CCS335 CLOUD COMPUTING

MCQ QUESTIONS

UNIT I CLOUD ARCHITECTURE MODELS AND INFRASTRUCTURE

Cloud Architecture: System Models for Distributed and Cloud Computing – NIST Cloud
Computing Reference Architecture – Cloud deployment models – Cloud service models; Cloud
Infrastructure: Architectural Design of Compute and Storage Clouds – Design Challenges

1. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of cloud computing according to NIST?

- A) On-demand self-service
- B) Scalability and elasticity
- C) Proprietary technologies
- D) Broad network access

2. What cloud deployment model provides computing resources to the general public over
the internet?
- A) Private cloud
- B) Community cloud
- C) Public cloud
- D) Hybrid cloud

3. In which cloud service model do consumers have control over the operating system,
storage, and deployed applications, but not over the underlying infrastructure?
- A) Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)
- B) Platform as a Service (PaaS)
- C) Software as a Service (SaaS)
- D) Function as a Service (FaaS)

4. Which cloud infrastructure design principle ensures that resources are dynamically
allocated and released based on demand?
- A) Elasticity
- B) Scalability
- C) Redundancy
- D) Homogeneity

5. What is a major design challenge for ensuring data security in a cloud environment?
- A) Resource pooling
- B) Multi-tenancy
- C) On-demand self-service
- D) Broad network access

6. Which cloud deployment model is suitable for organizations that require a high degree
of control over their data and infrastructure?
- A) Public cloud
- B) Private cloud
- C) Hybrid cloud
- D) Community cloud

7. What does the term "multi-tenancy" refer to in cloud computing?

- A) Sharing physical resources across different organizations
- B) Using multiple cloud providers simultaneously
- C) Running multiple virtual machines on a single physical server
- D) Establishing multiple private clouds within an organization
8. Which cloud service model provides consumers with access to development tools and
environments without the need to manage the underlying infrastructure?
- A) Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)
- B) Platform as a Service (PaaS)
- C) Software as a Service (SaaS)
- D) Function as a Service (FaaS)

9. What architectural characteristic of cloud computing ensures that services are

available even if one or more components fail?
- A) Scalability
- B) Redundancy
- C) Elasticity
- D) Resource pooling

10. Which cloud infrastructure design principle refers to the ability to scale resources up
or down based on workload changes?
- A) Redundancy
- B) Scalability
- C) Elasticity
- D) Multi-tenancy

Answers:
1. C) Proprietary technologies
2. C) Public cloud
3. A) Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)
4. A) Elasticity
5. B) Multi-tenancy
6. B) Private cloud
7. A) Sharing physical resources across different organizations
8. B) Platform as a Service (PaaS)
9. B) Redundancy
10. C) Elasticity

11. Which organization defines the NIST Cloud Computing Reference Architecture?
- A) IETF
- B) IEEE
- C) NIST
- D) ISO

12. What is a characteristic of the NIST Cloud Computing Reference Architecture?

- A) It prescribes specific cloud technologies.
- B) It defines a standard programming language for cloud applications.
- C) It provides a conceptual framework for understanding cloud computing.
- D) It focuses primarily on proprietary cloud solutions.

13.In cloud computing, what does the term "resource pooling" refer to?
- A) Allocating resources in real-time based on demand
- B) Sharing physical and virtual resources among multiple consumers
- C) Providing access to cloud services via the internet
- D) Ensuring high availability of cloud services

14. Which cloud deployment model is typically used by multiple organizations with
shared concerns over security and compliance?
- A) Public cloud
- B) Private cloud
- C) Hybrid cloud
 - D) Community cloud

15. Which cloud service model provides access to software applications and databases
over the internet?
- A) Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)
- B) Platform as a Service (PaaS)
- C) Software as a Service (SaaS)
- D) Function as a Service (FaaS)

16. What is a key benefit of the Platform as a Service (PaaS) cloud service model?
- A) Consumers have full control over the underlying infrastructure.
- B) Consumers can focus on developing and deploying applications without managing the
underlying hardware and software layers.
- C) It offers virtualized computing resources on-demand.
- D) It provides fully managed databases and storage solutions.

17. Which cloud infrastructure design challenge refers to ensuring that data is not lost
and can be recovered in case of failures?
- A) Elasticity
- B) Scalability
- C) Fault tolerance
- D) Multi-tenancy

18. What is a characteristic of cloud computing that enables users to increase or decrease
resources dynamically?
- A) Elasticity
- B) Scalability
- C) Redundancy
- D) Service orientation

19. Which cloud deployment model is suitable for an organization that needs to keep
sensitive data behind a firewall but still wants some flexibility in computing resources?
- A) Public cloud
- B) Private cloud
- C) Hybrid cloud
- D) Community cloud

20. Which cloud service model allows consumers to deploy applications as small, modular
pieces of code that are executed in response to events?
- A) Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)
- B) Platform as a Service (PaaS)
- C) Software as a Service (SaaS)
- D) Function as a Service (FaaS)

Answers:
11. C) NIST
12. C) It provides a conceptual framework for understanding cloud computing.
13. B) Sharing physical and virtual resources among multiple consumers
14. D) Community cloud
15. C) Software as a Service (SaaS)
16. B) Consumers can focus on developing and deploying applications without managing
the underlying hardware and software layers.
17. C) Fault tolerance
18. A) Elasticity
19. B) Private cloud
20. D) Function as a Service (FaaS)
21. According to the NIST Cloud Computing Reference Architecture, which component
manages the virtualization layer and provides virtualized computing resources to
consumers?
- A) Cloud Consumer
- B) Cloud Provider
- C) Cloud Broker
- D) Cloud Controller

