Contents

Instructions Chapter 2 Equipment, Navigation

Preface v and Facilities
Updates and Practice Tests vi Inoperative Equipment 2-3
Description of the Tests vii Pitot-Static Instruments 2-4
Knowledge Test Eligibility Requirements viii Electronic Flight Instruments 2-10
Process for Taking a Knowledge Test viii Safety of Flight Equipment 2-12
Use of Test Aids and Materials xii Communications 2-17
Retesting Procedures xiii Navigation Equipment 2-18
Cheating or Other Unauthorized Conduct xiii Horizontal Situation Indicator (HSI) 2-23
Eligibility Requirements for the Global Navigation 2-29
Airline Transport Pilot Certificate xiv Approach Systems 2-30
Knowledge Exam References xv GPS 2-37
ASA Test Prep Layout xvi Airport Lighting and Marking 2-42
Approach Lighting 2-52

Chapter 1 Regulations
Applicable Regulations 1 -3 Chapter 3 Aerodynamics
The ATP Certificate 1-3 Lift and Drag 3-3
Flight Engineer Requirements 1 -8 Critical Engine and VMC 3-7
Flight Attendants 1-9 Maneuvering Flight 3-9
Experience and Training Requirements 1-10 Stability 3-12
Part 135 Flight Crew Requirements 1 -18 High Speed Flight 3-13
Flight Crew Duty Time Limits 1 -27 Primary Flight Controls 3-17
Flight Duty Periods 1 -28 Tabs 3-21
Dispatching and Flight Release 1-36 High-Lift Devices 3-23
Fuel Requirements 1 -45 Helicopter Aerodynamics 3-25
Carriage of Passengers and Cargo 1 -49
Part 135 Carriage of Passengers and
Cargo Requirements 1-54 Chapter 4 Performance
Emergency Equipment and Operations 1 -57 Engine Performance 4-3
Part 135 Oxygen Requirements 1-70 Helicopter Systems 4-9
National Transportation Safety Board (NTSB).... 1 -75 Takeoff Performance Terminology 4-10
Part 135 Regulations 1-77 Calculating V-Speeds 4-15
Helicopter Regulations 1 -93 CRJ200 V-Speeds 4-15
Q400V-Speeds 4-15
B-737 V-Speeds 4-16
DC-9 V-Speeds 4-16

Continued

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA iii

Calculating Takeoff Power 4-21 Chapter 6 Flight Operations
CRJ200 Takeoff Thrust Settings 4-21 Airspace 6-3
Q400 Takeoff Power 4-21 NOTAMs (Notices To AirMen) 6-15
B-737 Takeoff EPR 4-21 Items on the Flight Plan 6-16
Climb Performance 4-23 Alternate Airport Planning 6-18
CRJ200 Performance Tables 4-23 ATC Clearances 6-22
Q400 Performance Tables 4-23 Takeoff Procedures 6-27
Q400 Climb and Cruise Power Tables 4-24 Instrument Approaches 6-29
B-737 Climb Performance Tables 4-24 Landing 6-38
B-737 Climb and Cruise Power Tables 4-24 Communications 6-39
Cruise Performance 4-30 Speed Adjustments 6-42
Landing Considerations 4-32 Holding 6-44
Landing Performance Tables and Graphs 4-35 Charts 6-51
Miscellaneous Performance 4-39
Engine-Out Procedures 4-44
C208 Aircraft Performance 4-48 Chapter 7 Emergencies, Hazards,
Cessna 208 Performance Tables 4-54 and Flight Physiology
BE1900 Performance 4-56 Flight Emergencies and Hazards 7-3
Helicopter Performance 4-70 Flight Physiology 7-11
Flight Planning Graphs and Tables 4-79
Typical Flight Logs 4-84
Computation of Temperature Chapter 8 Meteorology and Weather
at Cruise Altitude 4-84 Services
Computation of True Airspeed The Atmosphere 8-3
Using Mach Number 4-85 Weather Systems 8-8
Specific Range 4-85 Stability and Instability of Air 8-11
Fog and Rain 8-14
Thunderstorms 8-16
Chapter 5 Weight and Balance
Wind Shear 8-21
Center of Gravity Computation 5-3 Frost and Ice 8-28
Stabilizer Trim Setting 5-6 Icing 8-28
Changing Loading Conditions 5-8 Hazards of Structural Icing 8-29
C208 Weight and Balance 5-12 Frost Formation 8-29
Beech 1900 Weight and Balance 5-13 Turbulence 8-37
Helicopter Weight and Balance 5-23 Arctic and Tropical Weather Hazards 8-40
Helicopter Weight and Balance: CG Shifts 5-24 Aviation Routine Weather Report (METAR) 8-42
Helicopter Weight and Balance: Load Limits 5-26 The Terminal Aerodrome Forecast (TAF) 8-46
Helicopter Weight and Balance: Lateral CG 5-28 Enroute Forecasts 8-48
Floor Loading Limits 5-29 Surface Analysis and Constant Pressure Charts 8-51
Reports and Forecasts of Hazardous Weather.. 8-53
PIREPs 8-57

Cross References
A: Question Number and Page Number A-1
B: Learning Statement Code and
Question Number B-1

iv ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

Preface

Welcome to ASA's Test Prep Series. ASA's test books have been helping pilots prepare for the FAA
Knowledge Tests for more than 60 years with great success. We are confident that with proper use of
this book, you will score very well on any of the Airline Transport Pilot tests.
Begin your studies with a classroom or home-study ground school course, which will involve reading
a comprehensive textbook (see the FAA Knowledge Exam References list on page x). Conclude your
studies with this Test Prep or comparable software. Read the question, select your choice for the correct
answer, then read the explanation. Use the Learning Statement Codes and references that conclude
each explanation to identify additional resources ifyou need further study of a subject. Upon completion
of your studies, take practice tests at www.prepware.com (see inside front cover for your free account).
The FAAAirline Transport Pilot questions have been arranged into chapters based on subject matter.
Topical study, in which similar material is covered under a common subject heading, promotes better
understanding, aids recall, and thus provides a more efficient study guide. Study and place emphasis
on those questions most likely to be included in your test (identified by the aircraft and test category
above each question). For example: a pilot preparing for the ATP Multi-engine test would focus on the
questions marked "ALL" and "ATM"; a pilot preparing for the ATP Single-engine test would focus on the
questions marked "ALL" and "ATS"; a pilot preparing for the ATP Helicopter (135) test would focus on
the questions marked "ALL" and "RTC"; and candidates for the Dispatcher certificate would focus on
the questions marked "ALL" and "DSP."
It is important to answer every question assigned on your FAA Knowledge Test. If in their ongoing
review, the FAA authors decide a question has no correct answer, is no longer applicable, or is otherwise
defective, your answer will be marked correct no matter which one you chose. However, you will not be
given the automatic credit unless you have marked an answer. Unlike some other exams you may have
taken, there is no penalty for "guessing" in this instance.
The FAA exams are "closed tests" which means the exact database of questions is not available to
the public. The question and answer choices in this book are based on our extensive history and expe
rience with the FAA testing process. You might see similar although not exactly the same questions on
your official FAA exam. Answer stems may be rearranged from the A, B, C order you see in this book.
Therefore, be careful to fully understand the intent of each question and corresponding answer while
studying, rather than memorize the A, B, C answer. You may be asked a question that has unfamiliar
wording; studying and understanding the information in this book and the associated references will
give you the tools to answer question variations with confidence.
If your study leads you to question an answer choice, we recommend you seek the assistance of a
local instructor. We welcome your questions, recommendations or concerns:
Aviation Supplies & Academics, Inc.
7005 132nd Place SE Voice: 425.235.1500 Fax: 425.235.0128
Newcastle, WA98059-3153 Email: cfi@asa2fly.com Website: www.asa2fly.com
The FAA appreciates testing experience feedback. You can contact the branch responsible for the
FAA Knowledge Exams at:
Federal Aviation Administration
AFS-630, Airman Testing Standards Branch
PO Box 25082
Oklahoma City, OK 73125 Email: afs630comments@faa.gov

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA v

 Updates and Practice Tests

Free Test Updates for the One-Year Life Cycle of Test Prep Books
The FAA rolls out new tests as needed throughout the year; this typically happens in June, October,
and February. The FAAexams are "closed tests" which means the exact database of questions is not
available to the public. ASA combines more than 60 years of experience with expertise in airman training
and certification tests to prepare the most effective test preparation materials available in the industry.
You can feel confident you will be prepared for your FAA Knowledge Exam by using the ASA Test
Preps. ASA publishes test books each June and keeps abreast of changes to the tests. These changes
are then posted on the ASA website as a Test Update.
Visit the ASA website before taking your test to be certain you have the most current information.
While there, sign up for ASA's free email Update service. We will then send you an email notification if
there is a change to the test you are preparing for so you can review the Update for revised and/or new
test information.

www.asa2fly.com/testupdate

We invite your feedback. Afteryou take your official FAA exam, let us know how you did. Were you pre
pared? Did the ASA products meet your needs and exceed your expectations? We want to continue to
improve these products to ensure applicants are prepared, and become safe aviators. Send feedback
to: cfi@asa2fly.com

www.prepwa re.com
•••••
bee inside front cover Helping you practice for written exams.
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As the experts in FAA Knowledge Exam preparation, we want you to
have the confidence needed before heading to the testing center,
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> Realistic Test Simulation > Performance Graphs > Gain Confidence > Succeed
Test questions and time Review how you did, track Go into your exam fully Pass your exam,
allowed replicate the your performance and prepared after practicing achieve your goals,
official FAA exam review explanations for the up to 5 simulated tests and set new ones
questions you missed

RemotePilot•SportPilot • Private Pilot•InstrumentRating •Commercial Pilot •Flight Instructor •Ground Instructor

Fundamentals ofInstructing • Flight Engineer •Airline Transport Pilot •AMT General •Airframe • Powerplant
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vi ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

Description of the Tests

All test questions are the objective, multiple-choice type, with three answer choices. Each question
can be answered by the selection of a single response. The answer to some questions depend on the
response to a previous question to calculate the correct answer.
The FAA Knowledge Exams are designed to test your knowledge in many subject areas. If you are
pursuing an airline transport pilotcertificate or added rating, you should review the appropriate sections
of 14 CFR Part 61 for the specific knowledge areas on each test. Those taking the ATM or "ATP-Airline
Transport Pilot Multi-engine" exam will be tested on Part 121 as one of the knowledge areas. Those
taking the ATS or "ATP-Airline Transport Pilot Single-engine" exam will be tested on Part 135 as one of
the knowledge areas.
An applicant for an aircraft dispatcher certificate should review the appropriate sections of 14 CFR
Part 65 for the specific knowledge areas on the test. The applicant will be tested on Part 121 as one of
the knowledge areas. If Part 135 commuter operators (as defined in DOT Part 298) are required to have
aircraft dispatchers in the future, Part 135 questions will be added to the test. The aircraft dispatcher
applicant is not required to have the flying skills of an airline transport pilot but is expected to have the
same knowledge.

For the most efficientand effective study program, begin by reading the book cover to cover. Study
all the questions first, then refer to the following table, placingemphasis on those questions most likely
to be includedon your test (identified by the aircraft category above each question number).

Test Test Name Test Prep Number of Min. Allotted Time

Code Study Questions Age (hrs)

ADX Aircraft Dispatcher ALL, DSP 80 21 3.5

ATM ATP Multi-engine ALL, ATM 125 18 or 21 4.0

ATS ATP Single-engine ALL, ATS 90 21 3.0

ATH ATP-Helicopter (Part 135) ALL, RTC 80 21 3.0

ARA ATP-Airplane-Added Rating ALL, ATS 50 21 2.5

(Part 135)*
ARH ATP-Helicopter-Added Rating ALL, RTC 50 21 2.5
(Part 135)*
ACP ATP Canadian Conversion ME** ALL, ATM 40 21 2.0

ASC ATP Canadian Conversion SE** ALL, ATS 40 21 2.0

* Expert Study Tip

If it's been morethan 24 months since youtookthe initial ATP FAA Knowledge Exam, we recommend that you prepare for the
Add-On test using the "ATP Single-engine" or "ATP-Helictoper (Part 135)" test. This will better prepare you for all questions
that may be included on your add-on test.
"This test focuses on U.S. regulations, procedures and operations.

A score of 70 percent must be attained to successfully pass each test.

Note: All applicants transitioning from ATP airplane and/or helicopter need to take the additional
knowledge test. For example, an applicant adding a helicopter rating to an existing ATP-Airplane
certificate will need to take the 50-question add-on test.

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA vii

 Knowledge Test Eligibility Requirements
If you are pursuing an airline transport or aircraft dispatcher certificate, you should review Title 14 of the
Code of Federal Regulations (14 CFR) Part 61, §61.23 "Medical Certificates: Requirement and Dura
tion," 14 CFR §61.35 "Knowledge Test: Prerequisites and Passing Grades," and 14 CFR Part 61 (ATP)
or Part 65 (ADX) for certificate requirements.

Process for Taking a Knowledge Test

The FAA has designated holders of airman knowledge testing (AKT) organization designation authori
zation (ODA). These AKT-ODAs sponsor hundreds of knowledge testing center locations. The testing
centers offer a full range of airman knowledge tests including: Aircraft Dispatcher, Airline Transport Pilot,
Aviation Maintenance Technician, Commercial Pilot, Flight Engineer, Flight Instructor, Flight Navigator,
Ground Instructor, Inspection Authorization, Instrument Rating, Parachute Rigger, Private Pilot, Recre
ational Pilot, Sport Pilot, Remote Pilot, and Military Competence. Contact information for the AKT-ODA
holders is provided at the end of this section.
The first step in taking a knowledge test is the registration process. You may either call the testing
centers' 1-800 numbers or simply take the test on a walk-in basis. If you choose to use the 1-800 number
to register, you will need to select a testing center, schedule a test date, and make financial arrange
ments for test payment. You may register for tests several weeks in advance, and you may cancel your
appointment according to the AKT-ODA holder's cancellation policy. If you do not follow the AKT-ODA
holder's cancellation policies, you could be subject to a cancellation fee.
The next step in taking a knowledge test is providing proper identification. Although no priorauthoriza
tion is necessary, except in the case of failure (see "Acceptable Forms ofAuthorization" below), proper
identification is required to take any airline transport pilot, aircraft dispatcher, or flight navigator knowledge
test. Testing center personnel will not begin the test until your identification is verified. For U.S. citizens,
an acceptable form of photo I.D. includes, but is not limited to: driver's license, government-issued
I.D. card, passport, alien residency card, and/or military I.D. card. For non-U.S. citizens, a passport is
required, along with one or more ofthe following forms of photo I.D.: driver's license, government-issued
I.D. card, and/or military I.D. card.
Proper identification contains your photograph, signature, date of birth (must show that you will meet
the age requirement for the certificate sought before the expiration date ofthe Airman Test Report), and
actual residential address, if different from your mailing address.

Acceptable Forms of Authorization

1. Requires no instructor endorsements or other form of written authorization.
2. Failed, passing orexpired Airman Knowledge Test Report, provided the applicant still has the original
test report in his/her possession. (See Retesting explanation.)
An applicant taking the ATM test must present a graduation certificate that shows completion of an ATP
Certification Training Program (CTP) described in §61.156. A graduation certificate must contain the
following information in order to be considered valid:
1. The full name, address, and FAA certificate number of the training provider authorized to conduct
the course.

2. The full name, FAA pilot certificate number, and address of the graduate.

viii ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

3. The following statement: 'The applicant named above has successfully completed theairline transport
pilot Certification Training Program as required by §61.156, and therefore has met the prerequisite
required by §61.35(a)(2) for the airline transport pilot airplane knowledge test."
4. The date of issuance.
5. The signature of the authorized instructor who completed the academic portion of the course.
6. Asequential number on the certificate starting with the first four identifiers of the training provider's
certificate number.

Test-Taking Tips
Prior to launching the actual test, theAKT-ODA holder's testing software will provide you with an oppor
tunity to practice navigating through the test. This practice (or tutorial) session may include a "sample"
question(s). These sample questions have no relation to the content of the test, but are meant to familiar
ize you with the look and feel of the system screens, including selecting an answer, marking a question
for later review, time remaining for the test, and other features of the testing software.
Follow thesetime-proven tips, which will help you develop a skillful, smooth approach to test-taking:
1. Be careful to fully understand the intent of each question and corresponding answer while studying,
rather than memorize the A, B, C answer choice —answer stems may appear in a different order
than you studied.
2. Take with you to the testing center proof of eligibility for this certificate, photo I.D., the testing fee,
calculator, flight computer (ASA's E6-B, Micro E6-B which has the high-speed wind correction slide,
or CX-2 Pathfinder), plotter, magnifying glass, and a sharp pointer, such as a safety pin.
3. Your first action when you sit down should be to write on the scratch paper the weight and balance
and any other formulas and information you can remember from your study. Remember, some of
the formulas may be on your E6-B.
4. Answer each question in accordance with the latest regulations and guidance publications.
5. Read each question carefully before looking atthe possible answers. You should clearly understand
the problem before attempting to solve it.
6. After formulating an answer, determine which answer choice corresponds the closest with your
answer. The answer chosen should completely resolve the problem.
7. From the answer choices given, it may appearthatthere is more than one possible answer. However,
there is only one answer that is correct and complete. The other answers are either incomplete,
erroneous, or represent popular misconceptions.
8. If a certain question is difficult for you, it is best to mark it for REVIEW and proceed to the other ques
tions. After you answer the less difficult questions, return to those which you marked for review and
answer them. Be sure to untag these questions once you've answered them. The review marking
procedure will be explained to you prior to starting the test. Although the computer should alert you
to unanswered questions, make sure every question has an answer recorded. This procedure will
enable you to use the available time to the maximum advantage.
9. Perform each math calculation twice to confirm your answer. If adding or subtracting a column of
numbers, reverse your direction the second time to reduce the possibility of errors.
10. When solving a calculation problem, select the answer nearest to your solution. The problem has
been checked with various types of calculators; therefore, if you have solved it correctly, your answer
will be closer to the correct answer than any of the other choices.
11. Remember that information is provided in the FAA Legends and FAA Figures.

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA ix

 12. Remember to answer every question, even the ones with no completely correct answer, to ensure
the FAA gives you credit for a bad question.
13. Take your time and be thorough but relaxed. Take a minute off every half-hour orso to relax the brain
and the body. Get a drink of water halfway through the test.
14. Your test will be graded immediately upon completion. You will be allowed 10 minutes to review any
questions you missed. You will see the question only; you will not see the answer choices or your
selected response. This allows you to review the missed areas with an instructor prior to taking the
Practical exam.

Test Reports
Your test will be graded immediately upon completion. You will be allowed 10 minutes to review any ques
tions you missed. You will see the question only; you will not see the answer choices or your selected
response. This allows you to review the missed areaswith an instructor prior to taking the Practical exam.
After this review period you will receive your Airman Test Report, with the testing center's embossed
seal, which reflects your score.

Validity of Airman Test Reports

For an Airman Test Report to be valid, it must be dated within the 24-calendar month period preceding
the month you complete the practical test. If the Airman Test Report expires before completion of the
practical test, you must retake the knowledge test.
The 24-month limitation does not apply if you:
1. are employed as a flight crewmember by a certificate holder under 14 CFR Parts 121, 125, or 135
at the time of the practical test and have satisfactorily accomplished that operator's approved:
a. pilot in command aircraft qualification training program that is appropriate to the certificate and
rating sought; and
b. qualification training requirements appropriate to the certificate and ratings sought; or
2. are employed as a flight crewmember in scheduled U.S. military air transport operations at thetime
of the practical test, and have accomplished the pilot in command aircraft qualification training pro
gram that is appropriate to the certificate and rating sought.
3. Per 14 CFR 61.39(b), complete the airline transport pilot certification program in §61.156, then com
plete the practical within the 60-calendar month period preceding the month the applicant completes
the practical.

Test Reports and Learning Statement Codes

The Airman Test Report lists the learning statement codes for questions answered incorrectly. The total
number of learning statement codes shown on the Airman Test Report is not necessarily an indication of
the total number of questions answered incorrectly. Study these knowledge areas to improve your under
standing of the subject matter. See the Learning Statement Code/Question Number Cross-Reference
in the back of this book for a complete list of which questions apply to each learning statement code.
Your instructor is required to provide instruction on each of these knowledge areas listed on your
Airman Test Report and to complete an endorsement of this instruction. The Airman Test Report must
be presented to the examiner prior to taking the practical test. During the oral portion of the practical
test, the examiner is required to evaluate the noted areas of deficiency.

x ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 If you wish to have your test hand-scored (if you believe a question or your score are in error), you
must submit a request, in the form of a signed letter, to the Airman Testing Standards Branch, AFS-
630. The request must be accompanied by a copy of your Airman Knowledge Test Report and a legible
photocopy of a government issued identification with your photograph and signature. Mail or fax this
information to (e-mail requests are not accepted due tosecurity issues): FAA, AFS-630, PO Box 25082,
Oklahoma City, OK 73125 or fax to 405-954-4748.
Should you require a duplicate Airman Test Report due to loss or destruction of the original, send
a signed request accompanied by a check or money order for $12 payable to the FAA. Your request
should be sent to the Federal Aviation Administration, Airmen Certification Branch, AFS-760, P.O. Box
25082, Oklahoma City, OK 73125.

Airman Knowledge Testing Sites

The following airman knowledge testing (AKT) organization designation authorization (ODA) holders are
authorized to give FAA knowledge tests. This list should be helpful in case you choose to register for a
test or simply want more information. The latest listing of computer testing center locations is available
on the FAA website athttp://www.faa.gov/pilots/testing, under "Knowledge Testing" select "Commercial
Testing Center List" and a PDFwill download automatically.
Computer Assisted Testing Service (CATS)
Applicant inquiry and test registration: 800-947-4228 or 650-259-8550
www.catstest.com

PSI Computer Testing

Applicant inquiry and test registration: 800-211-2753 or 360-896-9111
www.psiexams.com

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA xi

 Use of Test Aids and Materials
Airman knowledge tests require applicants to analyze the relationship between variables needed to solve
aviation problems, in addition to testing for accuracy of a mathematical calculation. The intent is that
all applicants are tested on concepts rather than rote calculation ability. It is permissible to use certain
calculating devices when taking airman knowledge tests, provided they are used within the following
guidelines. The term "calculating devices" is interchangeable with such items as calculators, computers,
or any similar devices designed for aviation-related activities.

Guidelines for Use of Test Aids and Materials

The applicant may use test aids and materials within the guidelines listed below, if actual test questions
or answers are not revealed.

1. Applicants may use test aids, such as scales, straightedges, protractors, plotters, navigation com
puters, log sheets, and all models of aviation-oriented calculating devices that aredirectly related to
the test. In addition, applicants may use any test materials provided with the test.
2. Manufacturer's permanently inscribed instructions on the front and back of such aids listed in 1(a),
e.g., formulas, conversions, regulations, signals, weather data, holding pattern diagrams, frequen
cies, weight and balance formulas, and air traffic control procedures are permissible.
3. The test proctor may provide calculating devices to applicants and deny them use of their personal
calculating devices if the applicant's device does not have a screen that indicates all memory has
been erased. The test proctor must be able to determine the calculating device's erasure capability.
The use of calculating devices incorporating permanent or continuous type memory circuits without
erasure capability is prohibited.
4. The use of magnetic cards, magnetic tapes, modules, computer chips, or any other device upon
which prewritten programs or information related to the test can be stored and retrieved is prohib
ited. Printouts of data will be surrendered atthe completion of the test if the calculating device used
incorporates this design feature.
5. The use of any booklet or manual containing instructions related to the use of the applicant's calcu
lating device is not permitted.
6. Dictionaries are not allowed in the testing area.
7. The test proctor makes the final determination relating to test materials and personal possessions
that the applicant may take into the testing area.

Testing Procedures For Applicants Requesting Special Accommodations

If you are an applicant with a learning or reading disability, you may request approval from the local
FSDO or FAA International Field Office (IFO) to take an airman knowledge test, using the special accom
modations procedures outlined in the most current version of FAA Order 8080.6 "Conduct of Airman
Knowledge Tests."
Prior to approval of any option, the FSDO or IFO Aviation Safety Inspector must advise you of the
regulatory certification requirement of being able to read, write, speak, and understand the English
language.

xii ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

Retesting Procedures
ADX
Retests do not require a 30-day waiting period if the applicant presents a signed statement from an air
man holding a certificate and rating sought by the applicant. This statement must certify that the airman
hasgiven the applicant additional instruction in each of the subjects failed, and that the airman considers
the applicant ready for retesting. Requires a 30-day waiting period for retesting if the applicant presents
a failed test report without a signed statement.
Applicants taking retests afterprevious failure are required to submit the applicable score report
indicating failure to the testing center prior to retesting. The original failed test report shall beretained by
the proctor and attached to the applicable sign-in/out log. The latest test taken will reflect the official score.

All Airline Transport Pilot Tests

Applicants retesting after failure are required to submit the applicable score report indicating failure,
along with an endorsement (on the test report) from an authorized instructor who gave the applicant
the additional training, and certifying the applicant is competent to pass thetest. The original failed test
report (with retest endorsement) presented as authorization shall be retained by the proctor and attached
to the applicable sign-in/out log. The latesttest taken will reflect the official score.

ADX and All Airline Transport Pilot Tests

Applicants retesting in an attempt toachieve a higher passing score may retake the same test for a
better grade after 30 days. The latest test taken will reflect the official score. Applicants are required to
submit the original applicable score report indicating previous passing score tothe testing center prior to
testing. Testing center personnel must collect and destroy this report prior toissuing the new test report.
Note: The testing centers require a wait period of 24 hours before any applicant may retest.

Cheating or Other Unauthorized Conduct

Computer testing centers must follow strict security procedures to avoid test compromise. These proce
dures are established by the FAA and arecovered in FAA Order 8080.6, Conduct of Airman Knowledge
Tests. The FAA has directed testing centers to terminate a test at any time a test proctor suspects a
cheating incident has occurred. An FAA investigation will then be conducted. If the investigation deter
mines that cheating or unauthorized conduct has occurred, then any airman certificate or rating that
you hold may be revoked, and you will be prohibited for 1year from applying for or taking any test for a
certificate or rating under 14 CFR Part 61.

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA xiii

 Eligibility Requirements for the
Airline Transport Pilot Certificate

To be eligible for an Airline Transport Pilot Certificate, a person must:

1. Be at least 23 years old (or 21 if meeting 61.160 requirements).
2. Be of good moral character.
3. Read, write and understand English, and speak it without impediment that would interfere with radio
conversation.

4. Have a current Third-Class Medical Certificate.

5. Pass a knowledge examination on the appropriate subjects with a score of at least 70 percent.
6. Pass an oral and flight check on the subjects and maneuvers in the Airline Transport Pilot and Type
Rating Practical Test Standards (#ASA-8081-5).
7. Have a Commercial Pilot Certificate or foreign or military equivalent.
8. For an ATP-Airplane Multi-engine or an ATP obtained concurrently with an airplane type rating,
receive a graduation certificate from an authorized training provider certifying completion of anATP
certification training program specified in §61.156 before applying for the knowledge test.
9. For an ATP certificate with an airplane category and class rating, have at least 1,500 hours of total
time as a pilot that includes at least:
a. 500 hours of cross-country flight time.
b. 100 hours of night flight time.
c. 50 hours of flight time in the class of airplane for the rating sought.
d. 75 hours of instrument flight time, in actual or simulated instrument conditions,
e. 250 hours of PIC time

10. For a rotorcraft category and helicopter class rating, have 1,200 hours pilot time including:
a. 500 hours cross-country flight time
b. 100 hours night time, at least 15 hours in helicopters
c. 200 hours in helicopters including 75 hours PIC time
d. 75 hours of actual orsimulated instrument time with at least 50 hours in flight and 25 hours PIC
time in helicopters.

xiv ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

Knowledge Exam References

The FAA references the following documents to write the FAA Knowledge Exam questions. You should
be familiar with the latest revision for all of these as part of yourground school studies, which you should
complete before starting test preparation:
FAA-G-8082-1 Airline Transport Pilot, Aircraft Dispatcher and Flight Navigator Test Guide
ANA Aerodynamics forNaval Aviators
CUG Aeronautical Chart User's Guide
Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM)
FAA-H-8083-25 Pilot's Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge
FAA-H-8083-3 Airplane Flying Handbook, or FAA-H-8083-21 Helicopter Flying Handbook
FAA-H-8083-6 Advanced Avionics Handbook
FAA-H-8083-15 Instrument Flying Handbook
FAA-H-8083-1 Aircraft Weight and Balance Handbook
FAA-H-8083-2 Risk Management Handbook
FAA-H-8083-16 Instrument Procedures Handbook
FAA-S-8081 -5 ATP Practical Test Standards
AC 00-6 Aviation Weather
AC 00-24 Thunderstorms
AC 00-30 Atmospheric Turbulence Avoidance
AC 00-45 Aviation Weather Services
AC 00-54 Pilot Wind Shear Guide
AC 20-117 Hazards Following Ground Deicing &Ground Operations in Conditions Conducive to
Aircraft Icing
AC 91-6 Water, Slush and Snow on the Runway
AC 91-43 Unreliable Airspeed Indication
AC 91 -51 Effect of Icing on Aircraft Control andAirplane DeiceandAnti-Ice Systems
AC 91 -74 Pilot Guide Flight in Icing Conditions
AC 135-17 Pilot Guide-Small Aircraft Ground Deicing
AC 120-51 Crew Resource Management Training
AC 120-58 Pilot Guide for Large Aircraft Ground Deicing
14 CFR Part 1, 25, 61, 63, 71, 91, 97, 117, 119, 121, 125, 135
49 CFR Part 830
Chart Supplements U.S. (previously Airport/Facility Directory or A/FD)
IFR Enroute High Altitude Chart
IFR Enroute Low Altitude Chart Vjsjt ^ ASA websjte for these and many
STAR —Standard Terminal Arrival more titles and pilot supplies for your aviation
U.S. Terminal Procedures endeavors: www.asa2fly.com

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA xv

 ASA Test Prep Layout
The sample FAA questions have been sorted into chapters according to subject matter. Within
each chapter, the questions have beenfurther classified and all similar questions grouped together with
a concise discussion of the material covered in each group. This discussion material of "Chapter text"
is printed in a larger font and spans the entire width of the page. Immediately following the sample FAA
Question isASA's Explanation in italics. The last line of the Explanation contains the Learning Statement
Code and further reference (if applicable). See the EXAMPLE below.
Figures referenced by the Chapter text only are numbered with the appropriate chapter number,
i.e., "Figure 1-1" is Chapter 1's first chapter-text figure.
Some Questions refer to Figures or Legends immediately following the question number, i.e.,
"8201. (Refer to Figure 14.)." These are FAA Figures and Legends which can be found in the separate
booklet: Computer Testing Supplement (CT-8080-XX). This supplement is bundled with the Test Prep
and is the exact material you will have access to when you take your computerized test. We provide it
separately, so you will become accustomed to referring to the FAA Figures and Legends as you would
during the test.
Figures referenced by the Explanation and pertinent tothe understanding of that particular ques
tion are labeled by their corresponding Question number. For example: the caption "Questions 8245
and 8248" means the figure accompanies the Explanations for both Question 8245 and 8248.
Answers to each question are found at the bottom of each page.

EXAMPLE:
Chapter text

Four aerodynamic forces are considered to be basic because they act upon an aircraft during all flight
maneuvers. There is the downward-acting force called WEIGHT which must be overcome by the
upward-acting force called LIFT, and there is the rearward-acting force called DRAG, which must be
overcome by the forward-acting force called THRUST.
Category rating. This question may
be found on tests for these ratings.*
ALL, ATM, ATS, DSP, RTC <
8201. (Refer to Figure 14.) The four forces acting on an
airplane in flight are f See separate book: Computerized
Testing Supplement (CT-8080-XX)
A— lift, weight, thrust, and drag.
B—lift, weight, gravity, and thrust. ^
Question and answer choices
C— lift, gravity, power, and friction.

Lift, weight, thrust, and drag are the four basic <- Explanation
aerodynamic forces acting on an aircraft in flight.
(PLT235) — FAA-H-8083-25 <
Answer (B)is incorrect because the force of gravity is always the same
number and reacts with the airplane's mass to produce a different
weight for almost every airplane. Answer (C) is incorrect because
weight is thefinal product ofgravity, thrust is thefinal product ofpower,
and drag is the final product of friction. Power, gravity, and friction are
onlyparts of the aerodynamic forces of flight. Code line. FAA Learning Statement
A Code in parentheses, followed by
references for further study.
Incorrect answer explanation. Reasons why
answer choices are incorrect explained here.

* Note: The FAA does not identify which questions are on the different ratings' tests. Unless the wording of a question ispertinent to only one
rating category, it may be found on any of the tests.
ALL = All operations ATM = Multi-engine operations
ATS = Single-engine operations DSP= Dispatcher RTC= Rotorcraft

xvi ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

Chapter 1
Regulations
Applicable Regulations 1-3
The ATP Certificate 1-3

Flight Engineer Requirements 1-8

Flight Attendants 1-9
Experience and Training Requirements 1-10
Part 135 Flight Crew Requirements 1-18
Flight Crew DutyTime Limits 1-27
Flight Duty Periods 1-28
Dispatching and Flight Release 1-36
Fuel Requirements 1-45
Carriage of Passengers and Cargo 1-49
Part 135 Carriage of Passengers and Cargo Requirements 1-54
Emergency Equipment and Operations 1-57
Part 135 Oxygen Requirements 1-70
National Transportation Safety Board (NTSB) 1-75
Part 135 Regulations 1-77
Helicopter Regulations 1-93

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 1-1

Chapter 1 Regulations

1-2 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 1 Regulations

Applicable Regulations
Although "FAR" is used as the acronym for "Federal Aviation Regulations," and found throughout the
regulations themselves and hundreds of other publications, the FAA is now actively discouraging its use.
"FAR" also means "Federal Acquisition Regulations." To eliminate any possible confusion, the FAA is
now citing the federal aviation regulations with reference to Title 14 of the Code of Federal Regulations.
For example, "FAR Part 91.3" is now referenced as "14 CFR Part 91 Section 3." The regulations change
frequently; answer all questions in compliance with the most current regulations.
Three different Federal Aviation Regulation Parts can apply to operations of aircraft covered by this
chapter: Parts 91,121, and 135. Part 91 encompasses the general operation and flight rulesfor all aircraft
operating within the United States. Often the rules of Part 121 or 135 supplement or even supersede
Part 91. When an airplane is not operated for compensation, only the Part 91 rules apply. For the test,
assume Part 121 or 135 rules apply unless the question specifically states otherwise.
Part 121 applies to air carriers (airlines) engaged in interstate or overseas air transportation. Carriers
which operate under Part 121 engage in common carriage. This means that they offer their services
to the public and receive compensation for those services.
Part 121 operators are subdivided into three categories. Carriers authorized to conduct scheduled
operations within the 48 contiguous states are domestic aircarriers. Flag aircarriersconductscheduled
operations inside and outside the 48 contiguous states. A supplemental carrier conducts its opera
tions anywhere that its operations specifications permit but only on a nonscheduled basis. There is a
fourth category, commercial operators of large aircraft, but they must comply with the rules covering
supplemental carriers and the distinction is unimportant to this discussion.
Part 135 applies to air taxi operators. These operators are subdivided into twocategories, commuter
and on-demand operations.
Other parts of the regulations apply as well. Part 61 governs certification of pilots and flight instruc
tors. Part 67 covers the issuing and standards for medical certificates. Part 1 contains definitions and
abbreviations.

The ATP Certificate

All required flight crew of an air carrier flight must hold Airline Transport Pilot (ATP) certificates with the
appropriate type rating.
The pilot-in-command ofa large aircraft (gross weight over 12,500 pounds) or of a turbojet powered
airplane must have a type rating from that aircraft issued under 14 CFR Part 61.
Any type rating(s) on the pilot certificate of an applicant who successfully completes an ATP check-
ride will be included on the ATP Certificate with the privileges and limitations of the ATP Certificate,
provided the applicant passes the checkride in the same category and class of aircraft for which the
applicant holds the type rating(s). However, if a type rating for that category and class of aircraft on the
superseded pilot certificate is limited to VFR, that limitation will be carried forward to the person's ATP
Certificate level.
An ATP certificate holder may give instruction in "air transportation service" in aircraft for which he/
she holds category, class and type ratings as an ATP. An ATP may not instruct more than 8 hours a day
and not more than 36 hours in any 7-day period.
If a person's pilot or medical certificate is lost ordestroyed he/she can request the FAA tosend a FAX
confirming that they were issued. This FAX can be used as a temporary replacement for the certificates
for up to 60 days. ^.^

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 1 -3

Chapter 1 Regulations

If a pilot certificate holder is convicted of driving under the influence of alcohol or drugs, the pilot
must report that conviction to the FAA, Civil Aviation Security Division within 60 days. Failure to do so
is grounds for suspending or revoking any pilot or flight instructor certificates held by that person.
Acrewmember is a person assigned to duty in the aircraft during flight. This includes pilots, flight
engineers, navigators, flight attendants or anyone else assigned to duty in the airplane. A flight crew
member is a pilot, flight engineer or flight navigator assigned to duty in the aircraft during flight.
No one may serve as a pilot on an air carrier after that person has reached his/her 65th birthday.
Note that this rule applies to any pilot position in the aircraft, but it does not apply to other flight crew
positions such as flight engineer or navigator. This is known as the "Age 65 Rule."
To exercise ATP privileges (such as pilot-in-command of an air carrier flight), a pilot must hold a
First-Class Medical Certificate issued within the preceding (6 or 12) calendar months —depending on
whether the applicant isoveror under 40 years ofage. To exercise commercial pilot privileges (e.g. flying
a parachute jump operation) a pilot must hold either a First- or Second-Class Medical Certificate within
the preceding (6 or 12) calendar months. Forexample, a First-Class Certificate issued in Februaryto a
pilot over 40 years of age would be good anytime in February for ATP privileges through August 31 and
then good through the last day of February the next year for commercial pilot privileges.
A prerequisite for taking a practical test requires the applicant hold at least a current Third-Class
Medical Certificate, if a medical certificate is required. If the practical test is scheduled in an aircraft, the
applicant is required to have the Third-Class Medical Certificate. The applicant is not required to hold a
medical certificate when taking a test or check for a certificate, rating, or authorization conducted in a
flight simulator or flight training device.

ALL ALL
9350. Unless otherwise authorized, when is the pilot- 9350-1. The second-in-command of an aircraft in
in-command required to hold a type rating? domestic operation under 14 CFR 121 must hold
A— When operating an aircraft that is certificated for A—an airline transport pilot certificate and a first
more than one pilot. class medical.
B— When operating an aircraft having a gross weight B—an airline transport pilot certificate with an SIC
of more than 12,500 pounds. aircraft type rating.
C—When operating a multiengine aircraft having a C—a commercial pilot certificate with instrument
gross weight of more than 6,000 pounds. rating, a second-class medical, and a type rating
appropriate for the aircraft being flown.
A person must hold a type rating to act as pilot-in-
command of a large aircraft (over 12,500 pounds gross No certificate holder may use nor may any pilot act
takeoff weight), or of a turbojet-powered airplane. as second-in-command (SIC) unless the pilot holds
(PLT443) — 14 CFR §61.31 an airline transport pilot certificate and an appropri
Answer(A) is incorrect because an aircraft requiring more than one ate aircraft type rating for the aircraft being flown. A
pilotdoes not constitute the need for a type rating. Answer (C) is second-in-command type rating obtained under 61.55
incorrect because itdoes notmatter if theaircraft is single-engine or
multi-engine, and the aircraft must weighover 12,500 lbs., not 6,000. does not satisfy these requirements. (PLT450) — 14
CFR §121.436

Answers
9350 [B] 9350-1 [B]

1-4 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 1 Regulations

ALL ALL

9328. A commercial pilot has a type rating in a B-727 9329-2. The lowest authorized ILS minimums associ
and B-737. A flight test is completed in a B-747 for the ated with CAT II approaches are
Airline Transport Pilot Certificate. What pilot privileges A— Decision Height (DH) 200 feet and Runway
may be exercised regarding these airplanes? Visual Range (RVR) 2,400 feet (with touchdown
A- Commercial - B-737; ATP - B-727 and B-747. zone and centerline lighting, RVR 1,800 feet).
B-ATP - B-747; Commercial - B-727 and B-737. B- DH 100 feet and RVR 1,200 feet.
C-ATP - B-747, B-727, and B-737. C-No DH or DH below 50 feet and RVR less than
700 feet but not less than 150 feet.
Any type rating(s) on the pilot certificate of an applicant
who successfully completes an ATP checkride will be Category I (CAT I) operation is a precision instrument
included on the ATP Certificate with the privileges and approach and landing with a decision altitude that is not
limitations of the ATP Certificate, provided the applicant lower than 200 feet (60 meters) above the threshold and
passes the checkride in the same category and class of with either a visibility of not less than 1/2 statute mile
aircraftfor which the applicant holds the type rating(s). (800 meters), or a runway visual range of not less than
However, if a type rating for that category and class of 1,800 feet (550 meters). Category II (CATII) operation
aircraft on the superseded pilot certificate is limited to is a precision instrument approach and landing with a
VFR, that limitation shall be carried forward to the per decision height lower than 200 feet (60 meters), but
son's ATP Certificate level. (PLT443)—14 CFR §61.157 not lower than 100 feet (30 meters), and with a runway
visual range of not less than 1,200 feet (350 meters).
Category III (CATIII) operation is a precision instrument
ALL approach and landing with a decision height lower than
9329. A commercial pilot has DC-3 and DC-9 type rat 100 feet (30 meters) or no DH, and witha runway visual
ings. A flight test is completed for an Airline Transport range less than 1200 feet (350 meters). (PLT442) —
Pilot Certificate in a B-727. What pilot privileges may FAA-H-8083-16
be exercised?
A- ATP - B-727 and DC-3; Commercial - DC-9.
ALL
B—ATP - B-727 only; Commercial - DC-9 and DC 3.
C-ATP - B-727, DC-3, and DC-9.
9330. In a 24-hour consecutive period, what is the
maximum time, excluding briefing and debriefing, that
Any type rating(s) on the pilot certificate of an applicant an airline transport pilot may instruct other pilots in air
who successfully completes an ATP checkride will be transportation service?
included on the ATP Certificate with the privileges and A— 6 hours.
limitations of the ATP Certificate, provided the applicant B— 8 hours.
passes the checkride in the same category and class of C—10 hours.
aircraft for which the applicant holds the type rating(s).
However, if a type rating for that category and class of An airline transport pilot may instructother pilots in air
aircraft on the superseded pilot certificate is limited to transportation service in aircraft of the category, class
VFR, that limitation shall be carried forward to the per and type for which he/she is rated. However, the ATP
son's ATPCertificate level. (PLT442)— 14 CFR §61.157 may not instruct for more than 8 hours in one day nor
more than 36 hours in any 7-day period. (PLT460) — 14
CFR §61.167
ALL
9329-1. The lowest CAT II minimums are
ALL
A-DH100andRVR1200.
9331. The flight instruction of other pilots in air transpor
B-DH 150 and RVR 1600.
tation service by an airline transport pilot is restricted to
C-DH50andRVR1200.
A— 30 hours in any 7-consecutive-day period.
A Category II orCategoryIII pilotauthorization is issued B—7 hours in any 24-consecutive-hour period.
bya letter ofauthorization as partof an applicant's instru C—36 hours in any 7-consecutive-day period.
ment rating or ATP certificate. Upon original issue, the
authorization contains the followinglimitations: for Cat The ATP may not instruct for more than 8 hours in
egory II operations, the limitation is 1,600 feet RVR and one day nor more than 36 hours in any 7-day period.
a 150-footdecision height. (PLT442) — 14 CFR 61.13 (PLT460) — 14 CFR §61.167

Answers

9328 [C] 9329 [C] 9329-1 [B] 9329-2 [B] 9330 [B] 9331 [C]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 1-5

Chapter 1 Regulations

ALL ALL

9351. When a facsimile replacement is received for an 9349. When a type rating is to be added to an airline
airman's medical certificate, for what maximum time is transport pilot certificate, and the practical test is sched
this document valid? uled in an approved flight simulator and an aircraft, the
A- 30 days. applicant is
B- 60 days. A— required to have a least a current third-class
C—90 days. medical certificate.
B— required to have a current first-class medical
A person who has lost an Airman's Certificate or a Medi certificate.
cal Certificate, or both, may obtain a FAXfrom the FAA C— not required to hold a medical certificate.
confirming that it was issued. The FAX may be carried
as temporary certificate(s) for a period not to exceed A prerequisite for taking a practical test requires that
60 days. (PLT447) — 14 CFR §61.29 the applicant hold at least a current third-class medical
certificate, ifa medical certificate is required.In this case,
since part of the practical test is scheduled in an aircraft,
ALL
the applicant is required to have at least a current third-
9332. How soon after the conviction for driving while class medical certificate. (PLT427) — 14 CFR §61.39
intoxicated by alcohol or drugs shall it be reported to
the FAA, Civil Aviation Security Division?
ALL
A— No later than 30 working days after the motor
vehicle action. 9335. An applicant who is taking a practical test for a
B— No later than 60 days after the motor vehicle type rating to be added to a commercial pilot certificate,
action. in an approved simulator, is
C— Required to be reported upon renewal of medical A— required to have a first-class medical certificate.
certificate. B— required to have a second-class medical
certificate.
Each person holding a certificate issued under this part C— not required to have a medical certificate.
shall provide a written report of each motor vehicle action
to the FAA, CivilAviation Security Division, no later than A prerequisite for taking a practical test requires that
60 days after the motor vehicle action. (PLT463) — 14 the applicant hold at least a current third-class medi
CFR §61.15 cal certificate, if a medical certificate is required. The
applicant is not required to hold a medical certificate
when taking a test or check fora certificate, rating, or
ALL
authorization conducted in a flight simulator or flight
9325. Which is a definition of the term "crewmember"? training device. In this case, since the practical test is
A— Only a pilot, flight engineer, or flight navigator scheduled in an approved flightsimulator, the applicant
assigned to duty in an aircraft during flight time. is not required to have a medical certificate. (PLT427)
B—A person assigned to perform duty in an aircraft — 14 CFR §§61.39, 61.23
during flight time.
C—Any person assigned to duty in an aircraft during
flight except a pilot or flight engineer.

"Crewmember"meansa personassignedtoperform duty

inan aircraft during flight time. (PLT395) — 14 CFR§1.1
Answer (A) is incorrect because "crewmember" pertains to anyone
assigned dutyin the aircraft duringflight. Answer (C) is also incorrect
because "crewmember" also includesthepilotand flight engineer.

Answers

9351 [B] 9332 [B] 9325 [B] 9349 [A] 9335 [C]

1-6 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 1 Regulations

ALL ALL
9333. An applicant who is scheduled for a practical test 9340. An applicant who is scheduled for a practical test
for an airline transport pilot certificate, in an approved for an airline transport pilot certificate, in an aircraft,
flight simulator, is needs

A— required to have at least a current third-class A— a first-class medical certificate.

medical certificate. B— at least a current third-class medical certificate.
B— not required to have a medical certificate. C—a second-class medical certificate.
C—required to have a first-class medical certificate.
A prerequisite for taking a practical test requires that
A prerequisite fortaking a practical test requires that the the applicant hold at least a current third-class medical
applicant hold at least a current third-class medical cer certificate, if a medical certificate is required. In this
tificate, if a medical certificate is required. The applicant case, since the practical test is scheduled in an aircraft,
is not required to hold a medical certificate when taking the applicant is required to have at least a current third-
a test or check for a certificate, rating, or authorization class medical certificate. (PLT427) — 14 CFR §61.39
conducted in a flight simulator or flight training device.
In this case, since the practical test is scheduled in an
approved flightsimulator, the applicant is not required to ATM, DSP

have a medical certificate. (PLT427) — 14 CFR §61.39 8191. The "age 65 rule" of 14 CFR Part 121 applies to
and §61.23 A— any required pilot crewmember.
B— any flight crewmember.
C—the pilot in command only.
ALL
9343. When a type rating is to be added to an air No person may serve as a pilot on an airplane engaged
line transport pilot certificate, and the practical test is in operations under 14 CFR Part 121 if that person has
scheduled in an approved flight training device and/or reached his/her 65th birthday. (PLT443) — 14 CFR
approved flight simulator, the applicant is §121.383
A— required to have at least a third-class medical Answer (B) is incorrect because the "age 65" rule excludes flight
certificate. engineers and navigators. Answer (C) is incorrect because the "age
65" rule applies to every pilot crewmember.
B— is not required to have a medical certificate.
C— required to have a first-class medical certificate.

A prerequisite fortaking a practical test requires that the

applicant hold at least a current third-class medical cer
tificate, if a medical certificate is required. The applicant
is not required to hold a medical certificate when taking
a test or check for a certificate, rating, or authorization
conducted in a flight simulator or flight training device.
In this case, since the practical test is scheduled in an
approved flight training device and/or approved flight
simulator, the applicantis not requiredto have a medical
certificate. (PLT427) — 14 CFR §§61.39, 61.23

Answers

9333 [B] 9343 [B] 9340 [B] 8191 [A]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 1-7

Chapter 1 Regulations

Flight Engineer Requirements

Many air carrier aircraft have a flight engineer as a required flight crewmember. All older airplanes that
have a maximum takeoff weight of more than 80,000 pounds must have a flight engineer. On aircraft
types certified after 1963, the aircraft's "type certificate" states whether or not a flight engineer is required.
On each flight that requires a flight engineer, at least one other member of the flight crew must be quali
fied to provide emergency performance of the flight engineer's duties if he/she becomes ill or incapacitated.
Either pilot can fulfill the function and they need not hold a Flight Engineer Certificate to be "qualified."

ATM, DSP ATM, DSP

8189. Under which condition is a flight engineer required 8212. An air carrier uses an airplane that is certified for
as a flight crewmember in 14 CFR Part 121 operations? operation with a flightcrew of two pilots and one flightengi
A— Ifthe airplane is being flown on proving flights, neer. In case the flight engineer becomes incapacitated,
with revenue cargo aboard. A— at least one other flight crewmember must be
B— If the airplane is powered by more than two qualified to perform the flight engineer duties.
turbine engines. B— one crewmember must be qualified to perform the
C— If required by the airplane's type certificate. duties of the flight engineer.
C—one pilot must be qualified and have a flight
No certificate holder may operate an airplane for which engineer certificate to perform the flight engineer
a type certificate was issued before January 2, 1964, duties.
having a maximum certificated takeoff weight of more
than 80,000 pounds withouta flightcrewmember holding On each flight requiring a flight engineer at least one
a current Flight Engineer Certificate. For each airplane flight crewmember, other than the flight engineer, must
type certificated after January 1, 1964, the requirement be qualified to provide emergency performance of the
for a flight engineer is determined under the type cer flightengineer's functions forthe safe completion of the
tification requirements of 14 CFR §25.1523. (PLT409) flight if the flight engineer becomes ill or is otherwise
— 14 CFR §121.387 incapacitated. A pilot need not hold a Flight Engineer's
Answer (A) is incorrect because the type certificate is the determin Certificate to perform the flight engineer's functions in
ing factor for a flight engineer. Answer (B) is incorrect because the such a situation. (PLT440) — 14 CFR §121.385
type certificate is the determining factor for a flightengineer.

ATM, DSP
ATM, DSP
8213. When a flight engineer is a required crewmember
8190. When the need for a flight engineer is determined on a flight, it is necessary for
by aircraft weight, what is the takeoff weight that requires
a flight engineer? A—one pilot to hold a flight engineer certificate and
be qualified to perform the flight engineer duties
A—80,000 pounds. in an emergency.
B— more than 80,000 pounds. B—the flight engineer to be properly certificated
C—300,000 pounds. and qualified, but also at least one other flight
crewmember must be qualified and certified to
No certificate holder may operate an airplane for which
perform flight engineer duties.
a type certificate was issued before January 2, 1964,
C— at least one other flight crewmember to be
having a maximum certificated takeoff weight of more
qualified to perform flight engineer duties, but a
than 80,000 pounds withouta flightcrewmember hold
certificate is not required.
ing a currentFlightEngineer Certificate. (PLT440) — 14
CFR §121.387 On each flight requiring a flight engineer at least one
flight crewmember, other than the flight engineer, must
be qualified to provide emergency performance of the
flight engineer's functions forthe safe completion of the
flight if the flight engineer becomes ill or is otherwise
incapacitated. A pilotneed not hold a Flight Engineer's
Certificate to perform the flight engineer's functions in
such a situation. (PLT440) — 14 CFR §121.385
Answers

8189 [C] 8190 [B] 8212 [A] 8213 [C]

1-8 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 1 Regulations

ATM, DSP On each flight requiring a flight engineer at least one

8188. If a flight engineer becomes incapacitated during flight crewmember, other than the flight engineer, must
flight, who may perform the flight engineer's duties? be qualified to provide emergency performance of the
A— The second in command only. flight engineer's functions for the safe completion of the
B—Any flight crewmember, if qualified. flight if the flight engineer becomes ill or is otherwise
C— Either pilot, ifthey have a flight engineer certificate. incapacitated. A pilot need not hold a Flight Engineer's
Certificate to perform the flight engineer's functions in
such a situation. (PLT440) — 14 CFR §121.385

Flight Attendants
One or more flight attendants are required on each passenger carrying airplane operating under Part
121 that has more than nine passenger seats. The number of flight attendants is determined by the
number of installed passenger seats —not by the actual number of passengers on board.
One flight attendant is required on airplanes that can seat from 10 through 50 passengers. Two
flight attendants are required on airplanes having a seating capacity from 51 through 100 seats. After
that, an additional flight attendant is required for each unit (or partial unit) of 50 seats above 100. For
example, three flight attendants are required on airplanes having from 101 through 150 seats, and four
flight attendants must be on aircraft with 151 through 200 seats.

ATM, DSP For airplanes having a seating capacity of more than

8192. An airplane has seats for 149 passengers and 100 passengers, each certificate holder shall provide
eight crewmembers. What is the minimum number of at least two flight attendants plus one additional flight
flight attendants required with 97 passengers aboard? attendant for a unit (or partial unit) of 50 passenger
A— Four. seats above a seating capacity of 100 passengers. The
B—Three. number of flightattendants is determined by the number
C—Two. of installed passenger seats (not by the actual number
ofpassengers on board). For an airplane witha seating
For airplanes having a seating capacity of more than capacity of 187 passengers, four flight attendants are
100 passengers, each certificate holder shall provide required. (PLT389) — 14 CFR §121.391
at least two flight attendants plus one additional flight
attendant for a unit (or partial unit) of 50 passenger
ATM, DSP
seats above a seating capacity of 100 passengers. The
number of flightattendants is determined by the number 8201. What is the minimum number of flight attendants
of installed passenger seats (not by the actual number required on an airplane having a passenger seating
ofpassengers on board). For an airplane witha seating capacity of 188 with only 117 passengers aboard?
capacity of 149 passengers, three flight attendants are A— Five.
required. (PLT389) — 14 CFR §121.391 B— Four.
C-Three.

ATM, DSP For airplanes having a seating capacity of more than

8193. When an air carrier airplane with a seating capac 100 passengers, each certificate holder shall provide
ity of 187 has 137 passengers on board, what is the at least two flight attendants plus one additional flight
minimum number of flight attendants required? attendant for a unit (or partial unit) of 50 passenger
A— Five. seats above a seating capacity of 100 passengers. The
B— Four. numberof flight attendants is determined by the number
C—Three. of installed passenger seats (not by the actual number
of passengers on board).Foran airplane with a seating
capacity of 188 passengers, four flight attendants are
required. (PLT389) — 14 CFR §121.391

Answers

8188 [B] 8192 [B] 8193 [B] 8201 [B]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 1 -9

Chapter 1 Regulations

ATM, DSP For airplanes having a seating capacity of more than

8202. What is the minimum number of flight attendants 100 passengers, each certificate holder shall provide
required on an airplane with a passenger seating capac at least two flight attendants plus one additional flight
ity of 333 when 296 passengers are aboard? attendant for a unit (or partial unit) of 50 passenger
A— Seven. seats above a seating capacity of 100 passengers. The
B-Six. number of flightattendants is determined by the number
C—Five. of installed passenger seats (not by the actual number
of passengers on board). For an airplane witha seating
capacity of 333 passengers, seven flightattendants are
required. (PLT389) — 14 CFR §121.391

Experience and Training Requirements

For these definitions of training, aircraft are divided into two "groups." Group I aircraft are propeller driven.
Turbojet aircraft are Group II. Initial training is the training required for crewmembers and dispatchers
who have not qualified and served in the same capacity (i.e., flight engineer, co-pilot, pilot-in-command)
on another aircraft of the same group. Transition training is the training required for crewmembers or
dispatchers who have qualified and served in the same capacity on another aircraft of the same group.
Upgrade training is the training required for crewmembers who have qualified and served as second-in-
command or flight engineer on a particular airplane type (e.g., Boeing 727) before they can serve as pilot-
in-command or second-in-command, respectively, on that airplane. Differences training is the training
required for crewmembers or dispatchers who have qualified and served on a particular type of airplane
before they can serve in the same capacity on a variation of that airplane. For example, a crewmember
who is qualified on a Boeing 727-100 would need differences training to serve on a Boeing 727-200.
The pilot-in-command (PIC) of an air carrier flight must have had a proficiency check within the pre
ceding 12 calendar months. In addition, within the preceding 6 calendar months the pilot-in-command
must have either passed a proficiency check or completed an approved simulator training course. Pilots
other than the PIC must have either passed a proficiency check or completed "line oriented" simulator
training within the last 24 calendar months. In addition, the co-pilot must have had a proficiency check
or any other kind of simulator training within the last 12 calendar months.
The pilot-in-command of an air carrier flight must have completed a line check in one of the aircraft
types he/she is qualified to fly within the preceding 12 calendar months. If the PIC is qualified in more
than one type aircraft, a line check in any of them satisfies this requirement.
Recurrent training and checkrides are always due during a calendar month rather than by a certain
date. In addition, if recurrent training or a check is taken during, before, or after the month, it is consid
ered to have been taken during the month it was due. For example, if a crewmember had a check due in
December, he/she could take it November, December or January and it would be considered as having
been done in December. Also, January would be considered a "grace month" in that the crewmember
could fly, even though he/she had technically gone beyond the due date of the check.
Every pilot on an air carrier flight must have made at least 3 takeoffs and landings in the type of
airplane flown within the preceding 90 days. If a pilot doesn't meet these requirements, he/she must
re-establish the recency of experience by making 3 takeoffs and 3 landings under the supervision of a
check airman. These takeoffs and landings must meet the following:

Answers

8202 [A]

1-10 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 1 Regulations

• At least 1 takeoff must be made with a simulated failure of the most critical engine.
• At least 1 landing must be made from an ILS approach to the lowest ILS minimums authorized for
the certificate holder.
• At least 1 landing must be made to a full stop.

Air Carriers' Operations Specifications are usuallywritten so that the instrument experience require
ments of 14 CFR Part 61 do not applyto their pilots. This test asks fourquestions on the Part 61 require
ments: 9333, 9339, 9342, 9344.
The pilot-in-command of an airplane who has less than one hundred hours in the aircraft type has
higher than published landing minimums at the destination airport. Such a pilot-in-command must add
100 feet to the published DH or MDA and add 1/2-mile (or 2,400 feet RVR) to the required visibility. If
a flight diverts to an alternate airport, the pilot-in-command may use the published minimums for the
approach there, but in no event may the landing minimums be less than 300 and 1. If a pilot has at least
100 hours PIC in another aircraft under Part 121 operations, he/she may reduce the current restriction
by 1 hour for each landing, up to 50 hours maximum.
A Category II Instrument Approach is an ILS approach with a published minimum visibility of less
than 1,800 RVR but equal to or greater than 1,200 RVR. Most CAT II approaches have published deci
sion heights of 150 and 100 feet HAT. To fly a published CAT II approach, the aircraft must meet certain
equipment and maintenance requirements and the pilots must be trained and qualified. Part 61 sets
forth requirements for pilot qualification and an Air Carrier's Operations Specifications may modify or
replace those requirements. The test limits its questions to Part 61 rules. To qualify for CAT II approach
authorization, a pilot must take a CAT II checkride. To be eligible for the checkride he/she must meet
all recent experience requirements of Part 61 and have certain recent experience with regard to ILS
approaches. Within the previous 6 months the pilot must have made at least 6 ILS approaches down
to minimums (CAT I minimums are OK). At least 3 of the approaches must have been hand flown. The
other 3 may have been flown using an approach coupler. When issued an original CAT II certification,
a pilot is restricted to a DH of 150 feet and a minimum RVR of 1,600. This restriction is lifted when the
pilot logs 3 CAT II approaches to the 150-foot DH within the previous 6 months.
An aircraft dispatcher must have spent at least five hours observing flight deck operations within
the preceding 12 calendar months. The dispatcher must have done this for at least one of the types for
each group he/she is to dispatch.

ALL No pilot may act as pilot-in-command under IFR unless

9339. A pilot, acting as second-in-command, success he/she has, within the preceding 6 calendar months in
fully completes the instrument competency check speci the aircraft category forthe instrumentprivileges sought,
fied in 14 CFR Part 61. How long does this pilot remain logged at least 6 instrument approaches, performed
current if no further IFR flights are made? holding procedures, and intercepted and tracked courses
A—12 months. through the use of navigation systems, or passed an
B- 90 days. instrument competency check in the category ofaircraft
C—6 months. involved. (PLT442) — 14 CFR §61.57
Answer (A) is incorrect because, upon completion of an instrument
competency check, a pilot will remain current for 6 months. Answer
(B) is incorrect because ninety days defines the 3 takeoffs and land
ings experience required to carry passengers.

Answers

9339 [C]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 1-11

Chapter 1 Regulations

ALL ALL

9344. To satisfy the minimum required instrument 9342-2. The holder of an ATP certificate with restricted
experience for IFR operations, a pilot must accomplish privileges or an ATPcertificate who also holds an aircraft
during the past 6 months at least type rating for the aircraft to be flown may act as
A—six instrument approaches, holding, intercepting A— a PIC for a Part 121 supplemental air carrier.
and tracking courses through the use of navigation B— a PIC for a Part 121 air carrier with 500 hours as
systems in an approved flight training device/ a Part 121 SIC.
simulator or in the category of aircraft to be flown. C—an SIC for a Part 121 air carrier.
B—six instrument approaches, three of which must
be in the same category and class of aircraft to The holder of an ATP-Restricted certificate may serve
be flown, plus holding, intercepting and tracking as second-in-command (SIC) for Part 121 operations
courses in any aircraft. requiring less than three pilots. (PLT450) — 14 CFR
C—six instrument approaches and 6 hours of §61.167
instrument time, three of which may be in a glider.
ALL
No pilot may act as pilot-in-commandunder IFRunless
he/she has, within the preceding 6 calendar months in 9334. What recent experience is required to be eligible
the aircraft category for the instrument approaches, for the practical test for the original issue of a Category
performed holding procedures, and intercepted and II authorization?
tracked courses through the use of navigation systems. A—Within the previous 6 months, six ILS approaches
(PLT442) — 14 CFR §61.57 flown manually to the Category I DH.
B—Within the previous 12 calendar months, six ILS
approaches flown by use of an approach coupler
ALL
to the Category I or Category II DH.
9342. What instrument flight time may be logged by a C—Within the previous 6 months, six ILS
second-in-command of an aircraft requiring two pilots? approaches, three of which may be flown to the
A— All of the time the second-in-command is Category I DH by use of an approach coupler.
controlling the airplane solely by reference to
flight instruments. To be eligible for Category II authorization, a pilot must
B— One-half the time the flight is on an IFR flight plan. have made at least 6 ILS approaches since the begin
C—One-half the time the airplane is in actual IFR ning of the 6th month before the test. These approaches
conditions. must be under actual or simulated instrument flight
conditions down to the minimum landing altitude for the
A pilot may log as instrument flight time only that time ILSapproach in the type aircraftin which the flighttest is
during which he/she operates the aircraft solely by to be conducted. However, the approaches need not be
reference to the instruments, under actual or simulated conducted down to the decision heights authorized for
instrument flightconditions. (PLT409)—14 CFR §61.51 Category II operations. At least 3 of these approaches
Answers (B) and (C) are incorrect because only when the pilot is fly must have been conducted manually, without the use
ing in actual or simulated instrument flying conditions and is the sole of an approach coupler. (PLT442) — 14 CFR §61.67
manipulator of the controls may he/she log instrument flight time.
Answer (A) is incorrect because only 3 of the approaches must be
flown manually to Category I DH. Answer (B) is incorrect because
the 6 ILS approaches must be flown within the preceding 6 calendar
ALL months and 3 of the approaches must be flown without an approach
9342-1. An example of air carrier experience a pilot coupler.
may use towards the 1,000 hours required to serve as
PIC in Part 121 is flight time as an SIC
A—in Part 121 operations.
B— in Part 91, subpart K operations.
C—in Part 135 operations.

ATPcertificate holders may use the 1,000 hours required

to serve as PIC in Part 121 operations, as SIC in Part
121 operations, or PIC in Part 91 and 135 operations.
(PLT450) — 14 CFR §121.436

Answers

9344 [A] 9342 [A] 9342-1 [A] 9342-2 [C] 9334 [C]

1-12 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 1 Regulations

ALL ALL
9345. To be eligible for the practical test for the renewal 9347. A Category II ILS pilot authorization, when origi
of a Category II authorization, what recent instrument nally issued, is normally limited to
approach experience is required?
A— Category II operations not less than 1600 RVR
A—Within the previous 6 months, six ILS and a 150-foot DH.
approaches, three of which may be flown to the B— pilots who have completed an FAA-approved
Category I DH by use of an approach coupler. Category II training program.
B—Within the previous 6 months, six ILS approaches C—Category II operations not less than 1200 RVR
flown by use of an approach coupler to the and a 100-foot DH.
Category I DH.
C—Within the previous 12 calendar months, three Upon originalissue, a Category II authorization contains
ILS approaches flown by use of an approach a limitation forCategory II operations of 1,600 feet RVR
coupler to the Category II DH. and a 150-foot decision height. This limitation is removed
when the holder shows that since the beginning of the
Tobe eligible for Category II authorization, a pilot must 6th preceding month he/she has made 3 Category II
have made at least 6 ILSapproaches since the begin ILS approaches to a landing under actual or simulated
ning of the 6th month before the test. These approaches instrument conditions with a 150-foot decision height.
must be under actual or simulated instrument flight (PLT407) — 14 CFR §61.13
conditions down to the minimumlanding altitude forthe Answer (B) is incorrect because all pilots must undergo FAA-
ILSapproach in the type aircraft in which the flight test is approved training fora Category IIauthorization. The initiallimitation
to be conducted. However, the approaches need not be is to RVR and DH for 6 months. Answer (C) is incorrect because
a 1,200 RVR and a 100-foot DH are the Category II minimums
conducted down to the decision heights authorized for after the initial limitation is removed by the pilot completing 3 ILS
Category II operations. At least 3 of these approaches approaches to a 150-foot DH in the preceding 6 months.
must have been conducted manually, without the use
of an approach coupler. (PLT442) — 14 CFR §61.67
ALL
Answer (B) is incorrect because only 3 of the 6 approaches may be
flown using an approach coupler. Answer (C) is incorrect because 9348. What is the lowest decision height for which a
the requirement is for a total of 6 approaches, only 3 of which may Category II applicant can be certified during the original
be flown by the use of an approach coupler. The approaches are not
issuance of the authorization?
required to be flown down to Category II DH. Also, they must have
been flown within the preceding 6 calendar months. A-100feetAGL
B-150 feet AGL
C -200 feet AG L.
ALL
9346. When may a Category II ILS limitation be Upon original issue, a Category II authorization contains
removed? a limitationfor Category II operations of 1,600 feet RVR
A— When three Cat II ILS approaches have been and a 150-foot decision height. (PLT420) — 14 CFR
completed to a 150-foot decision height and §61.13
landing. Answer (A) is incorrect because a 100-foot DH is allowed only
B— When six ILS approaches to Category II after completion of 3 Category II ILS approaches to a 150-foot DH.
Answer (C) is incorrect because 200 feet is the standard Category I
minimums and landing have been completed in ILS DH.
the past 6 months.
C—120 days after issue or renewal.

Upon original issue, a Category II authorization contains

a limitation for Category II operations of 1,600 feet RVR
and a 150-foot decision height. This limitation is removed
when the holder shows that since the beginning of the
6th preceding month he/she has made 3 Category II
ILS approaches to a landing under actual or simulated
instrument conditions with a 150-foot decision height.
(PLT407) — 14 CFR §61.13

Answers

9345 [A] 9346 [A] 9347 [A] 9348 [B]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 1-13

Chapter 1 Regulations

ATM, DSP Transition training is the training required for crew

8215. The training required by flight crewmembers members and dispatchers who have qualifiedand served
who have not qualified and served in the same capacity in the same capacity on another airplane of the same
on another airplane of the same group (e.g., turbojet group. (PLT407) — 14 CFR §121.400
powered) is Answer (A) is incorrect because difference training is required of a
crewmember who is qualified on a particular type of airplane prior
A— upgrade training. to becoming qualified in a variation of that same type. Answer (C)
B— transition training. is incorrect because upgrade training is required of a crewmember
C—initial training. who is qualified in a particular type of airplane and then desires to
advance to the next higher position in that airplane, e.g., fromcopilot
Initial trainingis the training required for crewmembers to pilot.
and dispatchers who have not qualified and served in
the same capacity on another airplane of the same
ATM, DSP
group. (PLT407) — 14 CFR §121.400
8205. A pilot in command must complete a proficiency
Answer (A) is incorrect because upgrade training is required of a
check or simulator training within the preceding
flight engineer or second-in-command when he/she trains for the
next higher position in a particularairplane type. Answer (B) is incor A— 6 calendar months.
rect because transition training is the training required for crewmem
B— 12 calendar months.
bers and dispatchers who have qualified and served in the same
capacity on another airplane of the same group. C—24 calendar months.

For a person to serve as pilot-in-command he/she must

ATM, DSP have completed a proficiency check within the preceding
8216. A crewmember who has served as second-in- 12 calendar months and, in addition, within the preced
command on a particular type airplane (e.g., B-727-100), ing 6 calendar months, either a proficiency check or
may serve as pilot-in-command upon completing which an approved simulator training course. (PLT407) — 14
training program? CFR §121.441
A— Upgrade training. Answer (B) is incorrect because a proficiency check is mandatory
within the preceding 12 months. Additionally, a proficiency check or
B— Recurrent training. simulator training is required within the preceding 6 months. Answer
C— Initial training. (C) is incorrect because a 24-month time frame applies to pilots
other than the pilot-in-command.
Upgrade training is the training required for crewmem
bers who have qualified and served as second-in-
command or flightengineer on a particular airplane type, ATM, DSP

before they serve as pilot-in-command or second-in- 8207. A pilot flight crewmember, other than pilot in
command respectively, on that airplane. (PLT407) — 14 command, must have received a proficiency check or
CFR §121.400 line-oriented simulator training within the preceding
Answer (B) is incorrect because recurrent training is a periodic A— 6 calendar months.
requirement of crewmembers who are qualified in their positions. B— 12 calendar months.
Answer (C) is incorrect because initial training is the first training
C—24 calendar months.
received for crewmembers who have not previously qualified and
served in the same airplane group (e.g., turboprop or turbojet).
Pilots other than the pilot-in-command must have
completed either a proficiency check or a line-oriented
ATM, DSP simulator training course within the preceding 24 calen
8217. The training required for crewmembers or dis dar months. (PLT407) — 14 CFR §121.441
patchers who have been qualified and served in the Answer (A) is incorrect because 6 months is the requirement for
same capacity on other airplanes of the same group is pilot-in-command to complete a proficiency check or simulator
training. Answer (B) is incorrect because 12 months is the require
A—difference training. ment for pilots other than pilot-in-command to receive a proficiency
B—transition training. check or "anyother kind of simulation training" (not necessarily line-
oriented simulator training).
C—upgrade training.

Answers

8215 [C] 8216 [A] 8217 [B] 8205 [A] 8207 [C]

1-14 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 1 Regulations

ATM, DSP
When a pilothas not made 3 takeoffsand landings within
8210. What are the line check requirements for the pilot the preceding 90 days, the pilot must make at least 3
in command for a domestic air carrier? takeoffs and landings in the type of airplane in which that
A— The line check is required every 12 calendar person is to serve or in an advanced simulator. These
months in one of the types of airplanes to be takeoffs and landings must include:
flown. 1. At least 1 takeoff with a simulated failure of the most
B—The line check is required only when the pilot is critical powerplant;
scheduled to fly into special areas and airports.
C—The line check is required every 12 months in 2. At least 1 landing froman ILSapproach to the lowest
each type aircraft in which the pilot may fly. ILS minimum authorized for the certificate holder;
and
No certificateholder may use any person nor may any 3. At least 1 landing to a fullstop.
person serve as pilot-in-command ofan airplane unless, (PLT442) — 14 CFR §121.439
within the preceding 12 calendar months that person
Answer (A) is incorrect because at least 1 takeoff is required with
has passed a line check in which he/she satisfactorily a simulated failure of the most critical powerplant. Answer (C) is
performs the duties and responsibilities of a pilot-in- incorrect because only 1 landing to a complete stop is required.
command in one of the types of airplanes to be flown.
(PLT442) — 14 CFR §121.440
ATM, DSP
8209. What is one of the requirements that must be met
ATM, DSP by an airline pilot to re-establish recency of experience?
8214. If a flight crewmember completes a required
A— At least one landing must be made from a circling
annual flight check in December 2010 and the required approach.
annual recurrent flight check in January 2012, the latter B— At least one full stop landing must be made.
check is considered to have been taken in
C—At least one precision approach must be made to
A—November 2010. the lowest minimums authorized for the certificate
B—December 2011. holder.
C—January 2011.
When a pilot has not made 3 takeoffs and landings
Whenever a crewmember or aircraft dispatcher who within the preceding 90 days, the pilot must make at
is required to take recurrent training, a flight check, or least 3 takeoffs and landings in the type of airplane in
a competency check, takes the check or completes which that pilot is to serve, or in an advanced simulator.
the training in the calendar month before or after the These takeoffs and landings must include:
month in which that training or check is required, he/ 1. At least 1 takeoff with a simulated failure of the most
she is considered to have taken or completed it in the critical powerplant;
calendar month in which it was required. (PLT449) — 14
CFR §121.401 2. At least 1 landing froman ILSapproach to the lowest
ILS minimum authorized for the certificate holder;
and
ATM, DSP 3. At least 1 landing to a full stop.
8208. Which is one of the requirements that must be met
by a required pilot flight crewmember in re-establishing (PLT442) — 14 CFR §121.439
recency of experience? Answers (A) and (C) are incorrect because the only instrument
approach required is an ILS approach to the lowest minimums
A— At least one landing must be made with a authorized for the certificate holder.
simulated failure of the most critical engine.
B— At least one ILS approach to the lowest ILS
minimums authorized for the certificate holder
and a landing from that approach.
C—At least three landings must be made to a
complete stop.

Answers

8210 [A] 8214 [B] 8208 [B] 8209 [B]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 1-15

Chapter 1 Regulations

ATM, DSP ATM, DSP

8289. When a pilot's flight time consists of 80 hours' 9589. (Refer to Figure 118A.) Determine the 14 CFR
pilot in command in a particular type airplane, how does Part 121 landing minimums for the LOC BC RWY 26L
this affect the minimums for the destination airport? approach at Phoenix Sky Harbor Intl.
A— Has no effect on destination but alternate PIC time 94 hours
minimums are no less than 300 and 1. Airplane VSo maximum certificated weight 105 knots
B— Minimums are decreased by 100 feet and 1/2 Vref approach speed 140 knots
mile. DME NOTAMed OTS
C—Minimums are increased by 100 feet and 1/2 A-1,800/1-3/4.
mile.
B-1,900/2-1/4.
C-1,900/2-1/2.
If the pilot-in-command has not served 100 hours as
pilot-in-command in operations under Part 121 in the Compute the approach category by multiplying 1.3 times
type of airplane he/she is operating, the MDA or DH the VSo at the airplane's maximum weight. See FAA
and visibility landing minimums in the certificate holder's Legend 7. In this case 105x1.3= 136.5 knots, which is
operations specifications for regular, provisional, or category C. The category C minimums for the LOCBC
refuelingairportsare increased by 100 feet and 1/2 mile RWY26L without Haden is 1800 and 1-3/4. If the pilot-
(or the RVRequivalent). (PLT443) — 14 CFR §121.652 in-command of the airplane has not served 100 hours
as PIC in Part 121 operations in the airplane type, the
MDA or DH visibility minimums are increased by 100
ATM, DSP
9586. (Refer to Figures 115,116,117,118,118A, 118B, feet and 1/2 mile above the published minimums. OTS
and 118C.) At ARLIN Intersection, PTL 130 is notified stands forout of service. (PLT083)— 14 CFR §121.652
that the Phoenix Sky Harbor Airport is closed. PTL 130
is told to proceed to Tucson. PTL 130 is operating under ATM, DSP
14 CFR Part 121. The PIC on PTL 130 has less than
9646. (Refer to Figures 190,195,195A, 196 and 196A.)
100 hours as PIC in the B-727 (approach category C). The PIC of PIL 10 has 87.5 hours and 26 landings as
What are the PICs minimums for the VOR RWY 11L
PIC in the B-767, while operating under Part 121. The
approach at Tucson Intl Airport? PIC has 1,876 hours and 298 landings, as PIC in the
A-2,860-1/2. L-1011 while operating under Part 121. What are the
B-2,900-1. minimums for the ILS/DME RWY 35R approach at DEN
C-2,960-1. for the PIC?
A-5567/18.
// the pilot-in-command has not served 100 hours as PIC
B-5667/42.
under Part 121 operations in the airplane type, the MDA
C-5631/20.
or DH visibilityminimums are increased by 100 feet and
1/2 mile above the published minimums. Ifa flight goes
If the pilot-in-command has not served 100 hours as
to an alternate airport, the minimums do not have to be PIC under Part 121 operations in the airplane type, the
raised by 100-1/2, but they can't be less than 300-1. In MDA or DH visibilityminimums are increased by 100 feet
this case, 36 feet had to be added to the MDA to comply
and 1/2 mile above the published minimums. However,
with the 300-1 rule. (PLT083) — 14 CFR §121.652
if the pilot has at least 100 hours of PIC time in another
airplane under Part 121 operations, he/she may reduce
the currentrestrictionby one hour foreach landing. Ifthe
total of landings and hours in the current airplane add
up to 100 or more, the PIC may fly approaches to the
published minimums. The maximum allowable reduction
is 50 hours. (PLT443) — 14 CFR §121.652

Answers

8289 [C] 9586 [B] 9589 [B] 9646 [A]

1-16 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 1 Regulations

ATM, DSP // the pilot-in-command of an airplane has not served

9663. (Refer to Figure 206.) The PIC of PTL 55 has 100 hours as pilot-in-command in operations under 14
75 hours and 30 landings as PIC in the B-747, while CFR Part 121 in the type ofairplane he/she is operating,
operating under Part 121. The PIC has 759 hours and the MDA or DH and visibility landing minimums in the
312 landings, as PIC, in the B-767 while operating under certificate holder's operations specifications for regular,
Part 121. What are the minimums for the ILS RWY 19L provisional, or refueling airports are increased by 100
approach at SFO, for the PIC? feet and 1/2 mile (or the RVR equivalent). In addition,
A- 308/64. CATII minimums and the sliding scale do not apply.
B- 208/40. Upon original issue, a Category II authorization contains
C-308-1. a limitation forCategory II operations of 1,600 feet RVR
and a 150-foot decision height. This limitation is removed
If the pilot-in-command has not served 100 hours as when the holder shows that since the beginning of the
PIC under Part 121 operations in the airplane type, the 6th preceding month he/she has made 3 Category II
MDA or DH visibility minimumsare increased by 100 feet ILSapproaches to a landing under actual or simulated
and 1/2 mile above the published minimums. However, instrument conditions with a 150-foot decision height.
if the pilot has at least 100 hours of PIC time in another (PLT444) — 14 CFR §121.652 and §61.13
airplane under Part 121 operations, he/she may reduce
the currentrestriction by one hour foreach landing. Ifthe
DSP
total of landings and hours in the current airplane add
up to 100 or more, the PIC may fly approaches to the 8230. To remain current as an aircraft dispatcher, a
published minimums. The maximumallowablereduction person must, in addition to other requirements,
is 50 hours. (PLT443) — 14 CFR §121.652 A— within the preceding 12 calendar months, spend
Answer (A) is incorrect because the PIC is not required to increase 2.5 hours observing flight deck operations, plus
landing weather minimums by the 100 feet and 1/2-mile visibility two additional takeoff and landings, in one of
because he/she substituted one hour for each of the 30 landings the types of airplanes in each group he/she is to
made in the 747 while operating under Part 121 (since the pilot
also has at least 100 hours as PIC in another type airplane). In this dispatch.
case, the pilot had 759 landings in the B-767 while operating under B—within the preceding 12 calendar months, spend
Part 121. Answer (C) is incorrect because the pilot does not need at least 5 hours observing flight deck operations
to adjust the landing minimums (also the visibility adjustment is
incorrect).
in one of the types of airplanes in each group he/
she is to dispatch.
C—within the preceding 12 calendar months, spend
ATM, DSP at least 5 hours observing flight deck operations
8285. Category II ILS operations below 1600 RVR in each type of airplane, in each group that he/
and a 150-foot DH may be approved after the pilot in she is to dispatch.
command has
No domestic or flag air carrier may use any person as
A— logged 90 hours' flight time, 10 takeoffs and an aircraft dispatcher unless, within the preceding 12
landings in make and model airplane and calendar months, he/she has satisfactorily completed
three Category II ILS approaches in actual or operating familiarization consisting of at least 5 hours
simulated IFR conditions with 150-foot DH since observing operationsfrom the flight deck under 14 CFR
the beginning of the sixth preceding month, in Part 121 in one of the types of airplanes in each group
operations under 14 CFR parts 91 and 121. he/she is to dispatch. (PLT450) — 14 CFR §121.463
B— made at least six Category II approaches in
actual IFR conditions with 100-foot DH within the
preceding 12 calendar months.
C— logged 100 hours' flight time in make and model
airplane under 14 CFR part 121 and three
Category II ILS approaches in actual or simulated
IFR conditions with 150-foot DH since the
beginning of the sixth preceding month.

Answers

9663 [B] 8285 [C] 8230 [B]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 1-17

Chapter 1 Regulations

Part 135 Flight Crew Requirements

ATS ATS
8082. What are the minimum certificate and rating 8094. Which takeoff computation must not exceed the
requirements for the pilot in command of a multiengine length of the runway plus the length of the stopway
airplane being operated by a commuter air carrier? for a turbine-engine-powered small transport category
A— Airline transport pilot; airplane category; airplane?
multiengine class. A— Takeoff distance.
B—Commercial pilot; airplane category; multiengine B—Acceleration-stop distance.
class; instrument rating; airplane type rating, if C—Acceleration-climb distance.
required.
C—Airline transport pilot; airplane category; The accelerate-stop distance, as defined in 14 CFR
multiengine class; airplane type rating, if required. §25.109, must not exceed the length of the runway
plus the length of any stopway. (PLT456) — 14 CFR
No certificate holder may use a person, nor may any §135.379 and §135.397
person serve, as pilot-in-command inpassenger-carrying
operations of a turbojet airplane, or an airplane having
a passenger seating configuration, excluding any crew ATS

member seat, of 10 seats or more, or a multi-engine 8100. A person is assigned as pilot in command to fly
airplane being operated by "commuter operations," both single-engine and multiengine airplanes and has
unless thatperson holds an Airline Transport Pilot Cer passed the initial instrument proficiency check in a mul
tificate with appropriate category and class ratings and, tiengine airplane. Which requirement applies regarding
if required, an appropriate type rating for that aircraft. each succeeding instrument check?
(PLT443) — 14 CFR §135.243 A— The instrument check must be taken every 6
calendar months in both a single-engine and a
multiengine airplane.
ATS
B— The instrument check must be taken alternately
8083. What are the minimum certificate and rating
in single-engine and multiengine airplanes every
requirements for the pilot-in-command of a multiengine 6 calendar months.
airplane in commuter air carrier service under IFR?
C—The instrument check may be taken in either a
A—Airline transport pilot of any category; multiengine single-engine or multiengine airplane if taken at
class rating. intervals of 6 calendar months.
B—Airline transport pilot; airplane category;
multiengine class rating; airplane type rating, if No certificate holdermay use a pilot, normayanyperson
required. serve as a pilot-in-command of an aircraft under IFR
C—Commercial pilot; airplane category; multiengine unless, since the beginning of the 6th calendar month
class and instrument rating. before that service, thatpilot has passed an instrument
proficiency check given by the FAA or authorized check
No certificate holder may use a person, nor may any pilot. Ifthe pilot-in-command is assigned to bothsingle-
person serve, as pilot-in-command inpassenger-carrying engine aircraft and multi-engine aircraft, thatpilotmust
operations of a turbojet airplane, or an airplane having initially take the instrumentproficiency check in a multi-
a passenger seating configuration, excluding any crew engine aircraft and each succeeding checkalternately in
member seat, of 10 seats or more, or a multi-engine single-engineand multi-engine aircraft. (PLT442) — 14
airplane being operated by "commuter operations," CFR §135.297
unless thatperson holds an Airline Transport Pilot Cer
tificate with appropriate categoryand class ratings and,
if required, an appropriate type rating for that aircraft.
(PLT443) — 14 CFR §135.243

Answers

8082 [C] 8083 [B] 8094 [B] 8100 [B]

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ATS with appropriate category and class ratings and, if

8103. A person is acting as pilot in command of a required, an appropriate type rating for that aircraft.
multiengine, turboprop-powered airplane operated in (PLT443) — 14 CFR §135.243
passenger-carrying service by a commuter air carrier.
If eight takeoffs and landings are accomplished in that
make and basic model, which additional pilot-in-com ATS

mand experience meets the requirement for designation 8108. A person is acting as pilot in command of a multi-
as pilot in command? engine, reciprocating engine powered airplane operated
in passenger-carrying service by a commuter air carrier.
A— 7 hours, and two takeoffs and landing.
If five takeoffs and landings have been accomplished
B— 10 hours, and three takeoffs and landings.
in that make and basic model, which additional pilot-
C—10 hours, and two takeoffs and one landings.
in-command experience meets the requirement for
No certificate holder may use any person, nor may any
designation as the pilot in command?
personserve, as a pilot-in-command ofan aircraft oper A—Two takeoffs and landings, and 8 hours.
ated by "commuter operations" in passenger-carrying B— Five takeoffs and landings, and 5 hours.
operations, unless thatperson has completed, on that C—Three takeoffs and landings, and 7 hours.
make and basic model aircraft and in that crewmember
position the following operatingexperience: No certificate holder may use any person, nor may any
personserve, as a pilot-in-command ofan aircraft oper
1. Aircraft, single engine—10 hours; ated by "commuter operations" in passenger-carrying
2. Aircraft, multi-engine, reciprocating engine-pow operations, unless that person has completed, on that
ered—15 hours; make and basic model aircraft and in that crewmember
3. Aircraft, multi-engine, turbine engine-powered—20 position the following operating experience:
hours; or 1. Aircraft, single engine—10 hours;
4. Airplane, turbojet-powered—25hours. 2. Aircraft, multi-engine, reciprocating engine-pow
The hours of operating experience may be reduced to ered—15 hours;
not less than 50% of the hours required above by the 3. Aircraft, multi-engine, turbine engine-powered—20
substitution of one additional takeoffand landing foreach hours; or
hour of flight. (PLT407) — 14 CFR §135.244
4. Airplane, turbojet-powered — 25 hours.
The hours of operating experience may be reduced to
ATS not less than 50% of the hours required above by the
8107. What are the minimum certificate and rating substitution of one additional takeoffand landing foreach
requirementsforthe pilot in command of a turbojetair hour of flight. (PLT407) — 14 CFR §135.244
plane with two engines being operated by a Commuter
Air Carrier (as defined in part 298)?
A- Airline transport pilot; airplane category; multiengine
class rating; airplane type rating, if required.
B— Airline transport pilot of any category; multiengine
class rating; airplane type rating.
C—Commercial pilot; airplane category; multiengine
class rating; instrument rating; airplane type
rating.

No certificate holder may use a person, nor may any

person serve, as pilot-in-command in passenger-carrying
operations of a turbojet airplane, oran airplane having
a passenger seating configuration, excluding anycrew
member seat, of 10 seats or more, or a multi-engine
airplane being operated by"commuteroperations"unless
that person holds an Airline Transport Pilot Certificate

Answers

8103 [B] 8107 [A] 8108 [A]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 1-19

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ATS
No certificateholdermay use any person, nor may any
8109. Aperson is acting as pilotincommand of a turbojet person serve, as a pilot-in-commandof an aircraft oper
powered airplane operated inpassenger-carrying service ated by "commuter operations" in passenger-carrying
by a commuter air carrier. If 10 takeoffs and landings operations, unless thatperson has completed, on that
have been accomplished in that make and basic model, make and basic model aircraft and in that crewmember
which additional pilot-in-command experience meets position the following operating experience:
the requirement for designation as pilot in command?
1. Aircraft, single engine—10 hours;
A—10 hours.
B— 15 hours. 2. Aircraft, multi-engine, reciprocating engine-pow
ered—15 hours;
C—10 hours, and five takeoffs and landings.
3. Aircraft, multi-engine, turbine engine-powered—20
No certificate holder may use anyperson, normayany hours; or
person serve, as a pilot-in-commandof an aircraft oper
4. Airplane, turbojet-powered—25 hours.
ated by "commuter operations" in passenger-carrying
operations, unless thatperson has completed, on that The hours of operating experience may be reduced to
make and basic model aircraft and in that crewmember not less than 50% of the hours required above by the
position the following operating experience: substitution ofone additional takeoffand landing for each
hour of flight. (PLT407) — 14 CFR §135.244
1. Aircraft, single engine—10 hours;
2. Aircraft, multi-engine, reciprocating engine-pow
ered—15 hours; ATS

3. Aircraft, multi-engine, turbine engine-powered—20 8111. Aperson is actingas pilot incommand of a single-
hours; or engine airplane operated in passenger-carrying service
by a commuter air carrier. If six takeoffs and landings
4. Airplane, turbojet-powered—25 hours. have been accomplished in that make and basic model,
The hours of operating experience may be reduced to which additional pilot-in-command experience meets
not less than 50% of the hours required above by the the requirement for designation as pilot in command?
substitution ofone additional takeoffandlanding for each A—4 hours
hour of flight. (PLT407) — 14 CFR §135.244 B— 5 hours
C—6 hours

ATS
No certificate holder mayuse anyperson, normayany
8110. Apilot's experience includes 8 hours ina particular person serve, as a pilot-in-command of an aircraft oper
make and basic model multiengine, turboprop airplane ated by "commuter operations" in passenger-carrying
while acting as pilot-in-command. Which additional operations, unless thatperson has completed, on that
pilot-in-command experience meets the requirements make and basic model aircraft and in that crewmember
for designation as pilot in command of that airplane position the following operating experience:
when operated by a commuter air carrier in passenger-
carrying service? 1. Aircraft, single engine—10 hours;
A—Twelve takeoffs and landings. 2. Aircraft, multi-engine, reciprocating engine-pow
B— Five takeoffs and landings, and 2 hours. ered—15 hours;
C—Ten takeoffs and landings, and 2 hours. 3. Aircraft, multi-engine, turbine engine-powered—20
hours; or
4. Airplane, turbojet-powered—25 hours.
The hours of operating experience may be reduced to
notless than 50% of the hours required above by the
substitution ofoneadditional takeoffandlanding for each
hourof flight. (PLT407) — 14 CFR§135.244

Answers

8109 [B] 8110 [C] 8111 [B]

1 -20 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 1 Regulations

ATS ATS
9618. (Refer to Figures 168 and 301.) The PIC (single 9633. (Refer to Figure 182A.) The PIC of EAB 90 has
pilot 135 with A/P) of PTZ 70 has less than 100 hours of 89 hours and 29 landings as PIC in the BE 1900, while
PIC time in the BE 1900. Due to BUF weather being 100 operating under Part 135. The PIC has 1,234 hours and
feet, 1/4 mile in blowing snow, which is below landing 579 landings as PIC in the DC-3 while operating under
minimums, the PIC requested and received clearance Part 135. What are the minimums for the ILS RWY 9R
to SYR, the filed alternate. Under Part 135, what are the approach at PHL, for this PIC?
PIC's minimums at SYR for the ILS RWY 10? A-221/18.
A- 800/2. B-321/24.
B-719/42. C-321/42.
C-619/50.
If the PIC of a turbine-powered airplane does not have
The MDA or DA/DHand visibility landing minimums pre 100 hours of PIC time in type, he/she must raise the
scribed in 14 CFR Part 97 or in the operator's operations approach minimums by 100-1/2 above the published
specifications are increased by 100 feet and 1/2 mile minimums. Thepilotdoes nothave to raise the approach
respectively, but not to exceed the ceiling and visibility minimums above the published alternate minimums.
minimums for that airport when used as an alternate Note:2,400 RVR is equal to 1/2 mile visibility. (PLT443)
airport, for each pilot-in-command of a turbine-powered — 14 CFR §135.225
airplane whohas notserved at least 100 hoursas pilot-
in-command in that type of airplane. Since the pilot is
operating with an autopilot, as noted in the question ATS

with "(single pilot 135 with A/P)," the chartnotes indicate 9634. (Refer to Figures 183 and 183A.) When the
thatan RVRof 1800 is authorized. Adding a 1/2 mile (or weather at PHL goes below the PICs minimums, the
2400 RVR) to thatwouldmake the visibility requirement flight diverts to ACY Upon arrival at ACY, EAB 90 is
4200 RVR. (PLT407) — 14 CFR §135.225 cleared for the ILS RWY 13 approach. The PIC has 89
hours of PIC time in the BE 1900. What are the PICs
minimums?
ATS A-700-2.
9632. (Refer to Figure 182A.) The PIC on EAB 90 has B-276/18.
not flown 100 hours as PIC in the BE 1900 (CAT B air C-376/42.
craft). What are the minimums for the PIC when flying
the ILS RWY 09R, at PHL? Ifthe PIC of a turbine-poweredairplane does not have
A-321/42.
100 hours of PIC time in type, he/she must raise the
B-221/18.
approach minimums by 100-1/2 above the published
C-321/36.
minimums. Thepilot does nothave toraise theapproach
minimums above the published alternate minimums.
Ifthe PIC of a turbine-poweredairplane does not have Note:2,400 RVR is equal to 1/2 mile visibility. (PLT443)
100 hours of PIC time in type, he/she must raise the — 14 CFR §135.225
approach minimums by 100-1/2 above the published
minimums. Thepilot does nothave toraise theapproach
minimums above the published alternate minimums.
Note:2,400 RVR is equal to 1/2 mile visibility. (PLT407)
— 14 CFR §135.225

Answers

9618 [B] 9632 [A] 9633 [C] 9634 [C]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 1 -21

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ATS, RTC ATS, RTC

8018. Which person, other than the second in com 8027. Before each takeoff, the pilot in command of an
mand, may the pilot in command permit to manipulate aircraft carrying passengers shall ensure that all pas
the flight controls? sengers have been orally briefed on the
A— A member of the National Transportation Safety A— location of normal and emergency exits, oxygen
Board who holds a pilot certificate appropriate for masks, and life preservers.
the aircraft. B— use of safety belts, location and operation of fire
B— An authorized FAA safety representative who extinguishers, and smoking.
is qualified in the aircraft, and is checking flight C—use of seatbelts, smoking, and location and use
operations. of survival equipment.
C—A pilot employed by an engineering firm who is
authorized by the certificate holder to conduct Before each takeoff the pilot-in-command shall ensure
flight tests. thatall passengers have been orally briefed on:
1. Smoking;
No pilot-in-command mayallowany person to manipu
late the controls of an aircraft during flight unless that 2. Use of seatbelts;
person is: 3. Theplacement of seat backs in an upright position
1. A pilotemployedby the certificate holderand quali before takeoff and landing;
fied in the aircraft; or 4. Location andmeans of opening thepassenger entry
2. An authorizedsafety representative of the Administra door and emergency exits;
tor who has permission of the pilot-in-command, is 5. Location of survival equipment;
qualified in the aircraft, and is checking flight opera
tions.
6. Ifthe flight involves extended overwater operation,
ditching proceduresand the use of required flotation
(PLT444) — 14 CFR §135.115 equipment;
7. If the flight involves operations above 12,000 feet
ATS, RTC MSL, thenormal and emergencyuse of oxygen; and
8026. A flight attendant crewmember is required on 8. Location and operation of fire extinguishers.
aircraft having a passenger seating configuration, (PLT384) — 14 CFR §135.117
excluding any pilot seat, of
A— 15 or more.
B— 19 or more. ATS, RTC
C—20 or more 8028. Before takeoff, the pilot in command of an aircraft
carrying passengers shall ensure that all passengers
No certificate holder may operate an aircraft that has have been orally briefed on the normal and emergency
a passenger seating configuration, excluding any pilot use of oxygen
seat, of more than 19 unless there is a flight attendant A— ifthe flight involves operations above 12,000 feet
crewmemberon boardthe aircraft. (PLT440) — 14 CFR MSL.
§135.107
B— regardless of the altitude at which the flight will
operate.
C—if the flight involves operations at or above 12,000
feet MSL for more than 30 minutes.

Before each takeoffthe pilot-in-command shall ensure

that allpassengers have been orally briefed on thenor
maland emergencyuse of oxygenif the flight involves
operations above 12,000 feet MSL. (PLT438) — 14
CFR §135.117

Answers
8018 [B] 8026 [C] 8027 [B] 8028 [A]

1-22 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

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ATS, RTC ATS, RTC

8029. The oral before flight briefing required on pas 8035. Which is a condition that must be met by a com
senger-carrying aircraft shall be muter air carrier certificate holder to have an aircraft
approved for operation with an autopilot system and
A— supplemented by an actual demonstration of
no second in command?
emergency exit door operation by a crewmember.
B— presented by the pilot in command or another A— The passenger seating configuration is 10 or
flight crewmember, as a crewmember more, including any pilot seat.
demonstrates the operation of the emergency B— The autopilot system is capable of operating the
equipment. controls to maintain flight and to maneuver the
C—conducted by a crewmember or the pilot in aircraft about the three axes.
command and supplemented by printed cards for C-The operation is restricted to VFR or VFR over-
the use of each passenger. the-top.

The required oral briefing must be given by the pilot- The autopilot used inlieuofa second-in-command must
in-command or other crewmember. It must be supple be capable of operating theaircraft controls tomaintain
mented by printed cards which must be carried in the flight and maneuver itabout the three axes. (PLT443)
aircraft in locations convenient for the use of each pas — 14 CFR §135.105
senger. (PLT384) — 14 CFR§135.117
ATS, RTC
ATS, RTC 8036. Anautopilot may not be used in place of a second
8034. A commuter air carrier certificate holder plans to in command in any aircraft
assign a pilot as pilot incommand of an aircraft having A— being operated in commuter air carrier service.
eightpassenger seats to be used in passenger-carrying B— having a passenger seating configuration,
operations. Which experience requirement must that excluding any pilot's seat, of 10 seats or more.
pilot meet if the aircraft is to be flown with an operative C—having a total seating capacity of 10 or more
approved autopilot and no second in command? seats and being operated in commuter air
A—100 hours as pilot in command in the category, service.
class, and type.
B— 50 hours and 10 landings as pilot in command in Unless two pilots are required by 14CFR for operations
the make and model.
under VFR, a person mayoperatean aircraft without a
C—100 hours as pilot in command in the make and second-in-command, if it is equipped with an operative
model.
approved autopilot system and the use of that system
is authorized by appropriate operations specifications.
When using anautopilot in lieu ofa second-in-command No certificate holdermay operate an aircraft without a
in commuter airline passenger-carrying operations, second-in-command ifthataircraft has a passenger seat
the pilot-in-command must have at least 100 hours of ing configuration, excluding anypilot seat, of 10seats
PIC time in the make and model of aircraft to be flown. ormore. (PLT443) — 14 CFR §135.99 and §135.105
(PLT407) — 14 CFR §135.105
ATS, RTC
8044. What is the minimum passenger seating configu
ration that requires a second in command?
A— 15 seats.
B—12 seats.
C—10 seats.

No certificate holder may operate an aircraft without

a second-in-command if that aircraft has a passenger
seating configuration, excluding anypilot seat, of 10
seats or more. (PLT443) — 14 CFR§135.99

Answers

8034 [C] 8035 [B] 8036 [B] 8044 [C]

8029 [C]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 1-23

 Chapter 1 Regulations

ATS, RTC
4. Fora pilotauthorized forIFRoperations, at least one
8076. When is a pilot not required to keep the shoulder flight shallbe flown overa civil airway, an approved
harness fastened during takeoff and landing while at a off-airway route, or a portion of either of them.
pilot station?
(PLT442) — 14 CFR §135.299
A— When operating an aircraft having a passenger
seating configuration, excluding any pilot seat, of
10 seats or less. ATS, RTC
B— When the pilot cannot perform the required duties 8096. What are the minimum requirements for the line
with the shoulder harness fastened. check required of each pilot in command authorized for
C—When serving as pilot in command or second in IFR air taxi operations? The line check shall be given
command of an aircraft having a total seating over
capacity of eight seats or less.
A— one route segment in each type of airplane the
Each flight crewmember occupying a station equipped pilot is to fly and includestakeoffs and landings at
with a shoulder harness must fasten the shoulder har one or more representative airports.
ness during takeoffand landing, except thattheshoulder B— a civil airway or an approved off-airway route, or
harness maybe unfastened if the crewmember is unable a portion of either of them, in one type of airplane
to perform required duties with the shoulder harness the pilot is to fly and includes takeoffs and
fastened. (PLT464) — 14 CFR §135.171 landings at one or more representative airports.
C—a civil airway or an approved off-airway route
in each make and model airplane the pilot is to
ATS, RTC fly and includes takeoffs and landings at one or
8095. To serve as pilot incommand inan IFR operation, more representative airports.
a person must have passed a line check
No certificate holder may use a pilot, nor may any
A— consisting of a flight over the route to be flown, person serve, as a pilot-in-command of a flight unless,
with at least three instrument approaches at since the beginning of the 12th calendar month before
representative airports, within the past 12 that service, that pilot has passed a flight check (line
calendar months, in one type of aircraft which that check) in one of the types of aircraft that pilot is to fly.
pilot is to fly. The flight check shall:
B— within the past 12 months, which include a portion
of a civil airway and one instrument approach at 1. Be given byan approved checkpilot orby the FAA;
one representative airport, in one of the types of 2. Consist ofatleastoneflight over oneroute segment;
aircraft which that pilot is to fly. and
C—since the beginning of the 12th month before 3. Include takeoffs andlandings at one ormore repre
that service, which included at least one flight sentative airports;
over a civil airway, or approved off-airway route,
or any portion of either, in one type of aircraft 4. Fora pilotauthorized for IFR operations, at least one
which that pilot is to fly. flight shallbe flown overa civil airway, an approved
off-airway route, or a portion of either of them.
No certificate holder may use a pilot, nor may any (PLT442) — 14 CFR §135.299
person serve, as a pilot-in-command of a flight unless,
since the beginning of the 12th calendar month before
that service, that pilot has passed a flight check (line ATS, RTC
check) in one of the types ofaircraft that pilot is to fly. 8097. No certificate holder mayuse a person as pilot in
The flightcheck shall: command unless that person has passed a line check
1. Be given byan approved check pilot orbythe FAA; A- since the beginning of the 12th month before
2. Consist ofatleast one flight over oneroute segment; serving as pilot in command.
and B— since the beginning of the 6th month before
serving as pilot in command.
3. Include takeoffs andlandings at oneormore repre C—within the past 6 months.
sentative airports;

Answers
8076 [B] 8095 [C] 8096 [B] 8097 [A]

1-24 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 1 Regulations

No certificate holder may use a pilot, nor may any 2. Properly conduct air-ground communications and
person serve, as a pilot-in-command of a flight unless, comply with complex airtraffic control instructions.
since the beginning of the 12th calendar month before (PLT442) — 14 CFR §135.297
that service, that pilot has passed a flight check (line
check) in one of the types of aircraft that pilot is to fly.
(PLT442) — 14 CFR §135.299 ATS, RTC
8101. A person may not serve as pilot in command in
an IFR operation unless that person has passed an
ATS, RTC
A— aircraft competency, an instrument proficiency,
8098. A person may act as pilot in command of both and autopilot check within the previous 6
type A and type B aircraft under IFR, if an instrument calendar months prior to the date to serve.
proficiencycheck has been passed in B— instrument proficiency check in the airplane
A— either type Aor B since the beginning of the 12th in which to serve, or in an approved aircraft
month before time to serve. simulator, within the previous 12 calendar
B— typeAsince the beginning of the 12th month, and months.
in type B since the beginning of the 6th month C—instrument proficiency check under actual or
before time to serve. simulated IFR conditions, since the beginning of
C—type Asince the beginning of the 12th month, and the 6th calendar month prior to the date to serve.
in type B since the beginning of the 24th month
before time to serve. No certificateholder may use a pilot, normay any person
serve as a pilot-in-command of an aircraft under IFR
No certificate holder may use a pilot, nor may any person unless, since the beginning of the 6th calendar month
serve, as a pilot-in-command of an aircraft under IFR before thatservice, thatpilothas passed an instrument
unless, since the beginning of the 6th calendar month proficiency check given bythe FAA orauthorized check
before that service, that pilot has passed an instru pilot. If the pilot-in-command isassigned to both single-
ment proficiency check given bythe FAA orauthorized engine aircraft andmulti-engine aircraft, that pilot must
check pilot. If the pilot-in-command is assignedto pilot initially take the instrument proficiency check in a multi-
more than one type of aircraft, that pilot must take the engine aircraft and each succeeding check alternately in
instrument proficiency check for each type of aircraft single-engine and multi-engine aircraft. (PLT442) — 14
to which that pilot is assigned in rotation, butnot more CFR §135.297
than one flight check in each period. (PLT442) — 14
CFR §135.297
ATS, RTC
8102. Apilot in command who is authorized to use an
ATS, RTC autopilot system, in place ofa second in command, may
8099. Apilot in command is authorized to use an autopi take the autopilot check
lot system in place ofa second in command. During the A— concurrently with the instrument proficiency
instrument proficiency check, that person is required to check, but at 12 month intervals.
demonstrate (without a second incommand) the ability to B— in any aircraft appropriately equipped, providing
A- comply with complexATC instructions with, but the check is taken at 6 month intervals.
not without, the autopilot. C—concurrentlywith the competency check,
B— properly conduct air-ground communications with, providing the check is taken at 12 month intervals.
but not without, the autopilot.
C— properly conduct instrument operations If the pilot-in-command is authorized to use anautopi
competently both with, and without, the autopilot. lot system in place ofa second-in-command, that pilot
mustshow during the required instrument proficiency
If the pilot-in-command is authorized to usean autopi check, that the pilot is able both with and without using
lot system in place ofa second-in-command, that pilot the autopilot to:
must show during the required instrument proficiency 1. Conduct instrument operations competently; and
check, that the pilot is able both with andwithout using
the autopilot to: 2. Properly conduct air-ground communications and
comply with complex air traffic control instructions.
1. Conduct instrument operations competently; and
(PLT424) — 14 CFR §135.297

Answers

8098 [B] 8099 [C] 8101 [C] 8102 [A]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 1-25

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ATS, RTC ATS, RTC

8104. Pilot flight time limitations under 14 CFR Part 8106. With regard to flight crewmember duties, which
135 are based operations are considered to be in the "critical phase
A— on the flight time accumulated in any commercial of flight"?
flying. A—All ground operations involving taxi, takeoff,
B— solely on flight time accumulated in air taxi landing, and all other operations conducted below
operations. 10,000 feet MSL, including cruise flight.
C—solely on flight time accumulated during commercial B— Descent, approach, landing, and taxi operations,
flying, in the last 30 day and/or 12 month period. irrespective of altitudes MSL.
C—All ground operations involving taxi, takeoff,
Pilot flight time limitations are based on the flight time landing, and all other operations conducted below
accumulated under 14 CFR Part 135 and any other 10,000 feet, excluding cruise flight.
commercial flying time. (PLT409) — 14 CFR §135.265
For the purpose ofthis section, critical phasesofflight
ATS, RTC
include allground operations involving taxi, takeoff and
landing, and allotherflight operations conductedbelow
8105. No person may serve, as second in command
10,000 feet, except cruise flight. (PLT029) — 14 CFR
of an aircraft (under part 135), unless they hold a com §135.100
mercial pilot certificate with the appropriate category,
class rating and an instrument rating. For flight under
IFR, that person must have accomplished within the ATS, RTC
last 6 months, the recent instrument requirements of 8113. Other than in cruise flight, below what altitude
A— using the navigation systems for interception and are non-safety related cockpit activities by flight crew
tracking of courses, 6 instrument low approaches members prohibited?
and holding. A-12,000 feet.
B— using the navigation systems to intercept and B-10,000 feet.
track 3 inbound/3 outbound courses, 6 holding C-8,000 feet.
patterns and 6 instrument approaches.
C— holding procedures, using the navigation systems No certificate holder shall require, nor may any flight
for intercepting and tracking courses, and 6 crewmemberperform, anyduties during a critical phase
instrument approaches. offlight except those duties required for the safeopera
tion of the aircraft. For purposes of this section, critical
To act as second-in-command under IFR, a person phases offlight include all ground operations involving
must meet the recent instrument experience require taxi, takeoff andlanding, andall other flight operations
ments of 14 CFR Part 61. These requirements are: in conducted below 10,000 feet, except cruise flight
the last6 months, the pilot must have logged 6 instru (PLT440) — 14 CFR §135.100
ment approaches, performed holding procedures, and
intercepted and tracked courses through the use of
navigation systems. (PLT442) — 14 CFR §135.245

Answers
8104 [A] 8105 [C] 8106 [C] 8113 [B]

1-26 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 1 Regulations

Flight Crew Duty Time Limits

Familiarize yourself with 14 CFR Part 117 to understand flight crew duty time limits. The limitations of
Part 117 apply to all flying by flightcrew members on behalf of any certificate holder or 91K program
manager during the applicable periods. Each flightcrew member must report for any flight duty period
rested and prepared to perform his or her assigned duties. Each certificate holder must develop and
implement an education and awareness training program that is approved by the Administrator. This
program must provide the training to all employees of the certificate holder who are responsible for
administering the provisions of Part 117, including flightcrew members, dispatchers, individuals directly
involved in the scheduling of flightcrew members or in operational control, and any employee providing
direct management oversight of these areas.
Aperson cannot be assigned to any ground or flight duties during required rest periods. The term
"deadhead" isused todescribe the transportation of crewmembers by the air carrier to orfrom their flight
assignments when that transportation is not local in character. Time spent in deadhead air transportation
cannot be considered as part of a required rest period.
Other new terms and definitions associated with Part 117 to be aware of are as follows:
Airport/standby reserve means adefined duty period during which aflightcrew member is required
by acertificate holder to be at an airport for a possible assignment. For airport/standby reserve, all time
spent in a reserve status is part of the flightcrew member's flight duty period.
Augmented, or unaugmented operations. An unaugmented flight contains the minimum number
of flightcrew members necessary to safely pilot an aircraft. An augmented flight contains additional
flightcrew members and at least one onboard rest facility, which allows flightcrew members to work in
shifts and sleep during the flight.
Calendar day means a 24-hour period from 0000 through 2359 using Coordinated Universal Time
or local time.
Fatigue means a physiological state of reduced mental or physical performance capability resulting
from lack of sleep or increased physical activity, which can reduce a flightcrew member's alertness and
ability to safely operate an aircraft or perform safety-related duties.
Physiological night's rest means 10 hours of rest that encompasses the hours of 0100 and 0700
at the flightcrew member's home base, unless the individual has acclimated to a different theater. If the
flightcrew member has acclimated to a different theater, the rest must encompass the hours of 0100
and 0700 at the acclimated location.
Rest periodmeans acontinuous period determined prospectively during which the flightcrew member
is free from all restraint by the certificate holder, including freedom from present responsibility for work
should the occasion arise.
Short-call reserve means a period of time in which a flightcrew member is assigned to a reserve
availability period. For short-call reserve, the reserve availability period may not exceed 14 hours.
Theater means a geographical area in which the distance between the flightcrew member's flight
duty period departure point and arrival point differs by no more than 60 degrees longitude. The appli
cable flight duty period is based on the local time at the theater in which the flightcrew member was last
acclimated.
Unforeseen operational circumstance means an unplanned event of insufficient duration to allow
for adjustments to schedules, including unforecast weather, equipment malfunction, or air traffic delay
that is not reasonably expected. For augmented and unaugmented operations, if unforeseen operational
Continued

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 1 -27

 Chapter 1 Regulations

circumstances arise prior to takeoff, the pilot-in-command and the certificate holder may extend the
maximum flight duty period permitted up to 2 hours. For augmented and unaugmented operations, if
unforeseen operational circumstances arise aftertakeoff, the pilot-in-command and the certificate holder
may extend maximum flight duty periods to the extent necessary to safely land the aircraft at the next
destination airport or alternate airport, as appropriate.
Window of circadian low means a period of maximum sleepiness that occurs between 0200 and
0559 during aphysiological night's rest. No certificate holder may schedule and no flightcrew member may
accept more than three consecutive flight duty periods that infringe upon the window of circadian low.
Flight Duty Periods
No certificate holder may schedule, and no flightcrew member may accept an assignment if the flight
crew member's total flight duty period (FDP) will exceed 60 flight duty hours in any 168 consecutive
hours. Before beginning any reserve or flight duty period, a flightcrew member must be given at least
30 consecutive hours free from all duty within the past 168 consecutive-hour period.
No certificate holder may schedule, and no flightcrew member may accept an assignment if the
flightcrew member's total flight duty period will exceed 190 FDP hours in any 672 consecutive hours.
No certificate holder may schedule, and no flightcrew member may accept an assignment for any
reserve or flight duty period unless the flightcrew member is given a rest period of at least 10 consecu
tive hours immediately before beginning the reserve or flight duty period measured from the time the
flightcrew member is released from duty. The 10-hour rest period must provide the flightcrew member
with a minimum of 8 uninterrupted hours of sleep opportunity. If a flightcrew member determines that
this rest period will not provide eight uninterrupted hours of sleep opportunity, he or she must notify the
certificate holder. The flightcrew member cannot report for the assigned flight duty period until he or she
receives this specified rest period.
For an unaugmented operation only, if a flightcrew member is provided with a rest opportunity (an
opportunity to sleep) in a suitable accommodation during his or her flight duty period the time that the
flightcrew member spends there is not part of his/her flight duty period if the time spent in that accom
modation is at least 3 hours, measured from the time that the flightcrew member arrives there.
APart 117 excerpt will be available for your reference during the FAA test. You will not be required to
memorize the tables; however, you will need to know which table to use-that is, which one is applicable
to the question being asked.
The maximum flight time for unaugmented operations is as follows (14 CFR Part 117.11 Table A):
Time of report (acclimated) Maximum flight time
(hours)
0000-0459 8
0500-1959
2000-2359

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 Chapter 1 Regulations

The maximum flight duty period (hours) for lineholders is based on the number of flight segments
and the scheduled time of start (14 CFR 117.13 Table B):
Scheduled Maximum flight duty period (hours) for lineholders
time of start based on number of flight segments
(acclimated 1 2 3 4 5 6 7+
time)
9 9 9 9 9 9 9
0000-0359
10 10 10 10 9 9 9
0400-0459
12 12 12 12 11.5 11 10.5
0500-0559
13 12 12 11.5 11 10.5
0600-0659 13
14 14 13 13 12.5 12 11.5
0700-1159
13 13 13 12.5 12 11.5
1200-1259 13
12 12 12 12 11.5 11 10.5
1300-1659
12 11 11 10 9 9
1700-2159 12

11 11 10 10 9 9 9
2200-2259
10 10 9 9 9 9
2300-2359 10

If the flightcrew member is not acclimated, the maximum flight duty period in Table Cof Part 117 is
reduced by 30 minutes (14 CFR Part 117 Table C):
Scheduled Maximum flight duty period (hours) based on
time of start rest facility and number of pilots
(acclimated Class 1 rest facility Class 2 rest facility Class 3 rest facility
time) 4 pilots 3 pilots 4 pilots 3 pilots 4 pilots
3 pilots
17 14 15.5 13 13.5
0000-0559 15
18.5 15 16.5 14 14.5
0600-0659 16
19 16.5 18 15 15.5
0700-1259 17

18.5 15 16.5 14 14.5

1300-1659 16
17 14 15.5 13 13.5
1700-2359 15

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 1-29

 Chapter 1 Regulations

ALL
ATM, DSP
8706. Fatigue can be evident in others if they 8709. Under 14 CFR 121, a required flightcrew member
A— talk more than usual. of an unaugmented two-pilot flag operation may not
B— yawn excessively. exceed how many hours duty in a one calendar month
C—are overly helpful. period?
A-120.
Physical signs of fatigue include yawning repeatedly, B-100.
heavy eyelids or microsleeps, eye-rubbing, nodding off C-80.
orheaddropping, headaches, nausea, upsetstomach,
slowed reaction time, lack ofenergy, weakness, and light No pilot may flyas a member of a crew more than 100
headedness. (PLT409) — FAA-H-8083-2 hours during any one calendar month. (PLT409) — 14
CFR §121.481
ALL

8707. You did not get a good night's rest and have been ATM, DSP
on duty for several hours. Asignyou may be fatigued is 8227. How does deadhead transportation, going to or
A— improved dexterity. from a duty assignment, affect thecomputation offlight
B— decreased short term memory. time limits for air carrier flight crewmembers? It is
C—mental acuteness. A- considered part ofthe rest period if the flightcrew
includes more than two pilots.
Short term memory loss is a sign of mental fatigue. B- considered part ofthe rest period for flight
Additional signs of mental fatigue include: difficulty engineers and navigators.
concentrating on tasks, lapse in attention, failure to C— not considered to be partof a rest period.
communicate important information, failure to antici
pate events or actions, making mistakes even on well- Time spent in deadhead transportation to or from duty
practiced tasks, forgetfulness, difficulty thinking clearly, assignment is not considered part of a rest period
andpoordecision making. (PLT409) — FAA-H-8083-2 (PLT409) — 14 CFR §§121.471, 121.491, and 121.519
Answer (A) is incorrect because deadhead transportation does not
count for part of the required rest period. Answer (B) is incorrect
ATM, DSP
because flight engineers and navigators are defined as flight crew
8708. Under 14 CFR 121,a required flightcrew member members. The same rest period requirements apply to them as to
pilot and copilot.
of an unaugmented two-pilot flag operation may not
exceed how many hours duty in a seven consecutive
day period?
ATM, DSP
A-48. 8228. Flight duty period hours for flightcrew members
B-52. are limited to
C-32.
A— 190 hours in any 672 consecutive hours.
No pilot may fly more than 32 hours during any seven B— 180 hours in any 672 consecutive hours.
consecutive days, and each pilot must be relieved from C—170 hours in any 672 consecutive hours.
all duty forat least 24 consecutive hours at least once
during any seven consecutive days. (PLT409) — 14 No certificate holder may schedule and no flightcrew
CFR §121.481 member may accept an assignment if the flightcrew
member's total Flight Duty Period will exceed 190
flight duty period hours in any 672 consecutive hours
(PLT409) — 14 CFR§117.23

ATM, DSP
8220. Flight duty period hours for flightcrew members
are limited to

A— 180 hours in any 28 consecutive days.

B- 190 hours in any 672 consecutive hours.
C—170 hours in any 672 consecutive hours.

Answers

8706 [B] 8707 [B] 8708 [C] 8709 [B] 8227 [C] 8228 [A]
8220 [B]

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 Chapter 1 Regulations

No certificate holder may schedule and no flightcrew member determines that this rest period will not pro
member may accept an assignment if the flightcrew videeight uninterrupted hoursof sleep opportunity, the
member's total Flight Duty Period will exceed 190 flightcrew member mustnotify thecertificate holder. The
flight duty period hours in any 672 consecutive hours. flightcrew membercannot report for the assigned flight
(PLT409) — 14 CFR §117.23 dutyperiod until he or she receives this specified rest
period. (PLT409) — 14 CFR §117.25

ATM, DSP
8221. "Window of circadian low" means a period of ATM, DSP
maximum sleepiness that occurs between 8223. "Airport standby reserve" means
A-0100-0500. A— a specified 15-hour period of reserve in close
B-1200-0459. proximity of assignment being available for flight
C-0200-0559. duty assignments in less than 2 hours.
B— being within 90 minutes of the airport and
Window of circadian low means a period of maximum available for immediate flight duty assignments of
sleepiness thatoccurs between 0200 and 0559 during 8 hours duration.
a physiological night's rest. (PLT409) — 14CFR §117.3 C—a defined duty period during which a flight
crewmember is required by the certificate holder
to be available for possible assignment.
ATM, DSP
8219. For a short-call reserve, the reserve availability Airport/standby reserve means a definedduty period
period may not exceed during which a flightcrew member is required bya certifi
A—12 hours. cate holder to be at an airportfora possible assignment.
B—14 hours. (PLT409) — 14 CFR §117.3
C—16 hours.

