Arjuna JEE 2.

0 (2024)
JEE
JEE Advanced Test - 01 Advanced
Paper-02
DURATION: :180
DURATION Minutes
90 Minutes DATED: 10/09/2023 M. MARKS: 192

Topics covered
Physics : Units and Dimensions (Complete Chapter), Basic Maths (Complete Chapter), Motion in a Straight
Line (Complete Chapter), Motion in a Plane (Complete Chapter).
Chemistry : Mole concepts (Full Chapter), Atomic structure (Full Chapter), Periodic Classification (Full
Chapter), Chemical Bonding (Full Chapter).
Mathematics : Basic Math & Logarithm (Full Chapter), Set Theory (Full Chapter), Function (Full Chapter).

General Instructions:
1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the test booklet.
2. The test is of 3 hours duration.
3. The test booklet consists of 54 questions. The maximum marks are 192.
4. This paper consists Three Sections (Section A, B & C) in each subject (Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics) –
For Section A:
Integer Type Questions (Single Digit Integer) (Question No. 1-8)
For each Question, enter the correct single digit integer value.
Full Marks - +3, Zero Marks - 0, Negative Marks - -1
For Section B
One or More than one correct (Question No. 9-14)
For each Question, choose the option(s) corresponding to (all) the correct answers.
Full Marks - +4, Zero Marks - 0, Negative Marks - -1
For Section C
Single Correct (Question No. 15-18)
For each Question, choose the correct option corresponding to the correct Answer.
Each Question has Four options (1), (2), (3), (4). Only ONE of these options is the correct answer.
Full Marks - +4, Zero Marks - 0, Negative Marks - -1
5. No student is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile phone, any electronic
device, etc. inside the examination room/hall.
6. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty in the Room/Hall.
However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
7. Do not fold or make any stray mark on the Answer Sheet (OMR).
OMR Instructions:
1. Use blue/black dark ballpoint pens.
2. Darken the bubbles completely. Don't put a tick mark or a cross mark where it is specified that you fill the bubbles
completely. Half-filled or over-filled bubbles will not be read by the software.
3. Never use pencils to mark your answers.
4. Never use whiteners to rectify filling errors as they may disrupt the scanning and evaluation process.
5. Writing on the OMR Sheet is permitted on the specified area only and even small marks other than the specified area may
create problems during the evaluation.
6. Multiple markings will be treated as invalid responses.
7. Do not fold or make any stray mark on the Answer Sheet (OMR).

Name of the Students (In CAPITALS) : _______________________________________________________________

Roll Number : _____________________________________________________________________________________________

OMR Bar Code Number : ________________________________________________________________________________

Candidate’s Signature : _______________________________ Invigilator’s Signature _____________________

 PART-I (PHYSICS)
SECTION-A 7. A ball thrown by one player reaches the other in
Integer Type (Single Digit Integer) (1–8) 2 sec. The maximum height attained by the ball
1. A particle moves in a straight line such that the above the point of projection will be about x metre.
displacement x at any time ‘t’ is given by Find x
x = 6t2 – t3 – 3t – 4. x is in m and t is in second
calculate the maximum velocity (in ms–1) of the 8. A circular disc is rotating about its own axis at the
particle. rate of 200 revolutions per minute. Two particles P,
Q of disc are at distances 5 cm, 10 cm from axis of
2. From a lift moving upwards with a uniform
rotation. The ratio of angular velocities of P and Q
acceleration a = 2 ms–2, a man throws a ball
vertically upwards with a velocity v = 12 ms–1 is 1/x. Find x
relative to the lift. The ball comes back to the man
after a time t. Find the value of t in second
(g = 10 ms–2). SECTION-B
One or More than One Correct Type (9–14)
3. A body is thrown up with a velocity 100 ms–1. It 9. In the figure is shown the position of a particle
travels 5 m in the last second of upward journey. If moving on the x-axis as a function of time. Then –
the same body is thrown up with a velocity
200 ms–1, how much distance (in metre) will it
travel in the last second of its upward journey
(g = 10 ms–2)

4. The velocity-time graph of a stone thrown

vertically upward with an initial velocity of
30 ms–1 is shown in the figure. The velocity in the
upward direction is taken as positive and that in the (1) the particle has come to rest for 6 times
downward direction as negative. The maximum
(2) the maximum speed is at t = 6 s
90
height to which the stone rises is m. Find x (3) the maximum speed is at t = 4 s
x
(4) the average velocity for the total period shown
is negative

10. A projectile is projected with a speed of 40 m/s at an

3
angle  with horizontal such that tan  = . After 2
4
sec, the projectile is moving with speed v at an
angle  with horizontal then, (g = 10 m/s2)
1
(1) tan  =
8
5. Two particles are separated by a horizontal distance
1
x as shown in figure. They are projected as shown (2) cot  =
in figure with different initial speeds. The time 8
after which the horizontal distance between them (3) v = 32.25 m/s
x (4) v = 32 m/s
becomes zero is n . Find n
u
11. Path of three projectiles are shown. If T1, T2 and T3 are
time of flights and ignoring air resistances –

6. An arrow is shot into the air. Its range is 200

metres and its time of flight is 5 s. If the value of g
is assumed to be 10 ms–2, then the horizontal
200
component of the velocity of arrow is m/s.
x
Find x (1) T1 > T3
(2) T1 < T3
 T1 + T3 1
(3) T2 = (3) (4) R2
2 R2
(4) T1 = T2 = T3
16. All the graph below are intended to represent the
same motion. One of them does it incorrectly. Pick
12. Two particles are projected from the same point with it up
the same speed, at different angles 1 and 2 to the
horizontal. Their times of flight are t1 and t2 and they
have the same horizontal range. Then - (1)
t
(1) 1 = tan 1
t2
t1
(2) = tan 2 (2)
t2
t1 t
(3) = 2
sin 1 sin 2
(4) 1 + 2 = 90°
(3)
13. A body is thrown from a point with speed 50 m/s and
an angle 37° with horizontal in time t it has moved a
horizontal distance of 80 m, then its distance from
point of projection is d, then –
(g = 10 m/s2, tan37° = 3/4) (4)
(1) d = 40 m (2) d = 40 5 m
(3) t = 2 sec (4) t = 2.67 sec
17. The dimensions of a/b in the equation
14. A particle is projected with a speed v and angle  with
a − t2
horizontal. Choose the correct statements - P= ,
(1) Speed of the particle is zero at highest point bx
where P is pressure, x is distance and t is time, are
(2) Speed of the particle is minimum at highest
(1) MT–2 (2) M2LT–3
point
(3) ML3T–1 (4) LT–3
(3) Acceleration of particle throughout the motion
is constant 18. The diameter of a cylinder is measured using a
(4) Acceleration of particle varies with time Vernier callipers with no zero error. It is found that
the zero of the Vernier scale lies between 5.10 cm
and 5.15 cm of the main scale. The Vernier scale
SECTION-C has 50 divisions equivalent to 2.45 cm. The 24th
Single Correct Type Questions (15–18) division of the Vernier scale exactly coincides with
one of the main scale divisions. The diameter of the
15. A projectile can have the same range ‘R’ for two
cylinder is
angles of projection. If ‘T1’ and ‘T2’ to be time of
(1) 5.112 cm (2) 5.124 cm
flights in the two cases, then the product of the two
(3) 5.136 cm (4) 5.148 cm
time of flights is directly proportional to.
1
(1) R (2)
R
PART-II (CHEMISTRY)
SECTION-A 22. In an atom, the total number of electrons having
1
Integer Type (Single Digit Integer) (19–26) quantum numbers n = 4, |m| = 1 and ms = − is
2
19. 5.6 litre of the gas have 1 g weight at STP. Then
atomic weight of the gas is ______. 23. Find the number of metals from the following:
As, Fe, Xe, Li, B, Cl, Ba, P, I, Si
20. How much amount of CaCO3 in grams having
percentage purity 50 percent produces 0.56 litre
of CO2 at STP on heating? 24. The first four ionization energy values of an
element are 120, 240, 520 and 6420 kcal. The
21. Magnetic momentum of an ion M3+ is 35 BM . number of valence electrons in the element is
then, number of electrons in d-orbital of M will
be______.
[3]
25. Find out the total number of 72° bond angles in 32. In which of the following reaction(s)
pentagonal bipyramidal structure. hybridisation of underlined atom is changing?
(1) NH3 + H + → NH +4
26. Number of p – p bonds in given compound
(2) BF3 + F− → BF4−
CN – CH = CH – CN is _____.
(3) C2H2 + 2H2 → C2H6
SECTION-B (4) PCl5 → PCl3 + Cl2
One or More than One Correct Type (27–32)
27. Which of the following pairs have same number SECTION-C
of molecules? Single Correct Type Questions (33–36)
(1) 2 g of O2, 4 g of SO2 33. Equivalent weight of H3PO2 (M → molecular
(2) 2 g CO2, 2 g of N2O weight)
(3) 224 mL O2 at STP, 448 mL of He at 0.5 atm (1) M/1
and 273 K
(2) M/2
(4) 2 g oxygen and 2 g ozone
(3) M/4
(4) M/3
28. 4 g of NaOH can be neutralised by
(1) 100 mL of 1 N HCl
34. The velocity of electron moving in 3rd orbit of
N He+ is v, the velocity of electron moving in 2nd
(2) 200 mL of H2SO4
2 orbit of Li2+ is
N (1) 9/4 v
(3) 1000 mL of KOH
10 (2) 4/9 v
M (3) v
(4) 2000 mL of H 3 PO 4
20 (4) None of these

29. Which orbital/orbitals cannot exist? 35. Select equations having exothermic step.
− 2−
(1) 2d (2) 1p (I) S(g) → S(g)
(3) 3g (4) 4f
+ −
(II) Na (g) + Cl(g) → NaCl(s)
30. In solid state PCl5 exist as [PCl4]+[PCl6]–. The −
hybridisation of P is/are: (III) N(g) → N(g)
(1) sp3 2+ 3+
(IV) Al(g) → Al(g)
(2) sp3d
Choose the correct code:
(3) sp3d2
(4) sp3d3 (1) II (2) I and II
(3) III and IV (4) II and III
31. Choose the pair (s) in which IE1 of first element
is greater than IE1 of second element but in case 36. The compound that has the largest H – M – H
of IE2 order is reversed. bond angle (M = N, O, S, C) is:
(1) N, O (1) H2S (2) CH4
(2) P, S (3) NH3 (4) H2O
(3) Be, B
(4) F, O

PART-III (MATHEMATICS)
SECTION-A 39. Number of integral values of x in the domain of
Integer Type (Single Digit Integer) (37 – 44) f(x) = −[ x]2 + 3[ x] − 2 is ______. (where [.]
37. The smallest positive integer satisfying the
represents greatest integer function)
equation |log1/6 x – 1| + 2 = |log1/6 x – 3| is
40. Sum of all the values of x satisfying maximum
38. The sum of all the real roots of the equation
{ex, e–x} = 4, is
|x –2|2 + |x – 2| – 2 = 0, is

[4]
41. The number of real roots of the equation  1
{x}
1
49. Values of x satisfying    are (where
( x − 2) + | x − 4 | + x − 3x + 2 = 0 , is
2 2 2  3 3
{.} denotes the fractional part function)
42. If x ≥ 0 and y ≥ 0, then the area bounded by the 1
graph of [x] + [y] = 2 is (where [.] denotes (1)  (2) 2 + 3
9
greatest integer function)
e 2
(3) (4)
43. If the solution set of the inequality 2 3
log 0.9
log5 ( x + 5 + x )  0
2
contains ‘n’
integral values, then n equals to 50. The inequality [2 – x] + 2[x – 1] ≥ 0 is satisfied
by (where [.] denotes greatest integer function):
2 f ( n) + 1 (1) x ∈ {0}
44. If f(n + 1) = for n = 1, 2, 3, … and f(1)
2 (2) x ∈ W
= 2, then f(101) is k, then (k – 50) is (3) x ∈ N
(4) x ∈ [1, )
SECTION-B
One or More than One Correct Type (45 – 50)
45. The relation R defined on A = {1, 2, 3} by aRb. If SECTION-C
|a2 – b2| ≤ 5, which of the following is/are Single Correct Type Questions (51 – 54)
correct? 51. The set of values of x satisfying simultaneously
(1) Domain of R = {1, 2, 3}
( x − 8)(2 − x)
(2) R = {(1, 1), (1, 2), (2, 1), (2, 2), (3, 3), (2, 3), the inequalities  0 and
 10 
(3, 2)} log0.3  (log 2 5 − 1)
(3) Range of R = {1, 5} 7 
(4) Domain of R = range of R 2x–3 – 31 > 0 is:
(1) a unit set
a
46. The solution set of inequality |x| < , a  R, is (2) an empty set
x
(3) an infinite set
(1) (− − a ,0) if a < 0
(4) a set consisting of exactly two elements
(2) (0, a ) if a > 0
(3)  if a = 0 52. Let f be a real valued function defined by f(x) =
(4) (0, a) if a > 0
e x − e −| x|
, then the range of f(x) is
e x + e| x|
47. Let A be a set of rational numbers of the form
(1) R (2) [0, 1]
p/q, where p, q ∈ {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6}. Also, B is a
subset of A containing natural numbers only, then  1
(3) [0, 1) (4) 0, 
(1) Cardinal number of set A is 23  2
(2) Power set of A contains 223 elements
(3) Cardinal number of set B is 11 x − [ x]
53. Let f(x) = , x  R. Then range of f(x),
(4) Number of subsets of set B is 26 1 + x − [ x]
where [.] denotes greatest integer function, is :
48. Consider two sets A and B such that A  (B   1
(1)  0, 
{1, 2, 3}) = {2, 3, 4, 5}, then which of the  2
following is/are correct?
 1
(1) 1 ∈ A  B (2) 0, 
 2
(2) 1 ∈ A’  B’
 1
(3) Minimum value of n(A) is 2 (3) 0, 
 2
(4) Minimum value of n(B) is 2
 1
(4)  0, 
 2

[5]
54. If graph of y = f(x), f(x) is differentiable in
(–3, 1), is as shown in the following figure

and g(x) = ln(f(x)), then the graph of y = g(–|x|) is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

PW Web/App - https://smart.link/7wwosivoicgd4

Library- https://smart.link/sdfez8ejd80if

[6]
 Arjuna JEE 2.0 (2024)
JEE
JEE Advanced Test - 01 Advanced
Paper-01
DURATION: :180
DURATION Minutes
90 Minutes DATED: 10/09/2023 M. MARKS: 192

Topics covered
Physics : Units and Dimensions (Complete Chapter), Basic Maths (Complete Chapter), Motion in a Straight
Line (Complete Chapter), Motion in a Plane (Complete Chapter).
Chemistry : Mole concepts (Full Chapter), Atomic structure (Full Chapter), Periodic Classification (Full
Chapter), Chemical Bonding (Full Chapter).
Mathematics : Basic Math & Logarithm (Full Chapter), Set Theory (Full Chapter), Function (Full Chapter).

General Instructions:
1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the test booklet.
2. The test is of 3 hours duration.
3. The test booklet consists of 54 questions. The maximum marks are 192.
4. This Paper consists Three Sections (Section A, B & C) in each subject (Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics)
For Section A : Numerical Value Type (8 Questions)
For each Question, enter the correct numerical value. If the numerical value has more than 2 decimal places,
truncate/round-off the value to TWO decimal places.
Full Marks - +3, Zero Marks - 0
For Section B : One or More than one correct (6 Questions); For each Question, choose the option(s) corresponding to (all) the
correct answers. Full Marks - +4, Zero Marks - 0, Negative Marks - 1
For Section C : Matrix Match Columns or List (4 Questions); For each Question, choose the correct option corresponding to
the correct answer.
Each Columns or List has TWO lists : Column I & Column II or List I & List II
Column I or List I has Four entries (I), (II), (III) and (IV) and Column II or List II has four or five entries (P), (Q), (R), (S)
and (T). Four options (1),(2),(3),(4) are given in each Multiple Choice Question based on Column I or List I and Column
II or List II and only ONE of these four options satisfies the condition asked in the Multiple Choice Question.
Full Marks - +4, Zero Marks - 0, Negative Marks - -1
5. No student is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile phone, any electronic
device, etc. inside the examination room/hall.
6. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty in the Room/Hall.
However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
7. Do not fold or make any stray mark on the Answer Sheet (OMR).
OMR Instructions:
1. Use blue/black dark ballpoint pens.
2. Darken the bubbles completely. Don't put a tick mark or a cross mark where it is specified that you fill the bubbles
completely. Half-filled or over-filled bubbles will not be read by the software.
3. Never use pencils to mark your answers.
4. Never use whiteners to rectify filling errors as they may disrupt the scanning and evaluation process.
5. Writing on the OMR Sheet is permitted on the specified area only and even small marks other than the specified area may
create problems during the evaluation.
6. Multiple markings will be treated as invalid responses.
7. Do not fold or make any stray mark on the Answer Sheet (OMR).

Name of the Students (In CAPITALS) : _______________________________________________________________

Roll Number : _____________________________________________________________________________________________

OMR Bar Code Number : ________________________________________________________________________________

Candidate’s Signature : _______________________________ Invigilator’s Signature _____________________

 PART-I (PHYSICS)
SECTION-A SECTION-B
Numerical Value Type (1-8) One or More than One Correct Type (9–14)

1. A particle starts from rest moving with acceleration 9. The motion of a body is given by the equation
2 m/s2. Distance travelled by it (in m) in 5th half dv (t )
second is ______. 6.0 3v(t ), where v(t) is speed of particle
dt
at any time t in ms–1 and t in second. If body was at
2. A body is projected vertically upwards with speed rest at t = 0, then which of the following is/are
40 m/s. What is the distance travelled (in m) by correct?
body in the last second of upward journey?
(1) The terminal speed is 5.0 ms–1
[Take g = 10 m/s2 and neglect effect of air resistance]
(2) The speed varies with the time as
3. The position-time graph for a particle moving along a v(t) = 2(1 – e–3t) ms–1
straight line is shown in figure. The total distance (3) The speed is 1.0 ms–1 when the acceleration is
travelled by it (in m) in time t = 0 to t = 10 s is half of the initial value
(4) The magnitude of the initial acceleration is 6.0
ms–2

10. Two particles are projected simultaneously from

the same point, with the same speed, in the same
vertical plane, and at different angles with the
4. The position of a particle moving along x-axis is horizontal in a uniform gravitational field acting
given by x = 10t – 2t2. Then the time (in s) at which vertically downwards. A frame of reference is fixed
it will momentarily come to rest is _____. to one particle. The position vector of the other
particle, as observed from this frame is r . Which
5. The most significant digit in the measurement of a of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
length reported as 41.68 cm is ______. (1) r is a constant vector
(2) r changes in magnitude as well as direction
6. Two spherical balls having equal masses with
with time
radius 5 cm each are thrown upwards along the
same vertical direction at an interval of 3 s with (3) The magnitude of r increases linearly with
the same initial velocity of 35 m s–1, then these time. Its direction does not change
balls collide at a height of ____ m. (4) The direction of r changes with time. Its
(take g = 10 m s–2) magnitude may or may not change, depending
on the angles of projection
7. The sum of two forces P and Q is R such that
| R || P |. The angle  (in degrees) that the resultant 11. Rain, pouring down at an angle  with the vertical
has a speed of 10 ms–1. A girl runs against the rain
of 2P and Q will make with Q is ____. with a speed of 8 ms–1 and sees that the rain makes
an angle  with the vertical, then relation between
8. Velocity-time (v-t) graph for a moving object is  and  is
shown in the figure. Total displacement of the
8  10sin 
object during the time interval when there is non- (1) tan  
10cos 
zero acceleration and retardation is ………….m
8  10sin 
(2) tan  
10cos 

(3) tan = tan

(4) tan = cot

12. A vector A is rotated by a small angle  radian (1) Ap, q, r; Bp; Cp, q; Dp
( << 1) to get a new vector B. In that case (2) Aq, s; Bp; Cr, s; Dr, s
B  A is: (3) Aq; Bq; Cq, p; Dq, r
(4) None of these
(1) A  (2) B   A

 2  16. For the v-t graph shown in figure match the
(3) A 1   (4) 0
 2  following columns.