22. Which cloud deployment model is characterized by sharing computing resources

among several organizations with similar interests?
- A) Public cloud
- B) Private cloud
- C) Hybrid cloud
- D) Community cloud

23. Which cloud service model provides consumers with access to virtualized hardware
resources over the internet?
- A) Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)
- B) Platform as a Service (PaaS)
- C) Software as a Service (SaaS)
- D) Function as a Service (FaaS)

24. What is a primary challenge in ensuring data security and compliance in cloud
computing environments?
- A) Achieving scalability
- B) Managing multi-tenancy
- C) Implementing fault tolerance
- D) Establishing connectivity

25. Which cloud infrastructure design principle focuses on maintaining the availability
and reliability of services during hardware or software failures?
- A) Elasticity
- B) Redundancy
- C) Scalability
- D) Service orientation

Answers:
21. D) Cloud Controller
22. D) Community cloud
23. A) Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)
24. B) Managing multi-tenancy
25. B) Redundancy

UNIT II VIRTUALIZATION BASICS

Virtual Machine Basics – Taxonomy of Virtual Machines – Hypervisor – Key Concepts –
Virtualization structure – Implementation levels of virtualization – Virtualization Types: Full
Virtualization – Para Virtualization – Hardware Virtualization – Virtualization of CPU,
Memory and I/O devices.

1. What is a virtual machine (VM) in computing?

- A) A physical server dedicated to hosting virtual environments.
- B) A software-based emulation of a physical computer.
- C) A cloud-based application running on a virtual server.
- D) A database management system for virtual data storage.
2. Which of the following is NOT a benefit of virtual machines?
- A) Improved hardware utilization.
- B) Increased energy consumption.
- C) Ease of migration and scalability.
- D) Isolation and security.

3. In the context of virtualization, what does the term "host" refer to?
- A) The physical machine running one or more virtual machines.
- B) The guest operating system inside a virtual machine.
- C) The hypervisor managing virtual machines.
- D) The cloud provider offering virtualization services.

4. What is the purpose of a hypervisor in virtualization?

- A) To manage network traffic between virtual machines.
- B) To allocate physical resources to virtual machines.
- C) To provide virtualization-aware device drivers.
- D) To translate virtual machine instructions to host hardware instructions.

5. Which type of virtualization allows multiple operating systems to run concurrently on

a single physical machine?
- A) Full virtualization
- B) Hardware virtualization
- C) Para virtualization
- D) Container virtualization

6. What is the role of a Type 2 hypervisor?

- A) It runs directly on the host hardware.
- B) It requires a host operating system to run.
- C) It provides direct hardware access to virtual machines.
- D) It is specifically designed for cloud-based virtualization.

7. Which hypervisor is an example of a Type 1 (bare-metal) hypervisor?

- A) VMware Workstation
- B) Oracle VirtualBox
- C) Microsoft Hyper-V
- D) VMware ESXi

8. What is a virtual appliance?

- A) A set of physical servers configured for virtualization.
- B) A pre-configured virtual machine image with applications and an operating system.
- C) A specialized hardware device for virtual machine management.
- D) A virtual machine optimized for high-performance computing tasks.

9. Which feature of virtualization allows a virtual machine to execute on any physical

server in a cluster?
- A) Fault tolerance
- B) High availability
- C) Live migration
- D) Dynamic resource allocation

10. What does "snapshot" refer to in the context of virtual machines?

- A) A backup copy of a virtual machine’s configuration files.
- B) A static image of a virtual machine’s runtime state at a specific point in time.
- C) A software tool for converting physical machines to virtual machines.
- D) A network protocol used for virtual machine communication.
11. Which component is responsible for managing and allocating physical hardware
resources to virtual machines?
- A) Hypervisor
- B) Virtual CPU
- C) Virtual memory
- D) Virtual I/O device

12. What is a virtual CPU (vCPU)?

- A) A physical processor core allocated to a virtual machine.
- B) A software-based emulation of a physical processor.
- C) A device for connecting virtual machines to external networks.
- D) A specialized hypervisor component for CPU virtualization.

13. Which of the following is a level of virtualization implementation?

- A) Cloud computing
- B) Kernel-based virtual machine (KVM)
- C) Docker containers
- D) Ethernet virtualization

14. What is the purpose of a virtual switch in virtualized environments?

- A) To connect virtual machines to physical networks.
- B) To manage virtual machine backups.
- C) To optimize virtual machine performance.
- D) To synchronize virtual machine clocks.

15. Which virtualization technology allows direct access to physical hardware from
virtual machines, bypassing the hypervisor for improved performance?
- A) Para virtualization
- B) Full virtualization
- C) Hardware virtualization
- D) Container virtualization

16. In which type of virtualization do guest operating systems need to be modified to run
on the hypervisor?
- A) Full virtualization
- B) Para virtualization
- C) Hardware virtualization
- D) Container virtualization

17. What is a benefit of hardware-assisted virtualization?

- A) Reduced overhead in virtual machine operations.
- B) Improved compatibility with legacy operating systems.
- C) Lower hardware costs for virtualization.
- D) Easier management of virtual machine resources.