ATM, DSP
Short-call reserve means a period of time in which a
flightcrew member is assigned to a reserve availability 9714. Each flightcrew member must report
period. Forshort-call reserve, the reserve availability A— in uniform and properly prepared to accomplish
periodmay not exceed 14 hours. (PLT409) —14 CFR all assignments.
§117.21 B—to the airport on time and fully prepared to
accomplish assigned duty.
C—for any flight duty period rested and prepared to
ATM, DSP perform his duty.
8222. If the crew van breaks down en route to the rest
facility and delays arrival for nearly 2 hours, does the Each flightcrew member must report for any flight
flightcrew member need to notify the certificate holder? duty period rested and prepared to perform his or her
A— No, as long as the crew member has the assigned duties. (PLT409) — 14 CFR §117.5
opportunity for 9 hours of uninterrupted rest.
B— No, as long as the crew member has the
ATM, DSP
opportunity for 8 hours rest.
8211. You are on the last day of a four day trip and
C—Yes, ifthe flightcrew member does not have the
haven't slept well. What is a warning sign that you are
opportunity for 10 hours of uninterrupted hours
fatigued?
free from duty.
A— Improved dexterity.
No certificate holder may schedule and no flightcrew B— Head bobbing.
member may accept an assignment for any reserve C—Mental acuteness.
or flight duty period unless the flightcrew member is
given a rest period of at least 10 consecutive hours Common physical signs of fatigue include yawning
immediately beforebeginning the reserve or flight duty repeatedly, heavy eyelids, microsleeps, eye rubbing,
period measured from the time the flightcrew member nodding off or head dropping, headaches, nausea, or
is released from duty. The 10 hour rest period must upset stomach, slowed reaction time, lack of energy,
provide the flightcrew member with a minimum of 8 weakness, or light headedness. (PLT409) — FAA-H-
uninterrupted hours of sleep opportunity. If a flightcrew 8083-2, 14 CFR §117.3

Answers

8221 [C] 8219 [B] 8222 [B] 8223 [C] 9714 [C] 8211 [B]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 1 -31

 Chapter 1 Regulations

ATM, DSP ATM, DSP

8224. No flightcrew member may accept an assignment 8238. "Theater" means
for any reserve or flight duty period unless the flight crew
A—a geographical area in which the distance
member is given
between the flightcrew member flight duty period
A—10 consecutive hours of rest immediately before departure point and arrival point differs by no
beginning a flight duty period or a reserve period. more than 90 degrees longitude.
B—12 consecutive hours of rest immediately before B— a geographical area in which the distance
beginning a flight duty period or a reserve period. between the flightcrew member flight duty period
C—8 consecutive hours of rest immediately before departure point and arrival point differs by no
beginning a flight duty period or a reserve period. more than 75 degrees longitude.
C—a geographical area in which the distance
No certificate holder may schedule and no flightcrew between the flightcrew member flight duty period
member may accept an assignment forany reserve or departure point and arrival point differs by no
flight dutyperiod unlesstheflightcrew member isgiven a more than 60 degrees longitude.
restperiodofat least 10consecutivehours immediately
before beginning the reserve or flight dutyperiod mea Theater means a geographical area in which the dis
sured from the time the flightcrew member is released tancebetween the flightcrew member's flight dutyperiod
from duty. The 10-hour rest period must provide the departure pointand arrival pointdiffers byno more than
flightcrew member with a minimum of 8 uninterrupted 60 degrees longitude. Theapplicable flight dutyperiod
hoursof sleep opportunity. (PLT409) — 14 CFR§117.25 is based on the local time at the theater in which the
flightcrew memberwas lastacclimated. (PLT409) — 14
CFR §117.3 and §117.13
ATM, DSP
8229. You are a pilot operating under 14 CFR Part
121 and are in a required rest period. When can you ATM, DSP
be contacted about your next day duty assignment? 9837. "Physiological night's rest" means
A— At any time during your required rest period. A— 9 hours of rest that encompasses the hours of
B— At the end of your required rest period. 0100 and 0700 at the crewmember's home base.
C— No earlier than 1 hour before the end of your B— 10 hours of rest that encompasses the hours of
required rest period. 0100 and 0700 at the crewmember's home base.
C—12 hours of rest that encompasses any
No certificate holdermayassign and no flightcrew mem continuous 8 hour period for uninterrupted or
bermayaccept assignment toany reserveorduty with disturbed rest.
the certificate holder during any required rest period.
(PLT409) — 14 CFR § 117.25 Physiological night's rest means 10 hours of rest
that encompasses the hours of 0100 and 0700 at the
flightcrew member's home base, unless the individual
ATM, DSP
has acclimated to a different theater. If the flightcrew
8231. "Rest period" means
member has acclimated to a different theater, the rest
A— an 8-hour continuous period determined must encompass the hours of 0100 and 0700 at the
prospectively during which the flightcrew member acclimated location. (PLT395) — 14 CFR §117.3
is free from all restraint by the certificate holder.
B— a continuous period determined prospectively
during which the flightcrew member is free from ATM, DSP

all restraint by the certificate holder. 9838. In order to be assigned for duty, each flightcrew
C—a 12-hour continuous period determined member must report
prospectively during which the flightcrew member A— on time, in uniform, and properly prepared to
is free from all restraint by the certificate holder. accomplish all assigned duties.
B— to the airport on time, after the designated rest
Rest period means a continuous period determined period and fully prepared to accomplish assigned
prospectively during which the flightcrew member is duties.
free from allrestraint bythe certificate holder, including C—for any flight duty period rested and prepared to
freedom from present responsibility for work shouldthe perform his/her assigned duties.
occasion arise. (PLT409) — 14 CFR §117.3

Answers

8224 [A] 8229 [B] 8231 [B] 8238 [C] 9837 [B] 9838 [C]

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 Chapter 1 Regulations

Each flightcrew member must report for any flight ATM, DSP
duty period rested and prepared to perform his or her 9841. For unaugmented flightcrew operations, your
assigned duties. (PLT409) — 14 CFR §117.5 maximum flight duty period limit is
A— 13 hours if assigned to report at 0700 for 4 flight
segments.
ATM, DSP
B— 13 hours if assigned to report at 2030 for 3 flight
9839. Flightcrew members must receive fatigue educa segments.
tion and awareness training C—10.5 hours if assigned to report at 1730 for 6 flight
A— with all required air carrier dispatcher and every segments.
flightcrew member training activity.
B— annually for flightcrew members and every 24 The maximum flight duty period (hours) for linehold
months for dispatchers, flightcrew member ers is based on the number of flight segments and the
schedulers, and operational control individuals. scheduled time of start.
C—annually for flightcrew member schedulers,
Scheduled Maximum flight duty period (hours)
operational control individuals and flightcrew
time of start for lineholders base on number of
members and dispatchers. (acclimated flight segments
time)
Each certificate holder must develop and implement 1 2 3 4 5 6 7+

an education and awareness training program that 0000-0359 9 9 9 9 9 9 9

is approved by the Administrator. This program must
0400-0459 10 10 10 10 9 9 9
provide the training to all employees of the certificate
holder responsible for administering the provisions of 0500-0559 12 12 12 12 11.5 11 10.5

Part 117, including flightcrew members, dispatchers, 0600-0659 13 13 12 12 11.5 11 10.5

individuals directlyinvolvedin the scheduling of flightcrew 14 14 13 13 12.5 12 11.5
0700-1159
members or in operational control, and any employee
1200-1259 13 13 13 13 12.5 12 11.5
providing direct management oversight of these areas.
(PLT409) — 14 CFR §117.9 1300-1659 12 12 12 12 11.5 11 10.5

1700-2159 12 12 11 11 10 9 9

ATM, DSP 2200-2259 11 11 10 10 9 9 9

9840. In an airplane assigned with a minimum flight 2300-2359 10 10 10 9 9 9 9

crew of two, your flight time may not exceed
A— 9 hours if assigned to report at 0330. A Part 117 excerpt willbe available foryour reference
B— 9 hours if assigned to report at 0500. during the FAA test. You will not be required to memo
C—9 hours if assigned to report at 2030. rize the tables; however, you will need to know which
table to use as applicable to the question being asked.
The maximum flight time for unaugmented operations (PLT409) — 14 CFR §117.13 and Table B
is as follows:
Time of report Maximum flight time
(acclimated) (hours)
0000-0459 8

0500-1959 9

2000-2359 8

A Part 117 excerpt will be available for your reference

during the FAA test. You will not be required to memo
rize the tables; however, you will need to know which
table to use as applicable to the question being asked.
(PLT409) — 14 CFR §117.11 and Table A

Answers

9839 [C] 9840 [B] 9841 [A]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 1-33

Chapter 1 Regulations

ATM, DSP ATM, DSP

9842. In an airplane with an augmented crew of three 9844. Notification of the rest opportunity period during
flightcrew members assigned, the maximum flight duty unaugmented operations, must be
period is A—given before the next to last flight segment.
A—17 hours if assigned to report at 1200 with a B— given before the beginning of the flight duty
Class 3 rest facility available. period.
B— 16 hours if assigned to report at 0630 with a C—provided no later than after the first flight segment
Class 1 rest facility available offered after the first flight segment is completed.
C—15 hours if assigned to report at 1730 with a
Class 2 rest facility available. Foran unaugmented operation only, ifa flightcrew mem
ber is provided with a rest opportunity (an opportunity
Maximum flight duty period (hours) to sleep) in a suitable accommodation during his or her
for lineholders base on number of flight duty period, the time that the flightcrew member
flight segments spends in that accommodation is not part of that flight
Class 1 Class 2 Class 3
crew member's flightduty period if the rest opportunityis
Scheduled scheduled before the beginning of the flightduty period
time of start
rest facility rest facility rest facility
in which that rest is taken. (PLT409) — 14 CFR §117.15
(acclimated 3 4 3 4 3 4
time) pilots pilots pilots pilots pilots pilots
0000-0559 15 17 14 15.5 13 13.5 ATM, DSP

0600-0659 16 18.5 15 16.5 14 14.5

9845. Ifthe augmented flightcrew member is not accli
mated, the
0700-1259 17 19 16.5 18 15 15.5
A— maximum flight duty period given in 14 CFR part
1300-1659 16 18.5 15 16.5 14 14.5
117, Table C (not included herein) is reduced by
1700-2359 15 17 14 15.5 13 13.5 30 minutes.
B—flight duty period assignment must be reduced
A Part 117 excerpt will be available foryour reference 15 minutes by each 15 degrees of longitude
during the FAA test. You willnot be required to memo difference from the previous rest location.
rize the tables; however, you will need to know which
C—minimum rest period must be extended by 3
table to use as applicable to the question being asked. hours.
(PLT409) — 14 CFR §117.17 and Table C
Ifthe flightcrewmember is not acclimated the maximum
ATM, DSP
flight dutyperiod in Table C of Part 117 is reduced by
30 minutes. (PLT409) — 14 CFR §117.17
9843. The time spent resting during unaugmented
operations will not be counted towards the flight duty
period limitation if the rest period is at least ATM, DSP
A—3 hours long after reaching suitable 9846. The flight duty period may be extended due to
accommodations. unforeseen circumstances before takeoff by as much as
B—4 hours long after reaching suitable A— 2 hours.
accommodations. B— 1 hour.
C—4 hours long which can include transportation to C—30 minutes.
suitable accommodations.
Foraugmented and unaugmented operations, ifunfore
Foran unaugmentedoperation only, ifa flightcrew mem seen operational circumstances arise prior to takeoff,
ber is provided with a rest opportunity (an opportunity the pilot-in-command and the certificate holder may
to sleep) in a suitable accommodation during his or her extend the maximum flight dutyperiod permitted up to
flight duty period, the time that the flightcrew member 2 hours. (PLT409) — 14 CFR §117.19
spends in the suitable accommodation is not part of that
flightcrew member's flight dutyperiod if the time spent
in that accommodation is at least 3 hours, measured
from the time that the flightcrew member reaches the
accommodation. (PLT409) — 14 CFR §117.15

Answers

9842 [B] 9843 [A] 9844 [B] 9845 [A] 9846 [A]

1-34 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 1 Regulations

ATM, DSP ATM, DSP

9847. After takeoff, unforeseen circumstances arise. 9849. Limiting flight time for all flightcrew members
In this case, the flight duty period may be extended by will include
as much as A— instruction flight hours, commercial flying, and
A— 2 hours. flying for any certificate holder.
B— necessary to reach the closest suitable alternate B— any flying by flightcrew members for any
crew base airport. certificate holder or 91K program manager.
C— necessary to land at the next destination airport C—flying by flightcrew members for any certificate
or alternate airport. holder or 91K program manager and any other
commercial flight time.
Foraugmented and unaugmented operations, if unfore
seen operational circumstances arise after takeoff, the The limitations of Part 117 include all flying by flight
pilot-in-command and the certificate holder may extend crew members on behalf of any certificate holder or
maximum flight duty periods to the extent necessary to 91K program manager during the applicable periods.
safely land the aircraft at the next destination airport or (PLT409) — 14 CFR §117.23
alternate airport, as appropriate. (PLT409) — 14 CFR
§117.19
ATM, DSP
9850. Flightcrew member's flight duty periods are
ATM, DSP limited to
9847-1. "Unforeseen operational circumstance" means A—60 hours in any 168 consecutive hours.
an
B— 70 hours in any 168 consecutive hours.
A— unplanned event of insufficient duration to allow C—60 hours in any 7 days.
for adjustments to schedules.
B— unforecast weather and expected ATC delays. No certificate holder may schedule and no flightcrew
C—event of sufficient duration to create increased member may accept an assignment if the flightcrew
flight times for the certificate holder's operation. member's total flight duty period will exceed 60 flight
duty hours in any 168 consecutive hours. (PLT409) —
Unforeseen operational circumstance means an 14 CFR §117.23
unplanned event of insufficient duration to allow for
adjustments to schedules, including unforecast weather,
equipment malfunction, or air traffic delay that is not ATM,DSP

reasonably expected. (PLT407) — 14 CFR §117.3 9851. A flightcrew member must be given a rest period
before beginning any reserve or flight duty period of
A— 24 consecutive hours free from any duty in the
ATM, DSP past 7 consecutive calendar days.
9848. For airport/standby reserve, all time spent in B— 36 consecutive hours in the past 168 consecutive
airport/standby reserve time is hours.
A— not part of the flightcrew member's flight duty C—30 consecutive hours in the past 168 consecutive
period. hours.
B— part of the flightcrew member's flight duty period.
C— part of the flightcrew member's flight duty period Before beginning any reserve or flight duty period, a
after being alerted for flight assignment. flightcrew member must be given at least 30 consecutive
hours free from all duty within the past 168 consecutive-
For airport/standby reserve, all time spent in a reserve hour period. (PLT409) — 14 CFR §117.25
status is partof the flightcrew member's flight dutyperiod
(PLT409) — 14 CFR §117.21

Answers

9847 [C] 9847-1 [A] 9848 [B] 9849 [B] 9850 [A] 9851 [C]

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Chapter 1 Regulations

ATM, DSP Except in cases where circumstances or emergency

9852. No flightcrew member may accept an assignment conditions beyond the control of the certificate holder, no
without scheduled rest opportunities for certificate holder conducting domestic or flag operations
A— more than 3 consecutive nighttime flights that may schedule a dispatcher for more than 10 consecutive
infringe on the window of circadian low. hours of duty. (PLT450) — 14 CFR §121.465
B— more than 4 consecutive nighttime flights that
infringe on the window of circadian low in a 168
ATM, DSP
hour period.
C—consecutive nighttime flights beginning after 0001 8724. What is the minimum rest period required before
hours local home base time.
a flight or reserve duty period?
A— 8 consecutive hours rest.
No certificate holder may schedule and no flightcrew B— 10 consecutive hours rest.
member may accept more than three consecutive flight C—12 consecutive hours rest.
duty periods that infringe on the window of circadian low.
(PLT409) — 14 CFR §117.27 No certificate holder may schedule and no flightcrew
member may accept an assignment for any reserve or
flight dutyperiod unless the flightcrew member is given a
DSP rest period of at least 10 consecutive hours immediately
8194. Normally, a dispatcher for domestic or flag opera before beginning the reserve or flight duty period mea
tions should be scheduled for no more than sured from the time the flightcrew member is released
A—10 hours of duty in any 24 consecutive hours. from duty. The 10 hour rest period must provide the
B— 8 hours of service in any 24 consecutive hours. flightcrew member with a minimum of 8 uninterrupted
C—10 consecutive hours of duty. hours of sleep opportunity. (PLT409)— 14 CFR § 117.25

Dispatching and Flight Release

Operational control with respect to a flight, means the exercise of authority over initiating, conducting
or terminating a flight.
The air carrier or commercial operator is responsible for operational control. The pilot-in-command
and the director of operations are jointly responsible for the initiation, continuation, diversion, and ter
mination of flight in compliance with regulations and the company's operations specifications. The pilot-
in-command is responsible for the preflight planning and the operation of the flight.
Each flag and domestic flight must have a dispatch release on board. The dispatch release can be
in any form but must contain the following information.
• The identification number of the aircraft
• The trip number
• The departure, destination, intermediate and alternate airports
• The type of operation (IFR or VFR)
• The minimum fuel supply
• The latest weather reports and forecasts for the complete flight (may be attached to the release
rather than be part of it)

The aircraft dispatcher must provide the pilot-in-command with all available current reports or infor
mation on airport conditions and irregularities of navigation facilities that may affect the safety of flight.
The aircraft dispatcher must provide the pilot-in-command with all available weather reports and fore
casts of weather phenomena that may affectthe safety of flight including adverse weather. The aircraft
dispatcher must update this information during a flight.

Answers

9852 [A] 8194 [C] 8724 [B]

1-36 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 1 Regulations

When a domestic flight lands at an intermediate airport named in its original dispatch release and
departs again within 1 hour, it does not need a new dispatch release. If it remains on the ground for
more than 1 hour, a redispatch release must be issued.
When a flag flight lands at an intermediate airport named in its original dispatch release and departs
again within 6 hours, it does not need a new dispatch release. If it remains on the ground for more than
6 hours, a redispatch is required.
The pilot-in-command of a flight shall carry in the airplane to its destination:
• A copy of the completed load manifest
• A copy of the dispatch release
• A copy of the flight plan.

The air carrier must keep copies of these documents for at least 3 months.
Each supplemental carrier or commercial operator flight must have a flight release on board. The
flight release can be in any form but must contain the following information:
• The company or organization name
• Make, model and registration number of the aircraft used
• The flight or trip number and the date of the flight
• The name of each flight crewmember, flight attendant and the pilot designated as pilot-in-command
• The departure, destination, intermediate and alternate airports and route
• The type of operation (e.g., IFR or VFR)
• The minimum fuel supply
• The latest weather reports and forecasts for the complete flight (may be attached to the release
rather than be part of it)

Before beginning a flight, the pilot-in-command must obtain all available current reports or informa
tion on airport conditions and irregularities of navigation facilities that may affect the safety of the flight.
During a flight, the pilot-in-command must obtain any additional available information of meteorological
conditions and irregularities of facilities and services that may affect the safety of the flight.
A provisional airport is defined as an airport approved by the Administrator for use by a certificate
holder for the purpose of providing service to a community when the regular airport used by the certificate
holder is not available. A person who is not authorized to conduct direct air carrier operations, but who is
authorized by the Administrator to conduct operations as a U.S. commercial operator, will be issued an
Operating Certificate. Each certificate holder conducting domestic, flag, or commuter operations must obtain
operations specifications containing, among many other provisions, the kinds of operations authorized.
Extended-range twin-engine operational performance standards (ETOPS) is a rating accompanied
by a time limit (such as 180-minute ETOPS) that allows twin-engine civil transport aircraft to fly over
oceans and deserts provided that the aircraft is never more than 180 minutes away from a suitable air
field. An ETOPS "entry point" is the first point on an ETOPS route at which the airplane is farther than a
distance of 60 minutes flying time, with one engine inoperative, from an emergency or diversion airport
that is adequate for an airplane with two engines.
When filing an alternate using the 180-minute ETOPS rule, the alternate airport must have rescue
and fire fighting services (RFFS) that meet ICAO Category 4 standard or higher. If filing an alternate
using the beyond-180-minute ETOPS rule, the alternate must have RFFS that meet the ICAO Category
4 standard or higher, and the aircraft must remain within the ETOPS authorized diversion time from an
adequate airport that has RFFS equal to ICAO Category 7 or higher.

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 1 -37

Chapter 1 Regulations

ALL ALL

9326. "Operational control" of a flight refer to 8429. An airport approved by the Administrator for
A— the specific duties of any required crewmember. use by an air carrier certificate holder for the purpose
B— exercising authority over initiating, conducting, or of providing service to a community when the regular
terminating a flight. airport is not available is a/an:
C—exercising the privileges of pilot-in-command of A— destination airport.
an aircraft. B— provisional airport.
C—alternate airport.
"Operational Control,"with respect to flight, means the
exercise of authority over initiating, conducting or ter A provisional airport is defined as an airport approved
minating a flight. (PLT432) — 14 CFR §1.1 by the Administrator for use by a certificate holder for
Answer (A) is incorrect because "crewmember" refers to any person the purpose of providing service to a community when
assigned to perform duty in an aircraft during flight time, which the regular airport used by the certificate holder is not
includes cabin crew as well as cockpit crew. Answer (C) is incorrect available. (PLT395) — 14 CFR §119.3
because "pilot-in-command" refers to the pilot responsible for the
operation and safety of an aircraft during flight time, which does not Answer (A) is incorrect because the destination airport is the term
include the initiation of a flight. used to describe the primary airport of intended landing. Answer
(C) is incorrect because the alternate airport is generally defined as
an airport at which an aircraft may land if a landing at the intended
airport becomes inadvisable.
ALL
8003. Which document specifically authorizes a person
to operate an aircraft in a particular geographic area? ALL

A— Operations Specifications. 8430. A provisional airport is an airport approved by the

B—Operating Certificate. Administrator for use by an air carrier certificate holder
C—Dispatch Release. for the purpose of
A—obtaining provisions and fuel when unable, due to
Each certificate holder conducting domestic, flag, or winds, to proceed direct to the regular airport.
commuter operations must obtain operations specifica B— having the aircraft catered (foods, beverages, or
tions containing authorization and limitations for routes supplies).
and areas of operations. (PLT389) — 14 CFR §119.49 C—providing service to a community when the
regular airport is unavailable.
ALL
A provisional airport is defined as an airport approved
9745. No person may operate a U.S. registered civil
by the Administrator for use by a certificate holder for
aircraft
the purpose of providing service to a community when
A— for which an AFM or RFM is required by part 21 the regular airport used by the certificate holder is not
section 21.5 unless there is a current, approved available. (PLT389) — 14 CFR §119.3
operator's manual available.
B— for which an AFM or RFM is required by part 21
section 21.5 unless there is a current, approved ALL

AFM or RFM available. 8767. A person who is not authorized to conduct direct
C—for which an AFM or RFM is required by part 21 air carrier operations, but who is authorized by the
section 21.5 unless there is a current, approved Administrator to conduct operations as a U.S. com
AFM or RFM available or the manual specified in mercial operator, will be issued
part 135 section 135.19(b). A— an Air Carrier Certificate.
B— a Supplemental Air Carrier Certificate.
No person may operate a U S. -registered civilaircraft for C—an Operating Certificate.
whichan Airplaneor Rotorcraft FlightManualis required
by §21.5 unless there is available in the aircraft a cur A person who is not authorized to conduct direct air car
rent, approved Airplane or Rotorcraft Flight Manual or rieroperations, but who is authorized by the Administra
the manual provided forin §121.141(b). (PLT373) — 14 torto conduct operations as a U.S. commercial operator,
CFR §91.9 willbe issued an Operating Certificate. (PLT389) — 14
CFR §119.5

Answers

9326 [B] 8003 [A] 9745 [B] 8429 [B] 8430 [C] 8767 [C]

1-38 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 1 Regulations

Answer (A) is incorrect because a person authorized by the Admin ATM, DSP
istrator to conduct operations as a direct air carrier is issued an Air 8290. Which information must be contained in, or attached
Carrier Certificate. Answer (B) is incorrect because wherever in
the Federal Aviation Regulations the term "supplemental air carrier to, the dispatch release for a flag air carrier flight?
operating certificate" appears, it shall be deemed to mean an "Air A—Type of operation (e.g., IFR, VFR), trip number.
Carrier Operating Certificate."
B— Total fuel supply and minimum fuel required on
board the airplane.
ALL
C— Passenger manifest, company or organization
8768. The kinds of operation that a certificate holder is name, and cargo weight.
authorized to conduct are specified in the
The dispatch release of a flag or domestic aircarriermay
A—certificate holder's operations specifications. be in any form but must contain at least the following
B— application submitted for an Air Carrier or information concerning the flight:
Operating Certificate, by the applicant.
1. Identification number of the aircraft;
C—Air Carrier Certificate or Operating Certificate.
2. Trip number;
Each certificate holder conducting domestic, flag, or 3. Departure airport, intermediate stops, destination
commuter operations must obtain operations specifica airports, and alternate airports;
tions containing, among many other provisions, the kinds
of operations authorized. (PLT389) — 14 CFR §119.49 4. A statement of the type of operation (IFR, VFR);
Answers (B) and (C) are incorrect because the operations specifica 5. Minimum fuel supply.
tions are continually updated and amended relative to the opera
tor's needs and not contained in the original application or on the (PLT455) — 14 CFR §121.687
certificate itself. Answers (B) and (C) are incorrect because fuel on board, a passen
ger list, and cargo weights are found in the load manifest. Although
separate items, both the dispatch release and the load manifest are
required to be carried on the flight.
ALL
9782. All 14 CFR Part 139 airports must report
A— accident and incident data annually. ATM, DSP
B— noise complaint statistics for each departure 8292. What information must be contained in, or
procedure or runway. attached to, the dispatch release for a domestic air
C—declared distances for each runway. carrier flight?
A— Departure airport, intermediate stops,
All 14 CFR Part 139 airports report declared runway
destinations, alternate airports, and trip number.
distance for each runway. (PLT078) — AIM f4-3-6
B— Names of all passengers on board and minimum
Answers (A) and (B) are incorrect because this information is only
furnished upon request by the administrator per 14 CFR §139.301.
fuel supply.
C—Cargo load, weight and balance data, and
identification number of the aircraft.
ATM, DSP
8243. The persons jointly responsible for the initiation, The dispatch release ofa flag or domestic air carrier may
continuation, diversion, and termination of a supple be in any form but must contain at least the following
mental air carrier or commercial operator flight are the information concerning the flight:
A— pilot in command and chief pilot. 1. Identification number of the aircraft;
B— pilot in command and director of operations. 2. Trip number;
C—pilot in command and the flight follower. 3. Departure airport, intermediate stops, destination
airports, and alternate airports;
For operations of supplemental air carriers or commer
cial operators, the pilot-in-command and the director 4. A statement of the type of operation (IFR, VFR);
of operations are jointly responsible for the initiation, 5. Minimum fuel supply.
continuation, diversion, and termination of a flight.
(PLT400) — 14 CFR §121.687
(PLT444) — 14 CFR §121.537
Answers (B) and (C) are incorrect because the passenger names,
cargo load, and weight and balance data are part of the required
load manifest. A copy of the load manifest must also be carried on
the flight. The load manifest is not part of the dispatch release.

Answers

8768 [A] 9782 [C] 8243 [B] 8290 [A] 8292 [A]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 1 -39

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ATM, DSP ATM, DSP

8293. What information must be included on a domestic 8280. By regulation, who shall provide the pilot in com
air carrier dispatch release? mand of a domestic or flag air carrier airplane informa
A— Evidence that the airplane is loaded according to tion concerning weather, and irregularities of facilities
and services?
schedule, and a statement of the type of operation.
B— Minimum fuel supply and trip number. A— The aircraft dispatcher.
C—Company or organization name and identification B— Air route traffic control center.
number of the aircraft. C— Director of operations.

The dispatch release ofa flag or domestic air carriermay The aircraftdispatcher fora flag or domestic flightshall
be in any form but must contain at least the following provide the pilot-in-command all available reports or
information concerning the flight: information on airport conditions and irregularities of
1. Identification number of the aircraft;
navigation facilities that may affect safety of the flight.
(PLT398) — 14 CFR §121.601
2. Trip number;
Answer (B) is incorrect because air route traffic control center may
3. Departure airport, intermediate stops, destination have information concerning irregularities of facilities and service,
but it is not the proper source of that information. That information
airports, and alternate airports; should be provided by the aircraftdispatcher. Answer (C) is incorrect
4. A statement of the type of operation (IFR, VFR); because the director of operations (who may also be the general
manager) is an administrative person, responsible for the day-to-day
5. Minimum fuel supply. operations and not usually involved in specific flight operations.
(PLT412) — 14 CFR §121.687
Answer (A) is incorrect because the proper loading of the airplane
ATM, DSP
is documented in the load manifest. Answer (C) is incorrect because
the company or organization name is not required on the dispatch 8283. Where can the pilot of a flag air carrier airplane
release. find the latest FDC NOTAMs?
A— Any company dispatch facility.
B— Notices To Airmen publication.
ATM, DSP
8294. A dispatch release for a flag or domestic air car C—Chart Supplements U.S.
rier must contain or have attached to it
The Aircraft Dispatcher fora flag or domestic flightshall
A— minimum fuel supply and weather information for provide the pilot-in-command all available reports or
the complete flight. information on airport conditions and irregularities of
B— trip number and weight and balance data. navigation facilities that may affect safety of the flight.
C—weather information for the complete flight and a Since FDC NOTAMs are regulatory in nature and apply
crew list. to instrument approach procedures and enroute charts,
they would have to be available. (PLT323) — 14 CFR
The dispatch release must contain, or have attached §121.601
to it, weather reports, available weather forecasts,
or a combination thereof, for the destination airport,
intermediate stops, and alternate airports, that are the ATM, DSP
latest available at the time the release is signed by the 8284. Who is responsible, by regulation, for briefing
pilot-in-command and dispatcher. It may include any a domestic or flag air carrier pilot in command on all
additional available weather reports or forecasts that available weather information?
the pilot-in-command or the aircraftdispatcher considers
A—Company meteorologist.
necessary or desirable. (PLT412) — 14 CFR §121.687
B— Aircraft dispatcher.
C— Director of operations.

Before the beginning of a flag or domestic flight, the air

craft dispatcher shall provide the pilot-in-command with
all available weather reports and forecasts of weather
phenomena that may affect the safety of flight. (PLT398)
— 14 CFR §121.601

Answers

8293 [B] 8294 [A] 8280 [A] 8283 [A] 8284 [B]

1 -40 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

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ATM, DSP ATM, DSP

8232. A domestic air carrier flight has a delay while on 8266. When a flag air carrier airplane lands at an
the ground, at an intermediate airport. How long before intermediate airport at 1822Z, what is the latest time
a redispatch release is required? it may continue a flight without receiving a redispatch
A— Not more than 1 hour. authorization?

B— Not more than 2 hours. A-1922Z.

C— More than 6 hours. B-1952Z.
C-0022Z.
Except when a domestic air carrierairplane lands at an
intermediate airport specified in the original dispatch No person may continue a flag air carrier flightfroman
release and remains there for not more than 1 hour, no intermediate airport without redispatch if the airplane
person may start a flight unless an aircraft dispatcher has been on the ground more than 6 hours. (PLT398)
specifically authorizes that flight. (PLT452) — 14 CFR — 14 CFR §121.595
§121.593
Answer (B) is incorrect because domestic air carriers may remain
at an intermediate stop for 1 hour before a redispatch release is ATM, DSP
required. Answer (C) is incorrect because flag, supplemental, and 8267. Ifa flag air carrier flight lands at an intermediate
commercial operators may remain at an intermediate stop up to 6
hours before a redispatch release is required.
airport at 1845Z, and experiences a delay, what is the
latest time it may depart for the next airport without a
redispatch release?
ATM, DSP A-1945Z.
8260. A domestic air carrier airplane lands at an B-2015Z.
intermediate airport at 1815Z. The latest time it may C-0045Z.
depart without a specific authorization from an aircraft
dispatcher is No person may continue a flag air carrier flightfrom an
A-1945Z. intermediate airport without redispatch if the airplane
B-1915Z. has been on the ground more than 6 hours. (PLT398)
C-1845Z. — 14 CFR §121.595

Except when a domestic air carrierairplane lands at an

ATM, DSP
intermediate airport specified in the original dispatch
8226. What information must the pilot in command of
release and remains there for not more than 1 hour, no
a supplemental air carrier flight or commercial operator
person may start a flight unless an aircraft dispatcher
carry to the destination airport?
specifically authorizes that flight. (PLT398) — 14 CFR
§121.593 A—Cargo and passenger distribution information.
B—Copy of the flight plan.
C— Names of all crewmembers and designated pilot
ATM, DSP in command.
8259. A flag air carrier flight lands at an intermediate
airport at 1805Z. The latest time that it may depart The pilot-in-command shall carry in the airplane to its
without being redispatched is destination: load manifest, flight release, airworthiness
A-2005Z.
release, pilot route certification, and flightplan. (PLT400)
B-1905Z.
— 14 CFR §121.687
C-0005Z. Answer (A) is incorrect because this information is only part of the
load manifest. Answer (C) is incorrect because this is only one ele
ment of the flight release which is required on board.
No person may continue a flag air carrier flight from an
intermediate airport without redispatch if the airplane
has been on the ground more than 6 hours. (PLT398)
— 14 CFR §121.595

Answers

8232 [A] 8260 [B] 8259 [C] 8266 [C] 8267 [C] 8226 [B]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 1 -41

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ATM, DSP ATM, DSP

8286. Which documents are required to be carried 8287. How long shall a supplemental air carrier or com
aboard each domestic air carrier flight? mercial operator retain a record of the load manifest,
A— Load manifest (or information from it) and flight airworthiness release, pilot route certification, flight
release.
release, and flight plan?
B— Dispatch release and weight and balance A— 1 month.
release. B— 3 months.
C—Dispatch release, load manifest (or information C—12 months.
from it), and flight plan.
A supplemental air carrier must retain a copy of each
The pilot-in-command of a domestic or flag air carrier load manifest, flightrelease and flightplan at its principal
flight shall carry in the airplane to its destination: operations base for at least 3 months. (PLT453) — 14
1. A copy of the completed load manifest; CFR §121.697

2. A copy of the dispatch release; and

ATM, DSP
3. A copy of the flight plan.
8291. The certificated air carrier and operators who
(PLT400) — 14 CFR §121.695 must attach to, or include on, the flight release form the
name of each flight crewmember, flight attendant, and
ATM, DSP
designated pilot in command are
8288. A domestic or flag air carrier shall keep copies of A—supplemental and commercial.
the flight plans, dispatch releases, and load manifests B— supplemental and domestic.
for at least C—flag and commercial.
A—3 months.
Supplemental air carrierand commercial operators must
B— 6 months.
attach to, or include on, the flightrelease form, containing
C—30 days.
at least the following informationconcerning each flight:
The air carrier shall keep copies of the flight plans, dis 1. Company or organization name;
patch releases, and load manifests forat least 3 months. 2. Make, model and registration number of the aircraft
(PLT453) — 14 CFR §121.695 being used;
3. Flight or trip number and the date of the flight;
ATM, DSP 4. Name of each flight crewmember, flight attendant,
8296. Which documents are required to be carried and pilot designated as pilot-in-command;
aboard each flag air carrier flight?
5. Departure airport, destination airports, alternate
A— Dispatch release, flight plan, and weight and airports, and route;
balance release.
6. Minimum fuel supply; and
B— Load manifest, flight plan, and flight release.
C—Dispatch release, load manifest, and flight plan. 7. A statement of the type of operation (IFR, VFR).
(PLT455) — 14 CFR §121.689
The pilot-in-command of a domestic or flag air carrier
Answers (B) and (C) are incorrect because domestic and flag
flight shall carry in the airplane to its destination: carriers, unlike supplemental and commercial operators, utilize a
1. A copy of the completed load manifest; dispatch release. Commercial operators and supplemental carriers
utilize a flight release. A flight release contains the crew names, but
2. A copy of the dispatch release; and a dispatch release does not.

3. A copy of the flightplan.

(PLT400) — 14 CFR §121.695
Answer (A) is incorrect because a dispatch release is required but
there is no required document called a weight and balance release.
Answer (B) is incorrect because a flight release is used by supple
mental air carriers and commercial operators.

Answers

8286 [C] 8288 [A] 8296 [C] 8287 [B] 8291 [A]

1 -42 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

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ATM, DSP ATM, DSP

8295. The information required in the flight release for 9746. Before an ETOPS flight may commence, an
supplemental air carriers and commercial operators ETOPS
that is not required in the dispatch release for flag and A— preflight check must be conducted by a certified
domestic air carriers is the
A&P and signed off in the logbook.
A— weather reports and forecasts. B— pre-departure service check must be certified by
B— names of all crewmembers. a PDSC Signatory Person.
C—minimum fuel supply. C—pre-departure check must be signed off by an
A&P or the PIC for the flight.
The flight release of a supplemental air carrier or com
mercial operator may be in any form but must contain An appropriately-trained, ETOPS-qualified maintenance
at least the following information concerning each flight: person must accomplish and certify by signature ETOPS
1. Company or organization name; specific tasks. Before an ETOPS flightmay commence,
an ETOPS pre-departureservice check (PDSC) Signa
2. Make, model and registration number of the aircraft tory Person, who has been authorized by the certificate
being used; holder, must certify by signature, that the ETOPS PDSC
3. Flight or trip number and the date of the flight; has been completed. (PLT425) — 14 CFR §121.374
4. Name of each flight crewmember, flight attendant,
and pilot designated as pilot-in-command;
ATM, DSP
5. Departure airport, destination airports, alternate 9746-1. An ETOPS entry point means
airports, and route;
A—the first entry point on the route of flight of an
6. Minimum fuel supply; and ETOPS flight using one-engine-inoperative
7. A statement of the type of operation (IFR, VFR). cruise speed that is more than 60 minutes from
an adequate airport for airplanes having two
Thedispatchrelease of a flag ordomestic aircarrier may engines.
be in any form but must contain at least the following B— the first entry point on the route of flight of an
information concerning the flight: ETOPS flight using one-engine-inoperative cruise
1. Identification number of the aircraft; speed that is more than 200 minutes from an
2. Trip number; adequate airport for airplanes having more than
two engines.
3. Departure airport, intermediate stops, destination C—the first entry point on the route of flight of an
airports, and alternate airports; ETOPS flight using one-engine-inoperative
4. A statement of the type of operation (IFR, VFR); cruise speed that is more than 90 minutes from
5. Minimum fuel supply. an adequate airport for airplanes having two
engines.
(PLT412) — 14 CFR §121.689
Answers (A) and (C) are incorrect because weather reports and "ETOPS entry point" means the first point on the route
forecasts and minimum fuel supply information are required in the of an ETOPS flight that is (1) more than 60 minutes
flight release for supplemental and commercial operators and in the
dispatch release for flag and domestic air carriers. from an adequate airport forairplanes with two engines,
and (2) more than 180 minutes from an adequate air
port for passenger-carrying airplanes with more than
two engines. This is determined using a one-engine-
inoperative cruise speed under standard conditions in
still air. (PLT425) — 14 CFR §121.7

Answers

8295 [B] 9746 [B] 9746-1 [A]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 1 -43

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ATM, DSP ATM, DSP

9746-2. For flight planning, a Designated ETOPS 8281. Who is responsible for obtaining information on all
Alternate Airport current airport conditions, weather, and irregularities of
A—for ETOPS up to 180 minutes, must have RFFS navigation facilities for a supplemental air carrier flight?
equivalent to that specified by ICAO category 4, A— Aircraft dispatcher.
unless the airport's RFFS can be augmented by B— Director of operations or flight follower.
local fire fighting assets within 30 minutes. C— Pilot in command.
B—for ETOPS up to 180 minutes, must have RFFS
equivalent to that specified by ICAO category 3, Before beginning a flight, each pilot-in-command of a
unless the airport's RFFS can be augmented by supplemental air carrier or commercial operator flight
local fire fighting assets within 45 minutes. shall obtain all available current reports or information
C—for ETOPS up to 180 minutes, must have RFFS on airport conditions and irregularities or navigation
equivalent to that specified by ICAO category 4, facilities that may affect the safety of the flight. (PLT444)
unless the airport's RFFS can be augmented by — 14 CFR §121.603
local fire fighting assets within 45 minutes. Answer (A) is incorrect because an aircraftdispatcher is responsible
for briefing a flag or domestic (not supplemental) air carrier pilot.
Answer (B) is incorrect because the director of operations (who
ForETOPS up to 180 minutes, each designated ETOPS may also be the general manager) is an administrative person,
alternate airport must have RFFS equivalent to that responsible for the day-to-day operations and not usually involved in
specified by ICAOas Category 4 or higher. Ifthe equip specific flight operations.
ment and personnel required are not immediately avail
able at an airport, the certificate holder may still list the
airport on the dispatch or flight release if the airport's ATM, DSP
RFFS can be augmented from local fire fighting assets. 8282. During a supplemental air carrier flight, who is
A 30-minute response time foraugmentation is adequate responsible for obtaining information on meteorological
if the local assets can be notified while the diverting conditions?
airplane is en route. (PLT398) — 14 CFR §121.106 A— Aircraft dispatcher.
B— Pilot in command.
C— Director of operations or flight follower.
ALL
9761. What is considered "north polar"? During a flight, the pilot-in-command of a supplemental
A- north of 60° N latitude. air carrier or commercial operator flight shall obtain any
B- north of 68° N latitude. additional available information of meteorological con
C- north of 78° N latitude. ditions and irregularities of facilities and services that
may affect the safety of the flight. (PLT444) — 14 CFR
As an example, operations in the "North Polar Area" §121.603
and "South Polar Area" require a specific passenger Answer (A) is incorrect because an aircraft dispatcher is responsible
recovery plan for each diversion airport. North Polar for obtaining weather information for a flag or domestic air carrier
Area means the entire area north of 78° N latitude. flight. Answer (C) is incorrect because the director of operations
(who may also be the general manager) or flight follower is an
(PLT425) — 14 CFR §121.7 administrative person, responsible for day-to-day operations and not
usually involved in specific flight operations.

ALL

9762. What is considered "south polar"?

A- south of 60° S latitude.
B- south of 68° S latitude.
C-south of 78° S latitude.

As an example, operations in the "North Polar Area"

and "South Polar Area" require a specific passenger
recovery plan for each diversion airport. South Polar
Area means the entire area south of 60° S latitude.
(PLT425) — 14 CFR §121.7

Answers

9746-2 [A] 9761 [C] 9762 [A] 8281 [C] 8282 [B]

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Fuel Requirements
All domestic flights must have enough fuel to:
1. Fly to the airport to which the flight was dispatched;
2. Thereafter, fly to and land at the most distant alternate airport (if an alternate is required) and
3. Thereafter, fly for 45 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption.
(The fuel required for a flag flight landing in the 48 contiguous states or the District of Columbia is
the same as for domestic flights.)
(The fuel requirements for reciprocating-powered supplemental or commercial operations land
ing in the contiguous 48 states is the same as for domestic operations.)
If an alternate is not required or the flight is being made to a remote airport where no alternate is
available, the fuel requirements are:
1. Enough fuel to fly to the destination, and then;
2. Fly for two hours at normal cruising fuel consumption.

Aturbojet supplemental flight (with an alternate available) landingoutside the 48 contiguous states
must have fuel to:
1. Fly to the destination, then
2. Fly 10% of the total time required to fly to the destination, then
3. Fly to the alternate, then
4. Fly for 30 minutes at holding speed at 1,500 feet above the alternate.

Propeller driven flag flights must have enough fuel to:

1. Fly to the airport to which the flight was dispatched;
2. Thereafter, fly to and land at the most distant alternate; and
3. Thereafter, fly for 30 minutes plus 15% of the total flying time to the destination and the alternate at
normal cruising fuel consumption; or fly for 90 minutes, whichever is less.

If an alternate is not required or the flight is being made to a remote airport where no alternate is
available, the fuel requirements for reciprocating engine powered flights are:
1. Enough fuel to fly to the destination, and then;
2. Fly for 3 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption.

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ATM, DSP ATM, DSP

8268. The reserve fuel supply for a domestic air car 8271. For a flag air carrier flight to be released to an
rier flight is island airport for which an alternate airport is not avail
A—30 minutes plus 15 percent at normal fuel able, a turbojet-powered airplane must have enough
consumption in addition to the fuel required to the fuel to fly to that airport and thereafter to fly
alternate airport. A—at least 2 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption.
B—45 minutes at normal fuel consumption in addition B—for 3 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption.
to the fuel required to fly to and land at the most C—back to the departure airport.
distant alternate airport.
C—45 minutes at normal fuel consumption in addition No person may dispatch a turbojet-powered airplane to
to the fuel required to the alternate airport. an airport for which no alternate is available unless it
has enough fuel, considering wind and other weather
For domestic operations, no person may dispatch or conditions, to fly to that airport and thereafter to fly for
takeoff an airplane unless it has enough fuel to: at least 2 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption.
1. Fly to the airport to which it was dispatched; (PLT413) — 14 CFR §121.645

2. Thereafter, to fly to and land at the most distant

alternate airport (if an alternate is required); and ATM, DSP

3. Thereafter, to fly for 45 minutes at normal cruising 8272. An alternate airport is not required for a supple
fuel consumption. mental or commercial air carrier, turbojet-powered air
plane on an IFR flight outside the 48 contiguous United
(PLT413) — 14 CFR §121.639 States, if enough fuel
A— is aboard to fly to the destination at normal cruise
ATM, DSP speed and thereafter at least 2 hours at normal
8269. The minimum amount (planned) of fuel to be holding speed.
aboard a flag air carrier turbojet airplane on a flight B— is aboard the airplane to fly to the destination
within the 48 contiguous United States, after reaching and then to fly for at least 2 more hours at normal
the most distant alternate airport, should be cruising fuel consumption.
C—to fly over the destination for 30 minutes at
A—45 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption.
holding airspeed at 1,500 feet AGL is carried
B— 2 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption.
aboard the airplane.
C—enough fuel to return to the destination airport
or to fly for 90 minutes at normal cruising fuel
No person may dispatch a turbojet-powered airplane to
consumption, whichever is less.
an airport for which no alternate is available unless it
A turbine-engined flag air carrier operation within the 48 has enough fuel, considering wind and other weather
contiguous United States and the District of Columbia conditions, to fly to that airport and thereafter to fly for
may use the fuel requirements of a domestic air car at least 2 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption.
rier. For domestic operations, no person may dispatch (PLT413) — 14 CFR §121.645
or takeoff in an airplane unless it has enough fuel to:
1. Fly to the airport to which it was dispatched;
2. Thereafter, to fly to and land at the most distant
alternate airport (if an alternate is required); and
3. Thereafter, to fly for 45 minutes at normal cruising
fuel consumption.
(PLT413) — 14 CFR §121.639
Answer (B) is incorrect because 2 hours normal cruising fuel is
required at the destination airport when an alternate is not specified
and the flight is conducted outside the 48 contiguous United States.
Answer (C) is incorrect because there is no provision forreturn to the
destination airport in calculating fuel requirements.

Answers

8268 [B] 8269 [A] 8271 [A] 8272 [B]

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ATM, DSP ATM, DSP

8276. Aturbine-engine-powered flag air carrier airplane 8270. What is the fuel reserve requirement for a com
is released to an airport which has no available alternate. mercially operated reciprocating-engine-powered air
What is the required fuel reserve? plane flying within the 48 contiguous United States upon
A— 2 hours at normal cruise speed in a no wind arrival at the most distant alternate airport specified in
condition fuel consumption. the flight release? Enough fuel to fly
B—2 hours at normal cruise fuel consumption. A—30 minutes plus 15 percent of total time required
C—30 minutes, plus 10 percent of the total flight time. to fly at normal cruising consumption to the
alternate.
No person may dispatch a turbojet-poweredairplane to B—to fly for 90 minutes at normal cruising fuel
an airport for which no alternate is available unless it consumption.
has enough fuel, considering wind and other weather C—45 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption.
conditions, to fly to that airportand thereafter to fly for
at least 2 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. No person may release forflightor takeoff a nonturbine
(PLT413) — 14 CFR §121.645 or turbopropeller-powered airplane unless, considering
the wind and other weather conditions expected, it has
enough fuel to:
ATM, DSP
8273. The fuel reserve required for a turbine-engine- 1. Fly to the airport to which it was released;
powered (other than turbopropeller) supplemental air 2. Thereafter, to fly to and land at the most distant
carrier airplane upon arrival over the most distant alter alternate airport specified in the flightrelease; and
nate airport outside the 48 contiguous United States is 3. Thereafter, to fly for 45 minutes at normal cruising
A—30 minutes at holding speed, at 1,500 feet over fuel consumption.
the airport. (PLT413) — 14 CFR §121.643
B— 30 minutes, over the airport, at 1,500 feet, at
cruising speed.
C—2 hours at the normal cruising fuel consumption ATM, DSP
rate. 8277. The fuel reserve required for a reciprocating-
engine-powered supplemental air carrier airplane upon
For any flag air carrier, supplemental air carrier, or com arrival at the most distant alternate airport during a flight
mercial operator operation outside the 48 contiguous in the 48 contiguous United States is
United States or District of Columbia, no person may
A— 45 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption.
release for flight or takeoff a turbine engine-powered
B— the fuel required to fly to the alternate, plus 10
airplane (other than a turbopropeller-powered airplane)
percent.
unless, considering wind and other weather conditions
expected, it has enough fuel:
C—3 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption.

1. To fly to and land at the airport to which it was No person may release for flightor takeoff a nonturbine
released; or turbopropeller-poweredairplane unless, considering
2. After that, to fly for a period of 10% of the total time the wind and other weather conditions expected, it has
required to fly from the airport of departure to and enough fuel to:
land at, the airport to which it was released; 1. Fly to the airport to which it was released;
3. After that, to fly to and land at the most distant 2. Thereafter, to fly to and land at the most distant
alternate airport specified in the flight release, if an alternate airport specified in the flight release; and
alternate is required; and
3. Thereafter, to fly for 45 minutes at normal cruising
4. After that, to fly for 30 minutes at holding speed at fuel consumption.
1,500 feet above the alternate airport (or destination (PLT413) — 14 CFR §121.643
airport if no alternate is required) under standard
temperature conditions.
(PLT413) — 14 CFR §121.645

Answers

8276 [B] 8273 [A] 8270 [C] 8277 [A]

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ATM, DSP ATM, DSP

8274. Upon arriving at the most distant airport, what 8275. The fuel reserve required, for a turbopropeller
is the fuel reserve requirement for a turbopropeller flag supplemental air carrier airplane upon the arrival at a
air carrier airplane? destination airport for which an alternate airport is not
A—90 minutes at holding altitude and speed fuel specified, is
consumption or 30 minutes plus 15 percent of A— 3 hours at normal consumption, no wind condition.
cruise fuel consumption, whichever is less. B— 3 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption.
B— 45 minutes at holding altitude. C—2 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption.
C—30 minutes plus 15 percent of the total time
required, or 90 minutes at normal cruise, No supplemental air carrier or commercial operator
whichever is less. may release a nonturbine or turbopropeller-powered
airplane to an airportforwhich no alternate is specified
No person may dispatch or takeoff in a flag air carrier unless ithas enough fuel, considering windand weather
nonturbine or turbopropeller-powered airplane unless, conditions expected, to fly to that airportand thereafter
considering the wind and other weather conditions to fly for 3 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption.
expected, it has enough fuel: (PLT413) — 14 CFR §121.643
1. To fly to and land at the airport to which it is dis
patched;
2. Thereafter, to fly to and land at the most distant
alternate airport specified in the dispatch release;
and
3. Thereafter to fly for30 minutes plus 15% of numbers
1 and 2 above, or to fly for 90 minutes at normal
cruising fuel consumption, whichever is less.
(PLT413) — 14 CFR §121.641

Answers

8274 [C] 8275 [B]

1 -48 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 1 Regulations

Carriage of Passengers and Cargo

Before takeoff all the passengers must be briefed on:
• Smoking,
• the location of emergency exits,
• the use of seatbelts,
• the location and use of any required means of emergency flotation.

After the seatbelt sign has been turned off in flight, the passengers must be briefed to keep their
seatbelts fastened while seated. In addition to the required briefings, passengers must be provided with
printed cards that contain diagrams of and methods of operating the emergency exits and the use of
other emergency equipment. Before flight is conducted above FL250, a crewmember must instruct the
passengers on the necessity of using oxygen in the event of cabin depressurization, and must point out
to them the location and demonstrate the use of the oxygen dispensing equipment.
Each passenger two years old and older must have their own seat or berth and approved seatbelt.
During takeoff and landing, all passengers must be in their seat with their seatbelts fastened. A child
under two may be held by an adult. During the enroute portion of a flight, two passengers may share a
seatbelt while seated in a multiple lounge or divan seat.
There are certain persons who have to be admitted to the flight deck in flight (such as crewmem
bers, FAA inspectors, etc.) and certain others who may be admitted (e.g., deadheading crew), but the
pilot-in-command has emergency authority to exclude any person from the flight deck in the interest of
safety. In what is commonly known as the "sterile cockpit rule," crewmembers are required to refrain from
nonessential activities during critical phases of flight. As defined in the regulation, critical phases of flight
are all ground operations involving taxi, takeoff, and landing, and all other flight operations below 10,000
feet except cruise flight. Nonessential activities include such activities as eating, reading a newspaper,
or chatting.
Law enforcement officers may carry firearms on board an air carrier flight if their duties so require.
Except in an emergency, the carrier should be given at least one hour prior notice that a person carry
ing a deadly weapon is going to be on the flight. If a passenger is carrying a firearm in their checked
baggage, the weapon must be unloaded and the bag locked. The passenger must retain the key to the
bag. The bag must be stowed in a portion of the aircraft that is inaccessible to both the passenger and
to crewmembers in flight.
Prisoners are sometimes carried on air carrier flights. The prisoners are always escorted and no
more than one prisoner who is classified as "maximum risk" can be allowed on the aircraft. Certain rules
apply to the carriage of prisoners. These include:
• The prisoner and escort must be boarded before all other passengers and must stay on board until
all other passengers have deplaned.
• The prisoner and escort must sit in the most rearward passenger seats and the escort must sit
between the prisoner and the aisle.
• The carrier may serve the prisoner and the escort food and beverages, but neither of them may be
served alcohol.

Continued

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 1 -49

Chapter 1 Regulations

If a person who appears to be intoxicated creates a disturbance on a flight, a report of the incident
must be made to the Administrator (the FAA) within 5 days.
Certain passengers may be carried on an all-cargo flight without the carrier having to comply with all
the passenger-carrying rules. Passengers carried on an all-cargo flight must have a seat with an approved
seatbelt in the cargo compartment. They must have access to the pilot compartment or to an exit. The
pilot-in-command must be able to notify them when they must have their seatbelt fastened and when
smoking is prohibited. They must receive an emergency briefing from a crewmember prior to takeoff.
The pilot-in-command may authorize the passenger to be admitted to the flight crew compartment.
Cargo (including carry-on baggage) may be carried in the passenger compartment of an aircraft if
certain conditions are met. If the cargo is carried in an approved cargo bin, it can be located anywhere
in the passenger compartment. The bin:
• Must withstand the load factor required of passenger seats multiplied by 1.15
• May not be installed in a position that restricts access to or use of any required emergency exit, or
of the aisle in the passenger cabin
• Must be completely enclosed and made of material that is at least flame resistant

If the cargo is not placed in an approved cargo bin it must be located aft of a bulkhead or divider
(i.e., not aft of a passenger) and it must meet certain other requirements. These include:
• It must be properly secured by a safety belt or other tie down.
• It must be packaged or covered in a manner so as to avoid injury to occupants of the passenger
cabin.

• It must not impose an excessive load on the floor or seat structures of the aircraft.
• Its location must not restrict access to or use of the aisle, any regular exit or any required emergency
exit.

• Its location must not obscure any passenger's view of the "seatbelt," "no smoking" or required "exit"
signs unless an auxiliary sign is installed.

Each person who has duties concerning the handling or carriage of dangerous articles or magnetized
materials must have completed a training course within the preceding 12 calendar months.

ALL ALL
8131. A certificate holder is notified that a person specifi 8137. When a passenger notifies the certificate holder
cally authorized to carry a deadly weapon is to be aboard prior to checking baggage that an unloaded weapon is
an aircraft. Except in an emergency, how long before in the baggage, what action is required by regulation
loading that flight should the air carrier be notified? regarding this baggage?
A— Notification is not required, if the certificate holder A—The baggage may be carried in the flightcrew com
has a security coordinator. partment, provided the baggage remains locked,
B— A minimum of 1 hour. and the key is given to the pilot in command.
C—A minimum of 2 hours. B—The baggage must remain locked and carried in
an area that is inaccessible to the passenger, and
The certificate holder, except in an emergency, must be only the passenger retains the key.
given at least 1 hour notice when an authorized person C—The baggage must remain locked and stored
intends to have a weapon accessible in flight. (PLT498) where it would be inaccessible, and custody of the
— 49 CFR §1544.219 key shall remain with a designated crewmember.

Answers

8131 [B] 8137 [B]

1-50 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 1 Regulations

No certificate holder may knowingly permit any person ALL

to transport any unloaded firearm in checked baggage 8136. Which applies to the carriage of a person in the
unless the baggage in which it is carried is locked and custody of law enforcement personnel?
only the passenger checking the baggage retains the A— The air carrier is not allowed to serve beverages
key or combination. The baggage containing the fire to the person in custody or the law enforcement
arm must be carried in an area, other than the flight escort.
crew compartment, that is inaccessible to passengers. B— No more than one person considered to be in the
(PLT498) — 49 CFR §1544.203(f) maximum risk category may be carried on a flight,
Answers (A) and (C) are incorrect because the baggage containing and that person must have at least two armed law
the unloaded firearm will be carried in the baggage area, and only enforcement escorts.
the passenger checking the baggage retains the key.
C—The person in custody must be seated between
the escort and the aisle.
ALL

9763. What is meant by "sterile cockpit"? No more than one passenger, of whom the certificate
holder has been notified as being in a maximum risk
A—All preflight checks are complete and the aircraft category, can be carried on an airplane. (PLT325) —
is ready for engine starting. 49 CFR §1544.221 (c)(2), (d)(3)
B—Crewmembers refrain from nonessential activities
during critical phases of flight.
C—Crewmembers are seated and buckled at their ATM, DSP
required stations. 8225. Which announcement must be made if the seat
belt sign will be turned off during flight?
Commonly known as the "sterile cockpit rule," 14 CFR
A—Clearly explain the location of the fire
§121.542 requires flight crewmembers to refrain from
extinguishers and emergency exits.
nonessential activities during critical phases of flight.
B— Passenger should keep their seat belts fastened
As defined in the regulation, critical phases of flight are
while seated.
all ground operations involving taxi, takeoff, and land
C— Passengers are free to leave their seats once the
ing, and all other flight operations below 10,000 feet
seat belt sign is turned off.
except cruise flight. Nonessential activities include such
activities as eating, reading a newspaper, or chatting. After each takeoff, immediately before or immediately
(PLT498) — 14 CFR §121.542 after turning the seat belt sign off, an announcement
shall be made that passengers should keep their seat
belts fastened, while seated, even when the seat belt
ALL
sign is off. (PLT384) — 14 CFR §121.571
8132. When a person in the custody of law enforcement
personnel is scheduled on a flight, what procedures
are required regarding boarding of this person and the ATM, DSP
escort?
8181. A passenger briefing by a crewmember shall be
A— They shall be boarded before all other given, instructing passengers on the necessity of using
passengers board, and deplaned after all the oxygen in the event of cabin depressurization, prior to
other passengers have left the aircraft. flights conducted above
B— They shall be boarded after all other passengers A- FL 200.
board, and deplaned before all the other B- FL 240.
passengers leave the aircraft. C-FL250.
C—They shall board and depart before the other
passengers. Before flightis conducted above FL250, a crewmember
shall instruct the passengers on the necessity of using
When a person in custody of law enforcement is to oxygen in the event of cabin depressurization, and
be carried on a flight, the prisoner and escort must be shall point out to them the location and demonstrate
boarded before any other passengers and deplaned the use of the oxygen dispensing equipment. (PLT438)
after all other passengers have deplaned. (PLT325) — — 14 CFR §121.333
49 CFR §1544.221 (f)(1)

Answers

9763 [B] 8132 [A] 8136 [B] 8225 [B] 8181 [C]

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ATM, DSP ATM, DSP

8153. When may two persons share one approved 8234. When carrying a passenger aboard an all-cargo
safety belt in a lounge seat? aircraft, which of the following applies?
A— When one is an adult and one is a child under 3 A— The passenger must have access to a seat in the
years of age. pilot compartment.
B— Only during the en route flight. B—The pilot in command may authorize the
C—During all operations except the takeoff and passenger to be admitted to the crew
landing portion of a flight. compartment.
C—Crew-type oxygen must be provided for the
No person may operate an airplane unless there are passenger.
available during the takeoff, enroute flight, and landing
an approved seatbelt for separate use by each person When a passenger is allowed on an all-cargo flight, the
on board the airplane who has reached his/her second pilot-in-command may authorize admittance to the flight
birthday, except that two persons occupying a berth may deck. (PLT444) — 14 CFR §121.583
share one approved seatbelt and two persons occupying Answer (A) is incorrect because the seat does not have to be on the
a multiple lounge or divan seat may share one approved flight deck, but there must be an approved seat with an approved
seatbelt during en route flightonly. (PLT465) — 14 CFR seatbelt for each person. Answer (C) is incorrect because crew-type
oxygen is not required for passengers. It is only required that the
§121.311 person be briefed on the use of oxygen and emergency oxygen
Answer (A) is incorrect because the regulations do not specify an equipment.
age of persons sharing a seatbelt on a lounge seat. Sharing a seat-
belt in a lounge seat can only be done during the enroute portion of
the flight. Answer (C) is incorrect because two persons may share
one seatbelt in a lounge seat only during the enroute portion of the ATM, DSP
flight, which excludes taxi and takeoff as well as landing. 8139. What requirement must be met regarding cargo
that is carried anywhere in the passenger compartment
of an air carrier airplane?
ATM, DSP
A—The bin in which the cargo is carried may not be
8244. The pilot in command has emergency authority
installed in a position that restricts access to, or
to exclude any and all persons from admittance to the
use of, any exit.
flight deck
B—The bin in which the cargo is carried may not be
A— except a FAA inspector doing enroute checks. installed in a position that restricts access to, or
B— in the interest of safety. use of, any aisle in the passenger compartment.
C—except persons who have authorization from the C—The container or bin in which the cargo is carried
certificate holder and the FAA or NTSB. must be made of material which is at least flash
resistant.
The pilot-in-command has the emergency authority to
exclude anyone from the flight deck in the interest of Cargo may be carried anywhere in the passenger com
safety. (PLT444) — 14 CFR §121.547 partment if it is carried in an approved cargo bin. The
Answers (A) and (C) are incorrect because persons who have spe bin must meet the following requirements:
cific authorization of the certificate holder and FAA inspectors may be
admitted to the flight deck except when excluded in an emergency. 1. The bin must be able to withstand the load factors
and emergency landing conditions applicable to the
passenger seats of the airplane in which it is installed,
ATM, DSP multiplied by a factor of 1.15;
8233. If an intoxicated person creates a disturbance
aboard an air carrier aircraft, the certificate holder 2. The cargo bin may not be installed in a position that
must submit a report, concerning the incident, to the restricts access to or use of any requiredemergency
Administrator within exit, or of the aisle in the passenger compartment;
A— 7 days. 3. The bin must be fullyenclosed and made of material
that is at least flame resistant.
B— 5 days.
C—48 hours. (PLT385) — 14 CFR §121.285
Answer (A) is incorrect because the bin may not be installed in a
Ifan intoxicated person causes an incident on the air position that restricts access to or use of any required emergency
craft the certificate holder shall, within 5 days, report exit. Answer (C) is incorrect because the bin must be fully enclosed
and made of material that is at least flame resistant.
that incident to the Administrator. (PLT366) — 14 CFR
§121.575
Answers

8153 [B] 8244 [B] 8233 [B] 8234 [B] 8139 [B]

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ATM, DSP ATM,DSP

8175. Which restriction applies to a cargo bin in a pas 8138. What restrictions must be observed regarding
senger compartment? The bin the carrying of cargo in the passenger compartment of
A— may have an open top if it is placed in front of the an airplane operated under 14 CFR Part 121?
passengers and the cargo is secured by a cargo A— All cargo must be separated from the passengers
net. by a partition capable of withstanding certain load
B— must withstand the load factor required of stresses.
passenger seats, multiplied by 1.15, using the B— All cargo must be carried in a suitable flame
combined weight of the bin and the maximum resistant bin and the bin must be secured to the
weight of the cargo that may be carried in the bin. floor structure of the airplane.
C—must be constructed of flame retardant material C—Cargo may be carried aft of a divider if properly
and fully enclosed. secured by a safety belt or other tiedown having
enough strength to eliminate the possibility of
Cargo may be carried anywhere in the passenger com shifting.
partment if it is carried in an approved cargo bin. The
bin must meet the following requirements: Cargo may be carried aft of a bulkhead or divider in any
1. The bin must be able to withstand the load factors passenger compartment provided the cargo is restrained
and emergency landing conditions applicable to the to required load factors, and it is properly secured by
passengerseats of the airplane in which it is installed, a safety belt or other tiedown having enough strength
multiplied by a factor of 1.15; to eliminate the possibility of shifting under all normally
anticipated flight and ground conditions. (PLT385) —
2. The cargo bin may not be installed in a position that 14 CFR §121.285
restricts access to or use ofany required emergency
Answers (A) and (B) are incorrect because cargo may be carried in
exit, or of the aisle in the passenger compartment; the passenger compartment if it is properly covered and secured so
as not to be a hazard.
3. The bin must be fully enclosed and made of material
that is at least flame resistant.

(PLT385) — 14 CFR §121.285

Answers (A) and (C) are incorrect because the cargo bin must be
fully enclosed, and be constructed of materials that are at least
flame resistant.

Answers

8175 [B] 8138 [C]

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Chapter 1 Regulations

Part 135 Carriage of Passengers and Cargo Requirements

ATS, RTC ATS, RTC
8007. Where must a certificate holder keep copies of 8032. Which restriction must be observed regarding
completed load manifests and for what period of time? the carrying of cargo in the passenger compartment?
A— 1 month at its principal operations base, or at a A— It is packaged or covered to avoid possible injury
location approved by the Administrator. to occupants.
B— 30 days at its principal operations base, or B— All cargo must be carried in a suitable bin and
another location used by it and approved by the secured to a passenger seat or the floor structure
Administrator. of the aircraft.
C—30 days, at the flight's destination. C—Cargo carried in passenger seats must be
forward of all passengers.
The certificate holder shall keep copies ofcompleted load
manifests for at least 30 days at its principal operations No person may carry cargo, including carry-on baggage,
base, or at another location used by it and approved by in or on any aircraft unless one of the three following
the Administrator. (PLT400) — 14 CFR §135.63 criteria is met:

1. It is carried in an approved cargo rack, bin or com

partment;
ATS, RTC
8008. Which is NOT a required item on the load mani 2. It is secured by approved means; or
fest? 3. If number 1 or 2 is not met, then all of the following
A— List of passenger names and the weight of each. are met:
B— Aircraft registration number or flight number. a. For cargo, it is properly secured by a safety belt
C— Identification of crewmembers and their crew or other tie-down having enough strength to elimi
position. nate the possibility of shifting under all normally
anticipated flight and ground conditions, or for
The load manifest must be prepared before each takeoff
carry-on baggage, it is restrained so as to prevent
and must include:
its movement during air turbulence;
1. The number of passengers;
b. It is packaged or covered to avoid possible injury
2. The total weight of the loaded aircraft; to occupants;
3. The maximum allowable takeoff weight for that flight; c. It does not impose any load on seats or on the
4. The center of gravity limits; floor structure that exceeds the load limitation for

5. The center of gravity of the loaded aircraft; those components;

6. The registration number of the aircraft or flight num d. It is not located in a position that obstructs the
ber; access to, or use of, any required emergency or
regular exit, or the use of the aisle between the
7. The origin and destination; and crew and passenger compartment, or located in
8. Identificationof crewmembers and theircrew position a position that obscures any passenger's view
assignments. of the "seatbelt" sign, "no smoking" sign or any
(PLT440) — 14 CFR §135.63 required exit sign;
e. Itis not carried directly above seated occupants.
ATS, RTC
(PLT385) — 14 CFR §135.87
8009. Who is responsible for the preparation of a
required load manifest?
A— PIC or the Dispatcher.
B—Company official designated by the Administrator.
C—The certificate holder.

For multi-engine aircraft, each certificate holder is

responsible for the preparation and accuracy of a load
manifest. (PLT440) — 14 CFR §135.63
Answers
8007 [B] 8008 [A] 8009 [C] 8032 [A]

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ATS, RTC ATS, RTC

9720. A person whose duties include the handling or 8040. Which is a requirement governing the carriage
carriage of dangerous articles and/or magnetized mate of cargo, on a scheduled passenger flight?
rials must have satisfactorily completed an approved A— Cargo must be carried in an approved rack, bin,
training program established by the certificate holder or compartment.
within the previous B— Cargo not stowed in an approved bin must be
A— 6 calendar months. secured by a safety belt or approved tiedown
B— 12 calendar months. device.
C—24 calendar months. C—All cargo carried in the passenger compartment
must be packaged and stowed ahead of the
No certificate holder may use any person or perform, foremost seated passenger.
and no person may perform, any assigned duties and
responsibilities for the handling or carriage of hazard No person may carry cargo, including carry-on baggage,
ous materials unless within the preceding 12 calendar in or on any aircraft unless one of the three following
months that person has satisfactorily completed initial criteria is met:
or recurrent training in an appropriate training program 1. It is carried in an approved cargo rack, bin or com
established by the certificate holder. (PLT407) — 14 CFR, partment;
SFAR 99
2. It is secured by approved means; or
3. If number 1 or 2 is not met, then all of the following
ATS, RTC are met:
8039. In a cargo-only operation, cargo must be loaded
a. For cargo, it is properly secured by a safety belt
A— so that it does not obstruct the aisle between the or other tie-down having enough strength to elimi
crew and cargo compartments. nate the possibility of shifting under all normally
B— in such a manner that at least one emergency or anticipated flight and ground conditions, or for
regular exit is available to all occupants. carry-on baggage, it is restrained so as to prevent
C— in such a manner that at least one emergency or its movement during air turbulence;
regular exit is available to all crewmembers, if an
emergency occurs.
b. Itis packaged or covered to avoid possible injury
to occupants;
For cargo-only operations, the cargo must be loaded so c. It does not impose any load on seats or on the
at least one emergency or regular exit is available to floor structure that exceeds the load limitation for
provide all occupants of the aircraft a means of unob those components;
structed exit from the aircraft if an emergency occurs. d. It is not located in a position that obstructs the
(PLT385) — 14 CFR §135.87 access to, or use of, any required emergency or
regular exit, or the use of the aisle between the
crew and passenger compartment, or located in
a position that obscures any passenger's view
of the "seatbelt" sign, "no smoking" sign or any
required exit sign;
e. It is not carried directly above seated occupants.
(PLT385) — 14 CFR §135.87

Answers

9720 [B] 8039 [B] 8040 [B]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 1 -55

Chapter 1 Regulations

ATS, RTC No person may carry cargo, including carry-on baggage,

8041. Which is a requirement governing the carriage in or on any aircraft unless one of the three following
of carry-on baggage? criteria is met:
A— All carry-on baggage must be restrained so that 1. It is carried in an approved cargo rack, bin or com
its movement is prevented during air turbulence. partment;
B— Carry-on baggage must be stowed under the seat
2. It is secured by approved means; or
in front of the owner.
C— Pieces of carry-on baggage weighing more than 3. If number 1 or 2 is not met, then all of the following
10 pounds must be carried in an approved rack or are met:
bin. a. For cargo, it is properly secured by a safety belt
or other tie-down having enough strength to elimi
No person may carry cargo, including carry-on baggage, nate the possibility of shifting under all normally
in or on any aircraft unless one of the three following anticipated flight and ground conditions, or for
criteria is met: carry-on baggage, itis restrained so as to prevent
1. It is carried in an approved cargo rack, bin or com its movement during air turbulence;
partment; b. Itis packaged or covered to avoid possible injury
2. It is secured by approved means; or to occupants;
3. If number 1 or 2 is not met, then all of the following c. It does not impose any load on seats or on the
are met: floor structure that exceeds the load limitation for
a. For cargo, it is properly secured by a safety belt those components;
or other tie-down having enough strength to elimi d. It is not located in a position that obstructs the
nate the possibility of shifting under all normally access to, or use of, any required emergency or
anticipated flight and ground conditions, or for regular exit, or the use of the aisle between the
carry-on baggage, it is restrained so as to prevent crew and passenger compartment, or located in
its movement during air turbulence; a position that obscures any passenger's view
b. Itis packaged or covered to avoid possible injury of the "seatbelt"sign, "no smoking" sign or any
to occupants; required exit sign;

c. It does not impose any load on seats or on the e. It is not carried directly above seated occupants.
floor structure that exceeds the load limitation for (PLT385) — 14 CFR §135.87
those components;
d. It is not located in a position that obstructs the
ATS, RTC
access to, or use of, any required emergency or 8043. The load manifest must be prepared prior to
regular exit, or the use of the aisle between the
each takeoff for
crew and passenger compartment, or located in
a position that obscures any passenger's view A—any aircraft with a passenger seating capacity of
of the "seatbelt"sign, "no smoking" sign or any 10 seats or more.
required exit sign; B— any aircraft with more than one engine.
C—all helicopters and large aircraft operated by a
e. Itis not carried directly above seated occupants.
commuter air carrier.
(PLT385) — 14 CFR §135.87
For multi-engine aircraft, each certificate holder is
responsible for the preparation and accuracy of a load
ATS, RTC manifest. (PLT440) — 14 CFR §135.63
8042. If carry-on baggage or cargo is carried in the
passenger compartment, it must be
A— stowed ahead of the foremost seated passengers
and secured by approved means.
B—placed in an approved rack, bin, or compartment
installed in the aircraft.
C—so located that it does not obstruct the access to, or
the use of, any required emergency or regular exit.

Answers

8041 [A] 8042 [C] 8043 [B]

1 -56 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 1 Regulations

Emergency Equipment and Operations

Certain emergency equipment must be carried on every air carrier airplane. This equipment includes
fire extinguishers, megaphones, first aid kits and a crash ax. All this equipment must:
• Be inspected regularly.
• Be readily accessible to the crew and, for items carried in the passenger cabin, to the passengers.
• Be clearly identified and marked with its method of operation (this applies to anycontainers in which
the equipment is carried).
Only one crash ax is required on the airplane and must be carried on the flight deck. At least one
hand fire extinguisher must be carried on the flight deck. The number of extinguishers carried in the
cabin is determined by the number of installed passenger seats. The following table applies.
Minimum Number of Hand Fire Extinguishers in the Passenger Cabin:
Passenger Seating Capacity Extinguishers Required
6 through 30 1
31 through 60 2
61 through 200 3
201 through 300 4
301 through 400 5
401 through 500 6
501 through 600 7
601 or more 8

The number of megaphones carried on the airplane is determined by the number of installed pas
senger seats. On airplanes with a seating capacity of 60through 99 passengers, one megaphone must
be carried in the most rearward location in the passenger cabin that is readily accessible to a normal
flight attendant seat. On airplanes with a seating capacity of 100 or more seats, one megaphone must
be carried at the rear of the cabin and another megaphone must be carried at the front of the cabin.
Passenger carrying airplanes must have an emergency exit light system. This system must beoper
able manually from both the flight crew station and from a point in the passenger compartment read
ily accessible to a flight attendant. When the system is armed it must come on automatically with the
interruption of the airplane's normal electrical power. The exit lights must be armed orturned on during
taxiing, takeoff and landing. Every emergency exit (other than an over wing exit) that ismore than 6 feet
from the ground must have a means ofassisting occupants to the ground in the eventof an emergency
evacuation. The most common means of complying with this requirement is an inflatable slide that
deploys automatically when the door is opened. If such an automatic escape slide is installed, it must
be armed during taxi, takeoff and landing. If any required emergency exit for passengers is located in
other than the passengercompartment (such as the flight deck), the door separating the compartments
must be latched open during takeoff and landing.
Apublic address system and a separate crewmember interphone system must be installed on all
airplanes with a seating capacity of more than 19 seats.
Each crewmember on a flight must have a flashlight in good working order readily available.
Continued

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 1 -57

 Chapter 1 Regulations

When operating at flight altitudes above 10,000feet there must be enough oxygen for all crewmem
bers for the entire flight at those altitudes, and in no event less than a 2-hour supply.
When operating at flight altitudes above FL250 each flight crewmember on flight deck duty must
have an oxygen mask, within immediate reach, so designed thatit can be rapidly placed on his/her face.
This is commonly referred to as a "quick-donning" oxygen mask. To meet the requirements, regulations
require that the mask be designed so that it can be put on the user's face within 5 seconds. If, while
operating above FL250, onepilot leaves his/her station, theother pilot must put on his/her oxygen mask.
Above FL410 one pilot must wear his/her mask at all times. Notice that the rule applies only to the
pilots. Above FL250 the flight engineer need only have a quick-donning mask readily available. Note:
For Part 135 operations one pilot must wear the oxygen mask above FL350.
The oxygen requirements for passengers vary with thetype of aircraft, but oxygen must be provided
to all passengers for the entire time the cabin altitude is above 15,000 feet.
Passengers on turbine powered airplanes must be supplied oxygen according to the following
schedule.

• For flights at cabin pressure altitudes above 10,000 feet, up to and including 14,000 feet, there must be
enough oxygen to supply 10% ofthe passengers for any time at those altitudes in excess of30 minutes.
• For flights at cabin pressure altitudes above 14,000 feet, up to and including 15,000 feet, there must
be enough oxygen for 30% of the passengers for the entire time at those altitudes.
• For flights at cabin pressure altitudes above 15,000 feet there must be enough oxygen for all the
passengers for the entire time of flight at those altitudes.

The amount of oxygen carried for passengers in the event of loss of pressurization varies depend
ing on the ability of the airplane to make an emergency descent. If the aircraft can make a descent to
14,000 feet within 4 minutes it may carry less oxygen than would otherwise be required.
Acertain amount of first aid oxygen must be carried for passengers on flights that operate above
FL250. The amount of oxygen is determined by the actual number of passengers but in no case may
there be less than 2 oxygen dispensing units.
On extended over-water flights (more than 50 nautical miles from the shoreline) the airplane must
have a life preserver for each occupant of the aircraft, and enough life rafts to accommodate all the
occupants. This equipment must be easily accessible in the event ofa ditching.
• Each life raft and each life vest must be equipped with a survivor locator light.
• A survival kit, appropriate for the route flown, must be attached to each life raft.
• There must be at least one portable emergency radio transmitter carried on the airplane.
When flag orsupplemental carriers orcommercial operators fly over uninhabited terrain, the follow
ing survival equipment must be carried on the airplane:
• Suitable pyrotechnic signaling devices.
• A survival-type emergency locator transmitter.
• Enough survival kits, appropriate for the route flown, for all the occupants of the airplane.
In an emergency situation that requires immediate decision and action, the pilot-in-command may
take any action that he/she considers necessary under the circumstances. In such a case the PIC may
deviate from prescribed procedures and methods, weather minimums and regulations to the extent
required in the interest of safety. In an emergency situation arising during flight that requires immediate

1-58 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 1 Regulations

decision and action by an aircraft dispatcher, the dispatcher must advise the pilot-in-command of the
emergency, shall ascertain the decision ofthe pilot-in-command and shall have that decision recorded.
If the dispatcher cannot communicate with the pilot, he/she shall declare an emergency and take any
action he/she considers necessary under the circumstances.
Each certificate holder (airline) must, for each type and model of airplane, assign to each category
of crewmember, as appropriate, the necessary functions to be performed in an emergency or in a situ
ation requiring emergency evacuation. The certificate holder must describe those duties in its manual.
Crewmembers must receive emergency training annually on several subjects. Besides the training
they must perform emergency drills in:
• The operation of emergency exits;
• Hand fire extinguishers;
• The emergency oxygen system and protective breathing equipment;
• Donning, inflation and use of individual flotation equipment; and
• Ditching.

Crewmembers who serve above 25,000 feet must receive instruction in hypoxia, respiration and
decompression. Crewmembers must actually operate certain emergency equipment in their recurrent
training at least once every 24 months.
The pilot-in-command must make a report to the appropriate ground radio station of the stoppage
of an engine's rotation in flight (due either tofailure orintentional shutdown) as soon as practicable and
must keep thatstation informed of the progress of the flight. As a general rule, when an engine fails or is
shutdown, the pilot-in-command must land the aircraft at the nearestsuitable airport, time-wise, at which
a safe landing can be made. There is an exception to the rule for airplanes with 3 or more engines. If
only 1 engine hasfailed, the pilot-in-command may elect to continue to a more distant airport (possibly
the original destination) if this is considered as safe as landing at the nearest suitable airport.
Thecertificate holder must provide a cockpit check procedure (checklist) for each typeofaircraft it
operates. The procedures must include each item necessary for flight crewmembers to check for safety
before starting engines, taking-off orlanding, and in engine and systems emergencies. The procedures
must bedesigned so that a flight crewmember will not need to rely on memory for items to be checked.
The flight crew must use the approved check procedure.
Whenever a pilot-in-command or dispatcher exercises emergency authority, he/she shall keep the
appropriate ATC facility and dispatch centers fully informed of the progress of the flight. The person
declaring the emergency shall send a written report of any deviation through the air carrier's operations
manager to the Administrator (FAA). Adispatcher must send this report within 10 days after the date of the
emergency. Apilot-in-command must send the report within 10 days after returning to his/her home base.
When ATC gives priority toan aircraft in an emergency, the chief of the ATC facility involved may ask
the pilot-in-command to submit a report. If asked, the pilot-in-command must submit a detailed written
report to the ATC facility manager within 48 hours. This is required whether or not there was a deviation
from regulations.

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 1 -59

 Chapter 1 Regulations

ALL ALL
9625. (Refer to Legend 15 and Figure 177.) Lewiston 9668. (Refer to Legend 15 and Figure 185A.) McCar-
- Nez Perce Co. is a 14 CFR Part 139 airport. What is ran Intl (LAS) is a 14 CFR Part 139 airport. What is the
the minimum number of aircraftrescue and fire fighting minimum number of aircraft rescue and fire fighting
vehicles, and the type and amount of firefighting agents vehicles and the type and amount of fire fighting agents
that the airport should have? that the airport should have?
A— Two vehicles and 600 pounds dry chemical (DC) A— Three vehicles and 500 pounds of dry chemical
or Halon 1211 or 500 pounds of DC plus 100 (DC) or Halon 1211 or 450 pounds DC and 4,000
gallons of water. gallons of water.
B— One vehicle and 500 pounds of dry chemical B— Two vehicles and 600 pounds dry chemical (DC)
(DC) or Halon 1211 or 450 pounds DC plus 100 or Halon 1211 or 500 pounds of DC plus 4,000
gallons of water. gallons of water.
C—One vehicle and 500 pounds of dry chemical C—Three vehicles and 500 pounds of dry chemical
(DC) or Halon 1211 or 350 pounds DC and 1,000 (DC) or Halon 1211 or 450 pounds DC plus 3,000
gallons of water. gallons of water.

Using FAA Figure 177, the second line of the Lewiston The second line of the Chart Supplements U.S. (previ
entry indicates it is an ARFF (Aircraft Rescue and Fire ously A/FD) for McCarran indicates that it is an index D
Fighting) Index A airport. FAA Legend 15 indicates that airport. FAA Legend 15indicates that an indexDairport
an index A airport must have at least one vehicle with musthave at least three vehicles with either500 pounds
either 500 pounds of dry chemical or Halon 1211, or of dry chemical or Halon 1211, or 450 pounds of dry
450 pounds of dry chemical plus 100 gallons of water. chemicalplus 4,000 gallons of water. (PLT143) — Chart
(PLT078) — Chart Supplements U.S. Supplements U.S.

ALL ALL
9636. (Refer to Legend 15.)Newport News/Williamsburg 9669. (Refer to Legend 15 and Figure 205.) San Fran
Intl is a 14 CFR Part 139 airport. The Chart Supplements cisco Intl (SFO) is a 14 CFR Part 139 airport. What is
U.S. (previously A/FD) contains the following entry: ARFF the minimum number ofaircraft rescue and fire fighting
Index A. What is the minimum number of aircraft rescue vehicles, and the type and amount offire fighting agents
and fire fighting vehicles, and the type and amount of that the airport should have?
fire fighting agents that the airport should have?
A— Three vehicles and 500 pounds of dry chemical
A— Two vehicles and 600 pounds dry chemical (DC) (DC) or Halon 1211 or 450 pounds DC and 4,000
or Halon 1211 or 500 pounds of DC plus 100 gallons of water.
gallons of water. B— Three vehicles and 500 pounds of dry chemical
B— One vehicle and 500 pounds of dry chemical (DC) or Halon 1211 or 500 pounds of DC plus
(DC) or Halon 1211 or 450 pounds DC plus 100 5,000 gallons of water.
gallons of water. C—Three vehicles and 500 pounds of dry chemical
C—One vehicle and 500 pounds of dry chemical (DC) or Halon 1211 or 450 pounds DC plus 6,000
(DC) or Halon 1211 or 350 pounds DC and 1,000 gallons of water.
gallons of water.
Thesecond line of the ChartSupplements U. S. forSan
FAA Legend 15 indicates that an index A airport must Francisco indicates that it is an index E airport. FAA
have at leastone vehicle with either 500 pounds of dry Legend 15indicates that an index E airport musthave
chemical orHalon 1211, or450 poundsof dry chemical at least three vehicles with either 500 pounds of dry
plus 100 gallons of water. (PLT143) — Chart Supple chemical orHalon 1211, or450 pounds of dry chemical
ments U.S. plus6,000 gallons of water. (PLT143) — Chart Supple
ments U.S.

Answers

9625 [B] 9636 [B] 9668 [A] 9669 [C]

1-60 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 1 Regulations

ALL ALL

9690. (Refer to Legend 15 and Figure 215.) Windsor 9388. When may ATC request a detailed report on an
Locks/Bradley Intl, is an 14 CFR Part 139 airport. What emergency even though a rule has not been violated?
minimum number of aircraft rescue and fire-fighting A— When priority has been given.
vehicles, and what type and amount of fire-fighting B— Anytime an emergency occurs.
agents are the airport required to have? C—When the emergency occurs in controlled airspace.
A—Two vehicles and 600 pounds dry chemical (DC),
or Halon 1211 or 500 pounds of DC plus 4,000 Each pilot-in-command who (though not deviating from
gallons of water. a rule) is given priority by ATC in an emergency, shall,
B— Three vehicles and 500 pounds of dry chemical if requested by ATC, submit a detailed report of that
(DC), or Halon 1211 or 450 pounds DC plus emergency within 48 hours to the chief of that ATC
3,000 gallons of water. facility. (PLT044) — 14 CFR §91.123
C—Three vehicles and 500 pounds of dry chemical Answer(B)is incorrect because a pilotmay deviate from a regulation
(DC), or Halon 1211 or 450 pounds DC and 4,000 in order to meet an emergency, as long as ATC is notified immedi
ately. A detailed report is usuallynot required ifATC priority was not
gallons of water. given. Answer (C) is incorrect because, regardless of the type of
airspace in whichit occurs, only when priority has been given may a
The Chart Supplements U.S. indicates the Windsor detailed report be requested by ATC.
Locks/Bradley Intl is an index D airport. FAA Legend
15 indicates that an index D airport must have at least
three vehicles with either 500 pounds of drychemical or ATM, DSP
Halon 1211, or 450 pounds of dry chemical plus 4,000 8177. Which requirement applies to emergency equip
gallons of water. (PLT143) — Chart Supplements U.S. ment (fireextinguishers, megaphones, first-aid kits, and
crash ax) installed in an air carrier airplane?
A—All emergency equipment, must be readily
ALL accessible to the passengers.
9379. During an emergency, a pilot-in-command does B— Emergency equipment cannot be located in a
not deviate from a 14 CFR rule but is given priority compartment or area where it is not immediately
by ATC. To whom or under what condition is the pilot visible to a flight attendant in the passenger
required to submit a written report? compartment.
A— To the manager of the General Aviation District C—Emergency equipment must be clearly identified
Office within 10 days. and clearly marked to indicate its method of
B—To the manager of the facility in control within 10 operation.
days.
C— Upon request by ATC, submit a written report Each item of required emergency equipment must
within 48 hours to the ATC manager. be clearly identified and clearly marked to indicate its
method of operation. (PLT404) — 14 CFR §121.309
Each pilot-in-command who (thoughnot deviatingfrom Answers (A) and (B) are incorrect because the requirement is that
a rule) is given priority by ATC in an emergency, shall, the emergency equipment be "readily accessible"to the crew.
if requested by ATC, submit a detailed report of that
emergency within 48 hours to the chief of that ATC
ATM, DSP
facility. (PLT383) — 14 CFR §91.123
8176. Which factor determines the minimum number
of hand fire extinguishers required for flight under 14
CFR Part 121?
A— Number of passengers and crewmembers aboard.
B— Number of passenger cabin occupants.
C—Airplane passenger seating accommodations.

The minimum number of hand fire extinguishers car

ried on an aircarrier flight is determinedby the seating
capacity of the airplane. (PLT408) — 14CFR §121.309
Answers (A) and (B) are incorrect because passenger capacity, not
actual passenger count, determines the number of extinguishers
required.

Answers

9690 [C] 9379 [C] 9388 [A] 8177 [C] 8176 [C]

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Chapter 1 Regulations

ATM, DSP ATM, DSP

8160. Where should the portable battery-powered 8162. How many portable battery-powered mega
megaphone be located if only one is required on a phones are required on an air carrier airplane with a
passenger-carrying airplane? seating capacity of 150 passengers on a trip segment
A— The most forward location in the passenger when 75 passengers are carried?
cabin. A— Two; one located near or accessible to the
B— In the cabin near the over-the-wing emergency flightcrew, and one located near the center of the
exit. passenger cabin.
C—The most rearward location in the passenger cabin. B—Two; one at the most rearward and one in the
center of the passenger cabin.
One megaphone must be installed on each airplane C—Two; one at the forward end, and the other at the
witha seating capacity of more than 60 and less than most rearward location of the passenger cabin.
100 passengers, at the most rearward location in the
passenger cabin where it would be readily accessible Two megaphones are required in the passenger cabin
to a normal flight attendant seat. (PLT462) — 14 CFR of each airplane with a seating capacity of more than
§121.309 99 passengers, one installed at the forwardend and the
otherat the rearward location where it would be readily
accessible to a normal flight attendantseat. (PLT462)
ATM, DSP
— 14 CFR §121.309
8161. How many portable battery-powered mega
phones are required on an air carrier airplane with a
seating capacity of 100 passengers on a trip segment ATM, DSP
when 45 passengers are carried? 8144. The emergency lights on a passenger-carrying
A— Two; one at the forward end, and the other at the airplane must be armed or turned on during
most rearward location in the passenger cabin. A—taxiing, takeoff, cruise, and landing.
B— Two; one at the most rearward and one in the B—taxiing, takeoff, and landing.
center of the passenger cabin. C—takeoff, cruise, and landing.
C—Two; one located near or accessible to the
flightcrew, and one located near the center of the Each emergency exit light must be armed or turned
passenger cabin. on during taxiing, takeoff, and landing. (PLT404) — 14
CFR §121.310
Two megaphones are required in the passenger cabin Answers (A) and (C)are incorrect because theemergencylights are
of each airplane with a seating capacity of more than not required to be armed or turnedon during cruise.
99 passengers, one installed at the forward end and the
other at the rearwardlocation where it wouldbe readily
ATM, DSP
accessible to a normal flight attendantseat. (PLT462)
— 14 CFR §121.309 8159. Federal Aviation Regulations require that interior
emergency lights must
A— operate automatically when subjected to a
negative G load.
B— be operable manually from the flightcrew station
and a point in the passenger compartment.
C—be armed or turned on during taxiing and all flight
operations.

The emergency exit light system must be operable

from both the flight crewstation and from a point in the
passenger compartment that is readily accessible to a
normal flight attendant seat. Eachemergencyexitlight

Answers

8160 [C] 8161 [A] 8162 [C] 8144 [B] 8159 [B]

1 -62 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 1 Regulations

must be armed or turned on during taxiing, takeoff, and No person may operate an airplane with a seating
landing. (PLT404) — 14 CFR §121.310 capacity of more than 19passengers unless the airplane
Answer (A) is incorrect because interioremergency lights must oper is equipped with a crewmember interphone system.
ate automatically with the interruption of the airplane's normal elec (PLT462) — 14 CFR §121.319
tricalpower. Answer (C) is incorrect because the interioremergency
light system must only be armed during taxi, takeoff, and landing Answers (A) and (B) are incorrect because the crewmember inter
portions of the flight. phone system requirement is based upon the number of seats.

ATM, DSP ATM,DSP

8157. If a passenger-carrying landplane is required to 8179. An air carrier airplane must have an operating
have an automatic deploying escape slide system, when public address system if it
must this system be armed? A— has a seating capacity of 19 passengers.
A— For taxi, takeoff, and landing. B— has a seating capacity for more than 19
B— Only for takeoff and landing. passengers.
C—During taxi, takeoff, landing, and after ditching. C—weighs more than 12,500 pounds.

Each passenger-carrying landplane with an emergency No person may operate an airplane with a seating
exit (other than over-the-wing) thatis more than 6 feet capacityof more than 19passengers unless theairplane
from the groundmust have an approved means to assist is equipped with an operating public address system.
the occupants in descending to the ground. An assist (PLT462) — 14 CFR §121.318
ing means that deploys automatically must be armed
during taxi, takeoffs, and landings. (PLT404) — 14 CFR
§121.310 ATM, DSP
8235. Each crewmember shall have readily available
for individual use on each flight a
ATM, DSP A— key to the flight deck door.
8158. If there is a required emergency exit located in B—certificate holder's manual.
the flightcrew compartment, the door which separates C—flashlight in good working order.
the compartment from the passenger cabin must be
A—unlocked during takeoff and landing. Each crewmember shall, on each flight, have readily
B— locked at all times, except during any emergency available for use a flashlight that is in good working
declared by the pilot in command. order. (PLT405) — 14 CFR §121.549
C—latched open during takeoff and landing.

If it is necessary to pass through a doorway separat ATM, DSP

ing the passenger cabin from other areas to reach a 8173. How much supplemental oxygen for emergency
required emergency exit from any passenger seat, the descent must a pressurized turbine-powered air transport
door must have means to latch it open, and the door airplane carry foreach flight crewmember on flight deck
must be latched open during each takeoff and landing. duty when operating at flight altitudes above 10,000 feet?
(PLT459) — 14 CFR §121.310 A— A minimum of 2-hours' supply.
Answers (A) and (B) are incorrect because the door must always be B— Sufficient for the duration of the flight above 8,000
latched open during takeoff and landing. feet cabin pressure altitude.
C- Sufficient for the duration of the flight at 10,000
feet flight altitude, not to exceed 1 hour and 50
ATM, DSP
minutes.
8178. A crewmember interphone system is required
on which airplane? When operating at flight altitudesabove 10,000 feet, the
A—A large airplane. certificate holder shall supply enough oxygen for each
B—A turbojet airplane. crewmemberfor the entire flight at those altitudes and
C—An airplane with more than 19 passenger seats. not less than a 2-hour supply foreach flight crewmem
ber on flight deck duty. (PLT438) — 14 CFR§121.331
and §121.333

Answers

8157 [A] 8158 [C] 8178 [C] 8179 [B] 8235 [C] 8173 [A]

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Chapter 1 Regulations

ATM, DSP // forany reason at any time it is necessary forone pilot

8183. Each air carrier flight deck crewmember on flight to leave the station at the controls of the airplane when
deck duty must be provided with an oxygen mask that operating at flight altitudes above flight level 250, the
can be rapidly placed on his face when operating at remainingpilotat the controls shall put on and use his/
flight altitudes her oxygen mask until the otherpilothas returnedto the
A-of FL 260. duty station. (PLT440) — 14 CFR §121.333
B-of FL250. Answer(A) is incorrect because only the remaining pilotis required
C-aboveFL250. to put on and use an oxygen mask. Answer (C) is incorrectbecause
the remaining pilot must put on an oxygen mask, not just have a
quick-donning type available.
When operatingat flight altitudesabove flight level 250,
each flight crewmember on flight deck duty must be
provided with an oxygen mask so designed that it can ATM, DSP
be rapidly placed on his/herface from its readyposition, 8156. If a turbine-engine-powered, pressurized airplane
properly secured, sealed, and supplying oxygen within is not equipped with quick-donning oxygen masks, what
5 seconds; and so designed that after being placed on is the maximum flight altitude authorized without one
the face it does not prevent immediate communication pilot wearing and using an oxygen mask?
between the flightcrewmember and other crewmembers
A- FL 200.
over the airplane intercom system. When not being
B- FL 300.
used at flightaltitudes above flightlevel 250, the mask
C-FL250.
must be kept ready for use and within immediate reach.
(PLT438) — 14 CFR §121.333
When operating at flight altitudes above flight level250,
one pilot at the controls of the airplane shall at all times
ATM, DSP wear and use an oxygen mask secured, sealed, and
8184. A flight crewmember must be able to don and supplying oxygen, except that the one pilot need not
use a quick-donning oxygen mask within wearand use an oxygen mask while at or below flight
level 410 ifeach flight crewmemberon flight deck duty
A— 5 seconds.
has a quick-donning type oxygen mask. (PLT438) —
B— 10 seconds.
14 CFR §121.333
C—15 seconds.

Whenoperatingat flight altitudesabove flight level 250, ATM, DSP

each flight crewmember on flight deck duty must be 8187. What isthe highestflight level that operations may
provided with an oxygen mask so designed that it can be conducted without the pilot at the controls wearing
be rapidly placed on his/herface from its readyposition, and usingan oxygen mask, while the other pilot is away
properly secured, sealed, and supplying oxygen within from the duty station?
5 seconds; and so designed that after being placed on
the face it does not prevent immediate communication A- FL 240.
B- FL 250.
between the flightcrewmemberand other crewmembers
over the airplane intercom system. When not being C - Above FL 250.
used at flight altitudes above flight level 250, the mask
must be kept ready foruse and within immediate reach.
Iffor any reason at any time itis necessary for one pilot
(PLT438) — 14 CFR §121.333 to leave the station at the controls of the airplane when
operating at flight altitudes above flight level 250, the
remainingpilotat the controls shall put on and use his/
ATM, DSP heroxygen mask until the otherpilothas returned to the
8155. If either pilot of an air carrier airplane leaves the duty station. (PLT438) — 14 CFR §121.333
duty station while flying at FL410, the other pilot
A— and the flight engineer shall put on their oxygen
masks and breathe oxygen.
B— shall puton the oxygen mask and breathe oxygen.
C—must have a quick-donning type oxygen mask
available.

Answers

8183 [C] 8184 [A] 8155 [B] 8156 [C] 8187 [B]

1 -64 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 1 Regulations

ATM, DSP ATM, DSP

8174. What is the passenger oxygen supply requirement 8182. The supplemental oxygen requirements for pas
for a flight, in a turbine-powered aircraft, with a cabin sengers when a flight is operated at FL 250 is depen
pressure altitude in excess of 15,000 feet? Enough dent upon the airplane's ability to make an emergency
oxygen for descent to a flight altitude of
A—each passengers for the entire flight above A— 10,000 feet within 4 minutes.
15,000 feet cabin altitude. B— 14,000 feet within 4 minutes.
B— 30 percent of the passengers. C—12,000 feet within 4 minutes or at a minimum rate
C—10 percent of the passengers for 30 minutes. of 2,500 ft/min, whichever is quicker.

Forflights at cabinpressurealtitudes above 15,000 feet, The supplemental oxygen requirements forpassengers
the certificate holder must provide enough oxygen for on pressurizedaircraft is dependentupon the ability of
each passenger carriedduringthe entire flight at those the aircraft to descend to 14,000 feet within 4 minutes
altitudes. (PLT438) — 14 CFR §§121.327, 121.329 in the event of a loss of pressurization. (PLT438) — 14
CFR §121.333

ATM, DSP
8186. For flights above which cabin altitude must oxygen ATM, DSP
be provided for all passengers during the entire flight 8180. What is the minimum number of acceptable
at those altitudes? oxygen-dispensing units for first-aid treatment of occu
pants who might require undiluted oxygen for physi
A-15,000 feet.
ological reasons?
B-16,000 feet.
C-14,000 feet. A— Two.
B- Four.
For flights at cabin pressure altitudes above 15,000feet, C—Three.
the certificate holder must provide enough oxygen for
each passenger carriedduring the entire flight at those There must be an appropriate number of oxygen dis
altitudes. (PLT438) — 14 CFR §§121.327, 121.329 pensing units for first aid treatment of passengers, but
in no case less than 2. (PLT438) — 14 CFR §121.333

ATM, DSP
8185. For a 2-hour flight in a reciprocating engine-
powered airplane at a cabin pressure altitude of 12,000
feet, how much supplemental oxygen for sustenance
must be provided? Enough oxygen for
A—30 minutes for 10 percent of the passengers.
B— 10 percent of the passengers for 1.5 hours.
C—each passenger for 30 minutes.

For flight in reciprocating-engine-powered airplanes,

at cabin pressure altitudes above 8,000 feet, up to and
including 14,000 feet, each certificate holder shallpro
vide enoughoxygenfor 30 minutes for 10percentof the
passengers. (PLT438) — 14 CFR §121.327

Answers

8174 [A] 8186 [A] 8185 [A] 8182 [B] 8180 [A]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 1 -65

Chapter 1 Regulations

ATM, DSP
3. At least one pyrotechnic signaling device for each
8164. Which emergency equipment is required for a flag life raft;
air carrier flight between John F. Kennedy International
Airport and London, England? 4. One survival-type emergency locator transmitter;
A— A life preserver equipped with an approved 5. A survival kit, appropriately equipped for the route
survivor locator light or other flotation device for to be flown, must be attached to each life raft.
the full seating capacity of the airplane. (PLT417) — 14 CFR §121.339
B—An appropriately equipped survival kit attached to Answers (B) and (C) are incorrect because unlike some regulations
each required liferaft. that are based upon the number of seats in the aircraft, the number
C—A self-buoyant, water resistant, portable survival- of life preservers required is based on the number of occupants for
a particular flight.
type emergency locator transmitter for each
required liferaft.
ATM, DSP
No person may operate an airplane in extended over- 8169. Life preservers required for overwater operations
water operations without having on the airplane the are stored
following equipment:
A— within easy reach of each passenger.
1. A lifepreserver equipped with an approved survivor B— under each occupant seat.
locator lightfor each occupant of the airplane; C—within easy reach of each seated occupant.
2. Enough life rafts (each equipped with an approved
survivor locatorlight) to accommodate the occupants Therequired life rafts, life preservers, and survival-type
of the airplane; emergency locator transmitter must be easily accessible
in the event of a ditching without appreciable time for
3. At least one pyrotechnic signaling device for each
life raft; preparatoryprocedures. (PLT417)— 14 CFR §121.339

4. One survival-type emergency locator transmitter;

ATM, DSP
5. A survival kit, appropriately equipped for the route
to be flown, must be attached to each life raft. 8167. For a flight over uninhabited terrain, an airplane
operated by a flag or supplemental air carrier must carry
(PLT404) — 14 CFR §121.339 enough appropriately equipped survival kits for
Answer (A) is incorrect because a life preserver or other flotation
device foreach occupant is required. The requirement is not based A— all of the passengers, plus 10 percent.
upon seating capacity. Answer (C) is incorrect because only one B—all aircraft occupants.
survival type emergencylocatortransmitter is required to be carried C—all passenger seats.
in the aircraft, not one for each life raft.

Unless ithas thefollowing equipment, no flag orsupple

ATM, DSP
mental carrier or commercial operatormay conduct an
operation over an uninhabited area:
8166. Each large aircraft operating over water must
have a life preserver for each 1. Suitable pyrotechnicsignaling devices;
A— aircraft occupant. 2. A survival-type emergency locator transmitter; and
B— seat on the aircraft. 3. Enoughsurvival kits, appropriately equipped for the
C—passenger seat, plus 10 percent. route to be flown, forthe numberof occupants of the
airplane.
No person may operate an airplane in extended over-
water operations without having on the airplane the (PLT404) — 14 CFR §121.353
following equipment:
1. A life preserver equipped with an approvedsurvivor ATM, DSP
locatorlight for each occupant of the airplane; 8168. Whena supplemental aircarrieris operating over
2. Enough life rafts (each equipped with an approved an uninhabited area, howmanyappropriately equipped
survivor locator light) toaccommodate theoccupants survival kits are required aboard the aircraft?
of the airplane; A— One for each passenger seat.
B— One for each passenger, plus 10 percent.
C—One for each occupant of the aircraft.

Answers

8164 [B] 8166 [A] 8169 [C] 8167 [B] 8168 [C]

1-66 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 1 Regulations

Unless ithas the followingequipment, no flag or supple ATM, DSP

mental carrier or commercial operator may conduct an 8172. An airplane operated by a flag air carrier opera
operation over an uninhabited area: tor flying over uninhabited terrain must carry which
emergency equipment?
1. Suitable pyrotechnic signaling devices;
A—Suitable pyrotechnic signaling devices.
2. A survival-type emergency locator transmitter; and B— Colored smoke flares and a signal mirror.
3. Enough survivalkits, appropriately equipped for the C—Survival kit for each passenger.
route to be flown, forthe number of occupants of the
airplane. Unless ithas the following equipment, no flag or supple
mental carrier or commercial operator may conduct an
(PLT404) — 14 CFR §121.353
operation over an uninhabited area:
1. Suitable pyrotechnic signaling devices;
ATM, DSP 2. A survival-type emergency locator transmitter; and
8170. An airplane operated by a supplemental air car
rier flying over uninhabited terrain must carry which 3. Enough survivalkits, appropriately equipped for the
emergency equipment? route to be flown, forthe number of occupants of the
airplane.
A— Survival kit for each passenger.
B— Suitable pyrotechnic signaling devices. (PLT404) — 14 CFR §121.353
C—Colored smoke flares and a signal mirror.
ATM, DSP
Unless ithas the following equipment, no flag or supple 8245. If an aircraft dispatcher cannot communicate with
mental carrier or commercial operator may conduct an the pilotof an air carrier flight during an emergency, the
operation over an uninhabitedarea: aircraft dispatcher should
1. Suitable pyrotechnic signaling devices; A— take any action considered necessary under the
2. A survival-type emergency locator transmitter; and circumstances.
3. Enough survivalkits, appropriately equipped forthe B— comply with the company's lost aircraft plan.
route to be flown, forthe number of occupants of the C—phone the ARTCC where the flight is located and
airplane. ask for a phone patch with the flight.
(PLT404) — 14 CFR §121.353 If the aircraft dispatcher cannot communicate with the
pilot, he/she shall declare an emergency and take any
action considered necessary under the circumstances.
ATM, DSP (PLT403) — 14 CFR §121.557
8171. An airplane operated by a commercial operator
flying over uninhabited terrain must carry which emer
gency equipment? ATM, DSP
8198. Which document includes descriptions of the
A— A signal mirror and colored smoke flares.
B— Survival kit for each passenger.
required crewmember functions to be performed in the
C—An approved survival-type emergency locator event of an emergency?
transmitter. A—Airplane Flight Manual.
B— Certificate holder's manual.
Unless ithas the following equipment, no flag or supple C—Pilot's Emergency Procedures Handbook.
mental carrier or commercial operator may conduct an
operation over an uninhabited area: Each certificate holder shall, for each type and model
of airplane, assign to each category of required crew
1. Suitable pyrotechnic signaling devices; member, as appropriate, the necessary functions to
2. A survival-type emergency locatortransmitter; and be performed in an emergency or a situation requiring
3. Enough survival kits, appropriately equippedfor the emergency evacuation. The certificate holder shall
route to be flown, forthe number of occupants of the describe in its manual the functions of each category of
airplane. required crewmember. (PLT436) — 14 CFR §121.397
Answer (A) is incorrect because the Airplane Flight Manual may
(PLT402) — 14 CFR §121.353 contain emergency proceduresas a convenience, but they are not
required by 14 CFR §121.141. Answer(C) is incorrect because an
"Emergency Procedures Handbook" does not exist.

Answers

8170 [B] 8171 [C] 8172 [A] 8245 [A] 8198 [B]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 1 -67

Chapter 1 Regulations

ATM, DSP ATM, DSP

8200. The required crewmember functions that are to 8236. If an engine's rotation is stopped in flight, the pilot
be performed in the event of an emergency shall be in command must report it, as soon as practicable, to the
assigned by the
A—appropriate ground radio station.
A— pilot in command. B— nearest FAA district office.
B—air carrier's chief pilot. C—operations manager (or director of operations).
C—certificate holder.
The pilot-in-command shall report each stoppage of
Each certificate holder shall, for each type and model engine rotation in flight to the appropriate ground radio
of airplane, assign to each category of required crew stationas soon as practicableand shall keep thatstation
member, as appropriate, the necessary functions to fully informed of the progress of the flight. (PLT366) —
be performedin an emergency or a situation requiring 14 CFR §121.565
emergency evacuation. The certificate holder shall
describe in its manual the functions of each category of
requiredcrewmember. (PLT374) — 14 CFR §121.397 ATM, DSP

Answer (A) is incorrect because, although thepilot-in-command may 8237. If it becomes necessary to shut down one engine
assign duties as necessary during an emergency, the required crew on a domestic air carrier three-engine turbojet airplane,
member functions shall be assigned and described in the certificate the pilot in command
holder'smanual. Answer(B) is incorrect because the chiefpilotdoes
not have the authority to assign crewmember functions that are to A— must land at the nearest suitable airport, in point
be performedin the event of an emergency. Those functionsshall be of time, at which a safe landing can be made.
described in the certificate holder's manual.
B— may continue to the planned destination if
approved by the company aircraft dispatcher.
ATM, DSP C— may continue to the planned destination if this
8204. The air carrier must give instruction on such is considered as safe as landing at the nearest
subjects as respiration, hypoxia, and decompression suitable airport.
to crewmembers serving on pressurized airplanes
operated above
If not more than one engine of an airplane that has
three or more engines fails or its rotation is stopped,
A-FL180. the pilot-in-command may proceed to an airport that
B- FL 200. he/she selects if, after considering the following, he/
C-FL250. she decides thatproceeding to thatairport is as safe as
landing at the nearest suitable airport. (PLT406) — 14
Crewmembers who serve in operations above 25,000 CFR §121.565
feet mustreceive instruction inrespiration, hypoxia, and
decompression. (PLT460) — 14 CFR §121.417
ATM, DSP
8241. What action shall the pilot in command take if it
ATM, DSP
becomes necessary to shut down one ofthe twoengines
8218. How often must a crewmember actually operate on an air carrier airplane?
the airplane emergency equipment, after initial training?
Once every A— Land at the airport which the pilotconsiders to be
as safe as the nearest suitable airport in point of
A— 6 calendar months. time.
B— 12 calendar months.
B— Land at the nearest suitable airport in point of
C—24 calendar months. time at which a safe landing can be made.
C—Land at the nearest airport, including military, that
Emergency drill requirements must be accomplished has a crash and rescue unit.
during initial training and once each 24 calendar months
during recurrent training. (PLT407) — 14CFR §121.417 Whenever an engine of an airplane fails or whenever
the rotation of an engine is stopped toprevent possible
damage, thepilot-in-command shalllandtheairplane at
the nearest suitable airport, time-wise, at which a safe
landing can be made. Note: There are no exceptions to
this rule for two-engine airplanes. (PLT223) —14 CFR
§121.565

Answers

8200 [C] 8204 [C] 8218 [C] 8236 [A] 8237 [C] 8241 [B]

1-68 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 1 Regulations

ATM, DSP The person declaring the emergency shall send a written
8163. In the event of an engine emergency, the use of report of any deviation, through the air carrier's direc
a cockpit check procedure by the flightcrew is tor of operations, to the Administrator within 10 days.
A— encouraged; it helps to ensure that all items on (PLT366) — 14 CFR §121.557
the procedure are accomplished.
B— required by regulations to prevent reliance upon
DSP
memorized procedures.
8239. An aircraft dispatcher declares an emergency for
C— required by the FAA as a doublecheck after the
a flight and a deviation results. A written report shall be
memorized procedure has been accomplished.
sent through the air carrier's operations manager by the
Each certificate holder shall provide an approved cockpit A—dispatcher to the FAAAdministrator within 10
check procedure for each type of aircraft. The approved days of the event.
procedures must include each item necessary for flight B— certificate holder to the FAA Administrator within
crewmembers to check forsafety before starting engines, 10 days of the event.
taking off, or landing, and in engine and systems emer C—pilot in command to the FAA Administrator within
gencies. The procedures must be designed so that a 10 days of the event.
flight crewmember willnot need to rely upon memory
for items to be checked. (PLT404) — 14 CFR §121.315 An aircraft dispatcher declaring an emergency shall
send a written report of any deviation, through the air
carrier's directorof operations, to the Administrator within
ATM, DSP 10 days after the date of the emergency. (PLT394) — 14
8240. When the pilot in command is responsible for a CFR §121.557
deviation during an emergency, the pilot should submit
a written report within
ATM, ATS
A— 10 days after the deviation.
8725. Bird strikes in flight will be reported to the
B—10 days after returning home.
C—10 days after returning to home base. A— nearest state or federal wildlife office on company
letterhead.
A pilot-in-command declaring an emergency shall send B— FAA on an FAA form 5200-7.
a written reportof any deviation, through the air carrier's C—nearest FSS via telephone.
director of operations, to the Administrator within 10
days after returning to the home base. (PLT403) — 14 Pilots are urged to reportany birdor other wildlife strike
CFR §121.557 using FAA Form 5200-7, Bird/Other Wildlife Strike
Report (Appendix 1). (PLT366) — AIM W-4-3

ATM, DSP
8246. Who is required to submit a written report on a
deviation that occurs during an emergency?
A— Pilot in command.
B— Dispatcher.
C— Person who declares the emergency.

Answers

8163 [B] 8240 [C] 8246 [C] 8239 [A] 8725 [B]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 1 -69

Chapter 1 Regulations

Part 135 Oxygen Requirements

ATS Answer (B) is incorrect because the regulation states "above25,000
8020. Which is a requirement for flightcrew use of oxy feet MSL."Answer (C) is incorrect because above 25,000 feet MSL,
the pilot at the controls must wear an approved oxygen mask any
gen masks in a pressurized cabin airplane?
time the other pilot is away from the duty station.
A— Both pilots at the controls shall use oxygen
masks above FL 350.
B—At altitudes above 25,000 feet MSL, if one pilot ATS

leaves the pilot duty station, the remaining pilot at 8055. The two pilot stations of a pressurized aircraft are
the controls shall use an oxygen mask. equipped with approved quick-donning oxygen masks.
C—At altitudes above FL 250, one of the two What is the maximum altitude authorized ifone pilot is
pilots at the controls shall use an oxygen mask not wearing an oxygen mask and breathing oxygen?
continuously. A- 41,000 feet MSL.
B- 35,000 feet MSL.
One pilot of a pressurized aircraft must wear an oxygen C-25,000 feet MSL.
mask any time the aircraft is flown above 35,000 feet
MSL. Inaddition, one pilot must wear an oxygen mask One pilotof a pressurized aircraft must wear an oxygen
above a flight altitudeof 25,000 feet MSL if the otherpilot mask any time the aircraft is flown above 35,000 feet
leaves the duty station. (PLT438) — 14 CFR §135.89 MSL. (PLT438) — 14 CFR §135.89

ATS ATS
8022. Which is a requirement for pilot use of oxygen in 8056. At altitudes above 10,000 feet through 12,000
a pressurized airplane? feet MSL, each pilot of an unpressurized airplane must
A—The pilot at the controls shall use oxygen use supplemental oxygen for that part of the flight that
continuously any time the cabin pressure altitude is of a duration of more than
is more than 12,000 feet MSL. A— 20 minutes.
B— At FL 250 and above, each pilot shall have an B— 30 minutes.
approved quick-donning oxygen mask. C—45 minutes.
C—At FL 250 and above, the pilot at the controls
must have an approved oxygen mask any time Each pilotof an unpressurizedaircraft shall use oxygen
the other pilot is away from the duty station. continuously when flying:
Each pilot of an unpressurized aircraft shall use oxygen 1. At altitudes above 10,000 feet through 12,000 feet
continuously when flying: MSL for the part of the flight, at those altitudes, that
is more than 30 minutes duration; and
1. At altitudes above 10,000 feet through 12,000 feet
2. Above 12,000 feet MSL.
MSL for that part of the flightat those altitudes that
is more than 30 minutes duration; and (PLT438) — 14 CFR §135.89
2. Above 12,000 feet MSL.
Whenever a pressurized aircraft is operated with the ATS
cabin pressure altitude more than 10,000 feet MSL, each 8072. A pressurized airplane being operated at FL 330
pilotshall comply with the rules forunpressurized aircraft. can descend safely to 15,000 feet MSL in 3.5 minutes.
Whenevera pressurized airplane is operated above What oxygen supply must be carried for all occupants
25,000 feet MSL flightaltitude both pilots must have a other than the pilots?
"quick-donning"-type oxygen mask. A— 60 minutes.
One pilot of a pressurized aircraft must wear an B—45 minutes.
oxygen mask any time the aircraftis flown above 35,000 C—30 minutes.
feet MSL. In addition, one pilotmust wearan oxygen
mask above a flight altitude of 25,000 feet MSL if the
otherpilot leaves the dutystation. (PLT438) — 14 CFR
§135.89

Answers

8725 [B] 8022 [A] 8055 [B] 8056 [B] 8072 [C]

1-70 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 1 Regulations

No person may operate a pressurized aircraft above No person may operate a pressurized aircraft above
15,000 feet MSL unless it is equipped to supply oxygen 15,000 feet MSL unless it is equipped to supply oxygen
to each occupant, other than the pilots, for 1 hour. This to each occupant, other than the pilots, for 1 hour. This
is reduced to a 30-minute supply if the aircraft, at all is reduced to a 30-minute supply if the aircraft, at all
times during flight above 15,000 feet MSL, can safely times during flight above 15,000 feet MSL, can safely
descend to 15,000 feet within 4 minutes. (PLT438) — descend to 15,000 feet within4 minutes. (PLT438) — 14
14 CFR §135.157 CFR §135.157

ATS ATS, RTC

8073. At what altitude, in an unpressurized airplane, 8021. Above which altitude/flight level must at least one
must all passengers be supplied oxygen? of the two pilots, at the controls of a pressurized aircraft
A-Above 12,000 feet MSL. (with quick-donning masks) wear a secured and sealed
B- Above 14,000 feet MSL. oxygen mask?
C-Above 15,000 feet MSL. A- FL 300.
B- FL 350.
In unpressurized aircraft, at altitudes above 10,000 feet C-FL250.
MSL through 15,000 feet MSL, oxygen must be avail
able for 10% of the occupants, other than the pilots, One pilot of a pressurized aircraft must wear an oxygen
for the part of the flight, at those altitudes, in excess of mask any time the aircraft is flown above 35,000 feet
30-minute duration. Above 15,000 feet MSL, oxygen MSL. (PLT438) — 14 CFR §135.89
must be available to all occupants, other than the pilots.
(PLT438) — 14 CFR §135.157
ATS, RTC
8023. Which is a pilot requirement for oxygen?
ATS
A— Each pilot of a pressurized aircraft operating at
8074. Between what altitudes must oxygen be available FL 180 and above shall have an approved quick-
to at least 10 percent of the occupants, in an unpres donning type oxygen mask.
surized airplane, other than the pilots? B— On pressurized aircraft requiring a flightcrew of
A-Above 12,000 feet through 16,000 feet MSL, for two pilots, both shall continuously wear oxygen
any time period. masks whenever the cabin pressure altitude
B- Above 10,000 feet through 15,000 feet MSL, exceeds 12,000 feet MSL.
if flight at those altitudes is of more than a C—On unpressurized aircraft, flying above 12,000
30-minute duration. feet MSL, pilots shall use oxygen continuously.
C-10,000 feet to 15,000 feet MSL, if flight at those
altitudes is of more than a 30-minute duration. Each pilot of an unpressurized aircraft shall use oxygen
continuously when flying:
In unpressurized aircraft, at altitudes above 10,000 feet 1. At altitudes above 10,000 feet through 12,000 feet
MSLthrough 15,000 feet MSL, oxygen must be available MSL for that part of the flight at those altitudes that
for 10% of the occupants, other than the pilots, for that is more than 30 minutes duration; and
part of the flightat those altitudes in excess of 30-minute
duration.Above 15,000 feet MSL, oxygen must be avail 2. Above 12,000 feet MSL.
able to all occupants. (PLT438) — 14 CFR §135.157 (PLT438) — 14 CFR §135.89
Answer (A) is incorrect because quick-donning type oxygen masks
are required above 25,000 feet MSL. Answer (B) is incorrect
ATS because both pilots should continuously use oxygen masks when
8080. The oxygen requirements for occupants of a the cabin pressure altitude is more than 10,000 feet MSL.
pressurized airplane operated at altitudes above FL
250 is dependent upon the airplane's ability to descend
safely to an altitude of
A—10,000 feet MSL in 4 minutes.
B—12,000 feet MSL at a minimum rate of 2,500 ft/min.
C— 15,000 feet MSL in 4 minutes.

