Class 9

Assignment 1

French Revolution

1. That ‘each member should have one vote’ was advocated by :

(a) Georges Danton (b) Rousseau (c) Jean Paul Marat (d) The Jacobins

2. How does a ‘Subsistence Crisis’ happen?

(a) Bad harvest leads to scarcity of grains
(b) Food prices rise and the poorest cannot buy bread
(c) Leads to weaker bodies, diseases, deaths and even food riots
(d) All the above

3. The Third Estate comprised

(a) Poor servants and small peasants, landless labourers
(b) Peasants and artisans
(c) Big businessmen, merchants, lawyers etc.
(d) All the above

4. Which of the following decisions was taken by the convention?

(a) Declared France a constitutional monarchy (b) Abolished the monarchy
(c) All men and women above 21 years got the right to vote
(d) Declared France a Republic

5. Which of the following statements is untrue about the Third Estate?

(a) The Third Estate was made of the poor only
(b) Within the Third Estate some were rich and some were poor
(c) Richer members of the Third Estate owned lands
(d) Peasants were obliged to serve in the army, or build roads

6. The word livres stands for:

(a) unit of currency in France (b) tax levied by the Church
(c) tax to be paid directly to the state (d) none of these

7. In the war against Prussia and Austria, the army sang which patriotic song?
(a) 'Liberty', written by an unknown woman poet
(b) ‘Marseillaise’ written by the poet Roget de L’Isle
(c) ‘Viva France’ written by a French peasant
(d) None of the above

8. What was the ‘Subsistence Crisis’ which occurred frequently in France?

(a) An extreme situation endangering the basic means of livelihood
(b) Subsidy in foodgrains
(c) Large-scale production of foodgrains
(d) None of the above

9. What was the name of tax which was directly paid to the state by the Third
Estate?
(a) tithes (b) livres (c) taille (d) all of these

10. Who wrote the pamphlet called ‘What is the Third Estate’?
(a) Mirabeau, a nobleman (b) Abbe Sieyes
(c) Rousseau, a philosopher (d) Montesquieu

11. A guillotine was ___________

(a) a device consisting of two poles and a blade with which a person was beheaded
(b) a fine sword with which heads were cut off
(c) a special noose to hang people
(d) none of the above

12. The term ‘Old Regime' is usually used to describe

(a) France before 1000 B.C. (b) Society of France after 1789 A.D.
(c) Society and institutions of France before 1789 A.D. (d) None of the above

13. What was ‘Estates General’?

(a) Post of Army General (b) A political body
(c) Head of all landed property (d) Advisor of the king
14. When did Louis XVI call an assembly of Estates General to pass proposals for
new taxes?
(a) 2 January, 1775 (b) 10 March, 1780 (c) 5 May, 178 (d) 14 July, 1789

15. The term ‘Old Regime' is usually used to describe

(a) France before 1000 B.C. (b) Society of France after 1789 A.D.
(c) Society and institutions of France before 1789 A.D. (d) None of the above

16. In the meeting of the Estates General, the members of the Third Estate
demanded that
(a) All the three Estates should have one vote altogether
(b) Each member of the three Estates should have one vote
(c) Each Estate should have one vote
(d) None of the above

17. Which of these provisions were passed by the Assembly on the night of 4
August, 1789?
(a) Abolition of feudal system of obligations(b) Clergy had to give up its privileges
(c) Tithes were abolished (d) All the above

18. On 20th June, the representatives of the Third Estate assembled in the indoor
tennis court of Versailles for
(a) hunger strike
(b) drafting a Constitution for France which limited the king’s power
(c) declaring a revolt
(d) making an appeal to support the king in times of need

19. Which of these people were entitled to vote?

(a) Only men above 25 years of age
(b) Men and women above 30 years of age
(c) Men who paid taxes equal to at least 3 days of a labourer’s wage
(d) Both (a) and (c)

20. The new Constitution made France a

(a) Constitutional Monarchy (b) Communist state
(c) Fully democratic state (d) None of the above

21. Which of these books was written by John Locke?

(a) The Spirit of the Laws (b) Two Treatises on Government
(c) The Social Contract (d) All the above

22. What did Louis XVI do, seeing the power of his revolting subjects?
(a) He accorded recognition to the National Assembly
(b) Accepted checks on his powers
(c) Ordered his army to crush the revolt
(d) Both (a) and (b)

23. Which of these people were entitled to vote?

(a) Only men above 25 years of age (b) Men and women above 30 years of age
(c) Men who paid taxes equal to at least 3 days of a labourer’s wage
(d) Both (a) and (c)