18. Which component of a virtual machine environment is responsible for allocating and
managing virtualized memory?
- A) Hypervisor
- B) Virtual memory manager
- C) Guest operating system
- D) Virtual CPU

19. What is a virtual I/O device?

- A) A physical device shared among multiple virtual machines.
- B) A software component that emulates physical I/O devices.
- C) A specialized hardware device for high-speed I/O operations.
 - D) A protocol for transmitting virtual machine data over networks.

20. Which type of virtualization provides each virtual machine with its own virtualized
hardware resources, including CPU, memory, and I/O devices?
- A) Full virtualization
- B) Para virtualization
- C) Hardware virtualization
- D) Container virtualization

Answers:

1. B) A software-based emulation of a physical computer.

2. B) Increased energy consumption.
3. A) The physical machine running one or more virtual machines.
4. B) To allocate physical resources to virtual machines.
5. A) Full virtualization
6. B) It requires a host operating system to run.
7. D) VMware ESXi
8. B) A pre-configured virtual machine image with applications and an operating system.
9. C) Live migration
10. B) A static image of a virtual machine’s runtime state at a specific point in time.
11. A) Hypervisor
12. A) A physical processor core allocated to a virtual machine.
13. B) Kernel-based virtual machine (KVM)
14. A) To connect virtual machines to physical networks.
15. C) Hardware virtualization
16. B) Para virtualization
17. A) Reduced overhead in virtual machine operations.
18. B) Virtual memory manager
19. B) A software component that emulates physical I/O devices.
20. A) Full virtualization

21. What is a virtual machine (VM) in computing?

- A) A physical server dedicated to hosting virtual environments.
- B) A software-based emulation of a physical computer.
- C) A network protocol used for virtual machine communication.
- D) A database management system for virtual data storage.

22. Which of the following is a primary benefit of using virtual machines?

- A) Increased physical hardware costs.
- B) Decreased software compatibility.
- C) Improved server utilization.
- D) Limited scalability options.

23. What role does a hypervisor play in virtualization?

- A) It manages network traffic between virtual machines.
- B) It translates virtual machine instructions to host hardware instructions.
- C) It provides virtual machine snapshots for backup.
- D) It monitors physical server performance.

24. Which type of hypervisor runs directly on the host hardware without requiring a
separate host operating system?
- A) Type 1 hypervisor
- B) Type 2 hypervisor
- C) Embedded hypervisor
- D) Cloud hypervisor
25. In the context of virtualization, what does the term "live migration" refer to?
- A) Transferring a virtual machine from one physical server to another without shutting it
down.
- B) Upgrading the hypervisor software without affecting virtual machines.
- C) Moving a virtual machine to a different data center for disaster recovery.
- D) Changing the operating system of a running virtual machine.

26. What is a virtual appliance?

- A) A physical server configured for virtualization.
- B) A pre-configured virtual machine image with applications and an operating system.
- C) A tool for managing hypervisor settings.
- D) A software application for creating virtual networks.

27. Which component of a virtual machine environment is responsible for managing and
allocating virtualized CPU resources?
- A) Hypervisor
- B) Virtual CPU
- C) Virtual memory manager
- D) Guest operating system

28. Which virtualization type requires modifications to the guest operating system for
optimal performance?
- A) Full virtualization
- B) Para virtualization
- C) Hardware virtualization
- D) Container virtualization

29. What is the purpose of hardware-assisted virtualization extensions such as Intel VT-x
or AMD-V?
- A) To improve hypervisor management capabilities.
- B) To provide better compatibility with legacy operating systems.
- C) To enable direct access to physical hardware from virtual machines.
- D) To enhance virtual machine backup and recovery processes.

30. Which component of virtualization technology ensures that each virtual machine has
its own isolated instance of physical memory?
- A) Virtual CPU
- B) Hypervisor
- C) Virtual memory manager
- D) Guest operating system

Answers:
21. B) A software-based emulation of a physical computer.
22. C) Improved server utilization.
23. B) It translates virtual machine instructions to host hardware instructions.
24. A) Type 1 hypervisor
25. A) Transferring a virtual machine from one physical server to another without
shutting it down.
26. B) A pre-configured virtual machine image with applications and an operating
system.
27. B) Virtual CPU
28. B) Para virtualization
29. C) To enable direct access to physical hardware from virtual machines.
30. C) Virtual memory manager
31. What is a virtual machine (VM) in the context of computing?
- A) A physical server running virtualization software.
- B) A software-based simulation of a physical computer.
- C) A network protocol used for virtual machine communication.
- D) A dedicated hardware device for virtualization.

32. Which of the following is a characteristic of virtual machines?

- A) Direct access to physical hardware.
- B) Operating system running on physical hardware.
- C) Software emulation of hardware components.
- D) Limited scalability options.

33. What role does a hypervisor play in virtualization?

- A) Manages virtual machines' hardware resources.
- B) Provides physical network connectivity to virtual machines.
- C) Ensures data integrity in virtual machines.
- D) Encrypts virtual machine communications.

34. Which type of hypervisor runs directly on the host hardware?

- A) Type 1 hypervisor
- B) Type 2 hypervisor
- C) Type 3 hypervisor
- D) Type 4 hypervisor

35. In virtualization, what does "containerization" primarily refer to?

- A) Running multiple virtual machines on a single physical server.
- B) Isolating and running applications in lightweight virtual environments.
- C) Emulating hardware devices for virtual machines.
- D) Migrating virtual machines between different hypervisors.

