Corp.

Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005

Ph.: 011-47623456 Fax : 011-47623472

NCERT HOT SPOTS - 01

Topics covered :
Botany : Cell : The Unit of Life

BOTANY

4. Select the incorrect match w.r.t. structures found

SECTION-A in bacteria with their functions.
1. Select the incorrect match. (1) Slime layer — Protects the cell from
loss of water and
(1) Thylakoids Flattened membranous sacs nutrients
—
in stroma of plastids (2) Capsule — Allows bacterium to
(2) Cisternae Disc shaped sacs in Golgi hide from host's
—
apparatus immune system
(3) Ribosomes Seen in eukaryotes but not in (3) Cell wall — Determines the shape
—
prokaryotes of the cell
(4) Centrioles Seen in animal cells but not in (4) Cell — Permeable
—
higher plant cells membrane membrane which
2. State true (T) or false (F) f or the f ollowing prevents the bacterial
statements and select the correct option.
cell from bursting or
A. The size of Pleuropneumonia like organisms
(PPLO) is 0.1 m collapsing
B. The largest isolated single cell is the egg of an 5. Read the following statements and choose the
ostrich. correct option.
A B A. Ribosomes are the site of protein synthesis.
(1) T F B. The ribosomes of polysome translate the
(2) F T mRNA into proteins
(3) T T
(1) Only statement A is correct
(4) F F
(2) Only statement B is correct
3. Identify the organisms on the basis of given
features. (3) Both statement A and B are correct
a. There is no well defined nucleus (4) Both statement A and B are incorrect
b. The genetic material is naked 6. Select the incorrect match w.r.t. cell and its shape.
c. Have cell wall
(1) Red blood cells – Round and biconcave
d. Ribosomes are present
(2) Nerve cell – Long and narrow
(1) Blue green algae (2) Protists
(3) White blood cells – Amoeboid
(3) Fungi (4) Animals (4) Mesophyll cells – Round and oval
NCERT Hot Sport Chapter-01
7. Which of the following is incorrect w.r.t. cytoplasm 12. Select the mismatched pair
of the cell ?
(1) Passive transport : No requirement of
(1) It is the main arena of cellular activities energy
(2) It is surrounded by nuclear membrane (2) Pinocytosis : Cell drinking process
(3) It is semi-fluid matrix (3) Algal cell wall : Galactans
(4) Human RBCs : 52% lipids
(4) It contains many cell organelles
membrane
8. Read the statements given below and select the
13. Mitochondria is not included in endomembrane
correct option.
system of cell because
(A) Active transport requires energy for transport
(1) It is a double membrane-bound organelle
(B) Osmosis requires ATP to transport water while organelles of endomembrane system are
single membrane-bound
(1) Only statement A is incorrect
(2) It is an autonomous cell organelle
(2) Only statement B is incorrect
(3) Its function are not coordinated with the
(3) Both statements are incorrect
organelles of endomembrane system
(4) Both statements are correct (4) It is found only in eukaryotic cells
9. Which of the following statement is incorrect for 14. Select the correct statement w.r.t. the cell
plasma membrane ? organelles which are not considered as a part of
(1) Asymmetric the endomembrane system
(2) In mammalian RBCs, it is composed of 52% (i) Some of them have their own DNA
lipids and 40% proteins (ii) They all are double membrane-bound
(3) Oligosaccharides are found on outer side of (iii) Some of them have 70S ribosomes
plasma membrane
(iv) Some of them may synthesize ATP
(4) Fluidity is due to quasi fluid nature of lipid (1) (ii), (iii) and (iv) (2) (ii) and (iii) only
10. Read the following statements and select the (3) (i), (iii) and (iv) (4) (i) and (iv) only
option which is true for them.
15. Plasmid differs from genomic DNA of bacteria as
a. Nucleoli are larger in cells that are actively the former
involved in protein synthesis.
(1) Is circular
b. Genetically inactive and tightly packed region
of chromatin is called euchromatin. (2) Is double stranded

c. Assembly of microtubules require GTP and (3) Confers unique phenotypic characters to
Cu++. bacteria such as resistance to antibiotics

(1) All are correct (4) Has ability to replicate

(2) Only a is correct 16. Microtubules of cytoskeleton are composed of

__A__ and help in __B__. Choose correct option
(3) Only a and c are incorrect to fill in the blanks.
(4) Only a and b are correct
A B
11. The correct sequence of different layers from (1) Polysomes Pseudopodia formation
interior to exterior of a mature plant cell is (2) Tubulin proteins Spindles formation
(1) Primary wall  Secondary wall  Middle (3) Lipids Flagella formation
lamella  Plasma membrane (4) Cellulose Fimbriae formation
(2) Plasma membrane  Secondary wall  17. Select the correct statement w.r.t. eukaryotic cell.
Primary wall  Middle lamella (1) The cell size is usually small than prokaryotic
(3) Secondary wall  Primary wall  Plasma cell
membrane  Middle lamella (2) 70S type of ribosomes are also found
(4) Plasma membrane  Primary wall  (3) Thylakoids lie freely in the cytoplasm
Secondary wall  Middle lamella
(4) Membrane bound organelles are absent
2
NCERT Hot Sport Chapter-01
18. A cell biologist found that Golgi apparatus and layer which is now known as plasma
endoplasmic reticulum are in close association and membrane.
their functions are coordinated.
(B) Matthias Schleiden, a German botanist has
Select the correct option that shows such concluded that presence of cell wall is a
association. unique character of the plant cell.
(1) Both the organelles are membrane bound (C) Unicellular organisms are capable of
independent existence.
(2) A number of proteins are synthesized by
ribosomes on endoplasmic reticulum
A B C
(3) Materials to be packaged in the form of
vesicles from the ER, fuse with cis face of the (1) F F F
Golgi apparatus and move towards maturing (2) F F T
face (3) T T T
(4) Golgi apparatus principally performs the (4) T F T
functions of packaging and synthesis of
steroidal materials 23. Disc-shaped structure present on the sides of
centromere is known as
19. Select the correct statement w.r.t. plasma
membrane. (1) Primary constriction

(a) Tail of lipid is polar whereas head is non-polar (2) Kinetochore

(b) Integral proteins are totally or partially buried in (3) Telomere

the membrane (4) Secondary constriction
(c) In human, the membrane of the RBC has 24. Select the correct option for part ‘X’ of given cell
approximately 40 percent protein and 52 organelle shown in the figure.
percent lipids
(d) Proteins move laterally within overall bilayer of
lipid
(1) (a) and (b) (2) (b) and (c)
(3) (a) and (c) (4) (b) and (d)
20. Select the incorrect match.

(1) Lysosome Contains hydrolytic

enzymes
(2) Golgi body Formation of glycolipids
(3) Vacuoles Can occupy upto 90 (1) Crista – Increases the
percent of volume in an surface area for
animal cell enzymatic action
(4) RER Actively involved in
protein synthesis (2) Matrix – Contains
21. Select the incorrect match w.r.t. different shapes enzymes for
of cells. Krebs' cycle
(1) Red blood cells Round and (3) Inter – Lies between
– biconcave membrane two
(2) White blood cells – Amoeboid mitochondrial
(3) Mesophyll cells – Branched and long (4) Outer – Forms
(4) A tracheid – Elongated membrane continuous
22. State true (T ) or false (F) f or the following limiting
statements and select the correct option. boundary of
(A) Theodore Schwann, a British zoologist, mitochondria
reported that animal cells have a thin outer

3
NCERT Hot Sport Chapter-01
25. Which of the following statements is not true for protein synthesis
plasmids? (2) Golgi – Important site for
(1) It is present outside the genomic DNA apparatus glycosylation
(2) Confers certain unique phenotypic character to (3) Lysosome – Enzymes are
bacteria active at basic
pH
(3) It is used to monitor bacterial transformation
(4) Vacuole – Maintains high
(4) It is enveloped by a nuclear membrane
concentration of
26. Which of the following plastid contains fat for
ions
soluble carotenoid pigment?
32. Which of the following is correct for prokaryotic
(1) Aleuroplast (2) Elaioplast ribosomes ?
(3) Chromoplast (4) Leucoplast (1) Made of two subunits i.e. 60S and 40S
27. Read the following statements and choose the (2) They are about 15 nm by 20 nm is size
incorrect one about chloroplast.
(3) They are single membrane
(1) Chlorophyll pigments are present in thylakoids
(4) The ribosomes of a polysome translate the
(2) Ribosomes of chloroplasts are smaller than mRNA into DNA
cytoplasmic ribosomes 33. Select the odd one w.r.t. mesosomes.
(3) The inner chloroplast membrane is relatively (1) Formed by the extensions of plasma
more permeable than outer one membrane into the cell
(4) Stroma contains enzyme for carbohydrate (2) They help in cell wall f ormation, DNA
synthesis replication and distribution to daughter cells
28. For the first time who observed the living cell ? (3) They also help in respiration, secretion
(1) Robert Brown process etc
(4) They help in attaching the bacteria to rocks in
(2) Anton von Leeuwenhoek
streams and also to the host tissues
(3) Robert Hooke
34. The fluid nature of the membrane is important
(4) Flemming from the point of view of all of the following
functions, except
29. All of the following are inclusion bodies in
prokaryotic cells, except (1) Cell growth and cell division

(1) Phosphate granules (2) Formation of intercellular junctions

(2) Cyanophycean granules (3) Secretion and endocytosis

(3) Glycogen granules (4) Protection from mechanical damage and

infection
(4) Sap vacuoles
35. In some prokaryotes, there are other membranous
30. Which of the following statements is incorrect ? extensions into the cytoplasm containing
photosynthetic pigments are known as
(1) Golgi apparatus is involved in packaging and
processing of material (1) Chromatophores (2) Chloroplasts
(2) SER helps in detoxification of drugs (3) Heterocysts (4) Centrioles
(3) Ribosomes of both 70S and 80S type are 36. Select the incorrectly matched pair among the
found in a plant cell following.

(4) Endomembrane system is involved in ETS

31. Select the odd one w.r.t. cell organelles and their
functions.
(1) RER – Helps in secretory

4
NCERT Hot Sport Chapter-01
(1) Thylakoids Flattened membranous (2) If both Assertion & Reason are true but the
reason is not the correct explanation of the
sacs present in stroma assertion, then mark.
of chloroplast (3) If Assertion is true statement but Reason is
(2) Grana Thylakoids arranged in false, then mark.
stacks (4) If both Assertion and Reason are f alse
(3) Stroma Flat membranous statements, then mark.
lamellae tubules connecting 39. A : All living organisms are composed of cells and
different grana cell products
(4) Stroma Space enclosed by the R : All cells arise from pre-existing cells.
membrane of the 40. A : Cytoplasm is the main arena of cellular
thylakoids activities
37. What will be the arrangement of microtubules in R : Ribosomes are non-membrane bound
axonema of eukaryotic flagella ? organelles found in all cells.
(1) 9 + 0 (2) 4 + 4 41. A : Telocentric chromosomes are found during
(3) 9 + 2 (4) 4 + 0 human karyotyping
38. Read the following statements and select the R : Sub metacentric chromosomes are absent in
correct option humans.
A. Lysomes are rich in almost all types of 42. A : Golgi apparatus is to process, package and
hydrolytic enzymes. transport the material for secretions.
B. Hydrolytic enzymes of lysosome are optimally R : The packaged material is delivered either to
active at the acidic pH the intracellular or intercellular targets.
(1) Only statement A is incorrect 43. A : Leucoplasts may perform photosynthesis.
(2) Only statement B is incorrect
R : Chromoplast also perform photosynthesis.
(3) Both statements are correct
44. A : Lysosomes are able to digest starch, proteins
(4) Both statements are incorrect and fat

SECTION-B R : Lysosomes are rich in amylases, proteases

and lipases
Assertion - Reason Type Questions
45. A : Normally, the cells are multinucleate.
In the following questions, a statement of assertion
(A) is followed by a statement of reason (R) R : The nuclear pores are passages through
(1) If both Assertion & Reason are true and the which unidirectional movement of RNA and
reason is the correct explanation of the proteins occurs.
assertion, then mark.

  

5
 Corp. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005
Ph.: 011-47623456 Fax : 011-47623472

NCERT HOT SPOT - 01 (PART-II)

Topics covered :
Botany : Cell : The Unit of Life

BOTANY

1. Prokaryotic cell cannot have 7. Mark the following statements as true (T) or false
(1) Nuclear membrane (2) Chromosome (F) and select the correct option
(3) Cell wall (4) Plasma membrane A. Outer mitochondrial membrane is more permeable
2. Identify the incorrect match for prokaryotic cell than inner one.
B. Inner membrane of mitochondria contains ATP
(1) Mesosome – Respiration synthase enzyme.
(2) Plasmid – Genomic DNA C. Mitochondrial matrix contains enzymes of Krebs
(3) Glycocalyx – Protects bacterial cell cycle and 80S ribosomes.
(4) Chromatophore – Photosynthetic pigment A B C
3. A polysome contains (1) T T T
(1) Many ribosomes and a single m-RNA (2) T F F
(3) T T F
(2) Single ribosome and many m-RNAs
(4) F T F
(3) Single ribosome and single m-RNA 8. The type of plastid which is not involved in storage of
(4) Many ribosomes and many m-RNAs food, is
4. All of the following features are true for lipids of plasma (1) Chloroplast (2) Amyloplast
membrane, except (3) Chromoplast (4) Elaioplast
(1) Tails are hydrophobic 9. The smallest cell organelle is not found in/on
(1) Plastids (2) Mitochondria
(2) Polar heads are towards the inner sides
(3) RER (4) Nucleolus
(3) May consist of phosphoglycerides 10. Which of the given is true for cilia but false for
(4) Major lipids are phospholipids prokaryotic flagella?
5. The structure which form living component of dead (1) Help in locomotion
cell wall is (2) Made up of tubulin proteins
(1) Plasmodesmata (2) Pits (3) Is extension of cell wall
(4) Basal body is made up of proteinaceous rings
(3) Middle lamella (4) Plasma membrane
11. Nucleolus
6. The component of endomembrane system which is (a) Is non membrane bound structure
involved in protein synthesis is also related with (b) Is larger and more numerous in cells undergoing
(1) Formation of precursor of enzymes of lysosomes cell division.
(2) Breakdown of cellulose (c) Is the site of 70S ribosome assembly.
(1) Only (a) is true
(3) Breakdown of proteins with help of proteases
(2) Only (b) is true
(4) Maintenance of osmotic concentration of cell (3) Both (a) and (b) are true
(4) All (a), (b) and (c) are true
NCERT Hot Spot Chapter-01 (II)
12. Identify single membrane bound cell organelle among 21. How many of the given structures are non membrane
these bound and can be seen in a higher plant cell?
(1) Mitochondria (2) Centriole Centriole, Mitochondria, Ribosome,
(3) Plastid (4) Lysosome
Peroxisome, Nucleolus, Lysosome,
13. Gas vacuoles
Golgi complex
(a) Are found in all aquatic eukaryotes.
(b) Are membraneless. (1) 3 (2) 1
(c) Provide buoyancy to the cell. (3) 2 (4) 4
(1) Only (a) is true 22. The layer of bacterial cell envelope which contains
(2) (a) and (b) are true peptidoglycan, helps
(3) (b) and (c) are true (a) Bacterium to hide from host’s immune system.
(4) (a) and (c) are true (b) Bacterium to maintain its shape.
14. The ___ face of golgi complex gives rise to the secre- (c) In adhesion of the bacterial cell.
tory vesicles. (1) Only (a) (2) Only (b)
(1) Convex (2) Cis (3) Only (c) (4) Both (b) and (c)
(3) Maturing (4) Forming 23. Which of the following is true for a secretory cell?
15. Both matrix of mitochondria and stroma of chloro- (1) Only SER is present
plast contains (2) RER is easily observed
(1) Linear dsDNA (3) Golgi is absent
(2) Enzymes of glucose synthesis (4) Secretory granules are formed in the nucleus
(3) Protein synthesis machinery 24. A cell is considered as fundamental structural and
(4) Enzymes of TCA cycle functional unit of living organisms. One of the reason
16. Endomembrane system does not include is that
(1) Endoplasmic reticulum (1) It is always independent of other cells
(2) Golgi complex (2) It performs all the essential functions of life
(3) Lysosome (3) Cells always have a controlling centre called
(4) Peroxisome nucleus
17. Select the wrongly matched pair (4) It synthesizes its own food from inorganic
(1) Plasma membrane – Selectively permeable substances
(2) Algal cell wall – Contain cellulose, 25. Rudolf Virchow first explained that ‘Omnis cellula-e-
galactans and cellula’. It means
manans (1) Organisms are made up of cells
(3) Primary cell wall – Thin, elastic and
(2) A multicellular organisms is made up of different
incapable of
types of cells
extension
(3) All the cells are similar in structure and function
(4) Middle lamella – Amorphous
cementing layer (4) New cells are formed from pre-existing cells
18. Who explained that “new cells are formed from pre- 26. Read the following statements and choose the option
existing cells”? which is true for them.
(1) Schleiden (2) Virchow Statement-A:- Eukaryotes have 80S ribosomes.
(3) Schwann (4) R. Brown Statement-B:- In prokaryotes, both cilia and flagella
19. Polytene chromosomes are covered with plasma membrane.
(1) Are diplotene bivalents (1) Only statement A is correct
(2) Show somatic pairing (2) Only statement B is correct
(3) Are seen in all insects (3) Both the statements A and B are correct
(4) Contain one chromonemata per chromosome (4) Both the statements A and B are incorrect
20. Activity of all of the given cell organelles can be seen
in a germinating fatty or oil containing seed, except
(1) Mitochondria (2) Glyoxysome
(3) Chloroplast (4) Both (1) and (3)

2
NCERT Hot Spot Chapter-01 (II)
27. The cell organelles in animals which are not bound 33. In mitochondria, enzymes are present
by any membrane are (1) In both outer and inner membranes as well as in
(1) Ribosome and gas vacuole matrix
(2) Centrosome and chromatophore (2) Only in inner membrane
(3) Ribosome and peroxisome (3) Only in matrix
(4) Centrosome and ribosome (4) Only between outer and inner membranes
34. In potato tuber, starch is stored
28. Hydrophobic tails of all the lipid molecules in plasma
membrane are towards the (1) Around the chloroplasts
(1) Outer side of the membrane (2) In the inter-cellular spaces
(3) In the specific plastids
(2) Outer side of cell surface
(4) In the cytosol in the form of colloids
(3) Inner part of membrane
35. W hich of the following statements regarding
(4) Cytoplasm of the cell chloroplast is/are incorrect?
29. Flat disc-shaped structures of Golgi apparatus are (a) A thylakoid is made up of many grana.
concerned with (b) Outer chloroplast membrane is more
(1) Synthesis of amino acids permeable.
(2) Increasing the surface area for protein synthesis (c) Stroma has enzymes for the synthesis of
proteins.
(3) Break down of lipids
(d) Chloroplast pigments are present in stroma.
(4) Modification of proteins (1) (a) & (d) (2) (a), (b) & (c)
30. Membrane of the cell organelle that has the enzymes (3) (b) & (d) (4) (d) only
such as lipases, proteases and carbohydrases is
36. Mechanical support, motility and maintenance of the
the parts of the
shape of the cell, all these functions in a cell is due
(1) Vacuole and peroxisome to
(2) Member of endomembrane system (1) Plasma membrane (2) Cytoplasm
(3) Mitochondrion and Golgi apparatus (3) Cell wall (4) Cytoskeleton
(4) Amyloplast and leucoplast 37. In eukaryotic flagella, one of the tubules of each
peripheral doublets is connected with central sheath
31. Identify the following as true (T) or false(F) and by
choose the option accordingly.
(1) Central hub (2) Central bridge
A. Plant vacuoles have more concentration of ions (3) Linker tubule (4) Radial spoke
than that of cytoplasm.
38. The cell organelle that has cart wheel appearance is
B. In plant cells, contractile vacuoles are important made up of
for excretion.
(1) Eleven doublet peripheral microtubules
C. Food vacuoles are also membrane bound (2) Nine peripheral and two central fibrils
structures.
(3) Nine peripheral triplet fibrils
A B C (4) Seven peripheral doublet and two central singlet
(1) T F F fibrels
(2) T F T 39. Match the following columns w.r.t chromosomes and
select the correct option.
(3) F F T
Column I Column II
(4) T T F a Centromere (i) Disc shaped
32. Which of the following functions is not performed by structure
mitochondria? b Satellite (ii) Primary constriction
(1) Synthesis of protein c Kinetochore (iii) Basic protein
d Histone (iv) Small fragment due
(2) Conversion of light energy into chemical energy to secondary
(3) Division by fission constriction
(4) Production of cellular energy (1) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii)
(2) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii)
(3) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii)
(4) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii)

3
NCERT Hot Spot Chapter-01 (II)
40. ________ proposed the hypothesis that the bodies 44. Which of the given statement is false?
of animals and plants are composed of cell and (1) RER is involved in protein synthesis & secretion
product of cells.
(2) Steroidal hormones are synthesised in SER
(1) Schleiden (2) Schwann
(3) Golgi apparatus performs the function of
(3) Virchow (4) Leeuwenhoek packaging of material
41. Select the wrong match (4) Carbohydrases are found in lysosome that are
functional at basic pH.
(1) Chromatophore - Pigment containing
membranous 45. A - Tonoplast facilitates transport of a number of ions
extension against concentration gradient inside vacuole.
(2) Fimbriae - Help in movement of B - Mitochondria lack component required for protein
bacteria synthesis.
(1) Only A is correct
(3) Gas vacuole - Found in Blue green
algae (2) Only B is correct
(4) Cytoplasm - Main arena of (3) Both A & B are correct
cellular activity (4) Both A & B are incorrect
42. The component of plasma membrane which is quasi
fluid in nature includes all, except
(1) Cholesterol (2) Phospholipid
(3) Glycolipid (4) Glycoprotein
43. Primary cell wall
(1) Gradually diminishes as the cell matures
(2) Is living rigid structure
(3) Is made up of pectose
(4) Is absent in young plant cell



4
 Corp. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005
Ph.: 011-47623456 Fax : 011-47623472

NCERT HOT SPOT - 02

Topics covered :
Botany : Cell Cycle & Cell Division.