24. Who led the representatives of the Third Estate in Versailles on 20th June?
(a) Mirabeau (b) Abbe Sieyes (c) Louis XVI (d) Both a and b

25. Which of these rights were not established as ‘natural and inalienable’ rights by
the constitution of 1791?
(a) Right to life (b) Freedom of speech and opinion
(c) Equality before the law (d) All the above

26. The new Constitution made France a

(a) Constitutional Monarchy (b) Communist state
(c) Fully democratic state (d) None of the above

27. Which of these provisions form a part of the ‘Declaration of Rights of Man and
Citizen’?
(a) Men are born free (b) They are equal in rights before the law
(c) Liberty means powers to do what is not injurious to others (d) All the above
28. Name the most successful ‘political club’ which became a rallying point for
people who wished to continue the Revolution in France.
(a) Jacobin (b) Arthur (c) Mirabeau (d) Dauphine

29. As a result of elections held after the Jacobins’ revolt in 1792, which of these
steps were taken in France?
(a) Elections were held (b) Monarchy was abolished
(c) France was declared a Republic (d) All the above

30. The National Assembly voted in April 1792 to declare war against
(a) Prussia (b) Austria (c) England (d) Both (a) and (b)

31. The Assembly elected in 1792 was called

(a) Convention (b) Congress (c) Congregation (d) Council

32. Which of the following events took place as a result of the revolt of Jacobins in
1792?
(a) The revolutionaries stormed the Palace of Tuileries
(b) Massacred the king’s guards
(c) Held the king hostage for several hours
(d) All the above

33. Instead of the traditional Monsieur (sir) and Madame (madam), all French men
and women were henceforth addressed as
(a) Citoyen (b) Citoyenne (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of the above

34. On what charge was Louis XVI sentenced to death?

(a) Cruelty (b) Treason (c) Incapability (d) Misuse of powers

35. Who among the following Indian individuals responded to the ideas coming
from Revolutionary France?
(a) Bhagat Singh (b) Rammohan Roy (c) Mahatma Gandhi (d) Sultan of Awadh

36. Why is the period from 1793 to 1794 referred to as the ‘Reign of Terror’?
(a) Louis XVI’s successor became a tyrant
(b) Robespierre followed a policy of severe control and punishment
(c) Jacobins opted for loot and plunder
(d) None of the above

37. Who among the following reintroduced slavery in France after it was abolished
by Jacobin regime?
(a) Louis XIV (b) Robespierre (c) Napoleon (d) Marat

38. In context of France the volunteers from Marseilles sang the Marseillaise, a
patriotic song when they marched into Paris. Who composed this song?
(a) Maximilian Robespierre (b) Marie Antoinette
(c) Roget de L’Isle (d) Mirabeau

39. Who seized power after the fall of the Jacobin government?
(a) Common people (b) Descendants of Louis XVI
(c) Wealthy middle class (d) Robespierre’s son

40. Tax from peasants to Church was called:

(a) Taille (b) Tithe (c) Lagan (d) Jazia

41. In the context of France, ‘the fall of Bastille’ took place on:
(a) 14th July 1789 (b) 20th June 1789
(c) 4th Aug 1789 (d) 5th May 1789

42. The National Assembly of France voted in April 1792, to declare war against:
(a) Britain and Germany (b) Prussia and Austria
(c) Italy and Germany (d) Russia and Prussia

43. In the context of France, what was ‘tithes’?

(a) A tax levied by the Church (b) Direct tax levied by the State
(c) The tax levied on the articles of everyday consumption (d) None of these

44. Who among the following proposed the Social Contract theory?
(a) Locke (b) Thomas Paine (c) Montesquieu (d) Rousseau
45. The French Revolution led to the formation of National Assembly. Which
statement is incorrect about the National Assembly?
(a) It abolished the feudal system of obligations and taxes
(b) It confiscated the land owned by the churches
(c) It abolished slavery in France
(d) It drafted the constitution

46. In which of the battle was Napoleon finally defeated?

(a) Russia (b) Waterloo (c) Versailles (d) Paris

47. King Louis XVI belonged to which dynasty of kings?

(a) Hapsburg (b) Bourbon (c) Romanov (d) Windsor

48. The term ‘Old Regime’ refers to:

(a) The society and institution under an old emperor
(b) Society and institution of France before 1789
(c) The society and institution of France after 1789
(d) The society and institution of France under Jacobins

49. Austrian Princess Marie Antoniette was the queen of which of the following
French rulers?
(a) Louis XIII (b) Louis XIV (c) Louis XV (d) Louis XVI