36. What is the purpose of a virtual switch in virtualization?

- A) Manages traffic between virtual machines.
- B) Provides power management for virtual machines.
- C) Allocates memory resources to virtual machines.
- D) Converts virtual machine files between formats.

37. Which component of virtualization technology manages the allocation of virtualized

CPU resources?
- A) Hypervisor
- B) Virtual CPU
- C) Virtual memory
- D) Virtual switch

38. Which type of virtualization requires modification to the guest operating system for
optimal performance?
- A) Full virtualization
- B) Para virtualization
- C) Hardware virtualization
- D) Container virtualization

39. What is the purpose of hardware-assisted virtualization extensions like Intel VT-x or
AMD-V?
- A) Enhances performance of virtual machines.
- B) Provides compatibility with legacy applications.
- C) Enables direct access to physical hardware from virtual machines.
 - D) Simplifies virtual machine backup and recovery.

40. Which component of virtualization ensures that each virtual machine has its own
isolated instance of physical memory?
- A) Virtual CPU
- B) Hypervisor
- C) Virtual memory manager
- D) Guest operating system

Answers:
31. B) A software-based simulation of a physical computer.
32. C) Software emulation of hardware components.
33. A) Manages virtual machines' hardware resources.
34. A) Type 1 hypervisor
35. B) Isolating and running applications in lightweight virtual environments.
36. A) Manages traffic between virtual machines.
37. B) Virtual CPU
38. B) Para virtualization
39. A) Enhances performance of virtual machines.
40. C) Virtual memory manager

UNIT III VIRTUALIZATION INFRASTRUCTURE AND DOCKER 7

Desktop Virtualization – Network Virtualization – Storage Virtualization – System-level of
Operating Virtualization – Application Virtualization – Virtual clusters and Resource
Management – Containers vs. Virtual Machines – Introduction to Docker – Docker
Components – Docker Container – Docker Images and Repositories.

1. What is the primary benefit of desktop virtualization?

- A) Improved security of physical desktops.
- B) Increased hardware costs.
- C) Centralized management of desktop environments.
- D) Reduced network bandwidth utilization.

2. In network virtualization, what does Software-Defined Networking (SDN) primarily

enable?
- A) Virtualization of physical storage devices.
- B) Dynamic configuration and management of network resources.
- C) Creation of virtual clusters for load balancing.
- D) Deployment of virtual machines across multiple hosts.

3. What is the main goal of storage virtualization?

- A) Centralized management of storage devices.
- B) Increased latency in data retrieval.
- C) Physical separation of storage resources.
- D) Direct access to raw storage devices.

4. Which type of virtualization allows multiple operating systems to run concurrently on

a single physical machine?
- A) System-level operating virtualization
- B) Application virtualization
- C) Virtual clusters
- D) Storage virtualization

5. What is the primary benefit of application virtualization?

- A) Simplified application deployment and management.
- B) Increased physical server utilization.
 - C) Enhanced network performance.
- D) Improved data security.

6. In virtual clusters, what is the purpose of resource management?

- A) Ensuring optimal use of physical server resources.
- B) Creating isolated virtual networks.
- C) Enhancing data replication across virtual machines.
- D) Managing physical storage allocation.

7. What is a key difference between containers and virtual machines?

- A) Containers share the host operating system kernel, while virtual machines have their
own kernel.
- B) Virtual machines are faster to deploy than containers.
- C) Containers consume more resources than virtual machines.
- D) Containers are suitable only for web applications, whereas virtual machines can run any
application.

8. Which of the following statements best describes Docker?

- A) A virtualization platform for running multiple operating systems on a single host.
- B) An application virtualization technology for isolating applications from the underlying
operating system.
- C) A containerization platform for developing, shipping, and running applications.
- D) A network virtualization tool for managing virtual LANs.

9. What is a Docker container?

- A) A virtual machine image.
- B) A lightweight, executable package of software that includes everything needed to run an
application.
- C) A virtual network interface for Docker containers.
- D) A management tool for Docker clusters.

10. What is the purpose of Docker images and repositories?

- A) To manage physical server resources.
- B) To store and distribute Docker containers.
- C) To virtualize network traffic for Docker containers.
- D) To create virtualized desktop environments.

Answers:
1. C) Centralized management of desktop environments.
2. B) Dynamic configuration and management of network resources.
3. A) Centralized management of storage devices.
4. A) System-level operating virtualization
5. A) Simplified application deployment and management.
6. A) Ensuring optimal use of physical server resources.
7. A) Containers share the host operating system kernel, while virtual machines have their own
kernel.
8. C) A containerization platform for developing, shipping, and running applications.
9. B) A lightweight, executable package of software that includes everything needed to run an
application.
10. B) To store and distribute Docker containers.