BOTANY

(4) Double amount of DNA as compared to S

SECTION-A phase
1. The correct sequence of sub stages of prophase 5. If there are 20 chromosomes in G1 phase, then
I is what will be the number of biv alents and
(1) Leptotene  Pachytene  Zygotene  chromatids in zygotene stage ?
Diplotene  Diakinesis
(2) Leptotene  Zygotene  Pachytene  Bivalents Chromatids
Diplotene  Diakinesis (1) 10 40
(3) Leptotene  Zygot ene  Diplotene  (2) 10 20
Diakinesis  Pachytene (3) 20 40
(4) Zygotene  Leptotene  Diplotene  (4) 20 20
Diakinesis  Pachytene
6. What will be the amount of DNA in meiosis I
2. Find the incorrect match product if the meiocyte has 50pg DNA in G 2
(1) Prophase — Chromatin condensation begins phase?
(2) Metaphase — Chromosomes align themselves (1) 50 pg
to equator (2) 25 pg
(3) Anaphase — Chromatids move towards the (3) 12.5 pg
poles
(4) 100 pg
(4) Telophase — Splitting of centromere takes
place 7. Read the following statements and select the
correct option.
3. What will be the total number of mitotic divisions
required in the formation of 128 daughter cells A. Nucleic acid is synthesized during S phase in
from 1 parent cell ? a eukaryotic cell.
(1) 32 (2) 64 B. The complex formed by a pair of synapsed
homologous chromosomes is called bivalent.
(3) 128 (4) 127
(1) Only statement A is correct
4. During interkinesis, there is
(2) Only statement B is correct
(1) No duplication of centrioles in animal cell
(3) Both statements A and B are correct
(2) No synthesis of RNA and proteins
(4) Both statements A and B are incorrect
(3) No replication of DNA
NCERT Hot Spot Chapter-02
8. Match the items of column I with those of column 11. Mitosis is called equational division because
II and select the correct option
(1) The parent cell is divided into two daughter
Column-I Column-II cells of same size
A. Dissolution of (i) Zygotene (2) Daughter cells are identical in shape
synaptonemal (3) Daughter cells have uniformly and equally
complex distributed cellular content
B. Cell plate (ii) Anaphase I (4) Daughter cells have the same number of
formation chromosomes as that of parent cell
C. Formation of (iii) Diplotene
12. Match the following columns and select the
bivalents correct option.
D. Separation of (iv) Cytokinesis in plant
homologous cell
chromosomes Column-I Column-II
a. Zygotene (i) Exchange of genetic
(1) A (iii), B (iv), C (i), D (ii)
material between
(2) A (iii), B (ii), C (i), D (iv) homologous
(3) A (i), B (iv), C (iii), D (ii) chromosomes
b. Pachytene (ii) Terminalisation of
(4) A (i), B (ii), C (iii), D (iv)
chiasmata
9. Which of the following statements is correct about c. Diplotene (iii) Pairing of homologous
crossing over of genetic material during cell Chromosomes
division ? d. Diakinesis (iv) Dissolution of
(1) It occurs between non-sister chromatids of synaptonemal complex
homologous chromosomes during pachytene
stage (1) a (iii), b (i), c (iv), d (ii)
(2) It occurs between sister chromatids of a (2) a (iii), b (i), c (ii), d (iv)
chromosome during pachytene stage
(3) a (i), b (iii), c (iv), d (ii)
(3) It occurs between non-sister chromatids after
(4) a (i), b (iii), c (ii), d (iv)
chiasmata is formed
13. G1 phase corresponds to the interval between
(4) It occurs between sister chromatids after
mitosis and initiation of DNA replication. During G1
chiasmata is formed
phase
10. In an equational divsion, the correct sequence of
(1) Cell duplicates its DNA
events is
(2) 2C amount of DNA increases to 4C
(1) Condensation of chromosomes 
disappearance of nuclear membrane  (3) Centriole duplication occurs in cytoplasm
crossing over  segregation of chromatids 
(4) Cell is metabolically active
cytokinesis
14. During cell cycle, phase between G 1 and G 2
(2) Condensation of chromosomes 
phases is characterised by duplication of which cell
reappearance of nuclear membrane 
organelle ?
arrangement of chromosomes at the equator
 cytokinesis  movement of chromosomes (1) Centriole (2) Mitochondria
towards opposite poles (3) Golgi body (4) Chloroplast
(3) Disappearance of nuclear membrane  15. A bivalent in a cell consists of
disappearance of spindle fibres  cytokinesis
 karyokinesis  formation of cell plate (1) 1 chromosome and 2 chromatids
(4) Condensation of chromosomes  (2) 2 chromosomes and 4 chromatids
disappearance of nuclear membrane  (3) 4 chromosomes and 4 chromatids
arrangement of chromosomes at equator 
movement of chromosomes to opposite poles (4) 2 chromosomes and 2 chromatids
 cytokinesis

2
NCERT Hot Spot Chapter-02
16. The stage known as dictyotene in oocytes of some 21. A cell has 4 chromosomes (made up of 20 pg of
vertebrates shows DNA) in its G 1 phase. The number of
chromosomes and the amount of DNA in this cell
(1) Formation of synaptonemal complex at its G2 phase will be respectively
(2) Dissolution of synaptonemal complex (1) 2 and 20 pg (2) 8 and 40 pg
(3) Terminalisation of chiasmata (3) 4 and 20 pg (4) 4 and 40 pg
(4) Pairing of homologous chromosomes 22. Consider the following phase of mitotic cell
division.
17. Intrameiotic interphase is a resting phase between
meiosis-I and meiosis-II in which
(1) DNA replicates
(2) Centriole pair replicate in animal cells
(3) Chromosomes elongate to form chromatin
(4) RNA and proteins are not synthesised The characteristic feature of that phase which
occurs just after the phase shown above is
18. Select the correct order of different stages of M
phase of equational division (1) Disintegration of nuclear membrane
(1) Leptotene  Zygotene  Pachytene  (2) Congression of “chromosome” on the spindle
Diplotene equator
(2) Anaphase  Metaphase  Prophase  (3) Splitting of centromere
Telophase (4) Crossing over
(3) Prophase  Metaphase  Anaphase  23. Match the following columns and select the
Telophase correct option
(4) Diplotene  Leptotene  Pachytene  Column-I Column-II
Zygotene
a. Zygotene (i) Chromatids reach the
19. Select the incorrect match poles
b. Telophase I (ii) Final stage of meiosis I
(1) Karyokinesis – Division of the nucleus
c. Diakinesis (iii) Homologous
(2) G1 phase – Cells continuously grow
chromosomes start
(3) Cytokinesis – Division of cytoplasm pairing together
(4) G0 phase – Protein synthesis stops d. Telophase II (iv) Terminalisation of
chiasmata
20. Read the following statements. (1) a (ii), b (iii), c (iv), d (i)
i. The process of cytokinesis is same in animal (2) a (iii), b (ii), c (i), d (iv)
cell and plant cell
(3) a (iii), b (ii), c (iv), d (i)
ii. Nucleolus is reformed in telophase of mitotic
division (4) a (iv), b (i), c (iii), d (ii)

iii. Cytokinesis marks the beginning of the cell 24. A diploid cell (2n = 24, DNA content 2C at G1,
cycle phase) enters the meiotic division. Identify the
correct option for chromosome number (A), DNA
iv. Karyokinesis is followed by cytokinesis content (B) in each cell and number of cell(s) (C)
The correct ones are after different stages of division.

(1) (i), (ii) and (iii) A B C

(2) (ii) and (iv) (1) G2 Phase – 24 4C 2
(3) (i), (ii) and (iv) (2) Meiosis I – 12 2C 4
(4) (i) and (iv) (3) Interkinesis – 24 4C 1
(4) Meiosis II – 12 C 4

3
NCERT Hot Spot Chapter-02
25. Meiosis II is also called equational division like 30. Morphology and shapes of the chromosomes are
mitosis, but meiosis II and mitosis differ from each best studied in __A__ and __B__ phases of cell
other in several f eatures. How many of the cycle respectively.
following features differentiate them ?
Select the correct option for A and B.
(A) Meiosis II occurs in a haploid cell while mitosis
may occur in haploid as well as diploid cell A B

(B) Meiosis II is not followed by DNA replication (1) Anaphase Metaphase

while it occurs in cells formed by mitosis (2) Metaphase Telophase
(C) In meiosis II, the two chromatids of a (3) Metaphase Anaphase
chromosome are always identical
(4) Prophase Telophase
(D) The daughter cells formed after meiosis II are
genetically similar to each other 31. If a meiocyte has 20 chromosomes and 20 pg
DNA in G1 phase then what will be the number of
(1) 4 (2) 3 chromosomes and amount of DNA in its egg cell?
(3) 2 (4) 1 Chromosomes DNA
26. How many meiotic divisions are required to (1) 10 10
produce 25 pollens ?
(2) 10 5
(1) 6 (2) 7
(3) 20 10
(3) 24 (4) 13
(4) 10 40
27. Read the following statements and mark the
correct option. 32. Select the incorrect one about interkinesis

A. Terminalisation of chiasmata takes place in (1) DNA replication

diakinesis of prophase I (2) Short lived
B. Double metaphasic plates are formed in (3) Occurs between meiosis I and meiosis II
metaphase II
(4) Proteins are synthesized
(1) Only A is incorrect
33. The APC (Anaphase Promoting Complex) if fails to
(2) Only B is incorrect work in a typical human cell, then
(3) Both A & B are correct (1) Cell will not enter S-phase
(4) Both A & B are incorrect (2) There will be no separation of sister
28. Read the given events of the cell cycle. chromatids

a. Chromosomes are thickest and clearly appear (3) DNA replication will be halted
with two chromatids (4) DNA damage will not be repaired
b. One chromatid of each chromosome attaches 34. In maize, the diploid cell has 20 chromosomes.
to spindle fibres from opposite pole. What will be the number of chromosomes in the
With the help of above features identify the stage cell of its scutellum ?
of M-phase (1) 20 (2) 40
(1) Prophase (2) Late prophase (3) 10 (4) 30
(3) Metaphase (4) Anaphase 35. All of the following take place in interkinesis,
29. Sister chromatids separate and there is splitting of except
centromere in (1) Centriole duplication
(1) Anaphase I (2) DNA replication
(2) Anaphase of mitosis (3) Protein synthesis
(3) Anaphase II (4) RNA synthesis
(4) Both (2) and (3)
4
NCERT Hot Spot Chapter-02
36. Read the following statements and select the 40. Read the following statements and choose the
correct option. correct option.
Statement A : Meiosis II is equational division. Statement A : Interphase of the cell cycle is called
resting phase.
Statement B : Mitosis can occur in both diploid as
well as haploid cells Statement B : M-phase starts with cytokinesis and
ends with karyokinesis.
(1) Only statement A is correct
(1) Only statement A is correct
(2) Only statement B is correct
(2) Only statement B is correct
(3) Both statement A and B are correct (3) Both the statements are incorrect
(4) Both statements A and B are incorrect (4) Both the statements are correct
37. Endosperm of apple seed has 51 chromosomes.
The number of chromosomes in its meiocyte SECTION-B
would be
Assertion - Reason Type Questions
(1) 51 (2) 17
In the following questions, a statement of assertion
(3) 34 (4) 24 (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R)
38. Select the incorrect match. 41. A : Centrioles duplicates in S phase
(1) Leptotene – Compaction of R : Histone protein formed in G1 phase
chromatin
42. A : DNA content reduces to half in Anaphase-II.
(2) Zygotene – Synapsis occurs
R : There is no change in number of
(3) Pachytene – Short lived as chromosomes at anaphase II
compared to
zygotene 43. A : Cells in G0 phase remain metabolically active
but fail to proliferate
(4) Diplotene – Dissolution of the
synaptonemal R : Cork cambium is normally found in G0 phase
complex 44. A : Bacterial cell divides by direct cell division.
39. The complex formed by a pair of synapsed R : During binary fission in bacteria no spindle
homologous chromosomes is called f ormation and no distinct chromosome
(1) Bivalent formation occurs.

(2) Dyad 45. A : A fertilized egg develops into embryo due to

meiosis.
(3) Univalent
R : Meiosis provides genetic variability in embryo
(4) Chiasmata development.

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5
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NCERT HOT SPOTS - 03

Topics covered :
Botany : The Living World

BOTANY

1. Mark the pair of taxonomic categories that occupy 5. Assertion : Zoological parks are ex-situ
the same position in taxonomic hierarchy conservation strategies of animals
(1) Primata, Insecta
Reason : Zoological parks are the place where live
(2) Hominidae, Dicotyledonae
wild animals are kept in protected environment
(3) Arthropoda, Angiospermae
which is made similar to their natural habitats as
(4) Diptera, Poaceae
much as possible.
2. Mark the incorrect one for taxonomical key
(1) Both assertion and reason are true and reason
(1) It is used for both plants and animals is correct explanation of assertion
(2) It is based on similarities as well as (2) Both assertion and reason are true and reason
dissimilarities is not correct explanation of assertion
(3) It is analytical in nature (3) Assertion is true and reason is false
(4) It is based on set of contrasting characters
(4) Both assertion and reason are false
generally in a pair called lead
6. The process(es) that are basic to taxonomy is/are
3. Two correct statements about Herbarium are
(1) Characterisation and classification only
A. It is a storehouse of dried, pressed and
preserved plant specimens. (2) Characterisation, identif ication and
classification only
B. It has information about the height of the plant
(3) Characterisation only
C. It provides information about the family of the
plant (4) Characterisation, identification, classification
and nomenclature
D. It does not provide local name of the plant
7. All living phenomena are due to underlying
(1) A and B (2) B and C
interactions. Properties of tissues are not present
(3) B and D (4) A and C in the constituent cells, but arise as a
4. Read the following statements and state true (T) or (1) Result of interactions among the molecular
false (F) for them. components comprising the organelle
(A) Botanical garden is in-situ conservation (2) Result of interactions among the organelles
strategy of plants only
(B) Keys are generally analytical in nature (3) Result of interactions among the constituent
A B cells
(4) Result of interactions among the organelles
(1) T T
and non-living cells
(2) T F
(3) F T
(4) F F
NCERT Hot Spot Chapter-03
8. Mark the correct statement w.r.t. binomial 13. Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t. binomial
nomenclature system nomenclature
(1) It was developed by Linnaeus
(1) Biological names are generally in Latin or
(2) Name of the author is written just after generic
latinised
name in abbreviated form
(3) The first word denoting specific epithet starts (2) The first word in a biological name represents
with a capital letter the genus while the second denotes the
(4) Biological names are generally written in bold specific epithet
9. Match the following columns and choose the (3) Both the words of a biological name are
correct option. handwritten in italics
Column I Column II (4) Genus starts with a capital letter and specific
a. Museum (i) Analytical in nature epithet with a small letter

b. Taxonomic key (ii) Quick referral 14. In order to study the food habits and behaviour of
system animals, which of the following taxonomical aid will
be helpful?
c. Flora (iii) Preserved plants
(1) Zoological parks (2) Key
and animals
(3) Museum (4) Flora
d. Herbarium (iv) Provide index to
plant species of a 15. Consider the following statements and select the
particular area ones which are correct for National Zoological
Park of Delhi.
a b c d
a : Ex-situ conservation strategy
(1) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
b : Conservation of both plants and animals
(2) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
c : Provides information of preserved animals
(3) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
d : Has living wild animals
(4) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(1) a and b (2) b and c
10. Taxonomical aid which serves as quick source of
(3) c and d (4) a and d
reference in taxonomical studies is meant for
16. In the scientific name Mangifera indica Linn., the
(1) Conservation of plants only
term Linn. indicates that
(2) Preservation of plants and animals
(1) This species was described prior to Linnaeus
(3) The storage of informations about plants found
(2) This species is endemic to particular place in
in a particular area
America
(4) The store house of collected and preserved
(3) The name of this species is derived from Latin
plant specimens
language
11. Select the odd one out w.r.t. inf ormation
(4) This species was first described by Linnaeus
mentioned on the label of Herbarium sheet
17. The science which deals with div ersity of
(1) Family of the specimen
organisms and all of their comparative and
(2) Vernacular name of the specimen evolutionary relationship amongst them is called
(3) Date of which the specimen was collected (1) Systematics (2) Ontogeny
(4) Economic importance of the family of the (3) Taxonomy (4) Phylogeny
specimen
18. Growth cannot be taken as defining property of
12. Evolutionary relationships between organisms is living organisms because
studied in __A__ which is derived from a __B__
(1) Non-living objects also exhibit growth by
word. Here A and B, respectively, are
accumulation of material on them
(1) A : Systematics, B : Latin
(2) Unicellular organisms do not show growth
(2) A : Systematics, B : Greek
(3) Only few multicellular organisms show growth
(3) A : Taxonomy, B : Latin (4) Growth and reproduction are mutually inclusive
(4) A : Taxonomy, B : Greek events in all organisms
[2]
NCERT Hot Spot Chapter-03
19. The name Mangifera indica Linn, does not indicate __A__ __B__
that (1) Poales Vegetative characters
(1) It is either derived from Latin or latinised (2) Polymoniales Floral characters
(3) Sapindales Vegetative characters
(2) It is named under binomial nomenclature
(4) Anacardiaceae Leaf characters
system 27. Which of the following are not defining features of
(3) This species was first described by Linnaeus all life forms?
(1) Cellular organization and metabolism
(4) This name varies from place to place
(2) Consciousness and cellular organisation
20. The words systematics and taxonomy respectively (3) Reproduction and growth
are derived from (4) Metabolism and consciousness
(1) English and Latin languages 28. Read the following statements and select the
incorrect one.
(2) Latin and Greek languages
(1) Systematics is derived from word systema
(3) Greek and Latin languages which means systematic arrangement of
organisms
(4) Latin and English languages
(2) The word systematics is derived from Greek
21. The name Pisum sativum Linn. word
(1) Is binomial epithet of pea (3) The classical taxonomy is based on
(2) Is used in some specific parts of world observable morphological characters
(3) Is name of pea named under rules of trinomial (4) The book ‘Systema Naturae’ was written by
nomenclature Carolus Linnaeus
29. Read the following statements and select the
(4) Is English name of pea correct option.
22. The scientific names ensure that each organisms Statement A : Key is a taxonomic aid f or
has identification of specimens.
(1) Two names – one local and one taxonomic Statement B : Herbarium houses dried, pressed
name and preserved plant specimens.
(2) Two means – one vernacular and one Latin (1) Only statement A is correct
name (2) Only statement B is correct
(3) A name that has been used for other known (3) Both statements A and B are correct
organism (4) Both statements A and B are incorrect
(4) Only one name, which is universally accepted 30. Which of the following taxonomical aids is ‘ex-situ’
conservation strategy for animals and plants
23. In-vitro metabolic reactions respectively?
(1) Are not possible (1) Museum and herbarium
(2) Occur inside the living body (2) Botanical garden and museum
(3) Are living reactions (3) Zoological Park and botanical garden
(4) Are non-living reactions (4) Monograph and flora
24. Select the correct option w.r.t. botanical gardens 31. Read statements given below and select the
correct option.
(1) Information about one taxon
A. Unicellular organisms reproduce by cell
(2) Index to all plants species of an area division
(3) Ex-situ conservation strategies B. In unicellular organisms growth and
(4) Store of house of preserved plant specimens reproduction are mutually exclusive events
25. Members at which of the following taxa show (1) Both statements A and B are incorrect
maximum and minimum common characters (2) Both statements A and B are correct
respectively? (3) Only statement A is correct
(1) Phylum and species (4) Only statement B is correct
(2) Division and kingdom 32. What do A and B respectively represent in the
(3) Genus and order given scientific name ?
(4) Species and kingdom Mangifera indica
26. Plant families like Convolvulaceae and Solanaceae B A
are included in the order __A__ on the basis of (1) Author’s name and species name
__B__. (2) Specific epithet and generic name
Select the correct option to fill in the blanks A and (3) Generic name and author’s name
B (4) Generic name and specific epithet
[3]
NCERT Hot Spot Chapter-03
33. Mark the odd one w.r.t defining feature of living Assertion - Reason Type Questions
organisms
In the following questions, a statement of assertion
(1) Consciousness (2) Metabolism
(A) is followed by a statement of reason (R)
(3) Intrinsic growth (4) Reproduction
(1) If both Assertion & Reason are true and the
34. The label of a herbarium sheet does not carry
information of reason is the correct explanation of the
assertion, then mark (1).
(1) Name of the collector
(2) Common name of plant (2) If both Assertion & Reason are true but the
reason is not the correct explanation of the
(3) Scientific name of plant
assertion, then mark (2).
(4) Height of the plant
(3) If Assertion is true statement but Reason is
35. Select the incorrect statement about rules of
biological nomenclature false, then mark (3).
(1) Specific epithet should start with small letter (4) If both Assertion and Reason are f alse
(2) If handwritten then scientific names should be statements, then mark (4).
underlined separately 39. A : In unicellular organisms, growth and
(3) Biological names are generally taken from reproduction are mutually inclusive events.
Latin language
R : By cell division, reproduction of the individual
(4) Each organism may have two scientific name
also occurs.
consisting of single word only
36. Read the following statements and select the 40. A : Metabolic reactions can be demonstrated in
correct option. cell free system.
Statement A : Plant families like Convolvulaceae R : Metabolism is a non defining feature.
and Solanaceae are included in order Sapindales
41. A : Photoperiod affects reproduction in seasonal
Statement B : Mango is a member of family
Anacardiaceae breeders.
(1) Both statements are correct R : They can sense and respond to stimuli.
(2) Both statements are incorrect 42. A : The science of classifying organisms is called
(3) Only statement A is correct taxonomy.
(4) Only statement B is correct R : Systematics is taxonomy alongwith phylogeny.
37. Match the items given in column I with those in
column II and select the correct option 43. A : Plant f amilies like conv olv ulaceae and
Column I Column II solanaceae are included in the same order
a. Flora (i) Usef ul in prov iding polymoniales.
inf ormation f or R : The common feature of these families is
identification of names of similar vegetative characters only.
species found in an area
b. Manuals (ii) Contain information on 44. A : Lower the taxa, more are the characteristics
any one taxon that the members within the taxa share.
c. Monographs (iii) Are generally analytical in R : Members of the same species show maximum
nature specificity.
d. Keys (iv) Contains the actual
45. A : Taxonomic categories are indistinct biological
account of habitat and
distribution of plants of a entities and are merely morphological
given area. aggregates.
(1) a-(i), b-(iii), c-(ii), d-(iv) R : The basic unit of classification is species.
(2) a-(iv), b-(i), c-(ii), d-(iii)
46. A : Two contrasting characters are used in a key.
(3) a-(i), b-(iv), c-(ii), d-(iii)
R : By selection and elimination of the characters,
(4) a-(iv), b-(i), c-(iii), d-(ii)
one can quickly find out the name of the
38. The contrasting characters present in a pair, used
in a taxonomical aid, is referred to as organism.
(1) Key (2) Lead
(3) Couplet (4) Manual

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[4]
 Corp. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005
Ph.: 011-47623456 Fax : 011-47623472

NCERT HOT SPOT - 04

Topics covered :
Botany : Biological Classification

BOTANY

1. In five kingdom classification system 4. Select the odd one w.r.t slime moulds
a. Prokaryotes are placed in one kingdom only (1) Saprophytic protists
b. Organisms with cell wall are grouped in four (2) Produce spores under favourable conditions
kingdoms (3) Their spores possess true cell wall
c. Autotrophic organisms are kept in two (4) Form an aggregation called plasmodium
kingdoms only 5. The fungus responsible for forming white spots on
d. Nuclear membrane is seen in members of all mustard leaves
the five kingdoms a. Belongs to class Phycomycetes
Choose the incorrect ones b. Is a parasite
(1) a and b (2) b and c c. Has septate hyphae
(3) c and d (4) a and c d. Has short dikaryophase
2. Mark the wrongly matched pair Choose the incorrect one(s).
(1) Methanogens – Produce biogas (1) c only (2) b and c
(2) Nostoc – Fix atmospheric nitrogen (3) c and d only (4) a, c and d
(3) Mycoplasma – Pathogenic to plants 6. Both zoospores and sporangiospores are
(4) Gonyaulax – Produces diatomaceous earth (1) Motile spores
3. Match the given columns and select the correct (2) Produced endogeneously in sporangium
option (3) Diploid spores
Column I Column II (4) Produced by club fungi
Fresh water wall less 7. Mark the features similar between morels and
a. Diatom (i) Agaricus
protist
b. Dinoflagellate (ii) Smallest living cells a. Form edible fruiting bodies
c. Euglena (iii) Red tide formation b. Presence of dikaryophase
d. Mycoplasma (iv) Soap box like body c. Mainly reproduce by asexual spores
d. Exogeneously produce meiospores
a b c d (1) a and b only
(1) iv ii iii i (2) a, b and c
(2) iii iv ii i (3) b, c and d
(3) iv iii i ii (4) c and d only
(4) iii i ii iv
NCERT Hot Spot Chapter-04
8. Mark the incorrect match. (3) Members of kingdom Monera exhibit
Fungus Used as/in heterotrophic mode of nutrition
(1) Yeast – Bread and beer (4) Two kingdom classification distinguishes
production between prokaryotes and eukaryotes