Answers

8073 [C] 8074 [B] 8080 [C] 8021 [B] 8023 [C]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 1 -71

Chapter 1 Regulations

ATS, RTC ATS, RTC

8024. Which requirement applies when oxygen is stored 8031. Ifa certificate holder deviates from the provisions
in liquid form? of regulations which pertain to medical use of oxygen
A— Smoking is not permitted within 50 feet of stored by passengers, a complete report of the incident shall
liquid oxygen. be sent to the FAA within
B— Liquefied oxygen is a hazardous material and A— 7 working days.
must be kept in an isolated storage facility. B— 10 working days.
C—The equipment used to store liquid oxygen must C—10 days of the deviation.
be covered in the certificate holder's approved
maintenance program. Each certificate holder who deviates from the provisions
of the regulations pertaining to use of medical oxygen
When the oxygen is stored in the form of a liquid, the by passengers, must send a report of the deviation to
equipment must have been under the certificate holder's the FAA Flight Standards DistrictOffice within 10 days
approved maintenance program since its purchase excluding Saturdays, Sundays, and federal holidays.
new, or since the storage container was last purged. (PLT438) — 14 CFR §135.91
(PLT438) — 14 CFR §135.91

ATS, RTC
ATS, RTC 8081. An unpressurized aircraft with 20 occupants other
8025. Which is a condition that must be met when a than the pilots will be cruising at 14,000 feet MSL for
person is administered medical oxygen in flight? 25 minutes. For how many, if any, of these occupants
A— The distance between a person using medical must there be an oxygen supply?
oxygen and any electrical unit must not be less A— Five.
than 5 feet. B— Two.
B—A person using oxygen equipment must be C-None.
seated to avoid restricting access to, or use of,
any required exit. In unpressurized aircraft, at altitudes above 10,000 feet
C—A person being administered oxygen must MSL through 15,000 feet MSL, oxygen must be avail
be monitored by equipment that displays and able for 10% of the occupants, other than the pilots,
records pulse and respiration. for the part of the flight, at those altitudes, in excess of
30-minutes duration. Above 15,000 feet MSL, oxygen
Oxygen equipment must be stowed, and each person must be available to all occupants, other than the pilots.
using the equipment must be seated, so as not to restrict (PLT438) — 14 CFR §135.157
access to or use of any requiredemergency or regular
exit, or of the aisle in the passenger compartment.
(PLT438) — 14 CFR §135.91 RTC
9576. (Refer to Figures 113 and 114.) When must the
pilots use oxygen, under 14 CFR Part 135, on this flight
ATS, RTC from 0O2 to LAX?
8030. Which is a requirement regarding the carriage A— Starting 30 minutes after climbing through 10,000
and operation of oxygen equipment for medical use by feet until descending below 10,000 feet.
passengers?
B—30 minutes after level off until descending below
A— No person may smoke within 10 feet of oxygen 10,000 feet.
storage and dispensing equipment. C—All the time they are above 10,000 feet MSL.
B—When oxygen equipment is used for the medical
treatment of a patient, the rules pertaining to Each pilotof an unpressurizedaircraft shall use oxygen
emergency exit access are waived. continuously when flying—
C—No person may connect oxygen bottles or any 1. At altitudes above 10,000 feet through 12,000 feet
other ancillary equipment until all passengers are MSL for the part of the flightat those altitudes that
aboard the aircraft and seated. is more than 30 minutes duration; and
No person may smoke within 10 feet of oxygen-dispens 2. Above 12,000 feet MSL.
ing equipment. (PLT438) — 14 CFR §135.91 (PLT438) — 14 CFR §135.89

Answers

8024 [C] 8025 [B] 8030 [A] 8031 [B] 8081 [C] 9576 [A]

1 -72 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 1 Regulations

ATS, RTC RTC

9819. What are the oxygen requirements for passengers 9605. (Refer to Figures 162, 163, 164, 165, and 167.)
if operating at 14,000 feet? When are the pilots required to use oxygen on this flight
A— 30 minutes for each passenger. from RYN to AEG?
B— available for 10% of the occupants. A—Upon climbing through 12,000 feet on ascent,
C—available for 10% of the occupants other than the until passing through 12,000 feet on descent.
pilots. B— Starting 30 minutes after level off until
descending below 10,000 feet.
In unpressurized aircraft at altitudes above 10,000 feet C—Starting 30 minutes after climbing through 10,000
MSL through 15,000 feet MSL, oxygen must be avail feet until descending below 10,000 feet.
able for 10%> of the occupants, other than the pilots,
for the part of the flight at those altitudes in excess of Each pilot of an unpressurized aircraftshall use oxygen
30-minutes duration. Above 15,000 feet MSL, oxygen continuously when flying—
must be available to all occupants, other than the pilots. 1. At altitudes above 10,000 feet through 12,000 feet
(PLT438) — 14 CFR §135.157 MSL for the part of the flight at those altitudes that
is more than 30 minutes duration; and
RTC 2. Above 12,000 feet MSL.
9577. (Refer to Figures 113 and 114.) What are the (PLT438) — 14 CFR §135.89
passenger oxygen requirements, under 14 CFR Part
135, on this flight from 0O2 to LAX?
RTC
A—Starting 30 minutes after level off, 10 percent of
the aircraft occupants must be supplied oxygen 9606. (Refer to Figures 162,163,164, 165, and 167.)
until descending below 10,000 feet. What are the passenger oxygen requirements on
B—When above 10,000 through 15,000 feet, oxygen this flight, from Tucson/Ryan to Albuquerque/Double
must be supplied to at least 10 percent of the Eagle II?
aircraft occupants. A— Starting 30 minutes after climbing through 10,000
C—Starting 30 minutes after climbing through feet, 10 percent of the aircraft occupants must be
10,000 feet, 10 percent of the aircraft occupants, supplied oxygen until descending below 10,000
except the pilots, must be supplied oxygen until feet.
descending below 10,000 feet. B— Starting 30 minutes after climbing through 10,000
feet, 10 percent of the aircraft occupants, except
No person may operate an unpressurized aircraft at pilots, must be supplied oxygen until descending
altitudes prescribed in this section unless it is equipped below 10,000 feet.
with enough oxygen dispensers and oxygen to supply C-When above 10,000 feet through 15,000 feet,
the pilots under §135.89(a) and to supply when flying— oxygen must be supplied to at least 10 percent of
1. At altitudes above 10,000 feet through 15,000 MSL, the aircraft occupants, including the pilots.
oxygen to at least 10%of the occupants of the aircraft,
other than pilots, for the part of the flight at those No person may operate an unpressurized aircraft at
altitudes that is more than 30 minutes duration; and altitudes prescribed in this section unless it is equipped
with enough oxygen dispensers and oxygen to supply
2. Above 15,000 feet MSL, oxygen to each occupant the pilots under § 135.89(a) and to supply when flying—
of the aircraft other than the pilots.
1. At altitudes above 10,000 feet through 15,000 MSL,
(PLT438) — 14 CFR §135.157 oxygen to at least 10%of the occupants of the aircraft,
other than pilots, for the part of the flight at those
altitudes that is more than 30 minutes duration; and
2. Above 15,000 feet MSL, oxygen to each occupant
of the aircraft other than the pilots.
(PLT438) — 14 CFR §135.157

Answers

9819 [C] 9577 [C] 9605 [C] 9606 [B]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 1-73

Chapter 1 Regulations

RTC RTC
9637. (Refer to Figures 184,186,187,188, and 188A.) 9650. (Refer to Figures 197 and 199.) When are the
When are the pilots required to use oxygen on this 14 pilots required to use oxygen on this flight from EGE
CFR Part 135 flight from LAS to PVU? to SLC?
A— Starting 30 minutes after climbing through 10,000 A— Starting 30 minutes after level off until
feet until descending below 10,000 feet. descending below 10,000 feet.
B— Upon climbing through 12,000 feet on ascent, B— Starting 30 minutes after climbing through 10,000
until passing through 12,000 feet on descent. feet until descending below 10,000 feet.
C—Starting 30 minutes after takeoff until descending C—Upon climbing through 12,000 feet on ascent.
below 10,000 feet.
Each pilot of an unpressurized aircraft shall use oxygen
Each pilot of an unpressurized aircraft shall use oxygen continuously when flying—
continuously when flying— 1. At altitudes above 10,000 feet through 12,000 feet
1. At altitudes above 10,000 feet through 12,000 feet MSL for the part of the flight at those altitudes that
MSL for the part of the flight at those altitudes that is more than 30 minutes duration; and
is more than 30 minutes duration; and 2. Above 12,000 feet MSL.
2. Above 12,000 feet MSL. (PLT438) — 14 CFR §135.89
(PLT078) — 14 CFR §135.89

RTC
RTC 9651. (Refer to Figures 197 and 199.) What are the
9638. (Refer to Figures 184,186,187,188, and 188A.) passenger oxygen requirements on this flight from Eagle
What are the passenger oxygen requirements on this County Regional (EGE) to Salt Lake City Intl?
14 CFR Part 135 flight from Las Vegas to Provo? A—Starting 30 minutes after climbing through 10,000
A— When above 10,000 feet through 15,000 feet, feet, 10 percent of the aircraft occupants must be
oxygen must be supplied to at least 10 percent of supplied oxygen until descending below 10,000
the aircraft occupants, including the pilots. feet.
B— Starting 30 minutes after climbing through 10,000 B— Starting 30 minutes after climbing through 10,000
feet, 10 percent of the aircraft occupants until feet, 10 percent of the aircraft occupants, except
reaching cruise at 15,000 feet then all occupants pilots, must be supplied oxygen until descending
must be supplied oxygen until descending below below 10,000 feet.
15,000 feet, then 10 percent down to 10,000 feet. C-When above 10,000 feet through 15,000 feet,
C—Starting 30 minutes after climbing through 10,000 oxygen must be supplied to at least 10 percent of
feet, 10 percent of the aircraft occupants, except the aircraft occupants, including the pilots.
pilots, must be supplied oxygen until descending
below 10,000 feet. No person may operate an unpressurized aircraft at
altitudes prescribed in this section unless it is equipped
No person may operate an unpressurized aircraft at with enough oxygen dispensers and oxygen to supply
altitudes prescribed in this section unless it is equipped the pilots under § 135.89(a) and to supply when flying—
with enough oxygen dispensers and oxygen to supply 1. At altitudes above 10,000 feet through 15,000 MSL,
the pilots under § 135.89(a) and to supply when flying— oxygen to at least 10% of the occupants of the aircraft,
1. At altitudes above 10,000 feet through 15,000 MSL, other than pilots, for the part of the flight at those
oxygen to at least 10%of the occupants of the aircraft, altitudes that is more than 30 minutes duration; and
other than pilots, for the part of the flight at those 2. Above 15,000 feet MSL, oxygen to each occupant
altitudes that is more than 30 minutes duration; and
of the aircraftother than the pilots.
2. Above 15,000 feet MSL, oxygen to each occupant (PLT438) — 14 CFR §135.157
of the aircraft other than the pilots.
(PLT438) — 14 CFR §135.157

Answers

9637 [A] 9638 [C] 9650 [C] 9651 [B]

1-74 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 1 Regulations

National Transportation Safety Board (NTSB)

Aircraft accident means an occurrence associated with the operation of an aircraft that takes place
between the time any person boards the aircraft with the intention of flight, and the time all such per
sons have disembarked, and in which any person suffers death or serious injury, or in which the aircraft
receives substantial damage.
Serious injury means any injury that:
• Requires hospitalization for more than 48 hours commencing within 7 days from the date the injury
was received.

• Results in fracture of any bone (except simple fractures of fingers, toes or nose).
• Causes severe hemorrhages, nerve, muscle or tendon damage.
• Involves any internal organ.
• Involves second or third degree burns or any burns affecting more than 5% of the body surface.

Substantial damage means damage or failure that adversely affects the structural strength, perfor
mance or flight characteristics of the aircraft and that would normally require major repair or replacement
of the affected component. Damage not considered substantial for accident reporting purposes are as
follows: engine failure or damage limited to an engine ifonly one engine fails or is damaged, bent fairings
or cowling, dented skin, small punctured holes in the skin or fabric, ground damage to rotor or propeller
blades, and damage to the landing gear, wheels, tires, flaps, engine accessories, brakes or wing tips.
The operator of an aircraft must immediately notify the nearest National Transportation Safety Board
field office if any of the following occur:
• Flight control system malfunction
• An aircraft accident

• Inability of any required flight crewmember to perform his normal flight duties as the result of injury
or illness

• Failure of structural components of a turbine engine excluding compressor and turbine blades and
vanes

• Inflight fire
• Aircraft collide in flight
• Damage to property, other than the aircraft, estimate to exceed $25,000 for repair or fair market
value in the event of total loss whichever is less

• Certain incidents on large, multi-engine airplanes

• An aircraft is overdue and is believed to have been involved in an accident

The operator of an aircraft must submit a written report of an aircraft accident within 10 days of the
accident. The operator of an overdue aircraft must submit a written report within 7 days if the aircraft is
still missing. The operator of an aircraft that was involved in an incident requiring immediate notification
of the NTSB must submit a written report of the incident only if requested to do so by the NTSB.

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 1-75

Chapter 1 Regulations

ALL ALL

8317. What period of time must a person be hospital 8318. Within what time period should the nearest NTSB
ized before an injury may be defined by the NTSB as field office be notified when an aircraft is involved in an
a "serious injury"? accident which results in substantial damage?
A— 72 hours; commencing within 10 days after date A— Immediately.
of injury. B— 7 calendar days.
B—48 hours; commencing within 7 days after date of C-10 days.
the injury.
C—10 days, with no other extenuating The operator of an aircraft shall immediately, and by
circumstances. the most expeditious means available, notify the near
est NTSB field office when an aircraft accident occurs.
"Serious injury" means any injury which requires hos (PLT366) — NTSB §830.5
pitalization for more than 48 hours, commencing within
7 days from the date the injury was received. (PLT366)
— NTSB §830.2 ALL
8321. Which incident requires an immediate notifica
tion to NTSB?
ALL
A—Aircraft colliding on the ground.
8319. Which of the following constitutes "substantial B— Flight control system malfunction.
damage" according to NTSB Part 830? C— Damage to property, other than the aircraft,
A— Ground damage to landing gear, wheels, or tires. estimated to exceed $10,000.
B— Damage to wingtips (or rotor blades, in the case
of a helicopter). The NTSB lists a flight control malfunction or failure as
C— Failure of a component which would adversely an incident requiring immediate notification to the field
affect the performance, and which would require office. (PLT416) — NTSB §830.5
replacement.

"Substantial damage" is defined as damage or failure ALL

which would adversely affect the structural strength, 8322. Within how many days must the operator of an
performance, or flightcharacteristics of the aircraftwhich aircraft involved in an accident file a report to the NTSB?
would normally require major repair or replacement of A— 3 days.
the damaged component. (PLT395) — NTSB §830.2 B- 7 days.
Answer (A) is incorrect because ground damage to landing gear, C-10 days.
wheels, or tires is not considered "substantial damage" for the pur
pose of NTSB Part 830. Answer (B) is incorrect because damage to
wing tips (or rotorblades, in the case of a helicopter) is not consid
The NTSB requires a report to be filed within 10 days
ered "substantial damage" for the purpose of NTSB Part 830. of the accident. (PLT366) — NTSB §830.15

ALL ALL

8320. Which of the following meets the requirements 8323. When is an operator of an aircraft, which has
of a "serious injury" as defined by the NTSB? been involved in an incident, required to submit a report
to the nearest field office of the NTSB?
A— A simple fracture of the nose or other extremity.
B—An injury which caused severe tendon damage. A— Within 7 days.
C— First-degree burns over 5 percent of the body. B—Within 10 days.
C—Only if requested to do so by the NTSB.
"Serious injury" includes severe tendon damage and
second or third degree burns covering more than five An aircraft involved in an incident is required to file a
percent of the body. (PLT395) — NTSB §830.2 report only on request from the NTSB. (PLT366) —
Answer (A) is incorrect because simple fractures, such as of the
NTSB §830.15
finger, toe, or nose, are not considered a serious injury. Answer
(C) is incorrect because only second and thirddegree burns or first
degree burns over more than 5% of the body are defined as a seri
ous injury. (Firstdegree burns are less serious than second and third
degree burns.)

Answers

8317 [B] 8319 [C] 8320 [B] 8318 [A] 8321 [B] 8322 [C]
8323 [C]

1-76 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 1 Regulations

ALL The primarypurpose of the Near Midair Collision (NMAC)

9836. Pilots and/or flightcrew members involved in near Reporting Program is to provide information for use in
midair collision (NMAC)occurrences are urged to report enhancing the safety and efficiency of the National Air
each incident immediately space System. Pilots and/or flightcrewmembers involved
A— by cell phone to the nearest Flight Standards in NMACoccurrences are urged to report each incident
District Office, as this is an emergency. immediately by radio or telephone to the nearest FAA
B— to local law enforcement. ATC facility or FSS. (PLT526) — AIM JJ7-6-3
C—by radio or telephone to the nearest FAAATC
facility or FSS.

Part 135 Regulations

ATS ATS
8053. What aircraft operating under 14 CFR Part 135 8069. In which airplanes is a Class A TAWS required?
are required to have a third gyroscopic bank-and-pitch A— All airplanes having a passenger seating
indicator installed?
configuration, excluding any pilot seat, of 10
A—All airplanes that are turbojet powered. seats or more.
B— All multiengine airplanes that require a two pilot B—Turbine-powered airplanes having a passenger
flightcrew. seating configuration, excluding any pilot seat, of
C—All turbine powered aircraft having a passenger 10 seats or more.
seating capacity of 30 seats or more. C—Turbine-powered aircraft having a passenger
seating configuration, including any pilot seat, of
A thirdgyroscopic pitch-and-bank indicator is required 10 seats or more.
on all turbojet-powered airplanes. (PLT405) — 14 CFR
§135.149 No person may operate a turbine-powered airplane
having a passenger seating configuration, excluding
any pilot seat, of 10 seats or more unless it is equipped
ATS with a terrain awareness system (TAWS). (PLT139) —
8054. In airplanes where a third gyroscopic bank-and- 14 CFR §135.153
pitch indicator is required, that instrument must
A— continue reliable operation for at least 30 minutes
ATS
after the output of the airplane's electrical
generating system falls below an optimum level. 8075. Which airplanes must have a shoulder harness
B— be operable by a selector switch which may be installed at each flight crewmember station?
actuated from either pilot station. A— All airplanes used in commuter air service, having
C—continue reliable operation for a minimum of a passenger seating configuration of 9, excluding
30 minutes after total failure of the electrical any pilot seat.
generating system. B—All airplanes operating under 14 CFR Part 135,
having a seating configuration for 10 persons.
A third gyroscopic pitch-and-bank indicator is required C—All turbojet-powered airplanes.
on all turbojet-powered airplanes. This indicator must be
able to continue reliable operation forat least 30 minutes No person may operate a turbojetaircraft or an aircraft
after the failure of the aircraft's electrical generating having a passenger seating configuration, excluding any
system. (PLT405) — 14 CFR §135.149 pilot seat, of 10 seats or more unless it is equipped with
an approved shoulder harness installed for each flight
crewmember station. (PLT464) — 14 CFR §135.171

Answers

9836 [C] 8053 [A] 8054 [C] 8069 [B] 8075 [C]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 1-77

Chapter 1 Regulations

ATS ATS
8165. What emergency equipment is required for 8089. If the weather forecasts require the listing of an
extended overwater operations? alternate airport on an IFR flight, the airplane must carry
A— A portable survival emergency locator transmitter enough fuel to fly to the first airport of intended landing,
for each liferaft.
then to the alternate, and fly thereafter for a minimum of
B— A pyrotechnic signaling device for each life A— 45 minutes at normal holding speed.
preserver. B— 45 minutes at normal cruise speed and then
C—A life preserver equipped with a survivor locator complete an approach and landing.
light, for each person on the airplane. C—45 minutes at normal cruise speed.

No person may operate an aircraft in extended overwater No person may operate an aircraft in IFR conditions
operations unless it carries an approved life preserver unless it carries enough fuel (considering weather
(easily accessible to each seated occupant) equipped reports and forecasts) to:
withan approved survivorlocator lightforeach occupant 1. Complete the flight to the first airport of intended
of the aircraft, and enough approved life rafts of a rated landing;
capacity and buoyancy to accommodate the occupants
of the aircraft. An approved survival-type emergency 2. Fly from that airport to the alternate airport (if one
locator transmitter must be attached to one of the life is required); and
rafts. (PLT404) — 14 CFR §135.167 3. Fly after that for45 minutes at normal cruising speed.
Answer (A) is incorrect because only one survival emergency loca (PLT413) — 14 CFR §135.223
tor transmitter is required to be carried on the airplane. Answer (B)
is incorrect because one pyrotechnic signaling device is required for
each life raft.
ATS
8115. When computing the takeoff data for reciprocat
ATS ing powered airplanes, what is the percentage of the
8088. Ifthe weather forecasts do not require the listing reported headwind component that may be applied to
of an alternate airport on an IFR flight, the airplane must the "still air" data?
carry sufficient fuel to fly to the destination airport and A— Not more than 150 percent.
A— make one missed approach and thereafter have B— Not more than 100 percent.
a 45-minute reserve at normal cruising speed. C—Not more than 50 percent.
B— fly thereafter for 45 minutes at normal cruising
speed. When computing takeoff data not more than 50% of
C—fly for 45 minutes thereafter at normal cruise the reported headwind component may be taken into
climb speed. account. (PLT011) — 14 CFR §135.389

No person may operate an aircraft in IFR conditions

unless it carries enough fuel (considering weather ATS

reports and forecasts) to: 8116. When computing takeoff data, what is the per
centage of the effective tailwind component which may
1. Complete the flight to the first airport of intended be applied to the "still air" data?
landing;
A— Not less than 150 percent.
2. Fly from that airport to the alternate airport (if one B— Not less than 100 percent.
is required); and C— Not more than 50 percent.
3. Flyafter that for45 minutes at normalcruisingspeed.
(PLT413) — 14 CFR §135.223 When computing takeoff data not less than 150% of the
reported tailwindcomponent may be taken into account.
(PLT011) — 14 CFR §135.389

Answers

8165 [C] 8088 [B] 8089 [C] 8115 [C] 8116 [A]

1-78 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 1 Regulations

ATS ATS
8050. Which performance requirement applies to 8792. The crewmember interphone system on a large
passenger-carrying land airplanes being operated over turbojet-powered airplane provides a means of two-way
water? communications between ground personnel and at least
A— Multiengine airplanes must be able to climb, with one of two flight crewmembers in the pilot compartment,
the critical engine inoperative, at least 50 ft/min at when the aircraft is on the ground. The interphone sta
1,500 feet above the surface. tion for use by ground personnel must be located so
B—Single-engine airplanes must be operated at an that those using the system from that station
altitude that will allow them to reach land in case A— are always visible, from within the airplane.
of engine failure. B— are able to avoid the intake areas of the engines.
C—Multiengine airplanes must be able to climb, with C— may avoid visible detection from within the
the critical engine inoperative, at least 100 ft/min airplane.
at 1,000 feet above the surface.
The interphone system station foruse by ground person
No person may operate a land aircraft carrying pas nel must be so located that personnel using the system
sengers over water unless it is operated at an altitude may avoid visible detection from within the airplane.
that allows it to reach land in the case of engine failure. (PLT462) — 14 CFR §135.150
(PLT437) — 14 CFR §135.183

ATS
ATS 8831. For which of these aircraft may part of the "clear
8051. What performance is required of a multiengine way" distance, for a particular runway, be considered in
airplane with the critical engine inoperative, while car computing the takeoff distance?
rying passengers for hire in IFR weather conditions? A Passenger-carrying transport aircraft.
A—Climb at least 100 ft/min at the highest MEA B Turbine-engine-powered transport airplanes,
of the route to be flown or 5,000 feet MSL, certificated after September 30,1958.
whichever is higher. C— U.S. certified transport airplane, certificated
B— Climb at least 50 ft/min at the MEA's of the route before August 26,1957.
to be flown or 5,000 feet AGL, whichever is
higher. "Clearway" may be used in computing the takeoff dis
C—Climb at least 50 ft/min at the MEA's of the route tance of turbine-engine-powered airplanes certificated
to be flown or 5,000 feet MSL, whichever is after September 30, 1958. (PLT456) — 14 CFR §1.1
higher.

No person may operate a multi-engine airplane carry ATS

ing passengers Over-The-Top or in IFR conditions at a 8832. What requirement must be met regarding cargo
weight that willnot allow itto climb, withthe criticalengine that is carried anywhere in the passenger compartment
inoperative, at least 50 feet a minute when operating at of a commuter air carrier airplane?
the MEAs of the route to be flown or 5,000 feet MSL, A— Cargo may not be carried anywhere in the rear of
whichever is higher. (PLT223) — 14 CFR §135.181 the passenger compartment.
B— The bin in which the cargo is carried may not
be installed in a position that restricts access
to, or use of the aisle between the crew and the
passenger compartment.
C—The container or bin in which the cargo is carried
must be made of material which is at least flash
resistant.

AVo person may carry cargo, including carry-on baggage

in an aircraft unless it is in an approved cargo rack, bin,
or compartment, and it does not obstruct access to,
or use of, the aisle between the passenger and crew
compartment. (PLT385) — 14 CFR §135.87

Answers

8050 [B] 8051 [C] 8792 [C] 8831 [B] 8832 [B]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 1-79

Chapter 1 Regulations

ATS ATS, RTC

8833. Information recorded during normal operation 8005. Where is the certificate holder required to list the
of a cockpit voice recorder in a multiengine turbine name and title of each person authorized to exercise
powered airplane operational control for a particular flight?
A— may all be erased or otherwise obliterated except A— Operations Specifications.
for the last 30 minutes. B— Attached to the load manifest.
B— may all be erased or otherwise obliterated except C—Certificate holder's manual.
for the last 30 minutes prior to landing.
C—may all be erased, prior to each flight, unless the Each certificate holder is responsible for operational
NTSB has requested that it be kept for 60 days. control and shall list in the manual the name and title of
each person authorized to exercise operational control.
Information recorded more than 30 minutes earlier may (PLT282) — 14 CFR §135.77
be erased or obliterated. (PLT388) — 14 CFR §135.151

ATS, RTC
ATS 8010. An aircraft being operated outside of the United
8842. An airplane, operated by a commuter air carrier, States, over a foreign country, by a 14 CFR part 135
flying in extended overwater operations must carry operator must comply with
enough approved liferafts of a rated capacity and buoy A—the International Civil Aviation Organization
ancy to accommodate the occupants of the aircraft. Each (ICAO), Annex 3, Rules of the Air.
liferaft must be equipped with B— regulations of the foreign country.
A— one approved pyrotechnic signaling device. C—rules of the U.S. State Department and the
B— colored smoke flares and a signal mirror. foreign country.
C—one fishing kit for each person the raft is rated to
carry. Each person operating an aircraft under Part 135 while
operating outside the United States, shall comply with
Every aircraft flown in extended overwater operations Annex 2, Rules of the Air, to the Convention of Inter
must carry enough appropriately equipped life rafts to national CivilAviation or the regulations of any foreign
accommodate the occupants of the aircraft. Each raft country, whichever applies. (PLT392) — 14 CFR §135.3
must have an approved pyrotechnic signaling device
(either smoke or flare type flare). (PLT082) — 14 CFR
§135.167 ATS, RTC

Answer (B) is incorrect because the survival kit is not required to 8011. Who is responsible for keeping copies of the
have colored smoke flares. Answer (C) is incorrect because the certificate holder's manual up to date with approved
survival kit is only required to have one fishing kit per liferaft, not changes or additions?
one per person.
A— Each of the certificate holder's employees who
are furnished a manual.
ATS, RTC B— An employee designated by the certificate holder.
8001. A certificate holder must have "exclusive use" of C—A representative of the certificate holder approved
by the Administrator.
A— at least one aircraft that meets the requirements
of each kind of operation authorized in the
Each employee of the certificate holder to whom a
Operations Specifications. manual (or appropriate portions of it) is furnished shall
B— at least one aircraft that meets the requirements keep it up to date withchanges and additions furnished
of at least one kind of operation authorized in the
to them. (PLT282) — 14 CFR §135.21
certificate holder's Operations Specifications.
C—at least one aircraft that meets the requirements
of the specific operations authorized in the
certificate holder's Operations Specifications.

Each certificate holder must have the exclusive use of at

least one aircraft that meets the requirements forat least
one kind of operation authorized in the certificate holder's
operations specifications. (PLT454) — 14 CFR §135.25

Answers

8833 [A] 8842 [A] 8001 [B] 8005 [C] 8010 [B] 8011 [A]

1 -80 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 1 Regulations

ATS, RTC No person may carry a deadly weapon on a Part 135

9807. No person may operate a U.S. registered civil flight except for:
aircraft
1. Officials or employees of a municipality or a state
A— for which an AFM or RFM is required by part 21 or of the United States, who are authorized to carry
section 21.5 unless there is a current, approved arms; or
operator's manual available.
2. Crewmembers and other persons authorized by the
B— for which an AFM or RFM is required by part 21
certificate holder to carry arms.
section 21.5 unless there is a current, approved
AFM or RFM available. (PLT440) — 14 CFR §135.119
C—for which an AFM or RFM is required by part 21
section 21.5 unless there is a current, approved
ATS, RTC
AFM or RFM available or the manual specified in
part 135 section 135.19(b). 8038. Which person may be carried aboard an aircraft
without complying with the passenger-carrying require
Per 14 CFR §21.5, with each airplane or rotorcraft not ments of 14 CFR Part 135?
type certificated with an Airplane or Rotorcraft Flight A— An individual who is necessary for the safe
Manualand having no flighttime before March 1, 1979, handling of hazardous material on the aircraft.
the holder of a type certificate (including amended or B— A representative of the Administrator, traveling to
supplemental type certificates) or the licensee ofa type attend a meeting.
certificate must make available to the owner at the time C—A member of the United States diplomatic corps
of delivery of the aircraft a current approved Airplane on an official courier mission.
or Rotorcraft Flight Manual. (PLT373) — 14 CFR §21.5
The following persons may be carried on an aircraft
without complying with the passenger-carrying rules
ATS, RTC ofPart 135:
8013. What is the lowest altitude above the terrain that
1. A crewmember or other employee of the certificate
an autopilot may be used during en route operations, if
holder;
the Airplane Flight Manual specifies a malfunction under
cruise conditions?
2. A person necessary forthe safe handling of animals
on the aircraft;
A-1,000 feet.
3. A person necessary for the safe handling ofhazard
B- 500 feet.
ous materials;
C-100 feet.
4. A person performing duty as a security or honor
Except forapproaches, no person may use an autopilot guard accompanying a shipment made by or under
at an altitude above the terrain which is less than 500 the authority of the U.S. Government;
feet or less than twice the maximum altitude loss speci 5. A military courierora military routesupervisor carried
fied in the approved Aircraft Flight Manual or equivalent by a military cargo contract air carrieror commercial
for a malfunction of the autopilot, whichever is higher. operator;
(PLT424) — 14 CFR §135.93
6. An authorized representative of the Administrator
conducting an enroute inspection; or
ATS, RTC 7. A person, authorized by the Administrator, who is
8033. Who may be allowed to carry a deadly weapon performing a duty connected witha cargo operation
on board an aircraft operated under 14 CFR Part 135? of the certificate holder.

A—Official bodyguards attached to foreign legations. (PLT385) — 14 CFR §135.85

B— Crewmembers and/or others authorized by the
certificate holder.
C— Employees of a municipality or a state, or of the
United States.

Answers

9807 [B] 8013 [B] 8033 [B] 8038 [A]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 1 -81

Chapter 1 Regulations

ATS, RTC ATS, RTC

8004. If previous arrangements have not been made 8019. Procedures for keeping copies of the aircraft
by the operator, where can the procedures for servicing maintenance log in the aircraft and available to appro
the aircraft be found? priate personnel shall be set forth in
A— Certificate holder's maintenance manual. A—the certificate holder's manual.
B— Certificate holder's manual. B—the maintenance procedures handbook.
C-Pilot's Handbook. C—the Operations Specifications.

The certificate holder's manual must contain procedures Each certificate holder shall establish a procedure for
to be followed by the pilot-in-command to obtain mainte keeping copies of the aircraft maintenance log in the
nance, preventative maintenance, and servicing of the aircraft for access by appropriate personnel and shall
aircraft at a place whereprevious arrangements have not include that procedure in the manual. (PLT282) — 14
been made by the operator, when the pilot is authorized CFR §135.65
to so act for the operator. (PLT282) — 14 CFR §135.23

ATS, RTC
ATS, RTC 8093. If a certificate holder makes arrangements for
8006. Who is directly responsible for determining the another person to perform aircraft maintenance, that
status of each mechanical irregularity previously entered maintenance shall be performed in accordance with the
in the aircraft maintenance log? A— certificate holder's manual and 14 CFR Parts 43,
A— Aircraft dispatcher. 91, and 135.
B— Line maintenance supervisor. B— provisions of a contract prepared by a certificate
C—The next pilot in command. holder and approved by the supervising FAA
district office.
Before each flight, the pilot-in-command shall determine, C—provisions and standards as outlined in the
if the pilot does not already know, the status of each certificate holder's manual.
irregularity entered in the maintenance log at the end
of the preceding flight. (PLT374) — 14 CFR §135.65 The certificateholdershall ensure thatany maintenance,
preventativemaintenance, oralteration thatis performed
by another person is performed under the certificate
ATS, RTC holder's manual and regulations. (PLT282) — 14 CFR
8012. What document contains procedures that explain §135.413
how the required return-to-service conditions have
been met?
A— Maintenance manual. ATS, RTC

B— Pilot's Handbook. 8112. Who is responsible for submitting a Mechanical

C—Certificate holder's manual. Reliability Report?
A— Each certificate holder.
The certificate holder's manual must include procedures B— Director of maintenance at the facility that
for ensuring that the pilot-in-command knows that discovers the reportable condition.
required airworthiness inspections have been made C—Chief inspector at the facility where the condition
and that the aircraft has been returned to service in is found.
compliance withapplicable maintenance requirements.
(PLT375) — 14 CFR §135.23 The certificate holder is responsible for submitting
required mechanical reliability reports. (PLT443) — 14
CFR §135.415

Answers

8004 [B] 8006 [C] 8012 [C] 8019 [A] 8093 [A] 8112 [A]

1 -82 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

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ATS, RTC ATS, RTC

8014. The maximum altitude loss specified for malfunc 8017. The maximum altitude loss for a malfunctioning
tion of a certain autopilot under cruise conditions is 50 autopilot without an approach coupler is 45 feet. If the
feet. What is the lowest altitude this autopilot may be MDA is 1,620 feet MSL and the TDZE is 1,294 feet, to
used en route? which minimum altitude may you use the autopilot?
A-500 feet AGL A-1,510 feet MSL.
B-550 feet AG L B-1,339 feet MSL.
C-600 feet AG L C-1,570 feet MSL.

Except forapproaches, no person may use an autopilot When using an instrument approach facility other than
at an altitude above the terrain which is less than 500 ILS, no person may use an autopilot at an altitude above
feet or less than twice the maximum altitude loss speci the terrain that is less than 50 feet below the approved
fied in the approved AircraftFlight Manual or equivalent minimum descent altitude for that procedure, or less
for a malfunction of the autopilot, whichever is higher. than twice the maximum loss specified in the approved
(PLT424) — 14 CFR §135.93 Airplane Flight Manual or equivalent formalfunction of
the autopilot under approach conditions, whichever is
higher. (PLT424) — 14 CFR §135.93
ATS, RTC
8015. The maximum altitude loss for a particular mal
functioning autopilot under approach conditions is 55 ATS, RTC
feet. If the TDZE is 571 feet and the MDA is 1,100 feet, 8037. The altitude loss for a particular malfunctioning
to which minimum altitude may you use this autopilot? autopilot with an approach coupler is 60 feet. If the
A- 626 feet MSL.
reported weather is below basic VFR minimums and
B-990 feet MSL.
an ILS approach using the approach coupler is to be
C-1,050 feet MSL.
used, what minimum altitude may be used?
A-50feetAGL
When using an instrument approach facility other than B-55 feet AG L
ILS, no person may use an autopilot at an altitude above C-60 feet AG L
the terrain that is less than 50 feet below the approved
minimum descent altitude for that procedure, or less For ILSapproaches, when reported weather is less than
than twice the maximum loss specified in the approved VFR, no person may use an autopilot with an approach
Airplane Flight Manual or equivalent for malfunction of coupler at an altitude that is less than 50 feet above the
the autopilot under approach conditions, whichever is terrain, or the maximum altitude loss specified in the
higher. (PLT424) — 14 CFR §135.93 approved Airplane Flight Manual or equivalent, for the
malfunction of the autopilot with an approach coupler,
whichever is higher. (PLT424) — 14 CFR §135.93
ATS, RTC
8016. The maximum altitude loss for a malfunctioning
autopilot with an approach coupler is 40 feet. To which ATS, RTC
minimum altitude may the autopilot be used during an 8045. During which time period must a required voice
ILS approach in less than basic VFR conditions? recorder of a passenger-carrying airplane be continu
A-40 feet AGL
ously operated?
B-50 feet AGL A— From the beginning of taxi to the end of the
C- 80 feet AG L landing roll.
B— From engine start at departure airport to engine
ForILSapproaches, when reported weather is less than shutdown at landing airport.
VFR, no person may use an autopilot with an approach C— From the use of the checklist before the flight to
coupler at an altitude thatis less than 50 feet above the completion of the final check at the end of the
terrain, or the maximum altitude loss specified in the flight.
approvedAirplane Flight Manualor equivalent, for the
malfunction of the autopilot with an approach coupler,
whichever is higher. (PLT424) — 14 CFR §135.93 Continued

Answers

8014 [A] 8015 [C] 8016 [B] 8017 [C] 8037 [C] 8045 [C]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 1 -83

Chapter 1 Regulations

No person may operate a multi-engine, turbine-powered In complying with this section, information recorded more
airplane or rotorcraft having a passenger seating con than 30 minutes earlier may be erased or otherwise
figuration of 20 or more seats unless it is equipped with obliterated. (PLT388) — 14 CFR §135.151
an approved cockpit voice recorder that:
1. Is installed in compliance with Part 23, 25, 27 or 29
ATS, RTC
as applicable to Part 135; and
8048. Which aircraft must be equipped with an approved
2. Is operated continuously from the use of the checklist public address and crewmember interphone system?
before the flight to completion of the final check at
A—All turbine-engine-powered aircraft having a
the end of the flight.
seating configuration of more than 19 seats.
(PLT405) — 14 CFR §135.151 B—Aircraft having a passenger seating configuration,
excluding any pilot seat, of more than 19 seats.
C—Multiengine aircraft having a passenger seating
ATS, RTC
configuration of 10 seats or more.
8046. An approved cockpit voice recorder is required
equipment in No person may operate an aircrafthaving a passenger
A—large turbine-powered airplanes having a seating configuration, excluding any pilot seat, of more
maximum passenger capacity of 20 or more seats. than 19 unless an approved public address and crew
B— multiengine, turbine-powered airplanes having interphone system is installed. (PLT462) — 14 CFR
a passenger seating configuration of 20 or more §135.150
seats.
C—all aircraft operated in commuter air carrier
ATS, RTC
service having a passenger seating configuration
of 20 seats or more. 8052. To operate an aircraft with certain equipment
inoperative under the provisions of a minimum equip
No person may operate a multi-engine, turbine-powered ment list, what document authorizing it must be issued
airplane or rotorcraft having a passenger seating con to the certificate holder?
figuration of 20 or more seats unless it is equipped with A— Letter of Authorization from the Regional
an approved cockpit voice recorder. (PLT405) — 14 Airworthiness Office authorizing such an
CFR §135.151 operation.
B—Operations specifications issued by the FAA
district office having certification responsibility.
ATS, RTC
C— Letter of Authorization issued by the FAA district
8047. Information recorded during normal operations office having certification responsibility.
by a required cockpit voice recorder
A—must be erased or obliterated, except for the last No person may takeoff with inoperable instruments or
30 minutes. equipment installed unless the followingconditions are
B— may be erased or obliterated, only once each met:
flight. 1. An approved Minimum Equipment List exists for that
C— may be erased or obliterated, except the last 30 aircraft.
minutes.
2. The certificate-holding district office has issued the
No person may operate a multi-engine, turbine-powered certificate holderoperations specifications authorizing
airplane or rotorcraft having a passenger seating con operations inaccordance with an approvedMinimum
figuration of 20 or more seats unless itis equipped with Equipment List. The flight crew shall have direct
an approved cockpit voice recorder that: access at all times priorto flightto all of the informa
tion contained in the approved Minimum Equipment
1. Is installed in compliance with Part 23, 25, 27 or 29 Listthrough printedor othermeans approved by the
as applicable to Part 135; and
Administrator in the certificate holders operations
2. Is operated continuously from the use of the checklist specifications. An approved Minimum Equipment
before the flight to completion of the final check at List, as authorized by the operations specifications,
the end of the flight. constitutes an approved change to the type design
without requiring recertification
(PLT428) — 14 CFR §135.179

Answers

8046 [B] 8047 [C] 8048 [B] 8052 [B]

1-84 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 1 Regulations

ATS, RTC ATS, RTC

8058. When a crash ax is required equipment on an 8061. Airborne weather radar equipment must be
aircraft, where should it be located? installed in large transport category aircraft, in the con
A— In the flight crew compartment. terminous 48 United States,
B— At a location inaccessible to the passengers A— that are engaged in passenger-carrying operations.
during normal operations. B— that are engaged in either cargo or passenger-
C—At a location accessible to both the crew and carrying operations.
passengers during normal operations. C—and be fully operational, although weather
forecasts indicate no hazardous conditions.
No person may operate an aircraft having a passenger
seating configuration, excluding any pilot seat, of more No person may operate a large, transport category air
than 19 seats unless it is equipped with a crash ax car craft in passenger-carrying operations unless approved
ried that is accessible to the crew but inaccessible to airborne weather radar equipment is installed in the
passengers during normal operations. (PLT404) — 14 aircraft. (PLT367) — 14 CFR §135.175
CFR §135.177

ATS, RTC
ATS, RTC 8062. In which aircraft, or under what conditions, is
8059. How many, if any, approved first aid kits are airborne thunderstorm detection equipment required?
required on an aircraft having a passenger seating A— Large multiengine turbine-powered aircraft having
configuration of 20 seats and a passenger load of 14? a passenger seating configuration of 19 seats or
A— None. more being operated by a commuter air carrier.
B-One. B— Any aircraft having a passenger seating
C—Two. configuration of 19 seats or more that is engaged
in passenger-carrying operations under IFR or at
No person may operate an aircrafthaving a passenger night.
seating configuration, excluding any pilot seat, of more C—Small aircraft having a passenger seating
than 19 seats unless it is equipped with one approved configuration of 10 seats or more, excluding any
first aid kit for the treatment of injuries likely to occur pilot seat, that are engaged in passenger-carrying
in flight or in a minor accident. (PLT404) — 14 CFR operations.
§135.177
No person may operate an aircraft thathas a passenger
seating configuration, excluding any pilot seat, of 10
ATS, RTC seats or more in passenger-carrying operations unless
8060. An aircraft has a passenger seating configuration the aircraft is equipped with either approved thunder
of 19 seats, excluding any pilot seats. How many, ifany, storm detection equipment or approved airborne weather
approved first aid kits are required? radar equipment. (PLT367) — 14 CFR §135.173
A-One.
B— Two.
C—None.

No person may operate an aircrafthaving a passenger

seating configuration, excludingany pilotseat, of more
than 19 seats unless it is equipped with one approved
first aid kit for the treatment of injuries likely to occur
in flight or in a minor accident. (PLT404) — 14 CFR
§135.177

Answers

8058 [B] 8059 [B] 8060 [C] 8061 [A] 8062 [C]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 1 -85

Chapter 1 Regulations

ATS, RTC ATS, RTC

8070. When a ground proximity warning system is 8078. Which is a requirement for life preservers during
required under 14 CFR Part 135, it must extended overwater operations? Each life preserver
A— convey warnings of any deviation below glide slope must be equipped with
and of excessive closure rate with the terrain. A— a dye marker.
B— convey warnings for excessive closure rates with B— an approved survivor locator light.
the terrain but not for deviation from an ILS glide C—one flashlight having at least two size "D" cells or
slope. equivalent.
C—alert the pilot by an audible and visual warning
signals when deviation above or below glide No person may operate an aircraft in extended over-water
slope occurs. operations unless it carries an approved life preserver
equipped with an approved survivorlocatorlightforeach
An approved ground proximity warning system must occupant of the aircraft. (PLT437) — 14 CFR § 135.167
convey warnings of excessive closure rates with the
terrain and any deviations below glide slope by visual
and audible means. (PLT139) — 14 CFR §135.153 ATS, RTC
8079. In addition to fully-equipped liferafts and life pre
servers, what emergency equipment must be provided
ATS, RTC during extended overwater operations?
8071. When a ground proximity warning system is A—One water resistant, self-buoyant, portable
required, it must
survival-type emergency radio transmitter for
A— apply corrective control pressure when deviation each liferaft.
below glide slope occurs. B— Each aircraft must have at least one liferaft,
B— incorporate a means of alerting the pilot when a equipped with a survival-type emergency locator
system malfunction occurs. transmitter.
C—incorporate a backup feature that activates C—One pyrotechnic signaling device for each aircraft.
automatically upon total failure of the aircraft's
electrical generating system. No person may operate an aircraft in extended over-
water operations unless there is attached to one of the
An approved ground proximity warning system must required life rafts, a survival-type emergency locator
convey warnings of excessive closure rates with the transmitter. (PLT437) — 14 CFR §135.167
terrain and any deviations below glide slope by visual
and audible means. Itmust also incorporate a means of
alerting the pilot when a malfunction occurs. (PLT139) ATS, RTC
— 14 CFR §135.153 8057. A pilot may make an IFR departure from an airport
that does not have an approved standard instrument
approach procedure if
ATS, RTC
A— there is a departure alternate within 60 minutes and
8077. Which group of aircraft must have a shoulder
the weather there is above landing minimums.
harness installed at each flight crewmember station? B—the Administrator has issued Operations
A— Aircraft having a passenger seating configuration, Specifications to the certificate holder approving
excluding any pilot seat, of 10 seats or more. the procedure.
B—All passenger-carrying aircraft operating under 14 C—the departure airport is within 30 minutes flying
CFR Part 135, having a seating configuration for time of another airport that has an approved
10 persons. standard instrument approach procedure.
C— Large aircraft being operated in commuter air
service, having a passenger seating configuration The Administrator may issue operations specifications
of 9, excluding any pilot seat. to the certificateholderto allowitto departat an airport
that does not have an approved standard instrument
No person may operate a turbojetaircraft or an aircraft approach procedure when the Administratordetermines
having a passenger seatingconfiguration, excluding any thatit is necessary to make an IFRdeparture from that
pilotseat, of 10 seats or more unless itis equipped with airportand that the proposed operations can be con
an approved shoulder harness installed for each flight ducted safely. (PLT459) — 14 CFR §135.215
crewmember station. (PLT464) — 14 CFR §135.171

Answers

8070 [A] 8071 [B] 8077 [A] 8078 [B] 8079 [B] 8057 [B]

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ATS, RTC No person may takeoff an aircraft under IFR from an

8063. Assuming the required ceiling exists, an alternate airportwhere weather conditions are at or above takeoff
for the destination airport is not required under 14 CFR minimums, but are below landing minimums, unless
135 if, for at least 1 hour before and after the ETA, the there is an alternate airport within one hour's flying
forecast visibility is at least time (at normal cruising speed in still air) of the airport
A— 5 miles, or 3 miles more than the lowest applicable of departure. (PLT459) — 14 CFR §135.217
visibility minimums for the instrument approach
procedure to be used, whichever is greater.
ATS, RTC
B— 3 miles, or 2 miles more than the lowest
8066. A pilot may not begin an IFR operation unless
applicable visibility minimums for the instrument
the next airport of intended landing is forecast to be at
approach procedure to be used, whichever is
or above authorized IFR landing minimums at
greater.
C—3 nautical miles, or 2 nautical miles more than A— the estimated time of arrival, ±1 hour.
the lowest applicable visibility minimums for the B—the estimated time of arrival.
approach procedure to be used, which ever is C—the estimated time of arrival, ±30 minutes.
greater.
No person may takeoffan aircraft under IFRor begin an
An alternate airportneed not be designated if the ceiling IFR or over-the-top operation unless the latest weather
criteriais met and the visibility is forecast to be at least 3 reports or forecasts, or any combination of them, indi
miles or 2 miles more than the lowest applicable visibility cate that weather conditions at the estimated time of
minimums, whichever is the greater, for the instrument arrival at the next airport of intended landing willbe at
approachprocedure to be used at the destinationairport. or above authorized IFR landing minimums. (PLT459)
(PLT379) — 14 CFR §135.223 — 14 CFR §135.219

ATS, RTC ATS, RTC

8064. A pilot may not designate an airport as an alter 8068. Which condition must be met to conduct IFR
nate unless the weather reports, or forecasts, or any operations from an airport that is not at the location
combination of them indicate that it will be at or above where weather observations are made?
alternate airport landing minimum at the A—An "Authorization Letter" permitting the procedure
A—time of departure. must be issued by the FAA district office charged
B— estimated time of arrival, plus or minus 1 hour. with the overall inspection of the certificate holder.
C—estimated time of arrival. B—A "Letter of Waiver" authorizing the procedure
must be issued by the Administrator, after an
No person may designate an alternate airport unless investigation by the U.S. National Weather
the weather reports or forecasts, or any combination of Service and the FSDO which find the standard of
them, indicate that the weather conditions will be at or safety to be satisfactory.
above authorized alternate airport landing minimums C—The Administrator must issue Operations
for that airport at the estimated time of arrival. (E04) — Specifications that permit the procedure.
14 CFR §135.221
The Administrator may issue operations specifications
to the certificate holder to allow it to depart at an airport
ATS, RTC that does not have an approved standard instrument
8065. A takeoff may not be made from an airport that approachprocedure when the Administrator determines
is below the authorized IFR landing minimums unless that it is necessary to make an IFR departure from that
A—there is an alternate airport with the required IFR airport and that the proposed operations can be con
landing minimums within 60 minutes flying time, ducted safely. (PLT282) — 14 CFR §135.215
at normal cruising speed in still air.
B— the departure airport is forecast to have the
required IFR landing minimums within 1 hour.
C—there is an alternate airport with the required
IFR landing minimums within 60 minutes flying
time, at normal cruising speed in still air with one
engine inoperative.

Answers

8063 [B] 8064 [C] 8065 [A] 8066 [B] 8068 [C]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 1 -87

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ATS, RTC ATS, RTC

8084. Which is an operational requirement concerning 8086. After passing the final approach fix on a VOR
ice, snow, or frost on structural surfaces? approach, a weather report is received indicating the
A— A takeoff may be made with ice, snow, or frost visibility is below prescribed minimums. In this situa
adhering to the wings or stabilizing or control tion, the pilot
surfaces, but polished smooth, ifthe anti-icing A— may continue the approach and land, if at the
and deicing equipment is operating. MDA, the actual weather conditions are at
B— If snow, ice, or frost is adhering to the airplane's least equal to the minimums prescribed for the
lift or control surfaces, but polished smooth, a procedure.
takeoff may be made. B— may continue the approach and land regardless
C—A takeoff may not be made if ice or snow is of the visibility observed at the MDA, if prior
adhering to the wings or stabilizing or control to beginning the approach, the visibility was
surfaces. reported at or above minimums.
C—should leveloff and continue to fly the approach to
No pilot may takeoff in an aircraft that has snow or ice the MAP, and execute the missed approach.
adhering to the wings, stabilizing, or control surfaces.
(PLT493) — 14 CFR §135.227 // a pilot has begun the final approach segment of a
VOR, NDB or comparable approach procedure and has
passed the final approach fix when he/she receives a
ATS, RTC
weather report indicating below minimumconditions, he/
8085. Which is one required condition for a pilot to take she may continue the approachand, ifupon reaching the
off under IFR with less-than-standard takeoff minimums MDA finds the weather at least equal to the prescribed
at an airport where a straight-in instrument approach minimums, may land. (PLT379) — 14 CFR §135.225
procedure is authorized and there is an approved
weather reporting source?
A—The pilot must have at least 100 hours as pilot in ATS, RTC

command in the type airplane to be flown. 8087. An alternate for a destination airport (circling not
B—The certificate holder has been approved for such authorized) is not required if, for at least 1 hour before
operation and the visibility at the time of takeoff and after the ETA, the required visibility exists, and the
must be at least RVR 16. forecast ceiling is at least
C—Wind direction and velocity must be such that a A—1,500 feet above the lowest published minimum,
straight-in approach can be made to the runway or 2,000 feet above the airport elevation,
served by the procedure. whichever is higher.
B— 1,500 feet above the lowest MDA or 2,000 feet
At airports where straight-in instrument approach pro above the runway touchdown zone elevation,
cedures are authorized, a pilot may takeoff in an aircraft whichever is higher.
under IFR when the weather conditions are equal to or C— 1,000 feet above the lowest published minimum,
better than the lowest straight-in landing minimums if: or 1,500 feet above the airport elevation,
1. The wind direction and velocity at the time of takeoff whichever is higher.
are such thata straight-in instrumentapproach can be
made to the runwayserved by instrumentapproach; An alternate airport need not be designated if the
required visibility criteria exists and the ceiling is fore
2. The associated ground facilities upon which the
cast to be at least 1,500 feet above the lowest circling
landing minimums are predicated and the related
approach MDA. Ifno circling approach is authorized the
airborne equipment are in normal operation;and
ceiling must be forecast to be 1,500 feet above the low
3. The certificate holder has been approved for such est published minimum, or2,000 feet above the airport
operations. elevation, whichever is higher. (PLT380) — 14 CFR
(PLT459) — 14 CFR §135.225 §135.223

Answers

8084 [C] 8085 [C] 8086 [A] 8087 [A]

1 -88 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

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ATS, RTC ATS, RTC

8090. Ata military airport, a pilot may not take offunder 8114. What is the minimum ceiling and visibility for an
IFR unless the reported weather conditions indicate airplane to operate under VFR in Class G airspace?
that the A—2,000-foot ceiling; 1-mile visibility.
A—visibility is at least 1 mile. B— 2,000-foot ceiling; 1-mile flight visibility.
B— ceiling is at least 500 feet and the visibility is 1 C—1,000-foot ceiling; 2-miles flight visibility.
mile or more.
C—airport has landing minimums. Nopersonmayoperate an airplane under VFR inuncon
trolled airspace when theceiling is less than 1,000 feet
Each pilot making an IFR takeoff or approach and unless flight visibility is at least2 miles. (PLT163) — 14
landing at a military orforeign airport shallcomply with CFR §135.205
applicable instrument approach procedures andweather
minimums prescribed by the authority having jurisdic
tion over that airport. In addition, no pilot may takeoff ATS, RTC

at that airport when the visibility is less than one mile. 8807. Which document would constitute an approved
(PLT459) — 14 CFR §135.225
change to the type design without requiring a recerti-
fication?
A— An approved Minimum Equipment List.
ATS, RTC B— The Operations Specifications as approved by
8091. A pilot may not take off under IFR at a foreign the Administrator.
airport unless the visibility is C—A special flight permit.
A— 1/2 mile or more above landing minimums.
B— 1 mile or more and the ceiling is 500 feet or more. An approved Minimum Equipment List, as authorized by
C—at least 1 mile.
the operations specifications, constitutes an approved
change tothe type design without requiring recertifica-
Each pilot making an IFR takeoff or approach and tion. (PLT428) — 14 CFR §135.179
landing ata military orforeign airport shall comply with
applicable instrument approach procedures and weather
ATS, RTC
minimums prescribed by the authority having jurisdic
tion over that airport. In addition, no pilot may takeoff 8808. No person mayoperate an aircraft under 14 CFR
at that airport when the visibility is less than one mile. Part135,carrying passengers underVFR at night, unless
(PLT459) — 14 CFR §135.225 A— each flight crewmember has a flashlight having at
least two size "D" batteries or the equivalent.
B— it is equipped with a flashlight having at least two
ATS, RTC size "D" cell or the equivalent.
8092. An instrument approach procedure to an airport C—each crewmember has a flashlight having at least
may not be initiated unless the latest weather report two size "D" cells and a spare bulb.
issued by an authorized weather reporting facility indi
cates that weather conditions No person may operate an aircraft carrying passengers
A_ are at or above the circling minimums for the under VFR atnight unlessitis equipped with a flashlight
runway the pilot intends to use. having atleast two size"D"cells orequivalent. (PLT405)
B— are at or above the authorized IFR landing — 14 CFR §135.159
minimums for that procedure.
C—exceed the straight-in minimums for all
nonprecision approaches.

No pilot may begin an instrument approach procedure

to an airport unless the latest weather report issuedby
that weather reporting facility indicates that weather
conditions are at or above the authorized IFR landing
minimums for that airport. (PLT420)—14 CFR§135.225

Answers
8092 [B] 8114 [C] 8807 [A] 8808 [B]
8090 [A] 8091 [C]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 1 -89

 Chapter 1 Regulations

ATS, RTC ATS, RTC

8809. For operations during the period beginning 1 8814. Whatis the maximum numberof hours that a pilot
houraftersunset and ending 1 hour before sunrise (as may fly in 7 consecutive days as a pilot in commercial
published in the Air Almanac), nocertificate holder may flying and as a pilot for a commuter air carrier?
use any person, nor may any person serve, as pilot in
A— 32 hours.
command of an aircraftcarrying passengers unless that
B-34 hours.
person has made three takeoffs and three landings, C—35 hours.
within the preceding 90 days,
A— as the sole manipulator of the flight controls in an Nocertificate holder mayschedule anyflight crewmem
aircraft of the same category and class and, ifa ber forflight in scheduled operations if that crewmem
type rating is required, of the same type in which ber's total time incommercial flying will exceed:
that person is to serve.
1. 1,200 hours in any calendar year.
B—as pilot in command of an aircraft of the same
category and class and, if a type rating is 2. 120 hours in any calendar month.
required, of the same type in which that person is 3. 34 hours inany seven consecutive days.
to serve.
(PLT409) — 14 CFR §135.265
C—as the sole manipulator of the flight controls in an
aircraft of the same type in which that person is to
serve.
ATS, RTC
8815. What is the maximum number of hours that a
No person may serve as pilot-in-command of an aircraft commuter air carrier may schedule a flight crewmember
carrying passengers unless, within the preceding 90 to fly in scheduled operations and other commercial
days, that person has, for operation during the period flying in any calendar month?
beginning 1hour after sunset andending 1hour before
sunrise (as published intheairalmanac), made 3 take- A-100.
offs and 3 landings as the sole manipulator ofthe flight B-110.
controls in an aircraft of the same category and class C-120.
and, ifa type rating is required, ofthe same type in which
the person is toserve. (PLT442) — 14 CFR §135.247 Nocertificate holder may schedule anyflight crewmem
ber for flight in scheduled operations if thatcrewmem
ber's total time in commercial flying will exceed:
ATS, RTC 1. 1,200 hoursin any calendaryear.
8813. Anemployee who performssafety-sensitivefunc
tions, for a certificate holder, who has actual knowledge 2. 120 hours in any calendar month.
of an accident involving an aircraft for which he or she 3. 34 hours inany seven consecutive days.
performed a safety-sensitive function at or near the time (PLT409) — 14 CFR §135.265
of the accident shall not use alcohol
A— until 4 hours after the accident.
ATS, RTC
B— within 8 hours of the accident.
C—until given a release by the NTSB or FAA. 8819. The pilotin command may deviate from 14 CFR
Part 135 during an emergency involving the safety of
No covered employee who has actual knowledge ofan persons or property only
accident involving an aircraft for which he or she has A— afterATC is notified of the emergencyand the
performed a safety-sensitive function at ornear the time extent of deviation required.
ofthe accident shall use alcohol for 8 hours following B— to the extent required to meet that emergency.
the accident. (PLT463) — 14 CFR §135.253 C—if required to, by the emergency cockpit checklist.
In an emergency involving the safety ofpersons orprop
erty, the pilot-in-command maydeviate from the rules
of 14 CFR Part 135 to the extent required to meet that
emergency. (PLT444) — 14 CFR§135.19

Answers
8809 [A] 8813 [B] 8814 [B] 8815 [C] 8819 [B]

1-90 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 1 Regulations

ATS, RTC Crewmembers who serve in operations above 25,000

8820. The training required for flightcrewmembers who feet must receive instruction in respiration, hypoxia,
have not qualified and served in the same capacity on duration of consciousness without supplemental oxygen
an aircraft is at altitude, gas expansion, gas bubble formation and
A— upgrade training. physicalphenomena and incidents of decompression.
B—transition training. (PLT460) — 14 CFR §135.331
C—initial training.
ATS, RTC
Initial training is the term used for the training required
8829. The air carrier must give instruction on such
forcrewmembers who have not qualified and served in
the same capacity on an aircraft. (PLT407) — 14 CFR subjects as gas bubble formation, hypoxia, decompres
sion, and lengthof consciousness without supplemental
§135.321
oxygen at altitude to crewmembers serving on aircraft
operated above
ATS, RTC A- FL 250.
8821. A crewmember who has served as second in B- FL 200.
command on a particular aircraft type (e.g., BE-1900), C-FL180.
mayserve as pilot in command upon completing which
training program? Crewmembers who serve in operations above 25,000
A— Upgrade training. feet must receive instruction in respiration, hypoxia,
durationof consciousness withoutsupplemental oxygen
B—Transition training.
C—Initial training. at altitude, gas expansion, gas bubble formation and
physical phenomena and incidents of decompression.
Upgrade training is thetraining required ofcrewmembers (PLT407) — 14 CFR §135.331
whohave qualified and served as second-in-command
on a particular aircraft before they serve as pilot-in-
ATS, RTC
command of thataircraft. (PLT407) — 14 CFR§135.321
8830. What is one of the requirements that must be
met by a pilot in command to re-establish recency of
ATS, RTC experience?
8827. The training required for crewmembers who A— At least one full stop landing must be made from
have been qualified and served in the same capacity a circling approach.
on another aircraft is B—Three takeoffs and landings must be made as the
A—difference training. sole manipulator of the controls, in the type, if a
B—transition training. type rating is required, if not in the same category
C—upgrade training. and class aircraft that the person is to serve.
C—At least one nonprecision approach must be
Transition training is the training required of crewmem made to the lowest minimums authorized for the
bers whohave qualified and served in thesame capacity certificate holder.
on another aircraft. (PLT407) — 14 CFR §135.321
Noperson may serveas pilot-in-command ofanaircraft
carrying passengers unless, within the preceding 90
ATS, RTC days, that person has made 3 takeoffs and 3 landings
8828. The certificate holder must give instruction on as thesole manipulator of theflight controls in anaircraft
such subjects as respiration, hypoxia, gas expansion, of the same categoryand class and, ifa type rating is
and decompression to crewmembers who serve in required, of the same type in which the person is to
operations above serve. (PLT442) — 14 CFR §135.247
A-FL180.
B- FL 200.
C-FL250.

Answers

8821 [A] 8827 [B] 8828 [C] 8829 [A] 8830 [B]
8820 [C]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 1 -91

 Chapter 1 Regulations

ATS, RTC ATS, RTC

8834. Federal Aviation Regulations require that interior 8840. Each aircraft being operated in extended over-
emergency lights, on aircraft having a passenger seating water operations, must have a life preserver for each
configuration of 20 to
A— aircraft occupant.
A— operate automatically when subjected to a B— seat on the aircraft.
negative G load. C—passenger seat, plus 10 percent.
B— be operable manually from the flight crew station
and a point in the passenger compartment. Every aircraft flown in extended overwater operations
C— be armed or turned on during taxiing and all flight mustcarry an approved life preserverfor everyoccupant
operations. of the aircraft. (PLT437) — 14 CFR§135.167
Emergency exitlights mustbe operable manually from
theflight crew station andfrom a station in thepassenger ATS, RTC
compartment that is readily accessible toa normal flight 8841. Life preservers required for extended overwater
attendant seat. (PLT404) — 14 CFR §135.178 operations are stored
Answer (A) is incorrect because the lights must operate auto A— within easy reach of each passenger.
matically either with loss of normal electrical power or when an
emergency assist means is activated, depending on the aircraft cer
B—under each occupant seat.
tification. Answer (C)is incorrect because the lights mustbe armed C—within easy access of each seated occupant.
orturned on during taxi, takeoff andlanding but notnecessarily dur
ing all other flightoperations. Every aircraft flown in extended overwater operations
mustcarry an approvedlife preserverfor every occupant
of theaircraft. Alife preserver must be readily accessible
ATS, RTC
toeach seated occupant. (PLT437) — 14 CFR§ 135.167
8838. What emergency equipment is required for
extended overwater operations?
A— A portable survival emergency locator transmitter ATS, RTC
for each life raft. 8843. No person may takeoff an aircraft under IFR from
B— A pyrotechnic signaling device for each life an airport that has takeoff weather minimums but that
preserver. is below landing minimums unless there is an alternate
C—A life preserver equipped with a survivor locator airport within
light, for each person on the airplane. A— 1 hour at normal indicated airspeed of the
departure airport.
Every aircraft flown in extended overwater operations B— 1 hour at normal cruise speed in still air of the
mustcarry an approved life preserver for everyoccupant departure airport.
of theaircraft. This life preserver mustbe equipped with C— 1 hour at normal cruise speed in still air with one
an approved survivorlocator light. A lifepreserver must engine operating.
be readily accessible to each seated occupant. In addi
tion, there mustbe enoughappropriately equipped life No person may takeoff an aircraft under IFR from an
rafts to accommodate all the occupants of the aircraft. airport where weather conditions are at or above take
One ofthe life rafts must have a survival type emergency off minimums, but are below authorized IFR landing
locatortransmitter. (PLT437) — 14 CFR§135.167 minimums unless there is an alternate airport within 1
hour's flying time (in still air) of theairport of departure.
(PLT459) — 14 CFR §135.217

Answers

8834 [B] 8838 [C] 8840 [A] 8841 [C] 8843 [B]

1-92 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 1 Regulations

Helicopter Regulations
RTC Forflight under IFR, the second-in-command must meet
8002. What minimum rest period must be provided the recent instrument requirements of Part 61: No pilot
for a pilot assigned to Helicopter Hospital Emergency mayact as pilot-in-command under IFR unless thepilot
Medical Evacuation Service (HEMES) who has been has performed and logged, within the past 6 calendar
on duty for a 47 hour period? months, at least 6 instrument approaches, holding pro
A— 16 consecutive hours.
cedures, and interceptingand tracking courses through
B—14 consecutive hours.
the use of navigation systems in the appropriate category
C—12 consecutive hours.
of aircraft forthe instrument privileges sought. (PLT442)
— 14 CFR §135.245 and §61.57
Each pilotmust be given a rest period upon completion
of the HEMES assignment and prior to being assigned
RTC
any further duty with the certificate holder of at least
9337. What minimum conditions are necessary for the
12 consecutive hours for an assignment of less than
48 hours, and at least 16 consecutive hours for an
instrumentapproaches requiredforsecond-in-command
assignment of more than 48 hours. (PLT409) — 14 IFR currency in a helicopter?
CFR §135.271 A— Six must be performed and logged under actual
or simulated instrument conditions in a rotorcraft.
B— Six must be performed and logged under actual
RTC or simulated instrument conditions; three must be
9043. What is a helicopter pilot's responsibility when in a rotorcraft, three may be in an airplane or an
cleared to "air taxi" on the airport? approved flight simulator.
A—Taxi direct to destination as quickly as possible. C—All must be made in a rotorcraft category of
B— Taxi at hover altitude using taxiways. aircraft, or approved simulator, or flight training
C—Taxi below 100 feet AGL avoiding other aircraft device and logged while under actual or
and personnel. simulated IFR conditions.

Air taxi is the preferred method for helicopter ground Forflight underIFR, thesecond-in-command mustmeet
movements on airports. Unless otherwise requested the recent instrumentrequirements of Part 61: No pilot
or instructed, pilots are expected to remain below 100 mayactas pilot-in-command under IFR unless the pilot
feet AGL. Helicopters should avoid overflight of other has performed and logged, within the past 6 calendar
aircraft, vehicles, and personnel during air taxi opera months, at least 6 instrument approaches, holding pro
tions. (PLT112) — AIM H4-3-17 cedures, and intercepting and tracking courses through
the use of navigation systems intheappropriate category
ofaircraft for the instrumentprivilegessought. (PLT442)
RTC — 14 CFR §135.245 and §61.57
9336. What minimum instrument experience in the
past 6 calendar months meets the second-in-command
requirement to maintain IFR currency in a helicopter?
A— 6 hours in actual IFR conditions or 3 hours actual
and 3 hours simulated IFR in a helicopter plus six
instrument approaches.
B— Holding procedures, intercepting and tracking
courses using the navigation equipment, six
instrument approaches logged in actual or
simulated IFR in a helicopter, simulator or a flight
training device.
C—6 hours of actual or simulated time in a helicopter
of the same type, plus six instrument approaches.

Answers

8002 [C] 9043 [C] 9336 [B] 9337 [C]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 1 -93

 Chapter 1 Regulations

RTC
For flight under IFR, the second-in-command must meet
9338. Within the past 6 months, a pilot has accom the recentinstrument requirements of Part 61: No pilot
plished: may act as pilot-in-command underIFR unless thepilot
Two approaches in a helicopter. has performedand logged, within the past 6 calendar
Two approaches in an airplane. months, at least 6 instrument approaches, holding pro
Two approaches in a glider. cedures, and intercepting and tracking courses through
What additional instrument experience must the pilot theuse ofnavigation systemsin theappropriate category
obtain priorto acting as second in command (under 14 ofaircraft for the instrument privileges sought. (PLT442)
CFR part 135) on an IFR flight? — 14 CFR §135.245, §61.57

A— Four approaches in an aircraft, approved training

device, flight simulator (that is representative of RTC
the aircraft category), holding, intercepting and 9366. Unless otherwise prescribed, what is the rule
tracking courses using the navigation systems. regarding altitude and course to be maintained by a
B— Passes an instrument proficiency check in any helicopter during an off-airways IFR flight over non-
category aircraft, approved simulator or training mountainous terrain?
device.
A— 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within 4
C—Holding, intercepting and tracking courses (using nautical miles of course.
the navigation systems) in an aircraft, approved B— 2,000 feet above the highest obstacle within 5
simulator or approved flight training device. statute miles of course.
C—1,500 feet above the highest obstacle within a
For flightunder IFR, the second-in-command must meet
horizontal distance of 3 statute miles of course.
the recent instrument requirements of Part 61: No pilot
mayact as pilot-in-command underIFR unless thepilot In thecase of operations overareas that are notdesig
has performed and logged, within the past 6 calendar natedas mountainous areas; no person mayoperatean
months, at least 6 instrument approaches, holding pro aircraftunder IFRbelow an altitude of 1,000 feet above
cedures, and intercepting and tracking courses through the highest obstacle within a horizontal distance of 4
theuse ofnavigation systemsin the appropriate category nautical miles from the course to be flown. (PLT430) —
ofaircraft for theinstrumentprivileges sought. (PLT442) 14 CFR §91.177
— 14 CFR §135.245 and §61.57

RTC
RTC
9367. Unless otherwise prescribed, what is the rule
9341. Within the past 6 months, a pilot has accom
plished:
regarding altitude and course to be maintained by a
helicopter during an IFR off-airways flight over moun
Twoapproaches and intercepting, tracking courses tainous terrain?
using the navigation systems in a helicopter. A— 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a
Two approaches, missed approaches and holding horizontal distance of 5 statute miles of course.
in an approved airplane flight simulator.
B— 2,500 feet above the highest obstacle within a
Two approaches and holding in an approved rotor horizontal distance of 3 nautical miles of course.
craft flight training device.
C—2,000 feet above the highest obstacle within 5
What additional instrument experience, if any, must the statute miles of course.
pilot perform to act as second in command (under 14
CFR part 135) on an IFR helicopter flight? In the case of operations over areas designated as
A— None. mountainous; no person may operate an aircraft under
B— Two approaches in a rotorcraft category aircraft. IFR below an altitude of 2,000 feet above the highest
C—Two approaches in either a helicopter or an obstacle within a horizontal distance of 5 statute miles
airplane. from the course to be flown. (PLT430) —14 CFR §91.177

Answers
9338 [A] 9341 [B] 9366 [A] 9367 [C]

1-94 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 1 Regulations

RTC RTC
9371. According to 14 CFR Part 91, when takeoff mini 9414. In addition to a two-way radio capable of com
mums are not prescribed for a civil airport, what are the municating withATC on appropriate frequencies, which
takeoff minimums under IFR for a multiengine helicopter? equipment is the helicopter required to have to oper
ate within Class B airspace? (Letter of agreement not
A— 1 SM visibility.
B-1/2 SM visibility.
applicable.)
C-1200 RVR. A— A VOR or TACAN receiver.
B— DME, a VOR or TACAN receiver, and an
If takeoff minimums are not prescribed under Part 97, appropriate transponder beacon.
the takeoff minimums under IFR forhelicopters are 1/2 C—An appropriate ATC transponder.
statute mile visibility. (PLT459) — 14 CFR §91.175
An operable ATC transponder is required to operate
all aircraft in Class B airspace except for helicopters
RTC operated at or below 1,000 feet AGL under the terms
9372. According to 14 CFR Part 91, when takeoff of a letterof agreement. (PLT405) — 14 CFR §91.131
minimums are not prescribed for a civil airport, what and §91.215
are the takeoff minimums under IFR for a single-engine
helicopter?
RTC
A-1/2 SM visibility.
9415. Which of the following is a transponder require
B-1 SM visibility.
ment for helicopter operations?
C-1200 RVR.
A— Helicopters with a certified gross weight of
If takeoff minimums are not prescribed under Part 97, more than 12,500 pounds that are engaged
the takeoff minimums under IFR forhelicopters are 1/2 in commercial operations are required to be
statute mile visibility. (PLT459) — 14 CFR §91.175 equipped with operable ATC transponders.
B— Helicopters may not be operated at or below
1,000 feet AGL within Class B airspace without
RTC an operable ATC transponder.
9373. What minimum altitude should a helicopter main C—Operable ATC transponders are required when
tain while en route? operating helicopters within Class D airspace at
A— Over congested areas such as towns, no lower night under special VFR.
than 1,000 feet over the highest obstacle within a
horizontal radius of 2,000 feet of the helicopter. An operable ATC transponder is required to operate
B— That specifically prescribed by the air carrier for all aircraft in Class B airspace except as authorized by
the operation. ATC. (PLT405) — 14 CFR §91.215
C—That prescribed by the Administrator.
RTC
Each person operating a helicopter shall comply with
routes or altitudes specificallyprescribed forhelicopters 8975. Which of the following are required for a heli
by the Administrator. (PLT430) — 14 CFR §91.119 copter ILS approach with a decision height lower than
200 feet HAT?
A— Special aircrew training and aircraft certification.
B— Both a marker beacon and a radio altimeter.
C—ATP helicopter certificate and CAT II certification.

Approaches with a HAT below200 feet are annotated

with the note: "Special Aircraft &Aircraft Certification
Required" since the FAA must approve the helicopter
and its avionics, and the flight crew must have the
required experience, training, and checking. (PLT356)
— FAA-H-8083-16

Answers
9372 [A] 9373 [C] 9414 [C] 9415 [B] 8975 [A]
9371 [B]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 1 -95

1 -96 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep
Chapter 2
Equipment, Navigation and Facilities
Inoperative Equipment 2-3

Pitot-Static Instruments 2-4

Electronic Flight Instruments 2-10

Safety of Flight Equipment 2-12
Communications 2-17

Navigation Equipment 2-18

Horizontal Situation Indicator (HSI) 2-23

Global Navigation 2-29

Approach Systems 2-30

GPS 2-37

Airport Lighting and Marking 2-42

Approach Lighting 2-52

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 2-1

Chapter 2 Equipment, Navigation and Facilities

2-2 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 2 Equipment, Navigation and Facilities

Inoperative Equipment
A certificate holder's manual must contain enroute flight, navigation and communication procedures,
including procedures for the dispatch, release or continuance of a flight if a required piece of equipment
becomes inoperative.
When any required instrument or equipment in an aircraft is inoperative, the airplane cannot be flown
unless that aircraft's Minimum Equipment List (MEL) allows such a flight.
The pilot-in-command of an aircraft operating IFR in controlled airspace shall report to ATC immedi
ately any malfunction of navigational, approach or communications equipment that occurs in flight. The
report must include:
• Aircraft identification;
• Equipment affected;
• Degree to which the capability of the aircraft to operate IFR in the ATC system is impaired; and
• Nature and extent of assistance desired from ATC.

ALL
The pilot-in-command of an aircraft operating IFR in
9407. An approved minimum equipment list or FAA controlled airspace shall report to ATC as soon as
Letter of Authorization allows certain instruments or practical any malfunction of navigational, approach or
equipment communication equipment thatoccurs in flight. (PLT356)
A—to be inoperative prior to beginning a flight in an — 14 CFR §91.187
aircraft if prescribed procedures are followed. Answer (A) is incorrect because any malfunction of approach equip
B—to be inoperative anytime with no other ment must be reported in flight, not by a written report. Answer (B)
is incorrect because, although another type of instrument approach
documentation required or procedures to be may be executed ifpermission is granted by ATC, any malfunction of
followed. approach equipment should be reported.
C—to be inoperative for a one-time ferry flight of a
large airplane to a maintenance base without
further documentation from the operator or FAA ALL

with passengers on board. 9381. What action should be taken if one of the two
VHF radios fail while IFR in controlled airspace?
The Minimum Equipment List and the letter of autho A— Notify ATC immediately.
rization constitute a supplemental type certificate for B- Squawk 7600.
the aircraft. The approved Minimum Equipment List C— Monitor the VOR receiver.
must provide for the operation of the aircraft with the
instruments and equipment in an inoperable condition The pilot-in-command of an aircraft operating IFR in
(PLT405) — 14 CFR §91.213 controlled airspace shall report to ATC as soon as
practical any malfunction of navigational, approach or
communication equipment that occurs in flight. (PLT162)
ALL
— 14 CFR §91.187
9380. What action is necessary when a partial loss of ILS
Answer (B) is incorrect because, although you have experienced
receiver capability occurs while operating in controlled a communications failure, it is only a partial one. You still have one
airspace under IFR? operational VHFradio and all other radios are working normally, so a
squawk of 7600 is not needed. Answer (C) is incorrect because you
A—Continue as cleared and file a written report to still have an operable VHFradio forcommunication, so monitoring of
the Administrator if requested. a NAVAID is not needed. The only pilot action required is notification
B— Ifthe aircraft is equipped with other radios to ATC of the problem.
suitable for executing an instrument approach, no
further action is necessary.
C— Report the malfunction immediately to ATC.

Answers

9407 [A] 9380 [C] 9381 [A]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 2-3

Chapter 2 Equipment, Navigation and Facilities

ALL The pilot-in-command of an aircraft operating IFR in

9386. While flying IFR in controlled airspace, if one controlled airspace shall report to ATC as soon as
of the two VOR receivers fails, which course of action practical any malfunction of navigational, approach or
should the pilot-in-command follow? communication equipment thatoccurs in flight. (PLT406)
A— No call is required if one of the two VOR — 14 CFR §91.187
receivers is operating properly. Answer (A) is incorrect because controlled airspace exists farbelow
positive controlairspace (base of 18,000 feet MSL), and any loss of
B— Advise ATC immediately. a navigationalaid should be reported to ATC. Answer (B) is incorrect
C— Notify the dispatcher via company frequency. because, although this may be a common practice among the air
carriers, the regulations require notification to ATC of the malfunc
The pilot-in-command of an aircraft operating IFR in tion.
controlled airspace shall report to ATC as soon as
practical any malfunction of navigational, approach or
communication equipment thatoccurs in flight. (PLT406) ATM, DSP

— 14 CFR §91.187 8278. If a required instrument on a multiengine airplane

becomes inoperative, which document dictates whether
Answer (A) is incorrect because any malfunction of a navigational
radio should be reported, no matter how slightly it may affect the the flight may continue en route?
conduct of the flight. Answer (C) is incorrect because, although this
A— A Master Minimum Equipment List for the
may be a common practice among the air carriers, the regulations
require notification to ATCof the malfunction. airplane.
B— Original dispatch release.
C—Certificate holder's manual.
ALL
9387. While flying in controlled airspace under IFR, the Each certificate holder's manual must contain enroute
ADF fails. What action is required? flight, navigation, and communication procedures for
the dispatch, release or continuance of flightif any item
A— Descend below Class A airspace.
of equipment required for the particular type of opera
B—Advise dispatch via company frequency.
tion becomes inoperative or unserviceable en route.
C—Notify ATC immediately.
(PLT436) — 14 CFR §121.135

Pitot-Static Instruments
Modern jet transports usually have three pitot-static systems. There are separate systems for the cap
tain's and co-pilot's instruments plus an auxiliary system that provides a backup for either of the two
primary systems. The instruments that require static pressure input are airspeed, Mach, altitude and
vertical speed indicators. In addition, the airspeed and Mach indicators need a source of pitot pres
sure. Besides the flight instruments, static pressure input is required for the Mach warning, autopilot,
flight director, flight recorder and cabin differential pressure. Pitot input is required for all those systems
except for cabin differential pressure. The usual source for these non-flight instruments is the auxiliary
pitot-static system. See Figure 2-1.
Altimeters compare the sea level pressure setting in their window with the outside air pressure sensed
through the static system. The difference is displayed as the altitude above sea level. Part of the preflight
check is to verify the accuracy of the altimeters. An altimeter should be considered questionable if the
indicated altitude varies by more the 75 feet from a known field elevation.
The altimeter setting used by pilots is always the station pressure of the reporting station corrected
to sea level. Station pressure is the actual pressure at field elevation.
True altitude is the actual height of the aircraft above sea level. This is the same as indicated alti
tude when standard temperatures exist. When the temperature is warmer than standard, true altitude
is higher than indicated altitude. When the temperature is colder than standard day conditions, just the
opposite is true. Corrected altitude (approximately true altitude) can be calculated but it is neither practical

Answers

9386 [B] 9387 [C] 8278 [C]

2-4 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 2 Equipment, Navigation and Facilities

nor useful to do so in most situations. When setting an altimeter, a pilot should just use the appropriate
altimeter setting and disregard the effects of nonstandard atmospheric pressures and temperatures.
Pressure altitude is the altitude indicated when the altimeter is set to standard sea level pressure
of 29.92" Hg. Density altitude is used in aircraft performance computations. It is pressure altitude cor
rected for nonstandard temperatures. If the temperature is warmer than standard, density altitude will
be higher than pressure altitude.
The local altimeter setting is used when flying below FL180 and the altimeter is 31.00" Hg or less.
Special procedures applywhen the local pressure is more than 31.00" Hg because most altimeters cannot
be set higher than that. In the United States, all altimeters are set to 29.92" Hg when climbing through
FL180. Caution: outside the United States the transition altitude is often something other than FL180.
Acommon reason for altimetererrors is incorrectsetting of the altimeter. If the setting inthe altimeter
is higher than the actual sea level pressure, the altimeter will read higher than the actual altitude. If the
setting is too low, the altimeter will read lower than it really is. As a rough rule of thumb, the magnitude
of the error is about 1,000 feet for each 1" Hg that the altimeter is off. For example, if the altimeter is set
to 29.92" Hg, but the real sea level pressure is 30.57" Hg, the altimeter will read about 650 feet lower
than the actual airplane's altitude (30.57 - 29.92 = .65" Hg = 650 feet). In this example, the airplane
would be 650 feet higher than the indicated altitude. „ .
Continued

18 1st officer
pitot tube
First officer
19
Cabin diff. pressure Auxiliary
1
12 13 15 16

Mach Autopilot FligM Flight

warn. director recorder

17L^
Auxiliary
*nj * J~\=± IU Jtt pitot tube

I
Figure 2-1. Typical pitot-static system

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 2-5

Chapter 2 Equipment, Navigation and Facilities

The airspeed indicators compare pitot pressure with static pressure and display the difference as
indicated airspeed. This indicated airspeed equals the aircraft's actual speed through the air (TrueAir
speed) only under standard day conditions at sea level. Under almost allflight conditions,true airspeed
will be higher than indicated airspeed because of the lower ambient pressures at altitude.
The Machmeter displays aircraft speed as a percentage of the speed of sound. For example, an
aircraft cruising at a Mach number of .82 is flying at 82% of the speed of sound. The Machmeter works
in a manner similar to the airspeed indicator in that itcompares pitot and static pressure, but these inputs
are corrected by an altimeter mechanism.
If a pitot tube becomes blocked, the airspeed and Mach indicators will read inaccurately. If pres
sure is trapped in the pitot line, the airspeed will read inaccurately high as the aircraft climbs, low as it
descends, and will be unresponsive to changes in airspeed. The airspeed indicator acts as an altimeter
because only the static pressure changes. This situation occurs in icing conditions if both the ram air
inlet and the drain hole of the pitot tube become completely blocked by ice.
If the pitot tube is blocked but the static port and the pitot drain hole remain open, the indicated
airspeed will drop to zero. The drain pitot tube drain hole allows the pressure in the pitot line to drop to
atmospheric and therefore there is no differential between the static and pitot pressures.
Pitot tubes and static ports are electrically heated to prevent ice formations that could interfere with
proper operation of the systems. They are required to have "power on" indicator lights to show proper
operation. In addition, many aircraft have an ammeter that shows the actual current flow to the pitot and
static ports.
Since the magnetic compass is the only direction-seeking instrument in most airplanes, the pilot must
be able to turn the airplane to a magnetic compass heading and maintain this heading. It is influenced
by magnetic dip which causes northerly turning error and acceleration/deceleration error. When north
erly turning error occurs, the compass will lag behind the actual aircraft heading while turning through
headings in the northern half of the compass rose, and lead the aircraft's actual heading in the southern
half. The error is most pronounced when turning through north or south, and is approximately equal in
degrees to the latitude.
The acceleration/deceleration error is most pronounced on headings of east and west. When accel
erating, the compass indicates a turn toward the north, and when decelerating it indicates a turn toward
the south. The acronym ANDS is a good memory aid:
A accelerate

N north

D decelerate

S south

No errors are apparent while on east or west headings, when turning either north or south.

2-6 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 2 Equipment, Navigation and Facilities

ALL ALL
9174. Which pressure is defined as station pressure? 9173. Ifthe ambient temperature is colder than standard
A—Altimeter setting. at FL310, what is the relationship between true altitude
B— Actual pressure at field elevation. and pressure altitude?
C—Station barometric pressure reduced to sea level. A— They are both the same, 31,000 feet.
B— True altitude is lower than 31,000 feet.
The pressure measured at a station or airport is "sta C— Pressure altitude is lower than true altitude.
tion pressure" or the actual pressure at field elevation.
(PLT166) — AC 00-6 True altitude is indicated altitude corrected for the fact
Answer (A) is incorrect because altimeter setting is the value to thatnonstandard temperatures will result in nonstandard
which the scale of a pressure altimeter is adjusted to read field pressure lapse rates. In warmair, you flyat a truealtitude
elevation. Answer (C) is incorrect because station barometric pres
sure reduced to sea level is a method to readily compare station
higher than indicated. Incold air, you flyat a truealtitude
pressures between stations at different altitudes. lower than indicated. Pressure altitude is the altitude
indicated when the altimeter is set to the standard sea
level pressure (29.92" Hg). In the United States, altim
ALL eters are always set to 29.92" Hg at and above 18,000
9164. What is corrected altitude (approximate true feet. This question assumes the difference between
altitude)? the pressure altitude and the indicated altitude (local
A— Pressure altitude corrected for instrument error. altimeter setting) is not significant enough to reverse
B— Indicated altitude corrected for temperature the effects of the temperature. (PLT023) — AC 00-6
variation from standard. Answer (A) is incorrect because both true and pressure altitude
would be the same at FL310 if the ambient air temperature was
C— Density altitude corrected for temperature standard. Answer (C) is incorrect because pressure altitude would
variation from standard. be lower than true altitude in warmer than standard air temperature.

True altitude is indicated altitude corrected for the fact

thatnonstandard temperatures will result in nonstandard ALL
pressure lapse rates. (PLT023) — AC 00-6 9173-1. When the temperature is -20°C at 15,000 feet
Answer (A) is incorrect because pressure altitude corrected for indicated, you know that
instrument error is a nonexistent concept. Answer (C) is incorrect
because density altitude is pressure altitude corrected for tempera A— altimeters automatically compensate for
ture variation fromstandard. Density altitude is a final figure and not temperature variations.
subject to additional adjustments. B—the altimeter is indicating higher than true altitude.
C—the altimeter is indicating lower than true altitude.
ALL The ISA for 15,000 feetis-15°C. When the temperature
9099. When setting the altimeter, pilots should disregard is colder than standard, the altimeter willindicate higher
A—effects of nonstandard atmospheric temperatures than true altitude. (PLT023) — AC 00-6
and pressures.
B— corrections for static pressure systems.
C—corrections for instrument error.

Pilots should disregard the effect of nonstandard atmo

spheric temperatures and pressures except that low
temperatures and pressures need to be considered for
terrain clearance purposes. (PLT166) —AIM W-2-2
Answers (B) and (C) are incorrect because altimeters are subject to
instrument errors and to errors in the static pressure system. A pilot
should set the current reported altimeter setting on the altimeter set
ting scale. The altimeter should read within 75 feet of field elevation.
Ifnot, it is questionable and should be evaluated by a repair station.

Answers

9174 [B] 9164 [B] 9099 [A] 9173 [B] 9173-1 [B]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 2-7

Chapter 2 Equipment, Navigation and Facilities

ALL ALL

9172. Ifthe ambient temperature is warmer than stan 9163. En route at FL270, the altimeter is set correctly.
dard at FL350, what is the density altitude compared On descent, a pilot fails to set the local altimeter set
to pressure altitude? ting of 30.57. If the field elevation is 650 feet, and the
A— Lower than pressure altitude.
altimeter is functioning properly, what will it indicate
upon landing?
B— Higher than pressure altitude.
C— Impossible to determine without information on A- 585 feet.
possible inversion layers at lower altitudes. B-1,300 feet.
C—Sea level.
Pressure altitude is the altitude indicated when the
altimeter is set to the standard sea levelpressure (29.92" One inch of Hg pressure is equal to about 1,000 feet of
Hg). Density altitude is pressure altitude corrected for altitude. In the United States, altimeters are always set
nonstandard temperature. A warmer than standard to 29.92" Hg at and above 18,000 feet. If the altimeter
temperature will result in a density altitude higher than is not reset when descending into an area with a local
the pressure altitude. (PLT023) — AC 00-6 altimeter setting of 30.57" Hg, an error of 650 feet will
Answer (A) is incorrect because density altitude is higher when result (30.57 - 29.92 = .65 = 650 feet). Ifthe altimeter is
air temperature is warmer than standard. Answer (C) is incorrect set lower than the actual setting, it willread lower than
because density altitude is pressure altitude corrected for non the actual altitude. (PLT166) — AC 00-6
standard temperatures. Pressure altitude is based on a standard
pressure atmosphere at a particularaltitude, and inversion layers at Answer (A) is incorrect because 585 feet is the result of subtract
lower levels have no effect on pressure altitude. ing 65 feet rather than subtracting 650 feet. Answer (B) is incorrect
because 1,300 feet is the result of adding 650 feet rather than sub
tracting 650 feet.

ALL
9813. Given
ALL
Pressure altitude 1,000 ft 9080. During an en route descent in a fixed-thrust and
True air temperature 10°C fixed-pitch attitude configuration, both the ram air input
From the conditions given, the approximate density and drain hole of the pitot system become completely
altitude is blocked by ice. What airspeed indication can be expected?
A- 1,000 feet MSL A— Increase in indicated airspeed.
B- 650 feet MSL B— Decrease in indicated airspeed.
C-450 feet MSL C— Indicated airspeed remains at the value prior to
icing.
1. Using an E6B flightcomputer, refer to the right-hand
"Density Altitude" window. Note that the scale above Ifboth the ram air input and the drain hole are blocked,
the window is labeled air temperature (°C). The scale the pressure trapped in the pitot line cannot change
inside the window itself is labeled pressure altitude and the airspeed indicator may react as an altimeter.
(in thousands of feet). Rotate the disc and place The airspeed will not change in level flight even when
the pressure altitude of 1,000 feet opposite an air actual airspeed is varied by large power changes. During
temperature of 10°C. a climb the airspeed indication will increase. During a
descent the airspeed indication willdecrease. (PLT128)
2. The density altitude shown in the window is 650 feet. — AC 91-43
You can also answer this using an electronic flightcom Answer (A) is incorrect because indicated airspeed will decrease in
puter, such as the CX-2. (PLT005)—AC 00-6 a descent. Answer (C) is incorrect because indicated airspeed will
remain at the same value during level flight.

Answers

9172 [B] 9813 [B] 9163 [C] 9080 [B]

2-8 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 2 Equipment, Navigation and Facilities

ALL ALL
9081. What can a pilot expect if the pitot system ram 9222. How will the airspeed indicator react if the ram
air input and drain hole are blocked by ice? air input to the pitot head is blocked by ice, but the drain
A— The airspeed indicator may act as an altimeter. hole and static port are not?
B—The airspeed indicator will show a decrease with A— Indication will drop to zero.
an increase in altitude. B— Indication will rise to the top of the scale.
C—No airspeed indicator change will occur during C— Indication will remain constant but will increase in
climbs or descents. a climb.

// both the ramairinput and the drain hole are blocked, If the pitot tube becomes blocked but pressure is not
the pressure trapped in the pitot line cannot change trapped inthepitotlines, theindicated airspeed will drop
and the airspeed indicator may react as an altimeter. to zero since the pitotpressure will be approximately
The airspeed will not change in level flight even when equal to the static pressure. (PLT337) — AC 00-6
actualairspeedis varied bylargepowerchanges. During Answer(B) is incorrect because the airspeed indication will drop if
a climb the airspeed indication will increase. During a only the ramairinputis blocked.Answer (C) is incorrectbecause the
descent theairspeedindication will decrease. (PLT337) pressure in the airspeed line will vent out through the hole and the
indication willdrop to zero.
— AC 91-43
Answer(B) is incorrect because the airspeed indicator will show an
increase (not decrease) with an increase in altitude. Answer(C) is
incorrect because differential pressure between the pitot tube and
static airsource changes, and so does indicatedairspeed.

ALL

9082. If both the ram air input and drain hole of the pitot
system are blocked by ice, what airspeed indication can
be expected?
A— No variation of indicated airspeed in level flight if
large power changes are made.
B— Decrease of indicated airspeed during a climb.
C—Constant indicated airspeed during a descent.

Ifboth the ram air inputand the drainhole are blocked,

the pressure trapped in the pitot line cannot change
and the airspeed indicator may react as an altimeter.
The airspeed will not change in level flight even when
actualairspeed is varied by largepowerchanges. During
a climb the airspeed indication will increase. During a
descent the airspeed indication will decrease. (PLT337)
— AC 91-43
Answer (B) is incorrect because, during a climb, it will indicate an
increase due to the stronger differential pressure in the blockedpitot
tube relative to the static vents. Answer (C) is incorrect because indi
cated airspeed would change withchanges in altitude.

Answers

9081 [A] 9082 [A] 9222 [A]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 2-9

Chapter 2 Equipment, Navigation and Facilities

Electronic Flight Instruments

Electronic flight instrument systems integrate
many individual instruments into a single presen
tation called a primary flight display (PFD). Flight
instrument presentations on a PFD differ from
conventional instrumentation not only in format,
but sometimes in location as well. For example, the
attitude indicator on the PFD is often larger than
conventional round-dial presentations of an artifi
cial horizon. Airspeed and altitude indications are
presented on vertical tape displays that appear on
the left and right sides of the primary flight display.
The vertical speed indicator is depicted using con
ventional analog presentation. Turn coordination
is shown using a segmented triangle near the top
of the attitude indicator. The rate-of-turn indicator
appears as a curved line display at the top of the Figure 2-2. Atypical primary flight display (PFD)
heading/navigation instrument in the lower half of
the PFD.

ALL the TAS is correspondingly low. The pitot lines need to

8206. (See Figure shown below.) You see the indication be cleared; applying pitot heat may or may not help at
in the figure on your PFD, but your standby indicator this point. (PLT524) — FAA-H-8083-6
reads 120 knots and the power is set for 120-knot cruise Answer (B) is incorrectbecause you cannot assume the standby is
in level flight. You decide the failed if you have cruise power and level attitude; the red Xs appear
on the speed tape when the ADC fails or when one of the pressure
A— pitot tube may be plugged with ice or a bug. transducers fail. Answer (C) is incorrect because an attitude instru
B— standby indicator is defective because there is no ment savvy pilot would discern attitude correctness by cross refer
red 'X' on the speed tape display. encing other instruments and hearing the pitch of the engine would
decide that power and a level attitude must be an indicatorproblem
C—airspeed means attitude is incorrect. and have nothing to do with attitude correctness.

The airspeed indicator on the

PFD is indicating a TAS of 64 ALL
knots. If this instrument had failed, 9769. Automated flight decks or cockpits
the numbers would be replaced
with a large red X. The stand-by A— enhance basic pilot flight skills.
B— decrease the workload in terminal areas.
airspeed indicator reading 120
C—often create much larger pilot errors than
knots suggests this instrument is
working fine. The line coming out traditional cockpits.
of the pitot tube splits to feed mul
Advanced avionics were designed to increase safety
tiple instruments. The most likely
as well as the utility of the aircraft, particularly during
culprit is a bug or ice blockage
increased workload phases, such as in the terminal
occurringpast the split, in the line
areas. (PLT524) — FAA-H-8083-6
that feeds the Air Data Computer
Answer (A) is incorrect because automation has been shown to
(ADC) for the PFD. This would erode some flying skills when they are not kept proficient. Answer
allow the stand-by gauge to work (C) is incorrect because while automation can make some errors
properly, but cause the ASI on more evident and hide others, it does not result in larger pilot errors
the PFD to give a false indication. than traditional cockpits.
True Airspeed is calculated in the
ADC by correcting CAS with OAT Question 8206
probe data, so this explains why

Answers

8206 [A] 9769 [B]

2-10 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 2 Equipment, Navigation and Facilities

ALL ALL
9769-1. Automated flight decks or cockpits 9854. Automation in aircraft has proven
A— improve basic flight skills. A— to present new hazards in its limitations.
B— decrease the workload in terminal areas. B— that automation is basically flawless.
C—sometimes hide errors. C—effective in preventing accidents.

Automation can make some errors more evident and Advanced avionics were designed to increase safety as
hide others. (PLT524) — FAA-H-8083-6 well as the utility of the aircraft. However, the systems
are not infallible. While automation does help prevent
many existing types of errors, it has also created new
ALL
kinds of errors. (PLT104) — FAA-H-8083-6
9769-2. When flying an aircraft with electronic flight
displays (EFDs), risk increases
ALL
A— if the pilot expects the electronics to enhance
flight safety and remove pilot error. 9855. The lighter workloads associated with glass
B— when the pilot expects the equipment to (digital) flight instrumentation
malfunction on occasion. A— are useful in decreasing flightcrew fatigue.
C—if the pilot believes the EFD will compensate for B— have proven to increase safety in operations.
lack of skill and knowledge. C—may lead to complacency by the flightcrew.
Automation has been shown to erode some flying skills Risk management is the last of the three flight man
when they are not kept proficient. (PLT524) — FAA-H- agement skills needed for mastery of the advanced
8083-6 avionics aircraft. The enhanced situational awareness
and automation capabilities offered by a glass flight
deck vastly expand its safety and utility, especially for
ALL
personal transportation use. At the same time, there is
9830. Automation has been found to some risk that lighter workloads could lead to compla
A—create higher workloads in terminal areas. cency. (PLT104) — FAA-H-8083-2
B— improve crew situational awareness skills.
C—substitute for a lack of aviation experience.
ALL

Advanced avionics were designed to increase safety 9857. Humans are characteristically
as well as the utility of the aircraft. Safety is enhanced A—disposed to appreciate the workload imposed by
by enabling better situational awareness. (PLT104) — automation.
FAA-H-8083-6 B— disposed to expect automation to fail often.
C—poor monitors of automated systems.
ALL
Humans are characteristically poor monitors of auto
9853. When a pilot believes advanced avionics enable mated systems. When passively monitoring an auto
operations closer to personal or environmental limits, mated system forfaults, abnormalities, or other infrequent
A—greater utilization of the aircraft is achieved. events, humans perform poorly. The more reliable the
B— risk is increased. system is, the worse the human performance becomes.
C—risk is decreased. For example, the pilot monitors only a backup alert
system, rather than the situation that the alert system
Advanced avionics can sometimes have a negative is designed to safeguard. It is a paradox of automation
effect on pilot risk-takingbehavior, where more informa that technically advanced avionics can both increase and
tion results in pilots taking more risk than they might decrease pilot awareness. (PLT104) — FAA-H-8083-2
be willing to accept without the information. Advanced
avionics should be used to increase safety, not risk.
(PLT104) — FAA-H-8083-6

Answers

9769-1 [C] 9769-2 [C] 9830 [B] 9853 [B] 9854 [A] 9855 [C]
9857 [C]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 2-11

Chapter 2 Equipment, Navigation and Facilities

ALL A reliance on automation translates into a lack of basic

8711. Reliance on automation can translate to flying skillsthatmayaffect thepilot's ability tocope with
A—decreased cockpit workload. an in-flight emergency, such as a sudden mechanical
B— increased error awareness. failure. (PLT104) — FAA-8083-25
C—lack of manual handling skills.

Safety of Flight Equipment

Airborne weather radar is used to detect and avoid areas of heavy precipitation such as thunderstorms.
With few exceptions, all air carrier aircraft must be equipped with an approved airborne weather radar
unit. The radar must be in satisfactory operating condition priorto dispatch on an IFR or night VFR flight
if thunderstorms (or other hazardous weather) that could be detected by the radar are forecast along
the intended route of flight. An aircraft may be dispatched with an inoperative radar unit if one of two
conditions is met:
• The flight will be able to remain in day VFR flight conditions, or
• Hazardous weather is not forecast.
An air carrier's operations manual must contain procedures for the flight crew to follow if the weather
radar fails in flight.
Aground proximity warning system (GPWS) must be installed on all large turbine powered airplanes.
The GPWS gives aural and visual warnings when an aircraft too close to the terrain is in an improper
configuration for landing, or when it deviates below glide slope on an ILS approach.
TCAS I (TrafficAlert and Collision Avoidance System) provides proximity warning only, to assist the
pilot in the visual acquisition of intruder aircraft. No recommended avoidance maneuvers are provided
nor authorized as a result of a TCAS I warning. TCAS II provides traffic advisories (TAs) and resolution
advisories (RAs). Resolution advisories provide recommended maneuvers in a vertical direction to avoid
conflicting traffic. TCAS does not alter or diminish the pilot's basic authority and responsibility to ensure
safe flight. After the conflict, return to the ATC clearance in effect. If a deviation occurs, contact ATC as
soon as practical.
Cockpit voice recorders are required on large turbine engine powered airplanes and large four engine
reciprocating powered airplanes. The recorder must operate from before the start of the before starting
checklist to the completion of the secure cockpit checklist. Although the recorder runs for the entire flight,
only the most recent 30 minutes of information need be retained on the recorder tape.
An approved flight recorder must be installed on all airplanes certified for operations above 25,000
feet and on all turbine powered airplanes. What the flight recorder must record varies from airplane to
airplane, but at a minimum it must record:
• Time
• Altitude
• Airspeed
• Vertical acceleration

• Heading
• Time of each radio transmission to or from ATC.

Answers

8711 [C]

2-12 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 2 Equipment, Navigation and Facilities

An air carrier must keep the flight recorder data until an aircraft has been operated at least 25 hours
after the data was removed. However, 1 hour of the oldest recorded data may beerased to testthe flight
recorder.

The cockpit voice and flight recorder data can be used to identify malfunctions and irregularities
with the aircraft and in carrying out investigations under NTSB Part 830. It cannot be used by the FAA
for enforcement purposes. If an incident occurs which would require the immediate notification of the
NTSB, the data must be kept by the operator for at least 60 days.
ALL ALL
9410. Information obtained from flight data and cockpit 9357. How long is cockpit voice recorder and flight
voice recorders shall be used only for determining recorder data kept, in the event of an accident or occur
A— who was responsible for any accident or incident. rence resulting in terminating the flight?
B— evidence for use in civil penalty or certificate action. A-60 days.
C—possible causes of accidents or incidents. B—90 days.
C—30 days.
Information obtained from flight data and cockpit voice
recorders is used to assist in determining the cause of In theeventofan accidentoroccurrence requiring imme
accidents oroccurrences inconnection with investigation diate notification to NTSB Part 830, and that results in
under NTSB Part 830. The Administrator does not use the termination of a flight, any operator who has installed
the cockpit voice recorder recordin any civil penalty or approved flight recorders and approved cockpit voice
certificate action. (PLT388) — 14 CFR §91.609 recorders shall keep the recorded information forat least
Answer(A) is incorrect because flight data or cockpit voice record 60 days. (PLT388) — 14 CFR §91.609
ers are only used to determine possible causes of accidents or
incidents. Answer (B)is incorrect because flight dataorcockpit voice
recorders may not be used forany civilpenalty or certificateaction.
ATM, ATS
9428. Each pilot who deviates from an ATC clearance
ALL
in response to a TCAS II, resolution advisory (RA) is
expected to
9356. For what purpose may cockpit voice recorders
and flight data recorders NOT be used? A— maintain the course and altitude resulting from
A— Determining causes of accidents and the deviation, as ATC has radar contact.
occurrences under investigation by the NTSB. B— request ATC clearance for the deviation.
B— Determining any certificate action, or civil penalty, C— notify ATC of the deviation as soon as
arising out of an accident or occurrence. practicable.
C—Identifying procedures that may have been
Each pilot who deviates from an ATC clearance in
conducive to any accident, or occurrence
response to a TCAS II RA shall notifyATCof that devia
resulting in investigation under NTSB Part 830.
tion as soon as practicable and expeditiously return to
Information obtained from flight data and cockpit voice the current ATC clearance when the traffic conflict is
recorders is used to assist in determining the cause of resolved. (PLT195)—AIM f4-4-16
accidents oroccurrences inconnection with investigation
under NTSB Part 830. The Administrator does not use
the cockpit voice recorder record in any civilpenalty or
certificate action. (PLT388) — 14 CFR §91.609
Answer (A) is incorrect because cockpit voice recorders and flight
data recorders are used to determine causes of accidents or
occurrences. Answer (C) is incorrect because flight data recorders
and cockpit voice recorders are used to identify any procedures,
malfunction, or failure that may have contributed to an accident or
occurrence.

Answers

9410 [C] 9356 [B] 9357 [A] 9428 [C]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 2-13

Chapter 2 Equipment, Navigation and Facilities

ATM, ATS, RTC ATM, ATS, RTC

9425. TCAS I provides 9427. Each pilot who deviates from an ATC clearance
in response to a TCAS advisory is expected to notify
A— traffic and resolution advisories.
ATC and
B— proximity warning.
C— recommended maneuvers to avoid conflicting A— maintain the course and altitude resulting from
traffic. the deviation, as ATC has radar contact.
B— request a new ATC clearance.
TCAS I provides proximity warning only, to assist the C—expeditiously return to the ATC clearance in effect
pilot in the visual acquisition of intruder aircraft. No prior to the advisory, after the conflict is resolved.
recommended avoidance maneuvers are provided nor
authorized as a result of a TCAS I warning. (PLT195) Each pilot who deviates from an ATC clearance in
— AIM 1)4-4-16 response to a TCAS II RA shall notify ATC of thatdevia
Answer (A) is incorrectbecause traffic and resolution advisories are tion as soon as practicable and expeditiously return to
provided by TCAS II. Answer (C) is incorrect because no recom the current ATC clearance when the traffic conflict is
mended avoidance maneuvers are provided nor authorized as a resolved. (PLT195) — AIM14-4-16
result of a TCAS I warning.

ALL
ATM, ATS, RTC
9427-1. With no traffic identified by TCAS when in 10
9426. TCAS II provides miles of visibility, you
A— traffic and resolution advisories.
A— can rest assured that no other aircraft is near.
B— proximity warning. B— must continually scan for other traffic.
C—maneuvers in all directions to avoid the conflicting
C—must scan only for hot air balloons and gliders.
traffic.
TCAS does not alter or diminish the pilot's basic author
TCAS II provides traffic advisories (TAs) and resolution ityand responsibility to ensure safe flight. Since TCAS
advisories (RAs). (PLT195) — AIM 14-4-16 does not respond to aircraft that are not transponder-
Answer (B) is incorrectbecause TCAS Iprovides proximity warning equipped or aircraft with a transponder failure, TCAS
only. Answer (C) is incorrect because resolution advisories provide
recommended maneuvers in a vertical direction only to avoid con alone does not ensure safe separation in every case.
flicting traffic. (PLT195) —AIM 14-4-16

ATM, ATS, RTC ATM, DSP

9750. With no traffic identified by TCAS, you 8150. Ifan air carrier airplane's airborne radar is inopera
A— can rest assured that no other aircraft are in the
tive and thunderstorms are forecast along the proposed
area.
route of flight, an airplane may be dispatched only
B— must continually scan for other traffic in visual A— when able to climb and descend VFR and
conditions. maintain VFR/OT en route.
C— must scan only for hot air balloons. B— in VFR conditions.
C—in day VFR conditions.
Traffic data systems are designed to enhance "see and
avoid"capabilities. Do not use traffic data systems as No person may dispatch an airplane under IFRor night
a substitute for visual scanning and acquisition of sur VFR conditions when current weather reports indicate
rounding traffic. (PLT524) - FAA-H-8083-6 that thunderstorms, or other potentially hazardous
Answer (A) is incorrect because TCAS can fail or be affected by weather conditions that can be detected with airborne
power spikes, weather and other onboard aircraft disturbances. weather radar, may reasonably be expected along the
Answer (C) is incorrect because TCAS data is supplemental to your route to be flown, unless the weather radar is in satisfac
traffic awareness for all aircraft.
toryoperating condition. (PLT469) — 14 CFR §121.357

Answers

9425 [B] 9426 [A] 9750 [B] 9427 [C] 9427-1 [B] 8150 [C]

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 Chapter 2 Equipment, Navigation and Facilities

ATM, DSP Answer (A) is incorrect because radar vectors to land at the nearest
8151. An air carrier airplane's airborne radar must be suitable airport are not required when airborne weather detection
radar malfunctions. Radar vectors to avoid weather would be a wise
in satisfactory operating condition prior to dispatch, if request. Answer (C) is incorrect because returnto the departure air
the flight will be port upon malfunction of airborne weather detection radar would be
A— conducted under VFR conditions at night with the correct action if it were the procedure specified in the air carrier's
operations manual. However, it is not requiredby regulation.
scattered thunderstorms reported en route.
B— carrying passengers, but not if it is "all cargo."
C—conducted IFR, and ATC is able to radar vector ATM, DSP
the flight around areas of weather. 8154. Which airplanes are required to be equipped
with a ground proximity warning glide slope deviation
Noperson may dispatchan airplane underIFR ornight alerting system?
VFR conditions when current weather reports indicate
that thunderstorms, or other potentially hazardous A— All turbine powered airplanes.
weather conditions that can be detected with airborne B— Passenger-carrying turbine-powered airplanes
weather radar, may reasonably be expected along the only.
route to be flown, unless the weather radar is in satisfac C—Large turbine-powered airplanes only.
toryoperating condition. (PLT469)— 14 CFR §121.357
No person may operate a turbine-powered airplane
Answer (B) is incorrect because there is no difference between "all
cargo" and "passenger" air carrier operations. The airborne radar unless it is equipped with a ground proximity warning/
must be operational prior to dispatch into an area of expected thun glide slope deviation alerting system. (PLT139) — 14
derstorms. Answer (C) is incorrect because airborne radar needs to CFR §121.360
be in operating condition forIFR or nightVFR conditions, regardless
ofATCs abilityto vector the flight around the areas of weather.
ATM, DSP

ATM, DSP
8140. Information recorded during normal operation of
8148. What action should be taken by the pilot in com a cockpit voice recorder in a large pressurized airplane
with four reciprocating engines
mand of a transport category airplane if the airborne
weather radar becomes inoperative en route on an A— may all be erased or otherwise obliterated except
IFR flight for which weather reports indicate possible for the last 30 minutes.
thunderstorms? B—may be erased or otherwise obliterated except for
the last 30 minutes prior to landing.
A— Request radar vectors from ATC to the nearest
C—may all be erased, as the voice recorder is not
suitable airport and land.
required on an aircraft with reciprocating engines.
B—Proceed in accordance with the approved
instructions and procedures specified in the Whena cockpit voice recorderis requiredon an airplane,
operations manual for such an event.
it must be operated continuously from the start of the
C— Return to the departure airport if the use of the checklist (before starting engines forthe pur
thunderstorms have not been encountered, and
pose of flight), to completion of the final checklist at the
there is enough fuel remaining. termination of flight. Information recorded more than 30
minutes earlier may be erased or otherwise obliterated.
No person may dispatch an airplane under IFRor night
(PLT405) — 14 CFR §121.359
VFR conditions when current weather reports indicate
Answer (B) is incorrect because there is no requirement for infor
that thunderstorms, or other potentially hazardous mation to be retained for 30 minutes after landing. However, under
weather conditions that can be detected with airborne some circumstances involving an accident or occurrence, the certifi
weather radar, may reasonably be expected along the cate holder may be required to retain the information up to 60 days.
route to be flown, unless the weather radar is in satisfac Answer (C) is incorrect because a cockpit voice recorder is required
in large pressurized airplanes with four reciprocating engines.
tory operating condition. If the airborne radar becomes
inoperative en route, the airplane must be operated in
accordance with the approved instructions and proce
dures specified in the operations manual for such an
event. (PLT469) — 14 CFR §121.357

Answers

8151 [A] 8148 [B] 8154 [A] 8140 [A]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 2-15

Chapter 2 Equipment, Navigation and Facilities

ATM, DSP ATM, DSP

8141. Which rule applies to the use of the cockpit voice 8142. For the purpose of testing the flight recorder
recorder erasure feature? system,
A— All recorded information may be erased, except A— a minimum of 1 hour of the oldest recorded data
for the last 30 minutes prior to landing. must be erased to get a valid test.
B—Any information more than 30 minutes old may B— a total of 1 hour of the oldest recorded data
be erased. accumulated at the time of testing may be
C—All recorded information may be erased, unless erased.
the NTSB needs to be notified of an occurrence. C—a total of no more than 1 hour of recorded data
may be erased.
When a cockpit voice recorder is required on an airplane,
it must be operated continuously from the start of the A total of 1 hour of recorded data may be erased for
use of the checklist (before starting engines for the pur the purpose of testing a flight recorder or flight recorder
pose of flight), to completion of the finalchecklist at the system. Any erasure must be of the oldest recorded
terminationof flight. Information recorded more than 30 data accumulated at the time of testing. (PLT388) — 14
minutes earlier may be erased or otherwise obliterated. CFR §121.343
(PLT388) — 14 CFR §121.359 Answer (A) is incorrectbecause a maximum of 1 hour of data may
Answer (A) is incorrect because the requirement is that any infor be erased for testing. Answer (C) is incorrectbecause a total of no
mation more than 30 minutes old may be erased. Answer (C) is more than 1 hour of flight recorder data may be erased, but it must
incorrect because the requirement is to retain any information that be 1 hour of the oldest recorded data.
was recorded within the last 30 minutes.

ATM, DSP
8143. A cockpit voice recorder must be operated
A— from the start of the before starting engine
checklist to completion of final checklist upon
termination of flight.
B— from the start of the before starting engine
checklist to completion of checklist prior to engine
shutdown.
C—when starting to taxi for takeoff to the engine
shutdown checklist after termination of the flight.

When a cockpit voice recorder is required on an airplane,

it must be operated continuously from the start of the
use of the checklist (before starting engines for the pur
pose of flight), to completion of the final checklist at the
termination of flight. Information recorded more than 30
minutes earlier may be erased or otherwise obliterated.
(PLT388) — 14 CFR §121.359

Answers

8141 [B] 8143 [A] 8142 [B]

2-16 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 2 Equipment, Navigation and Facilities

Communications
Each flag and domestic operator must have a two-way radio system that, under normal conditions,
allows reliable and rapid communications between its aircraft and the appropriate dispatch office. For
operations within the 48 contiguous states, this system must be independent of any operated by the
U.S. government.

ALL ALL
9258. ATC asks you to follow the B737 3 NM ahead of 9783. When should transponders be operated on the
you on the approach path. ATC is responsible to ensure ground during taxiing?
A— wake turbulence avoidance. A— Only when ATC specifically requests that the
B—traffic separation only. transponder to be activated.
C—wind shear avoidance. B—Any time the airport is operating under IFR.
C—All the time when at an airport with ASDE-X.
A pilot's acceptance of instructions to follow another
aircraftor provide visual separation from itis an acknowl Ifoperating at an airport withAirportSurface Detection
edgment that the pilot will maneuver the aircraft as Equipment - Model X (ASDE-X), transponders should
necessary to avoid the other aircraft or to maintain in- be transmitting "on" withaltitude reporting continuously
trailseparation. In operations conducted behind heavy while moving on the airport surface if so equipped.
jet aircraft, it is also an acknowledgment that the pilot (PLT149) —AIM 14-1-20
accepts the responsibility for wake turbulence separa
tion. (PLT149)—AIM 14-4-14
ALL
9783-1. Ifyou notice ATC is unusually quiet and one of
ATM, DSP your VHF transmit lights is illuminated, then you should
8135. Who must the crew of a domestic or flag air car suspect
rier airplane be able to communicate with, under normal A— your VHF receiver is inoperative.
conditions, along the entire route (in either direction) B— your VHF transmitter is keyed and you probably
of flight? have a stuck microphone.
A-ARINC. C—the radio is performing a self-test function.
B-Any FSS.
C—Appropriate dispatch office. If radio communications are unusually quiet, suspect
radio problems or a stuck microphone, and then contact
Each domestic and flag air carrier must show that a ATC and look for light gun signals. (PLT362) — AIM
two-way air/ground radio communications system is
available at points that will ensure reliable and rapid
ALL
communications, under normal operating conditions
over the entire route (either direct or via approved point 9784. When taxiing on an airport with ASDE-X, you
to point circuits) between each airplane and the appro should
priate dispatch office, and between each airplane and A—operate the transponder only when the airport is
the appropriate air traffic control unit. (PLT390) — 14 under IFR or at night during your taxi.
CFR §121.99 B—operate the transponder with altitude reporting all
Answer (A) is incorrect because the aircraft must be able to com of the time during taxiing.
municate directly with the air carrier dispatch office, not just ARINC C— be ready to activate the transponder upon ATC
ARINC is a commercial message company which subscribers may
use to relay messages, telephone calls, etc. Answer (B) is incorrect
request while taxing.
because regulations require that the company communications
system be independent of any system operated by the FAA or any Ifoperating at an airportwith Airport Surface Detection
other third party. Equipment - Model X (ASDE-X), transponders should
be transmitting "on" with altitude reportingcontinuously
while moving on the airport surface if so equipped.
(PLT149) —AIM 14-1-20

Answers

9258 [B] 8135 [C] 9783 [C] 9783-1 [B] 9784 [B]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 2-17

Chapter 2 Equipment, Navigation and Facilities

Navigation Equipment
When an aircraft is flown IFR or VFR Over-the-Top it must have a dual installation of the navigation radios
required to fly that route. This means that an aircraft flying Victor airways or jet routes must have two
operable VOR systems. Only one ILS system and one marker beacon system is required under Part 121.
When an aircraft is navigating over routes using low frequency, ADF or Radio Range, it only needs
one receiver for those NAVAIDs, if it is also equipped with two VOR receivers. If that is the case, the
VOR stations must be located such that the aircraft could complete the flight to a suitable airport and
make an instrument approach if the low frequency system fails. The airplane must also be fueled to
allow for such a failure.
Whenever a different VOR station is tuned, the pilot must listen to the Morse code identification. This
will ensure that the correct frequency has been tuned and that a usable signal is available. Occasion
ally, when a VOR station is undergoing routine maintenance, it will broadcast a signal that is not reliable
enough to use for navigation. This condition is indicated in one of two ways. Either the coded ident will
be turned off or the ident will be changed to the letters T - E - S - T. Other than the identifier, the station
may appear to be broadcasting a normal signal.
To be flown IFR, an aircraft must have had its VORs checked within the past 30 days. The pilots
may check the accuracy of the VORs in one of several ways.
The VORs may be checked using a VOT facility on an airport. The VOT broadcasts the 360° radial
and so the CDI needle should center either on a setting of 360° with a FROM indication or on 180° with
a TO indication. A deviation of ±4° is acceptable for a VOT check.
If a VOT is not available, a VOR checkpoint may be used instead. The aircraft must be moved to
the checkpoint and the designated radial set in the CDI course. The acceptable variation for a ground
check is ±4°. For an airborne check the allowable variation is ±6°.

If no VOT or VOR check point is available, the VORs may be checked against each other. This is
called a "dual VOR check." Tune the VORs to the same station and check the difference in indicated
bearing. If they are within 4° of each other, the check is satisfactory. This check can be performed on
the ground or in the air.
The person making a VOR check must make an entry in the aircraft log or other record. A proper
entry includes the date, place and bearing error. The checker must sign the entry. Besides the VOR
check, the altimeter system and the transponder must have been checked within the last 24 calendar
months (14 CFR §91.411 and §91.413).
Whenever VOR receivers are required on board an aircraft operating within the United States, it
must also have at least one DME receiver on board as well. Note: 14 CFR §91.205 requires a DME
only ifthe aircraft is operated above FL240. 14 CFR §121.349 makes the DME required equipment for
all air carrier aircraft operating in the U.S. If the DME fails in flight, the pilot must inform ATC as soon as
possible.
DME indicates the actual distance from the station to the receiving aircraft in nautical miles. That is
different from the horizontal distance because the aircraft is always higher than the DME ground station
and altitude is included in the slant range. As a practical matter, the difference between the horizontal
distance and the "slant range" is insignificant at distances of more than 10 miles from the station. There
is a considerable error close to the station when the aircraft is at high altitudes. In such a situation, almost
all of the slant range distance is vertical. When an aircraft passes over a DME station, the distance indi
cated at station passage is the altitude of the aircraft above the station in nautical miles. For example,
if an airplane flew over a VORTAC site 12,000 feet above the station, the DME would indicate 2.0 NM.

2-18 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 2 Equipment, Navigation and Facilities

A multi-function display (MFD) presents information drawn from a variety of aircraft information
systems. The moving map function uses the MFD to provide a pictorial view of the present position of
the aircraft, the route programmed into the flight management system, the surrounding airspace, and
geographical features. The MFD and moving map can help you maintain the "big picture" and aware
ness of potential landing sites.

ALL ALL
9019. What would be the identification when a VORTAC 9375. What is the maximum permissible variation
is undergoing routine maintenance and is considered between the two bearing indicators on a dual VOR
unreliable? system when checking one VOR against the other?
A- A test signal, "TESTING," is sent every 30 A— 4° on the ground and in flight.
seconds. B— 6° on the ground and in flight.
B— Identifier is preceded by "M" and an intermittent C-6° in flight and 4° on the ground.
"OFF" flag would appear.
C—The identifier would be removed. Ifa dual system VOR (units independent of each other
except for the antenna) is installed in the aircraft, the
During periods of routine or emergency maintenance, person checking the equipment may check one system
coded identification (orcode and voice, where applicable) against the other. The maximum permissible variation
is removed fromcertain FAA NAVAIDs. Duringperiods of between the two indicated bearings is 4°. (PLT508) —
maintenance, VHFranges may radiate a T-E-S-Tcode. 14 CFR §91.171
(PLT300) —AIM 11-1-3 Answer (B) is incorrect because 6° is the maximum permissible
Answer (A) is incorrect because a facility may send a T-E-S-T code bearing error when checking a single VOR system against a pub
(not TESTING") during periods of maintenance. Answer (B) is incor lished radial while in the air, not when checking a dual VOR system.
rect because an identifier preceded by "M" designates an identifica Answer (C) is incorrect because 6° is the maximum permissible
tion group for the Microwave Landing System (MLS), a system no bearing error when checking a single VOR system while in the air.
longer in operation. Regardless of whether you are on the ground or airborne, the maxi
mum permissible bearing error is only 4° when using a cross-check
between dual VORs.

ALL
9020. Which indication may be received when a VOR is ALL
undergoing maintenance and is considered unreliable? 9405. During a VOT check of the VOR equipment, the
A—Coded identification T-E-S-T. course deviation indicator centers on 356° with the TO/
B— Identifier is preceded by "M" and an intermittent FROM reading FROM. This VOR equipment may
"OFF" flag might appear. A— be used if 4° is entered on a correction card and
C—An automatic voice recording stating the VOR is subtracted from all VOR courses.
out-of-service for maintenance. B— be used during IFR flights, since the error is
within limits.
During periods of routine or emergency maintenance,
C—not be used during IFR flights, since the TO/
coded identification (or code and voice, where applicable)
FROM should read TO.
is removed from certain FAA NAVAIDs. Duringperiods of
maintenance, VHF ranges may radiate a T-E-S-T code. With the course deviation indicator (CDI) centered, the
(PLT300)—AIM 11-1-3 omni-bearing selector should read 0° (±4°) with the TO/
Answer (B) is incorrect because an identifier preceded by "M" des FROM indicator showing FROM or 180° (±4°) with the
ignates an identification group for the Microwave Landing System
TO/FROM indicator showing TO. (PLT508) — 14 CFR
(MLS), a system no longer in operation. Answer (C) is incorrect
because this is used to identify a station and it is removed when the §91.171
VOR is undergoing maintenance and is considered unreliable. Answer (A) is incorrect because 4° is the maximum permissible
bearing error for a VOT check, and no correction card exists for
VORs. VORs are either withinor not withinacceptable limits.Answer
(C) is incorrect because a "TO" reading would be indicated if the
omni-bearing selector were selected to 180°, not 0".

Answers

9019 [C] 9020 [A] 9375 [A] 9405 [B]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 2-19

Chapter 2 Equipment, Navigation and Facilities

ALL ALL

9406. If an airborne checkpoint is used to check the 9377. Which checks and inspections of flight instruments
VOR system for IFR operations, the maximum bearing or instrument systems must be accomplished before an
error permissible is aircraft can be flown under IFR?