11. Which of the following is a benefit of desktop virtualization?

A. Increased hardware costs
B. Reduced energy consumption
C. Limited scalability
D. Higher network latency
 **Answer: B. Reduced energy consumption**

12. VMware Horizon and Citrix XenDesktop are examples of:

A. Network Virtualization platforms
B. Storage Virtualization solutions
C. Desktop Virtualization solutions
D. System-level Operating Virtualization tools
**Answer: C. Desktop Virtualization solutions**

13. What does network virtualization aim to achieve primarily?

A. Consolidate physical servers
B. Improve storage performance
C. Create virtual networks over a physical network
D. Enhance desktop virtualization
**Answer: C. Create virtual networks over a physical network**

14. Which technology is commonly used for network virtualization?

A. Docker
B. Hypervisor
C. SDN (Software-defined networking)
D. Kubernetes
**Answer: C. SDN (Software-defined networking)**

15. What is the main purpose of storage virtualization?

A. Virtualize network resources
B. Virtualize physical storage devices into logical units
C. Distribute applications across multiple nodes
D. Optimize CPU performance
**Answer: B. Virtualize physical storage devices into logical units**

16. **Which technology is often associated with storage virtualization?**

A. SAN (Storage Area Network)
B. SDN (Software-defined networking)
C. Hypervisor
D. VMware
**Answer: A. SAN (Storage Area Network)**

17. Which technology enables system-level operating virtualization?

A. Docker
B. Hypervisor
C. Kubernetes
D. SDN (Software-defined networking)
**Answer: B. Hypervisor**

18. What is a key advantage of application virtualization?

A. Increased dependency on underlying OS
B. Decreased scalability
C. Simplified application deployment
D. Limited portability
**Answer: C. Simplified application deployment**

19. What is the primary purpose of resource management in virtual clusters?

A. Increase hardware costs
B. Optimize resource allocation among virtual machines
C. Reduce software complexity
D. Decrease network latency
 **Answer: B. Optimize resource allocation among virtual machines**

20. Containers are more lightweight than virtual machines primarily because:
A. They use a hypervisor
B. They do not require a guest OS
C. They cannot share resources
D. They are slower to start
**Answer: B. They do not require a guest OS**

21. Docker is primarily used for:

A. Network virtualization
B. Application virtualization
C. Storage virtualization
D. System-level operating virtualization
**Answer: B. Application virtualization**

22. Which Docker component manages containers across multiple hosts?

A. Docker Engine
B. Docker Hub
C. Docker Swarm
D. Docker Registry
**Answer: C. Docker Swarm**

23. A Docker container is:

A. A virtual machine
B. A lightweight, standalone executable package of software
C. An operating system
D. A network virtualization tool
**Answer: B. A lightweight, standalone executable package of software**

24. What is a Docker image?

A. A running instance of a Docker container
B. A set of instructions for creating a Docker container
C. A storage virtualization tool
D. A desktop virtualization tool
**Answer: B. A set of instructions for creating a Docker container**

25. Which of the following describes desktop virtualization?

A. Consolidating multiple physical servers into virtual servers
B. Virtualizing network resources to improve bandwidth
C. Virtualizing desktop operating systems on centralized servers
D. Optimizing storage performance through virtual machines
**Answer: C. Virtualizing desktop operating systems on centralized servers**

26. Which technology allows users to access their desktop environment remotely?
A. SAN (Storage Area Network)
B. VPN (Virtual Private Network)
C. VDI (Virtual Desktop Infrastructure)
D. CDN (Content Delivery Network)
**Answer: C. VDI (Virtual Desktop Infrastructure)**

27. What is the primary goal of network virtualization?

A. Consolidating physical servers
B. Virtualizing physical storage devices
C. Creating virtual networks over a physical network infrastructure
D. Enhancing application performance
 **Answer: C. Creating virtual networks over a physical network infrastructure**

28. Which technology enables the creation of virtual networks that are independent of
physical hardware?
A. SDN (Software-defined Networking)
B. RAID (Redundant Array of Independent Disks)
C. FTP (File Transfer Protocol)
D. VLAN (Virtual Local Area Network)
**Answer: A. SDN (Software-defined Networking)**

29. What is the purpose of storage virtualization?

A. Virtualizing network resources
B. Consolidating physical servers
C. Optimizing storage performance
D. Virtualizing physical storage devices into logical units
**Answer: D. Virtualizing physical storage devices into logical units**

30. Which technology allows storage resources to be pooled and managed centrally?
A. SAN (Storage Area Network)
B. VLAN (Virtual Local Area Network)
C. NAT (Network Address Translation)
D. SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol)
**Answer: A. SAN (Storage Area Network)**

31. What role does a hypervisor play in system-level operating virtualization?

A. Manages containers
B. Manages virtual machines
C. Distributes applications
D. Optimizes network performance
**Answer: B. Manages virtual machines**

32. Which statement best describes application virtualization?

A. It reduces dependency on underlying operating systems
B. It consolidates physical servers into virtual machines
C. It optimizes storage performance
D. It enhances network security
**Answer: A. It reduces dependency on underlying operating systems**

33. Which technology allows applications to run in isolated environments without

affecting the underlying OS?
A. Docker containers
B. Virtual machines
C. Hypervisors
D. VPNs
**Answer: A. Docker containers**

34. What is the main purpose of resource management in virtual clusters?

A. To increase hardware costs
B. To optimize resource allocation among virtual machines
C. To reduce software complexity
D. To decrease network latency
**Answer: B. To optimize resource allocation among virtual machines**

35. What is a key advantage of containers over virtual machines?

A. Containers are more secure
B. Containers are easier to migrate
 C. Containers have better hardware isolation
D. Containers have lower overhead
**Answer: D. Containers have lower overhead**

36. What is Docker primarily used for?

A. Network virtualization
B. Application virtualization
C. Storage virtualization
D. System-level operating virtualization
**Answer: B. Application virtualization**

37. Which Docker component is responsible for managing Docker images?

A. Docker Engine
B. Docker Hub
C. Docker Swarm
D. Docker Registry
**Answer: B. Docker Hub**

38. What is a Docker container?

A. A virtual machine
B. A lightweight, executable package of software
C. An operating system
D. A network virtualization tool
**Answer: B. A lightweight, executable package of software**

39. What is a Docker image?

A. A running instance of a Docker container
B. A set of instructions for creating a Docker container
C. A storage virtualization tool
D. A desktop virtualization tool
**Answer: B. A set of instructions for creating a Docker container**

UNIT IV CLOUD DEPLOYMENT ENVIRONMENT

Google App Engine – Amazon AWS – Microsoft Azure; Cloud Software Environments –
Eucalyptus – OpenStack.

