AMCAT

 Quantitative Aptitude
 Logical Reasoning

2022
 Verbal Reasoning

Department of Training
Contents
1 Quantitative Aptitude 1
1.1 Number Property . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1
1.1.1 HCF and LCM . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1
1.1.2 Divisibility . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 4
1.1.3 Unit Digit . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 8
1.1.4 Square of a Number . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 8
1.1.5 Simplification . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 10
1.1.6 Fraction . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 13
1.1.7 Square and Cube Root . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 15
1.1.8 Factors and Remainders . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 16
1.1.9 Problem on Numbers / Word Problems . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 17
1.2 Percentage . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 22
1.3 Profit and Loss . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 24
1.4 Ratio and Proportion . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 28
1.5 Mixture & Solution . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 28
1.6 Partnership . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 28
1.7 Problem on Ages . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 29
1.8 Mensuration . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 29
1.9 Averages . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 30
1.10 Simple and Compound Interest . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 31
1.11 Logarithamm . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 33
1.12 Equations . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 38
1.13 Function . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 38
1.14 Permutation and Combination . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 39
1.15 Probability . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 45
1.16 Time and Work . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 52
1.17 Time, Speed and Distance . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 55

2 Logical Reasoning 58
2.1 Analogy . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 58
2.2 Blood Relations . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 60
2.3 Direction . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 64
2.4 Odd One Out . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 71
2.5 Series . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 74
2.6 Coding and Decoding . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 77
2.7 Syllogism . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 81
2.8 Analytical Puzzle . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 82
2.9 Data Sufficiency . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 89
2.10 Decision Making . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 107
2.11 Inequality . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 114
2.12 Inference . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 120
2.13 Logical Sequence of Word . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 126

3 Verbal Reasoning 129

3.1 Ordering of Sentences . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 129
3.2 Spotting Errors . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 134
3.3 Fill the Blanks . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 139
3.4 Meaning (Antonyms / Synonyms) of Words . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 146
3.5 Reading Comprehensive . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 151
3.6 Sentence Improvement . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 168
1 Quantitative Aptitude
1.1 Number Property
1.1.1 HCF and LCM

1. What is the difference between the LCM and HCF 8. If LCM and HCF of two numbers are 234 and 13
of the numbers 20, 30 and 40? respectively, then the smallest factor of the prod-
uct of the two numbers is:
(a) 100 (c) 120
(a) 2 X (c) 4
(b) 110 X (d) 130
(b) 3 (d) 5
2. The square of one number is 25. If the HCF and
9. Find the largest two digit number that divides 673
LCM of two numbers are 5 and 35 respectively,
and 865, leaving remainder 1 in each.
find the other number.
(a) 91 (c) 96 X
(a) 5 (c) 25
(b) 93 (d) 98
(b) 7 (d) 35 X
10. The difference of two numbers is 15. The LCM
3. Find the least number which when divided by 5, 7 and HCF are 180 and 15 respectively. Find the
and 13 leaves the same remainder 3 in each case. numbers.

(a) 398 (c) 458 X (a) 15, 30 (c) 45, 60 X

(b) 453 (d) 463 (b) 30, 45 (d) 60, 75
11. If LCM of two prime numbers a and b (a>b) is
4. What is the smallest number, which divided by7,
783, then the value of 2ab – 3a is
18, 56 and 36, leaves a remainder zero?
(a) 1,473 (c) 1,477
(a) 504 X (c) 390
(b) 1,475 (d) 1,479 X
(b) 392 (d) 1012
12. If an integer “’K is divisible by 2, 5 and 13, what
5. HCF of two numbers is 11 and their LCM is 693.
is the next largest number that is divisible by all
If one number is 77, find the other number.
the three given numbers?
(a) 7 (c) 63
(a) 2K (c) 2K + 13
(b) 9 (d) 99 X (b) K + 13 (d) K + 130 X
6. Find the smallest number, which when divided 13. Find the smallest three digit number that divides
by 24, 30, 48 and 60, leaves a remainder 2 in each 229 and 568 leaving remainder 3 in each case.
case
(a) 111 (c) 117
(a) 238 (c) 8
(b) 113 X (d) 119
(b) 242 X (d) 4
14. Which of the following is the least number exactly
7. The LCM of 0.36, 2.4 and 1.44 is divisible by15, 25, 30 and 45?

(a) 7.2 X (c) 7.6 (a) 425 (c) 475

(b) 7.4 (d) 7.8 (b) 450 X (d) 490

1
15. If LCM of two prime numbers p and q (where 23. If LCM and HCF of two numbers are equal and
p<q) is 323, then the value of 2p – q is product of two numbers is 2916, find their LCM.

(a) 11 (c) 15 X (a) 54 X (c) 64

(b) 13 (d) 17 (b) 56 (d) 66

16. Find the smallest two digit number that divide 24. Difference of LCM and HCF of two numbers is
587 and 730 leaving remainder 2 in each case. 668. Sum of their LCM and HCF is 676. If one
number is 32, find the other
(a) 12 (c) 13 X
(a) 64 (c) 84 X
(b) 11 (d) None of these
(b) 74 (d) 94
17. Find the greatest 5 digit number that is exactly
25. Find the greatest number that divides 125, 218,
divisible by 3, 4, 5 and 7.
280 and 342 so as to leave the same remainder in
each case
(a) 99940 (c) 99970

(b) 99960 X (d) 99990 (a) 31 X (c) 93

(b) 62 (d) None of these

18. If the product of two co-prime numbers is 1599, 26. H.C.F. of two numbers is 16. Which one of the
then find the LCM of these numbers. following can never be their L.C.M?
(a) 1 (c) 1599 X (a) 112 (c) 64
(b) LCM = HCF (d) LCM not Exist (b) 78 X (d) 128
19. Find the greatest number that divides 42, 90 and
27. If LCM of two prime numbers a & b (a>b) is 667
182 so as to leave the same remainder in each case.
then the value of 7b-5a is:
(a) 2 (c) 7
(a) 32 (c) 52
(b) 4 X (d) 9
(b) 46 (d) 16 X
20. Product of two numbers 2208. If the LCM of the
28. The reciprocal of the HCF and LCM of two num-
numbers is 552. What is their HCF?
bers are and respectively. If one of the
numbers is 24, find the other number.
(a) 12 (c) 24

(b) 4 X (d) Data adequate (a) 126 (c) 146

21. If the sum of squares of two numbers is 2754 and (b) 136 (d) 156 X
their HCF and LCM are 9 and 135 respectively, 29. The LCM and HCF of two numbers are 2970 and
then the numbers are 30 respectively. Prime factors of the product of
two numbers are:
(a) 27, 36 (c) 28, 45

(b) 27, 35 (d) 27, 45 X (a) 2, 3, 5, 11 X (c) 2, 4, 5, 11

22. The LCM of 2 numbers is 2516 and the square (b) 2, 3, 7, 11 (d) 2, 3, 7, 13
root of their HCF is 2. Find the product of two 30. The largest four digit number which is a multiple
numbers. of 8, 10, 12 and 15 is:

(a) 5032 (c) 10064 X (a) 9720 (c) 9840

(b) 7548 (d) 12580 (b) 9600 (d) 9960 X

2
31. If the GCD of 𝑥 − 𝑝𝑥 − and 𝑥 − 𝑥  𝑝 −
38. The product of 2 co prime is 253. What is the
is 𝑥  , then the value of 𝑝 is. LCM of these numbers?

(a) 0 (c) 1 (a) 1

(b) -1 (d) 3 X (b) 253 X

(c) Equal to HCF
32. HCF of two numbers is 18. If the numbers are in
(d) Cannot be calculated
the ratio 5:7, then their LCM is:
39. If the sum of squares of two numbers 164 and their
(a) 126 (c) 252 HCF and LCM are 2 and 40 respectively, then the
(b) 630 X (d) None of these numbers are:

(a) 4,8 (c) 8,10 X

33. Identify the least number that is exactly divisible
(b) 4,10 (d) 10,12
by 24, 28, 36 and 48?

(a) 144 X (c) 1008 40. LCM of 26, 52, 78 is:

(b) 112 (d) None of these (a) 152 (c) 156 X

34. If the sum of two numbers is 27 and their HCF (b) 154 (d) 158
and LCM of 3 and 60 respectively then the sum 41. Sudhir goes to the marker once every 64 days
of the reciprocal of the two numbers is: and Sushil goes to the same marker once every 72
days. They met each other one day. How many
(a) (c) X days later will they meet each other again?
 

(b) (d) 
 (a) 16 (c) 240

(b) 64 (d) 576 X

35. If the HCF of two numbers is 6 and LCM of the
same two numbers is 54, then the square root of 42. If the LCM and HCF of two numbers are 78 and
the product of these numbers is: 13 respectively, the product of two numbers can
be expressed as:
(a) 24 (c) 12

(b) 18 X (d) 16 (a) × × × (c) × × × X

(b) × × × (d) × × ×
36. If LCM and HCF of two numbers are equal and
product of two numbers is 2916, find the LCM 43. The difference of two numbers is 14. Their LCM
and HCF are 441and 7 respectively. Find the
(a) 54 X (c) 64 numbers.

(b) 56 (d) 66 (a) 21,35 (c) 49,63 X

37. If the product of two co-prime numbers is 2021, (b) 35,49 (d) 63,77
then find the LCM of these numbers.

(a) 1

(b) 2021 X
(c) LCM = HCF

(d) LCM cannot be calculated

3
1.1.2 Divisibility

1. Which number should be subtracted from 876905 8. What least value must be assigned to , so that
so that it can be divisible by 8? the number  is divided by 9?

(a) 1 X (c) 3 (a) 1 (c) 3

(b) 2 (d) 4 (b) 5 X (d) 7

2. The number 2594* is completely divisible by 6. 9. What should be the highest value that must be
The smallest value of * can be: assigned to so that the number  is ex-
actly divisible by 7?
(a) 0 (c) 4 X
(a) 5 (c) 7
(b) 2 (d) 6
(b) 6 X (d) None

3. Which of the given numbers is divisible by 6? 10. Which one of the following numbers is exactly di-
visible by 11?
(a) 4322 (c) 2256 X
(a) 235641 (c) 315624
(b) 3142 (d) 1640
(b) 245642 (d) 415624 X

4. A number when divided by 5 leaves remainder 2. 11. Which of the following number should be added
When the square of the number is divided by 5, to 3651 so that it can be divisible by 21?
the remainder will be:
(a) 1 (c) 3 X
(a) 4 X (c) 1
(b) 2 (d) 4
(b) 2 (d) 3

12. The largest 6-digit number which is exactly divis-

5. Which is the largest possible two digit number ible by 29 is
which divides 32472?
(a) 9,99,972 (c) 9,99,976
(a) 44 (c) 88
(b) 9,99,974 (d) 9,99,978 X
(b) 66 (d) 99 X
13. A number X when divided by 13 leaves the re-
6. If 𝑎𝑏𝑐 𝑑 is divisible by 4, what cannot be the value mainder 12, what is the remainder when we divide
of d? 𝑋 by 13?
(a) 0 (c) 8 (a) 12 X (c) 10
(b) 4 (d) 2 X (b) 0 (d) None

14. Product of two odd numbers is:

7. Number “1” is a
(a) Always odd X
(a) Prime
(b) Always even
(b) Composite
(c) Sometimes odd & Sometimes even
(c) Positive integer X
(d) Divisible by 6
(d) Both A and C

4
15. Find the number which is nearest to 4207 and is 22. Which of the following numbers is divisible by
exactly divisible by 23? ×

(a) 4786 (c) 4209 X (a) 946 (c) 948 X

(b) 4205 (d) 4228 (b) 947 (d) 949

16. If a number is divisible by 63, then it is also di-

23. Replace the symbols ⋆ and # in 9586⋆4# so that
visible by
it is divisible by both 8 and 5
(a) 7 X (c) 13
(a) 0, 0 X (c) 0, 5
(b) 11 (d) 17
(b) 1, 0 (d) 1, 5

17. Which number should be multiplied by 43 so that 24. In the following expression, there are two missing
it will have 3 prime factors? digits:⋆ and #.
⋆
(a) 2 (c) 6 X Find the value of ⋆. 

(b) 3 (d) 8 (a) 4 (c) 8

(b) 1 X (d) None of these

18. Which of the following numbers is divisible by 11? 25. A number is multiplied by 11 and 11 is added to
the product. If the resulting number is divisible
(a) 1042 (c) 1047 by 13, what is the smallest number?
(b) 1045 X (d) 1048
(a) 12 X (c) 26

(b) 22 (d) 53
19. Which number is divisible by 11? 26. What are the values for X & Y in 72X23Y for it
to be perfectly divisible by 88?
(a) 2118 (c) 2114
(a) X = 1 & Y = 5 (c) X = 3 & Y = 2
(b) 2116 (d) 2112 X
(b) X = 7 & Y = 5 (d) X = 7 & Y = 2 X

20. The number 98181⋆6 is completely divisible by 9. 27. Which of the following numbers is not divisible
Smallest whole digit number in place of ⋆ can be by 11?

(a) 0 (c) 2 (a) 40,12,503 (c) 54,32,105 X

(b) 1 (d) 3 X (b) 53,33,064 (d) 64,31,040

21. 4522 is not divisible by 28. Which number should be subtracted from 6518 so
that it can be divisible by 36?
(a) 7 (c) 19
(a) 1 (c) 3
(b) 17 (d) 21 X
(b) 2 X (d) 4

5
29. If 764xy is divisible by 90 then what is the value 36. What number should be added to 195 so that it
of x+y? becomes prime?

(a) 45 (c) 83 (a) 4 X (c) 12

(b) 73 X (d) 86 (b) 6 (d) 14

30. Out of 26 13 and 34 which two numbers are co- 37. What is the least number that should be added
primes? to 2025 to obtain a number exactly divisible by
39?
(a) 26,34 (c) 26,13
(a) 1 (c) 3 X
(b) 13,34X (d) None
(b) 2 (d) 4
31. A three-digit number 4a3 is added to another
38. Find the greatest number of four digits which
three-digit number 984 to give a four digit num-
when divided by 10, 15, 21 and 28 leaves 4, 9,
ber 13b7, which is divisible by 11. What is the
15 and 22 as remainders respectively.
value of a+b ?
(a) 9654 X (c) 9664
(a) 11 (c) 12
(b) 9666 (d) 9864
(b) 10 X (d) 9

32. Find the smallest number, which when divided by 39. Identify the prime number
3, 5 and 7 leaves a remainder 2 in each case, and
is divisible by 11. (a) 323 (c) 319

(a) 737 X (c) 105 (b) 321 (d) 317 X

(b) 735 (d) 107

40. 4522 is not divisible by

33. For what value of M is the number 7M42876M
divisible by 11? (a) 7 (c) 19

(a) 0 (c) 4 (b) 17 (d) 21 X

(b) 8 X (d) 9

41. 2185 is a multiple of

34. What will be the quotient when 25698.225 is di-
vided by 21.542? (a) 17 (c) 23 X
(a) 1192.93 X (c) 11929.3 (b) 21 (d) 25
(b) 119.293 (d) 119293

42. Which of the given option is not a form of real

35. In which number system is (242+444) divisible by
number?
10?
(a) Rational numbers
(a) Hexa system
(b) Irrational numbers X
(b) Decimal system X
(c) Fractions
(c) Octal system
(d) None of these
(d) Penta system

6
43. Find the smallest number, which when divided by 48. Which is the largest possible two digit number
3, 5 and 7 leaves a remainder 2 in each case, and that divides 32472?
is divisible by 11.
(a) 12 (c) 16
(a) 737 (c) 105
(b) 11 X (d) 18
(b) 735 (d) 107 X
44. On dividing a number by 999, the quotient is 366 49. Which number should be added to 306 so that it
and the remainder is 103. The number is becomes prime?

(a) 364724 (c) 365737 X (a) 3 (c) 4

(b) 365387 (d) 366757 (b) 5 (d) 1 X

45. Which of the following is the set of all the positive 50. Let C be a positive integer such that C + 7 is
integers? divisible by 5. The smallest positive integer n (n
> 2) such that 𝐶  𝑛 is divisible by 5 is:
(a) 0, 1, 2, 3, . . . (c) 2, 4, 6, 8, . . .
(a) 4 (c) 6 X
(b) 1, 2, 3, 4, . . . X (d) 2, 5, 7, 11, . . .
(b) 5 (d) Does not exist
46. The product of a number and its multiplicative
inverse is 51. Two numbers, x and y, when divided by 6 leave a
remainder of 4 and 5, what will be the remainder
(a) –1 (c) 1 X when x +y is divisible by 6?

(b) 0 (d) None of these (a) 6 (c) 1

(b) 9 (d) 5 X
47. The number 456⋆85 is completely divisible by 3.
Smallest whole digit number in place of * can be

(a) 0 (c) 2 X
(b) 1 (d) 3

7
1.1.3 Unit Digit

1. What is unit digit of the following sum 2. What is the unit digit in   ?
      ?
(a) 1 X (c) 12
(a) 0 (c) 7
(b) 5 (d) 20
(b) 4 (d) 9 X

1.1.4 Square of a Number

1. What is the least number by which 16,800 must 6. Find the smallest number that should be multi-
be divided to get a number which is a perfect plied with 54000 to make it a perfect cube.
square?
(a) 4 X (c) 5
(a) 42 X (c) 21
(b) 27 (d) 3
(b) 24 (d) 40

2. What is the least perfect square, which is divisible 7. What is the least number which should be added
by 24, 30 and 60? to 1330 to make it a perfect square?

(a) 1600 (c) 14400 (a) 56 (c) 41

(b) 3600 X (d) 32400 (b) 1 X (d) 30

3. What is the least number by which 1470 must be 8. What should be multiplied to 2880 to make it as
divided to get a number which is a perfect square? a perfect square?

(a) 7 (c) 35 (a) 2 (c) 5 X

(b) 30 X (d) 42 (b) 3 (d) 7

4. What is the least number which should be added 9. What is the smallest number that should be mul-
to 0.0282 to make it a perfect square? tiplied to 12348 to make it a perfect square?

(a) 0.0007 X (c) 0.0002 (a) 3 (c) 5

(b) 0.0042 (d) 0.0003 (b) 4 (d) 7 X

5. What should be multiplied to 2880 to make it as 10. What is the smallest square number which is di-
a perfect square? visible by 2,4,5,6, and 9?

(a) 2 (c) 5 X (a) 180 (c) 900 X

(b) 3 (d) 7 (b) 360 (d) None

8
11. What is the number which should be subtracted 12. What is the smallest number that should be di-
from 682 to make it a perfect square? vided by 10500 to make it a perfect cube?

(a) 8 (c) 4 (a) 4 (c) 12

(b) 2 (d) 6 X (b) 84 X (d) 21

9
1.1.5 Simplification

(︁ )︁− }︂− − − × −
[︃{︂ ]︃
1. Simplify 7. What is the value of −
 × −
(a) 4906 X (c) 4960 (a) 0 (c) 5

(b) 4096 (d) 4690 (b) 2 X (d) None

− ]︁ − (︀ )︀
𝑎
[︁
2. Simplify


8. What is the value of
𝑎

√ √
(a) X (c) (a) 7a (c) 𝑎−
(b) 6 (d) 4 (b) 𝑎 X (d) None of these

3. Solve: × 
 × 
 9. Solve:  ×

(a) 
 X (c) 

(a)  (c) 

(b) 
 (d) None (b)  X (d) 

4. Splve:     10. What is the value of the expression?

(︀ )︀
×
×  × − × × − × −  × −  × × −

(a) 1019 (c) 1026 

(a)  X (c) 4
(b) 1029 (d) 1023 X
(b) (d) 

(︁ )︁− (︁ )︁− (︁ )︁ 𝑥
5. 
, Find x
(︁ )︁
 ×  11. The value of 
is:

(a) 3 (c) -6 (a) (c)

(b) -3 X (d) 2 (b) X (d) 

6. Find the value of x, if 82x ÷8–5 = 87 12. What are the value of × × 
?


(a) 1 X (c) -1 (a) 0 (c)

(b) 0 (d) None (b) 3 X (d) None of these

10
13. Which number is the fourth power of 7? 20. What is the value of . 
?
(a) 2,401 X (c) 2,601 (a) 0.3 X (c) 0.003
(b) 2,421 (d) 2,621 (b) 0.03 (d) None of these

14. Find the value of 𝑥. .

𝑥 . 21. If  𝑎
× 𝑏  , then 𝑎𝑏

(a) 0.0009 (c) 0.9 X (a) 0 (c) -1X

(b) 0.09 (d) 9 (b) 2 (d) 4

𝑛−
22. If 𝑛− then the value of n is
]︀
15. Solve: −  −  −
[︀


(a) 0 (c) -1 (a) 3 (c) 0

(b) 1 X (d) None of these (b) 2 X (d) -2

(︁ )︁− 23. If 𝑚𝑛  , then 𝑚

𝑛
16. What is the value of −

(a)  (c)
(a) 
 (c) 

(b) 
X (d)
(b) 

X (d) 


17. What is 𝑧 in − .𝑧   24. Find the number to be multiplied by −
− , so

as to get −
− as the product?
(a) 0.14 X (c) 0.014
(a) X (c)
(b) 1.4 (d) 14 (︁ )︁−
(b) (d) None of these

18. Solve − − 25. Simplify: 0.3434. . . +0.696969. . . +0.8080. . .

(︀ − )︀
+0.4444. . . +0.3333. . . -0.7070
(a) (c)
(a) 1 X (c) 1.1489
(b) − X (d) None of the above
(b) 1.5 (d) 1.919

.   . 26. What number should be divided by .
to

19. Evaluate:
.  − . × .  . give the result as 81?
(a) 0.88 (c) 0
(a) 90 X (c) 9
(b) 0.088 (d) 10 X
(b) 81 (d) 72.9

11
27. What is the value of the expression, 32. What will be the Value of the expression 𝑎 ×𝑎− 
 

×   − × 
 of ? ?
(a) 26 (c) 34 (a) 𝑎− (c) 𝑎
(b) 13 (d) 33 X (b) 𝑎− (d) 𝑎 X

28. Solve: .  × . 33. What is the value of 𝑎, 𝑦
in

(︀ −  −𝑎× 𝑦
)︀

 × −
(a) 0.000000133 (c) 0.001331
(a) ,
(c) ,−
X
(b) 0.0000001331 X (d) 0.1331
(b) ,
(d) − ,

29. What will be the value of x in the expression? 34.  ×

 −  𝑥
(a)  (c) 
(a) 44 (c) 86
(b)  X (d) 
(b) 46 (d) 88 X

35. If 𝑥  and 𝑦 , then 𝑥  𝑦 is


30. Find n if 𝑛 −

(a) 219 X (c) 237 (a) 2 (c) 6 X

(b) 218 (d) None of these (b) 3 (d) 0

36. Which of the given options is true for the value of

⎯ √︃
⎸ √︂
⎸ √︁ √ 0.999?
31. Solve −  −  
⎷

√ √ (a) It is equal to 1.
(a)  X (c)
√ (b) It is less than 1. X
(b) 1 (d)
(c) It is equal to 0.9

(d) None of the above

12
1.1.6 Fraction

1. Write 0.555. . . .as a fraction. 7. The ascending order of rational numbers ,  ,

− −
−
is
(a) (c)
(a) ,
− −
, −
X (c) −
, − , −
(b)  X (d)  

(b) , 
− −
,− (d) −
, − , −

2. Write 

as a mixed fraction
8. Write 81 as in proper fraction.
(a) 75  (c) 74  X
(a) (c) 
X
(b) 75  (d) 70 
(b) (d)

3. Write 4.004 as a fraction of the lowest form.

9. Divide the sum of and 
by their difference.
(a) 
(c) 
X
 (a) 
 (c)
(b) 
(d) 

(b) 
 X (d) None of the above

4. 𝑎
is a fraction where a < b. if n is added to both
𝑏 10. Which of the following numbers is the smallest
numerator and denominator, then which one if
number?
greater 𝑎𝑏 or 𝑎𝑛
𝑏𝑛
(a) X (c)
(a) 𝑎
𝑏 (c) 𝑎𝑛
𝑏𝑛 X
(b) (d)
(b) Both are equal (d) None of these 

5. Which of the following fractions is the largest? 11. Among the following options, which one does not
lie in the given range :  < 𝑥 < 
(a) 
X (c) 
(a)  X (c)
(b)  (d) 

(b) (d) None of these

6. –3.4 is a number on the real number line. If we 12. Arrange , ,  and in ascending order.
  

subtract 1 from this number then the new number
will be (a) 
, , 
 and 


(a) Farther from the origin than – 3.4 X (b) ,  , 

 
and 


(b) Closer to the origin than – 3.4 (c)  ,


,

and 


(c) Equally farther from the origin, as – 3.4 is (d)  ,


, 
 and 
 X
(d) None of the above

13
13. Express the fraction 
as number upto 3 decimal 16. Which of the following fractions is the smallest?

points.
(a) 
 (c) 
(a) 1.429 (c) 1.321
(b)  X (d) 

(b) 1.535 (d) 1.529 X

14. Which of the two is greater:  or 

? 17. Find the value of   
  
.

(a)  X (c) Both are Equal (a) (c) 

X
(b) 
(b)  (d) 


15. What is the relation between the fractions and 18. What is the value of square of 7 , when it is
? expressed as a mixed fraction?


(a) 
 (c) < 
 (a) 49 (c) 56 X
(b) > 
 X (d) None of these (b) 49 (d) 14

14
1.1.7 Square and Cube Root

√
1. Write  as a mixed surd. 8. If 𝑥− 𝑥− , then what is the value of x?
√ √
(a)  X (c)  (a) 2 (c) 7 X
√ √
(b)  (d)  (b) -1 (d) No value

2. Which of the following is greatest among the four 9. Which of the given expression has a largest value?
given values of x?
√ √ (a)  (c) 
(a) 𝑥 (c) 𝑥
√ √ (b)  (d) X
(b) 𝑥 (d) 𝑥 

√
3. What is the value of the expression .  ? 10. Find the cube of .


(a) 0.03 (c) 0.09 (a)  × (c)  × 

(b) 0.3 X (d) 0.27 (b)  ×  X (d)  ×

4. What is the square root of  ?


11. 𝑥 𝑦 − 𝑥𝑦

(a) 4 (c) 12 (a) 𝑥𝑦 𝑥−𝑦

X (c) 𝑥𝑦 𝑥𝑦−

𝑥 𝑥𝑦𝑦 𝑥 −𝑥𝑦𝑦
(b) 8 X (d) 16 𝑥𝑦 𝑥−𝑦
𝑥𝑦
(b) 𝑥 −𝑥𝑦𝑦
(d) 𝑥 𝑦


5. If 𝑛 , what is the value of n? 12. What is the value of − ?

(a) 220 X (c) 200 (a) − (c) -36



(b) 238 (d) 0 (b) 36 (d) None of these X

* * 
13. [︁What is the value of x ]︁in the expression,
6. What are the value of ? √ √
   . − 𝑥 . 
(a) 0 (c)
(a) × − (c) × −
(b) 3 X (d) None of these
(b) × − (d) × − X
𝑛 × 𝑚 ×
7. If ×
×  ×
, then (m,n) is:

(a) 1,7 (c) 2,8 X

(b) 8,2 (d) 4,4

15
1.1.8 Factors and Remainders

1. The total number of prime factors of 7. Find remainder when 888 repeated 63 times di-
 ×
× ×
is vided by 9.

(a) 45 (c) 90 (a) 1 (c) 3

(b) 84 (d) 111 X (b) 2 (d) 0 X

2. In how many ways can a number 6084 be written 8. What is the highest power of 2 in the given ex-
as a product of two different factors? pression  × ×  × × −
?

(a) 27 (c) 13 X (a) 18 (c) 15

(b) 26 (d) 14 (b) 17 (d) 19 X

3. The total number of prime factors of 9. What is the greatest positive power of 5 that di-
×
× 
 × 
is: vides 30! Exactly?

(a) 47 (c) 72 (a) 5 (c) 7

(b) 60 (d) 94 X (b) 6 X (d) 9

4. How zeros does the following product have: 10. What is the remainder if is divided by 6?
× × × × · 
(a) 1 (c) 3
(a) 21 (c) 26
(b) 2 X (d) 5
(b) 24 X (d) 20

5. What is the remainder of  is divided by 7? 11. What is the remainder of  − is divided

by 11?
(a) 25 (c) 1

(b) 8 (d) 3 X (a) 1 (c) 3

(b) 2 (d) 0 X

6. When is divided by 5, the remainder is

(a) 2 (c) 4

(b) 3 X (d) 0

16
1.1.9 Problem on Numbers / Word Problems

1. Sara has 400 marble. If she gives

𝑡ℎ
of her mar- 7. What is the least amount that a person can have,
𝑡ℎ such that when he distributes it into groups of
bles to Sam and Sam gives of his marbles to
Rs.16 or Rs.18 or Rs.20 or Rs.25, he is always left
David, then how man marbles does Sam have left?
with Rs.4?
(a) 80 (c) 60
(a) Rs.1,796 (c) Rs.2,596
(b) 20 X (d) 200
(b) Rs.1,804 (d) Rs.3,604 X
2. 47,322 bulbs are to be packed in several boxes.
8. The population of a town three years ago was ‘b’
Each box should contain equal numbers of bulbs
and the population of the town three years from
and no bulb should be left unpacked. Number of
now will be ‘c’. What is the current population of
boxes used can be:
the town, if it grows at the same rate?
(a) 12 (c) 8 √ √
(a) 𝑏𝑐 X (c) 𝑐 𝑏
(b) 11 X (d) 14 √ √︁
(b) 𝑏 𝑐 (d) 𝑏 𝑏
𝑐
3. Sameer plants 7225 plants, so that there are as
many rows as there are trees in a row. How many 9. Abu company provides taxi for call center em-
trees are there in a row? ployees. The company has 7 Taveras, 5 Qualis, 6
Innovas and few small cars. If Tavera makes one
(a) 75 (c) 85 X fourth of the total fleet, how many small cars are
there in the company?
(b) 95 (d) 65
(a) 12 (c) 6
4. Length and breadth of a rectangle are directly (b) 7 (d) 10 X
proportional. If length increases from 6 cm to 21
cm and if breadth now is 14 cm, then what was 10. In a miniature wonderland, three countries Aus-
the breadth before any change in length occurred? tria and America occupied  and  of the display
area respectively, what is the display area occu-
(a) 4 cm X (c) 2 cm pied by Germany?

(b) 1.5 cm (d) 3cm (a) (c) 

 X
5. The packaging unit of a factory has two panels. (b)  (d) None
Each of the panel contains 4 rows of times stored.
Each row has 4 kinds of times that are to be 11. Recycling 900 kg of paper saves 17 trees. How
packed. How many items are stored for packaging many trees are saved when 1200 kg of paper are
in the packaging unit? recycled?

(a) (c) (a) 19 (c) 20

(︀ )︀

(b) (d) X (b) 25 (d) 22 X

6. of the paper produced can be recycled. If 12. Out of every 100 people in police department, 10
6,42,400 tonnes of paper is produced, what quan- are women. Out of every 100 people in military
tity of recycled paper can be made after its use? forces, 3 are women. In a batch of 180 police
personnel and 200 army personnel, how many of
(a) 3,92,000 tonnes them would be women?
(b) 2,92,000 tonnes X (a) 24 X (c) 18
(c) 1,92,000 tonnes
(b) 30 (d) 6
(d) 4,92,000 tonnes

17
13. Sudha purchased 3 kg potato from market. She 18. In a section of cinema hall, seats are arranged so
used of it in cooking baked potatoes and of that each row has the same number of seats. Ab-
remaining in mixed vegetables. What quantity of dul is seated in the 5th row from the front and
potatoes is she left with? 3rd row form the back. If his seat is 6th from the
left and 2nd from the right, how many seats are
(a) 15 kg (c) 1 kg X there in this section?
(b) 2 kg (d) 2.5 kg (a) 52 (c) 45

(b) 49 X (d) 55
14. A bread making machine can make bread of 50
kg dough in 3 minutes. How many such machines 19. The distance from the pavilion to the food court
are required to make breads of 300 kg dough in 6 on the map is 3.5cm. If map is of the scale 1 cm
minutes? = 10m, what is the actual distance?

(a) 6 (c) 4 (a) 25m (c) 35m X

(b) 3 X (d) 5 (b) 36m (d) 40m

20. A number when divided by the sum of 625 and

15. To fill a storage tank of wheat, 20 containers full 515 gives a quotient that is 5 times the differ-
of wheat are required. How many containers of ence between 625 and 515 and remainder as zero.
wheat will be required to fill the same tank if the What is the number?
capacity of the containers is reduced to two-fifth
of their present capacity? (a) 632500 (c) 617500

(a) 30 (c) 50 X (b) 627000 X (d) 642000

(b) 25 (d) 60 21. Pulse rate of a teenager is 12 beats in 10 sec. At

this rate, would his pulse rate be more than, equal
16. The sum of the squares of 3 numbers is 170, while to, or less than 100 beats per minute?
the sum of their products taken two at a time is
157. What is the sum of the numbers? (a) Less than X (c) Equal to

(a) 20 (c) 24 (b) Greater than (d) Data insufficient

(b) 22 X (d) 28 22. In a match, awards are given to each of 11 mem-

bers of the team and a trophy to the team. In all
winning team gets 2.75 kg weight awards. If the
weight of match wining trophy is 1.275kg. What
17. Three marketers distribute their products in a
is the weight of the award given to each to each
colony for pilot testing. Marketer A distributes
player?
150 items to the people equally and then was left
with a few items. Marketer B distributes 270
(a) 200 grams (c) 124 grams
items to the people equally and then was left with
the same number of items as the number left with (b) 150 grams (d) 134 grams X
Marketer A. Marketer C distributes 320 items to
the people and is left with the same number of 23. A car engine is half filled and holds 15 litres of
items as the number left with Marketer A. What petrol. What fraction of the engine is full if it
is the maximum possible number of people in the contains 18 litres of petrol?
colony?
(a) (c)
(a) 10 X (c) 75
(b) (d) X
(b) 50 (d) 100

18
24. In a class of 80 students, of them own cars. If 30. A teacher was trying to form the groups of stu-
dents in such a way that every group has equal
 of them own Alto then how many own alto?
number of students and that number should be a
(a) 64 (c) 60 X prime number. She tried for first 5 prime num-
bers, but on each occasion exactly one student
(b) 20 (d) Data inconsistent was left behind. If the number of students is in
4 digits, then how many different values can the
25. Martha was supposed to multiply the number of total no. of students take?
cans sold with the price of one can to ascertain
the amount earned by her. Instead of taking 41 (a) 0 (c) 3
as the number of cans, she wrote 14 by mistake. (b) 2 (d) 4 X
As a result, the product went down by 135. What
is the other multiplier? 31. If the difference of two numbers is 8 and the dif-
ference of their squares is 160, then the numbers
(a) 5 X (c) 9 are

(b) 7 (d) 12 (a) 18, 10 (c) 6, 14 X

26. Sum of the digits of a 3 digit number is subtracted (b) 8, 16 (d) None of the above
from the number. The resulting number is divis-
32. Suresh Gajapure is a property dealer who owns
ible by
126 acres of undeveloped land. If the property
(a) 6 (c) Both 6 and 9 is divided into 2  acre pieces, then how many
houses can be built, if one house is built per piece
(b) 9 X (d) All 3, 6 and 9 of land?

27. During Quality Control Conference, if 30 employ- (a) 34 (c) 31

ees are seated in a column, then 50 columns could
be formed. However, if 25 employees are seated (b) 46 X (d) 47
in a column, then how many such columns could 33. Namita has 4.2 kg of flour. She has been asked to
be formed? make 5 cup cakes out of every ½ kg flour. How
many cupcakes can she bake out of the flour she
(a) 105 (c) 75 has?

(b) 100 (d) 60 X (a) 21 (c) 30

28. The largest measuring cylinder that can accu- (b) 24 (d) 42 X
rately fill 3 tanks of capacity 98, 182 and 266 liters
each, is of capacity 34. A number is to be multiplied by the fraction .
But Samir, by mistake, multiplied it by and ob-
(a) 2 litres (c) 14 litres X tained the number 81 more than the correct one.
What was the original number?
(b) 7 litres (d) 98 litres
(a) 200 (c) 180 X
29. A dividend of Rs.504 lakhs for shares was an-
nounced by a company. 100 employees cum share (b) 120 (d) 240
holders get Rs.3.60 lakhs each and the share
35. What will be the value of a and b a8+96=1ab?
holder who is not the employee gets Rs.2.40 lakhs
each. How many shareholders are there who not (a) 2,9 (c) 8,4 X
employees are?
(b) 2,8 (d) 8,5
(a) 80 (c) 70

(b) 60 X (d) 50

19
 𝑡ℎ
36. Steward assigns  of his monthly salary on food. 42. There are four prime numbers written in ascend-
Steward’s total food bill for the month is Rs. ing order of magnitude. The product of first three
6500. What is steward’s yearly salary? is 385 and that of last three is 1001. Find the first
number
(a) Rs. 9,750 (c) Rs. 5,76,000
(a) 5 X (c) 6
(b) Rs. 12,174 (d) Rs. 6,24,000 X
(b) 7 (d) 13
37. A Boy read  of the book on one day and of the 43. Out of the 500 bottles of milk has poison. Rats
remainder on the other day if there were 30 pages will drink the milk samples. Effects will be visi-
unread, how many pages did the book contain? ble after 1 hour. What is the minimum number
of rats required to find out the poisoned bottle?
(a) 180 (c) 220

(b) 240 X (d) 260 (a) 1 X (c) 3

(b) 2 (d) 4
38. In a section of cinema hall, seats are arranged so
that each row has the same number of seats. Ab- 44. P is an integer. P>883. If P-7 is a multiple of 11,
dul is seated in the 5th row from the front and what is the largest number that will always divide
3rd row form the back. If his seat is 6th from the (P+4) (P+15)?
left and 2nd from the right, how many seats are
there in this section? (a) 11 (c) 242 X
(a) 52 (c) 45 (b) 121 (d) None of these

(b) 49 X (d) 55 45. Write 
 as a number, in the number system

with base 8.
39. The distance from the pavilion to the food court
on the map is 3.5cm. If map is of the scale 1 cm (a) 9161 (c) 19161
= 10m, what is the actual distance?
(b) 1161 X (d) 1061
(a) 25m (c) 35m X 46. What is the value of  
in decimal number
(b) 36m (d) 40m system?

(a) 42 (c) 20
40. A watch manufacturing company is testing watch
alarms. They program alarms of all the watches (b) 18 (d) 21 X
to beep simultaneously. The alarms start beeping
at intervals of 5, 8, 10, 15 and 21 seconds respec- 47. A number become a perfect square when we sub-
tively. In an hour, how many times do the alarms tract 1 from it. Which of the given options CAN-
beep together? NOT be the last digit of that number

(a) 1 (c) 3 (a) 2 X (c) 5

(b) 2 (d) 4 X (b) 4 (d) 0

41. If |𝑋|  |𝑌 |  then what is the sum of minimum 48. Sandeep has cubic wooden blocks of height 8
and maximum value of X + Y? inches. Pankaj has the blocks of height 12 inches.
How many of each would each of them need, to
(a) (c) 7 build an equal height structure?
(b) -7 (d) 0 X (a) 4 (c) 12

(b) 8 (d) 24 X

20
49. The tremors of earthquake were felt at intervals of 52. A juice container was full. Ravinder poured 4
15 seconds. The first tremor was felt at 08:54:57 glasses from it and then poured two glasses back.
and last tremor was felt at 10:45:2. How many The container is full now. How many glass less
times were the tremors felt? can be filled if the entire container of juice is emp-
tied?
(a) 484 (c) 441 X
(a) 32 (c) 44
(b) 485 (d) 525
(b) 36 (d) 40 X
50. Supremo Coal limited 8 tons of coal on Tuesday,
53. Rahul purchased 7 Dvds each of which costs Rs.
5 tons of coal on Monday and 9 ½ tons of coal
17. He gave a five hundred rupee note to the shop-
on Wednesday. If the goal is to mine 30 tons of
keeper. The amount returned to him is divisible
coal this week then how many more tons of coal
by:
needs to be mined?
(a) 3 X (c) 9
(a) 23.59 tons (c) 6.89 tons
(b) 7 (d) 11
(b) 7.56 tons (d) 6.41 tons X
51. 2 friends decide to race around a circular track of
300 meters. Parvathi covers 5 meter per second
and finishes the race in 45 seconds. Given that
number of footsteps per second is same for both,
how long are Rita’s steps if she finishes 30 seconds
later?

(a) 4 (c) 6

(b) 3 X (d) 10

21
1.2 Percentage

1. When the price of a pair of shoes is decreased by 7. When 40 is subtracted from 50% of a number,
10%, the number of pairs sold increased by 20%. the result is 50% of 500. Find one-tenth of the
What is the net effect on sales? number.

(a) 8% decrease (c) 10% increase (a) 290 (c) 750

(b) 10% decrease (d) 8% increase X (b) 580 X (d) 870

2. Three successive discounts of 6%, 10%, 15% are 8. A pie has to be divided amongst few kids. Puneet
equal to a single discount of 𝑡ℎ 𝑡ℎ
gets  portion of the pie and Sheela gets  por-
tion of the pie. Who amongst the two gets lesser
(a) 25% (c) 30%
share?
(b) 28.90% (d) 28.09% X (a) Puneet X
3. If Anita scores 66 out of hundred then how much (b) Both get equal share
does she score out of 75? (c) Sheela
(a) 50 X (c) 66 (d) Cannot be determined
(b) 60 (d) 45 9. A television manufacturing company has decided
to increase the sale to beat the economic slow-
4. Micro-Sims Pvt. Lid. Produces 1,200 phones ev- down. It decides to reduce the price of television
ery day. If out of these, 2 % are faulty and 4 % sets by 25% as a result of which the sale increased
are defective in packing, then how many non-fault by 20%.What is the effect on the total revenue of
and non-defective packaged phones are produced the company?
every day?
(a) Decreased by 20%
(a) 80 (c) 1080
(b) Increased by 20%
(b) 120 (d) 1120 X
(c) Increased by 10%
5. Manu has invested 30% of his capital in petro (d) Decreased by 10% X
bonds and rest in a life insurance plan. He has
invested Rs. 34,000 more in life insurance plan 10. In an election, the winning candidate won by 15%
than petro bonds. How much is the total invest- votes. If a total of 5,000 votes were cast of which
ment made by Manu? only 86% were eligible, then how many votes did
the winning candidate get?
(a) Rs.25, 500 (c) Rs.85, 000 X
(b) Rs.59, 500 (d) Rs.95, 000 (a) 2,000 (c) 2,300 X
(b) 1,800 (d) 4,300
6. A salesman has a record of selling even rejected
pieces to his customers without letting them know
11. Which of the given multipliers will cause a num-
that the product is actually faulty. His skills are
ber to be increased by 29.7%?
rated with a probability of 80% efficiency. If he is
given 20 faulty items, how many will be able to
(a) 1.297 X (c) 129.7
sell?
(b) 12.97 (d) 1297
(a) 80 (c) 16 X
(b) 20 (d) 4

22
12. A trend was observed in the growth of popula- 17. In a mall, 20% area is occupied by eateries, 60%
tion in Saya Islands. The population tripled ev- area is open. In the remaining area of 1600 sq me-
ery month. Initially the population of Saya Is- ter, there are different showrooms. What is the
lands was 100. What would be population after total area occupied by the mall?
4 months?
(a) 10,000 sq m (c) 8,000 sq m X
(a)  × (c)  × ×
(b) 5,000 sq m (d) 4,800 sq m
(b)  × X (d) 

18. In an election between two candidates, one got
13. In a town of 2,00,000 citizens, if the population 55% of the total valid votes and total 20% votes
increases at the rate of 4% per annum, then what were invalid. At the end of the day when the total
will be the population of the town in 2 years from number of votes were counted, the total number
now? was found to be 7500. So what was the total num-
ber of valid votes that the loosing candidate got:
(a) 2, 10,000 (c) 1, 84, 320
(a) 4800 (c) 3400
(b) 3, 55, 555 (d) 2, 16, 320 X
(b) 2400 (d) 2700 X
14. An employee has to attain 70% marks during ap-
praisals to get a promotion. He gets 75 marks 19. The price of CNG is increased by 25% by the gov-
and does not qualify for a promotion since ha ernment a car owner tries to cut down on his CNG
falls short of 30 marks in the ratings. What is consumption by various means such as carpool-
the maximum score that an employee can attain ing, using public transport etc. By how much %
in the appraisal ratings? should the car owner decrease his consumption
of CNG, in order to maintain the same budget
(a) 110 (c) 175 for using his car for commuting. Ignore other ex-
penses such as maintenance of car etc.
(b) 150 X (d) 300
(a) 10% increase (c) 10% decrease
15. If the price of onions soared higher by 15%. Shiny (b) 20% increase (d) 20% decrease X
reduced the consumption of onions for this rea-
son by 10%. By how much % will her expense for
onion increase or decrease?