(2) Aspergillus – Source of many 13. Archaebacteria differ from other bacteria in having
alkaloids and LSD a different ___________ and this feature is
responsible for their survival in extreme conditions.
(3) Truffle – Edible delicacy
Choose the correct option to fill in the blank.
(4) Neurospora – Biochemical and
(1) Nucleus structure
genetic work
(2) Mode of nutrition
9. Match the following columns and select the
correct option. (3) Cell wall structure
(4) Cytoplasm composition
Column I Column II 14. Heterocysts are thick walled cells especially for
Multiply rapidly and nitrogen fixation, present in
a. Nostoc (i)
make the sea appear red
(1) Anabaena
Mixotrophic mode of
b. Amoeba (ii) (2) Azospirillum
nutrition
c. Gonyaulax (iii) Heterocyst (3) Nitrococcus
d. Euglena (iv) Freshwater heterotrophs (4) Rhizobium
15. Chrysophytes
a b c d
(1) Include diatoms and dinoflagellates
(1) iii iv i ii (2) Are found in marine environments only
(3) Are microscopic planktons
(2) iv i ii iii
(4) Have well defined nucleus without nuclear
(3) iii iv ii i membrane and nucleolus
(4) ii iii iv i
16. Choose the incorrect match.
10. Statement A : Dinoglagellates are mostly fresh (1) Archaebacteria – Spirulina
water organisms.
(2) Red tides of sea – Gonyaulax
Statement B : Chrysophytes are found in fresh as
(3) Chief producers – Diatoms
well as marine water.
in the oceans
Read the above statements and select the correct
(4) Pellicle makes the – Euglena
option.
body flexible
(1) Only statement A is incorrect
17. Euglena are characterised by all of the given,
(2) Only statement B is incorrect
except
(3) Both the statements A and B are incorrect
(1) Found in fresh and stagnant water
(4) Both the statements A and B are correct (2) They are only autotrophic
11. Viroids were/are (3) Cell wall is absent
(1) Discovered by T.O. Diener (4) Chlorophyll a and chlorophyll b pigments are
(2) Casual agent of tabacco mosaic disease present
(3) Known to cause diseases mostly in animals 18. Which of the following diseases is not caused by
prions?
(4) Viruses without genetic material
(1) Mad cow disease
12. Which of the following statements is correct ?
(2) Bovine spongiform encephalopathy (BSE)
(1) Two kingdom classif ication system was
(3) Potato spindle tuber diseases (PSTD)
developed by Aristotle
(4) CJD (Cr-Jacob disease)
(2) Bacteria are the sole members of kingdom
Protista
[2]
NCERT Hot Spot Chapter-04
19. Match the following columns and select the 24. Methanogens are
correct option. (1) Bacteria of marshy habitats
Column I Column II (2) Found in the guts of non-ruminants only
a. Randle et. al. (i) Contagium v iv um (3) Photoautotrophic
fluidum
(4) Obligate aerobes
b. M.W. Beijerinek (ii) Crystallisation of
25. The plant character in Euglena is presence of
TMV
(1) Cell wall around sexual spores
c. W.M. Stanley (iii) Discovered Viroids
(2) Contractile vacuole
d. T.O. Diener (iv) Discovered Virusoids
(3) Longitudinal binary fission
(1) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii) (2) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
(3) a(iv), b(ii), c(i), d(iii) (4) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i) (4) Photoautotrophic nutrition

20. How many kingdoms of Whittaker’s five kingdom 26. How many of the f ollowing are the criteria
considered for classification by R.H. Whittaker?
classification system exhibit both autotrophic as
well as heterotrophic mode of nutrition? (i) Mode of nutrition (ii) Cell structure

(1) Two (2) Three (iii) Mode of respiration (iv) Reproduction

(v) Body organisation
(3) Four (4) Five
(1) One (2) Six
21. Read the following characteristics of fungi
(3) Four (4) Five
(i) Asexual reproduction takes place by 27. Unicellular organisms were not differentiated from
aplanospores the multicellular ones, in
(ii) Mitospores are endogeneously produced (1) Two kingdom classification
(2) Three kingdom classification
(iii) Mycelium is aseptate and coenocytic
(3) Four kingdom classification
Select the class of fungi, which have all the above
characteristics (4) Five kingdom classification
28. Select the correct option regarding Whittaker’s
(1) Phycomycetes (2) Ascomycetes system of classification.
(3) Basidiomycetes (4) Deuteromycetes A. Autotrophic organisms are found in three
kingdoms
22. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t viruses.
B. Nuclear membrane and eukaryotic cell type
(1) No virus contains both RNA and DNA are found in four kingdoms
(2) Bacterial virus and bacteriophages, usually (1) Only A is incorrect
have dsDNA (2) Only B is incorrect
(3) A virus causes potato spindle tuber disease (3) Both A and B are correct
(4) Viruses are obligate parasites (4) Both A and B are incorrect
23. Read the following statement 29. During the laboratory work, a researcher observed
I. Heterotrophic mode of nutrition is found in certain features of a fresh water organism under
members of four kingdoms the microscope which are written below. Identify
the organism with the help of these features.
II. Presence of nuclear membrane is seen in
members of four kingdoms a. Unicellular
III. Cellulosic cell wall is present in members of all b. Flagellated protist
the five kingdoms c. Chlorophyll – a & b
IV. Multicellularity can be seen in three kingdoms (1) Gonyaulax (2) Gymnodinium
Considering Whittaker’s classification, mark the (3) Euglena (4) Desmid
correct set of statements.
(1) I and III (2) I and IV
(3) II and III (4) I, II and IV

[3]
NCERT Hot Spot Chapter-04
30. Nostoc is characterised by the presence of 36. R.H. Whittaker classified the living organisms on
the basis of many criteria. Which of the following
(1) Flagella
was not amongst them?
(2) Sexual reproduction
(1) Sequence of 16S ribosomal RNA genes
(3) Well defined nucleus
(2) Mode of nutrition
(4) Heterocyst
(3) Phylogenetic relationship
31. Read the following statements and select the
(4) Thallus organisation
correct option.
A. White spots seen on mustard leaves are due 37. Select the incorrect statement from the following.
to a parasitic fungus. (1) Bacteria are the sole members of kingdom
B. Fungi show great diversity in morphology and Monera
habitat (2) Bacteria are the most abundant micro
(1) Only A is correct organisms

(2) Only B is correct (3) Bacteria cannot survive in extreme habitats

(3) Both A and B are correct (4) Structure of bacteria are very simple

(4) Both A and B are incorrect 38. During unfavourable conditions, the plasmodium
differentiates and forms fruiting bodies. This
32. Select one, which is correctly matched statement is true regarding a
(1) Red tide – Red algae (1) Flagellated protist
(2) Pellicle – Euglena (2) Saprophytic protist
(3) Fruiting body formation – Under favourable (3) Sporozoan
in slime moulds conditions (4) Photosynthetic protist
(4) Entamoeba – Autotrophic protist 39. Select the feature which is not true w.r.t member
33. Read the following statements and choose the of Basidiomycetes
option for correct ones. (1) Asexual spores are generally not formed
a. Corprophilous fungi grow on dung (2) Meiospores are produced exogenously
b. Cell wall in sac fungi is chitinous (3) Gametes are always formed in well developed
c. Conidia are asexual spores generally found in sex organs
basidiomycetes (4) Dikaryophase is long lived and dominant
d. Deuteromycetes reproduce only by asexual phase of life cycle
spores. 40. W hich of the f ollowing options does not
(1) Only a and b (2) a, b and c differentiate between conidia and zoospore?
(3) Only c and d (4) a, b and d
Zoospore Conidia
34. Autotrophic protists hav ing their cell wall
embedded with silica are
(1) Flagellated Non-flagellated
(1) Dinoflagellate
(2) Motile Non-motile
(2) Chief producers of oceans
(3) Endogenous Exogenous
(3) Euglenoids Formed under Formed under
(4) Exclusively found in marshy areas (4) favourable unfavourable conditions
35. In the two kingdom classification system proposed conditions only only
by Linnaeus, kingdom Plantae includes
(1) Only those organisms which can perform 41. Chlorophyll a and c are found in
photosynthesis (1) Euglena (2) Dinoflagellates
(2) All those organisms that have cell wall (3) Diatoms (4) Both (2) and (3)
(3) All unicellular organisms
(4) Only multicellular green plants

[4]
NCERT Hot Spot Chapter-04
42. Select the mismatch from the following options. assertion, then mark (2).
(1) Forms bloom in polluted water bodies – (3) If Assertion is true statement but Reason is
Cyanobacteria false, then mark (3).
(2) Presence of cell wall – Mycoplasma (4) If both Assertion and Reason are f alse
statements, then mark (4).
(3) Help in making curd – Heterotrophic bacteria
(4) Heterocysts – Anabaena 44. A : Euglena, Chlamydomonas are organisms
having properties of both plants and animals.
43. Select the incorrect match w.r.t examples of
classes of fungi R : Boundaries of kingdom protista are not well
defined.
(1) Phycomycetes – Albugo, Colletotrichum
45. A : Bacteria, as a group, show the most extensive
(2) Basidiomycetes – Ustilago, Puccinia metabolic diversity.
(3) Deuteromycetes – Trichoderma, Alternaria
R : They have a simple structure, and are simple
(4) Ascomycetes – Neurospora, Claviceps in behaviour.
Assertion - Reason Type Questions 46. A : Viruses are non-cellular.
In the following questions, a statement of assertion R : Viruses possess protein coat.
(A) is followed by a statement of reason (R)
(1) If both Assertion & Reason are true and the
reason is the correct explanation of the
assertion, then mark (1).
(2) If both Assertion & Reason are true but the
reason is not the correct explanation of the

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[5]
 Corp. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005
Ph.: 011-47623456 Fax : 011-47623472

NCERT HOT SPOT - 05

Topics covered :
Botany : Morphology of Flowering Plants

BOTANY

1. Thorns in Citrus A B C D
(1) Develop from internodes (1) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
(2) Are modified leaf base (2) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(3) Are organs of perennation (3) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(4) Protect the plant from browsing animals (4) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
2. The function of roots that grow vertically upwards 5. Select the mismatched pair w.r.t stamen.
in plants such as Rhizophora is to
(1) Epipetalous – Brinjal
(1) Provide support to heavy branches
(2) Epitepalous – Mustard
(2) Store f ood reserv e in the f orm of
(3) Diadelphous – Pea
carbohydrates
(4) Polyadelphous – Citrus
(3) Get water and minerals from the surroundings
6. In roots, cells are thin walled, very small with
(4) Get oxygen from air for respiration
dense protoplasm and undifferentiated in the
3. In which of the following aspects, flowers of lily and
(1) Region of meristematic activity
mustard are said to be similar.
(2) Region of elongation
(a) Presence of both male and female sex organs
(3) Region of root hair
(b) Clear cut distinction between calyx and corolla
(c) Epipetalous condition of stamens (4) Region of maturation
(d) Six stamens in a flower 7. The different whorls of a flower remain arranged
successively on the swollen end of the pedicel
The correct one(s) is/are
called
(1) (a) and (d) (2) (a) only (1) Bract (2) Thalamus
(3) (a), (c) and (d) (4) (b) and (d) (3) Peduncle (4) Stipule
4. Match the following columns and choose the
8. Papilionaceous corolla is the floral character of
correct option.
(1) Soyabean (2) Mustard
Column-I Column-II
(3) Brinjal (4) Aloe
A. Stipule (i) Stalk of flower
B. Rachis (ii) Modified leaf
C. Spine (iii) Small leaf-like structure
D. Pedicel (iv) Common axis in pinnately
compound leaf
NCERT Hot Spot Chapter-05
9. Match the following columns and choose the 13. In ray florets of sunflower
correct option
a. Ovary is inferior.
Column-I Column-II
a. Hypogynous flower (i) Peach b. Flower is said to be hypogynous.
b. Epigynous flower (ii) Superior ovary c. Ovary occupies highest position.
c. Perigynous flower (iii) Inferior ovary Choose the correct one(s)
(1) a(iii), b(i), c(ii) (2) a(ii), b(iii), c(i) (1) a only (2) a and b
(3) a(iii), b(ii), c(i) (4) a(i), b(iii), c(ii) (3) b and c (4) b only
10. Read the given statements and identify them as 14. Identify the feature not true for mango fruit.
true(T) or false(F) (1) Develops from monocarpellary ovary
A. Pneumatophores help to get oxygen f or
(2) Mostly one seeded
respiration.
(3) Has fleshy, juicy mesocarp
B. Sugarcane has stilt roots as supporting roots
coming out of the lower nodes of the stem. (4) Endocarp is fibrous edible part
C. The region of stem where leaves are borne is 15. Identify the medicinal plant of Fabaceae family.
called internode. (1) Lupin (2) Indigofera
D. In Citrus, thorns are modified axillary buds. (3) Muliathi (4) Sesbania
A B C D 16. W hich of the given symbols is used in floral
(1) T F T F formula to represent epipetalous stamens?
(2) T T F T
(1) P A (2) C A
(3) F F T T
(4) F T F T (3) C(n) (4) K A
11. Match the columns and select the correct option 17. Find the wrongly matched pair.
Column I Column II (1) Alternate phyllotaxy – Sunflower
a. Epipetalous stamen (i) Lotus (2) Pinnately compound leaves – Silk cotton
b. Apocarpous (ii) Brinjal (3) Whorled phyllotaxy – Alstonia
(4) Opposite phyllotaxy – Guava
gynoecium
18. Match the Column-I with Column-II and choose the
c. Basal placentation (iii) Tomato
correct option.
d. Syncarpous (iv) Sunflower
Column-I Column-II
gynoecium
(a) False fruit (i) Black pepper
(1) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i)
(b) Perisperm (ii) Banana
(2) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii)
(c) Parthenocarpic fruit (iii) Castor
(3) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii)
(d) Albuminous seed (iv) Strawberry
(4) a(i), b(iv), c(iii), d(ii)
(1) a – (iv), b – (i), c – (ii), d – (iii)
12. Mark the option that incorrectly differentiates (2) a – (ii), b – (iv), c – (iii), d – (i)
between racemose and cymose inflorescence. (3) a – (iv), b – (iii), c – (i), d – (ii)
Racemose Cymose (4) a – (iii), b – (ii), c – (i), d – (iv)
inflorescence inflorescence
(1) Main axis terminates Main axis grow
19. The floral formula O K (5) C(5) A 5 G (2) is true for
into flower always +
(2) Flowers borne in Flowers borne in (1) The members of potato family
acropetal order basipetal order (2) The plant from which colchicine is obtained
(3) Older flowers are Older flower is at (3) The plants that have parallel venation in their
leaves
present at the base top
(4) The plants that have tetramerous flowers
(4) Main axis shows Main axis shows
unlimited growth limited growth

[2]
NCERT Hot Spot Chapter-05
20. Match the following columns and choose the Column-I Column-II
correct option. (Placentation) (Example)
Column I Column II a. Parietal (i) Sunflower
A. Watermelon (i) Leaf tendrils b. Axile (ii) Pea
c. Marginal (iii) Argemone
B. Citrus (ii) Offsets
d. Basal (iv) Lemon
C. Pisum (iii) Stem tendrils
(1) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv) (2) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i)
D. Eichhornia (iv) Thorns (3) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii) (4) a(i), b(iv), c(ii), d(iii)
A B C D
27. If one margin of the sepal or petal overlaps that of
(1) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
the next one and so on, it is called
(2) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(1) Valvate aestivation (2) Twisted aestivation
(3) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(3) Imbricate aestivation (4) Vexillary aestivation
(4) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
28. In bean, largest posterior petal is called
21. The cylindrical stalk that joins the leaf base with
(1) Standard (2) Wings
leaf blade is called
(1) Rachis (2) Petiole (3) Keel (4) Alae
(3) Midrib (4) Pedicel 29. Monoadelphous condition of stamens is found in
22. In racemose inflorescence (1) Pea (2) Citrus
(a) Shoot axis continues to grow (3) China rose (4) Sesbania
(b) Younger flowers are present towards the apex 30. In which of the following plants, leaves modify into
(c) Flowers are borne in a basipetal order spines?
The correct one(s) is/are (1) Sweet pea (2) Citrus
(1) (b) and (c) only (2) (a) only (3) Aloe (4) Pumpkins
(3) All (a), (b) and (c) (4) (a) and (b) only 31. Scutellum is
(1) Remnant of nucellus
23. How many of the following statements is/are
correct? (2) A sheath that encloses plumute
(3) Single large shield shaped cotyledon in
A. Gametophyte is haploid in pteridophyte. monocot seed
B. Sporophyte is haploid in bryophyte. (4) Endosperm of monocot seed

C. Algae are haploid with diploid stage

represented by zygote. 32. In a floral formula, P (3+3) A 3+3 represents
s
(1) Attachment of petals with androecium
D. Bryophyte produce dipoid spore.
(2) Cohesion of stamens
(1) 1 (2) 2
(3) Epitepalous condition of stamens
(3) 3 (4) 4
(4) Epipetalous condition of stamens
24. Which of the following features is not true w.r.t.
pea plant? 33. Sterile stamen is called

(1) Roots have nodules that contain Rhizobium (1) Phyllode (2) Staminode
(2) Fruits are legume (3) Phyllome (4) Cauloid
(3) Flowers are zygomorphic 34. Which one is odd w.r.t. drupe type of fruit?
(4) Placentation is parietal (1) Endocarp is stony hard
25. Conjoint type of vascular bundles are commonly (2) In mango, edible part is fleshy mesocarp
found in (3) Develops from multicarpellary inferior ovary
(1) Both stem & leaves (2) Both stem & roots (4) In coconut, mesocarp is fibrous
(3) Both roots & leaves (4) Only stem
26. Match the column-I with column-II and choose the
correct option.
[3]
NCERT Hot Spot Chapter-05
35. Which one is not correctly matched? 40. Read the following statements and choose the
(1) Offset – Eichhornia option which is true for them.
(2) Sucker – Chrysanthemum Statement-I : Leaves of dicotyledonous plants
(3) Runner – Pistia generally possess reticulate venation.
(4) Stolon – Jasmine Statement-II : Dicot leaves lack stipule
36. In below given characters, which one is common (1) Only statement-I is correct
among families Fabaceae, Solanaceae and (2) Only statement-II is correct
Liliaceae? (3) Both the statements are correct
(1) Zygomorphic flower (4) Both the statements are incorrect
(2) Aestivation type in corolla
41. Select the correct option for examples of plants
(3) Superior ovary w.r.t. cohesion of stamens.
(4) Number of calyx
Monoadelphous Diadelphous Polyadelphous
37. Match the following columns and choose the
correct option. 1) Mustard China rose Pea
Column-I Column-II 2) Pea Citrus Mustard
a. Sunhemp (i) Solanaceae
3) Citrus Mustard China rose
b. Gloriosa (ii) Fabaceae
c. Belladona (iii) Liliaceae 4) China rose Pea Citrus

(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii) (2) a(ii), b(iii), c(i) 42. Select correct options w.r.t. algin
(3) a(iii), b(ii), c(i) (4) a(i), b(iii), c(ii) (1) It is similar is structure with amylopectin
38. Read the given statements and identify them as (2) It is obtained from red algae
true(T) or false(F) (3) It is present in cell wall of phaeophyceae
(4) It has no water holding capacity
A. Pneumatophores help to get oxygen f or
respiration. 43. Underground stem is not modified to store food in
(1) Ginger (2) Onion
B. Sugarcane has stilt roots as supporting roots
coming out of the lower nodes of the stem. (3) Potato (4) Turmeric
44. The fleshy f lattened (i) in Opuntia is
C. The region of stem where leaves are borne is
photosynthetic and is called (ii) .
called internode.
Select the correct option to fill in the blanks (i) and
D. In Citrus, thorns are modified axillary buds. (ii).
A B C D (i) (ii)
(1) T F T F (1) Stem Phyllode
(2) T T F T (2) Leaf Phylloclade
(3) F F T T (3) Stem Phylloclade
(4) F T F T (4) Leaf Stolon
39. Select incorrect match 45. Single leaf is present at each node in an alternate
(1) Opposite phyllotaxy – Calotropis fashion in
(2) Leaf tendril – Pea (1) Nerium (2) Calotropis
(3) China rose (4) Guava
(3) Expanded green petiole – Australian Acacia
(4) Cymose inflorescence – Acropetal
succession of
flowers

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 Corp. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005
Ph.: 011-47623456 Fax : 011-47623472

NCERT HOT SPOT - 06

Topics covered :
Botany : Anatomy of Flowering Plants

BOTANY

(4) Cambium is absent between xylem and

SECTION-A phloem
Objective Type Questions 4. Match the following columns and choose the
1. Identify the following statements as true (T) or correct option.
false (F) and choose the option accordingly. Column I Column II
A. The first formed primary xylem is called A. Casparian strip (i) Deposition of suberin
metaxylem.
B. Pericycle (ii) Innermost layer of cortex
B. In stems of flowering plants, protoxylem lies
towards pith. C. Endodermis (iii) Absent in roots
C. Exarch condition is found in roots of flowering D. Hypodermis (iv) A part of stele
plants. A B C D
A B C (1) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
(1) F T F (2) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(2) T F T (3) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)
(3) F T T (4) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(4) T T F 5. Late wood is different from early wood as the
2. Regarding conjunctive tissue, choose the correct former
option. (1) Is formed when cambium is very active
(1) It is composed of sclerenchymatous cells (2) Has fewer xylary elements
(2) It is absent in roots (3) Has vessels with wider lumens
(3) It is present between the patches of xylem and (4) Requires more water for its formation
phloem 6. The role of bulliform cells is to
(4) It is present in cortex just below the (1) Help in the rolling of leaves during drought
hypodermis
(2) Regulate the transport of water within the plant
3. The vascular bundles are said to be open when
(3) Create transpiration pull for absorption of water
(1) Cambium is present in between xylem and and minerals
phloem
(4) Secrete chemicals for protecting leaves from
(2) Xylem and phloem are present on same radii leaf-eating insects
(3) Xylem and phloem are present on different
radii
NCERT Hot Spot Chapter-06
7. Which of the following about cork cambium is (2) Xylem and phloem are jointly situated on the
correct? same radius
(1) Its activity forms the secondary xylem and (3) Cambium is present between xylem and
phloem phloem
(2) Its cells are thick-walled and circular (4) Xylem and phloem are separated by
(3) It forms the secondary cortex sclerenchymatous cells
(4) It is a type of stelar cambium 14. Select the incorrect option w.r.t. conjunctive
tissue.
8. The vertical section of a part of plant shows
following anatomical features : (1) It is made up of parenchymatous cells
A. Conjoint and closed vascular bundles. (2) It is present in between the patches of xylem
and phloem
B. A layer of thin-walled cells present around the
vascular bundles. (3) It is found only in monocotyledonous roots
C. Ground tissue is composed of photosynthetic (4) It is a part of stele
cells which is not differentiated into palisade 15. Trichomes of shoot system are all, except
and spongy parenchyma. (1) Branched or unbranched
Identify the category and part of the plant. (2) Soft or stiff
(1) Dicot leaf (2) Monocot leaf (3) Usually unicellular
(3) Dicot stem (4) Dicot root (4) Secretory
9. Choose odd one out with respect to features of 16. Select the correct statement w.r.t. conjunctive
cells of meristematic zone. tissue.
(1) Rich in protoplasm (1) It has parenchymatous cells that lie between
(2) Possess large conspicuous nuclei the xylem and phloem
(3) Lignified wall (2) It has parenchymatous cells present among
(4) Abundant plasmodesmatal connections the cells of endodermis
10. Choose the option that does not differentiate root (3) Gives rise to lateral roots
hair and trichome correctly. (4) It is present just next to endodermis
Root hair Trichome 17. Select the correct statement for conifers.
(1) Unicellular Usually multicellular (1) Have needle-like leaves which increase the
(2) Increase surface area Help to prevent surface area
for water absorption water loss (2) Have thin cuticle on leaves
(3) Arise from epidermis Arise from ground (3) Have sunken stomata
tissue (4) Have broad leaves to reduce water loss
(4) Thin walled structure Soft or stiff structure 18. Radial vascular bundles are found in
11. Metaxylem differs from protoxylem as the former (1) Stems of all angiosperms
(1) Has vessel with wider lumen (2) Stem of monocots
(2) Is secondary xylem (3) Roots of monocots
(3) Is first formed primary xylem (4) Stems of dicots
(4) Both (1) and (3) are correct 19. Cells of pericycle in case of dicotyledonous roots
give rise to
12. Intercalary meristem
(1) Only vascular cambium
(1) Is found at apex of shoot
(2) Only lateral roots
(2) Helps in secondary growth
(3) Both vascular cambium and lateral roots
(3) Adds to the length of plants
(4) Root hairs
(4) Is a secondary meristem
20. Intrafascicular vascular cambium is not a
13. Open vascular bundles are different from closed
vascular bundles as in the former (1) Lateral meristem
(1) Xylem is not present on the same radii on (2) Cylindrical meristem
which phloem is present (3) Secondary meristem
(4) Primary meristem
[2]
NCERT Hot Spot Chapter-06
21. The innermost layer of cortex is included in 30. Match the columns and choose the correct option.
(1) Epidermal tissue system Column-I Column-II
(2) Ground tissue system a. Radial vascular (i) Dicot stem
(3) Vascular tissue system bundle
(4) Both (1) and (2) b. Conjoint and open (ii) Dicot root
type vascular
22. Which of the following simple tissues form the bundle
major component within the organs?
c. Endarch xylem (iii) Monocot root
(1) Collenchyma
d. Conjunctive tissue (iv) Monocot stem
(2) Sclerenchyma
(1) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii)
(3) Parenchyma
(2) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
(4) Sclereids and fibres
(3) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)
23. Pericycle is the part of __‘A’__ and it is absent in
__‘B’__. (4) a(i), b(iv), c(ii), d(iii)
Select the correct option for A and B. 31. Select the correct match.
(1) A = Stele, B = Dicot stem (1) Starch sheath - Enodermis of root
(2) A = Stele, B = Monocot stem (2) Casparian strips - Endodermis of stem
(3) A = Ground tissue, B = Dicot root (3) Bundle sheath - Absent in all types
cells of leaves
(4) A = Ground tissue, B = Dicot stem
(4) Bulliform cells - Monocot leaf
24. Which of the following is a dedifferentiated tissue?
32. Which of the following is found in dicot leaf but
(1) Lenticel (2) Phelloderm
absent in monocot leaf?
(3) Parenchyma (4) Cork cambium
(1) Cuticle (2) Palisade
25. T.S. of a part of monocot stem shows all of the parenchyma
following, except
(3) Epidermis (4) Vascular tissues
(1) Sclerenchymatous hypodermis
33. The cells formed by activity of cork cambium
(2) Parenchymatous ground tissues towards the inner side constitute the
(3) Vascular bundles with cambium (1) Phelloderm (2) Phellogen
(4) Scattered vascular bundles (3) Periderm (4) Phellem
26. The collenchyma is mostly absent in 34. Which of the following plants should be used for
(1) Petiole of dicot leaf the study of secondary growth?
(2) Stem of dicot plant (1) Teak, Wheat (2) Mustard, Maize
(3) Both monocot and dicot stems (3) Wheat, Sugarcane (4) Mango, Peepal
(4) Monocot plants 35. Sapwood is different from heartwood, as the
27. Living mechanical tissues former
(1) Is dark coloured with low density
(1) Have thin walled cells
(2) Have no protoplasm at maturity (2) Is light coloured with high density