1. What is Google App Engine primarily used for?

A. Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)
B. Platform as a Service (PaaS)
C. Software as a Service (SaaS)
D. Virtualization services
**Answer: B. Platform as a Service (PaaS)**

2. Which programming languages are officially supported by Google App Engine?

A. Python, Java, and PHP
B. C#, Ruby, and Perl
C. C++, Swift, and Kotlin
D. JavaScript, TypeScript, and Rust
**Answer: A. Python, Java, and PHP**

3. What does AWS stand for?

A. Advanced Web Services
B. Amazon Web Services
C. All Web Solutions
D. Automated Web Servers
**Answer: B. Amazon Web Services**
4. Which AWS service provides scalable computing capacity in the cloud?
A. Amazon EC2
B. Amazon S3
C. Amazon RDS
D. Amazon Route 53
**Answer: A. Amazon EC2**

5. Which cloud computing service is provided by Microsoft Azure?

A. Google Cloud Platform
B. Azure Cloud Platform
C. Oracle Cloud
D. IBM Cloud
**Answer: B. Azure Cloud Platform**

6. What does Azure Active Directory (AAD) provide?

A. Cloud-based identity and access management
B. Virtual private cloud networking
C. Serverless computing
D. Data warehousing solutions
**Answer: A. Cloud-based identity and access management**

7. Which term describes a cloud computing environment that provides software

applications over the Internet?
A. Platform as a Service (PaaS)
B. Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)
C. Software as a Service (SaaS)
D. Virtual Private Cloud (VPC)
**Answer: C. Software as a Service (SaaS)**

8. What is the advantage of using SaaS applications?

A. High level of customization
B. Requires local installation
C. Accessible from any device with an Internet connection
D. Scalable hardware management
**Answer: C. Accessible from any device with an Internet connection**

9. Eucalyptus is an open-source software platform for:

A. Cloud storage
B. Cloud orchestration
C. Cloud networking
D. Cloud monitoring
**Answer: B. Cloud orchestration**

10. Open Stack is primarily used for:

A. Cloud-based databases
B. Cloud infrastructure management
C. Cloud-based AI services
D. Cloud security
**Answer: B. Cloud infrastructure management**

11. Which of the following is true about Open Stack?

A. It is a proprietary cloud platform
B. It supports only public clouds
C. It provides a set of open-source software tools for building and managing cloud
computing platforms
 D. It focuses primarily on software development
**Answer: C. It provides a set of open-source software tools for building and managing
cloud computing platforms**
12. Which cloud computing service provides containers as a service (CaaS) and
Kubernetes support?
A. Google App Engine
B. Amazon AWS
C. Microsoft Azure
D. All of the above
**Answer: D. All of the above**

13. Google App Engine is primarily a:

A. Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)
B. Platform as a Service (PaaS)
C. Software as a Service (SaaS)
D. Container as a Service (CaaS)
**Answer: B. Platform as a Service (PaaS)**

14. Which programming languages are officially supported by Google App Engine?
A. Python, Java, and PHP
B. C#, Ruby, and Perl
C. JavaScript, TypeScript, and Rust
D. Swift, Kotlin, and Objective-C
**Answer: A. Python, Java, and PHP**

15. Which AWS service provides scalable computing capacity in the cloud?
A. Amazon EC2
B. Amazon S3
C. Amazon RDS
D. Amazon Route 53
**Answer: A. Amazon EC2**

16. Which AWS service is used for object storage in the cloud?
A. Amazon EC2
B. Amazon S3
C. Amazon RDS
D. Amazon Route 53
**Answer: B. Amazon S3**

17. Which cloud computing service is provided by Microsoft Azure?

A. Google Cloud Platform
B. Azure Cloud Platform
C. Oracle Cloud
D. IBM Cloud
**Answer: B. Azure Cloud Platform**

18. What is Azure Functions used for?

A. Container orchestration
B. Serverless computing
C. Virtual machine management
D. Data warehousing
**Answer: B. Serverless computing**

19. Which term describes a cloud computing service that provides applications over the
Internet?
A. Platform as a Service (PaaS)
 B. Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)
C. Software as a Service (SaaS)
D. Network as a Service (NaaS)
**Answer: C. Software as a Service (SaaS)**

20. What is the main advantage of using SaaS applications?

A. Requires local installation
B. High level of customization
C. Accessibility from any device with Internet access
D. Better security controls
**Answer: C. Accessibility from any device with Internet access**

21. Eucalyptus is an open-source software platform for:

A. Cloud orchestration
B. Cloud networking
C. Cloud storage
D. Cloud security
**Answer: A. Cloud orchestration**

22. OpenStack is primarily used for:

A. Cloud infrastructure management
B. Cloud-based AI services
C. Cloud-based databases
D. Cloud security
**Answer: A. Cloud infrastructure management**