A—plus or minus 6°. A—VOR within 30 days and altimeter systems and
B— plus 6° or minus 4°. transponder within 24 calendar months.
C— plus or minus 4°. B— ELT test within 30 days, altimeter systems within
12 calendar months, and transponder within 24
If neither a VOT nor a designated ground checkpoint calendar months.
is available, a pilot may use a designated airborne C—Airspeed indicator within 24 calendar months,
checkpoint for the VOR check. The maximum permis altimeter system within 24 calendar months, and
sible bearing erroris ±6°. (PLT508) — 14 CFR §91.171 transponder within 12 calendar months.
Answer (B) is incorrect because the maximum bearing error is ±6.
Answer (C) is incorrect because ±4° is the maximum permissible No person may operate an aircraft under IFR using the
bearing error when using a VOTcheck or a radio repair facility.
VOR system of radio navigation unless the VOR equip
ment of that aircraft has been operationally checked
ALL
withinthe preceding 30 days. No person may operate an
9376. Which entry shall be recorded by the person airplane in controlled airspace under IFRunless, within
performing a VOR operational check? the preceding 24 calendar months, each static pressure
system, each altimeter instrument, and each automatic
A— Frequency, radial and facility used, and bearing pressure altitude reporting system has been tested and
error.
inspected. No person may use an ATC transponder
B— Flight hours and number of days since last check, required by regulations unless, within the preceding
and bearing error. 24 calendar months, it has been tested and inspected.
C—Date, place, bearing error, and signature. (PLT508) — 14 CFR §§91.171, 91.411, 91.413
Each person making the VOR operational check required Answer (B) is incorrect because ELTsdo not have to be tested every
30 days, and the altimeter must be checked along with transponder
by regulations shall enter the date, place, bearing error every 24 calendar months (not 12 months). Answer (C) is incorrect
and sign the aircraftlog or other record. (PLT508) — 14 because the airspeed indicator is part of the pitot-static system
CFR §91.171 which must be inspected every 24 calendar months and the tran
sponder which must be inspected every 24 calendar months.
Answer (A) is incorrect because the frequency and radial used are
not required entry items. Answer (B) is incorrect because flight hours
and number of days since last check are not required entry items.
ALL
9408. When is DME or suitable RNAV required for an
ALL instrument flight?
9404. What record shall be made by the pilot performing A— At or above 24,000 feet MSL if VOR navigational
a VOR operational check? equipment is required.
A—The date, frequency of VOR or VOT, number of B— In terminal radar service areas.
hours flown since last check, and signature in the C-Above 12,500 feet MSL.
aircraft log.
B—The date, place, bearing error, and signature in If VOR navigational equipment is required, no person
the aircraft log or other record. may operate a U S. -registered civil aircraftwithin the 50
C—The date, approval or disapproval, tach reading, states and District of Columbia, at or above 24,000 feet
and signature in the aircraft log or other MSL, unless that aircraftis equipped withapproved dis
permanent record. tance measuring equipment (DME) or a suitable RNAV
system. (PLT429) — 14 CFR §91.205
Each person making the VORoperational check required
by regulations shall enter the date, place, bearing error
and sign the aircraftlog or other record. (PLT508) — 14
CFR §91.171
Answer (A) is incorrect because neither the frequency nor number
of hours flown since the last check need to be entered in the log or
record. Answer (C) is incorrect because neither the tach reading nor
approval or disapproval need to be entered in the record of a VOR
operational check.

Answers

9406 [A] 9376 [C] 9404 [B] 9377 [A] 9408 [A]

2-20 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 2 Equipment, Navigation and Facilities

ALL ATM, DSP

9023. What DME indications should a pilot observe 8145. When an air carrier flight is operated under IFR
when directly over a VORTAC site at 12,000 feet? or over-the-top on "victor airways," which navigation
A—0 DME miles. equipment is required to be installed in duplicate?
B—2 DME miles. A-VOR.
C-2.3 DME miles. B-ADF.
C-VORandDME.
Distance information displayed on DME equipment is
slant range from the station in nautical miles. 12,000 No person may operate IFR or Over-the-Top unless the
feet directly over a VORTAC is almost exactly 2 NM. airplane is equipped with the radio equipment neces
(PLT202) — FAA-H-8083-15 sary for the route, and is able to satisfactorily receive
Answer (A) is incorrect because the DME would indicate 0 DME radio navigational signals from all primary en route
miles if the DME were sitting on top of the VORTAC site. Answer and approach navigational facilities intended for use,
(C) is incorrect because 2.3 DME miles would be indicated if the by either of two independent systems. (PLT322) — 14
airplane were at 13,800 feet (6,000 x 2.3) above the VORTAC site.
CFR §121.349

ALL
ATM, DSP
9024. Where does the DME indicator have the great
8195. An air carrier operates a flight in VFR over-the-top
est error between the ground distance and displayed
distance to the VORTAC?
conditions. What radio navigation equipment is required
to be a dual installation?
A- High altitudes close to the VORTAC.
A-VOR.
B- Low altitudes close to the VORTAC.
B-VOR and ILS.
C- Low altitudes far from the VORTAC.
C-VORandDME.
Distance information displayed on DME equipment is
No person may operate IFR or Over-the-Top unless the
slant range from the station in nautical miles. The great
airplane is equipped with the radio equipment neces
est difference between displayed distance and ground
sary for the route and is able to satisfactorily receive
distance will occur at high altitudes close to the VORTAC.
radio navigational signals from all primary en route
(PLT202) — FAA-H-8083-15
and approach navigational facilities intended for use,
Answer (B) is incorrect because at low altitudes close to the VOR
TAC, the slant-range erroris less than at high altitudes close to the
by either of two independent systems. (PLT429) — 14
VORTAC. Answer (C) is incorrect because the slant-range error is at CFR §121.349
its smallest at low altitudes far from the VORTAC.

ATM, DSP
ALL 8195-1. An air carrier operates a flight in VFR over-the-
9570. (Refer to Figure 112.) While arcing left on the top conditions where pilotage is not used. What radio
IAH 10 DME Arc, the pilot experiences a left crosswind navigation equipment is required?
component. Where should the bearing pointer be refer A— single VOR and DME installed.
enced relative to the 90° (wingtip) position to maintain B—dual approved independent navigation systems.
the 10 DME range? C-dual VOR, ILS's, and DME.
A—On the left wingtip reference.
B— Behind the left wingtip reference. No person may operate IFR or over-the-top unless the
C—Ahead of the left wingtip reference. airplane is equipped with the radio equipment neces
sary for the route and is able to satisfactorily receive
Ifan aircraft was flying a perfect 10 DME arc to the left radio navigational signals from all primary en route
in no wind conditions, the RMIbearing would remain on and approach navigational facilities intended for use,
the left wing-tip reference mark indicating that the VOR by either of two independent systems. (PLT429) — 14
was exactly 90° to the left of the aircraft's heading. With CFR §121.349
a left crosswind, the pilot would have to turn the aircraft
toward the wind to compensate for the drift to the right.
That would place the bearing to the VORless than 90°,
and the bearing pointer would be ahead of the wing-tip
reference. (PLT202) — Fly the Wing

Answers

9023 [B] 9024 [A] 9570 [C] 8145 [A] 8195 [A] 8195-1 [B]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 2-21

Chapter 2 Equipment, Navigation and Facilities

ATM, DSP In the case of IFR operation over routes in which naviga
8149. If an air carrier airplane is flying IFR using a single tion is based on low-frequency radio range or automatic
ADF navigation receiver and the ADF equipment fails, direction finding, only one low-frequency radio range
the flight must be able to or ADF receiver need be installed if the airplane is
A— proceed safely to a suitable airport using VOR equipped with two VOR receivers, and VOR navigational
aids and complete an instrument approach by aids are so located and the airplane is fueled so that, in
use of the remaining airplane radio system. the case of failure of the low-frequency radio range or
B— continue to the destination airport by means of ADF receiver, the flightmay proceed safely to a suitable
dead reckoning navigation. airport by means of VOR aids and complete an instru
C—proceed to a suitable airport using VOR aids, ment approach by use of the remaining airplane radio
complete an instrument approach and land. system. (PLT322) — 14 CFR §121.349

In the case of IFR operation over routes in which naviga

ATM, DSP
tion is based on low-frequency radio range or automatic
8146. When must an air carrier airplane be DME/suit-
direction finding, only one low-frequency radio range
able RNAV system equipped?
or ADF receiver need be installed if the airplane is
equipped with two VORreceivers, and VORnavigational A— In Class E airspace for all IFR or VFR on Top
aids are so located and the airplane is fueled so that, in operations.
the case of failure of the low-frequency radio range or B— Whenever VOR navigation equipment is required.
ADF receiver, the flightmay proceed safely to a suitable C— For flights at or above FL 180.
airport by means of VOR aids and complete an instru
ment approach by use of the remaining airplane radio Whenever VOR navigational receivers are required by
system. (PLT429) — 14 CFR §121.349 regulation, at least one approved distance measuring
equipment (DME)unitor suitable RNAVsystem capable
of receiving and indicating distance information from
ATM, DSP VORTAC facilities must be installed on each airplane
8147. When a pilot plans a flight using NDB NAVAIDs, when operated in the 50 states and the District of
which rule applies? Columbia. (PLT405) — 14 CFR §121.349
A— The airplane must have sufficient fuel to proceed, Answer (A) is incorrect because DME is only required if VOR
equipment is required and not only in Class E airspace. Answer
by means of one other independent navigation (C) is incorrect because DME is only required if VOR receivers are
system, to a suitable airport and complete an required.
instrument approach by use of the remaining
airplane radio system.
B— The pilot must be able to return to the departure ATM, DSP
airport using other navigation radios anywhere 8152. While on an IFR flight in controlled airspace,
along the route with 150% of the forecast the failure of which unit will precipitate an immediate
headwinds. report to ATC?
C—The airplane must have sufficient fuel to proceed, A— One engine, on a multiengine aircraft.
by means of VOR NAVAIDS, to a suitable airport B—Airborne radar.
and land anywhere along the route with 150% of C-DME.
the forecast headwinds.
If the distance measuring equipment (DME) becomes
inoperative enroute, the pilot shall notify ATC of that fail
ure as soon as it occurs. (PLT429)—14 CFR§121.349

Answers

8149 [A] 8147 [A] 8146 [B] 8152 [C]

2-22 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 2 Equipment, Navigation and Facilities

ALL
9751. (See Figure shown below.) The moving map
below reflects a loss of
A— position information.
B-theAHRS.
C- the ADC.

Failure indications on the moving map can be quite

subtle. The MFD in Figure 242 reflects a loss of posi
tion information, indicated by the removal of the aircraft
symbol, compass labels, and other subtle differences.
(PLT524) — FAA-H-8083-6
Answers (B) and (C) are incorrect because an AHRS or ADC failure
would be depicted by red X's on the PFD.

Question 9751

Horizontal Situation Indicator (HSI)

The Horizontal Situation Indicator (HSI) is a combination of two instruments: the heading indicator
and the VOR. See Figure 2-3.
The aircraft heading displayed on the rotating
Selected heading Lubber line
azimuth card under the upper lubber line in Figure
2-2 is 330°. The course-indicating arrowhead that Course select Compass card

is shown is set to 300°. The tail of the course-

indicating arrow indicates the reciprocal, or 120°.
The course deviation bar operates with a VOR/
LOC navigation receiver to indicate either left or Lateral
right deviations from the course that is selected Glide deviation
slope
with the course-indicating arrow. It moves left or pointer-
bar

right to indicate deviation from the centerline in Miniature

the same manner that the angular movement of a Lateral. airplane

deviation
conventional VOR/LOC needle indicates deviation scale
from course.
Heading Course
The desired course is selected by rotating the select select
course-indicating arrow in relation to the azimuth knob knob

card by means of the course set knob. This gives

To / From pointer
the pilot a pictorial presentation. The fixed aircraft
symbol and the course deviation bar display the Figure 2-3. Horizontal Situation Indicator (HSI)
aircraft relative to the selected course as though
the pilot was above the aircraft looking down.
The TO/FROM indicator is a triangular-shaped pointer. When this indicator points to the head of the
course arrow, it indicates that the course selected, and if properly intercepted and flown, will take the
aircraft TO the selected facility, and vice versa.
The glide slope deviation pointer indicates the relationship of the aircraft to the glide slope. When
the pointer is below the center position, the aircraft is above the glide slope and an increased rate of
descent is required.
Continued

Answers

9751 [A]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 2-23

Chapter 2 Equipment, Navigation and Facilities

To orient where the aircraft is in relation to the facility, first determine which radial is selected (look at
the arrowhead). Next, determine whether the aircraft is flying to or away from the station (look at the TO/
FROM indicator) to find which hemisphere the aircraft is in. Next, determine how far from the selected
course the aircraft is (look at the deviation bar) to find which quadrant the aircraft is in. Last, consider
the aircraft heading (under the lubber line) to determine the aircraft's position within the quadrant.
Aircraft displacement from course is approximately 200 feet per dot per nautical mile. For example, at
30 NM from the station, 1-dot deflection indicates approximately 1 NM displacement of the aircraft from
the course centerline. Therefore, a 2.5-dot deflection at 60 NM would mean the aircraft is approximately
5 NM from the course centerline.

ALL ALL

8999. (Refer to Figures 142 and 143.) To which aircraft 9001. (Refer to Figures 142 and 143.) To which aircraft
position does HSI presentation "D" correspond? position does HSI presentation "F" correspond?
A-4. A-10.
B-15. B-14.
C-17. C-16.

HSI Indicator "D" has a course selection of 180°, and HSI Indicator "F" has a course selection of 180°, and
the TO/FROM indicator is pointing to the tail of the the TO/FROM indicator is pointing to the tail of the
course arrow. So the aircraft is flying away FROM the course arrow. So the aircraft is flying away FROM the
station, and is south of R-270 and R-090. The CDI bar is station, and is south of R-270 and R-090. The CDI bar
deflected left, which means the aircraft is west of R-180. is centered, which means the aircraft is on R-180. The
The aircraft heading is 180°, which describes position aircraft heading is 045°, which describes position 16.
17. (PLT355) — FAA-H-8083-15 (PLT355) — FAA-H-8083-15
Answer (A) is incorrect because position 4 is to the north of the Answer (A) is incorrect because position 10 is north of R-270 and
270/090 radials, which would require a TO indication. Answer (B) R-090 and east of R-360 and R-180, which would require a TO
is incorrect because the course deflection bar on position 15 would indication and a right course deflection. Answer (B) is incorrect
have a centered deflection bar and a heading of 360°. because position 14 is to the east of R-180, which would require a
right course deflection.

ALL
9000. (Refer to Figures 142 and 143.) To which aircraft ALL

position does HSI presentation "E" correspond? 9002. (Refer to Figures 142 and 143.) To which aircraft
position does HSI presentation "A" correspond?
A-5.
B-6. A-1.
C-15. B-8.
C—11.
HSI Indicator "E" has a course selection of 360° and
the TO/FROM indicator is pointing to the tail of the HSI Indicator "A" has a course selection of 090°, and
course arrow. So the aircraft is flying away FROM the the TO/FROM indicator is pointing to the head of the
station, and is north of R-270 and R-090. The CDI bar is course arrow. So the aircraft is flying TO the station, and
deflected left, which means the aircraft is east of R-180. is west of R-180 and R-000. The CDI bar is deflected
The aircraft heading is 360°, which describes position 6. right, which means the aircraft is north of R-270. The
(PLT355) — FAA-H-8083-15 aircraft heading is 205°, which describes position 1.
Answer (A) is incorrect because position 5 would have a centered (PLT355) — FAA-H-8083-15
deflection bar and a heading of 180°. Answer (C) is incorrect Answer (B) is incorrect because position 8 is to the right of R-360
because position 15 is to the south of the R-270 and R-090, which and R-180, which would require a FROM indication. Answer (C) is
would require a TO indication, and the deflection bar would be cen incorrect because airplane 11 is to the right of R-360 and R-180 and
tered. is south of R-270 and R-090, which would require a FROM indica
tion and a left deviation indication.

Answers

8999 [C] 9000 [B] 9001 [C] 9002 [A]

2-24 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 2 Equipment, Navigation and Facilities

ALL Aircraft displacement from course is approximately 200

9003. (Refer to Figures 142 and 143.) To which aircraft feet per dot per nautical mile. For example, at 30 NM
position does HSI presentation "B" correspond? from the station, 1-dot deflection indicates approximately
A-9. 1 NM displacement of the aircraft from the course cen
B-13. terline. Therefore, a 2.5-dot deflection at 60 NM would
C-19. mean the aircraftis approximately 5 NM from the course
centerline. (PLT276) — FAA-H-8083-15
HSI Indicator "B"has a course selection of 270°, and the Answer (B) is incorrect because 7.5 NM would be indicated by a
TO/FROMindicator is pointing to the tail of the course displacement of almost 4 dots. Answer (C) is incorrect because 10.0
NM would be indicated by a full deflection.
arrow. So the aircraftis flying away FROM the station,
and is west of R-180 and R-000. The CDI bar is deflected
right, which means the aircraft is south of R-270. The ALL
aircraft heading is 135°, which describes position 19. 8985. (Refer to Figure 139.) On which radial is the
(PLT355) — FAA-H-8083-15 aircraft as indicated by the No. 1 NAV?
Answer (A) is incorrect because position 9 would require a left
course deflection bar indication and a TO indication. Answer (B) is A-R-175.
incorrectbecause position 13 is to the rightof R-360 and R-180 and B-R-165.
would require a TO indication. C-R-345.

The No. 1 Navhas a course selection of 350°, and the TO/

ALL FROMindicatoris pointing to the tailof the course arrow.
9004. (Refer to Figures 142 and 143.) To which aircraft So the aircraft is flying away FROMthe station, and is
position does HSI presentation "C" correspond? in the north hemisphere. The CDIbar is deflected right,
A-6. which means the aircraftis in the northwestern quadrant.
B-7. The aircraft heading is 140°. The only answer choice in
C-12. the northwest is R-345. (PLT276) — FAA-H-8083-15
Answer(A)is incorrect because R-175 wouldrequire a TO indicator.
HSI Indicator "C" has a course selection of 360°, and Answer (B) is incorrectbecause R-165 wouldrequirea TOindicator
the TO/FROM indicator is pointing to the head of the and a left deflection.

course arrow. So the aircraft is flyingTOthe station, and

is south of R-270 and R-090. The CDI bar is deflected
ALL
left, which means the aircraft is east of R-180. The
8986. (Refer to Figure 139.) Which OBS selection on
aircraft heading is 310°, which describes position 12.
the No. 1 NAV would center the CDI and change the
(PLT355) — FAA-H-8083-15
ambiguity indication to a TO?
Answer (A) is incorrect because position 6 has a heading of 360"
and is north of R-270 and R-090, which would require a FROM indi A-175.
cation. Answer (B) is incorrectbecause position 7 is north of R-270 B-165.
and R-090 radials, which would require a FROM indication.
C-345.

The No. 1 Nav has a course selection of 350°, and the

ALL
TO/FROM indicator is pointing to the tail of the course
8984. (Refer to Figure 139.) What is the lateral dis
arrow. So the aircraftis flying away FROM the station,
placement of the aircraft in nautical miles from the radial
and is in the north hemisphere. The CDIbar is deflected
selected on the No. 1 NAV?
2.5° right and the aircraft heading is 140°, which would
A-5.0NM. put the aircraft on R-345. To center the CDI and change
B-7.5NM. the ambiguity indication to a TO, rotatethe OBS to 165°
C-10.0NM. (the reciprocal of R-345). (PLT276) — FAA-H-8083-15
Answers (A) and (C) are incorrect because the aircraft is currently
on R-345.

Answers

9003 [C] 9004 [C] 8984 [A] 8985 [C] 8986 [B]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 2-25

Chapter 2 Equipment, Navigation and Facilities

ALL ALL
8987. (Refer to Figure 139.) What is the lateral dis 8990. (Refer to Figures 140 and 141.) To which aircraft
placement in degrees from the desired radial on the position(s) does HSI presentation "A" correspond?
No. 2 NAV?
A—9 and 6.
A-1°. B—9 only.
B-2°. C—6 only.
C-4°.
HSI Indicator "A" is set up with the head of the arrow
Full scale deflection is 10° so each dot represents 2°. pointing to 270° (normal sensing). The Course Devia
The CDI is displaced two dots. Therefore, the lateral tion Indicator is centered; therefore, the aircraft is on
displacement is: 2 dots x 2°/dot = 4°. (PLT276) — FAA- the extended centerline of runway #9 and #27. With a
H-8083-15 heading of 360, Indicator "A" represents an aircraft at
Answer (A) is incorrect because a 1° lateral displacement would be position #6 or #9. See the figure below. (PLT355) —
indicated by a 1/2-dot displacement of the CDI. Answer (B) is incor FAA-H-8083-15
rect because a 2° lateral displacement would be indicated by a 1-dot
displacement of the CDI. Answers (B) and (C) are incorrect because the indication willbe the
same on both the front course and the back course.

ALL

8988. (Refer to Figure 139.) Which OBS selection on

the No. 2 NAV would center the CDI?
A-174.
B-166.
C-335. Question 8990

Full scale deflection is 10°, so each dot represents 2°.

ALL
The CDI is displaced two dots (4°). The OBS is set at
170° with a FROM indication, and the aircraft is 4 ° to the 8991. (Refer to Figures 140 and 141.) To which aircraft
right of course (oron R-174). Simplyrotating the OBS to position(s) does HSI presentation "B"correspond?
174 ° would center the CDI.(PLT276) — FAA-H-8083-15 A-11.
Answer (B) is incorrect because a right deflection would indicate B-5and 13.
R-166. Answer (C) is incorrect because the TO-FROM indicator is C-7and 11.
on FROM, not TO.

HSI Indicator "B" is set up with the head of the arrow

ALL
pointing to 090° (reverse sensing). The CDIindication is
deflected right, whichmeans the aircraft is actually to the
8989. (Refer to Figure 139.) Which OBS selection on
south of the extended centerline. Indicator "B" then, with
the No. 2 NAV would center the CDI and change the
ambiguity indication to a TO?
the aircraft flying on a heading of 090° could be at posi
tion #13 and #5. Remember that the local receiver does
A-166. not know where you are in relationship to the antenna
B-346. site. See the figure below. (PLT355) — FAA-H-8083-15
C-354.
Answer (A) is incorrect because position 11 has a 270° heading.
Answer (C) is incorrect because positions 7 and 11 have 270°
Rotating the OBS to the reciprocal of 170° (350°) under headings.
the course arrow will cause the ambiguity indication to
change to a TO. The CDI indicates that the aircraft is
4° to the left of course. Rotating the OBS to 354° will
center the CDI. (PLT276) — FAA-H-8083-15
Answer (A) is incorrect because a right deflection would currently
mean the airplane is on R-166. To change the ambiguity indicator to
a TO, 180° must be added to the current radial. Answer(B) is incor
rectbecause a right deflection would mean the airplane is currently Question 8991
on R-166.

Answers

8987 [C] 8988 [A] 8989 [C] 8990 [A] 8991 [B]

2-26 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 2 Equipment, Navigation and Facilities

ALL ALL
8992. (Refer to Figures 140 and 141.) To which aircraft 8994. (Refer to Figures 140 and 141.) To which aircraft
position does HSI presentation "C" correspond? position(s) does HSI presentation "E" correspond?
A-9. A— 8 only.
B-4. B- 8 and 3.
C-12. C-3 only.

HSI Indicator "C" is set up with the head of the arrow HSI Indicator "E" is set up with the head of the arrow
pointing to 090° (reversesensing). With the CDI centered, pointing to 090° (reversesensing). With the CDI deflected
the aircraftis on the extended centerline. With a heading right, the aircraft is to the south of the extended cen
of 090°, position #12 is the only one which would have terline. On a heading of 045°, position #8 or #3 are the
that indication. See the figure below. (PLT355) — FAA- only answers. See the figure below. (PLT355) — FAA-
H-8083-15 H-8083-15
Answer (A) is incorrect because position 9 has a 360° heading. Answers (A) and (C) are incorrect because both positions 8 and 3
Answer (B) is incorrect because position 4 has a 270° heading. have a 045° heading and are south of the localizer.

Question 8992
Question 8994

ALL
ALL
8993. (Refer to Figures 140 and 141.) To which aircraft
position does HSI presentation "D" correspond? 8995. (Refer to Figures 140 and 141.) To which aircraft
position does HSI presentation "F" correspond?
A-1.
A-4.
B-10.
C-2. B—11.
C-5.
HSI Indicator "D" is set up with the head of the arrow
pointing to 090° (reversesensing). TheCDI is deflected HSI Indicator "F" is set up with the head of the arrow
right, which means theaircraft is to thesouth of course. pointing to270° (normal sensing). TheCDI is centered;
Ona headingof 310° position #2 is theonlychoice. See therefore, the aircraft is on the extended centerline of
the figure below. (PLT355) — FAA-H-8083-15 runway #9 and #27. With a heading of 270°, Indicator
"F" represents an aircraft at position #4. See the figure
Answer(A)is incorrect because position 1 is on a 225° heading and
is north of the localizer. Answer (B) is incorrect because position 10 below. (PLT355) — FAA-H-8083-15
has a 135° heading, and is north of the localizer. Answer (B) is incorrect because position 11 has a left CDI deflec
tion. Answer (C) is incorrect because position 5 has a 090° head
ing. Italso should have a right deflection because it is south of the
localizer.

Question 8993
Question 8995

Answers

8992 [C] 8993 [C] 8994 [B] 8995 [A]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 2-27

Chapter 2 Equipment, Navigation and Facilities

ALL ALL
8996. (Refer to Figures 140 and 141.) To which aircraft 8998. (Refer to Figures 140 and 141.) To which aircraft
position(s) does HSI presentation "G" correspond? position does HSI presentation "I" correspond?
A— 7 only. A-4.
B-7and11. B-12.
C-5and 13. C-11.

HSI Indicator "G" is set up with the head of the arrow HSIIndicator "I"is set up with the head of thearrow point
pointing to 270° (normal sensing). The CDIis deflected ing to 090° (reverse sensing). The CDIis deflected left;
left; therefore, the aircraftis right of the extended cen therefore, the aircraft is north of the extended centerline
terline of runway #9 and #27. With a heading of 270° of runway#9 and #27. With a heading of 270°, Indicator
Indicator "G" represents an aircraft at positions #7 or "i" represents an aircraft at positions #7or#11. See the
#11. See the figure below. (PLT355) — FAA-H-8083-15 figure below. (PLT355) — FAA-H-8083-15
Answer (A) is incorrectbecause position 11 is also north of the local Answer (A) is incorrect because position 4 is on the localizer, and
izer with a 270° heading. Answer (C) is incorrectbecause positions 5 has a centered CDI. Answer (B) is incorrect because position 12 is
and 13 have a 190° heading and are south of the localizer. heading 090° and is on the localizer.

Question 8996 Question 8998

ALL

8997. (Refer to Figures 140 and 141.) To which aircraft

position does HSI presentation "H" correspond?
A-8.
B-1.
C-2.

HSI Indicator "H" is set up with the head of the arrow

pointing to 270° (normal sensing). The CDIis deflected
left; therefore, the aircraft is right of the extended cen
terline of runway #9 and #27. With a heading of 215°,
Indicator "H" represents an aircraftat position #1. See
the figure below. (PLT355) — FAA-H-8083-15
Answer (A) is incorrect because position 8 has a heading of 045°
and is located south of the localizer. Answer (C) is incorrectbecause
position 2 has a heading of 315° and is located south of the localizer.

Question 8997

Answers

8996 [B] 8997 [B] 8998 [C]

2-28 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 2 Equipment, Navigation and Facilities

Global Navigation
When an air carrier operates on routes outside of the 48 contiguous states where the aircraft's position
cannot be reliably fixed for more than one hour, special rules apply. The aircraft must either be equipped
with a "specialized means of navigation" (INS or Doppler Radar), or one of the flight crewmembers must
have a current flight navigator certificate. The FAA may also require either a navigator or the special
ized navigation on routes which meet the one hour rule if they feel it's necessary.All routes that require
either the navigator or specialized means of navigation must be listed in the air carrier's operations
specifications.
Certain routes over the North Atlantic Ocean between North America and Europe require better than
normal standards of navigation. Appendix C of 14 CFR Part 91 defines these routes and the required
navigation standards. TheAdministrator (the FAA) has the authority to grant a deviation from the navi
gation standards of Appendix C if an operator requests one.

ALL ATM, DSP

9352. Which publication includes information on opera 8196. Routes that require a flight navigator are listed
tions in the North Atlantic High Level Airspace (NAT in the
HLA)? A— Airplane Flight Manual.
A-14 CFR Part 121. B— International Flight Information Manual.
B- ICAO Annex 1, Chapter 2. C—Air Carrier's Operations Specifications.
C-14 CFR Part 91.
Operations where a flight navigator, special navigation
Appendix C of 14 CFRPart 91 establishes performance equipment, or both are required, are specified in the
standards for navigation in the North Atlantic (NAT) operations specifications of theaircarrier orcommercial
airspace. (PLT393) — 14 CFR §91.705 operator. (PLT389) — 14 CFR §121.389
Answer(A) is incorrect because 14 CFR Part 121 provides rules in
the United States regarding certification and operations: domestic,
flag, and supplemental air carriers and commercial operators of ATM, DSP
large aircraft. Answer (B)is incorrect because ICAO Annex 1, Chap 8197. Where is a list maintained for routes that require
ter 2 concerns licenses and ratings forpilots.
special navigation equipment?
A— Air Carrier's Operations Specifications.
ALL B— International Flight Information Manual.
9353. How may an aircraft operate in North Atlantic C—Airplane Flight Manual.
(NAT) Minimum Navigation Performance Specifications
Airspace with less than the minimum navigation capabil Operations where a flight navigator, special navigation
ity required by 14 CFR Part 91, Appendix C? equipment, or both are required, are specified in the
operations specifications of the aircarrier or commercial
A— By operating under VFR conditions only.
operator. (PLT389) — 14 CFR §121.389
B— By requesting a deviation from the Administrator.
Answers (B) and (C) are incorrect because while the International
C—By operating only between 2400Z and 0600Z. Notices to Airmen and the International Aeronautical Information
Manual may contain information on the location and operation of
Appendix C of 14 CFR Part 91 establishes performance the flight navigation equipment, the air carrier's operations specifi
standards for navigation in the North Atlantic (NAT) air cations determine the routes in whicha flight navigatoris required.
space. TheAdministrator authorizes deviations from the
requirements ofAppendix C. (PLT393) —14 CFR §91.703
Answer (A) is incorrect because NAT flights, with or without MNPS,
maybe conducted inIFR weather conditions as well as VFR. Answer
(C) is incorrect because NAT flights, with or without MNPS, do not
have time restrictions.

Answers

9352 [C] 9353 [B] 8196 [C] 8197 [A]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 2-29

 Chapter 2 Equipment, Navigation and Facilities

DSP ATM, DSP

9811. What document(s) must be in a person's posses 8199. Aflight navigatoror a specialized means of naviga
sion for that person to act as a flight navigator? tion is required aboard an air carrier airplane operated
A—Third-Class Medical Certificate and current Flight outside the 48 contiguous United States and District of
Navigator Certificate. Columbia when
B—Current Flight Navigator Certificate and a current A— operations are conducted IFR or VFR on Top.
Second-Class (or higher) Medical Certificate. B— operations are conducted over water more than
C—Current Flight Navigator Certificate and a valid 50 miles from shore.
passport. C—the airplane's position cannot be reliably fixed for
a period of more than 1 hour.
No person mayact as a flight navigatorof a civil aircraft of
U.S.registry unless he has inhis personal possession a No certificate holder may operate an airplane outside
currentflightnavigator certificate issued to him under this the 48 contiguous states and the Districtof Columbia,
part and a second-class (or higher) medical certificate whenitspositioncannot be reliably fixed for a periodof
issued tohim underPart 67 within thepreceding 12months. more than one hour, withouta flightcrewmember who
(PLT427) — 14 CFR §63.3 holds a currentflight navigator certificate, or unless the
aircraft is equipped with an approvedspecialized means
of navigation. (PLT374) — 14 CFR §121.389
Answer (A) is incorrect because whether IFR or VFR-On-Top, the
requirement applies ifthe airplane's position cannotbe reliably fixed
for more than 1 hour. Answer (B) is incorrect because the require
ment applies over water or land if the airplane's position cannot be
reliably fixed for more than 1 hour.

Approach Systems
The primary instrument approach system in the United States is the Instrument Landing System
(ILS). The system can be divided operationally into three parts: guidance, range and visual information.
If any of the elements is unusable, the approach minimums may be raised or the approach may not be
authorized at all.

The guidance information consists of the localizer for horizontal guidance and the glide slope for
vertical guidance. The localizer operates on one of 40 frequencies from 108.10 MHz to 111.95 MHz. The
glide slope operates on one of 40 paired UHF frequencies. The Morse code identifier of the localizer is
the letter "I" (• •) followed by three other letters unique to that facility. The portion of the localizer used
for the ILS approach is called the front course. The portion ofthe localizer extending from the far end of
the runway is called the back course. The back course may be used for missed approach procedures
or for a back course approach if one is published.
Range information is usually provided by 75 MHz marker beacons or, occasionally, by DME. There
are four types ofmarker beacons associatedwith ILS approaches—the outermarker, the middle marker,
the inner marker and the back course marker. Flying over any marker beacon will result in both visual
and aural indications. The outer marker is identified bya blue light and continuous dashes in Morse code
at a rate of 2 per second. The middle marker is indicated by a flashing amber light and alternating dots
and dashes at a rate of 2 per second. The inner marker flashes the white light and sounds continuous
dots at 6 per second. The backcourse marker will also flash the white light and sound a series of2-dot
combinations. See Figure 2-4 on the next page.
Often, an ADF facility (called a compass locator) is associated with an ILS approach. Usually it is
located at the outer marker, but occasionally it is co-located with the middle marker. An outer compass
locator is identified with the first 2 letters of the localizer identification group. Amiddle compass locator
is identified by the last 2 letters of the localizer.

Answers

9811 [B] 8199 [C]

2-30 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 2 Equipment, Navigation and Facilities

VHF Localizer ILS approach charts should be

Provides horizontal guidance consulted to obtain variations of
108.10 to 111.95 MHz. Radiates individual systems.
about 100 watts. Horizontal
polarization. Modulation frequencies
90 and 150 Hz. Modulation depth on
course 20% for each frequency. 3\ Flag indicates iffacility
Code identification (1020 Hz, 5%) 1,000' typical. Localizer transmitter not on the air or receiver
and voice communication (modulated building is offset 250' minimum malfunctioning
from center of antenna array and
50%) provided on same channel.
within 90° ±30° from approach
end. Antenna is on centerline and
normally is under 50/1 clearance Middle Marker Outer Marker
plane. Indicates approximate decision Provides finalapproach fixfornon-
height point precision approach
Modulation 1,300 Hz, 95% Modulation 400 Hz, 95%

Keying: Two dashes/second

Sited to provide
55' (±5') runway
threshold
crossing height

UHF Glide Slope Transmitter

Provides vertical guidance
329.3 to 335.0 MHz. Radiates about
5 watts. Horizontal polarization,
modulation on path 40% for 90 Hz
and 150 Hz. The standard glide slope
angle is 3.0 degrees. It may be higher
depending on local terrain.

Outer marker located 4 to 7 miles

from end of runway, where glide
slope intersects the procedure
turn (minimum holding) altitude,
±50' vertically.

Rate of Descent Chart All marker transmitters "~N.® Course width varies
(feet per minute)
Compass locators, rated at 25 watts
approximately 2 watts of 75
MHz modulated about 95%.
M
y 0}
between 3° to 6°
tailored to provide
Angle output 190 to 535 KHz, are installed 700' at threshold
Speed at many outer and some middle (full scale limits)
(Knots) markers. A 400 Hz or a 1020 Hz tone,
2.5° 2.75° 3° modulating the carrier about 95%, is
90 400 440 475 keyed with the first two letters of the "Figures marked with asterisk are
ILS identification on the outer locator typical. Actual figures vary with
110 485 535 585 and the last two letters on the middle deviations in distances to markers,
locator. At some locations, simul glide angles and localizer widths.
130 575 630 690
taneous voice transmissions from the
150 665 730 795 control tower are provided, with
appropriate reduction in identification
160 707 778 849
percentage.

Figure 2-4. Instrument Landing System (ILS)

If a middle marker is out of service, the middle compass locator or PAR radar can be substituted.
The middle marker being inoperative does not affect minimums during a Category I ILS approach.
The visual information portion of the ILS consists of approach lights, touchdown and centerline lights
and runway lights.
The localizer is very narrow. In fact a full scale deflection (CDI moving from the center to full scale
left or right) is only about 700 feet at the runway threshold.
Continued

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 2-31

 Chapter 2 Equipment, Navigation and Facilities

Different aircraft will require different rates of descent to stay on glide slope. Agood rule of thumb
is that the vertical speed in feet per minute will be equal to about five times the ground speed in knots.
For example, an aircraft with an approach speed of 140 knots will require a descent rate of about 700
feet per minute (140 x 5 = 700).
The lowest approach minimums that can be used for a normal (Category I) ILS approach are a DH
of 200 feet and 1,800 feet RVR. ACategory II ILS approach will have minimums as lowas a DH of 100
feet and a visibility requirement of 1,200 feet RVR. The approach has to be approved for Category II
minimums. In addition to suitable localizer, glide slope and marker beacons, the approach must have
certain additional equipment working onthe landing runway. This equipment includes an approach light
system, High Intensity Runway Lights (HIRL), Touchdown Zone Lights (TDZL), Runway Centerline Lights
(CL) and Runway Visual Range (RVR). Radar, VASI and Runway End Identifier Lights (REIL) are not
required components of a Category II approach system. To descend below the DH from a Category II
approach the pilot must be able to see one of the following:
• The runway threshold;
• The threshold markings;
• The threshold lights;
• The touchdown zone or the touchdown zone markings;
• The touchdown zone lights; or
• The approach light system, except that a pilot may not descend below 100 feet above the touchdown
zone unless the red terminating bars or the red side row bars are distinctly visible and identifiable.
The Simplified Directional Facility (SDF) and the Localizer-type Directional Air (LDA) are approach
systems that give a localizer-type indication to the pilot, but with some significant differences. The LDA
is essentially a localizer, but it is not aligned within 3° ofthe runway as a localizer must be. The localizer
can be any width from 3° to 6° wide. If the LDA is within 30°, straight-in minimums will be published for
it; if not, only circling minimums will be published. The SDF may or may not bealigned with the runway.
The main difference between it and a localizer is that its width is fixed at either 6° or 12°.
ALL ALL
8961. Within what frequency range does the localizer 8966. What functions are provided by ILS?
transmitter of the ILS operate?
A— Azimuth, distance, and vertical angle.
A-108.10 to 118.10 MHz. B—Azimuth, range, and vertical angle.
B-108.10 to 111.95 MHz. C—Guidance, range, and visual information.
C-108.10 to 117.95 MHz.
The ILS systemmaybe divided into three functionalparts:
The localizer transmitter operates on one of 40 ILS
1. Guidance information—localizer, glide slope;
channels within the frequency rangeof 108.10 to 111.95
MHz. (PLT358)—AIM 11-1-9 2. Range information—marker beacon, DME; and
Answer (A) is incorrect because communications frequencies are 3. Visual information—approach lights, touchdown and
above 117.95 MHz. Answer (C) is incorrect because 108.10 to centerline lights, runway lights.
117.95 MHz is the frequency bandin which VORs operate.
(PLT356) —AIM 11-1-9
Answer (A) is incorrect because azimuth and distance information
are providedby a TACAN. Answer (B) is incorrect because a local-
izer/DME approach provides azimuth and range information.

Answers

8961 [B] 8966 [C]

2-32 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 2 Equipment, Navigation and Facilities

ALL ALL

8958. What aural and visual indications should be 8960. What aural and visual indications should be
observed over an ILS inner marker? observed over an ILS outer marker?
A— Continuous dots at the rate of six per second. A— Continuous dots at the rate of six per second.
B— Continuous dashes at the rate of two per second. B— Continuous dashes at the rate of two per second.
C—Alternate dots and dashes at the rate of two per C—Alternate dots and dashes at the rate of two per
second. second.

The code and light identifications of marker beacons The code and light identifications of marker beacons
are as follows: are as follows:

Marker Code Light Marker Code Light

OM BLUE OM BLUE

MM • — AMBER MM • — • — AMBER

IM WHITE IM «...
WHITE

BC WHITE BC • • • • WHITE

(PLT356)—AIM 11-1-9 (PLT277)—A\M11-1-9

Answer(B)is incorrect because continuousdashes at the rateof two Answer (A) is incorrect because continuous dots at the rate of six
per second indicate the ILS outer marker. Answer (C) is incorrect per second indicate an ILS innermarker. Answer (C) is incorrect
because alternate dots and dashes at the rate of two per second because alternating dots and dashes at the rate of twoper second
indicate the ILS middle marker. indicate an ILS middle marker.

ALL ALL

8959. What aural and visual indications should be 8962. If installed, what aural and visual indications
observed over an ILS middle marker? should be observed over the ILS back course marker?
A— Continuous dots at the rate of six per second, A— A series of two dot combinations, and a white
identified as a high pitch tone. marker beacon light.
B— Continuous dashes at the rate of two per second, B— Continuous dashes at the rate of one per second,
identified as a low-pitched tone. and a white marker beacon light.
C—Alternate dots and dashes identified as a low- C—A series of two dash combinations, and a white
pitched tone. marker beacon light.

The code and light identifications of marker beacons The code and light identifications of marker beacons
are as follows: are as follows:

Marker Code Light Marker Code Light

OM BLUE OM BLUE

MM AMBER MM • — • — AMBER

IM WHITE IM «... WHITE

BC WHITE BC .... WHITE

(PLT277)—AIM 11-1-9 (PLT277)—AIM11-1-9

Answer (A) is incorrect because continuous dots at the rate of six Answer (B)is incorrect because this is nota marker indication ofany
per second indicate an ILS inner marker. Answer (B) is incorrect kind, butitmost closely resemblesan ILS outer marker. Answer (C)
because continuous dashes at the rate of two per second indicate is incorrect because this is not marker indication of any kind, but it
an ILS outer marker. most closely resembles an ILS middle marker.

Answers

8958 [A] 8959 [C] 8960 [B] 8962 [A]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 2-33

 Chapter 2 Equipment, Navigation and Facilities

ALL ALL
8956. Which component associated with the ILS is 8970. If the middle marker for a Category IILSapproach
identified by the last two letters of the localizer group? is inoperative,
A— Inner marker. A— the RVR required to begin the approach in
B— Middle compass locator. increased by 20%.
C—Outer compass locator. B— the DA/DH is increased by 50 feet.
C—the inoperative middle marker has no effect on
Compass locators transmit two-letter identification straight-in minimums.
groups. The outer locator transmits the first two letters of
the localizer identification group, and the middle locator The middle marker being inoperative does not affect
transmits the last two letters of the localizer identification minimums. (PLT277)— 14 CFR §91.175
group. (PLT356) — AIM 11-1-9
Answer (A) is incorrect because a simple marker beacon is not
identified by letters; only compass locators are so identified.Answer ALL
(C)is incorrect because an outercompass locator is identified by the 8968. When is the course deviation indicator (CDI)
first two letters of the localizeridentification group.
considered to have a full-scale deflection?
A— When the CDI deflects from full-scale left to full-
ALL scale right, or vice versa.
8957. Which component associated with the ILS is B— When the CDI deflects from the center of the
identified by the first two letters of the localizer identi scale to full-scale left or right.
fication group? C-When the CDI deflects from half-scale left to half-
A— Inner marker.
scale right, or vice versa.
B— Middle compass locator.
Full-scale deflection is 5 dots to either side of center.
C—Outer compass locator.
(PLT276) — FAA-H-8083-15
Compass locators transmit two-letter identification Answers (A) and (C) are incorrect because when the CDI deflects
full-scale leftto full-scale right (or vice versa), thisrepresents2 full-
groups. The outer locator transmits the first two letters of scale deflections.
the localizer identification group, and the middle locator
transmits the last two letters of the localizer identification
group. (PLT356)—AIM 11-1-9 ALL

Answer (A) is incorrect because marker beacons are not identified 8969. Which "rule-of-thumb" may be used to approxi
by letters; only compass locators. Answer (B) is incorrect because mate the rate of descent required for a 3° glidepath?
a middle compass locator is identifiedby the last two letters of the
localizer identificationgroup. A—5 times groundspeed in knots.
B— 8 times groundspeed in knots.
C—10 times groundspeed in knots.
ALL

9403. Which facility may be substituted for the middle Thedescent rateinfeetper minute required tomaintain
marker during a Category I ILS approach? a 3° glide slope is roughly five times yourgroundspeed
A- VOR/DME FIX. in knots. (PLT170) — FAA-P-8740-48
B— Surveillance radar. Answer (B) is incorrect because 8 times the ground speed in knots
wouldresult in a 5%glide slope. Answer (C) is incorrectbecause 10
C—Compass locator. timestheground speed inknots would result ina 6% glideslope.
A compass locator or precision radar may be substi
tuted for the outer or middle marker. (PLT356)—14 ALL
CFR §91.175 9749. The rate of descent for a 3.5 angle of descent
Answer (A) is incorrect because VOR/DME may be substituted for glidescope is
the outer markeronly. Answer (B) is incorrectbecause surveillance
radar maybe substituted for the outermarker only. A— 740 ft/min at 105 knots groundspeed.
B— 740 ft/min at 120 knots airspeed.
C—740 ft/min at 120 knots groundspeed.
Reference Legend 9. Follow 3.5° to right to 740 ft/min
and go up to find the ground speed of 120. (PLT045)
— AIM 11-1-20
Answers

8956 [B] 8957 [C] 9403 [C] 8970 [C] 8968 [B] 8969 [A]
9749 [C]

2-34 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 2 Equipment, Navigation and Facilities

ALL FAA Figure 137 shows the aircraft to be 1 dot below the
8971. (Refer to Figures 135 and 138.) Which displace glide slope and 2 dots left of the localizer, eliminating
ment from the localizer and glide slope at the 1.9 NM answer choice B. FAA Figure 138 shows the displace
point is indicated? ment from the glide slope to be 210 feet and from
A— 710 feet to the left of the localizer centerline and localizer, 1,550 feet at the outer marker (OM). (PLT276)
140 feet below the glide slope. — FAA-H-8083-15
B—710 feet to the right of the localizer centerline and Answer (B) is incorrectbecause the airplane is to the left of the local
izer, and below the glide slope. Answer (C) is incorrect because at
140 feet above the glide slope. the OM 775 feet is one dot on the localizer, not the glide slope, and
C—430 feet to the right of the localizer centerline and 420 feet is two dots on the glide slope.
28 feet above the glide slope.

With the CDI two dots to the left, we are to the right of ALL
course, and according to FAA Figure 138, at the 1.9 NM 8963. The lowest ILS Category II minimums are
location 710 feet to the rightof course. The glide slope A- DH 50 feet and RVR 1,200 feet.
indication is two dots above the glide slope and at the
B- DH 100 feet and RVR 1,000 feet.
1.9 NMmarkon FAA Figure 138, that wouldput you 140
C- DH 150 feet and RVR 1,500 feet.
feet above the glide slope. (PLT141)— FAA-H-8083-15
Answer (A)is incorrectbecause the aircraft is to the rightof the local The lowest authorized ILS minimums with all required
izer and above the glide slope. Answer (C) is incorrect because the
430 feet and 28 feet deviations are at 1,300 feet.
groundandairborne systems componentsoperative, are:
CategoryI—Decision Height (DH) 200 feet and Runway
Visual Range (RVR) 2,400 feet (with touchdownzone
ALL and runway centerlinelighting, RVR 1,800 Category
8972. (Refer to Figures 136 and 138.) Which displace A, B, C; RVR 2,000 Category D),
ment from the localizer centerline and glide slope at the
Category II—DH 100 feet and RVR 1,000 feet, and
1,300-foot point from the runway is indicated?
Category IIIA—RVR 700 feet.
A—21 feet below the glide slope and approximately
320 feet to the right of the runway centerline. (PLT356) —AIM 11-1-9
B—28 feet above the glide slope and approximately Answer (A) is incorrect because a DH of 50 feet is for Category III
250 feet to the left of the runway centerline. operations. Answer(C) is incorrect because a DHof 150 feet is fora
pilot's initial Category II authorization (for the initial 6-month period)
C—21 feet above the glide slope and approximately only and is not the lowest DH forCategory II operations.
320 feet to the left of the runway centerline.

FAA Figure 136shows theaircraft is displaceda dotand ALL

a half left of course and a dot and a half above the glide 9411. Which ground components are required to be
slope, eliminating AnswerA. Interpolating at the 1,300- operative for a Category II approach inadditionto LOC,
foot point, the aircraft is 21 feet above the glide slope glide slope, marker beacons, and approach lights?
and 322 feet left of course. (PLT049)— FAA-H-8083-15
A— Radar, VOR, ADF, taxiway lead-off lights and
Answer (A) is incorrect because the airplane is above the glide
slope, and to the leftof the localizer. Answer(B) is incorrect because RVR.
28 feet is 2 dots, and 250 feet is less than 1-1/4 dots. B- RCLS and REIL.
C—All of the required ground components.

ALL Noperson may operatea civil aircraft ina CategoryII or

8973. (Refer to Figures 137 and 138.) Which displace Category III operation unless each ground component
ment from the localizer and glide slope at the outer required for that operation and the related airborne
marker is indicated? equipment is installed and operating. (PLT420) —
A— 1,550 feet to the left of the localizer centerline 14 CFR §91.189
and 210 feet below the glide slope. Answer (A) is incorrect because radar is not a required Category II
ILS ground component. Answer (B) is incorrect because runway end
B— 1,550 feet to the right of the localizer centerline identifier lights (REIL) are used toprovide rapid identification of the
and 210 feet above the glide slope. approach component for Category II ILS.
C— 775 feet to the left of the localizer centerline and
420 feet below the glide slope.

Answers

8971 [B] 8972 [C] 8973 [A] 8963 [B] 9411 [C]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 2-35

Chapter 2 Equipment, Navigation and Facilities

ALL ALL
9412. When may a pilot descend below 100 feet above 8967. How does the LDA differ from an ILS LOC?
the touchdown zone elevation during a Category II ILS
A- LDA. 6° or 12° wide, ILS - 3° to 6°.
instrument approach when only the approach lights
B— LDA. offset from runway plus 3°, ILS - aligned
are visible?
with runway.
A— After passing the visual descent point (VDP). C— LDA. 15° usable off course indications, ILS - 35°.
B- When the RVR is 1,600 feet or more.
C—When the red terminal bar of the approach light The LDA is not aligned with the runway. (PLT356) —
systems are in sight. AIM 11-1-9
Answer (A) is incorrectbecause an SDF (not LDA) is fixed at either
A pilot may descend below the DH on a Category II 6° or 12° wide. Answer (C) is incorrect because the usable off-
approach using the approach light system as the sole course indications are limited to 35° for both types of approaches
within 10 NM.
visual reference. However, the pilot may not descend
below 100 feetabove touchdown zone elevation (TDZE)
using the approach lights as a reference unless the ALL
red terminating bars or the red side row bars are also 8965. How does the SDF differ from an ILS LOC?
distinctly visible and identifiable. (PLT356) — 14 CFR
§91.189 A- SDF - 6° or 12° wide, ILS - 3° to 6°.
Answer (A) is incorrect because a VDP is not used in conjunction B— SDF - offset from runway plus 4°, ILS - aligned
with Category II ILS instrument approaches. Answer(B) is incorrect with runway.
because, although 1,600 feet may be the required inflight visibility, in C—SDF - 15° usable off course indications, ILS - 35°.
order to descend below 100 feet above the touchdown zone eleva
tion based on the approach lights also requires sighting of the red The SDFsignalis fixed at either6° or 12°as necessary
terminating bars.
toprovidemaximum flyability and optimum course qual
ity. (PLT361) — AIM 11-1-10
ALL Answer (B) is incorrect because an SDFmayormaynotbe aligned
9413. In addition to the localizer, glide slope, marker with the centerline of the runway. Answer (C) is incorrect because
the usable off course indications are limited to 35° for both types of
beacons, approach lighting, and HIRL, which ground approaches.
components are required to be operative for a Category
II instrument approach to a DH below 150 feet AGL?
ALL
A- RCLS and REIL.
B- Radar, VOR, ADF, runway exit lights, and RVR. 9794. (Refer to Figure 251). You are cleared to HNL
C—Each required ground component. and plan to use the RNAV (RNP) RWY 26L approach.
Assuming you have received the training, you
In addition to localizer, glide slope, marker beacons, A— should be prepared to program the FMS/GPS
and approach lightsystem a Category II ILSmust have with the radio frequency to fly this approach.
high-intensity runway lights (HIRL), runway centerline B— can use the GPS and radio frequency
lights (RCLS), touchdown zone lights (TDZL), and run communications to fly this approach to
way visualrange (RVR). (PLT420) — 14 CFR§91.189 minimums.
Answer (A) is incorrect because runway end identifier lights (REIL) C— must know ahead of time whether or not your
are used to provide rapididentification of the approach end of a run FMS/GPS has GPS and radius-to-fix capability.
way. Answer (B)is incorrect because radar is nota required ground
component for Category II ILS operations.
Some RNPapproacheshavea curvedpath, also called
a radius-to-fix (RF) leg. Since not all aircraft have the
capability to fly these arcs, pilots are responsible for
knowing ahead of time whether ornottheycan conduct
an RNPapproach with an arc.(PLT354) — AIM 15-4-18

Answers

9412 [C] 9413 [C] 8967 [B] 8965 [A] 9794 [C]

2-36 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 2 Equipment, Navigation and Facilities

RTC ALL

9795. (Refer to Figure 253.) You are cleared to LXV in 9796-1. (Refer to Figure 249.) You arrive at PILOC. The
your helicopter and expect to be given the GPS RWY preflight briefer issued you an "unreliable" advisory on
16 approach. Your helicopter is equipped with an IFR the approach before you took off. Your avionics indicates
certified WAAS GPS. Your approach minimums will be good signal. You
A-11,360'MDA and 3/4 mi. A—know you can only fly the approach down to
B-11,360'MDA and 1-1/4 mi. LNAV DA minimum of 459 ft. because of the FSS
C-11,360' MDA and 6,600 RVR, or 1-1/2 mi. advisory.
B— can use the LPV minimum of 368'DA and 2400
Helicopters flying conventional (non-copter)SIAP'smay RVR in your CAT B airplane.
reduce the visibility minima to not less than one half the C—can only fly the approach down to the LNAV MDA
published Category A landing visibility minima, or 1/4 of 560'.
statute mile visibility/1200 RVR, whichever is greater
unless the procedure is annotated with"Visibility Reduc Upon commencing an approach at locations with a
tion by Helicopters A/A." (PLT354) — AIM 110-1-2 "WAAS UNRELIABLE" NOTAM, if the WAAS avionics
indicate LNAV/VNAV or LPV service is available, then
vertical guidance may be used to complete the approach
ALL using the displayed level of service. (PLT354) — AIM
9796. (Refer to Figure 250.) You arrive at DUMBB for 11-1-20
the RNAV (GPS) at CHA. The preflight briefer issued
an unreliable advisory before takeoff. Your avionics are
good and you have full GPS service. You ALL

A- can descend to the LNAV MDA of 1,200 feet and

8703. (Refer to Figure 251.) In the RNAV (RNP) RWL
2,400 RVR due to the FSS advisory.
26L at HNLprofile, what does the shaded triangle below
the DA indicate?
B— descend to the LPV minima of 882 feet and 2,400
RVR in your CAT B aircraft. A— The visual segment below the DAis not clear of
C—can descend to the LNAV MDA of 518 feet due to obstacles.
the FSS advisory. B—The approach does not have a visual glide slope
landing aid.
Upon commencing an approach at locations with a C—The visual segment is clear.
"WAAS UNRELIABLE" NOTAM, if the WAAS avionics
indicate LNAV/VNAV or LPV service is available, then The shaded fan (or triangle) indicates visual segment
vertical guidance maybe used to complete the approach below DA is clear of obstacles on a 34:1 slope. (PLT354)
using the displayed level of service. (PLT354) — AIM — Instrument Approach Procedures
11-1-20

GPS
The Global Positioning System (GPS) is a satellite-based radio navigational, positioning, and time
transfer system. The GPS receiver verifies the integrity (usability) ofthe signals received from the GPS
satellites through receiver autonomous integrity monitoring (RAIM) to determine if a satellite is provid
ing corrupted information. Without RAIM capability, the pilot has no assurance of the accuracy of the
GPS position. If RAIM is not available, another type of navigation and approach system must be used,
another destination selected, or the trip delayed until RAIM is predicted to be available on arrival. The
authorization to use GPS to fly instrument approaches is limited to U.S. airspace. The use of GPS in
any other airspace must be expressly authorized by the appropriate sovereign authority.
If a visual descent point (VDP) is published, it will not be included in the sequence of waypoints.
Pilots are expected to use normal piloting techniques for beginning the visual descent. The database
may not contain all of the transitions or departures from all runways and some GPS receivers do not
Continued

Answers

9795 [A] 9796 [B] 9796-1 [B] 8703 [C]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 2-37

Chapter 2 Equipment, Navigation and Facilities

contain DPs in the database. The GPS receiver must be set to terminal (±1 NM) course deviation indi
cator (CDI) sensitivity and the navigation routes contained in the database in order to fly published IFR
charted departures and DPs. Terminal RAIM should be automatically provided by the receiver. Terminal
RAIM for departure may not be available unless the waypoints are part of the active flight plan rather
than proceeding direct to the first destination. Overriding an automatically selected sensitivity during
an approach will cancel the approach mode annunciation. The RAIM and CDI sensitivity will not ramp
down, and the pilot should not descend to MDA, but fly to the MAWP and execute a missed approach.
It is necessary that helicopter procedures be flown at 70 knots or less since helicopter departure
procedures and missed approaches use a 20:1 obstacle clearance surface (OCS), which is double the
fixed-wing OCS, and turning areas are based on this speed as well.
The pilot must be thoroughly familiar with the activation procedure for the particular GPS receiver
installed inthe aircraft and must initiate appropriate action after the missed approach waypoint (MAWP).
Activating the missed approach prior to the MAWP will cause CDI sensitivity to immediately change to
terminal (±1 NM) sensitivity and the receiver will continue to navigate to the MAWP. The receiver will not
sequence past the MAWP. Turns should not begin prior to the MAWP. AGPS missed approach requires
pilot action to sequence the receiver past the MAWP to the missed approach portion of the procedure.
If the missed approach is not activated, the GPS receiver will display an extension of the inbound final
approach course and the ATD will increase from the MAWP until it is manually sequenced after crossing
the MAWP.

Any required alternate airport must have an approved instrument approach procedure other than
GPS, which is anticipated to be operational and available at the estimated time of arrival and which the
aircraft is equipped to fly. Missed approach routings in which the first track is via a course rather than
direct to the next waypoint require additional action by the pilot to set the course. Being familiar with all
of the inputs required is especially critical during this phase of flight.
ALL ALL
9429. If Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitor 9430. Without Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitor
ing (RAIM) is not available when setting up for GPS ing (RAIM) capability, the accuracy of the GPS derived
approach, the pilot should
A— altitude information should not be relied upon to
A— continue to the MAP and hold until the satellites determine aircraft altitude.
are recaptured. B— position is not affected.
B— proceed as cleared to the IAF and hold until C—velocity information should be relied upon to
satellite reception is satisfactory. determine aircraft groundspeed.
C—select another type of approach using another
type of navigation aid. The GPS receiver verifies the integrity (usability) of the
signals received from the GPS constellation through
// RAIM is not available, another type of navigation and RAIM, to determine if a satellite is providing corrupted
approach system must be used, another destination information. Without RAIM capability, the pilot has no
selected, or the trip delayed until RAIM is predicted to assurance of theaccuracyof the GPS position. (PLT354)
be available on arrival. (PLT354) — AIM 11-1-19 — AIM 11-1-19

Answers

9429 [C] 9430 [A]

2-38 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 2 Equipment, Navigation and Facilities

ALL The GPS operation must be conducted in accordance

9431. Overriding an automatically selected sensitivity with the FAA-approved aircraft flight manual (AFM) or
during a GPS approach will flightmanual supplement. Flightcrewmembers must be
A—cancel the approach mode annunciation. thoroughly familiar with the particular GPS equipment
B— require flying point-to-point on the approach to installed in the aircraft, the receiver operation manual,
comply with the published approach procedure. and the AFM or flight manual supplement. Air carrier
C— have no affect if the approach is flown manually. and commercial operators must meet the appropriate
provisions of theirapproved operations specifications.
Overriding an automatically selected sensitivity during (PLT354)—AIM 1-1-19
an approach will cancel the approach mode annuncia Answer (A) is incorrect because the equipment must be approved in
tion. The RAIMand CDI sensitivity will not ramp down, accordance with TSO C-129, not TSO C-115a. Answer (B) is incor
rect because while the pilot is responsible for reviewing the weather
and the pilot should not descend to MDA, but fly to the before any flight, this requirement is not specific to GPS operations.
MAWP and execute a missed approach. (PLT354) —
AIM 11-1-19
ALL
9812. What does the absence of the shaded arrowhead
ALL
after the VDP on a GPS approach indicate?
9432. If a visual descent point (VDP) is published on
a GPS approach, it A— Obstacle obstructions between the VDP and the
runway.
A— will be coded in the waypoint sequence and B—A 20:1 glideslope.
identified using ATD. C—A 60:1 glideslope.
B— will not be included in the sequence of waypoints.
C—must be included in the normal waypoints. Absence of the shaded area indicates that the 34:1
visual surface area is not clear of obstructions. (PLT354)
If a visual descent point (VDP) is published, it will not — AIM 15-4-5
be included in the sequence of waypoints. Pilots are
expected to use normalpilotingtechniques forbeginning
the visual descent. (PLT354) — AIM 11-1-19 ALL
9812-1. (Refer to Figure 252.) In reviewing the RNAV/
GPS procedure RWY 4 LEW, the lack of shaded fan
ALL
from the 1.6 NM point to the runway indicates
9722. GPS instrument approach operations, outside
the United States, must be authorized by A—the visual segment below the MDA/DA is not
clear of obstacles on a 34-to-1 slope.
A—the FAA-approved aircraft flight manual (AFM) or B— it does not have VASI.
flight manual supplement. C—you can descend on a 20-to-1 slope and remain
B—a sovereign country or governmental unit. clear of all obstacles.
C—the FAA Administrator only.
This question is referring to the area near the black
The authorization to use GPS to flyinstrument approach triangle symbol in the IAPprofile view that is pointing
es is provided by a sovereign country or governmental to the 1.6 NM to RW04 location. For RNAV approaches
unit. (PLT354) — AIM 11-1-19 only, the presence of a gray-shaded line (or "fan," or
arrowhead-shaped symbol) from the MDA to the run
way symbol in the profile view, is an indication that the
ALL
visual segment below the MDA is clear of obstructions
9723. Authorization to conduct any GPS operation
on the 34:1 slope. Absence of this gray-shaded area
under IFR requires that
indicates that the 34:1 visual surface area is not free of
A—the equipment be approved in accordance with obstructions. (PLT354) — AIM 15-4-5, FAA-H-8083-16
TSOC-115a.
B—the pilot review appropriate weather, aircraft flight
manual (AFM), and operation of the particular
GPS receiver.
C—air carrier and commercial operators must meet
the appropriate provisions of their approved
operations specifications.

Answers

9431 [A] 9432 [B] 9722 [B] 9723 [C] 9812 [A] 9812-1 [A]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 2-39

Chapter 2 Equipment, Navigation and Facilities

ALL
Use of a GPS for IFR requires that the avionics nec
9742. A pilot employed by an air carrier and/or com essary to receive all of the ground based facilities
mercial operator may conduct GPS/WAAS instrument appropriate for the route to the destination airport and
approaches any required alternate airport must be installed and
A— if they are not prohibited by the FAA-approved operational. (PLT354)—AIM 11-1-19
aircraft flight manual and the flight manual Answer (B) is incorrect because the operational nature of GPS is not
supplement. facilitydependent. Answer (C) is incorrect because the GPS equip
ment, not the pilot-in-command, is authorized for use under IFR.
B— only if approved in their air carrier/commercial
operator operations specifications.
C—only if the pilot was evaluated on GPS/WAAS ALL
approach procedures during their most recent 9727. A GPS missed approach requires that the pilot
proficiency check. take action to sequence the receiver
Air carrier and commercial operators must meet the A-over the MAWP.
appropriate provisions of their approved operations B- after the MAWP.
specifications. (PLT420)—AIM 11-1-20 C—just prior to the MAWP.

The pilot must be thoroughly familiarwith the activation

ALL procedure for the particular GPS receiver installed in
9724. Authorization to conduct any GPS operation the aircraft and must initiate appropriate action after
under IFR requires that the MAWP Activating the missed approach priorto the
A— the pilot review appropriate weather, aircraft flight MAWP will cause CDIsensitivity to immediately change
manual (AFM), and operation of the particular to terminal (±1 NM) sensitivity and the receiver will
GPS receiver.
continue to navigate to the MAWP. The receiver willnot
B—air carrier and commercial operators must meet sequence past the MAWP. Turns should not begin prior
to the MAWP. (PLT354) — AIM 11-1-19
the appropriate provisions of their approved
operations specifications.
C—the equipment be approved in accordance with ALL
TSOC-115a.
9728. Ifthe missed approach is not activated, the GPS
receiver will display
Properly certified GPS equipment may be used as a
supplemental means of IFR navigation for domestic A— an extension of the outbound final approach
enroute, terminal operations, and certain instrument course, and the ATD will increase from the
approach procedures (lAPs). This approval permits the MAWP.
use of GPS in a manner that is consistent with current B—an extension of the outbound final approach
navigation requirements as well as approved air carrier course.

operations specifications. (PLT389) — AIM 11-1-19 C—an extension of the inbound final approach
course.
Answer (A) is incorrect because while the pilot is responsible for
reviewing the weather before any flight, this requirement is not
specific to GPS operation. Answer (C) is incorrect because the A GPS missed approach requires pilot action to
equipment must be approved in accordance with TSO C-129, not sequence the receiver past the MAWP to the missed
TSOC-115a.
approach portion of the procedure. If the missed
approach is not activated, the GPS receiver will display
ALL an extension of the inbound finalapproach course and
9725. When using GPS for navigation and instrument theATD will increase from the MAWP until itis manually
approaches, a required alternate airport must have sequenced after crossing the MAWP. (PLT354) — AIM
11-1-19
A— an approved instrument approach procedure,
besides GPS, that is expected to be operational
and available at the ETA.
B— a GPS approach that is expected to be
operational and available at the ETA.
C—authorization to fly approaches under IFR using
GPS avionics.

Answers

9742 [B] 9724 [B] 9725 [A] 9727 [B] 9728 [C]

2-40 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 2 Equipment, Navigation and Facilities

ALL ALL

9739. "Unreliable," as indicated in the following GPS 9729. Ifflying a published GPS departure,
NOTAMS: SFO 12/051 SFO WAAS LNAVA/NAV AND A— the data base will contain all of the transition or
LPV MNM UNRELBL WEF0512182025-0512182049 departures from all runways.
means
B—and if RAIM is available, manual intervention by
A—within the time parameters of the NOTAM, the the pilot should not be required.
predicted level of service will not support LPV C—the GPS receiver must be set to terminal course
approaches. deviation indicator sensitivity.
B— satellite signals are currently unavailable to
support LPV and LNAV/VNAV approaches. The GPS receiver must be set to terminal (± 1 NM) course
C—within the time parameters of the NOTAM, the deviation indicator (CDI) sensitivity and the navigation
predicted level of service will not support RNAV routes contained in the data base in order to flypublished
and MLS approaches. IFRcharted departures and SIDs. Terminal RAIM should
be automaticallyprovidedby the receiver. Terminal RAIM
The term "unreliable" is used in conjunction with GPS fordeparture may not be available unless the waypoints
NOTAMs; the term is an advisory to pilots indicating the are part of the active flightplan rather than proceeding
expected level of service may not be available. GPS direct to the first destination. (PLT354) — AIM 11-1-19
operation may be NOTAMed UNRELIABLE due to test Answer (A) is incorrect because the data base may not contain all
ing or anomalies. (PLT354) — AIM 11-1-19 of the transitions or departures from all runways and some GPS
receivers do not contain SIDs in the data base. Answer (B) is incor
rect because certain segments of a SID may require some manual
intervention by the pilot, especially when radar vectored to a course
ALL or requiredto intercepta specific course to a waypoint.
9743. What does "UNREL" indicate in the following
GPS and WAAS NOTAM: BOS WAAS LPV AND LNAV/
VNAV MNM UNREL WEF 0305231700 -0305231815? ALL

A—Satellite signals are currently unavailable to 9729-1. To use a substitute means of guidance on
support LPV and LNAV/VNAV approaches to the departure procedures, pilots of aircraft with RNAV
Boston airport. systems using DME/DME/IRU without GPS input must
B—The predicted level of service, within the time A— ensure their aircraft navigation system position
parameters of the NOTAM, may not support LPV is confirmed within 1,000 feet at the start point of
approaches. takeoff roll.
C—The predicted level of service, within the time B—ensure their aircraft navigation system position
parameters of the NOTAM, will not support LNAV/ is confirmed within 2,000 feet of the initialization
VNAV and MLS approaches. point.
C—ensure their aircraft navigation system position is
The term UNRELIABLE is used in conjunction withGPS confirmed within 1,000 feet of pushback.
and WAAS NOTAMs for flightplanning purposes. The
term UNRELIABLE is an advisory to pilots indicating For RNAV 1 DPs and STARs, pilots of aircraft without
the expected level of WAAS service (LNAV/VNAV, LPV) GPS using DME/DME/IRU, must ensure the aircraft
may not be available. (PLT354) — AIM 11-1-20 navigation system positionis confirmed within 1,000 feet
Answer(A)is incorrect because UNREL indicates the expected level at the startpoint of take-offroll. (PLT354)—AIM 15-5-16
of WAAS service merely might not be available, and this states that
it is definitely unavailable. Answer (C) is incorrect because MLS
approaches are not included in the UNREL advisory.

Answers

9739 [A] 9743 [B] 9729 [C] 9729-1 [A]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 2-41

Chapter 2 Equipment, Navigation and Facilities

ALL As long as the obstacle environment permits, helicop

9730. Missed approach routing in which the first track ter approaches can be flown at a speed of 70 knots
is via a course rather than direct to the next waypoint from the initial approach waypoint until reaching the
requires missed approach holding waypoint. It is necessary
A— that the GPS receiver be sequenced to the that helicopter procedures be flown at 70 knots or less
missed approach portion of the procedure. since helicopter departure procedures and missed
B— manual intervention by the pilot, but will not be approaches use a 20:1 obstacle clearance surface.
required, if RAIM is available. (PLT382)—AIM11-1-19
C—additional action by the operator to set the
course.
RTC

Missed approach routings in which the first track is via 9726. The maximum speed and obstacle clearance
a course ratherthan direct to the next waypointrequire surface (OCS) that a "Copter GPS" standard instru
additional action by the pilot to set the course. Being ment departure (SID) or departure procedure (DP) is
familiar with all of the inputs required is especially criti based upon is
cal during this phase of flight. (PLT354) —AIM 11-1-19 A- 70 knots and 20:1 OCS.
Answer (A) is incorrectbecause a GPS missed approach requires B- 70 knots and 10:1 OCS.
pilot action to sequence the receiver, and routing in which the C-60 knots and 20:1 OCS.
first track is via a course requires additional action by the opera
tor. Answer (B) is incorrect because manual intervention for GPS
missed approach routing is not dependent upon RAIM availability. As long as the obstacle environmentpermits, helicopter
approaches can be flown at a speed of 70 knots from
the initial approach waypointuntilreaching the missed
RTC approach holding waypoint. Itis necessary thathelicopter
9721. Obstacles in most areas where "Copter GPS" procedures be flown at 70 knots or less since helicop
instrument approaches are needed, require the approach ter departure procedures and missed approaches use
speed must be limited to a 20:1 obstacle clearance surface. (PLT354) — AIM
11-1-19
A—80 knots on initial and final segments.
B—60 knots on all segments except the missed
approach.
C—70 knots on final and missed approach segments.

Airport Lighting and Marking

Arotating beacon notonly aids in locating an airport at night or in low visibility, it can also helpto identify
which airport is seen. Civilian airports have a beacon that alternately flashes green and white. Amilitary
airport has the same green and white beacon but the white beam is split to give a dual flash of white. A
lighted heliport has a green, yellow and white beacon.
FAA Figure 129 shows the basic marking and lighting for a runway with a nonprecision approach. The
threshold is marked with 4 stripes on either side of the centerline. 1,000 feet from the threshold, a broad
"fixed distance" marker is painted on either side ofthe centerline (A). The runway lights are white for the
entire length of the runway (as are the centerline lights if installed). The threshold is lit with red lights.
FAA Figure 130 showsthe somewhat more elaborate ICAO markings for a nonprecision runway. In
addition to the fixed distance marker, there are stripes painted on the runway every500 feet to a distance
of3,000feetfrom the threshold. This runway has either High Intensity Runway Lights (HIRL) or Medium
Intensity Runway Lights (MIRL) installed. These lights are amber rather than white in the areas within
2,000 feet of the threshold. This givesthe pilot a "caution zone" on landing rollout.
FAA Figure 131 showsthe lighting and marking for a precision instrument runway. The runway strip
ing has been modified to make it easier to tell exactly how much runway remains. The stripes are still
at 500 foot intervals for the 3,000 feet from the threshold. The HIRL or MIRL turns amber for the 2,000
Answers

9730 [C] 9721 [C] 9726 [A]

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 Chapter 2 Equipment, Navigation and Facilities

feet closest to the threshold. The centerline lighting has alternating red and white lights from 3,000 feet
to 1,000 feet to go, and has all red lights in the 1,000 feet closest to the threshold.
In addition to the markings discussed above, some runways have distance remaining markers. These
are simply signs showing the remaining runway in thousands of feet.
Taxi leadoff lights associated with runway centerline lights are green and yellow alternating lights,
curving from the centerline of the runway to a point on the exit.
Some runways have Runway End Identifier Lights (REIL) installed at the threshold. These are syn
chronized flashing lights (usually strobes) placed laterally at either side of the runway threshold. Their
purpose is to facilitate identification of a runway surrounded by numerous other lighting systems.
LAHSO is an acronym for "Land And Hold Short Operations." These operations include landing
and holding short of an intersecting runway, an intersecting taxiway, or some other designated point
on a runway other than an intersecting runway or taxiway. At controlled airports, ATC may clear a pilot
to land and hold short. The pilot-in-command has the final authority to accept or decline any land and
hold short clearance. The safety and operation of the aircraft remain the responsibility of the pilot. To
conduct LAHSO, pilots should become familiar with all available information concerning LAHSO at their
destination airport. Pilots should have, readily available, the published Available Landing Distance (ALD)
and runway slope information for all LAHSO runway combinations at each airport of intended landing.
Additionally, knowledge about landing performance data permits the pilot to readily determine that the
ALD for the assigned runway is sufficient for safe LAHSO. If, for any reason, such as difficulty in dis
cerning the location of a LAHSO intersection, wind conditions, aircraft condition, etc., the pilot elects to
request to land on the full length of the runway, to land on another runway, or to decline LAHSO, a pilot
is expected to promptly inform ATC, ideally even before the clearance is issued. A LAHSO clearance,
once accepted, must be adhered to, just as any other ATC clearance, unless an amended clearance is
obtained or an emergency occurs. However, a LAHSO clearance does not preclude a rejected landing.
The airport markings, signage, and lighting associated with LAHSO consist of a three-part system of
yellow hold-short markings, red and white signage and, in certain cases, in-pavement lighting.

ALL ALL

8905. How can a pilot identify a military airport at night? 8906. How can a pilot identify a lighted heliport at night?
A— Green, yellow, and white beacon light. A— Green, yellow, and white beacon light.
B— White and red beacon light with dual flash of the B— White and red beacon light with dual flash of the
white. white.
C—Green and white beacon light with dual flash of C—Green and white beacon light with dual flash of
the white. the white.

Military airport beacons flash alternately white and A rotatingbeacon flashing green, yellow and white identi
green, but are differentiated from civil beacons by a dual fies a lighted heliport. (PLT141) — AIM 12-1-9
peaked (two quick) white flashes between the green Answer (B) is incorrect because no type of airfield is marked by a
flashes. (PLT141) — AIM 12-1-9 white and red beacon with a dual flash of white. Answer (C) is incor
rect because a green and white beacon light with a dual flash of the
Answer (A) is incorrect because a sequential green, yellow, and white identifies a military airfield.
white beacon light identifies a lighted civilian heliport. Answer (B) is
incorrect because no type of airfield is marked by a beacon with a
red and white light with dual flash of the white.

Answers

8905 [C] 8906 [A]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 2-43

Chapter 2 Equipment, Navigation and Facilities

ALL ALL

9421. Holding position signs have 9422. Airport information signs, used to provide destina
A—white inscriptions on a red background. tion or information, have
B— red inscriptions on a white background. A— yellow inscriptions on a black background.
C—yellow inscriptions on a red background. B—white inscriptions on a black background.
C—black inscriptions on a yellow background.
Holding position signs are mandatory instruction signs,
and mandatory instruction signs have a red background Information signs have a yellow background with a
with a white inscription. (PLT141) — AIM 12-3-8 black inscription. They are used to provide the pilot with
information on such things as areas that cannot be seen
from the control tower, applicable radio frequencies, and
ALL noise abatement procedures. (PLT141) —AIM 12-3-12
9421 -1. The most important markings on an airport are
A— ILS critical area.
ALL
B— hold markings.
C—taxiway identification markings. 9735. (Refer to Figure 223.) The "runway hold position"
sign denotes
The hold markings depict where the aircraftis supposed A— an area protected for an aircraft approaching a
to stop and are a critical component to safe airport runway.
operations. (PLT141) — AIM 12-3-5 B— an entrance to runway from a taxiway.
C—intersecting runways.
ALL Runway holding position signs are located at the hold
9421-2. In the United States, there is an average of ing position on taxiways that intersect a runway or on
A— 2 runway incursions every week. runways that intersect other runways. (PLT141) — AIM
B— 3 runway incursions every day. 12-3-8
C—4 runway incursions every month.

Runway safety is a significant challenge and a top pri ALL

ority for everyone in aviation. In the United States, an 9735-1. (Refer to Figure 228.) What is the purpose of
average of three runway incursions occur daily. (PLT141) the runway/runway hold position sign?
— FAA-H-8083-25 A— Denotes entrance to runway from a taxiway.
B— Denotes area protected for an aircraft
approaching or departing a runway.
ALL
C—Denotes intersecting runways.
9421-3. Detailed investigations of runway incursions
have identified Mandatory instruction signs are used to denote an
A— 2 major areas of contributing factors. entrance to a runway or critical area and areas where
B— 3 major areas of contributing factors. an aircraft is prohibited from entering. The runway
C—4 major areas of contributing factors. holding position sign is located at the holding position
on taxiways that intersect a runway or on runways that
Detailed investigations of runway incursions have iden intersect other runways. (PLT141) — AIM 12-3-8
tified 3 major areas contributing to these events: (1)
failure to comply with ATC instructions;(2) lack of airport
familiarity; (3) nonconformance with standard operating
procedures. (PLT149) — FAA-H-8083-25

Answers

9421 [A] 9421-1 [B] 9421-2 [B] 9421-3 [B] 9422 [C] 9735 [C]
9735-1 [C]

2-44 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 2 Equipment, Navigation and Facilities

ALL Runway edge lights (HIRL or MIRL) are white, except on

9735-2. (Refer to Figure 225.) What is the purpose of instrument runways, amber replaces white on the last
No Entry sign? 2,000 feet or half the runway length, whichever is less, to
A— Identifies paved area where aircraft are prohibited form a caution zone for landing. (PLT148) —AIM 12-1-4
from entering. Answer (A) is incorrect because MIRL and HIRL are runway edge
B— Identifies area that does not continue beyond light systems, and are not spaced closer together on instrument
runways. Answer (C) is incorrect because alternate red and white
intersection. runway centerline lights are on the last 3,000 feet of a runway to the
C— Identifies the exit boundary for the runway last 1,000 feet of runway (the last 1,000 feet of runway centerline
protected area. lights are marked by red lights).

The no entry sign prohibits an aircraft from entering an

area. Typically, this sign would be located on a taxiway ALL

intended to be used in only one direction or at the 8902. Identify touchdown zone lighting (TDZL).
intersection of vehicle roadways with runways, taxiways A— Two rows of transverse light bars disposed
or aprons where the roadway may be mistaken as a symmetrically about the runway centerline.
taxiway or other aircraft movement surface. (PLT141) B— Flush centerline lights spaced at 50-foot intervals
— AIM 12-3-8 extending through the touchdown zone.
Answer (B) is incorrect because this is the purpose of a hold posi C—Alternate white and green centerline lights
tion sign. Answer (C) is incorrect because this is the purpose of the extending from 75 feet from the threshold through
runway boundary sign.
the touchdown zone.

ALL
Touchdown Zone Lighting (TDZL) consists of two rows
9735-3. (Refer to Figure 226.) What does the outbound of transverse light bars disposed symmetrically about
destination sign identify? the runway centerline in the runway touchdown zone.
(PLT148) —AIM 12-1-5
A— Identifies entrance to the runway from a taxiway. Answer (B) is incorrect because flush centerline lights spaced at
B— Identifies runway on which an aircraft is located. 50-foot intervals extending the length of the runway, including the
C— Identifies direction to take-off runways. touchdown zone, are runway centerline lighting. Answer (C) is incor
rect because runway centerline lights extend from 75 feet from the
Outbound destination signs define directions to takeoff threshold through the touchdown zone and are white, not alternating
white and green.
runways. (PLT141)—AIM 12-3-11
Answer (A) is incorrect because this is a runway marking. Answer
(B) is incorrect because this is a runway location sign.
ALL
8722. When approaching a holding position sign for a
ALL
runway approach area you must
8901. What is the advantage of HIRL or MIRL on an A— obtain ATC clearance prior to crossing.
IFR runway as compared to a VFR runway? B— hold only when specifically instructed by ATC.
A— Lights are closer together and easily C— hold only when the weather is below 800 feet and
distinguished from surrounding lights. 2 miles visibility.
B— Amber lights replace white on the last 2,000 feet
of runway for a caution zone. At some airports, it is necessary to hold an aircrafton a
C—Alternate red and white lights replace the white on taxiway located in the approach or departure area fora
the last 3,000 feet of runway for a caution zone. runwayso that the aircraft does not interfere with opera
tions on that runway. In these situations, a sign withthe
designation of the approach end of the runwayfollowed
by a "dash"(-)and letters "APCH" willbe located at the
holding position on the taxiway. (PLT141)—AIM 12-3-8

Answers

9735-2 [A] 9735-3 [C] 8901 [B] 8902 [A] 8722 [A]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 2-45

Chapter 2 Equipment, Navigation and Facilities

ALL ALL
8903. Identify runway remaining lighting on centerline 8922. (Refer to Figure 129.) What is the runway distance
lighting systems. remaining at "A" for a daytime takeoff on runway 9?
A— Amber lights from 3,000 feet to 1,000 feet, then A-1,000 feet.
alternate red and white lights to the end. B-1,500 feet.
B— Alternate red and white lights from 3,000 feet to C-2,000 feet.
1,000 feet, then red lights to the end.
C—Alternate red and white lights from 3,000 feet to The fixed distance marker is located 1,000 feet from the
the end of the runway. threshold (in this case the end of the runway). (PLT141)
— AIM 12-3-3
Centerline lighting systems consist of alternating red Answer (B) is incorrect because the 1,500 feet distance of runway
and white lights from 3,000 feet remaining to the 1,000- remaining is not marked on an FAA nonprecision runway. Answer
foot point, and all red lights for the last 1,000 feet of the (C) is incorrect because 2,000 feet is the distance remaining on an
ICAO(not FAA) nonprecision instrument runway where the runway
runway. (PLT141) — AIM 12-1-5 edge lights are amber.
Answer (A) is incorrect because alternate red and white lights are
from 3,000 feet to 1,000 feet, then red lights to the end. Answer (C)
is incorrect because runway remaining lighting alternates red and
ALL
white lights from 3,000 feet to 1,000 feet, and red lights from 1,000
feet to the end of the runway. 8923. (Refer to Figure 130.) What is the runway distance
remaining at "A"for a nighttime takeoff on runway 9?
A-1,000 feet.
ALL
B- 2,000 feet.
8904. Identify taxi leadoff lights associated with the C- 2,500 feet.
centerline lighting system.
A—Alternate green and yellow lights curving from the According to the key, a half-shaded circle indicates
centerline of the runway to the centerline of the yellow lights. Each fixed-distance marker marks off 500
taxiway. feet. Four markers from the departure end to the first
B— Alternate green and yellow lights curving from the yellow light measures 2,000 feet remaining. (PLT141)
centerline of the runway to the edge of the taxiway. — AIM 12-3-3
C—Alternate green and yellow lights curving from the Answers (A) and (C) are incorrect because the beginning of yellow
centerline of the runway to a point on the exit. runway edge lights on an ICAO nonprecision instrument runway
indicates 2,000 feet of runway remaining.
Taxiway leadoff lights extend fromthe runwaycenterline
to a point on an exit taxiway to expedite movement of
ALL
aircraft from the runway. These lights alternate green
and yellow from the runway centerline to the runway 8924. (Refer to Figure 130.) What is the runway distance
remaining at "B" for a daytime takeoff on runway 9?
holding position or the ILScriticalarea, as appropriate.
(PLT141)—AIM 12-1-5 A-2,000 feet.
B- 2,500 feet.
C-3,000 feet.
ALL

8907. Identify the runway distance remaining markers. Each fixed-distance marker measures 500 feet. From the
A— Signs with increments of 1,000 feet distance departure end, it is 3,000 feet. (PLT141) — AIM12-3-3
remaining. Answer (A) is incorrect because 2,000 feet would be the third dis
tance marker encountered. At night, 2,000 feet is identified by the
B— Red markers laterally placed across the runway beginning of amber runway edge lights. Answer (B) is incorrect
at 3,000 feet from the end. because 2,500 feet would be the second distance marker encoun
C—Yellow marker laterally placed across the runway tered.

with signs on the side denoting distance to end.

Runwaydistance remaining markersare signs located

along the sides of a runway to indicate the remaining
runway distance in increments of 1,000 feet. (PLT141)
— AIM 12-3-3
Answers (B) and (C) are incorrect because distance remaining
markers are along the side of the runway and are black and white.

Answers

8903 [B] 8904 [C] 8907 [A] 8922 [A] 8923 [B] 8924 [C]

2-46 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 2 Equipment, Navigation and Facilities

ALL red and white lights are seen from the 3,000-foot points
8925. (Refer to Figure 130.) What is the runway distance to the 1,000-foot points, and all red lights are seen for
remaining at "C" for a daytime takeoff on runway 9? thelast 1,000 feet of the runway. (PLT141)—AIM12-1-5
A- 2,500 feet. Answer (A) is incorrect because 2,000 feet is marked by the begin
B-2,000 feet. ning of amber runway edge lights. Answer (C) is incorrect because
the runway remaining lights begin alternating between red and white
C-1,500 feet. at 3,000 feet of remaining runway.

Since each fixed-distance marker in this problem rep

resents 500 feet, the distance to "C'from the departure ALL
end is 2,000 feet. (PLT141) — AIM 12-3-3 8929. (Refer to Figure 131.) What is the runway distance
Answer (A) is incorrect because 2,500 feet would be the second dis remaining at "D" for a daytime takeoff on runway 9?
tance marker encountered. Answer (C) is incorrect because 1,500
feet would be the fourth distance marker encountered. A- 3,000 feet.
B- 2,500 feet.
C-1,500 feet.
ALL
8926. (Refer to Figure 130.) What is the runway distance Each fixed-distance marker marks off 500 feet. "D"cor
remaining at "D" for a daytime takeoff on runway 9? responds to3,000 feet. (PLT141)—AIM 12-3-3
A- 500 feet. Answer (B) is incorrect because 2,500 feet would be the second
pair of single markers encountered on either side of the centerline.
B-1,000 feet. Answer (C) is incorrect because 1,500 feet would be the second
C-1,500 feet. pair of double markers encountered on either side of the centerline.

The fixed-distance marker at "D" corresponds to 1,000

feet remaining. (PLT141) — AIM 12-3-3 ALL

Answer (A) is incorrect because 500 feet would be the sixth distance 8930. (Refer to Figure 131.) What is the runway distance
marker encountered. Answer (C) is incorrect because 1,500 feet remaining at "B" for a nighttime takeoff on runway 9?
would be the fourth distance marker encountered.
A- 1,000 feet.
B- 2,000 feet.
ALL C-2,500 feet.
8927. (Refer to Figure 131.) What is the runway distance
remaining at "E" for a daytime takeoff on runway 9? The runway edge lights are white, except on instrument
runways. There, amber replaces white on the last 2,000
A-1,500 feet. feet or half the runway length, whichever is less, to form
B- 2,000 feet. a caution zone for landings. (PLT141) —AIM 12-1-4
C-2,500 feet.
Answer (A) is incorrect because 1,000 feet would be indicated by
the start of red centerline lighting. Answer (C) is incorrect because
Each fixed-distance marker marks off 500 feet. "E" is the beginning of yellow runway edge lights on an instrument runway
2,000 feet from the departure end. (PLT141) — AIM indicates 2,000 feet of remaining runway.
12-3-3
Answer (A) is incorrect because 1,500 feet would be the second
pair of double markers encountered on either side of the centerline. ALL
Answer (C) is incorrect because 2,500 feet would be the second pair 8931. (Refer to Figure 131.) What is the runway distance
of single markers encountered on either side of the centerline. remaining at "F" for a daytime takeoff on runway 9?
A- 2,000 feet.
ALL B-1,500 feet.
8928. (Refer to Figure 131.) What is the runway distance C-1,000 feet.
remaining at "A" for a nighttime takeoff on runway 9?
Each fixed-distance marker marks off 500 feet. "F"
A- 2,000 feet. corresponds to the 1,000-foot fixed-distance marker.
B-3,000 feet. (PLT141)— AIM 12-3-3
C-3,500 feet.
Answer (A) is incorrect because 2,000 feet would be the firstpair of
double markers encountered on either side of the centerline. At night
This question and figure reference remaining runway it is marked by the beginning of amber runwayedge lights. Answer
lighting/centerline lightingsystems in the final2,000 feet (B) is incorrect because 1,500 feet would be the second pair of
as viewed from the takeoff or approach position. Alternate double markers encountered on either side of the centerline.

Answers

8925 [B] 8926 [B] 8927 [B] 8928 [B] 8929 [A] 8930 [B]
8931 [C]

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Chapter 2 Equipment, Navigation and Facilities

ALL ALL

8932. (Refer to Figure 131.) What is the runway distance 9731. Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO) include
remaining at "C" for a nighttime takeoff on runway 9? landing and holding short:
A-1,000 feet. A— of an intersecting taxiway only.
B-1,500 feet. B— of some designated point on the runway.
C-1,800 feet. C—only of an intersecting runway or taxiway.

All red lights along the runway centerline correspond to Land And Hold Short Operations (LAHSO) include
the last 1,000 feet of runway. (PLT141) — AIM 12-1-5 landing and holding short of an intersecting runway, an
Answer (B) is incorrect because the start of red lights on centerline intersecting taxiway, or some other designated point on
lighting indicates 1,000 feet of remaining runway. Answer (C) is a runway other than an intersecting runway or taxiway.
incorrect because the start of red lights on centerline lighting indi (PLT140)— AIM 14-3-11
cates 1,000 feet of remaining runway.

ALL
ALL
9732. A Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO)
8914. What is the purpose of REIL?
clearance, that the pilot accepts:
A— Identification of a runway surrounded by a
A— must result in a landing.
preponderance of other lighting.
B—does not preclude a rejected landing.
B— Identification of the touchdown zone to prevent
C—precludes a rejected landing.
landing short.
C—Establish visual descent guidance information A LAHSO clearance, once accepted, must be adhered
during an approach.
to unless an amended clearance is obtained or an emer
gency occurs. However, a LAHSO clearance does not
Runway End Identifier Lights (REIL) are effective for:
preclude a rejected landing. (PLT140) — AIM 14-3-11
1. Identification of a runway surrounded by numerous
other lighting systems,
ALL
2. Identification of a runway which lacks contrast with
surrounding terrain, or 9733. In conducting Land and Hold Short Operations
(LAHSO), the pilot should have readily available:
3. Identification of a runway during reduced visibility.
A—the published Available Landing Distance (ALD),
(PLT145)— AIM12-1-3 landing performance of the aircraft, and slope
Answer (B) is incorrect because the touchdown zone is identified by of all LAHSO combinations at the destination
in-runway lighting of two rows of transverse light bars on either side
airport.
of the runway centerline from 100 feet to 3,000 feet from the land
ing threshold. Answer (C) is incorrect because a VASI (not REIL) B—the published runway length and slope for all
assists in providing visual descent guidance information during an LAHSO combinations at the airport of intended
approach. landing.
C—the landing performance of the aircraft, published
Available Landing Distance (ALD) for all LAHSO
ALL
combinations at the airport of intended landing,
8915. Identify REIL.
plus the forecast winds.
A Amber lights for the first 2,000 feet of runway.
B Green lights at the threshold and red lights at far To conduct LAHSO, pilots should become familiar with
end of runway. all available information concerning LAHSOat theirdes
C—Synchronized flashing lights laterally at each side tination airport. Pilots should have, readilyavailable, the
of the runway threshold. published AvailableLandingDistance (ALD) and runway
slope information forall LAHSOrunwaycombinations at
The REIL system consists of a pair of synchronized each airport of intended landing. Additionally, knowledge
flashing lights located laterally on each side of the run about landing performance data permits the pilot to
way threshold. (PLT145) — AIM 12-1-3 readily determine that the ALDfor the assigned runway
Answer (A) is incorrect because amber lights are used on the last is sufficient for safe LAHSO. (PLT140) — AIM 14-3-11
2,000 feet of runway edge lights to form a caution zone on instru
ment runways. Answer (B) is incorrect because green lights at the
threshold mark the runwayedge forlanding aircraft and red lights at
the farend mark the runwayedge to a departing or landing aircraft.

Answers

8932 [A] 8914 [A] 8915 [C] 9731 [B] 9732 [B] 9733 [A]

2-48 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 2 Equipment, Navigation and Facilities

ALL ALL
9734. The airport markings, signage and lighting asso 9423-1. (Refer to Figure 227.) The "taxiway ending"
ciated with Land and Hold Short (LAHSO) consists of: marker

A—yellow hold-short markings, red and white A— identifies area where aircraft are prohibited.
signage, and in-pavement lights. B— indicates taxiway does not continue.
B— red and white signage, yellow hold-short C—provides general taxiing direction to named
markings, and at some airports, in-pavement taxiway.
lights.
C—red and black signage, in-pavement lights, and Taxiway ending marker is an airportsign indicating the
yellow hold-short markings. taxiway does not continue. (PLT141) — AIM 12-3-11
Answer (A) is incorrect because this is the purpose of a no entry
The airportmarkings, signage, and lightingassociated sign. Answer (C) is incorrect because this is the purpose of direc
withLAHSO consist of a three-part system of yellow hold- tion signs.
short markings, red and white signage and, in certain
cases, in-pavement lighting. (PLT140) — AIM 14-3-11
ATM, ATS, RTC
9423. Hold line markings at the intersection of taxiways
ALL
and runways consist of four lines (two solid and two
9416-1. (Refer to Figure 224.) The ILS critical area dashed) that extend across the width of the taxiway.
These lines are
markings denote
A— white in color and the dashed lines are nearest
A—where you are clear of the runway.
B—where you must be to start your ILS procedure. the runway.
C—where you are clear of the ILS critical area. B—yellow in color and the dashed lines are nearest
the runway.
The ILS critical area sign is located adjacent to the C—yellow in color and the solid lines are nearest the
ILS holding position marking on the pavement and can runway.
be seen by pilots leaving the critical area. The sign is
intended to provide pilots with another visual cue which Holdingposition markings fortaxiway/runway intersec
they can use as a guide in deciding when they are clear tions consist of four yellow lines—two solid and two
of the ILS critical area. (PLT141) — AIM 12-3-9 dashed. The solid lines are always on the same side
where the aircraft is to hold. (PLT141) — AIM 12-3-5

ALL
ALL
9416-2. The ILS critical area sign indicates
8203. All runway hold markings consist of
A—where aircraft are prohibited.
B—the edge of the ILS critical area. A— 2 dashed and 1 solid yellow line.
B- 2 dashed and 2 solid yellow lines.
C—the exit boundary.
C- •1 dashed and 1 solid yellow line.
The ILS critical area sign is located adjacent to the
ILSholding position marking on the pavement and can Holdingposition markings fortaxiway/runway intersec
be seen by pilots leaving the critical area. The sign is tions consist of four yellow lines—two solid and two
intended to provide pilots with another visual cue to use dashed. The solid lines are always on the same side
as a guide in deciding when they are clear of the ILS where the aircraft is to hold. (PLT149) — AIM 12-3-5
critical area. (PLT141) — AIM 12-3-9

Answers

9734 [B] 9416-1 [C] 9416-2 [B] 9423-1 [B] 9423 [B] 8203 [B]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 2-49

Chapter 2 Equipment, Navigation and Facilities

ATM, ATS, RTC

9436. (Refer to Figure 156.) This sign, which is visible 9785. THL is the acronym for
to the pilot on the runway, indicates A—Takeoff hold lights.
A—a point at which the pilot should contact ground B—Taxi holding lights.
control without being instructed by the tower. C—Terminal holding lights.
B— a point at which the aircraft will be clear of the
runway. T7?e Takeoff Hold Lights (THL) system is composed of
C—the point at which the emergency arresting gear in-pavement, unidirectional fixtures in a double longi
is stretched across the runway. tudinalrow aligned either side of the runwaycenterline
lighting. Fixtures are focused toward the arrival end of
The runwayboundarysign has a yellow backgroundwith the runway at the "position and hold" point, and they
a blackinscription with a graphic depicting the pavement extend for 1,500 feet in front of the holding aircraft.
holdingposition. Thissign, which faces the runway and is Illuminatedred lights provide a signal, to an aircraftin
visible to the pilot exiting the runway, is located adjacent position fortakeoff or rolling, indicating that it is unsafe
to the holding position marking on the pavement. The to takeoff because the runway is occupied or about to
sign is intended to provide pilots with another visual be occupied by another aircraftor ground vehicle. Two
cue which they can use as a guide in deciding when aircraft, ora surface vehicle and an aircraft, are required
they are "clear of the runway." (PLT141) — AIM 12-3-9 forthe lights to illuminate. The departingaircraft must be
in position for takeoff or beginning takeoff roll. Another
aircraft or a surface vehicle must be on or about to cross
ATM, ATS, RTC the runway. (PLT141) — AIM 12-1-6
9417. You have just landed at JFK and the tower tells
you to call ground control when clear of the runway. You
are considered clear of the runway when ALL

A— the aft end of the aircraft is even with the taxiway 9785-1. Takeoff hold lights (THL) are a part of the
location sign. A— automatic runway status light system.
B— the flight deck area of the aircraft is even with the B—tower operated runway stop light system.
hold line. C—ground controlleroperated ramp status holding
C—all parts of the aircraft have crossed the hold line. light system.

An aircraft is not "clear of the runway" until all parts Runway StatusLight (RWSL) System is a fully automated
have crossed the applicable holding position marking. system thatprovides runwaystatus information topilots
(PLT141) —AIM 12-3-5 and surface vehicle operators to clearly indicate when
it is unsafe to enter, cross, takeoff from, or land on a
runway. The RWSL system processes information from
ALL
surveillance systems and activates Runway Entrance
9764. Taxiway Centerline Lead-Off Lights are color Lights (REL), Takeoff Hold Lights (THL), Runway
coded to warn pilots that Intersection Lights (RIL), and FinalApproach Runway
A—they are within the runway environment or run-up Occupancy Signal (FAROS) in accordance with the
danger critical area. position and velocity of the detected surface traffic and
B—they are within the runway environment or ILS approach traffic. REL, THL, and RIL are in-pavement
critical area. lightfixtures thatare directlyvisible to pilots and surface
C—they are within the taxiway end environment or vehicle operators. (PLT141) — AIM 12-1-6
ILS critical area.

Taxiway centerline lead-offlights provide visual guidance ALL

to persons exiting the runway. They are color-coded to 9786. REL is the acronym for
warnpilots and vehicle drivers that they are within the A— Runway exit lights.
runway environment or ILS critical area, whichever is B— Runway entrance lights.
more restrictive. Alternate green and yellow lights are C—Ramp entry lights.
installed, beginning with green, from the runway center-
line to one centerline light position beyond the runway
holding position or ILS critical area holding position.
(PLT141)—AIM12-1-5

Answers

9436 [B] 9417 [C] 9764 [B] 9785 [A] 9785-1 [A] 9786 [B]

2-50 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 2 Equipment, Navigation and Facilities

The Runway Entrance Lights (REL) system is composed Thissign has a yellow background with a black inscription
of flush mounted, in-pavement, unidirectionalfixtures that with a graphic depicting the ILSpavement holding posi
are parallel to and focused along the taxiway centerline tion marking. This is located adjacent to the ILS holding
and directed toward the pilot at the hold line. A specific position marking on the pavement and can be seen by
array of REL lights include the first light at the hold line the pilots leaving the critical area. (PLT141)—AIM 12-3-9
followed by a series of evenly spaced lights to the runway
edge; and one additional light at the runway centerline
in line with the last two lights before the runway edge. ATM, ATS, RTC
When activated, these red lights indicate that there is 9416. When instructed by ATCto "Hold short of a runway
high-speed traffic on the runway or there is an aircraft (ILS critical area, etc.)," the pilot should stop
on final approach within the activation area. (PLT141) A— with the nose gear on the hold line.
— AIM 12-1-6 B— so that no part of the aircraft extends beyond the
hold line.
C— so the flight deck area of the aircraft is even with
ALL
the hold line.
9786-1. Runway Status Lights (REL) are
A— an independent light system. When the ILS critical area is being protected the pilot
B— automatically activated. should stop so no part of the aircraft extends beyond
C—ATC tower controlled. the holding position marking. (PLT141) —AIM 12-3-5

The runwaystatus light (RWSL) system, which includes

runway entrance lights (REL), is a fullyautomated sys ALL

tem that provides runway status information to pilots 9798. When you see this pavement marking from the
and surface vehicle operators to clearly indicate when cockpit, you
it is unsafe to enter, cross, takeoff from, or land on a A—can taxi past this point at your own risk.
runway. RWSL is an independent safety enhancement B— must hold short until "cleared" to taxi onto or past
that does not substitute foror convey an ATCclearance. the runway.
(PLT141) —AIM 12-1-6 C—may not cross the line until ATC allows you to
"enter" or "cross" by instruction.

ALL This question will likely include an onscreen image

9787. (Refer to Figure 241). Hot Spots are depicted on depicting runway hold position markings. These mark
airport diagrams as ings indicate where an aircraft is supposed to stop
A—squares or rectangles around "HS" and a number. when approaching a runway. ATC willnot use the word
B— circles or polygons around "HS" and a number. "cleared" in conjunction with authorization foraircraft to
C—triangles or blocks filled with "HS" and a number. taxi. (PLT141)—AIM 12-3-5, 4-3-18

Runway hotspots (some FAA Regions refer to them as

high alert areas) are locations on particular airports ALL

that historically have hazardous intersections. Hotspots 9799. The sign shown is an example of
are depicted on some airport charts as circled areas. A— a mandatory instruction sign.
(PLT149) — FAA-H-8083-16 B— runway heading notification signage.
C—an airport directional sign.

ATM, ATS, RTC This question will likely include an onscreen image
9437. (Refer to Figure 157.) This is an example of depicting a runway hold position sign. This is a manda
A— an ILS Critical Area Holding Position Sign. toryinstruction sign, used to holdan aircraft on a taxiway
B—a Runway Boundary Sign. located in the approach or departure area fora runway
C—an ILS Critical Area Boundary Sign. so the aircraftdoes not interfere withoperations on that
runway. (PLT141)—AIM 12-3-8

Answers

9786-1 [A] 9787 [B] 9437 [C] 9416 [B] 9798 [C] 9799 [A]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 2-51

Chapter 2 Equipment, Navigation and Facilities

ALL A hot spot is defined as a location on an airport move

8701. Airport "hot spots" are ment area with a history of potential risk of collision or
A— reserved for contaminated aircraft. runway incursion, and where heightened attention by
B— parking spots for military aircraft. pilots and drivers is necessary. (PLT149) — FAA-H-
C—known hazardous runway intersections. 8083-16

Approach Lighting
An airplane approaching to land on a runway served by a Visual Approach Slope Indicator (VASI)
must remain on or above the glide slope (except for normal bracketing) until a lower altitude is neces
sary for a safe landing.
A VASI gives the pilot a visual glide slope to follow when landing on certain runways. A VASI glide
slope is normally about 3° (the same as an ILS) and the aim point is about 1,000 feet down the runway
from the threshold. The angle and aim point of the VASI can be adjusted as necessary to accommodate
the runway conditions. If a pilot of a high performance airplane is flying a VASI with a glide slope steeper
than 3.5°, he/she should be aware that a longer than normal roll-out may result from the flare maneuver
required by the steep angle.
Many runways used by air carrier aircraft have a three-bar VASI system to accommodate aircraft
with a high cockpit such as Boeing 747 or DC-10. These aircraft need a glide slope that has an aim point
further down the runway to ensure adequate clearance for the landing gear at the runway threshold. The
pilotof such an airplane must use the two upwind lights (middle and far bars) for glide slope information.
The Precision Approach Path Indicator (PAPI) approach light system consists of a rowof four lights
perpendicular to the runway. Each light can be either red or white depending on the aircraft's position
relative to the glide slope. The glide slope indications of a PAPI are as follows:
• High —4 white lights
• Slightly high —1 red, 3 white lights
• On glidepath —2 red, 2 white lights
• Slightly low— 1 white, 3 red lights
• Low —4 red lights

Pulsating visual approach slope indicators normally consist of a single light unitprojecting a two-color
visual approach path. The below glidepath indication is normally pulsating red and the above glidepath
indication is normally pulsating white. The "on glide slope" indication for one type of system is a steady
white light, while for another type it is an alternating red and white.

ALL
Anairplane approaching to landon a runway served by
9378. A pilot approaching to land a turbine-powered a visualapproach slope indicator(VASI), shall maintain
aircraft on a runway served by a VASI shall an altitude at or above the glide slope until a lower
A— not use the VASI unless a clearance for a VASI altitude is necessary fora safe landing. (PLT147) — 14
approach is received. CFR §91.129
B—use the VASI only when weather conditions are Answer (A) is incorrect because a VASIshould be used at all times
below basic VFR. when available, and is not considered an instrument approach.
Answer (B) is incorrect because a VASIshould be used at all times
C—maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope in both VFRand when transitioningout of IFR weather.
until a lower altitude is necessary for a safe
landing.

Answers

8701 [C] 9378 [C]

2-52 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 2 Equipment, Navigation and Facilities

ALL Three-bar VASI installations provide two visual glide-

8912. A pilot of a high-performance airplane should paths. The lower glidepath is provided by the near and
be aware that flying a steeper-than-normal VASI glide middle bars and is normally set at 3° while the upper
slope angle may result in glidepath,providedby the middleand farbars is normally
A— a hard landing. 1/4° higher. This higher glidepath is intended foruse only
B— increased landing rollout. by high cockpit aircraft to provide a sufficient threshold
C—landing short of the runway threshold. crossing height. (PLT147)—AIM 12-1-2
Answer (A) is incorrect because the higher glide slope of a three-bar
Although normal VASI glidepath angles are 3°, angles VASI is for use only by high cockpit aircraft, which may or may not
be high performance aircraft. Answer (B) is incorrect because the
at some locations may be as high as 4.5° to give proper higher glide slope of a three-bar VASI is for use only by high cockpit
obstacle clearance. Pilots of high performance aircraft aircraft, not specifically for use by helicopters.
are cautioned that use of VASI angles in excess of 3.5°
may cause an increase in runway length required for
landing and rollout. (PLT147) — AIM12-1-2 ALL

Answer (A) is incorrect because flying a steeper-than-normal VASI 8921. What does the Precision Approach Path Indicator
may result in an increased landing rolloutin a high-performance air (PAPI) consist of?
plane. Answer (C) is incorrect because a landing short of the runway
threshold would be a result of flying a lower-than-normal VASI glide A— Row of four lights parallel to the runway; red,
slope angle. white, and green.
B— Row of four lights perpendicular to the runway;
red and white.
ALL C—One light projector with two colors; red and white.
8911. What is the advantage of a three-bar VASI?
A— Pilots have a choice of glide angles. The Precision Approach Path Indicator(PAPI) uses light
B—A normal glide angle is afforded both high and units similar to the VASIbut are installed in a single row
low cockpit aircraft. ofeithertwo- or four-light units. (PLT147) — AIM12-1-2
C—The three-bar VASI is much more visible and can Answer (A) is incorrect because PAPI has a row of four lights per
be used at a greater height. pendicular to the runway, and projects red and white light. Answer
(C) is incorrect because PAPI consists of a row of four light projec
tors emitting red or white light.
Three-bar VASI installations provide two visual glide-
paths. The lower glidepath is provided by the near and
middle bars and is normally set at 3° while the upper ALL
glidepath, providedby the middleand farbars is normally 8908. What are the indications of Precision Approach
1/4°higher. Thishigherglidepathis intended foruse only Path Indicator (PAPI)?
by high cockpit aircraft to provide a sufficient threshold
A— High- white, on glidepath - red and white; low- red.
crossing height. (PLT147) — AIM 12-1-2
B— High - white, on glidepath - green; low - red.
Answer (A) is incorrect because the three-bar VASI provides a glide
slope forhigh cockpitaircraft, not a choice of glide angles forpilots.
C—High - white and green, on glidepath - green; low
Answer (C) is incorrectbecause both the two- and three-bar VASI -red.
are visible from 3-5 miles during the day and up to 20 miles or more
at night, and the three-bar VASI does not provide use at a greater The Precision Approach Path Indicator (PAPI) uses light
height. units similar to the VASI but are installed in a single row
of either two or four light units:
ALL High 4 white lights
8913. The higher glide slope of the three-bar VASI is Slightly high 1 red, 3 white lights
intended for use by
On glide path 2 red, 2 white lights
A—high performance aircraft.
Slightlylow 1 white, 3 red lights
B— helicopters.
C—high cockpit aircraft. Low 4 red lights
(PLT147)—AIM 12-1-2
Answer (B) is incorrect because the on glidepathindication of PAPI
is both red and white lights. Answer (C) is incorrect because above
the glidepath indication of PAPI is all white, on glidepath is two red
and two white, and below glidepath is all red.

Answers

8912 [B] 8911 [B] 8913 [C] 8921 [B] 8908 [A]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 2-53

Chapter 2 Equipment, Navigation and Facilities

ALL ALL
8909. What does the pulsating VASI consist of? 8910. What are the indications of the pulsating VASI?
A—Three-light system, two pulsing and one steady. A— High - pulsing white, on glidepath - green, low -
B—Two-light projectors, one pulsing and one steady. pulsing red.
C—One-light projector, pulsing white when above B— High - pulsing white, on glidepath - steady
glide slope or red when more than slightly below white, slightly below glide slope steady red, low -
glide slope, steady white when on glide slope, pulsing red.
steady red for slightly below glide path. C— High - pulsing white, on course and on glidepath
- steady white, off course but on glidepath -
Pulsating visual approach slope indicators normally pulsing white and red; low - pulsing red.
consist of a single lightunitprojecting a two-color visual
approach path into the final approach area of the run Pulsating visual approach slope indicators normally
way upon which the indicator is installed. The below consist of a single lightunitprojecting a two-color visual
glidepath indication is normally pulsating red, and the approach path into the final approach area of the run
above glidepath indication is normally pulsating white. way upon which the indicator is installed. The below
The on glidepath indication for one type of system is a glidepath indication is normally pulsating red, and the
steady white light, while foranother type system, the on above glidepath indication is normally pulsating white.
glidepath indication consists of an alternating red and The on glidepath indication for one type of system is a
white. (PLT147) — AIM 12-1-2 steady white light, while foranother type system the on
Answer (A) is incorrect because the pulsating VASI is a two-light glidepath indication consists of an alternating red and
system, in which below glidepath is pulsating red, above glidepath white. (PLT147)—AIM 12-1-2
is pulsating white, and on glidepath is a steady white light. Answer
(B) is incorrectbecause the pulsating VASI is a single lightprojecting Answer (A) is incorrect because the on glidepath indication of a
unit emitting a two-color visual approach path into the final approach pulsating VASI is either a pulsing red and white or steady white, not
area of the runway. green. Answer (C) is incorrect because the pulsating VASI only pro
vides glidepath indications, not lateral, or course, indications. Above
glidepath is pulsing white, on glidepath is pulsing red and white or
steady white, and below glidepath is pulsing red.

ALL

8705. Lights which indicate the runway is occupied are

A— strobe lights located next to the PAPIs.
B—flashing PAPIs.
C—yellow flashing lights located below the PAPIs.

The standalone final approach runway occupancy sig

nal (FAROS) is a fully automated system thatprovides
runway occupancy status to pilots on final approach
to indicate whether it may be unsafe to land. When an
aircraft or vehicle is detected on the runway, the preci
sion approach path indicator (PAPI) light fixtures flash
as a signal to indicate the runway is occupied and that
it may be unsafe to land. (PLT147) — AIM 12-1-7

Answers

8909 [C] 8910 [B] 8705 [B]

2-54 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

Chapter 3
Aerodynamics
Lift and Drag 3-3

Critical Engine and VMc 3-7

Maneuvering Flight 3-9

Stability 3-12

High Speed Flight 3-13

Primary Flight Controls 3-17
Tabs 3-21

High-Lift Devices 3-23

Helicopter Aerodynamics 3-25

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 3-1

Chapter 3 Aerodynamics

3-2 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 3 Aerodynamics

Lift and Drag

The four forces acting on an aircraft in flight are lift, weight, thrust and drag. Weight always actsverti
cally toward the center of the earth. Lift acts perpendicular to the relative wind (not always vertically).
Thrust and drag act opposite each other and parallel to the relative wind.
Lift is produced by air flowing over the curved wing surfaces. The air flowing over the upper surface
of the wing is deflected further than that flowing across the lower surface and therefore is accelerated.
Bernoulli's Principle states thatwhen a gas isaccelerated, its pressure decreases. Thus the pressure
onthe upper wing surface is lower than that on the lower surface and lift is produced.
Angle of attack is the angle between the relative wind and chord line of wing. At zero angle of attack,
the pressure on the upper surface of the wing is still less than atmospheric, but the wing is producing
minimum lift. As the angle of attack isincreased, the lift developed by the wing increases proportionately.
This istrue until theangle of attack exceeds a critical value, when the air flowing over thetop of thewing
breaks up into a turbulent flow and the wing stalls.
Angle of attack and indicated airspeed determine the total lift. An increase in either indicated air
speed or angle of attack increases total lift (up to the stalling angle of attack) and a decrease in either
decreases total lift. To maintain the same total lift (i.e., maintain level flight), a pilot has to change the angle
of attack anytime indicated airspeed is changed. For example, as indicated airspeed is decreased, the
angle of attack must be increased to compensate for the loss of lift. The relationship between indicated
airspeed and lift for a given angle of attack involves the law of squares. If the angle of attack does not
change, total lift varies with the square of the indicated airspeed. For example, if the airspeed doubles,
the lift will increase by four times.
Indicated airspeed can be thought of as having two elements —the actual speed of the airplane
through the air (true airspeed) and the density of the air. As altitude increases, air density decreases. To
maintain thesameindicated airspeed at altitude an aircraft must fly at a higher true airspeed. To produce
the same amount of lift at altitude, a higher true airspeed is required for a given angle of attack.
Awing will always stall at the same angle of attack. The load factor, weight and density altitude will
cause the stalling true airspeed to vary, but the stall angle of attack will always be the same.
Acurve comparing total drag to parasite and induced drag reveals an airspeed at which drag is at a
minimum value. At higher airspeeds, total drag increases because of increasing parasite drag. At lower
airspeeds, induced drag increases which increases the total drag. Since the lift stays constant (equal
to weight), the low point on the curve is the airspeed that produces the best lift to drag (L/D) ratio. This
point is referred to as L/DMAx- See Figure 3-1.
Achange in weight changes the l_/D curve. The amount of parasite drag is mainly a function of indi
cated airspeed. The amount of induced drag is a function of angle of attack. When an aircraft's weight
is increased, any indicated airspeed will require a higher angle of attack to produce the required lift.
This means that induced drag will increase with increases in weight while there will be little change in
parasite drag.
When an airplane is within about one wingspan of the ground, the flow of air around the wingtips is
inhibited by the close proximity of the ground. This ground effect reduces induced drag (and therefore
total drag) and increases lift. As an airplane flies out of ground effect on takeoff, the increased induced
drag will require a higher angle of attack.

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 3-3

 *uegM
n
DPorunadgs
Chapter 3 Aerodynamics

a
Airplane Data
f = 4.3 sq. ft.
w= 12,000 lbs.
b = 38 ft.

e = .90

= 1.00

Std. Sea Level

D
U
'ag Rise
je to Compressibility

V,
;—r
/
i
i
i
i
i
i
i
i
i

t
I
1
/

J
/

/
1 J

5y

S tall
r-V Paras iteC Irag
\ i
i—
F '•
Totl ilDr ag
_\-

\
-V \
\

i
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(L/l 3)max
\,
i
/ 1
v\B /
^C c
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ind Licec Dn 9

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0 10° 200 300 400 500 600

Velocity Knots

Figure 3-1. Typical drag curves

ALL
times the lift as thesame airplane traveling at 100knots
8377. What will be the ratio between airspeed and lift if the angle of attack and other factors remain constant.
ifthe angle of attack and other factors remain constant (PLT242) — FAA-H-8083-25
and airspeed is doubled? Liftwill be
Answer (A) is incorrect because lift is proportional to the square
A— the same. of the airplane's velocity, itis not constant. Answer (B) is incorrect
B— two times greater. because, as airspeed is doubled, the lift will befour times greater.
C—four times greater.

Liftisproportional to the square ofthe airplane's velocity.

For example, an airplane traveling at200 knots has four

Answers
8377 [C]

3-4 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 3 Aerodynamics

ALL ALL

8378. What true airspeed and angle of attack should 8346. What is the effect on total drag of an aircraft if
be used to generate the same amount of lift as altitude the airspeed decreases in level flight below that speed
is increased? for maximum L/D?

A— The same true airspeed and angle of attack. A— Drag increases because of increased induced
B— A higher true airspeed for any given angle of drag.
attack. B— Drag increases because of increased parasite
C—A lower true airspeed and higher angle of attack. drag.
C— Drag decreases because of lower induced drag.
Ifthe densityfactor is decreased and the total lift must
equal the total weight to remain in flight, it follows that Note in the following figure that the airspeed at which
one of the other factors must be increased. The factors minimum drag occurs is the same airspeed at which
usually increased are theairspeed ortheangleofattack, the maximum lift/drag ratio (L/D) takesplace. Atspeeds
because these can be controlledby the pilot. (PLT168) below maximum L/D, any decrease in airspeed will
— FAA-H-8083-25 result in an increase in totaldrag due to the increase in
Answer(A) is incorrect because true airspeed must be increased induced drag. (PLT303) — FAA-H-8083-25
(not remain thesame) as altitude increases. Answer (C) is incorrect Answer (B) is incorrect because parasite drag varies directly (not
because true airspeed must increase (not decrease) for any given inversely) with airspeed. Answer (C) is incorrect because drag
angle of attack. increases (not decreases) from anyspeed other than that for maxi
mum L/D.

ALL
8348. What affects indicated stall speed?
a Valid for a given altitude,
A— Weight, load factor, and power. i * weight, and configuration. Total Drag
B—Load factor, angle of attack, and power.
C—Angle of attack, weight, and air density.

Anairplane will alwaysstallat thesame angle of attack. Minimum

The indicated airspeed at which the stalling angle of

CO
to |\I Drag
attackis reached will vary with weight, load factor, and _l W or
\\ (L/D) Max
(to an extent) powersetting. (PLT477) —FAA-H-8083-25 9c V \
Answers (B) and (C)are incorrect because indicated stallspeed is 3 l\
not affected by the angle of attack or air density. er
I 1 \
rr 3 i \
dW
35 , \ ^ ^ Parasite
Drag
ALL 3
i N:/
9808. The stall speed of an airplane Induced

A— is constant regardless of weight or airfoil

b.
O
•4^"" Dra9
configuration. O) ^,*^ 1
TO ^^•"""^ •
C
B— is affected by weight, and bank angle. Q ^
C—is not affected by dynamic pressures and lift co ^
Airspeed (MPH)
efficient.

Airplanes stall at the same angle of attack regardless Question 8346

of weight, dynamic pressure, bank angle, etc. The stall
speed of the aircraft will be affected by weight, bank
angle, and other factors since the product of dynamic
pressure, wing area, and lift coefficient must produce
the required lift. (PLT477) — ANA

Answers

8378 [B] 8348 [A] 9808 [B] 8346 [A]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 3-5

 Chapter 3 Aerodynamics

ALL ALL
8397. What is the relationship between induced and 8375. What flight condition should be expected when
parasite drag when the gross weight is increased? an aircraft leaves ground effect?
A— Parasite drag increases more than induced drag. A— An increase in induced drag requiring a higher
B— Induced drag increases more than parasite drag. angle of attack.
C—Both parasite and induced drag are equally B— Adecrease in parasite drag permitting a lower
increased. angle of attack.
C—An increase in dynamic stability.
Lift is required to counteract the aircraft's weight. If
weight is increased, lift must be also. To increase lift, Anairplane leaving ground effect will require an increase
angle ofattack mustbe increased, so induced drag also in angle of attack to maintain the same lift coefficient,
increases. Parasite drag is dueto form andfriction drag, experience an increase in induced drag and thrust
so there would be little or no change in parasite drag. required, experiencea decrease instability with a nose-
(PLT015) — ANA up change in pitch, and produce a reduction in static
Answer (A) is incorrect because parasite drag increases less (not source pressure and increase in indicated airspeed.
more) than induced drag as airplane weight increases. Answer (C) is (PLT131) — FAA-H-8083-25
incorrect because induced drag increases more than parasite drag
with increases in airplane gross weight. Answer (B) is incorrect because, at slowairspeeds when taking off,
induced (notparasite) dragpredominates. Answer (C) is incorrect
because, when leaving ground effect, expecta decrease instability
and a nose-up change in moment.
ALL

9767. How does Vs (KTAS) speed vary with altitude?

A— Remains the same at all altitudes. ATM, ATS, DSP
B— Varies directly with altitude. 8382. By changing the angle of attack of a wing, the
C—Varies inversely with altitude. pilot can control the airplane's
A— lift, gross weight, and drag.
True airspeed (KTAS) is based on the density of the B— lift, airspeed, and drag.
air, which is affected by pressure, temperature, and C—lift and airspeed, but not drag.
humidity—together, these determine airdensity. While
flying at a constant indicated airspeed, an increase in By changing the angle of attack, the pilot can control
density altitude willindicate that the air has become less lift, airspeed, and drag. Even the total loadsupported
dense, and the true airspeedas well as ground speed in flight by the wing may be modified by variations in
will increase. (PLT124) — FAA-H-8083-25 angle of attack. (PLT004) — FAA-H-8083-3
Answer(A) is incorrect because angle of attack cannot control the
airplane's gross weight. Answer (C) is incorrect because thepilot
ALL can control the amount of induced drag by changing the angle of
8368. What is the reason for variations in geometric attack.

pitch along a propeller or rotor blade?

A- It permits a relatively constant angle of attack ATM, ATS, DSP
along its length when in cruising flight. 8399. At which speed will increasing the pitch attitude
B— It prevents the portion of the blade near the hub cause an airplane to climb?
or root from stalling during cruising flight.
C— It permits a relatively constant angle of incidence A— Low speed.
along its length when in cruising flight. B— High speed.
C—Any speed.
"Twisting," or variations in the geometric pitch of the
blades permits the propeller tooperate with a relatively When operating at speeds below UDMAX, an increase
constant angle ofattack along itslength when in cruising in pitch or decrease in speed causes total drag to
flight. (PLT214) — FAA-H-8083-25 increase, thus causing a descent with a fixed power
setting. When operating at speeds above L/DMAX and
pitch is increased (or airspeed is decreased), total drag
will decrease, thus causing a climb with a fixed power
setting. (PLT303) — ANA
Answers (A) and (C) are incorrect because below UDMax, perfor
mance decreases with increases in pitch.