(a) 3.5% increase X (c) 26.5% decrease

(b) 3.5% decrease (d) 26.5% increase

16. Population of a village is eight thousand .If 6%

men and 10% women are added, population be-
comes 8600 then number of men in a village was

(a) 3,800 (c) 5,000 X

(b) 4,200 (d) 5,250

23
1.3 Profit and Loss

1. In a scheme, a pack of three soaps with MRP 6. Shalom offered to sell his ancestral house for
Rs.45 is available for Rs.42. If it still gives a profit Rs.18, 400. If he had charged 10% less, he would
of 5% to the shopkeeper, then the cost price of the have made a profit of 20%. What is the actual
pack is: cost of the house?

(a) Rs.40 X (c) Rs.41 (a) Rs.15,800 (c) Rs.13,800 X

(b) Rs.37 (d) Rs.35 (b) Rs.14,500 (d) Rs.12,500
7. 3 empty CD and 2 pen drives cost Rs.790.2 empty
2. Shobhit bought 300 litres of milk at Rs.19 per
CDs and 3 pen drives cost Rs.1110. What is the
litre. He added 200 litres of water to it and sold
cost of one pen drive?
400 litres of this milk at Rs.20 per litre. To the
rest, he added 10 litres more water and then sold (a) Rs.30 (c) Rs.25
it for Rs.15 per litre. If he used mineral water
that costs Rs.10 per litre, then the total money (b) Rs.350 X (d) Rs.300
earned by Shobhit is:

(a) Rs.4,000 (c) Rs.1,800 8. Sawroop draws a certain amount of money from
the ATM machine. Numbers of Rs.500 notes are
(b) Rs.4,150 (d) Rs.1,850 X double the number of Rs.100 notes. What can be
the possible amount drawn?

3. If the price of rice increases by 30%, then by what (a) 5,000 (c) 10,000
percent should its consumption be decreased so
that the total expenditure remains same? (b) 8,800 X (d) 9,500
9. A real estate developer purchased 2 acres of land
(a) 76.92% (c) 30% for Rs.15crore. He divided it into 25 residential
(b) 23.07% X (d) 25% plots. He sold them at Rs.25 lakhs per plot. What
is his profit percentage?

(a) About 200% (c) About 366%

4. A book store offers at 10% discount on all the
books sold plus an additional discount of 5% on (b) About 100% (d) About 316% X
the total bill, if the total bill after the initial dis-
count is more than or equal to Rs.1000. Dilshan 10. Body and Soul Gym Centre sells its brand new
bought 3 books worth Rs.450, Rs.520 and Rs.250 treadmill on an online bidding site at a profit of
respectively. How much money was Dilshan able 20%. Had the centre sold the treadmill for Rs.500
to save as a result of the various discounts offered more, the profit would have been 25%. How much
by the store? did the treadmill cost gym centre when they had
bought it initially?
(a) Rs.102 (c) Rs.61
(a) 5,000 (c) 10,000 X
(b) Rs.176.9 X (d) Rs.183
(b) 6,000 (d) 15,000
5. What is the loss percentage incurred by a com- 11. Deepak sells 50 shirts at the cost price of 60 shirts.
pany when it buys an asset for Rs.1,50,000 and His pain percent is:
sells it for Rs.75,500
(a) 0.15 (c) 0.25
(a) 49.67% X (c) 98.68%
(b) 0.1 (d) 0.2 X
(b) 49.34% (d) 98.34%

24
12. A seller buys 10 phone chargers for Rs.800 and 18. The printed price on a book is Rs.400; a book-
sells them at the rate of Rs.100 per charger. His seller offers a 10% discount on it. If he still earns
gain percent is: a profit of 12%, then the cost price of the book is:

(a) 0.25 X (c) 0.3 (a) Rs.280 (c) Rs.360

(b) 0.2 (d) 0.15 (b) Rs.321 X (d) Rs.300

13. A showroom offers a 10% discount on a mi- 19. Atul bought a machine for Rs.4,50,000 and sold it
crowave, whose marked price is Rs.8,000, and also to Irfan who later sold the machine to Danish at
gives a blender worth Rs.1,200 as a complimen- a loss of 10% for Rs.4,95,000. The profit earned
tary gift with it. Even then, the showroom earns by Atul is
a profit of 20%. The cost price per microwave is:
(a) 23% (c) 25%
(a) Rs.7,200 (c) Rs.5,000 X
(b) 21% (d) 22.22% X
(b) Rs.6,000 (d) Rs.4,000 20. A salesman has the liberty to sell a hair dryer
14. As noted through past experiences, the rate of in his store at a price between Rs.300 and Rs.700.
increase in price of sugar is 1000% compounded Profit earned by selling the hair dryer for Rs.650 is
annually. What will be the cost per kg of sugar twice the loss incurred when it is sold for Rs.350.
as sold by Surya Sugars in 2012 if it sells at Rs. What is the cost price of the hair dryer?
5 in 2010?
(a) Rs.550 X (c) Rs.350
(a) Rs.72 (c) Rs.5,000 (b) Rs.450 (d) Rs.150
(b) Rs.605 X (d) Rs.1,024 21. A retail store has an off season sale going on
15. Zegna car was in rage two years back and it cost for the customers. The sweaters are being sold
Rs.5,60,000 then, Now, however, with many new at 40% discount. Customers having membership
hi-tech cars coming into the market, the price of cards are given additional discount. A lady who
the car has dipped tot Rs.4,00,000. Find the de- has a membership card comes to the store and
crease in price of the car as a percentage of the buys a sweater of MRP Rs.1,980. After the dis-
old price. counts she gets the sweater for Rs.900. What is
the membership discount of the store?
(a) 28% (c) 40%
(a) 11.88% (c) 24.24%
(b) 28.575% X (d) 71.42%
16. Jaya bought a car worth Rs.3,50,000 four years (b) 19.84% (d) 14.54% X
ago. If the value of the car depreciates over time 22. Riya sold her car for Rs.50,000 less than what she
at a fixed rate 10% per annum, then what will be bought it for and lost 8%. At what price should
the present worth of the car? she have sold the car, if she wanted to gain as
much as she lost in the first transaction?
(a) Rs.2,29,635 X (c) Rs.2,30,000
(a) Rs.6,25,000 (c) Rs.6,75,000 X
(b) Rs.2,50,000 (d) Rs.2,55,150
(b) Rs.6,50,000 (d) Rs.6,37,500
17. Amit bought 10 cycles for Rs.1,750 each. He sold
four cycles for Rs.8,400, three for Rs.1,900 each. 23. If at 15% profit, the selling price of dozen pen-
At what price should he sell the remaining cycles cils is Rs.13.80; then what is the cost price of a
so as to earn an average profit of Rs.320 per cycle? pencil?

(a) Rs.1,900 (c) Rs.1,800 (a) Rs.1.15 (c) Rs.0.85

(b) Rs.2,000 (d) Rs.2,200 X (b) Rs.1 X (d) Rs.1.10

25
24. The list price of an electric iron is Rs.300. If two 31. Every year before the festive season, a shopkeeper
successive discounts of 15% and 10% are allowed, increases the price of the products by 35% and
its selling price will be then introduces two successive discounts of 10%
and 15% respectively. What is his percentage loss
(a) Rs.229.50 X (c) Rs.232.50 or gain?
(b) Rs.231.50 (d) Rs.234.50 (a) 3.27% loss (c) No profit,No loss
25. A supplier supplies cartridges to a newspaper
publishing house. He earns a profit of 20% by (b) 3.27% gain X (d) 8.875% loss
selling cartridges for Rs.540. Find the cost price
32. A person buys a mobile phone for Rs.7,500 and
of the cartridges.
sold it for Rs.6,000. What is the loss percentage?
(a) Rs.500 (c) Rs.450 X (a) 25% X (c) 15%
(b) Rs.480 (d) Rs.400
(b) 10% (d) 20%
26. Deepak sells 50 shirts at the cost price of 60 shirts.
His gain percent is:
33. Rahul bought a car for Rs.4,50,000. Next year, a
(a) 0.15 (c) 0.25 new version of car will be launched which is 1.5
times costlier than the make Rahul has. Com-
(b) 0.1 (d) 0.2 X pany offers to buy back the older version at 
of its original price. How much more does Rahul
27. A man sells 12 candles for Rs.12 & loses Rs.2.40. have to pay now?
If he sells 12candies for Rs.16, how much does he
gain or lose? (a) Rs.2,47,050 (c) Rs.2,47,500 X
(a) Gain Rs.4 (c) Loses Rs.1.60 (b) Rs.2,47,005 (d) Rs.2,45,000

(b) Gains Rs.6.40 (d) Gains Rs.1.60 X 34. A flower seller purchases roses at Rs.96 a dozen
and sells them at Rs.10 per flower. What is the
profit percent of the flower seller?
28. A vendor purchases binder clips at 12 for Rs.60.
How many clips should he sell for Rs.60 to earn a (a) 10% (c) 15%
profit of 20%? (b) 20% (d) 25% X
(a) 5 (c) 6
35. A women sold 15 bed sheets for rs.15,000. Hence
(b) 8 (d) 10 X gaining 5 bedsheet’s cost prices. The cost per
29. If by selling 10 papayas, the cost price of 8 pa- sheet is
payas is realized, then the loss percent is
(a) Rs.654 (c) Rs.750 X
(a) 20% X (c) 8%
(b) Rs.728 (d) Rs.825
(b) 10% (d) 2%

36. A real estate developer purchased 2 acres of land

30. A sale was announced in a shop for 25% on all
for Rs.1.5 cores. He divided it into 25 residen-
items. Recognizing the loss, the owner increased
tial plots. He sold them at Rs.25 lakhs per plot.
the price tag of all the items by 15%. What will
What is his profit percentage?
be then net change in the price of an item?

(a) Decrease 13.75% X (a) About 200% (c) About 366%

(b) Increase 13.75% (b) About 100% X (d) About 316%

(c) Decrease 12.75%

(d) Increase 12.75%

26
37. A 20% reduction in the unit cost of an article 40. In an annual sale, there was a flat discount of
enables one to buy 25 items more for Rs. 1000. 40% on all items. Komal bought a pair of jeans
What is the original unit cost of the item? for Rs.480. What is the labeled price of the pair
of jeans?
(a) Rs.12 (c) Rs.10 X
(a) Rs.799 X (c) Rs.699
(b) Rs.8 (d) Rs.15
(b) Rs.899 (d) Rs.720

41. A reduction of 20% in the price of mangoes en-

38. A sells a bicycle to B at a profit of 20%. B sella ables a person to purchase 12 more for Rs. 15.
it to C at 25%. If C pays Rs. 225 for it, the cost What was the price of 16 mangoes before reduc-
price of the bicycle for A is: tion of price ?

(a) 110 (c) 125 (a) Rs.7 (c) Rs.6

(b) 120 (d) 150 X (b) Rs.5 X (d) Rs.9

42. The manufacturing of a certain item can sell all he

can produce at the selling price of Rs. 60 each. It
costs him Rs. 40 in materials and labour to pro-
39. Mauli purchased a designer saree from Mumbai at duce each item and he has overhead expenses of
8/9th of its MRP. When she came back to Delhi, Rs. 3000 per week in order to operate the plant.
her neighbor coaxed Mauli to sell the saree to her. The number of units he should produce and sell
She was even ready to pay 9% more than its MRP. in order to make a profit of at least Rs. 1000 per
What would Mauli’s gain percentage be, if she de- week, is
cides to sell the saree to her neighbor?
(a) 200 X (c) 300
(a) 15.59% (c) 20.36%
(b) 250 (d) 400
(b) 16.61% (d) 22.65% X

27
1.4 Ratio and Proportion

1. 6 Interns and 2 managers working together can 4. If A varies jointly as B and the cube of C when A
do five times the work that an intern and a man- = 200 when B = 5 and C = 2. Find A when B =
ager can do. Calculate the ratio of the working 6 and C = 3?
capacities of an intern and a manger?
(a) 810 X (c) 1070
(a) 3:1 (c) 2:3
(b) 950 (d) 1160
(b) 1:3 X (d) 3:2
5. A bag contains coins of 1 rupee, 2 rupees and 5
2. If the sum of 4 times a number A and 3 times a
rupees in the ratio 4:8:5. The total amount in the
number B is equal to the sum of number B and
bag is Rs. 90. The number of 5 rupee coins is:
seven times the number A, then what is the value
of A:B?
(a) 8 (c) 15
(a) 2:3 X (c) 4:3 (b) 16 (d) 10 X
(b) 3:2 (d) 3:4

3. A bag contains 10-paisa, 20-paisa and 25-paisa

coins in the ratio 7:4:3. If the total value is Rs.90,
then what is the number of 25-paisa coins in the
bag?

(a) 120 X (c) 280

(b) 160 (d) 300

1.5 Mixture & Solution

1. A restaurant prepares 22 litres of a mixture that 2. How many litres of a 90% solution of concentrated
contains litres of water is mixed in this mixture, acid needs to be mixed with a 75% solution of
what will be the percentage of orange essence in concentrated acid to get a 30 L solution of 78%
the new mixture? concentrated acid?

(a) 11% (c) 33% (a) 24 L (c) 6 L X

(b) 22% X (d) 44% (b) 22.5 L (d) 17.5 L

1.6 Partnership

1. A total profit of Rs. 36000 is to be distributed 2. How many toffees were distributed In total among
among rajesh, salesh and rajeev such that rajesh Ankit. Aniket and Anuj in the ratio 2:3:7. if
: salesh :: 5 : 4 and salesh : rajeev :: 8 : 9. what Aniket receives 84 toffees In total?
is the share of Rajeev.
(a) 332 (c) 342
(a) Rs.11,000 (c) Rs.12,000 X
(b) 336 X (d) None of these
(b) Rs.13,000 (d) None

28
1.7 Problem on Ages

1. Ram is five years elder to his youngest sibling 4. Tanya’s grandfather was 8 times older to her 16
Shreya. Shreya is two years younger than her years ago. He would be 3 times of her age 8 years
brother Ritesh. Ritesh is 13 years old and is from now. Eight years ago, what was the ratio of
Ram’s brother. How old will Ram be in two years Tanya’s age to that of her grandfather?
from now?
(a) 1:2 (c) 3:8
(a) 16 (c) 20
(b) 1:5 (d) 11:53 X
(b) 17 (d) 18 X
2. A child’s age is 2/3 of his elder brother. After 5 5. Parul is one-fifth the age her mother was 15 years
years, he will be fourth-fifth of the elder brother’s ago and Parul’s brother is three-fifth the age his
age. How old is the child? mother was 10 years ago. If the sum of Parul and
her brother’s ages is 31, then how old is Parul’s
(a) 2.5 yrs (c) 7 yrs mother?

(b) 5 yrs X (d) 7.5 yrs (a) 50 X (c) 35

3. When ram was 6 years old, his sisters was half of (b) 40 (d) 60
his age. now ram is 70 . what is his sisters age?

(a) 25 yrs (c) 41 yrs

(b) 35 yrs X (d) 31 yrs

1.8 Mensuration

1. A regular polygon of area 36 sq meters is divided 4. Three cubes of edges 20 cms, 12 cms and 16 cms
into 4 equilateral triangles. What is the area of are meted without loss of metal into a single cube.
each triangle? The edge of the new cube will be:

(a) 7 sq meters (c) 9 sq meters (a) 18 cm (c) 16 cm

(b) 8 sq meters (d) 10 sq meters (b) 24 cm (d) 20 cm

2. A rectangle’s length is four times its breadth. It

5. There is a rectangular Garden whose length and
has an area of 2500 square yards. What is the
width are 50m X 30m. There is a walkway of uni-
length of the rectangle?
form width around garden. Area of walkway is
(a) 25 yards (c) 625.25 yards 576m2. Find width of walkway:

(b) 100 yards (d) 5 yards (a) 1 m (c) 3 m

3. Length and breadth of a rectangle are directly (b) 2 m (d) 4 m

proportional. If length increases from 6 cm to 21
cm and if breadth now is 14 cm, then what was
the breadth before any change in length occurred?

(a) 4 cm (c) 2 cm

(b) 1.5 cm (d) 3 cm

29
1.9 Averages

1. The average of 7 numbers is 50. The average of 6. In a class of 50 students, the average age of girls
first three of them is 40, while the average of the is 12.3 years and that of boys is 12.5 years. If the
last three is 60. What must be the remaining average age of the class is12.42 years, then the
number? number of boys and girls respectively in the class
are
(a) 65 (c) 55
(a) 25, 25 (c) 30, 20 X
(b) 50 X (d) 45
2. An aeroplane files along the sides of an equilat- (b) 20, 30 (d) 35, 15
eral triangle with speed of 300 km/hr, 200 km/hr, 7. The average age of 10 member of a dance group
240 km/hr. The average speed of the plane while is 12 . Three members of age 9 ,10,11 years leave
flying around the triangle is: the group . A year later three new member of age
11,12,13 year respectively join the group . What
(a) 250 km/hr (c) 200 km/hr is the average age of group now ?
(b) 275 km/hr (d) 240 km/hr X (a) 11.6 (c) 12
3. If mini downloads three more songs in her mobile.
(b) 12.6 X (d) 12.26
She will have songs worth 512 MB in her mobile.
If on an average each song is 4 MB, how many 8. On an average, a content developer can develop
songs did she initially have in her phone before 6 questions in an hour. Resource manager wants
downloading? to complete the project of 2400 questions in 20
hours. How many developers should he take in
(a) 125 X (c) 120 his team?

(b) 128 (d) 137 (a) 30 (c) 40

4. Rahul played well in this season. His current bat-
(b) 20 X (d) 10
ting average is 51. If he scores 78 runs in today’s
9. Two numbers a,b are such that their GM is less
match, his batting average will become 54. How
than 40% less than AM. The ratio between the
many matches had he played in this season?
numbers is
(a) 8 (c) 9 X (a) 1:3 (c) 1:9 X
(b) 10 (d) 6
(b) 3:1 (d) 9:1
5. A field person of a customer care department of a
company on an average attends to 3 complaints.
If customer care receives about 200 complaints
daily, and have 45 field persons to attend to these,
how many complaints are to be out sourced?

(a) 145 (c) 55

(b) 135 (d) 65 X

30
1.10 Simple and Compound Interest

1. A bank advertises that you can double the money 7. Sangeeta invested Rs. 20,000 at 8% per annum.
by investing it with them for 8 years. What is the If the interest is compounded half yearly, then to-
interest rate offered by them? tal interest earned by Sangreeta at the end of the
year is:
(a) 12.50% X (c) 8.50%
(a) Rs. 1,632 X (c) Rs. 1,800
(b) 10% (d) 14%
(b) Rs. 1,600 (d) Rs. 1,475
8. Given that the interest is only earned on princi-
2. The simple interest earned on a certain amount
pal, if an investment of Rs. 1000.00 amounts to
is double the money when invested for 15 years.
Rs. 1140.00 in two years, then what is the rate of
What interest rate is offered?
interest earned?
(a) 26.66% (c) 30%
(a) 20% (c) 21%
(b) 12% (d) 13.33% X (b) 22% X (d) 11%
9. A sum of Rs.800 is lent in the beginning of a year
3. A certain sum of money amounts to Rs. 2,500 in at a certain rate of interest. After 8 months, a sum
a span of 5 years and further to Rs. 3,000 in span of Rs. 360 more is lent but at the rate twice the
of 7 years at simple interest. The sum is: former. At the end of the year, Rs.52 is earned
as interest from both the loans. What was the
(a) Rs. 1,000 (c) Rs. 1,050 original rate of interest?
(b) Rs. 1,200 (d) Rs. 1,250 X (a) 6% (c) 7%

(b) 5% X (d) 4%
4. The difference in the simple interest and com- 10. The principal Rs.A, borrowed at A% per annum
pound interest on a principal of Rs.10,00,000 in simple interest, for A months will amount to
3 years at 4% per annum is: (︁ )︁ (︁ )︁
(a) 𝐴  𝐴
(c) 𝐴 𝐴

(a) Rs. 4,000 (c) Rs. 4,864 X (︁ )︁ (︁ )︁
(b) 𝐴 𝐴
(d) 𝐴  𝐴
X
(b) Rs. 5,000 (d) Rs. 4,500  

11. For how many years do we need to invest a princi-

5. A man deposits Rs.5,000 in his bank account for pal of Rs.30,000 in acompany to make it amounts
5 years to earn an interest of 12%. What amount to Rs.90,000 at an annual rate of interestof 6%?It
will he get after 5 years? is given that the interest is compounded annually.
Also,   . and  . 
(a) Rs. 2000 (c) Rs. 5300
(a) 19.084 X (c) 1.8175
(b) Rs. 3000 (d) Rs. 8000 X
(b) 0.2356 (d) 4.244
12. An investment earns 4 paisa per rupee invested.
6. What sum of money will accumulate to Rs. 5,300
If at the end of theyear, the interest earned by an
at 8% interest in 9 months?
investment is Rs.100, then theinvestment is equal
to
(a) Rs. 5,000 X (c) Rs. 4,500

(b) Rs. 5,400 (d) Rs. 4,000 (a) Rs.2,000 (c) Rs.1,000

(b) Rs.2,200 (d) Rs.2,500 X

31
13. Rohit invests Rs.25,000 in an investment at a 18. An investment earns 4 paisa per rupee invested.
compound interest of 15% per annum. How- if at the end of the year, the interest earned by an
ever, he has to withdraw his investments after 16 investment is Rs.100,then the investment is equal
months. How much interest did Rohit earn? to?

(a) Rs.5121 (c) Rs.2441.33 X (a) 2.5% (c) 2.75%

(b) Rs.5187.50 (d) Rs.4221 (b) 3.5% (d) 4% X

14. Compound interest for a certain amount at 19. Compound interest for a certain amount at 13%
13%p.a for 2 years exceeds the interest on the p.a for 2 years exceeds the interest on the same
same amount at 12% p.a for two years by Rs 225. amount at 12% p.a for 2 years by Rs. 225. The
The principal amount is: principal amount is:

(a) Rs.10,000 X (c) Rs.24,000 (a) 15000 (c) 25000

(b) Rs.12,540 (d) Rs.7,800 (b) 22500 (d) 10000 X

20. Given that the Interest is only earned on prin-
15. Swapan has kept Rs.2000 at 15% simple interest cipal if an investment of Rs.1000.00 amounts to
in a bank for two years.If she had kept the same Rs.1440.00 in two years, then what is the rate of
amount at compound interest for two years. How interest earned?
much extra she would have earned?
(a) 22% X (c) 11%
(a) Rs.250 (c) Rs.400
(b) 21% (d) 44%
(b) Rs.450 X (d) Rs.300
21. A loan of Rs 10,000 on simple interest is taken
16. a, b and c are such that b is the simple interest on for as many years as the rate of interest . if the
a, and c is the simple interest on b for the same interest to be paid is Rs 361 , what is the rate of
period and the same rate of interest. The relation interest
between these three is
(a) 22% (c) 19% X
(a) 𝑎 𝑏𝑐 (c) 𝑏 𝑎𝑐 X (b) 12% (d) 16%
(b) 𝑐 𝑎𝑏 (d) 𝑎 𝑏 𝑐
22. A man earns Rs. 24,000 per month. He spends
𝑟𝑑
of his income on personal expenditures. Half
17. A certain amount earns simple interest of Rs.
of the remaining income is invested in a scheme
1750 after 7 years. Had the interest been 2%
at 15% interest pa. After investing, half of what
more, how much more interest would it have
is left is invested in a scheme which gives 10% in-
earned?
terest pa. The remaining lies in a bank, where it
(a) Rs.35 earns an interest of 4% pa. The effective rate of
interest earned by the man on his investments at
(b) Rs.245 the end of the year is
(c) Rs.350
(a) 6 % (c) 7 % X
(d) Cannot be determined X (b) 6 % (d) 7 %

32
1.11 Logarithamm

1. What is the value of k in the expression  

(︁ )︁
 8. If 𝑥 − , then the value of x is equal to
𝑘   𝑙𝑜𝑔  ?
(a) 3 (c) -7
(a) 8 (c) –2
(b) 7 X (d) 3
(b) –4 X (d) 2

9.  . is equal to
2. Which of the following options is equivalent to the
expression 𝑥 
𝑥 

? (a) 1 (c) –2

(a) 𝑥
 𝑥
(b) 2 (d) –1 X

(b) 𝑥  𝑥  

10. What is the value of 𝑎𝑛𝑡𝑖   ?
(c) 𝑥
 𝑥

(a) 2 (c) 100 X
(d)  𝑥
 𝑥
X
(b) 10100 (d) 10
3. What is the value of x in the expression  𝑥 

−  𝑥 − 
 ? 11. If   .  and   .  , what is
the value of   ?
(a) –7 (c) 7
(a) 1.0791 X (c) 0.2869
(b) 21 X (d) 3
(b) 1.1211 (d) 0.1329

4. If   .  , find the value of   12. If  .  , then  

(a) 1.2 (c) 1.4 (a) 4.17 X (c) 2
(b) 1.3 (d) 1.5 X (b) 4 (d) Inadequate data

13. The value of  

is:

5. The value of   . is
(a) 1 (c) 3
(a) 1 (c) 10
(b) 2 X (d) 4
(b) -1 X (d) 100
14.  of number to a certain base is 7. whereas log
of 8 times the original number to the base of 2
6. What is the value of  𝑎𝑏
𝑐   𝑎𝑐 when it is times the original base is 5. What is the original
given that ‘b’ is four times the value of ‘a’? number?
(a)  (c)  (a) 28 (c) 128 X
(b)  (d)  X (b) 124 (d) 148
15. Which of the given logarithmic expression is not
7. The value of 𝑎𝑏𝑐 𝑎 𝑏 𝑐 is possible?
(a) abc (c) 3 X (a)  (c)  − X
𝑒
(b) 𝑎 (d) 27 (b)  (d) 


33
16. If  . and   . , and find the 24. If  𝑥  𝑦  𝑧. the value of 𝑥 𝑦 𝑧 −
value of  is :

(a) 3.8814 (c) 3.08814 X (a) 0 (c) 2

(b) 3.80814 (d) 3.08841 (b) 1 X (d) None of these

17. What is the value of  𝑎    𝑏
?

25. What is the value of the expression  𝑥𝑦
𝑧 
(a) 1 (c) 3  𝑦𝑧𝑥   𝑧𝑥𝑦. if 𝑥 ?

(b) 2 (d) 4 (a) 0 (c)  𝑦 −  𝑧

18. What is the value of p in  𝑝 ? (b)  𝑦   𝑧 X (d)  𝑦 ×  𝑧

(a) 12 X (c) 11
26. If  −  𝑥 . Find 𝑥
(b) 13 (d) 15
(a)  X (c)

19. Given that,  .  ,  .  & (b)  (d) None of these

 ., √ √
What is the value of     −  ?
27.   . is equal to
(a) 2.7965 (c) 2.7569
(a) -1 (c) -3 X
(b) 2.7956 X (d) 2.7659
(b) -2 (d) -4
20. Given that,  .  ,  √.  and
 ., Find the value of  
28.   −   is equal to:
(a) 0.9892 (c) 0.9289 X (a)  X (c) 1
(b) 0.9982 (d) 0.9828
(b) 
(d) None of these
21. If 𝑌 𝑋 is Z, then what is the value of  of
𝑋 − to the base of 𝑌 − ? 29. What is the value of √  ?


(a) 𝑍
(c) 𝑍 (a) 1 (c) 3
(b) −𝑍
(d) 𝑍 X (b) 2 (d) 4 X
22. If  . .  , then    . 
 . ? 30. 𝑥  − 𝑥
, Solve for 𝑥.

(a) -0.9419 (c) -0.9149 X (a) 𝑥 or -7 (c) 𝑥  or -67

(b) -0.9941 (d) -0.9914 (b) 𝑥 or -27 X (d) 𝑥 or 67

23. Evaluate 
31. If 𝑝𝑞𝑟 , then  𝑟 is:
(a)     × 𝑒

(b)   (a) -  𝑝𝑞 X (c)  𝑝𝑞 −

(c)    (b)  𝑝𝑞 − (d)  𝑝𝑞

(d)       X

34
32.   is equal to 40.  𝑥    . What is the value of x?

(a)    (c)    X (a) (c)  X

(b)    (d)    (b) (d) 

33. If 𝑎  


, then 𝑎 ? 41. Simplify:   −     

(a) 1 (c) 3 (a) 1 (c) 3

(b) 2 X (d) 4 (b) 2 X (d) 4

42. The value of   −     is:

34. What is the value of   , Given that 
(a) 7 (c) 3
𝑎,   𝑏 &  𝑐?
(b) 5 X (d) 4
(a) 𝑎  𝑏  𝑐 X (c) 𝑎  𝑏  𝑐

(b) 𝑎  𝑏  𝑐 (d) 𝑎  𝑏  𝑐
43. If 𝑥𝑦 𝑥𝑥 then  𝑥𝑦 ?

35. If        𝑥, Find x? (a)  𝑥

(c) 𝑥  𝑥
X
𝑥  𝑥 𝑥  𝑥

(a) 1 (c) 3 (b) 𝑥  𝑥

(d)  𝑥𝑥
 𝑥 𝑥  𝑥
(b) 5 X (d) 4
44. If 𝑓 𝑥
𝑒𝑥 and 𝑔 𝑥
𝑒 𝑥, then what is the
36. What is the value of x in the expression  𝑥 − value of 𝑓 ∘ 𝑔
𝑥
?

    𝑥 
?
(a) x X (c) 𝑙𝑜𝑔𝑒 𝑥
(a) 1 (c) 3
(b) 𝑒𝑥 (d) None of these
(b) 8 (d) 10 X

45. If  𝑥    −  . The value of x

37. 𝐼𝑓     ×  𝑥, what is the value of x? is:
(a) 7 (c) 3 X (a) (c)
(b) 5 (d) 10 (b) X (d)
38. If   .  , find the value of   .
 𝑚
(a) 0.7 (c) 1.1 46. If   𝑛 , then find the value of m and n.

(b) 0.9 X (d) 1.3 (a) 2,5 (c) -2,-5

(b) 5,2 X (d) -5,-2

39.  𝑎,  𝑏 and  𝑐 will be in which of the fol-
lowing series if it is given that a, b and c are in 47.  base cube root 𝑥 , find x.
G.P
(a) 3 (c) 9
(a) A.P (c) H.P X
(b) 6 (d) 27
(b) G.P (d) No series form

35
 56. If  𝑥  , then the value of x is equal
(︁ [︁ ]︁)︁
48. √ √ √𝑥 , Find 𝑥 
to
(a) 5 (c) 625
√ √ (a) 8 (c) 16 X
(b) X (d)
(b) 5 (d) 32
57. The value of 361 raised to the power   is
49. Which of the following is equal to  𝑎  𝑏
?
(a) 5 (c) 25 X
(a)  𝑎   𝑏 (c)  𝑎 −  𝑏
(b) 19 (d) 95
(b)  𝑎 ×  𝑏 (d) None of these X
58. What is the value of x in the expression
50. What is the value of x in the expression  𝑥     × 𝑥
?

  𝑥 −
 ?
(a) 500 (c) 
(a) 4 X (c)
(b) 50 X (d) 

(b) 16 (d) 1.16
59. The value of 81 raised to the power   is :
51. If 𝑎𝑥 𝑏𝑦 , then
(a) 18 (c) 324 X
 𝑎 𝑦
(a)  (c) X
(︀ 𝑎 )︀ 𝑥
𝑏 𝑦  𝑏 𝑥
(b) 81 (d) 729
 𝑎
(b)  𝑏
𝑥
𝑦 (d) None of these

60. If 𝑎 and 𝑏 − 𝑎𝑏 − , Then what is the value

52. If  𝑥   𝑦  𝑥  𝑦
, then of  𝑎𝑏
𝑎  𝑏
?

(a) 𝑥 𝑦 (c) 𝑦 𝑥−
𝑥 (a) 2 X (c) -1

(b) 𝑥𝑦 (d) 𝑦 𝑥
X (b) 1 (d) -2
𝑥−

53. If   𝑥 − , then x is? 61. The value of x in    𝑥
is:

(a)  (c) 
(a) 113 (c) 331 X
(b) X (d) None of these (b) 244 (d) 442


54. If 𝑎 − 𝑎 𝑏  𝑏
(︀ )︀𝑥−
𝑎 − 𝑏
𝑥 𝑎  𝑏
− , then 62. What is the value of   . ?
x equals to Given that,   . &   .

(a)  𝑎𝑏

(c) 𝑎−𝑏 (a) 0.5441 (c) 1.5441
 𝑎−𝑏
𝑎𝑏

 𝑎−𝑏
(b) 1.2431 (d) 2.2431 X

(b) X (d)  𝑎 − 𝑏
(︀ )︀
 𝑎𝑏

55. 𝑒 𝑥𝑦 −  |𝑥| equals to 63. The correct value of  −   is :

(a) 𝑒 𝑥 (a) 0 X (c) -1

(b) 𝑒 |𝑥| (b) 1 (d) 2
(c) − 𝑒 𝑥

(d) None of the above X

36
64. The correct value of  −   is : 67. If 𝑝𝑞 𝑝 − )︀𝑞
− , find the value of
𝑝𝑞 𝑝  𝑞 ?
(︀
(a) -1 X (c) 1
(a) 2 (c) -1
(b) 0 (d) 2
(b) 0 X (d) 1
65. If the 𝑥  ., then what is the value of x? 68. If     − √  𝑥 , find the
value of 𝑥 ?
(a) 4 (c) 32 X
(a) (c)
(b) 2 (d) 16
(b) 5 X (d) 4
66. If   .  , find the value of   . ? 69. The value of 𝑦 in 𝑦 𝑦 is:

(a) 0.7 (c) 1.9 X (a) 37 X (c) 39

(b) 0.3 (d) 1.3 (b) 38 (d) 36

37
1.12 Equations

1. The correct relationship after eliminating 𝑥, 𝑦 and 7. Among the following options, which one does not
𝑧 from 𝑥  𝑦 𝑎, 𝑦  𝑧 𝑏, 𝑧  𝑥 𝑐 and lie in the given range:  < 𝑥 < 
𝑥  𝑦  𝑧 𝑚, is:
(a)  X (c)
(a) 𝑚 𝑥𝑦𝑧 (c) 𝑚 𝑥−𝑦−𝑧
(b) (d) 

(b) 𝑚 𝑎𝑏𝑐 X (d) 𝑚 𝑥−𝑦−𝑧

2. If 𝑥  and 𝑦 − , then 𝑥  𝑦 is: 8. If the equation 𝑥 − 𝑘 
𝑥   𝑘  has two

identical roots then the values of k are:
(a) 2 (c) 6 X
(a) k=1 or 2 (c) k = 3 or
(b) 3 (d) 0
(b) k = 2 or X (d) None of these
3. A teacher asks the student to solve for x, where
(︀ 𝑎 )︀𝑥− (︁ )︁𝑥−
the given expression is: 𝑏 𝑎
𝑏
, Find 9. If 𝑥𝑦 𝑦 𝑥 and 𝑥 𝑦, the value of y is
x.
(a) 1 (c) 3
(a) 1 (c)
(b) 2 X (d) 4
(b) 2 X (d) 4
4. If 𝑥𝑦
× and 𝑥−𝑦
, then the value 10. 𝑥𝑛 −  is divisible by 𝑥 − , when n is equal to
of x is
(a) 1 (c) 3 X
(a) 1 X (c) 3
(b) 2 (d) None of these
(b) 2 (d) None of these

5. If 𝑥
. , then the value of x is
1.13 Function
(a) 0.1764 X (c) 1.64

(b) 1.764 (d) 2.64

11. If 𝑓 𝑥
𝑥  , 𝑔 𝑥
 𝑥 and 𝑔 𝑓 𝑥


6. What is x if − ×𝑥 −
− ? for all values of 𝑓 𝑥
, then what is the value of 𝑥
?
(a) 2 (c) -2 X
(a) 
(c) 
(b) 1 (d) -1
(b)  X (d) 

38
1.14 Permutation and Combination

1. If i have kept six different books on a shelf, in how 7. In how many ways can the team members be ar-
many different ways can I arrange them? ranged for the team picture if all the males are
always together and if the team comprises of 7
(a) 6 (c) 12 males and 6 females?
(b) 24 (d) 720 X (a) 13! (c) 7! 6!
2. In how many ways can 7 members of the content (b) 7! 7! X (d) 14!
team, 5 members of the R&D team, 3 members of
HR and 2 members of the Sales team be allotted 8. How many three digits numbers can be formed
workstations in a row so that all employees of the using 2,3,4 and 5 with none of the digits being
same team sit together? repeated?
(a) ×
(a) 20 (c) 24 X
(b)  × × ×
(c)  × × × (b) 45 (d) None of these
(d)  × × × × X 9. A written exam consists of 6 questions with the
3. The total combinations of picking 3 balloons from answer options as yes/no/none. In how many
a packet of 25 balloons are: ways can the examines select the answers?

(a) 2100 (c) 2300 X (a)  𝑃 way

(b) 2200 (d) 2400 (b)  𝐶 ways

4. Ramesh, Abhijeet and Ajay are eligible to be the (c) 𝐶 − 𝐶 − 𝐶 − 𝐶 − 𝐶

captain of the cricket team. Shaid, John, Shisir )︀
(d) 𝐶 X
(︀
and Nitin are eligible to be the co-captain. How
many possible outcomes are there for choosing a 10. In how many ways Sangeeta, Artil, Pooja, Mona
captain and a co-captain? and Payal can stand in a queue?

(a) 12 (c) 9 X (a) 120 X (c) 20

(b) 7 (d) 16 (b) 5 (d) 150

5. A company decides a new identity code for all its 11. The number of 6-digit numbers that can be
employees. The identity code would comprise of formed from 0, 1, 5, 6, 7 and 8 in which the first
five letter initials that can be formed using the digit is not 0 are:
alphabets of English language such that the fifth
letter is always a consonant. How many such com- (a) 120 (c) 720
binations are possible?
(b) 600 X (d) 800
(a)  × (c) × 
12. There are 3 main steps of completion of a project-
(b) ×  (d)  × X development, Review and Roll out. After devel-
6. In how many ways can atleast two team members opment, there are 4 people who can independently
be selected for grade A out of 7 members in a work and lead the process to the next step i.e. Re-
group? view. Further ahead, there are 5 people who can
work independently and lead to the next step i.e
(a)  𝐶 𝐶
Roll-out. In how many ways can a project man-
ager complete the project?
(b)  𝐶  𝐶  𝐶  𝐶  𝐶  𝑃

(c)  𝐶  𝐶  𝐶  𝐶  𝐶  𝐶 X (a) 20 X (c) 25

(d)  𝑃  𝑃  𝑃  𝑃  𝑃  𝑃 (b) 15 (d) 18

39
13. If 𝑛 𝐶 𝑛 𝐶 , what is the value of 𝐶𝑛 ? 20. In how many ways can 9 female and 7 male mem-
bers be selected for are view team from a group
(a) 1365 X (c) 11 of 15 females and 10 males?

(b) 15! (d) 11! (a) 𝐶   𝐶 (c) 𝑃 ×  𝑃

14. What is the value of 𝐶 ? (b) 𝑃   𝑃 (d) 𝐶 ×  𝐶 X
21. What are the number of ways of seating 7 candi-
(a) 30 (c) 210
dates for an interview around a round table if all
(b) 15 (d) 105 X the 4 women want to sit together?

15. In how many ways can three leads be selected out (a) 4! 4! X (c)  𝐶 × ×
of 5 males and 4females if at least one female must
be selected? (b) 7! (d)  𝐶 × 

(a)  𝑃 (c) 𝐶 × 𝐶 22. How many 4 digit numbers can be made using 1,
2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7 with none of the digits being
(b)  𝐶 (d) 74 X repeated?

16. The number of ways in which the letters of the (a) 7! (c) 4!
word ’RESULT’ can be arranged without repeti-
tion is (b) 840 X (d) 42

(a) 720 X (c) 60 23. Eight teams are playing in a cricket match. If
a team loses, it is out of the tournament. How
(b) 120 (d) 840 many games are needed to determine the winner?
17. What are the number of ways of arranging 9 books (a) 7 X (c) 8
out of 14 in a library where the librarian, while
arranging the books, got 2 damaged books and (b) 6 (d) 9
sent them for rebinding and repairing?
24. In how many different ways can the letters of the
(a) 𝐶 (c) 𝐶
word ’HARDWARE’ be arranged such that the
(b) 𝑃 (d) 𝑃 X vowels always come together?

18. The causes of productivity loss are to be written (a) 120 (c) 1440
around a circle in the annual report. In how many
(b) 1080 X (d) 4320
ways can an analyst write them around the circle,
if the numbers of causes are 5? 25. In how many ways can the letters of the word
’ELEPHANT’ be arranged?
(a) 5! (c) 𝑃
(a) 5,760 (c) 20,160 X
(b) 𝐶 (d) 4! X
(b) 6,720 (d) 40,320
19. 40% of a company staff are females. What is the
26. In a team party, the manager, the supervisor and
probability that a set of 7 records of the employees
the module lead want to sit together. Also, the
taken at random from the cupboard has 2 records
developer and the consultant need to sit together
of female staff?
for some discussion. In how many ways can a to-
(a)  𝑃 × . 
× .
tal of 20 team members be seated around a round
table?
(b)  𝑃 × . 
× .

(a) 19! (c) 
(c) 𝐶 × . 
× .
X
(b)  × × X (d) 16! 5!
(d) 𝐶 × . 
× .

40
27. What are the number of ways of selecting 7 files 34. Out of 9 people waiting for their turns for an in-
out of 14 distinct files if one is always selected? terview, in how many ways can a selection for 4
be made if 1 particular person is always selected?
(a) 𝐶 (c) 1
(a)  𝑃 (c)  𝑃
(b) 𝐶 X (d) 𝑃
(b)  𝑃 − 𝑃 (d)  𝐶
28. A home security system provides a security code
for the door, which consists of five buttons. Code 35. Five friends Megha, Meghna, Mehak, Menka and
may be generated by pressing any one button, any Meenakshiare to be seated on a round table such
two, any three, any four, or all five buttons. How that Megha never sits next toMeghna. In how
many such codes are possible? many ways is it possible?

(a) 32 (c) 31 X (a) 4! (c) × X

(b) 5 (d) 10 (b) × (d) 3!
29. The value of  𝑃 is
36. In how many ways can a group consisting of 5
(a) 2775 (c) 5402 girls and 4 boys be formed from a class of 8 girls
and 5 boys?
(b) 150 (d) None X
(a) 260 (c) 280 X
30. A single letter is drawn at random from the word,
"ASPIRATION", the probability that it is a vowel (b) 270 (d) 290
is?
37. If there are 5 paramedic and 4 technicians, in how
(a) X (c) many arrangements can be ways can we choose 1
paramedic and 1 technician?
(b) (d)
(a) 15 (c) 20 X
31. In how many different ways can the letters of the
word ‘PASSENGER’ be arranged such that the (b) 18 (d) 24
two ‘S’ never occur together? 38. In a quiz competition, the host asked a question
and provided three possible answers. What is the
(a) 
× (c) 
×
probability that the answer choice which Rohit
selects for a question is wrong?
(b) 
(d)  ×
X
32. There are 5 clients and 5 consultants in round ta- (a) (c) 𝐶 ×
ble meeting. In how many ways can the clients
(b) (d) X
be seated such that no consultant is next to the
39. In how many ways can we choose 3 men and 4
other consultant?
women out of 7 men and 6 women?
(a) 5! 6! (c) 4! 5!
(a) 525 X (c) 485
(b) 4! 4! X (d) 9!
(b) 625 (d) 695
33. Ram buys 7 novels from a book fair. Shyam buys
8 novels from another book fair, none of which is 40. If from a deck of 52 cards, 4 cards are to be se-
common with those bought by Ram. They decide lected and one card of it should be a spade and
to exchange their books one for one. In how many another card should be a heart. In how many
ways can they exchange their books for the first ways can these cards be selected?
time?
(a) ×  𝐶 X (c)  ×  𝐶
(a)  ×  (c)  × 
(b) 𝐶 (d) 𝐶
(b)  ×  (d) 56 X

41
41. Out of 5 boys and 5 girls, a group of 5 has to be 48. If we permute 8 letters of the word ‘computer’ in
formed containing at least 3 boys. In how many 8! ways, how many permuted words have ‘p’ and
ways can this be done? ‘e’ next to each other?

(a) 100 (c) 25 (a) 7! (c) 

(b) 120 (d) 126 X (b) 7!2! X (d) None of these

42. A box contains 5 red, 4 white and 3 green balls. 49. If we permute 5 letters of the word ‘lemon’ in 5!
In how many ways can 3 balls be drawn from the ways, in how many words vowels do not come to-
box, without replacement, so that at least 2 of gether?
them are green
(a) 48 (c) 120
(a) 27 (c) 28 X
(b) 72 X (d) 84
(b) 32 (d) 44
43. How many different four letter words can be 50. In how many ways can the letters of the word
formed the words need not be meaningful word “SMUDGE” be arranged such that vowels always
using the letters of the word PACIFIC such that come together?
the first letter is P and the last letter is F?
(a) 120 (c) 240 X
(a) 15 (c) 30 X (b) 720 (d) 60
(b) 120 (d) 60
51. The value of 𝑛 𝐶𝑛− 𝑛 𝐶𝑛− is:
44. In many ways can the alphabets of the word
𝑛 𝑛

"QUANTITATIVE" be arranged such that all the (a) X (c) 𝑛

words ends in U? 𝑛 𝑛−
𝑛  𝑛

(b) (d)
(a) (c) X
52. An invitation is required to be sent to a delega-
(b)  (d) tion for the healthcare meeting. In how many
45. In how many ways can 6 lottery tickets be dis- ways can Rohit invite at least 4 delegates out of
tributed among 4 different people, if all of the four the total of 8 ?
different people can get any number of tickets?
(a) 70 X (c) 140
(a)  𝐶 (c)  𝑃 (b) 210 (d) None of these
(b) 46 (d) 64 X 53. In how many ways can 10 chairs be divided and
arranged for 2 cabins A and B with 4 and 6 chairs
respectively?
46. What is the value of 𝐶 ?
(a) 210 (c) 1
(a) 75 (c) 505
(b) 420 X (d) None of these
(b) 455 X (d) 405

47. A content manager is working on an excel sheet. 54. A manager decides to form a team of 3 employees.
She has 6 columns in the sheet A,B,C,D,E and F. In how many ways can he form a team, if he has
She has to check that no two columns should have a total of 10 employees.
the same entry . She can check only 2 columns at
a time. How many times will she have to repeat (a) 𝑃
 (c) 𝐶

the comparing process to complete process for the

(b) 𝐶 − X (d) 
whole file?

(a) 15 (b) 12 (c) 23 (d) 24

X
42
55. In how many ways can the letters of the word 62. A boy has 4 different boxes and 5 different mar-
“COMBINATION” be arranged such that vowels bles. In how many ways can he place the marbles
always come together? in the boxes such that each box has at least one
marble ?
(a) 


(c) ×


X
(a) 120 (c) 240
(b) ×


(d) 


(b) 480 X (d) None
56. For the post of 2 receptionists, there are 12
equally qualified candidates. In how many ways 63. The permutations and combinations of “abcd”
can they be selected? taken 3 at a time are respectively

(a) 𝐶 X (c) (a) 12, 2 (c) 36, 6

(b) (d) None of these (b) 24, 4 X (d) 48,8
57. Without repeating the digits how many 4 digit
number can be formed from 2, 6,7 and 3, when 64. If 𝐶
𝑥 , then what is the value of 𝑥 if 𝑥 ̸ ?
the digits in one’s place is smaller than that in
the thousands place? (a) 1 (c) 10 X
(a) 12 X (c) 8 (b) 5 (d) 15
(b) 6 (d) 4
58. In how many ways can a panel of 5 students be 65. The numbers of 5-digit odd numbers that can be
selected from 8 kids if a particular student is to made from number 12345 are:
be compulsorily included?
(a) 24 (c) 64
(a)  𝐶 (c)  𝐶 −  (b) 32 (d) 72 X
(b) 𝐶 − X (d) None of these
59. How many 4 digit numbers can be formed from 66. In how many ways can 4 ladies and 4 men form
the digits 2,3,5,6,8 which 98181 if none of the dig- two mixed doubles teams for a tennis match?
its is repeated?
(a) 12 (c) 16 X
(a) 72 X (c) 120 (b) 17 (d) None of these
(b) 144 (d) 720
67. The number of 6-digit even numbers that can be
60. A phone company offers 5 phone plan options:
made from the number 214635 are:
call waiting, call forwarding, voice mail, confer-
encing, and caller ID. A customer can choose 3
(a) 18 (c) 20
options. The number of ways one can avail the
plan options is (b) 72 (d) 360 X
(a) 5 X (c) 3

(b) 10 (d) 20 68. In an examination, a candidate is required to an-

swer 5 questions in all, from 2 section having 5
61. In CAT entrance examination paper there are 3
questions each. What are the total number of
sections, each containing 5 questions. A candi-
ways in which a candidate can select the ques-
date has to solve 5, choosing at least one from
tions, provided that at least two questions are to
each section. The number of ways he can choose
be attempted from each section?
is
(a) 2215 (c) 2520 (a) 100 (c) 200 X
(b) 2250 X (d) 2052 (b) 150 (d) 250

43
69. The number of 5-digit numbers that can be 73. In how many ways can the letters of the word
formed from 4, 2, 0, 7and 3 are ? “RECTANGLE” be arranged, such that all the
vowels are always together?
(a) 96 X (c) 120
(a) 2106 (c) 2160 X
(b) 360 (d) None of these
(b) 2061 (d) 2610
70. In how many ways can the digits 2,3,5,7 and 9 be
74. If we permute 5 letters of the word “MANGO”,
placed to form a three-digit number so that the
the number of permuted words with ‘N’ at the
higher order digit is always greater than the lower
second place are
order digits? (Assume digits are all different).
(a) 5 (c) 12
(a) 30 X (c) 45
(b) 6 (d) 24 X
(b) 33 (d) None of these

75. There are 15 points on a plane out of which 10

71. In how many ways can you arrange the dining ta-
are co-linear. How many triangles can be formed
ble with 3 sweets and 4 fruit bowls in a line. If
by joining these points?
all the sweets should be at even places?
(a) 𝐶 (c) 335
(a)  𝐶 × × 𝐶 × (c) × X
(b) 𝐶 X (d) 330
(b)  𝑃 (d) 𝑃 × 𝑃 × 
72. In how many ways can seven similar gifts be dis- 76. In an examination 10 questions are to be answered
tributed to 7 clients of a company, such that each choosing at least 4 from each of part A and part B.
gets one gift? If there are 6 questions in part A and 7 in part B,
in how many ways can 10 questions be answered
(a) 7 (c)  𝐶 ?
(b)  𝑃 X (d)  𝑃 (a) 216 (c) 246

(b) 266 X (d) 226

44
1.15 Probability

1. In a non-leap year, what is the probability that 6. There are 2 bags A and B. Bag A contains 6 red
the last day of the year starts with a “T”? flowers and 3 pink flowers whereas Bag B contains
2 red flowers and 7 pink flowers. One flower is cho-
(a)  (c) 0 sen from a bag randomly. What is the probability
that the flower chosen is pink?
(b) 1 (d)  X
(a)  (c)
2. A detergent powder company is having a contest.
(b) (d)  X
Each pack of 1 kg contains one of the letters B,
A, M and O. In every 20 packs, there are four Bs, 7. A bag contains coins of 1 rupee, 2 rupees and 5
five As, ten Ms and one O. What is the probability rupees in the ratio 4:8:5. The total amount in the
that a pack will have a B? bag is Rs. 90. The number of 5 rupee coins is:

(a) (c) X (a) 8 (c) 15

(b) (d) (b) 16 (d) 10


8. Varun is guessing which of the 2 hands holds a
3. The boss accepts only one employee’s leave re- coin. What is the probability that Varun guesses
quest for a particular day. If five employees correctly three times in a row?
named Ronak, Mahesh, Shripal, Mohanpriya and (a)  (c)
Shreyansh applied for leave on the occasion of
Ganesh Chaturthi, what is the probability that (b) (d)  X
Ronak’s leave request will be approved?
9. A research laboratory conducts various experi-
ments. The probability of occurrence of an event
(a) (c)
in one trial of an experiment is 0.3. Three in-
(b) 1 (d) X dependent trials of an experiment are performed.
Find the probability that the event happens at
4. A developed car in the workshop comprises of least once.
around 70 components. Each component has a (a) 0.027 (c) 0.657 X
probability of having a manufacturing error of
0.015. What is the probability that this devel- (b) 0.973 (d) 0.147
oped car will get rejected due to manufacturing 10. Malini solved the following question)︁ in
(︁ her Mathe-
error in any of the component?
(︁ )︁
matics examination : 
  of   and
her answer was  .

By how much was her answer
(a) .
 (c) − .
 X wrong?
(b) .
 (d) − .
 (a) 1 (c) 2

5. In a class of 25 students, the probability that any (b)  X (d) 

one of the 10 girls will be absent on any given day 11. In hotel management Institute, three people con-
is 0.2. The probability of one of the boys being stitute the set of panel which has to check the food
absent is 0.3. Calculate the probability that all items that the student makes. What is the proba-
the students are present on a Tuesday. bility that Reena gets approval from two members
of the panel, if the panel member can designate
(a) .
 .

(︀ )︀ (︀ )︀
× and categorize the rating of a food item approved
(b)
(︀
.

)︀
×
(︀
.

)︀ or rejected or disqualified only?

(c) .
 .
X (a) (c) 

(︀ )︀ (︀ )︀
×  

(d) .
 .
(b) X (d)

(︀ )︀ (︀ )︀
×  

45
12. A box contains 5 red, 4 white and 3 green balls. 18. A box contains 10 balls numbered 1 through 10.
In how many ways can 3 balls be drawn from the Anuj, Anisha and Amit pick a ball each, one after
box, without replacement, so that at least 2 of the other, each time replacing the ball. What is
them are green? the probability that Anuj picks a ball numbered
less than that picked by Anisha, who in turn picks
(a) 18 (c) 27 a lesser numbered ball than Amit?
(b) 28 X (d) 9 (a) X (c)
13. In a purse there are 30 coins, twenty one-rupee
and remaining 50-paise coins. Eleven coins are (b)  (d) 

picked simultaneously at random and are placed 19. Probability of one of the power plants over heat-
in a box. If a coin is now picked from the box, ing is 0.15per day and the probability of failure
find the probability of it being a rupee coin? of back cooling system is0.11. If these events
are independent, what is the probability of ‘BIG
(a)  (c) X TROUBLE’ (i.e. both events taking place)?
(b) (d)  (a) 0.35 (c) 0.0165 X
14. A bag contains 6 blue balls and 3 green balls, and
(b) 0.0185 (d) 0.26
a box contains 4 blue balls and 5 green balls. Find
the probability that a ball randomly selected from 20. ABCD is a square. PQRS is a rhombus lying in-
either of them is a blue ball. side the square such that P, Q, R and S are the
mid-points of AB, BC, CD and DA respectively.
(a) (c) X
 A point is selected at random in the square. Find
(b) (d) the probability that it lies in the rhombus.
 

(a) (c)
15. A bag is full of 20 bananas and no other fruit.
Rajeev draws a fruit from the bag. What is the (b) (d) X
probability that he will draw a banana?
21. Five students have not been absent for the entire
(a) 1 X (c) first semester. They are asked to draw one pass
each from a bag that has 5 movie passes and 5
(b) 0 (d) None of the above meal passes. Parul and Mini are the first two stu-
dents to draw the pass simultaneously. What is
the probability that they both draw movie passes?
16. In a game show there are 5 prize cards and 20
blank cards. A contestant is asked to choose a (a) (c) X
 
card at random. What is the probability that he
won a prize? (b) (d)
22. Ritu has 3 shirts in shades of red, 4 in yellow
(a) (c) X shades and 5 in green shades. Three shirts are
(b) (d) picked at random. The probability that all of
these are in red shades is
17. A manufacturing plant produces a batch of 10 (a) (c) 
containers out of which 4 are defective. In a qual-
ity inspection test, 3 containers are chosen at ran- (b) (d) X

dom. What is the probability that at least one
would be defective? 23. If a coin with both heads is tossed, then the prob-
ability of obtaining a tail is
(a) (c)  X
(a) 0 X (c)
(b)  (d)
(b) (d) 1

46
24. Find the chance of throwing more than 9 in one 30. A bag contains 6 yellow balls, 3 red balls and 2
throw with 2 dice. green balls. In how many ways can 5 balls be
drawn from the bag if at least one yellow ball is
(a) (c)  to be included in the draw?

(b)  (d)  X (a) 464 (c) 462 X

25. In an interview, there are 6 candidates who have (b) 463 (d) 461
been shortlisted for the content team- 4 PhDs and
2 MBAs. If 2 candidates If 2 candidates are cho- 31. An unbiased coin is tossed 5 times. If tail ap-
sen at random for the final round, what is the pears on first four tosses, then probability of tail
probability that both will be MBAs? appearing on the fifth toss is

(a) (c) X (a) X (c) 0

(b) (d) (b) 1 (d)

32. A bag contains 4 white, 5 red and 6 blue balls.

26. A multiplex conducted a random survey of the
Three balls are drawn at random from the bag.
movie-goers to determine their preference in
The probability that all of them are red is
movies. Of the 50 people surveyed, 35 preferred
comedies. What is the probability that any given (a) (c) X

movie-goer will buy a ticket of the comedy movie?
(b) (d) 
(a) 
 X (c)
33. A sequence of 4 bits is randomly generated. Each
(d) Cannot be deter-
bit takes up a binary format and can either have
(b) mined
 a value of 0 or 1. What is the probability that
27. In a game, each person is dealt 3 cards from a deck atleast one of these bits is zero?
of 52cards and a player is said to have a winning
(a) 0 (c) X
deck if any only if and a jack each, irrespective of 
the colour or the sign. What is the total possible (b) (d) 1

number of winning decks for this game?
34. Bag contains 5 oranges, 4 bananas and 3 apples.
(a) 128 (c) 16 Rohit wants to eat a banana or an apple. He
draws a fruit from the bag randomly. What is the
(b) 4 (d) 64 X probability that he will get a fruit of his choice?
28. A bag contains orange flavored candies only. Ma-
lini takes out one candy without looking into the (a) (c)
bag. What is the probability that she takes out
an orange flavored candy? (b) 
X (d) None of the above
35. In an interview conducted for 5 ABC Consult-
(a) 0 (c) ing candidates, 6 Global Ltd. candidates, 2 can-
didates from Avilvar company, 3 from Sona Ltd
(b) (d) 1 X and 1 from Bent company, what is the probabil-
ity that the candidate who would be selected is
29. If a ball is drawn at random from a box contain- from Sona Ltd. It is given that one candidate
ing 6 red, 4 blue and 5 white balls. What is the from Global Ltd. had not come for the interview
probability that the ball drawn is red or blue? round and one candidate from ABC Consulting
got black listed during the interview process.
(a) (c) 

(a)  (c) X
(b) X (d)
(b) 𝐶 ×  (d) 𝐶 ×

47
36. Salil hits 6 balls out of 10 bowled to him in a game 43. In a single throw of dice, what is the probability
of cricket. What is the probability of Salil hitting to get a number greater than or equal to 4?
the next ball bowled to him?
(a) X (b) (c)  (d)
(a) (c) None
44. A,B,C,D,E play the following game. Each per-
(b) X (d) son picks one card from card numbered 1 through
37. A quiz has one multiple choice question with a 10.the person who picks the greatest numbered
answer choices A, Band C, and two true or false card loses and is out of the game. Now the re-
questions. What is the probability answering all maining four return their cards to the pack and
questions correctly by guessing? draw again and again the person with the greatest
numbered card loses. This process is repeated till
(a) (c) X only one person is left in the game who is declared
(b) (d) None of these as the winner. What is the probability that A is
the winner?
38. What is the probability of getting atleast one tail,
when two coins are tossed simultaneously? (a) (c) X
(a) X (c) (b)  (d)
45. A company hired 35 new employees and cate-
(b) (d) None of these
gorized them as per their joining dates 21 had
joined before 28.02.2012 and 14 had joined af-
39. Four bells begin to toll together and then each one
ter 28.02.2012. The new joiners were called for
at intervals of 6 s, 7 s, 8 s and 9 s respectively.
a meeting to discuss any problem they faced at
The number of times they will toll together in the
workplace. 3 representatives were chosen ran-
next 2 hr is
domly to speak on behalf of the rest. What is the
probability of selecting of 2 employees who had
(a) 14 X (c) 13
joined before 28.02.2012 and 1 after 28.02.2012?
(b) 15 (d) 11
(a) 
(b) 
(c) (d) 
40. In a box, 60% of the shapes are cubes and 40% are  

cones. If 10% of the cubes and 20% of the cones 46. A bird lay to five rounded white egg .suppose the
are blue, what is the probability that a blue shape bird lay two eggs . what is the probability that
selected at random is a cone? first egg hatched is a female bird and the second
egg hatched is male bird?
(a) (c)
(a) (c)
(b)  X (d)  

41. Nitin has 8 grey socks and 8 white socks. He pulls (b) X (d)
two socks randomly without looking at them.
47. Three marketers distribute their products in a
What is the probability that both are white?
colony for pilot testing. Marketer A distributes
(a) 
X (c)  150 items to the people equally and then was left
 
with a few items. Marketer B distributes 270
(b) 
 (d)  items to the people equally and then was left with
the same number of items as the number left with
42. In a shooting competition, the probability that Marketer A. Marketer C distributes 320 items to
rahul will hit the target is  and the probability the people and is left with the same number of
that sheela will hit the target is . So what is the items as the number left with Marketer A. What
probability that both of them will hit the target? is the maximum possible number of people in the
colony?
(a)  X (c) 
(a) 10 X (c) 75
(b)  (d)
(b) 50 (d) 100

48
48. A team uses 2 dice for deciding the person who 54. From a deck of 52 cards a card is drawn at
would give a talk on "Technical aspects of effec- random if
tive communication". Shalini will give a talk only 𝑝 𝑎
= Probability that the card is black
if the product of 2 numbers that turn up is greater 𝑝 𝑏
= Probability that the card is a diamond
than What is the probability that Shalini would or a club
talk on the subject? 𝑝 𝑐
= Probability that the card is a jack
or a card of spade.
(a) (c) Find p(a), p(b) and p(c).
(a) (c)
(b)  X (d) 
49. The probability that Pankaj passes an exam and (b) (d)
Paras fails it is . The probability that Paras 55. Two friends x and y appeared for an audition.
passes the exam and Pankaj fails it is 1/2. The The probability of selection of x is and that of
probability that both Pankaj and Paras fail the y is  .Find the probability that both of them are
exam is . The probability that either of them selected.
pass the exam is?
(a) 
X (c) 

(a) X (c) 1
(b) (d) None
(b) (d) None of these 56. Two persons Radhika and Ridima appear in an
50. The number of all possible selections of one or interview for two vacancies. If the probabilities of
more questions from 8 given questions, each ques- their selections are and  respectively, then the
tion having an alternative is probability that only one of them is selected, is

(a)  − X (c)  − (a)  X (c)

(b)  − (d) None of these (b)  (d) 



51. A bag contains 3 apples and 5 oranges and an- 57. HR calls 15 software and 10 marketing profession-
other bag contains 4 apples and 4 oranges, what als for an interview. Three persons are selected
is the probability that a fruit selected at random from them. The probability that 2 software and
from a randomly selected bag is an apple? 1 marketing personnel are selected from them is:

(a) 
 (c) (a) (c) 

(b)  (d) X (b)  (d)  X

52. If a courier company has a record of delivering 89 58. A bag contains 6 red balls and some green balls.
couriers out of 100 on time. What is the proba- if the probability of drawing a green ball is half
bility that 5 couriers that a person is expecting that of a red ball then the number of green balls
today will reach his location tomorrow? in the bag is

(a) . × (c) . × (a) 3 X (c) 1

(b) . (d) . X (b) 2 (d) 4

59. If a shopkeeper earns Rs. 400 at a day when its
53. Two cards are drawn from a deck of 52 cards with-
weekend and Rs. 300 when its a working day.
out replacement. what is the probability of get-
What should be his earnings expectation if the
ting both cards black or getting one card queen
probability of it being a weekend today is 0.6?
and the other king?
(a) 220 (c) 210
(a) 0.257 X (c) 0.275
(b) 215 (d) 240 X
(b) 0.277 (d) 0.258

49
60. Ritu visited a mall where tokens are given while 66. A bag contains 6 green, 3 black, 5 yellow and 2
submitting the belongings at the entrance. Token blue balls. Find the probability that a ball drawn
are numbered from a, b, c, d ...... z. Guard gives at random is black or yellow
the token at random. What is the probability
that token given to Ritu is a consonant? (a) X (c) 


(a) (c) (b)  (d)



(b)  X (d) 
67. A bank lets its customer choose a personal identi-
61. From a pack of 52 playing cards, 4 cards are re-
fication number (PIN) comprising of 2 characters
moved at random. in how many ways can the 1st
that can be alphanumeric. What is the proba-
place and 3rd place cards be drawn out such that
bility of someone correctly guessing a bank cus-
both are black ?
tomer’s PIN in the first attempt, if no repeats are
allowed?
(a) (c)

(b) (d) (a) − X (c)  −

62. There are 4 green, 2 purple, 1 orange and 5 yel- (b) − (d) −
low marble in pouch. Samir chooses one marble
at random, records it color and replaces it. He
repeats this process 25 times. Which color did 68. If a courier company has a record of delivering 89
Samir probably chooses the greatest number of couriers out of 100 on time. What is the proba-
times? bility that 5 couriers that a person is expecting
today will reach his location tomorrow?
(a) Green (c) Orange
(a) . × (c) .
(b) Purole (d) Yellow X
(b) . × (d) . X
63. A number y is chosen from a set of positive in-
tegers )︁less than 10. What is the probability that
69. A group of 4 students is to be chosen from 3 boys
(︁
𝑥
𝑥 > 𝑥?
and 5 girls. Find the probability that the group
(a) (c) contains exactly 3 girls


(b) (d) X (a)  X (c) 

 

(b) (d) 
64. In a class, 30% of the students offered English,  
20% offered Hindi and10% offered both. If a stu- 70. 2 cards are drawn from a deck of 52 cards without
dent is selected at random, what is the probability replacement. What is the probability of getting
that he has offered English or Hindi? both cards black or getting one card queen and
the other king?
(a) X (c)
(a) 
 (c) 
(b) (d) 
(b) (d) None of these X
65. Ram and Rama both have an apple each. the 

probability of ram eating the apple is and the

71. A bag contains 6 red balls and some green balls.
same for Rama is the probability that Ram will
If the probability of drawing a green ball is half
fall such after eating the apple is and the same
than that of a red ball, then the number of green
for Rama is . what is the probability of either
balls in the bag is:
of them falling sick.
(a) 2 (c) 4
(a) 
(c) X
(b) 3 (d) 6
(b)  (d) 

50
72. Two friends X and Y appeared for an audition. 75. A software engineer creates a LAN game where
The probability of selection of X is and that of an 8 digit code made up of 1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8 has to
Y is  . Find the probability that both of them be decided on, as a universal code. There is con-
are selected dition that each number has to be used and no
number can be repeated. What is the probability
(a) (c) 
X that first 4 digits of the code are even numbers?
(b) (d) (a) X (c)
 
73. Find the chance of throwing more than 9 in one (b) (d)
throw with 2 dices    

76. Shreya picks a letter from the set of English al-

(a) (c)  phabet and finds it to be a vowel. What is the
probability that the letter is either A or U?
(b)  (d)  X
(a) X (c)
74. If A speaks the truth 80% of the times, B speaks
the truth 60% of the times. What is the proba- (b) (d) None
bility that they tell the truth at the same time?

(a) 0.8 (c) 0.6

(b) 0.48 X (d) 0.14

51
1.16 Time and Work

1. Ronald and Elan are working on an assignment. 7. In a poultry farm, 50 hens give 200 eggs in 2 days.
Ronald takes 6 hours to type 32 pages on a com- In how many days will 20 hens give 400 eggs?
puter, while Elan takes 5 hours to type 40 pages.
How much time will they take, working together (a) 15 (c) 5
on two different computers to type an assignment
(b) 10 X (d) 8
of 110 pages?
8. A can finish a job in 12 hours and B in 14 hours.
(a) 7 hrs 30 mins (c) 8 hrs 15 mins X A & B work alternatively, starting with A. if A
earns Rs. 50 per hour, how much does A earn
(b) 8 hrs (d) 8 hrs 25 mins
through this job?
2. Men can repair a road in 7 hours. How many men
are required to repair the road in 2 hours? (a) Rs.400 (c) Rs.300

(a) 7 (c) 17 (b) Rs.250 (d) Rs.350 X

9. 16 men can complete one-fourth of a piece of work
(b) 14 X (d) 10 in 12 days. What is the additional number of men
3. A group of women can finish a piece of work in 50 required to complete the work in 12more days?
days. In how many days will one-third the num-
ber of women be able to finish two-third of the (a) 48 (c) 30
work?
(b) 36 (d) 32 X
(a) 150 days (c) 50 days
10. Sita can cut 8 onions in 10 minutes and Jyoti can
(b) 75 days (d) 100 days X cut 6 onions in 5minutes. How much time will
they take to cut 24 onions together?
4. A contractor estimates that 3 people can paint
Mr. khan’s house in 4 days. If he uses 4 people (a) 20 mins (c) 14 mins
instead of 3, how long will they take to complete
the job? (b) 12 mins X (d) 10 mins

(a) 4 (c) 3 X 11. Pumps can empty a reservoir in 6 days, working

8 hours a day. If 196 pumps are used for 5 hours
(b) 2 (d) 5 a day, then the same work will be completed in
5. Suparna needs to browse through 75 pages of a how many days?
novel before she gives her review to the class. She
(a) 2.6 days X (c) 2.5 days
has 2.5 hours before the lecture. What should be
her reading speed in pages/hour? (b) 3 days (d) 2 days

(a) 16 (c) 20 12. Rahul can finish one-fifth of his homework in one
hour. Neha can finish three seventh of her home-
(b) 30 X (d) 22 work in one hour thirty minutes and Riya can fin-
6. An air conditioner can cool the hall in 40 min- ish three fourth of her homework in three hours
utes while another takes 45 minutes to cool under thirty minutes. If all of them start their home
similar conditions. If both air conditioners are work at 12.00 p.m. and can go to play as soon
switched on at same instance, then how long will as they all finish their homework, when can they
it take to cool the room? start to play, if they take a break at 3.30 p.m. for
thirty minutes?
(a) About 22 minutes X
(a) 5.00 p.m. (c) 4.40 p.m.
(b) About 20 minutes
(b) 5.30 p.m. X (d) 6.30 p.m.
(c) About 30 minutes

(d) About 25 minutes

52
13. A cistern has three taps in all. Two taps are used 18. Two pipes A & B can separately fill a cistern in220
for filling the cistern and the third one is used to minutes and 330 minutes. Together, they can fill
empty the cistern. The first two taps fill the cis- the cistern in
tern in 13 minutes and 11 minutes respectively. (a) 1 hour 32 mins X (c) 2 hour 12 mins
When all the three taps are open, the empty cis-
tern is filled in 30 minutes. How long will the (b) 1 hour (d) 2 hours
third tap (waste pipe) take to empty the cistern
completely? 19. Paul can complete a project in 6 days. With the
(a) 6.28 minutes (c) 7.63 minutes help of an intern, he can do it in 4 days. In what
time can the intern complete the project alone?
(b) 6.43 minutes (d) 7.43 minutes X (a) 6 days (c) 12 days X
14. There are two pipes, an inlet pipe which com-
pletely fills a tank at 6 litre/min and an outlet (b) 6 days (d) 12 days
pipe which empties the tank at 4 litre/min. The
pipes function alternately for 1 minute and the 20. Three employees and four interns can complete a
inlet pipe is the first to function. Considering task in 8 days. While four employees and three
the capacity of the tank as 50 litres, how much interns can do the same work in 8 days. In how
time (in minutes) will it take to completely fill many days can two employees and one intern to
the tank? do the work?

(a) 45 (c) 49 (a) 17 (c) 3 

(b) 50 X (d) 10 (b) 3 X (d) 20

15. A water pump takes 6 hours to fill an overhead 21. Two women Megan and daisy work on a certain
tank. Stand by pump takes 10 hours to fill the job on alternative days. if Megan works on day
same overhead tank. If the first pump fails after 1,the work gets completed in 21 days. If both of
2 hours of running, then how long will the standby them work together on the job, then the job will
pump take to fill the overhead tank? be completed in:
(a) 6 hours (c) 8 hours (a) (c)

(b) 8 hours (d) 6 hours X (b) (d)

16. A water filter takes 40 minutes to filter 20 litres of 22. A and B can work separately and can develop
water. Another filter of same specifications takes question in 12 and 15 days respectively if they
30 minutes to filter the same amount of water. If work alternatively on the questions and A being
both the filters are used at the same time, then question development then in how many days will
how long will it take them to filter 70 litres of the work be completed?
water? (a) days (c) days

(a) hour (c) 1 hour X (b) days X (d) days

(b) hour (d) 1 hour

23. A pipe can fill a tank in 12 hours and another can
17. Jagdish can build a wall in 10 days. Narender can empty in 24 hours. if both the pipes are used,
build the same wall in 12 days while Sumit takes with the first pipe running for 2 hours and second
15 days to do the same job. Which two of them pipe running for 1 hour, alternatively, how long
should be employed to finish the job in 6 days? will it take to fill the tank? (Consider start with
the first pipe)
(a) Jagdish and Narender
(a) 23 hrs 30 min X (c) 22 hrs 30 mins
(b) Jagdish and Sumit X
(b) 23 hrs (d) 22
(c) Sumit and Narender

(d) None of the above

53
24. A cistern can be filled by two pipes A and B in 10 28. Akshay, Bimal and chirag on a construction
and 15 hours respectively and is then emptied by project, All of them work with efficiency and can
a tap in 8 hours. If all the taps are opened, the together complete the project in 20 days. If only
cistern will be fill in: 2 of them work on it at a time and all of them
spend equal days to complete the project. How
(a) 21 hours (c) 23 hours many days would each one of them work for, to
complete the work?
(b) 22 hours (d) None X
25. 20 men can do a job in 10 days, working 8 hours (a) 10 (c) 30
a day. If women are 33.33% more efficient than (b) 15 (d) 20 X
men, how many women will it take to finish the
same job in 10 days, working 6 hours a day? 29. A man can complete a job in 12 days and his wife
can complete the same job in 15 days. How long
(a) 10 (c) 15 will they take to complete the job if they work
(b) 12 (d) 20 X together?

26. Three employees and four interns can complete a (a) 6 days X (c) 10 days
task in 8 days. While four employees and three
(b) 6 days (d) 10 days
interns can do the same work in 8 days. In how
many days can two employees and one intern do 30. There are 5 pipes working in tandem which can fill
the work? a tank of 1,800 litre capacity in 40 minutes. Out
of these 5 pipes, 3 are used to fill liquid in the
(a) 17 days X (c) 3 days tank. Each of these 3 pipes can individually fill
(b) 3  1/6 days (d) 20 days the tank at the rate of 30 litre/min, 45 litre/min
and 15 litre/min respectively. The other two pipes
27. 4 men car repair a road in 7 hours. How many are used to empty the tank - one of which can
men are required to repair the road in 2 hours? empty it at the rate of 30 litre/min. What is the
rate (litre/min) at which the other pipe alone can
(a) 7 Hours (c) 17 Hours empty the tank, considering that the tank is full?
(b) 14 Hours X (d) 10 Hours (a) 4 hrs (c) 3 hrs

(b) 2 hrs X (d) 5 hrs

54
1.17 Time, Speed and Distance

1. Mumbai Rajdhani express takes 16 hours to reach 7. Ram and Ravi were playing with a paper phone,
Mumbai from Delhi while Swaraj express takes 20 frustums of which are attached to each other by
hours. The ratio of the speeds of both the trains 95 m long string. If both start moving in opposite
is: directions at a speed of 18 m/min and 20 m/min
respectively, after how many minutes will both
(a) 1:4 (c) 5:4 X have to stop?
(b) 4:5 (d) 3:2 (a) 2 min (c) 3 min
2. A car is 250 meters behind the bu. The car and (b) 2.5 min X (d) 3.5 min
bus are moving with the speed of 60 km/hr and
35 km/hr respectively. The car will be ahead of 8. A train Rajdhani starts from Suratkal at 5 a.m
bus by 250 meters in: with the speed of 15 kmph. Another train
Shatabdi starts from the same place in the same
(a) 37 seconds (c) 72 seconds X direction at 7 a.m with a speed of 20 kmph. At
what time will both the trains meet each other?
(b) 48 seconds (d) None of the above
(a) 3:00 p.m (c) 12:00 p.m
3. A scuba diver descends at a rate of 40 feet per
(b) 2:00 p.m (d) 1:00 p.m X
minute. A diver drives from a ship to search for a
lost ship at the depth of 3000 feet below sea level. 9. A chemical mixture requires 2 chemicals, A and
How long will he take to reach the ship? B in the proportion 3:2. The mixture is to be
prepared in a tank of capacity 50 litres. Pipe A
(a) 70 minutes (c) 75 minutes X can fill the tank with chemical A in 15 minutes
(b) 72 minutes (d) 76 minutes and pipe B can fill the tank with chemical B in
30 minutes. If both the pipes are opened when
4. The velocity of water flowing over a water fall is the tank is empty, then for how long should the
12 m/sec. After going over the fall the water slows pipes A and B run to obtain the mixture? (In
to 6 m/sec in 3 seconds. What is the acceleration minutes)
of water? (a) 10, 10 (c) 12, 12
(a) 𝑚/𝑠 (c) − 𝑚/𝑠 (b) 9, 9 (d) 9, 12 X
(b) 𝑚/𝑠 (d) − 𝑚/𝑠 X 10. A long distance train is scheduled to reach its des-
5. A good carriage of length 2 km, headed to Sri- tination in 19 hours. After 10 hours of journey,
nagar from Punjab was running at a speed of 30 due to disruption of rail traffic, the train has to
km/hr. It crosses a tunnel which is 58 km long be stationed for 1 hour. If the average speed of
with that speed. Find the time taken by the goods the train is 100km/hr, at what speed (in km/hr)
carriage to cross the tunnel? should it travel to cover the distance in same
amount of time?
(a) 4 hours (c) 2 hours X (a) 110 (c) 112.5 X
(b) 3 hours (d) 1 hour (b) 110.5 (d) 112

6. A train runs at a speed of 42 m/s and takes 35 11. A large rubber cushion can be filled with air pump
seconds to pass a tunnel. After travelling some in 10 minutes, another pump can fill the same
distance, it takes 15 seconds to pass a pole. What cushion in 12 minutes. If both the pumps operate
is the length of tunnel? together, how long will it take to fill the cushion?

(a) 162 m (c) 840 m X (a) 6 minutes (c) 4 minutes

(b) 630 m (d) 240 m (b) 5 

minutes (d) 5 minutes X

55
12. Ratio between speeds of 2 trains is 5:3. If the 18. Mohan walks a certain distance and rides back in
first train runs 350 km in 2 hours, then what is 6 hours and 15 minutes. If he walks both ways
the speed of the second train? he takes 7 hours and 45minutes. If Mohan rides
both ways, the time which he will take will be
(a) 100 kmph (c) 105 kmph X
(a) 4 hours (c) 
hours
(b) 115 kmph (d) 210 kmph
(b) 
hours X (d) 
hours
13. Rajesh commutes daily by traveling of the dis-
tance between his home and office by Metro train, 19. A boat takes a circular route to travel a total dis-
 by auto and remaining 1 km on foot. The dis- tance of 24 km to reach its initial position. The
tance between his home and office is: speed of the boat in still water is 5 km/hr and
the speed of the stream is 3 km/hr. How much
(a) 12 km (c) 24 km time(in hours) does the boat travel upstream and
(b) 16 km (d) 20 km X downstream respectively?

(a) 12, 3 X (c) 8, 4

14. When a local train travels at a speed of 60 kmph,
it reaches the destination on time. When the same (b) 15, 3 (d) None
train travels at speed of 50 kmph, it reaches its
destination 15 minutes late. What is the length 20. A stone is dropped from a height of 5 km. The
of journey? distance it falls through varies directly with the
square of the time taken to fall through that dis-
(a) 75 km X (c) 60 km tance. If it falls 64 m in seconds, find the distance
the stone covers in the 5th second?
(b) 50 km (d) 85 km
(a) 36 m X (c) 72 m
15. The light from a laser beam travels at a speed of
3,00,000,000 meters per second. How far can it be (b) 58 m (d) 100 m
seen within 20 nano seconds, assuming that there
is no obstruction in between? (20 nano seconds 21. A train traveling at 250 kmph overtakes a cyclist
=  × − seconds) who is traveling at 10 kmph in 45 seconds. What
is the length of the train in metres?
(a) 3 m (c) 6 m X
(a) 3000 m X (c) 6000 m
(b) 20 m (d) 0.6 m
(b) 5400 m (d) 10800 m
16. A car is 250 metres behind the bus. The car and
bus are moving with the speed of 60 km/hr and 22. Akhil travels first half of the distance at 50 m/s
35 km/hr respectively. The car will be ahead of and second half at 75 m/s. The total distance
bus by 250 metres in traveled is 3 km. Find his average speed of travel
for the entire journey.
(a) 37 seconds (c) 20 seconds X
(a) 60 m/s X (c) 55 m/s
(b) 48 seconds (d) 68 seconds
(b) 62.5 m/s (d) 65 m/s
17. Supriya runs a marathon race in 50 minutes at
an average speed of 48km/hour. In order to set 23. Find the ratio of distances covered by a car and
a national record, she needs to win the race in48 a cyclist when it is given that the car moves for
minutes, Considering that her speed remains con- 1.5 hours at 30 kmph and the cyclist moves for 1
stant, at what minimum speed should she run to hour at 25 kmph?
set the record?
(a) 6:5 (c) 3:2
(a) 70 km/h (c) 55 km/h
(b) 9:5 X (d) 5:1
(b) 60 km/h (d) 50 km/h X

56
24. A man rows a boat at a speed of 5 km/hr in still 28. Reshep starts for a wedding venue at 6 pm and
water. Find the speed of a river if it takes him drives at a speed of 60 kmph. Ramesh starts for
1 hr to row a boat to a place 2.4 km away and the same venue at 6.30 pm, and drives at a speed
return back. of 75 kmph. When will both reach the venue.
Provided they reach at the same time?
(a) 1 kmph X (c) 3 kmph

(b) 2 kmph (d) 4 kmph (a) 8.00 pm (c) 9.00 pm

(b) 9.30 pm (d) 8.30 pm X

25. 2 friends decide to race around a circular track 29. A train traveling at 250 kmph overtakes a cyclist
of 300 metres. Parvati covers 5 metres per step who is traveling at 10 kmph in 45 seconds. What
and finishes the race in 45 seconds. Given that is the length of the train in meters?
number of footsteps per second is same for both,
how long are Rita’s steps if she finishes 30 seconds (a) 3000 m X (c) 6000 m
later
(b) 5400 m (d) 10000 m
(a) 3 m X (c) 1 m

(b) 5 m (d) 4 m 30. Surekha travels 10 km to reach her office. She

26. A boat takes 90 minutes less to travel 36 miles walks 0.5 km on foot at a speed of 6 kmph to
downstream than to travel the same distance up- catch her charted bus which travels at a speed of
stream. if the speed of the boat in still water is 40 kmph. Time taken by her to reach the office
10 mph then the speed of the stream is ? is:

(a) 2 mph X (c) 3 mph (a) 15 min (c) 18 min X

(b) 2.5 mph (d) 4 mph (b) 20 min (d) 30 min
31. Consider the following parameters.
27. Surat and Kolkata are joined by a straight road
1. A boat travels 300 metres upstream in 15 mins.
of 250 miles. Car A starts from Surat for Kolkata
2. Its speed downstream is  times its speed up-
at 7 am with a speed of 65 miles per hour and an-
stream.
other car, B. starts from Kolkata to Surat at 7 am
Which of the given option provides the correct re-
itself but with a speed of 60 miles per hour. Su-
lationship between speed of current and speed of
perman starts flying towards car B with a speed of
the boat?
325 miles per hour. He touches car B and Imme-
diately comes back to car A. Now he touches car (a) speed of the current = times the speed

A and immediately flies back to car B. Thus, he of the boat
keeps flying back and forth between both the cars
until the moment both the cars crash into each (b) speed of the current = times the speed
other. How much has the superman travelled? of the boat X

(a) 250 miles (c) 850 miles (c) speed of the current =  times the speed
of the boat
(b) 650 miles (d) None of these
(d) speed of the current = 
times the speed
of the boat

57
2 Logical Reasoning
2.1 Analogy

1. Determine the relationship between the first two 9. ADBC: EHFG:: ILJK : ?
words/numbers and then identify the missing
word/number of the second pair such that it is (a) KLMO (c) MPNO X
analogous to the first pair.
(b) MPON (d) KMLO
A17R: D12P:: G7N:?

(a) H2K (c) J2L X 10. BHE:FLI::JPM:?

(b) J3M (d) H3K (a) OTP (c) NSP

2. Coal: Burn :: Bomb:?
(b) NTQ X (d) OSP
(a) Explosion X (c) Smoke
11. Complete the series in a logical manner.
(b) Fire (d) Noise CEGI : JLNP :: QSUW :?

3. 215:474::537::? (a) WCMS (c) XZBD X

(b) SXBD (d) UZDH
(a) 26 (c) 25
12. Fan : Regulator :: Air conditioner :?
(b) 27 (d) 22 X
(a) Remote X (c) Power
4. 6:60:: ?:120
(b) Cable (d) Stabilizer
(a) 240 (c) 480
13. 865: 532::976:?
(b) 12 X (d) 210
(a) 651 (c) 521
5. 26:37::45:?
(b) 642 (d) 643 X
(a) 46 (c) 57
14. D4P:H4L::P5R:
(b) 67 (d) 56 X
(a) V4N (c) U5M X
6. P3M:N4J:R3P:?
(b) V5S (d) R4N
(a) Q3N (c) Q4N
15. Select the right option from the given alternatives.
(b) P3N (d) P4N X QDXM : SFYN :: UIOZ : ?

7. AZP : ZAR : TXK : ? (a) PAQM (c) QNLA

(a) UWL (c) SVN (b) LPWA (d) WKPA X

(b) SYM X (d) VWL 16. WINTER : RETNIW ::?:?
8. POLICY:NPJJAZ::INSURANCE:
(a) RMMEUS : SUMMER
(a) GOQVPBLDC X
(b) SPRING : GNIRPS
(b) GOQVOQBLDC
(c) HEAVEN : NVEAEH
(c) GOQVRBLDC
(d) KNIFE : EFNIK
(d) GOQVPBLEC

58
17. QPS : TSV :: IHK : ? 26. D18H : G27K :: R60V : ?

(a) LKN X (c) MKN (a) U111Y (c) J69Y

(b) NQP (d) LOM (b) U69Y X (d) J111Y

18. CEHL : MORV :: WYBF :? 27. A8I:J7Q::M6S:?

(a) GIKM (c) GJMP (a) T5Y X (c) T5X
(b) GILP X (d) GHJM (b) R5X (d) R5Y

19. Building : Bricks :: Flower : ?

28. NST:LQR::JOP:?
(a) Seed (c) Honey
(a) POJ (c) INO
(b) Fruit (d) Petals X
(b) KPR (d) HMN
20. PSQR : SVTU : DGEF :?
29. PROGRAM: QTRKWGT :: APPLIANCE:?
(a) IKHJ (c) HKIJ X
(a) BRSPNGUKO (c) BRSQNGUKO
(b) HJKI (d) IHJK
(b) BRSQNGUKN (d) BRSPNGUKN
21. D4T : H4P : L5R :?

(a) P4N (c) P5N 30. G3S : J3P :: L4X :?

(b) Q5M X (d) Q4N (a) P3Y (c) P4T

(b) O3T (d) Q4S

22. KPQR: LRTV :: DGHY : ?

(a) EIKC X (c) EJKD 31. POLICY : NPJJAZ :: INSURANCE : ?

(b) ETKC (d) EHKD (a) GOQVPBLDC (c) GOQVRBLDC

23. WOLLS : XPMMT :: PILOT : ? (b) GOQVQBLDC (d) GOQVPBLEC

(a) QJMPU X (c) QMMPU 32. A17R : D12P :: G7N : ?

(b) QJJPU (d) QMJPU
(a) H2K (c) J2L
24. ADWZ : FIBE :: KNPM : ?
(b) J3M (d) H3K
(a) PSUT (c) PSER 33. MTQ : NRR :: OPS : ?

(b) PSUR X (d) PVUR (a) PQT (c) NOR

25. EK : VP :: GM : ? (b) NNT (d) None

34. MQD:KRK::SWM:?
(a) TN X (c) UN
(a) TYT (c) QXS
(b) NT (d) VN
(b) QXT (d) QYQ

59
2.2 Blood Relations

1. Jerry pointed to a person and said, “Sarin is your 8. A is the only brother of B. P is the only nephew
only brother’s brother-in-law’s sister”. How is of B. How is P related to A?
Sarin related to me?
(a) Son X (c) Brother
(a) Sister (c) Aunt
(b) Daughter (d) Can’t say
(b) Cousin (d) Sister-in-law X
2. Pointing to a man, a girl said, “He is the hus- 9. Pointing to a boy in a photograph, a girl said, “He
band of the granddaughter of the mother of my is the son of the daughter-in-law of my mother’s
mother”. How is the man related to the girls? mother”. How is the girl related to the boy?

(a) Cousin (c) Brother (a) Son (c) Nephew

(b) Brother-in-law X (d) Father (b) Brother (d) Cousin X

3. M and N have two children A and B. F is the 10. A and B have two children E and F. T is the only
spouse of B, D is the child of F. P is the son-in- son of F. S is the spouse of E. Q is the brother of
law of N. K is the child of P. Who is the male T. How is Q related to S?
child of M and N?
(a) Son (c) Nephew
(a) B X (c) A
(b) Uncle (d) Aunt X
(b) D (d) K 11. B is the only daughter-in-law of A. M is the only
4. Pointing to a lady in the photograph, a man tells grandson of A. P is M’s father. How is P related
Meetu, “I am the only son of this lady and her to B?
daughter is your maternal Aunt”. How is the
speaker related to Meetu’s mother? (a) Husband X (c) Son

(a) Husband X (c) Brother (b) Son-in-law (d) Wife

(b) Father (d) Cousin 12. Pointing to a lady, a man said, "She is the mother-
5. Seema is Tanya’s mother’s mother’s son’s only sis- in-law of my sister’s husband". How is the girl
ter’s husband’s daughter. What is the relation- related to the lady?
ship between Seema and Tanya?
(a) Sister (c) Daughter
(a) Sisters X (c) Niece and Aunt (b) Grandmother (d) Mother X
(b) Cousins (d) None of these
13. If Mohan is the brother of Rohan’s grandmother,
6. Rahul went to his mother’s mother-in-laws’ only how is Rohan related to Mohan?
son’s daughter’s husband’s son’s maternal uncle
and asked for some money. How is this person (a) Brother-in-law (c) Grandson X
related to Rahul?
(b) Uncle (d) Grandfather
(a) Brother X (c) Father
14. Aakriti went to her mother’s brother’s wife’s
(b) Cousin (d) Uncle
daughter’s paternal grandmother’s only Son-in-
7. Pointing to a girl, Aravind said “ She is the daugh-
law’s nephew’s house. Whose house did Aakriti
ter of the only child of my father”. How is Ar-
go to?
avinds wife related to that girl?
(a) Son (c) Sister
(a) Daughter (c) Aunt X
(b) Brother X (d) Cousin
(b) Mother (d) Sister

60
15. Sapana was talking to Harsha’s husband’s 22. P is the daughter of Q. R is the brother of P. S is
mother-in-law’s son’s daughter’s paternal grand- the father of R. How is Q related to S?
father’s brother. If Sapana and Harsha are sisters,
then who was Sapana talking to? (a) Wife X (c) Father

(a) Uncle (c) Brother (b) Daughter (d) Uncle

(b) Father X (d) Grandfather 23. Aakash saw his sister’s son’s maternal aunt’s hus-
16. E is the only son of E. E is married to G and C band’s mother-in-law’s Grand daughter from her
is the only daughter of G. How is C related to E? only son on the other side of the road. Whom did
Aakash see?
(a) Son (c) Sister
(a) Aunt (c) Daughter
(b) Granddaughter (d) Daughter X
(b) Sister X (d) Niece
17. M is P’s brother’s son. N is the only brother of
24. Ankit is the son of Zubin. Manju is the daughter
P. How is N related to M?
of Anil. Sheela is the mother of Manju. Mohan is
the brother of Manju. How is Mohan related to
(a) Nephew (c) Cousin
Sheela?
(b) Father X (d) Uncle
(a) Son X (c) Son-in-law
18. Pointing to a man in a photograph, another man
said, “He is the father of my daughter’s son”. How (b) Brother (d) None
is the man in the photograph related to the man? 25. Pointing to a gentleman, Neeraj said, His only
brother is the father of my daughter’s father. How
(a) Brother (c) Father is the gentleman related to Neeraj?
(b) Son-in-law X (d) Son (a) Father X (c) Brother
19. Pointing to a girl child in a photograph, a woman (b) Uncle (d) None
said, “Her mother’s sister is the wife of my son”.
How is the woman related to the child? 26. Pointing to a man in the photograph, a woman
said, His brother’s fathers is the only son of my
(a) Mother (c) Sister grandfather. Who is the woman related to the
man in the photograph?
(b) Daughter (d) None of these X
20. Looking at a picture, X said that the lady in the (a) Cousin X (c) Husband
picture is her father’s mother’s mother-in-law’s
only daughter-in-law’s only granddaughter. Who (b) Brother (d) None
is the lady in the picture? 27. How is K related to Z? Z and P are the only sisters
of D. D’s mother is the wife of K’s father?
(a) X herself X (c) X’s mother
(a) Brother X (c) Father
(b) X’s grandmother (d) X’s daughter
(b) Husband (d) None
21. Looking at a man’s portrait, Harsh said, "His
mother is the wife of my father’s son. Brothers
28. Six members of a family M, N, O, P, Q, R are
and sisters I have none." At whose portrait was
traveling together. N is the son of O, but O is not
Harsh looking?
the mother of N.M and O are a married couple.
(a) His cousin’s portrait Q is the brother of O.P is the daughter of M and
R is the brother of N. Who is the mother of N?
(b) His uncle’s portrait
(a) M X (c) P
(c) His nephew’s portrait
(b) O (d) None
(d) None of these X

61
29. A is the father of C, but C is not a son of A . F is 35. Introducing a man, a woman said, "He is the
A’s wife while E is C’s daughter. B is the brother husband of my mother’s daughter". How is the
of C.D is the son of B and G.H is G’s father. Who woman related to the man?
is the grandmother of D?
(a) Mother (c) Sister
(a) C (c) G
(b) Daughter (d) None of these X
(b) F X (d) None
36. P is the son-in-law of S. T and Q are the children
30. P × Q means P is the sister of Q; P + Q means of P. M is the mother of T. How is M related to
P is the father of Q; P – Q means P is the mother S?
of Q. Which of the following means S is the aunt
of T? (a) Daughter X (c) Mother

(b) Son (d) Sister

(a) T × M + S (c) S × M + T X
(b) S + T × M (d) S × M + R – T 37. Anand introduces Geeta as the wife of the grand-
son of his mother. How is Anand related to
31. Introducing a woman, a man said, "She is the only Geeta?
daughter-in-law of my mother." How is the woman
(a) Father-in-law (c) Uncle
related to the man?
(b) Brother-in-law (d) Grandfather X
(a) Cousin (c) Daughter
38. Q is the wife of R. M is the mother of R and S.
(b) Sister (d) Wife X How is M related to Q?
32. A and B are children of D. Who is the father of A?
(a) Father (c) Uncle
To answer this question which of the statements
(1) and (2) is necessary? (b) Mother-in-law X (d) Father-in-law
1. C is the brother of A and the son of E.
2. F is the mother B. 39. Pointing towards a person in a photograph, Pinki
said, He is the cousin of my mother’s husband".
(a) Only 1 (c) Both 1and 2
How is that person related to Pinki?
(b) Only 2 X (d) Either 1 or 2
(a) Father X (c) Brother
33. Seeta who is the sister-in-law of Arvind, is the
(b) Uncle (d) Brother-in-law
daughter-in-law of Sumedha. Deepak is the father
of Saarthak, who is the only brother of Arvind. 40. Pointing to a lady, a man said, "She is the wife of
How is Sumedha related to Arvind? my father’s only son". How is the man related to
the lady?
(a) Mother-in-law (c) Aunt
(a) Brother (c) Husband
(b) Mother X (d) Grand mother
34. 𝐴  𝐵 means ‘A is the daughter of B’; 𝐴 × 𝐵 (b) Cousin (d) Brother-in-law X
means ‘A is the son of B’ and 𝐴 − 𝐵 means ‘A
41. A boy goes to see a movie and sees a man sitting
is the wife of B’. If 𝑇 − 𝑆 × 𝐵 − 𝑀 , which of the
to his left and finds that the man was his rela-
following is not true?
tive. The man is the husband of the sister of his
(a) B is the mother of S mother. How is the man related to the boy?

(b) M is the husband of B (a) Uncle (c) Brother

(c) T is the wife of S (b) Nephew (d) None of these X
(d) S is the daughter of B X

62
42. Pointing to a boy in a photograph, a girl said, "He 47. A man goes to the park and see a girl who he
is the son of the daughter-in-law of my mother’s recognized to be his relative. The girl was the
mother". How is the girl related to the boy? daughter of his sister’s husband’s wife. How is
the girl related to the man?
(a) Son (c) Nephew
(a) Niece X (c) Sister
(b) Brother (d) Cousin X
(b) Sister-in-law (d) Aunt
43. Introducing a man, a woman said, "His wife is 48. Pointing to a woman, a man said, "Her father is
the only daughter of my father." How is the man the only son of my mother". How is the man re-
related to the woman? lated to the woman?

(a) Husband X (c) Father-in-law (a) Father X (c) Nephew

(b) Uncle (d) Father (b) Cousin (d) Brother

49. Pointing to a lady, a man said, "She is the daugh-

44. X is the wife of Y. P is the daughter-in-law of Y. ter of the woman who is the mother of the hus-
Q is the only son of X. How is P related to Q? band of my mother". How is the lady related to
the man?
(a) Son (c) Niece
(a) Grandmother (c) Mother
(b) Husband (d) Wife X
(b) Sister (d) Aunt X
50. X says, pointing to Y, "He is my sister’s only
45. Introducing a women, a man said, She is the only brother’s son. “How Is Y related to X?
daughter-in-law my mother". How is the woman
related to the man? (a) Nephew (c) Brother

(a) Cousin (c) Daughter (b) Son X (d) Uncle

(b) Sister (d) Wife X 51. Cia is the only daughter of Bob who was celebrat-
ing her birthday. A total of 5 members attended
46. P is the father of Q and R. Q is the only son of the party. Amy was the daughter in law of Freda
P. What is R’s relation with P? who was the wife of Emanuel. Danny was the son
of Amy and Brother of Cia. How is Amy related
(a) Daughter X (c) Son to Emanuel?

(b) Niece (d) Nephew (a) Sister

(b) Grand Daughter

(c) Daughter in law X

(d) Daughter

63
2.3 Direction

1. Faizal is standing at point A facing North. He 7. I was facing West. I turned ∘ in the clockwise

walks 15 meters to his left and takes an about direction and ∘ in the anticlockwise direction.
turn and walks 30 meters. How far and in which Which direction am I facing now?
direction is he from the starting point?
(a) North-West (c) North
(a) 15 m, West (c) 45 m, East
(b) East (d) North-East X
(b) 15 m, East X (d) 45 m, West
8. A lady travels 5 km towards south, then 4 km to-
2. A man walks 1 km towards West and then he
wards east, then 8 km towards north and then 2
turns towards South and walks 7 km. Again, he
km towards west. In which direction is she from
turns towards North and walks 1 km. After this,
her starting point?
he turns towards East and walks 9 km. Now, how
far is he from the starting point? (a) North-east (c) South-west
(a) 7 km (c) 9 km (b) South-east X (d) South
(b) 8 km (d) 10 km X 9. A tourist has strayed from his path while on his
way to his hotel. He moves 28 km towards south,
3. I was facing west. I turned ∘ in the clockwise
then moves 20 km towards west, then 4 km to-
direction and  in the anticlockwise direction.
∘
ward north and then 2 km towards east to reach
Which direction am I facing now?
his hotel. What is the distance of the shortest
(a) North – West (c) North possible route?

(b) East (d) North – East X (a) 45 km (c) 18 km

(b) 20 km (d) 30 km X
4. A woman is facing South. She turns 45°in the
10. A pole indicating direction erroneously indicates
clockwise direction and then 35° in the anticlock-
east as south-east, south as south-west, west as
wise direction. Which direction is she facing now?
north-west. In which direction will the pole indi-
(a) South (c) South - West X cate north?

(b) West (d) South – East (a) North-west (c) South

(b) North-east X (d) East

5. A Child walks 6 m towards west and then 20 m
11. I was facing West. I turned 125° in the anticlock-
towards south. He then turns east and walks an-
wise direction. Which direction am I facing now?
other 12 m. Then he walks 12 m towards north.
How far is he from his initial position?
(a) North-West (c) North
(a) 10 m X (c) 8 m (b) East (d) North-East X
(b) 12 m (d) 6 m
12. Rahul is facing South. He walks straight for 15
6. A lady walks 8 km towards east, then 3 km to- meters and turns left and walks 25 meters, then
wards south and then she walks 4 km towards turns left again and walks 15 meters, finally he
west. How far is she from his initial position and turns left and walks 40 meters. How far and in
in which direction? which direction is he standing from the starting
point?
(a) 5 km towards south-east X
(a) 10 meters, West
(b) 7 km towards west
(b) 10 meters, East
(c) 5 km towards south-west
(c) 15 meters, West X
(d) 8 km towards west
(d) 15 meters, North-West
64
13. One day, Raja left home and cycled 5 km south- 19. Kunal is located 40 m South-West of Lalit. If
wards, turned left and cycled 2 km and turned left Madhu is 40 m South-East of Lalit, then what is
again and cycled 3 km. Then right and cycled 5 Madhu’s position with respect to Kunal?
km. How many kilometers will he have to cycle
to reach his home straight? (a) North (c) East X
√ √ (b) South (d) South-East
(a) X (c)
√ √
(b) (d)  20. If north is called north-east, north-east is called
east, east is called south-east and so on. What
14. Aaron was riding his bike. He rode 50 meters will south-east be called?
south and took a left turn to ride another 70 me-
ters. After that he took another left turn and rode (a) West X (c) South
50 meters again and finally he took a right turn
to ride 60 meters more. How far and in which (b) North (d) East
direction is he from the starting point?
21. Charu is facing south. She walks 20 meters to-
(a) 120 m, West (c) 110 m, West wards her left and takes a right turn to walk 10
meters, then she takes another left turn to walk
(b) 110 m, East (d) 130 m, East X 30 meters. In which direction is she standing now
from her starting point?
15. A girl is facing towards West. She turns ∘ in
the clockwise direction and then ∘ in the anti-
(a) South-East X (c) North-East
clockwise direction. Which direction is she facing
now? (b) South-West (d) North-west
22. Mayank traveled a distance of 80 m towards
(a) South-West (c) South X North. Then he turns right and travels 65m, then
(b) North-West (d) West again turns northwards and travel 45 m degree
clockwise. Towards which direction is he running
16. A man walks 20 km towards south and then 15 now?
km towards east. How far is her from his initial (a) North (c) South-West
position?
(b) West (d) North-East X
(a) 25 km X (c) 40 km 23. Two friends A and B Start walking from a com-
mon point. A goes 20 kms towards north-east
(b) 30 km (d) 50 km
whereas B goes 16 kms towards east then 12 kms
towards north. How far are A and B from each
17. A child while coming home from his school first
other?
goes 4kms towards south-east, then 8kms towards
west. He then goes 4kms towards north-west. In (a) 14 kms (c) 15 kms
which direction is the from his school?
(b) Same fiishing (d) Data is insuffi-
(a) East (c) South-east place X cient
24. 8 persons A through H are standing facing North
(b) North X (d) West
in such a way that: B is 30 m apart from C to-
18. Garima is standing at point A facing west. She wards West. C is 30 m South with respect to A.
walks 10 meters towards her right, then she turns A is 40 m towards West with respect to E. D is
towards her left and walks 20 meters, after that 50 m South of E. F is 15 m North of G. H is 20
she turns left again and walks 35 meters. In which m apart from G towards East. F is 40 m towards
direction is she standing now from the starting West with respect to D. In which direction is C
point A? standing with respect to G?

(a) South-West X (c) North (a) North X (c) North – West

(b) West (d) North-west (b) North – East (d) South

65
25. Rajeshwar walked 2 km towards North. Then he 30. Somya is standing at point A facing East. She
turned right and walked 3 km. Then he again walks 30 metres towards her right and takes a left
turned right and walked 3.5km. Then he turned turn to walk 40 metres, then she takes another
left and walked 1.5 km. Finally, he turned left left turn and walks 50metres. In which direction
and walked another 1.5 m. How many kilometres is she standing from point A?
away is he from the starting point and in which
direction from the starting point is he standing (a) North-East X (c) North-West
now?
(a) 3 km - East (c) 4.5 km - East X (b) North (d) West

(b) 4.5 km - West (d) 3 km - West 31. Sunil drove his car in the Northern direction for
distance. He then turned left for 10 km. He again
26. From a point Shalu starts walking towards North turned left and drove for 20 km. He found himself
and after walking 20 meters, sheturns to her right 10 km West of his starting point. Initially, how
and walks 10 meters, then she turns right again far did he drive his car in the Northern direction
and walks 20 m. Then, she turns to her left and
walks 10 m and finally turns to her left and walks (a) 10 km (c) 30 km
20 m. In which direction is she with reference to
the starting point? (b) 20 km X (d) 15 km

(a) North (c) North-East X 32. One morning Megha and Sonam were talking to
each other in a park. They were standing face to
(b) South (d) East face. If Sonam’s shadow fell exactly to the right
27. Nancy is standing at point a facing North. She of Megha, then in which direction was Megha fac-
walks 50 meters to her right and takes a left turn ing?
and walks another 40 meters, then she walks 30 (a) East X (c) South
meters to her left again and then 20 meters to her
right. In which direction is she standing from her (b) West (d) North
starting point? 33. Shivam put his wall clock on a table in such a way
that at 9 a.m. the hour hand was pointing south.
(a) North-East (c) North X In which direction will the minute hand point at
9:30 p.m.?
(b) North-West (d) South-West
(a) South (c) West
28. Sagar walks 30 metres West and takes a left turn
to walk 10 metres, then takes left turn again and (b) North (d) East X
walks 40 metres, and takes another left turn and
walks 20 metres. In which direction is he standing 34. A man travels 3 km to the West, turns left and
now from the starting point? goes 3 km, turns right and goes 1 km, and again
turns right and goes 3 km. How far is he from the
(a) North-East X (c) North-West starting point?
(b) South-East (d) North (a) 7 km (c) 5 km
29. Raja has to go to Cafe Morrison which is 50 me- (b) 6 km (d) 4 km X
ters away from his house in the South-West di-
rection. He walks 30 meters towards South and
takes a right turn. How far and in which direc- 35. Amar started from point A and walked 10 km
tion would Raja have to walk now to reach Cafe East to point B then turned North and walked 3
Morrison? km to point C and then turned West and walked
12 km to point D, the again turned South and
(a) 40 meters, Eat walked 3 km to point E. In which direction is he
from his starting point?
(b) 40 meters, West X
(a) East (c) West X
(c) 40 meters, South-East
(b) South (d) North
(d) 40 meters, North-East

66
36. 8 people namely A, S, D, F, G, H, J and K are 41. A man is facing North. He turns ∘ in the anti-
sitting around a circular table facing the centre of clockwise direction and then ∘ in the clockwise
the table. D is facing North-East and G is sitting direction and then another ∘ in the anticlock-

3 positions away from D in the clockwise direc- wise direction. Which direction is he facing now?
tion. J is sitting adjacent to D and opposite to A.
A is sitting adjacent to S on his right. K is sitting (a) North-West (c) North
adjacent to S and F is not sitting opposite to D.
(b) West X (d) North-East
Which direction is A facing?
42. One evening, Shagi started to walk toward the
(a) South X (c) East Sun. After walking a while, she turned to her
(b) West (d) North right and again to her right. After walking a
while, she again turned right. In which direction
37. Karan starts walking towards south. After walk- is she facing?
ing 15m, he turns towards North. After walking
20m, he turns towards East and walks 10m. He (a) South X (c) West
then, turns towards South and walks 5m. How far
and in what direction is he from starting point? (b) East (d) North

(a) 10m East X (c) 10m South-East 43. Rahul put his timepiece on the table in such a
way that at 6 P.M. hour hand points to North.
(b) 10m West (d) 10m North-East In which direction the minute hand will point at
9.15 P.M.?
38. Santhosh walks 10 metres East and takes a right
(a) South-East (c) North
turn to walk 30 metres, then takes a right turn
and walks 40 metres and then takes a right turn (b) South (d) West X
and walks 20 metres. In which direction is he 44. if A × B means A is to the south of B; A + B
standing now from the starting point? means A is to the north of B; A % B means A is
to the east of B; A – B means A is to the west of
(a) North-West (c) South-West X B; then in P % Q +R- S, S is in which direction
(b) North-East (d) South-East with respect to Q?

39. A, B, C, D and E are sitting on a bench. A is (a) South-West X (c) North-East

sitting next to B, C is sitting next to D, D is not
(b) South-East (d) North-West
sitting with E who is on the left end of the bench.
C is on the second position from the right. A is to 45. Siva walked 10 m towards West from his house.
the right of B and E. A and C are sitting together. Then he walked 5 m turning to his left. After
In which position A is sitting? this he walked 10 m turning to his left and in the
end he walked 10 m turning to his left. In what
(a) Middle X (c) North end direction is he now from his starting point?
(b) East end (d) None
(a) South (c) East
40. Two cars start from the opposite places of a main
road. First car runs for 25 km and takes a right (b) North X (d) None of these
turn and then runs 15 km. It then turns left and
then runs for another 25 km and then takes the di- 46. Manish goes 7 km towards South-East from his
rection back to reach the main road. In the mean house, then he goes 14 km turning to West. After
time due to minor break down the other car has this he goes 7 km towards North West and in the
run only 35 km along the main road. What would end he goes 9 km towards East. How far is he
be the distance between two cars at this point? from his house?

(a) 65 km X (c) 80 km (a) 5 km X (c) 2 km

(b) 75 km (d) 85 m (b) 7 km (d) None of these

67
47. P, Q, R and S are playing a game of carom. P, R, 53. Five cars are parked in a row facing eastward. E
and S, Q are partners. S is to the right of R who is parked to the left of A, B and C. B, C and A
is facing west. Then Q is facing? are parked to the left of D. C is parked between
A and B. If B is parked fourth from the left, how
(a) North (c) East X far is A parked from the right?
(b) South (d) None of these (a) Fourth X (c) Second
48. Laxman went 15 kms from my house, then turned (b) Third (d) First
left and walked 20 kms. He then turned east and
walked 25 kms and finally turning left covered 54. A boy is facing North-West. He turns 85° in the
20kms. How far was he from his house? anticlockwise: direction and then 50° in the same
direction. Which direction is he facing now?
(a) 5 kms (c) 40 kms
(a) South-West (c) South X
(b) 10 kms X (d) None of these
(b) South-East (d) North
49. A B, C and D are playing a game of cards to- 55. Ravi leaves for his office in his car. He drives 5
gether. In the game, A and B are partners. C is km towards South and then 4 km towards West.
sitting with his back towards North and A is sit- He then turns towards South and covers 7 km.
ting with his back towards East. Who amongst Further on, he drives 4 km towards Fast, then
the following are sitting in a North facing posi- he Moves towards North and covers-5 km. How
tion? fir and in which direction is he from the starting
point?
(a) B (c) D
(a) 5 in South (c) 7 km North
(b) C (d) None of them
(b) 5 km North (d) 7 km south X
50. Two friends X and Y start a race. X runs 12
km towards East and then 18 km towards South. 56. Renuka started walking from her house. She first
Y runs 2 km towards South and then 20 km to- walked for 3 km towards West, then she turned
wards South-East. How far are they from each towards North and moved 4 km in that direction.
other now? How far Renuka is from her house?

(a) 0 km X (c) 2 km (a) 3 km South X (c) 5 km West

(b) 1 km (d) 6 km (b) 3 km North (d) 5 km North-West

51. Meeru has lost he2r way home and was standing 57. X walks 6 km towards East from a point A and
25 meters away from her house in the South-West from the same point A, Y walks 8 km towards
direction. She walks 20 meters North and reaches South. How far are the two friends from each
point A. How far and in which direction would other now?
she have to walk to reach her house?
(a) 14 km (c) 10 km X
(a) 20 m, East (c) 15 m, West X (b) 2 km (d) 5 km
(b) 15 m, East (d) 20 m, West 58. Philip was taking an evening stroll. He started
walking North and walked for 50 metres, then he
52. Two friends Raman and Rajan start a race and
took a left turn and walked for another 20 metres,
run together for 20 kms towards East. From
then he took a right turn and walked for 10 me-
there, Raman runs 10 kms towards North-East
tres and sat on a bench there. In which direction
and Rajan continues running in the East for 8
does the bench lie from Philip’s starting point?
kms. How far are the two friends now from each
other? (a) North-West X (c) South-West
(a) 6 kms X (c) 18 kms (b) South-East (d) North-East
(b) 20 kms (d) 30 kms

68
59. A man has strayed from his path while on his 65. A tourist drives 10 km towards East and turns
way to the park. He moves 100 km towards right and drives for another 3 km. He then drives
South, then another 40 km towards. West He another 3 km towards West (turning to his right).
then travels 70 km towards North and reach & He then turns to his left and walks another 2 km.
the park What is the distance of the shortest pos- Afterwards, he turns to his right and travels 7 km.
sible route? How far and in which direction will he be from his
starting point?
(a) 50 km X (c) 60 km
(a) 10 km East (c) 8 km West
(b) 40 km (d) 30 km
(b) 9 km North (d) 5 km South X
60. A baby crawls 12 feet towards East and then 4 66. Rohan is walking towards west. He takes three
feet towards South. He then crawls 9 feet towards turns while walking, all at an (internal) angle of
West. How far is he from his initial position? 45 degree towards right, right and left. What di-
rection is he facing now?
(a) 2 feet (c) 5 feet X
(a) North-Wast X (c) East
(b) 9 feet (d) 16 feet
(b) South-East (d) West
61. Radha is facing south. She turns 135° in the anti-
clockwise direction and then 45° in the clockwise 67. A lady is facing South-East. She turns ∘ in the
direction. Which direction is she facing now? clockwise direction, then ∘ in the anticlockwise
direction and then another ∘ in the clockwise
(a) West (c) South direction. Which direction is she facing now?
(b) North (d) East X (a) South (c) West
62. A man runs 4 km towards North, then 20 km to- (b) North-West X (d) South-Wast
wards East Then he runs 4 km towards South.
How far is he from his initial position? 68. A man moves 2 kms towards east, then 3 kms to-
wards South and again 2 kms towards west and
(a) 4 km (c) 24 km
then he goes 2 kms towards the initial point from
(b) 20 km X (d) 16 km where he started. In which direction is he from
his initial position?
63. Shivani Mit his wall Clock On a table in such a
way that at 9 a.m. the hour hand was pointing (a) East (c) West
South. In which direction will the minute hand (b) South X (d) North
point at 9:30 p.m.?
69. A child has strayed from his path while coming
(a) South (c) West home from the school. He first goes 3 kms to-
wards south from his school and then moves 5
(b) North X (d) East kms towards east. He again moves 3 kms towards
north and then goes 2 kms towards west. How far
64. A baby crawls 8 feet towards West and then 8 is his school from home (in Km)?
feet towards North. It then moves 14 feet towards
East. How far and in which direction is the baby (a) 3 X (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 8
from the starting point?
70. Suneeta moves a distance of 9 meters towards
(a) 8 feet towards East East. She then moves towards South and trav-
els a distance of 4 meters. From here, she moves
(b) 10 feet towards North-East X a distance of 6 meters towards West. How far is
(c) 6 feet towards East the starting point from her final position?
(a) 3 meters (c) 5 meters X
(d) 10 feet towards South-East
(b) 4 meters (d) 7 meters

69
71. Mehak was in a whimsical mood and to reach her
home from her office she took the following steps-
4 steps towards North, 3 steps towards East, 8
steps towards South, 6 steps towards West, 7 steps
towards North, 5 steps towards East, 6steps to-
wards South, 4 steps towards West and finally
reached her home taking 3 steps towards North.
The location of Mehak’s home with respect to her
office is

(a) 3 steps to the East

(b) 3 steps to the West

√
(c) steps to North West X
(d) 2 steps towards the East

70
2.4 Odd One Out

1. Pick the odd man out. 10. From the given anagrams select the odd one out.

(a) AEK X (c) TWZ (a) LABLOTOF (c) CEKTRIC

(b) DFH (d) MOQ (b) ONSEL X (d) SNINET

2. Pick the odd man out. 11. From the given choices select the odd one out.

(a) ADBC (c) TWUV (a) ABDC (c) PQSR

(b) MNPO X (d) PSQR (b) MNPQ X (d) STVU

3. From the given choices select the odd one out. 12. From the given anagrams select the odd one out

(a) DEH (c) KLQ (a) OLIVE (c) LITCHI

(b) CDI (d) PRV X (b) APPLE (d) EGG X

4. Pick the odd man out. 13. Choose the odd man out.

(a) ACFJ (c) PRUY (a) HAIR (c) FAIR

(b) CEHL (d) SUXZ X (b) LIAR X (d) PAIR

5. From the given anagrams select the odd one out. 14. From the given choices select the odd one out.

(a) RKOC (c) ADNS (a) EGK (c) CGP X

(b) RRIVE X (d) LNDA (b) BEN (d) AEU

6. From the given choices select the odd one out. 15. Pick the odd man out

(a) HIKJ (c) STVU (a) KML (c) NPQ X

(b) KLNM (d) RSTU X (b) PRQ (d) TVU

7. From the given anagrams select the odd one out 16. Pick the odd man out

(a) CABBAGES (c) DATES X (a) FHKO (c) ZBEJ X

(b) CARROTS (d) CHERRIES (b) CEHL (d) XZCG

8. Choose the odd man out. 17. From the given anagrams select the odd one out.

(a) TRIANGLE (c) PENTAGON (a) ESOR (c) LUFTE X

(b) SQUARE (d) CIRCLE X (b) POLIT (d) STUOL

9. Pick the odd man out. 18. From the given choices selected the odd man out.

(a) AFK (c) PUZ (a) AA X (c) DDDD

(b) TWB X (d) DIN (b) BB (d) EEEEE

71
19. From the given choices select the odd one out. 29. Pick the odd man out

(a) MQ2 (c) PS2 (a) STV (c) KKT X

(b) RV2 X (d) DM3 (b) XYA (d) BDE
20. From the given choices select the odd one out. 30. Find the odd one out.
275, 132, 462, 396, 327, 891, 121.
(a) BAK (c) HGQ
(a) 327 X (c) 121
(b) DCM (d) MNW X
(b) 275 (d) 396
21. From the given choices select the odd one out.
31. Which of these does not belong to the group.
(a) ADG (c) PSW 4, 9, 256, 529, 573
(a) 256 (c) 529
(b) HKN X (d) MPS
(b) 573 X (d) 9
22. From the given choices select the odd one out.
32. Pick the odd, man out.
(a) AFB (c) KPL
(a) IE X (c) IO
(b) MRN (d) RXS X
(b) UA (d) AE
23. From the given choices select the odd one out.
33. Pick the odd, man out.
(a) DEB (c) PQN
(a) 26 X (c) 53
(b) FGD (d) TUS X (b) 35 (d) 71
24. From the given choices select the odd one out.
34. Pick the odd, man out.
(a) ADP (c) HKR (a) BAD (c) POS X
(b) QTX (d) STE X (b) FEH (d) TSV

25. From the given choices select the odd man out. 35. Pick the odd, man out.

(a) FJN (c) CGK (a) bb c MN (c) gg f QP X

(b) HLO X (d) KOS (b) dd e OP (d) mm n WX
26. Pick the odd man out. 36. From the given choices select the odd man out.

(a) DFK (c) EGL (a) PRQ (c) TUV X

(b) PRW (d) TVZ X (b) ACB (d) QSR
27. From the given choices select the odd one out. 37. From the given choices select the odd one out.

(a) BD2 (c) NR4 (a) DFE (c) MPN X

(b) GI2 (d) SV2 X (b) PRQ (d) SUT
28. From the given choices select the odd man out. 38. From the given choices select the odd one out.

(a) BCEH (c) CDGK X (a) ADG (c) SUT X

(b) PQSV (d) STVY (b) BEH (d) KNQ

72
39. Pick the odd man out. 44. From the given choices select the odd one out.

(a) AE5 (c) HN14 (a) Water X (c) Nitric acid

(b) DF6 (d) KP18 X (b) Sulphuric acid (d) Hydrochloric acid
40. Pick the odd man out. 45. From the given choices select the odd one out.

(a) D6J (c) M6S (a) Dipsomaniac : Alcohol

(b) T4Z (d) K7R X (b) Anglomaniac : English

41. Pick the odd man out. (c) Scholar : Knowledge X

(a) PSRQ (c) SVUT (d) Bibliomaniac : Books

(b) MNPO X (d) KNML 46. From the given choices select the odd one out.
42. From the given choices select the odd one out.
(a) Coins : Jingle
(a) Australia X (c) France (b) Bows : Twang
(b) Germany (d) Italy (c) Dishes : Rattle X
43. From the given choices select the odd one out. (d) Whips : Lash
(a) 35 X (c) 53

(b) 83 (d) 71

73
2.5 Series

1. Find the next number in the series. 10. Find the next number in the series.
5,9,16,29,.... 10,11,15,24,....
(a) 34 (c) 54 X (a) 48 (c) 40 X
(b) 46 (d) 62 (b) 32 (d) 38
2. Find the next number in the series.
11. Find the next number in the series.
79, 64, 26, 15 ....
9, 54, 135, 252,....
(a) 9 X (c) 10
(a) 400 (c) 380
(b) 6 (d) 8
(b) 405 X (d) 420
3. Find the missing term in the series. 12. Find the next number in the series.
3,6,15,...123 8,8,6,2,....
(a) 30 (c) 24 (a) -4 X (c) 3
(b) 42 X (d) 81 (b) -3 (d) 4
4. Find the next number in the series.
8,12,24,60,.... 13. 5,7,10,14,20,26,35,43,.....

(a) 120 (c) 142 (a) 53 (c) 55 X

(b) 180 X (d) 100 (b) 52 (d) 51
5. 18,19,21,24,....
(a) 26 (c) 27 14. Find the missing term in the series.
4, 12, 6, 18, 12, 36, 30,....
(b) 25 (d) 28 X
(a) 54 (c) 60
6. Find the next number in the series. (b) 90 X (d) 56
2,3,6,18,108,....
15. Find the next number in the series.
(a) 54 (c) 216 3, 11, 25, 45,....
(b) 1002 (d) 1944 X (a) 65 (c) 61
7. Find the next number in the series.
10, 74, 202, 394 .... (b) 71 X (d) 75

(a) 600 (c) 625 16. Find the next number in the series.
0,2,3,5,8,10,15,17,24,26,.....
(b) 621 (d) 650 X
(a) 28 (c) 32
8. Find the next number in the series.
0,2,6,12,20,.... (b) 31 (d) 35 X
(a) 32 (c) 30 X 17. Find the next number in the series.
10,14,23,39,64,....
(b) 28 (d) 26
9. In the given alphabetic series, some alphabets are (a) 100 X (c) 128
missing. The options comprise of the alphabets
that should complete the series in a logical man- (b) 125 (d) 148
ner. Choose the correct option. 18. Find the missing term in the series.
_cb _ca _bacb_ca _bac _d 9, 3, 18, 6, 36, 12,.....
(a) bddddb (c) addddb X (a) 24 (c) 60
(b) addbbb (d) bbbddd (b) 48 (d) 72 X

74
19. Find the next number in the series. 29. G4T, J10R, M20P, P43N, S90L
5, 25, 61, 113,....
(a) G4T (c) M20P
(a) 181 X (c) 212
(b) J10R (d) P43N X
(b) 121 (d) 241
20. Find the missing term in the series. 30. _baa _aab _a _a
45, 38, 31, 40, 49, 42,.....
(a) aabb (c) abab X
(a) 46 (c) 45
(b) aaba (d) baab
(b) 36 (d) 35 X
21. Find the next number in the series. 31. 8,43,11,41,?,39,17
2, 4, 12, 48,....
(a) 16 (c) 14 X
(a) 480 (c) 960
(b) 19 (d) 21
(b) 240 X (d) 340
22. Find the next number in the series. 32. Look at this series: 53, 53, 40, 40, 27, 27,....
20, 22, 26, 32,.... What number should come next?
(a) 34 (c) 36 (a) 12 (c) 27

(b) 40 X (d) 38 (b) 14 X (d) 53

23. 2, 4, 12, 48, 240, 33. 2,5,26,....
(a) 960 (c) 1440 X (a) 53 (c) 676

(b) 1080 (d) 1920 (b) 677 X (d) 52

24. Find the next number in the series 34. 10, 11, 15, 24, ....
3, 15, 35, 63,....
(a) 48 (c) 40 X
(a) 101 (c) 99 X
(b) 32 (d) 38
(b) 121 (d) 98
25. Find the missing term in the series. 35. 11,22,66,264,1320,....
7, 8, 15, 23, 38,....
(a) 7920 X (c) 10560
(a) 61 X (c) 62
(b) 6600 (d) 9240
(b) 57 (d) 59
26. A B D E F H I J L M N P Q R T ? 36. 121,232,343,454,....
(a) XYZ (c) WXZ (a) 565 X (c) 767

(b) VWY (d) UVX X (b) 656 (d) 878

27. 1, 6, 13, 22, 33, ? 37. 18, 19,21, 24, ....

(a) 35 (c) 48 (a) 26 (c) 27

(b) 36 (d) 46 X (b) 25 (d) 28 X

28. 3, 9, 27, 81, ? 38. 10, 7, 12, 10, 14, ....
(a) 324 (c) 210 (a) 18 (c) 13 X
(b) 243 X (d) 162 (b) 12 (d) 16

75
39. 2, 4, 12, 48,? 43. Find the next term in the series.
2, 3, 7, 8, 13, 14,....
(a) 480 (c) 960
(a) 24 (c) 18
(b) 240 X (d) 340
(b) 21 (d) 20 X
40. 6, 9, ? , 24, 36
44. Find the missing term in the series.
(a) 15 X (c) 12 2, 8, 5, 6, 8,..., 11
(b) 10 (d) 18 (a) 5 (c) 4 X
41. 9, 3, 18, 6, 36, 12,.... (b) 10 (d) 2

(a) 24 (c) 60 45. Find the missing term in the series.

11, 22, 66, 264, 1320,....
(b) 48 (d) 72
(a) 7920 X (c) 6600
42. 5, 25, 61, 113,.... (b) 9240 (d) 10560
(a) 181 X (c) 212

(b) 121 (d) 241

76
2.6 Coding and Decoding

1. If RESULT is coded as SFTVMU, then EXAM is 8. In a certain language, digits 0,1,2,3,4 and 5 are
coded as: substituted by a,b,c,d,e and f. Find the value of
𝑒𝑓 ×𝑓 −𝑏𝑎
𝑒𝑑 ?
(a) FWBO (c) FYBN X
(a) 5 (c) 
(b) DYZL (d) DXZL
(b) 15 (d)
2. If GULMOHAR is coded as TFONLSZI, PIPAL
9. If VAILANT is coded as UBKJZOS, TRAN-
will be coded as
SCEND is code as:
(a) QJQBM (c) KRKZO X (a) SSZORDDOC X (c) SSZORDBOC
(b) QJQBN (d) KIKZO
(b) SZZORDDOC (d) SSZORDDOB

3. If 1022834 represents VACCINE, which word is 10. If MARBLE can be coded as 20714, what is the
represented by 4820548? code for LABOUR?
(a) ECHELON (c) ESCAPES X (a) 101047 (c) 101470
(b) ECLIPSE (d) ESTIMATE (b) 101740 (d) 101407 X

4. If JUDGE is coded as UJDEG, then ORDER is 11. If KIDNEY is coded as YENDIK, then MUSCLE
coded as: is coded as

(a) RODRE X (c) RODER (a) MOTDMD (c) PXVFPI

(b) REDRO (d) REDOR (b) OWUEOH (d) ELCSUM X

5. In a certain code if ASSERTIVENESS is written 12. In a certain code, CELLPHONES is written as

as SENSSAEVISTRE, then what will MULTI- CLPOEELHNS. How is CONFERENCE written
NATINAL be written as? in that code?

(a) ANOITALULMNIT (c) ANOLUMLITANIT (a) CNEECOFRNE (c) CNFRNEOEEC

(b) ANOLUMITALNIT X
X (d) ANOITALLUMNIT (b) OFRNECNEEC (d) OFRENCNECE
6. If UFYBW represents RIVET, what does TR- 13. If DETERMINE is coded as QFSFPNJKF, then
DOWBU stand for? TERMITE is coded as:

(a) QUTAR (c) TARTAR (a) SFPNJSF X (c) SPNKSTD

(b) QUARTER X (d) TUARTAR (b) SFQNJSF (d) RFPNJSD

7. In a certain code ASSUMPTION is written as 14. If EXAM is coded as FYBN, then TEST is coded
1113472065. How is KNOWLEDGE written in as:
that code?
(a) NBYF X (c) SFTS
(a) 254545475 (c) 256535475 X
(b) UFTU (d) SFRS
(b) 256565765 (d) 256565475

77
15. If BLACK is coded as DNCEM, then ORNAGE 23. If MATH can be coded as RFYM, what is the
is coded as: code for PHYSICS in that language?

(a) QTCPIG X (c) PSBOHF (a) UMDXNHX X (c) UMDYNHY

(b) PSCOHF (d) QTCOIG (b) UMDVNHV (d) UMDXHNX

16. If SPORTS is coded as TOPQUR, then GAME is 24. If CHAIR is coded as FKDLU, then RICH is
coded as: coded as

(a) HZND X (c) HBND (a) UKFD (c) ULFK X

(b) FBNF (d) FZNF (b) ULDK (d) UDLU

25. If STICK is coded as RSHBJ, then REPLY is

17. If SOUND is coded as RNTMC then what is the
coded as
code for WORK?
(a) SFQNX (c) SFQMZ
(a) UNPM (c) VMQJ
(b) QDOKX X (d) QDOMX
(b) VNQJ X (d) UMPH
26. If NORMAL is coded as LAMRON, then SYS-
18. If NOBLE is coded as ONBEL, then GRAND is TEM is coded as
coded as
(a) TXTUDN (c) TZTUFN
(a) RGADN X (c) HTCOD
(b) METSYS X (d) METSSY
(b) HSBOE (d) RAGDN
27. If Delhi is coded as 34178, what is the code for
19. If STUMP is coded as PQRJM, then PITCH is MUMBAI?
coded as
(a) 202801 (c) 202018
(a) MFQZE X (c) MEQAE
(b) 202108 X (d) 202081
(b) QJUDI (d) RXVEK
28. In a certain language RIPPLE is written as
20. If TENNIS is coded as UDOMJR, then 785514. What is the code of PILLER in that lan-
CRICKET is coded as guage?

(a) DPJBMDV (c) DQJBLDU X (a) 561147 (c) 581174

(b) DQJBMEU (d) BSHDJFS (b) 561174 (d) 581147 X

29. In a certain code, SKILLFUL is written as LT-
21. If PRAISE can be coded as 570884, what is the MJGMMV. How is STATED written in that
code for OCTAVE? code?

(a) 429041 (c) 429014 X (a) TUCUFD (c) UTUBEF X

(b) 429104 (d) 429410 (b) UTUCEF (d) TUBUFE
30. In a certain code, GIGANTIC is written as GIG-
22. In a certain code, JOHN is written as LSNV. How
TANCI. How is MIRACLES written in that code?
is MARK written in that code?
(a) MIRLCAES (c) RIMCALSE
(a) OEYS (c) OEXV X
(b) MIRLACSE X (d) RIMLCAES
(b) OEXS (d) OEYT

78
31. If ROSE is coded as 6821, CHAIR is coded as 38. In a certain code ’HIT BIT NIT’ means ’GIT CIT
73456 and PREACH is coded as 961473, then MIT’; ’SIT PIT MIT’ means ’RIT QIT LIT’ and
what will be the code for SEARCH? ’FIT ZIT PIT’ means ’EIT AIT OIT’. What does
’DIT JIT KIT’ stand for in that code language?
(a) 246173 (c) 214763
(a) CIT KIT JIT X (c) RIT LIT PIT
(b) 214673 X (d) 216473
(b) BIT CIT KIT (d) LIT RIT MIT
32. In a certain language, ‘sun shines brightly’ is writ-
ten as ‘ba lo sul’, ‘houses are brightly lit’ as ‘kado 39. If DEED is coded as 4554, then DICE is coded as
ula ari ba’ and ‘light comes from sun’ as ‘dopi kup
lo nro’. What is the code for sun and brightly? (a) 4935 X (c) 3824

(b) 4839 (d) 3935

(a) ba sul (c) lo ba X
(b) sul lo (d) ba nro
40. In CHAIR is coded as HCARI, then SHAME is
33. If PENCIL is coded as L1CNEP, then ANIMAL
coded as
is coded as
(a) IDBSJ (c) HSBEM
(a) ANALIM (c) AIMNAL
(b) IDASJ (d) HSAEM X
(b) LAMINA X (d) LLMINA

41. If DETERMINE is coded as ENIMRETED, then

34. If SAME is coded as VDPH, then IDENTICAL DECIDE is coded as
is coded as
(a) EDICED X (c) EFDJEF
(a) KFHPVKEDN (c) LGHQWLFDO
X (b) FGEFKG (d) FGDWG

(b) LACITNEDI (d) KACITNEDI

42. If CABLE is coded as 64592, then LABLE is
35. If COMPUTER is coded as PMOCRETU, then coded as
what will TELEVISION be coded as?
(a) 91295 (c) 94592 X
(a) NOISIVELET (c) VELENOISTI
(b) 29546 (d) 29456
(b) VELTEONISI (d) VELETNOISI X

36. If MORNING is coded as NPSOJOH, then what 43. If WORD is coded as 9753, then DOOR is coded
will SUNSHINE be coded as? as

(a) TVOTGJOF (c) TVOTIJOF X (a) 3579 (c) 9357

(b) TVOTIJOD (d) TWOTIJOF (b) 3559 (d) 3775 X

37. If MACHINE is coded as 19 will you code DAN- 44. In a certain code, SPECIFY is written as
GER? 1916539625. How is ABOUT written in that
code?
(a) 10 - 7 - 20 - 13 - 11 — 24 X
(a) 13162120 (c) 12152019
(b) 11 - 7 - 20 - 16 - 11 - 24
(b) 12162120 (d) 12152120 X
(c) 13 - 7 - 20 - 9 - 11 25

(d) 13 - 7 - 20 -10 - 11- 25

79
45. If COMPUTER is coded as GKOLYPIN, what is 46. If EAGLE is coded as FZHKF, what is the code
the code for SENATE? for THANKS?

(a) WAREXA (c) WARWXA X (a) UGBMLR X (c) UIBOLT

(b) WAERXA (d) WAERAX (b) RGZMJT (d) RIAOJT

80
2.7 Syllogism

1. Statements: 3. Statements:

1. Some mobiles are laptops 1. Some envelops are gums.

2. All laptops are desktops 2. Some gums are seals.
3. Some systems are laptops 3. Some seals are adhesives.
Conclusions: Conclusions:
I. Some desktops are systems I. Some envelopes are seals.
II. Some mobile are desktops II. Some gums are adhesives.
III. All desktops are laptops III. Some adhesives are seals.
IV. Some adhesives are gums.
(a) Only I and II follow
(b) Only II and III follow (a) Only I follows
(c) Only III follow (b) Only II follows
(d) Only I and III follow (c) Only III follow
(e) None of these (d) Only II and III follow
2. Statements: (e) All I, II and III follow

1. All pens are pins. 4. Statements:

2. No tag is a pin. 1. All men are vertebrates.
3. All papers are pens 2. Some mammals are vertebrates.
Conclusions: Conclusions:
I. No pin is a tag
I. All men are mammals.
II. All papers are pins
II. All mammals are men.
III. All pins are definitely not tag
III. Some vertebrates are mammals.
(a) Only I follows IV. All vertebrates are men.
(b) Only II follows
(a) Only I
(c) Only III follow
(b) Only II
(d) Only II and III follow
(c) Only III
(e) All I, II and III follow
(d) Only IV
(e) None of these

81
2.8 Analytical Puzzle
1. There are 4 question based on the same puzzle. Answer the questions based on the given information:

(a) Suman, Vicky, Santhosh, Mohan, Alok, Sagar, Shekhar are standing on a wall and all of them are
facing west.
(b) Suman is on the immediate left of Alok.
(c) Mohan is at an extreme end and has Santosh as his neighbour.
(d) Alok is standing third from the south end.
(e) Sagar is between Santosh and Shekhar.

1. Name the person who should change his position with Alok such that he gets the second place from
the north end
(a) Shekhar (c) Sagar
(b) Vicky (d) Santosh X
2. Identify the pair of people that are standing at extreme ends.
(a) Mohan and Vicky X (c) Vicky and Suman
(b) Mohan and Suman (d) Mohan and Alok

3. Identify the pair of people between whom Shekhar is standing.

(a) Suman and Sagar (c) Suman and Satosh
(b) Alok and Sagar X (d) None of the above

2. There are 4 questions based on the same puzzle. Answer the questions based on the given information:

(a) A, B, C, D and E are five friends in a class. They have their birth dates from January to May, each
friend born in one of these months.
(b) Each one likes one particular item for his/her birthday out of rice, mutton, chicken, burger and
pizza.
(c) The one who likes pizza is born in March.
(d) C does not like pizza but brings rice for D in April.
(e) E, who is found of burger, is born in the next month immediately after B.
(f) B does not like burger or mutton.

1. What is the choice of C?

(a) Pizza (c) Mutton X
(b) Rice (d) Chicken

2. Which of the given combinations is true for B?

(a) Chicken, January X (c) Pizza, January
(b) Chicken, February (d) Pizza, February

3. What is the choice of A?

(a) Burger (c) Chicken
(b) Pizza X (d) Rice

82
 4. In which month was E born?
(a) January (c) March
(b) February X (d) April

3. Malika, Maneni, Pallavi, Nikita and Suhana are seated in conference half facing he state which is in the
North. They are all scattered in such a manner that they do not occupy adjacent seats. The seating
arrangement is as given below:

(a) Maneniis seated 10 seats away to the right of Suhana

(b) Pallavi is seated 20 seats away, to the left of Nikita
(c) Mallika is seated 30 seats in front of Suhana
(d) Nikita is seated 15 seats to the right of Suhana

Who amongst the given options are NOT seated in a linear pattern?
(a) Pallavi, Suhana, Maneni (c) Pallavi, Suhana, Nikita
(b) Mallika, Suhana, Maneni X (d) Pallavi, Maneni, Nikita

4. There are 4 questions based on the same puzzle. Answer the question based on the given information.
There are six teachers A,B,C,D,E and F in a school. Each of the teachers teaches two subjects, one
compulsory subject and the other optional subjects. D’s optional subject was History while three other
have it is compulsory subjects. E and F have Physics as one of their subjects. F’s compulsory subject is
Mathematics which is an optional subjects of both C and E. History and English are A’s subjects but in
terms of compulsory and optional subjects, they are just reverse of those of D’s. Chemistry is an optional
subject of only one of them. The only female teacher in the school has English as her compulsory subject.

1. What is C’s compulsory subject?

(a) History X (c) Chemistry
(b) Physics (d) English

2. Disregarding which is the compulsory and which is the optional subjects, who has the same two
subject combination as F?
(a) A (c) E X
(b) B (d) D

3. Who is a female member in the group?

(a) A (c) C
(b) D X (d) E

4. Who has the same compulsory and optional subjects as F?

(a) D (c) A
(b) B (d) None X
5. There are 4 questions based on the same puzzle. Answer the questions based on the given information.

(a) Tom, Joy and John are honest.

(b) Tom, Jack and Michael are ambitious.
(c) Michael and Joy are hardworking
(d) Joy, Jack and John are intelligent.

83
 1. Identify the person who is neither hardworking nor intelligent.
(a) Michael (c) John
(b) Jack (d) Tom X

2. Identify the person who is NOT hardworking.

(a) Joy (c) Cannot be determined
(b) Michael (d) None of the above.X

3. Identify the person who has any three qualities.

(a) John (c) Tom
(b) Jack (d) None of the above X
4. Identify the person who is neither honest nor intelligent but is ambitious.
(a) Jack (c) Michael X
(b) Tom (d) John

6. There are 4 question based on the same puzzle. Answer the questions based on the given information:

(a) There are two lecturers, two singers, one doctor and one engineer in a group of six people – A,B,C,D,E
and F.
(b) The doctor C is married to A who is a lecturer.
(c) The engineer is married to B who is of the same profession as that of E.
(d) C,A,B and F are married couples and nobody in the group has the same profession.
(e) E is F’s brother.

1. Identify the pair of singers.

(a) A and D (c) E and F
(b) B and E X (d) A and F

2. How is E related to B?
(a) Brother (c) Father
(b) Uncle (d) None of the above X
3. What of the given pairs is a couple?
(a) A and B (c) A and F
(b) B and F X (d) B and C

4. Identify the pair of lecturers.

(a) A and B (c) A and D X
(b) A and F (d) A and E

7. There are 4 question based on the same puzzle. Answer the questions based on the given information:

(a) A sits opposite to the cook

(b) B sits on the right side of the beautician.
(c) Teacher is on the left side of an accountant.
(d) D sits opposite to C.
(e) C is to the right of the accountant.

84
 1. Who is sitting to the left of beautician?
(a) Cook (c) Teacher X
(b) Accountant (d) None of the above

2. What is the occupation of D?

(a) Accountant (c) Teacher X
(b) Beautician (d) Cook

3. What is the occupation of C?

(a) Beautician X (c) Accountant
(b) Teacher (d) Cook

8. Answer the question based on the given information.

(a) Six friends P, Q, R, S, T and U are sitting in two rows, three in each.
(b) T is not at the end of any row.
(c) S is second to the left of U.
(d) R, the neighbour of T, is sitting diagonally opposite to S.
(e) Q is the neighbour of U.

1. Which of the following pairs are in the same row?

(a) P and Q (c) T and S
(b) R and Q (d) S and Q X
2. Who is facing S?
(a) Q (c) T
(b) P X (d) R

9. There are five persons in a family O, P, Q, R and S. They are working as a farmer, a teacher, a lawyer,
an Engineer and a doctor. P is an unnamed daughter of O and working as a teacher. S is the brother of
Q, working as a Q is the husband of the married couple in the family is the father of an daughter and
two sons, working as a farmer. O’s daughter-in-law is a doctor
How many male members are there in family?
(a) 5 (c) 3
(b) 2 (d) 4

10. Answer the question based on the given information.

(a) There are five friends.

(b) They are standing in a row facing South.
(c) Sarata is to the immediate right of Swati.
(d) Sanju is standing between Sita and Megha
(e) Megha is standing between Sarata and Sanju.

85
 1. Who is to the left of Megha?
(a) Sanju (c) Swati
(b) Sarata X (d) None of these

2. Who is in the middle?

(a) Sarata (c) Megha X
(b) Sita (d) Sanju

3. Who is at the extreme right end?

(a) Sita X (c) Megha
(b) Swati (d) Data inadequate

4. Who is sitting fourth from the right end?

(a) Sanju (c) Sarata
(b) Sita X (d) Swati

11. Read the following information carefully and answer these questions:

(a) K, L, M, N, O, P and Q are sitting in a circle facing at the centre and playing cards.
(b) O is neighbor of K and N.
(c) Q is not between P and M.
(d) P is to the immediate right of K.
(e) L is second to the left of Q.

1. Which of the following does not have the pair of persons sitting adjacent to each other?
(a) LK X (c) NO
(b) ML (d) None of these

2. Which of the following pairs has the second person sitting immediately to the right of the first?
(a) KL (c) OK X
(b) ML (d) None of these

3. What is the position of P?

(a) Second to the left of M X (c) To the immediate left of K
(b) Second to the right of M (d) To the immediate right of L

4. Who are the neighbors of L?

(a) K and P (c) P and M X
(b) M and N (d) None of these

12. P, Q, R, S, T, U and V are seven persons sitting around a circle facing at the centre. R is fourth to the
right of S who is second to the right of T. P is third to the left of T. U is not an immediate neighbour of
S. V is not an immediate neighbour of P.

86
 1. Who is immediate left of P?
(a) Q X (c) V
(b) S (d) T

2. Who is to the immediate right of U?

(a) P (c) T
(b) R X (d) Q

3. Who is third to the right of V?

(a) S (c) R X
(b) T (d) V

4. Who is between T and S?

(a) R (c) P
(b) V X (d) Q

13. Answer the questions based on the given information:

(a) There are six friends A, B, C, D, E and F

(b) Each one is proficient in one of the games, namely Badminton, Volleyball, Cricket, Hockey, Tennis
and Polo
(c) Each owns a different coloured car, namely yellow, green, black, white, blue and red.
(d) D plays Polo and owns a yellow coloured car
(e) C does not play either Tennis or Hockey and owns neither blue nor yellow coloured car
(f) E owns a white car and plays Badminton
(g) B does not play Tennis, he owns a red coloured car.
(h) A plays Cricket and owns a black car

1. Who plays Volley ball ?

(a) B (c) F
(b) C X (d) Data inadequate

2. Which coloured car F owns ?

(a) Green (c) Either Green or Blue
(b) Blue X (d) None of these

3. Which of the following combinations of colour of car and game played is not correct ?
(a) Yellow - Polo (c) Black - Cricket
(b) Green - Tennis X (d) Red- Hockey

14. Answer the question based on the given information.

(a) Five men P, Q, R, S and T read a newspaper.

(b) The one who reads first gives it to R.
(c) The one who reads last has taken it from P.
(d) T was not the first or last to read.
(e) There were two readers between Q and P.

87
 1. Who did Q pass the newspaper to?
(a) R X (c) P
(b) T (d) S

2. Who read the newspaper last?

(a) Q (c) Cannot be determined
(b) S X (d) None of the above

3. Who reads the newspaper before S?

(a) Q (c) T
(b) R (d) P X

4. Who reads the newspaper first?

(a) S (c) Data inadequate
(b) Q X (d) None of these

15. There are 4 question based on the same puzzle. Answer the questions based on the given information:

(a) X, Y, Z, P and R are sitting in a row in front of a camera.

(b) X is on left of the person sitting in the centre, but is on the right of Y.
(c) Z is on the right of P and R is on the right of Z.
(d) R is the second person from the person sitting in the centre.

1. Who is between X and Z?

(a) Y (c) Data inadequate
(b) R (d) None of the above X
2. Who is sitting in the centre?
(a) P X (c) Y
(b) X (d) Z

3. Which pair is X sitting between?

(a) P and Z (c) Y and P X
(b) P and R (d) Y and Z

4. Who is sitting in the corner?

(a) X (c) Y X
(b) P (d) Z

88
2.9 Data Sufficiency
1. The question consists of a problem question followed by two statements I and II. Find out if the infor-
mation given in the statement(s) is sufficient in finding the solution to the problem.
Problem question
Ionization energy decreases with the increasing size of metal atom. Out of cesium, lithium, potassium
and sodium, which will have the lowest Ionization energy?
Statements
I. Cesium has the largest size.
II. The size of sodium lies between potassium and lithium.

(a) Statement I alone is sufficient X

(b) Statement II alone is sufficient
(c) Both statements put together are sufficient
(d) Both the statement even put together are not sufficient
(e) Either of the statements is sufficient

2. The question consists of a problem question followed by two statements I and II. Find out if the infor-
mation given in the statement(s) is sufficient in finding the solution to the problem.
Problem question
How many daughters does A have?
Statements
I. A’s wife has four sons; P,Q, R and S.
II. S has one sister.

(a) Statement I alone is sufficient

(b) Statement II alone is sufficient
(c) Both statements put together are sufficient X
(d) Both the statement even put together are not sufficient
(e) Either of the statements is sufficient

3. The question consists of a problem question followed by two statements I and II. Find out if the infor-
mation given in the statement(s) is sufficient in finding the solution to the problem.
Problem question
Is B the brother of A?
Statements
I. A is the brother of C.
II. C is the sister of B.

(a) Statement I alone is sufficient

(b) Statement II alone is sufficient
(c) Both statements put together are sufficient X
(d) Both the statement even put together are not sufficient
(e) Either of the statements is sufficient

89
4. The question consists of a problem question followed by two statements I and II. Find out if the infor-
mation given in the statement(s) is sufficient in finding the solution to the problem.
Problem question
Is 200 the average (arithmetic mean) score in the CAT exams?
Statements
I. Half of the people who give the CAT exam, score above 299 and half of the people score below 200.
II. The highest CAT score is 400 and the lowest score is 100.

(a) Statement I alone is sufficient

(b) Statement II alone is sufficient
(c) Both statements put together are sufficient X
(d) Both the statement even put together are not sufficient
(e) Either of the statements is sufficient

5. The question consists of a problem question followed by two statements I and II. Find out if the infor-
mation given in the statement(s) is sufficient in finding the solution to the problem.
Problem question
What is the 𝑡ℎ number?
Statements
I. 1st and 2nd numbers are 1 and 2 respectively.
II. 3rd and 4th numbers are 3 and 4 respectively.

(a) Statement I alone is sufficient

(b) Statement II alone is sufficient
(c) Both statements put together are sufficient
(d) Both the statement even put together are not sufficient X
(e) Either of the statements is sufficient

6. The question consists of a problem question followed by two statements I and II. Find out if the infor-
mation given in the statement(s) is sufficient in finding the solution to the problem.
Problem question
The value of 𝑝 𝑞𝑟 can be found if;
Statements
I. The value of 𝑝  𝑞 is given
II. The value of 𝑞  𝑟 is given

(a) Statement I alone is sufficient

(b) Statement II alone is sufficient
(c) Both statements put together are sufficient
(d) Both the statement even put together are not sufficient X
(e) Either of the statements is sufficient

7. The question consists of a problem question followed by two statements I and II. Find out if the infor-
mation given in the statement(s) is sufficient in finding the solution to the problem.
Problem question
Out of five parties, which party won the election?

90
 Statements
I. Party ‘x’ got the least number of votes.
II. Party ‘y’ got hundred more votes than party ‘z’

(a) Statement I alone is sufficient

(b) Statement II alone is sufficient
(c) Both statements put together are sufficient
(d) Both the statement even put together are not sufficient X
(e) Either of the statements is sufficient

8. The question consists of a problem question followed by two statements I and II. Find out if the infor-
mation given in the statement(s) is sufficient in finding the solution to the problem.
Problem question
Who is the son of R?
Statements
I. P is R’s sister
II. Q is the son of P.

(a) Statement I alone is sufficient

(b) Statement II alone is sufficient
(c) Both statements put together are sufficient X
(d) Both the statement even put together are not sufficient
(e) Either of the statements is sufficient

9. The question consists of a problem question followed by two statements I and II. Find out if the infor-
mation given in the statement(s) is sufficient in finding the solution to the problem.
Problem question
What is the amount of cement exported from China?
Statements
I. China’s export to America is 65,000 tones and this is 8
II. China’s total export tonnage of cement is 15

(a) Statement I alone is sufficient

(b) Statement II alone is sufficient X
(c) Both statements put together are sufficient
(d) Both the statement even put together are not sufficient
(e) Either of the statements is sufficient

10. The question consists of a problem question followed by two statements I and II. Find out if the infor-
mation given in the statement(s) is sufficient in finding the solution to the problem.
Problem question
What will be the total weight of 12 bags if each of them have same weight?
Statements
I. One-third of the weight of a bag is 8 kg
II. The total weight of four bags is 24 more than the total weight of three bags.

91
 (a) Statement I alone is sufficient
(b) Statement II alone is sufficient
(c) Both statements put together are sufficient
(d) Both the statement even put together are not sufficient X
(e) Either of the statements is sufficient

11. The question consists of a problem question followed by two statements I and II. Find out if the infor-
mation given in the statement(s) is sufficient in finding the solution to the problem.
Problem question
Soha ranks fifth in the class. How many students are there in the class?
Statements
I. One of her friends got the 40th rank which is the second last rank in the class.
II. Her rank from the middle is 17.

(a) Statement I alone is sufficient X

(b) Statement II alone is sufficient
(c) Both statements put together are sufficient
(d) Both the statement even put together are not sufficient
(e) Either of the statements is sufficient

12. The question consists of a problem question followed by two statements I and II. Find out if the infor-
mation given in the statement(s) is sufficient in finding the solution to the problem.
Problem question
Is Raju taller than Saroj?
Statements
I.. Rakesh is of the same height as Raju and Saroj
II.. Saroj is shorter than Rakesh.

(a) Statement I alone is sufficient X

(b) Statement II alone is sufficient
(c) Both statements put together are sufficient
(d) Both the statement even put together are not sufficient
(e) Either of the statements is sufficient

13. The question consists of a problem question followed by two statements I and II. Find out if the infor-
mation given in the statement(s) is sufficient in finding the solution to the problem.
Problem question
Is Radha Manju’s sister?
Statements
I. Rahul has two daughters of which Manju is one.
II. Radha’s mother is married to Rahul.

(a) Statement I alone is sufficient

(b) Statement II alone is sufficient
(c) Both statements put together are sufficient X
(d) Both the statement even put together are not sufficient

92
14. The question consists of a problem question followed by two statements I and II. Find out if the infor-
mation given in the statement(s) is sufficient in finding the solution to the problem.
Problem question
What is the monthly salary of my father?
Statements
I. My father’s and mother’s salaries are in the ratio 5:2 respectively.
II. My mother’s salary is 40% of that of my father’s salary.

(a) Statement I alone is sufficient

(b) Statement II alone is sufficient
(c) Both statements put together are sufficient
(d) Both the statement even put together are not sufficient X
(e) Either of the statements is sufficient

15. The question consists of a problem question followed by two statements I and II. Find out if the infor-
mation given in the statement(s) is sufficient in finding the solution to the problem.
Problem question
In which year was Rashmi born?
Statements
I. Rashmi is four years younger to her brother.
II. Rashmi’s brother was born in 1998.

(a) Statement I alone is sufficient

(b) Statement II alone is sufficient
(c) Both statements put together are sufficient X
(d) Both the statement even put together are not sufficient
(e) Either of the statements is sufficient

16. The question consists of a problem question followed by two statements I and II. Find out if the infor-
mation given in the statement(s) is sufficient in finding the solution to the problem.
Problem question
A software company decides to give its employees-women security fund. The amount of the fund is pro-
portional to the number of females in the employee’s family. Pranjal, an employee of the same company,
has a family of 4 other members-A,B,C and D.
What is the number of females in the family?
Statements
I. Pranjal is the father of A and B is the only son of A.
II. A has two sisters - C and D.

(a) Statement I alone is sufficient

(b) Statement II alone is sufficient
(c) Both statements put together are sufficient
(d) Both the statement even put together are not sufficient X
(e) Either of the statements is sufficient

93
17. The question consists of a problem question followed by two statements I and II. Find out if the infor-
mation given in the statement(s) is sufficient in finding the solution to the problem.
Problem question
Among the four students of class V – Radha, Meera, Kamala and Geetanjali, who is the tallest?
Statements
I. Meera is shorter than Radha, but taller than Geetanjali.
II. Kamala is taller than Meera.
(a) Statement I alone is sufficient
(b) Statement II alone is sufficient
(c) Both statements put together are sufficient
(d) Both the statement even put together are not sufficient X
(e) Either of the statements is sufficient

18. The question consists of a problem question followed by two statements I and II. Find out if the infor-
mation given in the statement(s) is sufficient in finding the solution to the problem.
Problem question
Which day is the eleventh day of a given month?
Statements
I. The last day of the month is a Friday
II. The third Monday of the month was fourteenth
(a) Statement I alone is sufficient
(b) Statement II alone is sufficient X
(c) Both statements put together are sufficient
(d) Both the statement even put together are not sufficient
(e) Either of the statements is sufficient

19. The question consists of a problem question followed by two statements I and II. Find out if the infor-
mation given in the statement(s) is sufficient in finding the solution to the problem.
Problem question
How many people cast their vote in the MCD electrons in metropolitan city-Delhi?
Statements
I. The population of India is 2 billion and population of each metropolitan city is 15% of the total.
II. 33% of the total population of Delhi cast their votes in the MCD elections.
(a) Statement I alone is sufficient
(b) Statement II alone is sufficient
(c) Both statements put together are sufficient X
(d) Both the statement even put together are not sufficient
(e) Either of the statements is sufficient

20. The question consists of a problem question followed by two statements I and II. Find out if the infor-
mation given in the statement(s) is sufficient in finding the solution to the problem.
Problem question
Three friends pool in money to buy a birthday gift for a common friend. What fraction of the money
pooled in was contributed by the friend who paid the largest part of the money collected?

94
 Statements
I. One friend contributed three times the amount contributed by another.
II. One friend contributed 30% of the money collected.

(a) Statement I alone is sufficient

(b) Statement II alone is sufficient
(c) Both statements put together are sufficient
(d) Both the statement even put together are not sufficient X
(e) Either of the statements is sufficient

21. The question consists of a problem question followed by two statements I and II. Find out if the infor-
mation given in the statement(s) is sufficient in finding the solution to the problem.
Problem question
Four people – A, B, C and D are sitting in a row.
Statements
I. C is to the left to D.
II. B is to the left of A.

(a) Statement I alone is sufficient

(b) Statement II alone is sufficient
(c) Both statements put together are sufficient
(d) Both the statement even put together are not sufficient
(e) Either of the statements is sufficient

22. The question consists of a problem question followed by two statements I and II. Find out if the infor-
mation given in the statement(s) is sufficient in finding the solution to the problem.
Problem question
In a code ‘cit pit’ means ‘get ready’ what is the code for ‘ready’?
Statements
I. ‘cit lit git’ means ‘make it ready’
II. ‘fit cit’ means ‘ready made’

(a) Statement I alone is sufficient

(b) Statement II alone is sufficient
(c) Both statements put together are sufficient
(d) Both the statement even put together are not sufficient
(e) Either of the statements is sufficient X
23. The question consists of a problem question followed by two statements I and II. Find out if the infor-
mation given in the statement(s) is sufficient in finding the solution to the problem.
Problem question
In what proportion would Mukesh, Rakesh and Rajesh distribute profit among them?
Statements
I. Rakesh gets one-third of the profit
II. Mukesh and Rajesh have invested 80% of the total investment

95
 (a) Statement I alone is sufficient
(b) Statement II alone is sufficient
(c) Both statements put together are sufficient
(d) Both the statement even put together are not sufficient X
(e) Either of the statements is sufficient

24. The question consists of a problem question followed by two statements I and II. Find out if the infor-
mation given in the statement(s) is sufficient in finding the solution to the problem.
Problem question
P, Q, R, S are four friends. Who is the youngest among them?
Statements
I. The total age of P and Q is more than that of R.
II. The total age of P and S together is less than that of R.

(a) Statement I alone is sufficient

(b) Statement II alone is sufficient
(c) Both statements put together are sufficient X
(d) Both the statement even put together are not sufficient
(e) Either of the statements is sufficient

25. The question consists of a problem question followed by two statements I and II. Find out if the infor-
mation given in the statement(s) is sufficient in finding the solution to the problem.
Problem question
On which day was the car purchased by Shruti in 2009?
Statements
I. Certainly before 19th October, 2009 but definitely not before 16th October, 2009.
II. Certainly after 17th October, 2009 but not later than 20th October, 2009

(a) Statement I alone is sufficient

(b) Statement II alone is sufficient
(c) Both statements put together are sufficient X
(d) Both the statement even put together are not sufficient
(e) Either of the statements is sufficient

26. The question consists of a problem question followed by two statements I and II. Find out if the infor-
mation given in the statement(s) is sufficient in finding the solution to the problem.
Problem question
How many people have exactly 2 hobbies given that there are 3 hobbies that a person can have and each
person has to have at least one hobby?
Statements
I. Out of a total of 135 people, there are only 5 people with 3 hobbies and 100 with only one hobby.
II. Out of 400 people there are 35 people with at least 2 hobbies.

(a) Statement I alone is sufficient

(b) Statement II alone is sufficient
(c) Both statements put together are sufficient

96
 (d) Both the statement even put together are not sufficient
(e) Either of the statements is sufficient

27. The question consists of a problem question followed by two statements I and II. Find out if the infor-
mation given in the statement(s) is sufficient in finding the solution to the problem.
Problem question
Harish takes a flight from Mumbai at 7:00 a.m. IST on 14th February 2009, to Calvinia in South Africa.
What is the local time at Calvinia?
Statements
I. The total journey time from Mumbai to Calvinia is 9 hours.
II. The distance between Mumbai and Calvinia is 7000 km.

(a) Statement I alone is sufficient

(b) Statement II alone is sufficient
(c) Both statements put together are sufficient
(d) Both the statement even put together are not sufficient X
(e) Either of the statements is sufficient

28. The question consists of a problem question followed by two statements I and II. Find out if the infor-
mation given in the statement(s) is sufficient in finding the solution to the problem.
Problem question
How many under graduates have selected History?
Statements
I. 400 under graduates have selected Economics and 60 have selected both Economics and History.
II. Number of under graduates who have selected History or Economics or both is 600.

(a) Statement I alone is sufficient

(b) Statement II alone is sufficient
(c) Both statements put together are sufficient X
(d) Both the statement even put together are not sufficient
(e) Either of the statements is sufficient

29. The question consists of a problem question followed by two statements I and II. Find out if the infor-
mation given in the statement(s) is sufficient in finding the solution to the problem.
Problem question
Find the area of the top of the circular table.
Statements
I. Circumference of the top of the table is given.
II. Perimeter of the cuboidal box that is placed on the table is 14 cm.

(a) Statement I alone is sufficient X

(b) Statement II alone is sufficient
(c) Both statements put together are sufficient
(d) Both the statement even put together are not sufficient
(e) Either of the statements is sufficient

97
30. The question consists of a problem question followed by two statements I and II. Find out if the infor-
mation given in the statement(s) is sufficient in finding the solution to the problem.
Problem question
How is Sangeeta related to Manoj?
Statements
I. Manoj is the only son of Sangeeta’s father.
II. Rohit is Manoj’s father.

(a) Statement I alone is sufficient X

(b) Statement II alone is sufficient
(c) Both statements put together are sufficient
(d) Both the statement even put together are not sufficient
(e) Either of the statements is sufficient

31. The question consists of a problem question followed by two statements I and II. Find out if the infor-
mation given in the statement(s) is sufficient in finding the solution to the problem.
Problem question
When is Rahul’s birthday?
Statements
I. His birthday is before 25th and after 22nd November.
II. His birthday is after 23rd and before 26th November.

(a) Statement I alone is sufficient

(b) Statement II alone is sufficient
(c) Both statements put together are sufficient X
(d) Both the statement even put together are not sufficient
(e) Either of the statements is sufficient

32. The question consists of a problem question followed by two statements I and II. Find out if the infor-
mation given in the statement(s) is sufficient in finding the solution to the problem.
Problem question
What is the value of the two-digit number y?
Statements
I. The sum of its digits is 5.
II. The difference of its digits is 5.

(a) Statement I alone is sufficient

(b) Statement II alone is sufficient
(c) Both statements put together are sufficient X
(d) Both the statement even put together are not sufficient
(e) Either of the statements is sufficient

33. The question consists of a problem question followed by two statements I and II. Find out if the infor-
mation given in the statement(s) is sufficient in finding the solution to the problem.
Problem question
x, y, z are three distinct integers. Is y the greatest of the three?

98
 Statements
I. x is less than at least one of the two integers y and z.
II. z is less than at least one of the two integers x and y.

(a) Statement I alone is sufficient

(b) Statement II alone is sufficient
(c) Both statements put together are sufficient X
(d) Both the statement even put together are not sufficient
(e) Either of the statements is sufficient

34. The question consists of a problem question followed by two statements I and II. Find out if the infor-
mation given in the statement(s) is sufficient in finding the solution to the problem.
Problem question
When is Mohit’s birthday?
Statements
I. He was born after 19th but before 25th September.
II. He was born in a leap year.

(a) Statement I alone is sufficient

(b) Statement II alone is sufficient
(c) Both statements put together are sufficient
(d) Both the statement even put together are not sufficient X
(e) Either of the statements is sufficient

35. The question consists of a problem question followed by two statements I and II. Find out if the infor-
mation given in the statement(s) is sufficient in finding the solution to the problem.
Problem question
How many children are there between Priya and Rashmi in a row of children?
Statements
I. Priya is fifteenth from the left in the row
II. Rashmi is exactly in the middle and there are ten children towards his right

(a) Statement I alone is sufficient

(b) Statement II alone is sufficient
(c) Both statements put together are sufficient X
(d) Both the statement even put together are not sufficient
(e) Either of the statements is sufficient

36. The question consists of a problem question followed by two statements I and II. Find out if the infor-
mation given in the statement(s) is sufficient in finding the solution to the problem.
Problem question
What is the code for ‘clouds’ in the code language?
Statements
I. In the code language, ‘clouds is blue’ is written as ‘se ra fa’.
II. In the same code language, ‘make it blue’ is written as ‘se ga zo’.

99
 (a) Statement I alone is sufficient
(b) Statement II alone is sufficient
(c) Both statements put together are sufficient
(d) Both the statement even put together are not sufficient X
(e) Either of the statements is sufficient

37. The question consists of a problem question followed by two statements I and II. Find out if the infor-
mation given in the statement(s) is sufficient in finding the solution to the problem.
Problem question
What will be the total weight of 10 poles, each of the same weight?
Statements
I. One-fourth of the weight of each pole is 5 kg.
II. The total weight of three poles is 20 kilograms more than the total weight of two poles.

(a) Statement I alone is sufficient X

(b) Statement II alone is sufficient
(c) Both statements put together are sufficient
(d) Both the statement even put together are not sufficient
(e) Either of the statements is sufficient

38. The question consists of a problem question followed by two statements I and II. Find out if the infor-
mation given in the statement(s) is sufficient in finding the solution to the problem.
Problem question
How much time would a machine take to put caps on 300 bottles?
Statements
I. It takes 8 hours to put caps on 300 bottles manually.
II. It takes 1 minute lesser to put cap on a bottle using machine than putting it manually.

(a) Statement I alone is sufficient

(b) Statement II alone is sufficient
(c) Both statements put together are sufficient X
(d) Both the statement even put together are not sufficient
(e) Either of the statements is sufficient

39. The question consists of a problem question followed by two statements I and II. Find out if the infor-
mation given in the statement(s) is sufficient in finding the solution to the problem.
Problem question
The salaries of A and B are in the ratio 2:3 what is the salary of A?
Statements
I. The salary of B is Rs.8000
II. The total salary of A and B is Rs.15000

(a) Statement I alone is sufficient

(b) Statement II alone is sufficient
(c) Both statements put together are sufficient
(d) Either of the statements is sufficient X

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40. The question consists of a problem question followed by two statements I and II. Find out if the infor-
mation given in the statement(s) is sufficient in finding the solution to the problem.
Problem question
Among five friends A, B, C, D and E, who is the tallest
Statements
I. B is taller than A, but smaller than D and E
II. C is smaller than B

(a) Statement I alone is sufficient

(b) Statement II alone is sufficient
(c) Both statements put together are sufficient
(d) Both the statement even put together are not sufficient X
(e) Either of the statements is sufficient

41. The question consists of a problem question followed by two statements I and II. Find out if the infor-
mation given in the statement(s) is sufficient in finding the solution to the problem.
Problem question
Sharmila is a chemistry teacher. She forgot to bring her time-table and now wants to find out the schedule
for XI-B. She knows’ that there are four subjects taught - Physics, Chemistry, Mathematics and Biology
- in four consecutive periods of one hour each starting from 9.00 a.m.. At what time is the Chemistry
period scheduled?
Statements
I. Mathematic period ended at 11:00 which was preceded by Biology.
II. Physics was scheduled in the last period.

(a) Statement I alone is sufficient

(b) Statement II alone is sufficient
(c) Both statements put together are sufficient X
(d) Both the statement even put together are not sufficient
(e) Either of the statements is sufficient

42. The question consists of a problem question followed by two statements I and II. Find out if the infor-
mation given in the statement(s) is sufficient in finding the solution to the problem.
Problem question
Who is Jill’s uncle?
Statements
I. Jill’s father Bill’s only nephew Jack is Sam’s son.
II. Frank is Jill’s only paternal counsin’s maternal aunt’s only brother-in-law.

(a) Statement I alone is sufficient X

(b) Statement II alone is sufficient
(c) Both statements put together are sufficient
(d) Both the statement even put together are not sufficient
(e) Either of the statements is sufficient

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43. The question consists of a problem question followed by two statements I and II. Find out if the infor-
mation given in the statement(s) is sufficient in finding the solution to the problem.
Problem question
How is John related to Mary?
Statements
I. Paula, the wife of John’s only brother Tom, does not have any siblings
II. Mary is the daughter of Paula’s brother-in-law

(a) Statement I alone is sufficient

(b) Statement II alone is sufficient
(c) Both statements put together are sufficient X
(d) Both the statement even put together are not sufficient
(e) Either of the statements is sufficient

44. The question consists of a problem question followed by two statements I and II. Find out if the infor-
mation given in the statement(s) is sufficient in finding the solution to the problem.
Problem question
How old is Giya?
Statements
I. Giya’s age is three times Amit’s age plus Bob’s age
II. Bob was of Amit’s age fifteen years ago

(a) Statement I alone is sufficient

(b) Statement II alone is sufficient
(c) Both statements put together are sufficient X
(d) Both the statement even put together are not sufficient
(e) Either of the statements is sufficient

45. The question consists of a problem question followed by two statements I and II. Find out if the infor-
mation given in the statement(s) is sufficient in finding the solution to the problem.
Problem question
In an office, a workforce of 66 employees is seated on three different floors. Each floor has different
number of employees. How many employees sit on the second floor which is the largest floor and has the
maximum seating capacity!
Statements
I. One of the floors can seat two employees less than the second floor.
II. One of the floors accommodates 21 employees

(a) Statement I alone is sufficient

(b) Statement II alone is sufficient
(c) Both statements put together are sufficient X
(d) Both the statement even put together are not sufficient
(e) Either of the statements is sufficient

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46. The question consists of a problem question followed by two statements I and II. Find out if the infor-
mation given in the statement(s) is sufficient in finding the solution to the problem.
Problem question
Find P, Q R.
Statements
I. P, Q, R are three consecutive integers.
II. The average of P, Q and R is 34.

(a) Statement I alone is sufficient

(b) Statement II alone is sufficient
(c) Both statements put together are sufficient X
(d) Both the statement even put together are not sufficient
(e) Either of the statements is sufficient

47. The question consists of a problem question followed by two statements I and II. Find out if the infor-
mation given in the statement(s) is sufficient in finding the solution to the problem.
Problem question
I have four friends. What is my age?
Statements
I. Average of our ages is 85 years.
II. All of us are of the same age.

(a) Statement I alone is sufficient

(b) Statement II alone is sufficient
(c) Both statements put together are sufficient X
(d) Both the statement even put together are not sufficient
(e) Either of the statements is sufficient

48. The question consists of a problem question followed by two statements I and II. Find out if the infor-
mation given in the statement(s) is sufficient in finding the solution to the problem.
Problem question
Who is the nephew of X?
Statements
I. Y is the sister of X.
II. Z is the son of Y.

(a) Statement I alone is sufficient

(b) Statement II alone is sufficient
(c) Both statements put together are sufficient X
(d) Both the statement even put together are not sufficient
(e) Either of the statements is sufficient

49. The question consists of a problem question followed by two statements I and II. Find out if the infor-
mation given in the statement(s) is sufficient in finding the solution to the problem.
Problem question
Out of four balls P, Q, R, S which is the smallest?

103
 Statements
I. Q is bigger than P, but smaller than S.
II. R is smaller than Q.

(a) Statement I alone is sufficient

(b) Statement II alone is sufficient
(c) Both statements put together are sufficient
(d) Both the statement even put together are not sufficient X
(e) Either of the statements is sufficient

50. The question consists of a problem question followed by two statements I and II. Find out if the infor-
mation given in the statement(s) is sufficient in finding the solution to the problem.
Problem question
What is the monthly salary of Raghu?
Statements
I. The salaries of Raghu and his brother are in the ratio 5:6 respectively.
II. The salary of Raghu’s brother is Rs.32,000 per month.

(a) Statement I alone is sufficient

(b) Statement II alone is sufficient
(c) Both statements put together are sufficient X
(d) Both the statement even put together are not sufficient
(e) Either of the statements is sufficient

51. The question consists of a problem question followed by two statements I and II. Find out if the infor-
mation given in the statement(s) is sufficient in finding the solution to the problem.
Problem question
How many sisters does Mamta have?
Statements
I. Mamta does not have any brother.
II. Mamta’s mother has four daughters.

(a) Statement I alone is sufficient

(b) Statement II alone is sufficient X
(c) Both statements put together are sufficient
(d) Both the statement even put together are not sufficient
(e) Either of the statements is sufficient

52. The question consists of a problem question followed by two statements I and II. Find out if the infor-
mation given in the statement(s) is sufficient in finding the solution to the problem.
Problem question
What is the value of u, if u and v are two distinct numbers and their product is 42?
Statements
I. u is less than v.
II. u is an even number.

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 (a) Statement I alone is sufficient
(b) Statement II alone is sufficient X
(c) Both statements put together are sufficient
(d) Both the statement even put together are not sufficient
(e) Either of the statements is sufficient

53. The question consists of a problem question followed by two statements I and II. Find out if the infor-
mation given in the statement(s) is sufficient in finding the solution to the problem.
Problem question
Among the four students - P, Q, R and S, who is the shortest?
Statements
I. R is taller than Q, but smaller than P.
II. Q is taller than S.

(a) Statement I alone is sufficient

(b) Statement II alone is sufficient
(c) Both statements put together are sufficient X
(d) Both the statement even put together are not sufficient
(e) Either of the statements is sufficient

54. The question consists of a problem question followed by two statements I and II. Find out if the infor-
mation given in the statement(s) is sufficient in finding the solution to the problem.
Problem question
What is the area of the given rectangular field?
Statements
I. The perimeter of the field is given
II. The diagonal of the field is given

(a) Statement I alone is sufficient

(b) Statement II alone is sufficient
(c) Both statements put together are sufficient
(d) Both the statement even put together are not sufficient
(e) Either of the statements is sufficient X
55. The question consists of a problem question followed by two statements I and II. Find out if the infor-
mation given in the statement(s) is sufficient in finding the solution to the problem.
Problem question
What is the value of A + B + C ?
Statements
I. A + B is twice the value of C and C is a positive square root of 49.
II. A, B and C are equal and their sum is a multiple of 5.

(a) Statement I alone is sufficient X

(b) Statement II alone is sufficient
(c) Both statements put together are sufficient
(d) Both the statement even put together are not sufficient

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 (e) Either of the statements is sufficient

56. The question consists of a problem question followed by two statements I and II. Find out if the infor-
mation given in the statement(s) is sufficient in finding the solution to the problem.
Problem question
Four people – A, B, C and D are sitting in a row. Who is sitting at the extreme right?
Statements
I. C is to the left of D
II. B Is to the left of A

(a) Statement I alone is sufficient

(b) Statement II alone is sufficient
(c) Both statements put together are sufficient X
(d) Both the statement even put together are not sufficient
(e) Either of the statements is sufficient

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2.10 Decision Making
1. There are 2 questions based on the same data. Answer the questions based on the given information:
The following are the conditions for selecting a “Management trainee’ for a reputed company. The
candidate must:

1. Be a post graduate in commerce with at least 60

2. Not be more than 25 years old and less than 20 years old as on 1.12.2009
3. Have fluency in English and Hindi.
4. Be in a position to pay Rs.10000 as deposit to the company
5. Give an undertaking to work for at least5 years for the company.

However

(a) If the candidate fulfils all conditions except (1). Then he/she should be referred to the Managing
Director of the Company.
(b) If the candidate fulfils all the conditions except (4). Then he/she should be referred to the chairman
of the Company.

Should the given candidate be selected? (The case is presented as on 1.12.2009)

1. 23 year old Suresh is a CA with fluency in Hindi and English. He can pay Rs. 8000 as deposit and
will give five years undertaking.
(a.) Insufficient Data X
(b.) Candidate should not be selected
(c.) Candidate should be selected
(d.) Candidate is to be referred to the Managing Director.
(e.) Candidate is to be referred to the Chairman

2. Rajan is a post graduate in Commerce with 70% marks. He is fluent in English and Hindi. He is willing to
take the 5 year undertaking and is also ready to pay the required deposit. His date of birth is 01.11.1989.

(a) Insufficient Data

(b) Candidate should not be selected
(c) Candidate should be selected X
(d) Candidate is to be referred to the Managing Director.
(e) Candidate is to be referred to the Chairman

3. Following are the criteria for re-allotment of floors by a Hosing Society to its residents. The residents
must

1. Have stayed for at least 5 years in the society out of which at least 3 years should have been spent
on floors which end with 0 or 5.
2. Not have more than 5 members in the family.
3. Have given an undertaking to stay there for another 5 years.
4. Have served as a maintenance associate for more than 1 year.

(a) In case a resident satisfies all above criteria except (2) and has stayed in the society for more than
5 years, he/she should be referred to the Society-President and be given the floor of his/her choice.
(b) In case a resident satisfies all above criteria except (4) he/she is to be referred to the Welfare-
Associate and be given either 1st or 3rd floor.

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Should the given resident be provided with accommodation?
A decision has to be taken on the basis of the given conditions. There are two cases based on the same
set of conditions. Take a decision for both the cases and mark the correct answer for each.

1. Raj has been stating in the society for 6 years and has spent 5 years on 10th floor. He has 6 members
in his family. He is willing to give an undertaking to stay for another 5 years. He has also served as
a Maintenance Associate for 15 years.
(a) Resident would not be given any floor.
(b) Resident would be given a floor.
(c) Resident would be referred to the Society-President. X
(d) Resident would be referred to the Welfare-Associate.
(e) Data insufficient.
2. Raghav has been staying in the society for 7 years and he has spent 3 years on 5th floor. He has 3
members in his family and has also given an undertaking to stay for another 5 years. He has served
as a Maintenance Associate for 5 months.
(a) Resident would not be given any floor.
(b) Resident would be given any floor.
(c) Resident would be given a floor of his choice.
(d) Resident would be given either 1st or 3rd floor. X
(e) Data insufficient

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4. There are 2 questions based on the same data. Answer the questions based on the given information:
Following are the conditions to appoint a Distributor for petroleum gas throughout Delhi. The applicant
should:

1. Be an Indian by nationality.
2. Be in the age group of 21-50 years as on 5 th September, 2008.
3. Be minimum matriculate or recognized equivalent.
4. Be a resident of Delhi for not less than 5 years immediately preceding the date of application.
5. Have family income of not more than 50,000 annually.
6. Not have any dealership in any oil company.
7. Have no close relatives as a dealer/distributor of any oil company

(a) Restrictions relating to annual income, would not be applicable to persons working in corporations,
owned or controlled by State Government, but the case shall be referred
(b) For unemployed graduates, conditions at (6) and (7) maybe waived.
(c) If a person belongs to SC/ST but is not a resident of Delhi, the case may be referred to the Chairman

Should the given applicant be selected? (The case is presented as on 12.2009)

1. Bahadur Singh working in the State Corporation is an Indian by nationality and is 23 years of age.
He is a graduate and his annual income is Rs. 60,000 per annum. He has been in Delhi for 7 years.
Neither he nor any of his relatives works as a distributor or a dealer in any oil company.
(a) Applicant should be selected X
(b) Applicant should not be selected
(c) Insufficient Data
(d) The case should be referred to the Managing Director
(e) The case should be referred to the Chairman
2. Cheena, an Indian resident of Mumbai, is a matriculate with family income of Rs.20,000 per annum.
Her date of birth is 15.3.85. She does not have any dealership in any oil company nor does she have
any close relatives as a dealer or a distributor, she is an SC candidate.
(a) Applicant should be selected
(b) Applicant should not be selected
(c) Insufficient Data
(d) The case should be referred to the managing Director
(e) The case should be referred to the Chairman X

5. There are 2 question based on the same data. Answer the questions based on the given information:
Following are the criteria for the allotment of residential accommodation by an organization to its em-
ployees. The employee must

1. Have completed atleast 10 years in the organization out of which atleast 4 years should have been
spent as a manager.
2. Not have more than 5 members in the family.
3. Have atleast 5 years of service remaining, the retirement age being 58 years.
4. Not have his/her own house.
5. Not be staying in a house owned by his/her spouse. In case of an employee who:

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 6. Satisfies all above criteria except (1) and who joined the organization as a Manager, should be
referred to the Finance Director.
7. Satisfies all other criteria except (3) at present working as a Senior Manager, is to be referred to the
Managing Director.
8. Has been transferred from another city. The condition (1) may be waived.

Should the given employee be provided with accommodation? (The case is presented as on 31st July,
2001)

1. Sanjeev Ranjan has three members in the family including himself. Neither he nor his wife owns a
house. He is at the post of Senior Manager since the last four years and has been working in the
organization for the last 12 years. He will be retiring from the organization in the year 2007.
(a) The employee is to be provided with accommodation
(b) The employee is not to be provided with accommodation
(c) Insufficient Data
(d) The employee’s case is to be referred to the Managing Director X
(e) The employee’s case is to be referred to the Finance Director
2. Meena Thakur was promoted as a Manager five years back after joining the organization in 1988 as
a clerk. She stays with her husband and children in a rented house and she does not own any house.
She was 42 years old as on 23rd April, 2000.
(a) The employee is to be provided with accommodation X
(b) The employee is not to be provided with accommodation
(c) Insufficient Data
(d) The employee’s case is to be referred to the Finance Director
(e) The employee’s case is to be referred to the Managing Director

6. The following are the conditions of an organization for recruiting Sales Manager

1. The candidate should be a graduate in any discipline with at least 55% marks
2. The candidate must be above 26 years and not exceed 35 years of age as on 31.12.2012.
3. The candidate should have relevant work experience of atleast 1 year in the FMCG sector.
4. The candidate should be able to converse fluently in English, Hindi and any one regional language.
5. The candidate should be ready to be on probation for 1 year.

However,

(a) Candidates who fulfil all conditions except (3), but are post graduates from top B-Schools or have
secured 80% or above in post-graduation must be referred to the Associate Vice President.
(b) Candidates who fulfil all conditions except (4), should be referred to the General Manager of the
company.

Should the given candidate be recruited? (The case is presented as on 1.1.2012)

A decision has to be taken on the basis of the given conditions. There are two cases based on the same
set of conditions. Take a decision for both the cases and mark the correct answer for each.

1. Ragini Nair is a post graduate with 85% marks and has been working for the past 2 years with two
different companies as sales executive. She has a work experience of I year with one of the companies
and doesn’t have any lag between resigning from one company and joining the other. She had scored
distinction in her graduation. She was born on 16.12.1986. She is ready to work on probation for 1
year and is well-versed with English, Hindi and Malayalam.

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 (a) Candidate should not be recruited X
(b) Candidate should be recruited
(c) Candidate should be referred to the Associate Vice President
(d) Candidate should be referred to the General Manager
(e) Data insufficient
2. Rajneesh is a graduate with 55% marks and has been working for the past 3 years in a sales role but
not in any FMCG company. He is a post graduate and was born on 26.09.1989. He is ready to work
on probation for 1 year, is fluent in Hindi and English but doesn’t know any regional language.
(a) Candidate should not be recruited X
(b) Candidate should be recruited
(c) Candidate should be referred to the Associate Vice President
(d) Candidate should be referred to the General Manager
(e) Data insufficient

7. The following are the conditions of a university for providing scholarship to candidates.

1. The candidate should have passed the common Entrance Test with at least 70% marks or should
have secured 80% or above in the college exam.
2. The candidate’s age should not exceed 25 years and should not be less than 20 years as on 1.12.2012.
3. The candidate should belong to a family with income level less than Rs. 5 lakhs per annum.
4. The candidate should be able to converse in English and a foreign language.
5. The candidate should be willing to deposit Rs.1000 as a confirmation charge or sign a bond of
participating in a research programme for 2 years.

However,

(a) Candidates who fulfil all conditions except (4) should be referred to the Vice-chancellor of the
university.
(b) Candidates who fulfil all conditions except (5) should be referred to the Chairman of the respective
college that he/she has applied to.

Should the given candidate be granted scholarship? (The case is presented as on 1.12.2012)
A decision has to be taken on the basis of the given conditions. There are two cases based on the same
set of conditions. Take a decision for both the cases and mark the correct answer for each.

1. Manisha has secured 79% marks in the college exam and has secured 75% in the Common Entrance
Test. She is fluent in English and German. Her date of birth is 15.01.1984. She is ready to pay Rs
1000 as a confirmation charge. Her family income is Rs 4 Lakhs per annum.
(a) Candidate should not be granted scholarship. X
(b) Candidates should be granted scholarship.
(c) Candidates should be referred to the Vice-Chancellor of the university.
(d) Candidates should be referred to the Chairman of the college that she has applied to
(e) Data insufficient
2. Ananya has secured 69% marks in the college exam. Her date of birth is 16.02.1989. She is ready to
sign a bond of participating in a research programme for 2 years. Her family income is Rs. 5 lakhs
per annum. She is fluent in English and French.
(a) Candidate should not be granted scholarship. X
(b) Candidates should be granted scholarship.

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 (c) Candidates should be referred to the Vice-Chancellor of the university.
(d) Candidates should be referred to the Chairman of the college that she has applied to

8. Suxushi Pvt. Company is looking for a laptop company to buy 5000 laptops. The criteria basis for
selection includes-

1. The company should provide a guarantee of minimum 3 years.

2. Laptops should have 3 important features – Dual core processor, battery backup of minimum 3
hours and a screen size of 14 inches.
3. The price of a laptop should not be more than 30,000 rupees.
4. The company should have a experience of ten years or more in it’s field.
5. The company should not have any legal case pending against them.

However, if the firm satisfies all of the above criteria except:

(a) criteria (2) but provides any of the above two features then his/her case may be referred to the
Director.
(b) criteria (3) but provides an auxiliary voucher of a laptop bag, then his/her case may be referred to
the Finance manager.
(c) criteria (4) but has a experience of minimum five years then

A decision has to be taken on the basis of the given conditions. There are two cases based on the same
set of conditions. Take a decision for both the case and mark the correct answer for each.
Hallard pack well Laptop Company was established on 26th November 1997, Hallard laptops have a dual
core processor and a battery backup of four hour. In 1999, Hallard were accused of copying an Indium
feature, which was over ruled by a U.S. court in 2006. The laptops costs 28,000 rupees and provides a
guarantee of four years.

(a) Suxushi will buy

(b) Suxushi will not buy
(c) The case will be referred to the director
(d) The case will be referred to the chairman
(e) The case will be referred to the finance manager

9. There are 2 questions based on the same data. Answer the questions based on the given information.
A marketing company requires a qualified engineer with a management degree. The candidate must:

1. Be a graduate with at least 55% marks.

2. Hold on an MBA degree with a minimum of 50% marks.
3. Have secured at least 55% marks in Sr. Secondary Examination. This condition will be relaxed up
to 5% if the candidate has two years’ experience of working with a reputed company.
4. Should have at least one year’s experience as an engineer.
5. If he/she fulfils all other conditions except (4) but has an additional diploma in computers or I.T.
his/her case is to be referred to the General Manager.
6. If he/she fulfils all other conditions but has marketing degree instead of the condition given at (3)
his/her case is to be referred to the Managing Director.
7. Not be of age greater than 30 years.

Can the given candidate be selected?

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1. Amir aged 26 has done B.Tech. in I.T in first class. He has done MBA from IGNOU in first class.
He is currently working with Beta industries as Technical Officer where he has held this post for the
last three years. He scored 56% in the Sr. Secondary Examination.
(a) The candidate is to be selected.
(b) The candidate is not to be selected.
(c) Insufficient Data.
(d) The candidate is to be referred to the General Manager.
(e) The candidate is to be referred to the Managing Director.
2. Hari Rai is a 27 years old B.Tech. Graduate from I.P.University. He has also done MBA from IIM
Indore. He secured 65% marks in his Sr. Secondary Examination. He has been working with a
reputed Engineering Company, Chennai for the last 3 years.
(a) The candidate is to be selected
(b) The candidate is not be selected
(c) Insufficient Data
(d) The candidate is to be referred to the General Manager.
(e) The candidate is to be referred to the Managing Director.

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2.11 Inequality

1. In the following questions, the symbols #, *, %, (b) A-B means A is less than B
@ and © are used with the following meaning: (c) A=B means A is greater than equal to B
(a) A # B, means A is greater than B (d) A * B means A is equal to B
(b) A * B, means A is smaller than B (e) A/B means A is not equal to B
(c) A % B, means A is equal to B Statement
(d) A @ B, means A is greater than equal to B L*M, M+N, N=O
Conclusion
(e) A © B, means A is smaller than equal to B
I L*N
Statement
S©P@Q#R II L = O
Conclusion
(a) Only conclusion I is true
I S@R (b) Only conclusion II is true
II R * P (c) Both conclusion I and II are true
(d) Neither conclusion I nor II is true X
(a) Only conclusion I is true
(e) Either conclusion I or II is true
(b) Only conclusion II is true X
(c) Both conclusion I and II are true 4. Given signs signify something and on that basis,
assume the given statement to be true. Answer
(d) Neither conclusion I nor II is true
the question basis the information provided.
(e) Either conclusion I or II is true
(a) “×” denotes “larger than”
2. Symbols ?, U, + and – mean the following: (b) “+” denotes “equal to”
(a) A ? B means A is not equal to B. (c) “-” denotes “not equal to”
(b) A U B means A is 5 more than B. (d) “/” denotes “smaller than”
(c) A + B means A is multiplied by B. (e) “%” denotes “not smaller than”
(d) A - B means A is less than B. (f) “*” denotes “not larger than”

Statement If A/B and B/C, then

W U X, W – Y and Z – Y (a) A + C
Conclusion
(b) A × C
I Z–X (c) A C X
II Z ? X (d) A % C

(a) Only conclusion I is true 5. Symbols -, +, * and / mean the following:

(b) Only conclusion II is true (a) A - B means A is equal to B.
(c) Both conclusion I and II are true (b) A + B means A is 3 more than twice of B.
(d) Neither conclusion I nor II is true X (c) A * B means A is 70 percent of B.
(e) Either conclusion I or II is true (d) A/B means A is less than B.

3. Given signs signify something and on that ba- Using these symbols and talking the given state-
sis, assume the given statements to be true and ments as true, find out that which of the given
find which of the two conclusions I and II is/are conclusion is/are definitely true?
definitely true Statement
X + Y, Z * Y and Z – A
(a) A + B means A is greater than B Conclusion

114
 I Z/X I A#D
II A/X II C*E

(a) Only conclusion I is true (a) Only conclusion I is true

(b) Only conclusion II is true (b) Only conclusion II is true
(c) Both conclusion I and II are true X (c) Both conclusion I and II are true
(d) Neither conclusion I nor II is true (d) Neither conclusion I nor II is true X
(e) Either conclusion I or II is true (e) Either conclusion I or II is true

8. Given signs signify something and on that ba-

6. Given signs signify something and on that ba-
sis, assume the given statements to be true and
sis, assume the given statements to be true and
find which of the two conclusions I and II is/are
find which of the two conclusions I and II is/are
definitely true
definitely true
(a) A+B means A is less than B
(a) A+B means A is greater than B
(b) A-B means A is greater than B
(b) A-B means A is less than B
(c) A=B means A is greater than equal to B
(c) A=B means A is greater than equal to B
(d) A*B means A is equal to B
(d) A*B means A is not equal to B
(e) A/B means A is not equal B
(e) A/B means A is equal to B
Statement
Statement D-E, E-F,F*C Conclusion
Q+R, R*S, S-T
Conclusion I D*C
II E-C
I S*T
II Q=R (a) Only conclusion I is true
(b) Only conclusion II is true X
(a) Only conclusion I is true X
(c) Both conclusion I and II are true
(b) Only conclusion II is true
(d) Neither conclusion I nor II is true
(c) Both conclusion I and II are true
(e) Either conclusion I or II is true
(d) Neither conclusion I nor II is true
(e) Either conclusion I or II is true 9. Given signs signify something and on that ba-
sis, assume the given statements to be true and
7. Given signs signify something and on that ba- find which of the two conclusions I and II is/are
sis, assume the given statements to be true and definitely true.
find which of the two conclusion I and II is/are (a) P + Q means P is greater than Q
definitely true.
(b) P * Q means P is greater than or equal to
(a) “%” denotes “greater than” Q
(b) “>” denotes “equal to” (c) P = Q means P is equal to Q
(c) “=” denotes “not less than” (d) P / Q means P is less than Q
(d) “@” denotes “not equal to” (e) P – Q means P is less than or equal to Q
(e) “#” denotes “less than” Statement
(f) “⋆” denotes “not greater than” X/Y, W * Z, Z + Y
Conclusion
Statement
A%B, C=E, D*B I W+Y
Conclusion II X/Z

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 (a) Only conclusion I is true (a) Only conclusion I is true X
(b) Only conclusion II is true (b) Only conclusion II is true
(c) Both conclusion I and II are true X (c) Both conclusion I and II are true
(d) Neither conclusion I nor II is true (d) Neither conclusion I nor II is true
(e) Either conclusion I or II is true (e) Either conclusion I or II is true

10. The given signs signify something and on that 12. Given signs signify something and on that ba-
basis, assume the given statements to be true sis, assume the given statements to be true and
and find which of the two conclusions I and II find which of the two conclusions I and II is/are
is/are definitely true. definitely true

(a) ‘A * B’ means ‘A is greater than B’ (a) A+B means A is greater than equal to B
(b) ‘A | B’ means ‘A is neither smaller than nor (b) A-B means A is greater than B
equal to B’ (c) A=B means A is not equal to B
(c) ‘A/B’ means ‘A is not smaller than B’ (d) A*B means A is less than B
(d) ‘A B’ means ‘A is neither greater than nor (e) A/B means A is equal to B
equal to B’
Statement
(e) ‘A ? B’ means ‘A is neither greater than nor S=T, T/U, U*V
smaller than B’ Conclusion
Statement I T+V
M ? S | Q | P, R / P, T|P II U–V
Conclusion
(a) Only conclusion I is true
I M|T
(b) Only conclusion II is true X
II Q / R
(c) Both conclusion I and II are true
(a) Only conclusion I is true (d) Neither conclusion I nor II is true
(b) Only conclusion II is true (e) Either conclusion I or II is true
(c) Both conclusion I and II are true
13. Given signs signify something and on that ba-
(d) Neither conclusion I nor II is true sis, assume the given statements to be true and
(e) Either conclusion I or II is true find which of the two conclusions I and II is/are
definitely true
11. Symbols #,/, % and > mean the following:
(a) A+B means A is greater than B
(a) A# B means A is equal to B (b) A-B means A is less than of B
(b) A/B means A is half of B (c) A = B means A is greater than equal to B
(c) A % B means A is less than B (d) A*B means A is equal to B
(d) A > B means A is 20 percent of B (e) A/B means A is not equal to B
Using these symbols and taking the given state- Statement
ments as true, find out that which of the given D=E, E+F, F/G
conclusions is/are definitely true? Conclusion
Statement
S>T, T#U and U/V I D+F
Conclusion II F * G

I S%V (a) Only conclusion I is true X

II S > V (b) Only conclusion II is true

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 (c) Both conclusion I and II are true (d) Neither conclusion I nor II is true X
(d) Neither conclusion I nor II is true (e) Either conclusion I or II is true
(e) Either conclusion I or II is true
16. Given signs signify something and on that ba-
sis, assume the given statements to be true and
14. The given signs signify something and on that
find which of the two conclusions I and II is/are
basis, assume the given statements to be true
definitely true.
and find which of the two conclusions I and II
is/are definitely true. (a) A + B means A is less than B
(a) A+B means A is equal to B (b) A - B means A is greater than B
(b) A –B means A is not equal to B (c) A = B means A is greater than or equal to
B
(c) A € B means A is greater than B
(d) A * B means A is equal to B
(d) A * B means A is less than B
(e) A/B means A is not equal to B
(e) A / B means A is greater than equal to B
Statement
Statement D – E, E – F, F * G
D/G, G+F,F € E Conclusion
Conclusion
I D*G
I D+F II E – G
II E € G
(a) Only conclusion I is true
(a) Only conclusion I is true (b) Only conclusion II is true X
(b) Only conclusion II is true (c) Both conclusion I and II are true
(c) Both conclusion I and II are true (d) Neither conclusion I nor II is true
(d) Neither conclusion I nor II is true X (e) Either conclusion I or II is true
(e) Either conclusion I or II is true
17. The given signs signify something and on that
basis, assume the given statements to be true
15. The given signs signify something and on that
and find which of the two conclusions I and II
basis, assume the given statements to be true
is/are definitely true.
and find which of the two conclusions I and II
is/are definitely true. (a) P + Q means P is greater than Q.
(a) A+B means A is equal to B (b) P * Q means P is greater than or equal to
Q.
(b) A-B means A is less than B
(c) P = Q means P is equal to Q.
(c) A=B means A is not equal to B
(d) P/Q means P is less than Q.
(d) A*B means A is greater than B
(e) P - Q means P is less than or equal to Q.
(e) A/B means A is less than equal to B
Statement
Statement X/R, R + Y, Y – X, Z + Y, Z * R
K-M, K/L, L+N Conclusion
Conclusion
I (Y – X) + R
I M-L II Z + (X/R)
II M/N
(a) Only conclusion I is true
(a) Only conclusion I is true (b) Only conclusion II is true
(b) Only conclusion II is true (c) Both conclusion I and II are true
(c) Both conclusion I and II are true (d) Neither conclusion I nor II is true X

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 (e) Either conclusion I or II is true (c) A B means A is less than B
(d) A * B means A is not equal to B
18. Symbols *, /, # and @ mean the following
(e) A/B means A is greater than B
(a) A + B means A is greater than B.
Statement
(b) A/B means A is less than or equal to B. D * G, G – H, H/J
(c) A # B means A is greater than or equal to Conclusion
B
I D H
(d) A @ B means A is equal to B
II G/J
Using these symbols and taking the given state-
(a) Only conclusion I is true
ments as true. Find out which of the given con-
clusions is/are definitely true? (b) Only conclusion II is true
Statement (c) Both conclusion I and II are true X
X@Y, Y # Z and Z/A (d) Neither conclusion I nor II is true
Conclusion
(e) Either conclusion I or II is true
I X/A
21. Chose the right conclusion
II X @ A Statement
A>F≤C=D<E
(a) Only conclusion I is true Conclusion
(b) Only conclusion II is true
I A>E
(c) Both conclusion I and II are true
II F < E
(d) Neither conclusion I nor II is true X
(e) Either conclusion I or II is true (a) Only conclusion I is true
(b) Only conclusion II is true X
19. Symbolic representations of relationships are (c) Both conclusion I and II are true
given in the passage area. Based on the infor-
(d) Neither conclusion I nor II is true
mation given, answer the question that follows.
(e) Either conclusion I or II is true
(a) R * S = R is the mother of S
(b) R – S = R is the father of S 22. Chose the right conclusion
Statement
(c) R % S = R is the daughter of S L > M, M ≤ O = N, L = Q < K
(d) R > S = R is the son of S Conclusion
Who is the brother in A * B > C – D? I K>M
II O ≤ K
(a) B only X
(b) C only (a) Only conclusion I is true X
(c) D only (b) Only conclusion II is true
(d) Both B and D (c) Both conclusion I and II are true
(e) Data insufficient (d) Neither conclusion I nor II is true
(e) Either conclusion I or II is true
20. The given sings signify something and on that
basis, assume the given statements to be true 23. Given signs signify something and on that basis,
and find which of the two conclusions I and II assume the given statement to be true. Answer
is/are definitely true. the question basis the information provided.
(a) A + B means A is greater than equal to B (a) "x" denotes "larger than"
(b) A - B means A is equal to B (b) "+" denotes "equal to

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 (c) "-" denotes (a) A/C
(d) "not equal to" (b) B#C
(e) "/" denotes "smaller than" (c) C#B
(f) "%" denotes "not smaller than" (d) B+A X
(g) "*" denotes "not larger than"
26. Given that signify something and on that basis,
A*B implies assume the given statements to be true and find
which of the two conclusions I and II is/are def-
(a) A × C initely true
(b) A/B
(a) “%” denotes “greater than”
(c) A - B
(b) “>” denotes “equal to”
(d) None of these X
(c) “=” denotes “not less than”
24. Given that signify something and on that basis, (d) “@” denotes “not equal to”
assume the given statements to be true and find
(e) “#” denotes “less than”
which of the two conclusions I and II is/are def-
initely true (f) “⋆” denotes “not greater than”

(a) A+B means A is greater than equal to B Statement

P>S, S@T, P#R
(b) A-B means A is greater than B
Conclusion
(c) A=B means A is not equal to B
(d) A*B means A is less than B I S%T
(e) A/B means A is equal to B II P@T

Statement (a) Only conclusion I is true

P/Q, Q+R, R-S (b) Only conclusion II is true X
Conclusion
(c) Both conclusion I and II are true
I P=Q (d) Neither conclusion I nor II is true
II Q*S (e) Either conclusion I or II is true

(a) Only conclusion I is true 27. Given that signify something and on that basis,
(b) Only conclusion II is true assume the given statements to be true and find
(c) Both conclusion I and II are true which of the two conclusions I and II is/are def-
initely true
(d) Neither conclusion I nor II is true X
(e) Either conclusion I or II is true (a) “%” denotes “greater than”
(b) “>” denotes “equal to”
25. Given signs signify something and on that basis,
(c) “=” denotes “not less than”
assume the given statement to be true. Answer
the question basis the information provided. (d) “@” denotes “not equal to”
(e) “#” denotes “less than”
(a) “#” denotes “greater than”
(f) “⋆” denotes “not greater than”
(b) “/” denotes “equal to”
(c) “&” denotes “not equal to” If 𝐴𝐵 𝐶 it follows that
(d) “+” denoted “lesser than” (a) 𝐴 𝐵⋆𝐶
(e) “%” denoted “a little more than” (b) 𝐶 ⋆ 𝐵 𝐴
(f) “⋆” denotes “a little less than” (c) 𝐴 > 𝐶 𝐵
If AC%BC, then (d) 𝐵 − 𝐴𝐶

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2.12 Inference
1. Read the passage carefully and select the statement that can be inferred from it.
The company encourages its managers to interact regularly, without preset agenda, to discuss issues
concerning the company and the society. This idea has been borrowed from the ancient Indian concept of
religious congregation, called satsang. Designations are forgotten during these meetings; hence it is not
uncommon in these meetings to find a management trainee questioning the Managing Director on some
corporate policy or his knowledge of customers.

(a) The company is concerned about its reputation with its employees.
(b) The company believes in fostering the spirit of dialogue without degenerating it into a positioning
based debate
(c) The company had some inter-personnel problems in the past due to which it felt need for these
corporate satsangs
(d) All of the above X
2. Read the passage carefully and select the statement that can be inferred from it.
From Chennai to Himachal Pradesh, the new culture vultures are tearing down acress of India’s archi-
tectural treasures. Ancestral owners are often fobbed off with a few hundred rupees for an exquisitely
carved door or window, which fetches fifty times that much from foreign dealers, and yet more from the
drawing shop sophisticates of the Western Countries. The reason for such shameless rape of the Indian
architectural wealth can perhaps, not wrongly, be attributed to the unfortunate blend of activist disunity
and the local indifference.

(a) India provides a rich market for unscrupulous antique dealers

(b) Most Indian families have heirlooms which can be sold at high prices to Europeans and Americans
(c) Only Indians are not proud of their cultural heritage and are hungry for foreign currency that is
easily available in return of artifacts.
(d) The environment created by the activist disunity and local indifference is the reason for antique
dealers to strive in India. X

3. Read the passage carefully and select the statement that can be inferred from it.
Sceptic’s argue that flying saucers and UFOs that are believed to be guided by extra-terrestrial beings
or aliens are creations of human imagination. They have demonstrated that a number of photographs
that apparently show flying saucers are either phony or are misinterpreted images of earthly or natural
objects such as aeroplanes or meteors. However, there are scientists who have also contributed plenty of
evidence and asserted that aliens do exist.

(a) Lack of credibility of photographic evidence should be taken as proof of non-existence of aliens.
(b) While the existence of flying saucers and UFOs has been denied, the possibility of aliens beings is
still a reality.
(c) UFOs and flying saucers, if a reality, are of the same shape and size as aeroplanes.
(d) The fact that a number of photographs of flying saucers are fake cannot disprove the existence of
aliens and UFOs.

4. Read the passage carefully and select the statement that can be inferred from it.
Efficiency is all right in its place, in the shop, the factory, the store. The trouble with efficiency is that
it wants to rule our play as well as our work, it won’t be content to reign in the shop, and it follows us
home.

(a) Efficiency can become all pervading X

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 (b) Efficiency does not always pay
(c) Efficiency can be more of a torture than blessing
(d) None of these
5. Read the passage carefully and select the statement that can be inferred from it.
Education is the gateway to everyone’s own brave new world. When Raja Ram Mohan Roy pursued
Sanskrit, Arabic, French and English with equal zeal in the 19 th century, his inner compulsion was to
dispel the darkness which had kept his era in thrall.
(a) Inner darkness results due to the circumstances prevalent in an era. Education can do something
about it.
(b) Any era has its own compulsions and difficulties. Education helps to overcome them so the subjects
of education should be suitable, in keeping with the times. X
(c) Not everyone wants to bring about a change in the world according to Raja Ram Mohan Roy.
Education is the key to it.
(d) Keeping an era in thrall was the inner compulsion of Raja Ram Mohan Roy.
6. Read the passage carefully and select the statement that can be inferred from it.
Whether we look at the intrinsic value of our literature, or at the particular situation of this country. We
shall see the strongest reason to think that of all foreign language, the English language is that which
would be the most useful to our native subjects.
(a) The speaker is addressing an issue related to a colonial empire
(b) The speaker has the good of the nation at heart
(c) The speaker is a die-hard colonist
(d) None of these X
7. Read the passage carefully and select the statement that can be inferred from it.
There are ways to spice up one’s work. And I am surely not asking you to be an office gossip-monger.
There are predominantly three kinds of people at a work-place. Firstly, the ones who work for money
alone, and wouldn’t devote even an iota of their time beyond the 9-5 office timings. They are usually
not happy with what they are doing, unlike the others. They are usually not happy with what they are
doing, unlike the others. Secondly there are those, for whom, work is a means of getting appreciation and
rewards. They are happy if they feel their efforts are being acknowledged and rewarded. They stretch
themselves to finish their work on time and are an asset to the organization. Thirdly, the ones who
consider work as an end in itself. They put their heart and soul into their work and never worry about
rewards. I am just asking you to try and transform yourself into one of the latter two.

(a) The writer is a professional career counselor in the organization.

(b) People belonging to the second and third kinds are have higher job satisfaction.
(c) Rewarding the first and second kind of people at work place encourages them to do better.
(d) The third kind of people at workplace are the best assets for the organization.
(e) People belonging to the second kind have to stretch themselves to get appreciation and rewards. X
8. Read the passage carefully and select the statement that can be inferred from it.
Email overload has of-late become a great cause of concern in all organizations. We have reached a
stage where our email habits control us. We are obsessed with checking our mails every now and then.
We feel bored of working and we glance into our mailbox hoping to have received some “scintillating”
mail. Obviously, it also gives us an illusionary impression that we are working. Not missing any mail
and replying to each one of them has become a custom. Our addiction to this leads to our ignorance of
deadlines, meetings, personal chit with fellow employees. It’s shame that we have inculcated a habit of
reading mails but not of taking timely actions on the mails.

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 (a) Employees find reading mails to be more interesting than working.
(b) Replying to each and every mails is not a good habit.
(c) Addiction of reading and replying to every mail may have adverse effect on our performance. X
(d) All mails are sent on the premise that timely action be taken on them.

9. Read the passage carefully and select the answer option that can be inferred from it.
According to a recent study, in the local municipal elections, the candidate who interacts more with
the Resident’s Welfare Associations and wins their trust will get the maximum name recognition in the
elections.

(a) Maximum name recognition will help a candidate win a higher percentage of votes cast during the
election.
(b) Resident’s welfare associations exert a lot of influence over the voting population residing in the city.
(c) For maximum name recognition a candidate need not spend a lot of money on posters, banners and
advertising campaigns.
(d) Local Resident’s Welfare Associations are the most important factor in elections in the city.
(e) All of the above X
10. Read the passage carefully and select the statement that can be inferred from it.
A recent communication noted that India’s foreign minister told officials in U.K. that New Delhi intends
to maintain and extend her open door policy to the West. The minister also said that India would continue
with her programme of political and economic changes despite a recent campaign against western ideas
and foreign aid.

(a) Although internal changes in India may not follow western ideas, foreign trade with the West shall
continue.
(b) India would make amends to reconcile with the western ideas by following an open door policy.
(c) India’s internal policies are not dependent on her foreign relations. X
(d) India would continue her open door policy with other western countries despite her issues with U.K.

11. Social scientists have found that people who marry young are seldom prepared for martial roles. Also
the men and women who marry as young adults live longer than those who never marry. According
to a study, young adults who are about to get married have fewer unhealthy habits, like smoking and
uncontrolled drinking of alcohol, as compared with the other people of the same age.

(a) The institution of marriage forces young men and women to quit smoking and drinking.
(b) Those who marry at an older age live a shorter life than those who get married at a younger age.
X
(c) People who marry at an older age are well prepared to take up martial roles.
(d) Young adults who are not about to marry are more likely to have unhealthy habits than those who
are about to marry.

12. European cars have traditionally been smaller and more fuel-efficient than their giant American cousins,
but current policy explicitly stresses eco-friendliness. For example, recent British legislation has linked
taxation to CO2 emissions with the lowest tax rate of 15 percent on the list price reserved for cars emitting
less than 165 gms/km and rising by one percent for each 5 gm increase in CO2 levels.

(a) The British are unconcerned about the environment and rules have to be imposed upon them for
maintenance of a clean environment. X
(b) The lesser the list price of a car, the greater is its fuel efficiency and so lesser the tax on it.

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 (c) The more fuel efficient a vehicle is, the more eco-friendly it will be.
(d) Fuel efficiency does not necessarily correlate with eco-friendliness.

13. In today’s times, most of the high growth jobs require a person to be a graduate. However, many of the
new jobs that are cropping up-be it general or technical-require knowledge other than that acquired from
attending college. Jobs like tele-calling, copy editing require people to possess a good command over
language apart from basic interpersonal skills. These pre-requisites help them grab hold of opportunities
in the jobs market and shine in their respective careers.

(a) College education would need to be revamped to impart employment skills to students.
(b) Interpersonal and language proficiency are skills which will soon be taught in colleges.
(c) A person with excellent language and interpersonal skills would still not find employment unless he
is a graduate too.
(d) People who do not have good interpersonal and language skills cannot excel in the work place
(e) Tele calling and copy editing are high growth jobs

14. Read the passage carefully and select the statement that can be inferred from it.
The world production of sugar has been reported to be very scarce as compared to the global sales for
four years. The demand for sugar is extremely high but the supply has been low for quite some time now.
This could be because of the awful weather and also because some chief sugar growers have switched
to high priced jute. The price of sugar has soared in response to the phenomena of the demand supply
disparity. The price of sugar now equals that of jute.

(a) Sugar production is profitable only when the price of sugar is as high as that of jute.
(b) the sugar growth who had shifted to the higher priced jute, will now move back to producing sugar.
(c) Demand for jute was higher than the demand for sugar, which made sugar grower shift their product
on.
(d) If there continues to be a shortfall in the production of sugar, the price of sugar may even exceed
that of jute. X

15. Read the passage carefully and select the statement that can be inferred from it.
Being extremely overweight is a condition called obesity. This has of late become a great cause of concern
in India. Researchers have proved in the past that obese kids are more prone to other disorders like
juvenile diabetes, asthma and cardiac problems. A recent research has indicated with a strong backing
that there may be a correlation between obesity and some types of tumours. Various organizations are
now conducting public awareness campaigns to bring about a change in the lifestyle of people. These
campaigns can help in the fight against obesity.

(a) Organizations were not proactive in the past in spreading awareness about leading a healthy lifestyle.
(b) Obesity and health problems like diabetes are directly related to each other.
(c) Awareness drives are an attempt to make people more health conscious.
(d) Most of the asthmatic kids have been found to be obese.

16. Read the passage carefully and select the statement that can be inferred from it.
There is a huge disparity of cost of manufacturing farm equipment in Brazil and France. Expenses related
to manufacturing of farm equipment in Brazil are 15% kisser than those in France. It is also true that
even after the imposition of various taxes and duties, it is still economical to import farm equipment from
Brazil than manufacture them in France.

(a) To conclude whether farm equipment manufactured in Brazil would replace those manufactured in
France, the quality of these machines would also need to be considered

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 (b) Demand for farm equipment is highly price sensitive
(c) The import tax on farm equipment imported from Brazil is less than fifteen percent of the cost of
manufacturing machines in France.
(d) Importing farm machines from Brazil would help France redeploy existing capacity into manufac-
turing those products that it has a cost advantage in X

17. Read the passage carefully and select the statement that can be inferred from it.
Of all the fitness and wellness activities customary in India, Artistic yoga is the new kid in town. It has
successfully earned a pat on the back from whosoever has lent an ear to the latest advancements. Artistic
yoga combines the suaveness of yoga and the frenzy of modem cardio-vascular exercises. The technique
involves performance or various aasanas and pranayams followed by walking on treadmill. stair climbing.
cycling and so on. The activities are performed in a cyclic order and the aasana or pranayam tnat is done
in the beginning is repeated in the end. This helps an individual the physical level as well as he mental
and spiritual level, thus helping bring about a complete transformation of body, mind and soul.

(a) Artistic yoga helps in the overall development or those who practise it
(b) Artistic yoga has been adopted by modem people since it is in fashion these days
(c) All the activities performed at the beginning or artistic yoga are also repeated in the end X
(d) Since it combines yoga and exercises, artistic yoga will replace other fitness and wellness programmes.

18. Based on the given passage find out which of the statement can be inferred from the passage.
With new seasons of reality shows being telecast every month, the viewership of these show has increased.
Viewership and participation in reality TV shows is mostly induced by two common motivators: fame
and money. The shows transform common people who are otherwise obscure figures to household names.
A few successfully maneuver their small stint with fame to become celebrities. Winners of Reality TV
shows reap huge financial rewards for acts including eating large insects, marrying someone they barely
know, and revealing their innermost thoughts to millions of people.

(a) Reality shows owe their popularity to the fact that all their participants become rich and famous.
X
(b) There are more reality shows on TV than regular shows as viewership of reality shows is higher
(c) The participation money in reality shows is linked to the bizarreness of the acts on the show
(d) Reality TV is one of the best things that has happened to television networks in a long time
(e) The main attraction behind viewership of reality shows is to see unknown people become rich and
famous

19. Based on the given passage find out which of the statement can be inferred from the passage.
Deepa Mehta’s Fire was under fire from the country’s self-appointed moral police.Their contention was
that the film was a violation of the Indian cultural mores and couldn’t be allowed to influence the Indian
psyche. According to them, such films ruin the moral fabric of the nation, which must be protected and
defended against such intrusions at all cost, even at the cost of cultural dictatorship.

(a) The assumption underlying the moral police’s critique of Fire was that the Indian audience is vul-
nerable to all types of influence
(b) The assumption underlying the moral police’s critique of Fire was that the Indian audience is im-
pressionable and must be protected against ’immoral’ influence.
(c) The moral police thinks it has the sole authority to pass judgment on films screened in India
(d) None of these

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20. Based on the given passage find out which of the statement can be inferred from the
passage.
Excessive amounts of mercury in drinking water, associated with certain types of industrial pollution
have been shown to cause Hobson’s disease. Island L has an economy based entirely on subsistence level
agriculture; modern industry of any kind is unknown. The in habitants of Island L have unusually high
incidence of Hobson’s disease.

(a) Mercury in drinking water is actually perfectly safe

(b) Mercury in drinking water must have sources other than industrial pollution
(c) Hobson’s disease must have causes other than mercury in drinking water
(d) Both options (1) and (2)
(e) Both options (3) and (2) X
21. Based on the given passage find out which of the statement can be inferred from the passage.
Sales drives in big organizations many a times fall flat on the face. A research showed that an average
buyer remembers only 20% of the thing’s discussed during a sales call. The saddest part is that the
sales team doesn’t get choose what those 20% of the things would be. The world today is cluttered
with information and thus it is essential that the sales team represents their product/service in the best
possible manner. It is like answering question that children ask. Expect basic and out of context questions
and reply to each one of them patiently, in way that the customer understand the intricacies. You can
use technical terms to explain your product and its features no doubt, it will be an accurate methodology
but certainly not the right one. Simplify your message and see how well your client remembers you and
your presentations when you meet him to finally close deal.

(a) A regular buyer would remember more than 20% of the details after a sales meeting.
(b) A customer is as gullible as a child and hence may ask many questions
(c) One should try and minimize the usage of technical terms to explain a product to the customer
(d) If you simplify your message. The customer would remember your entire presentation X

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2.13 Logical Sequence of Word
Choose the option that arranges the given set of words in the ‘most meaningful order. The words when put
in order should make logical sense according to size, quality, quantity, occurrence of events, value, appearance,
nature, process etc.

1. Choose the option that arranges the given set of 4. Crime

words in the most meaningful order 5. Complaint
1. Person 6. Court Hearing
2. Locality
(a) 4,5,3,2,6,1 X (c) 5,4,3,2,6,1
3. Family
(b) 4,3,2,5,6,1 (d) 4,3,5,6,2,1
4. Country
5. Community 5. Choose the option that arranges the given set of
words in the most meaningful order
(a) 4,1,2,3,5 (c) 5,3,2,1,4
1. Earn
(b) 4,2,5,3,1 X (d) 5,3,4,2,1
2. Shopping
2. Choose the option that arranges the given set of 3. Boy
words in the most meaningful order 4. Money
1. Mosquito 5. Job
2. Rat (a) 3,1,5,4,2 (c) 3,5,1,4,2 X
3. Cockroach (b) 3,4,5,1,2 (d) 2,3,5,1,4
4. Lizard
5. Dog 6. Choose the option that arranges the given set of
words in the most meaningful order
(a) 1,4,3,2,5 (c) 1,3,4,2,5 X
1. Palm
(b) 1,3,2,4,5 (d) 1,2,3,4,5
2. Finger
3. Choose the option that arranges the given set of 3. Eye
words in the most meaningful order 4. Stomach
5. Elbow
1. Dress
2. Yarn (a) 3,2,1,4,5 (c) 2,3,1,5,4
3. Cotton (b) 3,2,1,5,4 X (d) 3,1,2,5,4
4. Stitching
5. Plant 7. Choose the option that arranges the given set of
words in the most meaningful order
(a) 5,3,2,4,1 X (c) 5,3,1,4,2
1. Kaziranga sanctuary
(b) 3,5,2,1,4 (d) 1,2,3,4,5
2. Asia
3. Rhinoceros
4. Choose the option that arranges the given set of
words in the most meaningful order 4. India
5. Assam
1. Judgment
2. Arrest (a) 2,4,1,3,5 (c) 2,4,3,1,5
3. Police (b) 2,4,5,3,1 (d) 2,4,5,1,3 X

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 8. Choose the option that arranges the given set of 12. Choose the option that arranges the given set of
words in the most meaningful order words in the most meaningful order

1. Jupiter 1. Vegetables
2. Mars 2. Energy
3. Neptune 3. Food
4. Mercury 4. Cook
5. Venus 5. Eat

(a) 2,5,4,1,3 (c) 4,5,2,1,3 X (a) 13452 (c) 43512

(b) 4,2,5,1,3 (d) 2,4,5,1,3 (b) 14352 X (d) 43521

9. Choose the option that arranges the given set of 13. Choose the option that arranges the given set of
words in the most meaningful order words in the most meaningful order

1. Cut 1. Education
2. Buy 2. Promotion
3. Cook 3. Birth
4. Select 4. Retirement
5. Serve 5. Job

(a) 2,1,3,4,5 (c) 4,2,1,3,5 X (a) 3,1,5,4,2 (c) 3,1,2,4,5

(b) 4,2,1,5,3 (d) 5,3,1,2,4 (b) 3,1,5,2,4 X (d) 3,1,2,5,4

10. Choose the option that arranges the given set of 14. Choose the option that arranges the given set of
words in the most meaningful order words in the most meaningful order

1. Tractor 1. Tree
2. Yacht 2. Wood
3. Bicycle 3. Plant
4. Truck 4. Seed
5. Car 5. Furniture

(a) 1,3,4,5,2 (c) 3,5,1,4,2 (a) 3,4,2,1,5 (c) 4,1,3,2,5

(b) 3,1,4,5,2 X (d) 3,1,4,2,5 (b) 3,4,1,2,5 (d) 4,3,1,2,5 X

11. Choose the option that arranges the given set of 15. Choose the option that arranges the given set of
words in the most meaningful order words in the most meaningful order

1. Garden 1. Key
2. Earth 2. Door
3. Grass 3. Lock
4. Forest 4. Room
5. Tree 5. Light-on

(a) 5,3,1,4,2 X (c) 3,5,1,4,2 (a) 5,1,2,4,3 (c) 1,2,3,5,4

(b) 3,5,1,2,4 (d) 5,1,3,4,2 (b) 4,2,1,5,3 (d) 1,3,2,4,5 X

127
16. Choose the option that arranges the given set of 20. Choose the option that arranges the given set of
words in the most meaningful order words in the most meaningful order

1. Probation 1. Tajmaghal
2. Interview 2. India
3. Selection 3. Asia
4. Appointment letter 4. Agra
5. Advertisement 5. Uttar Pradesh
6. Application
(a) 1,5,4,2,3 (c) 3,2,4,5,1
(a) 5,6,2,3,4,1 X (c) 5,6,4,2,3,1 (b) 1,4,2,5,3 (d) 3,2,5,4,1 X
(b) 5,6,3,2,4,1 (d) 6,5,4,3,2,1
21. Choose the option that arranges the given set of
17. Choose the option that arranges the given set of words in the most meaningful order
words in the most meaningful order
1. Cry
1. Lion
2. Mother
2. Dog
3. Food
3. Duck
4. Hungry
4. Insect
5. Child
5. Deer
(a) 5,4,1,2,3 X (c) 5,4,1,3,2
(a) 4,2,3,5,1 (c) 4,3,2,5,1 X
(b) 5,1,4,2,3 (d) 5,1,4,3,2
(b) 4,2,3,1,5 (d) 4,3,2,1,5
22. Choose the option that arranges the given set of
18. Choose the option that arranges the given set of
words in the most meaningful order
words in the most meaningful order
1. Centigram
1. Infant
2. Megagram
2. Foetus
3. Microgram
3. zygote
4. Milligram
4. Adult
5. Teenager 5. Kilogram

(a) 2,3,1,5,4 (c) 4,5,1,3,2 (a) 4,3,2,1,5 (c) 4,2,3,1,5

(b) 3,2,1,5,4 (d) 2,1,5,4,3 X (b) 3,4,1,5,2 X (d) 3,2,1,4,5

19. Choose the option that arranges the given set of 23. Choose the option that arranges the given set of
words in the most meaningful order words in the most meaningful order

1. Cotton 1. Lake
2. Plant 2. Ocean
3. Cloth 3. Water
4. Yarn 4. Sea
5. Shirt 5. Waterfall

(a) 21453 (c) 21435 X (a) 3,5,2,4,1 (c) 3,5,1,4,2

(b) 24135 (d) 24315 (b) 3,5,1,2,4 (d) 3,5,4,1,2

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3 Verbal Reasoning
3.1 Ordering of Sentences
1. Arrange the fragments A, B, C, D and E in order to form a meaningful sentence
A - you should create C - been stuck E - the space for
B - in situations that have D - transformations

(a) BCEDA (b) AEDBC (c) ADEBC X (d) EDABC

2. The question consists of 6 sentences. S1 and S6 represent the first and the last sentences of a passage
respectively. Arrange the sentences P, Q, R and S between S1 and S6, to form a complete meaningful
passage.
S1: I have a flight to catch at 7.30 a.m tomorrow morning.
S6: As the check-in process will also take some time.
P: I would better put an alaram for 6 a.m.
Q: Also another half an hour to reach airport.
R: It would take me around half an hour to get ready.
S: it is always better to reach the airport early.

