Question 10.The best metal to be used for photoemission is:

(a) Potassium
(b) Lithium
(c) Sodium
(d) Cesium

Question 11.The threshold frequency for a certain metal is v 0. When light of

frequency v = 2v0 is incident on it, the maximum velocity of photo electrons is 4 ×
106 ms-1. If the frequency of incident radiation is increased to 5 v 0, then the
maximum velocity of photo electrons (m/s) is:
(a) 8 × 105
(b) 2 × 106
(c) 2 × 107
(d) 8 × 106

Question 12.The frequency and the intensity of a beam of light falling on the
surface of photoelectric material are increased by a factor of two. This will:
(a) increase the maximum K.E. of photo-electron as well as photoelectric current by
a factor of two.
(b) increase maximum K.E. of photoelectrons and would increase the photo current
by a factor of two.
(c) increase the maximum K.E. of photo electrons by a factor of two and will no
affect photoelectric current.
(d) No effect on both maximum K.E. and photoelectric current.

Question 13.Which of the following is not the property of photons:

(a) charge
(b) rest mass
(c) energy
(d) momentum

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Question 14.Dynamic mass of photon of wavelength k is:

Question 15.The time required in emitting photo electrons is:

(a) 10-8 s
(b) 10-4 s
(c) Zero
(d) 1 sec

Very Short :
1. Calculate the energy associated ineVwith a photon of wavelength 4000A o

2. Mention one physical process for the release of electrons from the surface of a
metal.

3. The maximum kinetic energy of photoelectron is2.8 eVWhat is the value of

stopping potential?

4. Calculate the threshold frequency of photon for photoelectric emission from a

metal of work function0.1eV

5. Ultraviolet light is incident on two photosensitive materials having work function

Φ1 and Φ2 (Φ1>Φ2). In which of the case will K.E. of emitted electrons be greater?
Why?

6. Show graphically how the stopping potential for a given photosensitive surface
varies with the frequency of incident radiations.

7. How does the stopping potential applied to a photocell change if the distance
between the light source and the cathode of the cell is doubled?

8. On what factor does the retarding potential of a photocell depend?

9. Electron and proton are moving with same speed, which will have more
wavelength?

10. If the maximum kinetic energy of electrons emitted by photocell is 4 eV, what is
the stopping potential?

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 DUAL NATURE OF RADIATION AND MATTER
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Short Questions :
1. An a-particle and a proton of the same kinetic energy are in turn allowed to pass
through a magnetic field B, acting normal to the direction of motion of the
particles. Calculate the ratio of radii of the circular paths described by them. (CBSE
Delhi 2019)

2. How will the photoelectric current change on decreasing the wavelength of

incident radiation for a given photosensitive material?

3. Estimate the ratio of the wavelengths associated with the electron orbiting
around the nucleus in the ground and first excited states of a hydrogen atom.
(CBSE Delhi 2019C)

4. Show graphically how the stopping potential for a given photosensitive surface
varies with the frequency of the incident radiation.

5. the de-Broglie wavelength associated with an electron accelerated through a

potential difference V is λ. What will be its wavelength when accelerating
potential is increased to 4 V?

6. Plot a graph showing the variation of de Brogue wavelength (λ) associated with a
1
charged particle of mass m, versus where V is the potential difference through
√𝑉
which the particle is accelerated. How does this graph give us information
regarding the magnitude of the charge of the particle? (CBSE Dethi 2019)

7. X-rays of wavelength ‘λ’ fall on a photosensitive surface, emitting electrons.

Assuming that the work function of the surface can be neglected, prove that the
hλ
de-Broghe wavelength of the electrons emitted will be √
2𝑚𝑐

8. Explain with the help of Einstein’s photoelectric equation any two observed
features in the photoelectric effect. cannot be explained by the wave theory.
(CBSE Delhi 2019)

9. Why is the wave theory of electromagnetic radiation not able to explain the
photoelectric effect? How does the photon picture resolve this problem? (CBSE
Delhi 2019)

10. (a) Define the terms,

(i) threshold frequency and

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11

(ii) stopping potential in the photoelectric effect.

(b) Plot a graph of photocurrent versus anode potential for radiation of frequency
v and intensities l1 and l2. (l1< l2). (CBSE Delhi 2019)

LongAnswersQuestions:
Question 1.What is the photoelectric effect? Write Einstein’s photoelectric equation
and use it to explain: (a) independence of maximum energy of emitted
photoelectrons from the intensity of incident light and
(b) existence of a threshold frequency for the emission of photoelectrons.

Question 2.An electron of mass m and charge q is accelerated from rest through a
potential difference of V. Obtain the expression for the de-Broglie wavelength
associated with it. If electrons and protons are moving with the same kinetic
energy, which one of them will have a larger de-Broglie wavelength associated with
it? Give reason.

Question 3.Sketch the graphs showing the variation of stopping potential with the
frequency of incident radiations for two photosensitive materials A and B having
threshold frequencies v0 > v’0 respectively.
(a) Which of the two metals A or B has a higher work function?
(b) What information do you get from the slope of the graphs?
(c) What does the value of the intercept of graph ‘A’ on the potential axis
represent?

Question 4.When a given photosensitive material is irradiated with light of

frequency v, the maximum speed of the emitted photoelectrons equals V max. The
graph shown in the figure gives a plot of V²max varying with frequency v.

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11

Obtain an expression for:

(a) Planck’s constant, and
(b) The work function of the given photosensitive material in terms of the
parameters T, ‘n’ and the mass ‘m’ of the electron.
(c) How is threshold frequency determined from the plot? (CBSE AI 2019)

Question 5.X-rays fall on a photosensitive surface to cause photoelectric emission.

Assuming that the work function of the surface can be neglected, find the relation
between the de-Broglie wavelength (λ) of the electrons emitted to the energy (Ev)
of the incident photons. Draw the nature of the graph for λ as a function of E v.
(CBSE Delhi 2014C)

Question 6.Light of intensity ‘l’ and frequency ‘v’ is incident on a photosensitive

surface and causes photoelectric emission. What will be the effect on anode current
when:
(a) the intensity of light is gradually increased,
(b) the frequency of incident radiation is increased and
(c) the anode potential is increased?
In each case, all other factors remain the same. Explain giving justification in each
case. (CBSE AI 2015)

Question 7.The graphs, drawn here, are for the phenomenon of the photoelectric

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 DUAL NATURE OF RADIATION AND MATTER
11

effect.

(a) Identify which of the two characteristics (intensity/frequency) of incident light is

being kept constant in each case.

(b) Name the quantity, corresponding to the mark, in each case.

(c) Justify the existence of a ‘threshold frequency’ for a given photosensitive

surface. (CBSE Delhi 2016C)

Question 8.Draw a graph showing the variation of de-Broglie wavelength λ of a

particle of charge q and mass, with the accelerating potential V. An alpha particle
and a proton have the same de-Broglie wavelength equal to 1 Å. Explain with
calculations, which of the two has more kinetic energy. (CBSE Delhi 2017C)

Assertion and Reason Questions-

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1.For question two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other
labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions front the codes (a),
(b), (c) and (d) as given below.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

b) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false.
d) A is false and R is also false.

Assertion (A): Photoelectric effect demonstrates the wave nature of light.

Reason (R): The number of photoelectrons is proportional to the frequency of light.

2.For question two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other
labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions front the codes (a),
(b), (c) and (d) as given below.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

b) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false.
d) A is false and R is also false.

Assertion (A): On increasing the frequency of light, larger number of photoelectrons

are emitted.

Reason (R): The number of electrons emitted is directly proportional to the intensity
of incident light.

Case Study Questions-

1.To study photoelectric effect, an emitting electrode C of a photosensitive material is

kept at negative potential and collecting electrode A is kept at positive potential in an
evacuated tube. When light of sufficiently high frequency falls on emitting electrode,
photoelectrons are emitted which travel directly to collecting electrode and hence an
electric current called photoelectric current starts flowing in the circuit, which is
directly proportional to the number of photoelectrons emitted by emitting electrode
C.

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 DUAL NATURE OF RADIATION AND MATTER
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While demonstrating the existence of electromagnetic waves, Hertz found that high
voltage sparks passed across the metal electrodes of the detector loop more easily
when the cathode was illuminated by ultraviolet light from an arc lamp. The ultraviolet
light falling on the metal surface caused the emission of negatively charged particles,
which are now known to be electrons, into the surrounding space and hence
enhanced the high voltage sparks.

(i) Cathode rays were discovered by:

a) Maxwell Clerk James.

b) Heinrich Hertz.
c) William Crookes.
d) J. J. Thomson.

(ii) Cathode rays consists of:

a) Photons
b) Electrons
c) Pistons
d) αα-particles

(iii) Who discovered the charge on an electron for the frist time?

a) Millikan
b) Thomson
c) Kelvin
d) Coulomb

(iv) The dual nature oflight is exhibited by:

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 DUAL NATURE OF RADIATION AND MATTER
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a) Diffraction and photoelectric effect.

b) Photoelectric effect.
c) Refraction and interference.
d) Diffraction and reflection.

(v) ln the phenomenon of electric discharge through gases at low pressure, the
coloured glow in the tube appears as a result of:

a) Collisions between the charged particles emitted from the cathode and the
atoms of the gas.
b) Collision between different electrons of the atoms of the gas.
c) Excitation of electrons in the atoms.
d) Collision between the atoms of the gas.

2.Photoelectric effect is the phenomenon of emission of electrons from a metal

surface, when radiations of suitable frequency fall on them. The emitted electrons are
called photoelectrons and the current so produced is called photoelectric current.

(i) With the increase of intensity of incident radiations on photoelectrons emitted

by a photo tube, the number of photoelectrons emitted per unit time is:

a) Increases.
b) Decreases.
c) Remains same.
d) None of these.

(ii) It is observed that photoelectron emission stops at a certain time t after the
light source is switched on. The stopping potential (V) can be represented as:

a) 2(KEmax/e)
b) (KEmax/e)
c) (KEmax/3e)
d) (KEmax/2e)

(iii) A point source of light of power 3.2 × 10-3 W emits monoenergetic photons
of energy 5.0eV and work function 3.0eV. The efficiency of photoelectron
emission is 1 for every 106 ncident photons. Assume that photoelectrons are
instantaneously swept away after emission. The maximum kinetic energy of
photon is:

a) 4eV
b) 5eV
c) 2eV
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 DUAL NATURE OF RADIATION AND MATTER
11

d) Zero

(iv) Which of the following device is the application of Photoelectric effect?

a) Light emitting diode.

b) Diode.
c) Photocell.
d) Transistor.

(v) If the frequency of incident light falling on a photosensitive metal is doubled,

the kinetic energy of the emitted photoelectron is:

a) Unchanged.
b) Halved.
c) Doubled.
d) More than twice its initial value.

Multiple Choice Question’s Answers-

1. Answer: (c) the wavelength of radiation should be decreased.

2. Answer: (b) 10-9 m

V
3. Answer: (d)
2000

4. Answer:

E
5. Answer: (a)
P

6. Answer: (a) 3 × 10-19

7. Answer: (a) 2.5 × 5000 eV

1
8. Answer: (b) I ×
4

9. Answer: (d)
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 DUAL NATURE OF RADIATION AND MATTER
11

10. Answer: (d) Cesium

11. Answer: (d) 8 × 106

12. Answer: (b) increase maximum K.E. of photoelectrons and would increase the
photo current by a factor of two.

13. Answer: (a) & (b)

h
14. Answer: (c)
cλ

15. Answer: (c) Zero

Very Short Answers:

1. Ans: Given the wavelength of given photon is

2. Photoelectric emission.

The phenomenon in which the electrons from the surface of a metal are given
energy in form of electromagnetic waves and they are ejected out, this
phenomenon is called the photoelectric emission.

3. Given an electron that is moving with a kinetic energy. For it to be not ejected, it
has to be held back using a stopping potential

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 DUAL NATURE OF RADIATION AND MATTER
11

4. Given is the work function

5. According to the energy balance equation of the photoelectric effecthv=Φo+K.E

If Φ1>Φ2 thus K.E. will be more for second surface whose work function is less.

6. Suppose

o is the threshold of frequency or cut off frequency;

Vo is the corresponding stopping potential

7. Intensity of light drops quadratically with distance. However, the stopping

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 DUAL NATURE OF RADIATION AND MATTER
11

potential does not depend on the intensity of the light. Hence it is independent of
distance as well.

8. The retarding photocell depends upon the frequency of the incident light.

9. Since the wavelength is inversely proportional to the square root of the mass of
1
the body, λ∝ . So, electrons being lighter will have more wavelengths.
√𝑚

10. The stopping potential is 4 V.

Short Answers :
1. Given qα = 2e, qp = e, Kα = Kp, mα = 4mp, rα/rp= ?

Using the expression

2. Photoelectric current is independent of the wavelength of the incident radiation.

Therefore there will be no change in the photoelectric current.

3. Since De Brogue’s hypothesis is related to

Bohr’s atomic model as

4. The required graph is as shown

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 DUAL NATURE OF RADIATION AND MATTER
11

5. The de-BrogLie wavelength is inversely proportional to the square root of

potential, therefore =

wilt become half of its previous value.

6. The plot is as shown.

7. The energy possessed by X-rays of wavelength λ is given by E=hc / λ.

Consider an electron of mass charge e to be accelerated the potential difference

of V volts the velocity gained by it.

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 DUAL NATURE OF RADIATION AND MATTER
11

Then kinetic energy of electron is

8. According to Einstein’s equation, we have

Two features

(a) Maximum energy is directly proportional to the frequency

(b) Existence of threshold frequency Explanation of two features:

1. The energy of the photon is directly proportional to the frequency

2. No photoelectric emission is possible if hv <hvo

9. According to the wave theory, the more intense a beam, more is the kinetic
energy it will impart to the photoelectron. This does not agree with the
experimental observations (max K.E. of the emitted photoelectron is independent
of intensity) on the photoelectric effect. Also according to the wave theory
photoemission can occur at all frequencies.