13. A projectile strikes the inclined plane

perpendicularly as shown in the figure. Which of
the following statement(s) is/are correct?

Column-I Column-II
Constant
(A) (p) t = 0 to t = 2 s
acceleration
(B) Zero displacement (q) t = 2 s to t = 4 s
(C) Increasing speed (r) t = 0 to t = 4 s
(1) Just before striking the inclined plane,
Negative
component of final velocity of projectile (D) (s) t = 4 s to t = 8 s
parallel to the inclined plane is non-zero displacement
(2) Initial velocity and final velocity just before (1) Ap; Bq, s; Cq, r; Dp
striking are perpendicular to each other (2) Ar; Br, s; Cp, s; Ds
(3) Component of acceleration of the particle (3) Ap, q, r, s; Br; Cq; Dp
parallel to the inclined plane before striking
(4) None of these
the plane is zero
(4) None of the above
17. A particle is projected form level ground near the
14. A particle is projected from a point P with a surface of earth with initial velocity u  u x iˆ  u y ˆj
velocity v at an angle  with horizontal. At a certain
as shown in the figure. If ax and ay are the
point Q it moves at right angles to its initial
components of acceleration in horizontal and
direction. Then:
vertically downwards directions then
(1) velocity of particle at Q is v sin
(2) velocity of particle at Q is v cot
(3) time of flight from P to Q is (v/g) cosec
(4) time of flight from P to Q is (v/g) sec

SECTION-C
Matrix Match Type (15–18)
Match the following columns.
15. Match the following columns. Column-I Column-II
Column-I Column-II
(A) Time of flight depends on (p) ux
(A) Projectile motion (p) Uniform motion
(B) Maximum height depends on (q) uy
A block sent sliding Uniformly
(B) on a smooth (q) acceleration (C) Range depends on (r) ax
horizontal surface motion (D) Speed at the top depends on (s) ay
Motion with (1) Ap, r; Bp, r, s; Cq; Dr, s
Uniform circular
(C) (r) non-uniform (2) Ap, r; Br, s; Cq; Dr
motion
acceleration
(3) Aq, s; Bq, s; Cp, q, r, s; Dp, q, r, s
Non-uniform
(D) Swing of pendulum (s) (4) None of these
motion

[3]
18. Match the following
Column-I Column-II
(A) Spring constant (p) [M1L2T–2]
(B) pascal (q) [M0L0T–1]
(C) hertz (r) [M1L0T–2]
(D) joule (s) [M1L–1T–2]
(1) Ar; Bs; Cq; Dp
(2) Aq, s; Bq; Cp, q; Dq, s
(3) Aq; Bp, r; Cp, r; Dq, r
(4) None of these
PART-II (CHEMISTRY)
SECTION-A 28. For the reaction:
Numerical Value Type (19–26) A + 2B  2C
5 moles of A and 8 moles of B are reacted, then
19. A compound contains 3.2% of oxygen. The
minimum molecular weight of the compound (in (1) Whole A is consumed
amu) is: (2) Whole B is consumed
(3) 8 moles of C are formed
20. The mole fraction of glucose in aqueous solution (4) 8 equivalents of C are formed
is 0.2, then molality of the solution (in mol/kg)
will be: 29. Choose the correct pair regarding properties
given in bracket.
21. The potential energy of an electron in hydrogen (1) 4d > 5s (angular node)
atom is –3.02 eV, its kinetic energy (in eV) will
(2) 4s = 4p (energy in hydrogen)
be:
(3) 4d > 4s (radial node)
(4) 4s > 3s (radial node)
22. How many maximum 3d electrons can have spin
quantum number –1/2?
30. Select the correct statement(s).
23. The first, second and third ionization energies of (1) Size of H– is larger than F–.
Al are 578, 1817 and 2745 kJ mol–1 respectively. (2) Rb is more electropositive as compared to
The energy required to convert all the atoms of Ca.
Al to Al3+ present in 270 mg of Al vapours is x (3) Na+ is more electronegative than Na.
kJ. The value of x is ______. (4) Cl is more electronegative than F.

24. The number of species having non-pyramidal 31. In which of the following arrangements is/are the
shape among the following is ______.
correct order according to the property indicated
SO3, PCl3, NO3–, CO32–
against it?
(1) Increasing size: Al3+ < Mg2+ < Na+ < F–
25. Element having least ionization enthalpy in 3rd
period belongs to group number x. (2) Increasing IE1 : B < C < O < N
The value of 10 – 2x is equal to _____. (3) Increasing EA1 : I < Br < F < Cl
(4) Increasing metallic radius : Li < Na < K <
26. The bond order in NO+ ion is x. Determine the Rb
value of x2.
32. The compound(s) with two lone pairs of
SECTION-B electrons on the central atom is (are):
One or More than One Correct Type (27–32)
(1) BrF5
27. Which of the following pairs follow law of (2) ClF3
multiple proportions? (3) XeF4
(1) CO2, CO (2) Fe2O3, Fe0.90O (4) SF4
12 14 +
(3) CO2, CO (4) N2O4, N2O3

[4]
 SECTION-C A B C D
Matrix Match Type (33–36) (1) q s p r
(2) r p q s
33. Match the following (3) p r q s
Column I Column II (4) s p q r
Number of carbon
35. Match Column-I (IUPAC nomenclature of
(A) atoms in 1 g (p) 0.5 N0
element) with Column-II (IUPAC official name)
molecule of CO2
Column- I Column-II
Number of
Lawrencium
(B) molecules in 48 g (q) N0 (A) Unnilhexium (P)
(103)
O2
(B) Unniltrium (Q) Dubnium (105)
Number of
(C) molecules in 11.2 (r) 3 N0 Seaborgium
L H2 at STP (C) Unnilunium (R)
(106)
Number of Mendelevium
hydrogen atoms in (D) (S)
Unnilpentium (101)
(D) 1 mole of NH3 (N0 (s) 1.5 N0
= Avogadro’s (1) A – (S), B – (P), C – (R), D – (Q)
Number (2) A – (R), B – (P), C – (S), D – (Q)
(3) A – (R), B – (S), C – (P), D – (Q)
A B C D (4) A – (Q), B – (R), C – (P), D – (S)
(1) q s p r
(2) r p q s 36. Match the column I with column II:
(3) q p s r Column- I Column-II
(4) s p q r
(A) B2 (P) Diamagnetic, Bond order = 3
34. Match the following (B) N2 (Q) Paramagnetic, Bond order = 1
Column II
Column I
(C) O 2 (R) Diamagnetic, Bond order = 1
(Nature and No. of
(Orbitals)
Nodes) Paramagnetic, Bond order =
(D) O 22 (S)
(A) 4d (p) One spherical node 1.5
z2
A B C D
(B) 3s (q) One nodal plane (1) Q P S R
(C) 2px (r) Two spherical nodes (2) P Q R S
(3) S P Q R
(D) 4d xy (s) Two nodal planes (4) R S P Q

PART-III (MATHEMATICS)

If ( x 2  7 x  11) x  x 1 = (x2 – 7x + 11)3x – 2, then

SECTION-A 2
39.
Numerical Value Type (37-44) number of distinct integral solutions of the
equation is equal to
37. If 4A + 9B = 10C, where A = log164, B = log39 & C
= logx83, then value of x is. 40. If a, b, c are real numbers such that a + b + c = 7
1 1 1 1
and    ,
38. P(x) is a monic polynomial of degree 3 such that ab bc ca 2
P(1) = 1, P(2) = 4, P(3) = 9, then value of P(4) is a b c
Then the value of   is equal
equal to bc ca ab
to
[5]
41. Let Y = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5}, A = {1, 2}, B = {3, 4, 5}. 49. The shaded region in the given figure is
If (A × B) denotes Cartesian product of the set A
and B, then number of elements in (Y × A)  (Y ×
B) is

4
42. Value of f (2,3) if f ( x  y, x  y)  xy, is
5
(1) A  (B  C) (2) A  (B  C)
43. If f1 (x) = ||x| – 2| and fn (x) = |fn – 1 (x) – 2| for all n (3) A B C (4) A  (B  C)
≥ 2, n ∈ N, then number of solution of the
equation f2015 (x) = 2 is 1
50. Let f(x) = x2 + 4 and g(x) = , then
x 1
44. Let A = {4, 5, 7} and B = {2, 4, 6} be two sets (1) dom (f + g) = (0, ∞)
and let a relation R be a relation from A to B is (2) range f  range g = [4, ∞)
defined by R: {(x, y) : x < y, x ∈ A, y ∈ B} then (3) range g = (0, ∞)
(4) range f  range g = (0, ∞)
the difference between the sum of elements of
domain and range of R is
SECTION-C
Matrix Match Type (51–54)
SECTION-B
One or More than One Correct Type (45–50) 51. Match the following functions in Column-I with
their respective domain in Column-II. (Here {.}
45. The interval(s) of the values of x for which represents fractional part function and [.]
|x – 3| + |2x – 3| = 3|x – 2| is/are represents greatest integer function)
3   3 Column- I Column-II
(1)  ,3 (2)  , 
2   2
A y = log{x}{x} P x ∈ [2, ∞) – {n : n ∈ I}
(3) [3, ) (4) [2, )
B y = log[x]{x} Q x ∈ [2, ∞)
1 C y = log[x][x] R x ∈ R – {n : n ∈ I}
46. If  log 0.1 x  2, then
2
D y = log{x}[x] S x ∈ (1, ∞) – {n : n ∈ I}
1
(1) maximum value of x is
10 A B C D
1 1
(1) R P Q S
(2) x lies between and (2) P Q R S
100 10 (3) Q P S R
1 (4) S R P Q
(3) minimum value of x is
10
52. List-I contains some modulus equations/
1 inequations. List-II contains number of non-
(4) minimum value of x is
100 negative integral values of x.
Column- I Column-II
47. Which of the following statements are true
|x2 – 2x| + |x – 4| = |x2 –3x +
(1) log2 3 < log12 10 A P 2
4| is
(2) log6 5 < log7 8
(3) log3 26 < log2 9 B |x – 1| < 2 is Q 4
(4) log16 15 > log10 11 > log7 6 x 2  2 x  15
C  0 is R 5
| x | 3
48. If a ≠ 0, then the inequation |x – a| + |x + a| < b
(1) has no solutions if b ≤ 2 |a| D |x2 – x| < |x – 2| is S 3
 b b  A B C D
(2) has a solution set  ,  if b > 2 |a|
 2 2 (1) R P Q S
(2) P Q R S
 b b 
(3) has a solution set  ,  if b < 2 |a| (3) Q S R P
 2 2
(4) S R P Q
(4) all above

[6]
53. Given n(A) = 11, n(B) = 13, n(C) = 16, n ( A  B) 54. Match the items of Column I with those of
= 3, n ( B  C ) = 6, n ( A  C ) = 5 and n Column II.
Column- I Column-II
( A  B  C ) = 2.
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct If x1 and x2 satisfy the
answer using the code given below the list. A log x P irrational
equation x 10 = 100x
then the value of x1x2 equals
Column- I Column-II
Sum of the squares of the
A n ( A  B  C) P 6 B roots of the equation log2 (9 Q rational
–2x) = 3 – x is
B n ( A  ( B  C )) Q 8
1
If log 1 (log 1 (log 1 x)) 
C n (C   A  B) R 28 C 3 R prime
8 4 2
then x is
D n (( A  B  C )  ( B  C  A) S 4
(C  A  B ')) If logb a = 3, logb c = –4 and
if the value of x satisfying
A B C D the equation a3x = cx–1 is
D S composite
(1) R S P Q expressed in the form p/q,
where p and q are relatively
(2) R S Q Q
prime, then p + q is
(3) P Q S S
(4) Q P R R A B C D
(1) P, S Q, R P Q, S
(2) R, S P, S Q S, R
(3) Q, S Q, S P Q, R
(4) P, Q Q, R S P, R

PW Web/App - https://smart.link/7wwosivoicgd4

Library- https://smart.link/sdfez8ejd80if

[7]
 Arjuna JEE 2.0 (2024)
JEE
Advanced
JEE Advanced Test - 02
Paper-01

DURATION: :180
DURATION 90 Minutes
Minutes DATED: 19/11/2023 M. MARKS: 192

Topics covered
Physics : Newton law of Motion (Complete Chapter), Circular Motion (Complete Chapter), Work, Power & Energy
(Complete Chapter), Center of Mass (Complete Chapter).
Chemistry : State of Matter, Gases and Liquids (Complete Chapter), Thermodynamics (Complete Chapter), Equilibrium-
Chemical (Complete Chapter), Equilibrium-Ionic (Complete Chapter).
Mathematics : Trigonometric Ratio and Identities, Trigonometric Equations, Quadratic Equations (Complete Chapter), Complex
Numbers-I (Complete Chapter).

General Instructions:
1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the test booklet.
2. The test is of 3 hours duration.
3. The test booklet consists of 54 questions. The maximum marks are 192.
4. This Paper consists Three Sections (Section A, B & C) in each subject (Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics)
For Section A : Numerical Value Type (8 Questions)
For each Question, enter the correct numerical value. If the numerical value has more than 2 decimal places,
truncate/round-off the value to TWO decimal places.
Full Marks - +3, Zero Marks - 0
For Section B : One or More than one correct (6 Questions); For each Question, choose the option(s) corresponding to (all) the
correct answers. Full Marks - +4, Zero Marks - 0, Negative Marks - 1
For Section C : Matrix Match Columns or List (4 Questions); For each Question, choose the correct option corresponding to the
correct answer.
Each Columns or List has TWO lists : Column I & Column II or List I & List II
Column I or List I has Four entries (I), (II), (III) and (IV) and Column II or List II has four or five entries (P), (Q), (R), (S)
and (T). Four options (1),(2),(3),(4) are given in each Multiple Choice Question based on Column I or List I and Column II
or List II and only ONE of these four options satisfies the condition asked in the Multiple Choice Question.
Full Marks - +4, Zero Marks - 0, Negative Marks - -1
5. No student is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile phone, any electronic
device, etc. inside the examination room/hall.
6. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty in the Room/Hall.
However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
7. Do not fold or make any stray mark on the Answer Sheet (OMR).
OMR Instructions:
1. Use blue/black dark ballpoint pens.
2. Darken the bubbles completely. Don't put a tick mark or a cross mark where it is specified that you fill the bubbles
completely. Half-filled or over-filled bubbles will not be read by the software.
3. Never use pencils to mark your answers.
4. Never use whiteners to rectify filling errors as they may disrupt the scanning and evaluation process.
5. Writing on the OMR Sheet is permitted on the specified area only and even small marks other than the specified area may
create problems during the evaluation.
6. Multiple markings will be treated as invalid responses.
7. Do not fold or make any stray mark on the Answer Sheet (OMR).

Name of the Students (In CAPITALS) : _______________________________________________________________

Roll Number : _____________________________________________________________________________________________

OMR Bar Code Number : ________________________________________________________________________________

Candidate’s Signature : _______________________________ Invigilator’s Signature _____________________

[1]
 PART-I (PHYSICS)
SECTION-A
Numerical Value Type (1-8)
1. A small ball of mass 1 kg is suspended from a fixed
point by a light string of length 5 m. It is thrown
from the lowest point horizontally with a speed of
10 2 m/s. Find the speed (in m/s) of ball, just
before the string is slacks.
6. Find the time required by a block to come to rest
(Take g  10 m/s 2 )
from a speed of 10 m/s moving on a horizontal
surface where k = 0.2. What is the distance covered
2. Two identical 5 kg blocks are moving with same (in meter) before stopping? (Take g = 10 m/s2)
speed of 2 m/s towards each other along a
frictionless horizontal surface. The two blocks 7. A 0.5 kg body slides from the point A on a
collide, stick together and come to rest. Consider horizontal track with an initial speed of 3 m/s
the two blocks as a system, calculate the magnitude towards a massless horizontal spring of length 1 m
of work done (in J) by internal forces. and force constant 2 N/m. The part AB of the track
is frictionless and part BC has coefficient of static
3. A 20 g bullet pierces through a plate of mass and dynamic friction 0.2 and 0.2 respectively.
M1 = 1 kg and then comes to rest inside a second Find the total distance (in m) through which the
block moves before it comes to rest completely if
plate of mass M2 = 2.98 kg as shown in Figure. It is
AB = 2 m and BD = 2.14 m. (Take g = 10 ms–2)
found that the two plates, initially at rest, now move
with equal velocities. Find the percentage loss in the
initial velocity of the bullet when it is between M1
and M2. Neglect any loss of material of the plates
due to the action of bullet.

8. A man pulls a 5 kg block 20 m along a horizontal

surface at a constant speed with force directed at 45°
above the horizontal. If the coefficient of kinetic
friction is 0.2, how much work (in J) does the man
do on the block?

SECTION-B
One or More than One Correct Type (9–14)
9. In the pulley-block system shown in figure, strings
are light. Pulleys are massless and smooth. System
4. A cart loaded with sand having total mass
is released from rest. In 0.3 second.
m0 = 1800 kg moves on a straight horizontal road
starting from rest under the action of a force of 120
N. The sand spills through a small hole in the
bottom at a rate of K = 0.5 kg/s. What will be the
velocity (in m/s) of the cart after 20 min?

5. A block of mass 2 kg is resting inside a box as

shown in figure. The box is moving with a velocity

v  12t iˆ  6t ˆj  ms–1 where, t is time in seconds.
(A) work done on 2 kg block by gravity is 6 J
All surfaces are smooth. The block remains at rest (B) work done on 2 kg block by string is – 2 J
with respect to the box. What is the magnitude of (C) work done on 1 kg block by gravity is – 1.5 J
force (in N) exerted by the block on the box? (Take (D) work done on 1 kg block by string is 2 J
g = 10 ms–2)
[2]
10. A body is moving on a circular path of radius r Matrix Match Type (15–18)
with constant speed under the action of a force 15. Match the List-I with List-II.
K List-I List-II
F  3 .
r I Newton’s first P Quantitative
Assuming infinity as zero potential energy law of motion definition of force
reference, select the correct alternative (s) provides
K II Newton’s Q Qualitative
(A) Kinetic energy of the body is
2r 2 second law definition of force
K III A particle of R Momentum 5
(B) Potential energy of the body is  2
2r mass kgms–1
K 1 kg is moving
(C) Mechanical energy of the body is  2
2r with a velocity
(D) The body is in a bound state of 5 ms–1 has
IV The expression S Definition of inertia
11. A block of mass 1.2 kg moving at a speed of F = ma gives
20 cm/sec collides head on with a similar block kept (A) I-P, Q; II-R; III-S; IV-Q
at rest. The coefficient of restitution is 3/5. Then (B) I-R, Q; II-P; III-Q; IV-S
(A) Velocity of first block after the collision is (C) I-P, S; II-Q; III-S; IV-R
4 cm/sec (D) I-Q, S; II-P; III-R; IV-P
(B) Velocity of second block after the collision is
16 cm/sec
16. Match the List-I with List-II.
(C) Loss in kinetic energy is 7.7 × 10–3J
List-I List-II
(D) None of these
I For elastic collision P Inelastic
12. A particle of mass m = 1 kg lying on x-axis collision
experiences a force given by law F = x (3x – 2) II Perfectly inelastic Q e=1
Newton, where x is the x-coordinate of the particle collision
in meters. The points on x-axis where the particle is III Partial inelastic R 0<e<1
in equilibrium are collision
(A) x = 0 (B) x = 1/3 IV Maximum loss of K.E. S K.E. is not
(C) x = 2/3 (D) x = 1 conserved
(A) I-P; II-R; III-S; IV-Q
13. A reference frame attached to earth
(B) I-Q; II-S; III-R; IV-P
(A) is inertial frame because Newton’s laws are
(C) I-P; II-Q; III-S; IV-R
applicable in this frame
(D) I-Q; II-P; III-S; IV-R
(B) is inertial fame by definition
(C) cannot be inertial frame as earth is moving
around its axis 17. Match the List-I with List-II.
(D) cannot be inertial frame as earth is rotating (p = momentum of particle, K = kinetic energy of
about its axis particle)
List-I List-II
14. A shell is fired from a cannon with a velocity I p is increased by 200% P 800%
v(m/sec.) at an angle  with the horizontal direction. corresponding change in K
At the highest point in its path it explodes into two II K is increased by 300%, Q 100%
pieces of equal mass. One of the pieces retraces its corresponding change in p
path to the cannon immediately after the explosion III p is increased by 1%, R 0.5%
(A) The speed of the other piece is 3v cos  corresponding change in K
(B) The speed of the piece which retraces its path IV K is increased by 1% S 2%
is v cos  corresponding change in p
3
(C) The speed of the other piece is v cos  (A) I-P; II-Q; III-S; IV-R
2 (B) I-R; II-P; III-Q; IV-S
(D) The speed of the piece which retraces its path
(C) I-P; II-R; III-R; IV-S
3 (D) I-Q; II-P; III-S; IV-R
is v cos 
2

[3 ]
18. In the arrangement shown in figure match the III Maximum compression in R 4 SI unit
following: the spring
IV Maximum potential energy S 0.5 SI unit
stored in the spring
(A) I-P; II-R; III-S; IV-Q
(B) I-R;, II-P; III-Q; IV-S
List-I List-II (C) I-Q; II-Q; III-Q; IV-P
I Velocity of centre of mass P 2 SI unit (D) I-Q; II-P; III-S; IV-R
II Velocity of combined mass Q 1 SI unit
when compression in the
spring is maximum
PART-II (CHEMISTRY)
SECTION-A equilibrium constant of the reaction is x/15. The
Numerical Value Type (19–26) value of x is _______.
19. NH4Cl has a hydrolysis constant (Kh) of 26. A certain gas effuses through a small opening of a
5.6 × 10–10. Calculate the pH at equilibrium for vessel at a rate which is exactly one-fifth the rate
0.1 M NH4Cl solution. (log1.78 = 0.26) at which helium gas effuses under identical
conditions. Thus, the molecular weight of the gas
20. One mole of non-ideal gas undergoes a change of is ______ u.
state (1.0 atm, 3.0 L, 200 K) to (4.0 atm, 5.0 L,
250 K) with a change in internal energy SECTION-B
(∆U) = 40 L-atm. The change in enthalpy of the One or More than One Correct Type (27–32)
process in L-atm: 27. A buffer solution can be prepared from a mixture of:
(A) Sodium acetate and acetic acid in water.
21. At 25°C, 0.056 mol O2 and 0.02 mol N2O were (B) Sodium acetate and HCl (limited amount) in
placed in a 1 L container where the following water.
equilibrium was established: (C) Ammonia and ammonium chloride in water.
2N 2 O(g)  3O 2 (g)  4NO 2 (g) (D) Ammonia and sodium hydroxide in water.
At equilibrium, the NO2 concentration was 0.02
M, what is the value of Kc for this reaction? 28. Heat of neutralization of the acid-base reaction is
57.32 kJ for:
22. An open vessel at 27°C is heated until two fifth of (A) HCOOH + KOH
the air (assumed as an ideal gas) in it has escaped (B) CH3COOH + NaOH
from the vessel. Assuming that the volume of the (C) HNO3 + LiOH
vessel remains constant, the temperature (in K) at (D) HCl + NaOH
which the vessel has been heated is:
29. At room temperature, Dalton’s law of partial
23. A certain buffer solution contains equal pressure is not applicable to-
concentration of X– and HX. The Kb for X– is 10– (A) H2 and N2 mixture
10
. The pH of the buffer is ____. (B) HCl and NH3 mixture
(C) H2 and CO2 mixture
24. If at 298 K , the bond energies of C – H, C – C,
(D) SO2 and Cl2 mixture
C = C and H  H bonds are respectively 414, 347,
615 and 435 kJ mol1 , the value of enthalpy 30. Which of the following expression is true?
change for the reaction, (A) [H+] = [OH–] = K w for a neutral solution
H 2 C  CH 2 (g)  H 2 (g)  H 3C  CH 3 (g)
at all temperatures.
at 298 K will be:
(B) [H+] > K w and [OH–] < K w for an
(Report only magnitude)
acidic solution.
25. For a reaction X + Y ⇌ 2Z, 1.0 mol of X, 1.5 mol (C) [H+] < K w and [OH–] > K w for an
of Y and 0.5 mol of Z were taken in a 1 L vessel alkaline solution.
and allowed to react. At equilibrium, the (D) [H+] = [OH–] = 10–7 M for a neutral solution
concentration of Z was 1.0 mol L–1. The at all temperatures.

[4 ]
31. In which of the following reactions, increase in I II III IV
temperature as well as decrease in pressure shift (A) P Q S R
the equilibrium towards the forward direction?
(B) R S Q P
(A) N2O4 (g)  2 NO2 (g), ΔH   ve
(C) Q P R S
(B) PCl5 (g)  PCl3 (g)  Cl2 (g), ΔH   ve
(D) S R P Q
(C) N2 (g)  O2 (g)  2NO(g), ΔH   ve
(D) 2SO2 (g)  O2 (g)  2SO3 (g), ΔH   ve 35. Match the column-I with column-II:
Column-I Column-II
32. Which of the following is/are state function?
(Salt) (Solubility
(A) Enthalpy
(B) Heat product)
(C) Entropy I Zirconium phosphate P 27 S4
(D) Gibb's free energy (G) [Zr3(PO4)4]
II Aluminium Q 108 S5
SECTION-C
phosphate [AlPO4]
Matrix Match Type (33–36)
33. Match the reactions of the column-I with the factors III Calcium phosphate R 6912 S7
in column-II: [Ca3(PO4)2]
Column-I Column-II IV Sodium phosphate S S2
I N2 (g)  3H2 (g) P Forward shift by Na3PO4
rise in pressure
 2NH 3  g  I II III IV
(Exothermic) (A) P Q S R
II 2SO2 (g)  O2 (g) Q Unaffected by (B) S R Q P
change in
 2SO3 (g) (C) Q R S P
pressure
(Exothermic) (D) R S Q P
III N2 (g)  O2 (g) R Forward shift by
 2NO(g) rise in
36. Match List-I with List-II and select answer given
 Endothermic  temperature
below:-
IV PCl3 (g)  Cl2 (g) S Forward shift by
List-I List-II
 PCl5 (g) lowering the
 Endothermic  temperature I ΔH = +ve, P Spontaneous at all
ΔS = +ve temperature
I II III IV II ΔH = –ve, Q Non-spontaneous
(A) P, R P, R P, Q R, S ΔS = +ve at all temperature
(B) Q, R R, S Q, S P, Q III ΔH = +ve, R Non-spontaneous
(C) P, S P, S Q, R P, R
ΔS = – ve at high
(D) Q, R P, Q P, R R, S
temperature
34. Match List-I with List-II and select answer given IV ΔH = –ve, S Spontaneous at
below:- ΔS = –ve high temperature
List-I List-II I II III IV
I Z for ideal gas P 3/8
(A) S P R Q
II Z for real gas at low Q  Pb 
P 1   (B) S P Q R
 RT 
III Z for real gas at high R 1 (C) R S P Q
P (D) S R Q P
IV Z for critical state S  a 
1  
 RTV 

[5 ]
 PART-III (MATHEMATICS)
SECTION-A SECTION-B
Numerical Value Type (37-44) One or More than One Correct Type (45–50)
37. Number of solution of the equation 45. If z 2  z  z  4i and z does not lie in third
cos 4 x  sin 36 x  1 in [0, 2], is quadrant, then
(A) z  2 (B) z  2 2
38. If  and  are roots of x2 – x + 2 = 0 and  3
(C) arg( z )  (D) arg( z ) 
Sn   n  n , n  N , 4 4
5
 Sn 46. Let x, y  [0, 2] and satisfying the equation
n 1
then value of 4 4
is equal to sin 3 x  cos3 y  6sin x cos y  8 . If l = x + y and
   n n
7 m = x – y, then
n 1 n 1

(A) least value of l is
2
39. If ,  are roots of equation x2 – 6x + 4 = 0, then
5
(B) largest value of l is
(  2)16  (  6)8 2
value of is equal to
8 
(C) least value of m is
2
40. If a, b, c are the roots of cubic x3 – x2 + 2x – 3 = 0, 
then the value of the expression (D) largest value of m is
2
a b c
  is equal to 47. If a and b are maximum and minimum values of
a  bc b  ac c  ab
16  cos 2 x  4sin x
f ( x)  respectively, then
sin 2 x  4sin x  5
41. If 64sin6°sin14°sin26°sin34°sin46°sin54°sin66°
(A) a + b = 8 (B) a – b = 6
1
sin74°sin86° = sin 54 , then value of a is equal (C) a + b = 7 (D) a – b = 4
a
to 48. If equation (x – a)(x – 3) = –1 has integral roots,
then (where a  I)
        (A) number of possible values of ‘a’ is 2
 cos    i sin     sin  i cos  (B) number of possible values of ‘a’ is 4
 12   12    3 3
42. If z
      (C) sum of all possible values of ‘a’ is 6
 sin 4  i cos 4  cos 6  i sin 6  (D) product of all possible values of ‘a’ is 5
  
a b
and Re(z) – Im(z) is (where a, b, c  N), 49. If , ,  are roots of the equation x3 – 3x + 1 = 0,
c
then
then a + b + c is equal to
(A) (  )(   )(    )  1
(B) (  )(   )(    )  1
1  3  i 2015  k
43. If principal value of arg   (C) (  1)(  1)(   1)  3
  is ,
i 1  3i 
   2 (D) (  1)(  1)(   1)  3
then k is equal to
50. If polynomial x2025 – x2022 + 2 is divided by x2 – 1,
then remainder is ax + b, then which of the
44. Two complex number z1, z2 are such that z1  z2 is following is/are true
z1 (A) a + b = 2
purely imaginary & is purely real. Number of
z2 (B) a – b = 0
(C) a + b = 3
pairs (z1, z2) such that z1  z2  1 , is equal to
(D) a – b = 2
[ 6]
 SECTION-C 53. Let f(x) = 2x2 + ax + a – 2, then match list-I with
Matrix Match Type (51–54) list-II and select the correct answer using the code
51. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct given below the list.
answer using the code given below the list. List-I List-II
List-I List-II I both the roots of f(x) = 0 P [0, 4]
I tan16°tan42°tan44°tan45° P 0 are negative, if a 
tan76° is equal to II one lies between the roots Q (2, )
II    3  Q 3 of f(x) = 0, if a 
1  cot 1  cot  is 4 III both the roots of f(x) = 0 R (0, 4)
 10  20 
equal to are confined in [–1, 1], if
III 15 R 2 a
 k 
 sin  10  is equal to IV exactly one root of f(x) = S (–, 0)
k 1 0 lies in (–1, 1), if a 
IV cos265° + cos255° S 1 (A) I-P, II-S, III-R, IV-Q
+ cos65°cos55° is equal to (B) I-Q, II-S, III-P, IV-R
(A) I-R, II-S, III-P, IV-Q (C) I-R, II-S, III-P, IV-Q
(B) I-S, II-R, III-P, IV-Q (D) I-S, II-R, III-Q, IV-P
(C) I-S, II-R, III-Q, IV-P
(D) I-S, II-P, III-R, IV-Q 54. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct
answer using the code given below the list.
52. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct Number of solution of following trigonometric
answer using the code given below the list. equations in [0, 2], is equal to
List-I List-II List-I List-II
I The minimum value of P 0 I (sinx – 1) (cosx – 1) (tanx – 1) P 1
2
x – 8x + 21 is =0
II The smallest natural Q 7 II Q 4
2 12  16sin 2 x  16sin 2 x  4  4
number k for which x – kx
+ 12 = 0 has integral roots III (2sin x  1)2  ( 3 tan x  1)2  0 R 2
only is IV  1  1 S 3
III If the equation x2 + 2x + 3 = R 5  sin x  2  cos x  2 
   0
2
0 and x – px + q = 0 have a  3  3
 sin x   cos x  
common root for real values  2 
 2 
of p and q, then p + q is
T 0
IV If ax2 + bx + c = 0 is true for S 1
(A) I-Q, II-Q, III-P, IV-R
x = 1, 2, 3, then a + b – 5c is
(B) I-P, II-Q, III-R, IV-S
T 2
(C) I-P, II-S, III-Q, IV-R
(A) I-P, II-Q, III-R, IV-S
(D) I-Q, II-R, III-P, IV-S
(B) I-Q, II-P, III-S, IV-R
(C) I-S, II-R, III-Q, IV-P
(D) I-R, II-Q, III-S, IV-P

PW Web/App - https://smart.link/7wwosivoicgd4

Library- https://smart.link/sdfez8ejd80if

[ 7]
 Arjuna JEE 2.0 (2024)
JEE
Advanced
JEE Advanced Test - 02 Paper-02

DURATION: 180 Minutes DATED: 19/11/2023 M. MARKS: 192

Topics covered
Physics : Newton law of Motion (Complete Chapter), Circular Motion (Complete Chapter), Work, Power & Energy
(Complete Chapter), Center of Mass (Complete Chapter).
Chemistry : State of Matter, Gases and Liquids (Complete Chapter), Thermodynamics (Complete Chapter), Equilibrium-
Chemical (Complete Chapter), Equilibrium-Ionic (Complete Chapter).
Mathematics : Trigonometric Ratio and Identities, Trigonometric Equations, Quadratic Equations (Complete Chapter), Complex
Numbers-I (Complete Chapter).

General Instructions:
1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the test booklet.
2. The test is of 3 hours duration.
3. The test booklet consists of 54 questions. The maximum marks are 192.
4. This paper consists Three Sections (Section A, B & C) in each subject (Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics) –
For Section A:
Integer Type Questions (Single Digit Integer) (Question No. 1-8)
For each Question, enter the correct single digit integer value.
Full Marks - +3, Zero Marks - 0, Negative Marks - -1
For Section B
One or More than one correct (Question No. 9-14)
For each Question, choose the option(s) corresponding to (all) the correct answers.
Full Marks - +4, Zero Marks - 0, Negative Marks - -1
For Section C
Single Correct (Question No. 15-18)
For each Question, choose the correct option corresponding to the correct Answer.
Each Question has Four options (1), (2), (3), (4). Only ONE of these options is the correct answer.
Full Marks - +4, Zero Marks - 0, Negative Marks - -1
5. No student is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile phone, any electronic
device, etc. inside the examination room/hall.
6. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty in the Room/Hall.
However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
7. Do not fold or make any stray mark on the Answer Sheet (OMR).
OMR Instructions:
1. Use blue/black dark ballpoint pens.
2. Darken the bubbles completely. Don't put a tick mark or a cross mark where it is specified that you fill the bubbles
completely. Half-filled or over-filled bubbles will not be read by the software.
3. Never use pencils to mark your answers.
4. Never use whiteners to rectify filling errors as they may disrupt the scanning and evaluation process.
5. Writing on the OMR Sheet is permitted on the specified area only and even small marks other than the specified area may
create problems during the evaluation.
6. Multiple markings will be treated as invalid responses.
7. Do not fold or make any stray mark on the Answer Sheet (OMR).

Name of the Students (In CAPITALS) : _______________________________________________________________

Roll Number : _____________________________________________________________________________________________

OMR Bar Code Number : ________________________________________________________________________________

Candidate’s Signature : _______________________________ Invigilator’s Signature _____________________

[1]
 PART-I (PHYSICS)
SECTION-A the friction force between (in N) the block B and
Integer Type (Single Digit Integer) (1–8) the ground?
1. A steel ball of mass 0.5 kg is dropped from a
height of 4.05 m onto a horizontal steel slab. The
collision is elastic, and the ball rebounds to its
original height. If the ball is in contact with the
slab for 0.002 sec, the average force (in newton) 7. The two blocks, m = 10 kg and M = 50 kg are free
on the ball during the impact is 15x × 102 N. Find x. to move as shown. The coefficient of static friction
between the blocks is 0.5 and there is no friction
2. Both the blocks as shown in the given arrangement between M and the ground. A minimum horizontal
are given together a horizontal velocity towards force F is applied to hold m against M that is equal
right. If acom be the instantaneous acceleration of to 960/p N. Find p.
the centre of mass of the system of blocks then
what is acom (mA = 2 mB)(mB = 1 kg)?

8. Two blocks of equals mass m are tied with a light

string which passes over a massless pulley as
shown in figure. The magnitude of acceleration of
3. Two springs of force constant 100 N/m and  3 1
centre of mass of both the blocks is 
150 N/m are in series as shown. The block is  4 m  g
 
pulled by a distance of 2.5 cm to the right from
(neglect friction everywhere). Find m.
equilibrium position. The ratio of work done by
the spring at left to the work done by the spring at
right is p/2. Find the p.

SECTION-B
One or More than One Correct Type (9–14)
9. A block A (5 kg) rests over another block B (3 kg)
placed over a smooth horizontal surface. There is
friction between A and B. A horizontal force F1
4. A body of mass 1 kg, initially at rest, explodes and
gradually increasing from zero to a maximum is
breaks into three fragments of masses in the ratio
applied to A so that the blocks move together
1 : 1 : 3. The two pieces of equal mass fly off
without having motion relative to each other.
perpendicular to each other with a speed of
Instead of this, another horizontal force F2
30 m/sec each. If the velocity of the heavier
gradually increasing from zero to a maximum is
fragment is 10 p m/s. Find p. applied to B so that the blocks move together
without relative motion. The magnitudes of
5. A bullet is fired from a gun. The force on the friction between the blocks in the two cases are f1
bullet is given by F = 600 – 2 × 105 t where F is in and f2 respectively during the variation of F1 and
newtons and t is in seconds. The force on the bullet F2 respectively. Then –
becomes zero as soon as it leaves the barrel. The
average impulse (in Ns) imparted to the bullet is
0.1 k. Find k.
(A) f1 max > f2 max
6. Two blocks are connected by a string and pulled (B) F1 max = F2 max = 3 : 5
by a force F = 50 N. If the coefficient of friction (C) F1 max = F2 max = 5:3
between the blocks and the ground is 0.2, what is
(D) f1 < F1
[2]
10. A man of mass m is standing on a stationary flat brakes producing a uniform deceleration of 3 m/s2.
car of mass M. The car can move without friction Then,
along horizontal rails. The man starts walking with (A) the centripetal acceleration of car just after
velocity v relative to the car. Work done by him applying the brake is 4 m/s2
(A) is greater than 1/2 mv2 if he walks along rails
(B) the acceleration just after applying the brake
(B) is less than 1/2 mv2 if he walks along rails
is 5 m/s2
(C) is equal to 1/2 mv2 if he walks normal to rails
(D) can never be less than 1/2 mv2 (C) the acceleration is directed towards the centre
just after applying the brake
(D) the angle between acceleration and velocity
11. A block of mass m moving with a velocity v0
just after applying the brake is 127°
collides with a stationary block of mass M at the
back of which a spring of spring constant k is
SECTION-C
attached, as shown in the figure. Select the correct
Single Correct Type Questions (15–18)
alternative(s)
15. Power supplied to a particle of mass 2 kg varies
with time as P = (3t2)/2 W. Here t is in second.
Velocity of particle at t = 0 is v = 0. The velocity
of particle at time t = 2 s will be
(A) The velocity of centre of mass is 
m  (A) 1 m/s (B) 4 m/s
 v0
mM 
(C) 2 m/s (D) 2 2 m/s
(B) The initial kinetic energy of the system in the
1  mM  2
centre of mass frame is   v0
4 M  m 16. A ball of mass m moving with a certain velocity
(C) The max. compression in the spring is collides against a stationary ball of mass m. The
two balls stick together after collision. If E be the
mM 1
v0 initial kinetic energy, then the loss of kinetic
M  m k energy in the collision is
(D) When the spring is in the state of max. (A) E (B) E/2
compression the kinetic energy in the centre
(C) E/3 (D) E/4
of mass frame is zero.

12. A particle is acted upon by a force of constant 17. A uniform heavy chain of mass m is partly on
magnitude which is always perpendicular to the smooth horizontal surface and partly on rough
velocity of the particle. The motion of the particle horizontal surface. A horizontal force of amount F
takes place in a plane. It follows that produces unit acceleration. If the coefficient of
(A) its velocity is constant friction is μ then the fraction of length on smooth
(B) its acceleration is constant surface is-
(C) its kinetic energy is constant F F  m
(A) (B)
(D) it moves in a circular path mg mg

mg  F  m F  m
13. A particle is moving on a circular path of radius (C) (D)
mg mg
2 m with constant angular velocity ω. In time
t = π/3ω,
(A) the magnitude of displacement is 2 m 18. Block A is moving with acceleration a along a
(B) the magnitude of displacement is (4π/3) m frictionless horizontal surface. When a second
block, B is placed on top of Block A the
(C) distance travelled by particle is (2π/3) m
acceleration of the combined blocks drops to
(D) distance travelled by particle is 2 m 1/5 the original value. What is the ratio of the mass
of A to the mass of B?
14. A car is moving with a speed of 10 m/s on a (A) 5 : 1 (B) 1 : 4
circular path of radius 25 m. Driver of car applies (C) 3 : 1 (D) 2 : 1

[ 3]
 PART-II (CHEMISTRY)
SECTION-A SECTION-B
Integer Type (Single Digit Integer) (19–26) One or More than One Correct Type (27–32)
27. Which of the following options is/are true for
19. What will be the pH of 0.1 M CH3COONH4?
alkaline aqueous solution?
Dissociation constants of CH3COOH and
NH4OH are Ka = 1.8 × 10–5 and Kb = 1.8 × 10–5 pK w
(A) pH 
respectively. 2
(B) pH  pOH
20. Two moles of a perfect gas undergo the pK w
following processes: (C) pOH 
2
(I) a reversible isobaric expansion from (1.0 (D) pH  pOH
atm, 20.0 L) to (1.0 atm, 40.0 L)
(II) a reversible isochoric change of state from
28. For an isothermal irreversible expansion of 1
(1.0 atm, 40.0 L) to (0.5 atm, 40.0 L)
mole of a perfect gas, identify the correct
(III) a reversible isothermal compression from
relation, where symbols have their usual
(0.5 atm, 40.0 L) to (1.0 atm, 20.0 L)
Calculate the magnitude of work (w) done in meaning.
L.atm (A) ΔU  0
(Round off to the nearest integer) (B) ΔH  0
 P 
(C) q  RT 1  2 
21. Consider the following reaction  P1 
A + B ⇌ E; Kc = 6
P 
2B + C ⇌ 2D ; Kc = 4 (D) w  RTln  2 
What will be the equilibrium constant (K) for the  P1 
following reaction?
1 29. Which of the following is correct about the
A+D⇌E+ C
2 equilibrium?
(A) Catalyst has no effect on equilibrium state
22. The Van der Waals constants a and b for a gas of (B) Keq changes with temperature
molar mass 164.2 g/mol are 4.105 atm-L2/mol2 (C) Value of Keq changes by increasing
and 0.1 L/mol, respectively. The density (in concentration of equilibrium
kg/m3) of the gas at 2 atm and 500 K is: (D) ΔG = 0

23. Find the pOH of 0.01 M NaOH solution? 30. Azhar prepared three different solutions of HCl,
NaOH and brine (NaCl) but forgot to label them.
24. The chemical reaction: A  P, ΔH  2.8 kJ is In order to identify he kept them on table and
spontaneous only above 400 K. Therefore ΔS of named them as solution I, solution II and solution
reaction must be at least (in JK 1 ) . III.
When he added a sample from solution II or
solution III to a sample from solution I, the pH of
25. How many of the following phenomena will
increase on increasing temperature? the solution I increased. However, when a sample
Viscosity of liquids, surface tension, from solution III was added to a sample from
vapour pressure solution II, the pH of the solution II increased.
Identify the correct option:
26. The initial pressure of COCl2 is 1000 torr. The (A) Solution I, II and III contain HCl, NaOH and
total pressure of the system becomes 1500 torr, NaCl respectively.
when the equilibrium COCl2(g)  CO(g) + (B) Solutions I and solution III can be mixed to
get the pH of solution II.
Cl2(g) is attained at constant temperature. The Kp
(C) pH1 < pHII < pHIII
x
of the reaction is x. The value of is equal (D) Solutions II and III cannot be used as
100
standard solutions in a titration.
to___.
[ 4]
31. Choose the reaction(s) from the following SECTION-C
options for which the standard enthalpy of Single Correct Type Questions (33–36)
reaction is equal to the standard enthalpy of 33. Solubility product constants (Ksp) of salts of
formation: types MX, MX2 and M3X at temperature ‘T’ are
(A) 2C(g)  3H 2 (g)  C2 H 6 (g) 4.0 × 10–8, 3.2 × 10–14 and 2.7 × 10–15,
respectively. Solubilities (mol dm–3) of the salts
3
(B) O 2 (g)  O3 (g) at temperature ‘T' are in the order:
2
(A) MX > MX2 > M3X
(C) 2H 2 (g)  O2 (g)  2H2O() (B) M3X > MX2 > MX
1 (C) MX2 > M3X > MX
(D) S8 (s)  O 2 (g)  SO 2 (g)
8 (D) MX > M3X > MX2

32. Select the correct graph(s) according to Boyle’s 34. In an irreversible process taking place at constant
law: T and p. In which only pressure-volume work is
being done, the change in Gibbs free energy (G)
and change in entropy (S), satisfy the criteria:
(A) (S) V, E  0, (G)T, p  0
(A)
(B) (S) V, E  0, (G)T, p  0
(C) (S) V, E  0, (G)T, p  0
(D) (S) V, E  0, (G)T, p  0

(B)
35. The translational kinetic energy of 1020
molecules of nitrogen at a certain temperature is
0.63 J. The temperature is: (NA = 6 × 1023)
(A) 23°C (B) 303.1°C
(C) 30.1°C (D) 43.3°C
(C)
36. At temperature 300 K, PCl5 is 50% dissociated at
an equilibrium pressure of 4 atm. At what
pressure would it dissociate to the extent of 80%
at the same temperature?
(D) (A) 0.05 atm (B) 0.60 atm
(C) 0.75 atm (D) 2.50 atm
PART-III (MATHEMATICS)
SECTION-A 40. If z1  1, z2  3, z3  5, z4  7 ,
Integer Type (Single Digit Integer) (37 – 44) 2
37. If the expression 1 105 z1  35 z2  21z3  15 z4 
then   is
15  z 2 z3 z4  z1 z3 z4  z1 z2 z4  z1 z2 z3 
sin  sin 2  sin 3 sin 6  sin 4 sin13
 tan k 
sin  cos 2  sin 3 cos 6  sin 4 cos13 equal to
where k  N, then the value of k, is equal to
41. If z1 , z 2 are complex numbers, then the maximum
9 z1 z2  z1 z2  z1 z2  z1 z2
38. The value of  log 2 (1  tan(5k )) is equal to value of
z1 z2
is equal to
k 1
19
2 2
39. If three different polynomials
42. If   cos
20
 i sin
20
, then value of  10r is
r0
x2 + ax + b, x2 + x + ab and ax2 + x + b, have equal to
exactly one common zero, where a, b are non-
zero real numbers, then the value of a + 2b is 43. The value of tan46°tan14° – tan74°tan14° +
equal to tan74°tan46° is equal to

[5 ]
44. Number of integral values of k for which the 50. Let sin4 and cos4 be the roots of the quadratic
equation (3sinx + 4cosx + 4)2 = 9k2 has a equation x2 – bx + c = 0. Which of the following
solution, is holds good?
1
(A) minimum value of b is
SECTION-B 2
One or More than One Correct Type (45 – 50) (B) maximum value of b is 1
45. If a, b, c are real distinct numbers such that (C) minimum value of c is 0
a3 + b3 + c3 = 3abc, then the quadratic equation 1
ax2 + bx + c = 0 has (a  0) (D) maximum value of c is
16
(A) real roots
(B) at least one negative root SECTION-C
(C) at least one positive root Single Correct Type Questions (51 – 54)
(D) Imaginary root 3
51. Given that     , then the expression
2
46. If z0 be a root of the quadratic equation x2 + x +
 
4sin 4   sin 2 2  4cos2    is equal to:
1 = 0 and z  3  6iz081  3iz093 , then 4 2
(A) z  3 2 (B) z  2 2 (A) 2 (B) 2 + 4 sin 
 3 (C) 2 – 4 sin  (D) 2 + sin 
(C) arg(z) = (D) arg(z) =
4 4
52. If roots of quadratic equation ax2 + bx + c = 0 are
47. If the equation non real and 4a + c < 2b, then which of the
following is the graph of f(x) = ax2 + bx + c?
2sin 2 ( x )  ( p  3)sin x  2 p  2  0
(A) (B)
possesses a real solution, then possible value(s)
of p is(are)
(C) (D)
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 4
2 2
48. Let ,   (0, 2) and x, y  R satisfy the 53. If P  cos  i sin , a  P  P 2  P 4 and
7 7
equations x 2  2(cos ) x  1  0 and b  P3  P5  P 6 , then the value of |(a + b) + abi|
y 2  2 sin  y  1  0 respectively, then possible (where i  1 ) is
ordered solution set of (x, y, , ) are (A) 3 (B) 5
    (C) 6 (D) 2
(A)  1, 1, ,  (B) 1, 1, , 
 2  2
    3  54. The value of cos2 20° – sin2 100°+cos20°cos100° is
(C)  1, 1, ,   (D)  1, 1, ,
 2   2  1 1
(A) (B) 
4 4
1 1
49. Given z is a complex number satisfying (C) (D) 
2 2
2 64 1
z 2  z  z  5  0 and Re( z )  (where
z 2
Re(z) denotes real part of (z)), then |z| is less than
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 4

PW Web/App - https://smart.linkoicgd4

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[6 ]
 Arjuna JEE 2.0 (2024)
JEE
JEE Advanced Test - 03 Advanced
Paper-01
DURATION: :180
DURATION 90 Minutes
Minutes DATE: 21/01/2024 M. MARKS: 192

Topics covered
Physics : Units and Dimensions, Basic Maths, Motion in a Straight line, Motion in a Plane, Newton law of Motion,
Circular motion, Work, Power & Energy, Motion of System of Particle and COM, Rotational Motion,
Gravitation, Mechanical Properties of Solids, Mechanical Properties of Fluids, Thermal Properties of
Matter, Kinetic Theory of Gases and Thermodynamics, Simple Harmonic Motion
Chemistry : Nomenclature (Full Chapter), GOC (Full Chapter), Isomerism (Full Chapter), Hydrocarbon (Reaction
of alkane (given in NCERT) + Reaction of alkene (given in NCERT) + Reaction of alkyne (given in
NCERT) + Reaction of benzene (given in NCERT), S-Block (Full Chapter)
Mathematics : Binomial Theorem, Permutation & Combinations, Sequence and Series, Straight Line, Circle

General Instructions:
1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the test booklet.
2. The test is of 3 hours duration.
3. The test booklet consists of 54 questions. The maximum marks are 192.
4. This Paper consists Three Sections (Section A, B & C) in each subject (Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics)
For Section A : Numerical Value Type (8 Questions)
For each Question, enter the correct numerical value. If the numerical value has more than 2 decimal places,
truncate/round-off the value to TWO decimal places.
Full Marks - +3, Zero Marks - 0
For Section B : One or More than one correct (6 Questions); For each Question, choose the option(s) corresponding to (all) the
correct answers. Full Marks - +4, Zero Marks - 0, Negative Marks - 1
For Section C : Matrix Match Columns or List (4 Questions); For each Question, choose the correct option corresponding to
the correct answer.
Each Columns or List has TWO lists : Column I & Column II or List I & List II
Column I or List I has Four entries (I), (II), (III) and (IV) and Column II or List II has four or five entries (P), (Q), (R), (S)
and (T). Four options (1),(2),(3),(4) are given in each Multiple Choice Question based on Column I or List I and Column
II or List II and only ONE of these four options satisfies the condition asked in the Multiple Choice Question.
Full Marks - +4, Zero Marks - 0, Negative Marks - -1
5. No student is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile phone, any electronic
device, etc. inside the examination room/hall.
6. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty in the Room/Hall.
However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
7. Do not fold or make any stray mark on the Answer Sheet (OMR).
OMR Instructions:
1. Use blue/black dark ballpoint pens.
2. Darken the bubbles completely. Don't put a tick mark or a cross mark where it is specified that you fill the bubbles
completely. Half-filled or over-filled bubbles will not be read by the software.
3. Never use pencils to mark your answers.
4. Never use whiteners to rectify filling errors as they may disrupt the scanning and evaluation process.
5. Writing on the OMR Sheet is permitted on the specified area only and even small marks other than the specified area may
create problems during the evaluation.
6. Multiple markings will be treated as invalid responses.
7. Do not fold or make any stray mark on the Answer Sheet (OMR).

Name of the Students (In CAPITALS) : _______________________________________________________________

Roll Number : _____________________________________________________________________________________________

OMR Bar Code Number : ________________________________________________________________________________

Candidate’s Signature : _______________________________ Invigilator’s Signature _____________________

 PART-I (PHYSICS)
SECTION-A 7. Water is flowing in varying cross-section pipe. The
Numerical Value Type (1-8) areas of cross-sections 1, 2 and 3 are 1 cm2, 2 cm2
1. A spherical black body with radius 12 cm radiates and A cm2 respectively. Water levels are shown in
450 W power at 500 K. If the radius is halved and
different vertical tubes. The speed of water at cross-
temperature is doubled, the power radiated would
be 600 n watt. Find n. 1
section 3 is m/s. The value of x is
x
2. An ideal monoatomic gas is carried around the
cycle ABCDA as shown in the figure. The
efficiency of the gas cycle is

8. For equilibrium of the system, value of mass m

(kg) should be:

3. A uniform circular disc placed on a rough

horizontal surface has initially a velocity v0 and
angular velocity 0 as shown. Disc comes to rest
v
after moving certain distance, then 0 will be
rω0

SECTION-B
One or More than One Correct Type (9–14)
9. A pendulum is constructed from two identical
uniform thin rods A and B each of length L and
4. Ball I is thrown towards a tower at an angle of 60°
with horizontal with unknown speed. At the same mass m connected at right angle forming T shape.
moment, ball II is released from rest. Balls collide It swings in vertical plane as shown in figure.
after two seconds and at the moment of collision,
velocity of ball I is horizontal. Then, what should
be the height of tower (in m)?

(A) moment of inertia of the T about axis of

17
rotation is mL2
5. A solid sphere and a solid cylinder of same mass 12
are rolled down on two inclined planes of heights (B) moment of inertia of T about axis of rotation
h1 and h2 respectively. If the linear velocity at is 13/12 mL2
bottom for both is same then ratio h1 : h2 is (C) time period of small angular oscillation of T is

6. Two spherical bodies A (radius 6 cm) and B 17 L

2
(radius 18 cm) are at temperatures T1 and T2, 18 g
respectively. The maximum intensity in the (D) angular frequency of T for small oscillation is
emission spectrum of A is at 500 nm and in that of
B is at 1500 nm. Considering them to be black 18 g
bodies, what will be the ratio of the rate of total 17 L
energy radiated by A to that of B?
10. A cone of radius r and height h rests on rough 14. Three simple harmonic motions in the same
horizontal surface, the coefficient of friction direction having the same amplitude a and same
between the cone and the surface being . A
period are superposed. If each differs in phase
gradually increasing horizontal force F is applied
from the next by 45°, then.
to the vertex of the cone. The largest value of  for
which cone will slide before it topples is. (A) The resultant amplitude (1 + 2)a .
r 2r
(A)  = (B)  = (B) The phase of the resultant motion relative to
2h 5h
the first is 90°.
r r
(C)  = (D)  = (C) The energy associated with the resulting
h h
motion is (3 + 2 2) times the energy
–1 –2
11. The dimensions ML T may correspond to associated with any single motion.
(A) Work done by a force
(D) The resulting motion is not simple harmonic.
(B) Linear momentum
(C) Pressure
(D) Energy per unit area Matrix Match Type (15–18)
15. Study the following v-t graphs in column I carefully
12. A ball of mass m is projected from the ground with
an initial velocity u making an angle  with the and match appropriately with the statements given
horizontal. Then choose the correct statement(s). the column II. Assume that motion takes place from
(A) The change in velocity between the point of time 0 to T.
projection and the highest point is u sin  ĵ Column I Column II
(downward)
I P net
(B) The average velocity over the time of flight is
displacement is
u cos  iˆ (horizontal)
positive, but
(C) The change in velocity in the complete
projectile motion is –2u sin  ĵ not zero

(D) The rate at which momentum of the ball is II Q net

changing is constant displacement is
negative, but
13. The moments of inertia of a thin square plate
ABCD of uniform thickness about an axis passing not zero
through the centre O and perpendicular to the III R particle returns
plane are:
to its initial
position again

IV S acceleration is
positive

(A) I1 + I2
I II III IV
(B) I3 + I4
(C) I1 + I3 (A) Q,S P,S R P
(D) I1 + I2 + I3 + I4 (B) P,S Q,S P R
(where I1, I2, I3 and I4 are respectively, the (C) Q,S P,R P,S R
moments of inertia about axes 1,2,3 and 4. where
(D) P,S Q,S R P
axes are in the plane of the plate)

[3]
16. In Column I, information about the force(s) acting Column- I Column-II
on a body is mentioned, while in Column II I sint–cost P SHM
information about the motion of a body is given. II sin t
3 Q Periodic
Match the entries in Column II with the entries in III sint + sin2t + R Periodic but
Column I. sin5t not SHM
Column I Column II IV exp(– t )  S Not periodic
A single force through Rotational T SHM but not
I P
centre of mass motion periodic
Equal and opposite Translation (A) I → P, Q, R; II → Q, R; III → R; IV → T
II forces separated by Q motion (B) I → P; II → Q; III → S; IV → R
non-zero distance (C) I → P, Q; II → Q, R; III → Q, R; IV → S
Equal and opposite No motion (D) None of these
III forces acting at the R
same point 18. Column I gives some devices and Column II gives
A single force not Combined some processes on which the functioning of these
IV through centre of mass S translation devices depend. Match the devices in Column I
and rotation with the processes in Column II.
I II III IV Column- I Column-II
(A) Q Q R P,Q,S I Bimetallic strip P Radiation from a
(B) P,Q,S R,Q Q R hot body
(C) Q Q,R P Q,S II Steam engine Q Energy conversion
(D) P Q,S R P,Q III Incandescent R Melting
lamp
17. In each case of column-I, x-coordinate with time t IV Electric fuse S Thermal expansion
of a particle moving along x-axis is given  is of solids
positive constant), In column-II. Types of motion (A) I → P; II → Q; III → P, R; IV → Q, S
is given. (B) I → R, S; II → Q; III → P, Q; IV → Q, S
Match the column I with II. (C) I → S; II → Q; III → P; IV → R
(D) None of these
PART-II (CHEMISTRY)
SECTION-A
Numerical Value Type (19–26)
19. How many of the following are less basic than
KOH?
NaOH, RbOH, Mg(OH)2, Ca(OH)2, Be(OH)2,
LiOH

20. How many of the following are amphoteric

oxides? 23. How many of the following are +M groups ?

Li2O, Na2O2, BeO, MgO, BaO2 − NH2 ; − NR 2 ; −OCH3 ; −SH; − N H3 ; − NO2 ;
− NH − CO − CH 3
21. The total number of contributing structures
showing hyperconjugation (involving C–H
bonds) for the following carbocation is 24. Consider the following chemical reaction.
Red hot Fe tube, 873 K
HC  CH ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯→ Product
The number of sp2 hybridized carbon atoms(s)
present in the product is_____

25. How many positional isomers are possible for

22. Among the following, the number of aromatic dimethylcyclohexane?
compound(s) is

[4]
26. Degree of unsaturation for given compound is: 
(C) CH2 = CH − CH2 is more stable than

CH3 − CH 2 − CH2

(D) CH 2 = CH is more stable than

CH3 − CH2
SECTION-B
One or More than One Correct Type (27–32) SECTION-C
27. Solvay process is used for the manufacture of Matrix Match Type (33–36)
(A) NaOH (B) Na2CO3 33. Match the column I with column II:
(C) NH3 (D) NaCl Column-I Column-II
1 Benzene + Cl2 P Benzoic acid
28. Electrophiles are electron seeking species. Which
AlCl
of the following groups contain only electrophiles? ⎯⎯⎯ 3
→
(A) BF3, NH3, H2O 2 Benzene + CH3Cl Q Methyl phenyl
+
(B) AlCl3, SO3, NO2 ⎯⎯⎯→
AlCl3 ketone
+ + 3 Benzene + R Toluene
(C) NO2 ,CH3 ,CH3 − C+ = O
CH3COCl
− •
(D) C2 H5 ,C2 H5 ,C2 H5+ ⎯⎯⎯
AlCl
3
→
4 Toluene S Chlorobenzene
29. Which of the following compounds contain all KMnO /NaOH
the carbon atoms in the same hybridisation state? ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
4 →
(A) H – C  C – C  C – H T Benzene
(B) CH3 – C  C – CH3 hexachloride
(C) CH2 = C = CH2 1 2 3 4
(D) CH2 = CH – CH = CH2 (A) S R Q P
(B) P Q R S
30. Nucleophile is a species that should have
(C) S Q P R
(A) a pair of electrons to donate
(B) positive charge (D) P S R Q
(C) negative charge
(D) electron deficient species 34. Match the reactions gives in Column I with the
reaction types in Column II.
31. Which of the following alkenes on ozonolysis Column-I Column-II
give a mixture of ketones only?
1 CH2=CH2+H2O P Hydrogenation
(A) CH3 – CH = CH – CH3
H+
⎯⎯⎯ →
(B) CH3CH2OH
2 CH2=CH2+H2 Q Halogenation
Pd
⎯⎯→ CH3–CH3
(C)
3 CH2=CH2+Cl2 R Polymerisation
⎯⎯ →
(D)
Cl–CH2–CH2–Cl
4 3CHCH S Hydration
32. Which of the following are correct? ⎯⎯⎯⎯
Cu tube
→ C6H6
 Heat
(A) CH3 − O − CH2 is more stable than
T Condensation

CH3 − CH2 1 2 3 4
 (A) P S R Q
(B) (CH3 )2 CH is less stable than (B) S Q R P

(C) S P Q R
CH3 − CH 2 − CH2
(D) P Q R S

[5]
35. Match the ions given in Column I with their 36. Match the column I with column II:
nature given in Column II. Column-I Column-II
Column-I Column-II 1 Efflorescent P NaOH
1 P Stable due to 2 Deliquescent Q KOH
resonance 3 Fusion mixture R Na2CO3 + K2CO3
2 Q Destabilised due 4 Washing soda S Na2CO3.10H2O
to inductive effect 1 2 3 4
3 R Stabilised by (A) R R,S P Q
hyperconjugation (B) P,Q R S,P Q
(C) S P,Q R S
(D) P Q R S
4 S A secondary
carbocation
1 2 3 4
(A) P Q,R P,Q S
(B) Q,S R P Q
(C) P,S P,R Q,S P
(D) P,Q,R Q Q R,S

PART-III (MATHEMATICS)
SECTION-A 42. Let a, b are natural numbers such that their LCM
Numerical Value Type (37-44) is 166320 and HCF is 792, then the number of
37. Six cards are drawn one by one from a set of possible ordered pairs (a, b) is
unlimited number of cards, each card is marked
with numbers –1, 0 or 1. Number of different 43. Number of terms free from radical sign in the
ways in which they can be drawn if the sum of expansion of (1 + 31/3 + 71/7)10 is
the numbers shown by them vanishes, is
44. Let n  2 be an integer. Take n distinct points on
38. If a, b, c are positive real numbers satisfying
a circle and join each pair of points by a line
1 1 1 1
+ + = , then minimum value of segment. Colour the line segment joining every
a+5 b+5 c+5 5
pair of adjacent points by blue and the rest by
(abc)1/3 is
red. If the number of red and blue line segments
are equal, then the sum of digits in n! is equal to
39. If the area of triangle formed by acute angle
bisector of the lines x – y + 2 = 0 & 7x – y – 8 = 0
and co-ordinate axes is λ sq. unit, then 72λ equals SECTION-B
One or More than One Correct Type (45–50)
40. Let a1, a2, a3,… be a sequence of positive 45. If 4a2 – 5b2 + 6a + 1 = 0 and the line ax + by + 1 = 0
integers in arithmetic progression with common touches a fixed circle, then
difference 2. Also, let b1, b2, b3,… be a sequence (A) centre of circle is (3, 0)
of positive integers in geometric progression with (B) radius of circle = 5
common ratio 2. If a1 = b1 = c, then the number (C) circle passes through (0, 1)
of all possible values of c, for which the equality
(D) radius of circle = 3
2(a1 + a2 + …. +an) = b1 + b2 + …. + bn holds for
some positive integer n, is
46. If s1, s2 and s3 are respectively, equal to the sums
41. An engineer is required to visit a factory for of the first n, 2n and 3n terms of a GP, then
(A) s1 ( s3 − s2 ) = ( s2 − s1 )
exactly four days during the first 15 days of 2

every month and it is mandatory that no two

visits take place on consecutive days. Then the (B) s12 + s22 = s1 ( s2 + s3 )

(C) s1 ( s2 + s3 ) = ( s1 + s2 )
number of all possible ways in which such visits 2
to the factory can be made by the engineer during
1-15 January 2024 is equal to (D) s22 = s1s3

[6]
47. If a1, a2, a3, ..... are in A.P. and a1 + a4 + a7 + a10 (A) I-P, II-R, III-S, IV-Q
16 (B) I-Q, II-P, III-R, IV-S
+ a13 + a16 = 375, then value of  ai is greater
(C) I-R, II-S, III-Q, IV-P
i =1
(D) I-S, II-Q, III-P, IV-R
than or equal to
(A) 800 (B) 1000
(C) 1100 (D) 1200 52. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct
answer using the code given below the list.
48. The equation of the straight line each of which List-I List-II
passes through the point (3, 2) and intersect the I Distance between the two P 1
x-axis and y-axis in A, B respectively such that lines x + 3y − 2 = 0 and
OA – OB = 2, can be
x + 3 y + 2 = 0 is
(A) 2x + 3y = 12 (B) 8x – 5y – 2 = 0
(C) 3x – 2y – 5 = 0 (D) x – 3y + 3 = 0 II The variable line x + y +  – Q 2
5 = 0 (  R) passes through
49. A man has 3 friends. Number of ways in which a fixed point. The x-
he can invite one friend every day for dinner on 6 coordinate of fixed point is
successive nights so that he invites every friend III The x-coordinate of point of R 5
at least once is N. Which of the following hold(s) intersection of lines 3x + 4y = 9
good? and y = mx + 1 is an integer,
(A) Number of divisors of N which are divisible if m is also an integer then
by 5 is 12 sum of possible values of m is
(B) Sum of all the divisors of N is 1680
IV The x-coordinate of incentre S –3
(C) Number of total divisors of N is 24
of triangle, whose vertices are
(D) Number of divisors of N which are divisible
by 2 is 18 (1, 3) , (0, 0) and (2, 0) is
(A) I-Q, II-R, III-P, IV-S
50. If Sn = C0  C1 + C1  C2 + C2  C3 + ...
n n n n n n (B) I-Q, II-R, III-S, IV-P
(C) I-R, II-Q, III-S, IV-P
+ nCn−1  nCn , then
(D) I-P, II-Q, III-S, IV-R
S5 15 S5 21
(A) = (B) =
S4 4 S4 4 53. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct
S10 380 S10 400 answer using the code given below the list.
(C) = (D) =
S9 99 S9 99 List-I List-II
I Number of irrational terms in P 5

( )
SECTION-C 15
the expansion of 2+33
Matrix Match Type (51–54)
51. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct is 2k + 1, then k is greater than
answer using the code given below the list. II n Q 6
List-I List-II
If  n
Cr 3r = 4095, then n is
r =1
I 1 P 2
In a given A.P. T3 = and less than
2
III If R 7
( )
1
T2 = , then T6 is n
Pr = n−1
Cr −1 + n−1
Cr  5040 ,
3
th
II If n term of A.P. is Q 1 then r is less than
Tn = 5 + 2n, then its common IV 10 S 8
difference is If  r (r − 1)  10Cr = k  9  29 ,
r =1
III In an A.P. if T7 = 2 and R 3
T2 = 7, then T6 is then k is less than
IV In an A.P. if first term is 10 S 6 (A) I-P, Q; II-R, S; III-R, S; IV-P, Q, R, S
and last term is 90 and sum (B) I-P; II-Q, R, S; III-S; IV-R, S
of all terms is 300, then (C) I-P; II-R, S; III-S; IV-Q, R, S
number of terms is (D) I-P, Q; II-Q, R, S; III-R, S; IV-P, Q, R, S

[7]
54. Consider all possible permutations of the letters
of the word INDIANOIL then
List-I List-II
I Number of permutations P 2 × 5!
containing the word INDIA
is
II Number of permutations in Q 3 × 5!
which letter I occurs in first
and the last position is
III Number of permutations in R 5!
which none of the letters,
D, L, N occurs in the last 5
positions is
IV Number of permutations in S 21 × 5!
which the letters, A, I, O
occurs only in odd position
is
(A) I-R, II-S, III-P, IV-Q
(B) I-R, II-S, III-P, IV-P
(C) I-P, II-Q, III-Q, IV-P
(D) I-R, II-S, III-Q, IV-Q

PW Web/App - https://smart.link/7wwosivoicgd4

Library- https://smart.link/sdfez8ejd80if

[8]
 Arjuna JEE 2.0 (2024)
JEE
JEE Advanced Test - 03 Advanced
Paper-02
DURATION: :180
DURATION 90 Minutes
Minutes DATE: 21/01/2024 M. MARKS: 192

Topics covered
Physics : Units and Dimensions, Basic Maths, Motion in a Straight line, Motion in a Plane, Newton law of Motion,
Circular motion, Work, Power & Energy, Motion of System of Particle and COM, Rotational Motion,
Gravitation, Mechanical Properties of Solids, Mechanical Properties of Fluids, Thermal Properties of
Matter, Kinetic Theory of Gases and Thermodynamics, Simple Harmonic Motion
Chemistry : Nomenclature (Full Chapter), GOC (Full Chapter), Isomerism (Full Chapter), Hydrocarbon (Reaction
of alkane (given in NCERT) + Reaction of alkene (given in NCERT) + Reaction of alkyne (given in
NCERT) + Reaction of benzene (given in NCERT), S-Block (Full Chapter)
Mathematics : Binomial Theorem, Permutation & Combinations, Sequence and Series, Straight Line, Circle

General Instructions:
1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the test booklet.
2. The test is of 3 hours duration.
3. The test booklet consists of 54 questions. The maximum marks are 192.
4. This paper consists Three Sections (Section A, B & C) in each subject (Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics) –
For Section A:
Integer Type Questions (Single Digit Integer) (Question No. 1-8)
For each Question, enter the correct single digit integer value.
Full Marks - +3, Zero Marks - 0, Negative Marks - -1
For Section B
One or More than one correct (Question No. 9-14)
For each Question, choose the option(s) corresponding to (all) the correct answers.
Full Marks - +4, Zero Marks - 0, Negative Marks - -1
For Section C
Single Correct (Question No. 15-18)
For each Question, choose the correct option corresponding to the correct Answer.
Each Question has Four options (1), (2), (3), (4). Only ONE of these options is the correct answer.
Full Marks - +4, Zero Marks - 0, Negative Marks - -1
5. No student is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile phone, any electronic
device, etc. inside the examination room/hall.
6. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty in the Room/Hall.
However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
7. Do not fold or make any stray mark on the Answer Sheet (OMR).
OMR Instructions:
1. Use blue/black dark ballpoint pens.
2. Darken the bubbles completely. Don't put a tick mark or a cross mark where it is specified that you fill the bubbles
completely. Half-filled or over-filled bubbles will not be read by the software.
3. Never use pencils to mark your answers.
4. Never use whiteners to rectify filling errors as they may disrupt the scanning and evaluation process.
5. Writing on the OMR Sheet is permitted on the specified area only and even small marks other than the specified area may
create problems during the evaluation.
6. Multiple markings will be treated as invalid responses.
7. Do not fold or make any stray mark on the Answer Sheet (OMR).

Name of the Students (In CAPITALS) : _______________________________________________________________

Roll Number : _____________________________________________________________________________________________

OMR Bar Code Number : ________________________________________________________________________________

Candidate’s Signature : _______________________________ Invigilator’s Signature _____________________

 PART-I (PHYSICS)
SECTION-A
Integer Type (Single Digit Integer) (1–8)
1. The position x of a particle with respect to time t
along x-axis is given by x = 9t2 – t3 where x is in
metre and t in second. The position (in metre) of
this particle when it achieves maximum speed 6. A sphere rolls down without slipping on a inclined
x plane. If inclined plane makes an angle 37° with
along the + x direction is x0 . Find 0
9
the horizontal then how much time (in sec) the
sphere, starting from rest, will take to roll down
2. A metal is heated in a furnace where a sensor is 8.4 m? (g = 9.8 m/s2)
kept above the metal surface to read the power
radiated (P) by the metal. The sensor has a scale 7. Two spherical metal balls (of the same material)
that displays log2 (P/P0), where P0 is a constant. with radii 0.2 cm and 0.3 cm are falling through a
When the metal surface is at a temperature of fluid at constant speeds. If the velocity of the 1st
487°C, the sensor shows a value 1. Assume that ball (radius = 0.2 cm) is 4 cm/sec. the velocity of
the emissivity of the metallic surface remains the other ball is _______ cm/s
constant. What is the value displayed by the sensor
when the temperature of the metal surface is raised 8. A thin semicircular ring of mass m and radius R is
to 2767°C? freely pivoted at O with its centre of curvature at
the same level as ‘O’. If it is released, the initial
3. Airplanes A and B are flying with constant velocity
g
in the same vertical plane at angles 30° and 60° angular acceleration of ring is , where
KR
with respect to the horizontal respectively as
K = ______
shown in the figure. The speed of A is
100 3 ms −1. At time t = 0s, an observer in A finds
B at a distance of 500 m. This observer sees B
moving with a constant velocity perpendicular to
SECTION-B
the line of motion of A. If at t = t0, A just escapes
One or More than One Correct Type (9–14)
being hit by B, t0 in seconds is_____.
9. Two independent harmonic oscillators of equal
mass are oscillating about the origin with angular
frequencies ω1 and ω2 and have total energies E1
and E2, respectively. The variations of their
momenta p with positions x are shown in the
a a
4. A block is moving on an inclined plane making an figures. If = n2 and = n, then the correct
b R
angle 45° with the horizontal and the coefficient of equation (s) is (are)
friction is μ. The force required to just push it up
the inclined plane is 3 times the force required to
just prevent it from sliding down. If we define N =
10μ, then N is ______.

5. Consider a horizontal surface moving vertically

upward with velocity 2 m/s. A small ball of mass 2
2
kg is moving with velocity 2iˆ – 2jˆ (m/s). If (A) E1ω1 = E2ω2 (B) = n2
1
coefficient of restitution is 1/2 and friction
E1 E2
coefficient is 1/3. Find horizontal component of (C) ω1ω2 = n2 (D) =
1 2
velocity of ball after collision
10. The position vector of a particle of mass m is given VP 1 VP 2
by the following equation r ( t ) = t i + t j, where
3ˆ 2ˆ (A) = (B) =
VQ 2 VQ 1
10 −3
= ms , β = 5 ms–2 and m = 0.1 kg. At t = 1 s, (C) Vp  VQ  0 (D) Vp  VQ  0
3
which of the following statement(s) is (are) true
about the particle? 13. The graph shows the moment of inertia (I) of a
(
(A) The velocity v is given by v = 10iˆ + 10 ˆj ms −1) uniform rod of mass 1.5 kg. about an axis
perpendicular to is length with the distance of axis
(B) The angular momentum L with respect to the
(r) from the end of the rod.
5
origin is given by L = −   kˆ N m s
 3
(
(C) The force F is given by F = iˆ + 2 ˆj N )
(D) The torque  with respect to the origin is
 20 
given by  = −   kˆ N m
 3 
(A) I0 = 2 kgm2 (B) r0 = 2 m
11. The displacement of a particle as a function of (C) r0 = 4 m (D) I0 = 4 kgm2
time is shown in figure. It indicates
14. A uniform disc of mass 2kg and radius 1 m is
mounted on an axle supported on fixed frictionless
bearings. A light chord is wrapped around the rim
of the disc and mass of 1kg is tied to the free end.
If it is released from rest:
(A) the particle starts with a certain velocity, but (A) The tension in the chord is 5N
the motion is retarded and finally the particle (B) In first four seconds the angular displacement
stops of the disc is 40 rad
(B) the velocity of the particle decreases (C) The work done by the torque on the disc in
(C) the acceleration of the particle is in opposite first four seconds is 200J
direction to the velocity (D) The increase in the kinetic energy of the disc
(D) the particle starts with a constant velocity the in the first four seconds in 200J
motion is accelerated and finally the particle
moves with another constant velocity.
SECTION-C
Single Correct Type Questions (15–18)
12. Two spheres P and Q of equal radii have densities
15. A fixed U-shaped smooth wire has a semi-circular
1 and 2. respectively. The spheres are connected
by a massless string and placed in liquids L1 and L2 bending between A and B as shown in the fig.
of densities 1 and 2 and viscosities 1 and 2, A bead of mass m moving with uniform speed v
respectively. They float in equilibrium with the through the wire enters the semicircular bend at A
sphere P in L1 and sphere Q in L2 and the string and leaves at B. The average force exerted by the
being taut. If sphere P alone in L2 has terminal bead on the part AB of the wire is
velocity VP and Q alone in L1 has terminal
velocity VQ . then

4mv 2
(A) 0 (B)
d
2mv 2
(C) (D) None of these
d

[3]
16. A soap bubble has radius R and thickness d (≪R) 2t 4 t 3
as shown. It collapses into a spherical drop. Find (C) − + 10t + 12
3 6
the ratio of excess pressure in the drop to the
t3
excess pressure inside the bubble. (D) 2t 4 − + 5t + 4
2

18. Three separate segments of equal area A1, A2 and

A3 are shown in the energy distribution curve of a
blackbody radiation. If n1, n2 and n3 are number of
1/3 1/3
R  R  photons emitted per unit time corresponding to
(A)   (B)  
 8d  16d  each area segment respectively, then:
1/3 1/3
 R   R 
(C)   (D)  
 24d   32d 

17. A ball is spun with angular acceleration  = 6t2 – 2t,

where t is in second and  is in rads–2. At t = 0, the
ball has angular velocity of 10 rads–1 and angular
position of 4 rad. the most appropriate expression
for the angular position of the ball is: (A) n2 > n1 > n3
3
(A) t 4 − t 2 + 10t (B) n3 > n1 > n2
4 (C) n1 > n2 > n3
t 4 t3 (D) n3 > n2 > n1
(B) − + 10t + 4
2 3
PART-II (CHEMISTRY)
SECTION-A (e)
Integer Type (Single Digit Integer) (19–26)

19. Number of molecules with correct IUPAC name

are ______.
Compound IUPAC Name 21. Number of molecules with correct IUPAC name
(i) CH3OCH3 Methoxymethane are_______.
(ii) C2H5OC2H5 Ethoxyethane Compound IUPAC Name
(iii) CH3OCH2CH2CH3 1-Methoxypropane (i) CH3–OH Methanol
(iv) C6H5OCH3 Methoxybenzene (ii) CH2–CH2–CH2–OH Propan-1-ol
(Anisole) (iii) Propan-2-ol
(v) C6H5OCH2CH3 Ethoxybenzene
(iv) CH3–CH2–CH2–CH2–OH Butan-1-ol
20. Number of molecules with correct IUPAC name (v) Butan-3-ol
are_____
(a) CH 2 = CH − CH 2 − CH 2 − CH3 (vi) 2-Methylpropan-1-ol
Pent-1-ene

(b) CH3 − CH = CH − CH 2 − CH3

Pent-2-ene (vii) 2-Methylpropan-2-ol
(c)

(viii) Propane-1, 2, 3-triol

(d)

[4]
22. Number of molecules with correct IUPAC name SECTION-B
are_____ One or More than One Correct Type (27–32)
(a) HC  C − CH2 − CH2 − CH2 − CH3 27. Hyperconjugation involves delocalisation of ......
Hex-1-yne (A) electrons of carbon-hydrogen σ bond of an
(b) CH3 − C  C − CH2 − CH2 − CH3 alkyl group directly attached to an atom of
Hex-2-yne
unsaturated system.
(c) CH3 − CH2 − C  C − CH2 − CH3 (B) electrons of carbon-hydrogen σ bond of
Hex-3-yne
alkyl group directly attached to the
(d)
positively charged carbon atom.
(C) π-electrons of carbon-carbon bond
(D) lone pair of electrons.
(e)

28. Choose the correct statements from the

following.
(f) (A) Beryllium is not readily attacked by acids
because of the presence of an oxide film on
the surface of the metal
(B) Beryllium sulphate is readily soluble in
(g) water as the greater hydration enthalpy of
Be2+ overcomes the lattice enthalpy factor
(C) Beryllium exhibits coordination number
more than four
23. Among the following how many of them will (D) Beryllium oxide is purely acidic in nature
show keto-enol tautomerism?
29. Which of the following compounds cannot show
(1) (2) CH3CHO
hyperconjugation?

(3) (4) HCHO

(A) (B)

(5) CH3COCH3 (6)

(C) (D)
(7) CH3CH2CHO (8)

24. How many of the following compounds are more

30. Identify the correct statement (s) about inductive
acidic than ethyne?
effect?
CH2 = CH2, NH3, H2O; CH3 – CH3, HF,
(A) it is permanent
CH3CH2 – OH, CH3–CH2SH, HCl
(B) it increases as the distance from the source
increases
25. Number of hyperconjugation structures for
(C) it is the property of sigma bond

(CH3 )3 C . (D) it implies the transfer of lone pair of
electrons from lesser electronegative atom to
the more electronegative atom
26. The number of trichloro derivatives of benzene is

[5]
31. In which of the following cases product will 34. The increasing order of reduction of alkyl halides
contain more number of carbon atoms than do with zinc and dilute HCl is
present in reactant molecule? (A) R – Cl < R – I < R – Br
(B) R – Cl < R – Br < R – I
(A)
(C) R – I < R – Br < R – Cl
(B) RCOOK + OH − ⎯⎯⎯
Heat
→B (D) R – Br < R – I < R – Cl
CaO
Electrolysis
(C) RCOOK + H 2 O ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
→C 35. The intermediate during the addition of HCl to
Dry ether propene in the presence of peroxide is
(D) RX + Na ⎯⎯⎯⎯→ D
•
(A) CH3 − CH − CH 2Cl

32. In the given compound , the (B) CH3 − CH − CH3

hybridisation states of C atom is/are not (C) CH3 − CH2 − CH 2
(A) sp2 (B) sp3d •
(C) sp (D) dsp2 (D) CH3 − CH 2 − CH2

SECTION-C 36. In the complete combustion of hydrocarbon

Single Correct Type Questions (33–36) (CnH2n+2) the number of oxygen molecules
33. The reagent(s) for the following conversion. required per mole of hydrocarbon is
n (n + 1)
(A) (B)
is/are 2 2
(A) Alcoholic KOH (3n + 1)  1
(C) (D)  n + 
(B) Alcoholic KOH followed by NaNH2 2  2
(C) Aqueous KOH followed by NaNH2
(D) Zn/CH3OH

PART-III (MATHEMATICS)
SECTION-A 41. If a, 2b, c are distinct numbers in A.P. and line
Integer Type (Single Digit Integer) (37 – 44) ax + by + c = 0 always passes through a fixed
37. The coefficient of x70 in the product point (p, q), then value of |p + 2q| is equal to
(x – 1)(x2 – 2)(x3 – 3) … (x12 – 12) is
7 10 13
38. Consider 3 harmonic sequencs 42. Sum the series + 2 + 3 +  up
4.1.2 4  2  3 4  3  4
1 1 1 1
P1 : 1, , , , to n terms is S n , then the value of S is
3 5 7 1001
1 1 1 1
P2 : 1, , , , 43. If the equation of the line passing through the
5 9 13 1001
point of intersection of lines 2x + 3y – 12 = 0 and
1 1 1 1
P3 : 1, , , , 3x – 4y – 1 = 0 and perpendicular to the line x + y
7 13 19 1003
= 1 is ax – by – 2 = 0, then value of a + b is equal
If number of common terms in P1, P2, P3 are N,
to
N
then is equal to
14 44. A person buys twelve packet of VANISH
detergent. Each packet contains one coupon,
39. 103th term of sequence 1, 3, 3, 3, 5, 5, 5, 5, 5, 7,
which bears one of the letters of the word
N
7, 7, 7, 7, 7, 7, …….. is N, then is VANISH. If he shows all the letters of the word
7 VANISH, he gets one free packet. If he gets
exactly one free packet and the number of
40. If x, y, z are positive real numbers, then minimum
different possible combinations of the coupons is
 y z x
log  log  log  11
Cm – 1, then the maximum possible value of m
value of x z + y  x + z  y
, is equal to
is

[6]
 SECTION-B (A) Centre of circle S = 0, always lie on a line
One or More than One Correct Type (45 – 50) x + 4y = 18
45. Let P be any point on the curve S = 0 such that (B) Centre of circle S = 0, always lie on a line
tangents from P to x + y – 2x – 4y – 4 = 0
2 2
x + 4y = 14
makes 60° with each other and from point Q (C) If S = 0 is orthogonal to x2 + y2 + 2x + 4y + 1 = 0
perpendicular tangents are drawn to S then 19
then λ =
(A) Locus of P is a circle of radius 2 3 8

(B) Locus of P is a circle of radius 6 (D) If S = 0 is orthogonal to x2 + y2 + 2x + 4y + 1 = 0

then λ ϕ
(C) Locus of Q is a circle of radius 3 2
(D) Locus of Q is a circle of radius 6 2
50. If sides AB and AC of a ABC are given by
equations 3x + y = 4 and x + 3y = 4 respectively
46. Consider an infinite geometric series with first
and mid point of BC is (2, 2), then which of the
term a and common ratio r. If its sum is 4 and the
following is/are true
second term is 3/4, then
(A) Equation of BC is x – y = 4
(A) a = 4/7, r = 3/7
(B) Equation of BC is x + y = 4
(B) a =1, r = 3/4
(C) Area of ABC is 4 sq. unit
(C) a = 3/2, r = 1/2
(D) Area of ABC is 8 sq. unit
(D) a = 3, r = 1/4

SECTION-C
47. If the equation ax2 – 6xy + y2 + bx + cy + d = 0
Single Correct Type Questions (51 – 54)
represents a pair of lines whose slopes are m and
51. The centre of circle S lies on the line 2x – 2y + 7 = 0
m2, then value of a is/are
and S intersects the circle x2 + y2 =5 orthogonally
(A) –8
such that S always passes through 2 fixed points
(B) 8
then the co-ordinate of one of the fixed points is
(C) 27
(A) (1, –1)
(D) –27
 5 5
(B)  − , − 
 2 2
48. If A1, A2, are two arithmetic means, G1, G2 are
5 5
two geometric means & H1, H2 are two harmonic (C)  , − 
2 2
means between two positive numbers a & b, then
(D) (–1, 1)
(A) (a +H2) (b + H1) = 8G1 G2
(B) (a +H2) (b + H1) = 4G1 G2
52. The nth term, an of a sequence of numbers is
G2 G2
(C) A1 + A2 = 1 + 2 given by the formula an = a( n−1) + 2n for n  2,
G2 G1
G1 + G2 n  N and a1 = 1. The sum of first n terms of this
(D) A1 + A2 =
G1G2 sequence is

(A)
(
n n 2 + 3n + 1 ) (B)
(
n n 2 − 3n − 1 )
49. If the equation of circle S is given by 3 3
x2 + y2 + 4(λ +1)x – y(8 + λ) + 6 – 6λ = 0
then which of the following option (s) is/are true? (C)
(
n n 2 + 3n − 1 ) (D)
(
n n 2 + 3n )
3 3

[7]
 101 100 101 100 101
53. The term independent of x and y in the expansion 54. The value of C0 C100 + C2 C98 + C4
100
of C96 + ....... 101C100 100C0 is equal to
201
 2 2 
n (A) C100
2
   
 x + 1  +  y + 1  +  xy + 1  − 4
  201
C100 + 100C50
x   y   xy 
  (B)
 
201
C100 − 100C50
is (C)
2
2
 ( n Cr )
 n n  n 2 201
C100 + 100C50
(A)   Cr  (B) (D)
 r =0  r =0 2
3
 ( n Cr )
 n  n 3
(C)   nCr  (D)
 r =0  r =0

PW Web/App - https://smart.link/7wwosivoicgd4

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[8]
 Arjuna JEE 2.0 (2024)
JEE
JEE Advanced Test - 04 Advanced
Paper-01
DURATION: :180
DURATION Minutes
90 Minutes DATED: 18/02/2024 M. MARKS: 192

Topics covered
Physics : Full Syllabus.
Chemistry : Full Syllabus.
Mathematics : Conic sections, Complex number -II, Introduction to 3D, Limits and derivatives, Solution of
triangle, Probability, Statistics

General Instructions:
1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the test booklet.
2. The test is of 3 hours duration.
3. The test booklet consists of 54 questions. The maximum marks are 192.
4. This Paper consists Three Sections (Section A, B & C) in each subject (Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics)
For Section A : Numerical Value Type (8 Questions)
For each Question, enter the correct numerical value. If the numerical value has more than 2 decimal places,
truncate/round-off the value to TWO decimal places.
Full Marks - +3, Zero Marks - 0
For Section B : One or More than one correct (6 Questions); For each Question, choose the option(s) corresponding to (all) the
correct answers. Full Marks - +4, Zero Marks - 0, Negative Marks - 1
For Section C : Matrix Match Columns or List (4 Questions); For each Question, choose the correct option corresponding to
the correct answer.
Each Columns or List has TWO lists : Column I & Column II or List I & List II
Column I or List I has Four entries (I), (II), (III) and (IV) and Column II or List II has four or five entries (P), (Q), (R), (S)
and (T). Four options (1),(2),(3),(4) are given in each Multiple Choice Question based on Column I or List I and Column
II or List II and only ONE of these four options satisfies the condition asked in the Multiple Choice Question.
Full Marks - +4, Zero Marks - 0, Negative Marks - -1
5. No student is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile phone, any electronic
device, etc. inside the examination room/hall.
6. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty in the Room/Hall.
However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
7. Do not fold or make any stray mark on the Answer Sheet (OMR).
OMR Instructions:
1. Use blue/black dark ballpoint pens.
2. Darken the bubbles completely. Don't put a tick mark or a cross mark where it is specified that you fill the bubbles
completely. Half-filled or over-filled bubbles will not be read by the software.
3. Never use pencils to mark your answers.
4. Never use whiteners to rectify filling errors as they may disrupt the scanning and evaluation process.
5. Writing on the OMR Sheet is permitted on the specified area only and even small marks other than the specified area may
create problems during the evaluation.
6. Multiple markings will be treated as invalid responses.
7. Do not fold or make any stray mark on the Answer Sheet (OMR).

Name of the Students (In CAPITALS) : _______________________________________________________________

Roll Number : _____________________________________________________________________________________________

OMR Bar Code Number : ________________________________________________________________________________

Candidate’s Signature : _______________________________ Invigilator’s Signature _____________________

 PART-I (PHYSICS)
SECTION-A 5. A body is projected vertically upwards from the
Integer Type (Numerical Value) (1–8) bottom of a crater of moon of depth R/100 where R
1. A cyclist moves against a resistance to motion is the radius of moon with a velocity equal to the
which is proportional to his speed. At a power escape velocity on the surface of moon. How many
output of 75W he has a maximum speed of 5 m/s times of the radius of the moon is the maximum
height attained by the body from the surface of the
on a level road. If the cyclist and his machine
moon?
together weigh 800 N, find the maximum speed (in
m/s) he reaches when travelling down a hill
6. A cubical block of wood has density 1 = 500
inclined at sin–1 (1/40) to the horizontal when he is
kg/m3 and side  = 30 cm. It is floating in
working at the rate of 25W.
rectangular tank partially filled with water of
density 2 = 1000 kg/m3 and having base area, A =
2. Figure shows a small block of mass m (= 10 kg)
45 cm × 60 cm. Calculate the work done (in joule)
kept at the left hand of a larger block of mass M (=
to press the block slowly so that it is just immersed
20 kg) and length L (= 4 cm). The system can slide
in water. (g = 10 m/s2) (Express your answer in J)
on a horizontal road. The system is started towards
right with an initial velocity v (= 2 ms–1). The
7. A particle is moving on x-axis has potential energy
friction coefficient between road and bigger block
U = 2 – 20x + 5x2 joules along x-axis. The particle
is µ ( = 0.3) and between the blocks is µ/2. Find
is released at x = –3. If the mass of the particle is
the time (in second) elapsed before the smaller
0.1 kg, then find the maximum velocity of the
block separates from the bigger block.
particle (in m/s).

8. A string of length 25 cm and mass 2.5 g is under

tension. A pipe closed at one end is 40 cm long.
3. A uniform chain of mass M (= 1 kg) and length L When the string is set vibrating in its first overtone
(= 10 cm) lies on a frictionless table with length l0 and the air in the pipe in its fundamental
(= 6 cm) hanging over the edge. The chain begins frequency, 8 beats per second are heard. It is
to slide down. What is the speed (in cm/s) with observed that decreasing the tension in the string
which the chain slides away from the edge? decreases the beat frequency. If the speed of sound
in air is
(Take g = 1000 cm/s2)
320 ms–1, find the tension (in newton) in the string.

4. A small solid ball (mass = 0.1 kg) rolls without

SECTION-B
slipping along the track shown in figure. The
One or More than One Correct Type (9–14)
radius of the circular part of track is R. If the ball
starts from rest at a height 8R above the bottom, 9. A particle is moving along 𝑋-axis whose position
what is the horizontal force (in N) acting on it at t3
is given by x = 4 − 9t + . Mark the correct
P? 3
statement(s) in relation to its motion.
(A) Direction of motion is not changing at any of
the instants
(B) Direction of motion is changing at t = 3s
(C) For 0 < t < 3s, the particle is slowing down
(D) For 0 < t < 3s, the particle is speeding up
10. Two blocks A and B of equal mass m are
connected through a massless string and arranged
as shown in figure. The wedge is fixed on
horizontal surface. Friction is absent everywhere.
When the system is released from rest

(A) T1 = 185 N
(B) T2 = 371 N
(C) T2 = 185 N

(A) tension in string is mg/2 (D) tan  = 0.257

(B) tension in string is mg/4

14. A particle is dropped from a height equal to the
(C) acceleration of A is g/2
radius of the earth into a tunnel dug through the
(D) acceleration of A is 3g/4
earth along one of the diameters as shown in the
figure.
11. A ball hits the floor and rebounds after an inelastic
collision. In this case
(A) the momentum of the ball just after the
collision is conserved.
(B) the mechanical energy of the ball remains the
same in the collision.
(C) the total momentum of the ball and the earth R : Radius of earth
is conserved. M : Mass of earth
(D) the total energy of the ball and the earth is (A) Particle will oscillate through the earth to a
conserved. height R on both sides
(B) Particle will execute simple harmonic motion

12. A ball tied to the end of a string swings in a (C) Motion of the particle is periodic
vertical circle under the influence of gravity. (D) Particle passes the centre of earth with a speed
(A) When the string makes an angle 90° with the 2GM
vertical the tangential acceleration is zero and R
radial acceleration is somewhere between SECTION-C
maximum and minimum. Matrix Match Type (15–18)
(B) When the string makes an angle 90° with the 15. Considering force (F), Velocity (V) and energy (E)
vertical the tangential acceleration is as fundamental quantities, match the correct
maximum and radial acceleration is dimensions of following quantities.
somewhere between maximum and minimum. Column-I Column-II

(C) At no place in the circular motion, tangential (I) Mass (P) [F–1V0E1]
acceleration is equal to radial acceleration. (II) Light year (Q) [F1V1E–1]
(D) Throughout the path whenever radial
(III) Frequency (R) [F3V0E–2]
acceleration has its extreme value, the
tangential acceleration is zero. (IV) Pressure (S) [F0V–2E1]

(A) I-S; II-P; III-Q; IV-R

13. The uniform 120 N board shown in figure is (B) I-P; II-Q; III-R; IV-S
supported by two ropes. A 400 N weight is
(C) I-S; II-Q; III-P; IV-R
suspended one-fourth of the way from the left end.
Choose the correct options; (D) I-R; II-S; III-P; IV-Q

[3]
16. A rigid body is rolling without slipping on (A) I-R; II-S; III-Q, R; IV-P, T
horizontal surface. At a given instant BD is (B) I-R, Q; II-Q, S; III-S; IV-P, S
perfectly horizontal and CD is perfectly vertical. (C) I-P, S; II-P, S; III-Q, S; IV-R
(D) I-S, T; II-R, T; III-P, Q; IV-Q, R

18. When a sample of a gas is taken from state i to

state f along the path iaf, heat supplied to the gas is
50 cal and work done by the gas is 20 cal. If it is
taken by path ibf, then heat supplied is 36 cal.
Then match the column
Column-I Column-II
(I) Velocity at point (P) v 2
A; vA
(II) Velocity at point (Q) Zero
B; vB
(III) Velocity at point (R) v
C; vC
(IV) Velocity at point (S) 2v
D; vD
(A) I-Q; II-R; III-S; IV-P
(B) I-Q; II-P; III-S; IV-R Column-I Column-II
(C) I-R; II-P; III-S; IV-Q
(I) Work done by (P) 6 cal
(D) I-Q; II-P; III-R; IV-S
the gas along
path ibf is
17. Two blocks of masses 20 kg and 10 kg are kept on
a rough horizontal floor. The coefficient of friction (II) If work done (Q) 18 cal
between both blocks and floor is µ = 0.2. The upon the gas is
surface of contact of both blocks are smooth. 13 cal for the
Horizontal forces of magnitude 20 N and 60 N are return path ‘fi’,
applied on both the blocks as shown in figure. then heat
Match the statements in column I with the rejected by the
statements in column II. gas along path
‘fi’ is
(III) If internal (R) 40 cal
energy of the
gas at state i is
Column-I Column-II 10 cal, then
internal energy
(I) Frictional forces (P) has magnitude
at state ‘f’ is
acting on block 20N
of mass 10 kg (IV) If internal (S) 43 cal
(II) Frictional forces (Q) has magnitude energy at state
acting on block 40N ‘b’ is 22 cal
of mass 20 kg and at ‘i’ is 10
(III) Normal reaction (R) is zero cal then heat
exerted by 20kg supplied to the
block on 10 kg gas along path
block ‘ib’ is
(IV) Net force on (S) is towards
(A) I-Q; II-R; III-P; IV-S
system right (in
consisting of 10 horizontal (B) I-S; II-Q; III-R; IV-P
kg block and 20 direction (C) I-R; II-P; III-S; IV-Q
kg block (D) I-P; II-S; III-R; IV-Q

[4]
 PART-II (CHEMISTRY)
SECTION-A
Numerical Value Type (19–26) 26. Total number of oxygen atoms in the molecular
19. A moving particle is associated with wavelength formula of Borax is:
–8
5 × 10 m. If its momentum is reduced to half of
its value, compute the new wavelength. If answer SECTION-B
is 10–x then report the value of ‘x’. One or More than One Correct Type (27–32)
27. During the isothermal expansion of an ideal gas:
20. In Carius method for estimation of halogens, 0.2 (A) The internal energy remains unaffected
(B) The temperature remains constant
g of an organic compound gave 0.188 g of AgBr.
(C) The enthalpy remains unaffected
The percentage of bromine in the compound is (D) The enthalpy increases
_______. (Nearest integer)
[Atomic mass : Ag = 108, Br = 80] 28. In chromatography, which of the following
statements is/are correct for Rf?
21. Number of amphoteric compounds among the (A) Rf value depends on the type of
chromatography
following is:
(B) Higher Rf value means higher adsorption
(I) BeO (II) BaO (C) Rf value is dependent on the mobile phase
(III) Be(OH)2 (IV) Sr(OH)2 (D) The value of Rf can not be more than one

22. An electron in Li2+ ions makes a transition from 29. The incorrect pair regarding property given in
higher state n2 to lower state n1 = 6. The emitted bracket is:
(A) F2 > Cl2 (Oxidising character)
photons is used to ionize an electron in H-atom
(B) F > Cl (Electron affinity)
from 2nd exited state. The electron on leaving the (C) F < Cl (Electronegativity)
H-atom has a de- Broglie wavelength  = (D) O > N (Ionisation energy)
12.016Å.
Find the value of n2. 30. In which of the following compounds, ‘S’ atom
150  144 150 has +6 oxidation state?
Note: Used (12.016)2 = 13.6  11 ,  A = KE (A) H2SO4 (B) H2SO3
eV
(C) H2S2O7 (D) SO3

23. Number of correct statement is _______. 31. Which of the following has a smaller boiling
point than n-pentane?
(i) Delocalisation of -electrons is
(A) Isopentane (B) Isobutane
hyperconjugation. (C) Neopentane (D) n-hexane
(ii) Delocalisation of -electrons is resonance.
(iii) Partial displacement of -electrons is 32. When an inorganic compound X having electron
inductive effect. deficient bonding (banana bonding) react with
ammonia gas at certain temperature gives a
compound (Y), isostructural with benzene.
24. What will be the total number of neutrons in 3
Compound (X) with ammonia at a high
isotopes of hydrogen? temperature produces a substance (Z).
(A) X is B2H6
25. An acid with molelcular formula C7H6O3 forms (B) Y is B3N3H6
three types of sodium salts i.e. C7H5O3Na, (C) Z is hard substance
(D) Compound X contain 3C-2e– and 2C-2e–
C7H4O3Na2 and C7H3O3Na3. The basicity of the
bond.
acid is:
[5]
 SECTION-C 2+ +
Hg /H
(III) CH  CH + H 2 O ⎯⎯⎯⎯→ (R)
333 K
Matrix Match Type (33–36)
33. Match the column I with column II:
Column- I Column-II (IV) (S)
(I) Zn(s) + 2HCl(aq) → (P) 50% of
ZnCl2(s) + H2(g), excess (I) (II) (III) (IV)
above reaction is reagent left (A) Q P R S
carried out by taking (B) Q R P S
2 moles each of Zn (C) Q P S R
and HCl (D) P Q S R

(II) AgNO3(aq) + HCl(aq) (Q) 22.4 L of

35. Match the column I with column II:
→ AgCl(s) + HNO3(g) gas at STP is
Column- I Column-II
above reaction is liberated
carried out by taking (Molecule) (Bond order)
170 g AgNO3 and
(P) Ne2 (I) 1
18.25 g HCl (Ag =
108) (Q) N2 (II) 2

(III) CaCO3(s) → CaO(s) + (R) 1 moles of (R) F2 (III 0

CO2(g), 100 g CaCO3 solid )
is decomposed (product)
(S) O2 (IV 3
obtained.
)
(IV) 2KClO3(s) → 2 (S) HC1 is the
Choose the correct answer from the
KCl(s) + 3O2(g), 2/3 limiting
reagent. options given below:
moles of KC1O3
(A) (P)—(I); (Q)—(II); (R)—(III); (S)—(IV)
decomposed
(B) (P)—(IV); (Q)—(III); (R)—(II); (S)—(I)
(A) (I) - P,Q,R; (II) - P,S; (III) - Q,R; (IV) - (C) (P)—(III); (Q)—(IV); (R)—(I); (S)—(II)
Q (D) (P)—(II); (Q)—(I); (R)—(IV); (S)—(III)
(B) (I) - P,Q,R,S; (II) - P,S; (III) - Q,R; (IV)
-Q 36. Match the column I with column II:
(C) (I) - P,Q; (II) - P,R; (III) - Q,R; (IV) - P Column- I Column-II

(D) (I) - P,Q,R; (II) - P,S; (III) - Q,R; (IV) - I. – Cl P. Activating

R,Q
II. – CH3 Q. Deactivating

34. Match the column I with column II: III. – OH R. o, p-directing

Column- I Column-II
IV. – NO2 S. m-directing
(Reaction) (Product)
I II III IV
(I) CH2Br – CH2Br + Zn → (P) CH3COOH (A) P, S P, R P, R Q, S
CH3 – CH = CH – CH3 (B) Q, S Q, R P, R Q, S
(II) (Q) CH2 = CH2 (C) Q, R P, R P, R Q, S
KMnO /H +
⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
4 →
(D) P, R Q, S P, S Q, R

[6]
 PART-III (MATHEMATICS)
SECTION-A
( )
3
log x log 27 x 2 +1
Numerical Value Type Questions (37-44) 2 21/4 −3 − 2x
43. If y = and
7 4log 49 x
− x −1
37. An ellipse is inscribed in the circle x2 + y2 = 9 dy
whose major axis is 3x – 4y = 0. From point (0, = ax + b, then the value of a + b is
dx
3) a perpendicular is drawn to the line 3x – 4y =
0 intersecting the ellipse at P and line at Q such
z −i
that PQ = 1. If F is the distance between both the 44. If z be a complex number such that =1
z + 2i
144 F 2
foci of ellipse, then the value of is equal
119 and z =
5
2
, then the value of ( z + 3i ) is
to
SECTION-B
One or More Than One Correct Type Questions (45-50)
38. Let chord of contact is drawn from every point
lying on circle x2 + y2 = 100 to the ellipse 45. Which of the following is true for the equation
2
x2 y 2 Z2 = Z + Z2 − , where Z = x + iy?
+ = 1 such that all the lines touches an Z
3
4 9
standard ellipse whose eccentricity is e, then the (A) Number of complex numbers satisfying the
2 equation is 3.
81e
value of is equal to
13 (B) Number of complex numbers satisfying the
equation is 4.
39. The locus of an end point of latus rectum of (C) Sum of modulus of all complex numbers
standard ellipse, having major axis of length satisfying the equation is 2 + 25/4.
16 units is part of another conic, whose length of (D) Product of modulus of all complex numbers
latus rectum is equal to
satisfying the equation is 2 .

40. Consider the observations

46. If locus of point P(z) which satisfies
5
xi = + p, i = 1 to 20

2 arg ( 3 + z + z + z i ) = is a part of conic C, then
4
7
x j = , j = 21 to 40
2 (A) Length of latus rectum of C is 6
5 (B) Length of latus rectum of C is 3 2
xk = − p, k = 41 to 60
2 (C) eccentricity of C is 2
4
If the variance of these 60 observations is , (D) eccentricity of C is 2 2
9
then the value of 6p2 is
47. In ABC with usual notation, if a, c, A are given
41. If the reflection of the parabola y2 = 4(x – 1) in and b1 = 2b2 where b1, b2 are two values of the
the line x + y = 2 is the curve Ax + By = x2, then c 1 + 8sin 2 A
third side, then the value of is less
the value of (A + B) is equal to a
than
42. If z 2 − 3 = 3 z and the maximum value of |z| is (A) 1
(B) 2
m+ n
, (where m, n  N), then m + n is equal (C) 4
2
to (D) 5

[7]
48. Consider the parabola y2 = 20x, ellipse (A) I-P, II-Q, III-R, IV-S
x2 y 2 x2 y 2 (B) I-R, II-P, III-S, IV-Q
+ = 1, hyperbola − = 1 then which
16 9 29 4 (C) I-R, II-S, III-Q, IV-P
of the following is/are CORRECT. (D) I-S, II-Q, III-P, IV-R
(A) Equation of common tangents to all of them
is y = ( x + 5)
52. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct
(B) Area of quadrilateral formed by common
tangents and chord of contacts of ellipse and answer using the code given below the list.
419
parabola respectively is sq. unit List-I List-II
25
(C) Equation of common tangents to all of them I Two sides of a triangle are P 12
is y = ( x + 3)
given by the roots of the
(D) Area of quadrilateral formed by common
equation x2 – 5x + 3 = 0. If
tangents and chord of contacts of ellipse and
the angle between these sides
149
parabola respectively is sq. unit
25 
is , then the product of
3
49. There are 3 common tangent of the parabola inradius and circumradius of
y2 = 4x and the circle x2 + y2 – 6x = 0 forming a
the triangle is
triangle T. Which of the following is/are true
about the tringle T II In a triangle ABC, if the radii Q 15
(A) Its area is 3 3 sq. unit of ex-circles r1, r2 and r3 are
(B) Its circumcentre is (–1, 0) given by r1 = 8, r2 = 12 and
(C) Its inradius is 1
r3 = 24, then value of the side
3 3
(D) Its area is a is
2
III Let a be a positive integer not R 3
50. If z is a complex number satisfying
exceeding 10, then the 7
z − i Re( z) = z − Im( z) , then z lies on
probability that the equation
(A) y=x
(B) y = –x x2 – 2(a2 – 1)x + 2a2 – 7a + 3
(C) y=x+1 = 0 has one positive and one
(D) y = –x + 1 negative roots is

SECTION-C IV Let (, ) be a point from S 1

Matrix Match Type Questions (51-54) which two perpendicular 5
tangents can be drawn to the
51. Complex number z satisfies the equation
ellipse 4x2 + 5y2 = 20. If F =
z − 5 + m z − 12i = n . Then match the values of
4 + 3, then the maximum
m and n in List-I with the corresponding locus in
List-II. value of F

List-I List-II T 2
3
I m = 1, n = 13 P Ellipse

II m = 1, n = 15 Q Hyperbola (A) I-T, II-P, III-S, IV-Q

III m = –1, n = 13 R Line segment (B) I-Q, II-R, III-S, IV-P
(C) I-R, II-Q, III-T, IV-S
IV m = –1, n = 12 S Two opposite rays
(D) I-P, II-Q, III-S, IV-R

[8]
53. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct 54. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
answer using the code given below the list. answer using the code given below the list.
List-I List-II
List-I List-II I. If the mid-point of chord of P. 3 7
x2 y 2 2
I Normal of parabola y2 = 4x at P 3 ellipse + = 1 is (0,
25 36
P and Q meets at R(x2, 0) and
2), then the length of the
tangents at P and Q meets at
chord is:
T(x1, 0), then if x2 = 3, then the II. If the line 2x + y = a Q. 2 3
area of quadrilateral PTQR is touches the hyperbola x2 –
2y2 = 9, then the value of |a|
II The length of latus rectum will Q 4
is equal to
be
III. If y = –2x + λ is a normal to R. 20 2
III The quadrilateral PTQR can R 1 the parabola y2 = 4x, then 3
be inscribed in a circle, then value of  is:
the value of circumference/ 4 IV. The product of length of S. 30
the perpendicular from the
will be
two foci on any tangent to
IV The number of normals that S 8 x2 y 2
the hyperbola − =1
can be drawn to the parabola 9 15
from R(x2, 0) is is k, then k is:
T. 15
T 5

(A) I-P, II-Q, III-R, IV-S (A) I → P; II → Q; III → R; IV → S

(B) I → S; II → P; III → P; IV → T
(B) I-R; II-S, III-Q, IV-P
(C) I → R; II → S; III → Q; IV → P
(C) I-S, II-Q, III-R, IV-P
(D) I → R; II → P; III → Q; IV → T
(D) I-Q, II-S, III-P, IV-R

PW Web/App - https://smart.link/7wwosivoicgd4

Library- https://smart.link/sdfez8ejd80if

[9]
 Arjuna JEE 2.0 (2024)
JEE
JEE Advanced Test - 04 Advanced
Paper-02
DURATION: :180
DURATION Minutes
90 Minutes DATED: 18/02/2024 M. MARKS: 192

Topics covered
Physics : Full Syllabus.
Chemistry : Full Syllabus.
Mathematics : Conic sections, Complex number -II, Introduction to 3D, Limits and derivatives, Solution of
triangle, Probability, Statistics

General Instructions:
1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the test booklet.
2. The test is of 3 hours duration.
3. The test booklet consists of 54 questions. The maximum marks are 192.
4. This Paper consists Three Sections (Section A, B & C) in each subject (Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics)
For Section A : Numerical Value Type (8 Questions)
For each Question, enter the correct numerical value. If the numerical value has more than 2 decimal places,
truncate/round-off the value to TWO decimal places.
Full Marks - +3, Zero Marks - 0
For Section B : One or More than one correct (6 Questions); For each Question, choose the option(s) corresponding to (all) the
correct answers. Full Marks - +4, Zero Marks - 0, Negative Marks - 1
For Section C : Matrix Match Columns or List (4 Questions); For each Question, choose the correct option corresponding to
the correct answer.
Each Columns or List has TWO lists : Column I & Column II or List I & List II
Column I or List I has Four entries (I), (II), (III) and (IV) and Column II or List II has four or five entries (P), (Q), (R), (S)
and (T). Four options (1),(2),(3),(4) are given in each Multiple Choice Question based on Column I or List I and Column
II or List II and only ONE of these four options satisfies the condition asked in the Multiple Choice Question.
Full Marks - +4, Zero Marks - 0, Negative Marks - -1
5. No student is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile phone, any electronic
device, etc. inside the examination room/hall.
6. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty in the Room/Hall.
However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
7. Do not fold or make any stray mark on the Answer Sheet (OMR).
OMR Instructions:
1. Use blue/black dark ballpoint pens.
2. Darken the bubbles completely. Don't put a tick mark or a cross mark where it is specified that you fill the bubbles
completely. Half-filled or over-filled bubbles will not be read by the software.
3. Never use pencils to mark your answers.
4. Never use whiteners to rectify filling errors as they may disrupt the scanning and evaluation process.
5. Writing on the OMR Sheet is permitted on the specified area only and even small marks other than the specified area may
create problems during the evaluation.
6. Multiple markings will be treated as invalid responses.
7. Do not fold or make any stray mark on the Answer Sheet (OMR).

Name of the Students (In CAPITALS) : _______________________________________________________________

Roll Number : _____________________________________________________________________________________________

OMR Bar Code Number : ________________________________________________________________________________

Candidate’s Signature : _______________________________ Invigilator’s Signature _____________________

 PART-I (PHYSICS)
SECTION-A 6. An electric heater is used in a room of total wall
Integer Type (Single Digit Integer) (1–8) area 137 m2 to maintain a temperature of +20°C
1. Two swimmers leave point A on one bank of the inside it, when the outside temperature is –10°C.
river to reach point B lying right across on the The walls have three different layers materials.
other bank. One of them crosses the river along the The innermost layer is of wood of thickness 2.5
straight line AB while the other swims at right cm, the middle layer is of cement of thickness 1.0
angles to the stream and then walks the distance cm and the outermost layer is of brick of thickness
that he has been carried away by the stream to get 25.0 cm. If the power of the electric-heater is P ×
to point B. What was the velocity u(in kph ) of her 103 watt, then the value of P is _______.
walking if both swimmers reached the destination Assume that there is no heat loss through the floor
simultaneously? The stream velocity is 2 km/hr and the ceiling. The thermal conductivities of
and the velocity of each swimmer with respect to wood, cement and brick are 0.125, 1.5 and
water is 2.5 km/hr. 1.0 watt /m/°C respectively.

7. A body is projected downwards at an angle of 30°

2. A small sphere rolls down without slipping from
to the horizontal with a velocity of 9.8 m/s from
the top of a track in a vertical plane. The track has
the top of a tower 29.4 m high. How long will it
an elevated section and a horizontal part. The
take before striking the ground?
horizontal part is 1.0 metre above the ground level
and the top of the track is 2.4 metres above the 8. A point particle of mass 0.1 kg is executing
ground. Find the distance (in m) on the ground S.H.M. of amplitude of 0.1 m. When the particle
with respect to the point B (which is vertically passes through the mean position, its kinetic
below the end of the track as shown in fig.) where energy is 8×10–3) joule. Obtain the positive value
the sphere lands. of angular frequency (in rad/s).
SECTION-B
One or More than One Correct Type (9–14)
9. Four rods, A, B, C and D of the same length and
material but of different radii r , r 2, r 3 and 2r
respectively are held between two rigid walls. The
temperature of all rods is increased through the
3. A column of mercury of 10 cm length is contained same range. If the rods do not bend, then
in the middle of a narrow horizontal 1 m long tube (A) the stress in the rods A, B, C and D are in the
which is closed at both the ends. Both the halves of ratio 1: 2 : 3 : 4
the tube contain air at a pressure of 76 cm of (B) the forces on them exerted by the wall are in
mercury. By what distance (in cm) will the column the ratio 1 : 2 : 3 : 4
of mercury be displaced if the tube is held
(C) the energy stored in the rods due to elasticity
vertically?
are in the ratio 1 : 2 : 3 : 4
4. A source emitting sound of frequency 180 Hz is (D) the strains produced in the rods are in the ratio
placed in front of a wall at a distance of 2 m from 1:2:3:4
it. A detector is also placed in front of the wall at 10. The energy of a particular executing simple
some distance from it. Find the minimum distance harmonic motion is given by E = Ax2 + Bv2 where
(in m) between the source and the detector for x is the displacement from mean position x = 0 and
which the detector detects a maximum of sound. v is the velocity of the particle at x then choose the
Speed of sound in air = 360 m/s correct statement(s)
2E
5. In a car race sound signals emitted by the two cars (A) amplitude of S.H.M. is
A
are detected by the detector on the straight track at
(B) maximum velocity of the particle during
the end point of the race. Frequency observed are
E
330 Hz and 360 Hz and the original frequency is S.H.M. is
300 Hz of both cars. Race ends with the separation B
of 100 m between the cars. Assume both cars B
(C) Time period of motion is 2
move with constant velocity and velocity of sound A
is 330 m/s. Find the time (in second) taken by (D) displacement of the particle is proportional to
winning car. the velocity of the particle.
11. A wave equation which gives the displacement (C) Temperature of an ideal gas is doubled from
along the y-direction is given by y = 10–4 sin (60t + 100°C to 200°C. The average kinetic energy
2x) where x and y are in metres and t is time in of each particle is also doubled.
seconds. This represents a wave (D) The rms translational speed for all ideal gas
(A) travelling with a velocity of 30 m/s in the molecules at the same temperature is not the
negative x direction same and does not depend on the mass.
(B) of wavelength π m
(C) of frequency 30/π hertz
(D) of amplitude 10–4 m traveling along the SECTION-C
negative x-direction Single Correct Type Questions (15–18)
15. There are two blocks A and B in contact with
12. Two identical straight wires are stretched so as to
vertical and horizontal smooth surfaces
produce 6 beats per second when vibrating respectively, as shown in the figure. Acceleration
simultaneously. On changing the tension slightly of A and B are aA and aB respectively along their
in one of them, the beat frequency remains constrained direction of motions. Relation between
unchanged. Denoting by T1, T2 the higher and the aA and aB is (Assume sin 23° = 2/5).
lower initial tension in the strings, then it could be
said that while making the above changes in
tension,
(A) T2 was decreased
(B) T2 was increased
(C) T1 was decreased
(D) T1 was increased

13. One mole of an ideal gas is taken through the (A) 2a A = 21aB (B) 2aA = 5aB
cyclic process shown in the V-T diagram, where V (C) 5aA = 2aB (D) 21a A = 2aB
= volume and T = absolute temperature of gas.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
16. An object of mass m is projected vertically
upwards with a speed of v0. At the same moment
another object of mass M, which is initially above
the projected one, is dropped from a height of h.
The two point like objects collide completely
inelastically, and they stick to each other. Find
(A) Heat is given out by the gas in the whole kinetic energy (in J) of combined mass just before
process it hits the ground. (Given: m = 1 kg, v0 = 20 m/s,
(B) Heat is absorbed by the gas in the complete M = 3 kg, h = 20 m, g = 10 m/s2).
cycle (A) 550 J (B) 650 J
(C) The magnitude of the work by the gas is RT0
(C) 450 J (D) 250 J
ln 2
(D) The magnitude of the work done by the gas is
V0 T 0 17. Water is flowing on a horizontal fixed surface,
such that its flow velocity varies with y (vertical
14. Choose the correct statement (s)  2 y 2 y3 
direction) as v = k  2 − 3  . If coefficient of
 a a 
(A) In an adiabatic expansion the product of 
pressure and volume decreases. viscosity for water is η, what will be shear stress
between layers of water at y = a.
(B) The rms translational speed for all ideal gas
molecules at the same temperature is not the (A) ηk/a (B) η/ka
(C) ηa/k (D) None of these
same but it depends on the mass.
[3]
18. A uniform cylinder of length L and mass M having 1  K − Ad g 
1/2

cross-sectional area A is suspended with its vertical (A)  

2 M 
length, from a fixed point by a massless spring,
1/2
such that it is half submerged in a liquid of density 1  K + d gL 
(B)  
d at equilibrium position. When the cylinder is 2  M 
given a small downward push and released, it 1  K + Ad g 
1/2

starts oscillating vertically with a small amplitude. (C)  

2  M 
If the force constant of the spring is K, the 1/2
frequency of oscillation of the cylinder is: 1  K − Ad g 
(D)  
2  Ad g 

PART-II (CHEMISTRY)
SECTION-A 21. Number of hypervalent among following are :
Integer Type (Single Digit) (19 – 26) H2CO3, HNO3, HNO2, H3PO4, H3PO3, H3PO2,
19. If two gases AB2 and B2C are mixed the HClO4
following equilibria are readily established
AB2(g) + B2C(g) ⇌ AB3(g) + BC (g) 22. How many of the following have standard heat of
BC(g) + B2C(g) ⇌ B3C2 (g) formation is zero?
If the reaction is started only with AB2 with B2C , (i) Br2() (ii) CO2(g)
then how many of the following is necessarily
(iii) C(graphite) (iv) Cl2()
true at equilibrium? (Initial moles of AB2 and
B2C are same) (v) Cl2(g)
(I) [AB3]eq = [BC]eq
(II) [AB3]eq > [B3C2]eq 23. How many of the following will have R
(III) [AB2]eq = [B2C]eq configuration?
(IV) [AB3]eq > [BC]eq
(a)
20. In how many of the given pair , 1st compound is
less stable than 2nd?
• • (b)
CH3 − CH 2 CH3
(1) (i) (ii)

(2)
(c)

(d)
(3)

(e)

(4)
(f)

(5)
24. The general formula for orthosilicate is [SiO4]–n,
then what will be the value of n?

[4]
25. M(OH)x (producing Mx+ and OH– ions) has Ksp, The plots between P and V which represent
4 × 10–12 and solubility is 10–4 M. The value of x isochoric and isobaric process :
(A) I (B) II
is: (C) III (D) IV

26. How many of the following will impart any color 31. Which of the following is/are correct
with flame? statement(s):
Na, K, Be, Mg, Ca, Sr, Ba
(A)
SECTION-B
One or More than One Correct Type (27 – 32) are functional isomers to each other
27. If H2SO4 is formed from it's elements by taking
6.023 × 1023 atom of ‘O’, 5.6 litre of H2 gas at (B)
STP and 8 g ‘S’ then
(A) 0.125 moles of H2SO4 are formed are position isomers to each other
(B) 0.25 moles of H2SO4 are formed
(C) No moles of ‘S’ are left (C)
(D) 1/4 mole of O2 is left
are chain isomers to each other
(D)
28. are metamers of each other.

True statements is/are

32. The ionic radii depends upon the following
factors:
(A) Structure of X is (A) Charge on cation
(B) Charge on anion
(B) Structure of X is (C) Shell number of valence shell electron(s) of
the ion.
(C) Y on monochlorination produce 3 (D) Effective nuclear charge
monochloro structural products.
(D) Oxidative ozonolysis product of X is SECTION-C
Single Correct Type Questions (33 – 36)
33. A balloon filled with ethyne is pricked with a
sharp point and quickly dropped in a tank of H2
29. Which of the following is a correct order with gas under identical conditions. After a while the
respect to the property mentioned against each balloon will:
option?
(A) NO– > NO > NO+ : bond length (A) Shrink
+ (B) Enlarge
(B) H2 > H 2 >He2 : bond energy
2− 2+ (C) Completely collapse
(C) O 2 > O2 > O 2 : paramagnetic moment
(D) Remain unchanged in size
+ −
(D) NO 2 > NO2 > NO 2 : bond angle
34. The correct IUPAC name of the following
compound is:

30.
(A) 4-Methy1-2-nitro-5-oxahept-3-enal
(B) 4-Methy1-5-oxo-2-nitrohept-3-enal
(C) 4-Methy1-6-nitro-3-oxohept-4-enal
(D) 6-Formy1-4-methyl-1-nitrohex-3-enal
[5]
35. Which of the following is correct for hydrogen ?
(A) It is always collected at cathode. (B)
(B) Its ionization energy is very low
incomparision with alkali metals. (C)
(C) It can form bonds in +1 as well as in –1
oxidation states.
(D) Its oxide is not stable.

(D)
36. Which of the following compounds is non-
aromatic?


(A)

PART-III (MATHEMATICS)
SECTION-A x2 y 2
44. From point P on hyperbola − = 1 in first
Integer Type Questions (37-44) a 2 b2
37. If z0 lies on the curve quadrant, line parallel to x-axis & y-axis are
zz − (6 + i) z − (6 − i) z + 28 = 0 , then minimum of drawn cutting hyperbola at Q & R respectively.
Let A be the vertex of hyperbola in 1st quadrant.
z0 + 5 − i is equal to
If area (APQ) = 2area(APR) and eccentric
a
38. The end points of a line segment are P(1, 3) and angle of P is (where a & b are relatively
Q(1, 1). R is a point on the line segment PQ such b
prime integers), then the value of a + b is equal
that PR : QR = 1 : ( > 0). If R is an interior
to
point of the parabola y2 = 4x, then [] is equal to
(where [.] denotes greatest integer function) SECTION-B
One or More Than One Correct Type Questions (45-50)
39. The sum of two natural numbers m and n is equal
to 100. If the probability that their product being x2 y 2
99 p 45. If P and Q are two points on ellipse + =1 ,
greater than 1600 is p, then is equal to a 2 b2
59 whose eccentric angles differ by 90°, then
40. In ABC, circumradius is 3 and inradius is 1.5 (A) Locus of point of intersection of tangents at
x2 y 2
units. If the value of P and Q is 2 + 2 = 2
a b
a cot 2 A + b2 cot 3 B + c3 cot 4 C is m n where m
and n are prime numbers, then find the value of (B) Locus of mid point of P and Q is
|(m – 2n)| x2 y 2 1
+ =
a 2 b2 2
41. From a point P three normals are drawn to the (C) Locus of point of intersection of tangents at
parabola y2= 4ax, such that the product of slopes x2 y 2 1
of two of the normals is l. If the locus of P is a P and Q is 2 + 2 =
a b 2
part of the parabola itself, then |l| is equal to
(D) Locus of mid point of P and Q is
42. Let S = (1, 2) and S ' = (5, 5) be the foci of a x2 y 2
+ =2
hyperbola. For any point P on the curve, it is a 2 b2
given that S ' P − SP = 3 . If e ' is the eccentricity
x4 − x2 + 1 dy
of the conjugate hyperbola, then 4e ' is equal to 46. If y = and = ax + b , then the
x + 3x + 1
2
dx
value of a – b is

43. If 0  arg z  , then the least value of  5
4 (A) cot (B) cot
8 12
2 2 z − 4i is equal to
5 5
(C) tan (D)
12 8
[6]
47. Consider an ellipse with major axis and minor  2 −1 2 −1 
(C) centroid of ABC is 
axis having length 4 and 2 3 respectively. Let P  3 2 , 6 2 
 
be variable point on it and S and S ' be the focii
 
and C be the centre of ellipse then (D) centroid of ABC is  2 + 1 , 2 + 1 
 
 3 2 6 2 
(A) maximum value of PS  PS ' is 4
(B) minimum value of PS 2 + PS '2 is 8 SECTION-C
(C) minimum length of portion of tangent at P Single Correct Type Question (51 to 54)
intercepted between the principle axis is 51. In a complex number z = x + iy such that
7−4 3  z −1  
 z + 1  , z  −1 whose argument is equal to 4 ,
 
(D) minimum length of portion of tangent at then relation of variable is
P intercepted between the principle axis (A) x2 – y2 = 1
is 7+4 3 (B) x2 + y2 – 2y = 1
(C) x2 – y2 + 2y + 1 = 0
(D) x2 + y2 = 1
48. If A = (2, –3, 7), B = (–1, 4, –5) and P is a point
on the line AB such that AP : BP = 3 : 2, then P
52. If z1 , z2 , z3 represents the vertices of an
has the coordinates
equilateral triangle ABC and
 4 −1 11   1 6 −1 
(A)  , ,  (B)  , ,  2 2
5 5 5  5 5 5  z2 − z1 + z3 − z1
2 2
= sin  ,
 7 −18 29  z2 + z3 − 2 z1 + z3 − z2
(C)  , ,  (D) (–7, 18, –29)
5 5 5  then  is (0 <  < )
 2
( x − 1) (A) (B)
49. Let f ( x) = , then 4 3
( 2x 2
− 7x + 5 ) (C)

(D)
5
1 6 6
(A) lim f ( x) = −
x →1 3
sin A sin(C + 2 B)
(B) lim f ( x) = −
1 53. In ABC, if = ,
x →0 5 sin C sin( A + 2C )
(C) lim f ( x) = 0 then a sin A, b sin B, c sin C are in
x →
(A) A.P. (B) G.P.
(D) lim f ( x) does not exist
x→
5 (C) H.P. (D) A.G.P.
2

54. Consider an ellipse 3x2 + 7y2 = 21. Let P(1, 1)

2 2
50. The line x + 2y = 1 cuts the ellipse x + 4y = 1 a and Q(2, 2) are 2 points on hyperbola
two distinct points A and B. Point C is on the
xy = 17 in I quadrant, such that pair of tangents
ellipse such that area of triangle ABC is
drawn to given ellipse from each point P and Q
maximum, then the wrong option(s) is/are
are at right angle, then the value of 12 −  22  is
2 +1
(A) area of ABC is sq. unit equal to
4
(where (1 > 2) and [.] represent greatest integer
2 −1
(B) area of ABC is sq. unit function)
4
(A) 10 (B) 17
(C) 5 (D) 6

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