Answers

8397 [B] 9767 [B] 8368 [A] 8375 [A] 8382 [B] 8399 [B]

3-6 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 3 Aerodynamics

ATM, ATS, DSP The reduction of the wing-tip vortices due to ground
8379. How can an airplane produce the same lift in effect alters the spanwise lift distribution and reduces
ground effect as when out of ground effect? the inducedangle of attack and induceddrag. Therefore,
A— The same angle of attack. the wing will require a lowerangle of attackin ground
B— A lower angle of attack. effect to produce the same lift coefficient. (PLT131) —
C—A higher angle of attack. FAA-H-8083-3
Answer (A) is incorrect because, if the same angle of attack is
maintained, an increase in lift coefficient will result. Answer (C) is
incorrectbecause a lower angle of attack is requiredto produce the
same liftin ground effect.

Critical Engine and VMc

Because of"P-Factor" on most propeller-driven airplanes, the loss ofone particular engine at high angles
of attack would be more detrimental to performance than the loss of the other. One ofthe engines has its
thrust line closer to the aircraftcenterline {see Figure3-2). The loss ofthis engine would more adversely
affect the performance and handling of the aircraft; therefore this is the "critical engine."
For unsupercharged engines, VMc decreases as altitude is increased. Stalls should never be prac
ticed with one engine inoperative because of the potential for loss of control. Engine out approaches
and landings should be made the same as normal approaches and landings.
Banking at least 5°into thegood engine ensurestheairplane will be controllable at any speed above the
certificated VMC, thatthe airplane will be in a minimum drag configuration for best climb performance, and
that the stall characteristics will not be degraded. Engine out flight with the ball centered is never correct.

Banking at least 5° into the good engine ensures that

theairplane will be controllable at anyspeed above the
certificated VMC, that the airplane will be in a minimum
drag configuration for best climb performance, and that
Operative
engine the stall characteristics will not be degraded. Engine out
flight with the ball centered is never correct. (PLT223)
— FAA-H-8083-3

ATM
8358. What is the safest and most efficient takeoff and
initial climb procedure in a light, twin-engine airplane?
Accelerate to
Figure 3-2
A— best engine-out, rate-of-climb airspeed while on
the ground, then lift off and climb at that speed.
ATM
B— VMc. then lift off at that speed and climb at
8357. In a light, twin-engine airplane with one engine maximum angle-of-climb airspeed.
inoperative, when is it acceptable to allow the ball of a C—an airspeed slightlyabove VMc> then lift off and
slip-skid indicator to be deflected outside the reference climb at the best rate-of-climb airspeed.
lines?
A— While maneuvering at minimum controllable Lift-offshould be made at no less than VMC + 5. After
airspeed or less to avoid overbanking. lift-off, the airplane should be allowed to accelerate to
B— When operating at any airspeed of VMc or greater the all-engine best-rate-of-climb speed Vy, and then
with only enough deflection to zero the side slip. the climb maintained at this speed with takeoff power
C—When practicing imminent stalls in a banked until a safe maneuvering altitude is attained. (PLT459)
attitude of over 60°. — FAA-H-8083-3

Answers

8379 [B] 8357 [B] 8358 [C]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 3-7

 Chapter 3 Aerodynamics

ATM ATM, DSP

8360. What performance should a pilot of a light, twin- 8361. Which engine is the "critical" engine of a twin-
engine airplane be able to maintain at VMC? engine airplane?
A— Heading. A— The one with the center of thrust closest to the
B— Heading and altitude. centerline of the fuselage.
C—Heading, altitude, and ability to climb 50 ft/min. B—The one designated by the manufacturer which
develops most usable thrust.
VMc can be defined as the minimum airspeed at which C—The one with the center of thrust farthest from the
the airplane is controllable when the critical engine is centerline of the fuselage.
suddenlymade inoperative, and the remaining engine
is producing takeoffpower. This does not mean that the Thecritical engine is definedas the engine whose failure
airplane must be able to climb or even hold altitude. It would most adversely affect performance or handling.
onlymeans that a headingcan be maintained. (PLT208) Because of "P-factor,"most propeller-driven airplanesdo
— FAA-H-8083-3 not develop symmetricalthrust at highangles of attack.
Ifthe engine with the thrust line closest to the airplane
centerline fails, the resulting yawing moment will be
ATM
greater than if the other engine had failed. (PLT347) —
8364. What does the blue radial line on the airspeed FAA-H-8083-3
indicator of a light, twin-engine airplane represent?
A— Maximum single-engine rate of climb.
B— Maximum single-engine angle of climb. ATM, DSP

C—Minimum controllable airspeed for single-engine 8362. What effect, if any, does altitude have on VMC for
operation. an airplane with unsupercharged engines?
A— None.
The airspeed indicator in a twin-engine airplane is B— Increases with altitude.
marked with a red radial line at the minimum controllable C—Decreases with altitude.
airspeed with the critical engine inoperative (VMC), anda
blue radial lineat the best rateof climb airspeed with one For an airplane without supercharged engines, VMC
engine inoperative (VYse)- (PLT132) — FAA-H-8083-3 decreases as altitude is increased. Consequently, direc
tional control can be maintained at a lower airspeedthan
at sea level. (PLT314) — FAA-H-8083-3
ATM, DSP
8359. What procedure is recommended for an engine-
out approach and landing? ATM, DSP
A— The flightpath and procedures should be almost 8363. Under what condition should stalls never be
identical to a normal approach and landing. practiced in a twin-engine airplane?
B—The altitude and airspeed should be considerably A—With one engine inoperative.
higher than normal throughout the approach. B— With climb power on.
C—A normal approach, except do not extend the C—With full flaps and gear extended.
landing gear or flaps until over the runway
threshold. With full powerappliedto the operative engine, as the
airspeed drops below VMC, the airplane tends to rollas
Essentially, an engine-outapproach and landing is the well as yaw into the inoperative engine. This tendency
same as a normal approach and landing. (PLT223) — becomes greater as the airspeed is further reduced.
FAA-H-8083-3 Since this tendency must be counteracted by aileron
control, the yaw condition is aggravated by aileron roll
(the "down" aileron creates more drag than the "up"
aileron). Ifa stall occurs in this condition, a violent roll
into the dead enginemaybe experienced. (PLT459) —
FAA-H-8083-3

Answers

8360 [A] 8364 [A] 8359 [A] 8361 [A] 8362 [C] 8363 [A]

3-8 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 3 Aerodynamics

Maneuvering Flight
In a turn, centrifugal force is counterbalanced by a portion ofthe lift ofthe wing. The horizontal compo
nent of lift turns the airplane and the vertical component of lift opposes gravity. When the pilot rolls the
airplane into a turn he must increase the total lift of the wing so that the vertical component is equal to
the airplane's weight. This is done by increasing the angle ofattack. If no compensation is madefor the
loss of vertical component of lift in a turn, the aircraft will develop a sink rate.
Load factor is the ratio of the weight supported by the wings to the actual weight of the aircraft.
For example, if an aircraft with a gross weight of 2,000 pounds were subjected to a total load of 6,000
pounds in flight, the load factor would be 3 Gs. On the ground or in unaccelerated flight the load factor
is one. Conditions which can increase the load factor are vertical gusts (turbulence) and level turns. In a
level turn, the load factor is dependent only on the angle of bank. Airspeed, turn rate or aircraft weight
have no effect on load factor.
Rate of turn is the number of degrees per second at which the aircraft turns. The rate of turn is
dependent on both the aircraft's airspeed and its angle of bank. To increase the rate of turn, the pilot
must increase the angle of bank or decrease the airspeed or both. The rate of turn will decrease if the
bank angle is decreased or if the airspeed is increased. The radius of turn is also dependent on both
the bank angle and the airspeed. If angle of bank is increased or airspeed is decreased, the radius of
turn will decrease. If bank angle is shallowed or if airspeed is increased, the radiusofturn will increase.

ALL When an airplane is banked, its lift can be broken into

8349. Ifno corrective action is taken by the pilot as angle two vectors, a verticalcomponent of lift and a horizon
of bank is increased, how is the vertical component of tal component. Ifthe airplane is to maintain altitude in
lift and sink rate affected? the turn, the verticalcomponent of lift must be equal to
A— Lift increases and the sink rate increases. the aircraft's weight. This means that total lift must be
B— Lift decreases and the sink rate decreases. increased. Lift can be increased either by increasing
C— Lift decreases and the sink rate increases. airspeed orby increasing angle of attack. Ifthe vertical
component of lift is less than the aircraft's weight, the
When an airplane is banked, its lift can be broken into airplane will descend. (PLT348) — FAA-H-8083-3
two vectors, a verticalcomponent of lift and a horizon Answer (B)is incorrect because angle ofattack is increasedinorder
talcomponent. Ifthe airplane is to maintain altitude in to increase the vertical component of lift to equal weight. Answer(C)
is incorrect because additional thrust (power) is used to compensate
the turn, the verticalcomponent of lift must be equal to for increase in drag.
the aircraft's weight. This means that total lift must be
increased. Lift can be increased either by increasing
airspeedorbyincreasing angle of attack. If the vertical ALL
component of lift is less than the aircraft's weight, the 8347. What is load factor?
airplane will descend. (PLT348) — FAA-H-8083-3 A— Lift multiplied by the total weight.
Answer (A) is incorrect because lift will decrease, not increase. B— Lift subtracted from the total weight.
Answer (B) is incorrect because the sink rate increases as the lift
decreases.
C— Lift divided by the total weight.

Load factor is the ratio of the total load supported by the

ALL
airplane's wings to theactualweight of theairplane and
8350. Whymust the angle of attack be increased during its contents, or the actual load supported by the wings'
a turn to maintain altitude? lift divided by the total weight of theairplane. (PLT310)
— FAA-H-8083-25
A— Compensate for loss of vertical component of lift.
B— Increase the horizontal component of lift equal to
the vertical component.
C—Compensate for increase in drag.

Answers

8349 [C] 8350 [A] 8347 [C]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 3-9

 Chapter 3 Aerodynamics

ALL ALL
9823. During a turn with constant power 8353. Upon which factor does wing loading during a
A—the aircraft nose will pitch down. level coordinated turn in smooth air depend?
B—the aircraft will decelerate. A— Rate of turn.
C—the rate of descent will increase. B—Angle of bank.
C—True airspeed.
While ina turn, partof the vertical componentof lift has
been diverted to horizontal lift. Iftotal liftis not increased Load factor is independent ofairspeedanddependent on
(increase inangle of attack) the aircraft nose will pitch angleofbank; therefore, with a constant bank angle, load
down. (PLT348) — FAA-H-8083-3 factor is notaffected. There is no change incentrifugal
force forany given bank — the load factor remains the
same. (PLT248) — FAA-H-8083-25
ALL
Answer (A) is incorrect because in a coordinated turn, the rate of
9740. During a skidding turn to the right, what is the turndoes not have any impact on the load factor — it is determined
relationship between the component of lift and centrifu wholly by the angle of bank. Answer (C) is incorrect because true
gal force? airspeed has no impact on the load factor.

A—Centrifugal force is less than the horizontal lift

component and the load factor is increased. ALL
B—Centrifugal force is greater than the horizontal lift 8396. Fora givenangle of bank, the load factorimposed
component. on both the aircraft and pilot in a coordinated constant-
C—Centrifugal force and the horizontal lift component altitude turn
are equal, and the load factor is decreased.
A— is directly related to the airplane's gross weight.
Askidding turn results from excess centrifugal force over B— varies with the rate of turn.
the horizontal lift component, pulling the aircraft toward C—is constant.
the outside of the turn. As centrifugal force increases, the
load factor also increases. (PLT234) — FAA-H-8083-15 For any given angle of bank, the load factor remains
constant. (PLT309) — FAA-H-8083-25
Answer(A) is incorrect because a slipping turn will occurifcentrifu
gal force is less than horizontal lift. Answer(C) is incorrect because
centrifugal force and horizontal lift are equal in a coordinated turn
and load factor will increase. ALL

8351. How can the pilot increase the rate of turn and
decrease the radius at the same time?
ALL

8354. If an aircraftwith a gross weightof 2,000 pounds A— Steepen the bank and increase airspeed.
were subjected to a total load of 6,000 pounds in flight, B— Steepen the bank and decrease airspeed.
the load factor would be
C—Shallow the bank and increase airspeed.
A-2Gs. Any increase in the angle of bank will increase the rate
B-3Gs. of turn and decrease the radius of turn. Turn radius will
C-9Gs. decrease with decreasing airspeed. (PLT348) — FAA-
H-8083-3
Load factor is theratio of thetotal loadsupported bythe
airplane's wings to theactual weight of theairplane and
itscontents, orthe actual load supported bythe wings
divided by the total weight of the airplane:
6,000 pounds -r 2,000 pounds = 3 Gs
(PLT018) — FAA-H-8083-25

Answers
9823 [A] 9740 [B] 8354 [B] 8353 [B] 8396 [C] 8351 [B]

3-10 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 3 Aerodynamics

ALL ATM, ATS, DSP

8352. What is the relationship of the rate of turn with 8345-1. Generally, the turning performance of an air
the radius of turn with a constant angle of bank but plane is defined by
increasing airspeed? A—structural and power limits at high altitude.
A— Rate will decrease and radius will increase. B— aerodynamic and structural limits at low altitude.
B— Rate will increase and radius will decrease. C—control and structural limits at high altitude.
C— Rate and radius will increase.
Each of the three limiting factors (aerodynamic, struc
Forany given angle of bank, the rate of turn varies with tural, and power) may combine to define the turning
the airspeed. If the angle of bank is held constant and performance of an airplane. Generally, aerodynamic
the airspeed is increased, the rate of turn will decrease. and structural limits predominate at low altitude while
The radius of turn will vary with airspeed. As airspeed aerodynamic and power limits predominate at high
is increased the radius will also increase. (PLT248) — altitude. The knowledge of this turningperformance is
FAA-H-8083-3 particularly necessary foreffective operation of fighter
Answer (B) is incorrectbecause to maintaina constant angle of bank and interceptor types of airplanes. (PLT237) — ANA
while increasing airspeed, the radius of turn willincrease. Answer
(C) is incorrect because to maintain a constant angle of bank while
increasing airspeed, the rate of turn willdecrease. ATM, ATS, DSP
8345-2. A bank angle of 15° will increase induced drag
by about
ALL
8345. What effect does an increase in airspeed have on A-3%.
a coordinated turn while maintaining a constant angle B- 7%.
of bank and altitude? C-15%.

A—The rate of turn will decrease resulting in a Due to the increased load factor in a coordinated turn,
decreased load factor. there willbe an increase in stall speed and—of greater
B— The rate of turn will increase resulting in an importance to engine-outperformance—an increase in
increased load factor. induced drag. A bank angle of 15 degrees willincrease
C—The rate of turn will decrease resulting in no induced drag by about 7%. (PLT237) — ANA
changes in load factor.

Forany given angle of bank, the rateof turn varies with

the airspeed. A constant bank angle does not change
the load factor. Ifthe angle of bank is held constant and
the airspeed is increased, the rate of turn will decrease.
The radius of turn will vary withairspeed. As airspeed
is increased the radius willalso increase. (PLT248) —
FAA-H-8083-25
Answer (A) is incorrect because, at a constant bank angle, the
higher airspeed will decrease the rate of turn to compensate for
added centrifugal force, allowing the load factor to remain the same.
Answer(B) is incorrect because, forany bank angle, the rate of turn
varies with the airspeed; the higher the speed, the slower the rate
of turn.

Answers

8352 [A] 8345 [C] 8345-1 [B] 8345-2 [B]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 3-11

Chapter 3 Aerodynamics

Stability
Static stability describes the initial reaction of an aircraft after it has been disturbed from equilibrium in
one or more of its axes of rotation. If the aircraft has an initial tendency to return to its original attitude
of equilibrium, it has positive static stability. When itcontinues to diverge, itexhibits negative static
stability. If an aircraft tends to remain in its new, disturbed state, it has neutral static stability. Most
airplanes have positive static stability in pitch and yaw, and are close to neutrally stable in roll.
When an aircraft exhibits positive static stability in one of its axes, the term "dynamic stability"
describes the long term tendency of the aircraft. When an aircraft is disturbed from equilibrium and then
tries to return, itwill invariably overshoot the original attitude and then pitch back. This results in a series
of oscillations. If the oscillations become smallerwith time, the aircraft has positive dynamic stability. If
the aircraft diverges further away from its original attitude with each oscillation, it has negative dynamic
stability.
The entire design of an aircraft contributes to its stability (or lack of it) in each of its axes of rota
tion. However, the vertical tail is the primary source of direction stability (yaw), and the horizontal tail
is the primary source of pitch stability. The center of gravity (CG) location also affects stability. If the
CG is toward its rearward limit, the aircraft will be less stable in both roll and pitch. As the CG is moved
forward, the stability improves. Even though an airplane will be less stable with a rearward CG, it will
have some desirable aerodynamiccharacteristics due to reduced aerodynamicloading of horizontal tail
surface. This type of an airplane will have a slightly lower stall speed and will cruise faster for a given
power setting.

ALL ALL
8365. Identify the type stability if the aircraft attitude 8373. Identify the type stability if the aircraft attitude
remains in the new position after the controls have tends to return to its original position after the controls
been neutralized. have been neutralized.
A— Negative longitudinal static stability. A— Positive dynamic stability.
B— Neutral longitudinal dynamic stability. B— Positive static stability.
C—Neutral longitudinal static stability. C—Neutral dynamic stability.
Neutral staticstability is theinitial tendencyofan airplane Positive static stability is the initial tendency of the air
to remain in a new position after its equilibrium has been plane to return to the original state of equilibrium after
disturbed. (PLT236) — FAA-H-8083-25 being disturbed. (PLT236) — FAA-H-8083-25
Answer (A) is incorrect because a negative longitudinalstatic stabil Answer (A) is incorrect because positive dynamicstability refers to
ity means the airplane would tend to move even further from the oscillationsbeing dampened or decreasing. Answer (C) is incorrect
original position. Answer (B) is incorrect because, with neutral lon because neutral dynamic stability refers to oscillations continuing
gitudinal dynamic stability, the airplane would continue to oscillate without a tendency to increase or decrease.
without a tendency to increase or decrease.

ALL
ALL
8366. What is a characteristic of longitudinal instability?
8372. Identify the type stability if the aircraft attitude
tends to move farther from its original position after the A— Pitch oscillations becoming progressively greater.
controls have been neutralized. B— Bank oscillations becoming progressively greater.
C—Aircraft constantly tries to pitch down.
A— Negative static stability.
B— Positive static stability. A longitudinally unstable airplane has a tendencytodive
C—Negative dynamic stability. or climbprogressively intoa verysteep dive or climb, or
even a stall. (PLT213) — FAA-H-8083-25
Negative static stability is the initial tendency of the air
Answer(B) is incorrect because longitudinal stability refers to pitch
planetocontinue away from theoriginal state ofequilib (not bank) oscillations. Answer (C) is incorrect because this is not
rium afterbeing disturbed. (PLT213) — FAA-H-8083-25 considereda stability problem. Stability is thereaction of theairplane
when its equilibrium is disturbed.

Answers

8365 [C] 8372 [A] 8373 [B] 8366 [A]

3-12 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 3 Aerodynamics

ALL ATM, ATS, DSP

8367. Describe dynamic longitudinal stability. 8380. What are some characteristics of an airplane
loaded with the CG at the aft limit?
A— Motion about the longitudinal axis.
B— Motion about the lateral axis. A— Lowest stall speed, highest cruise speed, and
C—Motion about the vertical axis. least stability.
B— Highest stall speed, highest cruise speed, and
Longitudinal stability is the quality which makes an least stability.
airplane stable about its lateral axis. (PLT236) — FAA- C—Lowest stall speed, lowest cruise speed, and
H-8083-25 highest stability.
Answer (A) is incorrect because motion about the airplane's longitu
dinal axis is lateral (not longitudinal) stability. Answer (C) is incorrect An airplane loaded with the CG at its aft limit willhave
because motion about the vertical axis is directional stability. a lower stall speed, higher cruise speed, but be less
stable. (PLT240) — FAA-H-8083-3
Answer (B) is incorrectbecause an aft CG wouldcause the airplane
ALL
to have the lowest stall speed. Answer (C) is incorrect because an
8376. What characteristic should exist if an airplane is aft CG would cause an airplane to have the highest cruise speed
loaded to the rear of its CG range? and the least stability.

A— Sluggish in aileron control.

B— Sluggish in rudder control.
C— Unstable about the lateral axis.

If an airplane is loaded too far rearward it may not

dampen out a vertical displacement of the nose.
Instead, when the nose is momentarily pulled up, it may
alternately climb and dive becoming steeper with each
oscillation. (PLT236) — FAA-H-8083-25
Answer (A) is incorrect because an aft location of the CG has a
greater effect on the longitudinal stability, not the lateral (aileron)
controllability. Answer (B) is incorrect because an aft CG has a
greater effect on the longitudinal stability, not vertical (rudder) con
trollability.

High Speed Flight

Mach number is the ratio of the true airspeed to the speed of sound (TAS -=- Speed of Sound). For
example, an aircraft cruising at Mach .80 is flying at 80% of the speed of sound. The speed of sound
is Mach 1.0.
A large increase in drag occurs when the air flow around the aircraft exceeds the speed of sound
(Mach 1.0). Because lift is generated by accelerating air across the upper surface of the wing, local air
flow velocities will reach sonic speeds while the aircraft Mach number is still considerably below the
speed ofsound. With respect to Mach cruise control, flight speeds can be divided into three regimes —
subsonic, transonic and supersonic. The subsonic regime can be considered to occur at aircraft Mach
numbers where all the local air flow is less than the speed of sound. The transonic range is where
some but not all the local air flow velocities are Mach 1.0 or above. In supersonic flight, all the air flow
around the aircraft exceeds Mach 1.0. The exact Mach numbers will vary with each aircraft type but as
a very rough rule of thumb the subsonic regime occurs below Mach .75, the transonic regime between
Mach .75 and Mach 1.20, and the supersonic regime over Mach 1.20.

Continued

Answers

8367 [B] 8376 [C] 8380 [A]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 3-13

Chapter 3 Aerodynamics

Alimiting speed for a subsonic transport aircraft is its critical Mach number (MCrit)- That is the speed
at which airflow over the wing first reaches, but does not exceed, the speed of sound. At MCrit there
may be sonic but no supersonic flow.
When an airplane exceeds its critical Mach number, a shock wave forms on the wing surface that
can cause a phenomenon known as shock stall. If this shock stall occurs symmetrically at the wing
roots, the loss of lift and loss of downwash on the tail will cause the aircraft to pitch down or "tuck under."
This tendency is further aggravated in sweptwing aircraft because the center of pressure moves aft as
the wing roots shock stall. If the wing tips of a sweptwing airplane shock stall first, the wing's center of
pressure would move inward and forward causing a pitch up motion. See Figure 3-3.
The less airflow is accelerated across the wing, the higher the critical Mach number (i.e., the maxi
mum flow velocity is closer to the aircraft's Mach number). Two ways of increasing MCrit in jet trans
port designs are to give the wing a lower camber and increase wing sweep. Athin airfoil section (lower
camber) causes less airflow acceleration. The sweptwing design has the effect of creating a thin airfoil
section by inducing a spanwise flow, thus increasing the effective chord length. See Figure 3-4.
Although a sweptwing design gives an airplane a higher critical Mach number (and therefore a higher
maximum cruise speed), it results in some undesirable flight characteristics. One of these is a reduced
maximum coefficient of lift. This requires that sweptwing airplanes extensively employ high lift devices,
such as slats and slotted flaps, to get acceptably low takeoff and landing speeds. The purpose of high
lift devices such as flaps, slats and slots is to increase lift at low airspeeds and to delay stall to a higher
angle of attack.
Another disadvantage of the sweptwing design is the tendency, at low airspeeds, for the wing tips
to stall first. This results in loss of aileron control early in the stall, and in very little aerodynamic buffet
on the tail surfaces.

0.80 0.85

(A) Airplane Mach 0.70

0.80
0.75

0.70 k"•\\ X
X
X
>v
\
\
4/ V

X \
X \

K ^
X
N
X 1
X /
X /

1.00 X
X
N.
\
X \

0.95 loo
1.02
v7 X
X
X
X
\

X
\

X
\
\
\
\
0.90 _J i_ X
X
\
\
X \
X \
X \

0.85 —<x*J-— FWD

-0.85
X \

r
N^^
Nk\ X
(B) Airplane Mach 0.85 *h

Figure 3-3. Local airstream Mach numbers V = Airplane Velocity ^^\^

Vc = Lift-Producing Chordwise Flow
Vsf = Spanwise Flow (negligible lift effects)

Figure 3-4. Effect of wing sweep on MCrit

3-14 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 3 Aerodynamics

ATM, ATS, DSP ATM, ATS, DSP

8387. Within what Mach range does transonic flight 8389. What is the free stream Mach number which
regimes usually occur? produces first evidence of local sonic flow?
A— .50 to .75 Mach. A— Supersonic Mach number.
B-.75 to 1.20 Mach. B—Transonic Mach number.
C-1.20 to 2.50 Mach. C—Critical Mach number.

Flight regimes are defined as follows: The highest speed possible without supersonic flow
Subsonic - Mach numbers below 0.75
is called the Critical Mach Number. (PLT214) — ANA
Transonic - Mach numbers from 0.75 to 1.20
Supersonic - Mach numbers from 1.20 to 5.00
ATM, ATS, DSP
Hypersonic - Mach numbers above 5.00. 8392. What is the result of a shock-induced separation
(PLT032) — ANA of airflow occurring symmetrically near the wing root of
Answer (A) is incorrect because .50 to. 75 Mach would be subsonic a sweptwing aircraft?
flight. Answer (C) is incorrect because 1.20 to 2.50 Mach would be
supersonic flight. A—A high-speed stall and sudden pitchup.
B— A severe moment or "Mach tuck."
C—Severe porpoising.
ATM, ATS, DSP
8390. At what Mach range does the subsonic flight If the shock-induced separation occurs symmetrically
range normally occur? near the wing root, there is an accompanying loss of
lift. A decrease in downwash on the horizontal tail will
A— Below .75 Mach.
create a diving moment and the aircraftwill"tuck under."
B— From .75 to 1.20 Mach.
(PLT214) — ANA
C- From 1.20 to 2.50 Mach.
Answer (A) is incorrect because there is a sudden pitch down when
a shock-induced separation ofairilow occurs symmetrically near the
Flight regimes are defined as follows: wing root of a sweptwing aircraft. Answer (C) is incorrect because
Subsonic - Mach numbers below 0.75 there is a divingmoment when a shock-induced separation of airflow
occurs symmetrically near the wing root of a sweptwing aircraft.
Transonic - Mach numbers from 0.75 to 1.20
Supersonic - Mach numbers from 1.20 to 5.00
Hypersonic - Mach numbers above 5.00. ATM, ATS, DSP
(PLT214)—ANA 8395. What is the movement of the center of pressure
Answer (B) is incorrectbecause .75 to 1.20 Mach wouldbe transonic when the wingtips of a sweptwing airplane are shock-
flight. Answer (C) is incorrectbecause 1.20 to 2.50 Mach would be stalled first?
supersonic flight.
A— Inward and aft.
B— Inward and forward.
ATM, ATS, DSP C—Outward and forward.
8388. What is the highest speed possible without
supersonic flow over the wing? Shock formation at the wing tipfirstmoves the center of
pressure forward and inboardand the resultingclimbing
A— Initial buffet speed. moment and tail downwash can contribute to "pitch up."
B—Critical Mach number. (PLT214) — ANA
C—Transonic index.
Answer (A) is incorrect because when the wing tips are shock-
stalled first, the center of pressure moves forward. Answer (C) is
The highest speed possible without supersonic flow incorrect because when the wing tips are shock-stalled first, the
is called the Critical Mach Number. (PLT214) — ANA center of pressure moves inward.

Answers

8387 [B] 8390 [A] 8388 [B] 8389 [C] 8392 [B] 8395 [B]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 3-15

Chapter 3 Aerodynamics

ATM, ATS, DSP ATM, ATS, DSP

8391. What is the principal advantage of a sweepback 8393. What is one disadvantage of a sweptwing design?
design wing over a straightwing design? A—The wing root stalls prior to the wingtip section.
A— The critical Mach number will increase B— The wingtip section stalls prior to the wing root.
significantly. C—Severe pitchdown moment when the center of
B— Sweepback will increase changes in the pressure shifts forward.
magnitude of force coefficients due to
compressibility. When sweepback is combined with taper there is an
C— Sweepback will accelerate the onset of extremely powerful tendency for the wing tip to stall
compressibility effect. first. (PLT214) — ANA

One of the most important advantages of sweep is an

increase in critical Mach number, force divergence Mach ATM, ATS, DSP
number, and the Mach number at which the drag rise 9803. Swept wings causes a significant
willpeak. Inother words, the sweep willdelay the onset A— increase in effectiveness of flaps.
of compressibility effects. (PLT214) — ANA B— reduction in effectiveness of flaps.
C—flap actuation reliability issue.
ATM, ATS, DSP Thin airfoil sections with sweepback impose distinct
8391-1. Swept wings limitations on the effectiveness of flaps. (PLT266)—ANA
A— improve specific fuel consumption.
B— increase the critical Mach number.
C— increase the speed of sound quotient. ATM, ATS, DSP
8394-2. A turbojet airplane has an increase in specific
One of the advantages of sweep in wing design is the range with altitude, which can be attributed to three
increase in the critical Mach number it creates. The factors. One of those factors is
increase incritical Machnumber, force divergence Mach A—an increase in altitude in the troposphere results
number, and the Mach number at which the drag-rise in higher energy air flow.
peaks will delay the onset of compressibility effects. B—an increase in proportion of velocity versus thrust
(PLT094)—ANA required.
C—decreased engine turbine speeds.
ATM, ATS, DSP
One of the three factors that leads to the increase in
8391-2. For significant benefit, wing sweep must be specific range with altitude in a turbojet airplane is that
at least
higher altitude increases the proportion of V/Tr (velocity
A- 30 to 35°. versus required thrust), which in turn provides a greater
B-45 to 50°. true airspeed for the same amount of thrust.
C—55°or more to substantially delay compressibility The other two factors involved are that, (1) an
effects. increase in tropospheric altitude produces a lower inlet
air temperature, which then reduces the specific fuel
If sweepback is to be used at all, at least 30 to 35 consumption, and (2) an increase in altitude requires
degrees must be used toproduce any significantbenefit. increased engine RPM for cruise thrust, and then the
(PLT094)—ANA specific fuel consumption is reduced as the engine
approaches the normal-rated RPM. (PLT094) — ANA

Answers

8391 [A] 8391-1 [B] 8391-2 [A] 8393 [B] 9803 [B] 8394-2 [B]

3-16 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 3 Aerodynamics

Primary Flight Controls

Because of the high air loads, it is very difficult to move the flight control surfaces of jet aircraft with
just mechanical and aerodynamic forces. So flight controls are usually moved by hydraulic actuators.
Flight controls are divided into primary flight controls and secondary or auxiliary flight controls.
The primary flight controls are those that maneuver the aircraft in roll, pitch and yaw. These include the
ailerons, elevator and rudder. Secondary (or auxiliary) flight controls include tabs, trailing-edge flaps,
leading-edge flaps, spoilers and slats. See Figure 3-5.
Roll control of most jet aircraft is accomplished by ailerons and flight spoilers. The exact mix of
controls is determined by the aircraft's flight regime. In low speed flight all control surfaces operate to
provide the desired roll control. As the aircraft moves into higher speed operations, control surface move
ment is reduced to provide approximately the same roll response to a given input through a wide range
of speeds.
Many aircraft have two sets of ailerons —inboard and outboard. The inboard ailerons operate in all
flight regimes. The outboard ailerons work only when the wing flaps are extended and are automatically
locked out when flaps are retracted. This allows good roll response in low speed flight with the flaps
extended and prevents excessive roll and wing bending at high speeds when the flaps are retracted.
Spoilers increase drag and reduce lift on the wing. Ifraised on only one wing, they aid roll control by
causing that wing to drop. Ifthe spoilers raise symmetrically in flight, the aircraft can either be slowed in
level flight or can descend rapidly without an increase in airspeed. When the spoilers rise on the ground
at high speeds, they destroy the wing's lift which puts more of the aircraft's weight on its wheels which
in turn makes the brakes more effective.

Often aircraft have both flight and ground spoilers. The flight spoilers are available both in flight
and on the ground. However, the ground spoilers can only be raised when the weight of the aircraft is
on the landing gear. When the spoilers deploy on the ground, they decrease lift and make the brakes
more effective. In flight, a ground-sensing switch on the landing gear prevents deployment of the ground
spoilers.
Vortex generators are small (an inch or so high) aerodynamic surfaces located in different places
on different airplanes. They prevent undesirable airflow separation from the surface by mixing the bound
ary airflow with the high energy airflow just above the surface. When located on the upper surface of a
wing, the vortex generators prevent shock-induced separation from the wing as the aircraft approaches
its critical Mach number. This increases aileron effectiveness at high speeds.

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 3-17

Chapter 3 Aerodynamics

Rudder

- Rudder control tab

Outboard aileron Stabilizer actuated

. elevator tab
u\ Elevator control tab
A\i , Elevator
installed) \ \\
Outboard spoilers
&^ Outboard flap
^m\- WW
> A V
r^/lf': \ \
— Inboard aileron Stabilizer

Slats Ay 'J \ '

(if installed) \J <\
Fillet flap
Inboard flap
Inboard spoilers
Control tab
Leading edge flaps

Leading edge slats

Vortex generators

Figure 3-5. Typical transport aircraft flight controls

ATM, ATS, DSP ATM, ATS, DSP

8326. Which of the following is considered a primary 8327. Which of the following is considered an auxiliary
flight control? flight control?
A- Slats. A— Ruddervator.
B— Elevator. B— Upper rudder.
C—Dorsal fin. C— Leading-edge flaps.

The primary group of flight control surfaces consists Auxiliarywing flightsurfaces include trailing edge flaps,
of ailerons, elevators, and rudders. (PLT346) — FAA- leading edge flaps, speed brakes, spoilers, and leading
H-8083-25 edge slats. (PLT473) — FAA-H-8083-25
Answer (A) is incorrect because slats are high-lift devices, not a Answer (A) is incorrect because a ruddervator is a primary flight
flight control device. Answer (C) is incorrect because a dorsal fin is control surface that incorporates both a rudder and elevator into one
not a primaryflight control, but is used to provide directionalstability. surface. Answer (B) is incorrect because upper rudders (found on
the B-727) are stand-by rudders, which are used in the event of a
hydraulic system failure.

Answers

8326 [B] 8327 [C]

3-18 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 3 Aerodynamics

ATM, ATS, DSP Aerodynamic loads on the outboard ailerons tend to twist
8343. Precise roll control using a rudder on a transport the wing tips at high speeds. This results in deformation
category airplane great enough to nullify the effect of aileron deflection
A— can be effective when turbulence is encountered. and create rolling moments opposite to the direction
B— is difficult and therefore not recommended. commanded. Because of this, outboard ailerons are
C—should be considered to assist the yaw damper. used for slow flight only. (PLT346) — FAA-H-8083-25

The lateral control of an airplane is accomplished by

producing differentiallift on the wings. The differential ATM, ATS, DSP
lift forcontrol in rollis usually obtained by some type of 8332. What is a purpose of flight spoilers?
ailerons or spoilers. Rudders are not recommended as A— Increase the camber of the wing.
the primary method to achieve precise roll control as B— Reduce liftwithout decreasing airspeed.
they can contribute to dihedral effect. Excessive dihedral C— Direct airflow over the top of the wing at high
effect can lead to many problems including Dutch rolls. angles of attack.
(PLT346) — ANA
The purpose of the spoilers is to disturb the smooth
airflow across the top of the wing thereby creating an
ATM, ATS, DSP increased amount of drag and a reduced amount of lift.
8324. When are inboard ailerons normally used? (PLT473) — FAA-H-8083-25
A— Low-speed flight only. Answer (A) is incorrect because flaps (not spoilers) increase the
B— High-speed flight only. camber of the wing. Answer (C) is incorrect because slots and slats
direct airflow over the top of the wing at high angles of attack.
C—Low-speed and high-speed flight.

Duringlow-speed flight, all lateralcontrolsurfaces oper ATM, ATS, DSP

ate to provide maximum stability. This includes all four
8333. For which purpose may flight spoilers be used?
ailerons, flaps, and spoilers. (PLT346)— FAA-H-8083-25
Answers (A) and (B) are incorrect because the inboard ailerons are A— Reduce the wings' lift upon landing.
used during both high- and low-speed flight. B— Increase the rate of descent without increasing
aerodynamic drag.
C—Aid in longitudinal balance when rolling an
ATM, ATS, DSP airplane into a turn.
8325. When are outboard ailerons normally used?
A— Low-speed flight only. An additional purpose or use for flight spoilers is to
B— High-speed flight only. reduce lift when the aircraft lands. (PLT473) — FAA-
C—Low-speed and high-speed flight. H-8083-25
Answer (B) is incorrect because spoilers will increase the aero
At high speeds, flaps are retracted and the outboard dynamic drag. Answer (C) is incorrect because trim devices (not
spoilers) aid in balancing forces on an aircraftabout the three axes.
ailerons are locked out of the aileron control system.
(PLT346) — FAA-H-8083-25
Answers (B) and (C) are incorrect because the outboard ailerons are ATM, ATS, DSP
locked when airspeed is increased and flaps are raised.
8336. Which is a purpose of ground spoilers?
A— Reduce the wings' lift upon landing.
ATM, ATS, DSP B— Aid in rolling an airplane into a turn.
8342. Why do some airplanes equipped with inboard/ C— Increase the rate of descent without gaining
outboard ailerons use the outboards for slow flight only? airspeed.
A— Increased surface area provides greater
controllability with flap extension. Ground spoilers are speed brakes extended on the
B— Aerodynamic loads on the outboard ailerons tend
ground or landing roll to kill lift and keep the aircraft
to twist the wingtips at high speeds. from flying again after touchdown. (PLT473) — FAA-
H-8083-25
C— Locking out the outboard ailerons in high-speed
flight provides variable flight control feel. Answer (B) is incorrect because an aid in rolling an airplane into a
turn is a flight spoiler. Answer (C) is incorrect because increasing
the rate of descent withoutgaining airspeed is the purpose of a flight
spoiler.

Answers

8343 [B] 8324 [C] 8325 [A] 8342 [B] 8332 [B] 8333 [A]
8336 [A]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 3-19

Chapter 3 Aerodynamics

ATM, ATS, DSP "Vortex generators" are used to delay or prevent shock
9793. Upon landing, spoilers wave-induced boundary layer separation encountered in
A— decrease directional stability on the landing rollout. transonic flight. Vortexgenerators create a vortex which
B—function by increasing tire to ground friction. mixes the boundary airflow with the high energy airflow
C—should be extended after the thrust reversers just above the surface. This produces higher surface
have been deployed. velocities and increases the energy of the boundary
layer. Thus, a stronger shock wave willbe necessary to
Spoilers should be deployed immediately after touch produce airflowseparation. (PLT266) — FAA-H-8083-25
down because they are most effective at high speed. Answer (B) is incorrect because vortex generators are most effective
The spoilers increase wheel loading by as much as 200 at high speeds and the increased drag that they produce is not their
primary function. Answer (C) is incorrect because a stall strip breaks
percent in the landing flap configuration. This increases the airflow over the wing so the stall willprogress from the root out
the tire ground friction force making the maximum tire to the tip of the wing.
braking and cornering forces available. (PLT170) —
FAA-H-8083-3A
ATM, ATS, DSP
8356. Airflow separation over the wing can be delayed
ATM, ATS, DSP by using vortex generators
9793-1. Aerodynamic braking is only effective up to
A—directing high pressure air over the top of the
approximately
wing or flap through slots and making the wing
A— 30% of touchdown speed. surface smooth.
B— 40 to 50% of touchdown speed. B— directing a suction over the top of the wing or
C—60 to 70% of touchdown speed. flap through slots and making the wing surface
smooth.
The aerodynamic drag of the airplane must be considered C—making the wing surface rough and/or directing
during the landing roll. Because of the reduced induced high pressure air over the top of the wing or flap
drag when in ground effect, aerodynamic braking will be through slots.
of greatest significance only when partial stalling of the
wing can be accomplished. The reduced drag when in Vortex generators prevent undesirable airflowseparation
ground effect accounts for the fact that the brakes are from the surface by mixing the boundary airflow with the
the most effective source of deceleration forthe majority high energy airflow just above the surface. The vortex
of airplane configurations. At speeds less than 60 to 70 generators mix the turbulentouter layers of the boundary
percent of the touchdown speed, aerodynamic drag is layers with the slow moving laminar lower layers thus
so slight as to be of littleuse, and therefore aerodynamic reenergizing them. (PLT266) — FAA-H-8083-25
braking must be utilized to produce continued decelera
tion of the airplane. (PLT247) — ANA
ALL
9759. If the boundary layer separates
ATM, ATS, DSP
8341. Which is a purpose of wing-mounted vortex A— drag is decreased.
B—the wing is about to stall and stop producing lift.
generators?
C— ice will sublimate and not freeze.
A— Delays the onset of drag divergence at
high speeds and aids in maintaining aileron The boundary layer gives any object an "effective"shape
effectiveness at high speeds. that is usually slightly differentfrom the physical shape.
B— Increase the onset of drag divergence and aid in The boundary layer may also separate from the body,
aileron effectiveness at low speeds. thus creating an effective shape much different from the
C— Breaks the airflow over the wing so the stall will physical shape of the object. This change in the physical
progress from the root out to the tip of the wing. shape of the boundary layer causes a dramatic decrease
in liftand an increase in drag. When this happens, the
airfoilhas stalled. (PLT266) — FAA-H-8083-25

Answers

9793 [B] 9793-1 [C] 8341 [A] 8356 [C] 9759 [B]

3-20 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 3 Aerodynamics

Tabs
Flight control surfaces are sometimes equipped with servo tabs. These tabs are on the trailing edge of
the control surface and are mechanically linked to move opposite the direction of the surface. If the tab
moves up, the surface moves down. This "servo" movement moves the control surface. See Figure 3-6.
One method of modifying the downward tail load through changes in airspeed and configuration is
by using trim tabs. Trim tabs are moved by a separate trim control from the cockpit. Movement of the
trim tab (like the servo tab) is opposite that of the primary control surface.
Anti-servo tabs move in the same direction as
the primary control surface. This means that as the
control surface deflects, the aerodynamic load is
increased by movement of the anti-servo tab. This
helps to prevent the control surface from moving
to a full deflection. It also makes a hydraulically-
boosted flight control more aerodynamically effec
tive than it would otherwise be.

Some jet aircraft have control tabs for use in

the event of loss of all hydraulic pressure. Move
ment of the control wheel moves the control tab
which causes the aerodynamic movement of the
control surface. The control tab is used only during
manual reversion; that is, with the loss of hydraulic
pressure. They work the same as a servo tab but
only in the manual mode.

Figure 3-6

ATM, ATS, DSP ATM, ATS, DSP

8330. What is the purpose of a servo tab? 8338. Which direction from the primary control surface
A— Move the flight controls in the event of manual does a servo tab move?
reversion. A— Same direction.
B— Reduce control forces by deflecting in the proper B— Opposite direction.
direction to move a primary flight control. C— Remains fixed for all positions.
C— Prevent a control surface from moving to a full-
deflection position due to aerodynamic forces. The servo tab attached to the flight control moves in the
opposite direction, to assist in moving and holding the
The servo tab moves in response to the cockpit control. flight control by way of the airflow against it. (PLT473)
The force of the airflow on the servo tab then moves the — FAA-H-8083-25
primary control surface. (PLT473) — FAA-H-8083-25 Answer (A) is incorrect because an anti-servo tab, as found on the
Answer (A) is incorrect because, in the event of "manual reversion" trailing edge of stabilators, moves in the same direction as the sta-
on some transport category aircraft, the control tabs would move the bilator to provide a feel to the pilot control pressures. Answer (C) is
flight controls. Answer (C) is incorrect because the purpose of the incorrect because servo tabs move in response to the pilot's control
anti-servo tab is to preclude full deflection of control surfaces. movements.

Answers

8330 [B] 8338 [B]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 3-21

Chapter 3 Aerodynamics

ATM, ATS, DSP Anti-servo tabs add resistance and increase control
8339. Which direction from the primary control surface forces required as the surface moves toward its limitto
does an elevator adjustable trim tab move when the avoid overcontrolling and offset deflection caused by
control surface is moved? aerodynamic forces rather than control input. (PLT473)
A— Same direction. — FAA-H-8083-25
B— Opposite direction. Answer (A) is incorrect because in the event of "manual reversion"
C— Remains fixed for all positions. the control tabs (not servo or anti-servo tabs) would move the flight
controls. Answer (B) is incorrect because the anti-servo usually will
increase the pressure required to deflect the control surfaces (the
Trim tabs remain fixed forall positions ofprimary control anti-servo tab moves in the same direction as the control surface).
surface movement untilmechanically adjusted from the
cockpit. A trim tab is hinged to its parent primary con
trol surface but is operated by an independent control. ATM, ATS, DSP
(PLT473) — FAA-H-8083-25 8337. Which direction from the primary control surface
Answer (A) is incorrect because once adjusted, trim tabs remain does an anti-servo tab move?
fixed to the primary control surface as the primary control surface
A— Same direction.
is moved. Answer (B) is incorrect because a tab having a linkage
designed to move in the opposite direction from the main control B— Opposite direction.
surface is called a balance tab. C— Remains fixed for all positions.

Anti-servo tabs move in the same direction as the primary

ATM, ATS, DSP control surface. (PLT346) — FAA-H-8083-25
8340. What is the purpose of an elevator trim tab? Answer (B) is incorrect because a servo tab moves in the opposite
A— Provide horizontal balance as airspeed is direction from the primary control surface. Answer (C) is incorrect
because trim tabs remain fixed during control inputs.
increased to allow hands-off flight.
B— Adjust the speed tail load for different airspeeds
in flight allowing neutral control forces. ATM, ATS, DSP
C— Modify the downward tail load for various 8328. What is the purpose of a control tab?
airspeeds in flight eliminating flight-control
pressures.
A— Move the flight controls in the event of manual
reversion.
The air flowing downward behind the trailing edge of B— Reduce control forces by deflecting in the proper
the wing strikes the upper surface of the horizontal direction to move a primary flight control.
stabilizer, creating a downward tail force. The use of the C— Prevent a control surface from moving to a full-
trim tab will allow the pilot to reduce the hinge moment deflection position due to aerodynamic forces.
to zero and trim the control forces to zero for a given
flight condition. (PLT473) — FAA-H-8083-25 The flight controls of large jet airplanes are usually
hydraulically powered. They are equipped with control
Answer (A) is incorrect because the elevator trim tab permits
"hands-off" flight at any airspeed, not only when the airspeed is tabs in the event of a total hydraulic failure. When this
increasing, and provides longitudinal balance. Answer (B) is incor happens, the control tab can still be moved with con
rect because the elevator trim tab adjusts the downward tail load for trol wheel input and the tab displacement creates an
various airspeeds in flight allowing neutral control forces.
aerodynamic force which moves the control surface.
(PLT473) — FAA-H-8083-25
ATM, ATS, DSP Answer (B) is incorrect because servo tabs reduce control forces
by deflecting primary flight controls in the proper direction. Answer
8329. What is the purpose of an anti-servo tab? (C) is incorrect because this is the purpose and function of an anti-
servo tab.
A— Move the flight controls in the event of manual
reversion.
B— Reduce control forces by deflecting in the proper
direction to move a primary flight control.
C— Prevent a control surface from moving to a full-
deflection position due to aerodynamic forces.

Answers

8339 [C] 8340 [C] 8329 [C] 8337 [A] 8328 [A]

3-22 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 3 Aerodynamics

High-Lift Devices
Sweptwing jet aircraft are equipped with a number of high-lift devices. These include leading edge flaps,
slots or slats, and trailing edge flaps. The primary purpose of high-lift devices (flaps, slots, slats, etc.)
is to increase the maximum coefficient of lift (CLMax) of the airplane and reduce the stall speed. The
takeoff and landing speeds are consequently reduced.
The two most common types of leading-edge devices are slats and Krueger flaps. The Krueger
flap extends from the leading edge of the wing, increasing its camber. The slat also extends from the
wing's leading edge but it creates a gap or slot. This slot allows high energy from under the wing to flow
over the top of the wing that delays stall to a higher angle of attack than would otherwise occur. It is
common to find Krueger flaps and slats on the same wing.

ATM, ATS, DSP ATM, ATS, DSP

8384. The primary purpose of high-lift devices is to 8385. What is the primary function of the leading edge
increase the flaps in landing configuration during the flare before
touchdown?
A-L/DMax.
B— lift at low speeds. A— Prevent flow separation.
C—drag and reduce airspeed. B— Decrease rate of sink.
C— Increase profile drag.
The primary purpose of high-lift devices (flaps, slots,
slats, etc.) is to increase the CLMAX of the airplane and The primary purpose of high-lift devices (flaps, slots,
to reduce the stall speed. The takeoffand landing speeds slats, etc.) is to increase the CLMAX of the airplane and
are consequently reduced. (PLT266) — ANA to reduce the stall speed. The takeoffand landing speeds
Answer (A) is incorrect because increasing the lift component is are consequently reduced. (PLT266) — ANA
an objective of high-lift devices which increase the ratio of L/D. The Answer (B) is incorrect because, to decrease the rate of sink, the
primary purpose of high-lift devices is to increase liftat low speeds. coefficient of lift (CL) must increase. This is done by using leading-
Answer (C) is incorrect because increasing the drag to reduce air edge lift devices, slats, flaps, and other devices with the correct
speed is the function of spoilers, not high-lift devices. power setting. Answer (C) is incorrect because spoilers increase
profile drag and are usually deployed after touchdown to reduce lift.

ATM, ATS, DSP

8331. Which is a purpose of leading-edge flaps? ATM, ATS, DSP

A— Increase the camber of the wing. 8334. Which is a purpose of leading-edge slats on
B— Reduce liftwithout increasing airspeed. high-performance wings?
C— Direct airflow over the top of the wing at high A— Increase lift at relative slow speeds.
angles of attack. B— Improve aileron control during low angles of
attack.
The leading-edge flap extends in a downward direction C— Direct air from the low-pressure area under the
to increase the camber or total curve of the wing's shape. leading edge along the top of the wing.
(PLT473)—ANA
Answer (B) is incorrect because leading-edge flaps increase the The primary purpose of high-lift devices (flaps, slots,
maximum lift coefficient at higher angles of attack. Answer (C) is slats, etc.) is to increase the CLmaxof the airplane and
incorrect because a slot will direct airflow over the top of the wing at reduce the stall speed. The takeoff and landing speeds
high angles of attack.
are consequently reduced. (PLT473) —ANA
Answer (B) is incorrect because the leading-edge slats are used
during high angle-of-attack situations such as takeoffs and landings.
Answer (C) is incorrect because the area under the leading edge is
high pressure.

Answers

8384 [B] 8331 [A] 8385 [A] 8334 [A]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 3-23

Chapter 3 Aerodynamics

ATM, ATS, DSP ATM, ATS, DSP

8386. What effect does the leading edge slot in the 9766. On which type of wing are flaps most effective?
wing have on performance? A—Thin wing.
A— Decreases profile drag. B—Thick wing.
B— Changes the stalling angle of attack to a higher C—Sweptback wing.
angle.
C— Decelerates the upper surface boundary layer air. The effectiveness of flaps on a wing configuration
depends on many different factors, of which an impor
The slot delays stall to a higher angle of attack. (PLT266) tant one is the amount of the wing area affected by the
— ANA flaps. Since a certain amount of the span is reserved
Answer (A) is incorrect because, at low angles of attack, there is little for ailerons, the actual wing maximum lift properties
or no profile drag increase. At high angles of attack, the slot delays will be less than that resulting from the flapped two-
the stall characteristics of the wing. Answer (C) is incorrect because dimensional section. If the basic wing has a low thick
the leading-edge slot actually increases airflow on the upper wing
surface to allow higher angles of attack. ness, any type of flap will be less effective than on a
wing of greater thickness. Sweepback of the wing can
also cause a significant reduction in the effectiveness
ATM, ATS, DSP of flaps. (PLT266) — ANA
9765. What is a difference between the fowler flap
system and split flap system?
ATM, ATS, DSP
A— Fowler flaps produce the greatest change in 9771. When compared to plain flaps, split flaps
pitching moment.
B— Fowler flaps produce more drag. A— produce more liftwith less drag.
C—Split flaps cause the greatest change in twisting B— produce only slightly more lift, but much more
loads. drag.
C—enhance takeoff performance in high density
Fowler flaps slide out and downward from the trailing conditions.
edge of the wing. When lowered, they increase the wing
area as well as the wing camber. The Fowler flap is The split flapproduces a slightly greater change in CLmax
characterized by the largest increase in CLmax with the than the plain flap. However, a much larger change in
least changes in drag. The Fowler flap also creates the drag results from the substantial and turbulent wake
greatest change in pitching moment. Split flaps consist produced by this type of flap;although greater drag may
ofa hinged plate that deflects downward from the lower be advantageous, for example, when steeper landing
surface of the wing and produce the least change in approaches over obstacles are required. (PLT266)-ANA
the pitching moments of a wing when it is lowered. The
deflection of a flap causes large nose-down moments
which create significant twisting loads on the structure
and pitching moments that must be controlled with the
horizontal tail. Unfortunately, the flap types producing the
greatest increases in CLMAX usually cause the greatest
twisting moments. The Fowler flap causes the greatest
change in twisting moment while the split flap causes
the least. (PLT266) — ANA

Answers

8386 [B] 9765 [A] 9766 [B] 9771 [B]

3-24 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 3 Aerodynamics

Helicopter Aerodynamics
RTC RTC
8355. What is the ratio between the total load supported 8404. How does VNE speed vary with altitude?
by the rotor disc and the gross weight of a helicopter A— Remains the same at all altitudes.
in flight?
B— Increases with an increase in altitude.
A— Power loading. C—Decreases with altitude an increase in altitude.
B— Load factor.
C—Aspect ratio. Vne will decrease with an increase in altitude. Several
factors contribute to VNE includingtemperature, weight,
The load factor is the actual load on the rotor blades at altitude, and design limitations. (PLT124) — FAA-H-
any time, divided by the gross weight (orapparent gross 8083-21
weight;i.e., when the helicopter is in a bank, the apparent
gross weight increases). (PLT310) — FAA-H-8083-21
RTC
8405. What limits the high airspeed potential of a
RTC helicopter?
8402. How should the pilot execute a pinnacle-type A— Harmonic resonance.
approach to a rooftop heliport in conditions of high wind B— Retreating blade stall.
and turbulence? C-Rotor RPM limitations.
A— Steeper-than-normal approach, maintaining the
desired angle of descent with collective. The airflowover the retreating blade decreases and the
B— Normal approach, maintaining a slower-than- airflow over the advancing blade increases in forward
normal rate of descent with cyclic. flight. Tocorrect for the resulting dissymmetry of lift, the
C—Shallow approach, maintaining a constant line of retreating blade must operate at increasingly higher
descent with cyclic. angles of attack as the forward speed increases, untilthe
retreating blade willstall at some high forwardairspeed.
High winds can cause severe turbulence and downdrafts (PLT124) — FAA-H-8083-21
on the leeward side of rooftop helipads. Under these
conditions, a steeper-than-normal approach to avoid
RTC
downdrafts is desired. Angle of descent is maintained
with collective and rate of closure (airspeed) is controlled 8406. What corrective action can a pilot take to recover
with cyclic. (PLT170) — FAA-H-8083-21 from settling with power?
A— Increase forward speed and raise collective pitch.
B— Decrease forward speed and partially raise
RTC collective pitch.
8403. How should a quick stop be initiated? C— Increase forward speed and partially lower
A— Raise collective pitch. collective pitch.
B— Apply aft cyclic.
C—Decrease RPM while raising collective pitch. By increasing forwardspeed and/or (ifpossible) partially
lowering collective pitch, the conditions necessary for
The deceleration (or slowing) is initiated by applying settling withpower are reduced or eliminated. (PLT208)
aft cyclic to reduce forward speed and simultaneously — FAA-H-8083-21
lowering the collective to counteract any ballooning or
climbing tendency. (PLT170) — FAA-H-8083-21

Answers

8355 [B] 8402 [A] 8403 [B] 8404 [C] 8405 [B] 8406 [C]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 3-25

Chapter 3 Aerodynamics

RTC RTC
8408. The lift differential that exists between the advanc 8411. During an autorotation (collective pitch full down),
ing main rotor blade and the retreating main rotor blade what is an increase in rotor RPM associated with?
is known as A— An increase in airflow through the rotor system.
A— Coriolis effect. B— A decrease in airflow through the rotor system.
B— dissymmetry of lift. C—A decrease in airspeed.
C—translating tendency.
Duringan autorotation, the flow of airis upward through
Dissymmetry of lift is created by horizontal flight or by the rotor. The portion of the blade that produces the
wind during hovering flight, and is the difference in lift forces causing the rotorto turn in autorotation (approxi
that exists between the advancing blade of the rotordisc mately 25 to 70% of the radius outwardfrom the center)
and the retreating blade of the rotor disc. (PLT470) — is the driving region. An increase in the aerodynamic
FAA-H-8083-21 forces along the driving region (increase in the airflow
through the rotor) tends to speed up the blade rotation.
(PLT470) — FAA-H-8083-21
RTC
8409. During a hover, a helicopter tends to drift in the
direction of tail rotor thrust. What is this movement RTC
called? 8412. What corrective action can a pilot take to prevent
A— Translating tendency. a retreating blade stall at its onset?
B— Transverse flow effect. A— Reduce collective pitch and increase rotor RPM.
C—Gyroscopic precession. B— Increase collective pitch and increase rotor RPM.
C— Reduce collective pitch and decrease rotor RPM.
The entire helicopter has a tendency to move in the
direction of tailrotorthrust when hovering, which is often At the onset of blade stall vibration, the pilot should
referred to as "drift or translating tendency." (PLT268) reduce collective pitch, increase rotor RPM, reduce
— FAA-H-8083-21 forwardairspeed and minimize maneuvering. (PLT470)
— FAA-H-8083-21

RTC
8410. What is the purpose of the lead-lag (drag) hinge in RTC
a three-bladed, fully articulated helicopter rotor system? 8413. Which is a major warning of approaching retreat
A—Offset lateral instability during autorotation. ing blade stall?
B— Compensate for Coriolis effect. A— High frequency vibration.
C— Provide geometric balance. B— Tendency to roll opposite the stalled side of the
rotor.
When a rotor blade of a three-bladed rotor system flaps C— Pitchup of the nose.
upward, the center mass of that blade moves closer to the
axis of rotation and blade acceleration takes place. When The major warnings of approaching retreating blade
the blade flaps downward, its center of mass moves stall are: low-frequency vibration equal to the number of
further from the axis of rotation and blade deceleration blades per revolution of the main rotorsystem, pitchup of
(or slowing) occurs. This increase and decrease of blade the nose and tendency for the helicopter to roll towards
velocity in the plane of rotation due to mass movement the stalled (retreating blade) side of the rotor system.
is known as Coriolis effect. The acceleration and decel (PLT470) — FAA-H-8083-21
eration actions (leading and lagging) are absorbed by
dampers or the blade structure itself (hinges) in a three-
bladed system. (PLT470) — FAA-H-8083-21

Answers

8408 [B] 8409 [A] 8410 [B] 8411 [A] 8412 [A] 8413 [C]

3-26 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 3 Aerodynamics

RTC RTC
8417. How does high density altitude affect helicopter 8421. Why are the rotor blades more efficient when
performance? operating in ground effect?
A— Engine and rotor efficiency are increased. A— Induced drag is reduced.
B— Engine and rotor efficiency are reduced. B— Induced angle of attack is increased.
C—Engine efficiency is reduced, but rotor efficiency C—Downwash velocity is accelerated.
is increased.
When a helicopter is operated near the surface, the
High elevations, high temperatures, and high moisture downwash velocity of the rotor blades cannot be fully
content (relative humidity) all contribute to high density developed. The reduction in downwash velocity causes
altitude, which lessens helicopter performance. The the induced angle of attack of each rotor blade to be
thinner air at high density altitudes reduces the amount reduced, which causes the induced drag to be less.
of lift of the rotor blades, and unsupercharged engines (PLT237) — FAA-H-8083-21
produce less power. (PLT124) — FAA-H-8083-21

RTC
RTC 8422. What result does a level turn have on the total
8418. How is helicopter climb performance most lift required and load factor with a constant airspeed?
adversely affected? A— Lift required remains constant and the load factor
A— Higher-than-standard temperature and high increases.
relative humidity. B— Lift required increases and the load factor
B— Lower-than-standard temperature and high decreases.
relative humidity. C— Both total lift force and load factor increase.
C—Higher-than-standard temperature and low
relative humidity. Whena helicopter is placed in a bank, the resultant lift
ing force acts more horizontally and less vertically. To
High elevations, high temperatures, and high moisture maintain a level turn, the resultant lifting force (total lift
content (relative humidity) all contribute to high density force) must be increased. When a helicopter assumes
altitude, which lessens helicopter performance. The a curved flight path, centrifugal force causes additional
thinnerair at high density altitudes reduces the amount stresses (load factor) to be imposed. (PLT248) — FAA-
of liftof the rotor blades, and unsupercharged engines H-8083-21
produce less power. (PLT124) — FAA-H-8083-21
RTC
RTC 8423. What causes a helicopter to turn?
8420. What causes Coriolis effect? A— Centrifugal force.
A— Differential thrust of rotor blades. B— Horizontal component of lift.
B—Changing angle of attack of blades during C—Greater angle of attack of rotor blades on upward
rotation. side of the rotor disc.
C—Shift in center of mass of flapping blade.
When a helicopter is placed in a bank, the rotordisc is
When a rotor blade of a three-bladed rotor system flaps tilted sideward causing the horizontal component of lift
upward, the center mass of thatblade moves closer to the to be increased. The increased horizontal liftcomponent
axis of rotation and blade acceleration takes place. When pulls the helicopter from its straight course. (PLT248)
the blade flaps downward, its center of mass moves — FAA-H-8083-21
further from the axis of rotation and blade deceleration
(orslowing)occurs. This increase and decrease of blade
velocity in the plane of rotation due to mass movement
is known as Coriolis effect. (PLT197) — FAA-H-8083-21

Answers

8417 [B] 8418 [A] 8420 [C] 8421 [A] 8422 [C] 8423 [B]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 3-27

Chapter 3 Aerodynamics

RTC RTC
8424. What is the primary purpose of the tail rotor 9318. Which statement describes the term "VTOss"?
system?
A—The takeoff safety speed in a turbine-engine
A— Maintain heading during forward flight. powered transport category airplane.
B— Act as a rudder to assist in coordinated turns. B—The takeoff safety speed in a Category A
C—Counteract the torque effect of the main rotor. helicopter.
C—The takeoff stall speed in the takeoff configuration
As the main rotor of a helicopter turns in one direction, in a turbopropeller powered airplane.
the fuselage tends to rotate in the opposite direction
(Newton's Third Law of Motion: For every action there Vtoss means takeoff safety speed for Category A heli
is an equal and opposite reaction). This tendency to copters. (PLT466) — 14 CFR §1.2
rotate is called torque. The tail rotor is used to produce
thrust to counteract the torque effect of the main rotor.
(PLT470) — FAA-H-8083-21 RTC
9831. A level attitude in flight in a helicopter indicates
A—acceleration.
RTC
B—descent.
8425. Under what condition would it be necessary C-stable flight.
to cause the tail rotor to direct thrust to the left on an
American-made helicopter? In straight-and-level, unaccelerated forward flight, lift
A—To maintain heading with a left crosswind. equals weight and thrustequals drag (straight-and-level
B—To counteract the drag of the transmission during flightis flight with a constant heading and at a constant
autorotation. altitude). If liftexceeds weight, the helicopter climbs; if
C—To execute hovering turns to the right. liftis less than weight, the helicopter descends. Ifthrust
exceeds drag, the helicopter speeds up; if thrust is less
The capability for tail rotors to produce thrust to the than drag, it slows down. (PLT219) — FAA-H-8083-21
left (negative pitchangle) is necessary because during
autorotation, the drag of the transmission (with no torque
effect present) tends to yaw the nose to the left, in the
same direction that the main rotoris turning. (PLT470)
— FAA-H-8083-21

Answers

8424 [C] 8425 [B] 9318 [B] 9381 [C]

3-28 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

Chapter 4
Performance

Engine Performance 4-3

Helicopter Systems 4-9

Takeoff Performance Terminology 4-10

Calculating V-Speeds 4-15

CRJ200 V-Speeds 4-15

Q400 V-Speeds 4-15

B-737 V-Speeds 4-16

DC-9 V-Speeds 4-16

Calculating Takeoff Power 4-21
CRJ200 Takeoff Thrust Settings 4-21

Q400 Takeoff Power 4-21

B-737 Takeoff EPR 4-21

Climb Performance 4-23

CRJ200 Performance Tables 4-23

Q400 Performance Tables 4-23

Q400 Climb and Cruise Power Tables 4-24

B-737 Climb Performance Tables 4-24

B-737 Climb and Cruise Power Tables 4-24

Cruise Performance 4-30

Landing Considerations 4-32

Landing Performance Tables and Graphs 4-35
Miscellaneous Performance 4-39

Engine-Out Procedures 4-44

C208 Aircraft Performance 4-48

Cessna 208 Performance Tables 4-54

BE1900 Performance 4-56

Helicopter Performance 4-70

Flight Planning Graphs and Tables 4-79
Continued

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 4-1

Chapter 4 Performance

Typical Flight Logs 4-84

Computation of Temperature at Cruise Altitude 4-84

Computation of True Airspeed Using Mach Number 4-85
Specific Range 4-85

4-2 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 4 Performance

Engine Performance
Note applicable to Chapters 4 and 5: The ATP Single-engine exam (ATS) focuses on the Cessna
208 and the ATP Multi-engine exam (ATM) focuses on the Bombardier CRJ200 and Q400.
There are four types of engines in use on modern airplanes: reciprocating engine, turboprop
engine, turbofan engine and turbojet engine. The type of engine selected for a particular airplane
design depends primarily on the speed range of the aircraft. The reciprocating engine is most efficient
for aircraft with cruising speeds below 250 MPH, the turboprop works best in the 250 MPH to 450 MPH
range and the turbofan and turbojet engines are most efficient above 450 MPH.
Manifold pressure (MAP) is a measurement of the power output of a reciprocating engine. It is basi
cally the pressure in the engine's air inlet system. In a normally-aspirated (unsupercharged) engine, the
MAP will drop as the aircraft climbs to altitude. This severely limits a piston-powered airplane's altitude
capability.
Most piston-powered airplanes flown by air carriers are turbocharged. On this type of engine, exhaust
gas from the engine is used as a power source for a compressor that in turn raises the MAP at any given
altitude. The flow of exhaust gas to the turbocharger is controlled by a device called a waste gate.
Turbocharging allows an aircraft to fly at much higher altitudes than itwould be able to with normally-
aspirated engines. The term critical altitude is used to describe the effect of turbocharging on the
aircraft's performance. The critical altitude of a turbocharged reciprocating engine is the highest altitude
at which a desired manifold pressure can be maintained.
The pilots of reciprocating-engine-powered aircraft must be very careful to observe the published
limitson manifold pressure and engine RPM. In particular, high RPM and low MAP can produce severe
wear, fatigue and damage.
Turboprops, turbofans and turbojet engines are types of gas turbine engines. Turbine engines are
classified by the type of compressors they use —centrifugal flow, axial flow, and centrifugal-axial flow.
All gas turbine engines consist of an air inlet section, a compressor section, the combustion section,
the turbine section and the exhaust. Air enters the inlet at roughly ambient temperature and pressure.
As it passes through the compressor the pressure increases and so does the temperature due to the
heat of compression. Bleed air is tapped off the compressor for such accessories as air conditioning
and thermal anti-icing.
The section connecting the compressor and the combustion sections is called the diffuser. In the dif
fuses the cross sectional area of the engine increases. This allows the air stream from the compressor
to slow and its pressure to increase. In fact, the highest pressure in the engine is attained at this point.
Next, the air enters the combustion section where it is mixed with fuel and the mixture is ignited. Note
that after the initial start of the engine there is no need for an ignition system that operates continuously
(such as the spark plugs in a piston engine) because the uninterrupted flow of fuel and air will sustain
combustion after the initial "light off." The combustion of the fuel-air mixture causes a great increase in
volume and because there is higher pressure at the diffuser, the gas exits through the turbine section.
The temperature of the gas rises rapidly as it passes from the front to the rear of the combustion sec
tion. It reaches its highest point in the engine at the turbine inlet. The maximum turbine inlettemperature
is a major limitation on turbojet performance, and without cooling, it could easily reach up to 4,000°F,
far beyond the limits of the materials used in the turbine section. To keep the temperature down to an
acceptable 1,100° to 1,500°F, surplus cooling air from the compressor is mixed aft of the burners.
The purposeofthe turbine(s) is to drive the compressor(s) and they are connected by a drive shaft.
Since the turbines take energy from the gas, both the temperature and pressure drop. continued

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 4-3

Chapter 4 Performance

The gases exit the turbine section at very high velocity into the tailpipe. The tailpipe is shaped so
that the gas is accelerated even more, reaching maximum velocity as it exits into the atmosphere. See
Figure 4-1.
Combinations of slow airspeed and high engine RPM can cause a phenomenon in turbine engines
called compressor stall. This occurs when the angle of attack of the engine's compressor blades
becomes excessive and they stall. If a transient stall condition exists, the pilot will hear an intermittent
"bang" as backfires and flow reversals in the compressor take place. Ifthe transient condition develops
into a steady state stall, the pilot will hear a loud roar and experience severe engine vibrations. The
steady state compressor stall has the most potential for severe engine damage, which can occur literally
within seconds of the onset of the stall.
If a compressor stall occurs in flight, the pilot should reduce fuel flow, reduce the aircraft's angle of
attack and increase airspeed.
The turboprop is a turbine engine that drives a conventional propeller. It can develop much more
power per pound than can a piston engine and is more fuel efficient than the turbojet engine. Compared
to a turbojet engine, it is limited to slower speeds and lower altitudes (25,000 feet to the tropopause).
The term equivalent shaft horsepower (ESHP) is used to describe the total engine output. This term
combines its output in shaft horsepower (used to drive the propeller) and the jet thrust it develops.
As the density altitude is increased, engine performance will decrease. When the air becomes less
dense, there is not as much oxygen available for combustion and the potential thrust output is decreased
accordingly. Density altitude is increased by increasing the pressure altitude or by increasing the ambient
temperature. Relative humidity will also affect engine performance. Reciprocating engines in particular
will experience a significant loss of BHP (Brake Horsepower). Turbine engines are not affected as much
by high humidity and will experience very little loss of thrust.

Engine inlet vibration Engine air bleed Fire protection Thrust reverser

cr

fWWr3 N2
N1 Pt7

inn[iM|^^^^ "SMI
OIL Fuel heat Fuel Ignition Engine turbine vibration
HEAT

Figure 4-1. Turbojet engine

4-4 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 4 Performance

ALL ALL

9072. Where is the critical altitude of a supercharged- 9068-1. How are turbine engines classified?
reciprocating engine? A— The type of compressor or combination of
A—The highest altitude at which a desired manifold compressors they use.
pressure can be obtained. B—The method in which the air/fuel mixture is
B—Highest altitude where the mixture can be leaned ignited.
to best power ratio. C—The flow of air through the engine and how power
C—The altitude at which maximum allowable BMEP is produced.
can be obtained.
Turbine engines are classified by the type of compressors
The critical altitude of a supercharged reciprocating they use—centrifugal flow, axial flow, and centrifugal-
engine is the highest altitude at which a desired MAP axial flow. (PLT365) — FAA-H-8083-25
can be maintained. (PLT343) — FAA-H-8083-25
Answer (B) is incorrect because critical altitude is the highest alti
tude at which a manifold pressure can be obtained. Answer (C) is ALL
incorrect because BMEP is pressure representing the mean gas 9058. Which place in the turbojet engine is subjected
load on the piston during the power stroke. to the highest temperature?
A—Compressor discharge.
ALL B— Fuel spray nozzles.
9073. What is controlled by the waste gate of a turbo- C—Turbine inlet.
charged-reciprocating engine?
Thehighest temperatures inany turbine engine will occur
A—Supercharger gear ratio. at the turbineinlet. This TIT (Turbine Inlet Temperature)
B— Exhaust gas discharge. is usually the limiting factor in the engine operation.
C—Throttle opening. (PLT499) — FAA-H-8083-25
A turbocharger drives exhaust gas from the engine. The
waste gate controls the flow of the exhaust gas through ALL
the turbocharger's turbine. (PLT343)— FAA-H-8083-25 8394. A hot start in a turbine engine is caused by
Answer (A) is incorrect because supercharger gear ratio is not con
trolled by the waste gate. Answer(C)is incorrect because the throttle A—failed ignition.
opening sets the desired manifoldpressure. B—the engine's failure to accelerate.
C—too much fuel in the combustion chamber.

ALL A hot start occurs when the exhaust gas temperature

9068. Under normal operating conditions, which combi exceeds the safe limit of an aircraft. Caused by either
nation of MAP and RPM produce the most severe wear, too much fuel entering the combustion chamber or
fatigue, and damage to high performance reciprocating insufficient turbine RPM, this condition is also known
engines? as a hung start. (PLT499) — FAA-H-8083-25
A— High RPM and low MAP.
B— Low RPM and high MAP.
C-High RPM and high MAP.

The most severe rate of wear and fatigue damage occurs

at high RPMand low MAP. (PLT365) — FAA-H-8083-25
Answer (B) is incorrect because while low RPM and high MAP
produce severe wear to high performance reciprocating engines,
the most damage is done by high RPMand low manifold pressure.
Answer (C)is incorrect because a highRPM anda lowMAP produce
the most severe wear to high performance reciprocating engines.

Answers

9072 [A] 9073 [B] 9068 [A] 9068-1 [A] 9058 [C] 8394 [C]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 4-5

Chapter 4 Performance

ALL At a low RPM, sudden full power application will tend

9060. The most important restriction to the operation to overfuel the engine resulting inpossible compressor
of turbojet or turboprop engines is surge, excessive turbine temperatures, compressorstall,
A— limiting compressor speed. and/or flameout. To prevent this, various limiters such as
B— limiting exhaust gas temperature. compressor bleed valves are contained in the system
C—limiting torque. and serve to restrict the engine until it is at an RPM at
which it can respond to a rapid acceleration demand
Thehighest temperatures inany turbine engine will occur without distress. (PLT499) — FAA-H-8083-3
at the turbine inlet. This TIT (Turbine InletTemperature)
is usually the limiting factor in the engine operation.
In many engines, TIT is measured indirectly as EGT ALL

(Exhaust Gas Temperature). (PLT499) — FAA-H-8083-25 9065. What indicates that a compressor stall has devel
Answer (A) is incorrect because the turbine section is the most
oped and become steady?
critical element of the turbojetengine. Temperature control is more A—Strong vibrations and loud roar.
restrictive than compressor speed, which may operate above 10,000
RPM continuously. Answer (C) is incorrect because torque is a per B—Occasional loud "bang" and flow reversal.
formance measure used on turbopropeller airplanes, but not gener C—Complete loss of power with severe reduction in
ally applicable to turbojetengines. The most important restriction is airspeed.
temperature, even though in cooler weather a torque limitation may
be reached before the temperature limitation in a turbopropeller
airplane. Ifa compressor stall is transientand intermittent, the indi
cation will be an intermittent "bang"asbackfireand flow
reversal take place. If the stall develops and becomes
ALL steady, strong vibration and a loud roar develop from
9064. What characterizes a transient compressor stall? the continuous flow reversal. The possibility of dam
age is immediate from a steady stall. Recovery must
A— Loud, steady roar accompanied by heavy
be accomplished quickly by reducing throttle setting,
shuddering.
lowering the airplane angle of attack, and increasing
B— Sudden loss of thrust accompanied by a loud
airspeed. (PLT343) — FAA-H-8083-25
whine.
Answer (B) is incorrect because this describes an indication of a
C— Intermittent "bang," as backfires and flow transient stall. Answer (C) is incorrect because a compressor stall
reversals take place. willnot cause a complete loss of power.

Ifa compressor stall is transient and intermittent, the indi

cation will be an intermittent "bang"as backfire and flow ALL
reversal take place. If the stall develops and becomes 9066. Which type of compressor stall has the greatest
steady, strong vibration and a loud roar develop from potential for severe engine damage?
the continuous flow reversal. The possibility of dam
A— Intermittent "backfire" stall.
age is immediate from a steady stall. Recovery must
B— Transient "backfire" stall.
be accomplished quickly by reducing throttle setting,
C—Steady, continuous flow reversal stall.
lowering the airplane angle of attack, and increasing
airspeed. (PLT343) — FAA-H-8083-25 Ifa compressorstall is transientand intermittent, the indi
Answer (A) is incorrect because this describes a developed and cation will be an intermittent "bang"as backfireand flow
steady stall. Answer (B) is incorrect because a transient stall is char
acterized by an intermittent"bang." reversal take place. If the stall develops and becomes
steady, strong vibration and a loud roar develop from
the continuous flow reversal. The possibility of dam
ALL age is immediate from a steady stall. Recovery must
9768. What prevents turbine engines from developing be accomplished quickly by reducing throttle setting,
compressor stalls?
rpssnr stalk? lowering the airplane angle of attack, and increasing
airspeed. (PLT343) — FAA-H-8083-25
A— Deice valves-fuel heat.
B-TKS system.
C—Compressor bleed valves.

Answers

9060 [B] 9064 [C] 9768 [C] 9065 [A] 9066 [C]

4-6 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 4 Performance

ALL ALL

8974. Which part(s) inthe turbojet engine is subjected 9070. Equivalentshaft horsepower (ESHP) of a turbo
tothe high temperatures and severe centrifugal forces? prop engine is a measure of
A— Turbine wheel(s). A— turbine inlet temperature.
B—Turbine vanes. B—shaft horsepower and jet thrust.
C—Compressor rotor(s) or impeller(s). C— propeller thrust only.

The turbine wheels are found at the back of the turbine Turboprop engines get 15 to 25% of their total thrust
section, in the area of veryhigh temperatures and high output from jet exhaust. ESHP (Equivalent Shaft Horse
centrifugal forces. Very hot, high pressure gases enter power) is the term usedtodescribe the shaft horsepower
the turbine section from the combustor. The function applied to the propeller plus this jet thrust. (PLT500) —
of the gas generator's turbine wheels is to transfer the FAA-H-8083-25
energy from the hot, high pressure gases to drive the
shaft which is connected to the compressor wheel at
ALL
the front of the engine. This in turn compresses airinto
the combustor where fuel is added and ignited. During 9071. Minimum specific fuel consumption ofthe turboprop
normal operations, the turbine wheel rotates at many engine is normally available in which altitude range?
thousands of RPM. (PLT499) — FAA-H-8083-25 A- 10,000 feet to 25,000 feet.
Answer (B) is incorrect because although turbine vanes (inlet guide B— 25,000 feet to the tropopause.
vanes) areexposed tohigher temperatures, they arestationary and C—The tropopause to 45,000 feet.
thus are not subject to centrifugal forces. Answer (C) is incorrect
because turbine wheels, or disks, with theirattached blades, are the Minimum specific fuel consumption of a turboprop
mosthighly stressed components on a turbojet engine.
engine will be obtained in an altitude range of25,000 to
35,000 feet. The tropopause will be intheneighborhood
ALL
of 35,000 feet depending on the season and latitude.
9067. What recovery would be appropriate in the event (PLT130) — FAA-H-8083-25
of compressor stall?
A— Reduce the throttle and then rapidly advance the ALL
throttle to decrease the angle of attack on the 9059. What effect would a change inambient temperature
compressor blades, creating more airflow. or airdensity have on gas-turbine-engine performance?
B— Reduce the throttle and then slowly advance the
A— As air density decreases, thrust increases.
throttle again and decrease the aircraft's angle of
B— As temperature increases, thrust increases.
attack.
C—As temperature increases, thrust decreases.
C—Advance the throttle slowly to increase airflow
and decrease the angle of attack on one or more Turbine engine thrust varies directly with air density.
compressor blades. As air density decreases, so does thrust. An increase
Ifa compressor stall is transient andintermittent, theindi in temperature will decrease air density. (PLT127) —
FAA-H-8083-25
cation will be an intermittent "bang"as backfire and flow
reversal take place. If the stall develops and becomes
steady, strong vibration and a loud roar develop from ALL
the continuous flow reversal. The possibility of dam 9061. As outside air pressure decreases, thrust output
age is immediate from a steady stall. Recovery must will
be accomplished quickly by reducing throttle setting,
lowering the airplane angle of attack, and increasing A— increase due to greater efficiency of jet aircraft in
airspeed. (PLT343) — FAA-H-8083-25 thin air.
B— remain the same since compression of inlet air
will compensate for any decrease in air pressure.
C—decrease due to higher density altitude.

Thrust output decreases with increasing density altitude.

Decreasing airpressure increases density altitude.
(PLT127) — FAA-H-8083-25

Answers
9067 [B] 9070 [B] 9071 [B] 9059 [C] 9061 [C]
8974 [A]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 4-7

 Chapter 4 Performance

ALL ALL
9061-1. Low pressure air decreases aircraft perfor 9063. Whateffect, if any, does high ambient temperature
mance because have upon the thrust output of a turbine engine?
A— the air is denser than higher pressure air. A—Thrust will be reduced due to the decrease in air
B—the air is less dense than high pressure air. density.
C—air expands in the engine during the combustion B— Thrust will remain the same, but turbine
process. temperature will be higher.
C—Thrust will be higher because more heat energy
Thrust output decreases with increasing density altitude. is extracted from the hotter air.
Decreasing air pressure increases density altitude.
(PLT127) — FAA-H-8083-25 Turbine engine thrust varies directly with air density.
As air density decreases, so does thrust. An increase
ALL
in temperature will decrease air density. (PLT127) —
FAA-H-8083-25
9062. What effect will an increase in altitude have upon
the available equivalent shaft horsepower (ESHP) of a
turboprop engine? ALL

A— Lower air density and engine mass flow will 9069. Whateffect does high relative humidity have upon
cause a decrease in power. the maximum power output ofmodern aircraft engines?
B— Higher propeller efficiency will cause an increase A— Neither turbojet nor reciprocating engines are
in usable power (ESHP) and thrust. affected.
C— Power will remain the same but propeller B— Reciprocating engines will experience a
efficiency will decrease. significant loss of BHP.
C—Turbojet engines will experience a significant loss
As altitude is increased, the ESHP of a turboprop of thrust.
engine will decrease due to lower engine mass flow
and decreased propeller efficiency. (PLT127) — FAA- While turbojet engines are almost unaffected by high
H-8083-25 relative humidity, reciprocating engines will experience
a significant loss ofBHP (Brake Horsepower). (PLT365)
— FAA-H-8083-25
Answer (A) is incorrect because both reciprocating and turbojet
engines are affected by high relative humidity to some degree.
Answer (C) is incorrect because turbojet engines will have a negli
gible loss of thrust.

Answers

9061-1 [B] 9062 [A] 9063 [A] 9069 [B]

4-8 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 4 Performance

Helicopter Systems
RTC RTC

8407. Which type rotor system is more susceptible to 8415. What type frequency vibrationis associated with
ground resonance? the main rotor system?
A— Fully articulated rotor system. A— Low frequency.
B— Semi-rigid rotor system. B— Medium frequency.
C—Rigid rotor system. C—High frequency.

Due to the lead/lag of the blades in a fully articulated Abnormal vibrations in the low-frequency range (100 to
rotor system, a shock from a landing gear striking the 400 cycles per minute) are always associated with the
surface can be transmittedthrough the fuselage to the main rotor system, and will be somewhat related to the
rotor, forcing the blades straddling the contact point rotor RPM and the number of blades of the main rotor.
closer together and unbalancing the rotor system. (PLT472) — FAA-H-8083-21
This can cause a pendulum-like oscillation which will
increase rapidly unless immediate corrective action is
RTC
taken. (PLT470) — FAA-H-8083-21
9800. A medium or higher frequency vibration mainly
present in the anti-torque pedals is
RTC A— usually traceable to engine cooling fan assembly.
9781. Ground resonance occurs when B— probably caused by the tail rotor.
A— a fully articulated rotor system is unbalanced. C—to be expected and accepted as normal.
B— a semi-rigid rotor system is out of balance.
C—a pilot lands with over inflated tires. Medium-frequency vibrations are a result of trouble
with the tailrotorin most helicopters. Improper rigging,
Ground resonance is an aerodynamic phenomenon imbalance, defective blades, or bad bearings in the tail
associated with fully articulated rotor systems. It devel rotor are all sources of these vibrations. If the vibration
ops when therotor bladesmoveoutofphase with each occursonlyduring turns, the trouble maybe caused by
other and cause the rotor disc to become unbalanced. insufficient tailrotor flapping action. (PLT472) — FAA-
(PLT470) — FAA-H-8083-21 H-8083-21

RTC RTC

8414. What type frequency vibration is associated with 8416. What type frequency vibration is indicative of a
a defective transmission? defective tail rotor system?
A— Low frequency only. A— Low and medium frequency.
B— Medium or low frequency. B— Medium and high frequency.
C— High or medium frequency. C—Low and high frequency.

High-frequency vibrations (2,000 cycles per minute or Medium frequency vibrations (1,000-2,000 cycles per
higher) areassociatedwith the enginein mosthelicop minute) and high frequency vibrations (2,000 cycles per
ters. Any bearings in the transmission that go bad will minute or higher) are normally associated with out-of-
result in vibrations with frequencies directly related to balance components that rotate at a high RPM, such
the speed of the engine. (PLT472) — FAA-H-8083-21 as the tailrotor, engine, cooling fans, and components
of the drive train, including transmissions, drive shafts,
bearings, pulleys, andbelts. (PLT472) —FAA-H-8083-21

Answers

9781 [A] 8414 [C] 8415 [A] 9800 [B] 8416 [B]
8407 [A]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 4-9

 Chapter 4 Performance

RTC
Fully articulated rotorsystems usually have threeormore
8426. Whatis the primary purpose ofthe free-wheeling rotor blades, each of which is attached to the rotor hub
unit?
bya horizontal hinge (flapping), a vertical hinge (drag),
A— To provide speed reduction between the engine, and can be feathered (rotated about their spanwise
main rotor system, and tail rotor system. axis) independently of the other blades. (PLT470) —
B— To provide disengagement of the engine from the FAA-H-8083-21
rotor system for autorotation purposes.
C—To transmit engine power to the main rotor, tail
RTC
rotor, generator/alternator, and other accessories.
8428. The main rotor blades of a semi-rigid system can
The freewheeling coupling provides for autorotative A— flap and feather as a unit.
capabilities by disconnecting the rotor system from the B—flap, drag, and feather independently.
engine when the engine stops or slows below the RPM C—flap and drag individually, but can only feather
of the rotorsystem. This allows the transmission to be collectively.
driven by the main rotor. The tail rotor willcontinue to be
turnedby the transmission. (PLT470) — FAA-H-8083-21 In a semirigid(two-bladed) rotor system, the blades are
rigidly interconnected to thehub andflap as a unit (when
one bladeflaps up, theotherbladeflaps down an equal
RTC
amount). The swash plate changes the pitch angle in
8427. The main rotor blades of a fully articulated rotor each blade (feathers) an equal amount. (PLT470) —
system can FAA-H-8083-21
A— flap, drag, and feather collectively.
B— flap, drag, and feather independently of each other.
C—flap and drag individually, but can onlyfeather
collectively.

Takeoff Performance Terminology

Clearway - a plane beyond the end of a runway which does not contain obstructions and can be con
sidered when calculating takeoff performance of turbine-powered transport category airplanes. The first
segment of the takeoff of a turbine-powered airplane is considered complete when it reaches a height of
35 feet above the runway and has achieved V2 speed. Clearway may be used for the climb to 35 feet.
Stopway - an area designated for use in decelerating an aborted takeoff. It cannot be used as a part
of the takeoff distance but can be considered as part of the accelerate-stop distance. See Figure 4-2.
Regulation requires that a transport category airplane's takeoff weight be such that, if at any time
during the takeoff run the critical engine fails, the airplane can either be stopped on the runway and stop-
way remaining, or that it can safely continue the takeoff. This means that a maximum takeoff weight
must becomputed for each takeoff. Factors which determine the maximum takeoff weight for an airplane
include runway length, wind, flap position, runway braking action, pressure altitude and temperature.
In addition to the runway-limited takeoff weight, each takeoff requires a computation of a climb-limited
takeoff weight that will guarantee acceptable climb performance after takeoff with an engine inoperative.
The climb-limited takeoff weight is determined by flap position, pressure altitude and temperature.
When the runway-limited and climb-limited takeoff weights are determined, they are compared to the
maximum structural takeoff weight. The lowest of thethree weights isthe limit that must beobserved for
that takeoff. If the airplane's actual weight is at or below the lowest of the three limits, adequate takeoff
performance is ensured. If the actual weight is above any of the limits a takeoff cannot be made until
the weight is reduced or one or more limiting factors (runway, flap setting, etc.) is changed to raise the
limiting weight.

Answers

8426 [B] 8427 [B] 8428 [A]

4-10 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 4 Performance

After the maximum takeoff weight is computed and it is determined that the airplane's actualweight is
within limits, then V1? VR and V2 are computed. These takeoffspeed limits are contained in performance
charts and tables ofthe airplane flight manual, and are observed on the captain's airspeed indicator. By
definition they are indicated airspeeds. See Figure 4-3.
Vi (Takeoff Decision Speed) isthe speed during the takeoff at which the airplane can experience a
failure ofthe critical engine and the pilot can abortthe takeoff and come to a full safe stop on the runway
and stopway remaining, or the pilot can continue the takeoff safely. If an engine fails at a speed less
than V1( the pilot must abort; if the failure occurs at a speed above Vi he/she must continue the takeoff.
VR (Rotation Speed) is the IAS at which the aircraft is rotated to its takeoff attitude with or without
an engine failure. VR is at or just above V-|.
V2 (Takeoff Safety Speed) ensures thatthe airplane can maintain an acceptable climb gradient with
the critical engine inoperative.
VMu (Minimum Unstick Speed) is the minimum speed at which the airplane may be flown off the
runway without a tail strike. This speed isdetermined by manufacturer's tests and establishes minimum
Vi and VR speeds. The flight crew does not normally compute the VMu speed separately.
Vi is computed using the actual airplane gross weight, flap setting, pressure altitude and tempera
ture. Raising the pressure altitude, temperature orgross weight will all increase the computed Vi speed.
Lowering any of those variables will lower the Vi speed.
Awind will change the takeoff distance. Aheadwind will decrease it and a tailwind will increase it.
While a headwind or tailwind component does affect the runway limited takeoff weight, it usually has
no direct effect on the computed V-, speed. The performance tables for a few airplanes include a small
correction to Vi for very strong winds. For those airplanes, a headwind will increase Vi and a tailwind
will decrease it.
Arunway slope has thesame effect ontakeoff performance as a wind. Arunway which slopes uphill
will increase the takeoff distance for an airplane and a downslope will decrease it. A significant slope
may require an adjustment in the Vi speed. An upslope will require an increase in Vi and a downslope
will require a decrease.
If there is slush on the runway or if the antiskid system is inoperative, the stopping performance of
the airplane is degraded. This requires that any aborted takeoff be started at a lower speed and with
more runway and stopway remaining. This means that both the runway-limited takeoff weight and the
V1 used for takeoff be lower than normal.

*— Clearway -7^

/• a<44<4^----- ,

35 feet
r> ^B^B ^p^ - 0—^bj
1 1 I I I
Figure 4-2. Takeoff runway definitioiis Vmc Vi V2

Figure 4-3. Takeoff speeds

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 4-11

 Chapter 4 Performance

ATM, ATS, DSP

"Clearway" may be considered when determining the
9324. What is the name of an area beyond the end of takeoff distance of turbine-engine-powered transport
a runway which does not contain obstructions and can category airplane certificated after August 29, 1959.
be considered when calculating takeoff performance of (PLT034) — 14 CFR §121.189 and §1.1
turbine-powered aircraft?
Answers (A) and (C)are incorrect because thepassenger-carrying
A—Clearway. transport aircraftand air carrier airplane would have to be turbine-
B—Stopway. engine-powered in order to include the clearway in determining
runway length for takeoff purposes.
C—Obstruction clearance plane.

"Clearway" means, for turbine-powered airplanes, an ATM, ATS, DSP

area beyond the end of the runway, centrally located 9317. Which is a definition of V2 speed?
about the extended centerline and under the control of
the airport authorities. Clearway distance maybe used A—Takeoff decision speed.
in the calculation of takeoff distance. (PLT395) — 14 B—Takeoff safety speed.
CFR §1.1 C—Minimum takeoff speed.
Answer (B) is incorrect because a stopway is an area beyond the
takeoff runway, not any less wide than the runway, centered upon V2 means takeoff safetyspeed. (PLT466) — 14 CFR §1.2
the extended centerline of the runway, and able to support the air Answer(A) is incorrect because V1 is takeoffdecision speed. Answer
plane duringan aborted takeoff. Answer (C) is incorrectbecause an (C) is incorrect because minimum takeoffspeed doesn't describe a
obstruction clearance plane is not defined in 14 CFR Part 1. defined speed.

ATM, ATS, DSP ATM, ATS, DSP

9327. What is an area identified by the term "stopway"? 9319. What is the correct symbol for minimum unstick
speed?
A— An area, at least the same width as the runway,
capable of supporting an airplane during a normal A-VMU.
takeoff. B-VMD.
B— An area designated for use in decelerating an C-VFC.
aborted takeoff.
C—An area, not as wide as the runway, capable of Vmu means minimum unstick speed. (PLT466) — 14
supporting an airplane during a normal takeoff. CFR §1.2
Answer (B)is incorrect because VMD is nota conceptthat is defined
"Stopway" means an area beyond the takeoff runway, in 14 CFR §1.2.Answer (C) is incorrect because VFC/MFC is maxi
able to support the airplane, for use in decelerating mum speed for stability characteristics.
the airplane during an aborted takeoff. (PLT395) — 14
CFR §1.1
ATM, ATS, DSP
Answer (A) is incorrect because itdescribes thenonlanding portion 8774. The maximum speed during takeoffthat the pilot
of a runway behind a displacedthreshold, which maybe suitable for
taxiing, landing rollout, and takeoff of aircraft. Answer(C)is incorrect may abort the takeoff and stop the airplane within the
because it would describe an area that exists beforea displaced accelerate-stop distance is
threshold.
A-V2.
B-VEF.
ATM, ATS, DSP C-Vi.
8134. For which of these aircraft is the "clearway" for
a particular runway considered in computing takeoff The takeoff decision speed, Vh is the calibrated air
weight limitations? speed on the ground at which, as a result of engine
failure or other reasons, the pilot is assumed to have
A— Those passenger-carrying transport aircraft made a decision to continue or discontinue the takeoff.
certificated between August 26,1957 and (PLT506)—14CFR§1.2
August 30, 1959.
Answer (A) is incorrect because V2 is the takeoff safety speed.
B— Turbine-engine-powered transport airplanes Answer (B) is incorrect because VEF is the calibrated airspeed at
certificated after September 30, 1958. whichthe criticalengine is assumed to fail.
C— U.S. certified air carrier airplanes certificated after
August 29, 1959.

Answers

9324 [A] 9327 [B] 8134 [B] 9317 [B] 9319 [A] 8774 [C]

4-12 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 4 Performance

ATM, ATS, DSP ATM, ATS, DSP

8775. The minimum speed during takeoff, following a 9085. Which condition has the effect of reducing critical
failure of the critical engine at VEf, at which the pilot may engine failure speed?
continue the takeoff and achieve the required height A—Slush on the runway or inoperative antiskid.
above the takeoff surface within the takeoff distance is B— Low gross weight.
indicated by symbol C— High density altitude.
A-V2min.
B-Vi. Critical Engine Failure Speed is an obsolete term for
V1 which is now called Takeoff Decision Speed. Lower
C-VLOF-
ing the airplane's weight will always have the effectof
The takeoffdecision speed, Vh is the calibrated airspeed decreasing Vh while increasingthe density altitude will
on the groundat which, as a resultof engine failure or have the effect of increasing VP However, inoperative
otherreasons, the pilotis assumed to have made a deci antiskid or slush on the runway will cause a reduction
sion to continue or discontinue the takeoff. V1 is also the in the maximum allowable takeoff weight which has the
speed at which the airplane can be rotated for takeoff effect of lowering VP (PLT347) — ANA
and shown tobe adequate tosafely continuethe takeoff,
using normal piloting skill, when the critical engine is
suddenlymade inoperative. (PLT466) — 14 CFR §1.2 ATM, ATS, DSP
9083. What effect does an uphill runway slope have
Answer(A) is incorrect because V2min is the minimum takeoff safety
speed. Answer (C) is incorrect because VLOf is the liftoff speed. upon takeoff performance?
A— Increases takeoff distance.
B— Decreases takeoff speed.
ATM, ATS, DSP C— Decreases takeoff distance.
8780. The symbol for the speed at which the critical
engine is assumed to fail during takeoff is An uphill runway will have the effect of decreasing an
A-V2. airplane's rateofacceleration during the takeoff roll thus
B-V!. causing ittoreach its takeoff speeds (V? and VR) further
C-VEF. down the runway than would otherwise be the case.
An uphill runway will also necessitate an increased V1
VEF is thecalibrated airspeedat which thecritical engine speed in some airplanes. (PLT129) — ANA
is assumed to fail. VEF must be selected by the applicant
but must not be less than 1.05 VMC or, at the option of
theapplicant, notless than VMCG- (PLT466) — 14 CFR ATM, ATS, DSP
§23.51 9075. Which condition reduces the required runway
for takeoff?
Answer (A) is incorrect because V2 is the takeoff safety speed.
Answer (B)is incorrect because V| is takeoff decisionspeed. A— Higher-than-recommended airspeed before
rotation.
B— Lower-than-standard air density.
ATM, ATS, DSP C— Increased headwind component.
9076. Which performance factor decreases as airplane
gross weight increases, for a given runway? A headwind, in effect, gives an airplane part of its air
A— Critical engine failure speed. speed prior to starting the takeoff roll. This allows the
B— Rotation speed. airplane toreach itstakeoffspeed after a shorter takeoff
C—Accelerate-stop distance. rollthan in no windconditions. Highrotation speeds and
lower air density (high density altitude) both have the
Critical EngineFailure Speed (also called Vi)increases effect of increasing takeoff distance. (PLT134) — ANA
with an increase in weight, resulting in a decrease in Answers (A) and (B) are incorrect because higher-than-recom
performance. (PLT011) — ANA mended airspeedbefore rotation and lower-than-standard airden
sity would increase therequired runway for takeoff.

Answers

8775 [B] 8780 [C] 9076 [A] 9085 [A] 9083 [A] 9075 [C]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 4-13

 Chapter 4 Performance

ATM, ATS, DSP ATM, ATS, DSP

9797. You are rolling out after touchdown and decide 9797-2. You touchdown long with a speed of 145 knots
you really need to abort your landing, and takeoff. Your on a 8,501 foot runwayand the brakingis not working, so
airplane is at 116 knots and your engines have spooled you decide to takeoff and climbout.The engines require
down to 71% idle. You need a V2 of 142 to safely lift off 5 seconds to spool up and then the airplane requires 10
and climb. The airplane will require 6 seconds to accel seconds of acceleration to lift off again. The 4,000 foot
erate after the engines spool up to takeoff thrust, which marker flashed by 2 seconds ago. Do you have enough
requires 4 seconds. How much runway will you require runway to lift off? (Use 143 knots for average ground
for a safe landing abort from your decision point? (Use speed due to the tailwind.)
an average of 129 knots ground speed.)
A— Yes, there will be a margin of about 850 feet
A- 1,738 feet. which is almost 3 seconds of decision time.
B-2,178 feet. B—Yes, there will be a margin of almost 101 feet
C-3,601 feet. which is about 1.5 seconds of decision time.
C— No, the runway is 99 feet too short and my
At a ground speed of 129 knots, the question assumes decision was about 0.4 seconds too late.
it takes 10 seconds to takeoff. Thedistance required to
fly to the decision point would be calculated using 129 1, Calculate distancetraveledpersecond (1 knot= 1.69
knots ground speed. 1 knot =1.69 feet per second =
feet per second) at 143 knotsx 1.69 feet per second
218 ft/seconds. 218 x 10 sec = 2,180 feet. (PLT011) — for241.67 feet per second.
FAA-H-8083-25
2. Calculate distance past 4,000 marker by 241.67
(distance traveledpersecond) x 2 (time past marker)
ATM, ATS, DSP = 483.34 feet.
9797-1. You touchdown long with a speed of 145 knots 3. Subtract distance past marker from the marker
on a 9,001 foot runwayand the brakingis not working, so passed (4,000 - 483.34 = 3,516.66) tofind remaining
you decide to takeoffand climbout. The engines require runway.
5 seconds to spool up and then the airplane requires 10
seconds of acceleration time to lift off again. The 5,000 4. Calculate Liftoff Distance—Total of 15 seconds (5
foot marker flashes by. Do you have enough runwayto for spool up and 10 for liftoff) multiplied by distance
lift off? (Use 132 knots for the average groundspeed.) traveled per second 241.67 = 3,625.05 feet of liftoff
distance needed.
A— Yes, there will be a margin of 850 feet and almost
3 seconds of decision time. 5. Calculate ifany excess runway is present—3,516.66
B— Yes, there will be a margin of 2,001 feet and feet remaining-3,625.05 requiredforliftoff = -108.39
almost 5 seconds of decision time. feet available
C—No, the runway is 1,340 feet too short and my This calculation indicates an extra 108.39 feet would be
decision is about 6 seconds too late. needed to make this takeoff.
6. Calculate time needed to make a decision 108.39
1. Calculate distance traveledpersecond (1 knot =1.69 feet required/241.67 feet per second =.448 seconds
feetper second) at 132 knotsx 1.69 feet per second
for223.08 feet per second. This calculation indicates the decision would have
needed to be made .448 seconds ago. (PLT011) —
2. Calculate Liftoff Distance—Total of 15 seconds (5 FAA-H-8083-25
for spool up and 10 for liftoff) multiplied by distance
traveled per second 223.08 = 3,346.2 feet of liftoff
distance needed.

3. Calculate Distance remaining (at5000marker) 5,000

- 3,346.2 (liftoff distance) = 1,653.8feetremaining.
4. Calculate time for decision by dividing 1,653.8 by
223.08 (distance traveledpersecond) = 7.41 seconds
available to make a decision.
(PLT011) — FAA-H-8083-25

Answers

9797 [B] 9797-1 [B] 9797-2 [C]

4-14 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 4 Performance

ATM, ATS, DSP ATM, ATS, DSP

9801. One typical takeoff error is 9802. Excessive takeoff speeds may result in approxi
A— delayed rotation, which may extend the climb mately a
distance. A— 4% takeoff distance increase for each 1% of
B— premature rotation, which may increase takeoff additional takeoff speed.
distance. B— 1% takeoff distance increase for each 2% of
C—extended rotation, which may degrade additional takeoff speed.
acceleration. C—2% takeoff distance increase for each 1% of
additional takeoff speed.
In training itis commonfor thepilotto overshoot VR and
then overshoot V2 because the pilotnot flying will call for An excessive airspeed at takeoffmay improve the initial
rotation at, orjust past VR. Thereactionof the pilotflying rate of climb and "feel" of the airplane but will produce
is to visually verify VR and then rotate. Theairplane then an undesirable increase in takeoff distance. Assuming
leaves the groundat orabove V2. Theexcess airspeed thatthe acceleration is essentially unaffected, the takeoff
maybe oflittle concern ona normal takeoff, buta delayed distance varies as the square of the takeoff velocity.
rotation can be critical when runway length or obstacle Thus, a 10% increase excess airspeed would increase
clearance is limited. (PLT134) — FAA-H-8083-3 the takeoff distance 21%. (PLT134) — ANA

Calculating V-Speeds
The table in FAA Figure 82 is used in several problems to determine the pressure altitude from the indi
cated altitude and the local altimeter setting. The table uses the local altimeter setting to indicate the
proper correction to field elevation. For example, assume the local altimeter setting is 29.36" Hg. Enter
the table in the left-hand column labeled "QNH IN. HG." and then find the range of altimeter settings that
contains 29.36" Hg. Read the correction to elevation in the center column. In this case, add 500 feet to
the field elevation to determine the pressure altitude. If the altimeter setting is given in millibars, enter
the table in the right-hand column.

CRJ200 V-Speeds
Vi, VR, and V2 are calculated by using the charts in FAA Figures 450,452, and 454. In orderto use these
charts, you must first find a "Reference A" speed in FAA Figure 451. Once you have the Reference A
speed, enterthe chart in either Figure 452 or 454 at that speed and then move across directly right to
determine the minimum Vimca-
From there, continuing to the right, intersectthe aircraft weight line and proceed directly down, cor
recting for runway slope (if present), to note the VR speed. If VR isgreater than 1.05 xV1Mca, proceed to
the right until entering the Chart Bregion; otherwise, use Chart A. Once intersecting the aircraft weight
line in Chart A or B, move directly down and read the V2 speed.

Q400 V-Speeds
V|, VR and V2 for the Q400 are calculated from the charts contained in FAA Figures 470, 471, and 472.
Using operating conditions given either through airport diagrams or as part of the question, you must
be able to calculate these important speeds.
Figure 470 is the chart used to determine Vt and VR. Start on this chart atthe lower left with the OAT
and move up to the field elevation. Move across to the right until intersecting the reference line. Then
proceed diagonally until intersecting the aircraft weight line. From there, move across to the right and
Continued

Answers

9801 [A] 9802 [C]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 4-15

Chapter 4 Performance

note the VR speed. Continue to the right and intersect the reference line, then move down and to the
left in parallel with the diagonal lines until intersecting the correct Vi/VR ratio. Move directly right and
find your Vi speed. Note that Vi cannot be less than VR.

B-737 V-Speeds
Using Operating Conditions R-1 (FAA Figure 53), follow the steps for determining the V-speeds (See FAA
Figure 55). Enter the table at the top left in the row appropriate for the pressure altitude and go across
until in a columncontaininga temperature range which includes the given value. In this case, enter in the
row labeled -1 to 1 (pressure altitude = 500 feet, referto FAA Figure 54) and go to the first column which
contains the temperature of+50°F (be sure to use the Fahrenheit or Celsius ranges as appropriate). Go
down the first column until in the row appropriate for a flap setting of 15° and a gross weight of90,000
pounds. The Vi speed is 120 knots, the VR speed is 121 knots and the V2 speed is 128 knots. There
are two possible adjustments to make to the Vi speed only. They are noted at the bottom of the table.

DC-9 V-Speeds
The first step for calculating Vi and VR is to find the basic speeds in the table at the top of FAA Figure
47. Using the conditions from Operating Conditions A-1 from FAA Figure 45, the V-speeds for a weight
of 75,000 pounds are: Vi = 120.5, and VR = 123.5 knots. Next, a series ofcorrections must be applied
for pressure altitude, ambient temperature, runway slope, wind component, and engine and wing ice
protection. There are table values for all these corrections at the bottom of FAA Figure 47 except for
pressure altitude and ambient temperature.
Thefirst step in the altitude correction isto use the table in FAA Figure 46 to determine the pressure
altitude. Using the altimeter setting from Operating Conditions A-1 (29.40" Hg), the table shows a cor
rection of +500 feet. The pressure altitude then is 3,000 feet (2,500 + 500).
Next, enterthe graphsas shown in FAA Figure 47. Draw two vertical lines representing the pressure
altitude of3,000 feet. Next, draw a horizontal line through the ambient temperature (+10°F) to intersect
each of the vertical lines. In this case, the lines meet in the "zero" correction area for both Vi and VR.
Notice that the correction is marked by bands. For example, if the lines crossed anywhere in the highest
shaded band, the correction would be +1 knot.
Next, set up a table similarto the one belowto apply any necessary corrections:
Vi VR
Table Value 120.5 123.5
Pressure Alt & Temp 0 0
Slope (+1%) +1.5 +.9
10 HW +.3 0
Ice Protection + .8 + .8
Corrected Speeds 123.1 125.2

4-16 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 4 Performance

ATM, DSP ATM, DSP

8717. (Refer to Figures 340, 451, and 452.) With a 8719. (Refer to Figures 340 and 450.) With a reported
reported temperature of 20°C, flaps set at 8, engine temperature of 35°C, flaps set at 8, and 5 knots of head
bleeds closed, and a takeoff weight of 79,500 pounds, wind at a takeoff weight of 82,300 pounds, the V1Mbe is
the takeoff safety speed is A—174 knots.
A—154 knots. B—169 knots.
B—160 knots. C-154 knots.
C-162 knots.
1. On Figure 340, the field elevation is 23 feet. Note that
1. On Figure 340, findan airport elevation of 23 feet. there is no runway slope indicated for runway 10.
2. Use Figure 451 to find Reference A. Locate the por 2. OnFigure 450, startwith theambienttemperature of
tionof the chartmarked Engine Bleeds Closed. Enter 35°C, and move rightto intersect an airportpressure
the chartat20°C and workyour way up to a Pressure altitude of 23 feet. Then move straight down all the
Altitude of 23 feet. Move rightto finda Reference A way to the REF LINE in the wind section. From this
of 15. reference line, move up and rightin parallel with the
3. On Figure 452, enter the chart from the leftat Refer
diagonallines until you reach the 5 knot wind mark.
From here, proceed straightdown to the REF. LINE
ence A of 15. Move right to the chart B area—the
in the runway slope section. Because there is no
notes indicate this is the correct area because VMCa
is 114 knots and VR is 146 knots (VR is greater than
slope, move straight downand determinethe V1Mbe
speed of 171 knots.
1.05 xv'mca of 114). Intersect your takeoff weight of
79,500 pounds, then read the takeoff speed below 3. Reference Note 2 in the upper rightside of chart and
of 154 knots. see thatforeach 2,200 pounds under84,500 pounds,
add 3 knots. Since 84,500 - 82,300 = 2,200, add 3
(PLT011) — FAA-H-8083-25
knots, with the result of an V1Mbe speed of 174 knots.
(PLT089) — FAA-H-8083-25
ATM, DSP
8718. (Refer to Figures 336, 451, and 452). With a
reported temperature of 5°C, flaps set at 8, engine bleeds ATM, DSP
closed, and a takeoff weight off82,000 pounds, the VR is 8720. (Refer to Figures 342 and 450.) With a reported
temperature of 40°C,flaps set at 20, and a 3 knottailwind
A—150 knots.
at a takeoff weight of 84,500, the Vimbe is
B-147 knots.
C-158 knots. A—160 knots.
B—143 knots.
C—166 knots.
1. On Figure 336, find a field elevation of 9 feet.
2. Use Figure 451 to find a Reference A. Locate the In Figure 450, enter the charton the leftat 40°C Move
portion of the graph with column marked Engine right tolocate an airport altitude of 10 feet. Move straight
Bleeds Closed. Enter the chart at 5°C moving up to down to intersect the tailwind portion of the chart follow
intersect an altitude of 9 feet. Move straight across ing the lineparallel and to the right to -3 knots. Read a
to the rightto finda Reference A of 15.4. Vimbe of 165 on the bottom portion of the chart. Note
3. OnFigure 452, enter the chartfrom the leftat Refer 1 states with flaps set at 20 degrees increase V1Mbe
ence A of 15.4. Move right to intersect your takeoff value by 1 knot.
weight of 82,000 pounds. Moving straight down, 165+1 = 166 knots
locate the VR of 147 knots.
(PLT012) — FAA-H-8083-25
(PLT011) — FAA-H-8083-25

Answers

8717 [A] 8718 [B] 8719 [A] 8720 [C]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 4-17

 Chapter 4 Performance

ATM, DSP ATM, DSP

8721. (Refer to Figures 342, 451, and 452.) With a 8584. (Refer to Figure 465.) At a weight of 60,000
reported temperature of -10°C, flaps set at 8, cowl pounds with 35 flaps, the Reference Stall Speed is
anti-ice on, and at a takeoff weight off 77,000 lbs, the
A— 96 knots.
VR and V2 speeds are
B- 93 knots.
A—143 and 153 knots. C—89 knots.
B-153 and 143 knots.
C-123 and 133 knots. Startat thebottom of Figure 465 at the weight of 60,000
pounds. Movestraight up until you intersect the 35° flap
/. Start with Figure 342 to determinean airport eleva angle reference line. Move straight left and note a stall
tion of 10 feet. speed of 96 knots. (PLT123) — FAA-H-8083-25
2. Enter Figure 451 at-10°C in the firstcolumn labeled
Cowland Anti-Ice On,and proceed up to a pressure ATM, DSP
altitude ofapproximately 10 feet. Movestraight across 8585. (Refer to Figure 466.) At a weight of 60,500
to the right to determine a Reference A of 13.9. pounds with 5 flaps, the 1.3 VSr speed is
3. On Figure 452, enter the chart at your Reference A A—146 knots.
of 13.9.Move across tointersect the take-off weight B-149 knots.
of 77,000 lbs. Proceed straight down to note a VR C-152 knots.
speed of 143.
4. To find V2 speed, once again enter the chart at 13.9 Start at the bottom of the Flap 5° chart on Figure 466.
moving straight across to intersect the weight of Find60,500 pounds and move straight up until intersect
77,000 lbs on Chart B. Proceed straight down to ing the 1.3 VSR reference line. Move straight left and
note a V2 speed of 153 knots. note a speed of 149 knots. (PLT123) — FAA-H-8083-25
(PLT012) — FAA-H-8083-25
ATM, DSP
8586. (Refer to Figure 470.) What are the Vi and VR
ATM, DSP
speeds at 25°C at sea level for an aircraft weighing
8583. (Refer to Figures 321 and 471.) With a reported 54,500 lbs. and a maximum Vi/VR ratio of .93?
temperature of -5°C and gross weight of 49,000 pounds,
the chart V2 value is A-110 and 114 knots.
B-102 and 109 knots.
A—118 knots.
C-97 and 102 knots.
B-120 knots.
C-122 knots.
1. Startat the bottom left on Figure470 and find25°C
Move straight up until intersecting the sea level
1. From Figure 321, determine the field elevation of
line. Move straight to the right until intersecting the
6,535 feet.
reference line. Move diagonally up and to the right
2. OnFigure 471, with a gross weight of49,000pounds, staying parallel with the lines until you intersect the
start on the lower right side of the chart at aircraft 54,500 lbs line. Move directly to the right and note a
weight. Proceed directly up from 49,000 pounds VR speed of 109 knots.
untilyou intersect the diagonal reference line. Then 2. Continue to the right until intersecting the reference
proceed straight to the right to note a V2 speed of
line. Move diagonally down and to theleftinparallel
117 knots.
with the lines until intersecting the .93 Vi/VR ratio
(PLT123) — FAA-H-8083-25 line. Move directly to the right and note a V1 of 102
knots.

(PLT123) — FAA-H-8083-25

Answers

8721 [A] 8583 [A] 8584 [A] 8585 [B] 8586 [B]

4-18 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 4 Performance

ATM, DSP Pressure altitude = 3,500 feet

8587. (Refer to Figure 470.) What are the V<\ and VR V1 = 144-1 (Wind) - 1 (Slope) = 142
speeds at ISA+30°C and a field elevation of 4,500 feet VR = 146
for an aircraft weighing 64,000 lbs. and a maximum V2 = 150
ViA/R ratio of .98?
Note: VR is defined as Rotation Speed.
A—100 and 104 knots.
(PLT011) — FAA-H-8083-25
B-112 and 115 knots.
C-119and121 knots.
DSP
Pressure altitude = 1,500 feet 8620. (Refer to Figures 53, 54, and 55.) What are V^
1. Start at the ISA+30°C point in the middle left portion VR, and V2 speeds for Operating Conditions R-3?
of Figure 470. Move down and to the rightuntilinter A- 143, 143, and 147 knots.
secting the 4,500 foot line. Move straight to the right B-138,138, and 142 knots.
untilintersecting the reference line. Move diagonally C-136, 138, and 143 knots.
up and to the rightstaying parallel with the lines until
you intersect the 64,000 lbs line. Move directlyto the Pressure altitude = 1,450 feet
rightand note a VR speed of 121 knots. Vi = 136+1 (Wind) + 1 (Slope) = 138
VR = 138
2. Continue to the right untilintersecting the reference
V2 = 142
line. Move diagonally down and to the left in parallel
with the lines until intersecting the .98 Vf/VR ratio (PLT011) — FAA-H-8083-25
line. Move directly to the right and note a V-i of 119
knots.
DSP
(PLT123) — FAA-H-8083-25 8621. (Refer to Figures 53,54, and 55.) What are critical
engine failure and takeoff safety speeds for Operating
Conditions R-4?
DSP
8618. (Refer to Figures 53, 54, and 55.) What is the A—131 and 133 knots.
takeoff safety speed for Operating Conditions R-1? B-123 and 134 knots.
C—122 and 130 knots.
A—128 knots.
B-121 knots.
Pressure altitude = 1,900 feet
C-133 knots.
l/r = 127-2 (Wind) - 2 (Slope) = 123
VR=129
Pressure altitude = 500 feet
V2 = 134
V1 = 120+1 (slope) = 121
VR=121 Note: Critical Engine Failure Speed is an obsolete term
V2= 128 for Vp V2 is Takeoff Safety Speed.
Note: V2 is defined as Takeoff Safety Speed. (PLT012) — FAA-H-8083-25
(PLT011) — FAA-H-8083-25
Answer (B) is incorrectbecause 121 knots is the rotation (VR) speed. DSP
Answer (C) is incorrectbecause 133 knots is the V2 speed using 5 8622. (Refer to Figures 53, 54, and 55.) What are rota
flaps.
tion and V2 bug speeds for Operating Conditions R-5?
A—138 and 143 knots.
DSP B—136 and 138 knots.
8619. (Refer to Figures 53, 54, and 55.) What is the C-134 and 141 knots.
rotation speed for Operating Conditions R-2?
Pressure altitude = -150 feet
A—147 knots.
B—152 knots. VR = 138
C-146 knots. V2 = 143
(PLT012) — FAA-H-8083-25

Answers

8587 [C] 8618 [A] 8619 [C] 8620 [B] 8621 [B] 8622 [A]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 4-19

Chapter 4 Performance

DSP Pressure altitude = 4,000 feet

9864. (Refer to Figures 45, 46, and 47.) What are Vi
and VR speeds for Operating Conditions A-1 ? Vt Vr
Table value 133.50 139.00
A-Vt 123.1 knots; VR 125.2 knots.
Pressure alt & temp + 2.00 + 2.00
B- Vi 120.5 knots; VR 123.5 knots.
Slope (+0%)
C-Vt 122.3 knots; VR 124.1 knots.
— —

15 HW + .45 —

Pressure altitude = 3,000 feet Ice protection + .80 + .80

Corrected speeds 136.75 141.80
Vt VR
(PLT011) — FAA-H-8083-25
Table value 120.5 123.5
Pressure alt & temp 0 0
Slope (+1%) +1.5 +.9 DSP
10 HW + .3 0 9867. (Refer to Figures 45, 46, and 47.) What are V,
Ice protection + .8 + .8 and VR speeds for Operating Conditions A-4?
Corrected speeds 123.1 125.2
A-V, 128.0 knots; VR 130.5 knots.
(PLT011) — FAA-H-8083-25 B-Vi 129.9 knots; VR 133.4 knots.
C-Vi 128.6 knots; VR 131.1 knots.
DSP Pressure altitude = 5,600 feet
9865. (Refer to Figures 45, 46, and 47.) What are V|
and VR speeds for Operating Conditions A-2? Vi Vr
Table value 125.00 129.00
A- Vt 129.7 knots; VR 134.0 knots.
Pressure alt & temp +3.00 + 3.00
B-Vt 127.2 knots; VR 133.2 knots.
C-Vi 127.4 knots; VR 133.6 knots. Slope (+1.5%) +2.25 +1.35
5TW - .40 0
Pressure altitude =100 feet Iceprotection — —
Corrected speeds 129.85 133.35
Vr
Table value
Note: No correction is required if engine ice protection
129.50 134.00
Pressure alt & temp
only is used. See remarks on table at the top of FAA
+ 1.00 + 1.00
Figure 47.
Slope (-1.5%) -2.25 -1.35
10 TW - .80 0 (PLT011) — FAA-H-8083-25
Ice protection
Corrected speeds 127.45 133.65
DSP
(PLT011) — FAA-H-8083-25 9868. (Refer to Figures 45, 46, and 47.) What are Vi
Answer (A) is incorrect because 134.0 knots is VR unadjusted. and VR speeds for Operating Conditions A-5?
Answer (B) is incorrect because V, and VR are more than 127.2 and
133.2, respectively. A-Vt 110.4 knots; VR 110.9 knots.
B-V! 109.6 knots; VR 112.7 knots.
C-Vt 106.4 knots; VR 106.4 knots.
DSP
9866. (Refer to Figures 45, 46, and 47.) What are V! Pressure altitude = 1,500 feet
and VR speeds for Operating Conditions A-3? Vt Vr
A-Vi 136.8 knots; VR 141.8 knots. Table value 110.0 112.5
B-V! 134.8 knots; VR 139.0 knots. Pressure alt & temp +2.0 +2.0
C-Vi 133.5 knots; VR 141.0 knots. Slope (-2%) - 3.0 -1.8
20 HW + .6 0
Ice protection — —
Corrected speeds 109.6 112.7
(PLT011) — FAA-H-8083-25

Answers

9864 [A] 9865 [C] 9866 [A] 9867 [B] 9868 [B]

4-20 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 4 Performance

DSP 1. Start on FAA Figure 238 since a wet runway is

8642-4. (Refer to Figures 237 and 238.) Given the specified.
following conditions, what are the takeoff V speeds?
2. Enter the Takeoffspeeds chart at 170 (1,000 pounds)
Weight 170,000 lb and proceed to the Flaps 10 column for V? - 133,
Flaps 10° VR - 139, V2 - 145.
Temperature (OAT) 25°C
3. Enter the adjustments table at 27°C and interpolate
Field pressure altitude 427 ft.
in each column forpressure altitude of 500 feet.
Runway slope 0%
Wind (kts) headwind 8 kts 4. Enter the l/y Slope and Wind adjustments table at
Runway condition wet runway the given weight of 170 (1,000 lbs). Since there is no
runwayslope, continue rightto the windcolumn of 10
For VR more than or equal to .1 VR, round up VR to the
knots (roundingup from the given 8-knot headwind).
next value (example: 140 + .1 = 141)
Note a minimal -1 knot decrease adjustment for l/r.
A-Vi 133 kts, VR 140 kts, V2 145 kts.
5. For V-i, round down to 133 knots, for VR round up to
B-Vi 140 kts, VR 140 kts, V2 145 kts.
140 knots, for V2 the adjustment is 0 so itremains 145.
C-Vi 138 kts, VR 141 kts, V2 145 kts.
(PLT011) — FAA-H-8083-25

Calculating Takeoff Power

CRJ200 Takeoff Thrust Settings
Calculating the appropriate thrust settings for the CRJ200 is accomplished by using FAA Figures 428
through 431. Pay special attention to the "Notes" at the bottom of each of these figures, as this tells
how to determine the correct chart to use. For example, Figure 428 depicts thrust settings based on
all engines operating with the bleed valves closed, which is a typical takeoff for the CRJ200. Enter the
chart at the left at the correct temperature and move to the right until intersecting the correct pressure
altitude. This will yield the correct Ni power thrust setting to be used during takeoff.