23. Which statement best describes Open Stack?

A. It is a proprietary cloud platform
B. It provides a set of open-source tools for building and managing private and public clouds
C. It focuses solely on container management
D. It is primarily used for big data analytics
**Answer: B. It provides a set of open-source tools for building and managing private
and public clouds**

24. Which service model does Google App Engine belong to?
A. Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)
B. Platform as a Service (PaaS)
C. Software as a Service (SaaS)
D. Function as a Service (FaaS)
**Answer: B. Platform as a Service (PaaS)**

25. What languages are officially supported by Google App Engine?

A. Python, Java, and PHP
B. C#, Ruby, and Perl
C. JavaScript, TypeScript, and Rust
D. Swift, Kotlin, and Objective-C
**Answer: A. Python, Java, and PHP**

26. Which AWS service provides object storage?

A. Amazon EC2
B. Amazon S3
C. Amazon RDS
D. Amazon Route 53
**Answer: B. Amazon S3**

27. What is Amazon EC2 primarily used for?

 A. Object storage
B. Serverless computing
C. Scalable computing capacity
D. Container orchestration
**Answer: C. Scalable computing capacity**

28. Which cloud service provides server less computing capabilities in Microsoft Azure?
A. Azure Functions
B. Azure SQL Database
C. Azure Blob Storage
D. Azure Virtual Machines
**Answer: A. Azure Functions**

29. Azure Active Directory (AAD) is used for:

A. Identity and access management
B. Database management
C. Container orchestration
D. Virtual machine provisioning
**Answer: A. Identity and access management**

30. What does SaaS (Software as a Service) provide to users?

A. Virtual machines on demand
B. Applications over the Internet
C. Scalable storage solutions
D. Open-source cloud tools
**Answer: B. Applications over the Internet**

31. Which cloud environment focuses on providing open-source cloud computing

software?
A. Google App Engine
B. Amazon AWS
C. Microsoft Azure
D. OpenStack
**Answer: D. OpenStack**

32. Eucalyptus is known for:

A. Providing serverless computing
B. Enabling hybrid cloud environments
C. Object storage solutions
D. Network virtualization
**Answer: B. Enabling hybrid cloud environments**

33. Open Stack is primarily used for:

A. Cloud infrastructure management
B. Virtual private cloud networking
C. Server less computing
D. Content delivery network
**Answer: A. Cloud infrastructure management**

34. What does Open Stack provide?

A. Proprietary cloud services
B. Open-source software tools for cloud computing
C. Container orchestration services
D. Database management
**Answer: B. Open-source software tools for cloud computing**
 UNIT V CLOUD SECURITY
Virtualization System-Specific Attacks: Guest hopping – VM migration attack – hyperjacking.
Data Security and Storage; Identity and Access Management (IAM) - IAM Challenges - IAM
Architecture and Practice.

1. What does "guest hopping" refer to in virtualization security?

A. Unauthorized access to virtual machine (VM) host
B. Unauthorized access to VM console
C. Unauthorized movement between VMs on the same host
D. Unauthorized access to VM storage
**Answer: C. Unauthorized movement between VMs on the same host**

2. Which attack involves intercepting and redirecting VM migrations between hosts to

compromise data integrity?
A. Guest hopping
B. VM migration attack
C. Hyper jacking
D. VM escape
**Answer: B. VM migration attack**

3. Hyper jacking is a security threat that targets:

A. Virtualized network resources
B. Hypervisor vulnerabilities
C. Guest operating systems
D. Cloud service providers
Answer: B. Hypervisor vulnerabilities

4. Which method enhances data security in virtualized environments by isolating and

encrypting virtual machines' data?
A. Virtual LANs (VLANs)
B. Virtual Private Networks (VPNs)
C. Storage Area Networks (SANs)
D. Virtual Machine Encryption (VME)
Answer: D. Virtual Machine Encryption (VME)

5. Data reduplication in virtualized storage systems helps in:

A. Reducing storage capacity requirements
B. Increasing storage performance
C. Enhancing data integrity
D. Encrypting sensitive data
Answer: A. Reducing storage capacity requirements

6. Which of the following is a challenge in IAM (Identity and Access Management)?

A. Single sign-on (SSO)
B. Role-based access control (RBAC)
C. Credential management
D. Encryption
Answer: C. Credential management

7. IAM architecture typically involves:

A. Centralized identity management and access controls
B. Decentralized user authentication
C. Open-source encryption standards
D. Role-based firewall configurations
Answer: A. Centralized identity management and access controls
8. What does RBAC (Role-Based Access Control) ensure in IAM?
A. Each user has unique encryption keys
B. Users have access based on their roles
C. Only administrators have access to IAM tools
D. Encryption standards are enforced uniformly
Answer: B. Users have access based on their roles

9. Which IAM practice involves regularly reviewing and updating user access
permissions?
A. Least privilege
B. Access monitoring
C. Identity federation
D. Access recertification
Answer: D. Access recertification

10. Guest hopping refers to:

A. Unauthorized access to the hypervisor
B. Unauthorized access between guest VMs
C. Unauthorized migration of VMs
D. Unauthorized access to VM storage

11. Which attack involves moving a running VM from one physical host to another
without proper authorization:
A. Guest hopping
B. VM migration attack
C. Hyper jacking
D. VM escape