(a) SQRP (b) QSPR (c) SRPQ (d) PRQS X

3. Arrange the fragments A, B, C, D, E and F in order to form a meaningful sentence.
A – disappointed if C – do not be E – promises are
B – not fulfilled D – or F – friends let you down

(a) CFDAEB (b) CABDEF (c) CAFDBE (d) CAFDEB X

4. The question consists of 6 sentences. S1 and S6 represents the first and the last sentences of a passage
respectively. Arrange the sentences P, Q, R and S between S1 and S6, to form a complete meaningful
passage.
S1: Maya is a very career oriented woman.
S6: They are a happy couple.
P: However her husband is very supportive.
Q: Her husband is also a Financial Advisor.
R: She has long working hours and is earning more than her husband.
S: She is working as a CA with one of the top MNCs.

(a) SQRP X (b) RSQP (c) PQRS (d) QSPR

5. Arrange the fragments A,B, C,D and E in order to form a meaningful sentence.
A - to C - after E - study regularly
B - he failed D - he learned

(a) BCDAE (b) DAEBC X (c) CDBAE (d) CBDAE

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6. The question consists of 6 sentences. S1 and S6 represent the first and the last sentences of a passage
respectively. Arrange the sentences P, Q, R and S between S1 and S6, to form a complete meaningful
passage.
S1: Hi Sandeep, hope all is well with you.
S6: Nonetheless, we had great fun while rafting.
P: We all went for a short trip last weekend to Rishikesh for camping and rafting.
Q: It was a lot of fun as well as stayed in camp at the river side.
R: Everybody here is doing great.
S: There weren’t many rapids in the river this year due to less rain.

(a) PSRQ (b) SPQR (c) RPQS X (d) QPRS

7. The question consists of 6 sentences. S1 and s6 represent the first and the last sentences of a passage
respectively. Arrange the sentences P, Q, R and s between S1 and S6, to form a complete meaningful
passage.
S1: Today in the morning, I did not feel like having breakfast.
S6: Finally, I ended up having a huge supper before going to bed.
P: By the time I reached office, my head was spinning.
Q: I ate only one apple and left for my work
R: The doctor prescribed me a few medicines, and told me to have a nutritious meal.
S: I was rushed to see the doctor, as I had fainted on my desk.

(a) RSPQ (b) SPQR (c) QPSR X (d) QSRP

8. The question consists of 6 sentences, S1 and S6 represent the first and the last sentences of passage
respectively. Arrange the sentence P, Q, R and S between S1 and S6, to form a complete meaningful
passage.
S1: He has always been actively involved in charity work.
S6: Wish we had more such people coming up for good causes like this.
P: Recently he donated 50 thousand to a school.
Q: Every year, more than 500 slum children get free education from there
R: They are also considering opening more branches in India.
S: It was for education of slum children.

(a) QRSP X (b) PSQR (c) QPRS (d) SQRP

9. The question consists of 6 sentences. S1 and S6 represent the first and the last sentences of a passage
respectively. Arrange the sentences P, Q, R and S between S1 and S6, to form complete meaningful
passage.
S1: A lot of kids were complaining of stomach ache.
S6: However the authorities are not ready to take any responsibility.
P: They have also asked the school authorities to close down the school.
Q: Parents have asked the food sample to be tested.
R: The problem started after their mid-day meal was served.
S: Thus, it had to be something in the food they had eaten.

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 (a) SRQP (b) RSQP X (c) PRQS (d) QSPR

10. The question consists of 6 sentences. S1 and S6 represent the first and the last sentences of a passage
respectively. Arrange the sentences P, Q, R and S between S1 and S6, to form a complete meaningful
passage.
S1 : He always been actively involved in charity work.
S6 : Wish we had more such people coming up for good causes like this.
P : Recently he donated 50 thousand to a school.
Q : Every year, more than 500 slum children get free education from there.
R : They are also considering opening more branches in India
S : It was for education of slum children.

(a) QRSP (b) PSQR X (c) QPRS (d) SQRP

11. In the question, there is a sentence of which some parts have been jumbled up. Re-arrange these parts
which are labelled P, Q, R and S to produce the correct sentence. Choose the proper sequence.
It was
P: in keeping with my mood
Q: a soft summer evening
R: as I walked sedately
S: in the direction of the new

(a) SRPQ (b) QRPS (c) QPRS X (d) SQPR

12. The question consists of 6 sentences. S1 and S6 represent the first and the last sentences of a passage
respectively. Arrange the sentences P,Q,R, and S between S1 and S6, to form a complete meaningful
passage.
S1: There is a difference between Gandhiji’s concept of Secularism and that of Nehru’s
S6: Instead of doing any good, such secularism can do harm instead of good.
P: Nehru’s idea of secularism was equal indifference to all religions and bothering about none of them.
Q: According to Gandhiji, all religious are equality true and each scripture is worthy of respect.
R: Such secularism which means the rejection of all religions is contrary to our culture and tradition.
S: In Gandhiji’s view, secularism stands for equal respect for all religions.

(a) SQPR X (b) PSQR (c) QSPR (d) PRSQ

13. 13. Arrange the sentences A, B, C and D to form a logical sequence between sentences 1 to 6
1: Take the case of a child raised under slum conditions, whose parents are socially ambitious and envy
families with money, but who nevertheless squander the little they have on drink.
A: Common sense would expect that he would develop the value of thrift; he would never again endure
the grinding poverty he has experienced as a child.
B: He may simply be, unable in later life, to mobilize a drive sufficient to overcome these early conditions.
C: But infact it is not so.
D: The exact conditions are too complex but when certain conditions are fulfilled, he will thereafter be
spend thrift.
6: This is what has been observed in a number of cases.

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 (a) DCBA (b) ABCD (c) ACDB (d) BACD X
14. The sentences given in the question, when properly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Each sentence
is labelled with a number. Choose the most logical order of sentences from among the four given choices
to construct a coherent paragraph.
1: Much of the argument that goes on around the alternative solution occurs because people hold different
perceptions of the problem.
2: One of the reasons that Japanese managers are perceived as making superior decisions compared to
Western managers is that they spend a great deal of effort and time determining that the problem
is correctly defined.
3: Unfortunately, too often in the West, managers assume that the initial definition of the situation is
correct.
4: Up to half the time in meetings is spent in asking “Is this the real problem?

(a) 2431 X (b) 2341 (c) 3241 (d) 1342

15. The question consists of 6 sentences. S1 and S6 represent the first and the last sentences of a passage
respectively. Arrange the sentences P, Q, R and S between S1 and S6, to form a complete meaningful
passage.
S1: Politeness is not a quality possessed by only one nation or race.
S6: In any case, we should not mock at other’s habits.
P: One may observe that a man of one nation will remove his hat or fold his hands by way of greetings
when he meets someone he knows.
Q: A man of another country will not do so.
R: It is a quality to be found among all peoples and nations in every corner of the earth.
S: obviously, each person follows the custom of his particular country.

(a) RPQS (b) RPSQ X (c) PRQS (d) QPRS

16. The question consists of 6 sentences. S1 and S6 represent the first and the last sentences of a passage
respectively. Arrange the sentences P, Q, R and S between S1 and S6, to form a complete meaningful
passage.
S1: A lot or kids were complaining of stomach ache.
S6: However the authorities are not ready to take any responsibility.
P: They have also asked the school authorities to close down the school.
Q: Parents have asked the food sample to be tested.
R: The problem started alter their midday meal was served.
S: Thus, I had to be something in the food they had eaten.

(a) SRQP (b) RSQP X (c) PRQS (d) QSPR

17. The question consists of 4 sentences. Arrange the sentences P, Q, R and S between S1 and S6, to form a
complete meaningful passage.
P: at his dispensary R: of all professions
Q: went to him S: for medicine and treatment

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 (a) QPRS X (b) RPQS (c) RQSP (d) QRPS

18. In the question, there is a sentence of which some parts have been jumbled up, Re-arrange these parts
which are labelled P, Q, R and S to produce the correct sentence. Choose the proper sequence.
I saw that
P: but seeing my host in this mood.
Q: I deemed it proper to take leave
R: as I had frequently done before
S: it had been my intention to pass the night there

(a) QPSR (b) QRPS (c) SPQR (d) SRPQ X

19. The question consists of 6 sentences. S1 and S6 represent the first and the last sentences of a passage
respectively. Arrange the sentences P, Q, R and S between S1 and S6, to form a complete meaningful
passage.
S1: Rahul has been trying to lose weight.
S6: I think it is just a lame excuse for his laziness.
P: As regular morning walk keeps our body fit and healthy
Q: The trainer has suggested him to start with regular morning walk.
R: He has not yet started his daily walk.
S: He says that because of late night work, it is hard for him to get up early.

(a) PRSQ (b) QPRS X (c) RQPS (d) SQRP

133
3.2 Spotting Errors
1. Read the sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in
one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. Ignore the error of punctuation, if any.
A - Rahul knew that it was worthless C - Who was least bothered about his lost wallet.
B - To scream at the policeman

(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) No error X

2. Read the sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in
one part of the sentence. The letter of the part is the answer. Ignore the error of punctuation, if any.
A - As Maria returned home. C - everyone were hiding in the kitchen
B - she found the hall to be empty as D - No error

(a) A (b) B (c) C X (d) D

3. Read the sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in
one part of sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. Ignore the error of punctuation, if any
A - Yauhan do not understand B - the importance of money as C - he never had to earn himself

(a) A X (b) B (c) C (d) No error

4. Read the sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in
one part of sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. Ignore the error of punctuation, if any
A - salesman of that B - company tried to C - cheated a naïve lady.

(a) A (b) B (c) C X (d) No error

5. Read the sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in
one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. lgnore the error of punctuation, if any.
A - Western culture have B - influenced many people in C - India in a very powerful way.

(a) A X (b) B (c) C (d) No error

6. Read the sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in
one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. lgnore the error of punctuation, if any
A - Jeet is a very nice boy C - to what his parents have to say
B - and he always listen carefully

(a) A X (b) B (c) C (d) No error

7. Read the sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in
one part of sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. Ignore the error of punctuation, if any
A - The phrase ‘Be the change you want C - said through Mahatma Gandhi.
B - to see in the world’ was
(a) A (b) B (c) C X (d) No error

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 8. Read the sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in
one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. Ignore the error of punctuation, if any.
A - Shalini win the race B - as she practised too C - hard for the tournament.

(a) A X (b) B (c) C (d) No error

9. Read the sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in
one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. Ignore the error of punctuation, if any
A - There is a lots C - for the rest of us.
B - of milk left in the jar D - No error

(a) A X (b) B (c) C (d) D

10. Read the sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be one
part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. Ignore the error of punctuation, if any.
A - You can go to school tomorrow and C - in the annual function or not.
B - decide whether you want too participate

(a) A (b) B X (c) C (d) No error

11. Read the sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in
one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. Ignore the error of punctuation, if any.
A - Sita has a hobby of writing poems, C - free and in the mood of writing.
B - whenever she had been

(a) A (b) B X (c) C (d) No error

12. Read the sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in
one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. Ignore the error of punctuation, if any.
A - Three men ran past me and then C - the last train to Agra.
B - jumped of 10 steps at once to catch

(a) A X (b) B (c) C (d) No answer

13. Read the sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in
one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. Ignore the error of punctuation, if any.
A - I was so surprised that C - but later others confirmed that they too had
B - I told me I was imagining things, seen the same sight.

(a) A (b) B X (c) C (d) No error

14. Read the sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in
one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer ignore the error of publication, if any.
(A) It also aids (B) in digestion and act (C) as a blood purifier.

(a) (A) (b) (B) X (c) (C) (d) No error

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15. Read the sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in
one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer ignore the error of publication, if any.
(A) Though the last few years of her career (C) showing an unshakable faith in hard work.
(B) has been Tough, she has still kept on

(a) (A) (b) (B) X (c) (C) (d) No error

16. Read the sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in
one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer ignore the error of publication, if any.
(A) They had saw how the team works (C) and improve the work dynamics.
(B) and only thing left now is to try

(a) A X (b) B (c) C (d) No error

17. Read the sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in
one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer ignore the error of publication, if any.
(A) I do not remember meeting (B) him anywhere, yet (C) he seemed to know me well.

(a) (A) X (b) (B) (c) (C) (d) No error

18. Read the sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in
one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. Ignore the error of punctuation, if any
(A) It hence proven that the (C) is often blurred.
(B) distinction between two view points

(a) (A) X (b) (B) (c) (C) (d) No error

19. Read the sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in
one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. Ignore the error of punctuation, is any.
(A) it have been (B) ages since I (C) played the guitar. (D) No error

(a) (A) X (b) (B) (c) (C) (d) (D)

20. Read the sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in
one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. Ignore the error of punctuation, if any.
(A) Sachin hit a century (C) between India against Australia.
(B) in the second cricket match (D) No error

(a) (A) (b) (B) (c) (C) X (d) (D)

21. Read the sentence to determine if there is any grammatical error in it. Choose the letter corresponding
to the part that contains the error. Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.
(A) The young man said he had been walking (C) when he is realizing that he had lost his watch.
(B) on his way home from the party

(a) (A) (b) (B) (c) (C) X (d) No error

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22. Read the sentence to determine if there is any grammatical error in it. Choose the letter corresponding
to the part that contains the error. Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.
(A) A sales man of that (C) cheated a native lady.
(B) company tried to

(a) (A) (b) (B) (c) (C) X (d) No error

23. Read the sentence to determine if there is any grammatical error in it. Choose the letter corresponding
to the part that contains the error. Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.
(A) When the captain called the crew (C) the deck of the ship.
(B) each of the crew members ran towards

(a) (A) (b) (B) (c) (C) (d) No error X

24. Read the sentence to determine if there is any grammatical error in it. Choose the letter corresponding
to the part that contains the error. Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.
(A) We’ve been saying it separately up till (C) better if we spoken one voice.
(B) now, but we thought it would be

(a) (A) X (b) (B) (c) (C) (d) No error

25. Read the sentence to determine if there is any grammatical error in it. Choose the letter corresponding
to the part that contains the error. Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.
(A) We all know that Shakespeare is (C) than poet.
(B) the better novelist

(a) (A) (b) (B) (c) (C) X (d) No error

26. Read the sentence to determine if there is any grammatical error in it. Choose the letter corresponding
to the part that contains the error. Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.
(A) All the guests on the (C) when they heard the alarm .
(B) boat got frightened

(a) (A) X (b) (B) (c) (C) (d) No error

27. Read the sentence to determine if there is any grammatical error in it. Choose the letter corresponding
to the part that contains the error. Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.
(A) Besides,he adds (C) access libraries of other institutes.
(B) that students can easily

(a) (A) X (b) (B) (c) (C) (d) No error

28. Identity the sentence that is grammatically correct.

(a) Some of the books lying on the table is not needed for this exam.
(b) Some of the books lying at the table is not needed for this exam.
(c) Some of the books lying at the table are not needed for this exam.
(d) Some of the books lying on the table are not needed for this exam. X

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 (e) Some of the books lying over the table is not needed for this exam.

29. Identify the sentence that is grammatically correct.

(a) At the end of the function, a lot of food was throwed away in the dustbin.
(b) At the end of the function, a lot of food were throwed away in the dustbin.
(c) At the end of the function, a lot of food was thrown away in the dustbin. X
(d) At the end of the function, a lot of food was threw away in the dustbin.
(e) At the end of the function, a lot of food were thrown away in the dustbin.

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3.3 Fill the Blanks
1. Select the correct option that fills the blank(s) to make the sentence meaningfully complete
His dream of holding an exhibition into reality when he shifted to Delhi
(a) was being turning (b) had turned (c) is turning X (d) will turn

2. Select the correct option that fills the blank(s) to make the sentence meaningfully complete.
Months have passed and no action been taken for a dowry harassment case filed against the in-laws.

(a) Has X (b) Have (c) Had (d) Are

3. Select the correct option that fills the blank(s) to make the sentence meaningfully complete.
This hotel has a good service. They park the cars safely.
(a) Bellboy (b) Callboy (c) Valet X (d) Doorman

4. Select the correct option that fills the blank(s) to make the sentence meaningfully complete.
There are many textile producing mills in the market that compete with each to gain the largest
share of the market.
(a) Person (b) Other X (c) Contestants (d) Individual

5. Select the correct option that fills the blank(s) to make the sentence meaningfully complete.
The guest wanted to know the hotel was offering him an extra overnight stay that they promised
him.
(a) For (b) Was (c) Whether (d) As X
6. Select the correct option that fills the blank(s) to make the sentence meaningfully complete.
The room is more expensive because it has a spectacular view the beach.
(a) of X (b) from (c) for (d) to

7. Select the correct option that fills the blank(s) to make the sentence meaningfully complete.
Heritage languages which form a part of india’s rich culture are becoming
(a) Extinctive (b) Extinguish (c) Extinction (d) Extinct X
8. Select the correct option that fills the blank(s) to make the sentence meaningfully complete.
The guilt seeps deep inside you a way that it depresses you.
(a) in X (b) for (c) through (d) by

9. Select the correct option that fills the blank(s) to make the sentence meaningfully complete.
Reema was very good sketching in college
(a) in (b) at X (c) with (d) on

10. Select the correct option that fills the blank(s) to make the sentence meaningfully complete.
The efforts put in by the top management to retain him went in as he decided to shift to a competitor
company.
(a) failure (b) futility (c) waste (d) vain X

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11. Select the correct option that fills the blank(s) to make the sentence meaningfully complete.
Sediments the footprints of moving animals when they become rocks. This helps geologists to find
information about dinosaurs.
(a) Preserve (b) Keep (c) Take (d) Etch X
12. Select the correct option that fills the blank(s) to make the sentence meaningfully complete.
The fierce wind all night. It was intolerable.
(a) Blown (b) Blues (c) Blew X (d) Blue

13. Select the correct option that fills the blank(s) to make the sentence meaningfully complete.
According to psychologists, even the most and resolute human being can have uneven degrees of
emotions.
(a) Rickety (b) Stable X (c) wobbly (d) Rutted

14. Select the correct option that fills the blank(s) to make the sentence meaningfully complete.
We want to become internationally in terms of technological research.
(a) Equipped. (c) Renowned X (e) Familiar
(b) Great (d) Notorious

15. 15. Select the correct option that fills the blank(s) to make the sentence meaningfully complete.
I think I know he finished his assignment early.
(a) until (b) by when (c) how X (d) who

16. Select the correct option that fills the blank(s) to make the sentence meaningfully complete.
I would like to a reservation for next Wednesday.
(a) seek (b) keep (c) make X (d) book

17. Select the correct option that fills the blank(s) to make the sentence meaningfully complete.
Microsoft created a revolution making the personal computer affordable for the middle class.
(a) Following (b) After (c) By X (d) Through

18. Select the correct option that fills the blank(s) to make the sentence meaningfully complete
All the faculty members except the HOD to the new curriculum proposed by Prof. Bhasin.
(a) agreed X (b) agrees (c) has agreed (d) was agreed

19. Select the correct option that fills the blank(s) to make the sentence meaningfully complete
The Oriental Express is a Hyderabad-bound train from Delhi and it goes Bhopal.
(a) Through (b) Via X (c) by (d) across

20. Select the correct option that fills the blank(s) to make the sentence meaningfully complete
Jack Collins threw light on the importance of a adequate rest a proper rehabilitation process for
athletes saying “the body gets fitter during the rest period after exercises and during it”.
(a) and (b) but (c) since (d) than X

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21. Select the correct option that fills the blank(s) to make the sentence meaningfully complete.
not being well, he still scored well in his exams.
(a) Although (b) Despite X (c) Instead (d) However

22. Select the correct option that fills the blank(s) to make the sentence meaningfully complete
The tiring trip to hills of Shivpuri the entire group exhausted.
(a) Left (c) Went (e) Consumed
(b) Leave X (d) Spent

23. Select the correct option that fills the blank(s) to make the sentence meaningfully complete
We as human beings get easily by materialistic pleasures of modern age.
(a) Distracted X (b) Attentive (c) devoted (d) Diligent

24. Select the correct option that fills the blank(s) to make the sentence meaningfully complete
Performance appraisals that contain criticism are appreciated.
(a) Constructive X (b) Scathing (c) Soft (d) Indirect

25. Select the correct option that fills the blank(s) to make the sentence meaningfully complete.
New concerns about growing religious tension in northern India were this week after at east fifty
people were killed and hundreds were injured or arrested in riots between Hindus and Muslims.
(a) Lessened (b) Invalidated (c) Restrained (d) Dispersed (e) Fueled X
26. Select the correct option that fills the blank(s) to make the sentence meaningfully complete.
The protracted illness has reduced him skeleton.
(a) Till (b) Round (c) Through (d) To X (e) From

27. Fill in the blank(s) to make the sentence meaningfully complete.

Sincere people remain loyal their friends in all circumstances.
(a) Against (b) In (c) By (d) With (e) To X
28. Select the correct option that fills the blank(s) to make the sentence meaningfully complete.
The glass lay on the table.
(a) Not touched (b) Untouched X (c) Untouching (d) Not touch

29. Select the correct option that fills the blank(s) to make the sentence meaningfully complete
He had no interest in obligatory dinners and social events.
(a) Attend (b) Attending X (c) Attends (d) Attend to

30. Select the correct option that fills the blank(s) to make the sentence meaningfully complete.
There was in the country when their cricket team won the world cup.
(a) Happiness (b) Energy (c) Shock (d) Jubilation X

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31. Fill in the blank(s) to make the sentence meaningfully complete.
Sunita has a flair music.
(a) At (b) To (c) With (d) For X
32. Select the correct option that fills the blank(s) to make the sentence meaningfully complete.
being poor, Kaveri still dresses more appropriately than most of her group mates.
(a) Despite X (b) Although (c) Since (d) However

33. Select the correct option that fills the blank(s) to make the sentence meaningfully complete
the shirt was washed twice still he refused to wear it.
(a) Though X (b) Because (c) However (d) Since (e) While

34. Select correct option that fills the blank(s) to make the sentence meaningfully complete.
In India, women only three percent of senior management
(a) Contain (b) Involve (c) Comprise X (d) Contains (e) Comprises

35. Select correct option that fills the blank(s) to make the sentence meaningfully complete.
Hardly a day goes when I don’t remember all those great people who had gathered my home on
his birthday.
(a) out, in (b) by, in X (c) through, on (d) for, on

36. Select correct option that fills the blank(s) to make the sentence meaningfully complete.
His recent success him more arrogant than what he used to be
(a) make (b) have make him (c) has made X (d) was making

37. Economists are a difficult lot to please and are impressed by either an increase in government ex-
penditure or a cut in taxes.
(a) Always (b) Often (c) Seldom X (d) Scarcely (e) Easily

38. Their car near the gas station

(a) broke in (b) broke up (c) broke down X (d) broke into

39. Ravi put the light and slept.

(a) For (b) Down (c) In (d) Out X
40. It was time for him to take the and bring the protest to an end.
(a) initiative X (b) remark (c) mishap (d) abuse

41. May be they feel that Rahul can ball the team out of the potential
(a) Crisis X (b) Cacophony (c) Teaser (d) Situation (e) Conundrum

42. She woke up a start in the middle of the night.

(a) On (b) With X (c) In (d) As

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43. The bellboy is responsible the morning wake up calls.
(a) to (b) of (c) for X (d) in

44. Even though the region was prone to hurricanes, the . Of the tornado last year was .
(a) Level . . . lethal (c) Inevitability . . . mercurial
(b) Impact . . . awesome (d) Ferocity . . . unprecedented X
45. The interview panel asked her to wait Friday for the final decision.
(a) upto (b) till X (c) for (d) since (e) to

46. The movie can be categorized as average, the thrilling and unexpected ending.
(a) Apart (b) Except (c) In spite (d) Despite X
47. Inflation can be only if people limit their consumption, which will In tum reduce the demand of
products.
(a) Reduce (b) Reduces (c) Reduced X (d) Reduction

48. Dravid played a brilliant series for he as given man of the series award.
(a) It (b) That (c) Which X (d) Whom

49. In the first ten years after the of the UGC Act, eight institutions were granted deemed university
status.
(a) Implification (b) Enactment X (c) Statement (d) Issue

50. your experiences changed the way you look at the wood?
(a) Weren’t (b) Won’t (c) Haven’t X (d) Wasn’t

51. negligence of the transport company, lot of our goods were damaged in transit.
(a) Since the (b) Due to X (c) Despite of (d) Reason being

52. The consequence of his haughtiness was that his services were dispensed by his master.
(a) About (b) From (c) With X (d) Round (e) Up

53. Although a good start, slacking off later has resulted in delay in project completion.
(a) he is making (b) he has make (c) he made X (d) has been making

54. Karen’s neighborhood comprises of small shop owners.

(a) Most (b) All (c) Mostly X (d) Together

55. Today the inaugural day of the pub, the drinks were served free of cost.
(a) Was X (b) Been (c) Is (d) Being X

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56. He agreed to become the new club president.
(a) much happily (b) more happily (c) happily X (d) too much happily

57. “We need to call this ,” Monika demanded.

(a) out (b) at (c) off X (d) away

58. Films are becoming a medium of cultural contacts, good relations and among different countries.
(a) Wars (b) Love (c) Harmony X (d) Conformity

59. The store started credit card for payment

(a) accepted (b) accepting X (c) accept (d) accepts

60. Usually the room tariff in this hotel is higher. At present, it is low because of the season.
(a) peak (b) off X (c) down (d) slow (e) full

61. With a hope to inspire hundreds of students, both the participants their stories the next weekend
(a) shared (b) had shared (c) will share X (d) will have shared

62. The meeting in the office was held behind doors.

(a) Close up (b) Closing X (c) Close (d) Closed X
63. Scientists believe that during initial years of the of the earth, water bodies due to continuous
rainfall. increased in size
(a) Formative X (b) Formations (c) Formation (d) Formed

64. Residents of North Pole have different lifestyles and requirements than living in other parts of the
world.
(a) Their (b) Them X (c) Those (d) Residents

65. The teacher stopped teaching Class VII as there were many students in this class.
(a) Indisciplined (b) Undisciplined X (c) Misdisciplined (d) Nondisciplined

66. The petrol price has been rising for the past 5 years. It is highly that it will decrease in the ear
future.
(a) Unrealistic X (b) Unlikely (c) Unnatural (d) Unacceptable

67. Neither surekha Ravi will be able to attend the meeting on Sunday.
(a) Or (b) Nor X (c) And (d) But also

68. He worked really hard and thus to be promoted.

(a) Warranted (b) Deserve X (c) Deserves (d) Merit

69. He the position of group leader because of the effective leader skills.

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 (a) Got (b) Get X (c) Gotten (d) Getting

70. I always wanted a basketball and I-pod in my collection.

(a) The (b) A X (c) An (d) None of the above

71. I been regularly exercising for quite few days now.

(a) Has (b) Had (c) Will have X (d) Have

72. This new technology has the potential to provide handsome returns, even though it is at a stage in
India.
(a) Turbulent (b) Peculiar (c) Nascent X (d) Unknown

73. As wild orchid plants are believed to have medicinal value, their populations in forests have been ruthlessly.

(a) Guarded (b) Picked (c) Reforested (d) Plundered X

74. we been lying to our parents about smoking?
(a) Hadn’t X (b) Couldn’t (c) Haven’t (d) Didn’t

75. The origin of Attention Deflcit Disorder(ADD),as believed it to be

(a) Exogenous (c) Pathological (e) Celestial
(b) Deleterious X (d) Environmental

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3.4 Meaning (Antonyms / Synonyms) of Words

1. Select the word or phrase which best expresses 8. Select the word or phrase which best expresses
the meaning of the given word. the meaning of the given word.
VANISH FEROCIOUS
(a) Evacuate (c) Disappear X (a) Violent X (c) Fast
(b) Decrease (d) Harm (b) Timid (d) Unbearable

2. Select the option that is most nearly OPPOSITE 9. Select the option that is most nearly OPPOSITE
in meaning to the given word. in meaning to the given word.
INSTIGATE (OPPOSITE) GHOULISH (OPPOSITE)
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e) (a) Gruesome (c) Peevish
Stimulate Prompt Ferment Deceive Prevent (b) Pleasant X (d) Garrulous
X
10. Select the option that is most nearly OPPOSITE
3. Select the option that is most nearly OPPOSITE in meaning to the given word
in meaning to the given word. DISPARITY (OPPOSITE)
Virtuous (OPPOSITE)
(a) Timidity (c) Likeness X
(a) Ethical (c) Unfriendly
(b) Bigotry (d) Influence
(b) Vile X (d) Realistic
11. Select the word or phrase which best expresses
4. Select the option that is most nearly OPPOSITE the MEANING of the given word.
in meaning to the given word. STERILIZE
AGRARIAN (OPPOSITE)
(a) Freshen (c) Mitigate
(a) Suburban. (c) Areal
(b) Potent (d) Disinfect X
(b) Cosmic (d) Urban X
12. Select the option that is most nearly OPPOSITE
5. Select the word or phrase which best expresses in meaning to the given word.
the MEANING of the given word. PERENNIAL(OPPOSITE)
ABSORPTION
(a) Frequent (c) Lasting
(a) Suction X (c) Separation (b) Regular (d) Rare X
(b) Disconnection (d) Filtration
13. Select the option that is most nearly OPPOSITE
6. Select the option that is most nearly OPPOSITE in meaning to the given word.
in meaning to the given word. TORTURE (OPPOSITE)
FUTILE (OPPOSITE)
(a) Friendly (c) Polite X
(a) Barren (c) Alive (b) Generous (d) Aid
(b) Useless (d) Productive X
14. Select the word or phrase which best expresses
7. Select the option that is most nearly OPPOSITE the meaning of the given word.
in meaning to the given word. AVERT
UNIVERSAL (OPPOSITE)
(a) Entertain (d) Lead towards
(a) Earthly (c) Cosmic (b) Transform
(b) Ethereal (d) Local X (c) Turn away X (e) Displease

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15. Select the option that is most nearly OPPOSITE 22. Select the option that is most nearly OPPOSITE
in meaning to the given word. in meaning to the given word.
AMEND SET OFF (OPPOSITE)

(a) Worsen X (c) Repair (a) Set Out (c) Get On

(b) Enhance (d) Finish (b) Set In (d) Get Back X

23. Select the word or phrase which best expresses
16. Select the option that is most nearly OPPOSITE the meaning of the given word.
in meaning to the given word. HYMNS
ACCENTUATE (a) Sounds (c) Humming
(a) Exaggerate (c) Suppress X (b) Chants X (d) Stories
(b) Increase (d) Low
24. Select the word or phrase which best expresses
the meaning of the given word.
17. Select the word or phrase which best expresses FLABBERGASTED
the meaning of the given word. (a) Serious (c) Surprised X
AGILE
(b) Clear (d) Happy
(a) Clumsy (c) Inept
25. Select the word or phrase which best expresses
(b) Athletic X (d) Sluggish
the meaning of the given word.
HONEST
18. Select the word or phrase which best expresses
(a) Unethical (c) Biased
the Meaning of the given word.
FURIOUS (b) Deceptive (d) Moral X
(a) Swift (c) Angry X 26. Select the word or phrase which best expresses
the meaning of the given word.
(b) Calm (d) Attentive
IRONIC
(a) Inflexible X (d) Disguisedly sar-
19. Select the option that is most nearly OPPOSITE
(b) Bitter castic
to the given word.
CONSTITUENT (c) Good-natured

(a) Whole X (c) Element 27. Select the option that is most nearly OPPOSITE
(b) Component (d) Citizen in meaning to the given word.
HAMPER (OPPOSITE)
(a) Hinder (c) Bolster
20. Give the antonym for the underlined word, in the
given blank. (b) Impede (d) Gift X
He was very healthy before he got sick. Now he
is very 28. Select the option that is most nearly OPPOSITE
in meaning to the given word.
(a) Well X (c) Uneasy PERTINENT (OPPOSITE)
(b) Weak (d) Srong (a) Irrational (c) Insistent
(b) Irregular (d) Irrelevant X
21. Select the option that is most nearly OPPOSITE
in meaning to the given word. 29. Select the word or phrase which best expresses
TREACHEROUS the meaning of the given word.
HATE
(a) Faithful X (c) Unsurpassable (a) Abuse (c) Nasty
(b) Fake (d) None of these (b) Abhor X (d) Tardy

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30. Select the word or phrase which best expresses 37. Select the word or phrase which best expresses
the meaning of the given word the meaning of the given word.
PRODUCT INFER

(a) Result (c) Resource X (a) Deadly (c) Interfere

(b) Cause (d) Split (b) Deduce X (d) Envious

38. Select the word or phrase which best expresses

31. Select the option that is most nearly opposite to the meaning of the given word.
the given word. AGITATE
HUMOROUS (OPPOSITE) (a) Soothe (c) Disturb X
(a) Entertaining (c) Comical (b) Refresh (d) Suppress
(b) Witty (d) Depressing X 39. Select the option that is most nearly OPPOSITE
in meaning to the given word.
32. Select the option that is most nearly opposite to ENFORCE (OPPOSITE)
the given word. (a) Administer (c) Abandon X
BENEDICTION (OPPOSITE)
(b) Accomplish (d) Expert
(a) Antidote (c) Endowment
40. Select the word or phrase which best expresses
(b) Intonation (d) Anathema X the meaning of the given word.
VEHEMENT
33. Select the word or phrase which best expresses (a) Intense X (c) Placid
the meaning of the given word.
(b) Mild (d) Pardonable
CELLAR

(a) Loft (c) Basement X 41. GENERIC

(b) Attic (d) Roof (a) Standard X (c) Specific

(b) Brand (d) Individual
34. Select the word or phrase which best expresses 42. Select the option that is most nearly opposite to
the Meaning of the word typed in bold. the given word
He has a propensity for getting into debt. CLARIFY (OPPOSITE)
(a) Natural tendency (c) Characteristic (a) Analyze (c) Confuse
X (b) Simplify X (d) Resolve
(b) Aptitude (d) Quality
43. CONSTITUENT (OPPOSITE)
35. Select the option that is most nearly opposite to (a) Whole X (c) Element
the given word. (b) Component (d) Citizen
IGNITE (OPPOSITE)
44. Select the option that is most nearly opposite to
(a) Extinguish X (c) Soak the word given in bold.
(b) Wet (d) Drench He warned the team that they should not un-
dermine their competitor’s strength.

36. Select the option that is most nearly OPPOSITE (a) strengthen (c) berate
in meaning to the given word. (b) mislead X (d) deride
JAUNTY (OPPOSITE)
45. UNILATERAL
(a) Youthful (c) Sedate X (a) Sloping (c) Parabola
(b) Ruddy (d) Unravelled (b) One-sided (d) Innumerable X

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46. I don’t want to regret your decision. 56. FAUX PAS
(a) apologize for (c) disregard (a) Blunder (c) Worry X
(b) be happy about (d) forgo X (b) Problem (d) Examine

57. SETTLED (OPPOSITE)

47. PERIODIC (OPPOSITE)
(a) Stationary (c) Inactive
(a) Cyclical (c) Recurrent (b) Fixed (d) Mobile X
(b) Rhythmic X (d) Permanent
58. Select the word or phrase which best expresses
48. REIGN the meaning of the given word.
PREAMBLE
(a) Yield (c) Regime X (a) Rules (c) Rights
(b) Restrain (d) Enjoy (b) Law (d) Introduction X
49. POMPOUS (OPPOSITE) 59. Select the option that is most nearly OPPOSITE
in meaning to the given word.
(a) Benevolent (c) Modest WEIRD (OPPOSITE)
(b) Boasiful X (d) Opulent (a) Friendly (c) Creepy
(b) Normal X (d) Genuine
50. What is the opposite of the word DIMINISH ?
60. PENDING (OPPOSITE)
(a) Rise (c) Rough X (a) Unerring (c) Settled X
(b) Connect (d) Limit (b) Unending (d) Permanent

61. Select the word or phrase which best expresses

51. EMINENT (OPPOSITE)
the meaning of the word typed in bold.
(a) Inferior (c) Prestigious We didn’t believe in his statement, but subse-
(b) Credited X (d) Important quent events proved that he was right.
(a) Later X (c) Few
52. What is the opposite of the word POSSES- (b) Many (d) Earlier
SION?
62. What is the meaning of the word VULNERA-
(a) Custody (c) Liberation X BILITY?
(b) Conservation (d) Disposition (a) Voluntary (c) Harmony
(b) Sensibility X (d) Accessibility
53. AVAILABLE (OPPOSITE)
(a) Short (c) Cheap X 63. Select the word or phrase which best expresses
the meaning of the given word.
(b) Lack (d) Interested ADVENTURER
(a) Explorer X (c) Native
54. UNYOKE
(b) Homely (d) Aimless
(a) Merge (c) Federate X
(b) Split (d) Amalgamate 64. Select the option that is most nearly opposite in
meaning to the word given in bold
After the mystery was solved, it ceased to be of
55. What is the meaning of the word BREACH?
interest to the people.
(a) Violation (c) Strength (a) started (c) modified
(b) Clousure (d) Security X (b) dropped X (d) decided

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65. Select the option that is most nearly opposite to 68. Select the option that is most nearly opposite in
the given word. meaning to the word given in bold.
AUDACIOUS (OPPOSITE) He found nothing but salvation in their sorrow
(a) Sad (c) Gloomy (a) desperation (c) liberation X
(b) Cowardly X (d) Dim (b) compensation (d) loss

66. Select the word or phrase which best expresses 69. MINOR (OPPOSITE)
the meaning of the given word.
PARTIAL (a) Big (c) Tall
(b) Major X (d) Heavy
(a) Equitable (c) Half X
(b) Unbiased (d) Incomplete 70. SEIZURE (OPPOSITE)
67. Fill in the blank with the word that is OPPO- (a) Confiscation (c) Abduction
SITE in meaning to the word given in bold. (b) Liberation X (d) Apprehension
Anita was not happy with the bank’s interest
rate policy. They offered a fixed rate on all loans 71. He felt compelled to buy the product after
while she wanted a rate. watching the advertisement.
(a) moving (c) free (a) engrossed (c) obliged X
(b) floating X (d) market (b) discouraged (d) enraged

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3.5 Reading Comprehensive
1. My phone rings again. It is futile to ignore it anymore. Maneesha is persistent. She will continue to
bedevil me until acquiesce.
“Hello”, I answer.
“ The circus, Akita? ”she says in her sing-song voice. “ when are we going? Only two more days left!”
I abhor the circus. The boisterous crowds, the overwhelming smell of animal feces, the insanely long lines
with wailing children and the impossibility of finding a clean restroom all combine to make this an event
that I dread.
For Maneesha, my best friend since the angst of middle school, the circus is a sign that divine powers
really do exist.
“Really, Atika, where else can you pet an elephant, see a stuntman ride a horse, laugh tillyou are ready
tocry, see the world’s smallest person and eat fried potatoes and butter soaked popcorn?” Maneesha aks
gleefully.
“Hell?” I guess.
The fried food at the Circus is a gastronomical nightmare on its own. I once tried a fried Cottage Cheese
stick at the fair and was sick to my stomach for hours. And a fried burger with oil soaked potato patty,
cheese, multi- colored sauces AND a greasy slice of cottage cheese? How could that not be deleterious to
you health?
I have not seen Maneesha for a good month; our schedules are both so hectic. My hatred of the Circus
becomes inconsequential to my desire to hang with Mani.
Alas, I ignore my anti-Circus bias for the umpteenth year. “Pick me up at noon”, I say and hang up the
phone.

1. What does it mean to acquiesce?

(a) To give in X
(b) To speak kindly
(c) To pay attention
(d) To answer the phone
2. How does Maneesha seem to feel about the circus?
(a) Ambivalent
(b) Condescending X
(c) Jubilant
(d) Nonchalant
3. What does the term gastronomical suggest?
(a) Enormous
(b) Health risk
(c) Culinary issue X
(d) Resulting in gas
4. Why might the author have chosen to capitalize all the letters in the word “and” when writing about
the burger she ate?
(a) To make sure the reader understood it was a list
(b) To show that a greasy slice of cottage cheese was the last ingredient
(c) To highlight her dislike of greasy slice of cottage cheese X
(d) To emphasize how many ingredients were in the burger

2. For some animals, hunkering down in a cozy den during the cold winter months, when nights are long and
temperatures are low, isn’t just a matter of momentary comfort-it’s essential for survival. Hibernation is
when animals rest or stay asleep during the entire winter, while migration is the movement of animals

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from one place to another. The key reason that makes an animal hibernate or migrate is the lack of food,
which occurs during the winter months due to the cold weather.
Hibernation is of different types. Some animals sleep deeply, while some of them are light sleepers. During
the fall, animals start preparing for winter. They eat extra food and begin storing it as body fat. Their
bodies utilize this fat for energy while hibernating. Some animals store food like nuts and acorns to eat
later in the winter. During hibernation an animal’s body temperature drops, heart beat slows down, and
it uses very little energy. If temperatures turn warm during the winter, the it as body fat. Their bodies
utilize this fat for energy while hibernating. Some animals store food like nuts and acorns to eat later in
the winter. During hibernation an animal’s body temperature drops, heartbeat slows down, and it uses
very little energy. If temperatures turn warm during the winter, the animals end up using more energy,
wake up early, and then have no food to eat.
The places where the animals hibernate in the winter include dens, burrows, hollow logs, or in the
openings between rocks. Animals also migrate to other areas during the winter months. Many birds
fly long distances to escape the cold winter. Animals may also migrate to find a good habitat to raise
their young. They use the sun as a compass when they fly during the day. Others modify their path of
travel so that it remains unaffected by the sun’s movement. During the night time, some birds may use
the stars to help them migrate. Birds and other animals such as sea turtles can detect north and south
because they are dens, burrows, hollow logs, or in the opening between rocks. Animals also migrate to
other areas during the winter months. Many birds fly long distances to escape the cold winter. Animals
may also migrate to find a good habitat to raise their young. They use sun as a compass when they fly
during the day, others modify their path of travel so that it remains unaffected by the sun’s movement.
During the night time, some birds may use the stars to help them migrate. Birds and other animals such
as sea turtles can detect north and south because they are able to feel the earth’s magnetism. Storms,
bad weather, pollution, and skyscrapers may also affect the birds during migration.
Similar to the hibernating animals prepare ahead of time. Some birds eat a lot and double their weight
to fuel their regular feather shedding and growth. In short, there are numerous animals that hibernate
or migrate during the winter months. The differences in their behaviour may vary widely, but all have
the same reason, to find food and survive the winter months.

1. How does Maneesha seem to feel about the circus?

(a) Ambivalent
(b) Condescending
(c) Jubilant
(d) Nonchalant
2. What according to the passage could have an effect on the birds during migration?
(a) Presence of birds of the same species
(b) The source of water available in the path of migration
(c) Presence of predators in the path of Migration
(d) The quality of air X
3. What do animals do to prepare themselves for hibernation?
(a) Eat extra food
(b) Find a new habitat with surplus food
(c) Find a warmer location
(d) All of the above X
4. What is the meaning of the word “ hunkering” in the context of the passage?
(a) Crouching X
(b) Descending
(c) Crashing

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 (d) Pouncing
5. How do sea turtles detect north and south?
(a) By using stars as a compass
(b) By using sun as a compass
(c) By feeling the earth’s magnetic fields X
(d) By observing the birds that are migrating

3. The economic transformation of India is one of the great business stories of our time. As stifling gov-
ernment regulations have been lifted, entrepreneurship has flourished, and the country has become a
high-powered centre for information technology and pharmaceuticals. Indian companies like Infosys and
Wipro are powerful global players, while Western firms like G.E and I.B.M now have major research
facilities in India employing thousands. India’s seemingly endless flow of young, motivated engineers,
scientists, and managers offering developed-world skills at developing-world wages is held to be putting
American jobs at risk, and the country is frequently heralded as “the next economic superpower.”
But India has run into a surprising hitch on its way to superpower status: its inexhaustible supply of
workers is becoming exhausted. Although India has one of the youngest workforces on the planet, the
head of Infosys said recently that there was an “acute shortage of skilled manpower”, and a study projects
that this year salaries for skilled workers will rise fourteen and a half percent, a sure sign that demand
for skilled labour is outstripping supply.
How is this possible in a country that every year produces two and a half million college graduates and
four hundred thousand engineers? Start with the fact that just ten per cent of Indians get any kind of
post-secondary education compared with some fifty per cent who do in the U.S. Moreover, of that ten
per cent, the vast majority go to one of India’s seventeen thousand colleges, many of which are closer to
community colleges than to four-year institutions. India does have more than three hundred universities,
but a recent survey by the London Times Higher Education Supplement put only two of them among the
top hundred in the world. Many Indian graduates therefore enter the workforce with a low level of skills.
A current study led by Vivek Wadhwa, of Duke University, has found that if you define “engineer” by
U.S standards.

1 What is an appropriate title to the passage?

(a) Growing Indian economy
(b) Higher education in India
(c) India’s skill shortage X
(d) Entrepreneurship in India
2 According to the passage, what is the paradox of the Indian economy today?
(a) The economic progress is impressive, but the poor (earning one dollar per day) are not benefited.
(b) The economic progress is impressive disallowing the government to take tough decisions.
(c) There is not enough skilled workforce and the government does not realize this. X
(d) Government is not ready to invest in setting up new universities.
3 Why are salaries for skilled workers rising?
(a) Companies are paying higher to lure skilled people to jobs
(b) American companies are ready to pay higher to skilled workers.
(c) Entrepreneurship is growing in India.
(d) There are not enough skilled workers, while the demand for them is high.
4 In the third sentence of the third paragraph of the passage, the phrase “closer to community colleges”
is used. What does it imply?
(a) Near to community colleges.
(b) Like community colleges. X

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 (c) Close association with community colleges.
(d) None of these

4. “We shape our buildings and afterward our buildings shape us”, mused Winston Churchill in 1943. We
now know, for example, that building and cities can affect our mood and well-being, and that specialized
cells in the hippocampal region of our brains are attuned to the geometry and arrangement of the spaces
we inhabit. However, urban architects have often paid scant attention to the potential cognitive effects of
their creations on a city’s inhabitants. The imperative to design something unique and individual tends
to override considerations of how it might shape the behaviours of those who will live with it. That could
be about to change. One of the most consistent findings is that outward appearance. If the façade is
complex and interesting, it affects people in a positive way; negatively if it simple and monotonous. As
suburban retailers begin to colonize central cities, block after block of bric-a-brac and mom-and-pop-scale
buildings and shops are being replaced by blank, cold spaces that effectively bleach the street

1. What according to the author develops stress in people?

(a) Lack of meaningful conversation with people
(b) Lack of people who are available to talk to
(c) Lack of public spaces where people can meet up X
(d) Lack of time to recreate and meet with people
2. What is the meaning of the word “bleach” in context of the passage?
(a) Whiten
(b) Color
(c) Wash out X
(d) Decolor
3. Why does the author say, “Living among millions of strangers is a very unnatural state of affairs for
a human being?”
(a) Because humans tend to be uncomfortable living amongst a large group of people
(b) Because humans find it difficult to make meaningful conversation with a large group of
(c) people
(d) Because humans have a natural tendency toward being sociable X
(e) Because people tend to meet each other more often at a crowded location
4. Why are the small buildings and shops being replaced by blank, cold spaces?
(a) Because suburban retailers want more space for their products X
(b) Because architects are paying more attention toward unique instead of creating user friendly
designs
(c) Because people now prefer big retail stores to small shops
(d) Because the retailers want people to focus on what’s inside the building, and not how it appears
from the outside.

5. Sixty years ago, on the evening of August 14, 1947, a few hours before Britain’s Indian Empire was
formally divided into the nation-states of India and Pakistan, Lord Louis Mountbatten and his wife,
Edwina, sat down in the vice regal mansion in New Delhi to watch the latest Bob Hope movie, “My
Favorite Brunette.” Large parts of the subcontinent were descending into chaos, as the implications of
partitioning the Indian Empire along religious lines became clear to the millions of Hindus, Muslims, and
Sikhs caught on the wrong side of the border. In the next few months, some twelve million people would
be uprooted and as many as a million murdered. But on that night in mid-August the bloodbath-and
the fuller consequences of hasty imperial retreat-still lay in the future, and the Mountbatten probably
felt they had earned their evening’s entertainment.

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Mountbatten, the last viceroy of India, had arrived in New Delhi in March, 1947, charged with an almost
impossible task. Irrevocably enfeebled by the Second World War, the British belatedly realized that they
had to leave the subcontinent, which had spiraled out of their control through the nineteen-forties. But
plans for brisk disengagement ignored messy realities on the ground. Mountbatten had a clear remit to
transfer power to the Indians within fifteen months. Leaving India to God, or anarchy, as Mohandas
Gandhi, the foremost Indian leader, exhorted, wasn’t a political option, however tempting. Mountbatten
had to work hard to figure out how and to whom power was to be transferred.
The dominant political party, the Congress Party, took inspiration from Gandhi in claiming to be a secular
organization, representing all four hundred million Indians. But many Muslim politicians saw it as a party
of upper-caste Hindus and demanded a separate homeland for their hundred million co-religionists, who
were intermingled with non-Muslim populations across the subcontinent’s villages, towns, and cities.
Eventually, as in Palestine, the British saw partition along religious lines as the quickest way to the exit.
But sectarian riots in Punjab and Bengal dimmed hopes for a quick and dignified British withdrawal,
and boded ill for India’s assumption of power. Not surprisingly, there were some notable absences at
the Independence Day celebrations in New Delhi on August 15th. Gandhi, denouncing freedom from
imperial rule as a “wooden loaf,” had remained in Calcutta, trying, with the force of his moral authority,
to stop Hindus and Muslims from killing each other. His great rival Mohammed Ali Jinnah, who had
fought bitterly for a separate homeland for Indian Muslims, was in Karachi, trying to hold together the
precarious nation-state of Pakistan.
But sectarian riots in Punjab and Bengal dimmed hopes for a quick and dignified British withdrawal,
and boded ill for India’s assumption of power. Not surprisingly, there were some notable absences at
the Independence Day celebrations in New Delhi on August 15th. Gandhi, denouncing freedom from
imperial rule as a “wooden loaf,” had remained in Calcutta, trying, with the force of his moral authority,
to stop Hindus and Muslims from killing each other. His great rival Mohammed Ali Jinnah, who had
fought bitterly for a separate homeland for Indian Muslims, was in Karachi, trying to hold together the
precarious nation-state of Pakistan.
Posterity has enshrined this speech, as Nehru clearly intended. But today his quaint phrase “tryst with
destiny” resonates ominously, so enduring have been the political and psychological scars of partition.
The souls of the two new nation-states immediately found utterance in brutal enmity. In Punjab, armed
vigilante groups, organized along religious lines and incited by local politicians, murdered countless people,
abducting and raping thousands of women. Soon, India and Pakistan were fighting a war-the first of three-
over the disputed territory of Kashmir. Gandhi, reduced to despair by the seemingly endless cycle of
retaliatory mass murders and displacement, was shot dead in January, 1948, by a Hindu extremist who
believed that the father of the Indian nation was too soft on Muslims. Jinnah, racked with tuberculosis
and overwork, died a few months later, his dream of a secular Pakistan apparently buried with him.

1 In the view of the author, what does Nehru’s phrase “tryst with density” symbolise today?
(a) A celebration of India independence
(b) An inspirational quote
(c) A reminder of Gandhi’s assassination
(d) A symbol of the ills of the partition X
2 The author persists on taking about the “Bob Hope movie” in the article. Why?
(a) Because the movie was a classic of 1947
(b) He think it caused the partition of the sub-continent.
(c) He uses it to show the apathy of the Britishers towards the sub-continent. X
(d) It was Mountbatten’s favourite movie.
3 What does the author imply about the future of Pakistan?
(a) It become a secular country
(b) It become unsecular X

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 (c) It is unprosperous
(d) It becomes a rogue state
4 Why was Gandhi assassinated?
(a) Because he was favouring the Muslims X
(b) His assassin thought he was partial to the Muslims.
(c) He got killed in the violence after partition.
(d) None of these

6. Fasting is an act of homage to the majesty of appetite. So I think we should arrange to give up our
pleasures regularly-our food, our friends, our lovers-in order to preserve their intensity, and the moment
of coming back to them. For this the moment that renews and refreshes both oneself and the thing one
loves. Sailors and travellers enjoyed this once, and so did hunters, I suppose. Part of the weariness of
modern life may be that we live too much on top of each other, and are entertained and fed too regularly.
Once we were separated by hunger both from our food and families, and then we learned to value both.
The men went off hunting, and he dogs went with them, the women and children waved goodbye. The
cave was empty of men for days on end; nobody ate, or knew what to do. The women crouched by the
fire, the wet smoke in their eyes; the children wailed; everybody was hungry. Then one night there were
shouts and the barking of dogs from the hills, and the men came back loaded with meat.
This was the great reunion, and everbody gorged themselves silly, and appetite came into its own; the
long-awaited meal became a fest to remember and an almost sacred celebration of life. Now we go off to
the office and come home in the evenings to cheap chicken and frozen peas. Very nice, but too much of
it, too easy and regular, served up without effort of wanting. We eat, we are lucky, our faces are shining
with fat, but we don’t know the pleasure of being hungry any more.
Too much of anything-too much music, entertainment, happy snacks, or time spent with one’s friends-
creates a kind of impotence of living by which one can no longer hear, or taste, or sea, or live, or remember.
Life is short and precious, and appetite is one of its guardians, and loss of appetite is a sort of death. So
if we are to enjoy this short life we should respect the divinity of appetite, and keep it eager and not too
much blunted.

1. What is the author’s main argument in the passage?

(a) The olden times, the roles of men and women were clearly divided, were far more enjoyable than
the present time.
(b) There is not enough effort required anymore to obtain food and hence the pleasure derived is
not the same.
(c) People who don’t have enough to eat enjoy life much more than those who have plentiful
(d) We should deny ourselves pleasures once in a while in order to whet our desires and feel more
alive.X
2. ‘The long-awaited meal became a feast to remember and an almost scared celebration of life’, what
does this line imply?
(a) After so many days of being hungry, the cave men and women felt alive once again after eating
the food.
(b) People respected and were thankful for getting food after days of being hungry and also of being
united their loved ones.X
(c) Cave men and women ate and celebrated together with the entire community making the feast
really enjoyable.
(d) Cave men and women enjoyed themselves in the feast and performed a ceremony to thank the
Gods for their safe return back home.
3. What are the benefits fasting?

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 (a) It is an act against the drawbacks of Appetite
(b) It brings joy in eating, and one learns to appreciate food. X
(c) It is the method to understand how civilization evolved.
(d) It is a punishment for the greedy and unkind.
4. What commonality has been highlighted between the sailors and hunters?
(a) Neither were fed nor entertained regularly.
(b) They renew and refresh themselves regularly. X
(c) They were regularly separated from their loved ones and things they liked
(d) The roles of men and women were clearly divided for both professions.

7. Dolphins are mammals that live in the sea. They are members of a group of mammals called cetaceans
or whales. The whales are divided into two groups. One group lacks teeth, and most large whales belong
to this first group. Dolphins, on the other hand, belong to the second group which has teeth. Dolphins
live mainly in warm, tropical seas in the open ocean, bays, and coral reefs. They join together in herds
or groups. There have been cases where in as many one million dolphins have been seen living together
although they usually live in smaller herds. River dolphins can be seen in groups of only three or four.
Dolphins range in size from five feet to thirteen feet. They have black and white backs, and this helps
them blend into colorless deep seas. Their light-colored bellies help them avoid being seen by the sharks
below. The light color blends with the sky-bright seas as the sharks look up at them. Dolphins have
a torpedo shape, long and thin. This helps them move quickly through the water and the flippers help
them steer. Dolphins don’t have bones, and it is the fins that keep them going in a straight line. Both
the fins and the flippers sense objects that come in their way. Strong muscles along the side of dolphins
move their tails up and down. Their skin is smooth and has no scales. A thick layer of blubber is present
under their skin. This layer keeps them warm. A dolphin’s eyes move autonomously. However, they do
not have a sense of smell.
The dolphins communicate with their voices and have good hearing. With these abilities, they can catch
food and speak with other dolphins. They make a clicking sound to find their prey. The sound of this
clicking bounces off anything in its path. The dolphins hear the echo of the clicking and know where their
prey is located. This method of finding the prey is called echolocation. Dolphins can also communicate
with their friends by certain sounds that send different messages. They take care of their family and will
go to help another dolphin if they hear a cry for aid. Each dolphin has its own specific sound which can
be identified by other dolphins. Being able to communicate well with others is a sign of high intelligence.

1. How can dolphins identify each other while communicating?

(a) Each dolphin has a distinct sound of its own. X
(b) The have distinct marks on their bodies.
(c) Echolocation helps pinpointing their location.
(d) Each dolphin moves in a different style in the water
2. How do dolphins protect themselves from shark attacks?
(a) By staying together in groups
(b) By calling other dolphins for help immediately
(c) By blending with the sea using their light-colored bellies X
(d) By blending with the sea using their black and white backs
3. What is the meaning of the word “autonomously” in context of the passage?
(a) Independently X
(b) Together
(c) Swiftly

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 (d) Automatically
4. According to the passage, what can be said about the dolphins?
(a) They seem harmless but they catch their prey brutally.
(b) They are intelligent creatures X
(c) They have a good understanding of humans.
(d) They are good hunting.

8. The Indian government’s intention of introducing caste based quotas for the “Other Backward Classes” in
centrally funded institutions of higher learning and the Prime Minister’s suggestion to the private sector
to voluntarily go in for reservation’, has once again sparked off a debate on the merits and demerits of
caste-based reservations. Unfortunately, the predictable divide between the votaries of “social justice”
on one hand and those advocating “merit” on the other seems to have once again camouflaged the real
issues. It is necessary to take a holistic and non-partisan view of the issues ‘involved. The hue and cry
about ”sacrificing merit” is untenable simply because merit is after all a social construct and it cannot
be determined objectively in a historically unjust and unequal context. The idea of competitive merit
will be worthy of serious attention only in a broadly egalitarian context. But then, caste is not the only
obstacle in the way of an egalitarian order.

1. What is the phrase ‘Sacrificing merit’ referring to?

(a) Killing merit
(b) Selection on the basis of merit
(c) Encouraging reservation X
(d) None of these
2. What is the author most likely to agree with?
(a) Caste-based reservation is the answer to India’s problems
(b) Gender-based reservation is the answer to India’s problems
(c) There is no solution to bridge the gap between privileged and under-privileged
(d) None of these X
3. What does the statement” and not to convert it into a fetish of ‘political correctness’ “in the passage
imply?
(a) Reservation issue should not be converted into a political propaganda X
(b) Reservation issue should not be based on caste alone
(c) Reservation issue should be left to the ruling government
(d) None of these
4. What do you mean by the word ‘Egalitarian’?
(a) Characterized by belief in the equality of all people X
(b) Characterized by belief in the inequality of all people
(c) Another word for reservations
(d) Growth

9. At the end of the 𝑡ℎ century, India’s maharajahs discovered a Parisian designer called Louis Vuitton
and flooded his small factory with orders for custom-made Rolls-Royce interiors, leather picnic hampers
and modish polo-club bags. But after independence, when India’s princes lost much of their wealth, the
orders dried up. Then in 2002 LVMH, the world’s largest opening a boutique in Delhi and another in
Mumbai in 2004, its target was the new breed of maharajah produced by India’s liberalised economy;
flush, flash, and growing in number.
Other purveyors of opulence followed, from Chanel to Bulgari, In recent months a multitude of swanky

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 brands have announced plans to set up shop in India, including Doice & Gabbana, Hermes, Jimmy Choo
and Gucci. Though only a tiny fraction of the total population will spend on these brands but it is India’s
future prospects that have excited the luxury behemoths.
India has fewer than 100,000 dollar millionaires among its one billion-plus population, according to
American Express, a financial-services firm. It predicts that this number will grow by 12.8% a year for
the next three years. The longer-term ascendance of india’s middle class, meanwhile, has been charted
by the Mckinsey Global Institute, which predicts that average incomes will have tripled by 2025, lifting
nearly 300m Indians out of poverty and causing the middle class to grow more than tenfold, to 583m.
Demand for all kinds of consumer products is about to surge, in short. And although restrictions on foreign
investment prevent retail giants such as Wal-Mart and Tesco from entering India directly, different rules
apply to companies that sell their own products under a single brand, as luxury-goods firms tend to.
Since January 2006 they have been allowed to take up to 51% in Indian joint ventures. India is also
an attractive market for luxury goods because, unlike China, it does not have a flourishing counterfeit
industry. Credit is becoming more easily available.
Barriers to growth remain, however. High import duties make luxury goods expensive. Rich Indians tend
to travel widely and may simply buy elsewhere. Finding suitable retail space is also proving a headache.
So far most designer boutiques are situated in five star hotels.
But things are changing. Later this year Emporio, a new luxury-goods mall, will open in a prosperous
neighbourhood in the south of Delhi. It is likely to be the first of many. Even so, India could remain
a difficult market to crack. The boss of Luxury Marketing Council, an international organisation of
675 luxury-goods firms, Devyani Raman, describes India’s luxury-goods market as “a cupboard full of
beautiful clothes with a new outfit arriving every day-it could start to look messy without the right care”.
This, she says, includes every thing from teaching shop assistants appropriate manners to instilling in the
Indian public a proper understanding of the concept of luxury.
1. Who are the ‘new breed of Maharajas’?
(a) Maharajas who recovered their wealth in 2004
(b) The children of the older Maharajas
(c) The news class of rich people which emerged in india post liberalisation X
(d) None of these
2. What does Devyani Ramanis statement imply?
(a) Beautiful clothes are an important luxury item and should be taken care of
(b) The luxury goods market is becoming disorganized X
(c) The supply of beautiful clothes is very high
(d) None of these
3. What is the author most likely to agree to as the reason for the inflow of luxury good groups in
India?
(a) The fast growth in Indian economy leading to bright future prospects X
(b) To serve ‘the new breed of maharajas’
(c) To serve the tiny fraction of high income groups in India
(d) None of these
4. Why do different rules apply to Wal-Mart and luxury good firms?
(a) India is encouraging luxury goods while it doesn’t encourage Wal-Mart
(b) India is an attractive market for luxury goods.
(c) There are different rules for retail firms and those that sell their own product X
(d) India does not have a flourishing counterfeit industry
10. Two neighbors were engrossed in a serious discussion. One exclaimed how he found surveying animals to
be a pain, while the other claimed how he could see objects in space billions of light years away. This

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 banter among friends Steven Longmore, the astronomer, and Serge Wich, the ecologist led to an unusual
partnership to adapt tools originally developed to detect stars in the sky to monitor animals on the
ground. They developed a system of drones and special cameras that can record rare and endangered
species on the ground, day or night.
Keeping track of elusive animals, especially those that are endangered, isn’t and easy task. First, it
takes time and money to conduct manual counts on the ground or to shoot photos from planes in the
sky. Even though with video, cheaper drones and software identifying animals has become more efficient,
however, cameras made for daylight can miss animals or poachers moving through the forest. The devices
don’t work at night. This is where infrared cameras come into play. What to animals and stars have in
common? They both emit heat. And much like stars, every species has a recognizable thermal footprint.
They look like really bright shining objects in the infrared footage. In this way, the software used to look
for stars and galaxies in space can be used to seek out thermal footprints and the animals that produce
them. To create a reference library of different animals in various environments, the team is working with
a safari park and zoo to film and the photograph animals. With these thermal images they’ll be able to
better set up their equipment to identify target species in ecosystems

1. Why did the ecologist find surveying animals to be difficult?

(a) Because he did not have enough number of people to help him do this task
(b) Because of the large number of animals that needed to be tracked
(c) Because the technology available to detect animals had many constraints X
(d) Because he needed to track animals in a limited time
2. What is the meaning of the word “elusive” in context of the passage?
(a) Exotic
(b) Difficult to catch
(c) Dangerous X
(d) Lost
3. Why were infrared cameras considered to be used to track animals?
(a) Because they cost less than the daylight cameras
(b) Because they provide clear pictures during the day as well as during the night
(c) Because they are fitted in drones and can give an aerial view too
(d) Because they track animals through the heat they emit X
4. What can be concluded from the passage?
(a) Serge Wich helped Steven Longmore in making his devices more efficient.
(b) The scientists have a new reliable way of tracking animals though they are still refining it. X
(c) The scientists need to find better ways of tracking animals because the present tools are unre-
liable.
(d) It is hard to find thermal footprints of endangered animals even using infrared cameras.

11. Albert Einstein was a German scientist who came up with many discoveries and theories. The theory
of Relativity was his most important contribution to the world of science. This theory holds that mea-
surements of space and time differ based on different conditions. The formula he developed explains
how energy is related to mass. This theory changed how scientists looked at the world and led to many
modern inventions, including nuclear energy and the nuclear bomb.
Einstein was born in Ulm, Germany in March, 1879, but lived most of his childhood in the city of Munich.
He had speech problems as a child, and his parents didn’t think he was very intelligent. He didn’t talk
until he was four years old and didn’t read until he was nine. He said that he wasn’t enamoured with
school but loved reading and learning on his own. Even when he was an adult, he was quits disorganized
and forgot appointments. His father owned an electronics shop, so Albert learned all about science and

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 electronics from him. He first became interested when his father gave him a compass.
Albert Einstein laid much of the foundation for modern physics. He came up with the concept that light
is made up of particles called photons. Most scientists then didn’t agree, but later experiments in 1919
proved him right. He was awarded the Nobel Prize for Physics in 1921. Together with another scientist,
Satyendra Bose, Einstein discovered another state of matter-the Bose-Einstein condensate, in addition to
solid, liquid and gas. Today this discovery is used in lasers and superconductors. Einstein did not work
directly on inventing the atomic bomb but his name is closely associated with the bomb. This is because
his scientific work and discoveries contributed majorly to the bomb’s development. He received a love of
music from his mother and said that if he were not a physicist, he would have been a musician. He loved
to play the violin and piano and said that the felt great joy in doing that.

1. What can be inferred from the passage?

(a) Most of the scientists did not approve of Einstein because he was disorganized and forgot
appointments.
(b) Einstein’s discoveries and theories were mostly used for destructive purposes X
(c) Satyendra Bose contributed more in the discovery of the Bose-Einstein condensate.
(d) Einstein’s father played a major role in introducing him to the world of science.
2. What problem followed Einstein even to his adulthood?
(a) His inability to read
(b) His tendency to stay disorganized and forget things X
(c) His inability to write.
(d) His inability to play the violin.
3. How did Einstein contribute toward building lasers and superconductors?
(a) He discovered photons.
(b) He helped in inventing the atomic bomb
(c) He discovered a new state of matter called the Bose-Einstein condensate. X
(d) His theory of relativity was used to build them.
4. What is the meaning of the word “enamored” in context of the passage?
(a) Pleased X
(b) Familiarized
(c) Obsessed
(d) Finished

12. The ice sheets are huge masses of ice that are formed in places where snow falls faster than it can melt.
The world’s second largest ice sheet is the 18 million-square-km sheet of ice that covers most of Greenland
Gravity causes the ice to flow from higher elevations at the edges. In some places the ice reaches the sea
where it breaks off and forms icebergs.
Recently, it has become possible to directly measure whether parts of the ice sheet are thickening or
thinning. Researchers from NASA and other places used a laser mounted on an airplane to measure the
height of the southern part of the ice sheet surface in 1993 and 1994, and again in 1998. Their results
showed that while much of the ice sheet was thickening slowly, near the southeastern coast the ice sheet
was thinning by as much as several meters per year. The size of the measured thinning was surprising.
One possible explanation is that the ice is thinning in response to a warming climate. Since the last part
of the nineteenth century. Earth’s mean temperature has increased by about 1°C. Measurements show
that the 1990s were the warmest decade of the past 100 years, while 1998 was the warmest year since
1860. This increase in earth’s average temperature often is called global warming. Global warming may
be causing part of the ice sheet to thin.
Some scientists suspect that global warming may be caused by an increase in greenhouse gases in earth’s

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 atmosphere. Burning fossil fuels produces the greenhouse gas carbon dioxide. Measurements show that
the amount of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere has been increasing since the middle of the eighteenth
century and if it continues this way, global warming can cause the Greenland ice sheet to completely
melt. The result of this could be catastrophic. The ice sheet contains enough ice to raise the level of the
ocean by about 6 m if it were completely melted. If this were to happen, the coastal cities of the world,
such as New York City, would experience massive flooding.

1. What do measurements made by the scientists indicate?

(a) Glacier formation has been increasing
(b) The amount of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere has increased exponentially
(c) Though there is global warming, the earth’s temperature has not increase much
(d) The increase of earth’s mean temperature by 1° C has been the highest in the last decade X
2. What is the meaning of the word “massive” in the context of the passage?
(a) Colossal X
(b) Grand
(c) Prodigious
(d) Impressive
3. What is the author’s view about global warming?
(a) It is a natural phenomenon and thus can’t be avoided.
(b) Global warming will affect the coastal cities of the world in another 100 years.
(c) Human activities are factors affecting global warming. X
(d) It is a phenomenon that is widely studied all over the world.
4. What causes ice to flow from higher elevations to lower elevations of the ice sheet?
(a) The structure of the ice sheet
(b) The temperature of the surrounding water X
(c) The thickness of the ice sheet
(d) The gravity

13. Most of us understand how diseases like alcoholism and drug addiction can cause pain and suffering.
Craving a cigarette or a stiff drink on occasion is one thing, but addiction forces an individual to behave
in unusual, and often destructive ways in the service of finding the next fix. But you can also become
addictions can turn seemingly harmless things-like video games-quite dangerous.
The idea that spending hours at time playing a video game might be a sign of something sinister isn’t
new at all. “I have patients who come in suffering from an addiction to a particular video game, and
they’re substantially similar to people who come in with other disorders, “Petros Levounis, the chairman
of the psychiatry department at Rutgers New Jersey Medical School, said in an interview. “Their lives
are ruined, their interpersonal relationships suffer, and their physical condition also suffers”, he added.
Addiction is a chronic disease of brain reward, motivation, memory, and related circuitry. Basically, any
substance or activity that starts to trigger your brain’s reward centers-the bits that release hormones
that make you feel good-in a way that makes you pathologically persue relief is addicting. This cycle
leads people to make choices that are objectively bad for them, like playing video games all day when
you know you should be working, communicating with friends and family, or taking care of yourself or
your dependents. It’s becoming clear that games can hurt you even if there isn’t any money on the line.
Humans are prone to making bad choices in the name of a good time due to the relief we get. An hour or
two of gaming slotted into your regular daily schedule does not make you an addict. But if that planned
hour tends to spiral into an all-nighter more often than you’d like, at the cost of your performance at work
and school, it’s signalling a problem. Unfortunately, gaming addiction is a recently recognized problem.
People rarely want to accept that they have done something wrong. The clinicians are still figuring out

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 the best way to treat it. But the good news is that going cold turkey on video games is much gentler
on your body. You may be irritable, and you’ll certainly have trouble avoiding your game of choice, but
you’re not going to spend days feeling physically ill.

1. What is the meaning of the word “spiral” in context of the passage.

(a) Flourish
(b) Collect
(c) Originate
(d) Wind up X
2. What can be said about gaming addiction?
(a) It is not as serious as the rest of the mental disorders.
(b) The clinicians are still trying to find a way to treat it.
(c) It cause a dip in performance at work.
(d) This addiction causes people to make bad choices. X
3. What does the author mean by the line “going cold turkey on video games is much gentler on your
body?”
(a) It is easier to resist playing video games.
(b) Playing video games stimulates the brain and keeps the body healthy. X
(c) Trying to quit playing video games has less harmful effects on the body.
(d) Playing video games has less harmful effects on the body.
4. What makes people addicted to video games?
(a) It allows them to forget their pain and suffering.
(b) It makes people forget about the bad choices they made in the past.
(c) It increases motivation in people.
(d) It triggers their brain’s reward centers. X

14. Environmental toxins which can affect children are frighteningly commonplace. Besides lead, there are
other heavy metals such as mercury, which is found frequently in fish, that are spewed into the air from
coal-fired power plants, says Maureen Swanson, MPA, director of the Healthy Children Project at the
Learning Disabilities Association of America.
Mercury exposure can impair children?s memory, attention, and language abilities and interfere with fine
motor and visual spatial skills. A recent study of school districts in Texas showed significantly higher
levels of autism in areas with elevated levels of mercury in the environment. “Researchers are finding
harmful effects at lower and lower levels of exposure,” says Swanson. “They’re now telling us that they
don’t know if there’s a level of mercury that’s safe.”
Chemicals in pesticides are also a major source of concern. One class of pesticides, called organophos-
phates, has been associated with various kinds of cancer and hormonal disruption. Approximately 40
different organophosphate-based pesticide products are currently on the market in the United States.
One, called Chlorpyrifos, sold under the name Dursban, was used on school grounds and playing fields,
and to get rid of household pests. Although Dursban is no longer sold in the United States, says Rogge,
that doesn’t mean it’s not present in the environment. “At the time of the ban,” she says, “stores put
Dursban on sale, and people stocked up. So they may still be using it.”
Another class of chemicals, organochlorines, have mostly been phased out in the United States. One
of these chemicals, Lindane, was available as recently as 2003 as a prescription medicine to eliminate
head lice and was associated with symptoms such as dizziness, headaches, and convulsions. Another
organochlorine, dioxin, found in pesticides such as dichlorodiphenyltrichloroethane, has been banned
from sale in the United States for some years. But dioxin, says Rogge, still enters the environment as a
byproduct of combustion from industrial processes.

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Other chemicals that have also been banned from use may still be causing problems as well. Polychlo-
rinated biphenyls (PCBs), some of which are a form of dioxin, for example, have been banned in the
United States for years but are still found in the environment. Researchers have found evidence that
children exposed in the womb to low levels of PCBs grow up with poor reading comprehension, low IQs,
and memory problems.
Then there’s a whole category of chemicals that are known or suspected endocrine disruptors. These
chemicals can interfere with the human hormonal system, particularly the thyroid gland, says Swanson.
During pregnancy, the hormones released by the thyroid are vital for normal development of the fetus’
brain.
Unfortunately, some of these chemicals make good flame retardants and have been widely used in ev-
erything from upholstery to televisions to children’s clothing. Studies have found them in high levels in
household dust, as well as in breast milk. Two categories of these flame retardants have been banned in
Europe and are starting to be banned by different states in the United States.
Other chemicals, called plasticizers, are just now coming onto the radar screen as possible sources of
health problems. One of them, bisphenol A, is found in pacifiers, baby bottles, and dental sealant used to
prevent cavities in children. It’s also found in many adult consumer products, according to Elise Miller,
MEd, executive director of the nonprofit Institute for Children’s Environmental Health and national coor-
dinator of the Learning and Developmental Disabilities Initiative. “We all have bisphenol A in our bodies
now,” she says. Research on bisphenol A has shown it can affect both the reproductive and neurological
system, and that it appears to accumulate at higher concentrations around the fetus-in the umbilical cord
and amniotic fluid-than in the mother’s blood.

1. Besides lead there are other heavy materials such as mercury are most frequently found in the fish
that are sweped into the air from coal fierd power plants. How this can be worded differently?
(a) besides lead mercury is other heavy material which is found in fish cooked in coal fired power
plants X
(b) besides lead fish containing the heavy material mercury ejected in the air from the power plants
using coal
(c) fish contain mercury which is released in the air as industrial waste and which is also a heavy
material like lead
(d) mercury released in the air as industrial waste which is also like a heavy material lead which is
found in fish
2. All these are harmful effect of mercury in the children EXCEPT
(a) Affect driving skill X
(b) Causes attention deficits ordered
(c) lead to neurological problems
(d) Impacts ability to learn language
3. “Researcher are finding harmful effects at lower level of exposure” How can this line be interpreted?
(a) Lower level of exposure are harmful
(b) Harmful effects from exposure are becoming less intense X
(c) Amount of clothing has an impact on harmful effect
(d) Even little exposure, can cause harm
4. What ‘front’ is being referred to?
(a) Efforts of Healthy Children Project at the Learning Disabilities Association of America
(b) Banning of flame retardants in Europe and various states of America X
(c) More and more states are joining the 2 states in Europe and various states in America that have
already banned harmful chemicals
(d) Proposed bill resulting in a blanket ban on all harmful chemicals

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15. Since the late 1970s when the technology for sex determination first came into being, sex selective abor-
tion has unleashed a saga of horror. Experts are calling it “sanitised barbarism”. Demographic trends
indicate the country is fast heading towards a million female foetuses aborted each year.
Although foetal sex determination and sex selection is a criminal offence in India, the practice is rampant.
Private clinics with ultrasound machines are doing brisk business. Everywhere, people are paying to know
the sex of an unborn child. And paying more to abort the female child. The technology has even reached
remote areas through mobile clinics. Dr. Puneet Bedi, obstetrician and specialist in foetal medicine, says
these days he hardly sees a family with two daughters. People are getting sex determination done even
for the first child, he says.
If the 1991 Census showed that two districts had a child sex ration (number of girls per thousand boys)
less than 850; by 2001 it was 51 districts. Child rights activist Dr. Sabu George says foeticide is the
most extreme form of violence against women. “Today a girl is several times more likely to be eliminated
before birth than die of various causes in the first year. Nature intended the womb to be a safe apace.
Today, doctors have made it the most unsafe space for the female child,” he says. He believes that doctors
must be held responsible – “They have aggressively promoted the misuse of technology and legitimised
foeticide”
Akhila Sivadas, Centre for Advocacy and Research, Delhi, feels that the PCPNDT Act (Pre-Conception
and Pre-Natal Diagnostic Techniques – Regulation and Prevention of Misuse) is very well conceived and
easy to use. The need of the hour is legal literacy to ensure the law is implemented. “The demand and
supply debate has been going on for some time. Doctors say there is a social demand and they are only
fulfilling it. They argue that social attitudes must change. However, in this case supply fuels demand.
Technology will have to be regulated. Technology in the hands of greedy, vested interests cannot be
neutral. There is a law to prevent misuse and we must be able to use it,” she says.
On the “demand” side, experts such as Dr. Agnihotri argue that women’s participation in workforce,
having disposable incomes and making a contribution to larger society will make a difference to how
women are see. Youth icons and role models such as Sania Mirza are making an impact, he says. Others
feel there needs to be widespread visible contempt and anger in society against this “genocide” – “the
kind we saw against the Nithari killings,” says Dr. Bedi. “Today nobody can say female foeticide is not
their problem,” Time we all did our bit to help save the girl child. Time’s running out.
The economic transformation of India is one of the great business stories of our time. As stifling gov-
ernment regulations have been lifted, entrepreneurship has flourished, and the country has become a
high-powered centre for information technology and pharmaceuticals. Indian companies like Infosys and
Wipro are powerful global players, while western firms like G.E. and I.B.M. now have major research
facilities in India employing thousands. India’s seemingly endless flow of young, motivated engineers,
scientists, and managers offering developed-world skills ate developing-world waged is held to be putting
American jobs at risk, and the country is frequently heralded as “the next economic superpower.”
But India has run into a surprising hitch on its way to superpower status: Its inexhaustible supply of
workers is becoming exhausted. Although India has one of the youngest workforces on the planet, the
head of Infosys said recently that there was an “acute shortage of skilled manpower,” and a study projects
that this year salaries for skilled workers will rise fourteen and a half percent, a sure sign that demand
for skilled labour is outstripping supply.
How is this possible in a country that every year produced two and a half million college graduates and
four hundred thousand engineers? Start with the fact that just ten percent of Indians get any kind of
post-secondary education, compared with some fifty percent who do in the U.S. Moreover of that ten
percent, the vast majority go to one of India’s seventeen thousand colleges, many of which are closer to
community colleges than to four-year institutions. India does have more than three hundred universities,
but a recent survey by the London Times Higher Education Supplement put only two of them among the
top hundred in the world. Many Indian graduates therefore enter the workforce with a low level of skills.
A current study led by Vivek Wadhwa, of Duke University, has found that if you define “engineer” by
U.S. standards, India produces just a hundred and seventy thousand engineers a year, not four hundred
thousand. Infosys says that of 1.3 million applicants for jobs last year, it found only two percent accept-

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able.
India has taken tentative steps to remedy its skills famine-the current government has made noises about
doubling spending on education, and a host of new colleges and universities have sprung up since the
mid-nineties. But India’s Impressive economic performance has made the problem seem less urgent than
it actually is, and allowed the government to defer difficult choices. (In a country where more than three
hundred million people live on a dollar a day, producing college graduates can seem like a low priority)
Ultimately, the Indian government has to pull off a very touch trick, making serious changes at a time
when thinks seem of everything that can still go wrong. The paradox of the Indian economy today is
that the more certain its glowing future seems to be, the less likely that future becomes. The economic
transformation of India is one of the great business stories of our time. As stiffing government regulations
have been lifted, entrepreneurship has flourished, and the country has become a high-powered centre
for information technology and pharmaceuticals. Indian companies like Infosys and Wipro are powerful
global players, while Western firms like G.E. and I.B.M. now have major research facilities in India em-
ploying thousands. India’s seemingly endless flow of young, motivates engineers, scientists, and managers
offering developed-world skills at developing-world wages is held to be putting American jobs at risk, and
the country is frequently heralded as “the next economic superpower.”
But India has run into a surprising hitch on its way to superpower status: Its inexhaustible supply of
workers is becoming exhausted. Although India has one of the youngest workforces on the planet, the
head of Infosys said recently that there was an “acute shortage of skilled manpower,” and a study projects
that this year salaries for skilled workers will rise fourteen and a half percent, a sure sign that demand
for skilled labour is outstripping supply.
How is this possible in a country that every year produces two and a half million college graduates and
four hundred thousand engineers? Start with the

1. Which statement would Dr. George agree to?

(a) The girl child is as safe in the mother’s womb as after birth.
(b) The girl child is safer in the mother’s womb in comparison to after birth
(c) The girl child is safer after birth as compared to the mother’s womb X
(d) None of these
2. What is the tone of the passage?
(a) Factual X
(b) Biased
(c) Aggressive
(d) Sad
3. What is Akhila Sivadas’s opinion on the the PCPNDT act?
(a) The act is inconsistent.
(b) The act needs reform
(c) The act encourages demand for foeticide
(d) The act is sound, but needs enforcement X
4. What is the solution to the problem of female foeticide as envisioned by Dr. Bedi?
(a) Effective use of law
(b) Mass public outrage X
(c) Comparison with Nithari killing
(d) Contempt towards doctors
5. What is an appropriate title to the passage?
(a) Growing Indian economy
(b) Higher education in India

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 (c) India’s skill shortage
(d) Entrepreneurship in India X
6. In the third sentence of the third paragraph of the passage, the phrase “closer to community colleges”
is used. What does it imply?
(a) Near to community colleges
(b) Like community colleges X
(c) Close association with community colleges
(d) None of these
7. Why are salaries for skilled workers rising?
(a) Companies are paying higher to lure skilled people to jobs
(b) American companies are ready to pay higher to skilled workers
(c) Entrepreneurship is growing in India
(d) There are not enough skilled workers, while the demand for them is high. X
8. According to the passage, what is the paradox of the Indian economy today?
(a) The economic progress is impressive, but the poor (earning one dollar per day) are not benefited
(b) The economic progress is impressive disallowing the government to take tough decisions X
(c) There is not enough skilled workforce and the government does not realize this
(d) Government is not ready to invest in setting up new universities.

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3.6 Sentence Improvement
1. Improve the sentence by selecting the correct alternative to the italicised part of the sentence.
They always talk loudly in the library. Don’t they know about the rules?

(a) too louder (c) much loudy (e) No improvement needed X

(b) much loud (d) more loud

2. In the question a part of the sentence is italicized. Alternatives to the italicized part are given which may
improve the construction of the sentence.
After Michael typed the letter, he gave it to Jane to sign.

(a) He was giving it to Jane to sign. (c) He had been giving it to Jane to sign
(b) He gives it to Jane to sign (d) No change X
3. Improve the sentence by selecting the correct alternative to the italicized part of the sentence.
They were busy because they are preparing for the party at their house next Sunday.

(a) will have been preparing (c) were preparing X (e) no improvement needed
(b) will be preparing (d) have prepared

4. Improve the sentence by selecting the correct alternative to the italicized part of the sentence.
He lost all the money in gambling, primarily because of his avarice.

(a) greed X (c) foolishness

(b) negligence (d) luck

5. In the question, a part of the sentence is given in italics. Select the correct option that is similar in
meaning to the word in italics.
They were forced to retreat to their camp.

(a) protect (c) destroy

(b) rest at (d) go back to X
6. In the question, a part of the sentence is italicised. Alternatives to the italicised part are given which
may improve the construction of the sentence. Select the correct alternative.
My first salary was a four figure salary which had been considered very good in those days.

(a) Would be (c) Which was X

(b) That is (d) That has been

7. Improve the sentence by selecting the correct alternative to be the italicised part of the sentence.
We need to hurry and reach the exhibition on time. Our clients waited there just to have a look at the
new model of our phone.

(a) had been waiting (c) are waiting X (e) No improvement needed
(b) had waited (d) are being waited

8. In the question, a part of the sentence is italicised. Alternatives to the italicised part are given which
may improve the construction of the sentence. Select the correct alternative.
Chicago is widely known for its stuffed pizza and pizza pie joints have always busting with innumerable
people.

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 (a) Joints which were always bustling (c) Joints that have always been bustling
(b) Joints that are always supposed to be bustling
X (d) No improvement needed

9. Improve the sentence by selecting the correct alternative to the italicised part of the sentence.
A writer always is having his own vision of life.

(a) always has X (c) always have

(b) always had (d) have always

10. In the question, a part of the sentence is given in italics. Select the correct option that is similar in
meaning to the word in italics. The group asserts the importance of trading relationship with export
markets in other countries.

(a) stresses X (c) nourishes

(b) abandons (d) conceals

11. In the question, a part of the sentence is italicised. Alternatives to the italicised part are given which
may improve the construction of the sentence. Select the correct alternative.
After Michel typed the letter, he gave it to jane to sign

(a) He was giving it to Jane to sign (c) He had been giving it to Jane to sign
(b) He gives it to Jane to sign (d) No change X

12. Ironically, if Ricdic has just stolen the online money he could have stayed in the game.

(a) Had just stolen the online money he should have been
(b) Has just stolen the online money he could have
(c) Had just stole the online money he could have been
(d) Had just stolen the online money he could have X
(e) Has just stole the online money he should had

13. In the question, a part of the sentence is given in italics. Select the correct option that is similar in
meaning to the word in italics.
The museum has an exceptional collection of historical art.

(a) extraordinary X (c) ridiculous

(b) comparable (d) acceptable

14. What enabled him to finally took part in the opening ceremony

(a) take part X (c) taking part (e) No improvement needed

(b) had taken part (d) takes part

15. After she has finished answering the calls, she went for lunch.

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 (a) finishes (c) will finished (e) No improvement needed
(b) will have finished (d) finished X

16. Where should she go yesterday after the meeting?

(a) has she gone (c) is she gone (e) No improvement needed
(b) did she go X (d) did she went

17. Neha was fined for careless driving.

(a) Got fined (c) Was to be lined

(b) Fined X (d) No improvement needed

18. Once you’ve explored its famous market, the country’s much popular national park is less than an hour
away.

(a) the country’s most popular X (c) the country’s enough of popular
(b) the country’s some popular (d) No improvement needed

19. I would have waited for you at the station if I knew that you would come.

(a) Had known X (c) Have known

(b) Was knowing (d) No improvement needed

20. In the question, a part of the sentence is italicised. Alternatives to the italicised part are given which
may improve the construction of the sentence. Select the correct alternative.
She has lived in chennai since she was eight.

(a) Lived (c) Had stayed

(b) Has been living X (d) is living

21. In the question, a part of the sentence is italicised. Alternatives to the italicised part are given which
may improve the construction of the sentence. Select the correct alternative.
Munnar is the most refreshing and tranquil hill station in the state of kerala.

(a) is most refreshing and tranquility (c) is a most refreshing and tranquil
(b) is most refresh and tranquil (d) No improvement needed X

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