The photon picture resolves this problem by saying that light in interaction with
matter behaves as if it is made of quanta or packets of energy, each of energy hv.
This picture enables us to get a correct explanation of all the observed
experimental features of the photoelectric effect.

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 DUAL NATURE OF RADIATION AND MATTER
11

10. (a) Threshold frequency: It is the frequency of the incident radiation below which
photoelectric effect does not take place.

Stopping potential: It is the minimum negative (retarding) potential, given to the

anode (collector plate) for which the photocurrent stops or becomes zero.

(b) The plot is as shown.

LongAnswers:

1. Answer:The election of photoelectrons from a metal surface when Light of

suitable frequency is incident on it is catted photoelectric effect.

1
Einstein’s equation of photoelectric effect is mv² = hv – ω0
2
(a) In accordance with Einstein’s equation, the kinetic energy of the photoelectrons
is independent of the intensity of the incident radiation.
(b) In accordance with Einstein’s equation, the kinetic energy will be positive and
hence photoelectrons will be ejected if v > v0. Thus below a certain frequency called
threshold frequency, photoelectrons are not ejected from a metal surface (if v < v 0).

2. Answer:Consider an electron of mass m and charge e to be accelerated through a

potential difference of V volts. Let v be the velocity gained by it. Then kinetic energy
of the electron is

If λ is the de-Broglie wavelength associated with an electron, then

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 DUAL NATURE OF RADIATION AND MATTER
11

Since de-Broglie wavelength is inversely proportional to the square root of mass,

the lesser the mass, the more is the de- Broglie wavelength. Since the mass of an
electron is lesser than that of the proton, the electron has a greater de-Broglie
wavelength than a proton.

3. Answer:The graphs are as shown below.

(a) The work function is directly proportional to the threshold frequency. The
threshold frequency of metal A is greater than that of metal B; therefore A has a
greater work function than B.
(b) The slope of the graphs gives the value of Planck’s constant.
(c) The intercept on the potential axis is negative (-W0/e) w.r.t. stopping potential,
i.e. Work function = e × magnitude of the intercept on the potential axis. We may
infer it to give the voltage which, when applied with opposite polarity to the
stopping voltage, will just pull out electrons from the metallic atom’s outermost
orbit.

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 DUAL NATURE OF RADIATION AND MATTER
11

4. Answer: (a) By Einstein’s photoelectric equation we have

(b)

(c) The threshold frequency is the intercept on the v axis i.e. v0 = n

5. Answer:
Consider an electron of mass m and charge e to be accelerated through a potential
difference of V volt. Let v be the velocity gained by it. Then kinetic energy of the
electron is

If λ is the de-Broglie wavelength associated with an electron, then

The nature of the graph is as shown.

6. Answer:(a) Anode current will increase with the increase of intensity as the more
the intensity of light, the more is the number of photons and hence more number

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 DUAL NATURE OF RADIATION AND MATTER
11

of photoelectrons are ejected.

(b) No effect as the frequency of light affects the maximum K.E. of the emitted
photoelectrons.
(c) Anode current will increase with anode potential as more anode potential will
accelerate the more electrons till it attains a saturation value and gets them
collected at the anode at a faster rate.

7. Answer: (a) Graph 1: Intensity, Graph 2: Frequency

(b) Graph 1: Saturation current, Graph 2: stopping potential

(c) The electrons require minimum energy to set themselves free. This is called the
work function. As the energy of the photon depends upon its frequency, the
photons must possess a minimum frequency so that their energy becomes equal to
or greater than the work function. This is called threshold frequency and is given by
ω0
v0 =
h

8. Answer:The graph is as shown.

h
The de-Broglie wavelength of a particle is given by the expression λ =
√2mqV
Since the alpha particle and the proton have the same de- Broglie wavelength, we
have

Therefore proton has a greater value of de-Broglie wavelength.

Now kinetic energy is given by the expression

Thus proton has more kinetic energy.

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 DUAL NATURE OF RADIATION AND MATTER
11

Assertion and Reason Answers-

1. (d) A is false and R is also false.

Explanation:

Photoelectric effect can be explained on the basis of quantum theory or particle

nature of light where wave nature of light fails to explain the photoelectric effect. The
number of photoelectrons is proportional to the intensity of incident light.

where n is the number of photons emitted/ absorbed per unit area per
second. n and are independent factors.

2. (d) A is false and R is also false.

Explanation:

The maximum kinetic energy of the photoelectrons varies linearly with the frequency
of incident radiation, but is independent of its intensity. The number of
photoelectrons emitted per second is directly proportional to the intensity of incident
radiation.

Case Study Answers-

1. Answer :

(i) (c) William Crookes.

(ii) (b) Electrons

(iii) (a) Millikan

(iv) (a) Diffraction and photoelectric effect.

(v) (c) Excitation of electrons in the atoms.

Explanation:

ln discharge tube, collision between charged particles emitted from cathode and
atoms of the gas results to colorless glow in the tube.

2. Answer :

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 DUAL NATURE OF RADIATION AND MATTER
11

(i) (a) Increases.

Explanation:

With the increase of intensity of the incident radiation the number of

photoelectrons emitted per unit time increases.

(ii) (b) (KEmax/e)

Explanation:

As eV = KEmax

(iii) (c) 2eV

Explanation:

From Einstein's photoelectric equation,

(iv) (c) Photocell.

Explanation:

A photocell is a technological application of the photoelectric effect.

(v) (d) More than twice its initial value.

Explanation:

According to Einstein's photoelectric equation, the kinetic energy of the emitted

photoelectron is

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 DUAL NATURE OF RADIATION AND MATTER
11

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CHAPTER 12: ATOMS
 ATOMS
12

ATOMS
Atoms:

Atoms are made up of the same amount of negative and positive charges. In
Thomson’s model, atoms were described as a spherical cloud of positive charges with
embedded electrons. In Rutherford’s model, one tiny nucleus bears most of the mass
of the atom along with its positive charges and the electrons revolve around it.

Dalton’s Atomic Theory:

All elements are consisting of very small invisible particles, called atoms. Atoms of
same element are exactly same, and atoms of different element are different.

Thomson’s Atomic Model:

Every atom is uniformly positive charged sphere of radius of the order of 10-10 m, in
which entire mass is uniformly distributed and negative charged electrons are
embedded randomly.

Limitations of Thomson’s Atomic Model:

 It could not explain the origin of spectral series of hydrogen and other atoms.
 It could not explain large angle scattering of α – particles.S

Alpha-Particle Scattering:

In 1911, Rutherford, along with his assistants, H. Geiger and E. Marsden, performed
the Alpha Particle scattering experiment, which led to the birth of the ‘nuclear model
of an atom’.

They took a thin gold foil having a thickness of 2.1×10-7 m and placed it in the center
of a rotatable detector made of zinc sulfide and a microscope. Then, they directed a

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 ATOMS
12

beam of 5.5MeV alpha particles emitted from a radioactive source at the foil. Lead
bricks collimated these alpha particles as they passed through them.

After hitting the foil, the scattering of these alpha particles could be studied by the
brief flashes on the screen. Rutherford and his team expected to learn more about
the structure of the atom from the results of this experiment.

Observations:

Here is what they found:

 Most of the alpha particles passed through the foil without suffering any
collisions
 Around 0.14% of the incident alpha particles scattered by more than 10.
 Around 1 in 8000 alpha particles deflected by more than 90o.

Rutherford’s Nuclear Model:

In 1912, Rutherford proposed his nuclear model of the atom. It is also known as
Rutherford's planetary model of atom.

Salient features of Rutherford's atom model are as follows:

 Every atom consists of a tiny central core, named nucleus, in which the
entire positive charge and almost whole mass of the atom are
concentrated. The size of nucleus is typically 10-4 times the size of an atom.
 Most of an atom is empty space.
 In free space around the nucleus, electrons would be moving in orbits just
as the planets do around the sun. The centripetal force needed for orbital
motion of electrons is provided by electrostatic attractive forced experience

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 ATOMS
12

by electron due to positively charged nucleus.

 An atom as a whole is electrically neutral. Thus, total positive charge of
nucleus is exactly equal to total negative charge of all the electrons orbiting
in an atom.

Impact Parameter:

The perpendicular distance of the velocity vector of α-particle from the central line of
thenucleus, when the particle is far away from the nucleus is called impact
parameter.
θ
1 Ze2 cot(2 )
Impact parameterb = .
4πε0 Ek

where, Z = atomic number of the nucleus, Ek = kinetic energy of the c-particle and θ =
angle of scattering.

Bohr Model of the Hydrogen Atom:

It was Niels Bohr (1885-1962) who used the concept of quantized energy, and
explained the model of a hydrogen atom in 1913. Bohr combined classical and early
quantum concepts and proposed a theory in the form of three postulates.

These postulates are:

 Postulate I: An electron in an atom could revolve in certain stable orbits

without emitting radiant energy. Each atom has certain definite stable orbits.
Electrons can exist in these orbits. Each possible orbit has definite total
energy. These stable orbits are called the stationary states of the atom.

 Postulate II: An electron can revolve around the nucleus in an atom only in
h
those stable orbits whose angular momentum is the integral multiple of
2π
(where h is Planck's constant). Therefore, angular momentum (L) of the
orbiting electron is quantised.

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 ATOMS
12

nh
mvr = where, n = 1, 2, 3, .....
2π

 Postulate III: An electron can make a transition from its stable orbit to
another lower stable orbit. While doing so, a photon is emitted whose energy
is equal to the energy difference between the initial and final states.
Therefore, the energy of photon is given by,

hu = Ei - Ef

where Ei and Ef are the energies of the initial and final states.

Failure of Bohr’s Model:

 This model is applicable only to hydrogen-like atoms and fails in case of

higher atoms.
 It could not explain the fine structure of the spectral lines in the spectrum of
hydrogen atom.

Ground State and Excited States:

The lowest energy level of an atom is called the “ground state” and higher levels are
called “excited states”. The H-atom has lowest energy in the state for the principal
quantum number n = 1. and all other states (i.e, for n = 2, 3, 4…) are excited states.
Thus E2, E3, E4 …are called the first, the second, the third …excited states respectively.

Hydrogen Spectrum Series:

Each element emits a spectrum of radiation, which is characteristic of the element

itself. The spectrum consists of a set of isolated parallel lines and is called the line
spectrum.

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 ATOMS
12

There are four visible spectral lines corresponded to transitions from higher energy
levels down to the second energy level (n = 2). This is called the Balmer series.
Transitions ending in the ground state (n = 1) are called the Lyman series, but the
energies released are so large that the spectral lines are all in the ultraviolet region of
the spectrum. The transitions called the Paschen series and the Brackett series both
result in spectral lines in the infrared region because the energies are too small.

Wave Model:

It is based on wave mechanics. Quantum numbers are the numbers required to

completely specify the state of the electrons.

In the presence of strong magnetic field, the four-quantum number are:

 Principal quantum number (n) can have value 1,2, … ∞

 Orbital angular momentum quantum number l can have value 0,1, 2, …, (n –
1).
 Magnetic quantum number (me) which can have values – I to I.
 Magnetic spin angular momentum quantum number (ms) which can have
1
only two value .
2

De Broglie’s Hypothesis:

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 ATOMS
12

h
This states that the wavelength of electrons is λ = and the whole number of
mv
wavelengths is equal to the orbits circumference the main orbit corresponding to the
circular standing waves.

Binding Energy:

Binding energy of a system is defined as the minimum energy needed to separate its
constituents to large distances. This may also be defined as the energy released
when its constituents are brought from infinity to form the system. The binding
energy of H-atom in ground state is 13.6 eV which is the same as its ionization
energy.

Ionization Energy and Ionization Potential:

The minimum energy needed to ionize an atom is called “ionization energy”. The
potential difference through which an electron should be accelerated to acquire this
much energy is called “ionization potential”. Hence, ionization energy of H-atom in
ground state is 13.6 eV and ionization potential is 13.6 V.

de-Broglie’s Explanation of Bohr’s Second Postulate:

de-Broglie explained second postulate of Bohr’s atomic model by assuming an

electron to a particle wave. Therefore, it should form standing waves under
resonance condition.

According to de-Broglie, for an electron moving in nth circular orbit of radius r,

2π = nλ n = 1, 2, 3 …
i.e., circumference of orbit should be integral multiple of de-Broglie wavelength of
electron moving in nth orbit. As we know that de-Broglie wavelength,

h
λ=
mv

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 ATOMS
12

nh
2πr =
mv
nh
mvr =
2π

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 ATOMS
12

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 ATOMS
12

Important Questions
Multiple Choice questions-
Question 1. The simple Bohr model cannot be directly applied to calculate the
energy levels of an atom with many electrons. This is because
(a) of the electrons not being subject to a central force.
(b) of the electrons colliding with each other
(c) of screening effects
(d) the force between the nucleus and an electron will no longer be given by
Coulomb’s law.
Question 2. A set of atoms in an excited state decay.
(a) in general, to any of the states with lower energy.
(b) into a lower state only when excited by an external electric field.
(c) all together simultaneously into a lower state.
(d) to emit photons only when they collide.
Question 3. The ground state energy of hydrogen atom is -13.6 eV. The kinetic and
potential energies of the electron in this state are
(a) -13.6 eV, 27.2 eV
(b) 13.6 eV,-13.6 eV
(c) 13.6 eV,-27.2 eV
(d) 27.2 eV,-27.2 eV
Question 4. If the series limit frequency of the Lyman series is vL, then the series
limit frequency of the Pfund series is:
(a) 16 vL
(b) vL/16
(c) VL/25
(d) 25 vL
Question 5. The ratio of kinetic energy to the total energy of an electron in a Bohr
orbit of the hydrogen atom is:
(a) 1 : 1
(b) 1 : -1
(c) 2 : -1
(d) 1 : -2
Question 6. Ionisation energy for hydrogen atom in the ground state is E. What is
the ionisation energy of Li++ atom in the 2nd excited state:
(a) E
(b) 3E

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 ATOMS
12

(c) 6E
(d) 9E
Question 7. Hydrogen (H 11 ), deuterium (H 21 ), singly ionised helium (He 42 )+ and
doubly ionised lithium (Li 63 )++ all have one electron around their nucleus.
Consider an electron transition from n = 2 to n = 1 if the wavelengths of the
emitted radiations are λ1, λ2, λ3 and λ4 respectively then approximately which of
the following is correct?
(a) 4λ1 = 2λ2 = 2λ3 = λ4
(b) λ1 = 2λ2 = 2λ3 = λ4
(c) λ1 = λ2 = 4λ3 = 9λ4
(d) λ1 = 2λ2 = 3λ3 = 4λ4
Question 8. As an electron makes a transition from an excited state to the ground
state of a hydrogen like atom/ion:
(a) its kinetic energy increases but potential energy and total energy decrease
(b) kinetic energy, potential energy and total energy decrease
(c) kinetic energy decreases, potential energy increases but total energy remains
the same
(d) kinetic energy and total energy decrease but potential energy increases
Question 9. An electron from various excited states of hydrogen atom emits
radiation to come to the ground state. Let λn, λg be the de-Broglie wavelength of
the electron in the nth state and the ground state respectively. Let ∧n be the
wavelength of the emitted photon in the transition from the nth state to the
ground state. For large n (A, B are constants)

Question 10. A spectral line is emitted when an electron:

(a) jumps from lover orbit to higher orbit.
(b) jumps from higher orbit to lower orbit.
(c) rotates in a circular orbit.
(d) rotates in an elliptical orbit.
Question 11. The ionisation potential of hydrogen is 13.6 V. The energy of the
atom in n = 2 state will be:
(a) -10.2 eV

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 ATOMS
12

(b) -6.4eV
(c) – 3.4 eV
(d) – 4.4 eV
Question 12. At the time of total solar eclipse, the spectrum of solar radiation
would be:
(a) a large number of dark Fraunhoffer lines
(b) a small number of dark Fraunhofer lines.
(c) All Fraunhofer lines changed into brilliant colours.
(d) None of these.
Question 13. The adjoining figure indicates the energy levels of a certain atom
when the system moves from 2 E to E level, a photon of wavelength λ is emitted.
4E
The wavelength of photon produced during its transition from to E is
3

Question 14. A hydrogen atom is in the p-state. For this, values of J are

Question 15. Energy levels A, B, C of a certain atom correspond to increasing value

of energy i.e., EA> EB> EC. If λ1, λ2 and λ3 are the wavelengths of radiation
corresponding to transition C to B, B to A and C to A respectively, which of these of
the following is correct?

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 ATOMS
12

Very Short :
Question 1. Name the spectral series which lies in the visible region.
Question 2. What is the maximum number of spectral lines emitted by a
hydrogen atom when it is in the third excited state? (CBSE AI 2013C)
Question 3. When is Hα line of the Balmer series in the emission spectrum of
hydrogen atom obtained? (CBSE Delhi 2013C)
when an electron jumps from n =3 to n = 2 level.
Question 4.A mass of lead is embedded in a block of wood. Radiations from a
radioactive source incident on the side of the block produce a shadow on a
fluorescent screen placed beyond the block. The shadow of the wood is faint but
the shadow of lead is dark. Give a reason for this difference.
Question 5. What was the source of alpha particles in Rutherford’s alpha
scattering experiment?
Question 6. If the radius of the ground level of a hydrogen atom is 5.3 nm, what is
the radius of the first excited state?
Question 7. Calculate the ratio of energies of photons produced due to the
transition of electron of a hydrogen atom from its:
(a) Second permitted energy level to the first level, and
(b) Highest permitted energy level to the second permitted level.
Question 8. The mass of an H-atom is less than the sum of the masses of a proton
and electron. Why is this? (NCERT Exemplar)
Question 9. Name the series of hydrogen spectrum lying in ultraviolet and visible
region.
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 ATOMS
12

Question 10. What is Bohr’s quantisation condition for the angular momentum of
an electron in the second orbit?
Short Questions :
Question 1. Define electron-volt and atomic mass unit. Calculate the energy in
joule equivalent to the mass of one proton.
Question 2. State Bohr’s quantization condition of angular momentum. Calculate
the shortest wavelength of the Bracket series and state to which part of the
electromagnetic spectrum does it belong. (CBSE Delhi 2019)
Or
Calculate the orbital period of the electron in the first excited state of the
hydrogen atom.
Question 3. Write two important limitations of the Rutherford nuclear model of
the atom. (CBSE AI2018, Delhi 2018)
Question 4. Find out the wavelength of the electron orbiting in the ground state
of the hydrogen atom. (CBSEAI 2018, Delhi 2018)
Question 5. (a) State Bohr’s postulate to define stable orbits in a hydrogen atom.
How does de Broglie’s hypothesis explain the stability of these orbits?
(b) A hydrogen atom initially in the ground state absorbs a photon which excites
it to the n = 4 level. Estimate the frequency of the photon. (CBSE AI 2018, Delhi
2018)
Question 6. An alpha particle moving with initial kinetic energy K towards a
nucleus of atomic number Z approaches a distance ‘d’ at which it reverses its
direction. Obtain an expression for the distance of closest approach ‘d’ in terms
of the kinetic energy of the alpha particle, K. (CBSEAI2016C)
Question 7.The figure shows the energy level diagram of the hydrogen atom.

(a) Find out the transition which results in the emission of a photon of
wavelength 496 nm.
(b) Which transition corresponds to the emission of radiation of maximum
wavelength? Justify your answer. (CBSE AI 2015 C)
Question 8. A nucleus makes a transition from one permitted energy level to
another level of lower energy. Name the region of the electromagnetic spectrum
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 ATOMS
12

to which the emitted photon belongs. What is the order of its energy in electron-
volts? Write four characteristics of nuclear forces.
Question 9.In accordance with the Bohr's model, find the quantum number
that characterises the earth's revolution around the sun in an orbit of radius
1.5×1011m
with orbital speed
3×104m/s
(Mass of earth.)
= 6.0×1024kg
Question 10. The total energy of an electron in the first excited state of the
hydrogen atom is about
−3.4eV.
a) What is the kinetic energy of the electron in this state?
b) What is the potential energy of the electron in this state?
c) Which of the answers above would change if the choice of the zero of potential
energy is changed?
(a)

Long Questions:
Question 1. Explain Rutherford’s experiment on the scattering of alpha particles
and state the significance of the results.
Question 2. Using Bohr’s postulates, obtain the expression for the total energy of
the electron in the stationary states of the hydrogen atom. Hence draw the
energy level diagram showing how the line spectra corresponding to the Balmer
series occur due to the transition between energy levels. (CBSE Delhi 2013)
Question 3. Hydrogen atoms are excited with an electron beam of energy of 12.5
eV. Find
(a) The highest energy level up to which the hydrogen atoms will be excited.
(b) The longest wavelengths in the (i) Lyman series, (ii) Balmer series of the
spectrum of these hydrogen atoms. (CBSE 2019C)
Question 4. Using Bohr’s postulates of the atomic model derive the expression
for the radius of the 11th electron orbit. Hence obtain the expression for Bohr’s
radius. (CBSE AI 2014)

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 ATOMS
12

Question 5.State Bohr’s postulate of the hydrogen atom successfully explains the
emission lines in the spectrum of the hydrogen atoms.
Use the Rydberg formula to determine the wavelength of Ha line. [Given Rydberg
constant R = 1.03 × 107 m-1] (CBSE AI 2015)
Question 6. Using Bohr’s postulates derive the expression for the frequency of
radiation emitted when an electron In a hydrogen atom undergoes a transition
from a higher energy state (quantum number n-) to the towering state (n,). When
an electron in a hydrogen atom jumps from the energy state ni =4 to n = 3, 2, 1,
identify the spectral series to which the emission lines belong. (CBSE Delhi 201
1C)
Question 7. Calculate the ratio of the frequencies of the radiation emitted due to
the transition of the electron In a hydrogen atom from Its (i) second permitted
energy level to the first level and (ii) highest permitted energy level to the second
permitted level. (CBSE Delhi 2018C)
Question 8. Monochromatic radiation of wavelength 975 A excites the hydrogen
atom from its ground state to a higher state. How many different spectral lines
are possible In the resulting spectrum? Which transition corresponds to the
longest wavelength amongst them? (CBSE Sample Paper 201819)
Question 9.
(a) Using postulates of Bohr’s theory of hydrogen atom, show that
(i) the radii of orbits increases as n², and
(ii) the total energy of the electron increases as 1/n², where n is the principal
quantum number of the atom.
(b) Calculate the wavelength of H2 line In Balmer series of hydrogen atom, given
Rydberg constant R = 1.097 × 107 m-1. (CBSE AI 2011C)
Question 10. State Bohr’s quantization condition for defining stationary orbits. How
does de Brogue hypothesis explain the stationary orbits?
Find the relation between the three wavelengths λ1 λ2 and λ3 from the energy level
diagram shown below. (CBSE Delhi 2016)

Assertion and Reason Questions-

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1. For question two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other
labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes
(a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below.
(i) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(ii) Both A and R are true, but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
(iii) A is true, but R is false.
(iv) A is false and R is also false.
Assertion (A): Total energy of revolving electron in any stationary orbit is negative.
Reason (R): Energy is a scalar quantity. It can have positive or negative value.
2. For question two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other
labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes
(a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below.
a. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
b. Both A and R are true, but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
c. A is true, but R is false.
d. A is false and R is also false.
Assertion (A): In He-Ne laser, population inversion takes place between energy
levels of neon atoms.
Reason (R): Helium atoms have a meta-stable energy level.
Case Study Questions-
1. Hydrogen spectrum consists of discrete bright lines in a dark background, and it is
specifically known as hydrogen emission spectrum. There is one more type of
hydrogen spectrum that exists where we get dark lines on the bright background, it
is known as absorption spectrum. Balmer found an empirical formula by the
observation of a small part of this spectrum, and it is represented

by where n = 3, 4, 5 For Lyman series, the emission is from

first state to n state, for Paschen series, it is from third state to nth state, for
th

Brackett series, it is from fourth state to nth state and for Pfund series, it is from fifth
state to nth state.
(i) Number of spectral lines in hydrogen atom is:
a) 8
b) 6
c) 15
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 ATOMS
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d) ∞
(ii) Which series of hydrogen spectrum corresponds to ultraviolet region?
a) Balmer series.
b) Brackett series.
c) Paschen series.
d) Lyman series.
(iii) Which of the following lines of the H-atom spectrum belongs to the Balmer
series?
a) 1025A
b) 1218A
c) 4861A
d) 18751A
(iv) Rydberg constant is.
a) A universal constant.
b) A universal constants.
c) Different for different elements.
d) None of these.
(v) Hydrogen atom is excited from ground state to another state with principal
quantum number equal to 4. Then the number of spectral lines in the
emission spectra will be.
a) 3
b) 5
c) 6
d) 2
2. In 1911, Rutherford, along with his assistants, H. Geiger and E. Marsden,
performed the alpha particle scattering experiment. H. Geiger and E. Marsden took

radioactive source for α- particles. A collimated beam of αα-particles of

energy 5.5 MeV was allowed to fall on 2.1 × 10-7 m thick gold foil. The α-particles
were observed through a rotatable detector consisting of a Zinc sulphide screen and
microscope. It was found that CL-particles got scattered. These scattered αα-
particles produced scintillations on the zinc sulphide screen. Observations of this
experiment are as follows.

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Most of the α-particles passed through the foil without deflection.

Only about 0.14% of the incident α-particles scattered by more than 1°
Only about one α-particle in every 8000 α-particles deflected by more than 90°
These observations led to many arguments and conclusions which laid down the
structure of the nuclear model of an atom.

(i) Rutherford's atomic model can be visualised as.

(ii) Gold foil used in Geiger-Marsden experiment is about 10-8 m thick. This
ensures.
a) Gold foil's gravitational pull is small or possible.
b) Gold foil is deflected when α-particle stream is not incident centrally
over it.
c) Gold foil provides no resistance to passage of α-particles.
d) Most α-particle will not suffer more than 1° scattering during passage
through gold foil.
(iii) In Geiger-Marsden scattering experiment, the trajectory traced by an α-
particle depends on.
a) Number of collision.
b) Number of scattered αα- particles.
c) Impact parameter.
d) None of these.

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 ATOMS
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(iv) In the Geiger-Marsden scattering experiment, in case of head-on collision,

the impact parameter should be.
a) Maximum
b) Minimum
c) Infinite
d) zero
(v) The fact only a small fraction of the number of incident particles rebound
back in Rutherford scattering indicates that.
a) Number of αα-particles undergoing head-on-collision is small.
b) Mass of the atom is concentrated in a small volume.
c) Mass of the atom is concentrated in a large volume.
d) Both (a) and (b).
Multiple Choice Answers-
1. Answer: (a) of the electrons not being subject to a central force.
2. Answer: (a) in general, to any of the states with lower energy.
3. Answer: (c) 13.6 eV,-27.2 eV
4. Answer: (c) VL/25
5. Answer: (b) 1 : -1
6. Answer: (a) E
7. Answer: (c) λ1 = λ2 = 4λ3 = 9λ4
8. Answer: (a) its kinetic energy increases but potential energy and total energy decrease
9. Answer:

10. Answer: (b) jumps from higher orbit to lower orbit.

11. Answer: (c) – 3.4 eV
12. Answer: (c) All Fraunhofer lines changed into brilliant colours.
13. Answer: (d) 3λ
3 1
14. Answer: (b) ,
2 2
15. Answer:

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Very Short Answers:

1. Answer: Balmer series
2. Answer: Six.
3. Answer: It is obtained
4. Answer: The shadow of the wood is faint because only the a-radiations are
stopped by the wood (since a-radiations are least penetrating). The shadow of
lead is dark because p and y-radiations are also stopped by lead.
5. Answer: The source was 21483Bi.
6. Answer: It is 4 × 5.3 = 21.2 nm ( ∵ r = n²ro)
7. Answer:
(b) energy of photon E1 = – 3.4 – (-13.6) = 10.2 eV
(c) energy of photon E2 = 0 – (-3.4) = 3.4 eV

8. Answer: Einstein’s mass-energy equivalence gives E = mc². Thus the mass of

an H-atom is mp + me – B/c² where B ≈ 13.6 eV
9. Lyman series lies in ultraviolet region while Balmer series lies in visible region.
10.We know that,

We are given,

Therefore, Bohr’s quantisation condition for the angular momentum of an

electron in the second orbit is found to be,

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Short Questions Answers :

1. Answer: Electron volt: It is defined as the energy gained by an electron when
accelerated through a potential difference of 1 volt. Atomic mass unit: It is
defined as one-twelfth of the mass of one atom of carbon 12.
The mass of a proton is 1.67 × 10-27 kg. Therefore, energy equivalent of this mass
is E = mc² = 1.67 × 10-27 × (3 × 108)2 = 1.5 × 10-10 J
2. Answer: Bohr’s Quantisation condition: Only those orbits are permitted in
which the angular momentum of the electron is an integral multiple of h/2π.
For Brackett Series,
The shortest wavelength is for the transition of electrons from ni = ∞ to nf = 4
Using the equation

3. Answer:
1. Rutherford’s model fails to explain the line spectra of the atom.
2. Rutherford’s model cannot explain the stability of the nucleus.
4. Answer: The wavelength of an electron in the ground state of hydrogen atom
is given by

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For ground state

E = – 13.6 eV = 13.6 × 1.6 × 10-19 J
Hence wavelength of electron in the first orbit

5. Answer: (a) Bohr’s postulate for stable orbits states the electron in an atom
revolves around the nucleus only in those orbits for which its angular momentum
is an integral multiple of h/2π (h = Planck’s constant), (n = 1, 2, 3 …)
As per de Broglie’s hypothesis λ = h/p = h/mv
For a stable orbit, we must have a circumference of the orbit = nλ (n = 1, 2, 3,…)
∴ 2πr = nλ
or
mvr = nh/2π
Thus de-Broglie showed that the formation . of stationary patterns for integral
“n” gives rise to the stability of the atom.
This is nothing but Bohr’s postulate.
(b) Energy in the n = 4 level n1 = 1 and n2 = 4

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6. Answer: At the distance of the closest approach, the kinetic energy of the
alpha particle is converted into the electrostatic potential energy of the alpha
particle-nucleus system. Therefore, at the distance of the closest approach
we have
Kinetic energy = Potential energy
Therefore,

where K is the kinetic energy.

7. Answer: (a) The wavelength of photon emitted is given
by
None of these transitions correspond to a wavelength of 496 nm. The closest is 4
to 2 of 489 nm
(b) Transition 4 to 3 as the frequency of this radiation is maximum.
8. Answer: (a) Emitted photon belongs to gamma-rays part of the
electromagnetic spectrum.
(b) the energy is of the order of MeV.
(c) Four characteristics of nuclear forces are:
1) Nuclear forces are independent of charges.
2) Nuclear forces are short-range forces.
3) Nuclear forces are the strongest forces in nature, in their own small
range of few fermis.
4) Nuclear forces are saturated forces.
9. Answer: We are given:
Radius of the orbit of the Earth around the Sun,
r=1.5×1011m
Orbital speed of the Earth,
 = 3 × 104m/s
Mass of the Earth,
m= 6.0 × 1024kg
According to Bohr's model, angular momentum is quantized and could be
given as:

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 ATOMS
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nh
Mvr =
2π
Where,
h=
Planck's constant
=6.62×10−34Js
n=
Quantum number

Hence, the quanta number that characterizes the Earth' revolution is found to be
2.6×1074.
10. Answer: (a) We are given,
Total energy of the electron,
E=−3.4eV
Kinetic energy of the electron is equal to the negative of the total energy.
⇒K.E=−E
∴K.E=−(−3.4)=+3.4eV
Hence, the kinetic energy of the electron in the given state is found to be
+3.4eV.
(b) We know that, the potential energy (U) of the electron is found to be
equal to the negative of twice of its kinetic energy.
⇒U=−2K.E
∴U=−2×3.4=−6.8eV
Hence, the potential energy of the electron in the given state is found to be
−6.8eV.
(d) We know that, the potential energy of a system would depend on
the reference point taken. Here, the potential energy of the reference

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 ATOMS
12

point is taken to be zero. On changing the reference point, then the value
of the potential energy of the system would also change. Since, we know
that total energy is the sum of kinetic and potential energies, total energy
of the system will also change.
Long Questions Answers :
1. Answer: The schematic arrangement in the Geiger Marsden experiment is
shown in the figure.

Alpha-particles emitted by a Bismuth (21483Bi) radioactive source were collimated

into a narrow beam by their passage through lead bricks. The beam was allowed
to fall on a thin foil of gold of thickness 2.1 × 10-7 m. The scattered alpha-particles
were observed through a rotatable detector consisting of a zinc sulfide screen
and a microscope. The scattered alpha-particles on striking the screen produced
bright light flashes or scintillations. These scintillations could be viewed through
the microscope and counted at different angles from the direction of the incident
beam.
Significance: The experiment established the existence of a nucleus that
contained the entire positive charge and about 99.95% of the mass.
2. Answer: The electron revolving around the nucleus has two types of energy:
Kinetic energy due to its motion.
Potential energy due to it lying in the electric field of the nucleus.
Thus the total energy of the electron is given by
E = K. E. + P. E. …(1)
An electron of mass m moving around the nucleus with an orbital velocity v has
kinetic energy given by

Now the potential energy of the electron at a distance r from the nucleus is given
by
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 ATOMS
12

PE = potential due to the nucleus at a distance r × charge on the electron = V × –

e …(3)
Now the potential at a distance r from the nucleus having a charge e is given by

Substituting in equation (3) we have

Substituting equations (2) and (3) in equation 1 we have

But the radius of the nth orbit is given by

Substituting in equation (6) we have

This gives the expression for the energy possessed by the electron in the nth orbit
of the hydrogen atom.
3. Answer: (a) The maximum energy that the excited hydrogen atom can have is

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∴ The electron can only be excited up to n = 3 states.

(b) From energy tevet of hydrogen atom,
we have

Longest wavelength of Lyman senes

4. Answer: Let us consider a mechanical model of the hydrogen atom as shown in

the figure that incorporates this quantization assumption.

This atom consists of a single electron with mass m and charge – e revolving
around a single proton of charge + e. The proton is nearly 2000 times as massive
as the electron, so we can assume that the proton does not move. As the
electron revolves around the nucleus the electrostatic force of attraction
between the electron and the proton provides the necessary centripetal force.
Therefore, we have

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 ATOMS
12

This gives the radius of the nth orbit of the hydrogen atom.
If n = 1 we have r = ao which is called Bohr’s radius.

5. Answer: It states that an electron might make a transition from one of its
specified non¬radiating orbits to another of lower energy. When it does so, a
photon is emitted having energy equal to the energy difference between the
initial and final states. The frequency of the emitted photon is then given by
hv = Ei – Ef where Ei and Ef are the energies of the initial and final states

6. Answer: According to Bohr’s frequency condition, if an electron jumps from an

energy Level E to E1, then the frequency of the emitted radiation is given by
hv = E – E1 …(1)

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 ATOMS
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Let ni and nf be the corresponding orbits then

This gives the frequency of the emitted radiation.

When ni =4 and nf = 3, Paschen series
When ni = 4 and nf = 2, Balmer series
When ni = 4 and nf = 1, Lyman senes
7. Answer: We have

8. Answer: The energy corresponding to the given wavelength:

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 ATOMS
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The longest wavelength Will correspond to the transition n = 4 to n = 3

9. Answer: Let us consider a mechanical. model of the hydrogen atom as shown
in the figure.

This atom consists of a single electron with mass m and charge – e revolving
around a single proton of charge + e. As the electron revolves around the nucleus
the electrostatic force of attraction between the electron and the proton
provides the necessary centripetal force. Therefore we have,

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 ATOMS
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Substituting equation 3 in equation 2 we have

This gives the radius of the nth orbit of the hydrogen atom which shows that E
1
∝
n2
(ii) the total energy possessed by an electron in the nth orbit of the hydrogen
atom is given by
E = T + U …(1)
i.e. the sum of its kinetic and electrostatic potential energies.
An electron of mass m moving around the nucleus with an orbital velocity v has
kinetic energy given by

Now the potential energy of the electron at a distance r from the nucleus is given
by
PE = potential due to the nucleus at a distance r × charge on the electron
= V × – e …(3)
Now the potential at a distance r from the nucleus having a charge e is given by

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 ATOMS
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Substituting in equation 2 we have

Substituting equations 2 and 5 in equation 1 we have

But the radius of the nth orbit is given by

Substituting in equation 6 we have

This gives the expression for the energy possessed by the eLectron in the nth
1
orbit of the hydrogen atom which shows that E ∝
n2
(b) For H2 Line in Balmer series n1 = 2 and n2 = 3

10. Answer: It states that only those orbits are permitted in which the angular
h
momentum of the electron about the nucleus is an integral multiple of , where
2π
his Planck’s constant.
According to de Broglie, an electron of mass m moving with speed v would have a
wavelength λ given by
λ = h/mv.

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 ATOMS
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Now according to Bohr’s postulate,

But h / mv = A is the de BrogUe wavelength of the electron, therefore, the above

equation becomes 2πrn = nλ where 2πrn is the circumference of the permitted
orbit. If the wavelength of a wave does not close upon itself, destructive
interference takes place as the wave travels around the loop and quickly dies out.
Thus only waves that persist are those for which the circumference of the circular
orbit contains a whole number of wavelengths.

Numerical Problem :
Formulae for solving numerical problems

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Assertion and Reason Answers-

1. (b) Both A and R are true, but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
Explanation:
The reason is correct, but does not explain the assertion properly. Negative energy
of revolving electron indicates that it is bound to the nucleus. The electron is not
free to leave the nucleus.
2. (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
Explanation:
Helium-neon laser uses a gaseous mixture of helium and neon. An electric discharge
in the gas pumps the helium atoms to higher energy level, (which is meta stable
energy level).

Then these helium atom excite the neon atoms to higher level by collision and
produce an inverted population of neon atom which emit radiation when they are
stimutated to fall to lower level.
Case Study Answers-
1. Answer :
(i) (d) ∞
Explanation:
Number of spectral lines in hydrogen atom is ∞
(ii) (d) Lyman series
Explanation:
Lyman series lies in the ultraviolet region

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(iii) (c) 4861 A

Explanation:
The shortest Balmer line has energy = 1|(3.4 - 1.51)|1eV = 1.89eV
and the highest energy = 1(0 - 3.4)1 = 3.4eV The corresponding wavelengths
are

Only 4861A is between the first and last line of the Balmer series.
(iv) (a) A universal constant.
(v) (c) 6
2. Answer :

(i) (d)

Explanation:
Rutherford's atom had a positively charged centre and electrons were
revolving outside it. It is also called the planetary model of the atom, as in
option (d).
(ii) (d) Most α-particle will not suffer more than 1° scattering during passage
through gold foil.
Explanation:

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 ATOMS
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As the gold foil is very thin, it can be assumed that α-particles will suffer not
more than one scattering during their passage through it. Therefore,
computation of the trajectory of an αα-particle scattered by a single nucleus is
enough.
(iii) (c) Impact parameter
Explanation:
Trajectory of α-particles depends on impact parameter, which is the
perpendicular distance of the initial velocity vector of the ααparticles from the
centre of the nucleus. For small impact parameter, α particle close to the
nucleus suffers larger scattering.
(iv) (b) Minimum
Explanation:
At minimum impact parameter, α particles rebound back (θ≈π) and suffers
large scattering.
(v) (d) Both (a) and (b).
Explanation:
In case of head-on-collision, the impact parameter is minimum and the α-
particle rebounds back. So, the fact that only a small fraction of the number of
incident particles rebound back indicates that the number of α-particles
undergoing head-on collision is small. This in turn implies that the mass of the
atom is concentrated in a small volume. Hence, option (a) and (b) are
correct.ss

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CHAPTER 13: NUCLEI
 NUCLEI
13

NUCLEI
Nucleus:

The entire positive charge and nearly the entire mass of atom is concentrated in a very
small space called the nucleus of an atom.

The nucleus consists of protons and neutrons. They are called nucleons.

Atomic Number:

The number of protons in the nucleus is called the atomic number. It is denoted by Z.

Mass number:

The total number of protons and neutrons present in a nucleus is called the mass
number of the element. It is denoted by A.

Atomic Mass Unit:

The unit in which atomic and nuclear masses are measured is called atomic mass unit (u),
1
defined as th of the mass of an atom of 6C12 isotope.
12

1 12
1u = ×
12 6.02 × 1023
1u = 1.66 × 10−27 kg
1amu = 931 MeV

Nuclear Mass:

The total mass of the protons and neutrons present in a nucleus is called the nuclear
mass.

Nuclide:

A nuclide is a specific nucleus of an atom characterized by its atomic number Z and mass
number A. It is represented as, ZXA

Where X = chemical symbol of the element, Z = atomic number and A = mass number

Isotopes:

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 NUCLEI
13

The atoms of an element which have the same atomic number, but different mass
number are called isotopes.