12. Hyper jacking involves:

A. Intercepting traffic between VMs
B. Taking control of the hypervisor
C. Gaining unauthorized access to VMs
D. Stealing VM images

13. IAM challenges typically include:

A. Multi-factor authentication
B. Role-based access control
C. Credential management
D. User provisioning

14. Which IAM architecture focuses on assigning permissions based on job

responsibilities?
A. Attribute-based access control (ABAC)
B. Role-based access control (RBAC)
C. Mandatory access control (MAC)
D. Discretionary access control (DAC)

15. IAM practice involves:

A. Authenticating users
B. Auditing file systems
C. Monitoring network traffic
D. Managing system logs

Answers:
10. B. Unauthorized access between guest VMs
11. B. VM migration attack
12. B. Taking control of the hypervisor
13. C. Credential management
14. B. Role-based access control (RBAC)
15. A. Authenticating users

16. What is guest hopping in virtualization security?

A. Unauthorized access to the hypervisor
B. Unauthorized access between guest VMs
C. Unauthorized migration of VMs
D. Unauthorized access to VM storage

17. Which of the following is a method of VM escape attack?

A. Guest hopping
B. VM migration
C. Hyperjacking
D. Privilege escalation

18. Hyper jacking involves:

A. Intercepting traffic between VMs
B. Taking control of the hypervisor
C. Exploiting guest VM vulnerabilities
D. Encrypting VM storage

19. What is a potential consequence of a successful VM migration attack?

A. Unauthorized access to VM storage
B. Loss of data integrity
C. Denial of Service (DoS) attack on VMs
D. Hyper jacking incident

20. Which attack vector targets vulnerabilities in the virtualization hypervisor?

A. Guest hopping
B. VM migration attack
C. Hyper jacking
D. VM escape attack

21. Guest hopping primarily exploits:

A. Weaknesses in VM networking
B. Vulnerabilities in guest VM operating systems
C. Inadequate hypervisor security settings
D. Misconfigured VM storage

22. What security measure helps mitigate VM migration attacks?

A. Network encryption between VMs
B. Role-based access control (RBAC)
C. Hypervisor-level firewalls
D. Patching guest VMs regularly

23. Which attack technique involves an attacker gaining control over the hypervisor to
compromise VMs?
A. Guest hopping
B. VM migration attack
C. Hyperjacking
D. Hypervisor hijacking

24. What is a common method to prevent hyper jacking attacks?

 A. Implementing VLANs for VM segregation
B. Using secure hypervisor APIs
C. Encrypting VM data at rest
D. Deploying intrusion detection systems (IDS)

25. Which attack exploits vulnerabilities in VM migration protocols to intercept and

manipulate VM traffic?
A. Guest hopping
B. VM migration attack
C. Hyper jacking
D. VM eavesdropping

26. IAM primarily addresses:

A. Physical security measures
B. Network packet filtering
C. User authentication and authorization
D. Application layer security

27. What is a key challenge in IAM implementation?

A. Implementing strong encryption algorithms
B. Integrating legacy systems
C. Securing physical data centers
D. Performing regular vulnerability assessments

28. Which IAM approach assigns permissions based on job roles and responsibilities?
A. Attribute-based access control (ABAC)
B. Role-based access control (RBAC)
C. Mandatory access control (MAC)
D. Discretionary access control (DAC)

29. What does IAM architecture typically include to manage user identities?
A. Network firewalls
B. Single sign-on (SSO) solutions
C. Intrusion detection systems (IDS)
D. File encryption tools

30. Which IAM component is responsible for authenticating users based on their
credentials?
A. Access control lists (ACLs)
B. Identity providers (IdPs)
C. Security information and event management (SIEM)
D. Public key infrastructure (PKI)

31. IAM policies are used to define:

A. Data encryption standards
B. User access rules
C. Network routing protocols
D. Application deployment methods

32. What is a critical aspect of IAM practice to ensure security?

A. Monitoring system performance
B. Managing software licenses
C. Encrypting database backups
D. Revoking access promptly upon employee termination
33. Which IAM challenge relates to managing user privileges across diverse IT
environments?
A. Identity federation
B. Access request management
C. User provisioning
D. Role-based authorization

34. What is a primary goal of IAM in an organization?

A. Implementing secure socket layer (SSL) encryption
B. Managing software development life cycles
C. Protecting sensitive data from unauthorized access
D. Deploying intrusion prevention systems (IPS)

35. IAM solutions often integrate with which system to facilitate user authentication
across multiple applications?
A. Virtual Private Network (VPN)
B. Domain Name System (DNS)
C. Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP)
D. Secure Shell (SSH)

Answers:
16. B. Unauthorized access between guest VMs
17. D. Privilege escalation
18. B. Taking control of the hypervisor
19. B. Loss of data integrity
20. D. VM escape attack
21. B. Vulnerabilities in guest VM operating systems
22. C. Hypervisor-level firewalls
23. D. Hypervisor hijacking
24. B. Using secure hypervisor APIs
25. D. VM eavesdropping
26. C. User authentication and authorization
27. B. Integrating legacy systems
28. B. Role-based access control (RBAC)
29. B. Single sign-on (SSO) solutions
30. B. Identity providers (IdPs)
31. B. User access rules
32. D. Revoking access promptly upon employee termination
33. A. Identity federation
34. C. Protecting sensitive data from unauthorized access
35. C. Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP)