0% found this document useful (0 votes)
24 views10 pages

Preboard Paper

Uploaded by

godgameropop
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
0% found this document useful (0 votes)
24 views10 pages

Preboard Paper

Uploaded by

godgameropop
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
You are on page 1/ 10

MOUNT CARMEL SCHOOL

CLASS – XII
SUBJECT: BIOLOGY MAX. MARKS: 70 DATE: 19 FEBRUARY,2024
TIME: 3HRS

Student’s Name: Roll No.:


____________________________________________________________________
GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS:
(a) All questions are compulsory.
(b) The question paper has five sections and 33 questions. All questions are compulsory. (c)
Section–A has 16 questions of 1 mark each; Section–B has 5 questions of 2 marks each.
Section– C has 7 questions of 3 marks each; Section– D has 2 case-based questions of 4 marks
each; and Section–E has 3 questions of 5 marks.
(d) There is no overall choice. However, internal choices have been provided in some.
questions. A student has to attempt only one of the alternatives in such questions. (e)
Wherever necessary, neat and properly labeled diagrams should be drawn.
Section A

Q1. Match the functions of human male reproductive system given below: 1

(a) (i) a (ii) c (iii) b (iv) c (b) (i) b (ii) c (iii) a (iv) c (c) (i) a (ii) b (iii) c (iv) d
(d) (i) c (ii) d ( iii ) a (iv) d

Which of the following statements are true with respect to A and B ?


Q2. 1
I) A can be left in place for upto 10 years.
II) B contains progestogens only.
III) A suppresses fertilizing capacity of sperms.
IV) B has similar mode of action as that of pills.

(a) I and II (b) II and III (c) III and IV (d) I and IV
Q3 In the given structure of polynucleotide chain of DNA, identify the locations [numbered 1 to 1
5] that show errors in the structure.

(a) 1 and 3 (b) 1 and 4


(c) 3 and 5 (d) 2 and 4
Q4 The most accepted line of descent in human evolution is 1
(a) Australopithecus Ramapithecus Homo sapiens Homo habilis
(b) Homo erectus Homo habilis Homo sapiens
(c) Ramapithecus Homo habilis Homo erectus Homo sapiens
(d) Australopithecus Ramapithecus Homo erectus Homo habilis Homo sapiens.

Q5 A boy of 10 years had chicken pox. He is not expected to have the same disease for the rest 1
of his life because
(a) He has undergone vaccination for chicken pox.
(b) His immune system has antibodies against the pathogen.
(c) Immune system has memory of the first encounter to protect the body in
future. (d) He will not have any immunity against the same disease.

Q6 A person likely to develop tetanus is immunized by administering 1


(a) preformed antibodies (b) wide spectrum antibiotics
(c) weakened germs (d) dead germs.

Q7 Select the correct statement from the following : 1


(a) Biogas is produced by the activity of aerobic bacteria on animal
waste. (b) Methanobacterium is aerobic bacterium found in rumen of
cattle
(c) Biogas, commonly called gobar gas, is pure methane
(d) Activated sludge-sediment in settlement tanks of sewage treatment plant is a rich source
of aerobic bacteria.

Q8 With respect to pBR322 which of the following is correctly matched? 1


(a) rop - codes for proteins involved in the replication of plasmid.
(b) Ori - original restriction enzyme.
R
(c) amp restriction enzyme
(d) Hind II - selectable marker

Q9 The population of species P in a certain community was constant until a population species Q 1
from a distant land was subsequently introduced into that community. The interaction
between the two populations is reflected in the graph below:
What could be the possible reason for the decrease in the populations of species P over a
number of days?
(a) Species Q is a predator of species P.
(b) Species Q is a prey species which wiped out the population of species
P.
(c) Species P and Q compete for space but feeds on different food
(d) None of the above

Q10 Some bird species follow army ants which walk on the forest floor. As the army ant colony 1
travels on the forest floor, they stir up various flying insect species. As the insects flee, the
birds following the ants catch the fleeing insects. Which population interaction is seen
between the army ants and birds?
(a) Commensalism (b) Amensalism
(c) Mutualism (d) Predation

Q11 The rate of formation of new organic matter by rabbit in a grassland, is 1


called (a) net productivity (b) second productivity
(c) net primary (d) gross primary productivity

Q12 Match the animals given in column A with their location in column B. 1
Column A Column B
(i) Dodo A. Africa
(ii) Quagga B. Russia
(iii) Thylacine C. Mauritius
D. Australia
Choose the correct match from the following:
(a) i A, ii C, iii B, iv D (b) i D, ii C, iii A, iv B
(c) i C, ii A, iii B, iv D (d) i C, ii A, iii D, iv B

Question No.13 to16 consist of two statements Assertion(A) and Reason(R). Answer
these questions the appropriate option given below:
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
B. Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A.
C. A is true but R is false.
D. A is false but R is true.

Q13 Assertion : One pollen mother cell forms four microspores. 1


Reason : Microspores are formed due to reduction division.
Q14 Assertion: It is not possible for human parents heterozygous for skin colour to have 1
children darker or lighter than themselves.
Reason: Human skin colour is controlled by multiple genes.

Q15 Assertion: Patents are granted by government to an inventor. 1


Reason :Patent prevents others from commercial use of an invention

Q16 Assertion:- : In Ophrys one petal of the flower bears an uncanny resemblance 1
to the female bee.
Reason: Two closely related species competing for the same resource can
co-exist simultaneously.

SECTION B

Q17 Given below is an incomplete flow chart showing influence of hormone on gametogenesis 2
in male, observe the flow chart carefully and fill in the blanks A, B, C and D.

Q18 Study the figures given below and answer the questions: 2

Identify in which of the given crosses, the strength of linkage between the genes is higher.
Give reasons in support of your answer.

Q19 Many microbial pathogens enter the gut of humans along with food. 2
(a)What are the preventive barriers to protect the body from such
pathogens? (b) What type of immunity do you observe in this case?

Q20 Polymerase Chain Reaction is a technique to obtain multiple copies of a gene of interest 2
in vitro.
(a) Write the steps involved in the amplification of gene of interest through
PCR.
(b) Name the source of the enzyme Taq polymerase used in this process.

Q21 Age pyramid of human population is given. 2

(a) Write the three tiers 1, 2, 3 given in the above age pyramid.
(b) What type of population growth is represented by the above age
pyramid?
Detritus is the raw material for decomposition.
(c)What is the effect on decomposition rate if :
(i) Detritus is rich in lignin and chitin.
(ii) Detritus is rich is nitrogen and sugars.
(d) What are the most important climatic factors which affect the decomposition?

SECTION C

Q22 After implantation, interdigitation of maternal and foetal tissues takes 3


place. (a) Identify the tissues involved.
(b) Name the structure formed and state its functions.

Q23 Flowering plants have developed many devices to discourage self -pollination and 3
to encourage cross-pollination. Explain any three such devices.

Q24 Study the mRNA segment given below, which is complete and to be translated into 3
a polypeptide chain and answer the following questions :

(a) Write the codons 'A' and 'B'.


(b) What do they code for?
(c) How is the peptide bond formed between two amino acids in the ribosome?

Q25 Darwin found the varieties of finches in Galapagos Islands and observed variations in 3
them. (a) What role does an individual organism play as per Darwin theory of Natural
Selection (b) How did Darwin explain the existence of different varieties of finches in
Galapagos Islands?
(c ) What is the fitness of an individual according to Darwin ?
Q26 (a) A patient had suffered myocardial infarction and clots were found in his blood vessels. 3
(b) Name a clot buster that can be used to dissolve clots and the microorganism from which
it is obtained.
(c) A woman had just undergone a kidney transplant.
(d)What is the bioactive molecular drug administered to oppose kidney rejection by
the body and name the microbe from which this is extracted.
(d) What do doctors prescribe to lower the blood cholesterol level in patients with high
blood cholesterol and name the source organism from which this drug is obtained. OR
The drugs which are commonly abused are obtained from flowering plants. These drugs have
the ability to alter the body functions.
(e) Write the scientific name of the source of drugs Marijuana and Hashish, Mention
their effects on human body.
(f) How are morphine and Heroin related ? Mention the effects of each of them in
human body.