Isotopes have similar chemical properties but different physical properties.

Isobars:

The atoms having the same mass number, but different atomic number are called
isobars.

Isotones:

The nuclides having the same number of neutrons are called isotones.

Isomers:

These are nuclei with same atomic number and same mass number but in different
energy states.

Electron Volt:

It is defined as the energy acquired by an electron when it is accelerated through a

potential difference of 1 volt and is denoted by eV.

Discovery of Neutron:
Neutron was discovered experimentally by Chadwick in the year 1932 and was awarded
Nobel Prize in Physics in 1935 for their discovery. A neutron is a neutral particle carrying
no charge and having mass roughly equal to the mass of a proton.

Now the mass of a neutron is known to a high degree of accuracy and is equal to mn =
1.67 x 10-27 kg. A free neutron is unstable and has a mean life of 1000 second. Whereas a
free proton is stable. Neutron is however stable inside the nucleus.

Size of the Nucleus:

 It is found that a nucleus of mass number A has a radius.

1
R = R 0 A3
where, R 0 = 1.2 × 10−15 m
 This implies that the volume of the nucleus, which is proportional to R 3 is
proportional A.

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Mass-Energy and Nuclear Binding Energy:

Mass-Energy:

Einstein gave the famous mass–energy equivalence E = mc2, here the energy equivalent
of mass m is related by the above equation and c is the velocity of light in vacuum and is
approximately equal to 3 × 108 m/s. Einstein's mass-energy relation has been
experimentally verified in the study of nuclear reactions amongst nucleons, nuclei,
electrons and other more recently discovered particles.

Nuclear Binding Energy:

Nucleus is made up of neutrons and protons. Therefore, mass of the nucleus (M) should
be equal to the total mass of its protons and neutrons. However, it is found to be always
less than this. This difference in mass (ΔM) is called the mass defect and is given by.

ΔM = [Zmp + (A − Z)mn ] − m
It is mass defect which appears in the form of binding energy, responsible for binding the
nucleons together in the nucleus.

Nuclear Force:

The force acting inside the nucleus or acting between nucleons is called nuclear force.

 Nuclear forces are the strongest forces in nature.

 It is a very short-range attractive force.
 It is non-central. non-conservative force.
 It is neither gravitational nor electrostatic force.
 It is independent of charge.
 It is 100 times that of electrostatic force and 1038 times that of gravitational force.

According to the Yukawa, the nuclear force acts between the nucleon due to continuous
exchange of meson particles.

Radioactivity:
It is the phenomenon of spontaneous disintegration of the nucleus of an atom with
emission of one or more radiations like α-particle, β-particle or γ −rays.

Radioactive Decay:

It is a nuclear transformation process in which the radioactive rays are emitted from the
nucleus of the atom. This process cannot be accelerated and slow down by any physical
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 NUCLEI
13

or chemical process.

Radioactivity Displacement Law:

It states that:

 When a radioactive nucleus emits an α -particle, atomic number decreases by 2

and mass number decreases by 4.
 When a radioactive nucleus emits β -particle, its atomic number increases by 1 but
mass number remains same.
 The emission of a γ -particle does not change the mass number or the atomic
number of the radioactive nucleus. The γ -particle emission by a radioactive
nucleus lowers its energy state.

Alpha Decay:

In this process, parent nucleus disintegrates to give a daughter nucleus and helium
nucleus or an alpha-particle. Mass number of the daughter nucleus decreases by four
units and atomic number decreases by two units. A typical example of this decay mode
is.
238
U92 → He42 + Th234
90

Thus, daughter nucleus is shifted in periodic table by 2 unit in backward direction.

Beta Decay:

It is the process of emission of an electron from a radioactive nucleus. It may be

represented as,
A
ZX → A
Z+1Y
̅
+ −10e + V
Gamma Decay:

Alpha and beta decays of a radioactive nucleus leave the daughter nucleus in an excited
state. If the excitation energy available with the daughter nucleus is not sufficient for
further particle emission, it loses its energy by emitting electromagnetic radiations, also
known as Gamma-rays. Mass and charge of the daughter nucleus remains the same as
before the emission of Gamma-rays.

Ba137 137
56 → Ba56 + γ

Alpha and beta decays of a radioactive nucleus leave the daughter nucleus in an excited
state. If the excitation energy available with the daughter nucleus is not sufficient for
further particle emission, it loses its energy by emitting electromagnetic radiations,
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 NUCLEI
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alsoknown as Gamma-rays. Mass and charge of the daughter nucleus remains the same
as before the emission of Gamma-rays.

Law of Radioactive Decay:

According to the law of radioactive disintegration the rate of spontaneous disintegration

of a radioactive element is proportional to the number of nuclei present at that time.

Mathematically, it can be written as

dN
∞N … (1)
dt
Where, N is the number of atoms present at time t. Removing Proportionality sign, we
get

dN
= −λN … (2)
dt
Where, λ is a constant of proportionality and is known as decay constant of the element.
Negative sign indicates that as t increase N decreases.
dN
= −λdt … (3)
N
Integrating both sides, we have

dn
∫ = −λ∫ dt
N
log e(N) = −λt + C … (4)
where C is constant of integration and is evaluated by the fact that at t = 0, number of
atoms of the radioactive element is N0. Using this condition, we get

C = log e(N0 ) … (5)

Substituting this value of C in Eq. (5), we get

log e(N) = −λ + log e(N0 )

log e (N) − log e(N0 ) = −λt
Thus, N = N0 e−λt … (6)

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Exponential decay curve

Decay or disintegration Constant:

It may be defined as the reciprocal or the time interval in which the number of active
nuclei in a given radioactive sample reduces to 36.8% of its initial value.

Half-life:

The half-life of a radioactive substance is the time in which one-half of its nuclei will
disintegrate. It is inversely proportional to the decay constant of the radioactive
substance.

0.693
T1 =
2 λ
Mean Life:

The mean-life of a radioactive sample is defined as the ratio of the combined age of all
the atoms and the total number of atoms in the given sample. It is given by,

T1
2
τ= = 1.44T1
0.693 2
Curie:

It is the SI unit of decay.

One curie is the decay rate of 3.7 × 1010 disintegrations per second.

Rutherford:

One Rutherford is the decay rate of 106 disintegrations per second.

Natural Radioactivity:

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It is the phenomenon of the spontaneous emission of, α and γ radiations from the nuclei
of naturally occurring isotopes.

Artificial or Induced Radioactivity:

It is the phenomenon of inducing radioactivity in certain stable nuclei by bombarding

them by suitable high energy subatomic particles.

Nuclear Reaction:

It is a reaction which involves the change of stable nuclei of one element into the nucleus
of another element.

Nuclear Energy:
Nuclear Fission:

The process of the splitting of a heavy nucleus into two or more lighter nuclei is called
nuclear fission. When a slow-moving neutron strikes with a uranium nucleus ( 92U235), it
splits into 56Ba144 and 36Kr89 along with three neutrons and a lot of energy.
235
U92 + n10 → Ba144 89 1
56 + Kr36 + 3n0

Nuclear fusion:

The process of combining of two lighter nuclei to form one heavy nucleus, is called
nuclear fusion.

H12 + H12 → He32 + n10

In this process, a large amount of energy is released. Hydrogen bomb is based on nuclear
fusion. The source of Sun’s energy is the nuclear fusion taking place at sun.

Critical size and Critical Mass:

 The size of the fissionable material for which reproduction factor is unity is called
critical size and its mass is called critical mass of the material.
 The chain reaction in this case remains steady or sustained.

Moderator:

Any substance which is used to slow down fast-moving neutrons to thermal energies is
called a moderator.
The commonly used moderators are water, heavy water (D 2O) and graphite.

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Important Questions

Multiple Choice questions-

Question 1. When a nucleus in an atom undergoes a radioactive decay, the electronic
energy levels of the atom:
(a) do not change for any type of radioactivity.
(b) change for α and ß radioactivity but not for γ-radioactivity.
(c) change for α-radioactivity but not for others.
(d) change for ß-radioactivity but not for others.

Question 2. A radioactive isotope has a half-life of T years. The time it takes its
activity to reduce to 3.125% is
(a) 5 T
(b) 6.654 T
(c) 5.645 T
(d) 6.654 T

Question 3. For a radioactive material, half-life is 10 minutes. If initially there are 600
number of nuclei, the time taken (in minutes) for the disintegration of 450 nuclei is:
(a) 20
(b) 10
(c) 30
(d) 15

Question 4. A nuclear explosive is designed to deliver 1 MW power in the form of

heat energy. If the explosion is designed with nuclear fuel consisting of U 235 to run a
reactor at this power level for one year, then the amount of fuel needed is (given
energy per fission is 200 MeV)
(a) 1 kg
(b) 0.01 kg
(c) 3.84 kg
(d) 0.384 kg

Question 5. When the radioactive isotope 88Ra226 decays in a series by emission of

three alpha (α) and a beta (ß) particle, the isotope X which remains undecayed is
(a) 83X214
(b) 84X218
(c) 84X220
(d) 87X223

Question 6. Fusion reaction takes place, at high temperature because:

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(a) nuclei break up at high temperature

(b) atoms get ionised at high temperature
(c) kinetic energy is high enough to overcome the coulomb repulsion between nuclei
(d) molecules break up at high temperature

Question 7. Half-lives of two radioactive elements A and B are 20 minutes and 40

minutes, respectively. Initially, the samples have equal number of nuclei. After 80
minutes, the ratio of decayed numbers of A and B nuclei will be:
(a) 1 : 16
(b) 4 : 1
(c) 1 : 4
(d) 5 : 4

Question 8. Radioactive material ‘A’ has decay constant ‘8 λ’ and material ‘B’ has
decay constant ‘λ’. Initially they have same number of nuclei. After what time, the
ratio of number of nuclei of material ‘B’ to that ‘A’ will be 1/e?

Question 9. A radioactive nucleus A with a half-life T decays into a nucleus B. At t = 0,

there is no nucleus B. At some time, t the ratio of the number of B to that of A is 0.3.
Then, t is given by:

Very Short Answer Questions-

1. Complete the following nuclear reactions:

2. What is the Q-value of a nuclear reaction?

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3. The wavelengths of some of the spectral lines obtained in hydrogen spectrum are
9546Ao,

6463Ao and 1216Ao. Which one of these wavelengths belongs to the Lyman series?

4. Write the empirical relation for paschen series lines of hydrogen atoms.

5. What will be the ratio of the radii of two nuclei of mass numbers A 1 and A2?

6. Two nuclei have mass numbers in the ratio 1: 2. What is the ratio of their nuclear
densities?

7. A nucleus of mass number A has a mass defect Δm. Give the formula, for the
binding energy per nucleon of this nucleus.

8. Write the relation between half-life and decay constant of a radioactive sample.

9. Write the nuclear decay process for β-decay of 1532P.

10. State the relation between the mean life (τ) of a radioactive element and its decay
constant λ.

Short Answer Questions-

Question 1. Draw the curve showing the binding energy/nucleon with a mass number
of different nuclei. Briefly state, how nuclear fusion and nuclear fission can be
explained on the basis of this graph.

Question 2. Define decay constant for a radioactive sample. Which of the following
radiations α, β, and γ rays
(i) are similar to X-rays,
(ii) are easily absorbed by matter, and
(iii) are similar in nature to cathode rays?

Question 3. State the law of radioactive decay.

Plot a graph showing the number of undecayed nuclei as a function of time (t) for a
given radioactive sample having a half-life T1/2.
Depict In the plot the number of undecayed nuclei at (i) t = 3T1/2 and (ii) t = 5 T1/2 (CBSE
Delhi 2011)

Question 4. Draw a plot of the potential energy of a pair of nucleons as a function of

their separations. Mark the regions where the nuclear force is (i) attractive and (ii)
repulsive. Write any two characteristic features of nuclear forces. (CBSE AI 2012)

Question 5.

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(a) Write the relation for binding energy (BE) (in MeV) of a nucleus of mass ZA M atomic
number (Z) and mass number (A) in terms of the masses of its constituents – neutrons
and protons.

(b) Draw a plot of BE/A versus mass number A for 2 ≤ A ≤ 170. Use this graph to
explain the release of energy in the process of nuclear fusion of two light nuclei. (CBSE
Delhi 2014C)

Question 6. If both the number of neutrons and the number of protons are conserved
in each nuclear reaction, in what way is mass converted into energy (or vice versa) in a
nuclear reaction? Explain. (CBSE AI2016C)

Question 7. State two properties of nuclear forces. Write the relation between half-life
and decay constant of a radioactive nucleus. (CBSE AI 2017C)

Question 8.
(a) Draw a graph showing the variation of binding energy per nucleon (BE/A) vs mass
number A for the nuclei in 20 ≤ A ≤ 170.

(b) A nucleus of mass number 240 and having binding energy/nucleon 7.6 MeV splits
into two fragments Y, 1 of mass numbers 110 and 130 respectively. If the binding
energy/ nucleon of Y, 1 is equal to 8.5 MeV each, calculate the energy released in the
nuclear reaction. (CBSE Al 2017C)

Question 9. Explain with the help of an example, whether the neutron-proton ratio in
a nucleus increases or decreases due to beta decay.

Question 10. How is the size of a nucleus experimentally determined? Write the
relation between the radius and mass number of the nucleus. Show that the density of
the nucleus is independent of its mass number. (CBSE Delhi 2011C)

Long Answer’s Questions-

1. The wavelength of the first member of the Balmer series in the hydrogen
spectrum is 6563A0 . Calculate the wavelength of the first member of Lyman series
in the same spectrum.

2. A neutron is absorbed by a 63 Li nucleus with subsequent emission

of α−particle. Write the corresponding nuclear reaction. Calculate the energy
released in this reaction. Given mass of 6
3 Li=6.015126a.m.u. , Mass
of 4
2 He=4.00026044 a.m.u., Mass of neutron 1
0 n=1.0086654 a.m.u. Mass of
tritium 1
1 H=3.016049 a.m.u.

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3. Define decay constant of a radioactive sample. Which of the following

radiation α−rays, β−rays and γ−rays.
a) Are they similar to X – rays?
b) Are they easily absorbed by matter?
4. State radioactive decay law and hence derive the relation N=N0e−λt where
symbols have their usual meanings.
5. Define half life and decay constant of a radioactive element. Write their S.I. unit.
Define expression for half life.
6. Draw a curve between mass number and binding energy per nucleon. Give two
salient features of the curve. Hence define binding energy.
7.

a) Two stable isotopes of lithium 6 7

3 Li and 3 Li have respective abundances
of 7.5 and 92.5 . These isotopes have masses 6.01512u and 7.01600u
respectively. Find the atomic mass of lithium.
10
b) Boron has two stable isotopes, 5 B and 11
5 B. Their respective masses
are 10.01294u and 11.00931u , and the atomic mass of boron is 10.811u . Find
10 11
the abundances of 5 B and 5 B.
56 209
8. Obtain the binding energy of the nuclei 26 Fe and 83 Bi in units of MeV
from the following data: m( 56 209
26 Fe)=55.934939u, m( 83 Bi)=208.980388u.
Assertion and Reason Questions-
1. For question, statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled
Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a) (b) (c) and
(d) as given below.

a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

b) Both A and R are true, but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true, but R is false.
d) A is false and R is also false.

Assertion (A): Thermonuclear fusion reactions may become the source of unlimited
power for the mankind.

Reason (R): A single fusion event involving isotopes of hydrogen produces more energy
than energy from nuclear fission of a single uranium.

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2. For question, statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled
Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a) (b) (c) and
(d) as given below.

a. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

b. Both A and R are true, but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
c. A is true, but R is false.
d. A is false and R is also false.

Assertion (A): A fission reaction can be more easily controlled than a fission reaction.

Reason (R): The percentage of mass converted to energy in a fission reaction is 0.1%
whereas in a fission reaction it is 0.4%

Case Study Questions-

1. When subatomic particles undergo reactions, energy is conserved, but mass is not
necessarily conserved. However, a particle's mass “contributes” to its total energy, in
accordance with Einstein's famous equation, E = mc 2 In this equation, E denotes the
energy carried by a particle because of its mass. The particle can also have additional
energy due to its motion and its interactions with other particles. Consider a neutron at
rest and well separated from other particles. It decays into a proton, an electron and an
undetected third particle as given here: Neutron → proton + electron + ???

The given table summarizes some data from a single neutron decay. Electron volt is a
unit of energy. Column 2 shows the rest mass of the particle times the speed of light
squared.

Particle Mass × c2 (MeV) Kinetic energy

(MeV)
Neutron 940.97 0.00
Proton 939.67 0.01
Electron 0.51 0.39

(i) From the given table, which properties of the undetected third particle can be
calculate?

a) Total energy, but not kinetic energy.

b) Kinetic energy, but not total energy.
c) Both total energy and kinetic energy.
d) Neither total energy nor kinetic energy.

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(ii) Assuming the table contains no major errors, what can we conclude about the
(mass × c2) of the undetected third particle?

a) It is 0. 79 MeV
b) It is 0.39 MeV
c) It is less than or equal to 0.79 MeV; but we cannot be more precise.
d) It is less than or equal to 0.40 MeV; but we cannot be more precise.

(iii) Could this reaction occur?

Proton → neutron + other particles

a) Yes, if the other particles have much more kinetic energy than mass energy.
b) Yes, but only if the proton has potential energy (due to interactions with
other particles).
c) No, because a neutron is more massive than a proton.
d) No, because a proton is positively charged while a neutron is electrically
neutral.

(iv) How much mass has to be converted into energy to produce electric power of
500MW for one hour?

a) 2 × 10-5kg
b) 1 × 10-5kg
c) 3 × 10-5kg
d) 4 × 10-5kg

(v) The equivalent energy of 1g of substance is.

a) 9 × 1013J
b) 6 × 1012J
c) 3 × 1013J
d) 6 × 1013J

2. Neutrons and protons are identical particle in the sense that their masses are nearly
the same and the force, called nuclear force, does into distinguish them. Nuclear force
is the strongest force. Stability of nucleus is determined by the neutron proton ratio or
mass defect or packing fraction. Shape of nucleus is calculated by quadrupole moment
and spin of nucleus depends on even or odd mass number. Volume of nucleus depends
on the mass number. Whole mass of the atom (nearly 99%) is centered at the nucleus.

(i) The correct statements about the nuclear force is/ are.

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a) Change independent.
b) Short range force.
c) Non-conservative force.
d) All of these.

(ii) The range of nuclear force is the order of.

a) 2 × 10-10m
b) 1.5 × 10-20m
c) 1.2.× 10-4m
d) 1.4 × 10-15m

(iii) A force between two protons is same as the force between proton and neutron.
The nature of the force is.

a) Electrical force.
b) Weak nuclear force.
c) Gravitational force.
d) Strong nuclear force.

(iv) Two protons are kept at a separation of 40 A. F n is the nuclear force and Fe is the
electrostatic force between them. Then.

a) Fn << Fe
b) Fn = Fe
c) Fn >> Fe
d) Fn = Fe

(v) AD the nucleons in an atom are held by.

a) Nuclear forces
b) Van der Waal's forces
c) Tensor forces
d) Coulomb forces

Multiple Choice Question’s Answers-

1. Answer: (b) change for α and ß radioactivity but not for γ-radioactivity.
2. Answer: (a) 5 T
3. Answer: (a) 20
4. Answer: (d) 0.384 kg
5. Answer: (a) 83X214

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6. Answer: (c) kinetic energy is high enough to overcome the coulomb repulsion
between nuclei
7. Answer: (d) 5 : 4
𝟏
8. Answer: (a)
𝟕𝝀
𝑻𝒍𝒐𝒈(𝟏.𝟑)
9. Answer: (d) t =
𝐥𝐨𝐠(𝟐)
Very Short Answers-
1. Ans: (a)

Ans: (b)

2. Ans: Q−value = (Mass of reactants − Mass of products)

3. Ans: 1216Ao belong to the Lyman series.

4. Ans:

5. Ans:

6. Ans: The densities of both nuclei are equal as they do not depend upon mass
number.

7. Ans:

8. Ans:

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9. Ans:

10. Ans:

The two are related as τ = 1 / λ.

Short Answers -
1. Answer: The diagram is as shown.

Light nuclei have a small value of binding energy per nucleon, therefore to become
more stable they fuse to increase their binding energy per nucleon.

A very heavy nucleus, say A 240, has Lower binding energy per nucleon compared to
that of a nucleus with A = 120. Thus if a nucleus A = 240 breaks into two A = 120 nuclei,
nucleons get more tightly bound. This implies energy would be released in the process.

2. Answer: The decay constant is defined as the reciprocal of that time duration for
which the number of nuclei of the radioactive sample decays to 1 / e or 37 % of its
original value.
(i) Gamma
(ii) Alpha
(iii) Beta

3. Answer: The number of nuclei disintegrating per second is proportional to the

number of nuclei present at the time of disintegration and is independent of alt
physical conditions like temperature, pressure, humidity, chemical composition, etc.

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The plot is as shown.

4. Answer:

For r > r0 (attraction), For r < r0 (repulsion)

1. Strong attractive force (stronger than the repulsive electric force between the
protons)
2. Are short-range forces.

5. Answer:
(a) The required expression is
ΔE = (Zmp + (A – Z) mn – M) × 931 MeV

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(b)

Since the binding energy of the smaller nuclei like hydrogen is less, therefore they
fuse together to form helium in order to increase their binding energy per nucleon
and become stable. This means that the final system is more tightly bound than the
initial system. Again energy would be released in such a process of fusion.

6. Answer: We know that the binding energy of a nucleus gives a negative

contribution to the mass of the nucleus (mass defect). Now, since proton number
and neutron number are conserved in a nuclear reaction the total rest mass of
neutrons and protons is the same on either side of a reaction. But the total binding
energy of nuclei on the left side need not be the same as that on the right-hand
side.

The difference in these binding energies appears as the energy released or

absorbed in a nuclear reaction. Since binding energy contributes to mass, we say
that the difference in the total mass of nuclei on the two sides gets converted into
energy or vice-versa.

7. Answer:

1.They are saturated forces.

2.They are charge - independent.

The required relation is

8. Answer:

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(a)

Since the binding energy of the smaller nuclei like hydrogen is less, therefore they
fuse together to form helium in order to increase their binding energy per nucleon
and become stable. This means that the final system is more tightly bound than the
initial system. Again energy would be released in such a process of fusion.

(B) Energy released per fission

= (110 + 130) × 8.5 – 240 × 7.6
= 240 × (8.5 – 7.6) MeV
= 240 × 0.9
= 216.0 MeV

9. Answer:
Consider the following decay

Number of neutrons before beta decay

= 234-90 = 144
Number of neutrons after beta decay
= 234-91 =143
Number of protons before beta decay
= 90
Number of protons after beta decay
= 91
Neutron-proton ratio before beta decay
144
= = 1.6
90

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Neutron-proton ratio after beta decay

143
= = 1.57
91
Thus neutron-proton ratio decreases during beta decay.

10. Answer: The size of the nucleus can be determined by the Rutherford
experiments on alpha particles scattering. The distance of the nearest approach is
approximately the size of the nucleus. Here it is assumed that only coulomb
repulsive force caused scattering. With alpha rays of 5.5 MeV, the size of the
nucleus was found to be less than 4 × 10-14 m. By doing scattering experiments with
fast electrons bombarding targets of different elements, the size of the nuclei of
various elements determined accurately.

The required relation is

R = RoA1/3, where Ro = 1.2 × 10-15 m

The density of a nucleus of mass number A and radius R is given by

which is independent of the mass number A.

Long Answers-
1. Ans: It is known that,

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2. Ans:

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⇒ Mass = 1.0086654 + 6.015126 = 7.0237914 a.m.u

Mass Defect, Δm=mass of reactant mass of product
⇒ Δm = 7.02371947.0186534
⇒ Δm = 0.005138 a.m.u.
It is known that, 1a.m.u.= 931MeV
Energy released, E=Δm × 931MeV
⇒ E = 0.005138 × 931
⇒ E = 4.783MeV

3. Ans:
(a) Radioactive decay constant(λ) is the reciprocal of time during which the
number of atoms in the radioactive substance is reduced to 36.8 of the original
number of atoms in it.
γ−rays are similar to X-rays.
(b) Penetration power of α−rays is less than that of β−rays and γ−rays.
So γ−rays are easily absorbed by matter.
4. Ans: From the radioactive decay law, the rate of disintegration of a radioactive
substance at an instant is directly proportional to the number of nuclei in the
radioactive substance at that time i.e.
N=N0e−λt where symbols have their usual meanings
Consider a radioactive substance having N0 atoms initially at time(t=0). After
time(t), let the number of atoms left undecayed be N.
If dN is the number of atoms decayed in time dt, then

Where,
λ is the decay constant and negative sign indicates that a radioactive sample goes
on decreasing with time.

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Integrating both the sides

5. Ans: The time during which half of the atoms of the radioactive substance
disintegrate is called half life of a radioactive substance.

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Radioactive decay constant(λ) is the reciprocal of the time during which the
number of atoms in the radioactive substance reduces to 36.8 of the original
number of atoms in it.
S.I. unit – s−1 or min−1

6. Ans: The total energy required to disintegrate the nucleus into its constituent
particles is called binding energy of the nucleus.

Salient features of the curve

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(i) The intermediate nuclei have a large value of binding energy per nucleon, so
they are most stable. (For 30<A>63 )
(ii) The binding energy per nucleon has low value for both the light and heavy
nuclei. So, they are unstable nuclei.
7. Ans: (a) Given that,

(b) It is given that,

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8. Ans. Given that,

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Assertion and Reason Answers-

1. (c) A is true, but R is false.

Explanation:

When fusion is achieved by raising the temperature of the system so that particles have
enough kinetic energy to overcome the coulomb repulsive behaviour, it is called
thermonuclear fusion. It is clean source of energy, but energy released in one fusion is
much less than a single uranium fission.

2. Both A and R are true, but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:

Percentage of mass converted to energy in a fission reaction is 0.1% whereas in a fusion

reaction it is 0.4%. Consequently, the amount of energy released is more in a fusion
than in a fission reaction. II is not easy Jo control a fusion reaction.

Case Study Answers-

1. Answer :

(i) (a) Total energy, but not kinetic energy.

Explanation:

As just shown, energy conservation allows us to calculate the third particle's total
energy. But we do not know what percentage of that total is mass energy.

(ii) (d) It is less than or equal to 0.40 MeV, but we cannot be more precise.

Explanation:

According to the passage, subatomic reactions do not conserve mass. So, we

cannot find the third particle's mass by setting mneutronequal to-

mproton + melectron +Ethird particle

The neutron has energy 940.97 MeV. The proton has energy 939.67 MeV + 0.01
MeV = 939.69 MeV. The electron has energy 0.51 MeV + 0.39 MeV = 0.90 MeV.
Therefore, the third particle has energy.

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Ethird particle = Eneutron – Eproton − Eelectron

= 940.97 - 939.67 - 0.90 = 0.40 MeV

We just found the third particle's total energy, the sum of its mass energy and
kinetic energy. Without more information, we cannot figure out how much of that
energy is mass energy.

(iii) (b) Yes, but only if the proton has potential energy (due to interactions with
other particles).

(iv) (a) 2 × 10-5kg

Explanation:

Here, P = 500MW = 5 × 108W,

t = 1h = 3600s

Energy produced, E = P × t = 5 × 108 × 3600 = 18 × 1011J

(v) (a) 9 × 1013J

Explanation:

Using, E = mc2

Here, m = 1g = 1 × 10-3kg, c = 3 × 108m s-1

∴∴ E = 10-3 × 9 × 1016 = 9 × 1013J

2. Answer :

(i) (d) All of these.

Explanation:

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All options are basic properties of nuclear forces. So, all options are correct.

(ii) (d) 1.4 × 10-15m

Explanation:

The nuclear force is of short range and the range of nuclear force is the order of
1.4 × 10-15m. Now, volume ∞R3∞A

(iii) (d) Strong nuclear force.

(iv) (a) Fn << Fe

Explanation:

Nuclear force is much stronger than the electrostatic force inside the nucleus i.e.,
at distances of the order of fermi. At 40 A, nuclear force is ineffective and only
electrostatic force of repulsion is present. This is very high at this distance because
nuclear force is not acting now and the gravitational force is very feeble.
Fnuclear <<Felcctrostatic in this case.

(v) (a) Nuclear forces

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CHAPTER 14: SEMICONDUCTOR ELECTRONICS
 SEMICONDUCTOR ELECTRONICS
14

SEMICONDUCTOR ELECTRONICS
Classification of Metals:

On the basis of the relative values of electrical conductivity (σ) or resistivity

1
(ρ = ), the solids are broadly classified as:
σ

Metals:

They possess very low resistivity (or high conductivity).

ρ ∼ 10−2 − 10−8 Ω m
σ ∼ 102 − 108 S m−1
Semiconductors:

They have resistivity or conductivity intermediate to metals and insulators.

ρ ∼ 10−5 − 106 Ω m
σ ∼ 105 − 106 S m−1
Insulators:

They have high resistivity (or low conductivity).

ρ ∼ 1011 − 1019 Ω m
σ ∼ 10−11 − 10−19 S m−1
Classification of Metals on the Basis of Energy Bands:

When the atoms come together to form a solid they are so close to each other that
the fields of electrons of outer orbits from neighboring atoms overlap. This makes the
nature of electron motion in a solid very different from that in an isolated atom. Inside
the solid, each electron has a unique position, and no two electrons have same
pattern of surrounding charges.

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 SEMICONDUCTOR ELECTRONICS
14

Metals:

In metals, conduction band and valence band are overlapped to each other. The
electrons from the valence band can easily move into the conduction band. Normally,
the conduction band is empty but when it overlaps on the valence band, electrons can
move freely into it, and it conducts electric current through it.

Semiconductors:
Semiconductors are the core fundamental materials which are used in solid-state
electronic devices such as transistors, diodes etc. The material’s atomic structure
decides whether the material will turn out to be a metal, semiconductor, or insulator.
Semiconductors could also be elements such as Ge, Si or compounds such as CdS or
GaAs.

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 SEMICONDUCTOR ELECTRONICS
14

Insulators:

In semiconductors, a small and finite energy band gap exists. Because of the small
energy band gap some electrons from valence band, at room temperature, acquire
enough energy to cross the energy gap and enter the conduction band. These
electrons are very few and can move in the conduction band. Hence, the resistance of
semiconductors is not as high as that of the insulators.

Intrinsic Semiconductor:

The pure semiconductors in which the electrical conductivity is totally governed by the
electrons excited from the valence band to the conduction band and in which no
impurity atoms are added to increase their conductivity are called intrinsic
semiconductors and their conductivity is called intrinsic conductivity. Electrical
conduction in pure semiconductors occurs by means of electron-hole pairs. In an
intrinsic semiconductor,

ne = nh = ni

where ne = the free electron density in conduction band, nh = the hole density in
valence band, and ni = the intrinsic carrier concentration.

Extrinsic Semiconductors:

A Semiconductor doped with suitable impurity atoms so as to increase its conductivity

is called an extrinsic semiconductor.

Types of Semiconductor:
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 SEMICONDUCTOR ELECTRONICS
14

Extrinsic semiconductors are basically of two types:

n-type semiconductors:

The pentavalent impurity atoms are called donors because they donate electrons to
the host crystal and the semiconductor doped with donors is called n-type
semiconductor. In n-type semiconductors, electrons are the majority charge carriers
and holes are the minority charge carriers. Thus, ne≫nh

p-type semiconductors:

The trivalent impurity atoms are called acceptors because they create holes which can
accept electrons from the nearby bonds. A semiconductor doped with acceptor type

impurities is called a p-type semiconductor. In p-type semiconductor, holes are the

majority carriers and electrons are the minority charge carriers Thus,

n h ≫ ne

Diode:
Diodes are being for the purpose of AC voltage rectification which means restricting
the voltage to follow one direction only using a capacitor or a filter, a dc voltage can
be achieved.

The types of diodes are:

Zener Diode: This is used in places where voltage regulation is needed.

P-N junction diode: It is used in photonic or optoelectronic devices and the entity is
the photon. Examples are solar cells, light-emitting diodes etc.

Holes:

The vacancy or absence of electron in the bond of a covalently bonded crystal is called
a hole. A hole serves as a positive charge carrier.

p-n Junction Formation:

In the n-region of a p-n junction, the concentration of free electrons is higher than
that of holes, whereas in the p-region, the concentration of holes is much higher than
that of free electrons. Therefore, when a p-n junction is formed, some electrons from
the n-region will diffuse into the p-region. Since the hole is nothing but the vacancy of
an electron, an electron diffusing from the n- to the p-region simply fills this vacancy,
i.e., it completes the covalent bond. This process is called electron-hole

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recombination.

Semiconductor Diode:

A semiconductor diode is basically a p-n junction with metallic contacts provided at

the ends for the application of an external voltage. The symbol for the simplest
electronic device, namely the p-n junction is shown as. The direction of the thick arrow
is from the p to the n-region. The p-side is called the anode and the n-side is known as
the cathode.

Forward Biasing of a pn-junction:

If the positive terminal of a battery is connected to the p-side and the negative
terminal to the n-side, then the pn-junction is said to be forward biased. Both
electrons and holes move towards the junction. A current, called forward current,
flows across the junction. Thus, a pn-junction offers a low resistance when it is
forward biased.

Reverse Biasing of a pn-junction:

If the positive terminal of a battery is connected to the n-side and negative terminal to
the p-side, then pn-junction is said to be reverse biased. The majority charge carriers
move away from the junction. The potential barrier offers high resistance during the

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reverse bias. However, due to the minority charge carriers a small current, called
reverse or leakage current flows in the opposite direction. Thus, junction diode has
almost a unidirectional flow of current.

Characteristics of Junction Diode:

With increasing forward bias, the current first increases non-linearly up to a certain
forward-biased voltage called knee voltage or cut-in voltage and beyond which the
current varies non-linearly.

Diode as Rectifier:
The process of converting alternating voltage/ current into direct voltage/ current is
called rectification. Diode is used as a rectifier for converting alternating current/
voltage into direct current/ voltage.

There are two ways of using a diode as a rectifier i.e.

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Half-wave Rectifier:

Let during the first half of AC input cycle, the end A of secondary S of transformer be
at positive potential and end B at the negative potential. In this situation, the diode is
forward biased and a current flow in the circuit. Consequently, an output voltage
across load RL is obtained.

During the second half of AC input, the end A of secondary S of transformer is at

negative potential and diode D is in reverse bias. So, no current flows through load R L
and there is no output voltage across RL.

In the next positive half-cycle of AC input, we again get the output and so on. Thus, we
get output voltage as shown in Fig. Here, the output voltage, though still varying in
magnitude, is restricted to only one direction, and is said to be rectified. Since, the
rectified output of the circuit is obtained only for half of the input AC wave, the device
is called half-wave rectifier.

Full-wave rectifier:

During the first half cycle of the input voltage, the terminal A is positive with respect
to O while B is negative with respect to O. Diode first is forward bias and conducts
while diode second is reverse bias and does not conduct, the current flow through RL
from D To O. During the second half cycle, A is negative, and B is positive with respect
to O, thus diode first is reverse bias and diode second is forward biased. The current
through RL is in the same direction as during the first half cycle. The resulting output
current is a continuous series.

As we are getting output in positive half as well as negative half of AC input cycle, the

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rectifier is called a full wave rectifier. Obviously, this is a more efficient circuit for
getting rectified voltage or current than a half wave rectifier.

Zener diode:

The specially designed junction diodes which can operate in the reverse breakdown
voltage region continuously without being damaged, are called Zener diodes.

Photodiode:

A junction diode made from photosensitive semiconductor is called a photodiode. In

photodiode one region is made so thin that incident light may reach the depletion
region.

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Light-Emitting Diode (LED):

Light-emitting diode is a heavily doped p-n junction encapsulated with a transparent

cover so that emitted light can come out. When the forward current of the diode is
small the intensity of light emitted is small. As the forward current increases, intensity
of light increases and reaches a maximum.

Solar cell:

In a solar cell, one region is made very thin so that most of the light incident on it
reaches the depletion region. In this diode when photons of visible light incident to
depletion region, electrons jump from valence band to conduction band producing
electron-hole pairs.

Action of a transistor:

When the emitter-base junction of an n-p-n-transistor is forward biased, the electrons

are pushed towards the base. As the base region is very thin and lightly doped, most
of the electrons cross over to the reverse biased collector. Since few electrons and
holes always recombine in the base region, so the collector current I c is always slightly
less then emitter current IE.

IE = IC + IB
Where IB is the base current.

Digital Electronics and Logic Gates:

There are three basic logic gates:

(i) OR gate (ii) AND gate, and (iii) NOT gate.

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NOT Gate:

This is the most basic gate, with one input and one output. It produces an inverted
version of the input at its output i.e., it produces a ‘1’ output if the input is ‘0’ and vice
versa. This is why it is also known as an inverter.

AND gate:

An AND gate can have any number of inputs but only one output. It gives a high
output (1) if inputs A and B are both high (1), or else the output is low (0). It is
described by the Boolean expression.

A.B = Y

Which is read as ‘A and B equals Y.

Combination of Gates:

The NAND gate:

If the output Y' of AND gate is connected to the input of NOT gate, the gate so
obtained is called NAND gate. Boolean expression for the NAND gate is Y = ̅̅̅̅̅
A. B
The NOR gate:

If the output (Y') of OR gate is connected to the input of a NOT gate, the gate so
obtained is called the NOR gate. Boolean expression for the NOR gate is Y = ̅̅̅̅̅̅̅
A + B.
Integrated Circuits:

The concept of fabricating an entire circuit (consisting of many passive components

like R and C and active devices like diode and transistor) on a small single block (or
chip) of a semiconductor has revolutionized the electronics technology. Such a circuit
is known as Integrated Circuit (IC).

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Important Questions

Multiple Choice questions-

1. In the figure, assuming the diodes to be ideal,

A. D1 is forward biased and D2 is reverse biased and hence current flows from A
to B.
B. D2 is forward biased and D1 is reverse biased and hence no current flows
from B to A and vice versa.
C. D1 and D2 are both forward biased and hence current flows from A to B.
D. D1 and D2 are both reverse biased and hence no current flows from A to B
and vice versa.
2. Hole is:
A. an anti-particle of electron.
B. a vacancy created when an electron leaves a covalent bond.
C. absence of free electrons.
D. an artificially created particle.
3. For the depletion region of a diode which one is incorrect?
A. There are no mobile charges.
B. Equal number of holes and electrons exists, making the region neutral.
C. Recombination of holes and electrons has taken place.
D. Immobile charged ions exist.
4. To reduce the ripples in a rectifier circuit with capacitor filter which one is
false?
A. RL should be increased.
B. Input frequency should be decreased.
C. Input frequency should be increased.
D. Capacitors with high capacitance should be used.

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5. Carbon, silicon and germanium have four valence electrons each. These are
characterised by valence and conduction bands separated by energy band gap
respectively equal to (Eg)C, (Eg)Si and (Eg) Ge. Which of the following
statements is true?
A. (Eg)Si < (Eg)Ge < (Eg)C
B. (Eg)C < (Eg)Ge > (Eg)Si
C. (Eg)C > (Eg)Si > (Eg)Ge
D. (Eg)C = (Eg)Si = (Eg)Ge
6. In an unbiased p-n junction, holes diffuse from the p-region to n-region
because:
A. free electrons in the n-region attract them.
B. they move across the junction by the potential difference.
C. hole concentration in p-region is more as compared to n-region.
D. All the above.
7. In a p-n junction diode, change in temperature due to heating:
A. affects only reverse resistance
B. affects only forward resistance
C. Does not affect resistance of p-n junction
D. affects the overall V-I characteristics of p-n junction
8. A specimen of silicon is to be made p-type semiconductor for this one atom of
indium, on an average, is doped in 5 × 107 silicon atoms. If the number density
of silicon is 5 × 1022 atoms m-3, then the number of acceptor atoms per cm³ will
be:
A. 2.5 × 1030
B. 1.0 × 1013
C. 1.0 × 1015
D. 2.5 × 1036
9. The given circuit has two ideal diodes connected as shown in the figure below.
The current flowing through the resistance R1 will be:

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A. 1.43 A
B. 3.13 A
C. 2.5 A
D. 10.0 A
10. Consider the junction diode as ideal. The value of current flowing through AB
is:

A. 0A
B. 10-2A
C. 10-1 A
D. 10-3 A

Very Short Questions:

1. Give the ratio of number of holes and the number of conduction electrons in
an intrinsic semiconductor.
2. What type of impurity is added to obtain n-type semiconductor?
3. Doping of silicon with indium leads to which type of semiconductor?
4. Draw an energy level diagram for an intrinsic semiconductor.
5. A semiconductor has equal electron and hole concentration of 6×108m−3. On
doping with a certain impurity electron concentration increases to 3×1012m−3.
Identify the type of semiconductor after doping.
6. How does the energy gap of an intrinsic semiconductor vary, when doped
with a trivalent impurity?
7. How does the width of the depletion layer of p-n-junction diode change with
decrease in reverse bias?
8. Under what condition does a junction diode work as an open switch?

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9. Which type of biasing gives a semiconductor diode very high resistance?

10. If the output of a 2-input NAND gate is fed as the input to a NOT gate,
a) name the new logic gate obtained and
b) write down its truth table

Short Questions :
1. If the frequency of the input signal is f. What will be the frequency of the
pulsating output signal in case of :
(i) half wave rectifier?
(ii) full wave rectifier?
2. Find the equivalent resistance of the network shown in figure between point A
and B when the p-n junction diode is ideal and :
(i) A is at higher potential
(ii) B is at higher potential

3. Potential barrier of p.n. junction cannot be measured by connecting a sensitive

voltmeter across its terminals. Why?
4. The diagram shows a piece of pure semiconductor S in series with a variable
resistor R and a source of constant voltage V. Would you increase or decrease
the value of R to keep the reading of ammeter A constant, when
semiconductor S is heated? Give reason.

5. Why is a photo diode used in reverse bias?

6. What is an ideal diode? Draw the output wave form across the load resistor R,
if the input waveform is as shown in the figure.

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7. With the help of a labeled circuit diagram, explain full wave rectification using
junction diode. Draw input and output wave forms?
8. Name the gate shown in the figure and write its truth table?

9. In the following diagrams indicate which of the diodes are forward biased and
which are reverse bias?

10. In the given figure, is

(i) The emitter base
(ii) collector base forward or reverse biased? Justify.

(i)
Long Answers Q.:
1. Distinguish between conductors, insulators and semiconductors on the basis
of energy band diagrams?
2. The following truth table gives the output of a 2-input logic gate.

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3.
A B Output

0 0 1

0 1 0

1 0 0

1 1 0

Identify the logic gate used and draw its logic symbol. If the output of this
gate is fed as input to a NOT gate, name the new logic gate so formed?
4. With the help of a diagram, show the biasing of a light emitting diode (LED).
Give its two advantages over conventional incandescent lamps?
5. The input resistance of a silicon transistor is 665. Its base current is changed
by 15 A, which results in the change in collector current by 2mA. This
transistor is used as a common emitter amplifier with a load resistance of
5k. Calculate current gain (ac).
6. Draw the symbol for zener diode? Zener diodes have higher dopant densities
as compared to ordinary p-n junction diodes. How dos it affect the (i) width of
the depletion layer (i) junction field?
7. A P-N-P transistor is used in common – emitter mode in an amplifier circuit. A
change of 4oA in the base current brings a change of 2mA in collector
current and 0.04V in base – emitter voltage. Find (i) input resistance (ii)
current amplification factor (). If a load resistance of 6k is used, then find
voltage gain?
8. A semiconductor has equal electron and whole concentration of 6 × 108 / m3.
On doping with certain impurity, electron concentration increases to 8 × 1012
/ m3.
(i) Identify the new semiconductor
(ii) Calculate the new whole concentration.
(iii) How does the energy gap vary with doping?
9. Draw a labeled circuit diagram of a common emitter transistor amplifier.
Draw the input and the output wave forms and also state the relation
between input and output signal?

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10. In an intrinsic semiconductor the energy gap Eg is 1.2 eV. Its hole mobility is
much smaller than electron mobility and independent of temperature. What
is the ratio between conductivity at 600K and that at 300K? Assume that the
temperature dependence of intrinsic carrier concentration ni is given by

where n0 isa constant.

11. In a p-n junction diode, the current I can be expressed as

where I0 is called the reverse saturation current, V is the voltage across the
diode and is positive for forward bias and negative for reverse bias, and I is
the current through the diode, k is the Boltzmann constant (8.6 × 10-5 eV/K)
and T is the absolute temperature. If for a given diode I 0 = 5 × 10-12 A and T =
300 K, then
(a) What will be the forward current at a forward voltage of 0.6 V?
(b) What will be the increase in the current if the voltage across the diode is
increased to 0.7 V?
(c) What is the dynamic resistance?
(d) What will be the current if reverse bias voltage changes from 1 V to 2 V?
Assertion and Reason Questions –
1. Two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason
(R). Select the correct answer to these questions from thecodes(a), (b), (c) and (d) as
given below.
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false.
d) A is false and R is also false.
Assertion: The ratio of free electrons to holes in intrinsic semiconductor is greater
than one.
Reason: The electrons are lighter particles and holes are heavy particles.

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2. Two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason
(R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes(a), (b), (c) and (d) as
given below.
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false.
d) A is false and R is also false.
Assertion: : The half-wave rectifier work only for positive half cycle of ac.
Reason: In half-wave rectifier only one diode is used.
Case Study Questions –
1. Solar cell is a p-n junction diode which converts solar energy into electric energy. It
is basically a solar energy converter. The upper layer of solar cell is of p-type
semiconductor and very thin so that the incident light photons may easily reach the
p-n junction. On the top face of p-layer, the metal finger electrodes are prepared in
order to have enough spacing between the fingers for the lights to reach the p-n
junction through p-layer.
(i) The schematic symbol of solar cell is:

(ii) The p-n junction which generates an emf when solar radiations fall an it, with
no external bias applied, is a:
a) Light emitting diode.
b) Photodiode.
c) Solar cell.
d) None of these.
(iii) For satellites the source of energy is:
a) Solar cell.
b) Fuel cell.
c) Edison cell.
d) None of these.

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(iv) Which of the following material is used in solar cell?

a) Barium.
b) Silicon.
c) Silver.
d) Selenium.
(v) The efficiency of a solar cell may be in the range:
a) 2 to 5%
b) 10 to 15%
c) 30 to 40%
d) 70 to 80%
2. P-n junction is a single crystal of Ge or Si doped in such a manner that one half
portion of it acts asp-type semiconductor and other half functions as n-type
semiconductor. As soon as a p-n junction is formed, the holes from the p-region
diffuse into then-region, and electron from n region diffuse in top-region. This results
in the development of V 8 across the junction which opposes the further diffusion of
electrons and holes through the junction.
(i) In an unbiased p-n junction electrons diffuse from n-region top-region
because:
a) Holes in p-region attract them.
b) Electrons travel across the junction due to potential difference.
c) Electron concentration inn-region is more as compared to that in p-
region.
d) Only electrons move from n top region and not the vice-versa.
(ii) Electron hole recombination in p-n junction may lead to emission of:
a) Light.
b) Ultraviolet rays.
c) Sound.
d) Radioactive rays.
(iii) In an unbiased p-n junction:
a) Potential at pis equal to that at n.
b) Potential at pis + ve and that at n is - ve.
c) Potential at pis more than that at n.
d) Potential at pis less than that at n.
(iv) The potential of depletion layer is due to:
a) Electrons.
b) Holes.
c) Ions.

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d) Forbidden band.
(v) In the depletion layer of unbiased p-n junction,
a) It is devoid of charge carriers.
b) Has only electrons.
c) Has only holes.
d) P-n junction has a weak electric field.
Multiple Choice question’s Answers –
1. D2 is forward biased and D1 is reverse biased and hence no current flows
from B to A and vice versa.
2. a vacancy created when an electron leaves a covalent bond.
3. There are no mobile charges.
4. Input frequency should be decreased.
5. (Eg)C > (Eg)Si > (Eg)Ge
6. hole concentration in p-region is more as compared to n-region.
7. affects the overall V-I characteristics of p-n junction
8. 1.0 × 1015
9. 2.5 A
10. 10-2A

Very Short Answers :

1.

2. Pentavalent atoms (group -15) like Phosphorus (P), Arsenic (As), etc.
3. Doping of Silicon with Indium produces a p-type semiconductor as Indium is a
trivalent impurity.
4. In intrinsic semiconductor, ne = nh
The energy level diagram for an intrinsic semiconductor is shown below:

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5. According to the question, after doping, ne >nh.

Clearly, we get an n-type semiconductor after doping.
6. An acceptor energy level is formed in the forbidden energy gap above the
valence band when an intrinsic semiconductor is doped with a trivalent
impurity.
Due to this, electrons quickly jump to the acceptor energy level.
7. The width of the depletion layer will decrease with decrease in reverse bias.
8. A junction diode works as an open switch when it is connected under reverse
bias conditions.
9. Reverse biasing gives a semiconductor diode very high resistance.
10.
a) An AND gate is obtained when the output of a 2-input NAND gate is fed
as the input to a NOT gate.
b) Truth table for an AND gate is given below.
A B Y
0 0 0

0 1 0

1 0 0

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1 1 1

Short Answers:
1. Frequency of output in half wave Rectifier is f and in full have rectifier is 2f.
2. Equivalent resistance is
(i) 10
(ii) 20
3. Because there is no free charge carrier in depletion region.
4. On heating S, resistance of semiconductors S is decreased so to compensate
the value of resistance in the circuit R is increased.
5. In this case diode is sensitive and it gives very large amount of current in this
situation.
6. An ideal diode has zero resistance when forward biased and an infinite
resistance when it is reverse biased. Output wave from is:

7. Full wave rectifier consists of two diodes and a transformer with central tap.
For any half cycle of a.c. input only one diode is forward biased where as the
other one is reverse biased.

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Suppose for positive half of a.c. input diode D1 is forward biased and D2 is
reverse biased, then the current will flow across D 1where as for negative half
of a.c. input diode D2 is forward biased and the current flows across D 2 .Thus
for both the halves output is obtained and current flows in the same direction
across load resistance R2 and thus a.c. is converted into d.c.
8. It is AND gate and its truth table is:

9. (a) Forward Biased

(b) Reverse Biased
(c) forward Biased
10. Figure shows n-p-n transistor
(ii) Emitter is reversed biased because n-region is connected to higher
potential.
(iii) Collector is also reversed biased because n-region of p-n junction is at
higher potential than p-region.
Long Answers:

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1.
Conductor – Conduction band in a conductor is either partially filled or
conduction and valence band overlaps each other. There is no energy gap in a
conductor.

Insulators – conduction band and valence band of all insulator are widely
separated by and energy gap of the order 6 to 9eV Also conduction band of
an insulator is almost empty.

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Semiconductor – In semiconductors the energy gap is very small i.e. about

1ev only.

2. The gate is NOR gate. If the output of NOR gate is connected to a NOT

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gatethen the figure will be:

New truth table is:

A B Output

0 0 0

0 1 1

1 0 1

1 1 1

3. Light emitting diode is forward biased i.e. energy is released at the junction.

Advantages of LED
1) They are used in numerical displays as compact in size.
2) It works at low voltage and has longer life than incandescent bulbs.
4.
(1) Trans conductance (gm) (2) voltage gain (Av) of the amplifier.

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5. Symbol for zener diode

(i) Width of the depletion layer of zener diode becomes very small due to
heavy doping of p and n-regions
(ii) Junction field will be high..
6. Ans:

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7.
(i) New semiconductor obtained is N-type because

(ii) Energy gap decreases due to creation of donor level in between the
valence band and the conduction band.
8. Diagram:

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Relation – output waveform has 180o phase reversal as compared to input

and also the
output is being amplified.
9. Energy gap of the given intrinsic semiconductor, Eg = 1.2 eV
The temperature dependence of the intrinsic carrier-concentration is written
as:

Where KB = Boltzmann constant = 8.62 × 10-5 eV/K

T = Temperature
n0 = Constant
Initial temperature, T1 = 300 K
The intrinsic carrier-concentration at this temperature can be written as:

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Final temperature, T2 = 600 K

The intrinsic carrier-concentration at this temperature can be written as:

The ratio between the conductivities at 600 K and at 300 K is equal to the
ratio between the respective intrinsic carrier-concentrations at these
temperatures.

Therefore, the ratio between the conductivities is 1.09 × 105.

10. In a p-n junction diode, the expression for current is given as:

Where,
I0 = Reverse saturation current = 5 × 10-12 A
T = Absolute temperature = 300 K

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KB = Boltzmann constant = 8.6 × 10-5 eV / K = 1.376 × 10-23 JK-1

V = Voltage across the diode
(a) Forward voltage, V = 0.6 V

Therefore, the forward current is about 0.0256 A.

(b) For forward voltage, V' = 0.7 V, we can write:

Hence, the increase in current, ΔI = I' - I

= 1.257 - 0.0256 = 1.23 A
(c)

(e) If the reverse bias voltage changes from 1 V to 2 V, then the current (I) will
almost remain equal to I0 in both cases. Therefore, the dynamic resistance
in the reverse bias will be infinite.
Assertion and Reason Answers –
1. (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Explanation:
𝑛𝑒
In intrinsic semiconductor = 𝐼 and holes are not particles but vacancies created
𝑛ℎ
due to breakage of covalent bond.
2. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

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Explanation:
In half wave rectifier, the one diode is biased only when ac is in positive half of its
cycle. For negative half of the ac cycle the diode is reversed biased and there is no
output corresponding to that. Since for only one-half cycle we get a voltage output,
because of which it is called half wave rectifier.
Case Study Answers –
1. Answer :
(i) (a)

(ii) (c) Solar cell.

(iii) (a) Solar cell.
Explanation:
Solar cells are the source of energy for satellites.
(iv) (b) Silicon.
Explanation:
Silicon is used in solar cell.
(v) (b) 10 to 15%
2. Answer :
(i) (c) Electron concentration inn-region is more as compared to that in p-region.
Explanation:
Electron concentration in n-region is more as compared to that in p-region. So
electrons diffuse from n-side to p-side.
(ii) (a) Light.
Explanation:

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When an electron and a hole recombine, the energy is released in the form of
light.
(iii) (a) Potential at pis equal to that at n.
Explanation:
In an unbiased p-n junction, potential at p is equal to that at n.
(iv) (c) Ions.
Explanation:
The potential of depletion layer is due to ions.
(v) (a) It is devoid of charge carriers.
Explanation:
In the depletion layer of unbiased p-n, junction has no charge carriers.ssss

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