Q400 Takeoff Power

The Q400 takeoff power settings are determined by the charts in FAA Figures 467 and 468. Figure 467
depicts the appropriate power settings while on the ground and Figure 468 is used in flight (during the
climb). To determine the correct takeoff torque setting, use Figure 467. Start at the bottom of the chart
at the OAT, then move directly up until intersecting the airport elevation. Move directly to the right to find
the torque setting.

B-737 Takeoff EPR

The Takeoff EPR table at the top of FAA Figure 55 is similar to the B-727 takeoff EPR. In the table of
FAA Figure 55, two EPR values are found: one for temperature and one for altitude (be sure to use the
table in FAA Figure 54 to determine the pressure altitude). The lower of the two is the takeoff EPR. For
example if the temperature is 50°F at a pressure altitude of 500 feet, the temperature-limited EPR is
2.04 and the altitude-limited EPR is 2.035. (The altitude-limited EPR is 2.01 from sea level up to 1,000
feet.) The only possible correction would be for if the air conditioning bleeds are off.

Answers

8642-4 [A]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 4-21

Chapter 4 Performance

ATM, DSP Using Figure 329, determine an airport elevation of

8712. (Refer to Figures 363 and 429.) At a reported 4,473 feet. On Figure 429 find the row marked -10°C
temperature of 10°C with cowl anti-ice on and packs and column marked 4,000. Interpolate to find an
on, the takeoff thrust setting is approximate takeoff thrust setting of 87.2%. (PLT011)
A- 90.0%. — FAA-H-8083-25
B-89.1%.
C-87.4%.
ATM, DSP

Using Figure 363, determine an airportelevation of 3,877 8716. (Refer to Figures 332 and 428.) At a reported
feet. On Figure 429, find the row marked 10°C and col temperature of 5°C with engine bleeds off, the takeoff
umn marked 4,000. Determine an approximate takeoff thrust setting is
thrust setting of 90.0%. (PLT011) — FAA-H-8083-25 A-87.0%.
B- 87.2%.
C-88.2%.
ATM, DSP
8713. (Refer to Figures 330 and 428.) At a reported Using Figure 332, determine an airport elevation of 13
temperature of 30°C with engine bleeds closed, the feet. On Figure 428, findthe row marked 5°C and column
takeoff thrust setting is marked zero. Interpolate to find an approximate takeoff
A- 91.9%. thrust setting of 88.2%. (PLT011) — FAA-H-8083-25
B-87.4%.
C-90.9%.
ATM, ATS, DSP

Using Figure 330, determine an airport elevation of 8613. (Refer to Figure 393.) (Note: Applicants may
13 feet. On Figure 428, find the row marked 30°C and request a printed copy of the chart(s) or graph(s) for use
column marked zero. Determine an approximate takeoff while computing the answer. All printed pages must be
thrust setting of 91.9%. (PLT011) — FAA-H-8083-25 returned to test proctor.) With an OAT of 10°C, inertial
separator in bypass and cabin heater, you calculate
maximum torque for climb to be
ATM, DSP
A- 1,795 ft-lbs.
8714. (Refer to Figures 329 and 428.) At a reported B- 1,695 ft-lbs.
temperature of 20°C with engine bleeds closed, the C-1,615 ft-lbs.
takeoff thrust setting is
A-92.1%. On Figure 393, find the OATof 10°C at the bottom of
B- 92.3%. the chart and move straight up. No pressure altitude is
C— 88.4%. given, therefore you can move to the maximum torque
limit of 1,865 foot-pounds. Because the inertialsepara
Using Figure 329, determine an airport elevation of tor is on, the torque is reduced by 100. Furthermore,
4,473 feet. On Figure 428, find the row marked 30°C assuming the question is asking for cabin heat on, the
and column marked 4,000. Interpolate to find an torque is reduced by another 80 pounds. This yields a
approximate takeoff thrust setting of 92.3%. (PLT011) torqueof 1,685 foot-pounds. (PLT011) — FAA-H-8083-25
— FAA-H-8083-25

DSP
ATM, DSP 9874. (Refer to Figures 53, 54, and 55.) What is the
8715. (Refer to Figures 329 and 429.) At a reported takeoff EPR for Operating Conditions R-1?
temperature of -10°C with cowl anti-ice on and packs A-2.04.
on, the takeoff thrust setting is B-2.01.
A- 87.0%. C- 2.035.
B- 87.2%.
C-87.7%. Pressure altitude = 500 feet
Altitude-limited EPR = 2.035
Temperature-limited EPR = 2.04
(PLT007) — FAA-H-8083-25

Answers

8712 [A] 8713 [A] 8714 [B] 8715 [B] 8716 [C] 8613 [B]
9874 [C]

4-22 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 4 Performance

DSP DSP
8614. (Refer to Figures 53, 54, and 55.) What is the 8616. (Refer to Figures 53, 54, and 55.) What is the
takeoff EPR for Operating Conditions R-2? takeoff EPR for Operating Conditions R-4?
A-2.19. A-2.06.
B-2.18. B-2.105.
C-2.16. C-2.11.

Pressure altitude = 3,500 feet Pressure altitude = 1,900 feet

Altitude-limited EPR = 2.19 Altitude-limited EPR = 2.105
Temperature-limited EPR = 2.19 Temperature-limited EPR = 2.11
(PLT011) — FAA-H-8083-25 (PLT007) — FAA-H-8083-25

DSP DSP
8615. (Refer to Figures 53, 54, and 55.) What is the 8617. (Refer to Figures 53, 54, and 55.) What is the
takeoff EPR for Operating Conditions R-3? takeoff EPR for Operating Conditions R-5?
A-2.01. A-1.98.
B- 2.083. B-1.95.
C-2.04. C-1.96.

Pressure altitude = 1,450 feet Pressure altitude = -150 feet

Altitude-limited EPR = 2.083 Altitude-limited EPR = 2.003
Temperature-limited EPR = 2.01 Temperature-limited EPR = 1.95
Add .03 for air conditioning off. Add .03 for air conditioning off.
(PLT007) — FAA-H-8083-25 (PLT007) — FAA-H-8083-25

Climb Performance
The best rate-of-climb speed for any airplane is the speed at which there is the greatest difference
between the power required for level flight and the power available from the engines. The L/Dmax speed
for any airplane is the one that requires the least power for level flight since it is the lowest drag speed.
Because the power output of prop-driven airplanes is relatively constant at all speeds, L/Dmax is the
best rate-of-climb speed for them.
Turbojet engines produce more power as the aircraft speed increases. Even though drag increases
at speeds above L/Dmax. the engine's power output increases even more so that the maximum differ
ence between power required and power available is achieved at a higher airspeed. For a turbojet, the
best rate-of-climb speed is faster than L/Dmax-

CRJ200 Performance Tables

FAA Figures 432 through 454 contain the information needed to correctly calculate takeoff performance
data, including V-speeds, takeoff weights, and climb performance. It is very important to note that these
tables are divided into two categories based upon flap setting used on takeoff. Note the boxed "Flaps 8"
or "Flaps 20" usually found in the lower right-hand side of the figure in order to choose the correct chart.

Q400 Performance Tables

FAA Figures 475 and 476 contain the data needed to calculate first- and second-segment climb perfor
mance. This is done with one engine operating and is part of the performance pre-planning conducted

Answers

8614 [A] 8615 [C] 8616 [B] 8617 [A]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 4-23

Chapter 4 Performance

prior to each flight. Note that you will start with the OAT on the bottom of the chart and move up. Most
of the time you do not need to worry about the ISA lines —simply intersect the appropriate pressure
altitude. Move right to the "Reference Line," follow the diagonal lines to the aircraft weight, and then
move across to the right to find your climb gradient.

Q400 Climb and Cruise Power Tables

The Q400 figures include FAA Figures 481 (radius of turn), and Figure 482 (maximum-climb ceiling
chart). The radius of turn depicts the radius in feet that will be flown given a 15-degree steady-state turn.
This can be helpful when calculating distance needed to maneuver during single-engine operations.
The enroute climb ceiling chart (Figure 482) uses two parameters —aircraft weight and temperature—to
determine the maximum ceiling during single-engine operations.

B-737 Climb Performance Tables

The tables in FAA Figures 57 and 58 allow you to determine the time and fuel required for a climb to
cruising altitude after takeoff. The table in FAA Figure 57 is for ISA temperatures, and the table in FAA
Figure 58 is for ISA +10°C. Each intersection of Brake Release Weight and Cruise Altitude has a box with
four numbers. These are the time, the fuel, the distance and the TAS required to climb from a sea level
airport to cruise altitude in calm wind conditions. For example, with a brake release weight of 110,000
pounds, a climb to 33,000 feet in ISA +10°C conditions will require 26 minutes, 4,100 pounds of fuel
and cover a distance of 154 NM.

A headwind or tailwind component in the climb will change the distance flown. Assume that there
is an average 20-knot headwind in the climb described above. The first step is to compute the average
"no wind" GS. A distance of 154 NM flown in 26 minutes works out to a GS of 355.4 knots. A headwind
component of 20 knots will reduce this GS to 335.4 knots. The distance flown in 26 minutes at 335.4
knots is 145.3 NM.

Note: Using a CX-2 computer, select "Dist Flown" from the menu and enter TIME and GS. Do not
use the TAS from the table as that will result in an inaccurate answer.
Departure from an airport that is significantly above sea level will reduce the fuel required for the
climb. Notice that departure from a 2,000-foot airport will reduce the climb fuel by 100 pounds, however
the effect on time and distance flown is negligible.

B-737 Climb and Cruise Power Tables

The Max Climb & Max Continuous EPR Table at the top of FAA Figure 60 is similar to the one discussed
in Takeoff EPR. In this table two EPR values are found —one for temperature and one for altitude. The
lower of the two is the maximum climb/continuous EPR. For example, if the temperature is +10°C at
a pressure altitude of 10,000 feet, the temperature-limited EPR is 2.04 and the altitude-limited EPR is
2.30. (The altitude-limited EPR is 2.30 from 5,660 feet and up.) The max EPR is 2.04.
The MaxCruise EPR Table supplies one EPR value for a given TAT (Total Air Temperature) in one of
two altitude ranges. The correction tables are similarto ones used previously and apply to both tables.

4-24 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 4 Performance

ATM, ATS, DSP ATM, DSP

8400. At what speed, with reference to L/Dmax. does 8594. (Refer to Figures 273 and 474.) With a reported
maximum rate-of-climb for a jet airplane occur? temperature of 45°C, and a weight of 52,000 pounds,
A— A speed greater than that for L/DMax- the first segment takeoff gross climb gradient is
B— A speed equal to that for L/Dmax- A- 0.048%.
C—A speed less than that for L/Dmax- B-0.044%.
C-0.0419%.
An airplane's best rate-of-climb is achieved at the air
speed where there is the maximum difference between 1. From Figure 273, find the field elevation of 1,135
the power available from the engines and the power feet.
required forlevel flight. The L/DMAX airspeed willrequire
the minimumpower forlevel flightsince drag is at its mini 2. On Figure 474, start at the bottom left side of chart
mum. However, turbojet engines produce more power and note the temperature of45°C Move straight up
at high speed than at lower speeds and so the speed until you intersect the 1,135 foot line. Move straight
withthe greatest difference between power required and to the right until intersecting the reference line. Move
power available is higher than UDMAX. (PLT303)—ANA down and to the right following the diagonal lines in
parallel until you intersect the 52,000 pound line.
Answer (B) is incorrect because a speed equal to that of L/Dmaxis the
maximum rate-of-climb fora propeller airplane. Answer (C) is incorrect Move directly to the right and note a first segment
because the maximum rate-of-climb is at a speed greater than L/Dmax- climb gradient of .045%.
(PLT004) — FAA-H-8083-25
ATM, DSP
8593. (Refer to Figures 273 and 475.) With a reported ATM, DSP
temperature of 32°C, and a weight of 58,000 pounds, 8595. (Refer to Figure 472.) With a gross weight of
the second segment takeoff gross climb gradient is 54,500 pounds, the final takeoff climb speed is
A- 0.059%. A—142 knots.
B-0.062%.
B-145 knots.
C-0.065%. C-148 knots.

1. From Figure 273, find the field elevation of 1,135 On Figure 472, find 54,500 pounds at the bottom of the
feet. chart. Move straight up untilyou intersect the reference
2. On Figure 475, start at the bottom left and find 32°C line. Move directly to the left and note a final takeoff
Move straight up until you intersect the 1,135 foot climb speed of 145 knots. (PLT004) — FAA-H-8083-25
line. Move straight to the right until you intersect the
reference line. Move down and to the right following
ATM, DSP
the diagonal lines in parallel untilyou intersect the 8628. (Refer to Figures 56, 57, and 58.) What is the
58,000pound line. Move directly to the rightand note ground distance covered during en route climb for
a second segment climb gradient of .059%. Operating Conditions V-1?
(PLT004) — FAA-H-8083-25 A-145NM.
B-137NM.
C-134NM.

No wind time = 26 minutes

No wind distance = 154 NM
No wind GS = 355.4 knots
Wind adjusted GS = 335.4 knots
Wind adjusted distance =145.3 NM
(PLT004) — FAA-H-8083-25

Answers

8400 [A] 8593 [A] 8594 [B] 8595 [B] 8628 [A]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 4-25

Chapter 4 Performance

ATM, DSP ATM, DSP

8629. (Refer to Figures 56, 57, and 58.) What is the 8632. (Refer to Figures 56, 57, and 58.) What is the
ground distance covered during en route climb for ground distance covered during en route climb for
Operating Conditions V-2? Operating Conditions V-5?
A-84NM. A-70NM.
B-65NM. B-52NM.
C-69NM. C-61 NM.

No wind time = 13 minutes No wind time =13 minutes

No wind distance = 65 NM No wind distance = 70 NM
No wind GS = 300 knots No wind GS = 323.1 knots
Windadjusted GS = 320 knots Windadjusted GS = 283.1 knots
Wind adjusted distance = 69.3 NM Wind adjusted distance = 61.3 NM
(PLT004) — FAA-H-8083-25 (PLT004) — FAA-H-8083-25

ATM, DSP ATM, DSP

8630. (Refer to Figures 56, 57, and 58.) What is the 8633. (Refer to Figures 56,57, and 58.) How much fuel
ground distance covered during en route climb for is burned during en route climb for Operating Condi
Operating Conditions V-3? tions V-1 ?

A-95NM. A—4,100 pounds.

B-79NM. B—3,600 pounds.
C-57NM. C—4,000 pounds.

No wind time =16 minutes Fuel to climb from sea level = 4,100 lbs
No wind distance = 87 NM Correction factor = -100 lbs
No wind GS = 326.3 knots
(PLT012) — FAA-H-8083-25
Wind adjusted GS = 296.3 knots
Wind adjusted distance = 79 NM
(PLT004) — FAA-H-8083-25 ATM, DSP
8634. (Refer to Figures 56,57, and 58.) How much fuel
is burned during en route climb for Operating Condi
ATM, DSP tions V-2?
8631. (Refer to Figures 56, 57, and 58.) What is the A—2,250 pounds.
ground distance covered during en route climb for B—2,600 pounds.
Operating Conditions V-4? C-2,400 pounds.
A-63NM.
B-53NM. Fuel to climb from sea level = 2,400 lbs
C-65NM. Correction factor = -150 lbs
(PLT012) — FAA-H-8083-25
No wind time =13 minutes
No wind distance = 61 NM
No wind GS = 281.5 knots ATM, DSP
Wind adjusted GS = 291.5 knots 8635. (Refer to Figures 56,57, and 58.) What is the aircraft
Wind adjusted distance = 63.2 NM weight at the top of climb for Operating Conditions V-3?
(PLT004) — FAA-H-8083-25 A-82,100 pounds.
B- 82,500 pounds.
C-82,200 pounds.

Fuel to climb from sea level = 2,600 lbs

Correction factor = -100 lbs
Final weight = 85,000 - 2,500 = 82,500 lbs
(PLT004) — FAA-H-8083-25
Answers

8629 [C] 8630 [B] 8631 [A] 8632 [C] 8633 [C] 8634 [A]
8635 [B]

4-26 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 4 Performance

ATM, DSP Altitude-limited EPR = 2.20

8636. (Refer to Figures 56, 57, and 58.) What is the TAT-limited EPR = 2.10
aircraft weight at the top of climb for Operating Condi Engine and wing anti-ice correction = -. 12
tions V-4? Air conditioning off correction = +.04
A-102,900 pounds. Max continuous EPR setting = 2.02
B-102,600 pounds. (PLT007) — FAA-H-8083-25
C—103,100 pounds.

Fuel to climb from sea level = 2,400 lbs ATM, DSP

Correction factor = -300 lbs 8640. (Refer to Figures 59 and 60.) What is the max
Final weight = 105,000 - 2,100 = 102,900 lbs cruise EPR for Operating Conditions T-3?
(PLT004) — FAA-H-8083-25 A-2.11.
B-2.02.
C-1.90.
ATM, DSP
8637. (Refer to Figures 56, 57, and 58.) What is the Max cruise EPR = 2.02
aircraft weight at the top of climb for Operating Condi Engine and wing anti-ice correction = -. 12
tions V-5? Max cruise EPR setting =1.90
A- 73,000 pounds. (PLT007) — FAA-H-8083-25
B—72,900 pounds.
C—72,800 pounds.
ATM, DSP
Fuel to climb from sea level = 2,100 lbs 8641. (Refer to Figures 59 and 60.) What is the max
Correction factor =-100 lbs climb EPR for Operating Conditions T-4?
Final weight = 75,000 - 2,000 = 73,000 lbs A-2.20.
(PLT004) — FAA-H-8083-25 B-2.07.
C-2.06.

ATM, DSP Altitude-limited EPR = 2.30

8638. (Refer to Figures 59 and 60.) What is the max TAT-limited EPR = 2.20
climb EPR for Operating Conditions T-1 ? Engine and wing anti-ice correction = -. 14
A-1.82. Max climb EPR setting = 2.06
B-1.96. (PLT007) — FAA-H-8083-25
C-2.04.

Altitude-limited EPR = 2.30 ATM, DSP

TAT-limited EPR = 1.90 8642-1. (Refer to Figures 59 and 60.) What is the max
Correction for engine anti-ice = -.08 continuous EPR for Operating Conditions T-5?
Max climb EPR setting =1.82 A-2.00.
(PLT007) — FAA-H-8083-25 B-2.04.
Answer (B) is incorrect because 1.96 is the max continuous EPR. C-1.96.
Answer (C) is incorrect because 2.04 is the max continuous EPR
without the bleed air correction for the engine anti-ice ON. Altitude-limited EPR = 2.30
TAT-limited EPR = 2.00
Air conditioning off correction = +.04
ATM, DSP
Max continuous EPR setting = 2.04
8639. (Refer to Figures 59 and 60.) What is the max
continuous EPR for Operating Conditions T-2? (PLT007) — FAA-H-8083-25
A-2.10.
B-1.99.
C-2.02.

Answers

8636 [A] 8637 [A] 8638 [A] 8639 [C] 8640 [C] 8641 [C]
8642-1 [B]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 4-27

Chapter 4 Performance

ATM, DSP 5. Go down to the V-i (MCG) chart and figure out the
8642-2. (Refer to Figure 231.) Given the following adjusted field length based on Note 2 and 30°C:
conditions, what is the takeoff climb limit? Note 2: Adjust field length available by -150 feet for
Airport OAT 38°C every 5°C above
Airport Pressure Altitude 14 ft. 30°C - 4.138°C = 25.862°C
Flaps 15° 25.862°C / 5°C = 5.2
Engine Bleed for packs On 5.2 x (-150) = -780
Anti-ice Off 9,000 - 780 = 8,220 feet.
A-136,000 lb. 6. Enter the Limit Weight table at 8,200 feet and pro
B-137,500 lb. ceed across to the .25 inches column. Interpolating
C-139,000 lb. between 5,000 and 10,000 gives you 138.445.
7. Enter the LimitWeight table again at 8,600 feet to find
1. Enter FAA Figure 231 at 38° OATand proceed up to the interpolated adjustment to use between 5,000
the 0 ft pressure altitude (this is closest to 14 feet). and 10,000 feet: 159.91.
2. From the point of intersection on the pressure altitude 8. Interpolate between the 8,200 feet adjustment
line, draw a line horizontally to the Climb Limit Brake (138.445) and the 8,600 adjustment (159.91) for a
Release Weight of 136,000 pounds. field length of 8,220 feet (from step 4):
(PLT085) — FAA-H-8083-25 159.91 - 138.445 = 21.465
21.465/400 = 0.053662
0.053662 x20=1.07325
ATM, DSP 138.445+ 1.07325= 139.5182
8642-3. (Refer to Figures 235 and 236.) Given the fol 139.5182x1000=139,518
lowing conditions, what is the maximum Slush/Standing
9. Compare 139,970 pounds to 139,518 pounds as
Water takeoff weight?
per note 4 and the lesser of the weights is 139,518
Dry field/obstacle limit weight 180,000 lb. pounds.
Slush/standing water depth 25 inches
(PLT069) — FAA-H-8083-25
Temperature (OAT) 30°C
Field pressure altitude 5431 ft
Field length available 9000 ft DSP
No reverse thrust 9875. (Refer to Figures 48, 49, and 50.) What is the
A-130,850 lb. ground distance covered during en route climb for
B-147,550 lb. Operating Conditions W-1 ?
C-139,850 lb. A-104.0 NM.
B-99.2NM.
1. Enter FAA Figure 235 which is the no reverse thrust C-109.7 NM.
chart with an Obstacle Limit Weight of 180 (1,000
pounds). Long range climb:
2. Proceed across to the .25 inches water depth col No wind time =17.1 minutes
umn and interpolate to find an adjustment of -40.03 No wind distance = 109.7 NM
(between 5,000 and 10,000). No wind GS = 384.9 knots
3. Subtract40,030 from 180,000 toget 139,970pounds. Wind adjusted GS = 364.9 knots
4. Determine ISA temperature in order to calculate field Wind adjusted distance = 104 NM
length in next step. (PLT004) — FAA-H-8083-25
ISA (°C) =15- ((FU1000) x 2)
15-(5.431x2) = 4.138°C

Answers

8642-2 [A] 8642-3 [C] 9875 [A]

4-28 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 4 Performance

DSP DSP
9876. (Refer to Figures 48, 49, and 50.) What is the 8597. (Refer to Figures 48, 49, and 50.) What is the
ground distance covered during en route climb for ground distance covered during en route climb for
Operating Conditions W-2? Operating Conditions W-5?
A-85.8NM. A-68.0NM.
B-87.8NM. B-73.9NM.
C-79.4NM. C-66.4NM.

High speed climb: High speed climb:

No wind time = 12.8 minutes No wind time =11.3 minutes
No wind distance = 85.8 NM No wind distance = 73.9 NM
No wind GS = 402.2 knots No wind GS = 392.4 knots
Wind adjusted GS = 372.2 knots Wind adjusted GS = 352.4 knots
Wind adjusted distance = 79.4 NM Wind adjusted distance = 66.4 NM
(PLT004) — FAA-H-8083-25 (PLT004) — FAA-H-8083-25

DSP DSP
9877. (Refer to Figures 48, 49, and 50.) What is the 8598. (Refer to Figures 48, 49, and 50.) What is the
ground distance covered during en route climb for aircraft weight at the top of climb for Operating Condi
Operating Conditions W-3? tions W-1 ?
A-86.4NM. A- 81,600 pounds.
B-84.2NM. B-81,400 pounds.
C-85.1 NM. C—81,550 pounds.

Long range climb: Long range climb:

No wind time =13.3 minutes Initial weight 84,000
No wind distance = 84.2 NM Burn - 2,570
No wind GS = 379.8 knots TOC weight 81,430
Windadjusted GS = 389.8 knots
(PLT004) — FAA-H-8083-25
Wind adjusted distance = 86.4 NM
(PLT004) — FAA-H-8083-25
DSP
8599. (Refer to Figures 48, 49, and 50.) What is the
DSP aircraft weight at the top of climb for Operating Condi
8596. (Refer to Figures 48, 49, and 50.) What is the tions W-2?
ground distance covered during en route climb for
A—82,775 pounds.
Operating Conditions W-4?
B— 83,650 pounds.
A-58.4NM. C-83,775 pounds.
B-61.4NM.
C-60.3NM. High speed climb:
Initial weight 86,000
High speed climb:
Burn -2,225
No wind time = 9.1 minutes TOC weight 83,775
No wind distance = 58.4 NM
No wind GS = 385.1 knots (PLT004) — FAA-H-8083-25
Windadjusted GS = 405.1 knots
Windadjusted distance = 61.4 NM
(PLT004) — FAA-H-8083-25

Answers

9876 [C] 9877 [A] 8596 [B] 8597 [C] 8598 [B] 8599 [C]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 4-29

Chapter 4 Performance

DSP High speed climb:

8600. (Refer to Figures 48, 49, and 50.) What is the
Initial weight 88,000
aircraft weight at the top of climb for Operating Condi
Burn -1,738
tions W-3?
TOC weight 86,262
A— 75,750 pounds.
B—75,900 pounds. (PLT004) — FAA-H-8083-25
C—76,100 pounds.
DSP
Long range climb:
8602. (Refer to Figures 48, 49, and 50.) What is the
Initial weight 78,000 aircraft weight at the top of climb for Operating Condi
Burn -2,102 tions W-5?
TOC weight 75,898 A— 89,900 pounds.
(PLT004) — FAA-H-8083-25 B—90,000 pounds.
C-90,100 pounds.

DSP Long-range climb:

8601. (Refer to Figures 48, 49, and 50.) What is the
Initial weight 92,000
aircraft weight at the top of climb for Operating Condi
Burn -2,079
tions W-4?
TOC weight 89,921
A—86,150 pounds.
B—86,260 pounds. (PLT004) — FAA-H-8083-25
C—86,450 pounds.

Cruise Performance
The maximum range speed for an aircraft is determined by its L/D curve. Propeller-driven airplanes will
achieve best range performance if they are flown at the speed that yields L/DMax- In turbojet aircraft, a
somewhat more complex relationship between lift and drag determines best range. Turbojets always
have a best range speed higher than L/DMAx-
A headwind or tailwind will affect the miles per unit of fuel burned. If an airplane is operating at its
best-range airspeed and encounters a headwind, it should speed up to minimize the time in the adverse
wind. By the same token, an airplane with a tailwind can slow down and let the wind maintain its ground
speed with a lower fuel flow. The exact amount of airspeed change that is useful varies with airplane type.
Turbojet engines have a strong preference for operations at high altitudes and airspeeds. Both lower
temperatures and higher altitudes increase engine efficiency by requiring a lower fuel flow for a given
thrust. Besides increased engine efficiency, lift and drag both decrease at higher altitudes, so less thrust
is required.
Turbine engines are much more efficient when operated at the upper end of their RPM range. Gen
erally, the optimum cruise altitude for a turbojet airplane is the highest at which it is possible to maintain
the optimum aerodynamic conditions (best angle of attack) at maximum continuous power. The optimum
altitude is determined mainly by the aircraft's gross weight at the beginning of cruise.
As an aircraft burns fuel and becomes lighter, the optimum cruise altitude slowly increases and the
speed that yields the optimum cruise performance slowly decreases. Since it is seldom practical to
change speed and altitude constantly, it is common procedure to maintain a constant Mach cruise at a
flight level close to optimum. As fuel is burned, thrust is reduced to maintain the constant Mach number.

Answers

8600 [B] 8601 [B] 8602 [A]

4-30 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 4 Performance

ATM, ATS, DSP ATM, ATS, DSP

8383. What performance is characteristic of flight at 9078. Which procedure produces the minimum fuel
maximum L/D in a propeller-driven airplane? consumption for a given leg of the cruise flight?
A— Maximum range and distance glide. A— Increase speed for a headwind.
B— Best angle of climb. B— Increase speed for a tailwind.
C—Maximum endurance. C— Increase altitude for a headwind, decrease
altitude for a tailwind.
Maximum range and glide distance is achieved at
UDMAX. (PLT242) — FAA-H-8083-3 When flying into a headwind the airspeed should be
Answer (B) is incorrect because best angle of climb is at a high angle increased above that used for maximum range in calm
of attack with both high lift and high drag coefficients, which would winds. Airspeed should be decreased for a tailwind.
not result in a maximum L/D ratio. Answer (C) is incorrect because (PLT015) — ANA
maximum endurance would be obtained at the point of minimum
power required, since this would require the lowest fuel flow to keep
the airplane in steady, level flight. This is not at maximum L/D.
ATM, ATS, DSP
8381. Which maximum range factor decreases as
ATM, ATS, DSP weight decreases?
8401. At what speed, with reference to L/DMax. does A— Angle of attack.
maximum range for a jet airplane occur? B- Altitude.
A— A speed less than that for L/Dmax. C—Airspeed.
B— A speed equal to that for L/Dmax.
C—A speed greater than that for L/Dmax. As fuel is consumed and the airplane's weight decreases,
the optimum airspeed and power setting may decrease,
Maximum range is obtained at the aerodynamic condi or the optimum altitude may increase. The optimum
tion which produces a maximum proportion between angle of attack does not change withchanges in weight.
the square root of the liftcoefficient and the drag coef (PLT006) — FAA-H-8083-3
ficient. It occurs where the proportion between velocity Answer (A) is incorrect because the factors of maximum range are
and thrust required is greatest. This point is located weight, altitude, and aerodynamic configuration of the airplane, not
angle of attack. Answer (B) is incorrect because maximum range
by a straight line from the origin tangent to the curve, altitude may increase with a decrease in weight.
and is consequently at a higher airspeed than UDMAX.
(PLT303) — ANA
Answer (A) is incorrect because a speed greater than L/Dmax will ATM, ATS, DSP
obtain maximum range for a jet airplane. Answer (B) is incorrect 9077. Maximum range performance of a turbojet air
because a speed equal to that of L/Dmaxis a jet airplane's maximum
endurance, not range.
craft is obtained by which procedure as aircraft weight
reduces?
A— Increasing speed or altitude.
ATM, ATS, DSP B— Increasing altitude or decreasing speed.
8398. What should a pilot do to maintain "best range" C— Increasing speed or decreasing altitude.
airplane performance when a tailwind is encountered?
A— Increase speed. As a turbojet-powered airplane burns fuel, its maximum
B— Maintain speed. range of profile can be maintained by increasing the
C— Decrease speed. cruise altitude to improve the specific fuel consumption
of the engines and by decreasing airspeed to maintain
While itis only necessary to consider windvelocityeffect the optimum L/D ratio. (PLT015)—ANA
on cruise speed at wind velocities that exceed 25 percent Answer (A) is incorrect because, as weight decreases, the opti
of the zero wind cruise speed, generally you should mum speed decreases, or altitude increases. Answer (C) is incor
rect because, as weight decreases, speed decreases, or altitude
increase cruise speed with a headwind and decrease increases.
cruise speed with a tailwind. (PLT303) — FAA-H-8083-25

Answers

8383 [A] 8401 [C] 8398 [C] 9078 [A] 8381 [C] 9077 [B]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 4-31

Chapter 4 Performance

Landing Considerations
Vs —stalling speed or the minimum steady flight speed at which the airplane is controllable.
Vso —stalling speed or the minimum steady flight speed in the landing configuration.
Vref —reference speed. It is normally 1.3 x Vso-

Even with all the aircraft's high lift devices extended, a typical air carrier airplane has a high approach
speed and a long landing roll. An airplane is normally flown at 1.3 times the Vso speed for the aircraft's
weight. Of course, 1.3 times Vso is an indicated airspeed and the ground speed will vary depending on
wind, altitude and temperature. A high temperature or high altitude approach will increase an aircraft's
ground speed for any given approach speed.
Once an airplane has touched down on a runway there are 3 ways of slowing it to a stop: aerody
namic braking, use of the wheel brakes, and reverse thrust.
The typical technique for stopping an aircraft on a normal landing is to apply reverse thrust (or prop
reverse) once the nosewheel is on the ground. This takes maximum advantage of reverse thrust when
it is most effective and it saves wear on the wheel brakes, which heat up very rapidly at high ground
speeds. Shortly after touchdown, the spoilers are deployed. This reduces lift and increases drag. As the
aircraft slows, the main wheel brakes are applied to bring it down to taxiing speed. The brakes are most
effective when lift has been reduced (by spoilers and low airspeed) and more of the aircraft's weight is
carried by the landing gear.
Water on a runway will increase the landing rollout because the reduced coefficient of friction makes
the wheel brakes less effective. This is particularly true at high ground speeds.
A very dangerous possibility when landing on a wet runway is hydroplaning. When hydroplaning
occurs, the wheel brakes are almost totally ineffective. This not only greatly increases the landing rollout,
but also introduces the possibility of losing directional control on sliding off the side of the runway. There
are three types of hydroplaning.
Dynamic hydroplaning occurs when a tire rolls through standing water, forms a bow wave, and then
rolls up on top of the wave, losing all contact with the runway. The minimum speed at which dynamic
hydroplaning can start is related to tire pressure. As a rule of thumb, dynamic hydroplaning will start at
speeds of greater than nine times the square root of the tire pressure in pounds per square inch. The
practical application is that your nose wheel can hydroplane at a lower speed than the mains because
of its lower pressure. Once dynamic hydroplaning has started, it can continue to much lower speeds.
Viscous hydroplaning occurs when there is a thin film of water covering a smooth surface such as
a painted or rubber-coated portion of the runway. Viscous hydroplaning can occur at much lower speeds
than dynamic hydroplaning.
Reverted rubber hydroplaning occurs during a locked wheel skid. Water trapped between the tire
and the runway is heated by friction, and the tire rides along a pocket of steam.
When landing on a water-covered runway, fly the approach as close to "on speed" as possible.
Landing at a higher than recommended speed will greatly increase the potential for hydroplaning. After
touchdown, use aerodynamic braking and reverse thrust to maximum possible extent, saving the use
of wheel brakes until the speed is low enough to minimize the possibility of hydroplaning.
Regulations (14 CFR §121.195) require that when a turbojet aircraft is dispatched to an airport where
the runways are forecast to be wet or slippery, the effective length of the landing runway must be 115%
of what is required under dry conditions. Since runways cannot be lengthened, the effect of this rule is
to lower the maximum allowable landing weight of aircraft on wet runways for dispatch purposes.

4-32 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 4 Performance

ATM, ATS, DSP ATM, ATS, DSP

9323. Which is the correct symbol for the stalling speed 9074. How should thrust reversers be applied to reduce
or the minimum steady flight speed at which the airplane landing distance for turbojet aircraft?
is controllable?
A— Immediately after ground contact.
A-Vso- B— Immediately prior to touchdown.
B-Vs. C—After applying maximum wheel braking.
C-Vsl
Thrust reversers are most effective at high speeds
V$means the stalling speed or the minimum steady flight and should be deployed immediately after touchdown.
speed at which the airplane is controllable. (PLT466) — (PLT170) — FAA-H-8083-3
14 CFR §1.2
Answer (A) is incorrect because Vsois the stalling speed or the mini
mum steady flight speed in the landing configuration. Answer (C) is ATM, ATS, DSP
incorrect because VS1 is the stalling speed or the minimum steady 9074-1. Upon landing, thrust reversers
flight speed in a specific configuration.
A— are required to obtain the calculated stopping
distances.
ATM, ATS, DSP B— should be deployed as soon as the nose wheel is
9322. Which is the correct symbol for the minimum in firm contact with the runway.
steady-flight speed or stalling speed in the landing C—should be deployed immediately upon landing
configuration? when airspeeds are highest.
A-Vs. Ifoperating an aircraftsuch as the MD-80, thrust revers
B-Vst. ers should be deployed as soon as the nose wheel is in
C-Vso. firm contact with the runway. (PLT170) — FAA-H-8083-3
Vso means the stalling speed or the minimum steady
flightspeed in the landing configuration. (PLT466) — 14 ATM, ATS, DSP
CFR §1.2 9079. How should reverse thrust propellers be used
Answer (A) is incorrect because V$ is the stalling speed or the during landing for maximum effectiveness in stopping?
minimum steady flight speed at which the airplane is controllable.
Answer (B) is incorrect because Vsi is the stalling speed or the mini A— Gradually increase reverse power to maximum as
mum steady flight speed in a specific configuration. rollout speed decreases.
B— Use maximum reverse power as soon as possible
after touchdown.
ATM, ATS, DSP
C—Select reverse-pitch after landing and use idle
8374. What effect does landing at high elevation airports power setting of the engines.
have on groundspeed with comparable conditions rela
tive to temperature, wind, and airplane weight? Reverse thrust is most effective at high airspeeds. It
A— Higher than at low elevation. should be used as soon as possible after touchdown.
B— Lower than at low elevation. (PLT244) — FAA-H-8083-25
C—The same as at low elevation.

An airplane at altitude will land at the same indicated

airspeed as at sea level but, because of the reduced air
density, the true airspeed will be greater. Given the same
wind conditions, this will also make the ground speed
higher than at sea level. (PLT124) — FAA-H-8083-25
Answer (B) is incorrectbecause at high elevation there is reduced air
density, and thus TASwillincrease. As TASincreases, ground speed
will increase. Answer (C) is incorrect because, under comparable
conditions, TAS will increase and cause the ground speed to be
higher, at higher elevation.

Answers

9323 [B] 9322 [C] 8374 [A] 9074 [A] 9074-1 [B] 9079 [B]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 4-33

Chapter 4 Performance

ATM, ATS, DSP Dynamic hydroplaning occurs when there is standing

9084. Under which condition during the landing roll water on the runway surface. Water about 1/10th of an
are the main wheel brakes at maximum effectiveness? inch deep acts to liftthe tireoff the runway.The minimum
A— When wing lift has been reduced. speed at which dynamic hydroplaning occurs has been
B— At high groundspeeds. determined to be about 9 times the square root of the
C—When the wheels are locked and skidding. tire pressure in pounds per square inch:
Square root of 70 = 8.37
Wheel brakes are at maximum effectiveness when the 8.37x9 = 75.3
weight of the airplane is used to hold the tires in contact
with the runway and the rate of wheel deceleration (or (PLT144) — FAA-H-8083-3
slowing) is just below that which would induce a skid. To Answer (A) is incorrect because hydroplaning would occur at 85
knots with a tire pressure of 95 PSI. Answer (B) is incorrect because
place the maximum weight on the tires it is necessary hydroplaning would occur at 80 knots with a tire pressure of 84 PSI.
to reduce lift as soon as possible after touchdown by
lowering the nose wheel to the runway and deploying
wing spoilers. Wheel brakes become more effective as ATM, ATS, DSP
an airplane decelerates (or slows down) because of loss 8933. A definition of the term "viscous hydroplaning"
of residual liftas the airspeed decreases. (PLT170) — is where
FAA-H-8083-25
A—the airplane rides on standing water.
Answer (B) is incorrect because, at high ground speeds, the lift is
B— a film of moisture covers the painted or rubber-
greater and the normal force on the wheels is small, thus the brak
ing friction force is small. Answer (C) is incorrect because, when the coated portion of the runway.
wheels are locked and skidding, the braking friction force is small. C—the tires of the airplane are actually riding on a
mixture of steam and melted rubber.

ATM, ATS, DSP Either the moisture or the originally slick surface could
8935. At what minimum speed (rounded off) could cause problems, and the combination is especially
dynamic hydroplaning occur on main tires having a dangerous. (PLT144) — FAA-H-8083-3
pressure of 121 PS I? Answer (A) is incorrect because dynamic hydroplaning occurs when
A— 90 knots. the airplane tires ride on standing water. Answer (C) is incorrect
because reverted rubber hydroplaning occurs when the tires of the
B—96 knots. airplane are actually riding on a mixture of steam and melted rubber.
C-110 knots.

Dynamic hydroplaning occurs when there is standing ATM, ATS, DSP

water on the runway surface. Water about 1/10th of an 8938. Compared to dynamic hydroplaning, at what
inch deep acts to lift the tireoff the runway. The minimum speed does viscous hydroplaning occur when landing
speed at which dynamic hydroplaning occurs has been on a smooth, wet runway?
determined to be about 9 times the square root of the
A— At approximately 2.0 times the speed that
tire pressure in pounds per square inch:
dynamic hydroplaning occurs.
Square root of 121 = 11 B—At a lower speed than dynamic hydroplaning.
11x9 = 99 C—At the same speed as dynamic hydroplaning.
(PLT144) — FAA-H-8083-3
Viscoushydroplaning occurs due to the viscous properties
of water. In this type, a thin film of fluid (not more than
ATM, ATS, DSP 1/1,000 of an inch in depth) cannot be penetrated by the
8936. Atwhat minimum speed will dynamic hydroplaning tireand the tirerolls on top of the film. This can occur at a
begin if a tire has an air pressure of 70 PSI? muchlowerspeed thandynamic hydroplaning butrequires
A—85 knots.
a smooth acting surface. (PLT144) — FAA-H-8083-3
B- 80 knots.
C-75 knots.

Answers

9084 [A] 8935 [B] 8936 [C] 8933 [B] 8938 [B]

4-34 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 4 Performance

ATM, ATS, DSP ATM, ATS, DSP

8934. Which term describes the hydroplaning which 8939. What effect, if any, will landing at a higher-than-
occurs when an airplane's tire is effectively held off a recommended touchdown speed have on hydroplaning?
smooth runway surface by steam generated by friction? A— No effect on hydroplaning, but increases landing
A— Reverted rubber hydroplaning. roll.
B— Dynamic hydroplaning. B— Reduces hydroplaning potential if heavy braking
C—Viscous hydroplaning. is applied.
C—Increases hydroplaning potential regardless of
This would typically occur if excessive braking kept a braking.
wheel from rotating. (PLT144) — FAA-H-8083-3
Answer (B) is incorrect because dynamic hydroplaning occurs when Hydroplaning is most likely to occur during conditions
there is standing water or slush on the runway which forms a wedge of standing water or slush on a runway with a smooth
that lifts the tire away from contact with the runway surface. Answer textured surface. The higher the aircraftspeed, the more
(C) is incorrect because viscous hydroplaning occurs on a thin filmof
water on a smooth (e.g., painted or rubber-coated) runway surface. likely it is to hydroplane. (PLT144) — FAA-H-8083-3

ATM, ATS, DSP ATM, DSP

8937. What is the best method of speed reduction if 8133. What effective runway length is required for a
hydroplaning is experienced on landing? turbojet-powered airplane at the destination airport ifthe
runways are forecast to be wet or slippery at the ETA?
A— Apply full main wheel braking only.
B— Apply nosewheel and main wheel braking A— 70 percent of the actual runway available, from a
alternately and abruptly. height of 50 feet over the threshold.
C—Apply aerodynamic braking to the fullest B—115 percent of the runway length required for a
advantage. dry runway.
C—115 percent of the runway length required for a
Since occurrence of dynamic hydroplaning is related wet runway.
to speed, it is prudent to slow the aircraft with spoilers,
reverse thrust, etc., as much as possible prior to apply No person may takeoff in a turbojet-powered airplane
ing the brakes. (PLT144) — FAA-H-8083-3 when the appropriate weather reports and forecasts,
Answer (A) is incorrect because applying full main wheel braking or combination thereof, indicate that the runways at
may increase or compound the problems associated with hydro the destination airport may be wet or slippery at the
planing. If any brakes are used, a pumping or modulating motion
like an antiskid system can be used. Aerodynamic braking is recom
estimated time of arrival unless the effective runway
mended. Answer (B) is incorrect because abrupt use of either the length at the destination airport is at least 115% of the
nose wheel or main wheel brakes will lock the wheels and com runway length required for a landing on a dry runway.
pound the problem. (PLT144) — 14 CFR §121.195
Answer (A) is incorrect because 70% is the requirement for the
turbopropeller aircraft.Answer (C) is incorrect because the effective
runway length is based on a dry runway.

Landing Performance Tables and Graphs

FAA Figures 457 and 458 are examples of landing performance charts. These are used to calculate
both the appropriate landing reference speeds and landing distances. As in most performance charts,
OAT, pressure altitude, wind and runway slope are the determining factors for calculating speeds and
distances used. As a general rule, always move to the next reference line on the chart, before making
any adjustments.

Answers

8934 [A] 8937 [C] 8939 [C] 8133 [B]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 4-35

Chapter 4 Performance

ALL ATM, DSP

9791. Approaching the runway 1° below glidepath can 8743. (Refer to Figure 460.) At a weight of 77,500
add how many feet to the landing distance? pounds, and a landing elevation below 5,000 feet, the
A- 250 feet. Vref is
B-500 feet. A—139 knots.
C-1,000 feet. B-141 knots.
C-143 knots.
On final approach, at a constant airspeed, the glidepath
angle and rate of descent is controlled with pitch atti On Figure 460, start on the right side of chart and
tude and elevator. The optimum glidepath angle is 2.5° locate 77,500 pounds. Move left until intersecting the
to 3° whether or not an electronic glidepath reference reference line for 5,000 feet and below. Move straight
is being used. On visual approaches, pilots may have down and note the Vref speed of 143 knots. (PLT008)
a tendency to make flat approaches. A flat approach, — FAA-H-8083-25
however, will increase landing distance and should be
avoided. Forexample, an approach angle of 2° instead of
a recommended 3° willadd 500 feet to landing distance. ATM, DSP
(PLT170) — FAA-H-8083-3A 8744. (Refer to Figures 331 and 461.) At a weight of
73,500 pounds, the expected landing field length is
A- 6,700 feet.
ALL
B- 5,650 feet.
9792. Arriving over the runway 10 knots over Vref C-6,450 feet.
would add approximately how many feet to the dry
landing distance?
1. On Figure 331, note the field elevation of 13 feet.
A- 800 feet.
B-1,700 feet.
2. On Figure 461, start on the right side of the page
C- 2,800 feet.
at 73,500 pounds. Move directly to the left untilyou
intersect the S.L. line. Move straight down and note
Excess approach speed carried through the threshold the 5,650 feet landing field length.
window and onto the runway willincrease the minimum (PLT008) — FAA-H-8083-25
stopping distance required by 20-30 feet per knot of
excess speed for a dry runway. Worse yet, the excess
speed will increase the chances of an extended flare, ATM, DSP
which will increase the distance to touchdown by 8745. (Refer to Figures 331 and 461.) What is the
approximately 250 feet for each excess knot in speed. maximum landing weight which will permit stopping
(PLT170) — FAA-H-8083-3A 2,000 feet short of the end of a 7,500-foot dry runway?
A— 32,200 pounds.
B—71,000 pounds.
ATM, DSP
C—72,500 pounds.
8742. (Refer to Figures 327 and 457.) With a weight of
69,000 pounds, flaps 45, calm winds, the VREf is A landing weight of about 71,000 pounds willrequire a
A—136 knots. distance ofabout 5,500 feet. (PLT008) — FAA-H-8083-25
B—133 knots. Answer (A) is incorrect because 32,000 is shown on the chart in kg.
C—129 knots. Answer (C) is incorrect because a landing weight of 72,500 pounds
would require a landing distance greater than 5,500 feet.

1. On Figure 327, note the field elevation of 7,680 feet.

2. On Figure 457, start at 69,000 pounds on lower left of
chart. Move straight up untilyou intersect the 10,000
foot line. Move directly to the rightand note a VREF
speed of 136 knots.
(PLT008) — FAA-H-8083-25

Answers

9791 [B] 9792 [C] 8742 [A] 8743 [C] 8744 [B] 8745 [B]

4-36 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 4 Performance

ATM, DSP line. Move diagonally down and to the right in paral
8746. (Refer to Figures 321 and 458.) With a reported lel with the diagonal lines until you intersect the 7
temperature of 15°C, a 0.8% upslope, and calm winds, knot line. Move right untilyou intersect the REF line.
the maximum permissible quick turn-around landing Move up and to the right in parallel with the diagonal
weight is line until intersecting the WET reference line. Move
A-81,000 pounds. directly to the rightand note a landing field length of
B-81,600 pounds. 6,600 feet.
C-82,000 pounds. (PLT008) — FAA-H-8083-25

1. On Figure 321, note the field elevation of 6,535 feet.

ATM, DSP
2. On Figure 458, start at the temperature of 15°C and 8756. (Refer to Figures 331 and 457.) What approach
move directly right. Intersect the airport pressure speed and landing distance will be needed when land
altitude of 6,535 feet. Move down until intersecting ing at a weight of 75,000 pounds on a dry runway with
the wind reference line. Winds are calm, so you calm winds?
can move down to the runway slope reference line.
Move diagonally up and to the right in parallel with A— 131 knots and 5,600 feet.
the diagonal lines untilintersecting the .8% upslope B—141 knots and 4,600 feet.
line. Move directly down and note the 81,000 pound C-141 knots and 5,600 feet.
maximum permissible landing weight.
Figure 331 shows an approximate airport elevation of
(PLT121) — FAA-H-8083-25 13 feet. At 75,000 pounds, the vertical line indicates a
Vref speed of 141 knots and a landingdistance of 5,600
feet in calm dry conditions. (PLT008) — FAA-H-8083-25
ATM, DSP
8750. (Refer to Figure 461.) What is the maximum land
ing weight which will permit stopping 700 feet short of ATM, DSP
the end of a 5,600 foot runway at sea level? 8692. (Refer to Figures 73, 74, and 75.) What is VREf
A—61,000 pounds. for Operating Conditions L-1 ?
B— 59,000 pounds. A—143 knots.
C—63,000 pounds. B-144 knots.
C—145 knots.
A landingweightof 61,000 pounds will cause the aircraft
to stop approximately 700 feet short of the end of the 7ab/e value 135 knots
runway. (PLT008) — FAA-8083-25 Wind correction + 7 knots
Answer (B) is incorrect because the aircraftwillstop 950 feet short. VREf 142 knots
Answer (C) is incorrect because the aircraft willstop more than 700
feet short of the end of the runway. (PLT008) — FAA-H-8083-25

ATM, DSP ATM, DSP

8753. (Refer to Figures 273 and 457). What is the land 8693. (Refer to Figures 73, 74, and 75.) What is the
ing field length on a wet runway with a headwind of 7 reference speed for Operating Conditions L-2?
knots and an aircraft weight of 83,000 pounds? A—140 knots.
A- 6,600 feet. B—145 knots.
B- 7,200 feet. C-148 knots.
C-5,900 feet.
Table value 140 knots
Wind correction + 5 knots
1. On Figure273, note the fieldelevation of 1,135 feet.
VREF 145 knots
2. On Figure 457, start in the left section at the bottom
of the graph, at 83,000 pounds. Move up until you (PLT012) — FAA-H-8083-25
intersect the 1,135 foot pressure altitude line. Move
directly to the right until you intersect the reference

Answers

8746 [A] 8750 [A] 8753 [A] 8756 [C] 8692 [A] 8693 [B]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 4-37

Chapter 4 Performance

ATM, DSP Temperature scale = TAT

8694. (Refer to Figures 73, 74, and 75.) What is VREF Temperature-limited EPR = 2.00
+20 for Operating Conditions L-3? Altitude-limited EPR = 2.04, 1.98 (need to interpolate
A—151 knots. to find 2.01)
B—169 knots. Air conditioning correction = +.03
C-149 knots. (PLT007) — FAA-H-8083-25
Table value 141 knots
Wind correction + 8 knots ATM, DSP
Vref 149 knots 8688. (Refer to Figures 73 and 75.) What is the go-
+ 20 around EPR for Operating Conditions L-2?
169 knots A-2.115 EPR.
(PLT012) — FAA-H-8083-25 B-2.10 EPR.
C-2.06EPR.

ATM, DSP Temperature scale = OAT°F

8695. (Refer to Figures 73, 74, and 75.) What is VREF Temperature-limited EPR = 2.10
+10 for Operating Conditions L-4? Altitude-limited EPR = 2.15
Anti-ice correction = -.04
A—152 knots.
B-138 knots. (PLT007) — FAA-H-8083-25
C-148 knots.

7ab/e value 134 knots ATM, DSP

Wind correction + 3 knots 8689. (Refer to Figures 73 and 75.) What is the go-
137 knots
around EPR for Operating Conditions L-3?
vREF
+ 10 A-2.06 EPR.
147 knots B-2.07 EPR.
C-2.09 EPR.
(PLT012) FAA-H-8083-25
Temperature scale = OAT°C
Temperature-limited EPR = 2.13
ATM, DSP
Altitude-limited EPR = 2.09, 2.15 (need to interpolate,
8696. (Refer to Figures 73, 74, and 75.) What is the
finding 2.12)
maneuvering speed for Operating Conditions L-5?
Anti-ice correction = -.06
A—124 knots.
(PLT007) — FAA-H-8083-25
B- 137 knots.
C-130 knots.
ATM, DSP
7ab/e value 124 knots
8690. (Refer to Figures 73 and 75.) What is the go-
Wind correction +_6 knots around EPR for Operating Conditions L-4?
VRef 130 knots
A-2.056 EPR.
(PLT002) — FAA-H-8083-25 B- 2.12 EPR.
C-2.096 EPR.

ATM, DSP
Temperature scale = TAT
8687. (Refer to Figures 73 and 75.) What is the go- Temperature-limited EPR = 2.16
around EPR for Operating Conditions L-1 ? Altitude-limited EPR = 2.09, 2.15 (need to interpolate
A-2.01 EPR. to find 2.096)
B-2.03 EPR. Anti-ice correction = -.04
C- 2.04 EPR.
(PLT007) — FAA-H-8083-25

Answers

8694 [B] 8695 [C] 8696 [C] 8687 [B] 8688 [C] 8689 [A]
8690 [A]

4-38 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 4 Performance

ATM, DSP Temperaturescale = OAT°F

8691. (Refer to Figures 73 and 75.) What is the go- Temperature-limited EPR = 2.00
around EPR for Operating Conditions L-5? Altitude-limited EPR = 2.04
A-2.00 EPR. (PLT007) — FAA-H-8083-25
B-2.04 EPR. Answer (A) is incorrect because 4,200 feetof runway would remain if
C- 2.05 EPR. brakes only were used. Answer (C) is incorrect because 4,750 feetof
runway would remain ifbrakes andspoilers were operative andused.

Miscellaneous Performance
Vc —design cruising speed.
Vmo/Mmo —maximum operating limit speed.
An encounter with strong turbulence can result in structural damage toan aircraft, orinadvertent stall.
The sudden changes in wind direction and speed can result in very rapid changes in an aircraft's angle
ofattack. Asudden increase in angle ofattack will cause the airplane to accelerate upward, increasing
both the load factor and the stalling speed.
For any combination of weight and altitude there will be a recommended "rough air" speed thatpro
vides the best protection from stalls and from the possibility of overstressing the aircraft. When clear air
turbulence has been reported in the area, a pilot should slow to the rough air speed upon encountering
the first ripple of turbulence.
In severe turbulence, it may be impossible to maintain a constant airspeed or altitude. If this hap
pens, the pilot should setthe power to that which would maintain the desired airspeed and maintain a
level flight attitude, accepting large variations in airspeed and altitude.
ALL ALL

9321. Which is the correct symbol for design cruising 8344. How can turbulent air cause an increase in stall
speed? ing speed of an airfoil?
A-Vc. A—An abrupt change in relative wind.
B-Vs. B—A decrease in angle of attack.
C-VA. C—Sudden decrease in load factor.

Vc—design cruisingspeed. When an airplane flying at a high speed with a low

angle of attack suddenly encounters a vertical current
(PLT132) — 14 CFR §1.2 of airmoving upward, the relative wind changes in an
Answer (B) is incorrect becauseVs is the stalling speed orminimum upward direction as itmeets the airfoil. This increases
steady flight speed at which the airplane is controllable. Answer (C)
is incorrect because VA is maneuvering speed. the angle of attack. A downward gust would have the
effect of decreasing the angle of attack. (PLT245) —
FAA-H-8083-25
Answer (B) is incorrect becausea decrease inangle ofattack would
decrease thepossibility of a stall. Answer (C)is incorrect because a
sudden decrease in load factor would decrease the stalling speed.

Answers

8691 [A] 9321 [A] 8344 [A]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 4-39

 Chapter 4 Performance

ALL ATM, DSP

9129. If severe turbulence is encountered, which pro 8669. (Refer to Figures 68 and 69.) What are the
cedure is recommended? recommended IAS and EPR settings for holding under
A— Maintain a constant altitude. Operating Conditions 0-2?
B— Maintain a constant attitude. A- 210 knots and 1.57 EPR.
C—Maintain constant airspeed and altitude. B- 210 knots and 1.51 EPR.
C-210 knots and 1.45 EPR.
In severe turbulence, theairspeed indicator is inaccurate;
therefore thepilotshould setpower forthe recommended Interpolation is required for FL230 and 93,000 pounds.
rough airspeed and then maintain a levelflight attitude, At FL250, the EPR value for 93,000 is 1.56. At FL200,
accepting variations in indicatedairspeed and altitude. the EPR value for 93,000 is 1.44. Interpolation for FL230
(PLT501) — AC 00-30 results in an EPR value of 1.51. At FL250, the IAS for
Answers (A) and (C) are incorrect because severe turbulence 93,000 is 210 knots. At FL200, the IAS for93,000 is 210
causes large variations inboth indicated airspeed andaltitude. Any knots. Interpolating forFL230 results in an IAS value of
attempt to maintain constant airspeed and altitude may overstress
the aircraft. 210 knots. (PLT007) — FAA-H-8083-25

ATM, ATS, DSP ATM, DSP

9320. Which speed symbol indicates the maximum 8670. (Refer to Figures 68 and 69.) What are the
operating limit speed for an airplane? recommended IAS and EPR settings for holding under
Operating Conditions 0-3?
A-VLE.
B-Vmo/Mmo. A- 217 knots and 1.50 EPR.
C-Vlo/Mlo. B-215 knots and 1.44 EPR.
C-216 knots and 1.40 EPR.
Vmo/Mmo—maximum operating limit speed.
Interpolation is required for FL 170and 104,000pounds.
(PLT466)—14CFR§1.2 AtFL200, the EPR valuefor 104,000 is 1.50.AtFL 150,
Answer (A) is incorrect because VLE is maximum landing gear theEPRvalue for 104,000is 1.40. Interpolation forFL170
extended speed. Answer (C) is incorrect because VLO/MLO is the
maximum speed for operating the landing gear. results in an EPR value of 1.44. At FL200, the IAS for
104,000 is 216 knots. At FL 150, the IAS for 104,000 is
215 knots.Interpolating forFL 170 results inan IAS value
ATM, DSP of 215 knots. (PLT007) — FAA-H-8083-25
8668. (Refer to Figures 68 and 69.) What are the
recommended IAS and EPR settings for holding under
ATM, DSP
Operating Conditions 0-1 ?
8671. (Refer to Figures 68 and 69.) What are the
A—219 knots and 1.83 EPR.
recommended IAS and EPR settings for holding under
B- 223 knots and 2.01 EPR. Operating Conditions 0-4?
C-217 knots and 1.81 EPR.
A- 223 knots and 1.33 EPR.
Interpolation is required for FL310 and 102,000 pounds. B- 225 knots and 1.33 EPR.
AtFL350, the EPR valuefor 102,000 is 1.97.AtFL300, C-220 knots and 1.28 EPR.
theEPRvalue for 102,000is 1.77. Interpolation forFL310
results in an EPR value of 1.81. At FL350 the IAS for Interpolation is required for FL080 and 113,000pounds.
102,000 is 219 knots. At FL300 the IAS for 102,000 is AtFL100, the EPR value for 113,000 is 1.35. AtFL050,
217 knots. Interpolating forFL310 resultsinan IASvalue the EPR value for 113,000is 1.29. Interpolation forFL080
of 217 knots. (PLT007) — FAA-H-8083-25 results in an EPR value of 1.33. At FL100, the IAS for
113,000 is 223 knots. At FL050, the IAS for 113,000 is
222 knots. Interpolating for FL080resultsinan IASvalue
of 223 knots. (PLT007) — FAA-H-8083-25

Answers

9129 [B] 9320 [B] 8668 [C] 8669 [B] 8670 [B] 8671 [A]

4-40 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 4 Performance

ATM, DSP Compute the fuel used for the holding time as follows:
8672. (Refer to Figures 68 and 69.) What are the Fuel flow per engine = 2,518x2 = 5,036 + 60x35
recommended IAS and EPR settings for holding under = 2,938
Operating Conditions 0-5?
(PLT012) — FAA-H-8083-25
A- 219 knots and 1.28 EPR.
B- 214 knots and 1.26 EPR.
C- 218 knots and 1.27 EPR. ATM, DSP
8676. (Referto Figures68 and 69.) What is the approxi
Interpolation is required for FL040and 109,000pounds. mate fuel consumed when holding under Operating
At FL050, the EPR value for 109,000 is 1.28. At FLOW, Conditions 0-4?
the EPR value for 109,000 is 1.24. Interpolation forFL040
results in an EPR value of 1.27. At FL050, the IAS for A— 2,870 pounds.
109,000 is 218 knots. At FLOW, the IAS for 109,000 is B— 2,230 pounds.
218 knots. Interpolating forFL040 resultsinan IAS value C—1,440 pounds.
of 218 knots. (PLT007) — FAA-H-8083-25
Compute the fuel used for the holding time as follows:
Fuel flow per engine = 2,866x2 = 5,732 + 60x15
ATM, DSP = 1,433
8673. (Refer to Figures 68 and 69.) What is the approxi (PLT012) — FAA-H-8083-25
mate fuel consumed when holding under Operating
Conditions 0-1?
A—1,625 pounds. ATM, DSP
B—1,950 pounds. 8677. (Referto Figures68 and 69.) What is the approxi
C—2,440 pounds. mate fuel consumed when holding under Operating
Conditions 0-5?
Compute the fuel flow for the holding time as follows: A- 2,950 pounds.
Fuel flow per engine = 2,434x2 = 4,868 + 60x20 B—2,870 pounds.
= 1,623 C—2,400 pounds.
(PLT012) — FAA-H-8083-25 Compute the fuel used for the holding time as follows:
Fuel flow per engine = 2,873x2 = 5,746 + 60x25
ATM, DSP = 2,394
8674. (Referto Figures 68 and 69.) Whatis the approxi (PLT012) — FAA-H-8083-25
mate fuel consumed when holding under Operating
Conditions 0-2?
A—2,250 pounds. ATM, DSP
B— 2,500 pounds. 8727. (Refer to Figures 287 and 421.) The winds are
C—3,000 pounds. reported as 220/15. You compute tailwind component,
hoping for a Runway 33 takeoff. You compute the tail-
Compute the fuel used for the holding time as follows: wind to be

Fuel flow per engine = 2,248 x2 = 4,496 + 60x40 A—14 knots.

= 2,997 B—10 knots.
C—5 knots.
(PLT012) — FAA-H-8083-25
The angle between the winds and the runway is 110°.
ATM, DSP
On Figure 421, starting on the left side of the chart at
8675. (Refer to Figures 68 and 69.) What isthe approxi zero, movedown andto theright alongthe 110line until
mate fuel consumed when holding under Operating intersecting the 15 knots point. Then move directly to
Conditions 0-3?
the leftandnote a tailwind (indicated bytheminus sign)
of 5 knots. (PLT013) — FAA-H-8083-25
A— 2,940 pounds.
B—2,520 pounds.
C-3,250 pounds.

Answers

8673 [A] 8674 [C] 8675 [A] 8676 [C] 8677 [C]
8672 [C]
8727 [C]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 4-41

 Chapter 4 Performance

ATM, DSP
Figure 417 indicates that two airdatacomputers (ADCs)
8728. (Refer to Figure 422.) At a weight of 68,500 are required for RVSM operations. Because RVSM
pounds with gear and flaps up, you find the reference airspace starts at FL290, you will not be able to climb
stall speed to be above FL 290 unless you receive special permission
A—148 knots. or a deviation from ATC. (PLT428) — FAA-H-8083-25
B- 145 knots.
C-142 knots.
ATM, DSP
On Figure 422, use the upperchartthatindicates FLAP 8732. (Refer to Figure 438.) With an actual runway
0/GEAR UP. Find thegross weight of 68,500 poundsat length of 6,400 feet with 8 flaps, a 1% downslope, a 200
the bottom of the chart and move up until intersecting foot clearway, and 4 knots of tailwind, the Reference A is
the reference line. Then move directly to the left and A-2.12.
note a reference stallspeed of 142 knots. (PLT018) — B-2.02.
FAA-H-8083-25 C-1.94.

On Figure 438, starton the leftside and find 6,400 feet.

ATM, DSP
Move right untilyouintersect theREF LINE. Move upand
8729. (Refer to Figure 459.) With a payload of 20,000 right inparallel with thediagonal lines until you intersect
pounds, the still-air range is the 200-foot clearway line. Move directly tothe right until
A-1,350 NM. you intersect the next REF LINE. Move up and left in
B-1,410 NM. parallel with the diagonal lines until you intersect the -1
C-1,590 NM. runway slope line. Move directly right until intersecting
the Reported Wind REF LINE. Move down and left in
On Figure 459, find thepayload of20,000pounds on the parallel with the diagonallines until you intersect the -4
bottom of the chart. Move directly up until you intersect wind line. Move directly to the right and note the 1.94
the MTOW 82500 LB line. Then move directly to the Reference A. (PLT428) — FAA-H-8083-25
right and note thestill-air range of 1,410 NM. (PLT121)
— FAA-H-8083-25
ATM, DSP
8733. (Refer to Figures 318 and 439.) With a reported
ATM, DSP temperature of 30°C with packs on and anti-ice off, the
8730. (Referto Figure 459.) For a supplemental charter, Reference B is
a still-air range of 2,250 NM is required. The payload A-28.2.
for this nonstop trip is
B-29.8.
A—5,100 pounds. C-30.7.
B—5,600 pounds.
C—6,100 pounds. 1. On Figure 318 note the fieldelevation of 4,227 feet.
On Figure 459, start at the right side of the chartand 2. On Figure 439, find the section of the chart that
find thestill-air range of2,250 NM. Move directly to the indicates ANTI-ICE OFF PACKS ON and start at
left untilyou intersect the MXFUEL 19450 LBreference the bottom of that section at 30°C Move straight up
line. Then move straight down and note thepayload of until you intersect the 4,227 feet line. Move directly
5,600pounds. (PLT121) — FAA-H-8083-25 to the right and note the Reference B of 29.8.
(PLT328) — FAA-H-8083-25
ATM, DSP
8731. (Refer to Figure 417.) You find one air data com ATM, DSP
puter listed on the MEL as inoperative, leaving one ADC 8734. (Refer to Figure 440, All Engines.) With a Ref
operative during your preflight logbook inspection. This erence A of 3.00 and Reference B of 28.5, the takeoff
means the flight weight is limited to
A- must fly non-RVSM flight levels above FL330. A—78,500 pounds.
B—can only fly between FL290. B- 76,500 pounds.
C—must remain below FL290 unless dispatch C-75,000 pounds.
obtains a deviation from ATC.

Answers

8728 [C] 8729 [B] 8730 [B] 8731 [C] 8732 [C] 8733 [B]
8734 [B]

4-42 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 4 Performance

On Figure 440, start at the right side of the chart and TAT = ISA -10°
find the Reference B of 28.5. Move directly right until Table value 76.7%
you intersect the REF LINE. Move up and to the right Temp, correction - 1.5%
diagonally until you intersect the Reference A line of Corrected N1 75.2%
3.00. Move directly to the right and note the aircraft
weightof 76,500 pounds. (PLT328) — FAA-H-8083-25 (PLT020) — FAA-H-8083-25

ATM, DSP ATM, DSP

9128. What action is appropriate when encountering 8655. (Refer to Figures 63 and 64.) What is the tur
the first ripple of reported clear air turbulence (CAT)? bulent air penetration ^ power setting for Operating
Conditions Q-3?
A— Extend flaps to decrease wing loading.
B— Extend gear to provide more drag and increase A— 77.8 percent.
stability. B— 82.6 percent.
C—Adjust airspeed to that recommended for rough air. C—84.2 percent.

In an area where significant clear air turbulence has TAT = ISA +20°
been reported or is forecast, the pilot should adjust the Table value 81.0%
speed to fly at the recommended rough air speed on Temp, correction + 3.2%
encountering the first ripple, since the intensity of such Corrected A/j 84.2%
turbulence may build up rapidly. (PLT501) — AC 00-30
(PLT020) — FAA-H-8083-25
Answer (A) is incorrect because use of flaps increases the camber
of the wingand angle of attack, but does not decrease the amount
of wing loading. Answer (B) is incorrect because extending the gear
wouldincrease the drag, but wouldnot change the stability of the ATM, DSP
airplane. 8656. (Refer to Figures 63 and 64.) What is the tur
bulent air penetration N: power setting for Operating
Conditions Q-4?
ATM, DSP
8653. (Refer to Figures 63 and 64.) What is the tur A— 76.8 percent.
bulent air penetration N1 power setting for Operating B— 75.4 percent.
Conditions Q-1? C—74.0 percent.
A— 82.4 percent. TAT = ISA+10°
B— 84.0 percent.
Table value 75.4%
C—84.8 percent.
Temp, correction + 1.4%

TAT = ISA+15° Corrected N1 76.8%

Table value 82.4% (PLT020) - -AA-H-8083-25

Temp, correction + 2.4%
Corrected A/j 84.8%
ATM, DSP
(PLT020) — FAA-H-8083-25 8657. (Refer to Figures 63 and 64.) What is the tur
bulent air penetration N-i power setting for Operating
Conditions Q-5?
ATM, DSP
8654. (Refer to Figures 63 and 64.) What is the tur A— 70.9 percent.
bulent air penetration H\ power setting for Operating B— 72.9 percent.
Conditions Q-2?
C—71.6 percent.

A— 78.2 percent. TAT = ISA -15°

B— 75.2 percent.
Table value 72.90%
C—76.7 percent.
Temp, correction - 1.95%
Corrected N1 70.95%
(PLT020) — FAA-H-8083-25

Answers

9128 [C] 8653 [C] 8654 [B] 8655 [C] 8656 [A] 8657 [A]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 4-43

 Chapter 4 Performance

Engine-Out Procedures
vmc— minimum control speed with the critical engine inoperative.
Vxse —best single engine angle-of-climb speed.
Vyse —best single engine rate-of-climb speed.

When an engine fails in flight, the effect on aircraft performance is drastic. Forexample, the loss of
one engine on a two-engine aircraft will result in a loss of climb performance in excess of 50%. Climb
performance is determined by the amount of power available in excess of that required for level flight.
Theone remaining engine must provide all ofthe power required for level flight. It may be ableto develop
little or no excess power that would allow for a climb.
When an engine fails in cruise flight, the pilot should slow the aircraft to its best single-engine rate-
of-climb speed (VYse) and apply maximum continuous power on the remaining engine. The airplane
may or may not be able to climb. If it cannot climb at the present altitude, at least it will descend at the
minimum possible rate of sink and level off at its maximum engine-out altitude. It may be necessary to
dump fuel to improve the altitude capability of the aircraft.
Amulti-engine airplane should never be flown below its minimum control speed (VMC). If it is below
VMC and an engine failure occurs, it may be impossible to maintain directional control with the other
engine operating at full power. VMC will vary with the aircraft's center of gravity location. VMc will be
highest with the CG at its most rearward-allowed position.
Athree- or four-engine turbine-powered airplane, used by an air carrier, may be ferried to a mainte
nance base with one engine inoperative if certain requirements are met. These requirements include:
• The airplane model must have been test flown to show that such an operation is safe.
• The operator's approved flight manual must contain performance data for such an operation.
• The operating weight of theaircraft must be limited tothe minimum required for flight plus any required
reserve fuel.

• Takeoffs are usually limited to dry runways.

• The computed takeoff performance must be within acceptable limits (this will vary depending on the
type of aircraft).
• The initial climb cannot be over thickly-populated areas.
• Only required flight crewmembers may be on the aircraft.
• Weather conditions at the takeoff and destination airports must be VFR.
ATM, ATS, DSP
Ifan airplane is notcapable of maintaining altitude with
8369. If an engine failure occurs at an altitude above an engine inoperative underexistingcircumstances, the
single-engine ceiling, what airspeed should be main airspeed should be maintained within +5 knots of the
tained?
engine-out best rate-of-climb speed (VYse), in order to
A-VMC. conserve altitudeas long as possible to reach a suitable
B—VYse- landing area. (PLT208) — FAA-H-8083-3
C—VXse-

Answers

8369 [B]

4-44 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 4 Performance

ATM, ATS, DSP 3. Weather conditions at the takeoff and destination

8370. What is the resulting performance loss when one airports must be VFR.
engine on a twin-engine airplane fails? 4. Only required flight crewmembers may be on board
A— Reduction of cruise airspeed by 50 percent. the aircraft.
B— Reduction of climb by 80 to 90 percent. (PLT367) — 14 CFR §91.611
C— Reduction of all performance by 50 percent.
Answer (A) is incorrect because runway length allowing V1 in less
than 70% of the runway is not required for ferry flights with one
When one engine fails on a light twin, performance is not engine inoperative. Answer (B) is incorrect because the weather
really halved, but is actually reduced by 80% or more. conditions must be VFRonly for takeoff and landing.
The performance loss is greater than 50% because an
airplane's climbperformance is a function of the thrust
horsepower, which is in excess of thatrequired for level ATM, ATS, DSP
flight. (PLT223) — FAA-H-8083-3 9355-1. You are assigned to ferry a large, three-engine,
Answer(A) is incorrect because the power loss affects climb capa turbojet-powered airplane from one facility to another
bility much more than it does cruise speed. Answer(C) is incorrect to repair an inoperative engine. You know you are
because climbcapabilityis significantly (more than 50%) reduced. restricted to
A— VFR weather for takeoff, en route, and landing.
ATM, ATS, DSP
B— flight crewmembers only aboard.
8371. Under what condition is VMc the highest? C—a computed takeoff distance to reach V1 that
cannot exceed 70 percent of the effective runway
A— Gross weight is at the maximum allowable value. length.
B— CG is at the most rearward allowable position.
C—CG is at the most forward allowable position. A commercial operatorof large aircraft may conduct a
ferry flight ofa four-engine airplane ora turbine-engine-
Vmc is greater when the center of gravity is at the most powered, three-engine airplane with one engine inopera
rearward-allowed position. (PLT466) — FAA-H-8083-3 tive, to a base for the purpose of repairing the engine.
Answer (A) is incorrect because the location of the weight (i.e., CG) Several restrictionsapply to such flights. These include:
is more critical than the amount of weight. Answer (C) is incorrect
because a forward CG increases rudder effectiveness and reduces 1. TheAirplane Flight Manual mustinclude procedures
Vmc- andperformance datawhich allow for thesafe opera
tion of such a flight.

ATM, ATS, DSP

2. The initial climb cannot be over thickly-populated
9355. Which operational requirement must be observed areas.

by a commercial operator when ferrying a large, three- 3. Weather conditions at the takeoff and destination
engine, turbojet-powered airplane from one facility to airports must be VFR.
another to repair an inoperative engine? 4. Only required flight crewmembers maybe on board
A— The computed takeoff distance to reach V^ must the aircraft.
not exceed 70 percent of the effective runway (PLT367) — 14 CFR §91.611
length.
B—The existing and forecast weather for departure,
en route, and approach must be VFR. ATM, ATS, DSP
C—No passengers may be carried. 9358. Acommercial operator plans to ferry a large, four-
engine, reciprocating-engine-powered airplanefrom one
A commercial operatorof large aircraft may conduct a facility to another to repairan inoperative engine. Which
ferry flight ofa four-engine airplane ora turbine-engine- is an operational requirementforthe three-engine flight?
powered, three-engine airplane with one engineinopera
tive, to a base for the purpose of repairing the engine. A— The gross weight at takeoff may not exceed 75
Severalrestrictions applytosuch flights. These include: percent of the maximum certificated gross weight.
B— Weather conditions at the takeoff and destination
1. The Airplane Flight Manual mustinclude procedures airports must be VFR.
andperformance data which allow for thesafe opera C—The computed takeoff distance to reach V1 must
tion of such a flight. not exceed 70 percent of the effective runway
2. The initial climb cannot be over thickly-populated length.
Continued
areas.

Answers

8370 [B] 8371 [B] 9355 [C] 9355-1 [B] 9358 [B]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 4-45

 Chapter 4 Performance

A commercial operator of large aircraft may conduct a ATM, ATS, DSP

ferry flight ofa four-engine airplane ora turbine-engine- 9360. Which operational requirement must be observed
powered, three-engine airplane with one engine inopera when ferrying a large, turbine-engine-powered airplane
tive, to a base for the purpose of repairing the engine. when one of its engines is inoperative?
Several restrictions apply to such flights. These include: A— The weather conditions at takeoff and destination
must be VFR.
1. TheAirplane FlightManualmust includeprocedures
B— Weather conditions must exceed the basic VFR
and performance data which allowfor thesafe opera
tion of such a flight. minimums for the entire route, including takeoff
and landing.
2. The initial climb cannot be over thickly-populated C—The flight cannot be conducted between official
areas.
sunset and sunrise.
3. Weather conditions at the takeoff and destination
airports must be VFR. A commercial operator of large aircraft may conduct a
ferry flight ofa four-engine airplane ora turbine-engine-
4. Onlyrequired flight crewmembers may be on board
powered, three-engine airplane with one engine inopera
the aircraft.
tive, to a base for the purpose of repairing the engine.
(PLT367) — 14 CFR §91.611 Several restrictions applytosuch flights. These include:
1. TheAirplane Flight Manual mustinclude procedures
ATM, ATS, DSP andperformance datawhich allowfor thesafe opera
9359. Which operational requirement must be observed tion of such a flight.
when ferrying an air carrier airplane when one of its 2. The initial climb cannot be over thickly-populated
three turbine engines is inoperative? areas.

A— The weather conditions at takeoff and destination

3. Weather conditions at the takeoff and destination
must be VFR.
airports must be VFR.
B— The flight cannot be conducted between official
sunset and official sunrise. 4. Only required flight crewmembersmay be on board
C—Weather conditions must exceed the basic VFR the aircraft.
minimums for the entire route, including takeoff (PLT367) — 14 CFR §91.611
and landing. Answer (B) is incorrect because the weather conditions must be
VFR only fortakeoffand landing. Answer(C) is incorrect because a
A commercial operator of large aircraft may conduct a ferry flight may be conducted after sunsetandbefore sunrise as long
ferry flight ofa four-engine airplane ora turbine-engine- as the takeoff and destination airports are VFR.
powered, three-engine airplane with one engine inopera
tive, to a base for the purpose of repairing the engine. ATM, ATS, DSP
Several restrictions apply to such flights. These include:
9361. When a turbine-engine-powered airplane is to be
1. TheAirplane Flight Manual must includeprocedures ferried to anotherbase for repair ofan inoperative engine,
andperformance data which allowfor thesafe opera which operational requirement must be observed?
tion of such a flight. A— Onlythe required flight crewmembers may be on
2. The initial climb cannot be over thickly-populated board the airplane.
areas. B— The existing and forecast weather for departure,
en route, and approach must be VFR.
3. Weather conditions at the takeoff and destination
C—No passengers except authorized maintenance
airports must be VFR.
personnel may be carried.
4. Only required flight crewmembers maybe on board
the aircraft. A commercial operator of largeaircraft may conducta
(PLT367) — 14 CFR §91.611 ferry flight ofa four-engine airplane ora turbine-engine-
Answer (B) is incorrect because a ferry flight may be conducted
powered, three-engine airplane with one engine inopera
aftersunset and before sunriseas long as the takeoff and destina tive, to a base for the purpose of repairing the engine.
tion airports are VFR. Answer (C) is incorrect because the weather Several restrictions apply tosuch flights. Theseinclude:
conditions mustbe VFR onlyfor takeoff and landing.

Answers

9359 [A] 9360 [A] 9361 [A]

4-46 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 4 Performance

1. The Airplane Flight Manual must include procedures ATM, DSP

and performance data which allow forthe safe opera 8680. (Refer to Figure 70.) How many minutes of dump
tion of such a flight. time is required to reach a weight of 151,500 pounds?
2. The initial climb cannot be over thickly-populated Initial weight 181,500 lb
areas. Zero fuel weight 126,000 lb
3. Weather conditions at the takeoff and destination A—15 minutes.
airports must be VFR. B—14 minutes.
C—13 minutes.
4. Only required flight crewmembers may be on board
the aircraft. 1. Initial weight 181,500
(PLT367) — 14 CFR §91.611 Zero fuel wt. - 126,000
Answer (B) is incorrect because the weather conditions must be Initial fuel wt. 55,500
VFR only for takeoff and landing. Answer (C) is incorrect because
only the required flightcrewmembers may be aboard. 2. Ending weight 151,500
Zero fuel wt. - 126,000
Ending fuel wt. 25,500
ATM, DSP
3. Dump time = 12.875 minutes
8678. (Refer to Figure 70.) How many minutes of dump
time is required to reach a weight of 144,500 pounds? (PLT016) — FAA-H-8083-25
Initial weight 180,500 lb
Zero fuel weight 125,500 lb ATM, DSP
A—13 minutes. 8681. (Refer to Figure 70.) How many minutes of dump
B—15 minutes. time is required to reduce fuel load to 16,000 pounds
C—16 minutes. (at 2,350 Ibs/min)?
Initial weight 175,500 lb
1. Initial weight 180,500 Zero fuel weight 138,000 lb
Zero fuel wt. - 125,500
A—9 minutes.
Initial fuel wt. 55,000
B— 10 minutes.
2. Ending weight 144,500 C—8 minutes.
Zero fuel wt. - 125,500
Ending fuel wt. 19,000 1. Initial weight 175,500
Zero fuel wt. - 138,000
3. Dump time = 15.25 minutes
Initial fuel wt. 37,500
(PLT016) — FAA-H-8083-25
2. Ending fuel wt. 16,000
3. Dump time = 8.8125 minutes
ATM, DSP
8679. (Refer to Figure 70.) How many minutes of dump (PLT016) — FAA-H-8083-25
time is required to reduce fuel load to 25,000 pounds?
Initial weight 179,500 lb ATM, DSP
Zero fuel weight 136,500 lb 8682. (Refer to Figures 71 and 72.) What is the approxi
A—10 minutes. mate level-off pressure altitude after drift-down under
B—9 minutes. Operating Conditions D-1?
C—8 minutes. A-19,400 feet.
B-18,000 feet.
1. Initial weight 179,500 C-20,200 feet.
Zero fuel wt. - 136,500
Initial fuel wt. 43,000 Assume the aircraft weighs 100,000 pounds at the time
2. Ending fuel wt. 25,000
of its engine failure and the engine anti-ice is on. Ifthe
temperature is ISA, the level-off altitude is 19,400 feet.
3. Dump time = 7.6 minutes (PLT004) — FAA-H-8083-25
(PLT016) — FAA-H-8083-25

Answers

8678 [B] 8679 [C] 8680 [C] 8681 [A] 8682 [A]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 4-47

Chapter 4 Performance

ATM, DSP ATM, DSP

8683. (Refer to Figures 71 and 72.) What is the approxi 8685. (Refer to Figures 71 and 72.) What is the approxi
mate level-off pressure altitude after drift-down under mate level-off pressure altitude after drift-down under
Operating Conditions D-2? Operating Conditions D-4?
A-14,700 feet. A- 27,900 feet.
B-17,500 feet. B- 22,200 feet.
C-18,300 feet. C-24,400 feet.

Assume the aircraft weighs 110,000pounds at the time Assume the aircraft weighs 80,000 pounds at the time
of its engine failure. If the temperature is ISA +10°C, of its engine failure. If the temperature is ISA -10°C, the
the level-off altitude is 17,500 feet. (PLT004) — FAA- level-offaltitude is 24,400 feet. (PLT004) — FAA-H-8083-25
H-8083-25

ATM, DSP
ATM, DSP 8686. (Refer to Figures 71 and 72.) What is the approxi
8684. (Refer to Figures 71 and 72.) What is the approxi mate level-off pressure altitude after drift-down under
mate level-off pressure altitude after drift-down under Operating Conditions D-5?
Operating Conditions D-3? A- 8,800 feet.
A- 22,200 feet. B- 9,600 feet.
B-19,800 feet. C-13,000 feet.
C- 21,600 feet.
Assume the aircraft weighs 120,000pounds at the time
Assume the aircraft weighs 90,000 pounds at the time of its engine failure. Ifthe temperature is ISA +20°C, the
of its engine failure. Ifthe temperature is ISA -10°C, the level-offaltitudeis 8,800 feet. Whenengine bleed-air for
level-offaltitude is 21,600 feet. (PLT004) — FAA-H-8083-25 air conditioning is off below 17,000 feet, increase level-
off altitude by 800 feet. Therefore, the level-off altitude is
9,600 feet (8,800 + 800). (PLT004) — FAA-H-8083-25

C208 Aircraft Performance

ATS, DSP ATS, DSP
8459. (Refer to Figure 392.) Given the following condi 8460. (Refer to Figure 392.) Given the following condi
tions, what is the maximum torque for takeoff? tions, what is the maximum torque for takeoff?
Pressure altitude 9,000 ft Pressure altitude 4,500 ft
Temperature (OAT) +3°C Temperature (OAT) +35°C
Cabin Heat OFF Cabin Heat OFF
A—1,800 foot-pounds. A— 1,760 foot-pounds.
B- 1,840 foot-pounds. B— 1,840 foot-pounds.
C— 1,775 foot-pounds. C— 1,675 foot-pounds.

Enter the graph at +3°C and proceed up to 9,000 feet, Enter the graph at +35°C and proceed up to 4,500
then over to the left to read 1,840 foot-pounds of torque. feet, then over to the left to read 1,760 foot-pounds of
Note thatthe pressure altitudelevels are given in thou torque. Note thatthepressure altitude levels are given in
sand feet increments, therefore 8 is equal to 8,000, 10 thousand feet increments, therefore 8 is equal to 8,000,
is equal to 10,000, etc. (PLT169) — FAA-H-8083-25 10 is equal to 10,000, etc. (PLT169) — FAA-H-8083-25

Answers

8683 [B] 8684 [C] 8685 [C] 8686 [B] 8459 [B] 8460 [A]

4-48 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 4 Performance

ATS, DSP Enter the graph at +W°C and proceed up to 9,000

8461. (Refer to Figure 392.) Given the following condi feet, then over to the left to read 1,710 foot-pounds of
tions, what is the maximum torque for takeoff? torque. Note 4 states that with cabin heat on, decrease
Pressure altitude 1,000 ft torque setting by 65 foot-pounds: 1,710 - 65 = 1,645
Temperature (OAT) +40°C foot-pounds. Note that the pressure altitude levels are
Cabin Heat OFF given in thousand feet increments, therefore 8 is equal
to 8,000, 10 is equal to 10,000, etc. (PLT169) — FAA-
A— 1,800 foot-pounds.
H-8083-25
B— 1,725 foot-pounds.
C— 1,865 foot-pounds.
ATS, DSP
Enfer the graph at +40°C and proceed up to 1,000 8464. (Refer to Figures 394 and 395.) Given the fol
feet, then over to the left to read 1,865 foot-pounds of lowing conditions, what is the takeoff distance over a
torque. Note that the pressure altitude levels are given in 50-foot obstacle?
thousand feet increments, therefore 8 is equal to 8,000,
10 is equal to 10,000, etc. (PLT169) — FAA-H-8083-25 Pressure Altitude Sea Level
Temperature (OAT) +20°C
Wind 11 knots headwind
ATS, DSP A-2,570 feet.
8462. (Refer to Figure 392.) Given the following condi B-2,313 feet.
tions, what is the maximum torque for takeoff? C-2,160 feet.
Pressure altitude 6,000 ft
Temperature (OAT) +25°C Find the column marked 20°C and "Total Distance to
Cabin Heat ON Clear 50 foot obstacle." Move down to intersect a pres
sure altitude of sea level, and find 2,570. Note 2 on
A— 1,800 foot-pounds. Figure 394 requires you to reduce the distance by 10%
B— 1,735 foot-pounds. for each 11 knots of headwind.
C—1,865 foot-pounds.
2,570 x.10 = 257
Enterthe graph at +25°C and proceed up to 6,000 feet, 2,570-257 = 2,313 feet
then over to the left to read 1,800 foot-pounds of torque.
(PLT169) — FAA-H-8083-25
Note 4 states that with cabin heat on, decrease torque
setting by 65 foot-pounds: 1,800 -65=1,735 foot-pounds.
Note thatthe pressure altitude levels are given in thousand ATS, DSP
feet increments, therefore 8 is equal to 8,000, Wis equal 8465. (Refer to Figures 394 and 395.) Given the follow
to 10,000, etc. (PLT169) — FAA-H-8083-25 ing conditions, what is the takeoff ground roll?
Pressure Altitude 4,000 ft
ATS, DSP Temperature (OAT) 0°C
8463. (Refer to Figure 392.) Given the following condi Wind 4 knots tailwind
tions, what is the maximum torque for takeoff? A-1,655 feet.
Pressure altitude 9,000 ft B- 1,820 feet.
Temperature (OAT) +15°C C-1,986 feet.
Cabin Heat ON
Find the column marked 0°C and "Ground Roll Feet."
A— 1,645 foot-pounds. Move down to intersect a pressure altitude of 4,000 feet
B— 1,710 foot-pounds. and find 1,655 feet. Note 2 requires you to increase
C— 1,675 foot-pounds. ground roll by 10% foreach twoknots of tailwind, there
fore 4 knots total would equal a 20% increase.
1655 x.20 = 331

1655 + 331 = 1,986 feet

(PLT169) — FAA-H-8083-25

Answers

8461 [C] 8462 [B] 8463 [A] 8464 [B] 8465 [C]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 4-49

Chapter 4 Performance

ATS, DSP At 4,000 feet and 20°C, find 3,295 feet to clear a 50-foot
8466. (Refer to Figures 394 and 395.) Given the fol obstacle. At 6,000 and 20°C, find 3,765 feet to clear a
lowing conditions, what is the takeoff distance over a 50-foot obstacle. To find the distance to clear a 50-foot
50-foot obstacle? obstacle at 5,000 feet, interpolatebetween 4,000 feet and
Pressure altitude 2,000 ft 6,000 feet to find3,530 feet. (PLT011) — FAA-H-8083-25
Temperature (OAT) +15°C
Weight 8750 lbs
ATS, DSP
Wind Calm
8479. (Refer to Figures 298, 394, and 395.) With an
A-2,823 feet. OAT of 30°C, inertial separator set to normal, and a
B- 1,595 feet. 12-knot headwind, you calculate the short field takeoff
C-2,905 feet. distance to clear a 50-foot obstacle to be

At 2,000 feet and 10°C, find 2,740 feet to clear a 50-foot A-3,510 feet.
obstacle. At 2,000 and 20°C, find 2,905 feet to clear a B-3,833 feet.
50-foot obstacle. To find the distance to clear a 50-foot C-4,370 feet.
obstacle at W°C, interpolate to findthe difference:2740+
2905 = 5675/2=2,823 feet. (PLT011)— FAA-H-8083-25 1. On Figure 298, find the field elevation of 5,837 feet.
2. On Figure 395, find the OAT of 30°C and note the
distances over a 50-foot obstacle to be 3,510 feet
ATS, DSP at a 4,000-foot pressure altitude and 4,370 feet at a
8467. (Refer to Figures 394 and 395.) Given the follow 6,000-foot pressure altitude. Interpolating for5,837
ing conditions, what is the takeoff ground roll? feet yields a distance of 4,300 feet.
Pressure altitude 4,000 ft 3. Because of the 12-knot headwind, you must reduce
Temperature (OAT) +10°C the distance by approximately 10.9% (10% foreach
Weight 8750 lbs 11 knots): 4,300 - 469 = 3,831 feet.
Wind HW 11 knots
(PLT011) — FAA-H-8083-25
A- 1,760 feet.
B- 1,584 feet.
C-1,936 feet. ATS, DSP
8480. (Refer Figure 398.) With an OAT of 20°C, inertial
At 4,000 feet and 10°C, find a ground rollof 1,760 feet. separator normal, and gross weight of 8,750 pounds,
On Figure394, Note 2 requiresyou to decrease distance you calculate the climb gradient at 8,000 feet to be
10% for each 11 knots of headwind.
A-495ft/NM.
1760 x.10= 176 B-410ft/NM.
1760-176= 1,584 feet C-330ft/NM.

(PLT011) — FAA-H-8083-25 On Figure 398, locate the gross weight figure of 8,750
in the upper leftside of the chart. Proceed to the rightat
ATS, DSP
the 8,000 feet pressure altitude level untilyou intersect
8468. (Refer to Figures 394 and 395.) Given the fol the 20°C and note the climb gradient of 330 feet per
NM. (PLT004) — FAA-H-8083-25
lowing conditions, what is the takeoff distance over a
50-foot obstacle?
Pressure altitude 5,000 ft ATS, DSP
Temperature (OAT) +20°C 8481. (Refer to Figure 399.) With an OATof 15°C, inertial
Weight 8,750 lbs separator set in bypass, and a gross weight of 8,750
Wind Calm pounds, you calculate the climb fuel to 12,000 feet to be
A- 3,530 feet. A-105 lbs.
B-3,765 feet. B-112 lbs.
C- 2,010 feet. C-147 lbs.

Answers

8466 [A] 8467 [B] 8468 [A] 8479 [B] 8480 [C] 8481 [B]

4-50 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 4 Performance

On Figure 399, start at the gross weight of 8,750 pounds ATS

and move to the right across the 12,000 feet pressure 8119. (Refer to Figure 1.) What is the maximum landing
altitude level untilyou intersect the "StandardTempera distance that may be used by a turbopropeller-powered,
ture/Fuel LBS" column. Note the 105 lbs of fuel used in small transport category airplane to land on Rwy 6 (dry)
the climb. Note 3 states that for each 2,000 feet of climb, at the alternate airport?
add 1%to this figure. Because of the climb to 12,000 feet, A- 5,460 feet.
increase the 105 figure by 6% (1% for each 2,000 feet B- 6,210 feet.
to 12,000). 6% of 105 is 6.3 feet. 105 + 6.3=111.3 feet. C-6,370 feet.
Note that W°C is the standard temperature at sea level
where the climb begins. (PLT004) — FAA-H-8083-25 The maximum landing percentages for turbopropsmall
transport category airplanes are 60% at destination
and 70%} at alternate of effective runway length (actual
ATS
runway minus shaded obstruction clearance portion).
8117. (Refer to Figure 1.) What is the maximum landing Compute for runway 6 as follows:
distance that may be used by a turbopropeller-powered,
small transport category airplane to land on Rwy 24 (dry) 10,350
at the alternate airport? - 1,250
9,100 x.7 = 6,370
A- 5,490 feet.
B- 6,210 feet. (PLT008)— 14 CFR §§135.385, 135.387, 135.395
C-6,405 feet.

The maximum landing percentages for turboprop small ATS

transport category airplanes are 60% at destination 8120. (Refer to Figure 1.) What is the maximum landing
and 70% at alternate of effective runway length (actual distance that may be used by a reciprocating-engine-
runway minus shaded obstruction clearance portion). powered, small transport category airplane to land on
Compute for runway 24 as follows: Rwy 6 (dry) at the destination airport?
10,350 A- 5,460 feet.
- 7,200 B-6,210 feet.
C-6,370 feet.
9,150 x.7 = 6,405
(PLT008) — 14 CFR §§135.385, 135.387, 135.397 The maximum landing percentages for reciprocating
transport category airplanes are 60% at destination
and 70%o at alternate of effective runway length (actual
ATS runway minus shaded obstruction clearance portion).
8118. (Refer to Figure 1.) What is the maximum landing Compute for runway 6 as follows:
distance that may be used by a reciprocating-engine-
10,350
powered, small transport category airplane to land on
Rwy 24 (dry) at the destination airport? - 1,250
9,100 x.6 = 5,460
A-5,490 feet.
B-6,210 feet. (PLT008) — 14 CFR §§135.375, 135.377, 135.397
C-6,405 feet.

The maximum landing percentages for reciprocating

transport category airplanes are 60% at destination
and 70%) at alternate of effective runway length (actual
runway minus shaded obstruction clearance portion).
Compute for runway 24 as follows:
10,350
- 1,200
9,150 x.6 = 5,490
(PLT008) — 14 CFR §§135.375, 135.377, 135.397

Answers

8117 [C] 8118 [A] 8119 [C] 8120 [A]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 4-51

Chapter 4 Performance

ATS The maximum landing percentages for turboprop small

8121. (Refer to Figure 1.) What is the maximum landing transport category airplanes are 60% at destination
distance that may be used by a turbine-engine-powered, and 70% at alternate of effective runway length (actual
small transport category airplane to land on Rwy 24 (dry) runway minus shaded obstruction clearance portion).
at the destination airport? Compute for runway 19 as follows:
A- 5,460 feet. 9,700
B- 5,490 feet. -1,100
C-6,210 feet. 8,600 x.6 = 5,160

The maximum landing percentages for turbine-engine- (PLT008) — 14 CFR §§135.377, 135.385, 135.387,
powered small transport category airplanes are 60% 135.397
at destination and 70% at alternate of effective runway
length (actual runway minus shaded obstruction clear
ATS
ance portion). Compute for runway 24 as follows:
8124. (Refer to Figure 2.) What is the maximum landing
10,350 distance that may be used by a reciprocating-engine-
- 1,200 powered, small transport category airplane to land on
9,150 x.6 = 5,490 Rwy 1 (dry) at the destination airport?
(PLT008) — 14 CFR §§135.385, 135.387, 135.395 A-5,010 feet.
B- 5,820 feet.
C-5,845 feet.
ATS
8122. (Refer to Figure 1.) What is the maximum landing The maximum landing percentages for reciprocating
distance that may be used by a turbine-engine-powered, transport category airplanes are 60% at destination
small transport category airplane to land on Rwy 6 (wet) and 70% at alternate of effective runway length (actual
at the destination airport? runway minus shaded obstruction clearance portion).
A-5,460 feet. Compute for runway 1 as follows:
B-9,100 feet. 9,700
C-6,279 feet. - 1,350
8,350 x.6 = 5,010
The maximum landing percentages for turbine-engine-
powered small transport category airplanes are 60% (PLT008) — 14 CFR §§135.375, 135.377, 135.395
at destination and 70% at alternate of effective runway
length (actual runway minus shaded obstruction clear
ATS
ance portion). Compute for runway 6 as follows:
8125. (Refer to Figure 2.) What is the maximum landing
10,350 distance that may be used by a turbine-engine-powered,
- 1,250 small transport category airplane to land on Rwy 1 (dry)
9,100 x.6 = 5,460 at the destination airport?
14 CFR § 135.385 is misleading here because you must A-5,010 feet.
increase actual landing distance by 115% to find the B- 5,820 feet.
effective runway length wet, but the question asks for C-5,845 feet.
maximum landing distance, not effective landing distance.
(PLT008) — 14 CFR §§135.385, 135.387, 135.395 The maximum landingpercentages for turbine-engine-
powered small transport category airplanes are 60%
at destination and 70% at alternate of effective runway
ATS length (actual runway minus shaded obstruction clear
8123. (Refer to Figure 2.) What is the maximum landing ance portion). Compute for runway 1 as follows:
distance that may be used by a turbopropeller-powered,
9,700
small transport category airplane to land on Rwy 19 (dry)
- 1,350
at the destination airport?
8,350 x.6 = 5,010
A- 6,020 feet.
B- 5,820 feet. (PLT008) — 14 CFR §§135.385, 135.387, 135.395
C-5,160 feet.

Answers

8121 [B] 8122 [A] 8123 [C] 8124 [A] 8125 [A]

4-52 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 4 Performance

ATS ATS
8126. (Refer to Figure 2.) What is the maximum landing 8128. (Refer to Figure 2.) May a small transport cat
distance that may be used by a turbine-engine-powered, egory, turboprop airplane that has a computed land
small transport category airplane to land on Rwy 19 (dry) ing distance of 6,000 feet use either or both runways
at the destination airport? depicted in the illustration at the destination airport?
A-5,160 feet. A—Only Rwy 19 may be used if dry conditions exist.
B-5,820 feet. B— Neither Rwy 1 nor Rwy 19 may be used under
C- 6,020 feet. any conditions.
C— Either Rwy 1 or Rwy 19 may be used whether
The maximumlandingpercentages forturbine-engine- conditions are wet or dry.
powered small transport category airplanes are 60%
at destination and 70% at alternate of effective runway The maximum landing percentages for turbopropsmall
length (actual runway minus shaded obstruction clear transport category airplanes are 60%) at destination
ance portion). Compute for runway 19 as follows: and 70%) at alternate of effective runway length (actual
9,700 runway minus shaded obstruction clearance portion).
-1,100 Compute as follows:
8,600 x.6 = 5,160 1. Runway 1
(PLT008) — 14 CFR §§135.385, 135.387, 135.395 9,700
- 1,350
8,350 x.6 = 5,010
ATS
8127. (Refer to Figure 2.) May a small transport cat 2. Runway 19
egory, turbine-engine-powered airplane that has a 9,700
computed landing distance of 5,500 feet use one or - 1,100
both of the runways depicted in the illustration at the 8,600 x.6 = 5,160
destination airport?
3. Computed landing distance is given as 6,000; there
A— Neither Rwy 1 nor Rwy 19 may be used if dry fore neither runway may be used.
conditions exist.
(PLT456) — 14 CFR §§135.385, 135.387, 135.395
B—Only Rwy 19 may be used provided dry
conditions exist.
C— Rwy 1 or Rwy 19 may be used whether ATS
conditions are wet or dry. 8129. (Refer to Figure 2.) What is the maximum landing
distance that may be used for a non-transport category,
The maximum landing percentages for turbine-engine- turbopropeller-driven airplane to land on Rwy 1 (dry) at
powered small transport category airplanes are 60% the alternate airport?
at destination and 70% at alternate of effective runway
length (actual runway minus shaded obstruction clear A-5,010 feet.
ance portion). Compute as follows: B— 5,845 feet.
C-6,020 feet.
1. Runway 1
9,700 The maximum landing percentages for turboprop small
- 1,350 transport category airplanes are 60% at destination
8,350 x.6 = 5,010 and 70%) at alternate of effective runway length (actual
runway minus shaded obstruction clearance portion).
2. Runway 19 Compute as follows:
9,700 9,700
- 1,100 - 1,350
8,600 x.6 = 5,160 8,350 x.7 = 5,845
3. Computed landing distance is given as 5,500. Since (PLT008) — 14 CFR §§135.385, 135.387, 135.395
computed landing distance exceeds both runway
landing distances even in dry conditions, neither
runway 1 nor 19 may be used if dry conditions exist.
(PLT456) — 14 CFR §135.385
Answers

8126 [A] 8127 [A] 8128 [B] 8129 [B]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 4-53

Chapter 4 Performance

ATS The maximum landing percentages for turbopropsmall

8130. (Refer to Figure 2.) Which condition meets 14 transport category airplanes are 60% at destination
CFR Part 135 operational requirements for a small, and 70% at alternate of effective runway length (actual
transport category, turboprop airplane to land at the runway minus shaded obstruction clearance portion).
destination airport that has the runway environment Compute as follows:
given in the illustration?
1. Runway 1
A—The airport may be listed as the destination
9,700
airport if the landing distance does not exceed
- 1,350
5,160 feet for Rwy 19.
B— The airport may NOT be listed as the destination 8,350 x.6 = 5,010
airport if the landing distance exceeds 5,100 feet 2. Runway 19
for Rwy 19. 9,700
C—The airport may be listed as the destination -1,100
airport if the landing distance does not exceed
8,600 x.6 = 5,160
5,350 feet for either runway, wet or dry
conditions. 3. The best answer is to not exceed 5,160 feet.
(PLT456) — 14 CFR §135.385

Cessna 208 Performance Tables

The Cessna 208 performance tables start with FAA Figure 392 and continue through Figure 403. With
Cessna charts, be sure to always read closely the "Notes" associated with a particular chart. A good
example of why it's important to read the Notes is shown in the "Engine torque on takeoff" charts in Fig
ures 392 and 393. The inertial separator is set to "Normal" for the chart readings, but when it is placed in
bypass, adjustments need to be made. For example, in Figure 392, if you calculate a maximum torque
setting of 1,750, you will have to decrease the torque setting by 15 (see Note 3).
The takeoff and landing distance charts (FAA Figures 395 and 402) are tabular charts that often
require interpolation to obtain accurate results. For example, a landing ground-roll distance is needed
(Figure 402) for a sea level airport at 20°C. Examining the chart, this distance is 930 feet. But it gets more
complicated if the pressure altitude is 1,000 feet. In this case, the value would be halfway between the
sea level value of 930 and the 2,000-foot value of 1,000 —or, 965 feet (930 + 1,000 = 1,930 + 2 = 965).
Sometimes the interpolation requires a calculation beyond the simple "halfway-in-between" two
published values. There are a few techniques available for solving these problems but the basic idea
is to set up a ratio. Let's say the pressure altitude in the above example is a field elevation of 683 feet.
We know from the chart that between sea level and 2,000 feet (a difference of 2,000), the ground roll
increased 70 feet. That makes a ratio of 70/2000, or, for every 2,000 feet, the ground roll increases by
70 feet. (Note that this relationship only works at this altitude, and will change at the higher altitudes.)
In the example, calculate how many feet the ground roll increases when the pressure altitude
increases 683 feet. To do this, we cross-multiply: just multiply 683 by 70, and divide by 2,000. This
yields 24 feet. Therefore, add 24 to the 930 sea level value, and calculate a ground roll of 954 feet at a
pressure altitude of 683 feet. Interpolation can also work between temperature settings.
Again —don't forget to read the Notes in these chart figures; sometimes they can be found on a
further page as in FAA Figure 401.

Answers

8130 [A]

4-54 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 4 Performance

ATS, DSP 1. On Figure 295, note the field elevation of 2,417 feet.
8505. (Refer to Figures 298, 401, and 402.) With an
OAT of 30°C, inertial separator set to Normal, 10 knots 2. On Figure 409, find the 2,000-foot pressure altitude
of headwind, and a gross weight of 8,500 pounds, you and the 4,000-foot pressure altitude. Move across
calculate the landing roll to be about to the right until you find the ground roll distances
at20°C Note the 1,000 feet at 2,000-foot pressure
A-1,080 feet. altitude and the 1,075 feet at 4,000-foot pressure
B-1,200 feet. altitude. Interpolating for the field elevation of 2,417
C- 2,140 feet. feet, calculate a distance of 1,016 feet.

1. On Figure 298, note the field elevation of 5,837 feet. (PLT008) — FAA-H-8083-25
2. On Figure402, findthepressure altitudeof 4,000 and
6,000 feet at30°C and note 1,115 feet (at 4,000 feet ATS, DSP
pressure altitude) and 1,200 feet (at 6,000 feet pres 8508. (Refer to Figure 409.) Given the following con
sure altitude). Interpolating for 5,837 feet, calculate ditions, what would your distance to clear a 50-foot
a ground roll of 1,193 feet. obstacle be?
3. Due to the 10-knot headwind, reduce this distance Pressure Altitude 2,000 feet
by 9.1%> (reduce 10%> for each 11 knots of head OAT 40°C
wind—see Figure 401 for the corresponding note): Wind calm
1,193-109= 1,084 feet. Weight 8,500 pounds
(PLT008) — FAA-H-8083-25 Runway condition Paved, level and dry
A- 1,960 feet.
B- 1,070 feet.
ATS, DSP C-1,742 feet.
8506. (Refer to Figures 299 and 409.) What is your
landing distance over a 50-foot obstacle at 10°C and On Figure 409, find the 2,000-foot pressure altitude and
8,500 pounds? move across until you intersect the 40°C column. Note
A-1,715 feet. the 1,960 feet needed to clear the 50-foot obstacle.
B-965 feet. (PLT008) — FAA-H-8083-25
C-1,747 feet.

1. On Figure 299, note the field elevation of 647 feet. ATS, DSP
8509. (Refer to Figure 409.) Given the following condi
2. On Figure 409, find the sea level and 2,000-foot tions, what would your ground roll distance be?
pressure altitudes and move across to the right until
you find the distances to clear a 50-foot obstacle. Pressure Altitude 4,000 feet
Note the 1,715 feet at sea level and the 1,815 feet OAT 15°C
at 2,000 feet pressure altitude. Interpolating for the Wind calm
field elevation of 647 feet, calculate a distance of Weight 8,500 pounds
1,747 feet. Runway condition Paved, level and dry
(PLT008) — FAA-H-8083-25 A-1,040 feet.
B-1,058 feet.
C-1,075 feet.
ATS, DSP
8507. (Refer to Figures 295 and 409.) Calculate your On Figure 409, find the 4,000-foot pressure altitude
landing distance with an OAT of 20°C. and move across untilyou intersect the 10°Cand20°C
columns. Note the ground rolldistances of 1,040 feet for
A- 1,000 feet.
10°C and 1,075 feet for20°C feet. Interpolating for W°C,
B-1,016 feet.
find a value of 1,058 feet. (PLT008) — FAA-H-8083-25
C-1,884 feet.

Answers

8505 [A] 8506 [C] 8507 [B] 8508 [A] 8509 [B]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 4-55

Chapter 4 Performance

ATS, DSP 1. On Figure 342, note the field elevation of 10 feet.

8510. (Refer to Figure 409.) Given the following condi 2. On Figure 409, find the sea level pressure altitude.
tions, what would your ground roll distance be? Move across to the right until you find the ground
Pressure Altitude 1,000 feet roll distances at 0°C and at 10°C Note the 0°C dis
OAT -10°C tance of 865 feet, and the 10°C distance of 900 feet.
Wind calm Interpolating for the temperature of5°C, calculate a
Weight 8,500 pounds distance of 883 feet.
Runway condition Paved, level and dry (PLT008) — FAA-H-8083-25
A- 868 feet.
B-835 feet.
C-900 feet. ATS, DSP
8512. (Refer to Figures 327 and 409.) Calculate your
On Figure 409, find the sea level and 2,000-foot pres landing distance over a 50-foot obstacle with an OAT
sure altitudes and move across until you intersect the of 10°C.
-10°C. Note the ground rolldistances of 835 feet at sea A-2,135 feet.
level and 900 feet at the 2,000-foot pressure altitude. B-2,030 feet.
Interpolating for 1,000 feet pressure altitude, finda value C-2,155 feet.
of 868 feet. (PLT008) — FAA-H-8083-25
1. On Figure 327, note the field elevation of 7,680 feet.
ATS, DSP 2. On Figure 409, find the pressure altitudes of 6,000
8511. (Refer to Figures 342 and 409.) Calculate your and 8,000 feet. Move across to the right until you
landing distance with an OAT of 5°C. find the 10°C distances over a 50-foot obstacle at
both pressure altitudes. Note the distance of 2,030
A- 865 feet.
feet at the pressure altitude of 6,000 feet, and the
B-883 feet.
distance of 2,155 at the pressure altitude of 8,000
C - 900 feet.
feet. Interpolating forthe field elevation of 7,680 feet,
calculate a distance of 883 feet.
(PLT008) — FAA-H-8083-25

BE1900 Performance

DSP DSP
9894. (Refer to Figure 12.) Given the following condi 9895. (Refer to Figure 12.) Given the following condi
tions, what is the minimum torque for takeoff? tions, what is the minimum torque for takeoff?
Pressure altitude 9,000 ft Pressure altitude 7,500 ft
Temperature (OAT) +3°C Temperature (OAT) +35°C
Ice vanes Extended Ice vanes Retracted
A—3,100 foot-pound. A— 2,820 foot-pound.
B—3,040 foot-pound. B- 2,880 foot-pound.
C—3,180 foot-pound. C—2,780 foot-pound.

The graph on the left of FAA Figure 12 is used if the ice The graph on the left of FAA Figure 12 is used if the ice
vanes are extended and the graph on the right is used vanes are extended and the graph on the right is used
when the ice vanes are retracted. Enter the left-hand when the ice vanes are retracted. Enter the right-hand
graph at +3°C, proceed up to 9,000 feet, then over to graph at +35°C, proceed up to 7,500 feet, then over to
the left to read torque of 3,100 foot-pounds. (PLT169) the left to read torque of 2,820 foot-pounds. (PLT169)
— FAA-H-8083-25 — FAA-H-8083-25

Answers

8510 [A] 8511 [B] 8512 [A] 9894 [A] 9895 [A]

4-56 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 4 Performance

DSP DSP
9896. Refer to Figure 12.) Given the following condi 9899. (Refer to Figure 13.) Given the following condi
tions, what is the minimum torque for takeoff? tions, what is the takeoff distance over a 50-foot obstacle?
Pressure altitude 7,500 ft Pressure altitude Sea Level
Temperature (OAT) +9°C Temperature (OAT) +12°C
Ice vanes Extended Weight 16,000 lb
A—3,200 foot-pound. Wind component 16 kts HW
B- 3,160 foot-pound. Ice vanes Retracted
C-3,300 foot-pound. A- 1,750 feet.
B- 2,800 feet.
The graph on the left of FAA Figure 12 is used if the ice C-2,550 feet.
vanes are extended and the graph on the rightis used
when the ice vanes are retracted. Enter the left-hand 1. Enter FAA Figure 13 at the bottom left-hand side at
graph at +9°C, proceed up to 7,500 feet, then over to + 12°C OATand proceed upward to the line repre
the left to read torque of 3,160 foot-pounds. (PLT169) senting sea level (SL) pressure altitude.
— FAA-H-8083-25
2. From the point of intersection on the "pressure alti
tude" lines, draw a horizontal line to the reference
DSP
line, then parallel the line which represents an aircraft
9897. (Refer to Figure 12.) Given the following condi weight of 16,000 pounds.
tions, what is the minimum torque for takeoff? 3. From the point of intersection in the "weight"portion
Pressure altitude 3,500 ft of the graph, draw a horizontal line to the next refer
Temperature (OAT) +43°C ence line (wind component), then parallel the line
Ice vanes Retracted
until intersecting with the 16-knot headwind.

A—3,000 foot-pound. 4. From the point of intersection on the "wind" portion

B-3,050 foot-pound. of the graph draw a horizontal line to the next refer
C-3,110 foot-pound. ence line (0-foot obstacle height), then parallel the
line required to clear a 50-foot obstacle.
The graph on the left of FAA Figure 12 is used if the ice 5. The distance required is 2,550 feet.
vanes are extended and the graph on the right is used
(PLT011) — FAA-H-8083-25
when the ice vanes are retracted. Enter the right-hand
graph at +43°C, proceed up to 3,500 feet, then over to
the left to read torque of 3,050 foot-pounds. (PLT169) DSP
— FAA-H-8083-25 9900. (Refer to Figure 13.) Given the following condi
tions, what is the takeoff ground roll and V^ speed?
DSP Pressure altitude 4,000 ft
9898. (Refer to Figure 12.) Given the following condi Temperature (OAT) 0°C
tions, what is the minimum torque for takeoff? Weight 15,500 lb
Wind component 10 kts TW
Pressure altitude 5,500 ft
Ice vanes Extended
Temperature (OAT) +29°C
Ice vanes Retracted A- 2,900 feet, 106 knots.
B— 4,250 feet, 102 knots.
A— 2,950 foot-pound. C-2,700 feet, 107 knots.
B—3,100 foot-pound.
C—3,200 foot-pound. 1. Enter FAA Figure 13 at the bottom left-hand side at
+5°C OAT(adding 5°C to the actual OATsince the
The graph on the left of FAA Figure 12 is used if the ice ice vanes are extended) and proceed upward to the
vanes are extended and the graph on the right is used line representing 4,000 feet pressure altitude.
when the ice vanes are retracted. Enter the right-hand
graph at +29°C, proceed up to 5,500 feet, then over to 2. From the point of intersection on the "pressure alti
the left to read torque of 3,200 foot-pounds. (PLT169) tude" lines, draw a horizontal line to the reference
— FAA-H-8083-25 line, then parallel the line which represents an aircraft
weight of 15,500 pounds.
Continued
Answers

9896 [B] 9897 [B] 9898 [C] 9899 [C] 9900 [A]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 4-57

Chapter 4 Performance

3. From the point of intersection in the "weight"portion DSP

of the graph, drawa horizontal line to the next refer 9902. (Refer to Figure 13.) Given the following condi
ence line (wind component), then parallel the line tions, what is the takeoff ground roll and Vi speed?
untilintersecting with the 10-knot tailwind. Pressure altitude 3,000 ft
4. From the point of intersection on the "wind" portion Temperature (OAT) -10°C
of the graph continue to the edge of the graph to find Weight 15,000 lb
the ground rollrequired:2,900 feet. Wind component 8ktsTW
Ice vanes Extended
5. The Vi speed is found using the table in the upper
right corner of FAA Figure 13. Interpolate between A-2,200 feet, 105 knots.
16,000 and 14,000 to find 106 knots for 15,500 B- 2,000 feet, 113 knots.
pounds. C-1,900 feet, 103 knots.
(PLT011) — FAA-H-8083-25 1. Enter FAA Figure 13 at the bottom left-hand side at
-5°C OAT (adding 5°C to the actual OATsince the
ice vanes are extended) and proceed upward to the
DSP
line representing 3,000 feet pressure altitude.
9901. (Refer to Figure 13.) Given the following condi
tions, what is the takeoff distance over a 50-foot obstacle? 2. From the point of intersection on the "pressure alti
tude" lines, draw a horizontal line to the reference
Pressure altitude 2,000 ft
line, then parallel the line which represents an aircraft
Temperature (OAT) +15°C
weight of 15,000 pounds.
Weight 16,600 lb
Wind component Calm 3. From the point of intersection in the "weight"portion
Ice vanes Retracted of the graph, draw a horizontal line to the next refer
A- 3,400 feet. ence line (wind component), then parallel the line
B- 3,700 feet. until intersecting with the 8-knot tailwind.
C-4,200 feet.
4. From the point of intersection on the "wind" portion
1. Enter FAA Figure 13 at the bottom left-hand side at of the graph continue to the edge of the graph to find
+ W°C OAT and proceed upward to the line repre the ground rollrequired:2,200 feet.
senting 2,000 feet pressure altitude. 5. The V1 speed is found using the table in the upper
2. From the point of intersection on the "pressure alti right corner of FAA Figure 13. Interpolate between
tudes" lines, draw a horizontal line to the reference 16,000 and 14,000 to find 105 knots for 15,000
line, then parallel the line which represents an aircraft pounds.
weight of 16,600 pounds.
(PLT011) — FAA-H-8083-25
3. Continue past the second reference line to the third
reference line (since the wind is calm).
4. From the thirdreference line (0-foot obstacle height),
parallel the line required to clear a 50-foot obstacle.
5. The distance required is 3,700 feet.
(PLT011) — FAA-H-8083-25

Answers

9901 [B] 9902 [A]

4-58 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 4 Performance

DSP DSP
9903. (Refer to Figure 13.) Given the following condi 8469. (Refer to Figure 14.) Given the following condi
tions, what is the takeoff distance over a 50 foot obstacle? tions, what is the accelerate-stop field length?
Pressure altitude 6,000 ft Pressure altitude 5,000 ft
Temperature (OAT) +35°C Temperature (OAT) +20°C
Weight 14,500 lb Weight 15,000 lb
Wind component 10 kts HW Wind component 10 kts HW
Ice vanes Retracted Ice vanes Retracted
A-4,150 feet. A- 6,300 feet.
B- 4,550 feet. B- 4,700 feet.
C-2,600 feet. C-4,300 feet.

1. Enter FAA Figure 13 at the bottom left-hand side at 1. Enter FAA Figure 14 at the bottom left-hand side at
+35°C OATand proceed upward to the line repre +20°C OATand proceed upward to the line repre
senting 6,000 feet pressure altitude. senting 5,000 feet pressure altitude.
2. From the point of intersection on the "pressure alti 2. From the point of intersection on the "pressure alti
tude" lines, draw a horizontal line to the reference tude" lines, draw a horizontal line to the reference
line, then parallel the line which represents an aircraft line, then parallel the line which represents an aircraft
weight of 14,500 pounds. weight of 15,000 pounds.

3. From the point of intersection in the "weight"portion 3. From the point of intersection in the "weight"portion
of the graph, draw a horizontal line to the next refer of the graph, draw a horizontal line to the next refer
ence line (wind component), then parallel the line ence line (wind component), then parallel the line
until intersecting with the 10-knot headwind. until intersecting with the 10-knot headwind.
4. Proceed from the wind line to the edge of the chart
4. From the point of intersection on the "wind" portion to read the accelerate/stop distance of 4,300 feet.
of the graph draw a horizontal line to the next refer
ence line (0-foot obstacle height), then parallel the (PLT011) — FAA-H-8083-25
line required to clear a 50-foot obstacle.

5. The distance required is 4,150 feet.

(PLT011) — FAA-H-8083-25

Answers

9903 [A] 8469 [C]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 4-59

Chapter 4 Performance

DSP 3. From the point of intersection in the "weight"portion

8470. (Refer to Figure 14.) Given the following condi of the graph, draw a horizontal line to the next refer
tions, what is the accelerate-stop field length? ence line (wind component), then parallel the line
Pressure altitude 2,000 ft until intersecting with the 15-knot headwind.
Temperature (OAT) -15°C 4. Proceed from the wind line to the edge of the chart
Weight 16,000 lb to read the accelerate/stop distance of 4,950 feet.
Wind component 5 kts TW
(PLT011) — FAA-H-8083-25
Ice vanes Extended
A- 3,750 feet.
B- 4,600 feet. DSP
C-4,250 feet. 8472. (Refer to Figure 14.) Given the following condi
tions, what is the accelerate-stop field length?
/. Enter FAA Figure 14 at the bottom left-hand side at Pressure altitude 8,000 ft
-12°C OAT(adding 3°C to the actual OATforextended Temperature (OAT) -5°C
ice vanes) and proceed upward to the line represent Weight 14,000 lb
ing 2,000 feet pressure altitude. Wind component 4 ktsTW
2. From the point of intersection on the "pressure alti Ice vanes Extended
tude" lines, draw a horizontal line to the reference
A-4,500 feet.
line, then parallel the line which represents an aircraft B- 4,800 feet.
weight of 16,000 pounds.
C- 5,300 feet.
3. From the point of intersection in the "weight"portion
of the graph, draw a horizontal line to the next refer 1. Enter FAA Figure 14 at the bottom left-hand side at
ence line (wind component), then parallel the line -2°C OAT(adding 3°C to the actual OATforextended
until intersecting with the 5-knot tailwind. ice vanes) and proceed upward to the line represent
4. Proceed from the wind line to the edge of the chart ing 8,000 feet pressure altitude.
to read the accelerate/stop distance of 4,250 feet. 2. From the point of intersection on the "pressure alti
tude" lines, draw a horizontal line to the reference
(PLT011) — FAA-H-8083-25
line, then parallel the line which represents an aircraft
weight of 14,000 pounds.
DSP 3. From the point of intersection in the "weight"portion
8471. (Refer to Figure 14.) Given the following condi of the graph, draw a horizontal line to the next refer
tions, what is the accelerate-stop field length? ence line (wind component), then parallel the line
Pressure altitude 6,000 ft until intersecting with the 4-knot tailwind.
Temperature (OAT) +10°C 4. Proceed from the wind line to the edge of the chart
Weight 16,600 lb to read the accelerate/stop distance of 4,800 feet.
Wind component 15 kts HW
(PLT011) — FAA-H-8083-25
Ice vanes Retracted
A-4,950 feet.
B-4,800 feet. DSP
C- 5,300 feet. 8473. (Refer to Figure 14.) Given the following condi
tions, what is the accelerate-stop field length?
/. Enter FAA Figure 14 at the bottom left-hand side at
Pressure altitude Sea Level
+ 10°C OAT and proceed upward to the line repre Temperature (OAT) +30°C
senting 6,000 feet pressure altitude.
Weight 13,500 lb
2. From the point of intersection on the "pressure alti Wind component 14 kts HW
tude" lines, draw a horizontal line to the reference Ice vanes Retracted
line, then parallel the line which represents an aircraft
A-2,500 feet.
weight of 16,600 pounds.
B- 2,850 feet.
C- 3,050 feet.

Answers

8470 [C] 8471 [A] 8472 [B] 8473 [C]

4-60 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 4 Performance

1. Enter FAA Figure 14 at the bottom left-hand side at 1. Enter FAA Figure 17 at the bottom left-hand side at
+30°C OATand proceed upward to the line repre 0°C OATand proceed upward to the line represent
senting sea level (SL) pressure altitude. ing 1,000 feet pressure altitude.
2. From the point of intersection on the "pressure alti 2. From the point of intersection on the "pressure alti
tude" lines, draw a horizontal line to the reference tude" lines, draw a horizontal line to the reference
line, then parallel the line whichrepresents an aircraft line, then parallel the line which represents an aircraft
weight of 13,500 pounds. weight of 14,000 pounds.
3. From the point of intersection in the "weight"portion 3. From the point of intersection in the "weight"portion
of the graph, draw a horizontal line to the next refer of the graph, draw a horizontal line to the edge of
ence line (wind component), then parallel the line the chart to read 870 fpm.
until intersecting with the 14-knot headwind. 4. Adjust the rate of climb for the extended ice vanes, as
4. Proceed from the wind line to the edge of the chart indicated at the top of the graph. The single-engine
to read the accelerate/stop distance of 3,050 feet. rate of climb with ice vanes extended is 755 fpm
(PLT011) — FAA-H-8083-25 (870-115).
5. Find 755 fpm at the right edge of the chart and
proceed right to the reference line and determine a
DSP climb gradient of 5.6%.
8474. (Refer to Figures 15, 16, and 17.) What is the
two-engine rate of climb after takeoff in climb configura (PLT004) — FAA-H-8083-25
tion for Operating Conditions BE-21 ?
A-1,350 ft/min. DSP
B-2,450 ft/min. 8476. (Refer to Figures 15, 16, and 17.) What is the
C-2,300 ft/min. two-engine rate of climb after takeoff in climb configura
tion for Operating Conditions BE-23?
1. Enter FAA Figure 16 at the bottom left-hand side at
A-1,500 ft/min.
+10°C OATand proceed upward to the line repre
B- 2,600 ft/min.
senting 2,000 feet pressure altitude.
C-2,490 ft/min.
2. From the point of intersection on the "pressure alti
tude" lines, draw a horizontal line to the reference 1. Enter FAA Figure 16 at the bottom left-hand side at
line, then parallel the line which represents an aircraft +20°C OAT and proceed upward to the line repre
weight of 16,600 pounds. senting 3,000 feet pressure altitude.
3. From the point of intersection in the "weight"portion 2. From the point of intersection on the "pressure alti
of the graph, draw a horizontal line to the edge of tude" lines, draw a horizontal line to the reference
the chart to read 2,300 fpm. line, then parallel the line which represents an aircraft
(PLT004) — FAA-H-8083-25 weight of 15,000 pounds.
3. From the point of intersection in the "weight"portion
of the graph, draw a horizontal line to the edge of
DSP the chart to read2,600 fpm.
8475. (Refer to Figures 15, 16, and 17.) What is the
(PLT004) — FAA-H-8083-25
single-engine climb gradient after takeoff in climb con
figuration for Operating Conditions BE-22?
A— 6.8 percent gradient.
B— 7.5 percent gradient.
C—5.6 percent gradient.

Answers

8474 [C] 8475 [C] 8476 [B]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 4-61

Chapter 4 Performance

DSP DSP

8477. (Refer to Figures 15, 16, and 17.) What is the 9904. (Refer to Figures 15 and 18.) What are the time,
two-engine rate of climb after takeoff in climb configura fuel, and distance from the start of climb to cruise altitude
tion for Operating Conditions BE-24? for Operating Conditions BE-21 ?
A- 2,100 ft/min. A— 10.0 minutes; 290 pounds; 35 NM.
B- 2,400 ft/min. B—10.0 minutes; 165 pounds; 30 NM.
C-1,500 ft/min. C—11.5 minutes; 165 pounds; 30 NM.

1. Enter FAA Figure 16 at the bottom left-hand side at 1. Enter FAA Figure 18 at the bottom left-hand side at
+25°C OAT and proceed upward to the line repre -20°C OATand proceed upward to the line repre
senting 4,000 feet pressure altitude. senting 16,000-foot cruise altitude.
2. From the point of intersection on the "pressure alti 2. From the point of intersection on the "pressure alti
tude" lines, draw a horizontal line to the reference tude" lines, draw a horizontal line to the line which
line, then parallel the line whichrepresents an aircraft represents an aircraft weight of 16,600 pounds.
weight of 16,000 pounds.
3. From the point of intersection in the "weight"portion
3. From the point of intersection in the "weight"portion of the graph, draw a line down to the bottom of the
of the graph, draw a horizontal line to the edge of chart to read the time to climb of 11.5 minutes.
the chart to read 2,100 fpm.
4. Continue down to the fuel to climb line to read 190
(PLT004) — FAA-H-8083-25 pounds fuel burned.
5. Continue down to the distance-to-climb line to read
DSP 32 NM.
8478. (Refer to Figures 15, 16, and 17.) What is the 6. Repeat steps 1 through 5 using an OAT of +10°C
single-engine rate of climb after takeoff in climb con OATand 2,000 feet pressure altitude, and find the
figuration for Operating Conditions BE-25? time to climb 1.5 minutes, fuel burn 25 pounds, and
A-385 ft/min. distance 2 NM.
B- 780 ft/min. 7. Subtract the results of the airport altitudes from the
C-665 ft/min. cruise altitude results. Therefore, from 2,000 feet to
16,000 feet, it will take 10 minutes (11.5 - 1.5), 165
1. Enter FAA Figure 17 at the bottom left-hand side at pounds of fuel (190 - 25), and 30 NM (32 - 2).
-10°C OAT and proceed upward to the line repre
senting 5,000 feet pressure altitude. (PLT012) — FAA-H-8083-25
2. From the point of intersection on the "pressure alti
tude" lines, draw a horizontal line to the reference DSP
line, then parallel the line which represents an aircraft 9905. (Refer to Figures 15 and 18.) What are the time,
weight of 14,000 pounds. fuel, and distance from the start of climb to cruise altitude
3. From the point of intersection in the "weight"portion for Operating Conditions BE-22?
of the graph, draw a horizontal line to the edge of A— 12.0 minutes; 220 pounds; 40 NM.
the chart to read 780 fpm. B— 11.0 minutes; 185 pounds; 37 NM.
4. Adjust the rate of climb for the extended ice vanes, as C—10.5 minutes; 175 pounds; 32 NM.
indicated at the top of the graph. The single-engine
rate-of-climb with ice vanes extended is 665 fpm 1. Enter FAA Figure 18 at the bottom left-hand side at
(780 - 115). -W°C OAT(accounting for the extended ice vanes)
and proceed upward to the line representing 18,000-
(PLT004) — FAA-H-8083-25 foot cruise altitude.
2. From the point of intersection on the "pressure alti
tude" lines, draw a horizontal line to the line which
represents an aircraft weight of 14,000 pounds.
3. From the point of intersection in the "weight"portion
of the graph, draw a line down to the bottom of the
chart to read the time to climb of 12 minutes.

Answers

8477 [A] 8478 [C] 9904 [B] 9905 [B]

4-62 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 4 Performance

4. Continue down to the fuel-to-climb line to read 200 DSP

pounds fuel burned. 8482. (Refer to Figures 15 and 18.) What are the time,
fuel, and distance from the start of climb to cruise altitude
5. Continue down to the distance-to-climb line to read
for Operating Conditions BE-24?
37.5 NM.
A- 12.0 minutes; 220 pounds; 45 NM.
6. Repeat steps 1 through 5 using an OATof +10°C
B— 9.0 minutes; 185 pounds; 38 NM.
OAT and 1,000 feet pressure altitude, and find the
C— 10.0 minutes; 170 pounds; 30 NM.
time to climb 1 minute, fuel burn 15 pounds, and
distance 0.5 NM. 1. Enter FAA Figure 18 at the bottom left-hand side at
7. Subtract the results of the airport altitudes from the 0°C OATand proceed upward to the line represent
cruise altitude results. Therefore, from 1,000 feet ing 14,000-foot cruise altitude.
to 18,000 feet, it will take 11 minutes (12 - 1), 185 2. From the point of intersection on the "pressure alti
pounds of fuel (200 - 15), and 37 NM (37.5 - 0.5). tude" lines, draw a horizontal line to the line which
(PLT012) — FAA-H-8083-25 represents an aircraft weight of 16,000 pounds.
3. From the point of intersection in the "weight"portion
of the graph, draw a line down to the bottom of the
DSP
chart to read the time to climb of 13 minutes.
9906. (Refer to Figures 15 and 18.) What are the time,
fuel, and distance from the start of climb to cruise altitude 4. Continue down to the fuel-to-climb line to read 210
for Operating Conditions BE-23? pounds fuel burned.
A— 13.0 minutes; 180 pounds; 35 NM. 5. Continue down to the distance-to-climb line to read
B— 14.0 minutes; 210 pounds; 40 NM. 38 NM.
C—15.0 minutes; 240 pounds; 46 NM. 6. Repeat steps 1 through 5 using an OAT of +25°C
OATand 4,000 feet pressure altitude, and find the
7. Enter FAA Figure 18 at the bottom left-hand side at time to climb 3 minutes, fuel burn 60 pounds, and
ISA and proceed upward to the line representing distance 8 NM.
20,000-foot cruise altitude.
7. Subtract the results of the airport altitudes from the
2. From the point of intersection on the "pressure alti cruise altitude results. Therefore, from 4,000 feet
tude" lines, draw a horizontal line to the line which to 14,000 feet, it will take 10 minutes (13-3), 150
represents an aircraft weight of 15,000 pounds. pounds of fuel (210-60), and 30 NM (38-8).
3. From the point of intersection in the "weight"portion (PLT004) — FAA-H-8083-25
of the graph, draw a line down to the bottom of the
chart to read the time to climb of 15 minutes.
4. Continue down to the fuel-to-climb line to read 235 DSP

pounds fuel burned. 8483. (Refer to Figures 15 and 18.) What are the time,
fuel, and distance from the start of climb to cruise altitude
5. Continue down to the distance-to-climb line to read
for Operating Conditions BE-25?
44 NM.
A— 11.5 minutes; 170 pounds; 31 NM.
6. Repeat steps 1 through 5 using an OAT of +20°C B— 8.0 minutes; 270 pounds; 28 NM.
OATand 3,000 feet pressure altitude, and find the C—12.5 minutes; 195 pounds; 38 NM.
time to climb 1 minutes, fuel burn 25 pounds, and
distance 4 NM. 1. Enter FAA Figure 18 at the bottom left-hand side at
7. Subtract the results of the airport altitudes from the -30°C OAT (accounting for the extended ice vanes)
cruise altitude results. Therefore, from 3,000 feet and proceed upwardto the line representing 22,000-
to 20,000 feet, it will take 14 minutes (15-1), 210 foot cruise altitude.
pounds of fuel (235-25), and 40 NM (44-4). 2. From the point of intersection on the "pressure alti
(PLT012) — FAA-H-8083-25 tude" lines, draw a horizontal line to the line which
represents an aircraft weightof 14,000 pounds.
3. From the pointof intersection in the "weight"portion
of the graph, draw a line down to the bottom of the
chart to read the time to climb of 14.5 minutes.
Continued

Answers

9906 [B] 8482 [C] 8483 [C]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 4-63

Chapter 4 Performance

4. Continue down to the fuel-to-climb line to read 235 DSP

pounds fuel burned. 8486. (Refer to Figures 19 and 20.) At what altitude
is the service ceiling with one engine inoperative for
5. Continue down to the distance-to-climb line to read
44 NM.
Operating Conditions BE-28?
A- 1,500 feet above the MEA.
6. Repeat steps 1 through 5 using an OATof 0°C OAT
B-10,400 feet.
and 5,000 feet pressure altitude, and find the time to
C-11,800 feet.
climb 2 minutes, fuel burn 40 pounds, and distance
6NM.
7. Enter FAA Figure 20 at the bottom right-hand side
7. Subtract the results of the airport altitudes from the (forbleed air off) at +5°C OAT and proceed upward
cruise altitude results. Therefore, from 5,000 feet to to the line representing 16,000 pounds.
22,000 feet, it will take 12.5 minutes (14.5 - 2), 195
2. From the point of intersection in the "weight"portion
pounds of fuel (235 - 40), and 38 NM (44 - 6).
of the graph, draw a line to the edge of the chart
(PLT012) — FAA-H-8083-25 to determine a pressure altitude service ceiling of
11,800 feet with one engine inoperative.
DSP
3. 11,800 feet is 2,800 feet above the 9,000-foot MEA.
8484. (Refer to Figures 19 and 20.) At what altitude (PLT065) — FAA-H-8083-25
is the service ceiling with one engine inoperative for
Operating Conditions BE-26?
DSP
A-13,000 feet.
8487. (Refer to Figures 19 and 20.) Which statement is
B-14,200 feet.
true regarding performance with one engine inoperative
C-13,600 feet.
for Operating Conditions BE-29?
1. EnterFAA Figure20 at the bottom left-handside (for A—Service ceiling is more than 100 feet above the
bleed airon) at -8°C OATand proceed upwardto the MEA.
line representing 15,500 pounds. B— Bleed air must be OFF to obtain a rate of climb of
50 ft/min at the MEA.
2. From the point of intersection in the "weight"portion
of the graph, draw a line to the edge of the chart C—Climb is not possible at the MEA.
to determine a pressure altitude service ceiling of
7. EnterFAA Figure 20 at the bottomleft-hand side (for
13,000 feet with one engine inoperative.
bleed air on) at + 18°C OAT and proceed upward to
(PLT065) — FAA-H-8083-25 the line representing 16,300 pounds.
2. From the point of intersectionin the "weight"portion
DSP of the graph, draw a line to the edge of the chart to
8485. (Refer to Figures 19 and 20.) Which statement is determine a pressure altitude service ceilingof 7,700
true regarding performance with one engine inoperative feet withone engine inoperative.
for Operating Conditions BE-27? 3. Therefore, the 7,700-foot service ceiling is above the
A— Climb rate at the MEA is more than 50 ft/min. MEA of 7,000 feet by more than 100 feet.
B— Service ceiling is below the MEA. (PLT065) — FAA-H-8083-25
C—Bleed air OFF improves service ceiling by 3,000 feet.

7. Enter FAA Figure 20 at the bottom left-hand side (for DSP

bleed air on) at +30°C OAT and proceed upward to 8488. (Refer to Figures 19 and 20.) At what altitude
the line representing 16,600 pounds. is the service ceiling with one engine inoperative for
2. From the point of intersectionin the "weight"portion Operating Conditions BE-30?
of the graph, drawa line to the edge of the chart to A- 9,600 feet.
determinea pressure altitude service ceilingof 5,000 B- 13,200 feet.
feet with one engine inoperative. C-2,100 feet above the MEA.
3. Therefore, the 5,000-foot service ceilingis below the
MEA of 5,500 feet.
(PLT065) — FAA-H-8083-25

Answers

8484 [A] 8485 [B] 8486 [C] 8487 [A] 8488 [C]

4-64 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 4 Performance

7. Enter FAA Figure 20 at the bottom right-hand side Temperature = ISA -10°C
(forbleed air off) at +22°C OATand proceed upward TAS = 256.5 knots
to the line representing 14,500 pounds. GS = 225.2 knots
Time = 1 hour 46 minutes 33 seconds
2. From the point of intersection in the "weight"portion
of the graph, draw a line to the edge of the chart (PLT012) — FAA-H-8083-25
to determine a pressure altitude service ceiling of
11,600 feet with one engine inoperative.
DSP
3. Therefore, the 11,600-foot service ceiling is above 8492. (Refer to Figures 21, 22,23,24, and 25.) What is
the MEA of 9,500 feet. the en route time of the cruise leg for Operating Condi
(PLT065) — FAA-H-8083-25 tions BE-34?
A— 1 hour 7 minutes.
B— 1 hour 2 minutes.
DSP
C—1 hour 12 minutes.
8489. (Refer to Figures 21, 22, 23, 24, and 25.) What is
the en route time of the cruise leg for Operating Condi
Temperature = ISA
tions BE-31?
TAS = 228 knots
A—1 hour 11 minutes. GS = 208 knots
B—1 hour 17 minutes. Time = 1 hour 06 minutes 15 seconds
C—1 hour 19 minutes.
(PLT012) — FAA-H-8083-25
Temperature = ISA +10°C
TAS = 228 knots
DSP
GS = 216.0 knots 8493. (Refer to Figures 21, 22,23,24, and 25.) What is
Time = 1 hour 17 minutes 47 seconds the en route time of the cruise leg for Operating Condi
(PLT012) — FAA-H-8083-25 tions BE-35?
A— 1 hour 6 minutes.
B— 1 hour 8 minutes.
DSP
C—1 hour 10 minutes.
8490. (Refer to Figures 21, 22, 23,24, and 25.) What is
the en route time of the cruise leg for Operating Condi
Temperature = ISA +10°C
tions BE-32?
TAS = 253 knots
A—1 hour 13 minutes. GS = 252.4 knots
B—1 hour 15 minutes. Time = 1 hour 11 minutes 19 seconds
C—1 hour 20 minutes.
(PLT012) — FAA-H-8083-25
Temperature = -19°C
TAS = 252 knots DSP
GS = 261.8 knots 8494. (Refer to Figures 21,22, 23,24, and 25.) What is
Time = 1 hour 13 minutes 20 seconds the fuel consumption during the cruise leg for Operating
(PLT012) — FAA-H-8083-25 Conditions BE-31?
A—812 pounds.
B— 749 pounds.
DSP
C—870 pounds.
8491. (Refer to Figures 21, 22, 23,24, and 25.) What is
the en route time of the cruise leg for Operating Condi
Temperature = ISA +10°C
tions BE-33?
Time = 1 hour 17 minutes (see Question 8489)
A— 1 hour 50 minutes. Fuel flow = 633
B— 1 hour 36 minutes. Fuel burn = 812.3 pounds
C— 1 hour 46 minutes.
(PLT012) — FAA-H-8083-25

Answers

8489 [B] 8490 [A] 8491 [C] 8492 [A] 8493 [C] 8494 [A]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 4-65

Chapter 4 Performance

DSP DSP
8495. (Refer to Figures 21, 22,23,24, and 25.) What is 8498. (Refer to Figures 21, 23, 24, and 25.) What is
the fuel consumption during the cruise leg for Operating the fuel consumption during the cruise leg for Operating
Conditions BE-32? Conditions BE-35?
A- 1,028 pounds. A—900 pounds.
B—896 pounds. B- 1,030 pounds.
C—977 pounds. C—954 pounds.

Temperature = ISA Temperature = ISA +10°C

Time = 1 hour 13 minutes (see Question 8490) Time = 1 hour 10 minutes (see Question 8493)
Fuel flow = 803 Fuel flow = 818
Fuel burn = 977.0 pounds Fuel burn = 954.3 pounds
(PLT012) — FAA-H-8083-25 (PLT012) — FAA-H-8083-25

DSP DSP
8496. (Refer to Figures 21, 22, 23, 24, and 25.) What is 8499. (Refer to Figure 26.) What are the time and
the fuel consumption during the cruise leg for Operating distance to descend from 18,000 feet to 2,500 feet?
Conditions BE-33?
A-10.3 minutes, 39 NM.
A—1,165 pounds. B- 9.8 minutes, 33 NM.
B— 1,373 pounds. C-10.0 minutes, 36 NM.
C-976 pounds.
EnterFAA Figure26 from initial pressure altitudeon the
Temperature = ISA -10°C left side of the graph. Proceed to heavy reference line,
Time = 1 hour 46 minutes (see Question 8491) then drop to minutes, pounds and/or distance scales
Fuel flow = 777 as needed. Repeat this process with the final altitude.
Fuel burn = 1,372.7 pounds
Time NM
(PLT012) — FAA-H-8083-25
Descent to SL 12.0 45
Field alt. - 7.5 -5
DSP Descent 10.5 40
8497. (Refer to Figures 21, 22, 23, 24, and 25.) What is (PLT012) — FAA-H-8083-25
the fuel consumption during the cruise leg for Operating
Conditions BE-34?
DSP
A— 668 pounds.
B-718 pounds. 8500. (Refer to Figure 26.) What are the distance and
C—737 pounds. fuel consumption to descend from 22,000 feet to 4,500
feet?
Temperature = ISA A—44 NAM, 117 pounds.
Time = 1 hour 06 minutes (see Question 8492) B-48 NAM, 112 pounds.
Fuel flow = 653 C-56 NAM, 125 pounds.
Fuel burn = 718.3 pounds
(PLT012) — FAA-H-8083-25 EnterFAA Figure26 from initial pressure altitudeon the
leftside of the graph. Proceed to heavy reference line,
then drop to minutes, pounds and/or distance scales
as needed. Repeat this process with the final altitude.
NM Fuel
Descent to SL 58 142
Field alt. - 70 -30
Descent 48 112

(PLT012) — FAA-H-8083-25

Answers

8495 [C] 8496 [B] 8497 [B] 8498 [C] 8499 [A] 8500 [B]

4-66 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 4 Performance

DSP Enter FAA Figure 26 from initial pressure altitude on the

8501. (Refer to Figure 26.) What are the time and left side of the graph. Proceed to heavy reference line,
distance to descend from 16,500 feet to 3,500 feet? then drop to minutes, pounds and/or distance scales
A— 9.3 minutes, 37 NAM. as needed. Repeat this process with the final altitude.
B—9.1 minutes, 35 NAM. Time NM
C-8.7 minutes, 33 NAM.
Descent to SL 15.4 62
Field alt. -.5 -2
EnterFAA Figure26 from initial pressure altitude on the
left side of the graph. Proceed to heavy reference line, Descent 14.9 60
then drop to minutes, pounds and/or distance scales Note: The answers are in NM so no wind correction is
as needed. Repeat this process with the final altitude. necessary.
Time NM (PLT045) — FAA-H-8083-25
Descent to SL 11.1 41
Field alt. -2.4 zl DSP
Descent 8.7 33
8504. (Refer to Figures 27 and 28.) What is the landing
(PLT045) — FAA-H-8083-25 distance over a 50-foot obstacle for Operating Condi
tions B-36?

A- 1,900 feet.
DSP
B-1,625 feet.
8502. (Refer to Figure 26.) What are the distance and
C-950 feet.
fuel consumption to descend from 13,500 feet to 1,500
feet?
7. Enter FAA Figure 28 at the bottom left-hand side at
A— 30 NAM, 87 pounds. +30°C OAT and proceed upward to the line repre
B—29 NAM, 80 pounds. senting sea level (SL) pressure altitude.
C-38 NAM, 100 pounds. 2. From the point of intersection on the "pressure alti
tude" lines, draw a horizontal line to the reference
EnterFAA Figure26 from initial pressure altitudeon the
line, thenparallel the line which represents an aircraft
left side of the graph. Proceed to heavy reference line,
weight of 16,000 pounds.
then drop to minutes, pounds and/or distance scales
as needed. Repeat this process with the final altitude. 3. From the point of intersection in the "weight"portion
of the graph, drawa horizontal line to the next refer
NM Fuel
ence line (wind component), then parallel the line
Descent to SL 32.5 90 untilintersecting with the 20-knot headwind.
Field alt. -3.5 -10
4. From the point of intersection on the "wind" portion
Descent 29 80
of the graph draw a horizontal line to the next refer
(PLT045) — FAA-H-8083-25 ence line (0-foot obstacle height), then parallel the
line required to clear a 50-foot obstacle.
5. The distance required is 1,900 feet.
DSP
8503. (Refer to Figure 26.) What are the time and dis (PLT008) — FAA-H-8083-25
tance to descend from 23,000 feet to 600 feet with an
average 15-knot headwind?
A—14.2 minutes, 50 NAM.
B— 14.6 minutes, 56 NAM.
C-14.9 minutes, 59 NAM.

Answers

8501 [C] 8502 [B] 8503 [C] 8504 [A]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 4-67

Chapter 4 Performance

DSP 4. From the point of intersection on the "wind" portion

9907. (Refer to Figures 27 and 28.) What are the of the graph draw a horizontal line to the next refer
approach speed and ground roll when landing under ence line (0-foot obstacle height), then parallel the
Operating Conditions B-36? line required to clear a 50-foot obstacle.
A— 113 knots and 950 feet. 5. The distance required is 2,500 feet.
B— 113 knots and 1,950 feet.
C-112 knots and 900 feet.
6. The remaining runway length when stopped is the
runway distance minus the distance required, which
7. Enter FAA Figure 28 at the bottom left-hand side at is 2,000 feet (4,500 - 2,500).
+30°C OAT and proceed upward to the line repre (PLT008) — FAA-H-8083-25
senting sea level (SL) pressure altitude.
2. From the point of intersection on the "pressure alti
DSP
tude" lines, draw a horizontal line to the reference
9909. (Refer to Figures 27 and 28.) What are the
line, then parallel the line whichrepresents an aircraft
approach speed and ground roll when landing under
weight of 16,000 pounds.
Operating Conditions B-37?
3. From the point of intersection in the "weight"portion
A— 108 knots and 1,400 feet.
of the graph, draw a horizontal line to the next refer
B- 109 knots and 900 feet.
ence line (wind component), then parallel the line
C-107 knots and 1,350 feet.
until intersecting with the 20-knot headwind.
4. From the point of intersection on the "wind" portion 7. Enter FAA Figure 28 at the bottom left-hand side at
of the graph drawa horizontalline to the edge of the + 16°C OAT and proceed upward to the line repre
chart to find a ground roll of 950 feet. senting 1,000 feet pressure altitude.
5. The approach speed is found using the table at the 2. From the point of intersection on the "pressure alti
top of figure. Interpolate between 16,100 and 14,000 tude" lines, draw a horizontal line to the reference
to find the approach speed for 16,000 pounds at 113 line, then parallelthe line whichrepresents an aircraft
knots. weight of 14,500 pounds.
(PLT008) — FAA-H-8083-25 3. From thepointof intersection in the "weight"portion
of the graph, draw a horizontal line to the next refer
ence line (wind component), then parallel the line
DSP
until intersecting with the 10-knot tailwind.
9908. (Refer to Figures 27 and 28.) What is the remain
ing runway length when stopped after landing over a 4. From the point of intersection on the "wind" portion
50-foot obstacle for Operating Conditions B-37? of the graphdraw a horizontal line to the edge of the
chart to find a ground roll of 1,400 feet.
A- 2,500 feet.
B- 2,000 feet. 5. The approach speed is found using the table at the
C- 2,600 feet. top of figure. Interpolate between 16,100 and 14,000
to findthe approach speed for 14,500 pounds at 108
7. Enter FAA Figure 28 at the bottom left-hand side at knots.
+16°C OAT and proceed upward to the line repre (PLT008) — FAA-H-8083-25
senting 1,000 feet pressure altitude.
2. From the point of intersection on the "pressure alti
tude" lines, draw a horizontal line to the reference
line, thenparallelthe line which represents an aircraft
weight of 14,500 pounds.
From the pointof intersection in the "weight"portion
of the graph, draw a horizontal line to the next refer
ence line (wind component), then parallel the line
until intersecting with the 10-knot tailwind.

Answers

9907 [A] 9908 [B] 9909 [A]

4-68 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 4 Performance

DSP 5. The totalrunwayused is the distance from the thresh

9910. (Refer to Figures 27 and 28.) What is the landing old of the runway to the touchdown point, plus the
distance over a 50-foot obstacle for Operating Condi ground roll distance, whichis 1,800feet(1,000+ 800).
tions B-38?
(PLT008) — FAA-H-8083-25
A- 1,850 feet.
B-1,700 feet.
C-1,800 feet. DSP
9912. (Refer to Figures 27 and 28.) What is the remain
7. Enter FAA Figure 28 at the bottom left-hand side at ing runway length when stopped after landing over a
0°C OATand proceed upward to the line represent 50-foot obstacle for Operating Conditions B-39?
ing 2,000 feet pressure altitude. A- 2,300 feet.
2. From the point of intersection on the "pressure alti B- 2,400 feet.
tude" lines, draw a horizontal line to the reference C-2,500 feet.
line, thenparallel the line which represents an aircraft
weight of 13,500 pounds. 7. Enter FAA Figure 28 at the bottom left-hand side at
+20°C OATand proceed upward to the line repre
From the point of intersection in the "weight"portion
senting 4,000 feet pressure altitude.
of the graph, drawa horizontal line to the next refer
ence line (wind component), then parallel the line 2. From the point of intersection on the "pressure alti
untilintersecting with the 15-knot headwind. tude" lines, draw a horizontal line to the reference
line, thenparallel theline which represents an aircraft
4. From the point of intersection on the "wind" portion
weight of 15,000 pounds.
of the graph draw a horizontal line to the next refer
ence line (0-foot obstacle height), then parallel the 3. From the point of intersectionin the "weight"portion
line required to clear a 50-foot obstacle. of the graph, drawa horizontal line to the next refer
ence line (wind component), then parallel the line
5. The distance required is 1,700 feet.
untilintersecting with the 5-knot tailwind.
(PLT008) — FAA-H-8083-25 4. From the point of intersection on the "wind" portion
of the graph draw a horizontal line to the next refer
DSP
ence line (0-foot obstacle height), then parallel the
9911. (Refer to Figures 27 and 28.) What is the total line required to clear a 50-foot obstacle, which is
runway used when touchdown is at the 1,000 foot marker 2,500 feet.
for Operating Conditions B-38? 5. The remaining runway length when stopped is the
A- 2,000 feet.
runway length minus the landing distance, which is
B- 1,700 feet.
2,500 feet (5,000 - 2,500).
C-1,800 feet. (PLT008) — FAA-H-8083-25

7. EnterFAA Figure 28 at the bottom left-handside at

0°C OATand proceed upward to the line represent DSP
ing 2,000 feet pressure altitude. 9913. (Refer to Figures 27 and 28.) What are the
2. From the point of intersection on the "pressure alti
approach speed and ground roll when landing under
tude" lines, draw a horizontal line to the reference
Operating Conditions B-39?
line, thenparallel thelinewhich representsan aircraft A- 111 knots and 1,550 feet.
weight of 13,500 pounds. B- 110 knots and 1,400 feet.
C-109 knots and 1,300 feet.
3. From the point of intersectionin the "weight"portion
of thegraph, draw a horizontal lineto the nextrefer 7. Enter FAA Figure 28 at the bottom left-hand side at
ence line (wind component), then parallel the line +20°C OAT and proceed upward to the line repre
until intersecting with the 15-knotheadwind. senting 4,000 feet pressure altitude.
4. From the point of intersection on the "wind" portion 2. From the point of intersection on the "pressure alti
of thegraph draw a horizontal lineto theedge of the tude" lines, draw a horizontal line to the reference
chart to find the groundroll distance is 800 feet. line, then parallel theline which represents anaircraft
weight of 15,000 pounds.
Continued

Answers

9910 [B] 9911 [C] 9912 [C] 9913 [B]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 4-69

Chapter 4 Performance

3. From the point of intersection in the "weight"portion 7. Enter FAA Figure 28 at the ISA line and proceed to
of the graph, draw a horizontal line to the next refer the line representing 5,000 feet pressure altitude.
ence line (wind component), then parallel the line
2. From the point of intersection on the "pressure alti
until intersecting with the 5-knot tailwind.
tude" lines, draw a horizontal line to the reference
4. From the point of intersection on the "wind" portion line, then parallel the line whichrepresents an aircraft
of the graph drawa horizontal line to the edge of the weight of 12,500 pounds.
chart to find a ground roll of 1,400 feet.
3. From the pointof intersectionin the "weight'portion
5. The approach speed is found using the table at the of the graph, draw a horizontal line to the next refer
top of figure. Interpolate between 16,100 and 14,000 ence line (wind component), then parallel the line
to findthe approach speed for 15,000 pounds at 110 until intersecting with the 25-knot headwind.
knots.
4. From the point of intersection on the "wind" portion
(PLT008) — FAA-H-8083-25 of the graph draw a horizontal line to the next refer
ence line (0-foot obstacle height), then parallel the
line required to clear a 50-foot obstacle, which is
DSP
1,650 feet.
9914. (Refer to Figures 27 and 28.) What is the landing
distance over a 50-foot obstacle for Operating Condi (PLT008) — FAA-H-8083-25
tions B-40?
A-1,500 feet.
B- 1,750 feet.
C-1,650 feet.

Helicopter Performance
RTC RTC
8533. (Refer to Figure 36.) Given the following condi 8534. (Refer to Figure 36.) Given the following condi
tions, what is the maximum allowable measured gas tions, what is the maximum allowable measured gas
temperature (MGT) during the power assurance check? temperature (MGT) during the power assurance check?
Engine torque 57 percent Engine torque 49 percent
Pressure altitude 2,500 ft Pressure altitude 5,500 ft
Temperature (OAT) +5°C Temperature (OAT) +25°C
A-810°C. A- 870°C.
B-815°C. B-855°C.
C-828°C. C-880°C.

Follow the example in the inset, upper left corner of Follow the example in the inset, upperleft corner FAA
FAA Figure 36. Begin at 57% torque, drawa line with a Figure 36. Begin at 49% torque, draw a line with a
straight-edgeparallel to the bold line through pressure straight-edge parallel to the bold line through pressure
altitude. From the point where your line intersects with altitude. From the point where your line intersects with
2,500 feet, draw a second line through the OAT lines. 5,500 feet, draw a second line through the OAT lines.
From the intersectionof thatline and +5°C OAT, drawa From the intersection of thatline and +25°C OAT, draw
perpendicular line to maximum allowable MGT.Read the a perpendicular line to maximum allowable MGT. Read
correct answer of 828°C (PLT009) — FAA-H-8083-21 thecorrect answer of870°C (PLT009) —FAA-H-8083-21

Answers
9914 [C] 8533 [C] 8534 [A]

4-70 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 4 Performance

RTC Follow the example in the inset, upper left corner FAA
8535. (Refer to Figure 36.) Given the following condi Figure 36. Begin at 52% torque, draw a line with a
tions, what is the maximum allowable measured gas straight-edge parallel to the bold line through pressure
temperature (MGT) during the power assurance check? altitude. From the point where your line intersects with
Engine torque 54 percent 1,500 feet, draw a second line through the OATlines.
Pressure altitude 500 ft From the intersection of that line and +35°C OAT, draw
Temperature (OAT) +25°C a perpendicularline to maximum allowable MGT. Read
the correct answer of865°C (PLT009)— FAA-H-8083-21
A- 840°C.
B-830°C.
C-820°C. RTC
8538. (Refer to Figure 37.) What is the maximum gross
Follow the example in the inset, upper left corner FAA weight for hovering in ground effect at 3,000 feet pres
Figure 36. Begin at 54%> torque, draw a line with a sure altitude and +25°C?
straight-edge parallel to the bold line through pressure
altitude. From the point where your line intersects with A—17,300 pounds.
500 feet, draw a second line through the OAT lines. B—14,700 pounds.
From the intersection of that line and +25°C OAT, draw C—16,600 pounds.
a perpendicularline to maximum allowable MGT. Read
To determine the maximum gross weight, begin in the
the correctanswer of 840°C (PLT009) — FAA-H-8083-21
lower left corner of FAA Figure 37 at +25°C OAT. With
a straight-edge, drawa line vertically to intersect 3,000
RTC
feet pressure altitude. Draw a second perpendicular
8536. (Refer to Figure 36.) Given the following condi line from thatpoint to the right to intersect +25°C OAT.
tions, what is the maximum allowable measured gas Draw a thirdline from this intersection vertically to gross
temperature (MGT) during the power assurance check? weight. Read the correct answer of 17,300 pounds.
(PLT048) — FAA-H-8083-21
Engine torque 43 percent
Pressure altitude 9,000 ft
Temperature (OAT) -15°C RTC

A-782°C. 8539. (Refer to Figure 37.) What is the maximum gross

B- 768°C. weight for hovering in ground effect at 6,000 feet pres
C-750°C. sure altitude and+15°C?
A—17,200 pounds.
Followthe example in the inset, upper left corner FAA B—16,600 pounds.
Figure 36. Begin at 43% torque, draw a line with a C—14,200 pounds.
straight-edge parallel to the bold line through pressure
altitude. From the point where your line intersects with To determine the maximum gross weight, begin in the
9,000 feet, draw a second line through the OAT lines. lower left corner of FAA Figure 37 at +15°C OAT. With
From the intersection of that line and -15°C OAT, draw a a straight-edge, drawa line vertically to intersect 6,000
perpendicular line tomaximum allowable MGT. Readthe feet pressure altitude. Draw a second perpendicular
correct answer of 768°C (PLT009) — FAA-H-8083-21 line from thatpoint to the right to intersect+15°C OAT.
Draw a thirdline from this intersection vertically to gross
weight. Read the correct answer of 16,600 pounds.
RTC (PLT048) — FAA-H-8083-21
8537. (Refer to Figure 36.) Given the following condi
tions, what is the maximum allowable measured gas
temperature (MGT) during the powerassurance check?
Engine torque 52 percent
Pressure altitude 1,500 ft
Temperature (OAT) +35°C
A- 880°C.
B-865°C.
C-872°C.

Answers

8535 [A] 8536 [B] 8537 [B] 8538 [A] 8539 [B]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 4-71

 Chapter 4 Performance

RTC RTC
8540. (Refer to Figure 37.) What is the maximum gross 8543. (Refer to Figure 38.) What is the maximum gross
weight for hovering in ground effect at 7,000 feet pres weight for hovering out of ground effect at 3,000 feet
sure altitude and +35°C? pressure altitude and +30°C?
A-13,500 pounds. A—17,500 pounds.
B-14,700 pounds. B—14,300 pounds.
C-12,100 pounds. C—13,400 pounds.

To determine the maximum gross weight, begin in the To determine the maximum gross weight, begin in the
lower left corner of FAA Figure 37 at +35°C OAT. With lower left corner of FAA Figure 38 at +30°C OAT. With
a straight-edge, drawa line vertically to intersect 7,000 a straight-edge, draw a line verticallyto intersect 3,000
feet pressure altitude. Draw a second perpendicular feet pressure altitude. Draw a second perpendicular
line from thatpoint to the right to intersect +35°C OAT. line from that point to the right to intersect +30°C OAT.
Draw a third linefrom thisintersection vertically togross Drawa third line from thisintersection vertically togross
weight. Read the correct answer of 13,500 pounds. weight. Read the correct answer of 14,300 pounds.
(PLT048) — FAA-H-8083-21 (PLT048) — FAA-H-8083-21

RTC RTC
8541. (Refer to Figure 37.) What is the maximumgross 8544. (Refer to Figure 38.) What is the maximum gross
weight for hovering in ground effect at 4,500 feet pres weight for hovering out of ground effect at 6,000 feet
sure altitude and +20°C? pressure altitude and +15°C?
A—14,500 pounds. A—16,800 pounds.
B-16,500 pounds. B—13,500 pounds.
C-17,000 pounds. C-14,400 pounds.

To determine the maximum gross weight, begin in the To determine the maximum gross weight, begin in the
lower left corner of FAA Figure 37 at +20°C OAT. With lower left corner of FAA Figure 38 at+15°C OAT. With
a straight-edge, drawa line vertically to intersect 4,500 a straight-edge, draw a line verticallyto intersect 6,000
feet pressure altitude. Draw a second perpendicular feet pressure altitude. Draw a second perpendicular
line from thatpoint to the right to intersect +20°C OAT. line from thatpoint to the right to intersect+15°C OAT.
Draw a third line from this intersection vertically togross Draw a third line from this intersection vertically togross
weight. Read the correct answer of 17,000 pounds. weight. Read the correct answer of 14,400 pounds.
(PLT048) — FAA-H-8083-21 (PLT048) — FAA-H-8083-21

RTC RTC
8542. (Refer to Figure37.) What is the maximum gross 8545. (Refer to Figure38.) What is the maximum gross
weight for hovering in ground effect at 2,500 feet pres weight for hovering out of ground effect at 7,000 feet
sure altitude and +35°C? pressure altitude and +35°C?
A—16,200 pounds. A—14,000 pounds.
B-16,600 pounds. B-11,600 pounds.
C-14,600 pounds. C-12,500 pounds.
To determine the maximum gross weight, begin in the To determine the maximum gross weight, begin in the
lower left corner of FAA Figure 37 at +35°C OAT. With lowerleft corner of FAA Figure 38 at +35°C OAT. With
a straight-edge, draw a line vertically to intersect2,500 a straight-edge, draw a line vertically to intersect 7,000
feet pressure altitude. Draw a second perpendicular feet pressure altitude. Draw a second perpendicular
line from thatpoint to the right to intersect +35°C OAT. line from thatpoint to the right to intersect +35°C OAT.
Draw a third line from this intersection vertically togross Draw a third line from this intersection vertically togross
weight. Read the correct answer of 16,200 pounds. weight. Read the correct answer of 11,600 pounds.
(PLT048) — FAA-H-8083-21 (PLT048) — FAA-H-8083-21

Answers

8540 [A] 8541 [C] 8542 [A] 8543 [B] 8544 [C] 8545 [B]

4-72 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 4 Performance

RTC RTC
8546. (Refer to Figure 38.) What is the maximum gross 8549. (Refer to Figure 39.) What is the takeoff distance
weight for hovering out of ground effect at 4,500 feet over a 50-foot obstacle?
pressure altitude and +20°C? Pressure altitude 5,000 ft
A—14,500 pounds. Temperature (OAT) -10°C
B—14,000 pounds. Gross weight 11,000 1b
C—17,000 pounds. A- 1,000 feet.
B-920 feet.
To determine the maximum gross weight, begin in the C-870 feet.
lower left corner of FAA Figure 38 at +20°C OAT. With
a straight-edge, draw a line vertically to intersect 4,500 To determine the takeoff distance, begin at-10°C OAT
feet pressure altitude. Draw a second perpendicular in the lower left corner of FAA Figure 39. Draw a verti
line from thatpoint to the rightto intersect +20°C OAT. cal line upwardto intersect 5,000 feet pressure altitude.
Draw a thirdline from this intersection vertically to gross From that point, draw a perpendicular line to 11,000
weight. Read the correct answer of 14,500 pounds. pounds gross weight. From this point, draw a vertical
(PLT048) — FAA-H-8083-21 line downward to takeoff distance. Read the distance
of 870 feet. (PLT011) — FAA-H-8083-21
RTC
8547. (Refer to Figure 38.) What is the maximum gross RTC
weight for hovering out of ground effect at 2,500 feet 8550. (Refer to Figure 39.) What is the takeoff distance
pressure altitude and +30°C? over a 50-foot obstacle?
A—17,400 pounds. Pressure altitude 6,500 ft
B—15,000 pounds. Temperature (OAT) 0°C
C-14,500 pounds. Gross weight 13,500 lb
To determine the maximum gross weight, begin in the A-1,500 feet.
lower left corner of FAA Figure 38 at +30°C OAT. With B-1,050 feet.
a straight-edge, drawa line vertically to intersect 2,500 C-1,100 feet.
feet pressure altitude. Draw a second perpendicular
line from thatpoint to the rightto intersect +30°C OAT Todetermine the takeoff distance, begin at +0°C OATin
Draw a thirdline from this intersection vertically to gross
the lower left corner of FAA Figure 39. Draw a vertical
weight. Read the correct answer of 14,500 pounds. line upward to intersect 6,500 feet pressure altitude.
(PLT048) — FAA-H-8083-21
From that point, draw a perpendicular line to 13,500
pounds gross weight. From this point, draw a vertical
line downward to takeoff distance. Read the distance
RTC of 1,050 feet. (PLT011) — FAA-H-8083-21
8548. (Refer to Figure 39.) What is the takeoff distance
over a 50-foot obstacle?
RTC
Pressure altitude 3,500 ft 8551. (Refer to Figure 39.) What is the takeoff distance
Temperature (OAT) +20°C over a 50-foot obstacle?
Gross weight 15,000 lb
Pressure altitude 9,000 ft
A- 1,070 feet. Temperature (OAT) +20°C
B-1,020 feet. Gross weight 15,000 lb
C-1,100 feet.
A- 1,300 feet.
To determine the takeoff distance, begin at +20°C OAT B- 1,350 feet.
in the lower left corner of FAA Figure 39. Draw a verti C-1,250 feet.
cal lineupward to intersect3,500 feet pressure altitude.
From that point, draw a perpendicular line to 15,000 To determine the takeoff distance, begin at +20°C OAT
pounds gross weight. From this point, draw a vertical in the lower left corner of FAA Figure 39. Draw a verti
line downward to takeoff distance. Read the distance
cal line upward to intersect9,000 feetpressure altitude.
of 1,070 feet. (PLT011) — FAA-H-8083-21 Continued

Answers

8546 [A] 8547 [C] 8548 [A] 8549 [C] 8550 [B] 8551 [B]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 4-73

Chapter 4 Performance

From that point, draw a perpendicular line to 15,000 RTC

pounds gross weight. From this point, draw a vertical 8554. (Refer to Figure 40.) What is the climb perfor
line downward to takeoff distance. Read the distance mance with both engines operating?
of 1,350 feet. (PLT011) — FAA-H-8083-21 Pressure altitude 7,500 ft
Temperature (OAT) +5°C
Heater ON
RTC
8552. (Refer to Figure 39.) What is the takeoff distance A- 905 ft/min.
over a 50-foot obstacle? B-765 ft/min.
C-1,080 ft/min.
Pressure altitude -1,000 ft
Temperature (OAT) +25°C 7. Enter FAA Figure 40 at the left side with 7,500 pres
Gross weight 14,000 lb sure altitude and draw a horizontal line to the curved
A-1,000 feet. line representing +5°C temperature (interpolate
B-900 feet. between temperatures as necessary).
C-950 feet.
2. From that point of intersection, draw a vertical line
to the bottom of the graph and read the rate of climb
To determine the takeoffdistance, begin at +25°C OAT
of 1,080 fpm.
in the lower left corner of FAA Figure 39. Drawa vertical
line upward to intersect -1,000 feet pressure altitude. 3. Withthe heater on above 1,800 feet, the rate of climb
From that point, draw a perpendicular line to 14,000 is 315 fpm less; therefore, our rate of climb is 765
pounds gross weight. From this point, draw a vertical fpm.
line downward to takeoff distance. Read the distance (PLT004) — FAA-H-8083-21
of 900 feet. (PLT011) — FAA-H-8083-21

RTC
RTC 8555. (Refer to Figure 40.) What is the climb perfor
8553. (Refer to Figure 40.) What is the climb perfor mance with both engines operating?
mance with both engines operating?
Pressure altitude 6,500 ft
Pressure altitude 9,500 ft Temperature (OAT) +25°C
Temperature (OAT) -5°C Heater OFF
Heater ON
A-285 ft/min.
A- 925 ft/min. B-600 ft/min.
B- 600 ft/min. C-400 ft/min.
C-335 ft/min.
7. EnterFAA Figure40 at the leftside with 6,500 pres
7. EnterFAA Figure40 at the leftside with 9,500 pres sure altitude and draw a horizontal line to the curved
sure altitude and draw a horizontal line to the curved line representing +25°C temperature (interpolate
line representing -5°C temperature (interpolate between temperatures as necessary).
between temperatures as necessary).
2. From that point of intersection, draw a vertical line
2. From that point of intersection, draw a vertical line to the bottom of the graph and read the rate of climb
to the bottom of the graph and read the rate of climb of 600 fpm.
of 915 fpm.
(PLT004) — FAA-H-8083-21
3. With the heater on above 1,800 feet, the rate of climb
is 315 fpm less, therefore our rate of climb is 600
fpm.
(PLT004) — FAA-H-8083-21

Answers

8552 [B] 8553 [B] 8554 [B] 8555 [B]

4-74 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 4 Performance

RTC RTC
8556. (Refer to Figure 40.) What is the climb perfor 8558. (Refer to Figure 41.) What is the single-engine
mance with both engines operating? climb or descent performance?
Pressure altitude 11,500 ft Pressure altitude 7,500 ft
Temperature (OAT) -15°C Temperature (OAT) 0°C
Heater ON A— 80 ft/min descent.
A- 645 ft/min. B—10 ft/min climb.
B-375 ft/min. C—50 ft/min climb.
C-330 ft/min.
7. Enter FAA Figure 41 at the left side with 7,500
7. Enter FAA Figure 40 at the left side with 11,500 pressure altitude and draw a horizontal line to the
pressure altitude and draw a horizontal line to the curved line representing 0°C temperature (interpo
curved line representing -W°C temperature (inter late between temperatures as necessary).
polate between temperatures as necessary). 2. From that point of intersection, draw a vertical line to
2. From that point of intersection, draw a vertical line the bottom of the graph and read the rate of descent
to the bottom of the graph and read the rate of climb of 80 fpm.
of 645 fpm. (PLT004) — FAA-H-8083-21
3. With the heater on above 1,800 feet, the rate of climb
is 315 fpm less; therefore, the rate of climb is 330
fpm. RTC
8559. (Refer to Figure 41.) Given the following, what is
(PLT004) — FAA-H-8083-21 the single-engine climb or descent performance?
Pressure altitude 3,000 ft
RTC Temperature (OAT) +35°C
8557. (Refer to Figure 40.) What is the climb perfor A— 150 ft/min descent.
mance with both engines operating? B— 350 ft/min climb.
Pressure altitude 3,500 ft C—100 ft/min descent.
Temperature (OAT) -10°C
Heater. ON 7. Enter FAA Figure 41 at the left side with 3,000 pres
sure altitude and draw a horizontal line to the curved
A-985 ft/min.
line representing +35°C temperature (interpolate
B-1,300 ft/min.
between temperatures as necessary).
C-1,360 ft/min.
2. From thatpoint of intersection, drawa verticalline to
7. Enter FAA Figure 40 at the left side with3,500 pres the bottom of the graph and read the rate of descent
sure altitude and draw a horizontal line to the curved of 100 fpm.
line representing -10°C temperature (interpolate (PLT004) — FAA-H-8083-21
between temperatures as necessary).
2. From that point of intersection, draw a vertical line
RTC
to the bottom of the graph and read the rate of climb
of 1,300 fpm. 8560. (Refer to Figure 41.) Given the following, what is
the single-engine climb or descent performance?
3. Withthe heater on above 1,800 feet, the rate of climb
is 315 fpm less; therefore, our rate of climb is 985 Pressure altitude 4,700 ft
fpm. Temperature (OAT) +20°C
(PLT004) — FAA-H-8083-21 A— 420 ft/min climb.
B—60 ft/min climb.
C—60 ft/min descent.

Continued

Answers

8556 [C] 8557 [A] 8558 [A] 8559 [C] 8560 [B]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 4-75

Chapter 4 Performance

7. Enter FAA Figure 41 at the left side with 4,700 pres RTC

sure altitude and draw a horizontal line to the curved 8563. (Refer to Figure 42.) Given the following, what
line representing +20°C temperature (interpolate is the airspeed limit (VNE)?
between temperatures as necessary). Gross weight 16,500 lb
2. From that point of intersection, draw a vertical line Pressure altitude 5,000 ft
to the bottom of the graph and read the rate of climb Temperature (OAT) -15°C
of 60 fpm. A-128KIAS.
(PLT004) — FAA-H-8083-21 B-133KIAS.
C-126KIAS.

RTC 7. Use the right-middle table for an aircraft weighing

8561. (Refer to Figure 41.) Given the following, what is 16,500 pounds.
the single-engine climb or descent performance? 2. Start at an OAT of -W°C and interpolate between
Pressure altitude 9,500 ft 6,000 (126) and 4,000 (131) feet to findVNE for5,000.
Temperature (OAT) -10°C 3. VNE for 5,000 feet at - W°C is 128.5 knots.
A— 600 ft/min descent.
(PLT002) — FAA-H-8083-21
B— 840 ft/min descent.
C-280 ft/min descent.
RTC
7. Enter FAA Figure 41 at the leftside with 9,500 pres 8564. (Refer to Figure 42.) What is the airspeed limit
sure altitude and draw a horizontal line to the curved
(VNE)?
line representing -10°C temperature (interpolate
between temperatures as necessary). Gross weight 17,500 lb
Pressure altitude 4,000 ft
2. From that point of intersection, draw a vertical line to Temperature (OAT) +10°C
the bottom of the graph and read the rate of descent
of 280 fpm. A-114KIAS.
B-120KIAS.
(PLT004) — FAA-H-8083-21 C-130KIAS.

7. Use the right-bottom table for an aircraft weighing

RTC
17,500 pounds.
8562. (Refer to Figure 41.) Given the following, what is
the single-engine climb or descent performance? 2. Interpolate between 0°C and 20°C for 4,000 feet to
find VNE for+ 10°C.
Pressure altitude 1,500 ft
Temperature (OAT) +45°C 3. VNE for 5,000 feet at+10°C is 120 knots.
A— 100 ft/min descent. (PLT002) — FAA-H-8083-21
B—360 ft/min climb.
C—200 ft/min descent.
RTC

7. EnterFAA Figure41 at the leftside with 1,500 pres 8565. (Refer to Figure 42.) What is the airspeed limit
sure altitude and draw a horizontal line to the curved (VNE)?
line representing +45°C temperature (interpolate Gross weight 15,000 lb
between temperatures as necessary). Pressure altitude 6,000 ft
2. From that point of intersection, draw a vertical line to Temperature (OAT) 0°C
the bottom of the graph and read the rate of descent A-135KIAS.
of 100 fpm. B-127KIAS.
(PLT004) — FAA-H-8083-21 C-143KIAS.

Answers

8561 [C] 8562 [A] 8563 [A] 8564 [B] 8565 [A]

4-76 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 4 Performance

7. Use the table for 14,500 pounds and 16,500 to inter RTC

polate for an aircraft weighing 15,000 pounds. 8568. (Refer to Figure 43.) What is the single-engine
landing distance over a 50-foot obstacle?
2. Start at an OATof0°C and find 6,000 for both 14,500
pounds (138) and 16,500 pounds (122) feet to find Gross weight 12,000 lb
Vne for 15,000 pounds. Pressure altitude 3,500 ft
Temperature (OAT) +30°C
3. VNE for 15,000 feet at 0°C is 135 knots.
A- 850 feet.
(PLT002) — FAA-H-8083-21
B- 900 feet.
C-1,000 feet.
RTC
7. Enter FAA Figure 43 on the left side at the bottom
8566. (Refer to Figure 42.) What is the airspeed limit
and draw a vertical line from +30°C OAT to the 3,500
(VNE)? feet pressure altitude (interpolate as necessary).
Gross weight 14,000 lb
2. From thatpoint of intersection, drawa horizontal line
Pressure altitude 8,000 ft
to the diagonal representing 12,000 pounds, and
Temperature (OAT) -15°C
then a vertical line from there down to the landing
A-121 KIAS. distance of 1,000 feet.
B-123KIAS.
(PLT011) — FAA-H-8083-21
C-113KIAS.

7. Use the table for 13,500 pounds and 14,500 to inter

RTC
polate foran aircraft weighing 14,000 pounds. 8569. (Refer to Figure 43.) What is the single-engine
2. Start at an OAT of -W°C and find 8,000 for both landing distance over a 50-foot obstacle?
13,500 pounds (121) and 14,500 pounds (121) feet Gross weight 16,500 lb
to find VNE for 14,000 pounds. Pressure altitude 5,500 ft
3. VNE for 14,000 feet at -W°C is 121 knots. Temperature (OAT) -10°C
(PLT002) — FAA-H-8083-21 A- 1,700 feet.
B- 1,550 feet.
C-1,600 feet.
RTC
8567. (Refer to Figure 42.) What is the airspeed limit 7. Enter FAA Figure 43 on the left side at the bottom
(Vne)? and draw a vertical line from - 10°C OAT to the 5,500
Gross weight 12,500 lb feet pressure altitude (interpolate as necessary).
Pressure altitude 14,000 ft 2. Fromthatpoint of intersection, drawa horizontalline
Temperature (OAT) -20°C to the diagonal representing 16,500 pounds, and
A- 99 KIAS. then a vertical line from there down to the landing
B-108 KIAS. distance of 1,550 feet.
C-103 KIAS. (PLT011) — FAA-H-8083-21

7. Use the table foran aircraftweighing 12,500 pounds.

2. Interpolate between -W°Cand -25°C for 14,000 feet
to find VNE for -20°C
3. VNE for 14,000 feet at -20°C is 103 knots.
(PLT002) — FAA-H-8083-21

Answers

8566 [A] 8567 [C] 8568 [C] 8569 [B]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 4-77

Chapter 4 Performance

RTC 7. Enter FAA Figure 43 on the left side at the bottom

8570. (Refer to Figure 43.) What is the single-engine and draw a vertical line from +40°C OATto the 4,000
landing distance over a 50-foot obstacle? feet pressure altitude (interpolate as necessary).
Gross weight 15,000 lb 2. From that point of intersection, draw a horizontal line
Pressure altitude 8,000 ft to the diagonal representing 17,000 pounds, and
Temperature (OAT) +20°C then a vertical line from there down to the landing
A- 1,900 feet. distance of 2,000 feet.
B-1,800 feet. (PLT011) — FAA-H-8083-21
C- 2,000 feet.

7. Enter FAA Figure 43 on the left side at the bottom RTC

and draw a vertical line from +20°C OATto the 8,000 8822. (Refer to Figures 113 and 114.) What TAS would
feet pressure altitude (interpolate as necessary). be required to arrive at POM VORTAC 52 minutes after
2. From that point of intersection, draw a horizontal line passing DAG VORTAC?
to the diagonal representing 15,000 pounds, and A— 114 knots.
then a vertical line from there down to the landing B-117 knots.
distance of 1,900 feet. C-120 knots.
(PLT011) — FAA-H-8083-21
Problemmay be solved using E6-B or CX-2 flight com
puter:
RTC Distance = 80 NM
8571. (Refer to Figure 43.) What is the single-engine GS = 92.3 knots
landing distance over a 50-foot obstacle? Wind = 290/36, variation = 15° East
Gross weight 14,000 lb (found in Figure 113A)
Pressure altitude 1,000 ft Course = 214°
Temperature (OAT) +10°C TAS = 114.2 knots

A- 650 feet. (PLT012) — FAA-H-8083-15

B- 920 feet.
C-800 feet.
RTC

7. Enter FAA Figure 43 on the left side at the bottom 8823. (Refer to Figures 113 and 114.) What TAS would
and draw a vertical line from +10°C OATto the 1,000 be required to arrive at POM VORTAC 1 hour after
feet pressure altitude (interpolate as necessary). passing DAG VORTAC?
2. From that point of intersection, draw a horizontal line A— 102 knots.
to the diagonal representing 14,000 pounds, and B—105 knots.
then a vertical line from there down to the landing C-108 knots.
distance of 920 feet.
Problem may be solved using E6-B or CX-2flight com
(PLT011) — FAA-H-8083-21 puter:
Distance = 80 NM
RTC GS = 80 knots
8572. (Refer to Figure 43.) What is the single-engine Wind = 290/36, variation = 15° East
landing distance over a 50-foot obstacle? (found in Figure 113A)
Course = 214°
Gross weight 17,000 lb
TAS = 102.4 knots
Pressure altitude 4,000 ft
Temperature (OAT) +40°C (PLT012) — FAA-H-8083-15
A-1,850 feet.
B- 2,200 feet.
C-2,000 feet.

Answers

8570 [A] 8571 [B] 8572 [C] 8822 [A] 8823 [A]

4-78 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 4 Performance

Flight Planning Graphs and Tables

Aircraft manufacturers publish flight planning graphs or tables that enable flight crews to quickly esti
mate the time and fuel required to fly certain trips. These tables or graphs allow adjustments for aircraft
weight, wind, altitude, cruise speed, and other variables.
FAA Figure 399 represents a performance chart that is often used for performance questions on
the Cessna 208: the "time, fuel and distance to climb" chart. This chart is fairly easy to use in that you
simply find your weight, and the altitude you are climbing to. Just make sure to subtract your departure
elevation altitude. For example, if you were departing from a field elevation of 4,000 feet and climbing
to a cruise altitude of 16,000 feet, you would first calculate everything at the 16,000-foot level and then
subtract the 4,000-foot field elevation.
In this example, at 8,750 pounds and standard temperature, you would expect to spend 23 minutes in
the climb; however, subtract the 4,000-foot time of 5 minutes, which yields a time-to-climb of 18 minutes.

ATM, DSP ATM, DSP

8643. (Refer to Figures 61 and 62.) What is the trip time 8645. (Refer to Figures 61 and 62.) What is the trip time
for Operating Conditions X-1 ? for Operating Conditions X-3?
A—4 hours 5 minutes. A—4 hours 15 minutes.
B—4 hours 15 minutes. B— 3 hours 40 minutes.
C—4 hours. C—4 hours.

7. Enterthe bottom of FAA Figure 62 at 2,000 and move 7. Enter the bottom of FAA Figure 62 at 1,800 and move
up to the reference line. up to the reference line.
2. From the reference line, follow the diagonal line 2. From the reference line, follow the diagonal line
representing a 50-knot tailwind. representing a 20-knot headwind.
3. Move up to the line representing a pressure altitude 3. Move up to the line representinga pressure altitude
of 27,000 feet and move left to the reference line. of 20,000 feet and move left to the reference line.
4. From the reference line, follow the diagonal line 4. From the reference line, follow the diagonal line
representing ISA +10°C and continue to the edge representing ISA +20°C and continue to the edge
of the chart. of the chart.

5. Determine a trip time of 4 hours. 5. Determine a trip time of 4 hours.

(PLT012) — FAA-H-8083-25 (PLT012) — FAA-H-8083-25

ATM, DSP ATM, DSP

8644. (Refer to Figures 61 and 62.) What is the triptime 8646. (Refer to Figures 61 and 62.) What is the trip time
for Operating Conditions X-2? for Operating Conditions X-4?
A— 5 hours 5 minutes. A— 6 hours 50 minutes.
B—6 hours 15 minutes. B— 5 hours 45 minutes.
C—5 hours 55 minutes. C—5 hours 30 minutes.

7. Enfer the bottom of FAA Figure 62 at 2,400 and move 7. Enterthe bottom of FAA Figure 62 at 2,800 and move
up to the reference line. up to the reference line.
2. From the reference line, follow the diagonal line 2. From the reference line, follow the diagonal line
representing a 50-knot headwind. representing a 50-knot tailwind.
3. Move up to the line representing a pressure altitude 3. Move up to the linerepresenting a pressure altitude
of 35,000 feet and move left to edge of the chart. of 29,000 feet and move left to the reference line.
4. Determine a trip time of 6 hours 15 minutes. Continued

(PLT012) — FAA-H-8083-25
Answers

8643 [C] 8644 [B] 8645 [C] 8646 [B]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 4-79

Chapter 4 Performance

4. From the reference line, follow the diagonal line ATM, DSP
representing ISA -10°C and continue to the edge of 8649. (Refer to Figures 61 and 62.) What is the trip fuel
the chart. for Operating Conditions X-2?
5. Determine a trip time of 5 hours 45 minutes. A- 33,000 pounds.
(PLT012) — FAA-H-8083-25 B- 28,000 pounds.
C-35,000 pounds.

ATM,DSP 7. Enter the bottom of FAA Figure 62 at 2,400 and move

8647. (Refer to Figures 61 and 62.) What is the trip time up to the reference line.
for Operating Conditions X-5? 2. From the reference line, follow the diagonal line
A— 2 hours 55 minutes. representing a 50-knot headwind.
B— 3 hours 10 minutes. 3. Move up to the line representing a pressure altitude
C—2 hours 59 minutes. of 35,000 feet and move right to the reference line.
4. From the reference line, followthe diagonal line rep
7. Enter the bottom of FAA Figure 62 at 1,200 and move
resenting 75,000 pounds and continue to the edge
up to the reference line.
of the chart.
2. From the reference line, follow the diagonal line
5. Determine a trip fuel of 35,000 pounds.
representing a 30-knot headwind.
(PLT012) — FAA-H-8083-25
3. Move up to the line representing a pressure altitude
of 37,000 feet and move left to the reference line.
4. From the reference line, follow the diagonal line ATM, DSP
representing ISA +10°C and continue to the edge 8650. (Refer to Figures 61 and 62.) What is the trip fuel
of the chart. for Operating Conditions X-3?
5. Determine a trip time of 2 hours 55 minutes. A- 36,000 pounds.
(PLT012) — FAA-H-8083-25 B-34,500 pounds.
C-33,000 pounds.

ATM, DSP 7. Enterthe bottom of FAA Figure 62 at 1,800 and move

8648. (Refer to Figures 61 and 62.) What is the trip fuel up to the reference line.
for Operating Conditions X-1 ? 2. From the reference line, follow the diagonal line
A— 25,000 pounds. representing a 20-knot headwind.
B—26,000 pounds. 3. Move up to the line representing a pressure altitude
C —24,000 pounds. of 20,000 feet and move right to the reference line.

7. Enterthe bottom of FAA Figure 62 at 2,000 and move 4. From the referenceline, follow the diagonalline rep
up to the reference line.
resenting 75,000 pounds and continue to the edge
of the chart.
2. From the reference line, follow the diagonal line
representing a 50-knot tailwind.
5. Determine a trip fuel of 34,500 pounds.
(PLT012) — FAA-H-8083-25
3. Move up to the line representing a pressure altitude
of 27,000 feet and move right to the reference line.
4. From the referenceline, follow the diagonalline rep ATM, DSP
resenting 70,000 pounds and continue to the edge 8651. (Refer to Figures 61 and 62.) What is the tripfuel
of the chart. for Operating Conditions X-4?
5. Determine a trip fuel of 26,000 pounds. A- 33,000 pounds.
(PLT012) — FAA-H-8083-25 B-31,500 pounds.
C-34,000 pounds.

Answers

8647 [A] 8648 [B] 8649 [C] 8650 [B] 8651 [A]

4-80 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 4 Performance

7. Enter the bottom of FAA Figure 62 at 2,800 and move ATM, ATS, DSP
up to the reference line. 8659. (Refer to Figures 66 and 67.) What is the trip time
corrected for wind under Operating Conditions Z-2?
2. From the reference line, follow the diagonal line
representing a 50-knot tailwind. A— 1 hour 35 minutes.
B— 1 hour 52 minutes.
3. Move up to the line representing a pressure altitude
C—1 hour 46 minutes.
of 29,000 feet and move right to the reference line.
4. From the reference line, follow the diagonal line rep Table time = 96 minutes
resenting 65,000 pounds and continue to the edge Change in time = 96 minutes x45 + 433 = +10 minutes
of the chart. Trip time = 96 min + 10 min = 106 minutes = 1 hour 46
minutes
5. Determine a trip fuel of 33,000 pounds.
(PLT012) — FAA-H-8083-25 (PLT012) — FAA-H-8083-25

ATM, ATS, DSP

ATM,DSP
8652. (Refer to Figures 61 and 62.) What is the trip fuel 8660. (Refer to Figures 66 and 67.) What is the trip time
for Operating Conditions X-5? corrected for wind under Operating Conditions Z-3?
A— 2 hours 9 minutes.
A-15,000 pounds.
B— 1 hour 59 minutes.
B—20,000 pounds.
C— 1 hour 52 minutes.
C—19,000 pounds.
7ab/e time = 129 minutes
7. Enter the bottom of FAA Figure 62 at 1,200 and move
up to the reference line. Change in time = 129 minx (-35) + 433 = -10.4 minutes
Trip time = 129 min -10.4 min = 118.6 minutes =
2. From the reference line, follow the diagonal line 1 hour 59 minutes
representing a 30-knot headwind.
(PLT012) — FAA-H-8083-25
3. Move up to the line representing a pressure altitude
of 37,000 feet and move right to the reference line.
4. From the reference line, follow the diagonal line rep ATM, ATS, DSP
resenting 90,000 pounds and continue to the edge 8661. (Refer to Figures 66 and 67.) What is the trip time
of the chart. corrected for wind under Operating Conditions Z-4?
5. Determine a trip fuel of 19,000 pounds. A—48.3 minutes.
B—50.7 minutes.
(PLT012) — FAA-H-8083-25 C—51.3 minutes.

Table time = 48 minutes

ATM, ATS, DSP
Change in time = 48 min x25 + 443 = 2.7minutes
8658. (Refer to Figures 66 and 67.) What is the trip time Trip time = 48 min + 2.7min = 50.7minutes
corrected for wind under Operating Conditions Z-1 ?
(PLT012) — FAA-H-8083-25
A—58.1 minutes.
B—51.9 minutes.
C—54.7 minutes. ATM, ATS, DSP
8662. (Refer to Figures 66 and 67.) What is the trip time
Change in time = Time x Wind Component + TAS corrected for wind under Operating Conditions Z-5?
55 x (-25) + 438 = -3.1 minutes
A— 1 hour 11 minutes.
Therefore, the trip time corrected for wind is 51.9 B—56 minutes.
minutes (55 - 3.1). C—62 minutes.
(PLT012) — FAA-H-8083-25
Table time = 62 minutes
Change in time = 62 minx60 + 433 = 8.6 minutes
Trip time = 62 min + 8.6 min = 70.6 minute =
1 hour 11 minutes

(PLT012) — FAA-H-8083-25
Answers

8652 [C] 8658 [B] 8659 [C] 8660 [B] 8661 [B] 8662 [A]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 4-81

Chapter 4 Performance

ATM, ATS, DSP ATM, ATS, DSP

8663. (Refer to Figures 66 and 67.) What is the esti 8667. (Refer to Figures 66 and 67.) What is the esti
mated fuel consumption for Operating Conditions Z-1? mated fuel consumption for Operating Conditions Z-5?
A—5,230 pounds. A—6,250 pounds.
B- 5,970 pounds. B—5,380 pounds.
C—5,550 pounds. C-7,120 pounds.

Table fuel = 5,550 lbs Table fuel = 6,250 lbs

Change in fuel = 5,500 x (-25) + 438 = -316.8 lbs Change in fuel = 6,250 x60 + 433 = 866 lbs
Trip fuel = 5,500 lbs - 316.8 lbs = 5,233.2 lbs Trip fuel = 6,250 lbs + 866 lbs = 7,116 lbs
(PLT012) — FAA-H-8083-25 (PLT012) — FAA-H-8083-25

ATM, ATS, DSP ATM, ATS, DSP

8664. (Refer to Figures 66 and 67.) What is the esti 8603. (Refer to Figures 297 and 481.) With a reported
mated fuel consumption for Operating Conditions Z-2? temperature of 0°C, at 500 feet AGL after takeoff, and
A-10,270 pounds. airspeed of 145 knots IAS, the radius of turn is
B—9,660 pounds. A- 7,850 feet.
C-10,165 pounds. B-8,150 feet.
C- 8,450 feet.
Table fuel = 9,300 lbs
Change in fuel = 9,300 x45 + 433 = 967 lbs 7. On Figure 297, note the field elevation of 5,355 feet.
Trip fuel = 9,300 lbs + 967 lbs = 10,267 lbs
2. On Figure481, start on the lower leftside of the chart
(PLT012) — FAA-H-8083-25 at 0°C and move straight up untilyou intersect the
altitude of 5,855 feet (field elevation of 5,355 + 500
feet AGL). Movedirectly to the right until intersecting
ATM, ATS, DSP
the REF LINE. Move up and to the right in parallel
8665. (Refer to Figures 66 and 67.) What is the esti with the diagonal lines until intersecting the airspeed
mated fuel consumption for Operating Conditions Z-3? of 145 knots. Move directly to the rightand note the
A—12,300 pounds. radius of turn of 8,150 feet.
B-11,300 pounds. (PLT011) — FAA-H-8083-25
C—13,990 pounds.

Table fuel = 12,300 lbs ATM, DSP

Change in fuel = 72,300 x (-35) + 433 = -994 lbs 8604. (Refer to Figure 469.) With an OAT of -20°C at
Trip fuel = 12,300 lbs - 994 lbs = 11,306 lbs 20,000 feet and an IAS of 150, the Maximum Continu
(PLT012) — FAA-H-8083-25 ous Power Torque Setting is
A- 64%.
B- 66%.
ATM, ATS, DSP
C-68%.
8666. (Refer to Figures 66 and 67.) What is the esti
mated fuel consumption for Operating Conditions Z-4? On Figure 469, start at the bottom of the chart and locate
A—4,950 pounds. -20°C Move straight up until intersecting the20,000 feet
B- 5,380 pounds. line.Move directly to the rightand stop at the REF LINE.
C-5,230 pounds. Because 150 knots intersects with the REF LINE, you
continue to the rightand note the maximum continuous
Table fuel = 4,950 lbs power torquesetting is 66%. (PLT009)— FAA-H-8083-25
Change in fuel = 4,950 x25 + 443 = 279 lbs
Trip fuel = 4,950 lbs + 279 lbs = 5,229 lbs
(PLT012) — FAA-H-8083-25

Answers

8663 [A] 8664 [A] 8665 [B] 8666 [C] 8667 [C] 8603 [B]
8604 [B]

4-82 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 4 Performance

DSP DSP
9915. (Refer to Figures 51 and 52.) What is the total 8606. (Refer to Figures 51 and 52.) What is the total
time from starting to the alternate through completing time from starting to the alternate through completing
the approach for Operating Conditions L-1? the approach for Operating Conditions L-4?
A— 30 minutes. A—35 minutes.
B—44 minutes. B— 19 minutes.
C—29 minutes. C—20 minutes.

29 minutes En route 20 minutes En route

+15 minutes Holding + 15 minutes Holding
44 minutes Total 35 minutes Total
Note: Distance is provided as NM so you should disregard the wind
component provided in the operating conditions.
(PLT012) — FAA-H-8083-25

(PLT012) — FAA-H-8083-25
DSP
8607. (Refer to Figures 51 and 52.) What is the total
DSP time from starting to the alternate through completing
9916. (Refer to Figures 51 and 52.) What is the total the approach for Operating Conditions L-5?
time from starting to the alternate through completing
A— 1 hour 3 minutes.
the approach for Operating Conditions L-2?
B—48 minutes.
A—36 minutes. C—55 minutes.
B— 55 minutes.
C—40 minutes. 48 minutes En route
+ 15 minutes Holding
40 minutes En route
63 minutes Total (1 hour 3 minutes)
+ 15 minutes Holding
(PLT012) — FAA-H-8083-25
55 minutes Total

(PLT012) — FAA-H-8083-25
DSP
8608. (Refer to Figures 51 and 52.) What is the approxi
DSP mate landing weight for Operating Conditions L-1?
8605. (Refer to Figures 51 and 52.) What is the total
A— 78,850 pounds.
time from starting to the alternate through completing
B— 80,300 pounds.
the approach for Operating Conditions L-3?
C—81,600 pounds.
A— 1 hour.
B—1 hour 15 minutes. 85,000 lbs Weight (start to alt)
C—1 hour 24 minutes. - 3,400 lbs Fuel burn
81,600 lbs Landing weight
60 minutes En route
+ 15 minutes Holding (PLT008) — FAA-H-8083-25
75 minutes Total (1 hour 15 minutes)
(PLT012) — FAA-H-8083-25 DSP
8609. (Refer to Figures 51 and 52.) What is the approxi
mate landing weight for Operating Conditions L-2?
A— 65,200 pounds.
B- 65,800 pounds.
C-69,600 pounds.

70,000 lbs Weight (start to alt)

-4,200 lbs Fuel burn
65,800 lbs Landing weight
(PLT008) — FAA-H-8083-25

Answers

9915 [B] 9916 [B] 8605 [B] 8606 [A] 8607 [A] 8608 [C]
8609 [B]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 4-83

Chapter 4 Performance

DSP 76,000 lbs Weight (start to alt)

8610. (Refer to Figures 51 and 52.) What is the approxi -2,800 lbs Fuel burn
mate landing weight for Operating Conditions L-3? 73,200 lbs Landing weight
A—80,300 pounds. (PLT008) — FAA-H-8083-25
B—85,400 pounds.
C-77,700 pounds.
DSP
86,000 lbs Weight (start to alt) 8612. (Refer to Figures 51 and 52.) What is the approxi
-5,700 lbs Fuel burn mate landing weight for Operating Conditions L-5?
80,300 lbs Landing weight
A- 78,600 pounds.
(PLT008) — FAA-H-8083-25 B- 77,000 pounds.
C—76,300 pounds.
DSP 82,000 lbs Weight (start to alt)
8611. (Refer to Figures 51 and 52.) What is the approxi -4,700 lbs Fuel burn
mate landing weight for Operating Conditions L-4? 77,300 lbs Landing weight
A— 73,200 pounds. (PLT008) — FAA-H-8083-25
B—74,190 pounds.
C—73,500 pounds.

Typical Flight Logs

Flight logs are used to accurately plan the time and fuel required for a flight. In the following paragraphs
we describe all the steps required to complete a flight log.
1. Determine the magnetic courses for each leg and determine the leg distances.
2. Apply variations to the winds aloft.
3. Determine the temperature in relation to ISA.
4. Determine Mach number and convert to TAS.
5. Compute ground speed.
6. Calculate and record the time for each leg.
7. Compute fuel flow.
8. Compute total fuel.
9. Determine the reserve fuel.

10. Compute fuel burn to alternate.

11. Add the en route, reserve, and alternate fuel to find the total fuel required for the flight.

Computation of Temperature at Cruise Altitude

Temperature is often expressed as a deviation from ISA which is the standard day temperature (i.e., ISA
-2°). This temperature can be computed by the following procedure:
1. Compute ISA by multiplying the altitude in thousands of feet times -2° and then adding 15°. For
example: ISA at 27,000 feet = 27 x (-2°) +15 = -39°
2. Apply the deviation from ISA. ISA-2° at 27,000 feet = (-39°) + (-2°) = -41°

Answers

8610 [A] 8611 [A] 8612 [B]

4-84 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 4 Performance

Computation of True Airspeed Using Mach Number

True Airspeed (TAS) can be computed from Mach number and Outside Air Temperature (OAT).
Using the CX-2 computer, select "Plan Mach#" from the menu, then enter the OAT and the Mach
number at the appropriate prompts.
Using an E6-B computer, follow these steps:
1. In the small window labeled "Airspeed Correction" or "True Airspeed," align the arrow labeled "Mach
Number" with the OAT on the scale adjacent the window.
2. Find the Mach number on the inner of the two main scales and then read the TAS opposite it on the
outer scale.

Note: Some "CR"-type mechanical computers have a window in which a Mach Index is aligned with
a Mach number inside the window. Don't use this scale. It is designed to use Indicated Temperature and
will give an inaccurate TAS when OAT is used.
See the instruction manual of your individual computer for more detailed instructions.

Specific Range
Specific range is the term used to describe the rate of fuel burn per nautical air mile flown. It is calcu
lated by using TAS and fuel flow only. Wind has no effect on specific range. To calculate specific range
in nautical air miles per 1,000 pounds, use the formula:
NM/1,000 = TAS x 1,000 + PPH.
TAS should be calculated from the Mach number as in the paragraph above. PPH can be taken
directly from the flight log.

ATM, ATS, DSP 1. Change the winds aloft of FL190 at GIJ(Gipper) from
8702. A jet airplane is flying at .72 Mach with an OAT true to magnetic, using the variation from the flight
of -40°C. What is the true airspeed? log (FAA Figure 94). Note: The variation changes
A— 430 knots. with each leg. Winds at GIJ at FL190 are 230° true
B—452 knots. at 51 knots.
C-464 knots. 230° True
+ 01° West variation
Using your CX-2 FlightComputer enter the flightmode 231° Magnetic
and select Airspeed and Plan MACH#. Enteryour Mach
speed of. 72 and OATof -40 to get a TAS of 428.4 kts. 2. Find the distance flown for the leg. In this case it is
The closest available answer is 430 knots. (PLT012) — 19 nautical miles, since the UO point is on the GIJ
FAA-H-8083-15 270° radial at 19 NM. Distances for subsequent legs
must be determined by referringto the enroute charts
(FAA Figure 96).
ATM, ATS, DSP
Find the ground speed for the leg from UO to GIJ
9546. (Refer to Figures 94,95, and 96.) What is the ETE using a flight computer:
from Chicago Midway Airport to Greater Buffalo Intl?
Wind direction 231 ° (calculated in Step 1).
A—2 hours 12 minutes. Windspeed 51 knots (given on the flight log).
B—2 hours 15 minutes. Course 090° (UO point is on the GIJ
C—2 hours 18 minutes. 270° radial).
TAS 160 knots (given in the flightplan in FAA
Toanswer this question, complete the flight log in FAA
Figure 94).
Figure 94, using the information given in the problem:
Calculated GS is 196.4 knots.
Continued

Answers

8702 [A] 9546 [A]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 4-85

Chapter 4 Performance

4. Compute the time en route for the leg from UO to 7. Determine the required ground speed using a flight
GIJ: calculator:

Distance 19 NM (determined in Step 2). Distance flown is 148 NM (distance from UO to

Ground speed 196.4 (calculated in Step 3). GIJ to CRL).
Calculated leg time is 5 minutes, 48 seconds. Time is 42 minutes (given in the problem).

5. Since the next question asks for the fuel required for Calculated GS is 211.4 knots.

the flight, calculate the fuel burned on this leg: 2. Determine the required TAS:
ETE is :5:48 (calculated in Step 4). Wind direction is 231° Magnetic (see Steps 1
Fuel flow is 610 PPH (in note at the bottom of and 2 in Question 9546).
the flight log). Wind speed is 51 knots (given in flight log).
Fuel burned is 59.0 pounds. Course is 087° (average of the two legs).
GS is 211.4 (calculated in Step 1).
6. Repeat steps for the subsequent legs to fill in the
flight log: TAS is 172.8.

FROM TO CRS TAS GS NM ETE FUEL (PLT012) — FAA-H-8083-15

MDW UO — — — —
19:00* 327.0*
UO GIJ 090 160 796 19 05:48 59.0
ATM, ATS, DSP
GIJ CRL 085 160 200 129 38:58 392.8
9556. (Refer to Figures 98, 99,100, and 102.) What is
CRL YXU 065 160 219 118 32:20 328.7 the ETE from DFW Intl to IAH?
YXU T/D 101 160 215 80 22:18 236.7
A— 1 hour 2 minutes.
T/D BUF 30 14:00* 121.5*
B— 1 hour 4 minutes.
2 12:04 1,455.7 C—1 hour 6 minutes.
'(given)
(PLT012) — FAA-H-8083-15 Toanswer this question, complete the flight log in FAA
Figure 98, using the information given in the problem:
ATM, ATS, DSP
1. Change the winds aloft at 15,000 from true to mag
9547. (Refer to Figures 94, 95, and 96.) What are netic, using the variation fromthe ChartSupplements
the fuel requirements from Chicago Midway Airport to U.S. (previously A/FD). Winds at BILEEare 230° True
at 42 knots.
Greater Buffalo Intl?
A— 2,224 pounds. 230° True
B— 1,987 pounds. -08° East variation
C—1,454 pounds. 222° Magnetic
2. Find the distance flown for the leg. In this case it is
Fuel from Question 9546: 1,455.7 80 NM. The sum of the distances from DFW to BILEE
Fuel for alternate to ROC: 236.0 is 107 NM, and 27 NM of that is used by the climb.
Fuel for reserve: + 532.5 Distances for subsequent legs must be determined
2,224.2 pounds by referring to the enroute charts and the CUGAR
(PLT012) — FAA-H-8083-15 Four Arrival (FAA Figures 100 and 102).
3. Find the ground speed for the leg from UO to BILEE
using a flight computer:
ATM, ATS, DSP
9548. (Refer to Figures 94, 95, and 96.) What TAS Wind direction 222° (calculated in Step 1).
should be maintained to arrive over CRL VORTAC 42 Wind speed 42 knots (given on the flight log).
minutes after level-off? Course 154° (V369 is on the DFW 154° radial).
TAS 248 knots (given in the flightplan on FAA
A—166 knots.
Figure 98).
B-168 knots.
C-171 knots. Calculated GS is 229.2 knots.

Answers

9547 [A] 9548 [C] 9556 [B]

4-86 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 4 Performance

4. Compute the time en route for the leg from UO to 4. Compute fuel burn to alternate (see Question 9556,
BILEE: Step 5):
Distance 80 NM (determined in Step 2). Time to alternate is :21:02 (computed in previ
Ground speed 229.2 (calculated in Step 3). ous step).
Calculated leg time is 20 minutes, 57 seconds. Fuel flow is 880 PPH (given in flightlog).
5. Since the next question asks forthe fuel required for Fuel burn to alternate is 308.5 pounds.
the flight, calculate the fuel burned on this leg: 5. Add the totals of Steps 1 through 4:
ETE is :20:57 (calculated in Step 4). FUEL
Fuel flow is 850 PPH (in note at the bottom of 891.3 En route
the flight log). 660.0 Reserve
Fuel burned is 296.7 pounds. + 308.5 Alternate

6. Repeat steps for the subsequent legs to fill in the 1,859.8 Total
flight log: (PLT012) — FAA-H-8083-15, 14 CFR §91.167
FROM TO CRS TAS GS NM ETE FUEL
DFW UO — — 27 12:00* 231.0*
ATM, ATS, DSP
UO BILEE 154 248 229.2 80 20:57 296.7
9558. (Refer to Figures 98, 99, 100, and 102.) Deter
BILEE CUGAR 125 248 249.6 47 11:18 160.1
mine the TAS required to arrive at CUGAR, 31 minutes
CUGART/D 125 248 249.6 21 05:03 71.5 after level-off.
T/D IAH — — 25 14:00* 132.0*
A— 269 knots.
03:18 891.3
B—264 knots.
'(given)
C-258 knots.
(PLT012) FAA-H-8083-15
7. Determine the required ground speed using a flight
calculator:
ATM, ATS, DSP
Distance flown is 127 NM (80 + 47). Time is 31
9557. (Refer to Figures 98, 99,100, and 102.) What is
minutes (stated in the problem).
the total fuel required from DFW Intl to IAH?
Calculated GS is 245.8 knots.
A— 1,555 pounds.
B—1,863 pounds. 2. Determine the required TAS:
C-1,941 pounds. Wind direction is 222° Magnetic (see Step 1 in
Question 9556).
In this question, the regulation-required fuel must be Windspeed is 42 knots (given in flightlog).
calculated using the summary box at the bottom of the Course is 154° (V369).
flightplan. GS is 245.8 knots (calculated in Step 1).
1. Compute the fuel required to fly the flight: TAS is 264.4 knots.
Fuel required is 891.3 pounds (see flight plan in (PLT012) — FAA-H-8083-15
Question 9556).
2. Compute the regulation-required reserve fuel (see
Question 9556, Step 5):
Time required is 45 minutes (14 CFR §135.223).
Fuel flow is 880 PPH (given at bottom of flight
plan in FAA Figure 98).
Reserve fuel is 660.0 pounds.
3. Compute ETE to alternate (see Question 9556,
Step 4):
GS is 194 knots (given in flight log).
Distance 68 NM (given in flight log).
ETE to alternate is 21 minutes, 2 seconds.

Answers

9557 [B] 9558 [B]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 4-87

Chapter 4 Performance

ATM, ATS, DSP 3. Find the ground speed for the leg from UO to GBN
9559. (Refer to Figures 98, 99, 100, and 102.) Deter using a flight computer:
mine the TAS required to arrive at CUGAR, 29 minutes
Wind direction 267° (calculated in Step 1).
after level-off.
Windspeed 46 knots (given on the flight log).
A— 285 knots. Course 289° (inbound on GBN 109 radial).
B— 290 knots. TAS 233 knots (given in the flight plan on
C-295 knots. FAA Figure 103).
Calculated GS is 189 knots.
7. Determine the required ground speed using a flight
calculator: 4. Compute the time en route for the leg from UO to
GBN:
Distance flown is 127 NM (80 + 47).
Time is 29 minutes (stated in the problem). Distance 31 NM (determined in Step 2).
Calculated GS is 262.8 knots.
Ground speed 189 (calculated in Step 3).

2. Determine the required TAS: Calculated leg time is 9 minutes, 49 seconds.

Wind direction is 222° Magnetic (see Step 1 in 5. Calculate the fuel burned on this leg:
Question 9556). ETE is :09:49 (calculated in Step 4).
Wind speed is 42 knots (given in flight log). Fuel flow is 676 PPH (in note at the bottom of
Course is 154° (V369). the flight log).
GS is 262.8 knots (calculated in Step 1). Fuel burned is 110.6 pounds.
TAS is 281.2 knots (the closest answer is 285). 6. Repeat steps for the subsequent legs to fill in the
(PLT012) — FAA-H-8083-15 flight log:
FROM TO CRS TAS GS NM ETE FUEL

ATM, ATS, DSP TUS UO — — —

73 :25:00* 350.0*
9560. (Refer to Figures 103, 104, 105, and 106.) Esti UO GBN 289 233 789 31 :09:49 110.6

mate the total fuel required to be on the aircraft, prior GBN lntJ104 298 233 792 76 :23:45 267.5
to taxi at Tucson Intl. (Use 13°E for problem magnetic lntJ104 PKE 277 233 188 47 -.15:01 169.2
variation.) PKE TNP 256 233 187 54 -.17:17 194.7
TNP T/D 250 233 188 81" -.25:49 290.8
A—2,223 pounds.
T/D LAX 52 : 18:00* 170.0*
B- 2,327 pounds.
C-2,447 pounds. 2:14:41 1,552.8
'(given)
To answer this question, complete the flight log in FAA **Note: The DOWNE Three arrival is only used when LAX
Figure 103, using the information given in the problem: is landing on runways 6 or 7 and the total distance from
1. Change the winds aloft at FL220 from true to mag TNP to LAXon the arrivalis 176 NM. However, itis appar
netic, using the variation given in the question. Winds ent from the answer choices and the approach charts that
at GBN are 280° true at 46 knots. a straight-in landing on Runway 25L is assumed. This
280° True
gives a distance of 133 from TNP to LAX. The distance
-13° East variation
from TNP to T/D was determined by taking the distance
from TNP to PIONEIntto LAX(FAA Figure 106) and sub
267° Magnetic
tracting the 52 NM used for the descent. In this question,
2. Find the distance flown for the leg. In this case it is the regulation-required fuel must be calculated using the
31 NM. The sum of the distances from Tucson to summary box at the bottom of the flightplan.
GBN is 104 NM (see the TUCSON 4 Departure), 7. Compute the fuel required to fly the flight:
and 73 NM of that is used by the climb. Distances for
subsequent legs must be determined by referring to Fuel required is 1,552.8 pounds (see flightplan).
the enroute charts and the DOWNE 3 Arrival (FAA 8. Compute the required reserve fuel (see Step 5):
Figures 105 and 106).
Time required is 45 minutes (§135.223).
Fuel flow is 726 PPH (given at bottom of flight
plan in FAA Figure 103).
Reserve fuel is 544.2 pounds.

Answers

9559 [A] 9560 [B]

4-88 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 4 Performance

9. Compute fuel burn to alternate (see Step 5): 3. Find the distance flown for the leg. In this case it is
Time to alternate is: 19:00 (given in FAA Figure 50 NM. The remarks section of the flightplan notes
103). that the UO point is on the OCN 270° radial at 50
Fuel flow is 726 PPH (given in flight log) NM. The firstleg of the IMPERIAL THREE Departure
is from there to OCN. Even though only one line is
Fuel burn to alternate is 229.9 pounds. used forthe cruise portion of the IMPERIAL 3 depar
». Add the totals of Steps 7 through 9: ture, each leg of it should be calculated separately
FUEL for best accuracy. The same is true of the ARLIN 9
Arrival into PHX.
1552.8 En route
544.5 Reserve 4. Find the ground speed for the leg from UO to OCN
+ 229.9 Alternate using a flight computer:
2,327.2 Total Wind direction 285° (calculated in Step 1).
(PLT012) — FAA-H-8083-15 Windspeed 43 knots (given on the flight log).
Course 090° (UO point is on the OCN
270° radial).
ATM, ATS, DSP TAS 463.1 knots (calculated in Step 2).
9561. (Refer to Figures 103, 104, 105, and 106.) Calculated GS is 504.5 knots.
Determine the ETE for the flight from Tucson Intl to
Los Angeles Intl.
5. Compute the time en route for the leg from UO to
OCN:
A— 2 hours 10 minutes.
B— 2 hours 15 minutes.
Distance 50 NM (determined in Step 3).
C—2 hours 19 minutes.
Ground speed 504.5 (calculated in Step 4).
Calculated leg time is 5 minutes, 57 seconds.
Refer to Question 9560, Steps 1-6. 6. Since the next question asks for the fuel required for
(PLT012) — FAA-H-8083-15 the flight, calculate the fuel burned on this leg:
ETE is :5:57 (calculated in Step 5).
Fuel flow is 9,600 PPH (in note at the bottom of
ATM, ATS, DSP
9578. (Refer to Figures 107, 115, 116, 117, 118, and
the flight log).
118C.) What is the ETE at .78 Mach? Fuel burned is 951.4 pounds.
A— 1 hour 08 minutes. 7. Repeat steps for the subsequent legs to fill in the
B— 1 hour 02 minutes. flight log:
C— 1 hour 05 minutes.
FROM TO CRS TAS GS NM ETE FUEL

To answer this question, complete the flight log in FAA LAX UO — — —

43 : 19:00* 4,510.0*
Figure 115, using the information given in the problem: UO OCN 090 463.7 504.5 50 :05:57 951.4
OCN JLI 083 463.7 502.7 42 -.05:01 802.1
1. Change the winds aloft at FL270 from true to mag
JLI KUMBA 115 463.7 505.4 35 :04:09 664.8
netic, using the variationfrom the Chart Supplements
KUMBA IPL 078 463.7 501.0 27 -.03:14 517.4
U.S. entries for the LAX and PHX VORTACs. Winds
IPL BZA 074 463.1 499.4 46 -.05:32 885.3
at IPL are 300° True at 43 knots.
BZA Mohak Int 075 463.1 499.0 32 :03:51 615.6
300° True
Mohak T/P 067 463.1 494.7 15 -.01:49 290.7
- 15° East variation
T/P HYDRR 035 463.1 473.9 42 :05:19 850.7
285° Magnetic HYDRR ARLIN 076 463.1 499.0 19 :02:17 365.3
2. Calculate the TAS for Mach . 78: ARLIN PHX — : 12:00* 1,140.0*
ISA temperature at FL270 is -39°C 1:08:09 11,593.3
((27 x (-2°))+ 15°). '(given)
ISA-2°=-41 °C (PLT012) — FAA-H-8083-15
Using a flight calculator, determine that Mach . 78
= 463.1 knots.

Answers

9561 [B] 9578 [A]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 4-89

Chapter 4 Performance

ATM, ATS, DSP NM/1,000 is calculated by multiplying TAS times 1,000

9579. (Refer to Figures 115,116,117,118, and 118C.) and dividing the answer by the fuel flow.
What is the total fuel required at .78 Mach?
TAS is 463.1 (calculated in Step 2 of Question
A—22,140 pounds. 9578).
B- 22,556 pounds. Fuel flow is 9,600 PPH (given in the flight log).
C—22,972 pounds.
NM/1,000 = 48.2
In this question, the regulation-required fuel must be (PLTOW)-ANA
calculated using the summary box at the bottom of the
flightplan:
ATM, ATS, DSP
1. Compute the fuel required to fly the flight: 9581. (Refer to Figures 107, 115, 116, 117, 118, and
Fuel required is 11,593.3 pounds (see flight 118C.) What is the ETE at .80 Mach?
plan in Question 9578). A— 1 hour 02 minutes.
2. Compute the required reserve fuel (see Question B— 1 hour 04 minutes.
9578, Step 6): C— 1 hour 07 minutes.
Time required is 45 minutes (§121.639).
To answer this question, complete the flight log in FAA
Fuel flow is 9,250 PPH (given at bottom of flight
Figure 115, using the information given in the problem:
plan in FAA Figure 115).
Reserve fuel is 6,937.5 pounds.
1. Change the winds aloft at FL270 from true to mag
netic, using the variation from the ChartSupplements
3. Determine ETE to alternate: U.S. entries for the LAX and PHX VORTACs. Winds
ETE to alternate is 26 minutes (given in the at IPL are 300° True at 43 knots.
flight log). 300° True
4. Compute fuel burn to alternate (see Question 9578, - 15° East variation
Step 6): 285° Magnetic
Time to alternate is :26:00 (from Step 3). 2. Calculate the TAS for Mach .80:
Fuel flow is 9,250 PPH (given in flight log).
ISA temperature at FL270 is -39°C
Fuel burn to alternate is 4,008.3 pounds. ((27 x (-2°))+ 15°).
5. Add the totals of Steps 1 through 4: ISA-2°=-41 °C
FUEL Using a flight calculator, determine that Mach .80
11,593.3 Enroute = 475.0 knots.
6,937.5 Reserve 3. Find the distance flown for the leg. In this case it is
+ 4,008.3 Alternate 50 NM. The remarks section of the flight plan notes
22,539.1 Total that the UO point is on the OCN 270° radial at 50
(PLT012) — FAA-H-8083-15 NM. The firstleg of the IMPERIAL THREE Departure
is from there to OCN. Even though only one line is
used for the cruise portion of the IMPERIAL 3 depar
ATM, ATS, DSP ture, each leg of it should be calculated separately
9580. (Refer to Figures 115,116,117,118, and 118C.) for best accuracy. The same is true of the ARLIN 9
What is the specific range in nautical miles per 1,000 Arrival into PHX.
pounds of fuel from level-off to the ARLIN Intersection 4. Find the ground speed for the leg from UO to OCN
using .78 Mach? using a flight computer:
A- 48.8 NAM/1,000 pounds. Wind direction 285° (calculated in Step 1).
B- 48.2 NAM/1,000 pounds. Windspeed 43 knots (given on the flightlog).
C-47.9 NAM/1,000 pounds. Course 090° (UO point is on the OCN
270° radial).
TAS 475.0 knots (calculated in Step 2).
Calculated GS is 516.4 knots.

Answers

9579 [B] 9580 [B] 9581 [C]

4-90 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 4 Performance

5. Compute the time en route for the leg from UO to 3. Determine ETE to alternate:
OCN:
ETE to alternate is 26 minutes (given in the
Distance 50 NM (determined in Step 3). flight log).
Ground speed 516.4 (calculated in Step 4). 4. Compute fuel burn to alternate (see Question 9581,
Calculated leg time is 5 minutes, 49 seconds. Step 6):
6. Since the next question asks forthe fuel requiredfor Time to alternate is :26:00 (from Step 3).
the flight, calculate the fuel burned on this leg: Fuel flow is 9,250 PPH (given in flight log).
ETE is :5:49 (calculated in Step 5). Fuel burn to alternate is 4,008.3 pounds.
Fuel flow is 9,600 PPH (in note at the bottom of 5. Add the totals of Steps 1 through 4:
the flight log).
FUEL
Fuel burned is 930.7 pounds.
11,460.1 Enroute
7. Repeat steps for the subsequent legs to fill in the 6,937.5 Reserve
flight log: + 4,008.3 Alternate
FROM TO CRS TAS GS NM ETE FUEL 22,405.9 Total
LAX UO — 43 :19:00* 4,510.0*
(PLT012) — FAA-H-8083-15
UO OCN 090 475 516.4 50 :05:49 930.7
OCN JLI 083 475 514.6 42 :04:54 784.0
JLI KUMBA 115 475 517.3 35 -.04:04 650.7 ATM, ATS, DSP
KUMBA IPL 078 475 512.9 27 :03:10 506.7 9583. (Refer to Figures 115,116,117, and 118C.) What
IPL BZA 074 475 510.9 46 -.05:24 864.3 approximate indicated Mach should be maintained to
BZA Mohak Int 075 475 510.5 32 :03:46 601.8 arrive over the BZA VORTAC 6 minutes after passing
Mohak T/P 067 475 506.6 15 -.01:47 285.3 IPL VORTAC?
T/P HYDRR 035 475 485.8 42 :05:11 829.3 A- .73 Mach.
HYDRR ARLIN 076 475 510.9 19 :02:14 357.3 B- .74 Mach.
ARLIN PHX — : 12:00* 1,140.0* C-.715 Mach.
1:07:19 11,460.1
'(given) 7. Determine the required GS:
(PLT012) — FAA-H-8083-15 Distance is 46 NM (FAA Figure 117).
Time is 6 minutes (given in the question).
GS = 460 knots
ATM, ATS, DSP
2. Determine the required TAS:
9582. (Refer to Figures 115,116,117,118, and 118C.)
What is the total fuel required at .80 Mach? Wind direction is 287° magnetic (300° True from
A—22,836 pounds. flight log, less 13° east variation).
B— 22,420 pounds. Wind speed is 43 knots (given in flight log).
C—22,556 pounds. Course is 074° (FAA Figure 117).
GS is 460 knots (calculated in Step 1).
In this question, the regulation-required fuel must be Required TAS = 424.6 knots.
calculated using the summary box at the bottom of the 3. Calculate the required Mach number:
flight plan.
TAS is 424.6 knots (calculated in Step 2).
1. Compute the fuel required to fly the flight: Temperature is -41 °C (calculated in Question
Fuel required is 11,460.1 pounds (see flight 9581, Step 2).
plan in Question 9581). Required Mach number is .715.
2. Compute the required reserve fuel (see Question (PLT012) — FAA-H-8083-15
9581, Step 6):
Time required is 45 minutes (§121.639).
Fuel flow is 9,250 PPH (given at bottom of flight
plan in FAA Figure 115).
Reserve fuel is 6,937.5 pounds.

Answers

9582 [B] 9583 [C]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 4-91

Chapter 4 Performance

ATM, ATS, DSP 6. Since the next question asks for the fuel required for
9584. (Refer to Figures 107, 115, 116, 117, 118, and the flight, calculate the fuel burned on this leg:
118C.) What is the ETE at .82 Mach?
ETE is :5:41 (calculated in Step 5).
A— 1 hour 05 minutes. Fuel flow is 9,600 PPH (in note at the bottom of
B— 1 hour 07 minutes. the flight log).
C— 1 hour 03 minutes.
Fuel burned is 909.3 pounds.
To answer this question, complete the flight log in FAA 7. Repeat steps for the subsequent legs to fill in the
Figure 115, using the information given in the problem: flight log:
1. Change the winds aloft at FL270 from true to mag FROM TO CRS TAS GS NM ETE FUEL

netic, using the variation from the ChartSupplements LAX UO — — —

43 -.19:00* 4,510.0*
U.S. entries for the LAX and PHX VORTACs. Winds UO OCN 090 486.9 528.3 50 -.05:41 909.3
at IPL are 300° true at 43 knots. OCN JLI 083 486.9 526.5 42 .04:47 765.3

300° True JLI KUMBA 115 486.9 529.2 35 :03:58 634.7

-15° East variation KUMBA IPL 078 486.9 524.8 27 :03:05 493.3
IPL BZA 074 486.9 522.4 46 :05:17 845.4
285° Magnetic
BZA Mohak Int 075 486.9 522.4 32 -.03:41 588.1
2. Calculate the TAS for Mach .82:
Mohak T/P 067 486.9 518.5 15 :01:44 277.3
ISA temperature at FL270 is -39°C T/P HYDRR 035 486.9 497.7 42 :05:04 810.7
((27 x (-2°))+ 15°). HYDRR ARLIN 076 486.9 522.8 19 :02:11 349.3
ISA-2° =-41 °C ARLIN PHX — : 12:00* 1,140.0*
Using a flight calculator, determine that Mach .82 :06:28 11,323.4
= 486.9 knots. '(given)
3. Find the distance flown for the leg. In this case it is (PLT012) — FAA-H-8083-15
50 NM. The remarks section of the flight plan form
notes that the UO point is on the OCN 270° radial at
50 NM. The firstleg of the IMPERIAL 3 Departure is ATM, ATS, DSP
from there to OCN. Even though only one line is used 9585. (Refer to Figures 115,116,117,118, and 118C.)
for the cruise portion of the IMPERIAL 3 departure, What is the total fuel required at .82 Mach?
each leg of itshould be calculated separately forbest A- 22,420 pounds.
accuracy. The same is true of the ARLIN 9 Arrival B— 22,284 pounds.
into PHX. C-22,700 pounds.
4. Find the ground speed for the leg from UO to OCN
using a flight computer: In this question, the regulation-required fuel must be
calculated using the summary box at the bottom of the
Wind direction 285° (calculated in Step 1).
flight plan.
Wind speed 43 knots (given in the flight log).
Course 090° (UO point is on the OCN 1. Compute the fuel required to fly the flight:
270° radial). Fuel required is 11,323.4 pounds (see flight
TAS 486.9 knots (calculated in Step 2). plan in Question 9584).
Calculated GS is 528.3 knots. 2. Compute the required reserve fuel (see Question
5. Compute the time en route for the leg from UO to 9584, Step 6):
OCN: Time required is 45 minutes (§121.639).
Distance 50 NM (determined in Step 3). Fuel flow is 9,250 PPH (given at bottom of flight
Ground speed 528.3 (calculated in Step 4). plan in FAA Figure 115).
Calculated leg time is 5 minutes, 41 seconds. Reserve fuel is 6,937.5 pounds.
3. Determine ETE to alternate:

ETE to alternate is 26 minutes (given in the

flight log).

Answers

9584 [B] 9585 [B]

4-92 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 4 Performance

4. Compute fuel burn to alternate (see Question 9584, 5. Compute the time en route for the leg from UO to
Step 6): YXU:
Time to alternate is :26:00 (computed in Distance 40 NM (determined in Step 3).
previous step). Ground speed 428.0 (calculated in Step 4).
Fuel flow is 9,250 PPH (given in flight log). Calculated leg time is 5 minutes, 36 seconds.
Fuel burn to alternate is 4,008.3 pounds. 6. Since the next question asks forthe fuel requiredfor
5. Add the totals of Steps 1 through 4: the flight, calculate the fuel burned on this leg:
FUEL ETE is :5:36 (calculated in Step 5).
11,323.4 En route Fuel flow is 9,300 PPH (in note at the bottom of
6,937.5 Reserve the flight log).
+ 4,008.3 Alternate Fuel burned is 869.1 pounds.
22,269.2 Total 7. Repeat steps for the subsequent legs to fill in the
(PLT012) — FAA-H-8083-15 flight log:
FROM TO CRS TAS GS NM ETE FUEL

BUF UO — — —
70 16:00* 4,960.0*
ATM, ATS, DSP
UO YXU 282 451 428.0 40 05:36 869.1
9591. (Refer to Figures 119,120,121, and 122.) What
YXU FA/7" 270 451 431.9 114 15:50 2454.5
is the ETE from BUF to ORD using .78 Mach?
FNT T/D 258 451 439.3 94 12:50 1989.9
A— 1 hour 09 minutes.
T/D PMM — — —
15 02:00* 216.7*
B— 1 hour 07 minutes.
PMM ORD 89 13:00* 1,408.3*
C— 1 hour 05 minutes.
1 05:16 11,898.5

To answer this question, complete the flight log in FAA '(given)

Figure 119, using the information given in the problem: (PLT012) — FAA-H-8083-15
1. Change the winds aloft at FL310 from true to mag
netic, using the variation from the remarks section
ATM, ATS, DSP
of the flightplan. Winds at BUF are 330° True at 39
9592. (Refer to Figures 119,120,121, and 122.) What
knots.
is the total fuel required for the flight from BUF to ORD
330° True using .78 Mach?
+ 08° West variation
A-19,033 pounds.
338° Magnetic B—21,739 pounds.
2. Calculate the TAS for Mach . 78: C—22,189 pounds.
ISA temperature at FL310 is -47°C In this question, the regulation-required fuel must be
((31 x (-2°))+15). calculated using the summary box at the bottom of the
ISA -6° = -53°C flight plan.
Using a flight calculator, determine that Mach . 78 1. Compute the fuel required to fly the flight:
= 451.0 knots.
Fuel required is 11,898.5 pounds (see flight
3. Find the distance flown for the leg, in this case 40 plan in Question 9591).
NM. FAA Figure 121 shows that it is 110 NM from
BUF to YXU via J547. The flight log indicates that 70 2. Compute the required reserve fuel (see Question
NM is needed for the climb.
9591, Step 6):
Time required is 45 minutes (§121.639).
4. Find the ground speed for the leg from UO to YXU
Fuel flow is 9,550 PPH (given at bottom of flight
using a flight computer:
plan in FAA Figure 119).
Winddirection 338° (calculated in Step 1).
Reserve fuel is 7,162.5 pounds.
Windspeed 39 knots (given in the flightlog).
Course 282° (UO point is on the BUF 3. Determine ETE to alternate:
282° radial). ETE to alternate is 17 minutes (given in the
TAS 451.0 knots (calculated in Step 2). flight log).
Calculated GS is 428.0 knots. Continued

Answers

9591 [C] 9592 [B]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 4-93

Chapter 4 Performance

Compute fuel burn to alternate (see Question 9591, 2. Calculate the TAS for Mach .80:
Step 6): ISA temperature at FL310 is -47°C
Time to alternate is :17:00 (from Step 3). ((31 x (-2°)) + 15°).
Fuel flow is 9,550 PPH (given in flightlog). ISA -6° = -53°C
Fuel burn to alternate is 2,705.8 pounds. Using a flight calculator, determine that Mach .80
Add the totals of Steps 1 through 4: = 462.5 knots.

FUEL 3. Find the distance flown for the leg. In this case it is
11,898.5 En route
40 NM. FAA Figure 121 shows that itis 110 NMfrom
7,162.5 Reserve
BUF to YXUvia J547. The flightlog indicates that 70
NM is needed for the climb.
+ 2,705.8 Alternate
21,766.8 Total 4. Find the ground speed for the leg from UO to YXU
using a flight computer:
(PLT012) — FAA-H-8083-15
Winddirection 338° (calculated in Step 1).
Windspeed 39 knots (given in the flightlog).
ATM, ATS, DSP Course 282° (UO point is on the BUF
9593. (Refer to Figures 119,120,121, and 122.) What is 282° radial).
the specific range in nautical air miles per 1,000 pounds TAS 462.5 knots (calculated in Step 2).
of fuel from level-off to start of descent using .78 Mach? Calculated GS is 428.0 knots.
A-48.9 NAM/1000. 5. Compute the time enroute for the leg from UO to
B-52.5 NAM/1000. YXU:
C-55.9 NAM/1000.
Distance 40 NM (determined in Step 3).
NM/1,000 is calculated by multiplying TAS times 1,000 Ground speed 439.6 (calculated in Step 4).
and dividing the answer by the fuel flow: Calculated leg time is 5 minutes, 28 seconds.
TASis 451 (calculated in Question 9591, Step 2). 6. Since the next question asks for the fuel required for
Fuel flow is 9,300 PPH (given in the flight log). the flight, calculate the fuel burned on this leg:
NM/1,000 = 48.5 ETE is :5:28 (calculated in Step 5).
(PLTOW)-ANA Fuel flow is 9,300 PPH (in note at the bottom of
the flight log).
Fuel burned is 846.2 pounds.
ATM, ATS, DSP
9594. (Refer to Figures 119,120,121, and 122.) What 7. Repeat steps for the subsequent legs to fill in the
is the ETE from BUF to ORD using .80 Mach? flight log:
FROM TO CRS TAS GS NM ETE FUEL
A— 1 hour 01 minutes.
B— 1 hour 04 minutes. BUF UO — — —

70 :16:00' 4,960.0
C— 1 hour 08 minutes. UO YXU 282 462.5 439.6 40 :05:28 846.2
YXU FNT 270 462.5 443.5 114 : 15:25 2,390.3
To answer this question, complete the flight log in FAA FNT T/D 258 462.5 450.9 94 : 12:30 1938.7
Figure 119, using the informationgiven in the problem: T/D PMM — — —

15 .02:00* 216.7

1. Change the winds aloft at FL310 from true to mag PMM ORD — — —

89 : 13:00' 1,408.3
netic, using the variation from the remarks section 1:04:23 11,760.2
of the flight plan. Winds at BUF are 330° True at 39 '(given)
knots.
(PLT012) — FAA-H-8083-15
330° True
+ 08° West variation
338° Magnetic

Answers

9593 [A] 9594 [B]

4-94 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 4 Performance

ATM, ATS, DSP To answer this question, complete the flight log in FAA
9595. (Refer to Figures 119,120,121, and 122.) What Figure 158, using the informationgiven in the problem:
is the total fuel required for the flight from BUF to ORD
1. Change the winds aloft at FL370 from true to mag
using .80 Mach?
netic, using the variation from the remarks section of
A-19,388 pounds. the flightplan. Notice that the variation changes with
B- 22,494 pounds. each leg. Winds at ROD are 350° True at 96 knots.
C-21,644 pounds.
350° True
+ 01° West variation
In this question, the regulation-required fuel must be
calculated using the summary box at the bottom of the 351° Magnetic
flightplan. 2. Find the distance flown for the leg. In this case it is
1. Compute the fuel required to fly the flight: 131 NM. This is the distance from BIB to SHB in FAA
Figure 160. Although the flight log provides only one
Fuel required is 11,760.2 pounds (see flight line for the leg from BIB to ROD, the turn at SHB
plan in Question 9594).
makes it more accurate to compute the ETEs and
2. Compute the required reserve fuel (see Question fuel burns separately.
9594, Step 6):
3. Find the ground speed for the leg from BID to SHB
Time required is 45 minutes (§121.639). using a flight computer:
Fuel flow is 9,550 PPH (given at bottom of flight
Wind direction 351° (calculated in Step 1).
plan in FAA Figure 119).
Wind speed 96 knots (given in the flight log).
Reserve fuel is 7,162.5 pounds. Course 067° (V394).
3. Determine ETE to alternate: TAS 506 knots (given in the flightplan in FAA
Figure 158).
ETE to alternate is 17 minutes (given in the
flight log). Calculated GS is 474.1 knots.

4. Compute fuel burn to alternate (see Question 9594, 4. Compute the time en route for the leg from BIB to
Step 6): SHB:

Time to alternate is: 17:00 (from Step 3). Distance 131 NM (determined in Step 2).
Fuel flow is 9,550 PPH (given in flight log). Ground speed 474.1 (calculated in Step 3).
Fuel burn to alternate is 2,705.8 pounds. Calculated leg time is 16 minutes, 35 seconds.
5. Add the totals of Steps 1 through 4: 5. Since the next question asks for the fuel required for
the flight, calculate the fuel burned on this leg:
FUEL
ETE is :16:35 (calculated in Step 4).
11,760.2 Enroute
Fuel flow is 2,389 PPH (in note at the bottom of
7,162.5 Reserve
the flight log).
+ 2,705.8 Alternate
21,628.5 Total Fuel burned is 660.1 pounds.
(PLT012) — FAA-H-8083-15 6. Repeat steps for the subsequent legs to fill in the
flight log:
FROM TO CRS TAS GS NM ETE FUEL
ATM, ATS, DSP
STL BIB — — —
95 16:00* 987.0*
9597. (Refer to Figures 158, 159, 160, 160A, and BIB SHB 067 506 474.7 131 16:35 660.1
161.) The estimated time enroute from STL to LGA for 91 11:40 464.5
SHB ROD 063 506 468.0
N711JBis
ROD DJB 059 506 456.5 107 14:04 560.0
A— 1 hour 46 minutes. DJB PSB 109 506 532.4 191 21:32 857.1
B— 1 hour 50 minutes. PSB MIP 093 506 505.2 61 07:15 288.4
C—1 hour 54 minutes. MIP SBJ 117 506 540.7 92 10:13 406.5
SBJ LGA 52 16:26* 269.0*

1 53:45 4,492.6
'(given)
(PLT012) — FAA-H-8083-15

Answers

9595 [C] 9597 [C]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 4-95

Chapter 4 Performance

ATM, ATS, DSP To answer this question, complete the flight log in FAA
9598. (Refer to Figures 158,159,160,160A, and 161.) Figure 168, using the information given in the problem:
The required amount of fuel (in pounds) to be on N711JB
1. Change the winds aloft at FL190 from true to mag
at STL, prior to taxi, is
netic, using the variation from the remarks section of
A— 5,933 pounds. the flightplan. Notice that the variationchanges with
B— 6,408 pounds. each leg. Winds at PMM are 020° True at 61 knots.
C—6,641 pounds
020° True
+ 01° West variation
In this question, the regulation-required fuel must be
calculated using the summary box at the bottom of the 021° Magnetic
flightplan. 2. Find the distance flown for the leg. In this case it is
1. Compute the fuel required to fly the flight: 47 NM. This is noted in the remarks section of the
flight plan.
Fuel required is 4,492.6 pounds (see flightplan
in Question 9597). 3. Find the ground speed for the leg from UO to PMM
using a flight computer:
2. Compute the required reserve fuel (see Question
9597, Step 5): Wind direction 021° (calculated in Step 1).
Windspeed 61 knots (given in the flight log).
Time required is 45 minutes (§135.223).
Course 081° (UO point is the PMM 261 °
Fuel flow is 1,898 PPH (given at bottom of flight
at47NM).
plan in FAA Figure 158).
TAS247 knots (given in the flightplan in FAA
Reserve fuel is 1,423.5 pounds. Figure 168).
3. Determine ETE to alternate: Calculated GS is 210.0 knots.
ETE to alternate is 15 minutes (given in the 4. Compute the time en route for the leg from UO to
flight log). PMM:
4. Compute fuel burn to alternate (see Question 9597, Distance 47 NM (determined in Step 2).
Step 5): Ground speed 210.0 (calculated in Step 3).
Time to alternate is: 15:00 (from Step 3). Calculated leg time is 13 minutes, 26 seconds.
Fuel flow is 1,898 PPH (given in flight log).
5. Since the next question asks forthe fuel required for
Fuel burn to alternate is 474.5 pounds. the flight, calculate the fuel burned on this leg:
5. Add the totals of Steps 1 through 4: ETE is :13:26 (calculated in Step 4).
FUEL Fuel flow is 676 PPH (in note at the bottom of
4,492.6 En route
the flight log).
1,423.5 Reserve Fuel burned is 151.3 pounds.
+ 474.5 Alternate 6. Repeat steps for the subsequent legs to fill in the
6,390.6 Total flight log:
(PLT012) — FAA-H-8083-15 FROM TO CRS TAS GS NM ETE FUEL

PWK UO — — —
49 :24:00* 410.0*
UO PMM 087 247 270.0 47 : 13:26 151.3
ATM, ATS, DSP
PMM FNT 076 247 205.4 109 :31:50 358.7
9610. (Refer to Figures 168,169,169A, 171, and 172.)
FNT YXU 094 247 217.6 114 :31:26 354.1
What is the ETE for PTZ 70 from Chicago Pal-Waukee
YXU T/D 101 247 222.2 70 : 18:54 213.0
Airport to Greater Buffalo Intl Airport?
T/D BUF 19 : 19:00* 163.0'
A—2 hours 15 minutes.
2:18:36 1,650.1
B—2 hours 18 minutes.
*(given)
C—2 hours 21 minutes.
(PLT012) — FAA-H-8083-15

Answers

9598 [B] 9610 [B]

4-96 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 4 Performance

ATM, ATS, DSP ATM, ATS, DSP

9611. (Refer to Figures 168,169,169A, 171, and 172.) 9628. (Refer to Figures 179,180,181, 182, and 183.)
What is the computed fuel usage for PTZ 70 from start The required fuel from Newport NewsAMIIiamsburg Intl
of taxi at Chicago Pal-Waukee to landing at Greater to Philadelphia Intl for EAB 90 is
Buffalo Intl?
A— 1,860 pounds.
A— 1,642 pounds. B-1,908 pounds.
B— 2,005 pounds. C—2,003 pounds.
C-2,550 pounds.
In this question, the regulation-required fuel must be
See Steps 1 through 6 in Question 9610. Question calculated using the summary box at the bottom of the
9611 asks only for the fuel burn, so it is not necessary flightplan.
to compute reserve or alternate fuel. (PLT012) — FAA- 1. Compute the fuel required to fly the flight:
H-8083-15
Fuel required is 1,133.2 pounds (see flightplan
in Question 9626).
ATM, ATS, DSP 2. Compute the required reserve fuel (see Question
9612. (Refer to Figures 168,171,172, and 173.) What 9626, Step 5):
TAS should PTZ 70 maintain to arrive at FNT 30 minutes
after passing PMM? Time required is 45 minutes (§135.223).
Fuel flow is 739 PPH (given at bottom of flight
A— 255 knots. plan in FAA Figure 113).
B— 265 knots.
C—260 knots.
Reserve fuel is 554.3 pounds.
3. Determine ETE to alternate:
7. Determine the required GS from PMM to FNT: ETE to alternate is 18 minutes (given in the
Distance is 109 NM (FAA Figure 171). flight log).
Time is 30 minutes (given in question). 4. Compute fuel burn to alternate (see Question 9626,
Required GS is 218.0 knots. Step 5):
2. Calculate the required TAS: Time to alternate is :18:00 (from Step 3).
Winddirection is 023° magnetic (020 + 3° west Fuel flow is 739 PPH (given in flight log).
variation). Fuel burn to alternate is 221.7 pounds.
Windspeed is 61 knots (given in flight log). 5. Add the totals of Steps 1 through 4:
Course is 078° (inbound on the FNT
258° radial). FUEL
GS is 218.0 (calculated in Step 1). 1,133.2 En route
554.3 Reserve
Required TAS is 257.9.
+ 221.7 Alternate
(PLT012) — FAA-H-8083-15 1,909.2 Total
(PLT012) — FAA-H-8083-15
ATM, ATS, DSP
9627. (Refer to Figures 179,180,181,182, and 182A.)
The planned fuel usage from Newport NewsAA/illiams- ATM, ATS, DSP

burg Intl to Philadelphia Intl for EAB 90 is 9642. (Refer to Figures 190,191,192,193,193A, 194,
195, and 195A.) The estimated time enroute from MSP
A—1,132 pounds. to DEN for PIL 10 is
B—1,107 pounds.
C—1,084 pounds. A— 1 hour 54 minutes.
B— 1 hour 57 minutes.
See Steps 1 through 6 in Question 9626. Question C—2 hours 00 minutes.
9627 asks only for the fuel burn, so it is not necessary
to compute reserve or alternate fuel. (PLT012) — FAA-
H-8083-15 Continued

Answers

9611 [A] 9612 [C] 9627 [A] 9628 [B] 9642 [A]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 4-97

Chapter 4 Performance

To answer this question, complete the flight log in FAA ATM, ATS, DSP
Figure 190, using the information given in the problem: 9643. (Refer to Figures 190,191,192,193,193A, 194,
195 and 195A.) The required fuel that should be onboard
1. Change the winds aloft at FL430 from true to mag
PIL10 at MSP is
netic, using the variation from the remarks section
of the flightplan. Winds at FSD are 290° True at 89 A— 28,053 pounds.
knots. B— 29,057 pounds.
C-29,960 pounds.
290° True
-09° East variation
In this question, the regulation-required fuel must be
281° Magnetic calculated using the summary box at the bottom of the
2. The TAS is 456 knots from the flight plan. flightplan.
3. Find the distance flown for the leg. In this case it is 1. Compute the fuel required to fly the flight:
90 NM. The flightlog shows the UO point as the FSD Fuel required is 17,677.5 pounds (see flight
048° radial at 90 NM. plan in Question 9643).
4. Find the ground speed for the leg from UO to FSD 2. Compute the required reserve fuel (see Question
using a flight computer: 9643, Step 6):
Wind direction 281° (calculated in Step 1). Time required is 45 minutes (§121.639).
Windspeed 89 knots (given in the flight log). Fuel flow is 7,688 PPH (given at bottom of flight
Course 228° (UO point is on the FSD plan in FAA Figure 190).
048° radial).
Reserve fuel is 5,766.0 pounds.
TAS 456 knots (see Step 2).
3. Determine ETE to alternate:
Calculated GS is 396.9 knots.
ETE to alternate is 36 minutes (given in the
5. Compute the time en route for the leg from UO to
flight log).
FSD:
4. Compute fuel burn to alternate (see Question 9642,
Distance 90 NM (determined in Step 3).
Step 6):
Ground speed 396.9 (calculated in Step 4).
Time to alternate is :36:00 (from Step 3).
Calculated leg time is 13 minutes, 36 seconds.
Fuel flow is 7,688 PPH (given in flight log).
6. Since the next question asks for the fuel required for
the flight, calculate the fuel burned on this leg: Fuel burn to alternate is 4,612.8 pounds.