Q27 In the given figure, Agrobacterium is utilized for the production of a transgenic 3
crop. Explain the steps a, b, c, d and e shown in the figure.

Q28 For the last 50 years, the population of Asiatic leopard and tiger in India has been 3
declining.
(a)What is the reason for the population reduction of these animals ?
(b) Does the decreasing population of the organisms affect the stability of the ecosystem?
If yes, state how?
(c) Suggest the measures for protecting the population of these organisms.

SECTION D

QNo 29 and 30 are case based questions. Each question has sub-parts .
Q29 Pedigree is the representation or chart showing family history .The family pedigree of 4
Queen Victoria shows a number of haemophilic descendents. During a population study of
haemophilia disease, following results are obtained.

Study the given graph and answer the following questions.


(a) Is haemophilia in humans a sex linked or autosomal disorder?
(b) Work out a cross in support of your answer. A haemophilic patient suffers from non -stop
bleeding why?
(c) Why is haemophilia categorized as Mendelian disorder?
(d) If the maternal grandfather of a boy is haemophilic, maternal grandmother is
normal and father is normal then what are the chances that he could have
haemophilia disease. Show the cross to support your answer.

Q30 Cancer is a major burden of disease worldwide. Each year, tens of millions of people are 4
diagnosed with cancer around the world, and more than half of the patients eventually die from
it. In many countries, cancer ranks as the second most common cause of death following
cardiovascular diseases. With significant improvements in the treatment and prevention of
cardiovascular diseases cancer has or will soon become the number one killer in many parts of
the world.

(a) Cancer is one of the most dreaded diseases. Explain contact inhibition
and metastasis with respect to this disease.

(b) Name the group of genes that have been identified in normal cells that
could lead to cancer. How do these genes cause cancer?

(d) A.Name any two techniques that are useful in detecting cancer in internal
organs.
B.Why are cancer patients often given -interferon as part of the treatment?

Q31 SECTION E 5.

(a) Double fertilization is reported in plants of both, castor and groundnut. However,
the mature seeds of groundnut are non-albuminous and castor are albuminous.
Explain the post fertilization events that responsible for it.

(b)Why are some seeds of Citrus referred to as poly-embryonic? How are they
formed?

(c) Draw a neat labelled diagram of Monocot and dicot seed with proper labelling
and analyze two differences in respect to embryo .

Q32 Answer the following questions based on Messelson and Stahl’s Experiment
(a) Write the name of the chemical substance used as a source of nitrogen in
their experiment.

(b) How did the scientists make it possible to distinguish the heavy DNA molecule from
the light DNA molecule? Explain.
(c) List the two methodologies which were involved in human genome project.
Mention how they were used.
(d) Expand YAC and BAC and mention how it was used in HGP.
(e) Expand SNP’s.What is its significance in HGP
Q In the given figure, A depicts a diseased tobacco plant whereas B shows disease 5
33 free plant. This disease causes major losses to cash crop Tobacco.

A. (a ) Name the process involved in the production of disease resistant tobacco


plants, using genetic engineering.
(b) Name the vector used in this process
(c ) Name the causative agent of the disease.
(d) Write the two sources of RNA used in this technique.
(e) How is the pathogen specific gene silenced in this mechanism? Explain the
strategy adopted to develop such plants.
B.Recombinant DNA-technology is of great importance in the field of medicine. It has
been used in preparing genetically engineered human insulin.

(a) Name the source from which insulin was extracted earlier. Why is this insulin
no more in use by diabetic people?
(b) Explain the process of synthesis of Insulin by Eli lily company. Name the
technique used by the company.
(c) How is the insulin produced by human body different from the insulin produced
by the above mentioned company?
***********

You might also like

pFad - Phonifier reborn

Pfad - The Proxy pFad of © 2024 Garber Painting. All rights reserved.

Note: This service is not intended for secure transactions such as banking, social media, email, or purchasing. Use at your own risk. We assume no liability whatsoever for broken pages.


Alternative Proxies:

Alternative Proxy

pFad Proxy

pFad v3 Proxy

pFad v4 Proxy