(3) Are group of cells having lignified cell walls (3) Conducts water

(4) Have cells that assimilate food when they (4) Does not conduct water
contain chloroplasts 36. W hich of the following structures permit the
exchange of gases between the inner tissues and
28. Anatomically, jute fibres, flax fibres and hemp
the outer atmosphere in woody stems?
fibres are
(1) Cork
(1) Xylem fibres (2) Phloem fibres
(3) Cortical fibres (4) Epidermal fibres (2) Lenticels

29. Gymnosperms have (3) Heartwood

(1) Companion cells and albuminous cells (4) Cuticularised cell walls

(2) Albuminous cells and sieve tubes

(3) Albuminous cells and sieve cells
(4) Phloem parenchyma and companion cells
[3]
NCERT Hot Spot Chapter-06
37. Which of the following statements is incorrect
w.r.t. secondary growth?
SECTION-B
(1) In the beginning, cambium ring is wavy in dicot Assertion - Reason Type Questions
root In the following questions, a statement of assertion
(2) Heartwood is dead (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R)
(3) Gymnosperms show secondary growth (1) If both Assertion & Reason are true and the
(4) Secondary xylem is formed by intercalary reason is the correct explanation of the
meristem assertion, then mark (1).
38. Primary meristem
(2) If both Assertion & Reason are true but the
(1) Is always found at the apex of plant body reason is not the correct explanation of the
(2) Can be exemplified by cork cambium assertion, then mark (2).
(3) Is responsible for primary growth and may be (3) If Assertion is true statement but Reason is
responsible for secondary growth in plants false, then mark (3).
(4) Cannot be found between two permanent
tissues (4) If both Assertion and Reason are f alse
statements, then mark (4).
39. Formation of __A__ occurs due to the activity of
secondary meristem only. 41. A : Guard cells are sclerenchymatous
Complete the above statement by choosing R : These cells possess abundant chloroplast
correct option for A.
42. A : Secondary medullary rays are present in dicot
(1) Phellem stem
(2) Secondary xylem in stem
R : Secondary medullary rays are present in
(3) Axillary bud
monocot stem
(4) Secondary phloem in stem
43. A : Trachea lacks protoplasm
40. A parenchyma tissue
R : Trachea conducts water
(1) Is made up of two types of cells
(2) Cannot have intercellular spaces 44. A : Guard cells are photosynthetic
(3) May secrete resin, nectar and oil R : Guard cells possess chloroplasts
(4) Is a living mechanical tissue 45. A : Root hairs are multicellular
R : Stem hairs are usually unicellular

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[4]
 Corp. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005
Ph.: 011-47623456 Fax : 011-47623472

NCERT HOT SPOT - 07

Topics covered :
Botany : Plant Kingdom

BOTANY

SECTION - A (2) Are source of products which are used in

1. Select the incorrect match preparation of jellies
(1) Rhodophyceae – Mostly multicellular (3) Produce algin which used commercially
(2) Phaeophyceae – Food is stored as (4) Show isogamous reproduction
complex 6. Match the classes of pteridophytes with their
carbohydrate like example given below and choose the correct option
cellulose Column-I Column-II
(3) Chlorophyceae – Some of them live in (a) Lycopsida (i) Equisetum
salt water
(b) Psilopsida (ii) Dryopteris
(4) Brown algae – Plant body is divided
into holdfast, stipe (c) Pteropsida (iii) Selaginella
and frond (d) Sphenopsida (iv) Psilotum
2. W hich of the plant group is not completely (1) a – (ii), b – (iii), c – (iv), d – (i)
oogamous? (2) a – (iii), b – (iv), c – (ii), d – (i)
(1) Bryophyte (2) Pteridophyte (3) a – (iii), b – (i), c – (ii), d – (iv)
(3) Algae (4) Both (1) and (2) (4) a – (ii), b – (i), c – (iv), d – (iii)
3. In how many of the following, fusing gametes are 7. Natural classification system were based on natural
morphologically distinct types? affinities among the organisms and consider all the
below given features, except
Chara, Ulothrix, Cladophora,
Fucus, Marchantia (1) Chromosome behavior
(2) Phylogeny
(1) Four (2) Three
(3) Anatomy and morphology
(3) Two (4) Five
(4) Embryology
4. Both Selaginella and Salvinia
8. Number and codes are assigned to all the
(1) Are aquatic ferns
characteristics and the data are then processed
(2) Produce seeds using sophisticated computers, in which of the
(3) Produce two kind of spores given branches of taxonomy?
(4) Lack vascular tissues (1) Cytotaxonomy (2) Chemotaxonomy
5. Gelidium and Gracilaria (3) Numerical taxonomy (4) Karyotaxonomy
(1) Are members of Rhodophyceae and
Chlorophyceae respectively
NCERT Hot Spot Chapter-07
9. Read the statements and select the correct ones 15. Read the following statements and choose the
a. Zoospores are planosphores correct option
b. Spirogyra are filamentous algae Statement A: In Cycas, male cones and
megasporophylls are borne on different trees.
c. Sexual reproduction is oogamous in Eudorina
Statement B: In Pinus, megasporophylls are
d. The algae is also reproduce by vegetative
clustered to form male cone.
method
(1) Both statements are true
(1) a, b and d (2) a, b and c
(2) Both statements are false
(3) c and d (4) a and c
(3) A is true and B is false
10. Which one is correctly matched?
(4) A is false and B is true
(1) Polysiphonia – Mannitol as stored
food 16. Which one of the following statements is wrong?
(2) Porphyra – Fucoxanthin (1) Algae are primary producers of energy-ring
compounds
(3) Laminaria – Cell wall with algin
(2) Agar is obtained from Gelidium and Gracilaria
(4) Sargassum – Red algae
(3) Selaginella belongs to Psilopsida
11. Read the following features
(4) Hydrocolloids are produced by red algae
a. They also occur in well lighted regions close to
surface of water 17. Select the correct set of plant parts with same
ploidy level.
b. They occur at great depths in ocean
A. Pollen grain B. Embryo sac
c. Some of them have complex body organisation
C. Zygote D. Endosperm
d. Primary photosynthetic pigment is chlorophyll
a E. Seed
How many is/are correct for red algae? (1) A, B and C only (2) B, C and E only
(1) Four (2) Three (3) B, C and D only (4) A and B only
(3) Two (4) One 18. Select the incorrect statement for bryophytes
12. The thallus is dorsiventral and closely appressed to (1) Main plant body is haploid
the substratum in (2) Sex organs are multicellular
(1) Funaria (2) Sphagnum (3) They exhibit haplontic life cycle pattern
(3) Marchantia (4) Polytrichum (4) They reduce the impact of rainfall and prevent
13. Select the incorrectly matched pair soil erosion
(1) Mycorrhiza – Pinus 19. What is the ploidy of antherozoid mother cell and
archegonium respectively?
(2) Coralloid root – Cycas
(1) 2n and n (2) n and 2n
(3) Heterosporous pteridophyte – Dryopteris
(3) n and n (4) 2n and 2n
(4) Homosporous – Lycopodium
20. Which bryophyte is used as packing material for
14. Match the columns and select the correct option trans-shipment of living material?
(1) Marchantia (2) Funaria
Column I Column II
a. Embryo sac (i) Pinnate leaves (3) Polytrichum (4) Sphagnum
b. Cycas (ii) Aquatic fern 21. An algae with air bladder is
c. Salvinia (iii) Female (1) Porphyra (2) Eudorina
gametophyte in (3) Polysiphonia (4) Fucus
angiosperms
22. Fucoxanthin is a major pigment found in
d. Sequoia (iv) Red wood tree
(1) Green algae (2) Brown algae
(1) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv) (2) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii) (3) Blue green algae (4) Red algae
(3) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) (4) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)

[2]
NCERT Hot Spot Chapter-07
23. Match the items of column I with those of column 29. Gymnosperms are characterised by all of the
II and choose the correct option. following, except
(1) Homospory and heterospory
Column I Column II
(2) Leaves are well-adapted to extreme climate
a. Green algae (i) Gelidium
b. Agar (ii) Phaeophyceae (3) The multicellular female gametophyte is
c. Mannitol (iii) Chlorophyll a and b retained within megasporangium
d. Rhizoid (iv) Marchantia (4) Sporophylls are present in cones
30. Pick the wrong match
(1) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i) (2) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv)
(1) Fan-shaped leaves – Gingko biloba
(3) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii) (4) a(i), b(iii), c(ii), d(iv)
(2) Mycorrhizal association – Cycas
24. Which of the following statements is incorrect
about bryophytes? (3) Needle-like leaves – Conifers
(1) They play an important role in plant (4) One of the tallest trees – Sequoia
succession on bare rocks 31. Artificial system of classification
(2) Their sex organs are multicellular (1) Was given by Bentham and Hooker
(3) They have true roots, stem and leaves (2) Classifies organisms on the basis of external
(4) They grow in damp, humid and shaded areas as well as internal features
25. Choose the correctly matched pair. (3) Is based on evolutionary relationship between
various organisms
(1) Cycas – Pinnate leaves
(4) Involves usage of one or few morphological
(2) Gymnosperms – Smaller f emale characters for grouping of organisms
gamete and larger
male gamete 32. Typical embryo sac in angiosperms consists of
(3) Pollination in Pinus – By insects (1) One egg cell, two synergids, three antipodal
cells and two polar nuclei
(4) Cedrus – Unbranched stem
(2) One egg cell, one synergid, three antipodal
26. All the given statements are true for angiosperms, cells and two polar nuclei
except
(3) One egg cell, two synergids, two antipodal
(1) Fruits are formed only in angiosperms cells and two polar nuclei
(2) They can have either one or two cotyledons (4) One egg cell, two synergids, two antipodal
(3) Triple fusion occurs in them cells and one polar nucleus
(4) Ovary develops into seeds and ovules develops 33. Select the correct statement w.r.t Equisetum
into fruits (1) It is a gymnosperm
27. Choose the wrongly matched pair. (2) It forms distinct compact structures called
(1) Isogametes – Spirogyra strobili or cones
(2) Oogamous reproduction – Gracilaria (3) The dominant phase in the life cycle is the
(3) Pyriform gametes – Dictyota gametophytic plant body
(4) Flagellated gametes – Polysiphonia (4) Vascular tissues are not found
28. Heterosporous vascular cryptogams failed to 34. Read the following statements
develop seeds because (A) Cell wall of Phaeophyceae members is made
A. They lacked integuments around up of cellulose covered by algin
megasporangia. (B) Sexual reproduction in Rhodophyceae takes
B. Megaspores do not remain in the place with the help of motile gametes
megasporangia permanently. (C) Majority of brown algae are fresh water forms
C. Zygote does not develop into an embryo (D) Phycoerythrin is major pigment in green algae
(1) Only (A) (2) Only (B) How many of the above statements is/are correct?
(3) (A) and (B) (4) All (A), (B) and (C) (1) Two (2) One
(3) Three (4) Four

[3]
NCERT Hot Spot Chapter-07
35. Select the correct statement regarding bryophytes
SECTION - B
(1) Possess true roots, stem and leaves
(2) Antherozoids produced by antheridium are non Assertion - Reason Type Questions
flagellated
In the following questions, a statement of assertion
(3) Archegonium is jacketed, flask-shaped and
(A) is followed by a statement of reason (R)
produces a single egg
(4) Zygote undergoes reduction div ision (1) If both Assertion & Reason are true and the
immediately reason is the correct explanation of the
36. In Marchantia assertion, then mark (1).
(1) Gametophyte depends on sporophyte (2) If both Assertion & Reason are true but the
(2) Antheridia and archegonia are produced on reason is not the correct explanation of the
same thallus
assertion, then mark (2).
(3) Plant body is thalloid and dorsiventral
(4) Suitable environmental conditions for growth are (3) If Assertion is true statement but Reason is
dry and hot habitats false, then mark (3).
37. Red algae have (4) If both Assertion and Reason are f alse
(1) Stored food structurally similar to amylopectin statements, then mark (4).
and glycogen
(2) Mostly unicellular forms 40. A : Phylogenetic classification system is the most
accepted system.
(3) Carotenoids and xanthophyll as major
pigments but not chlorophyll a R : Evolutionary relationships between the various
(4) Pyriform gametes bearing two laterally attached organisms are considered.
flagella
41. A : Chlorella is used as food supplement by space
38. Select the incorrect match
travellers.
(1) Precursor to seed habit Pteriodphytes
(2) Polytrichum Mosses R : It is rich in proteins.
(3) Adiantum Lycopsida 42. A : Red algae can reach the maximum depth in
(4) Carrageen Red algae sea where no other photosynthetic forms grow.
39. Select correct match
R : Red algae possess r-phycoerythrin.
Column I Column II
43. A : Dry Sphagnum has great water absorbing
a. Mycorrihiza i. Cycas
capacity.
b. Coralloid roots ii. Pinus
c. Giant redwood tree iii. Wolffia R : It is used in place of absorbent cotton.
d. Microscopic angiosperm iv. Sequoia 44. A : Pteridophytes are vascular cryptogams.
(1) a iv, b iii, c ii, d i (2) a i, b iv, c iii, d ii
R : They have true roots, stems and leaves.
(3) a ii, b i, c iv d iii (4) a i, b ii, c iv, d iii
45. A : Pinus shows polyembryony.
R : Pinus ovule has 2 - 8 archegonia.
46. A : The stamen is a modified microsporophyll.
R : It contains microsporangia, where microspores
are formed.

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[4]
 Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005
Phone : 011-47623456  Fax : 011-47623472

NCERT HOT SPOT - 08

Topics covered :
Botany : Photosynthesis in higher plants

BOTANY

SECTION-A 6. Plastocyanin
1. Wavelength of PAR (Photosynthetically Active (1) Is a mobile electron carrier that transfer
Radiations) ranges between electrons between Cyt B6f and PSI
(1) 200-400 nm (2) 100-200 nm (2) Is embedded in the thylakoid membrane
(3) 400-700 nm (4) 600-900 nm (3) Receives the electrons from PS-I
2. RuBisCO enzyme is (4) Receives the electrons from ferredoxin
(1) Found only in mesophyll cell of C4 plants 7. Oxygenase activity is
(2) Present in both C3 and C4 plants (1) Shown by RuBisCO in C3 plants
(3) Having greater affinity for oxygen when CO2 (2) Shown by PEPcase in C4 plants
concentration is more than O2 (3) Shown by RuBisCO in C4 plants
(4) The least abundant enzyme on earth (4) Shown by PEPcase in C3 Plants
3. PS II
8. Oxaloacetic acid
(1) Has P680 as reaction center (1) Is a 4 carbon compound
(2) Lies on outer surface of thylakoids (2) Is formed during C3 cycle
(3) Is not involved in oxygen production (3) Is not formed in Sorghum plant
(4) Is involved in ATP production only (4) Is first stable product of Calvin cycle
4. Which of the following is not true for cyclic photo 9. Choose the incorrect match
phosphorylation?
(1) Hatch and slack pathway – Kranz anatomy
(1) Is involved in water splitting
(2) Most abundant enzyme – PEPcase
(2) Mostly occurs in stroma lamellae membrane
(3) First stable product of C4 pathway – OAA
(3) NADPH is not formed
(4) Double carboxylation – C4 pathway
(4) Synthesis of ATP occurs
10. Calculate the number of ATP required only in
5. Read the following statement and fill in the blank. bundle sheath cell to synthesise 1 sucrose
Cyclic photophosphorylation occurs only when light molecule in maize.
of wavelength __A__ is available for excitation. (1) 60
(1) Beyond 680 nm (2) 24
(2) Below 580 nm (3) 36
(3) Between 500-600 nm (4) 48
(4) Between 300-400 nm
NCERT Hot Spot Chapter-08
11. Choose the incorrect statement regarding the (1) At low light intensity, both C3 and C4 plants do
factors affecting the rate of photosynthesis. not respond to high CO2 concentration.
(1) Accumulation of photosynthetic end products (2) The light reactions are temperature sensitive.
decrease the photosynthetic rate (3) Light duration does not affect the rate of
(2) Less than 1% of water absorbed by plants is photosynthesis
utilised in photosynthesis hence it is rarely a (4) Light usually is a limiting factor for all plants
limiting factor including shade plants.
(3) Photosynthetic rate does not increase when 17. Plants showing Kranz anatomy
CO2 concentration increases beyond 0.05% (1) Are CAM plants
(4) Beyond optimum light intensities, rate of (2) Cannot tolerate high temperature
photosynthesis exponentially increases
(3) Lack chloroplast
12. Read the following statements. (4) Perform C3 cycle in bundle sheath cells
Assertion (A) : Accessory photosynthetic pigments
18. Read the following statements and select the
are also called antenna pigments.
correct option.
Reason (R) : They absorb light of different A. Carboxylation is the most crucial step of the
wavelengths and transfer the energy to chlorophyll Calvin cycle.
molecules.
B. Regeneration step of the Calvin cycle requires
In the light of above statements, choose the one ATP for phosphorylation to form RuBP.
correct answer from the options given below. (1) Only statement A is correct
(1) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct (2) Only statement B is correct
(2) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct (3) Both statements A and B are correct
(3) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the (4) Both statements A and B are incorrect
correct explanation of (A)
19. During photorespiration, the first step leads to
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the
correct explanation of (A) formation of a
(1) 3C compound and a 2C compound
13. Photorespiration is a wasteful process, because
(2) 5C compound and a 2C compound
(1) It synthesises ATP, but not NADPH + H+
(3) 2C compound and a 4C compound
(2) It releases fixed CO2 with utilisation of ATP
(4) 2C compound and a 6C compound
(3) It releases CO2 by decarboxylation of a C4
acid 20. Photosystem II
(4) It operates in high temperature and high light (1) Is associated with splitting of water
intensity (2) Is found on stroma lamellae
14. The C4 plants are more efficient in photosynthesis (3) Has reaction centre called P700
than the C3 plants as the former (4) Is involved in cyclic flow of electrons
(1) Fix CO2 only in day time 21. W hose experiment first described the action
(2) Lack CO2 fixation in mesophyll cells spectrum of photosynthesis by using an alga
(3) Have less chloroplasts than C3 plants Cladophora?
(4) Have CO2 concentrating mechanism (1) Joseph Priestley (2) T.W. Engelmann
15. In C4 plants, bundle sheath cells (3) C. van Niel (4) Julius Von Sachs
(a) Are thick walled. 22. Which among the following plants have strategy to
(b) Are involved in CO2 fixation maximise the availability of CO2 while minimise
(c) Have a large number of chloroplasts. water loss?
(1) Sorghum and Sugarcane
The correct one(s) is/are
(2) Wheat and Rice
(1) Only (a) (2) Only (b) and (c)
(3) Maize and Wheat
(3) Only (c) (4) All (a), (b) and (c)
(4) Opuntia and Tomato
16. Select the incorrect statement regarding factors
affecting photosynthesis.