50. The book ‘Two Treatises on Government’ was written by:

(a) Rousseau (b) John Locke (c) Montesquieu (d) Karl Marx

51. The term ‘Old Regime’ (France) refers to:

(a) The society and institution under an old emperor
(b) Society and institution of France before 1789
(c) The society and institution of France after 1789
(d) The society and institution of France under Jacobins

52. ‘The Spirit of Laws’ was written by:

(a) Montesquieu (b) Rousseau (c) Jean Paul Marat (d) John Locke
India Size and Location

1. Which of the following influences the duration of the day and night, as one
moves from
south to north?
(a) Longitudinal extent (b) Latitudinal extent
(c) Standard Meridian (d) All the above

2. Indian Standard Time or I.S.T. is how many hours ahead or behind of G.M.T. or
Universal Time?
(a) 5 hrs 30 min behind G.M.T. (b) 15 hrs ahead of G.M.T.
(c) 5 hrs 30 min ahead of G.M.T. (d) None of the above

3.The Standard Meridian of India, 82°30′E passes through which of the following
places?
(a) Kanniyakumari in Tamil Nadu (b) Walong in Arunachal Pradesh
(c) Kachchh in Gujarat (d) Mirzapur in Uttar Pradesh

4. If the local time at Dwarka (69°01′E) in Gujarat to the west of India is 6 am,
what will be the local time at Dibrugarh (94°58′E approximately 95°), in Assam, in
the east?
(a) 4.16 am (b) 6 am (c) 7.44 am (d) 7.44 pm

5. Both the latitudinal and longitudinal extent of India’s mainland is about 30°. But
on looking at the map of India which of the following alternatives do you observe
about India’s size?
(a) East-west extent appears to be smaller than north-south extent
(b) East-west extent appears to be larger than north-south extent
(c) East-west and north-south extent appears equal
(d) North-south extent appears to be smaller than east-west extent

6. By which geographical feature is India bounded in the north-west, north and

north-east?
(a) Seas (b) Lave Plateaus (c) Young Fold Mountains (d) Sandy Desert
7. Which of the following figures shows the total area of India’s landmass?
(a) 2.4 million square km (b) 3.28 million square km
(c) 32.8 million square km (d) 3.28 million km

8. What is India’s size with respect to other countries of the world?

(a) First (b) Third (c) Fourth (d) Seventh

9. Which geographical feature bounds India’s mainland south of 22°N latitude?

(a) Young Fold Mountains (b) Sandy Desert
(c) Lava Plateaus (d) Seas and Ocean

10. Which of the following is the western-most longitude of India?

(a) 97°25′E (b) 68°7′E (c) 68°7′E (d) 82°32′E

11. Which of the following parallels of latitude divides India into two almost equal
parts?
(a) Equator (b) Tropic of Capricorn
(c) Tropic of Cancer (d) Prime Meridian

12. India achieved multi-faceted socio-economic progress during which of the

following periods?
(a) Since ancient times (b) During medieval period
(c) In the 21st century (d) During the last five decades

13. Which of the following places of India is located on the three seas?
(a) Port Blair (b) Kavaratti (c) Kanyakumari (d) Kochi

14. Which of the following is the longitudinal extent of India?

(a) 8°4′N and 37°6′N (b) 68°7′N and 97°25′E
(c) 68°7′E and 97°25′W (d) 8°4′E and 37°6′E

15. Which of the following Union Territories is located along the west coast of
India?
(a) Andaman and Nicobar Islands (b) Chandigarh
(c) Dadra and Nagar Haveli (d) Puducherry
16. Which of the following is the oldest route of contact between India and other
countries of the world?
(a) Ocean routes (b) Maritime contact (c) Land routes (d) Air routes

17. In which of the following places, would you find the least difference in the
duration between day time and night time?
(a) Kanyakumari (b) Leh (b) Srinagar (d) Itanagar

18. Due to which of the following reasons is the Indian Ocean named after India?
(a) India has a strategic location along the trans-Indian Ocean routes
(b) No other country has a long coastline on the Indian Ocean as India
(c) India is centrally located at the head of the Indian Ocean
(d) All the above

19. The latitudinal extent of India lies between

(a) 7° 5′ N and 26° 5′ N (b) 8° 4′ N and 37° 6′ N
(c) 12° 5′ N and 27° 5′ N (d) 12° 5′ N and 37° 6′ N

20. Tropic of Cancer passes through which of these states

(a) Orissa (b) Tripura (c) Bihar (d) Punjab

21. Which meridian is fixed as a Standard Meridian of India?

(a) 82½° E (b) 84½° E (c) 86° E (d) 81° E

22. What is the position of India in the world in respect of area?

(a) 8th position (b) 7th position (c) 6th position (d) 2nd position

23. Which country among the India’s neighbours is the smallest?

(a) Nepal (b) Bhutan (c) Sri Lanka (d) Bangladesh

24. Which one of the following forms the southern-most tip of the Indian
mainland?
(a) Indira Point (b) Kanyakumari (c) Palk Strait (d) Kavaratti
25. India’s total area accounts for what percentage of the geographical area of the
world?
(a) 2.9% (b) 3.2% (c) 2.4% (d) 4.2%

26. India has land boundary of about

(a) 18,200 km (b) 7516.6 km (c) 15,200 km (d) 2458 km

27. The neighbouring countries that share their boundaries with India are :
(a) Pakistan and Afghanistan (b) Myanmar and Bangladesh
(c) China and Nepal (d) All the above

28. Which one of the following straits separates India from Sri Lanka?
(a) Sunda Strait (b) Johor Strait (c) Bering Strait (d) Palk Strait

29. A narrow channel of sea separating two land-masses is called :

(a) Gulf (b) Strait (c) Isthmus (d) Bay

30. What is the length of Indian coastline?

(a) 8716 km (b) 7165 km (c) 9515 km (d) 7516 km

31. The four states which are situated along the Himalayas are :
(a) Jammu and Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Arunachal Pradesh
(b) Gujarat, Maharashtra, Haryana, Rajasthan
(c) Gujarat, Chhattisgarh, Bihar, Jharkhand
(d) Bihar, West Bengal, Orissa, Uttar Pradesh

32. Which one of the following water bodies separate Sri Lanka from India?
(a) Palk Strait and Gulf of Khambhat (b) Palk Strait and Gulf of Mannar
(c) Gulf of Mannar and 10° Channel (d) 10° Channel and Gulf of Khambhat
Physical Features of India
1. Which mountain range forms the northern boundary of India?
a) Himalayas b) Western Ghats c) Aravalli Range d) Eastern Ghats

2. The highest peak in India is:

a) Mount Everest b) Kangchenjunga c) Nanda Devi d) Kanchenjunga

3. Which river is known as the "Sorrow of Bihar"?

a) Ganges b) Yamuna c) Kosi d) Kaveri

4. Which of the following states does not share a border with Nepal?
a) Uttarakhand b) Bihar c) Sikkim d) Jharkhand

5. The Great Indian desert is located in which state?

a) Rajasthan b) Gujarat c) Punjab d) Haryana

6. Which of the following rivers does not flow through the state of Uttar Pradesh?
a) Ganges b) Yamuna c) Godavari d) Ghaghara

7. The largest delta in India is formed by which river?

a) Narmada b) Brahmaputra c) Yamuna d) Godavari

8. Which of the following is the oldest mountain range in India?

a) Aravalli Range b) Western Ghats c) Eastern Ghats d) Himalayas

9. The largest freshwater lake in India is:

a) Dal Lake b) Chilika Lake c) Vembanad Lake d) Wular Lake

10. ___________ is known as the "Land of Five Rivers" in India.

a) Punjab b) Haryana c) Uttar Pradesh d) Bihar

11. The Palk Strait lies between India and:

a) Sri Lanka b) Maldives c) Bangladesh d) Myanmar

12. Which of the following is not a major river system in South India?

a) Krishna b) Godavari c) Kaveri d) Narmada

13. The famous hill station "Shimla" is located in which state?

a) Himachal Pradesh b) Uttarakhand c) Jammu and Kashmir d) Sikkim

14. Which river flows through the valley known as "Ladakh"?

a) Indus b) Brahmaputra c) Yamuna d) Ganges

15. Which of the following states does not share a border with the Arabian Sea?
a) Gujarat b) Maharashtra c) Karnataka d) Odisha
What is Democracy? Why Democracy?

1. The head of the government in Nepal is the :

(a) President (b) Prime Minister (c) King (d) Vice President

2. The word ‘Democracy’ comes from the Greek word –

(a) Democracia (b) Demokratia (c) Demos (d) Kratia

3. In which case was the real power with external powers and not with the locally
elected representatives?
(a) India in Sri Lanka (b) US in Iraq
(c) USSR in Communist Poland (d) Both (b) and (c)

4. What kind of government is there in Myanmar?

(a) Government elected by the people (b) Communist government
(c) Army rule (d) Monarchy

5. Who led a military coup in Pakistan in 1999?

(a) Benazir Bhutto (b) Nawaz Sharif (c) Pervez Musharraf (d) None

6. ‘One person, one vote’ means

(a) One person is to be voted by all
(b) One person has one vote and each vote has one value
(c) A person can vote only once in his life
(d) Both (a) and (c)