[2]
NCERT Hot Spot Chapter-08
23. Photosystem I Column - I Column - II
(1) Is present on the inner surface of thylakoids Joseph Priestley First action spectrum
(2) Is found in grana lamellae only (a) (i) of photosynthesis was
described
(3) Inv olv es only in non-cyclic photophos
Jan Ingenhousz Hydrogen from a
phorylation
suitable oxidisable
(4) Is not associated with splitting of water (b) (ii)
compound reduces
24. Reaction centre of PS-II is: CO2 to carbohydrates
(1) P680 (2) P700 Air is essential for
(c) (iii)
T.W. Engelmann plants growth
(3) Both (1) and (2) (4) P730
Sunlight is essential
25. During synthesis of ATP in chloroplasts through (d) (iv) for plant process that
chemiosmosis Cornelius van Neil purify air
(1) NADP+ is reduced to NADPH + H+
(1) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
(2) Splitting of water takes place in stroma
(2) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
(3) ATP synthesis occurs on lumen side of
thylakoid (3) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
(4) Protons accumulate in stroma (4) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)

26. The major limiting factor influencing the rate of 30. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. law of limiting
photosynthesis is factors.
(1) CO2 (2) Temperature (1) It was given by Blackman in 1905
(3) Water (4) Light (2) It is applicable when several factors affect any
biochemical process
27. Which of the following is not related to cyclic
(3) It helps to identify the factor which directly
photophosphorylation?
affects the biochemical process when its
(1) PS I quantity is changed
(2) Oxygen evolution (4) It states that if a chemical process is affected
(3) Cyclic flow of electrons by more than one factors, then its rate will be
(4) ATP synthesis determined by the factor which is nearest to its
maximum value
28. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t.
photosystem II 31. Primary CO2 acceptor in Hatch-Slack pathway is
(1) A four-carbon molecule
(1) It occurs on the inner surface of thylakoid
(2) Present in bundle-sheath cell
(2) It is inv olv ed only in non-cyclic
photophosphorylation (3) A five-carbon ketose sugar
(3) It is not associated with splitting of water (4) Present in mesophyll cell
(4) The reaction centre has absorption maxima at 32. Which element plays a major role in splitting of
680 nm water during photosynthesis?
(1) Mg (2) Mo
29. Match the following columns and select the correct
option. (3) Mn (4) N
33. In light reaction, plastocyanin facilitate transfer of
electrons from
(1) Cytochrome b6f to PS I
(2) PS II to cytochrome b6f
(3) PS I to NADP+
(4) PS II to phaeophytin

[3]
NCERT Hot Spot Chapter-08
34. Statement I : Primary CO2 acceptor in C4 plants 40. Non-cyclic photophosphorylation
is phosphoenol pyruvate found in mesophyll cells. (1) Is performed by photosystem I independently
Statement II : Mesophyll cells of C 4 contain (2) Synthesises ATP only
RuBisCO enzyme. (3) Requires an external electron donor
(1) Only statement A is correct (4) Is not connected with photolysis of water
(2) Only statement B is correct Assertion - Reason Type Questions
(3) Both statement A and B are correct
In the following questions, a statement of assertion
(4) Both statement A and B are incorrect (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R)
35. Which of the following statements are true w.r.t. (1) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the
chemiosmotic hypothesis? reason is the correct explanation of the
(a) Splitting of water occur towards the lumen of assertion, then mark (1).
the thylakoid membrane. (2) If both Assertion and Reason are true but the
reason is not the correct explanation of the
(b) Proton accumulate more in stroma.
assertion, then mark (2).
(c) NADPH reductase reaction occurs towards
(3) If Assertion is true statement but Reason is
stroma side of the thylakoid membrane.
false, then mark (3).
(d) This hypothesis explains how ATP is (4) If both Assertion and Reason are f alse
synthesised in the chloroplast. statements, then mark (4).
(1) (a), (b) and (c) only
41. A : The absorption spectrum of chlorophyll - a
(2) (c), (d) and (b) only shows close correlation with its action
(3) (a), (c) and (d) only spectrum.
(4) All (a), (b), (c) and (d) R : Chlorophyll-a is present in both PS-I and
36. How many CO 2 molecules will be required to PS-II.
produce 6 molecules of glucose through Calvin 42. A : The photosynthetic efficiency of C4 plants is
cycle? more than those of C3 plants.
(1) 6 (2) 18
R : C4 plants are more efficient in picking CO2.
(3) 36 (4) 12
43. A : Action spectrum of photosynthesis compares
37. The stroma lamellae membrane lacks well with the absorption spectrum of
(a) PS I chlorophyll.
(b) PS II
R : Chlorophyll a is the only pigment which can
(c) NADP reductase enzyme absorb and convert light energy into chemical
The correct ones are energy.
(1) (a) and (b) only (2) (b) and (c) only 44. A : When six molecules of CO2 is utilized in the
(3) (a) and (c) only (4) All (a), (b) and (c) C3 cycle, 12 molecules of NADPH + H+ and
18 ATP are used up in the formation of one
38. The primary CO2 fixation product in C3 cycle is
glucose molecule.
(1) Phosphoenol pyruvate
R : In the light reaction of photosynthesis, ATP and
(2) 3-Phosphoglyceric acid
NADPH + H+ are formed.
(3) A C4 acid
45. A : PS-II is mostly found in appressed part of
(4) Oxaloacetic acid
granum thylakoids.
39. Find the incorrect match. R : In C4 plants, chloroplasts of bundle sheath
(1) Simple diffusion of H+ accross the membane cells are agranal.
(2) Facilitated diffusion of H+
(3) Development of H+ conc.gradient
(4) Both (2) and (3)

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 Corp. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005
Ph.: 011-47623456 Fax : 011-47623472

NCERT HOT SPOT - 09

Topics covered :
Botany : Respiration in Plants

BOTANY

1. Net gain of ATP (substrate level phosphorylation) c. Succinyl CoA to (iii) Oxidative
molecules in glycolysis from one molecule of chlorophyll decarboxylation
glucose is
d. Fatty acid to (iv) Dehydrogenation
(1) Four (2) Six
acetyl CoA
(3) Five (4) Two
(1) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i) (2) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv)
2. Total number of decarboxylation reaction occurs in
complete oxidation of one molecule hexose sugar (3) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) (4) a(iv), b(i), c(iii), d(ii)
is/are 6. Which of the following statements is correct?
(1) 3 (2) 2 (1) Oxaloacetic acid is the first member of the
(3) 1 (4) 5 citric acid cycle
3. In which of the following process NADH + H+ is (2) F0 is a peripheral membrane protein complex
reoxidised to NAD+? (3) F1 is an integral membrane protein complex
(1) Link reaction (4) Pure proteins are readily used as respiratory
(2) Alcohol fermentation substrates
(3) Krebs cycle 7. 10 molecules of pyruvic acids formed during
(4) Glycolysis glycolysis enter link reaction. The products of link
reaction enter Krebs cycle for complete oxidation.
4. The ATP molecule is formed at which of the
How many ATP molecules are formed through
following steps of EMP pathway?
substrate level phosphorylation?
(1) Phosphoenolpyruvate  Pyruvate
(1) 20 (2) 10
(2) 3-PGA  2-PGA
(3) 5 (4) 30
(3) Glucose-6-Phosphate  Fructose-6-
Phosphate 8. In the given boxes, respiratory substrates are
mentioned. Select the correct option which is the
. (4) Phosphoglycerate  Phosphoenol common intermediate (X) in the respiratory
pyruvate pathway that enters the Krebs cycle.
5. Match the column-I and column-II and select the
correct one from the assigned codes Carbohydrates Proteins Fats
Column-I Column-II
(Conversion) (Reactions)
a. Pyruvic acid to (i) Oxidation X
Acetyl CoA
b. Malic acid to (ii) Anabolism (1) Pyruvic acid (2) Glutamic acid
oxaloacetic acid (3) Acetyl CoA (4) Glycerol
NCERT Hot Spot Chapter-09
9. Choose the correct option w.r.t. respiration reaction 15. In which of the following steps of Krebs cycle, GTP
(1) C6H12O6  2C2H5OH + 2CO2 + 36 ATP is formed via substrate level phosphorylation?
(1) Citric acid  Isocitric acid
(2) C6H12O6  6CO2 + 6H2O + 32 ATP
(2) Isocitric acid  Oxalosuccinic acid
(3) C6H12O6  2C3H6O3 + 2 ATP
(3) Succinyl CoA  Succinic acid
(4) C6H12O6 + 6O2  6CO2 + 6H2O + 4 ATP
(4) Fumaric acid  Malic acid
10. In alcoholic fermentation
16. Read the following statements and state true (T)
(1) The first step is carboxylation and the second or false (F) and select the correct option.
step is decarboxylation
A. The TCA cycle starts with the condensation of
(2) The first step is decarboxylation and the acetyl CoA with citric acid.
second step is reduction
B. Incomplete oxidation of glucose occurs in both
(3) The first as well as the second, both steps are unicellular and multicellular organisms.
decarboxylation steps
C. In both lactic acid and alcoholic fermentation,
(4) The first as well as the second, both steps are not much energy is released.
carboxylation steps
A B C
11. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
(1) T T T
(1) ATP is called energy currency
(2) F F T
(2) Respiration is basically amphibolic and single (3) T T F
step process
(4) F T T
(3) Glycerol can also be used in respiration
17. Identify the following statements as True (T) or
(4) Carbohydrates are the most pref erred False (F) and choose the correct option
respiratory substrates accordingly.
12. Celluar respiration involves A. Compounds that are oxidised during
(1) Biological oxidation of inorganic molecules respiration are called respiratory substrates.
(2) Breaking of phosphodiester bonds B. The breakdown of glucose to pyruvic acid is
called glycolysis.
(3) Breaking of C–C bonds
C. Sucrose is converted into glucose and fructose
(4) The use of energy in the form of NADH by the enzyme zymase.
13. Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t. respiratory A B C
electron transport system.
(1) T F T
(1) It occurs on mitochondrial membrane
(2) T T F
(2) NADH 2 produced in the link reaction are
oxidised by complex I (3) F F T
(4) T T T
(3) Ubiquinone is oxidised with the transfer of
electrons to complex III 18. Read the following statements and select the
correct option.
(4) Cytochrome is not the component of complex
II A. The f inal product of ETS and oxidativ e
phosphorylation is ATP and H2O.
14. The calculations of the net gain of ATP for every
glucose molecule oxidised can be made only on B. Oxaloacetic acid is used to synthesise
certain assumptions. Which of the following is not gibberellic acids.
amongst those assumptions? (1) Only statement A is incorrect
(1) Glucose is only the respiratory substrate (2) Only statement B is incorrect
(2) Intermediates of respiratory pathway is not (3) Both statements are correct
used for synthesis of any other compound (4) Both statements are incorrect
(3) NADH produced during glycolysis does not 19. During complete oxidation of one molecule of 3-
undergo oxidative phosphorylation to produce phosphoglyceraldehyde, how many reduced co-
ATP enzymes are formed?
(4) Succinyl CoA of Krebs cycle is converted to (1) 7 (2) 6
succinic acid but not used for synthesis of
(3) 12 (4) 5
other compound
[2]
NCERT Hot Spot Chapter-09
20. Read the following statements and choose correct 28. A complex of Electron Transport Chain with two
option. copper centres is
A. The energy of oxidation-reduction creates (1) NADH dehydrogenase
proton gradient required for ATP synthesis.
(2) Cytochrome c oxidase complex
B. Chemiosmosis process does not require a
(3) Succinate dehydrogenase
proton gradient.
(4) Cytochrome bc1 complex
(1) Only statement A is incorrect
29. In which of the following processes substrate level
(2) Only statement B is incorrect
phosphorylation does not occur?
(3) Both statements are correct
(1) Glycolysis (2) Link reaction
(4) Both statements are incorrect
(3) EMP pathway (4) Krebs cycle
21. How many ATP molecules will be formed from
complete oxidation of two molecules -ketoglutaric 30. State True (T) or False (F) w.r.t. Krebs cycle and
acid? choose the correct option.

(1) 18 (2) 16 A. Site of Krebs cycle is mitochondrial matrix.

(3) 12 (4) 10 B. One turn of Krebs cycle forms 3 molecules of

NADH2 and 2 molecules of FADH2.
22. The pacemaker enzyme of EMP pathway
catalyses which of the following reactions? C. It is also known as citric acid cycle.

(1) Glucose  Glucose-6-phosphate A B C

(2) Fructose-6-phosphate  Fructose-1,6- (1) T T F

bisphosphate (2) F F T
(3) Glucose-6-phosphate  Fructose-6-phosphate (3) T F T
(4) 2 phosphoglycerate  Phosphoenol pyruvate (4) T T T
23. A : It is a small protein attached to outer surface 31. Proteins and glycerol can enter in respiratory
of the inner membrane of mitochondria. pathway in the form A and B respectively.
B : It acts as mobile carrier f or transf er of Choose the correct option to fill in the blanks A
electrons between complex III and IV of ETS. and B.
Above statements are true for A B
(1) Ubiquinone (2) Cytochrome c (1) Pyruvic acid Phosphoglyceraldehyde
(3) Cytochrome a3 (4) Ubiquinol
(2) Fatty acid Pyruvic acid
24. Which among the following intermediates of Krebs
(3) Lalic acid Fatty acid
cycle is raw material for amino acid synthesis?
(1) -Ketoglutaric acid (2) Succinyl CoA (4) Pyruvic acid Malic acid

(3) Oxaloacetic acid (4) Acetyl CoA 32. How many net ATP molecules are produced
through substrate lev el phosphorylation in
25. During aerobic respiration, respiratory quotient of glycolysis and TCA cycle, if two molecules of
tripalmitin is glucose were used as respiratory substrate?
(1) 1 (2) 0.7 (1) 4 (2) 8
(3) 0.9 (4) 1.33 (3) 10 (4) 5
26. Select the incorrect match. 33. Choose the correct match.
(1) Complex I – NADH dehydrogenase (1) Succinyl CoA - Raw material for carotenoid
(2) Complex II – Succinate dehydrogenase synthesis
(3) Complex III – Cytochrome bc1 (2) Acetyl CoA - Raw material for pyrimidine
(4) Complex IV – Cytochrome a reductase synthesis

27. Select the correct match w.r.t. respiratory quotient (3) -ketoglutaric acid - Raw material for amino
(RQ). acid synthesis

(1) Carbohydrates - 0.9 (2) Proteins > 1 (4) Oxaloacetic acid - Raw material for chlorophyll
synthesis
(3) Fats = 0.7 (4) Organic acid < 1
[3]
NCERT Hot Spot Chapter-09
34. The incomplete oxidation of glucose is achieved glucose
under anaerobic conditions by sets of reactions (4) Produces net gain of two ATP from one
where pyruvic acid is converted to CO 2 and glucose molecule
ethanol. It refers to
40. W hich of the following is the most preferred
(1) Alcoholic fermentation substrate for biological oxidation?
(2) Glycolysis (1) Fats (2) Proteins
(3) Lactic acid fermentation (3) Organic acids (4) Carbohydrates
(4) Krebs cycle
Assertion - Reason Type Questions
35. Site for link reaction in aerobic respiration is
In the following questions, a statement of assertion
(1) Mitochondrial Matrix (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R)
(2) Inter-mitochondrial membrane space (1) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the
(3) Cytoplasm reason is the correct explanation of the
assertion, then mark (1).
(4) Inner mitochondrial membrane
(2) If both Assertion and Reason are true but the
36. How many ATP will be produced when reason is not the correct explanation of the
10 NADH + H+ and 5 FADH2 are oxidised through assertion, then mark (2).
ETS?
(3) If Assertion is true statement but Reason is
(1) 30 (2) 10 false, then mark (3).
(3) 40 (4) 20 (4) If both Assertion and Reason are f alse
37. Glycolysis occurs in the cytoplasm of the cell and statements, then mark (4).
(1) Its net gain is 4 molecules of ATP and one 41. A : RQ for protein is less than unity.
NADH from one glucose molecule R : Proteins are poorer in structural oxygen, hence
(2) It involves complete oxidation of glucose it needs more oxygen for oxidation.
(3) It does not require oxygen 42. A : Respiratory pathway should better to be
(4) It is often referred to as the TCA pathway considered as amphibolic.
38. Phosphofructokinase enzyme of EMP pathway R : Intermediates of respiratory pathway are
catalyses the conversion of inv olved in both catabolic and anabolic
(1) Glucose-6-phosphate to fructose-6-phosphate reactions.

(2) Fructose-6-phosphate to f ructose-1,6- 43. A : Unlike animals, plants do not have specialised
bisphosphate organs for gaseous exchange.
(3) 1,3-bisphosphoglyceric acid to 3- R : Each plant part can take care of their own
phosphoglyceric acid gaseous exchange need.
(4) Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate to dihydroxy 44. A : ATP synthase present in inner mitochondrial
acetone phosphate membrane helps in facilitated diffusion of H+
39. Alcoholic fermentation differs from lactic acid from intermembrane space to matrix.
fermentation as the former process R : A catalytic change in F 1 component results
(1) Requires NADH + H+ as reducing agent synthesis of ATP
(2) Releases CO2 along with alcohol 45. A : In lactic acid fermentation, a triose phosphate
(3) Releases less than seven percent of energy in becomes e– donor and pyruvic acid is the e–
acceptor.
R : NADH + H + formed in glycolysis reduces
pyruvic acid to form lactic acid.

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NCERT HOT SPOT - 10

Topics covered :
Botany : Plant Growth and Development

BOTANY

1. Growth in plant is 6. Early maturity and quicker yield of economically

(a) Indeterminate important seeds like chilgoza can be obtained by
(b) Limited using
(1) Carotenoid derivative (2) 2, 4-D
(c) Closed
(3) Gibberellic acid (4) Adenine derivatives
Choose the correct option:
7. W hich of the following prevents precocious
(1) a and c (2) a, b and c
reproductive development late in the growing
(3) a only (4) a and b season, and gives sufficient time for maturity ?
2. Which of the following is correctly matched pair ? (1) Photoperiodism (2) Dormancy
(1) GA3 – Increases size of apple fruit (3) Vernalisation (4) Stratification
(2) IAA – Synthetic auxin 8. The two hormones which act antagonistically w.r.t.
(3) Dormin – Helps in the breaking of seeds apical dominance are
dormancy (1) Gibberellic acid and ABA
(4) Kinetin – Occurs naturally in plants (2) Ethylene and Gibberellic acid
3. Development is the sum of two processes that are (3) Auxin and Cytokinin
(1) Growth and differentiation (4) Auxin and Gibberellins
(2) Differentiation and dedifferentiation 9. Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t. plant growth
(3) Differentiation and redifferentiation and development.
(4) Cell division and senescence (1) After dedifferentiation, the dedifferentiated cells
4. W hich of the following conversion is not the do not divide further
development ? (2) After differentiation, the mature cells can
(1) Leaf initiation to leaf expansion become meristematic again
(2) Appearance of chloroplasts in cells when (3) Parallel line technique confirms that root
exposed to sunlight elongates most, immediate behind the apex

(3) Conversion of turgid cells to flaccid cells (4) Growth is influenced by gravity too

(4) Juvenile phase to reproductive phase 10. Choose incorrect one for arithmetic growth
(1) Only one daughter cell continues to divide
5. Initial surface area of a leaf is 20 cm2. After 5 days
while other differentiates and matures
surface area of that leaf increases to 30 cm2. Find
the absolute growth rate of the leaf (2) Mathematically expressed as Lt = L0 + rt

(1) 30 cm2/day (2) 2 cm2/day (3) On plotting the length of the organ against time
a S-shaped curve is obtained
(3) 20 cm2/day (4) 10 cm2/day
(4) It represents constant linear growth
NCERT Hot Spot Chapter-10
11. Match the following columns and choose the 18. Ethylene can be used in all, except
correct option (1) To promote senescence
Column I Column II (2) Thinning of fruits
(PGRs) (Chemical composition) (3) To increase yield of cucumber
a. Ethylene (i) Adenine derivatives (4) To induce seed and tuber dormancy
b. Abscisic acid (ii) Terpenes
19. Abscission of leav es, f ruits and f lowers is
c. Cytokinin (iii) Methionine
promoted by
d. Gibberellins (iv) Carotenoid derivatives
(a) Cytokinins (b) Ethylene
(1) a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv) (2) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii)
(c) Gibberellins (d) Abscisic acid
(3) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) (4) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)
Choose the correct one(s).
12. Which one is not true for growth in plants ?
(1) (d) only (2) (b) and (c)
(1) It is indeterminate (3) (a), (b) and (c) (4) (b) and (d)
(2) It is open form of growth
20. Complete the statements by choosing correct
(3) It occurs throughout their life
option
(4) This ability of unlimited growth is due to
presence of permanent tissues at their tips A. (i) stimulates root formation on stem cuttings
B. (ii) promotes development of adventitious
13. Select incorrect one for ABA
roots, lateral roots and growth of root
(1) It is also called stress hormone
hairs.
(2) It is also known as anti-auxin
(i) (ii)
(3) It is a growth inhibitor
(1) Auxin Ethylene
(4) Plays an important role in seed development
maturation and dormancy (2) Ethylene Cytokinin
(3) Auxin Cytokinin
14. Cells in meristematic phase of growth shows/have
(4) Cytokinin Gibberellin
(1) Large nucleus
(2) Dense cytoplasm 21. Which of the phytohormone is involved in growth
(3) Higher number of vacuoles promoting as well as growth inhibiting activities?
(1) Auxin (2) ABA
(4) Both (1) and (2)
(3) Cytokinin (4) Ethylene
15. Select incorrectly matched pair
(1) Ethylene – H.H. Cousins 22. Combination of which of the given plant hormones
can be used to increase yield of pineapple plant.
(2) Gibberellins – E. Kurosawa
(1) Auxin, Cytokinin (2) Ethylene, Gibberellin
(3) Cytokinins – F. Skoog
(3) Auxin, Ethylene (4) Cytokinin, Ethylene
(4) Abscisic acid – F.W. Went
23. Which of the following is correct w.r.t. auxins ?
16. Read the following statements and select the
correct option (1) First discovered by Charles Darwin and his
son Francis Darwin in rice seedlings
A. IAA is a natural auxin
(2) Term auxin is derived from Greek word
B. Ethylene is a gaseous hormone ‘auxein’ which means to grow
(1) Only statement A is correct (3) They promote shoot growth in callus
(2) Only statement B is correct (4) They counteract apical dominance
(3) Both statements are correct
24. Which of the following expressions is correct w.r.t.
(4) Both statements are incorrect
exponential growth ?
17. Elongation of roots (1) W 1 = W 0 ert (2) W 1 = W 0 + ert
(a) Occurs at a constant rate (3) Lt = L0 + rt (4) Lt = L0 + ert
(b) Can be expressed by equation W 1 = W 0ert
(c) Shows arithmatic growth pattern
(1) All are correct (2) a and b are true
(3) b and c are true (4) a and c are true

[2]
NCERT Hot Spot Chapter-10
25. Match the following phytohormones with their a. Induces cell division
composition and select the correct option
b. First isolated from human urine
Phytohormones Composition
(1) Induces abscission in young fruit and leaves
a. ABA (i) Terpenes
b. Auxin (ii) Derivative of carotenoid (2) Controls xylem differentiation
c. Gibberellins (iii) Adenine derivatives (3) Promotes growth of lateral bud
d. Kinetin (iv) Indole compounds (4) Induces shoot growth
a b c d 31. Which part of the plant is the site of perception of
(1) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii) light/dark period for flowering ?
(2) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i) (1) Stem (2) Leaves
(3) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii) (3) Flowers (4) Embryo of the seed
(4) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) 32. __ A___ accelerates senescence of leaves where
26. Surface area of a leaf has increased from 50 cm2 as __ B___ delays it. Choose suitable option for
to 55 cm2. Calculate its relative growth rate and ‘A’ and ‘B’.
select the correct option.
A B
(1) 5 % (2) 10 % (1) Ethylene ABA
(3) 50 % (4) 100 % (2) ABA Cytokinin
27. The hormone popularised as AntiGA, can also be (3) Cytokinin Auxin
used as (4) ABA Ethylene
(1) Fruit ripening agent
33. Read the giv en statements and choose the
(2) Weedicide
correct option regarding plant growth.
(3) Antitranspirant
(4) Increasing chlorophyll synthesis A. Increased vacuolation, cell enlargement and
new cell wall deposition are characteristics of
28. Which of the following is a function/application of cells in elongation phase.
auxin ?
B. Cells of maturation zone attain maximal size in
(1) Bolting in rosette plants terms of wall thickning and protoplasmic
(2) To promote seed germination modifications.
(3) To prepare weed free lawns (1) Only statement A is incorrect
(4) To increases shelf life of cut vegetables (2) Only statement B is incorrect
29. Read the following statements and state them as (3) Both statements are correct
True (T) or Flase (F) and accordingly select the (4) Both statements are incorrect
correct option.
34. Which of the following PGRs is known as fruit
A. Gardeners use 2,4-D to make weed free lawn. ripening hormone ?

B. Auxin is used to boost the hedge formation in (1) ABA (2) Auxins
tea plantation. (3) Ethylene (4) Cytokinin

C. Coconut water does not contain any 35. W hich of the f ollowing is incorrect w.r.t.
phytohormone. developmental plasticity ?
(1) Buttercup (2) Cotton
A B C
(3) Coriander (4) Larkspur
(1) T F F
36. Auxins and cytokinins act antagonistically w.r.t.
(2) F T F
(1) Apical dominance
(3) F F T
(2) Cell division
(4) T F T
(3) Inducing abscission of younger leaves
30. Identify the phytohormone on the basis of below
(4) Delaying senescence
given features and select the correct statement for
it

[3]
NCERT Hot Spot Chapter-10
37. Read and identify statements as True (T) or False Assertion - Reason Type Questions
(F) and select the correct option. In the following questions, a statement of assertion
A. Auxins induce parthenocarpy in tomatoes (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R)
B. Gibberellins are used as weedicide (1) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the
A B reason is the correct explanation of the
assertion, then mark (1).
(1) T T
(2) T F (2) If both Assertion and Reason are true but the
reason is not the correct explanation of the
(3) F T assertion, then mark (2).
(4) F F
(3) If Assertion is true statement but Reason is
38. Which of the following plant growth regulators is false, then mark (3).
mainly involved in growth inhibiting activities ? (4) If both Assertion and Reason are f alse
(1) Auxins (2) Cytokinins statements, then mark (4).
(3) Gibberellins (4) Abscisic acid 42. A : Gibberellin increases sugarcane yield.
39. The gaseous plant growth regulator is involved in R : The hormones promotes increase in internode
(1) Producing parthenocarpic fruit length in sugarcane stem.
(2) Increasing malt yield from barley grains 43. A : Plants have the capacity of changing their
(3) Synchronising fruit set in pineapples position in response to the external
(4) Breaking of dormancy of seeds (environmental) or internal stimuli.