7. Why can the Chinese government not be called a democratic government even
though elections are held there?
(a) Army participates in election
(b) Government is not accountable to the people
(c) Some parts of China are not represented at all
(d) Government is always formed by the Communist Party

8. Which party always won elections in Mexico since its independence in 1930
until 2000?
(a) Revolutionary Party (b) Mexican Revolutionary Party
(c) Institutional Revolutionary Party (d) Institutional Party

9. Which party has ruled Zimbabwe since its independence and who is its ruler?
(a) ZANU-PF, Robert Mugabe (b) ZANU-PF, Kenneth Kaunda
(c) Zimbabwe Freedom Party, Nelson Mandela (d) Zimbabwe Party, P Johnson

10. Which of these features is/are necessary to provide the basic rights to the
citizens?
(a) Citizens should be free to think (b) Should be free to form associations
(c) Should be free to raise protest (d) All the above

11. Which of these statements is/are correct in the case of Zimbabwe?

(a) Popular governments are always democratic
(b) Popular governments can be undemocratic
(c) Popular leaders can be autocratic (d) Both (b) and (c)

12. A democratic government has to respect some rules after winning the elections.
Which of these points is not a part of those rules?
(a) Respecting guarantees given to the minorities.
(b) Every major decision has to go through a series of consultations.
(c) Office-bearers are not accountable.
(d) Office-bearers have some responsibilities.

13. Which of these is permitted under the Rule of Law?

(a) Prime Minister can be punished for violating the Constitution.
(b) Police has a right to kill anybody.
(c) Women can be paid lesser salaries.
(d) President can rule for as long as he wants.

14. Which organ of the government is required to protect the rights of the citizens?
(a) Executive (b) Legislature (c) Independent judiciary (d) Police

15. Some of the drawbacks of democracy are

(a) instability and delays (b) corruption and hypocrisy
(c) politicians fighting among themselves (d) all the above

16. What is Constitutional Law?

(a) Provisions given in the Constitution (b) Law to make Constitution
(c) Law to set up Constituent Assembly (d) None of the above

17. Some of the drawbacks of democracy are

(a) instability and delays (b) corruption and hypocrisy
(c) politicians fighting among themselves (d) all the above

18. Which of these is permitted under the Rule of Law?

(a) Prime Minister can be punished for violating the Constitution.
(b) Police has a right to kill anybody.
(c) Women can be paid lesser salaries.
(d) President can rule for as long as he wants.

19. In which period did China face one of the worst famines that have occurred in
the world?
(a) 1932-36 (b) 1958-61 (c) 2001-2002 (d) 2004-2007

20. Democracy improves the quality of decision-making because

(a) decisions are taken by educated people
(b) decisions are taken by consultation and discussion
(c) decisions are taken over a long period of time
(d) all decisions are approved by judiciary

21. In which of these cases can democracy not provide a complete solution?
(a) Removing poverty completely (b) Providing education to all
(c) Giving jobs to all (d) All the above

22. How does democracy allow us to correct its own mistakes?

(a) Mistakes are hidden and cannot be corrected
(b) Re-electing the same government to enable it to correct its mistakes
(c) The rulers can be changed
(d) None of the above
23. In any society, people are bound to have difference of opinions and interests.
Which is
a better way of dealing with these conflicts?
(a) By brutal power exercised by the government
(b) By allowing one group to dictate terms to others
(c) By providing equal opportunities to all
(d) By opting for a strong leader who should have all the powers.

24. Which of these is not an instance of broader meaning of democracy?

(a) Taking opinion of all the family members before taking a decision
(b) Being allowed to ask questions in the class
(c) Having no say in one’s marriage plan (d) None of the above

25. Which body in Indian political system is an example of direct democracy?

(a) Zila Parishad (b) Panchayat Samiti (c) Gram Sabha (d) Vidhan Sabha

26. The most common form that democracy takes in our time is that of
(a) limited democracy (b) representative democracy
(c) maximum democracy (d) none of the above
Constitutional Design

1. In which way did the system of apartheid discriminate among the South
Africans?
(a) Restricted social contacts between the races (b) Segregation of public facilities
(c) Created race-specific job categories (d) All the above

2. On what charges was Nelson Mandela sentenced to life imprisonment?

(a) For treason (b) For breaking the laws
(c) For corruption charges (d) For possessing illegal property

3. Why did the white regime decide to change its policies?

(a) Increase in protests and struggles
(b) Government realised that repression was becoming difficult
(c) Rise of sympathetic attitude in government for the blacks
(d) Both (a) and (b)

4. With the end of apartheid, who became the first President of South African
Republic?
(a) F.W. de Klerk (b) P.W. Botha (c) Nelson Mandela (d) None of the above

5. Which of these did not form a part of the changed attitude of South African
government?
(a) Discriminatory laws were repealed
(b) Ban on political parties and media was lifted
(c) Nelson Mandela was freed from imprisonment
(d) More discriminatory laws were passed

6. Name the autobiography of Nelson Mandela.

(a) The Long Walk to Freedom (b) South Africa Wins Freedom
(c) Walk to Freedom (d) Our Freedom

7. When did South Africa become a democratic country?

(a) 26 April, 1995 (b) 26 April, 1994 (c) 24 March, 1994 (d) 27 April, 1996
8. What did the black population want in the new Constitution?
(a) A black President (b) Substantial social and economic rights
(c) Whites should be turned out of the country (d) Apartheid for the whites

9. During negotiations for making the Constitution, the whites agreed to

(a) The principle of majority rule (b) One person one vote
(c) Accept some basic rights for the poor and the workers (d) All the above

10. When did Motilal Nehru draft a Constitution for India?

(a) 1927 (b) 1926 (c) 1929 (d) 1928

11. Which of these inspired our leaders while framing the Constitution?
(a) Ideals of the French Revolution (b) Parliamentary democracy in Britain
(c) Bill of Rights in US (d) All the above

12. Where was the 1931 session of Indian National Congress held?
(a) Nagpur (b) Karachi (c) Calcutta (d) Delhi

13. Which of these features were accepted by all the Indian leaders much before
they sat down to make the Constitution?
(a) Universal adult franchise (b) Right to freedom
(c) Protection of the rights of minorities (d) All the above

14. When did the Assembly adopt the Constitution?

(a) 26 November, 1949 (b) 26 December, 1949
(c) 26 January, 1950 (d) 26 January, 1949

15. Who was the chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Constituent
Assembly?
(a) Dr. Rajendra Prasad (b) Jawaharlal Nehru
(c) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar (d) Abul Kalam Azad

16. Who among these leaders was a bitter critic of Mahatma Gandhi?
(a) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad (b) Sarojini Naidu
(c) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar (d) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
17. How many amendments were considered before adopting the Constitution?
(a) Around 500 (b) Around 2000 (c) Around 1550 (d) Around 1000

18. The Constitution begins with a short statement of its basic values. What is it
called?
(a) Preface (b) Preamble (c) Introduction (d) Article

19. The Constitution begins with a short statement of its basic values. What is it
called?
(a) Preface (b) Preamble (c) Introduction (d) Article

20. Which of these countries is/are examples of a Republic?

(a) USA (b) India (c) South Africa (d) All the above

21. Which of these positions is correct in relation to the ‘Sovereign’ status of

India?
(a) USA can decide India’s foreign policy
(b) USSR can support the CPI (M) in setting up its government here
(c) The Indian government only can decide its internal and external policies
(d) Pakistan can control India’s Armed Forces

22. Which of the following days is celebrated to mark the enforcement of the
constitution?
(a) Republic Day (b) Independence Day
(c) Gandhi Jayanti (d) Constitution Enforcement Day

23. Which of these positions is correct in relation to the ‘Sovereign’ status of

India?
(a) USA can decide India’s foreign policy
(b) USSR can support the CPI (M) in setting up its government here
(c) The Indian government only can decide its internal and external policies
(d) Pakistan can control India’s Armed Forces

24. Who was the chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Indian constitution ?
(a) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar (b) Jawaharlal Nehru
(c) C. Rajgopalachari (d) Dr. Rajendra Prasad

25. When was the Constitution of India adopted?

(a) 26th Nov, 1949 (b) 26th Jan, 1949
(c) 26th Jan, 1950 (d) 26th Nov, 1950

26. The Constituent Assembly met for how many days?

(a) 114 (b) 280 (c) 365 (d) 150

27. In the constituent assembly, the first captain of the Indian hockey team also had
a role.
(a) Baldev Singh (b) Somnath Lahiri (c) Jaipal Singh (d) K.M. Munshi

28. In which year did Motilal Nehru and others draft a constitution for India?
(a) 1931 (b) 1928 (c) 1929 (d) 1932

29. When did the Indian constitution come into force?

(a) 26th Nov, 1949 (b) 15th August, 1947
(c) 26th Jan, 1950 (d) 26th Jan, 1930

30. Congress session of 1931 was held at:

(a) Karachi (b) Lucknow (c) Kanpur (d) Madras, now Chennai
The Story of Village Palampur

1. Which of the following is not fixed capital?

(a) Agricultural land (b) Tubewell
(c) Fertilisers and pesticides (d) Farm machinery

2. Which among the following states was first to try out the modern farming
methods in India?
(a) Haryana (b) Jharkhand (c) Bihar (d) Odisha

3. What percentage of total land area is cultivated by Medium and Large farmers?
(a) 36 % (b) 50 % (c) 85 % (d) 64 %

4. Which Kharif crop is used for cattle feed?

(a) Sugarcane (b) Potato (c) Jowar and bajra (d) Wheat

5. The standard unit of measuring agricultural land is:

(a) Km2 (b) Bigha (c) Guinea (d) Hectare

6. Which of the following crops is grown in Palampur during Kharif

(a) Rice (b) Wheat (c) Jowar (d) Sugarcane

7. Green Revolution is related to:

(a) Milk Production (b) Grain production
(c) Fish production (d) None of the above

8. 'Operation Flood' is related to :

(a) Control flood (b) Produce fish (c) Milk production (d) Grain production

9. What was the concept of white revolution is associated with?

(a) food crops (b) milk (c) cotton (d) pesticides

10. Which is the most abundant factor of production in India?

(a) Land (b) Capital (c) Labour (d) Tools and machines
11. Money in hand is an example of
(a) Human capital (b) Fixed capital (c) Working capital (d) Physical capital

12. Which of the following statements is not true about small-scale manufacturing
in villages?
(a) Farmers engage in it to supplement their income
(b) Farmers take help of their family members
(c) The production is done mostly at home
(d) Farmers produce articles for their own use

13. Which one is a natural resource?

(a) Labour (b) Raw materials (c) Mineral (d) None of the above

14. Which of the following is a modern farming method?

(a) Multiple cropping (b) Use of HYV seeds
(c) Use of chemical fertilisers (d) Both (b) and (c)

15. Which product is sold by Mishri Lal traders in Shahapur

(a) Jaggery (b) Cotton Textile (c) Machine Tools (d) Fertilisers

16. HYV seeds stands for

(a) Heavy yielding variety seeds (b) High yielding variety seeds
(c) Half yielding variety seeds (d) None of the above

17. Scope of farming activity is limited in Palampur due to

(a) fixed amount of land (b) lack of irrigation
(c) lack of labour (d) none of the above

18. What is done to surplus wheat in Palampur?

(a) Sold in the market (b) Destroyed (c) Given in charity (d) Stocked by self

19. High Yielding Variety (HYV) seeds are developed in

(a) Research institutes (b) Factories
(c) Krishak Bharati Cooperatives (d) None of the above
20. What is the source of capital for the large farmers?
(a) Banks and own savings (b) Money lenders and relatives
(c) Banks and money lenders (d) Poor farmers

21. Which one of the following is a rabi crop?

(a) Cotton (b) Millets (c) Gram (d) Rice

22. Which of the following terms is used for measuring the crop produced on a
given piece of land during a single year?
(a) Yield (b) Productivity (c) Cultivation (d) Output

23. 'Bigha' and 'Guintha' are:

(a) the type of village house (b) the types of Hybrid seeds
(c) the measuring units of grain (d) the measuring units of land area in village

24. Which of the following is grown in the rainy season?

(a) Jowar and Bajra (b) Wheat (c) Soybean (d) All of the above

25. Where do most of the small farmers borrow money to arrange for the capital in
Palampur?
(a) Banks (b) Co-operative Societies
(c) Village money lenders (d) Friends and relatives

The Story of Village Palampur

In the questions given below, there are two Statements marked as
Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read the Statements and Choose the correct
option: Options are:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.
(D) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.

Q.1. Assertion: Agriculture is the main economic activity in Palampur.

Reason: More than 75% of the people in Palampur are engaged in
farming.
Q.2. Assertion: Palampur has well-developed transportation facilities.
Reason: The village is well-connected to the nearest town by a network of
roads and railways.

Q.3. Assertion: Education and healthcare are neglected in Palampur.

Reason: The government has not invested in these areas in the village.

Q.4. Assertion: The labourers in Palampur are paid very high wages.
Reason: The competition for labour is very high in the village.

Q.5. Assertion: The use of modern farming methods has increased the
productivity of crops in Palampur.
Reason: The farmers in Palampur have adopted multiple cropping to
increase productivity.

Q.6. Assertion: Palampur has a well-developed irrigation system.

Reason: The village is located near a perennial river, and the farmers use
tube wells for irrigation.

Q.7. Assertion: Palampur has a diverse range of crops grown throughout

the year.
Reason: The village has a favourable climate for growing multiple crops.

Q.8. Assertion: The Green Revolution had no impact on agriculture

in Palampur. Reason: Palampur farmers have not adopted high-yielding
variety seeds.

Q.9. Assertion: The villagers in Palampur have no access to formal credit.

Reason: The village does not have any banks or other financial
institutions.

Q.10. Assertion: Palampur has a high level of economic inequality.

Reason: There is a wide disparity in the ownership of land in the village.

What is Democracy
In the questions given below, there are two Statements marked as
Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read the Statements and Choose the correct
option: Options are:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.
(D) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.

Q.1. Assertion: Democracy is a form of government in which the power is

vested in a few individuals.
Reason: Democracy is a form of government in which the power is vested
in the hands of the people.

Q.2. Assertion: Free and fair elections are an essential feature of

democracy.
Reason: Elections ensure that the people can choose their representatives
and hold them accountable.

Q.3. Assertion: Democracy is not just about government of the people but
also about government for the people. Reason: Democracy ensures that
the government is responsive to the needs and aspirations of the people.

Q.4. Assertion: Democracy is a perfect form of government.

Reason: Democracy ensures that all citizens are treated equally and have
equal opportunities.

Q.5. Assertion: Democracy is a western concept that cannot be applied in

non-western societies.
Reason: Democracy is based on universal values such as freedom,
equality, and justice that are applicable to all societies.

Constitutional Design
In the questions given below, there are two Statements marked as
Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read the Statements and Choose the correct
option: Options are:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.
(D) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.

Q.1. Assertion: India adopted a federal system of government after

independence.
Reason: India is a vast country with diverse cultures, languages and
regions.

Q.2. Assertion: The Indian Constitution was heavily influenced by the US

Constitution.
Reason: The framers of the Indian Constitution were inspired by the ideas
of liberty, equality, and democracy enshrined in the US Constitution.

Q.3. Assertion: The Constitution of India was adopted on January 26,

1950.
Reason: The Indian Constitution was adopted to provide a framework for
a democratic government.

Q.4. Assertion: The Constitution of India is a written document.

Reason: A written constitution ensures that all citizens have equal access
to the laws and are protected under the law.

Q.5. Assertion: The Constitution of India grants the President of India the
power to veto any law passed by the Parliament.
Reason: The power of veto is an important tool for the President to ensure
that only good laws are passed by the Parliament.

Q.6. Assertion: The Constitution of India has been amended many times
since its adoption.
Reason: Amendments to the Constitution of India are necessary to keep it
relevant to changing times and circumstances.

Q.7. Assertion: The Indian Constitution provides for a separation of

powers among the three branches of government.
Reason: A separation of powers helps to prevent the concentration of
power in any one branch of government.
India–Size and Location.

In the questions given below, there are two Statements marked as

Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read the Statements and Choose the correct
option: Options are:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.
(D) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.

Q.1. Assertion (A): India Shares its land boundaries with Pakistan and
Afghanistan in the northwest.
Reason (R): China, Tibet, Nepal and Bhutan in the South and Myanmar
and Bangladesh in the West.

Q.2. Assertion (A): India lies entirely in the Northern hemisphere.

Reason (R): The Tropic of Cancer (23030’N) divides the Country into
almost two equal parts.

Q.3. Assertion (A): From Gujarat to Arunachal Pradesh, there is a time

lag of one hour.
Reason (R): Hence, time along the Standard Meridian of India
(82030’E) passing through Mirzapur (in Uttar Pradesh) is taken as the
Standard time for the Whole Country.

Q.4. Assertion (A): The land mass of India has an area of 3.28 million
square km.
Reason (R): India’s total area accounts for about 2.4 percent of the total
geographical area of the world.

Physical Features of India

In the questions given below, there are two Statements marked as
Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read the Statements and Choose the correct
option: Options are:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.
(D) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.

Q.1. Assertion (A): The Western Ghats and the Eastern Ghats mark the
Western and Eastern edges of the Deccan Plateau respectively.
Reason (R): The Western Ghats are higher than the eastern Ghats.

Q.2. Assertion (A): Our Country has practically all major Physical
features of the earth i.e., Mountains, Plains, Deserts, Plateaus and Islands.
Reason (R): The land of India displays great Physical variation.

Q.3. Assertion (A): The northern Plains are generally described as flat
land with no variations in its relief.
Reason (R): According to the Variations in relief features, the Northern
Plains can be divided into four regions.

Q.4. Assertion (A): The Himalayas form an art, which covers a distance
of about 2400 km.
Reason (R): The width varies from 200 km in Kashmir to 50 km in
Arunachal Pradesh.