40. Cytokinins R : The living protoplasm is responsible f or

a. Stimulate lateral shoot growth perception, analysis and response to external
or internal stimuli.
b. Help in mobilization of nutrients
44. A : Cells in elongation phase continuously
c. Inhibit cell division increase in size.
d. Delay senescence
R : The number and size of the v acuoles
(1) Only a (2) Only a and b
increases as well as deposition of new cell
(3) Only a, b and d (4) AII a, b, c and d
wall materials also takes place.
41. Which of the following statements is incorrect
45. A : Gibberellins delay senescence.
(1) Ethylene breaks the dormancy of seed
(2) Gibberellins increases the length of stem R : Gibberellins are acidic in nature.
(3) Abscisic acid generally promotes growth
(4) Cytokinin counteracts apical dorminannce

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Ph.: 011-47623456 Fax : 011-47623472

NCERT HOT SPOT - 11

Topics covered :
Botany : Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants

BOTANY

1. The coconut water and its surrounding white kernel 5. Flowers which do not open at all are termed as
a. Are free nuclear endosperm and cellular (1) Chasmogamous (2) Bisexual
endosperm respectively. (3) Cleistogamous (4) Unisexual
b. Are formed by same method of endosperm 6. Mark the plant in which both autogamy and
development. geitonogamy are not possible
c. Are food storing structures. (1) Castor (2) Maize
Choose the correct one(s). (3) China rose (4) Papaya
(1) a and b (2) b and c 7. All of the following are outbreeding devices, except
(3) a and c (4) a only (1) Anther and stigma placed at different positions
2. Which of the given is a water pollinated fresh (2) Self-incompatibility
water plant?
(3) Synchronised pollen release and stigma
(1) Hydrilla (2) Zostera receptivity
(3) Water lily (4) Water hyacinth (4) Dioecy
3. Read the following statements and mark the 8. Mark these statements regarding megasporangium
incorrect one
of a typical flowering plant as true (T) or false (F)
(1) Majority of flowering plants use a range of and select the correct option
animals as pollinating agents
A. It has one or two protective envelopes called
(2) Bees are the dominant biotic pollinating agents integuments.
(3) Large animals do not act as pollinators B. Basal part of megasporangium is called
(4) Animal pollinated f lowers prov ide some chalaza.
rewards to animals C. It always has a single embryo
4. Monosporic embryo sac D. The f ood storing tissue of unf ertilised
(1) Is formed after 1 mitosis and 3 meiosis in a megasporangium is endosperm.
megaspore mother cell A B C D
(2) Develops from single megaspore (1) T F T F
(3) Is seven nucleated and 8 celled structure (2) F T T T
(4) Lacks egg apparatus (3) F F T F
(4) T T F F
NCERT Hot Spot Chapter-11
9. Read the below given features of flowers of a 14. Read the below given statements and select the
plant. correct option
a. Flowers are small and clustered into Statement A: When the seed gets mature its
inflorescence. water content reduces to 10-15% by mass.
b. Flowers are fragrant. Statement B: A large number of seeds can remain
alive for hundreds of years.
c. White coloured flowers.
(1) Only statement A is correct
d. Flowers contain nectar.
(2) Only statement B is correct
How many of the above feature(s) is/are seen in
flowers pollinated by insects? (3) Both statements A and B are correct
(1) All 4 (2) Only 1 (4) Both statements A and B are incorrect
(3) Only 2 (4) Only 3 15. Banana is a parthenocarpic fruit as it develops
10. A mature pollen grain (1) Only from the ovary
a. Contains a bigger generative cell and smaller (2) From parts of flowers other than ovary
vegetative cell
(3) Without fertilisation
b. Is two celled
(4) From thalamus
c. Lacks germ pores
16. In both Citrus and mango
Choose the incorrect one(s) w.r.t. a typical
a. Some nucellar cells form embryos.
angiospermic plant.
b. Seeds have multiple embryos.
(1) a and b (2) b only
c. Zygotic embryo is absent.
(3) a and c (4) c only
Choose the incorrect one(s).
11. Mark the feature which is similar between male
gametophyte and female gametophyte of a typical (1) a and c (2) c only
angiospermic plant
(3) b and c (4) All a, b and c
(1) Both are three celled structures
17. Pollen germination can be studied by dusting the
(2) They contain same number of gametes pollen on a glass slide containing a drop of
__A___ with ___B__ .
(3) Both are haploid
Select the correct option for A and B.
(4) They are the sites of gametogenesis and
syngamy (1) A - 5% sugar solution, B - boric acid
12. How many nuclei are inv olv ed in double (2) A -10% sugar solution, B -boric acid
fertilisation.
(3) A - 1% sugar solution, B - calcium salts
(1) 3 (2) 5
(4) A - 1% sugar solution, B - potassium salts
(3) 2 (4) 4
18. Which one is not true for sporopollenin?
13. Complete the below given table by choosing
(1) Found in outermost layer of pollen grain
correct option
(2) Helps in preservation of pollen grains as fossil
Root
(3) Protects pollen grains f rom hazardous
Type of embryo Epiblast Coleorhiza cap environment
Dicot embryo A B Present
(4) Evenly distributed in intine except at germ
Monocot embryo Present Present C pores
A B C 19. In a seed of orange, multiple embryos can be
seen.
(1) Present Present Present
These embryos
(2) Absent Present Absent
(a) Are diploid
(3) Absent Absent Present
(b) Can be genetically identical
(4) Present Absent Absent
(c) Can be formed by zygote

[2]
NCERT Hot Spot Chapter-11
Choose the correct one(s). 27. Development of seed without fertilization is called
(1) (a) and (b) only (2) (b) and (c) only (1) Apomixis (2) Parthenocarpy
(3) (a) only (4) All (a), (b) and (c) (3) Gametogenesis (4) Pollination
20. All the events from pollen deposition on the stigma 28. Free nuclear endosperm is found in
until pollen tube enters in ovule is known as
(1) Castor (2) Coconut water
(1) Pollination
(3) Groundnut (4) Pea
(2) Self-incompatibility
29. In a diploid plant ploidy of each cell of a microspore
(3) In-vitro pollen germination tetrad is
(4) Pollen-pistil interaction (1) Triploid (2) Tetraploid
21. What would be the number of chromosomes in (3) Haploid (4) Diploid
aleurone layer of a self pollinated maize plant if
megaspore mother cell has 20 chromosomes? 30. Select the odd one w.r.t. ploidy level
(1) 10 (2) 20 (1) Egg cell
(3) 30 (4) 40 (2) Antipodal cell
22. A female plant has 12 chromosomes in its egg cell (3) Secondary nucleus
and crossed with plant with 24 chromosomes in its (4) Synergid
microspore mother cells. Number of chromosomes
in its zygote will be 31. Read the following statements and choose the
correct option accordingly for a flowering plant.
(1) 48 (2) 36
Statement A: Development of male gametophyte
(3) 12 (4) 24 occurs completely inside the anther.
23. Endosperm cell of an angiospermic plant has 24 Statement B: Dev elopment of f emale
chromosomes. The number of chromosomes in the gametophyte occurs partly inside the ovule partly
microspore mother cell would be outside the ovule.
(1) 24 (2) 16 (1) Only A is correct
(3) 8 (4) 48 (2) Both A and B are incorrect
24. Number of gametes produced by a pollen tetrad in (3) Only B is correct
flowering plants, is
(4) Both A and B are correct
(1) 4 (2) 8
32. Read the following statements and select the
(3) 12 (4) 28 correct option
25. Arrange different stages of embryo development in A. The synergids have special cellular thickenings
sequential order. called filiform apparatus, which play an
(1) Proembryo  Globular stage  Heart stage important role in guiding the entry of pollen tube.
 Mature embryo B. Three antipodal cells are found towards the
(2) Proembryo  Heart stage  Globular stage micropylar end in most of angiosperms.
 Mature embryo (1) Both A and B are correct
(3) Globular stage  Heart stage  Proembryo (2) Only A is correct
 Mature embryo
(3) Only B is correct
(4) Globular stage  Proembryo  Heart stage
 Mature embryo (4) Both A and B are incorrect

26. The largest cell of embryo sac, initially contains 33. Pollen grains in angiosperms develop from _____
______ polar nuclei/nucleus. the of anther

(1) 4 (2) 1 (1) Epidermis (2) Endodermis

(3) Tapetum (4) Sporogenous tissue
(3) 2 (4) 3

[3]
NCERT Hot Spot Chapter-11
34. Which of the following is not true for the pollen 38. A : Autogamy is not possible in dioecious
grains? condition but geitonogamy may occur.
(1) The hard outer layer is made up of R : Plant possess f lowers of both sexes in
sporopollenin dioecious condition on same plant.
(2) Pollen grains are well preserved as fossils 39. A : Cleistogamous f lowers are f ound to be
because of the presence of sporopollenin
autogamous in nature.
(3) The inner wall of the pollen grain is called the
R : Cleistogamous flowers are bisexual and
intine
homogamous.
(4) Inner wall of pollen grain is resistant to strong
acid and can withstand high temperatures 40. A : Pollen grains are well preserved as fossils.

35. Failure of pollen grains from fertilizing the ovule by R : Exine is made up of sporopollenin which
inhibiting pollen germination or pollen tube growth makes it resistant.
in the same flower is known as
41. A : An obligate relationship exist in between
(1) Dicliny (2) Dichogamy species of moth and the plant Yucca.
(3) Self-incompatibility (4) Heterostyly R : Both cannot complete their life cycles without
Assertion - Reason Type Questions each other.

In the following questions, a statement of assertion 42. A : Endosperm and perisperm have same ploidy
(A) is followed by a statement of reason (R) level.

(1) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the R : Both develop from nucellus.
reason is the correct explanation of the 43. A : Parthenocarpy lead to dev elopment of
assertion, then mark (1).
seedless fruit.
(2) If both Assertion and Reason are true but the
R : Parthenocarpy can be induced by application
reason is not the correct explanation of the
assertion, then mark (2). of auxin.

(3) If Assertion is true statement but Reason is 44. A : Apomixis gives rise to seeds.
false, then mark (3). R : Seeds can be produced by fusion of male and
(4) If both Assertion and Reason are f alse female gamete only.
statements, then mark (4).
45. A : Apomixis play significant role in hybrid seed
36. A : Hydrophytes are generally hydrophilous in industry.
nature.
R : There is no segregation of characters during
R : Mostly dicots are hydrophilous in nature. apomixis.
37. A : Pollen tablets are used as food supplements.
R : Pollen grains are rich in nutrients.

  

[4]
 Corp. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005
Ph.: 011-47623456 Fax : 011-47623472

NCERT HOT SPOT - 12

Topics covered :
Botany : Principles of inheritance and variation

BOTANY

SECTION - A
1. In the Mendelian dihybrid cross for seed colour and
seed shape 2400 seeds are obtained in F 2
generation, how many seeds would be hybrid
yellow?
(1) 1800 (2) 1200
(3) 300 (4) 600
2. A red flower bearing Antirrhinum plant is crossed
Which of the following statements cannot be true
with pink flowered Antirrhinum plant. What percent
for this pedigree?
of F1 generation plants would produce red flowers?
(1) The trait considered here can be X-linked
(1) 100% (2) 25%
(2) Both the parents (P) are carriers for the trait
(3) 50% (4) 0%
(3) The probability of F1(A) for carrying the allele of
3. In the Mendelian monohybrid cross, what percent
that particular trait is 100%
of indiv iduals in F 2 generation receiv es the
recessive allele? (4) The trait studied here is Y-linked
(1) 12.5% (2) 50% 7. Which of the following union of gametes results in
Klinefelter’s syndrome?
(3) 25% (4) 75%
(1) Egg (22+XX) and sperm (22+Y)
4. Number of autosomes in the somatic cell of
individual infected with Down’s syndrome would be (2) Egg (22+XX) and sperm (22+X)
(1) 47 (2) 43 (3) Egg (22+XX) and sperm (22+XY)
(3) 46 (4) 45 (4) Egg (22+O) and sperm (22+X)
5. Number of chromosomes in male individuals is 8. In Sickle cell anaemia glutamic acid is replaced by
different from that of female individuals in all of the Valine. Which one of the following triplets code for
following animals, except Valine?
(1) Birds (2) Butterflies (1) GGG (2) GUG
(3) Honey bees (4) Grasshoppers (3) GAG (4) GAA
6. Consider the following pedigree chart. 9. A man has a defective gene on his X-chromosome.
This chromosome can be inherited by
[Here, shaded symbols are for those individuals
who express the trait] (1) Daughters
(2) Only sons
(3) Both sons and daughters
(4) Only grandchildren
NCERT Hot Spot Chapter-12
10. In a garden pea, the stem may be tall (T) or dwarf (1) 3 (2) 9
(t) in height. What percentage of the offspring in TT (3) 5 (4) 4
× tt cross would be expected to be tall
20. A pink flowered snapdragon plant is crossed with a
(1) 75% (2) 25% red flowered snapdragon plant. What would be the
(3) 50% (4) 100% possibility of white flowered plant in F1 generation?
11. Select the incorrect match w.r.t contrasting traits (1) 0% (2) 25%
in pea plants and their location on chromosome (3) 50% (4) 75%
numbers
(1) Round seed – 1 (2) Terminal flower – 4 21. Select the incorrect match
(3) Yellow pod – 5 (4) Dwarf stem – 4 (1) AB blood group – Co-dominance
12. Select the incorrect match (2) Phenylketonuria – Autosomal dominant
(1) Monosomy – 2n – 1 disorder
(2) Nullisomy – 2n – 1 –1 (3) Pleiotropic gene – May produce more
(3) Trisomy – 2n + 1 than one effect
(4) Tetrasomy – 2n + 2 (4) Flower colour in – Incomplete
13. Which of the following phenotypic ratio was found snapdragon dominance
by Mendel in monohybrid test cross?
22. In honey bee
(1) 1 : 1 (2) 3 : 1
(1) The females are haploid
(3) 1 : 2 : 1 (4) 1 : 1 : 1 : 1
(2) The females have 16 chromosomes
14. If a colourblind man marries a woman who is carrier
for colourblindness, the probability of their son being (3) Males produce sperms by mitosis
colour blind is (4) Males have diploid father
(1) 0.5 (2) 1 23. Which of the following pedigree shows the inheritance
(3) 0 (4) 0.75 of an autosomal dominant disorder?
15. How many types of gametes will be produced by
an organism having genotype AaBbCcDd ?
(1) 32 (2) 4
(3) 16 (4) 64 (1)
16. If father is carrier and mother is normal for
thalassemia which is an autosomal recessive
disorder, what are the chances of pregnancy
resulting in an affected child?
(1) 25% (2) 50%
(3) 100% (4) 0% (2)
17. For Morgan’s experiment on Drosophila, which
option does not represent recombinant type?

y+ w w m+
(1) (2)
(3)
y+ w+ y w+

(3) (4)
y w y w
18. Possibility of children of a couple with blood group
AB is 25%. What is blood group of this couple?
(1) A and AB (2) AB and O (4)
(3) B and AB (4) A and B
19. How many number of polygenes for a character
would be there in a diploid organism if the total
number of genotypes in the population of that
organism is 27?
[2]
NCERT Hot Spot Chapter-12
24. The disorder in which genetic constitution of an 30. Read the following statements and choose the correct
individual is 44 + XO is option
(1) Down’s syndrome (2) Cystic fibrosis
A. When Morgan crossed yellow-bodied and white-
(3) Turner’s syndrome (4) Thalassemia eyed female with brown-bodied and red-eyed
25. Choose the incorrect option w.r.t. incomplete male of Drosophila, he got 98.7% recombinants
dominance in F2 generation
(1) F1-phenotype is intermediate between dominant B. Physical association between two genes located
and recessive phenotype on same chromosome is called Linkage
(2) F1 phenotype does not resemble either of the
C. Stevens discovered X-chromosome in insects
two parents
(3) F2 phenotypic ratio is 1 : 2 : 1 (1) Both A and C are correct
(4) F 1 phenotype resembles to the dominant (2) Both B and C are correct
parent only (3) Only B is correct
(4) Only A is correct
26. What is the probability of having first two children as
sons to a couple? 31. The chances of getting AaBbCc genotype in progeny,
if the parents have genotypes AABBCC and aabbcc
1 1
(1) (2) is
2 4
(1) 25% (2) 50%
1 1 (3) 75% (4) 100%
(3) (4)
6 8
32. Match the column-I to column-II and choose the
27. Select the incorrect match
correct option (w.r.t. sex determination type)
F1 progeny resembles Column-I Column-II
(1) Co-dominance
both parents a. ZW – ZZ type (i) Moth
One gene may produce
(2) Pleiotropy b. ZO – ZZ type (ii) Drosophila
more than one effect
Polygenic c. XX – XO type (iii) Birds
(3) Skin color in man
inheritance d. XX – XY type (iv) Grasshopper
Incomplete AB blood group in (1) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)
(4)
dominance humans (2) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii)
(3) a(ii), b(iv), c(iii), d(i)
28. If a cross is made between two pea plants (Yyrr ×
Yyrr), then the probability of getting pure yellow with (4) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii)
pure wrinkle seeded-plants in F1 generation will be 33. In Mendelian dihybrid cross, out of 256 individual
obtained in F2 generation, how many are pure ho-
(1) 25% (2) 50%
mozygous for both traits?
(3) 12.5% (4) 75% (1) 32 (2) 16
29. Read the following statements and choose the correct (3) 15 (4) 64
option 34.  Thalassemia is controlled by a single gene HBB
which is present on
Statement A: Mendel found that a gamete carries
only one factor of a character. (1) Chromosome 9 (2) Chromosome 21
(3) Chromosome 16 (4) Chromosome 11
Statement B: Homozygous parent for height
35. Male parent with blood group A and female parent
produces two different types of gametes
with blood group B, had progeny with only either blood
(1) Only statement A is correct group AB or A. What could be the possible genotype
(2) Only statement B is correct of parents?
(3) Both statements A and B are incorrect Male Female
A
(1) I I A IBIB
(4) Both statements A and B are correct
(2) IAIA IBi
(3) IAi IBi
A
(4) I i IBIB

[3]
NCERT Hot Spot Chapter-12
36. In sickle cell anemia, shape of RBCs under low oxy- 40. A : Crossing over is exchange of genetic material
gen tension becomes between two homologous chromosomes.
(1) Bioconcave disc like (2) Elongated sickle-like
R : It produces parental types only.
(3) Circular (4) Both (1) and (3)
41. A : A type inheritance is controlled by more than
one pairs of gene is called quantitative
SECTION - B inheritance.
Assertion - Reason Type Questions R : In quantitativ e inheritance, intermediate
In the following questions, a statement of assertion phenotypes are more frequent.
(A) is followed by a statement of reason (R) 42. A : Test cross is the tool for knowing linkage
(1) If both Assertion & Reason are true and the between genes.
reason is the correct explanation of the R : Monohybrid test cross gives two phenotypes
assertion, then mark (1). and two genotypes.
(2) If both Assertion & Reason are true but the
43. A : Independent assortment occurs when the
reason is not the correct explanation of the
assertion, then mark (2). genes are located on same chromosome.

(3) If Assertion is true statement but Reason is R : Linked genes show independent assortment.
false, then mark (3).
44. A : The tendency of some genes to inherit together
(4) If both Assertion and Reason are f alse (en block) is termed as linkage.
statements, then mark (4).
R : Linked genes are present on the different
37. A : ABO blood grouping is a good example of
multiple alleles. chromosomes.

R : Multiple allels can be found only when 45. A : Mendel’s work didn’t receive any recognition till
population studies are made. 1900.
38. A : The unmodified allele, which represents the R : He could not provide any physical proof for the
original phenotype is the dominant allele. existance of factors.
R : Modified allele is generally the dominant allele.
39. A : In Drosophila, sex is determined by sex index
ratio.
R : Y-chromosome does not play any role in sex
determination of Drosophila.

  

[4]
 Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005
Phone : 011-47623456  Fax : 011-47623472

NCERT HOT SPOT - 13

Topics covered :
Botany : Molecular Basis of Inheritance

BOTANY

SECTION-A (2) Topoisomerase – Releases tension in DNA

1. The proportion of cytosine was found to be 30%, (3) DNA ligase – Joins discontinuously
then calculate the amount of thymine in a double synthesised fragments of DNA
stranded DNA.
(4) Kornberg enzyme – DNA polymerase I
(1) 30% (2) 70%
6. Select the statement which is incorrect w.r.t
(3) 40% (4) 20% bacterial transcription
2. In eukaryotes, the packaging of chromatin at (1) mRNA does not require any processing to
higher level requires become active
(1) Non-chromosomal histone proteins (2) Transcription and translation take place in
(2) Non-histone acidic proteins separate compartments
(3) Non-histone chromosomal proteins (3) Translation can begin much before the mRNA
(4) Acidic polyamines and lipids is fully transcribed
3. Which of the following mixtures of different strains (4) Transcription and translation can be coupled
of Pneumococcus when injected into mice can 7. Match the following columns w.r.t translation and
cuase their death? select the correct option
(a) Live S strain + Live R strain Column-I Column-II
(b) Heat killed S strain + Live R strain (a) Charging of tRNA (i) Binding of amino
(c) Heat killed S strain only acid wtih ATP
(d) Live S strain + Heat killed R strain (b) Amino acid activation (ii) Binding of mRNA
(1) Only (b) and (c) with smaller subunit
of ribosome
(2) Only (c) and (d)
(c) Chain initiation (iii) Requires ribozymes
(3) All (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(d) Chain elongation (iv) Transferring of
(4) Only (a), (b) and (d) amino acid of tRNA
4. An E.Coli containing hybrid DNA for isotopes of (1) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii) (2) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii)
nitrogen element is allowed to multiply in a medium (3) a(ii), b(iv), c(iii), d(i) (4) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii)
containing 14NH4Cl. What percent of DNA will be
hybrid in 2nd generation? 8. Select the incorrect statement from the following
(1) 50% (2) 75% (1) Human genes on an average consists of 3000
bases
(3) 25% (4) 12.5%
(2) In human, TDF gene is the smallest gene
5. Select the incorrect match from the following
(3) VNTRs are minisatellites with 0.1 to 20 kb
(1) Helicase – Winds the newly synthesised DNA
(4) STRs are code for many essential proteins
strands together
NCERT Hot Spot Chapter-13
9. In which of the following organisms, only one orgin 16. Read the following statements and select the
of replication in DNA is found? option which is true for them
(1) E.coli (2) Paramoecium
Statement 1 : In human, chromosome 1 has
(3) Chlorella (4) Gymnodinium
fewest genes and chromosomes X has the most
10. During DNA replication, how many types of genes.
deoxyribonucleotides are activ ated into
Statement 2 : Less than 2% of the human
triphosphate state?
(1) Four (2) Two genome codes for proteins
(1) Both the statements are correct
(3) Eight (4) Five
(2) Both the statements are incorrect
11. Both the strands of DNA is not copied during
(3) Only statement-1 is correct
transcription. One of the complications that may
(4) Onlyl statement-2 is correct
arise is that
(1) The two RNA molecules so produced will form 17. According to Erwin Chargaff’s rule
dsRNA and thus translation is inhibited AT
(1)  1 is constant for all species
(2) The accuracy of transcription will be lost by CG
copying two RNAs at the same time
(2) Purine guanine is equimolar with pyrimidine
(3) A lot of energy is used up for the same types thymine
of mRNA synthesis which may cause fatigue
of cell (3) Purines and pyrimidines occur in equal
amounts
(4) The DNA will continuously be engaged in
transcription and thus the other cellular (4) Sugar deoxyribose and phosphate residues
processes will be hindered occur in unequal number

12. In a transcription unit, terminator is present at 18. Chargaff’s rules are not applicable for the DNA
(1) 3 end of coding strand present in
(1) Escherichia coli
(2) Both the ends of template strand
(2) Bacteriophage lambda
(3) 5 end of operator
(3)  × 174 bacteriophage
(4) 5 end of coding strand
(4) Drosophila
13. W hich of the f ollowing shows correct
representation regarding their percentage in a cell? 19. Which one of the following confers an additional
(1) mRNA < rRNA < tRNA stability to the helical structure of DNA?
(1) Sequence of bases in DNA strand
(2) rRNA < tRNA < mRNA
(3) mRNA < tRNA < rRNA (2) Presence of more number of bases as
compared to pentose sugar
(4) mRNA > rRNA < tRNA
(3) Twisting of helix in a right-hand fashion
14. During post-transcriptional modification of hnRNA, (4) Stacking of one base pair over the other in the
capping at __(i)__ end by the addition of __(ii)__ double helix
occurs.
20. A cell of Escherichia coli having light DNA is grown
Select the correct option to fill in the blanks (i) and in a medium containng 15 NH 4 Cl as the only
(ii) nitrogen source for three generations. W hat
(1) (i) – 5, (ii) – Adenylate residues percent of DNA in third generation will have hybrid
(2) (i) – 3, (ii) – Ethyl adenosine triphosphate DNA?
(3) (i) – 5, (ii) – Methyl guanosine triphosphate (1) 25% (2) 0%
(4) (i) – 3, (ii) – Adenylate residues (3) 50% (4) 75%
15. Severo Ochoa enzyme is helpful in 21. Select the incorrect statement from the following
(1) Providing energy for DNA replication (1) Like DNA replication, principle of
(2) Splicing the heterogenous nuclear RNA complementarity does not govern the process
of transcription
(3) Making the replication fork in dsDNA
(2) The segment of DNA that takes part in
(4) Polymerising RNA in a template-independent
transcription is called transcription unit
manner
[2]
NCERT Hot Spot Chapter-13
(3) Both the strands of DNA are not copied during Column - I Column - II
transcription Operator gene Site for RNA
(4) In replication, total DNA of an organism gets A. (i) polymerase
duplicated attachment
22. Which of the follwing is a translation unit in mRNA Structural gene Codes for repressor
B. (ii)
protein
that synthesizes the polypeptide with maximum
Interacts with
numbers of amino acids ? C. (iii)
Regulator gene regulator molecule
(1) 5 – AUG UUU UGA AGC AUG – 3
Codes for three
(2) 3 – AUG UCG AGC UGA GUG – 5 D. (iv)
Promoter gene different polypeptides
(3) 5 – AUG AAG GAU UAG UAA – 3
A B C D
(4) 3 – AGU AUU UCA ACG GUA – 5
(1) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)
23. Which of the following types of linkage/bond is (2) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
not found in a single stranded DNA? (3) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
(1) Hydrogen bond (4) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
(2) Phosphodiester linkage
28. State true (T) or false (F) for the given statements
(3) N-glycosidic linkage and choose the correct option
(4) Covalent bond
a. The lac operaon consists of two regulatory
24. Select the statement which is not always true w.r.t genes and four structural genes
double stranded DNA
b. The y gene codes for permease, which
(1) Purines, and pyrimidines occur in equal
increases permeability of the cell to -galactosides
amounts
(2) Adenine is equimolar with thymine a b
(1) T T
(3) Base ratio (Adenine + Thymine) : (Cytosine +
Guanine) is less than one (2) T F
(4) Sugar deoxyribose and phosphate residues (3) F T
occur in equal number (4) F F
25. What had been observed by Hershey and Chase 29. A. The DNA-dependent DNA polymerases
when the T2 bacteriophage having radiolabelled catalyse polymerisation only in one direction,
sulphur infects Escherichia coli? that is, 5 3
(1) Radioactivity in E.Coli cell B. The DNA-dependent RNA polymerase
(2) Radioactivity in DNA of bacteriophage catalyses the polymerisation only in one
direction, that is, 3 5
(3) Radioactivity in supernatant
Choose the correct option f or the giv en
(4) Radioactivity in genetic material of both statements
bacteriophage and E.coli
(1) Only statement A is correct
26. The genes in eukaryotes are said to be split
because (2) Only statement B is correct
(1) One gene codes f or more than one (3) Both the statements are correct
polypeptide (4) Both the statments are incorrect
(2) One gene is made up of many cistrons 30. Select the incorrect statement among the
(3) The coding sequences are interrupted by following w.r.t transcription
introns (1) In transcription unit, structural gene is flanked
(4) The coding sequences are interrupted by by promoter and terminator
exons (2) Polarity of template strand is 3 5
27. Match the following columns and choose the (3) The promoter is located at 3 end of the
correct option w.r.t lac operon coding strand
(4) The coding strand with polarity 5  3 is
same as the RNA transcribed, except thymine
at the place of uracil

[3]
NCERT Hot Spot Chapter-13
31. Seelct the incorrect match w.r.t. lac-operaon Assertion - Reason Type Questions
(1) Lac z – Codes for -galactosidase In the following questions, a statement of assertion
(2) Lac a – Codes for transacetylase (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R)
(3) Lac y – Codes for permease (1) If both Assertion & Reason are true and the
(4) i-gene – Provides attachment site for RNA reason is the correct explanation of the
polymerase assertion, then mark (1).
32. In the process of transcription in eukaryotes, the (2) If both Assertion & Reason are true but the
RNA polymerase II transcribes reason is not the correct explanation of the
(1) Precursor of mRNA assertion, then mark (2).
(2) The adapter RNA (3) If Assertion is true statement but Reason is
(3) 5S rRNA and SnRNA false, then mark (3).

(4) rRNAs – 28S, 18S (4) If both Assertion and Reason are f alse
statements, then mark (4).
33. What will be the sequence of mRNA produced by 36. A : HGP was completed in 2003 by sequencing all
the following stretch of DNA? genes of all chromosomes.
3 ATCGGTTAAC 5 TEMPLATE STRAND R : All coding and non-coding genes were
sequenced by ESTs.
5 TAGCCAATTG 3 CODING STRAND
AT
(1) 5 AUCGGUUAAC 3 37. A : Base ratio is specific for a species.
GC
(2) 3 GUUAAGGCAU 5 R : It is 0.92 in E.coli.
(3) 3 GUUAACCGAU 5 38. A : DNA is a polymer of nucleotides.
(4) 5 UAGCCUUAAC 3 R : Phosphodiester bond does not provide stability
34. DNA was extracted from a bacterial species. The to DNA.
proportion of cytosine was found to be 30%, then 39. A : Hydrogen bonds confer stability to the helical
calculate the proportion of purine? structure of DNA.
(1) 70% (2) 40% R : Phosphodiester bonds also provide stability to
(3) 50% (4) 20% helical structure of DNA.

35. Match the following columns and choose the 40. A : The packaged structure of DNA in E. coli is
correct option called genophore.
R : Non-histone basic proteins polyamines play
Column - I Column - II
role in packaging of DNA in E.coli.
RNA polymerase II Short primer RNA
A. (i) 41. A : Histone octamer is called nu-body.
strand
Primase Heterogenous nuclear R : It is formed of 2 molecules of H2A, H2B, H3
B. (ii)
RNA and H4.
RNA polymerase III (iii) Catalytic RNA for
C.
peptide bond formation
42. A : RNA is more stable than DNA.
D. RNA polymerase I (iv) Small nuclear RNA R : Uracil confers additional stability to RNA.
43. A : DNA polymerase-I is known as Kornberg
A B C D
enzyme.
(1) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
R : It has 5  3polymerisation activity.
(2) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
44. A : Teminism is unidirectional flow of genetic
(3) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii) information.
(4) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
R : It requires DNA dependent RNA polymerase
enzyme.
45. A : 5 capping is found in eukaryotic mRNA.
R : It helps in initiation of translation.

  
[4]
 Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005
Phone : 011-47623456  Fax : 011-47623472

NCERT HOT SPOT - 14

Topics covered :

Botany : Microbes in Human Welfare

BOTANY

4. Read the following statements and select the

SECTION-A incorrect one(s).
1. An enzyme, produced by a bacterium is used as A : Microbes are being grown on an industrial
a clot buster for removing clots from the blood scale as a source of good protein.
vessels is
B : Large holes in swiss cheese are due to
(1) Lipase (2) Protease production of a large amount of CO 2 by a
(3) Streptokinase (4) Amylase bacterium.
2. How many of the f ollowing statements are C : Wine and beer are produced by distillation of
correct? fermented broth.
(i) Alexander Fleming established full potential of (1) A and B (2) B and C
penicillin as an effective antibiotic. (3) Only C (4) Only B
(ii) Aspergillus niger is a fungus that produces 5. Commercialised production of ethanol is carried
citric acid at commercial scale. out by
(iii) Cyclosporin-A is produced by a f ungus (1) Streptococcus (2) a fungus
Monascus purpureus.
(3) a virus (4) Bacteria
(iv) Lipase enzymes are helpful in removing oil
stains from laundry and are obtained from 6. Which of the given nutritional qualities increases
Candida lipolytica. while converting milk into curd?

(1) One (2) Two (1) Mineral quality only

(3) Three (4) Four (2) Vitamin B6

3. A : It is produced by the fungus Trichoderma (3) Vitamin B12

polysporum. (4) Protein quality and content only
B : Prevents organ rejection reactions in organ 7. A : Bacteria are used in preparing idli and dosa.
transplantation.
B : Yeast is used in making alcoholic beverages.
Above mentioned statements are true for which of Consider the above statements and select the
the following? correct option.
(1) Statins (2) Cyclosporin-A (1) Only statement A is correct
(3) Lipases (4) Pectinases (2) Both statements A and B are correct
(3) Only statement B is correct
(4) Both statements A and B are incorrect
NCERT Hot Spot Chapter-14
8. Select the incorrect match. 14. Mycorrhiza is a symbiotic association of fungi with
roots of higher plants. Plants get all of the following
(1) Nostoc – Autotrophic N2 fixer
benefits from such associations, except
(2) Biogas – Contains methane only
(1) Resistance to root borne pathogens
(3) Flocs – Masses of bacteria and fungi
(2) Tolerance to salinity and drought
(4) Glomus – Forms mycorrhiza
(3) Increase in plant growth
9. Select the incorrect statement.
(4) Shelter and food
(1) Curd is more nutritious than milk
15. The first antibiotic was discovered by Alexander
(2) Curd has microorganisms commonly called Fleming. The source for this antibiotic was
lactic acid bacteria (LAB)
(1) Staphylococci (2) Aspergillus niger
(3) In our stomach, LAB play very beneficial role
(3) Penicillium notatum (4) Streptococcus
in increasing disease causing microbes
16. Select the incorrect statement about biocontrol
(4) LAB convert milk into curd
agents.
10. Swiss cheese is rich in protein and calcium. It is
(1) It refers to the use of biological methods for
ripened by
controlling plants diseases and pests
(1) A bacterium, Leuconostoc
(2) The use of biocontrol measures reduce our
(2) A bacterium, Propionibacterium sharmanii dependence on toxic chemicals and pesticides
(3) A fungus, Penicillium roqueforti (3) These are toxic and extremely harmful to
humans and hav e been polluting our
(4) A fungus, Penicillium camemberti
environment
11. Match the following organisms in Column-I to the
products they are used to produce mentioned in (4) They do not completely eradicate the pests
Column-II and select the correct option. and pathogens
17. Baculoviruses are biocontrol agents. Select the
Column-I Column-II incorrect statement about them.
Saccharomyces Acetic acid
a. (i) (1) These are pathogens that attack insects and
cerevisiae
Aspergillus niger other arthropods
b. (ii) Butyric acid
(2) These are in the genus Nucleopolyhedrovirus
c. Acetobacter aceti (iii) Citric acid
(3) They have species-specific, narrow spectrum
Clostridium Bread insecticidal applications
d. (iv)
butylicum
(4) They hav e negativ e impacts on plants,
(1) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii) mammals or even on non-target insects
(2) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i) 18. During sewage water treatment, the step which
(3) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv) removes large and small particles through filtration
and sedimentation is
(4) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii)
(1) Primary treatment
12. Secondary sewage treatment is mainly a
(2) Secondary treatment
(1) Chemical process
(3) Biological treatment
(2) Physical process
(4) Tertiary treatment
(3) Biological process
19. If Biochemical Oxygen demand (BOD) of water is
(4) Physicochemical process high, it means
13. Organic acid used in preparation of vinegar in an (1) Its polluting potential is high
acid. It is commercially obtained from
(2) Its content of inorganic matter is high
(1) A bacterium (2) A fungus
(3) It has high dissolved oxygen
(3) A virus (4) A plant
(4) It is free from organic matter

[2]
NCERT Hot Spot Chapter-14
20. Activated sludge 26. Which of the following enzymes is used to clarify
fruit juices?
(1) Contains anaerobic bacteria only
(1) Pectinase (2) Lipases
(2) Is sediment, formed in settling tank
(3) Streptokinase (4) Lactase
(3) Formed during primary treatment of sewage
27. The greater the BOD of waste water.
(4) Is pumped into an aerobic sludge digester to
produce biogas (1) Lesser is the amount of organic matter
21. The organisms which are used commercially to (2) More is its polluting potential
produce statins and cyclosporin A are
(3) Lesser is its polluting potential
(1) Fungi and bacteria respectively
(4) More is its DO
(2) Bacterial species
28. Choose correct pair of free living nitrogen fixing
(3) Fungal species soil bacteria.
(4) Bacteria and fungi respectively (1) Rhizobium and Anabaena
22. Which of the following pairs has both the microbes (2) Nostoc and Azolla
that are not used as biofertilisers?
(3) Azospirillum and Azotobacter
(1) Azospirillum and Azotobacter
(4) Oscillatoria and Nitrobacter
(2) Cyanobacteria and Rhizobium
29. W hich of the following alcoholic drinks are
(3) Rhizopus and Aspergillus obtained without distillation?
(4) Glomus and Anabaena (1) Beer and whisky (2) Brandy and rum
23. Leavening of dough is caused by secretion of all (3) Wine and beer (4) Whisky and rum
the enzymes, except
30. __A__ are commonly found in the anaerobic
(1) Amylase (2) Maltase sludge digestor during sewage treatment.
(3) Zymase (4) Lactase Select the correct option for A.
24. Methanogens are found in (1) Halophiles (2) Thermoacidophiles
A. Ethanol (3) Methanogens (4) Propionibacterium
B. Organic acid 31. Biogas is a mixture of all, except
C. Anaerobic sludge (1) CO2 (2) Methane
D. Rumen of cattle (3) O3 (4) H2S
(1) A, C, D (2) C, D 32. The full potential of penicillin as an effective
antibiotic was established by
(3) B, C, D (4) A, B
(1) A. Fleming
25. Read statements A and B and select the correct
option. (2) A. Fleming and E. Chain
Statement A : Toddy is a traditional drink of South (3) H. Florey and E. Chain
India made by fermentation of palm sap.
(4) A. Fleming and W. Flemming
Statement B : Amylase enzyme obained from
33. Which of the following organisms is used for
Aspergillus is used to degrade starch.
commercial production of ethanol?
(1) Only statement A is correct
(1) Bacteria (2) Yeast
(2) Both statements A and B are correct
(3) BGA (4) Algae
(3) Both statements A and B are incorrect
34. BT-cotton is
(4) Only statement B is correct

[3]
NCERT Hot Spot Chapter-14
(1) Resistant to attack of butterfly caterpillar (4) If both Assertion and Reason are f alse
statements, then mark (4).
(2) Non-transgenic plant
(3) Used as biofertilisers 39. A : Treatment of waste water in done is STP by
heterotrophic microbes.
(4) Resistant to tobacco mosaic virus
R : Heterotrophic microbes, all of them, are strict
35. Choose the wrong statement regarding anaerobes.
Trichoderma.
40. A : The primary treatment in STP involves both
(1) It is an alga and used as biofertiliser
filtration and sedimentation.
(2) It is free livinig fungus
R : Primary treatment is a physical process.
(3) It is very common in root ecosystem
41. A : Dosa and idli are fermented preparation of rice
(4) It is an effective biocontrol agent and black gram.
36. What gases are produced in anaerobic sludge R: Microbes used are Leuconostoc and
digesters ?
Saccharomyces.
(1) Methane and CO2 only
42. A : Large holes in swiss cheese are created due
(2) Methane, Hydrogen sulphide and O2 to CO2 produced by the fungi.
(3) Methane, Hydrogen sulphide and CO2 R : Roquef ort cheese is f ermented using
(4) Hydrogen sulphide and CO2 propionibacterium.
37. At which of the f ollowing steps of sewage 43. A : Penicillin was used to treat American soldiers
treatment, floating debris are removed? during World War-I.
(1) Biological treatment R : Penicillin is effective against all Gram negative
(2) Primary treatment bacteria.

(3) Tertiary treatment 44. A : Trichoderma polysporum is a source of

cyclosporin-A.
(4) Anaerobic sludge digestion
R : Streptococcus products can be used as clot
38. Product of a type of yeast that is used as
commercial blood cholesterol lowering agent is buster.

(1) Cyclosporin A (2) Streptokinase 45. A : Baculoviruses attack insects and other
arthropods.
(3) Amylase (4) Statin
R : Baculoviruses are bioherbicides.
SECTION-B 46. A : Azadirachta is a natural insecticide.
Assertion - Reason Type Questions R : It is obtained from Azolla and kills many
In the following questions, a statement of assertion insects.
(A) is followed by a statement of reason (R)
(1) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the
reason is the correct explanation of the
assertion, then mark (1).
(2) If both Assertion and Reason are true but the
reason is not the correct explanation of the
assertion, then mark (2).
(3) If Assertion is true statement but Reason is
false, then mark (3).

  

[4]
 Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005
Phone : 011-47623456  Fax : 011-47623472

NCERT HOT SPOT - 15

Topics covered :

Botany : Organisms & Population

BOTANY
SECTION-A B. The graph results in a S-shaped curve when
we plot population density in relation to time.
1. Asymptote in a logistic growth curve is obtained
(1) Only statement A is correct
when
(2) Only statement B is correct
(1) K > N
(3) Both the statements are correct
(2) K < N
(4) Both the statements are incorrect
(3) The value of r approaches zero
7. Read the following statements and select the
(4) K = N
correct option
2. Allen’s rule
A. Natality and immigration increase the
(1) Says that mammals of colder climate have low
population density of an area.
RBC count
B. Birth rate and death rate are population
(2) Says that mammals of colder climate have
attributes.
shorter ears and limbs
(1) Only statement A is correct
(3) Is related to adaptation of xerophytic plants
(2) Only statement B is correct
(4) Is only restricted to plants
(3) Both statements A and B are correct
3. Predators play important roles in ecosystem.
(4) Both statements A and B are incorrect
Which of the given is not a role of predators in
maintenance of an ecosystem? 8. Graphic representation of various age groups is
called age pyramids and it is triangular type, if the
(1) Overexploitation of its prey
population is
(2) Keep prey population under control
(1) Stable (2) Declining
(3) Transfer energy across trophic levels
(3) Mature type (4) Young and growing
(4) Maintain species diversity
9. The most ecologically relevant environmental factor
4. Majority of animals and nearly all plants cannot
is:
maintain a constant internal environment, their body
(1) Soil (2) Light
temperature changes with the ambient temperature.
They are called (3) Water (4) Temperature
(1) Conformers (2) Regulators 10. Select the incorrect statement about eurythermal
organisms
(3) Partial regulators (4) Suspenders
(1) Tolerate wide range of temperature
5. All of the following are the attributes of a population,
except (2) Can tolerate large changes in temperature
(1) Sex ratio (2) Death of an individual (3) Most of the mammals are eurythermal
(3) Natality (4) Birth rate (4) Such organisms live in areas where the
temperature in uniform throughout the year
6. Read the following statements and select the
correct option w.r.t. exponential growth of a 11. Desert plants are adapted in their environment. All
population of the following features are associated to such
plants that help them to adapt, except
A. The equation for exponential growth can be
(1) Thick cuticle on their leaf surfaces
dN (2) Stomata arranged in deep pits
represented as  rN .
dt (3) Leaves are reduced to spines
(4) Presence of aerenchyma in roots
NCERT Hot Spot Chapter-15
12. In exponential growth model 19. Bell-shaped pyramid indicates
(1) Value of r can’t be influenced by environmental (1) Growing population
conditions
(2) Declining population
(2) Population size can go beyond carrying
capacity (3) Stable population
(3) Slash in population size never occurs (4) First stable then declining population
(4) Four distinct growth phases can be observed 20. When population reaches carrying capacity
13. During altitude sickness (1) Natality = Mortality
(1) Body gets more oxygen due to high (2) Death rate < Birth rate
atmospheric pressure
(3) Death rate > Birth rate
(2) Body decreases RBCs production
(4) None of these
(3) There is decrease in binding capacity of
haemoglobin 21. Vital index for a population represents
(4) There is decrease in breathing rate B N
(1)  100 (2) 1–
14. The equation which describes exponential growth is D K
 N (3) rN (4) (B + I) – (D + E)
(1) dN / dt  rN  K   (2) dN/dt = rN 22. Read the following statements
 K 
A : No two species are believed to occupy exactly
NK  dN the same niche
(3) dN / dt  rN   (4)  rN  K
B : Most of the mammals and birds are
 N  dt
stenothermal
15. Select the mismatched pair
C : Global warming resulting into changed species
(1) Diapause – Zooplanktons
distribution
(2) Regulators – Birds
D : Edaphic factors are related with soil
(3) Conformers – Nearly all plants
How many statements are wrong ?
(4) Migrate – Xerophytes
(1) 4 (2) 3
16. Which type of human population is represented by
(3) 2 (4) 1
the following age pyramid?
23. _ ‘A’__ and __‘B’__ are two basic processes that
contribute to an increase in population density.
Identify ‘A’ and ‘B’.
(1) A = Emigration, B = Immigration
(2) A = Natality, B = Immigration
(3) A = Natality, B = Mortality
(1) Stable (2) Expanding
(3) Declining (4) Growing (4) A = Immigration, B = Mortality
17. Read the following statements and select the 24. In the equation of logistic growth of population,
correct option dN K  N  K N
 rN  , the component  K 
A. If a country has small number of pre- dt  K   
reproductive individuals followed by a large
represents
number of reproductive individuals, then it
shows negative growth (1) Environmental resistance
B. Bell shaped pyramid shows stable growth. (2) Carrying capacity
(1) Only statement A is correct (3) Biotic potential
(2) Only statement B is correct (4) Vital index
(3) Both the statement A and B are correct 25. Select the incorrect statement
(4) Both the statement A and B are incorrect (1) All the plants are conformers as they maintain
18. Mortality refers to their internal temperatures
(1) Number of deaths in a population during a (2) CAM pathway is an adaptation to xerophytic
given period condition
(2) Number of individuals of the population who left (3) Tiger census in national park is often based on
the habitat and gone elsewhere pug marks and fecal pellets
(3) Number of births in a population during a given (4) Few lower vertebrates and invertebrates are also
period capable to maintain homeostasis
(4) Number of individuals that come into the habitat
from elsewhere
[2]
NCERT Hot Spot Chapter-15
26. Ecology is basically concerned with four levels of
organisations : Organism, A , Communities, and
B . Select correct option for A and B.

Internal level

Internal level
(1) A = Species, B = Landscape
(2) A = Population, B = Biomes (3) (4)
(3) A = Landscape, B = Biosphere
External level External level
(4) A = Environment, B = Landscape
27. In the given diagrammatic representations of 31. Ecological niche of an organism represents
organismic response to temperature, identify the A,
a. The range of conditions that it can tolerate.
B and C (organisms).
A b. Resources which it cannot utilise.
c. Its functional role in ecological system.
Internal level (Temp.)

B Choose correct option.

C
(1) Only a (2) Both a and b
(3) Both a and c (4) All a, b and c
32. In logistic growth, a plot of population density (N)
in relation to time (t) results in a sigmoid curve,
which finally shows an asymptote, when
(1) Intrinsic rate of natural increase is zero
External level (Temp.) (2) Carrying capacity = Population density
(3) Carrying capacity > Population density
(1) A = Regulators, B = Conformers, C = Partial
(4) Carrying capacity < Population density
regulators
33. What is/are true about conformers?
(2) A = Regulators, B = Partial regulators, a. Their body temperature changes with the
C = Conformers ambient temperature.
(3) A = Conformers, B = Regulators, C = Partial b. They are able to maintain constant osmotic
regulators concentration in aquatic condition.
(4) A = Conformers, B = Partial regulators, c. An overwhelming majority of animals and
C = Regulators nearly all plants are conformers.
28. Four basic processes - Natality (B), Mortality (D), (1) Only a (2) Only b
Immigration (I) and Emigration (E) – changes the (3) Only a and c (4) All a, b and c
population density. If N is the population density at 34. Which of the following is a treeless biome?
time t, then its density at time (t+1) is correctly (1) Desert (2) Grassland
represented as – (3) Tundra (4) Both (2) and (3)
(1) Nt+1 = Nt + [(B+I) – (D+E)] 35. A population at any given time is composed of
(2) Nt+1 = Nt + [(B+D) – (I+E)] individuals of __A__ ages. If the age distribution is
(3) Nt = Nt+1 + [(B+I) – (D+E)] plotted for the population, the resulting structure is
called a/an __B__ .
(4) Nt+1 = Nt [(B+I) + (D+E)]
Fill in the blanks with suitable option for A and B.
29. Competition can involve all of the following probable, A B
except
(1) Same J-shaped curve
(1) It can occur between closely related or
(2) Different Age pyramid
unrelated species
(3) Same Age pyramid
(2) It may lead to extinction of a species
(3) It occurs only when resource is limited (4) Different J-shaped curve
(4) It results significant reduction in fitness of one 36. Organisms which are restricted to a narrow range
species by the presence of other of salinities, are called
30. Find the correct graphical representation of (1) Stenohaline (2) Euryhaline
organism response w.r.t. ‘conformers’. (3) Hypersaline (4) Hyposaline
37. The salt concentration (in parts per thousand) of
sea water may be
Internal level

Internal level

(1) < 5 (2) 30-35

(1) (2) (3) > 100 (4) 60-65

External level External level

[3]
NCERT Hot Spot Chapter-15
38. State true (T ) or false (F) f or the following
statements and choose the correct option.
SECTION-B
a. UV-C and UV-B radiations are absorbed by Assertion - Reason Type Questions
ozone layer of stratosphere. In the following questions, a statement of assertion
b. pH, mineral composition, grain size and water (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R)
holding capacity of soil and topography (1) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the
determine, to a large extent the, vegetation of reason is the correct explanation of the
any area. assertion, then mark (1).
c. Regional and local variations within each biome (2) If both Assertion and Reason are true but the
leads to the formation of a wide variety of reason is not the correct explanation of the
habitats. assertion, then mark (2).
d. Desert lizards manage body temperature by (3) If Assertion is true statement but Reason is
physiological means. false, then mark (3).
a b c d (4) If both Assertion and Reason are f alse
(1) F F F T statements, then mark (4).
(2) T T F F 41. A : The logistic population growth is expressed by
(3) T T T F dN  N
(4) T F T F the equation  rN  1   .
dt  K 
39. Choose the incorrect match
R : The logistic growth is more realistic than
(1) Triangular age – Expanding
exponential growth.
pyramid population
42. A : Ecology is basically concerned with four levels
(2) Tiger census – Often based on Pug
of biological organisation.
marks and fecal
pellets R : It includes organisms, populations,
communities and biomes.
(3) Bell shaped age – Mature population
Pyramid 43. A : The similarity found in high altitudes and polar
region is the presence of low temperature
(4) Urn shaped age – Positive growth
snowfall, scanty or no vegetation.
pyramid R : Both the above mentioned regions are found in
40. An insect population showing explosive increase in the same geographical zone.
its population in a short time during rainy season.
44. A : The smaller organisms tend to loose body heat
At the end of the season, population declines
very fast as compared to larger animals.
abruptly. What should be the most appropriate
reason? R : Smaller animals, as compared to larger animals,
have high surface area to volume ratio.
(1) Environmental resistance has become effective
suddenly or resources may have depleted 45. A : Diapause is a stage of suspended development
(2) The population of its predators have increased in fishes.
suddenly R : Fishes usually have show suspension of
(3) Population growth curve is sigmoid growth.
(4) All food plants die suddenly at the end of rainy
season

  

[4]
 Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005
Phone : 011-47623456  Fax : 011-47623472

NCERT HOT SPOT - 16

Topics covered :

Botany : Ecosystem

BOTANY

SECTION-A b. Primary consumer (ii) Small fish

1. Which of the following ecological pyramids are c. Primary carnivore (iii) Phytoplankton
generally upright? (1) a(iii), b(ii), c(i) (2) a(ii), b(iii), c(i)
(a) Pyramid of number in tree ecosystem (3) a(i), b(iii), c(ii) (4) a(iii), b(i), c(ii)
(b) Pyramid of energy 5. Which of the following is not a factor affecting
(c) Pyramid of number in grassland ecosystem primary productivity of an ecosystem?
(d) Pyramid of biomass in sea (1) Soil moisture
The correct option is (2) Availability of nutrients
(1) (a) and (b) (2) (b) and (c) (3) Diversity of herbivores
(3) (c) and(d) (4) (a) and (d) (4) Availability of solar radiations
2. What type of ecological pyramid would be obtained 6. Which of the given statements is not true for
with the following data? humus?
Secondary Consumer: 45 kg m–2 (1) It is slightly acidic
Primary Consumer: 25 kg m–2 (2) It functions as reservoir of nutrients
Primary Producer: 7 kg m–2 (3) It is highly resistant to microbial action
(1) Upright pyramid of energy (4) It undergoes decomposition at rapid rate
(2) Inverted pyramid of biomass 7. Read the given statements stating them true (T) or
(3) Upright pyramid of biomass false (F) and select the correct option
(4) Upright pyramid of number (a) The major site of decomposition is the upper
3. If 100 kcal energy falls on the green parts of plant layer of soil in terrestrial habitats and bottom of
in a food chain shown below, then how much water bodies
energy will be available to primary carnivores? (b) Catabolism is carried out by saprotrophic
Plant (T1)  T2  T3  T4 bacteria and fungi
(1) 100 cal (3) 0.01 kcal (c) Decomposition of detritus is slow, if detritus
possesses proteins, nucleic acids and sugars
(2) 100 kcal (4) 1 kcal
(a) (b) (c)
4. Match the trophic levels with their correct examples
in aquatic ecosystem (1) T T T
Column-I Column-ll (2) F F T
a. Primary producer (i) Zooplankton (3) F T F
(4) T T F
NCERT Hot Spot Chapter-16
8. Mark the incorrect statement w.r.t. ecological (1) These are graphical representations of various
pyramid ecological parameters at successive trophic
(1) It does not take into account the species level of food chain
belonging to two or more trophic levels (2) It has producers at the base
(2) It assumes a simple food chain (3) Pyramid of numbers in pond ecosystem is
inverted
(3) It accommodates a food web
(4) Pyramid of energy is always upright
(4) It does not give any place for saprophytes,
decomposers and detritivores 17. Which of the given is/are not key functional aspects
of the ecosystem?
9. Ten percent law of energy transfer was proposed by
(a) Energy flow (b) Species composition
(1) Lindeman (2) Pandurang Hegde (c) Nutrient cycling (d) Stratification
(3) Robert Costanza (4) Edward Wilson (1) (a) and (b) (2) (b) and (d)
10. Dead plant remains such as leaves, bark, flowers (3) (a), (b) and (c) (4) Only (d)
and dead remains of animals, including fecal matter
18. In an ecosystem, vertical distribution of different
constitute
species occupying different levels is called
(1) Detritivores (2) Humus
(1) Eutrophication
(3) Detritus (4) Productivity (2) Species diversification
11. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. primary (3) Stratification
productivity
(4) Speciation
(1) It is the rate at which biomass is produced by
plants during photosynthesis per unit area over 19. If 50 J of energy is trapped at producer level then,
time period how much energy will be available for frog in the
(2) It is expressed in terms of (g m–1) yr –1 given food chain?
(3) It can be further divided into gross and net Plant  Grasshopper  Frog  Snakes
primary productivity (1) 5 J (2) 0.5 J
(4) It includes the av ailable biomass f or (3) 0.05 J (4) 0.005 J
consumption to heterotrophs
20. The rate of formation of new organic matter by
12. Which of the following are true for tree ecosystem?
consumers is defined as
a. Upright pyramid of energy
(1) Net primary productivity
b. Inverted pyramid of biomass
c. Upright pyramid of number (2) Secondary productivity
(1) Only b (2) Only a (3) Gross primary productivity
(3) Only a and c (4) Only b and c (4) Primary productivity
13. Select the incorrect match 21. Match the columns correctly
(1) Producers – Tree
Column I Column II
(2) Primary consumers – Cow
(i) Producer (a) Phytoplankton
(3) Top carnivores – Humans
(4) Herbivores – Snakes (ii) Primary consumer (b) Zooplankton
14. All given are characteristics of anthropogenic (iii) Secondary consumer (c) Wolf
ecosystem, except (iv) Top consumer (d) Lion
(1) Have little diversity (1) (i) – a, (ii) – b, (iii) – c, (iv) – d
(2) Are self regulatory in nature (2) (i) – c, (ii) – b, (iii) – d, (iv) – a
(3) High productivity
(3) (i) – a, (ii) – c, (iii) – b, (iv) – d
(4) Simple food chain
(4) (i) – d, (ii) – a, (iii) – b, (iv) – c
15. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. Detritus Food
Chain (DFC) 22. The rate of production of organic matter by
(1) It involves decomposers plants per unit area over a time period during
(2) It is major conduit of energy flow in aquatic photosynthesis is called
ecosystem (1) Primary production
(3) It involves mainly fungi and bacteria (2) Primary productivity
(4) It begins with detritus or dead organic matter (3) GPP
16. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. ecological
(4) NPP
pyramid

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NCERT Hot Spot Chapter-16
23. Select the incorrect match 29. Rate of decomposition is slow in case of increase in
(1) Primary producer – Grass (1) Temperature
(2) Secondary consumer – Man (2) Moisture
(3) Primary consumer – Goat (3) Lignin content in detritus
(4) Tertiary consumer – Rabbit (4) Nitrogenous compound in detritus
24. Read the following statements and choose the 30. Arrange different seral communities in sequential
correct option order w.r.t xerarch succession
A. Same organism always occupy only one (1) Lichen  Bryophytes  Herbs  Shrubs 
specific trophic level in a food web Forest
B. Food web provides stability to an ecosystem (2) Phytoplanktons  Submerged plant stage 
Reed swamp stage  Marsh meadow stage
(1) Only A is incorrect
(3) Herb  Shrub  Perennial grass  Tree
(2) Only B is incorrect
(4) Moss  Annual grass  Perennial grass 
(3) Both A and B are incorrect
Shrub
(4) Both A and B are correct
31. Find out which of the following statements are
25. Read the given statements and select the correct true(T) / false(F) and choose the correct option
option
I. Detritus food chain begins with detritivores
(A) Pyramid of biomass for every ecosystem is
II. Humus functions as reservoir of nutrients
always upright
III. Crop field is a natural ecosystem
(B) 10% law of energy transfer justifies shape of
pyramid of energy IV. Desert is one of the least productiv e
ecosystem
(1) Only statement (A) is correct
(2) Only statement (B) is correct
I II III IV
(3) Both the statements (A) and (B) is correct
(1) F T F T
(4) Both the statements (A) and (B) are incorrect
(2) F F T T
26. The correct order of decomposition is
(3) T T F F
(1) Fragmentation  Catabolism  Leaching
 Humification  Mineralisation (4) T F T F
(2) Fragmentation  Leaching  Catabolism
 Humification  Mineralisation 32. In a food chain, respiratory loss gradually increases
in successive trophic levels. At producer, consumer
(3) Catabolism  Fragmentation  Leaching
and top carnivore level it is respectively (in
 Humification  Mineralisation
percentage)
(4) Catabolism  Fragmentation  Leaching
(1) 10, 20, 30 (2) 20, 30, 40
 Mineralisation  Humification
27. Read the following statements and choose the (3) 20, 30, 60 (4) 20, 40, 60
correct option 33. Select the odd one out with respect to energy flow
A. Secondary succession is comparatively faster in an ecosystem
than primary succession (1) Bidirectional
B. Secondary succession begins in an area where (2) Follows 1st law of thermodynamics
previously some organic sediment/perennating (3) Follows 2nd law of thermodynamics
plant parts are present
(4) 10% law is applicable
(1) Only A is correct
34. Net primary productivity (NPP) is represented as
(2) Only B is correct
(1) NPP = GPP – R (2) NPP = GPP + R
(3) Both A and B are correct
(4) Both A and B are incorrect GPP
(3) NPP = GPP × R (4) NPP 
28. The identification and enumeration of plant and R
animal species of an ecosystem is called 35. Which one of the following is not a functional unit
(1) Species composition of an ecosystem?
(2) Stratification (1) Productivity (2) Stratification
(3) Population density (3) Energy flow (4) Decomposition
(4) Emigration
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NCERT Hot Spot Chapter-16
36. Primary productivity is expressed in terms of (2) If both Assertion & Reason are true but the
(1) gm m–2 year–1 reason is not the correct explanation of the
(2) kcal m–2 year–1 assertion, then mark (2).
(3) kg m–2 year–1 (3) If Assertion is true statement but Reason is
(4) Both (1) and (2) are correct false, then mark (3).
37. Which of the following food chain may not be di- (4) If both Assertion and Reason are f alse
rectly dependent upon solar energy ? statements, then mark (4).
(1) Grazing (2) Detritus 40. A : Agroecosystem is the largest man made
(3) Terrestrial (4) Aquatic ecosystem.
38. Read the following statements A and B carefully R : It includes crop fields, garden and aquarium.
and choose the correct option
41. A : Primary producers form the base of food chain.
A : The pyramid of energy is always upright
R : Primary producers are autotrophic organisms
B : The flow of energy is unidirectional from
which fix up solar energy and manufacture their
producer to consumer level according to
own food from inorganic raw material.
Lindeman’s Law
42. A : The pyramid of biomass in sea is generally
(1) Both the statements A and B are incorrect
inverted
(2) Statement A is correct but B is incorrect
R : The biomass of zooplanktons far exceeds
(3) Both the statements A and B are correct and
B is the correct explanation of A
that of phytoplanktons

(4) Both the statements A and B are correct but B 43. A : An ecosystem's gross primary productivity
is not the correct explanation of A (GPP) is the total amount of organic matter it
produced through photosynthesis.
39. The primary productivity of plants in an ecosystem
depends on R : In ecology, energy flow, also called the calorific
(1) Temperature flow, refers to the flow of energy through a food
chain.
(2) Photosynthetic capacity of plants
44. A : Humus is a dark coloured, amorphous
(3) Soil moisture
substance that is highly resistant to microbial
(4) All of the above
action.
SECTION-B R : It undergoes decomposition at an extremely
slow rate.
Assertion - Reason Type Questions
45. A : Pyramid of energy is always upright.
In the following questions, a statement of assertion
R : When energy flows from a lower to next higher
(A) is followed by a statement of reason (R)
trophic level some energy is always lost as
(1) If both Assertion & Reason are true and the heat
reason is the correct explanation of the
assertion, then mark (1).

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NCERT HOT SPOT - 17

Topics covered :

Botany : Biodiversity and Conservation

BOTANY
on ecosystem health
SECTION-A
(2) It has been explained by Paul Ehrlich
1. The given pie-chart shows proportionate number of
(3) It explains role of species richness for ecosystem
various eukaryotic organisms w.r.t plant global
health
biodiversity
(4) It has considered rivets as key species and rivets
on the wings as species
4. The outermost part of biosphere reserve in which active
cooperation between reserve management and the
local people is seen is called
(1) Buffer zone (2) Transition zone
(3) Natural zone (4) Core zone
5. Mark the incorrect match w.r.t. sacred groves found
Which of the following statement is true for ‘X’?
in several parts of India
(1) They provide all of the ecosystem services that
(1) Aravali Hills – Rajasthan
angiosperms provide
(2) Khasi and Jaintia Hills – Meghalaya
(2) They include both autotrophs as well as
heterotrophs (3) Chanda – Karnataka
(3) They include members of Chlorophyceae (4) Surguja – Madhya Pradesh
(4) They are achlorophyllous organisms 6. Which of the following is the narrowly utilitarian
services for conserving biodiversity?
2. Mark the statement which is incorrect for ecological
diversity (1) Aesthetic pleasure (2) Erosion control
(1) It is the variety of ecosystems which indicates (3) Fibre (4) Oxygen supply
diversity in the number of niches, trophic levels, 7. Which of the given is/are broadly utilitarian services
food webs, nutrient cycles and ecological for biodiversity conservation?
processes sustaining energy flow. (A) Food (B) Pollination
(2) It is also known as community diversity (C) Flood control (D) Firewood
(3) Ecosystem diversity is the product of species (1) Only (A) (2) (B) and (C)
richness and species evenness
(3) Only (D) (4) (A) and (D)
(4) India has high ecosystem diversity because of
8. Select the correct match w.r.t biodiversity in
the occurrence of a large number of variety of
Amazonian rain forest
ecosystems
(1) Plant species -less than 30,000
3. Select the statement which is not true for ‘Rivet
popper hypothesis’? (2) Reptiles -378
(1) It explains the effect of reduction of biodiversity (3) Birds - More than 40,000
(4) Amphibians -1300
NCERT Hot Spot Chapter-17
9. Which of the following equations correctly represents 17. Read the given statements stating them true (T) or
species-area relationship in the form of rectangular false (F) and select the correct option
hyperbola? (A) W arm temperatures and high humidity in
(1) log S = log C + Z log A tropical areas provide favourable conditions for
(2) log C = log Z + S log A high biodiversity.
(3) C = SAZ (B) Tropical environments unlike temperate ones,
are more seasonal.
(4) S = CAZ
(C) India has more than 1,200 species of birds
10. Which of the given is not a cause of loss of
because most of the land area of our country
biodiversity?
lies in tropics.
(1) Habitat loss and fragmentation
(1) A-T, B-T, C-T (2) A-F, B-F, C-F
(2) Co-evolution
(3) A-T, B-F, C-T (4) A-F, B-T, C-F
(3) Overexploitation
18. Five species of annual flowering plants endemic to
(4) Alien species invasion a sacred grove are pollinated only by an insect
11. ‘The Evil Quartet’ refers to species. During last 10 years much reduction in
(1) Conservation strategies of biodiversity population density of one of these plant species is
(2) Sources of noise pollution reported. What may be the reason behind this
reduction?
(3) Four major causes of biodiversity loss
(1) Alien species invasion which is predator for that
(4) Sources of water pollution pollinating agent
12. Select the correct pair w.r.t. ex-situ conservation (2) Pollination of that plant by another alien
strategies species
(1) Seed bank and biosphere reserve (3) Alien species invasion which is a specific seed
(2) Botanical garden and national park eater
(3) Wildlife sanctuaries and seed bank (4) Reduction in the population of that pollinating
(4) Wildlife safari parks and botanical gardens insect due to some disease
13. Species which are more susceptible to extinction 19. Khasi and Jaintia Hills, Aravalli Hills and Western
have following population characteristics, except Ghats are considered as
(1) Large body size (1) National Parks (2) Biosphere Reserve
(2) Small population size and low reproductive rate (3) Wildlife Sanctuaries (4) Sacred groves
(3) First trophic level in food chain with high 20. Select odd one w.r.t species posing a threat to the
reproductive rate indegenous species
(4) Fixed habitat and migratory routes (1) Lantana (2) Carrot grass
14. The species is confined to particular region and not (3) Passenger pegion (4) Clarias gariepinus
found anywhere else is known as 21. Biologists are not sure about the number of
(1) Endemic species (2) Extinct species prokaryotic species. All of the following are the
(3) Vulnerable species (4) Endangered species reasons behind this problem, except
15. The relationship between species richness and area (1) Conventional taxonomic methods are not
on logarithmic scale is Log S = Log C + Z Log A. suitable for identifying microbial species
What does ‘Z’ represent? (2) If molecular identification method is followed
(1) Species richness then their diversity can go to millions
(2) Regression coefficient (3) Many microbial species are simply not
culturable under laboratory condition
(3) Y-intercept
(4) Prokaryotes and microbes are cosmopolitan in
(4) Area distribution
16. The relationship between species richness and area 22. A population of Rauwolfia vomitoria is adapted in
is given by different Himalayan range and results variation in
(1) Robert May potency and concentration of active chemical. This
(2) Paul Ehrlich exhibits
(3) Alexander von Humboldt (1) Species diversity (2) Ecological diversity
(4) Edward Wilson (3) Genetic diversity (4) Community diversity

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NCERT Hot Spot Chapter-17
23. Select the correct option w.r.t. biodiversity in
different regions in descending order. A B C
(1) Arctic > Tropical > Temperate (1) 14 90 448
(2) Tropical > Temperate > Arctic (2) 14 448 90
(3) Temperate > Tropical > Arctic (3) 90 14 448
(4) Tropical > Arctic > Temperate (4) 448 90 14
24. State true or false for the given statements and
select the correct option 30. In biosphere reserve, human settlements are
allowed in
A. Species diversity is product of species richness
and species evenness. (1) Core (2) Buffer
B. Number of species present within a unit area (3) Transition (4) Hot Spot
is species richness. 31. Which of the following groups represents maxi-
C. More than 1000 varieties of mango occur in mum species diversity among vertibrates?
India due to species diversity. (1) Reptiles (2) Birds
A B C (3) Amphibians (4) Fishes
(1) F T T 32. A biological community is said to be stable when
(2) T T F it has all of the following characters, except
(3) T F T (1) Year to year variation in productivity
(4) T F F (2) Resistant to allien species invasion
25. Maximum percentage of which of the following (3) Resistance to occassional environmental
groups are presently facing the threat of extinction? perturbance
(1) Mammalia (2) Gymnosperm (4) Species richners in the community
(3) Bird (4) Fish
33. Endemic plants are those which are
26. The major cause of extinction of passenger pigeon
is (1) Cosmopolitan in distribution
(1) Habitat loss and fragmentation (2) Restricted to certain area
(2) Alien species invasion (3) Found in arctic region
(3) Over-exploitation (4) Gregarious in habitat
(4) Co-extinction
34. One of the ex-situ conservation methods for
27. Which one of the following is not true for hotspots? endangered species is
(1) High level of species richness
(1) Wildlife Sanctuaries
(2) High degree of endemism
(3) Degree of threat in terms of habitat loss
(2) Biosphere reserve
(4) Ex-situ conservation strategy (3) Cryopreservation
28. Biosphere reserves are different from National Park (4) National Park
as 35. Which of the following is most dangerous to
(1) Humans are integral part of biosphere reserve wildlife loss in an island ?
(2) Threatened species are protected
(1) Over exploitation
(3) It is the part of protected land
(2) Manmade forest
(4) More than one options are correct
29. India has __A___ biosphere reserve, __B __ (3) Habitat destruction
national park and ___C___ wildlife sanctuar- (4) Introduction of foreign species
ies.

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NCERT Hot Spot Chapter-17
40. A : When a host fish species becomes extinct, its
SECTION - B
unique assemblage of parasites also meet the
Assertion - Reason Type Questions same fate.
In the following questions, a statement of assertion R : Coextinction is the most important cause
(A) is followed by a statement of reason (R) driving animals and plants to extinction.
(1) If both Assertion & Reason are true and the 41. A : Since the origin and diversification of life on
reason is the correct explanation of the earth, there were five episodes of mass
assertion, then mark (1). extinction of species.
(2) If both Assertion & Reason are true but the R : The accusing finger is clearly pointing to
reason is not the correct explanation of the human activities.
assertion, then mark (2). 42. A : The main cause of the loss of biodiversity can
(3) If Assertion is true statement but Reason is be attributed to the influence of human beings
false, then mark (3). on the world ecosystem.
(4) If both Assertion and Reason are f alse R : Biodiversity loss has negative effects on several
statements, then mark (4). aspects of human well being, such as food
36. A : Western ghats have greater amphibian species security, energy security.
diversity as compared to Eastern Ghats. 43. A : Bioprospecting is the process of discovery and
R : A single species might show high diversity at commercialization of new products based on
genetic level over its distributional range. biological resources.
37. A : Animals have achieved greater diversification R : Bioprospecting has only recently begun to
than plants. incorporate such knowledge in f ocusing
R : Animals are mobile and possess nervous screening effort for bioactive compounds.
system. 44. A : In situ conservation is the conservation of
38. A : Species richness is highest in tropics. genetic resources in natural populations of
plant or animal species.
R : Tropics had more evolutionary time.
R : In situ conservation involves the protection of
39. A : Biodiversity boosts ecosystem productivity
entire ecosystem.
where each species has an important role to
play. 45. A : A sacred grove is a tract of forest of special
religious importance to a particular culture.
R : It can refer to genetic variation, ecosystem
variation, or species variation within an area, R : A sacred grove always has high levels of
biome or planet. species richness and high degree of
endemism.

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