ETE is :13:36 (calculated in Step 5).

5. Add the totals of Steps 1 through 4:
Fuel flow is 9,026 PPH (in note at the bottom of FUEL
the flight log). 17,677.5 Enroute
Fuel burned is 2,045.9 pounds. 5,766.0 Reserve
+ 4,612.8 Alternate
7. Repeat steps for the subsequent legs to fill in the
28,056.3 Total
flight log:
FROM TO CRS TAS GS NM ETE FUEL (PLT012) — FAA-H-8083-15
MSP UO — — — 90 :19:00' 4,170.0*
UO FSD 228 456 396.9 90 :13:36 2,045.9 ATM, ATS, DSP
FSD OBH 198 456 436.5 153 :21:02 3,163.6 8795. (Refer to Figure 103.) What CAS should be used
OBH LBF 249 456 390.1 110 :16:55 2,545.2 to maintain the fixed TAS at the proposed altitude?
LBF MODES 250 456 389.3 104 :16:02 2,411.3 A—157 knots.
MODES AMWAY 218 456 423.5 11 :01:34 234.5 B-167 knots.
AMWAY DEN — — — 97 :25:00* 3,107.0* C-172 knots.
1:53:09 17,677.5
'(given)
The required CAS (Calibrated Airspeed) can be com
puted given TAS, pressure altitude, and OAT. The filed
(PLT012) — FAA-H-8083-15 TAS from the flight plan in FAA Figure 103 is 233 knots.
The OATis -31°C, and the pressure altitude is 22,000
feet. Using a flight computer, the CAS is 167 knots.
(PLT012) — FAA-H-8083-15
Answers

9643 [A] 8795 [B]

4-98 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 4 Performance

ATM, ATS, DSP 2. Find the distance flown for the leg. In this case it is
8835. (Refer to Figures 115, 116, and 117.) Due to 84 NM. The sum of the distances from DFW to BILEE
traffic, LAX Center radar vectored PTL 130 to TRM, is 107 NM, and 23 NM of that is used by the climb.
then cleared the flight to PHX via J169 BLH, direct to Distances for subsequent legs must be determined
Arlin Intersection. What approximate indicated Mach by referring to the enroute charts and the CUGAR
should be maintained to arrive over the BLH VORTAC Four Arrival (FAA Figures 110 and 112).
8 minutes after passing TRM VORTAC?
3. Find the ground speed for the leg from UO to BILEE
A— .84 Mach. using a flight computer:
B— .82 Mach.
Wind direction 212° (calculated in Step 1).
C—.86 Mach.
Wind speed 36 knots (given on the flight log).
7. Compute the ground speed: Magnetic course 154° (V369 is on the DFW
154° radial).
Distance between TRM VORTAC and BLH TAS 115 knots (given in the flight plan on FAA
VORTAC is 70 NM (from FAA Figure 117). Figure 108).
Time enroute is 8 minutes (given in question).
Calculated GS is 91.8 knots.
Therefore, ground speed is 525 knots.
4. Compute the time en route for the leg from UO to
2. Compute the required true airspeed: BILEE:
Wind is 285° (300° - 15° variation) at 43 knots
Distance 84 NM (determined in Step 2).
(from FAA Figure 115). Ground speed 91.8 (calculated in Step 3).
Magnetic course is 078° (from FAA Figure 117).
Ground speed is 525 knots (from Step 1). Calculated leg time is 54 minutes, 54 seconds.
Therefore, required TAS is 487.1 knots. 5. Since the next question asks for the fuel required for
the flight, calculate the fuel burned on this leg:
3. Compute required Mach number:
ETE is :54:54 (calculated in Step 4).
TAS is 487.1 knots (from Step 2).
Fuel flow is 165 PPH (in note at the bottom of
OATis -41 °C (ISA at FL270 is-2° = -41 °C, from
the flight log).
FAA Figure 115).
Fuel burned is 151.0 pounds.
Therefore, required Mach number is .82.
6. Repeat steps for the subsequent legs to fill in the
(PLT012) — FAA-H-8083-15
flight log:
FROM TO CRS TAS GS NM ETE FUEL

RTC DFW UO — — —
23 14:00* 123.0'
9566. (Refer to Figures 108,109,110, and 112.) What UO BILEE 754 775 97.8 84 54:54 151.0
is the ETE from DFW to landing at IAH? BILEE T/P* 754 775 97.8 34 22:13 61.1
T/P** CUGAR 725 775 707.4 13 07:16 20.0
A— 1 hour 55 minutes.
CUGAR T/D 725 775 707.4 9 05:02 13.8
B— 1 hour 59 minutes.
T/D IAH 37 16:00* 140.0'
C—2 hours 03 minutes. — — —

59:25 508.9
Toanswer this question, complete the flight log in FAA '(given)
Figure 108, using the information given in the problem:
"Note: Split the leg from BILEE to CUGARinto two legs
1. Change the windsaloftat 7,000 from trueto magnetic, at 34 NM SE of BILEE. The 29° turn will affect the GS
using the variation from the ChartSupplements U.S.. and the ETE and leg fuel willchange as well.
Winds at BILEE are 220° True at 36 knots.
(PLT012) — FAA-H-8083-15
220° True
-08° East variation
212° Magnetic

Answers

8835 [B] 9566 [B]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 4-99

Chapter 4 Performance

RTC Compute the distance and enroute time from the flight
9567. (Refer to Figures 108,109,110, and 112.) What log used in Question 9567. Using the time and dis
is the total fuel required for the flight from DFW to IAH? tance, compute the average ground speed at 115 TAS.
A—693 pounds. The difference between the ground speed 115 knots
B—595 pounds. and the required ground speed to travel the computed
C—638 pounds. distance in 1 hour and 6 minutes willequal the change
in TAS needed:
In this question, the regulation-required fuel must be FROM TO GS DISTANCE TIME
calculated using the summary box at the bottom of the
UO BILEE 91.8 84 54:54
flight plan.
BILEE X 91.8 34 22:13
1. Compute the fuel required to fly the flight:
x CUGAR 107.4 13 07:16
Fuel required is 508.9 pounds (see flight plan in
131 1 24:23
Question 9566).
131/1:06:00 = 119.1 (required)
2. Compute the required reserve fuel (see Question
131/1:24:23 = -93.1 (at 115 TAS)
9566, Step 5):
26
Time required is 30 minutes (§135.223). + 115.0 (TAS)
Fuel flow is 172 PPH (given at bottom of flight
141 (required)
plan in FAA Figure 108).
(PLT012) — FAA-H-8083-15
Reserve fuel is 86 pounds.
3. Determine ETE to alternate:
RTC
ETE to alternate is 15 minutes (given in the
flight log). 9574. (Refer to Figures 113 and 114.) What is the ETE
for the IFR helicopter flight from Baker Airport to LAX?
4. Compute fuel burn to alternate (see Question 9566,
A— 1 hour 32 minutes.
Step 5):
B— 1 hour 35 minutes.
Time to alternate is: 15:00 (from previous step). C—1 hour 38 minutes.
Fuel flow is 172 PPH (given in flight log).
Fuel burn to alternate is 43.0 pounds. To answer this question, complete the flight log in FAA
Figure 113, using the information given in the problem:
5. Add any additional fuel required for a missed
approach at the destination. In this case add 55 1. Change the winds aloft at 12,000 from true to mag
pounds (given at the bottom of the flight log). netic, using the variation from the ChartSupplements
U.S. entries for Baker and LAX. Winds at DAG are
6. Add the totals of Steps 1 through 5. 290° True at 36 knots.
FUEL
290° True
508.9 En route - 15° East variation
86.0 Reserve
275° Magnetic
+ 98.0 Alternate (43.0 + 55)
692.9 Total 2. Find the distance flown for the leg. In this case it is
(PLT012) — FAA-H-8083-15 15 NM, given in the flight log.
3. Find the ground speed for the leg from UO to DAG
using a flightcomputer:
RTC
Wind direction275° (calculated in Step 1).
9568. (Refer to Figures 108,109,110, and 112.) What
Wind speed 36 knots (given on the flight log).
TASshould be maintained to arrive at Cugar Four Arrival
Course 211° (V394).
initial point 1 hour 6 minutes after level-off?
TAS 110 knots (given in the flight plan on FAA
A—140 knots. Figure 113).
B— 143 knots.
Calculated GS is 89.4 knots.
C-146 knots.

Answers

9567 [A] 9568 [A] 9574 [B]

4-100 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 4 Performance

4. Compute the time en route for the leg from UO to 4. Compute fuel burn to alternate (see Question 9574,
DAG: Step 5):
Distance 15 NM (determined in Step 2). Time to alternate is :11:00 (from Step 3).
Ground speed 89.4 (calculated in Step 3). Fuel flow is 1,095 PPH (given in flight log).
Calculated leg time is 10 minutes, 4 seconds. Fuel burn to alternate is 200.7pounds.
5. Since the next question asks for the fuel required for 5. Add any additional fuel required for a missed
the flight, calculate the fuel burned on this leg: approach at the destination. In this case add 89
ETE is :10:04 (calculated in Step 4). pounds (given at the bottom of the flightlog).
Fuel flow is 1,045 PPH (in note at the bottom of 6. Add the totals of Steps 1 through 5:
the flight log). FUEL
Fuel burned is 175.4 pounds. 1,786.7 Enroute
6. Repeat steps for the subsequent legs to fill in the 547.5 Reserve
flight log: + 289.7 Alternate (200.7 + 89)
FROM TO CRS TAS GS NM ETE FUEL 2,623.9 Total
O02 UO 8 :10:00* 250.0* (PLT012) — FAA-H-8083-15
UO DAG 211 110 89.4 15 : 10:04 175.4
DAG POM 214 110 87.9 80 :54:35 950.6
83.3 :03:36 62.7 RTC
POM PIRRO 225 110 5
PIRRO LAX — 29 : 17:00* 348.0*
9621. (Refer to Figures 174,175,176,177,177A, and
178.) The estimated time enroute from LWS to HQM,
1:35:15 1,786.7
for Sea Hawk 1 is
'(given)
A—2 hours 31 minutes.
(PLT012) FAA-H-8083-15 B— 2 hours 34 minutes.
C—2 hours 37 minutes.

RTC
To answer this question, complete the flight log in FAA
9575. (Refer to Figures 113 and 114.) What is the total Figure 174, using the information given in the problem:
fuel required for the IFR helicopter flight from Baker
Airport to LAX, with LGB as an alternate? 1. Change the winds aloft at 12,000 feet from true to
magnetic, using the variation from the ChartSupple
A—2,625 pounds. ments U.S. entries for the LWS and HQM VORTACs.
B—2,536 pounds. Winds at ALW are 340° True at 40 knots.
C—2,335 pounds.
340° True
In this question, the regulation-required fuel must be -20° East variation
calculated using the summary box at the bottom of the 320° Magnetic
flightplan. 2. Calculate the TAS for existing temperature:
1. Compute the fuel required to fly the flight: ISA temperature at 12,000 feet is -9°C
Fuel required is 1,786.7 pounds (see flightplan ((12 x (-2°))+ 15°).
in Question 9574). ISA-8°=-17°C

2. Compute the required reserve fuel (see Question Usinga flight calculator, determine thata CAS of 132
9574, Step 5): knots gives a TAS of 155.6. Note that the temperature
Time required is 30 minutes (§135.223). and altitude changes many times in flightlog.
Fuel flow is 1,095 PPH (given at bottom of flight 3. Find the distance flown for the leg. In this case it is
plan in FAA Figure 113). 43 NM. FAA Figure 175 shows a distance of 43 NM
Reserve fuel is 547.5 pounds.
from CLOVA Int. to ALW. The flight log shows the first
cruiseleg tobe from MQG toALW, butthisan apparent
3. Determine ETE to alternate: misprint. The mileage shown in the climb leg agrees
ETE to alternate is 11 minutes (given in the with the SID distance to CLOVA (FAA Figure 177A).
flight log). The timeand fuel calculations only workout ifCLOVA
is substituted for MQG in the flightlog.
Continued

Answers

9575 [A] 9621 [B]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 4-101

Chapter 4 Performance

4. Find the ground speed for the leg from CLOVA to RTC

ALW using a flight computer: 9607. (Refer to Figures 162,163,163A, 164,165,166A

and 167.) What is the ETE for the IFR helicopter flight
Wind direction 320° (calculated in Step 1).
from Tucson/Ryan to Albuquerque/Double Eagle II?
Wind speed 40 knots (given on the flight log).
Course 234° (V520 is the MQG 234 radial). A—2 hours 14 minutes.
TAS 155.6 knots (calculated in Step 2). B—2 hours 16 minutes.
C—2 hours 18 minutes.
Calculated GS is 147.6 knots.
5. Compute the time en route for the leg from CLOVA To answer this question, complete the flightlog in FAA
to ALW: Figure 162, using the information given in the problem:
Distance 43 NM (determined in Step 3). 1. Change the winds aloft at 11,000 feet from true to
Ground speed 147.6 (calculated in Step 4). magnetic, using the variation fromthe ChartSupple
Calculated leg time is 17 minutes, 29 seconds. ments U.S. entries for the TUS andABQ VORTACs.
Winds at CIE are 240° True at 31 knots.
6. Since the next question asks forthe fuel required for
the flight, calculate the fuel burned on this leg: 240° True
- 12° East variation
ETE is :17:29 (calculated in Step 5).
Fuel flow is 525 PPH (in note at the bottom of 228° Magnetic
the flight log). 2. Calculate the TAS forexisting temperature:
Fuel burned is 152.9 pounds. ISA temperature at 11,000 feet is -7°C
7. Repeat steps for the subsequent legs to fill in the ((11 x (-2°))+15°).
flight log: ISA-6° = -13°C
FROM TO CRS TAS GS NM ETE FUEL Using a flightcalculator, determine thata CAS of 125
LWS CLOVA — — —
15 :15:00* 191.0* knots gives a TAS of 145.7. Note thatthe temperature
CLOVA ALW 234 755.6 747.6 43 : 17:29 152.9 changes three times in flightlog.
ALW PSC 267 757.7 729.9 36 : 16:39 145.6 3. Find the distance flown for the leg. In this case it is
PSC YKM 268 757.7 726.4 58 -.27:33 241.0 38 NM. FAA Figure 164 shows a distance of 38 NM
YKM SEA 283 758.3 729.4 93" :43:08 377.4 from MESCA Int. to CIE.
SEA ULESS 228 739.9 734.0 64 :28:40 250.8 4. Find the ground speed for the leg from MESCA to
ULESS HQ -.02:00* 16.0*
— — — —

CIE using a flightcomputer:

HQ HQM — — — — :04:00* 32.0*
Winddirection 228° (calculated in Step 1).
2:34:29 1,406.7
Wind speed 31 knots (given in the flight log).
*(given)
Course 065° (MESCA is on the CIE
"Caution: the 78 NM shown in the box on V4 is the 245° radial).
distance from SEA to the compulsory reporting point TAS 145.7knots (calculatedin Step 2).
TITON. It is another 15 NM from TITON to YKM.
Calculated GS is 175.1 knots.
(PLT012) — FAA-H-8083-15 5. Compute the time en route forthe leg from MESCA
to CIE:

Distance 38 NM (determined in Step 3).

Ground speed 175.1 (calculated in Step 4).
Calculated leg time is 13 minutes, 1 second.
6. Since the next question asks for the fuel requiredfor
the flight, calculate the fuel burned on this leg:
ETE is: 13:01 (calculated in Step 5).
Fuel flow is 523 PPH (in note at the bottom
of the flightlog).
Fuel burned is 113.5 pounds.

Answers

9607 [B]

4-102 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 4 Performance

7. Repeat steps for the subsequent legs to fill in the 5. Add any additional fuel required for a missed
flight log: approach at the destination. In this case add 40
FROM TO CRS TAS GS NM ETE FUEL
pounds (given at the bottom of the flight log).
RYN MESCA — — — 38 :17:00* 180.0* 6. Add the totals of Steps 1 through 5:
MESCA CIE 065 145.7 175.1 38 :13:01 113.5 FUEL
CIE SSO 048 145.7 176.7 29 :09:51 85.8 1,213.1 Enroute
SSO DMN 077 147.1 172.4 84 :29:14 254.9 248.5 Reserve
DMN TCS 003 147.1 160.9 62 :23:07 201.5 + 81.4 Alternate (41.4 + 40)
TCS T/P" 015 147.9 179.9 39 :13:00 113.4 1,543.0 Total
T/P** ONM 356 147.9 174.9 29 :09:57 86.7
(PLT012) — FAA-H-8083-15
ONM ABQ 347 147.9 171.2 42 :14:43 128.3
ABQ AEG — — — 6 :06:00* 49.0*
2:15:53 1,213.1 RTC
*(given) 9639. (Refer to Figures 184,186,187, and 188A.) What
"Note: The leg from TCS to ONM shouldbe splitin two is the ETE for Hoss 1 from Las Vegas to Provo?
(39 NM from TCS) due to the turn in the airway. This A—1 hour 31 minutes.
results in more accurate time and fuel burn numbers. B— 1 hour 33 minutes.
(PLT012) — FAA-H-8083-15 C— 1 hour 35 minutes.

To answerthis question, complete the flight log in FAA

RTC
Figure 184, using the information given in the problem:
9608. (Refer to Figures 162,163, 164, 165, and 167.) 1. Change the winds aloft at 15,000 feet from true to
What is the total estimated fuel required for this IFR heli magnetic, using the variation from the Chart Supple
copter flight from RYN toAEG with ABQ as an alternate? ments U.S. entries for the LAS and PVU VORTACs.
A— 1,462 pounds. Winds at MMM are 210° True at 71 knots.
B— 1,503 pounds. 210° True
C—1,543 pounds. - 15° East variation
195° Magnetic
In this question, the regulation-required fuel must be
calculated using thesummary boxat thebottom of the 2. Calculate the TAS for existing temperature:
flightplan. ISA temperature at 15,000 feet is -W°C
1. Compute the fuelrequired to fly the flight: ((15 x (-2°)) + 15°).
ISA-10° =-25°C
Fuel required is 1,213.1 pounds (see flight plan
in Question 9607). Using a flight calculator, determine that a CAS of
135 knots gives a TAS of 166.1.
2. Compute the required reserve fuel (see Step 5 in
Question 9607): 3. Find the distance flown for the leg. In this case it is
43 NM. FAA Figure 186shows a distance of 43 NM
Time required is 30 minutes (§135.223). from ACLAM Int. to MMM.
Fuel flow is 1,898 PPH (given at bottom of flight
plan in FAA Figure 113). 4. Find the ground speed for the leg from ACLAM to
MMM using a flight computer:
Reserve fuel is 497 pounds.
Wind direction 195° (calculated in Step 1).
3. Determine ETE to alternate: Wind speed 71 knots (given on the flight log).
ETE to alternate is 5 minutes (given in the flight Course 360° (V8 is the MMM 180° radial).
log). TAS 166.1 knots (calculatedin Step 2).
4. Compute fuel burn toalternate (see Step 5 in Ques Calculated GS is 233.7 knots.
tion 9607): Continued
Time to alternate is :05:00 (computed in
previous step).
Fuel flow is 497 PPH (given in flight log).
Fuel burn to alternate is 41.4 pounds.

Answers

9608 [C] 9639 [B]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 4-103

 Chapter 4 Performance

5. Compute the time en route for the leg from ACLAM 3. Determine ETE to alternate:
to MMM:
ETE to alternate is 17 minutes, 20 seconds.
Distance 43 NM (determined in Step 3). 4. Compute fuelburn to alternate (see Question 9639,
Ground speed 233.7 (calculatedin Step 4). Step 5):
Calculated leg time is 11 minutes, 2 seconds. Time to alternate is :17:20 (from Step 3).
6. Since thenextquestion asks for the fuelrequired for Fuel flow is 480 PPH (given in flight log).
the flight, calculate the fuel burned on this leg: Fuel burn to alternate is 138.7pounds.
ETEis :11:02 (calculatedin Step 5). 5. Add any additional fuel required for a missed
Fuel flow is 496 PPH (in note at the bottom of approach at the destination. In this case add 40
the flight log). pounds (given at the bottom of the flight log).
Fuel burned is 91.3 pounds. 6. Add the totals of Steps 1 through 5:
7. Repeat steps for the subsequent legs tofill in the flight FUEL
log. Although the leg from MMM to REEKA is shown 7,97.5 En route
on one line on the flight log, each segment should 240.0 Reserve
be calculated separately to get the most accurate + 178.7 Alternate (138.7 + 40)
time and fuel. 1,216.2 Total
FROM TO CRS TAS GS NM ETE FUEL (PLT012) — FAA-H-8083-15
LAS ACLAM 31 15:00* 152.0*
ACLAM MMM 360 166.1 233.7 43 11:02 91.3
MMM MLF RTC
016 166.1 237.1 113 •28:36 236.4
MLF DTA 007 166.1 236.1 61 15:13 125.8
9652. (Refer to Figures 197, 199, and 200.) What is
DTA REEKA 008 166.1 236.4 50 12:42 105.0
the ETE for the IFR helicopter flight from EagleCounty
REEKA PVU 19 10:00* 87.0*
Regional to Salt Lake City Intl? (PUC to FFU should
•32:50 797.5
read "14,000" for altitude. Use PUC magnetic variation
'(given)
for entire problem.)
A— 1 hour 28 minutes.
(PLT012) — FAA-H-8083-15
B—1 hour 35 minutes.
C—1 hour 31 minutes.
RTC
9640. (Refer to Figures 184,186,187,188, and 188A.) To answer this question, complete the flight log in FAA
What is the minimum fuel required under 14 CFR Part Figure 197, using the information given in the problem:
135 for this IMC helicopter flight from LAS to PVU? The 1. Change the winds aloft at 14,000 feet from true to
visibility is forecast to be 15 SM over the entire route. magnetic, using the variation for PUC given in the
A— 1,304 pounds. remarks of the flight plan. Winds at JNC are 100°
true at 41 knots.
B— 985 pounds.
C—1,224 pounds. 100° True
- 12° East variation
In this question, the regulation-required fuel must be 088° Magnetic
calculated using the summary box at the bottom of the
flight plan. 2. Calculate the TAS for existing temperature:
1. Compute the fuel required to fly the flight: ISA temperature at 14,000 feet is -13°C
((14 x (-2°))+ 15°).
Fuel required is 797.5pounds (see flight plan in ISA +20°= 7°C Notice the wind and tempera
Question 9639). ture change at FFU.
2. Compute the required reserve fuel (see Question Using a flight calculator, determine that a CAS of
9639, Step 5):
139 Kts gives a TAS of 178.1.
Time required is 30 minutes (§135.223).
Fuel flow is 480 PPH (given atbottom offlight 3. Find the distance flown for the leg. In this case itis
plan in FAA Figure 113). 91 NM. FAA Figure 199 shows a distance of 91 NM
from DBL to JNC.
Reserve fuel is 240.0 pounds.

Answers

9640 [C] 9652 [B]

4-104 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 4 Performance

4. Find the ground speed for the leg from DBL to JNC RTC

using a flight computer: 9653. (Refer to Figures 197,199, and 200.) What is the
total estimated fuel required for this IFR helicopter flight
Wind direction 088° (calculated in Step 1). from EGE to SLC with OGD as an alternate?
Wind speed 41 knots (given in the flight log).
A—1,152 pounds.
Course 242° (V134).
B—1,119 pounds.
TAS 178.1 knots (calculated in Step 2).
C—1,049 pounds.
Calculated GS is 214.5 knots.
5. Compute the time en route for the leg from DBL to In this question, the regulation-required fuel must be
JNC: calculated using the summary box at the bottom of the
flightplan.
Distance 91 NM (determined in Step 3).
Ground speed 214.5 (calculated in Step 4). 1. Compute the fuel required to fly the flight:
Calculated leg time is 25 minutes, 28 seconds. Fuelrequired is 813.6 pounds (see flight planin
Question 9652).
6. Since the nextquestionasks for the fuelrequired for
the flight, calculate the fuelburned on this leg: 2. Compute the required reserve fuel (see Question
9652, Step 5):
ETE is :25:28 (calculated in Step 5).
Fuel flowis 495 PPH (in note at the bottom of Time required is 30 minutes (§135.223).
the flightlog). Fuel flowis 469 PPH (given at bottom of flight
plan in FAA Figure 113).
Fuel burned is 210.0 pounds.
Reserve fuel is 234.5 pounds.
7. Repeat steps for the subsequent legs to fill in the
flight log: 3. Determine ETE to alternate:

FROM TO CRS TAS GS NM ETE FUEL ETE to alternate is 9 minutes.

EGE DBL — — —
13 10:00* 101.0* 4. Compute fuel burn toalternate (see Question 9652,
DBL JNC 242 178.1 214.5 91 25:28 210.0 Step 5):
275 178.1 218.5 97 26:38 219.7
JNC PUC Time to alternate is :09:00 (from Step 3).
PUC FFU 291 176.2 210.1 68 19:25 160.2 Fuel flow is 469 PPH (given in flight log).
FFU JAURN 341 176.2 193.5 12 03:43 30.7
Fuel burn to alternate is 70.3 pounds.
JAURN SLC 18 10:00* 92.0*

1 35:14 813.6
5. Add any additional fuel required for a missed
approach at the destination. In this case add 33
'(given) pounds (given at the bottom of the flight log).
(PLT012) — FAA-H-8083-15 6. Add the totals of Steps 1 through 5:
FUEL
813.6 En route
234.5 Reserve
+ 103.3 Alternate (70.3 + 33)
1,151.4 Total
(PLT012) — FAA-H-8083-15

Answers

9653 [A]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 4-105

4-106 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep
Chapter 6
Flight Operations
Airspace 6-3
NOTAMs (Notices To AirMen) 6-15
Items on the Flight Plan 6-16
Alternate Airport Planning 6-18
ATC Clearances 6-22

Takeoff Procedures 6-27

Instrument Approaches 6-29

Landing 6-38

Communications 6-39

Speed Adjustments 6-42

Holding 6-44

Charts 6-51

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 6-1

Chapter 6 Flight Operations

6-2 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 6 Flight Operations

Airspace

Class C Airspace

Shelf Area
10 Nautical Miles

4,000
Feet
Height
Above
Airport

1,200
Feet
Above
Ground
Level

Services upon establishing two-way

radio communication and radar contact:
IFR = Instrument Flight Rules
Sequencing Arrivals VFR = Visual Flight Rules
IFR/VFR Standard Separation
IFR/VFR Traffic Advisories and Conflict Resolution
VFR/VFR Traffic Advisories

Figure 6-1. Class C airspace

FL600
Class A
18,000 MSL

Class E

14,500 MSL

Class B 4,000 AGL

Class C ^2,500 AGL.

Class D
700 AGL 1,200 AGL 4NM
Nontowered
Airport I Transition Area
Class G

AGL: above ground level

FL: flight level
MSL: mean sea level

Figure 6-2. Airspace

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 6-3

Chapter 6 Flight Operations

3 miles 1 mile
visibility visibility
500 feet [h1 500 feet
1,200'AGL
Clear of clouds I | IClear of clouds

Clear of Clear of
clouds clouds

0 K ©
1 mile Nv_^^__^ 1 mile
visibility j—. visibility
Clear of clouds I L Clear of clouds
Surface

Q Visibility J Distance from clouds

Figure 6-3. Minimum in-flightvisibility and distance from clouds

Aturbine-powered airplane or a large airplane must enter Class Dairspace at an altitude of at least
1,500 feet AGL and maintain that altitude in the traffic pattern until a lower altitude is necessary for a
safe landing. When taking off, the pilot of a turbine-powered airplane or a large airplane must climb as
rapidly as practicable to an altitude of 1,500 feet AGL.
No person may operate an aircraft within Class B airspace unless a proper authorization from
ATC has been received prior to entry. An IFR clearance is not necessarily required. Unless otherwise
authorized byATC, every person flying a large turbine-engine-powered airplane to or from the primary
airport in Class B airspace must operate at or above the floor of Class B airspace.
All Class C airspace has the same dimensions with minor site variations. They are composed of
two circles both centered on the primary airport. The surface area has a radius of 5 nautical miles and
extends from the surface up to 4,000 feet above the airport. The shelf area has a radius of 10 nautical
miles and extends vertically from 1,200 feet AGL up to 4,000 feet above the primary airport. In addition
to the Class C airspace proper, there is an outer area with a radius of 20 nautical miles and vertical
coverage from the lower limits ofthe radio/radar coverage upto the top ofthe approach control facility's
delegated airspace.
The only equipment requirements for an aircraft to operate within Class C airspace are a two-way
radio and a transponder. No specific pilot certification is required.

6-4 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 6 Flight Operations

The following services are provided within Class C airspace:

• Sequencing of all arriving aircraft to the primary airport.
• Standard IFR separation between IFR aircraft.
• Between IFR and VFR aircraft — traffic advisories and conflict resolution so that radar targets do
not touch, or 500 feet vertical separation.
• Between VFR aircraft, traffic advisories and as appropriate, safety alerts.

The same services are provided in the outer area when two-way radio and radar contact is estab
lished. There is no requirement for VFR participation in the outer area.
No one may operate an aircraft below 10,000 feet MSL at an indicated speed greater than 250 knots.
No one may operate an aircraft within Class D airspace at an indicated airspeed of more than 200 knots.
There is no special speed limit for operations within Class B airspace other than the 250-knot limit when
below 10,000 feet MSL. When operating beneath the lateral limits of Class B airspace, the indicated
airspeed cannot exceed 200 knots. If the minimum safe airspeed for any particular operation is greater
than the maximum speed prescribed by 14 CFR §91.117, the aircraft may be operated at that minimum
speed.
Warning Areas are so designated because they are located in international (and therefore uncon
trolled) airspace and have invisible hazards to flight. The purpose of a Military Operating Area (MOA)
is to separate IFR traffic from military training activities. Normally, ATC will not clear an IFR flight into an
MOA if it is in use by the military. In an MOA, the individual pilots are responsible for collision avoidance.
VR Military Training Routes which extend above 1,500 feet AGL, and IR Training Routes are depicted
on IFR Enroute Low Altitude Charts.
When a flight is to penetrate an Air Defense Identification Zone (ADIZ), it must be on either an IFR
or a DVFR flight plan. The flight must penetrate the ADIZ within ±5 minutes of the flight plan estimate
and within 10 miles when over land or within 20 miles when over water. These were formerly referred
to as domestic and coastal ADIZs in the AIM.
A VFR-On-Top clearance is an IFR authorization to fly the cleared route at the VFR altitude of the
pilot's choice. To request VFR-On-Top, the flight must be able to maintain the minimum VFR visibility and
cloud clearances appropriate for the airspace and altitude. This may be done above, below or between
the clouds, if any. While the pilot is expected to comply with all IFR rules, ATC will provide traffic advi
sories only. VFR-On-Top will not be authorized in Class A airspace. VFR weather minimums must be
observed when operating under a VFR-On-Top clearance.
An air carrier flight may conduct day Over-the-Top operations below the minimum IFR altitude if the
following are observed:
• The flight must be at least 1,000 feet above the top of a broken or overcast layer.
• The top of the clouds are generally uniform and level.
• The flight visibility is at least five miles.
• The base of any higher ceiling is at least 1,000 feet above the minimum IFR altitude.

OROCA is an off-route altitude which provides obstruction clearance with a 1,000-foot buffer in
nonmountainous terrain areas, and a 2,000-foot buffer in designated mountainous areas within the
U.S. Minimum Vectoring Altitudes (MVAs) are established for use by ATC when radar is exercised;
MVA charts are prepared by air traffic facilities at locations where there are many different minimum
IFR altitudes. Minimum Safe/Sector Altitudes (MSA) are published for emergency use on IAP charts;
they are expressed in MSL and normally have a 25 NM radius; however, this radius may be expanded
to 30 NM if necessary to encompass the airport landing surfaces.

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 6-5

Chapter 6 Flight Operations

ALL ALL

8881. (Refer to Figure 127.) Which altitude is appropri 8884. (Refer to Figure 127.) Which altitude is appropri
ate for circle 4 (top of Class G airspace)? ate for circle 1 (top of Class E airspace)?
A-700 feet AGL. A-14,000 feet MSL.
B-1,200 feet AGL. B-14,500 feet MSL.
C-1,500 feet AGL. C-18,000 feet MSL.

Circle 4 corresponds to 1,200 feet, the floor of controlled Circle 1 corresponds to 18,000 feet MSL, the ceiling of
airspace or the ceiling of Class G airspace in this area. the Class E airspace. (PLT040) — AIM13-2-1
(PLT040) — AIM 13-2-1 Answer (A) is incorrect because 14,000 feet MSL is not an altitude
Answer (A) is incorrect because 700 feet AGL is the base of Class E which defines a certain airspace. Answer (B) is incorrect because
airspace when used in conjunction withan instrument approach that 14,500 MSL is the base of Class £ airspace when it is not set lower.
has been prescribed, as in circle 6. Answer (C) is incorrect because
1,500 feet AGL is not an altitude which defines a certain airspace.
ALL

8885. (Refer to Figure 127.) Which altitude is appropri

ALL
ate for circle 2 (top of Class C airspace)?
8882. (Refer to Figure 127.) Which altitude is normally
A-3,000 feet AGL.
appropriate for circle 5 (top of Class D airspace)?
B-4,000 feet AGL.
A-1,000 feet AGL. C-3,500 feet MSL.
B-2,500 feet AGL.
C-3,000 feet AGL. Circle2 indicates the ceiling of Class C airspace, gener
ally 4,000 AGL. (PLT040) — AIM 13-2-4
Circle 5 corresponds to the ceiling of Class D airspace Answers (A) and (C) are incorrect because neither 3,000 feet AGL
which is normally at 2,500 feet AGL. There willbe varia nor 3,500 feet MSL are altitudes which define a certain airspace.
tions to suit special conditions. (PLT040) — AIM13-2-5
Answer (A) is incorrect because 1,000 feet AGL is the normal traffic
pattern altitude forpiston aircraft, not the ceiling of Class D airspace. ALL
Answer (C) is incorrect because 3,000 feet AGL is not an altitude 8886. (Refer to Figure 127.) Which altitude is appropri
which defines a certain airspace.
ate for circle 3 (top of Class A airspace)?
A- FL 600.
ALL B- FL 450.
8883. (Refer to Figure 127.) Which altitude is appropri C-FL500.
ate for circle 6 (top of Class G airspace)?
A- 700 or 2,500 feet AGL.
Circle 3 indicates the upper limits of Class A airspace
B-500 or 2,000 feet AGL.
which is FL600. (PLT040) — AIM 13-2-1
C-700 or 1,200 feet AGL. Answers (B) and (C) are incorrect because neither FL450 nor FL500
are altitudes which define a certain airspace.

Circle6 corresponds to the floorof the Class G airspace,

which could be 700 or 1,200 feet AGL, depending on ALL
whether an instrument approach is present. (PLT040) 8888. (Refer to Figure 127.) What is the base of the
— AIM 13-2-1
Class A airspace?
A-12,000 feet AGL.
B-14,500 feet MSL.
C-FL180.

The base of Class A airspace is 18,000 feet MSL.

(PLT040) — AIM 13-2-1
Answer (A) is incorrect because 12,000 feet AGL is not an altitude
which defines a certain airspace. Answer (B) is incorrect because
14,500 MSL is the base of Class E airspace when it is not set lower.

Answers

8881 [B] 8882 [B] 8883 [C] 8884 [C] 8885 [B] 8886 [A]
8888 [C]

6-6 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 6 Flight Operations

ALL ALL
9409. Inwhat altitude structure is a transponder required 8889. What restriction applies to a large, turbine-
when operating in controlled airspace? powered airplane operating to or from a primary airport
A—Above 12,500 feet MSL, excluding the airspace in Class B airspace?
at and below 2,500 feet AGL. A— Must not exceed 200 knots within Class B
B—Above 10,000 feet MSL, excluding the airspace airspace.
at and below 2,500 feet AGL. B— Must operate above the floor when within lateral
C—Above 14,500 feet MSL, excluding the airspace limits of Class B airspace.
at and below 2,500 feet AGL. C— Must operate in accordance with IFR procedures
regardless of weather conditions.
A transponder is required at and above 10,000 feet MSL
and below the floor of Class A airspace, excluding the Unless otherwise authorized by ATC, each person oper
airspace at and below 2,500 feet AGL. (PLT429) — 14 ating a large turbine-engine-powered airplane to or from
CFR §91.215 a primary airport in Class B airspace shall operate at
Answer (A) is incorrect because 12,500 feet MSL was the old alti or above the designated floors while within the lateral
tude above which a transponder was needed; it is now 10,000 feet limits of the Class B airspace. (PLT161) — AIM 13-2-3
MSL. Answer (C) is incorrect because 14,500 feet MSL is the base
of Class E airspace when it is not set lower. Answer (A) is incorrect because the speed limit within a Class B
airspace is 250 knots for all aircraft. Answer (C) is incorrect because
VFR is permitted in Class B airspace; i.e., an IFR clearance is not
required as it is at FL180 and above.
ALL

9424. Pilots should state their position on the airport

when calling the tower for takeoff ALL

A—from a runway intersection. 8872. (Refer to Figure 126.) What is the normal radius
B—from a runway intersection, only at night. from the airport of the outer area, B?
C—from a runway intersection, only during A— 10 miles.
instrument conditions. B—20 miles.
C—25 miles.
Pilots should state their position on the airport when
calling the tower for takeoff from a runway intersection. The normal radius of the outer area of Class C airspace
(PLT434) —AIM 14-3-10 is 20 NM. (PLT040) — AIM 13-2-4
Answers (B) and (C) are incorrect because this rule applies to all Answer (A) is incorrect because 10 NM is the radius of the outer
operations. circle of Class C airspace. Answer (C) is incorrect because 25 NM
does not pertain to any set radius of Class C airspace.

ALL

9780. When flying in the airspace underlying Class B ALL

airspace, the maximum speed authorized is 8873. (Refer to Figure 126.) What is the usual radius
from the airport of the inner circle (now called surface
A—200 knots.
area), C?
B— 230 knots.
C-250 knots. A—5 miles.
B—7 miles.
No person may operate an aircraft in the airspace C—10 miles.
underlying Class B airspace at a speed of more than
200 knots. (PLT161) — 14 CFR §91.117 The usual radius from the airport of the surface area
is 5 NM in Class C airspace. (PLT040) — AIM 13-2-4
Answer (B) is incorrect because 7 NM is not established as the
radius for any portion of Class C airspace. Answer (C) is incorrect
because 10 NM is the radius of the outer circle of Class C airspace.

Answers

9409 [B] 9424 [A] 9780 [A] 8889 [B] 8872 [B] 8873 [A]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 6-7

Chapter 6 Flight Operations

ALL Answer (A) is incorrect because a Mode C transponder is also

8874. (Refer to Figure 126.) What is the radius from required. Answer (C) is incorrectbecause two-waycommunications
are also required and DME is not required.
the airport of the outer circle (now called shelf area), A?
A—5 miles.
B—10 miles. ALL

C—15 miles. 8878. What service is provided for aircraft operating

within the outer area of Class C airspace?
The radius of the shelfarea is 10 NM in Class C airspace.
A—The same as within Class C airspace when
(PLT040) — AIM 13-2-4
communications and radar contact is established.
Answer (A) is incorrect because 5 NM is the radius of the surface B— Radar vectors to and from secondary airports
area of Class C airspace. Answer (C) is incorrect because 15 NM is
not established as the radius for any area of Class C airspace. within the outer area.
C— Basic radar service only when communications
and radar contact is established.
ALL
8875. (Refer to Figure 126.) Which altitude (box 2) is The same services are provided for aircraft operating
applicable to the base of the outer circle (now called within the outer area, as within the Class C airspace,
shelf area)? when two-way communication and radar contact are
established. (PLT161) — AIM 13-2-4
A- 700 feet AGL.
Answer (B) is incorrect because providing radar vectors to and from
B-1,000 feet AGL.
secondary airports within the outer circle is not a mandated service
C-1,200 feet AGL. of ATC. Answer (C) is incorrect because the same services are
provided in the outer area as within Class C airspace, once two-way
The base of the shelf area is 1,200 feet AGL. (PLT040) communications and radar contact are established.

— AIM 13-2-4
Answer (A) is incorrect because 700 feet AGL is not applicable to
Class C airspace (it is the base of some Class E airspace). Answer ALL
(B) is incorrect because 1,000 feet AGL is not applicable to Class 8879. What services are provided for aircraft operating
C airspace (it is the normal trafficpattern altitude for propeller air within Class C airspace?
planes).
A— Sequencing of arriving aircraft, separation of
aircraft (except between VFR aircraft), and traffic
ALL advisories.
8876. (Refer to Figure 126.) Which altitude (box 1) is B— Sequencing of arriving aircraft (except VFR
applicable to the vertical extent of the inner and outer aircraft), separation between all aircraft, and
circles (now called surface and shelf areas)? traffic advisories.
A-3,000 feet AGL. C—Sequencing of all arriving aircraft, separation
B— 3,000 feet above airport. between all aircraft, and traffic advisories.
C—4,000 feet above airport.
ATC services within an Class C airspace include:
The vertical extent of the surface and shelf areas is 1. Sequencing of all arriving aircraft to the primaryClass
4,000 feet above the airport. (PLT040) — AIM 13-2-4 C airport,
Answers (A) and (B) are incorrect because 3,000 feet AGL does not 2. Standard IFR separation between IFR aircraft,
define an airspace.
3. Between IFR and VFR aircraft — traffic advisories
and conflict resolution so that radar targets do not
ALL touch, or 500 feet vertical separation, and
8877. What minimum aircraft equipment is required for 4. Between VFR aircraft — traffic advisories and as
operation within Class C airspace? appropriate, safety alerts.
A— Two-way communications. (PLT161)— AIM13-2-4
B— Two-way communications and transponder.
Answer (B) is incorrect because the services in the Class C airspace
C—Transponder and DME. provide sequencing of all aircraft to the primary/Class C airspace
airport. Answer (C) is incorrect because the services in the Class C
An encoding transponder and two-way radio is required airspace do not provide separation between VFR aircraft, only traffic
in order to operate within Class C airspace. (PLT040) advisories and safety alerts.
— AIM 13-2-4

Answers

8874 [B] 8875 [C] 8876 [C] 8877 [B] 8878 [A] 8879 [A]

6-8 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 6 Flight Operations

ALL ALL
8880. What pilot certification and aircraft equipment are 8891. What is the purpose of MOAs?
required for operating in Class C airspace?
A—To protect military aircraft operations from civil
A—No specific certification but a two-way radio. aircraft.
B— At least a Private Pilot Certificate and two-way B—To separate military training activities from IFR
radio. traffic.
C—At least a Private Pilot Certificate, two-way radio, C—To separate military training activities from both
and a TSO-C74b transponder. IFR and VFR traffic.

No specific pilot certification is required for operation Military Operations Areas (MOAs) consist of airspace
within Class C airspace. The aircraft must be equipped of defined vertical and lateral limits established for the
with a two-way radio for operations within Class C air purpose of separating certain military training activities
space. (PLT161) — AIM 13-2-4 from IFR traffic. (PLT161) — AIM 13-4-5
Answers (B) and (C) are incorrectbecause there is no specific pilot Answer (A) is incorrect because MOAs are to separate (not protect)
certificate required, although two-way radio and transponder are military training activities from IFR traffic. Answer (C) is incorrect
required. because MOAs are established for the purpose of separating IFR
trafficfrom military training activities.

ALL
9399. What is the maximum indicated airspeed a ALL

turbine-powered aircraft may be operated below 10,000 8892. Who is responsible for collision avoidance in an
feet MSL? MOA?

A— 288 knots. A— Military controllers.

B— 250 knots. B—ATC controllers.
C-230 knots. C—Each pilot.

Unless otherwise authorized by the Administrator, no Pilots operating under VFR should exercise extreme
person may operate an aircraft below 10,000 feet MSL caution while flying within an MOA when military activity
at an indicated airspeed of more than 250 knots (288 is being conducted. (PLT162) — AIM 13-4-5
MPH). (PLT161) — 14 CFR §91.117
ALL

ALL 9049. Which aeronautical chart depicts MilitaryTraining

8890. Why are certain areas that start 3 nautical miles Routes (MTR) above 1,500 feet?
from the coastline of the U.S. and extend outward, clas A— IFR Low Altitude En Route Chart.
sified as Warning Areas? B- IFR High Altitude En Route Chart.
A—To inform pilots of participating aircraft to maintain C—IFR Planning Chart.
extreme vigilance while conducting flight within
the area. The IFR Enroute Low Altitude Chart depicts all Military
B— To warn all aircraft pilots that flying within the Training Routes (MTR) that accommodate operations
area may be extremely hazardous to aircraft and above 1,500 feet AGL. (PLTWO)-AIM 13-5-2
occupants. Answer (B) is incorrect because IFR High Altitude Enroute Charts
do not depict MTRs. Answer (C) is incorrect because VFR Planning
C—To warn pilots of nonparticipating aircraft of a Charts depict MTRs.
potential danger within the area.

A Warning Area is airspace of defined dimensions,

extending from three nautical miles outward from the
coast of the United States, that contains activity that may
be hazardous to nonparticipating aircraft. The purpose
of such warningareas is to warnnonparticipatingpilots
of the potential danger. A warningarea may be located
over domestic or international waters or both. (PLT161)
— AIM 13-4-4

Answers

8880 [A] 9399 [B] 8890 [C] 8891 [B] 8892 [C] 9049 [A]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 6-9

Chapter 6 Flight Operations

ALL 3. Comply with instrumentflight rules thatare applicable

9100. What is the maximum acceptable position toler to the flight.
ance for penetrating a domestic ADIZ over land? (PLT370) — AIM 15-5-13
A— Plus or minus 10 miles; plus or minus 10 minutes. Answer (A) is incorrect because not only will a pilot remain on the
B— Plus or minus 20 miles; plus or minus 5 minutes. IFR flight plan and comply with VFR altitudes, visibility, and cloud
C— Plus or minus 10 miles; plus or minus 5 minutes. clearances, he/she must also comply with applicable IFR rules, e.g.,
position reporting, minimum IFR altitudes. Answer (C) is incorrect
because, while operating on a "VFR-On-Top" clearance, a pilot must
The aircraftposition tolerances over land in a domestic maintain VFR altitudes.
ADIZ is within ±5 minutes from the estimated time over
a reportingpoint or point of penetration and within 10
NM from the centerline of an intended track over an ALL
estimated reportingpoint orpenetration point. (PLT161) 9047. What cloud clearance must be complied with
— AIM 15-6-1 when authorized to maintain "VFR on Top"?
Answer (A) is incorrect because penetration of an ADIZ within 10 A— May maintain VFR clearance above, below, or
minutes is not an acceptable tolerance for either over water or land.
Answer (B) is incorrect because the maximum acceptable tolerance between layers.
forpenetrating over water (a coastal ADIZ) is within 20 NM of the B— Must maintain VFR clearance above or below.
intended track and within 5 minutes of the estimated penetration C— May maintain VFR clearance above or below, but
time.
not between layers.

ATC authorization to "maintain VFR-On-Top" is not

ALL
intended to restrict pilots so that they must operate only
9741. What is the maximum acceptable position toler
above an obscuring meteorological formation. Instead,
ance for penetrating a domestic ADIZ over water? itpermits operations above, below, between or in areas
A— Plus or minus 10 miles; plus or minus 10 minutes. where there is no meteorological obstruction. (PLT370)
B— Plus or minus 10 miles; plus or minus 5 minutes. — AIM 15-5-13
C— Plus or minus 20 miles; plus or minus 5 minutes.

The aircraftposition tolerances over water in a domestic ALL

ADIZ is plus or minus five minutes from the estimated 9048. In what airspace will ATC not authorize "VFR
time over a reporting point or point of penetration and on Top"?
within 20 NM from the centerline of the intended track
A— Class C airspace.
over an estimated reportingpoint or point of penetration. B— Class B airspace.
(PLT161)— AIM15-6-1 C—Class A airspace.

ATC will not authorize VFR or VFR-On-Top operations

ALL
in Class A airspace. (PLT161) — AIM 15-5-13
9046. Under what conditions may a pilot on an IFR flight
plan comply with authorization to maintain "VFR on Top"?
A— Maintain IFR flight plan but comply with visual ALL

flight rules while in VFR conditions. 9093. What separation or service by ATC is afforded
B— Maintain VFR altitudes, cloud clearances, and pilots authorized "VFR on Top"?
comply with applicable instrument flight rules. A— The same afforded all IFR flights.
C—Maintain IFR altitudes, VFR cloud clearances, B—3 miles horizontally instead of 5.
and comply with applicable instrument flight rules. C—Traffic advisories only.
When operating in VFR conditions with an ATC autho Pilots operating VFR-On-Top may receive traffic infor
rization to "maintain VFR-On-Top" pilots on IFR flight mation fromATCon other pertinent IFR or VFRaircraft.
plans must: (PLT172) — AIM 15-5-13
1. Fly an appropriate VFR altitude, Answer (A) is incorrect because separation willbe provided forall IFR
flights except those operating with a VFR-On-Top clearance. In that
2. Comply with VFR visibilityand distance from cloud case, only traffic advisories may be provided. Answer (B) is incorrect
criteria, and because, when radar is employed forseparation of aircraftat the same
altitude, a minimum of 3 miles separation is provided between air
planes operating within40 miles of the radar antenna site, and 5 miles
between aircraft operating beyond 40 miles from the antenna site.

Answers

9100 [C] 9741 [C] 9046 [B] 9047 [A] 9048 [C] 9093 [C]

6-10 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 6 Flight Operations

ALL ALL
9018. A minimum instrument altitude for enroute opera 8894. (Refer to Figure 128.) What is the minimum in
tions offof published airways which provides obstruction flight visibility and distance from clouds required for a
clearance of 1,000 feet in nonmountainous terrain areas VFR-on-Top flight at 9,500 feet MSL (above 1,200 feet
and 2,000 feet in designated mountainous areas within AGL) during daylight hours for the circle 3 area?
the United States is called
A-2,000 feet; (E) 1,000 feet; (F) 2,000 feet; (H) 500
A— Minimum Obstruction Clearance Altitude (MOCA). feet.
B— Off-Route Obstruction Clearance Altitude B- 5 miles; (E) 1,000 feet; (F) 2,000 feet; (H) 500
(OROCA). feet.
C-Minimum Safe/Sector Altitude (MSA). C-3 miles; (E) 1,000 feet; (F) 2,000 feet; (H) 500
feet.
OROCA is an off-routealtitude whichprovides obstruc
tion clearance with a 1,000-foot buffer in nonmountain When operating at more than 1,200 feet AGL but less
ous terrain areas, and a 2,000-foot bufferin designated than 10,000 feet MSL during the day in controlled air
mountainous areas within the U.S. (PLT162) — AIM space, pilots are required to maintain a flight visibility
14-4-9 of 3 statute miles and a distance of 1,000 feet above,
Answer (A) is incorrect because MOCAs provide the lowest 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally from clouds.
published altitude in effect between radio fixes on VOR airways, (PLT163) — 14 CFR §91.155
off-airway routes, or route segments which meets obstacle clear
ance requirements for the entire route segment and which ensures
acceptable navigational signal coverage only within25 SM (22 NM)
of a VOR. Answer (C) is incorrect because MSAs are published for ALL
emergency use on IAP charts; they are expressed in feet above 8895. (Refer to Figure 128.) A flight is to be conducted
mean sea level and normally have a 25 NM radius; however, this in VFR-on-Top conditions at 12,500 feet MSL (above
radius may be expanded to 30 NM if necessary to encompass the
airport landing surfaces. 1,200 feet AGL). What is the in flight visibility and dis
tance from clouds required for operations during daylight
hours for the circle 1 area?
ALL
A- 5 miles; (A) 1,000 feet; (B) 2,000 feet; (D) 500
8893. What is the required flight visibility and distance feet.
from clouds if you are operating in Class E airspace at B- 5 miles; (A) 1,000 feet; (B) 1 mile; (D) 1,000 feet.
9,500 feet with a VFR-on-Top clearance during daylight C-3 miles; (A) 1,000 feet; (B) 2,000 feet; (D) 1,000
hours? feet.
A— 3 statute miles, 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below,
and 2,000 feet horizontal. A pilot on an IFR flightplan requesting and receiving
B— 5 statute miles, 500 feet above, 1,000 feet below, authorization to operate VFR-On-Top must comply with
and 2,000 feet horizontal. instrument flight rules as well as VFR visibilities and
C—3 statute miles, 500 feet above, 1,000 feet below, distances from clouds. When operating at more than
and 2,000 feet horizontal. 1,200 feet AGL and at or above 10,000 feet MSL, pilots
are required to maintain flight visibility of 5 statute miles
A pilot receiving authorization for VFR-On-Top must and distances of 1,000 feet above, 1,000 feet below,
comply with VFR visibility, distance from cloud criteria, and 1 mile horizontally from clouds. (PLT163) — 14
and minimum IFR altitudes. When operating at more CFR §91.155
than 1,200 feet AGL but less than 10,000 feet MSL, Answer (A) is incorrect because the distance from cloud require
pilots are required to maintain flight visibilityof 3 statute ments listed are for below 10,000 feet MSL. Answer (C) is incorrect
because the visibilityrequirement is 5 miles and the horizontal sepa
miles and a distance from clouds of 1,000 feet above, ration from clouds requirement is 1 mile.
500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontal. (PLT163) —
14 CFR §91.155
Answer (B) is incorrect because the visibility requirement is 3 miles
(not 5 miles) and the distances from clouds above and below are
reversed. They should be 1,000 feet above and 500 feet below.
Answer (C) is incorrect because the distances from clouds above
and below are reversed. They should be 1,000 feet above and 500
feet below.

Answers

9018 [B] 8893 [A] 8894 [C] 8895 [B]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 6-11

Chapter 6 Flight Operations

ALL ALL

8896. (Refer to Figure 128.) What is the minimum in 8898. (Refer to Figure 128.) What is the minimum
flight visibility and distance from clouds required in VFR in-flight visibility and distance from clouds required for
conditions above clouds at 13,500 feet MSL (above 1,200 an airplane operating less than 1,200 feet AGL during
feet AGL) during daylight hours for the circle 2 area? daylight hours in the circle 6 area?
A- 5 miles; (A) 1,000 feet; (C) 2,000 feet; (D) 500 A- 3 miles; (I) 1,000 feet; (K) 2,000 feet; (L) 500 feet.
feet. B—1 mile; (I) clear of clouds; (K) clear of clouds; (L)
B- 3 miles; (A) 1,000 feet; (C) 1 mile; (D) 1,000 feet. clear of clouds.
C-5 miles; (A) 1,000 feet; (C) 1 mile; (D) 1,000 feet. C-1 mile; (I) 500 feet; (K) 1,000 feet; (L) 500 feet.

The minimum flight visibility in Class G airspace during When operating outside Class E airspace at less than
daylighthours in VFRconditions above clouds at 13,500 1,200 feet AGL duringdaylighthours, pilots are required
feet MSL (above 1,200 feet AGL) is 5 statute miles. The to maintain flight visibility of 1 statute mile and operate
distance fromclouds required is 1,000 feet below, 1,000 clear of clouds. (PLT163) — 14 CFR §91.155
feet above, and 1 mile horizontally. (PLT163)— 14 CFR Answer (A) is incorrect because 3 miles visibility, 1,000 feet above,
§91.155 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontal are the VFR weather
minimums for a flight in airspace above 1,200 feet AGL and below
Answer (A) is incorrect because 1,000 feet above, 2,000 feet hori 10,000 feet MSL at night. Answer (C) is incorrect because no such
zontal, and 500 feet below are the minimum cloud distances for VFR combination of requirements exists in any airspace.
in Class G airspace above 1,200 feet AGL and below 10,000 feet
MSL. Answer (B) is incorrect because visibility minimumis 5 miles.

ALL

ALL
8899. (Refer to Figure 128.) What is the minimum
8897. (Refer to Figure 128.) What in-flight visibilityand in-flight visibility and distance from clouds required for
distance from clouds is required for a flight at 8,500 feet an airplane operating less than 1,200 feet AGL under
MSL (above 1,200 feet AGL) in VFR conditions during special VFR during daylight hours in the circle 5 area?
daylight hours for the circle 4 area? A- 1 mile; (I) 2,000 feet; (J) 2,000 feet; (L) 500 feet.
A- 1 mile; (E) 1,000 feet; (G) 2,000 feet; (H) 500 B—3 miles; (I) clear of clouds; (J) clear of clouds; (L)
feet. 500 feet.
B- 3 miles; (E) 1,000 feet; (G) 2,000 feet; (H) 500 C— 1 mile; (I) clear of clouds; (J) clear of clouds; (L)
feet. clear of clouds.
C-5 miles; (E) 1,000 feet; (G) 1 mile; (H) 1,000 feet.
When operating under special VFR during daylight
At 8,500 feet MSL (above 1,200 feet AGL) in Class G hours, pilots are required to maintain flight visibility of
airspace in VFR conditions during daylight hours the 1 statute mile and operate clear of clouds. (PLT163) —
visibility is 1 statute mile and distance from clouds 14 CFR §91.157
required is 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, and 2,000 Answers (A) and (B) are incorrect because special VFR permits
operation just clear of clouds and with a minimum visibility of 1 mile.
feet horizontally. (PLT163) — 14 CFR §91.155
Answer (B) is incorrect because these are the VFR weather
minimums for Class E airspace below 10,000 feet MSL and above
ALL
1,200 feet AGL. Answer (C) is incorrect because these are the VFR
weather minimums for Class E and Class G airspace above 10,000 8900. What is the minimum flight visibility and distance
feet MSL. from clouds for flight at 10,500 feet, in Class E airspace,
with a VFR-on-Top clearance during daylight hours?
A— 3 statute miles, 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below,
and 2,000 feet horizontal.
B— 5 statute miles, 1,000 feet above, 1,000 feet
below, and 1 mile horizontal.
C—5 statute miles, 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below,
and 1 mile horizontal.

Answers

8896 [C] 8897 [A] 8898 [B] 8899 [C] 8900 [B]

6-12 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 6 Flight Operations

A pilot on an IFR flight plan requesting and receiving ATM, ATS, DSP
authorization to operate VFR-On-Top must comply with 9395. At what minimum altitude is a turbine-engine-
instrument flight rules as well as VFR visibilities and powered, or large airplane, required to enter Class D
distances from clouds. When operating at more than airspace?
1,200 feet AGL and at or above 10,000 feet MSL pilots A-1,500 feet AGL.
are required to maintain flightvisibility of 5 statute miles B-2,000 feet AGL.
and distances of 1,000 feet above, 1,000 feet below, C-2,500 feet AGL.
and 1 mile horizontally from clouds. (PLT163) — 14
CFR §91.155 When operating to an airport with an operating control
Answer (A) is incorrect because it presents the VFR weather mini tower, each pilot of a turbine-powered airplane or a
mums for below 10,000 feet MSL. Answer (C) is incorrect because large airplane shall, unless otherwise required by the
the vertical separation from clouds is 1,000 feet both above and
below.
applicable distance from cloud criteria, enter Class D
airspace at an altitude of at least 1,500 feet above the
surface of the airport. (PLT161) — 14 CFR §91.129
ATM, DSP
8253. Which in-flight conditions are required by a
ATM, ATS, DSP
supplemental air carrier to conduct a day, over-the-top
flight below the specified IFR minimum en route altitude? 9401. A pilot of a turbine-powered airplane should climb
as rapidly as practicable after taking off to what altitude?
A— The flight must remain clear of clouds by at least
1,000 feet vertically and 1,000 feet horizontally A-1,000 feet AGL.
and have at least 3 miles flight visibility. B-1,500 feet AGL.
B— The flight must be conducted at least 1,000 feet C-5,000 feet AGL.
above an overcast or broken cloud layer, any
When takingoff from an airportwith an operating control
higher broken/overcast cloud cover is a minimum
tower, each pilot of a turbine-powered airplane shall
of 1,000 feet above the IFR MEA, and have at
climb to an altitude of 1,500 feet above the surface as
least 5 miles flight visibility.
rapidly as practicable. (PLT459) — 14 CFR §91.129
C—The height of any higher overcast or broken layer
must be at least 500 feet above the IFR MEA.
ATM, ATS, DSP
A person may conduct day Over-the-Top operations in
9396. What is the maximum indicated airspeed a
an airplane at flight altitudes lower than the minimum
reciprocating-engine-powered airplane may be operated
enroute IFR altitudes if—
within Class B airspace?
1. The operation is conducted at least 1,000 feet above
A—180 knots.
the top of lower broken or overcast cloud cover;
B- 230 knots.
2. The top of the lower cloud cover is generally uniform C-250 knots.
and level;
3. Flight visibility is at least 5 miles; and Unless otherwise authorized by the Administrator, no
person may operate an aircraft below 10,000 feet MSL
4. The base of any higher broken or overcast cloud at an indicated airspeed of more than 250 knots (288
cover is generally uniform and level, and is at least MPH). There is no specific speed restriction which
1,000 feet above the minimum enroute IFR altitude applies to operation within Class B airspace. (PLT161)
for that route segment. — 14 CFR §91.117
(PLT468) — 14 CFR §121.657 Answer (A) is incorrect because 180 knots is the old maximum
Answer (A) is incorrect because the flightmust remain at least 1,000 airspeed for turbine-powered aircraft while operating within Class D
airspace (it is now 200 knots). Answer (B) is incorrect because 230
feet above the cloud layer with a flight visibility of at least 5 miles.
Answer (C) is incorrectbecause the height of any higher ceiling must knots is the maximum authorized holding speed for all civil turbojet
be at least 1,000 feet above the IFR MEA.
aircraftwhile operating from the minimum holding altitude to 14,000
feet. It is not an airspeed limitation in Class B airspace.

Answers

8253 [B] 9395 [A] 9401 [B] 9396 [C]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 6-13

Chapter 6 Flight Operations

ATM, ATS, DSP ATM, ATS, DSP

8887. The maximum indicated airspeed that an aircraft 9398. At what maximum indicated airspeed may a
may be flown in Class B airspace, after departing the reciprocating-engine-powered airplane be operated
primary airport, while at 1,700 feet AGLand 3.5 nautical within Class D airspace?
miles from the airport is A—156 knots.
A—200 knots. B—180 knots.
B—230 knots. C—200 knots.
C—250 knots.
Unless otherwise authorized or required by ATC, no
Unless otherwise authorized by the Administrator, no person may operate an aircraft within Class Dairspace at
person may operate an aircraft below 10,000 feet MSL an indicated airspeed of more than 200 knots. (PLT161)
at an indicated airspeed of more than 250 knots (288 — 14 CFR §91.117
MPH). (PLT161) — 14 CFR §91.117 Answer (A) is incorrect because 156 knots was the old maximum
authorized airspeed for reciprocating aircraft in Class D airspace (it
is now 200 knots). Answer (B) is incorrect because 180 knots was
the old maximum authorized airspeed for turbine-powered aircraft in
ATM, ATS, DSP
Class D airspace (it is now 200 knots).
9397. At what maximum indicated airspeed can a B-727
operate within Class B airspace without special ATC
authorization? ATM, ATS, DSP
A— 230 knots. 9400. At what maximum indicated airspeed can a
B—250 knots. reciprocating-engine airplane operate in the airspace
C—275 knots. underlying Class B airspace?
A-180 knots.
Unless otherwise authorized by the Administrator, no B— 200 knots.
person may operate an aircraftbelow 10,000 feet MSL C-230 knots.
at an indicated airspeed of more than 250 knots (288
MPH). There is no specific speed restriction which No person may operate an aircraft in the airspace under
applies to operation within Class B airspace. (PLT161) lying Class B airspace at an indicated airspeed of more
— 14 CFR §91.117 than 200 knots (230 MPH). (PLT161)— 14 CFR §91.117
Answer (A) is incorrect because 230 knots is not an airspeed limita Answer (A) is incorrect because 180 knots was the old published
tion in Class B airspace. Answer (C) is incorrect because 275 knots maximum airspeed for turbine-powered aircraft in Class D airspace
is not an established maximum speed for any type of operation. (it is now 200 knots). Answer (C) is incorrect because the limitation
is 200 knots or 230 MPH, not 230 knots.

Answers

8887 [C] 9397 [B] 9398 [C] 9400 [B]

6-14 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 6 Flight Operations

NOTAMs (Notices To AirMen)

Notices to Airmen (NOTAMs) provide the most current information available. They provide time-critical
information on airports and changes that affect the national airspace system and are of concern to instru
ment flight rule (IFR) operations. NOTAM information is classified into four categories: NOTAM (D) or
distant, Flight Data Center (FDC) NOTAMs, pointer NOTAMs, and military NOTAMs.
NOTAM-Ds are attached to hourly weather reports and are available at flight service stations (AFSS/
FSS). FDC NOTAMs are issued by the National Flight Data Center and contain regulatory information,
such as temporary flight restrictions or an amendment to instrument approach procedures.
Pointer NOTAMs highlight or point out another NOTAM, such as an FDC or NOTAM (D). This type
of NOTAM will assist pilots in cross-referencing important information that may not be found under an
airportor NAVAID identifier. Military NOTAMs pertain to U.S.Air Force, Army, Marine, and Navy NAVAIDs/
airports that are part of the NAS.
NOTAM-Ds and FDC NOTAMs are contained in the Notices to Airmen publication, which is issued
every 28 days. Prior to any flight, pilots should check for any NOTAMs that could affect their intended
flight.

ALL
NOTAM (D) information is disseminated for all navi
9086. What are FDC NOTAMs? gational facilities that are part of the national airspace
A—Conditions of facilities en route that may cause system, all IFR airports with approved instrument
delays. approaches, and those VFR airports annotated with
B—Time critical aeronautical information of a the NOTAM service symbol (§) in the Chart Supple
temporary nature from distant centers. ments U.S. (previously A/FD). NOTAM (D) information
C— Regulatory amendments to published lAPs and could affect a pilot's decision to make a flight. Itincludes
charts not yet available in normally published such information as airportor primaryrunwayclosures,
charts. changes in the status of navigational aids, ILS's, radar
service availability, and other information essential
FDC NOTAMs contain such things as amendments to to planned en route, terminal or landing operations.
published lAPs and other current aeronautical charts (PLT323) — AIM15-1-3
and other information which is considered regulatory in
nature. (PLT323) — AIM 15-1-3
ALL
Answer (A) is incorrect because NOTAM (D) contains information
on navigational facilities en route that may cause delays. Answer 9089. How often are NOTAMs broadcast to pilots on a
(B) is incorrect because time critical aeronautical information of a scheduled basis?
temporary nature from distant centers will be included in a NOTAM
(D) ("distant")- A—15 minutes before and 15 minutes after the hour.
B— Between weather broadcasts on the hour.
C— Hourly, appended to the weather broadcast.
ALL

9087. What type information is disseminated by NOTAM NOTAM (D) information is appended to the hourly
(D)s? weather reports via the Service A (ATC/FSS) telecom
A— Status of navigation aids, ILSs, radar service munications system. (PLT323) — AIM 15-1-3
available, and other information essential to Answer (A) is incorrect because SIGMETs and AIRMETs are broad
cast by FSS's and/or by the Hazardous In-flight Weather Advisory
planning. Service (HIWAS) to pilots 15 minutes before and 15 minutes after
B— Airport or primary runway closings, runway and the hour during the valid period. Answer (B) is incorrect because
taxiway conditions, and airport lighting aids NOTAM (D)s are appended to the hourly weather broadcast, not a
separate broadcast between weather reports.
outages.
C—Temporary flight restrictions, changes in status
in navigational aids, and updates on equipment
such as VASI.

Answers

9086 [C] 9087 [A] 9089 [C]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 6-15

Chapter 6 Flight Operations

Items on the Flight Plan

An IFR flight plan should be filed at least 30 minutes prior to the departure time, and pilotsshould request
their IFR clearance no more than 10 minutes prior to taxi.
If the flight is to be flown on established airways, the route should be defined using the airways or jet
routes with transitions. Intermediate VORs and fixes on an airway need not be listed. If filing for an off-
airway direct route, list all the radio fixes over which the flight will pass. Pilots of appropriately equipped
aircraft may file for random RNAV routes. The following rules must be observed:
• Radar monitoring by ATC must be available along the entire proposed route.
• Plan the random route portion to begin and end over appropriate departure and arrivaltransition fixes
or navigation aids appropriate for the altitude structure used for the flight. Use of DPs and STARs,
where available, is recommended.
• Define the random route by waypoints. Use degree-distance fixes based on navigational aids appro
priate for the altitude structure used. Above FL390 latitude/longitude fixes may be used to define the
route.
• List at least one waypoint for each Air Route Traffic Control Center through which the flight will pass.
The waypoint must be within 200 NM of the preceding Center's boundary.

A pilot may file a flight plan to an airport containing a special or privately-owned instrument approach
procedure only upon approval of the owner.
Air ambulance flights and air carrier flights responding to medical emergencies will receive expedited
handling by ATC when necessary. When appropriate, the word "Lifeguard" should be entered in the
remarks section of the flight plan. It should also be used in the flight's radio call sign as in, "Lifeguard
Delta Thirty-Seven."

ALL ALL

9031. What is the suggested time interval for filing and 9032. How should the route of flight be defined on an
requesting an IFR flight plan? IFR flight plan?
A— File at least 30 minutes prior to departure and A— A simplified route via airways or jet routes with
request the clearance not more than 10 minutes transitions.
prior to taxi. B— A route via airways or jet routes with VORs and
B— File at least 30 minutes prior to departure and fixes used.
request the clearance at least 10 minutes prior to C—A route via airways or jet routes with only the
taxi. compulsory reporting points.
C— File at least 1 hour prior to departure and request
the clearance at least 10 minutes prior to taxi. Pilots are requested to file via airways or jet routes
established for use at the altitude or flight level planned.
Pilots should file IFRflightplans at least 30 minutes prior If the flight is to be conducted via designated airways
to the estimated time of departure to preclude possible or jet routes, describe the route by indicating the type
delay in receiving a departure clearance from ATC. and number designators of the airway(s) orjet route(s)
Pilots should call clearance delivery or ground control requested. Ifmore than one airway orjet route is to be
for their IFR clearance not more than 10 minutes before used, clearly indicate points of transition. (PLT224) —
the proposed taxi time. (PLT224) — AIM 15-1-8, 5-2-1 AIM 15-1-8
Answer (B) is incorrect because, to simplify the route, all VORs and
fixes are not used to define a route on an IFR flightplan. Answer (C)
is incorrect because compulsory reporting points might not define
the transitions between airways or jet routes.

Answers

9031 [A] 9032 [A]

6-16 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 6 Flight Operations

ALL 5. File a minimum of one route description waypoint for

9033. How should an off-airway direct flight be defined each ARTCC through whose area the random route
on an IFR flight plan? willbe flown. These waypoints must be located within
A— The initial fix, the true course, and the final fix. 200 NM of the preceding center's boundary.
B—All radio fixes over which the flight will pass. (PLT224) — AIM 15-1-8
C—The initial fix, all radio fixes which the pilot wishes Answer (A) is incorrect because RNAV routes defined on an IFR
to be compulsory reporting points, and the final flight plan must also begin and end over an established radio fix.
fix. Answer (B) is incorrect because RNAV waypoints have no estab
lished distance requirement. A minimum of one waypoint must be
filed for each ARTCC through which the route is planned, and this
Any portions of the route which will not be flown on must be located within200 NM of the preceding center's boundary.
the radials or courses of established airways or routes,
such as direct route flights, must be clearly defined by
indicating the radio fixes over which the flight willpass. ALL
(PLT225) —AIM 15-1-8 9027. What is one limitation when filing a random RNAV
Answer (A) is incorrect because true course is not an item that is route on an IFR flight plan?
reported on an IFR flightplan. The initialfix and the final fix are listed
as radio fixes that define the start and finish points of a flight. Answer A—The waypoints must be located within 200 NM of
(C) is incorrect because initial and final fixes are required to define each other.
random RNAV (not direct flight) routes. All radio fixes that define the B— The entire route must be within radar environment.
route of a direct flight automatically become compulsory reporting
points, not just those the pilot chooses.
C—The waypoints may only be defined by degree-
distance fixes based on appropriate navigational
aids.
ALL
9026. How are random RNAV routes below FL 390 Random RNAV routes can only be approved in a radar
defined on the IFR flight plan? environment. Aircraft operating at or above FL390 may
file waypoints based on latitude/longitude fixes, under
A— Define route waypoints using degree-distance some circumstances. (PLT225) — AIM 15-1-8
fixes based on appropriate navigational aids for
Answer (A) is incorrect because VOR/VORTAC facilities must be
the route and altitude. within 200 NM of each other when operating above FL450 to define
B— List the initial and final fix with at least one a direct route. Answer (C) is incorrect because random RNAV way-
waypoint each 200 NM. points may be defined by degree-distance fixes based on appropri
ate navigational aids, of latitude/longitude coordinate navigation,
C—Begin and end over appropriate arrival and independent of VOR/TACAN references, operating at and above
departure transition fixes or navigation aids for FL390 in the conterminous U.S.
the altitude being flown, define the random route
waypoints by using degree-distance fixes based
on navigation aids appropriate for the altitude ALL

being flown. 9040. Under what condition may a pilot file an IFR flight
plan containing a special or privately owned IAP?
Pilots of aircraft equipped with operational area navi
A— Upon approval of ATC.
gation equipment may file for random RNAV routes
B— Upon approval of the owner.
throughout the national airspace system, where radar C— Upon signing a waiver of responsibility.
monitoring by ATC is available, in accordance with the
following: Pilots planning flights to locations served by special
1. File airport-to-airport flight plans prior to departure. lAPs should obtain advance approval from the owner
2. File the appropriate RNAV capability suffix in the of the procedure. Approval by the owner is necessary
flight plan. because special procedures are for the exclusive use
of the single interest unless otherwise authorized by the
3. Plan the random route portion of the flight plan to owner. Controllersassume a pilot has obtained approval
begin and end over appropriatearrival and departure and is aware of any details of the procedure ifhe/she files
fixes. an IFRflightplan to thatairport. (PLT083)—AIM 15-4-7
4. Define the random route by waypoints. File route Answer (A) is incorrect because ATC is not required to question
description waypoints by using degree/distance fixes pilots to determine whether they have the owner's permission to use
the procedure. Answer (C) is incorrect because a pilot is responsible
based on navigation aids which are appropriate to for the safe operation of the airplane. Tosign a waiver of responsibil
the altitude. ity is contrary to a pilot's duty.

Answers

9033 [B] 9026 [C] 9027 [B] 9040 [B]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 6-17

Chapter 6 Flight Operations

ALL ALL

9053. To assure expeditious handling of a civilian air 9809. Before requesting RVSM clearance, each person
ambulance flight, the word "LIFEGUARD" should be A— shall correctly annotate the flight plan.
entered in which section of the flight plan? B- must file an ICAO RVSM flight plan.
A— Aircraft type/special equipment block. C—should file for odd altitudes only.
B— Pilot's name and address block.
C—Remarks block. Each person requesting a clearance to operate within
reduced vertical separate minimum (RVSM) airspace
When expeditious handling is necessary because of a shall correctly annotate the flightplan filed withair traffic
medical emergency, add the word "LIFEGUARD" in the control withregard to RVSM approval. (PLT367) —AIM
remarks section of the flightplan. (PLT225)—AIM 14-2-4 14-6-4
Answer (A) is incorrect because only the airplane's designator
or manufacturer's name and the transponder DME and/or RNAV
equipment code is entered in the aircraft type/special equipment
block. Answer (B) is incorrect because the complete name, address,
and telephone number of the pilot-in-command are entered in the
pilot's name and address block. Sufficient information is listed here
to identify home base, airport, or operator. This information would be
essential in the event of a search and rescue operation.

Alternate Airport Planning

An airport may not be available for alternate use if the airport NAVAID is unmonitored, is GPS-based,
or if it does not have weather-reporting capabilities.
For an airport to be used as an alternate, the forecast weather at that airport must meet certain
qualifications at the estimated time of arrival. Standard alternate minimums for a precision approach
are a 600-foot ceiling and 2 SM visibility. For a nonprecision approach, the minimums are an 800-foot
ceiling and 2 SM visibility. Standard alternate minimums apply unless higher alternate minimums are
listed for an airport.
Alternate Airport for Destination —Domestic Air Carriers: Unless the weather at the destination meets
certain criteria, an alternate must be listed in the dispatch release (and flight plan) for each destination
airport. If the weather at the first listed alternate is marginal (as defined by the operations specifications)
at least one additional alternate must be listed.

Alternate Airport for Destination —Flag Carriers: An alternate airport must be listed in the dispatch
release (and flight plan) for all flag air carrier flights longer than 6 hours. An alternate is not required for
a flag air carrier flight if it is scheduled for less than 6 hours and the weather forecast for the destination
meets certain criteria. For the period from 1 hour before to 1 hour after the estimated time of arrival:
• The ceiling must be forecast to be at least 1,500 feet above the lowest minimums or 2,000 feet,
whichever is higher; and
• The visibility must be forecast to be 3 miles, or 2 miles greater than the lowest applicable visibility
minimum, whichever is greater.

Alternate Airport for Destination —Supplemental Air Carriers and Commercial Operators: Except
for certain operations, a supplemental air carrier or commercial operator must always list an alternate
airport regardless of existing or forecast weather conditions.
An airport cannot be listed as an alternate in the dispatch or flight release unless the appropriate
weather reports and forecasts indicate that the weather conditions will be at or above the alternate

Answers

9053 [C] 9809 [A]

6-18 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 6 Flight Operations

weather minimums specified in the certificate holder's operations specifications for that airport, when
the flight arrives. Alternate weather minimums are for planning purposes only and do not apply to actual
operations. If an air carrier flight actually diverts to an alternate airport, the crew may use the actual
weather minimums shown on the IAP (Instrument Approach Procedure) Chart for that airport.
If the weather conditions at the departure airport are below landing minimums in the airline's opera
tions specifications, a departure alternate must be listed in the dispatch or the flight release. Weather
at alternate airports must meet the conditions for alternates in the operations specifications. The maxi
mum distance to the departure alternate for a two-engine airplane cannot be more than 1 hour from the
departure airport in still air with one engine operating. The distance to the departure alternate for an
airplane with three or more engines cannot be more than 2 hours from the departure airport in still air
with one engine inoperative.

ALL ALL
9394-1. When proceeding to the alternate airport, which 9394-2. An airport may not be qualified for alternate use if
minimums apply? A— the airport has AWOS-3 weather reporting.
A— The IFR alternate minimums section in front of B— the airport is located next to a restricted or
the NOAA IAP book. prohibited area.
B— 2000-3 for at least 1 hour before until 1 hour after C—the NAVAIDs used for the final approach are
the ETA. unmonitored.
C—The actual minimums shown on the IAP chart for
the airport. Not all airports can be used as an alternate. An airport
may not be qualified for alternate use if the airport
When the approach procedure being used provides for NAVAID is unmonitored, is GPS-based, or if it does not
and requires the use of a DH or MDA, the authorized have weather reporting capability. (PLT379) — FAA-H-
decision height or authorized minimum descent altitude 8083-16
is the DH or MDAprescribed by the approach procedure, Answer (A) is incorrect because an airport can qualify for alternate
the DH or MDA prescribed for the pilot-in-command, use if it has any weather reporting capability.Answer (B) is incorrect
or the DH or MDA for which the aircraft is equipped, because an airport can qualify for alternate use even if it is located
in a restricted or prohibited area.
whichever is highest.
Note: The alternate airport minimums are used only
duringpreflightplanning to determine the suitabilityof an ALL
airport as an IFR alternate. They impose no additional 9770. When planning to use RNAV equipment with GPS
restrictions should a flight actually divert to the filed input for an instrument approach at a destination airport,
alternate. (PLT421) — 14 CFR §91.175 any required alternate airport must have an available
Answer (A) is incorrect because the alternate minimums listed in instrument approach procedure that does not
the NOAA IAP (National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration
Instrument Approach Procedure) book refer to the ceiling and visibil A— require the use of GPS except when the RNAV
ity requirements for that airport in order to file it as an alternate, not system has a WAAS input.
the ceiling and visibilityrequired to execute an instrument approach. B— require the use of GPS except when the RNAV
Answer (B) is incorrect because 2000-3 minimums apply to the des
tination airport. Ifyour destination airport has a forecast ceiling of at system has an IRU input.
least 2,000 feet and a visibility of at least 3 miles, an alternate airport C—require the use of GPS except when dual,
need not be filed in the flight plan. independent GPS receivers are installed.

Aircraft using GPS navigation equipment under IFR for

domestic en route, terminaloperations, and certain lAPs
must be equipped with an approved and operational
alternate means of navigation appropriate to the flight.
However, a required alternate airport may be selected
if it uses an RNAV system with WAAS equipment.
(PLT420) — FAA-H-8083-15

Answers

9394-1 [C] 9394-2 [C] 9770 [A]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 6-19

Chapter 6 Flight Operations

ATM, DSP ATM, DSP

8247. When the forecast weather conditions for a desti 8251. When is a supplemental air carrier, operating
nation and alternate airport are considered marginal for under IFR, required to list an alternate airport for each
a domestic air carrier's operation, what specific action destination airport within the 48 contiguous United
should the dispatcher or pilot in command take? States?
A— List an airport where the forecast weather is not A— When the forecast weather indicates the ceiling
marginal as the alternate. will be less than 1,000 feet and visibility less than
B— Add 1 additional hour of fuel based on cruise 2 miles at the estimated time of arrival.
power settings for the airplane in use. B— On all flights, an alternate is required regardless
C—List at least one additional alternate airport. of existing or forecast weather conditions at the
destination.
When weather conditions forecast for the destination C—When the flight is scheduled for more than 6
and first alternate airport are marginal, at least one hours en route.
additional alternate must be designated. (PLT379) — 14
CFR §121.619 A supplemental air carrier must declare an alternate air
port forall IFRoperations. (PLT379) —14 CFR §121.623

ATM, DSP
8256. Which dispatch requirement applies to a flag air ATM, DSP
carrier that is scheduled for a 7-hour IFR flight? 8254. Prior to listing an airport as an alternate airport
A— No alternate airport is required if the forecast in the dispatch or flight release, weather reports and
weather at the ETA at the destination airport is at forecasts must indicate that weather conditions will be
least 1,500 feet and 3 miles. at or above authorized minimums at that airport
B— An alternate airport is not required if the ceiling A— for a period 1 hour before or after the ETA.
will be at least 1,500 feet above the lowest circling B— during the entire flight.
MDA. C—when the flight arrives.
C—An alternate airport is required.
No person may list an airport as an alternate airport in
All flag air carrier flights over 6 hours require an alternate the dispatch release or flight release unless the appro
airport. (PLT379) — 14 CFR §121.621 priate weather reports or forecasts, or any combination
Answers (A) and (B) are incorrect because whenever the scheduled thereof, indicate that the weather conditions will be at
flightexceeds 6 hours, a flag air carrier must list an alternate regard or above the alternate weather minimums specified
less of the weather.
in the certificate holder's operations specifications for
that airport when the flight arrives. (PLT380) — 14 CFR
§121.625
ATM, DSP
8262. An alternate airport is not required to dispatch a
flag air carrier airplane for a flight of less than 6 hours ATM, DSP
when the visibility for at least 1 hour before and 1 hour 8255. The minimum weather conditions that must exist
after the ETA at the destination airport is forecast to be for an airport to be listed as an alternate in the dispatch
A— 2 miles or greater. release for a domestic air carrier flight are
B— at least 3 miles, or 2 miles more than the lowest A— those listed in the NOAA IAP charts for the
applicable minimum. alternate airport, at the time the flight is expected
C—3 miles.
to arrive.
B—those specified in the certificate holder's
An alternate airport need not be listed if the destination
Operations Specifications for that airport, when
weather, from an hour before to an hour after the ETA,
the flight arrives.
is forecast to have the required ceiling criteria and the
C—those listed in the NOAA IAP charts for the
visibility is forecast to be at least 3 miles, or 2 miles more
alternate airport, from 1 hour before or after the
than the lowest visibility minimums, whicheveris greater,
ETAfor that flight.
for the instrument approach procedures to be used at
the destination airport. (PLT379) — 14 CFR §121.621

Answers

8247 [C] 8256 [C] 8262 [B] 8251 [B] 8254 [C] 8255 [B]

6-20 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 6 Flight Operations

No person may list an airport as an alternate airport in // the weather conditions at the airport of takeoff are
the dispatch release or flight release unless the appro below the landing minimums in the certificate holder's
priate weather reports or forecasts, or any combination operations specifications for that airport, no person may
thereof, indicate that the weather conditions will be at dispatch or release an aircraft from that airport unless
or above the alternate weather minimums specified the dispatch or flight release specifies an alternate
in the certificate holder's operations specifications for airport located within the following distances from the
that airport when the flight arrives. (PLT380) — 14 CFR airport of takeoff.
§121.625 1. Aircraft having two engines: Not more than 1 hour
Answers (A) and (C) are incorrect because, although the alternate from the departure airport at normal cruising speed
minimums in IAP charts may coincide with the air carrier's opera
tion specifications, it is the operations specifications that determine in still air with one engine inoperative.
alternate weather minimums. 2. Aircrafthaving three or more engines: Not more than
2 hours from the departure airportat normal cruising
speed in still air with one engine inoperative.
ATM, DSP
8248. An alternate airport for departure is required (PLT379) — 14 CFR §121.617
Answer (A) is incorrect because the maximum distance is deter
A— if weather conditions are below authorized mined with one engine operating. Answer (C) is incorrect because 2
landing minimums at the departure airport. hours is the limit for airplanes with three or more engines with one
B— when the weather forecast at the ETD is for engine inoperative.
landing minimums only at the departure airport.
C—when destination weather is marginal VFR
ATM, DSP
(ceiling less than 3,000 feet and visibility less
than 5 SM). 8250. If a four-engine air carrier airplane is dispatched
from an airport that is below landing minimums, what is
// the weather conditions at the airport of takeoff are the maximum distance that a departure alternate airport
below the landing minimums in the certificate holder's may be located from the departure airport?
operations specifications for that airport, no person may A— Not more than 2 hours at cruise speed with one
dispatch or release an aircraft from that airport unless engine inoperative.
the dispatch or flight release specifies an alternate B— Not more than 2 hours at normal cruise speed in
airport located within the following distances from the still air with one engine inoperative.
airport of takeoff. C—Not more than 1 hour at normal cruise speed in
1. Aircraft having two engines: Not more than 1 hour still air with one engine inoperative.
from the departure airport at normal cruising speed
in still air with one engine inoperative. If the weather conditions at the airport of takeoff are
below the landing minimums in the certificate holder's
2. Aircraft having three or more engines: Not more than operations specifications for that airport, no person may
2 hours from the departure airport at normal cruising dispatch or release an aircraft from that airport unless
speed in still air with one engine inoperative. the dispatch or flight release specifies an alternate
(PLT379) — 14 CFR §121.617 airport located within the following distances from the
airport of takeoff.
1. Aircrafthaving two engines: Not more than 1 hour
ATM, DSP
from the departure airport at normal cruising speed
8249. What is the maximum distance that a departure
in still air with one engine inoperative.
alternate airport may be from the departure airport for
a two-engine airplane? 2. Aircraft having three or more engines: Not more than
2 hours from the departure airport at normal cruising
A— 1 hour at normal cruise speed in still air with both
speed in still air with one engine inoperative.
engines operating.
B— 1 hour at normal cruise speed in still air with one (PLT396) — 14 CFR §121.617
engine operating.
C—2 hours at normal cruise speed in still air with one
engine operating.

Answers

8248 [A] 8249 [B] 8250 [B]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 6-21

Chapter 6 Flight Operations

ATM, DSP // the weather conditions at the airport of takeoff are

8252. When a departure alternate is required for a below the landing minimums in the certificate holder's
three-engine air carrier flight, it must be located at a operations specifications for that airport, no person may
distance not greater than dispatch or release an aircraft from that airport unless
A— 2 hours from the departure airport at normal the dispatch or flight release specifies an alternate
cruising speed in still air with one engine not airport located within the following distances from the
functioning. airport of takeoff.
B— 1 hour from the departure airport at normal cruising 1. Aircraft having two engines: Not more than 1 hour
speed in still air with one engine inoperative. from the departure airport at normal cruising speed
C—2 hours from the departure airport at normal in still air with one engine inoperative.
cruising speed in still air.
2. Aircrafthaving three or more engines: Not more than
2 hours from the departure airport at normal cruising
speed in still air with one engine inoperative.
(PLT379) — 14 CFR §121.617
Answer (B) is incorrect because 1 hour is correct for a two-engine
airplane. Answer (C) is incorrect because it does not contain the
words "with one engine inoperative."

ATC Clearances
No one may operate an aircraft in Class A, B, C, D or E airspace under Instrument Flight Rules (IFR)
unless he/she has filed an IFR flight plan and received an appropriate ATC clearance. No flight plan or
clearance is required for IFR operations in Class G airspace.
IFR clearances always contain:
• A clearance limit (usually the destination);
• Route of flight;
• Altitude assignment; and
• Departure instructions (could be a DP).

The words "cleared as filed" replace only the route of flight portion of a normal clearance. The control
ler will still state the destination airport, the enroute altitude (or initial altitude and expected final altitude)
and DP if appropriate. If a STAR is filed on the flight plan, it is considered part of the enroute portion of
the flight plan and is included in the term "cleared as filed."
When an ATC clearance has been received, you may not deviate from it (except in an emergency)
unless an amended clearance is received. If you are uncertain of the meaning of an ATC clearance or
the clearance appears to be contrary to a regulation, you should immediately request a clarification.
When you receive a clearance you should always read back altitude assignments, altitude restrictions,
and vectors. A Departure Procedure (DP) may contain these elements but they need not be included in
the readback unless the ATC controller specifically states them.
At airports with pretaxi clearance delivery, a pilot should call for the clearance 10 minutes prior to
the desired taxi time. After receiving clearance on the clearance delivery frequency, the pilot should call
ground control for taxi when ready.
Occasionally, an aircraft with an IFR release will be held on the ground for traffic management rea
sons. The traffic may be too heavy or weather may be causing ATC delays. If this happens to an aircraft
waiting for takeoff, it will be given a hold for release instruction.

Answers

8252 [A]

6-22 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 6 Flight Operations

When ATC can anticipate long delays for IFR aircraft, they will establish gate hold procedures. The
idea is to hold aircraft at the gate rather than cause congestion and unnecessary fuel burn on the taxi
ways while waiting for an IFR release. Ground control will instruct aircraft when to start engines. ATC
expects that turbine-powered aircraft will be ready for takeoff as soon as they reach the runway after
having been released from gate hold.
When departing uncontrolled airports, IFR flights will often receive a void time with their clearance.
The void time is a usually a 30-minute window of time during which the aircraft must takeoff for its IFR
clearance to be valid. If unable to comply with the void time, a pilot must receive another clearance with
an amended void time.
The flight plan of an airborne IFR aircraft may only be canceled when the aircraft is in VFR weather
conditions and outside of Class A airspace.

ALL 4. An enroute altitude will be stated in the clearance

9374. A pilot is operating in Class G airspace. If exist or the pilot willbe advised to expect an assigned or
ing weather conditions are below those for VFR flight, filed altitude withina given time frame or at a certain
an IFR flight plan must be filed and an ATC clearance point after departure. This may be done verbally in
received prior to the departure clearance or stated in the DP
A— takeoff if weather conditions are below IFR (PLT370)—AIM 15-2-5
minimums. Answer (A) is incorrect because a clearance limitmay be a fix, point,
B—entering controlled airspace. or location. An abbreviated clearance will be a clearance to the des
C—entering IFR weather conditions. tination airport. In some cases, a clearance is issued to a fix (limit)
from which another clearance limit will be issued. DPs are stated in
all IFR departure clearances when appropriate. Answer (B) is incor
No person may operate an aircraftin Class A, B, C, D rect because a clearance will state the destination airport's name,
or E airspace under IFR unless an IFR flight plan has not a clearance limit.
been filed and an appropriate ATCclearance has been
received. (PLT162) — 14 CFR §91.173
ALL
Answers (A) and (C) are incorrect because an IFR flightplan and an
ATC clearance are not required to fly in IMC (instrument meteoro 9439. An ATC "instruction"
logical conditions) in Class G airspace.
A— is the same as an ATC "clearance."
B— is a directive issued by ATC for the purpose of
ALL requiring a pilot to take a specific action.
9006. What minimum information does an abbreviated C— must be "read back" in full to the controller and
departure clearance "cleared as filed" include? confirmed before becoming effective.
A— Clearance limit and en route altitude.
Instructions are directives issued by air traffic control for
B—Clearance limit, transponder code, and DP, if the purpose of requiring a pilot to take specific actions;
appropriate. e.g., 'Turn left heading two fivezero," "Go around," "Clear
C—Destination airport, en route altitude, transponder the runway." (PLT370) — Pilot/Controller Glossary
code, and DP, if appropriate.
Answer (A) is incorrect because an ATC clearance is not the same
as an ATC instruction. Answer (C) is incorrect because an ATC
The followingapply to "clearedas filed" clearances: instruction does not have to be read back in full to the controller and
confirmed before becoming effective.
1. The clearance as issued will include the destination
airport filedin the flight plan. "Cleared to (destination)
as filed."

2. The controller will state the DP name and number.

3. STARs, when filed in a flightplan, are considered a
part of the filed route of flight and will not normally
be stated in an initial clearance.

Answers

9374 [B] 9006 [C] 9439 [B]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 6-23

Chapter 6 Flight Operations

ALL ALL

9402. What action should a pilot take when a clearance 9008. What is the normal procedure for IFR departures
is received from ATC that appears to be contrary to a at locations with pretaxi clearance programs?
regulation? A— Pilots request IFR clearance when ready to
A— Read the clearance back in its entirety. taxi. The pilot will receive taxi instruction with
B— Request a clarification from ATC. clearance.
C— Do not accept the clearance. B— Pilots request IFR clearance when ready to taxi.
Pilots will receive taxi clearance, then receive IFR
Ifa pilot is uncertain of the meaning of an ATCclearance, clearance while taxiing or on runup.
he/she shall immediately request clarification from ATC. C—Pilots request IFR clearance 10 minutes or less
(PLT444) — 14 CFR §91.123 prior to taxi, then request taxi clearance from
Answer (A) is incorrect because reading the clearance back in its ground control.
entirety does not inform ATC of the possible conflict to a regulation.
A pilot should actively seek clarification if there is any doubt. Answer When operating at airports withpretaxi clearance deliv
(C) is incorrect because not accepting a clearance is not the proper
procedure to use when, in a pilot's opinion, it would conflict with a ery, participating pilots should call clearance delivery or
regulation. First, a pilot should receive a clarification from ATC, then ground control not more than 10 minutes before taxi.
ask for an amended clearance, if necessary. When the IFR clearance is received on clearance deliv
ery frequency, pilots should call ground control when
ready to taxi. (PLT370) — AIM 15-2-1
ALL
Answers (A) and (B) are incorrect because the pilot willfirstbe given
9045. What is the pilot's responsibility for clearance or the IFR clearance, then the taxi instruction or clearance.
instruction readback?

A— Except for SIDs, acknowledge altitude

assignments, altitude restrictions, and vectors. ALL

B— If the clearance or instruction is understood, an 9009. What is the purpose of the term "hold for release"
acknowledgment is sufficient. when included in an IFR clearance?
C— Read back the entire clearance or instruction to A— A procedure for delaying departure for traffic
confirm the message is understood. volume, weather, or need to issue further
instructions.
Pilots of airborne aircraft should read back those parts B—When an IFR clearance is received by telephone,
of ATC clearances and instructions containing altitude the pilot will have time to prepare for takeoff prior
assignments or vectors. Altitudes contained in charted to being released.
procedures such as DPs, instrument approaches, etc., C—Gate hold procedures are in effect and the pilot
should not be read back unless they are specifically receives an estimate of the time the flight will be
stated by the controller. (PLT370) — AIM 14-4-7 released.
Answer (B) is incorrect because the best way to know that the clear
ance or instruction is understood is to read back the "numbers" as a ATC may issue "holdfor release"instructions in a clear
double-check between the pilot and ATC. This reduces the kinds of
communication errors that occur when a number is either misheard
ance to delay an aircraft's departure for traffic man
or is incorrect. Answer (C) is incorrect because the pilot's respon agement reasons (i.e., weather, traffic volume, etc.).
sibility is to read back the clearances and instructions containing (PLT370) — AIM 15-2-6
altitude assignments, altitude restrictions, and vectors, not the entire
clearance or instruction. Answer (B) is incorrect because, when a pilot receives an IFR clear
ance via telephone, it is normally because he/she is departing from
an uncontrolled airport. In this case, ATC would issue a clearance
void time, not a hold for release. Answer (C) is incorrect because
gate hold procedures are in effect whenever departure delays
exceed (or are expected to exceed) 15 minutes. This procedure is
not a way forATCto delay an airplane's departure.

Answers

9402 [B] 9045 [A] 9008 [C] 9009 [A]

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 Chapter 6 Flight Operations

ALL ALL

9056. What action should the pilot take when "gate 9007. Under what condition does a pilot receive a "void
hold" procedures are in effect? time" specified in the clearance?
A—Contact ground control prior to starting engines A— On an uncontrolled airport.
for sequencing. B— When "gate hold" procedures are in effect.
B— Taxi into position and hold prior to requesting C— Ifthe clearance is received prior to starting engines.
clearance.
C—Start engines, perform pretakeoff check, and Ifoperating from an airport notserved bya control tower,
request clearance prior to leaving the parking thepilotmayreceive a clearance containing a provision
area.
thatif the flight has not departed by a specific time, the
clearance is void. (PLT370) — AIM 15-2-6
When gate holdprocedures are in effect, pilots should Answer (B) is incorrect because gate holdprocedures are in effect
contact ground control or clearance delivery prior to whenever departure delays exceed or are anticipated to exceed 15
minutes. Answer(C) is incorrect because clearances can be issued
starting engines, because departure delaysareexpected before startingthe airplane's engine(s).
to exceed 15 minutes. (PLT434) — AIM 14-3-15
Answer (B) is incorrect because taxi into position means that the
pilot is on theactive runway and readyfor takeoff. This is nota posi ALL
tion where ATC would issue an IFR clearance. Answer (C) is incor 9005. Under what condition may a pilot cancel an IFR
rect because pilots should contact groundcontrol for sequencing flight plan prior to completing the flight?
before starting engines.
A— Anytime it appears the clearance will cause a
deviation from FARs.
ALL B—Anytime within controlled airspace by contacting
9057. What special consideration is given for turbine- ARTCC.
powered aircraft when "gate hold" procedures are in C—Only if in VFR conditions in other than Class A
effect? airspace.
A— They are given preference for departure over An IFR flight planmaybe canceled anytime the flight is
other aircraft.
operating in VFR conditions outside Class A airspace.
B— They are expected to be ready for takeoff when (PLT224) —AIM 15-1-14
they reach the runway or warmup block.
Answer (A) is incorrect because anytime a clearance appears to
C—They are expected to be ready for takeoff prior to deviate from a regulation, thepilot shouldrequest clarification from
taxi and will receive takeoff clearance prior to taxi. ATC and an amended clearance. Answer (B) is incorrect because
all aircraft in Class A airspace (above FL180) or when operating in
Even with gate holds in effect, the tower controller will IMC in Class B, C.DorE must be operatingunderan IFRflight plan.
considerthatpilotsof turbine-powered aircraft are ready
for takeoff whentheyreach the runway or warm upblock
unless advised otherwise. (PLT149) — AIM 14-3-15
Answer (A) is incorrect because, when gate hold procedures are
in effect, sequencing of all airplanes is based on the initial call-up
to ground control or clearance delivery. Answer (C) is incorrect
because a pilot of any airplane should be ready to taxi prior to
requesting taxi, and takeoff clearance is received prior to takeoff.

Answers

9056 [A] 9057 [B] 9007 [A] 9005 [C]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 6-25

 Chapter 6 Flight Operations

ALL ALL
9737. (Refer to Runway Incursion Figure.) You have 9788. As you call for taxi instructions, the key words
requested taxi instructions for takeoff using Runway to understand are
16. The controller issues the following taxi instructions: A—cleared to runway.
"N123, Taxi to runway 16." Where are you required to B— hold short of or "cross."
stop in order to be in compliance with the controller's
C—taxi to and "expedite."
instructions?

When issuing taxiinstructions to any point other than

an assigned takeoff runway, ATC will specify the point
to taxi to, issue taxi instructions, and state any hold
short instructions or runway crossing clearances if the
taxiroute will cross a runway. (PLT149) — AIM 14-3-18
Answer (A) is incorrect because ATC willnot use the word "cleared"
in conjunction with authorization for aircraft to taxi. Answer(C) is
incorrect because "expedite" is not as critical as being told to hold
short or cross.

ALL

9789. You received these ATC taxi instructions: "Taxi

to Runway 30 via Lima and hold short of Runway 25L".
Your airplane is on the ramp by the terminal and NWS
on the east side of the airport. Your taxi route
A— requires crossing of Runway 25L at Lima.
B— involves transiting HS 4.
C—requires crossing Runway 34R en route to the
assigned runway.

When assigned a takeoff runway, ATC will first specify

the runway, issue taxi instructions, and state any hold
short instructions or runway crossing clearances if the
taxiroute will cross a runway. (PLT149) — AIM 14-3-18
CONTROL TO

Runway Incursion
ALL

A-5 (Five). 9790. As you rolled out long on Runway 30 after land
B-6(Six). ing at Long Beach (LGB) (figures 241 and 242), you
C-9(Nine). slowed and turned left on very wide pavement and now
see Taxiway D signs on both sides of your pavement.
When ATC clears an aircraft to "taxi to" an assigned You notice your heading is about 250°. Tower is urging
takeoff runway, the absence of holding instructions you to turn left on D, cross 16R/34L, then taxi to G and
does not authorize the aircraft to "cross" all runways hold short of Runway 30. You now know you
which the taxi route intersects except the assigned A— exited onto Runway 25R and transited HS 2.
takeoff runway. A clearance mustbe obtained prior to B— exited onto Taxiway G.
crossing any runway. It does not include authorization C—exited at Taxiway J and transited HS 4.
to "taxi onto" or "cross" the assigned takeoff runway at
anypoint. You shouldtaxi and holdshortof runway 16, The very wide pavement and taxiway D signs on both
which is position 5. (PLT141)—AIM 4-3-18 sides of the pavement indicate you arenow on runway
Answer (B) is incorrectbecause "taxi to" does not authorize the air 25R in the HS1 and HS2 region. (PLT149) — AIM
craft to "taxi onto" the assigned takeoff runway. Answer (C) is incor 14-3-18
rect because the airplane should taxi the most direct route to the
assigned runway unless instructed otherwise; position 9 would not
beencountered for the airplane atthe west ramp totaxi torunway 16.

Answers
9737 [A] 9788 [B] 9789 [A] 9790 [A]

6-26 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 6 Flight Operations

ALL The EDCT is the runway release time assigned to an

9818. When should an aircraft depart ifissued an EDCT? aircraft includedin traffic management programs. Aircraft
A— No earlier than 5 minutes before and no later than are expected to departno earlier than 5 minutesbefore,
5 minutes after the EDCT.
and no later than 5 minutes after the EDCT. (PLT080)
B— No later than 5 minutes before and no earlier than — AIM 15-2-6
5 minutes after the EDCT.
C— No earlier than 15 minutes before and no later
than 15 minutes after the EDCT.

Takeoff Procedures
Unless otherwise authorized by the FAA, an air carrierflight may not takeoff unless the weather meets
the prescribed takeoff minimums for that airport. If takeoff minimums are not published for the airport,
the following visibility is required for takeoff:
• For aircraft having two engines or less: 1 statute mile visibility.
• For aircraft having three or more engines: 1/2 statute mile visibility.
If an air carrier flight isgoing totakeoff from an airport that isnot listed in its operations specifications,
the pilot must observe the takeoff weather minimums published for that airport. If no takeoff weather
minimums are published for that airport, then the pilot must be sure thatthe ceiling and visibility meet a
sliding scale requirement of 800-2 or 900-1-1/2 or 1,000-1.
Vt is the critical engine failure speed ordecision speed. Engine failure below this speed shall result
in an aborted takeoff; above this speed the takeoff run should be continued.
VR is defined as the speed at which the rotation of the aircraft should be initiated to takeoff attitude.
Rotation speed (VR) cannot be less than Vv If it is greater than V: and it is found that, at VR, rotation
cannot be achieved, a subsequent rejected take off may not be possible within the remaining runway
length and is likely to result in a Runway Excursion.

ATM, ATS, DSP ATM, DSP

9370. When takeoff minimums are not prescribed for a 8257. An airport is not listed in a domestic Air Car
civil airport, what are the takeoff minimums under IFR rier's Operations Specifications and does not have the
for a three-engine airplane? prescribed takeoff weather minimums. What are the
minimum weather conditions required for takeoff?
A-1 SM.
B-1/2SM. A- 800-2.
C-300 feet and 1/2 SM. B-900-1.
C-1000-1/2.
If takeoff minimums are not prescribed under 14 CFR
Part97, the takeoffminimums underIFRforaircraft hav When departing from an alternate airport within the
ing more than two enginesare 1/2statute mile visibility. United States which is not listed in the operations
(PLT421) — 14 CFR §91.175 specifications, an air carrier mustuse the 14 CFR Part
Answer (A) is incorrect because 1 SM visibility is for aircraft, other 97 takeoff minimums. When no takeoff minimums are
than helicopters, having two enginesorless. Answer (C) is incorrect specified, the air carrier must use a ceiling andvisibility
because minimum ceilingsare notspecifiedfor takeoff minimums. of 800-2, 900-1-1/2, or 1,000-1. (PLT398) — 14 CFR
§121.637
Answer (B) is incorrect because a 900-foot ceiling requires 1.5
miles visibility. Answer (C) is incorrect because a 1,000-foot ceiling
requires 1 mile visibility.

Answers

9818 [A] 9370 [B] 8257 [A]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 6-27

 Chapter 6 Flight Operations

ATM, DSP
When departing from an alternate airport outside the
8261. The weather conditions that meet the minimum United States which is not listedinthe operations speci
requirements for a flag air carrier to take off from an fications, an air carrier must use the takeoff minimums
alternate airport that is not listed in the Operations approved by the government of the country in which
Specifications are the airport is located. When no takeoff minimums are
A-800-2, 900-1-1/2, or 1000-1. specified, theaircarrier mustuse a ceiling and visibility
B-800-1/2, 900-1, or 1000-2. of 800-2, 900-1-1/2, or 1,000-1. (PLT380) — 14 CFR
C-800-1, 900-2, or 1000-3. §121.637

When departing from an alternate airport within the

United States which is not listed in the operations ALL

specifications, an air carrier must use the 14 CFR Part 9826. (Refer to Figure 177A.) An air carrier is going to
97 takeoff minimums. When no takeoff minimums are depart LWS from RWY 8. There are no special com
specified, theaircarrier mustuse a ceiling and visibility pany procedures for this airport. As pilot-in-command
of 800-2, 900-1-1/2, or 1,000-1. (PLT380) — 14 CFR you know that at 180 knots ground speed you must be
§121.637 able to climb at

A— 270 feet per minute with one engine inoperative

with visibility of 2 miles.
ATM, DSP
B— 1000 feet per minute with both engines operating
8263. The minimum weather conditions that must
with visibility of 1 mile.
exist for a domestic air carrier flight to take off from an
C—810 feet per minute with one engine inoperative
airport that is not listed in the Air Carrier's Operations with visibility of 2 miles.
Specifications (takeoff minimums are not prescribed
for that airport) is The Note in the plan view of the DP requires 900
A-800-2, 1,100-1, or 900-1-1/2. FPM/200K. 900 FPM at 200K IAS = 810 FPM at 180
B-1,000-1, 900-1-1/4, or 800-2. knots. (900 FPM/200K IAS = X FPM/ 180 knots;X =
C-1,000-1, 900-1-1/2, or 800-2. 810)To depart onRWY8 at 180knots ground speed,you
mustbe able to climb at 810 feetper minute. (PLT380)
When departing from an alternate airport within the — FAA-H-8083-15
United States which is not listed in the operations
specifications, an air carrier must use the 14 CFR Part
97 takeoff minimums. When no takeoff minimums are ALL

specified, the air carrier must use a ceiling and visibility 9827. (Referto Figure 177A.) An air carrier is going to
of 800-2, 900-1-1/2, or 1,000-1. (PLT459) — 14 CFR depart LWS from RWY 29. There are no special com
§121.637 pany procedures for this airport. As pilot-in-command
you know that at 180 knots ground speed you must be
able to climb at
ATM, DSP
A— 900 fpm with one engine inoperative.
8264. When an alternate airport outside the United
B— 300 fpm with one engine inoperative.
States has no prescribed takeoff minimums and is not
C—750 fpm with one engine inoperative.
listed in a Flag Air Carrier's Operations Specifications,
the minimum weather conditions that will meet the The Note in the plan view of the DP requires 1000
requirements for takeoff is
FPM/200K 1000 FPM at 200K IAS = 900 FPM at 180
A-800-1-1/2. knots (1000 FPM / 200K IAS = X FPM / 180 knots;
B- 600-2. X = 900). To depart on RWY 29 at 180 knots ground
C-900-1-1/2. speed, you mustbe able toclimb at 900 feetperminute.
(PLT380) — FAA-H-8083-15

Answers

8261 [A] 8263 [C] 8264 [C] 9826 [C] 9827 [A]

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 Chapter 6 Flight Operations

ATM, DSP V-f is the critical engine failure speed or decision speed.
9827-1. You are rolling on takeoff in a 14 CFR Part 25 Engine failure belowthis speed shallresult inan aborted
certified jet and you see an engine oil pressure caution takeoff; above this speed the takeoff run should be
light as you approach V-|. You should continued. (PLT208) — FAA-H-8083-25
A— continue the takeoff as briefed and handle the
illumination as an inflight emergency.
ATM, DSP
B— promptly abort the takeoff and plan on only 9827-3. During takeoff roll with runway remaining, you
having asymmetrical reverse thrust. receive a master caution light after VR. What action
C—abort the takeoff and plan for a maximum reverse
should you take?
thrust for deceleration.
A— Reject the takeoff.
V-i is the critical engine failure speed or decision speed. B— Hold the nose down to takeoff speed.
Engine failure belowthis speed shallresult inan aborted C—Continue the takeoff.
takeoff; above this speed the takeoff run should be
continued. (PLT208) — FAA-H-8083-25 VR is definedas the speed at which the rotation of the
aircraft should be initiated to takeoff attitude. VR or rota
tion speed cannotbe less than V1. Ifitis greaterthan Vi
ATM, DSP and itis found that, at VR, rotation cannot be achieved, a
9827-2. You are rolling on takeoff in a 14 CFR Part 25 subsequent rejected takeoff maynotbe possible within
certified jet and you see an engine oil pressure caution the remaining runway length and is likely to result in a
light as you pass V^ You should runway excursion. In these circumstances (after VR,
A— continue the takeoff as briefed and handle the
runway remaining), you should continue the takeoff.
illumination as an inflight emergency. (PLT208) — FAA-H-8083-3
B— promptlyabort the takeoff and plan on only
having asymmetrical reverse thrust.
C—abort the takeoff and plan for a maximum reverse
thrust for deceleration.

Instrument Approaches
This section is limited to rules and procedures common to most, or all approaches, or procedures that
may be used in connection with published instrument approaches.
Contact and visual approaches are both IFR authorizations to proceed toan airport visually. Avisual
approach may be authorized by ATC to reduce pilot or controller workload and to expedite traffic by
shortening flight paths to the airport. The weather must be VFR and the pilot must report either the air
port orthe preceding aircraft in sight. Either the pilot orATC may initiate a visual approach. Acontact
approach may be initiated only by the pilot. The weather need not be VFR but the aircraft must be clear
of the clouds, have at least 1 mile visibility and be able to proceed to the landing airport visually.
When an airport has ILS or MLS approaches to parallel runways at least 4,300 feet apart, ATC
may conduct approaches to both runways simultaneously. The pilots will be informed if simultaneous
approaches are in progress. To ensure safe separation between aircraft, radar monitoring is provided on
the tower frequency. Apilot must report any malfunctioning aircraft receivers if he/she has been informed
that simultaneous approaches are in progress.
Occasionally, a pilot will be asked to fly an instrument approach to a runway and then fly a visual
"sidestep" maneuver to land on a parallel runway. This sidestep maneuver should be executed as soon
as possible after the runway environment is in sight.

Continued

Answers

9827-1 [B] 9827-2 [A] 9827-3 [C]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 6-29

Chapter 6 Flight Operations

If a pilot is being radar vectored when an approach clearance is received, he/she must maintain
the lastassigned altitude until the aircraft isestablished on a segment of a published route or approach
procedure unless a different altitude is assigned by ATC. If a flight is being radar vectored to the final
approach course and intercepts a published portion of the course, the pilot may not descend to the
published altitudes until cleared for the approach. If a flight has not been cleared for approach while
on a radar vector and it becomes apparent that the current vector will take it across the final approach
course, the pilot should advise ATC of the situation. Do notturn to intercept the approach course unless
cleared to do so.

Unless ATC issues a clearance otherwise, no pilot may make a procedure turn on an instrument
approach if any of the following apply:
• The flight is radar vectored to the final approach course or fix
• The flight makes a timed approach from a holding fix
• The approach procedure specifies "No PT"

When theapproach procedure involves a procedure turn, a maximum speed of not greater than 200
KIAS should be observed from first overheading the course reversal IAF through the procedure turn
maneuver, to ensure containment with the obstruction clearance area.
Except for Category II and III approaches, if RVR minimums for takeoff or landing are prescribed
in an instrument approach procedure, but the RVR is not reported for the runway intended, the ground
visibilities may be substituted. These may be found in FAA Legend 7.
Apilot may not continue an approach past the final approach fix or on to the final approach segment
unless the latest weather report for the airport indicates that thevisibility isequal to, orgreater than, the
visibility required for the approach procedure. If a pilot has begun the final approach segment and then
receives a report of below minimum conditions, he/she may continue the approach to the DH or MDA.
To descend below the published DH or MDA on an instrument approach, one of the following must
be distinctly visible and identifiable to the pilot:
• Approach light system, except that the pilot may not descend below 100 feet above the touchdown
zone elevation using the approach lights as a reference unless the red terminating bars or red side
row bars are also distinctly visible and identifiable.
• Threshold . Touchdown zone or touchdown zone markings
• Threshold markings •Touchdown zone lights
• Threshold lights • Runway or runway markings
• Runway end identifier lights • Runway lights
• Visual approach slope indicator

Apilot must initiate a missed approach from an ILS upon arrival atthe DH on the glide slope if none
of the required visual references is distinctly visible. If visual contact is lost anytime after descending
below the DH but before touchdown, the pilot must start a missed approach.
If a pilot loses visual reference while circling to land from an instrument approach, he/she should
follow the missed approach procedure published for the approach used. The pilot should make an initial
climbing turn toward the landing runway to establish the aircraft on the missed approach course.

6-30 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 6 Flight Operations

An Airport Surveillance Radar (ASR) approach is one in which an ATC radar controller provides
directional guidance and distance to the runway information to the pilot. The only airborne equipment
required is an operating radio receiver. The controller will tell the pilot when the aircraft is at the missed
approach point and give missed approach instructions as required. If the pilot desires to execute a
missed approach prior to the missed approach point, he/she should inform the controller, who will then
issue missed approach instructions.
Precision Runway Monitor (PRM) is a high update-rate radar surveillance system, certified to
provide simultaneous independent approaches to closely-spaced parallel runways.
If there is penetration of the obstacle identification surfaces (OIS), the published approach visibility
can be no lower than 3/4 SM.

ALL ALL

9091. What is the difference between a visual and a 8955. When simultaneous ILS approaches are in prog
contact approach? ress, which of the following should approach control be
advised of immediately?
A—A visual approach is an IFR authorization while a
contact approach is a VFR authorization. A— Any inoperative or malfunctioning aircraft
B—A visual approach is initiated by ATC while a receivers.
contact approach is initiated by the pilot. B— If a simultaneous ILS approach is desired.
C— Both are the same but classified according to the C— If radar monitoring is desired to confirm lateral
party initiating the approach. separation.

Visual approachesare initiated byATC to reducepilot/ When advised that simultaneous ILS approaches are
controllerworkloadand expedite traffic. Pilots operating inprogress, pilots shall advise approach control imme
on IFR flight plans may request a contact approach if diately of malfunctioning or inoperative receivers or if
the appropriate weather conditions exist. (PLT170) — simultaneous approach is notdesired. (PLT170) —AIM
AIM 15-4-22, 5-4-24 15-4-15
Answer (A) is incorrect because both a visual and contact approach Answer (B) is incorrect because simultaneous approaches are
are initiated from an IFRflight plan. Answer (C) is incorrectbecause issued at any time according to ATC needs, and it is not the
a visual approach is one in which thepilothas a preceding aircraft or responsibility of the pilot to request such an approach. Answer (C)
the airport in sightand can maintain basic VFR weather minimums. is incorrect because radar monitoring is always provided during
A contactapproach is used bya pilot inlieuof conducting a standard simultaneous approaches.
or special instrument approach to an airport.

ALL
ALL 8954. When cleared to execute a published side-step
8953. When simultaneous approaches are in progress, maneuver, at what point is the pilot expected to com
how does each pilot receive radar advisories? mence this maneuver?
A— On tower frequency. A-At the published DH.
B—On approach control frequency. B— At the MDA published or a circling approach.
C—One pilot on tower frequency and the other on C—As soon as possible after the runway
approach control frequency. environment is in sight.

Whenever simultaneous approaches are in progress, P/7ote are expected to execute the side-step maneuver
radaradvisories will be providedon the towerfrequency. as soon as possibleafter therunway orrunway environ
(PLT420) — AIM 15-4-15 ment is in sight. (PLT083) — AIM 15-4-19
Answer (B) is incorrect because pilots will be advised tomonitor the Answers (A) and (B)are incorrect because the side-step maneuver
tower (not approach control) frequency to receive radar advisories canonly be performed andshould be performed as soonas possible
and instructions. Answer (C) is incorrect because both pilots would afterthe runway or runway environment is insight.
receive radar advisories on the tower frequency.

Answers

9091 [B] 8953 [A] 8955 [A] 8954 [C]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 6-31

Chapter 6 Flight Operations

ALL ALL

9438. When cleared to execute a published side-step 9383. What action should be taken when a pilot is
maneuver for a specific approach and landing on the "cleared for approach" while being radar vectored on
parallel runway, at what point is the pilot expected to an unpublished route?
commence this maneuver?
A— Descend to minimum vector altitude.
A— At the published minimum altitude for a circling B— Remain at last assigned altitude until established
approach. on a published route segment.
B—As soon as possible after the runway or runway C— Descend to initial approach fix altitude.
environment is in sight.
C—At the localizer MDA minimums and when the When operating on an unpublished routeor while being
runway is in sight. radar vectored, the pilot, when an approach clearance
is received, shall maintain the last altitude assigned
Pilotsare expected to execute the side-step maneuver until the aircraft is established on a segment of a pub
as soon as possible after the runwayor runwayenviron lished route or instrument approach procedure, unless
ment is in sight. (PLT170) — AIM 15-4-19 a different altitude is assigned by ATC. (PLT421) — 14
Answers (A) and (C) are incorrect because the maneuver should be CFR §91.175
started as soon as the runway environment is in sight not at a DHor Answer (A) is incorrectbecause a pilot should maintain the last alti
MDA of an approach.
tude assigned by ATC and should use the minimum vector altitude
onlyduring lost communication procedures. Answer(C) is incorrect
because a pilot should maintain thelastaltitude assignedbyATC.
ALL

9037. While being vectored to the final approach course

of an IFR approach, when may the pilot descend to ALL

published altitudes? 9385. What altitude is a pilot authorized to fly when

A— Anytime the flight is on a published leg of an cleared for an ILS approach? The pilot
approach chart. A— may begin a descent to the procedure turn
B— When the flight is within the 10-mile ring of a altitude.
published approach. B— must maintain the last assigned altitude until
C—Only when approach control clears the flight for established on a published route or segment of
the approach. the approach with published altitudes.
C—may descend from the assigned altitude only
When operating onan unpublished route orwhile being when established on the final approach course.
radar vectored, the pilot, when approach clearance is
received, in addition to complying with the minimum When operating onan unpublished route orwhile being
altitudes for IFR operations, shall maintain the last radar vectored, the pilot, when an approach clearance
assigned altitude unless a different altitude is assigned is received, shall maintain the last altitude assigned
byATC, oruntil theaircraft is established on a segment until the aircraft is established on a segment of a pub
ofpublishedrouteor IAP. This impliesthateven ifa radar lished route or instrument approach procedure, unless
vectorshould happen toput a flight on a published route, a different altitude is assigned byATC. (PLT421) — 14
thepilotmaynotdescend until cleared for theapproach. CFR §91.175
(PLT420) — AIM 15-4-7 Answer (A) is incorrect because descent to the procedure turn
Answer (A) is incorrect because you may only descend if cleared. altitude can be commenced only when you are established on
Answer (B) is incorrect because the 10-mile ring has nothing to do that route segment or instrument approach. Answer(C) is incor
with descent clearance. rect because the pilot does not have to be established on the final
approach course to descend from thelast assigned altitude, ifestab
lishedon a published route segment with a specifiedlower minimum
altitude than the last assigned altitude.

Answers
9438 [B] 9037 [C] 9383 [B] 9385 [B]

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 Chapter 6 Flight Operations

ALL ALL

9036. What action(s) should a pilot take if vectored 9021. When the approach procedure involves a proce
across the final approach course during an IFR dure turn the maximum speed that should be observed
approach? from first overheading the course reversal IAF through
the procedure turn is
A—Continue on the last heading issued until
otherwise instructed. A-180 knots IAS.
B— Contact approach control, and advise that the B- 200 knots TAS.
flight is crossing the final approach course. C-200 knots IAS.
C—Turn onto final, and broadcast in the blind that the
flight has proceeded on final. When theapproach procedure involves a procedure turn,
a maximum speed of not greater than 200 knots (IAS)
Aircraft will normallybe informed when it is necessary should be observed from first overheading the course
to vector across the finalapproach course forspacing reversal IAF through the procedure turn maneuver, to
or other reasons. Ifapproach course crossing is immi ensure containment within the obstruction clearance
nent and the pilothas not been informed thathe will be area. (PLT420) — AIM 15-4-9
vectored across the final approach course, he should
query the controller. (PLT420) — AIM 15-4-3
ALL
Answer (A) is incorrect because thepilot shouldmaintain last head
ingissued, but should also adviseapproach control that the flight is 9391. What minimum ground visibility may be used
crossingthe final approach course. Answer (C)is incorrect because instead of a prescribed visibility criteria of RVR 16 when
a pilot shouldbroadcast in the blind that the flight has turned onto that RVR value is not reported?
final when operating VFR at an uncontrolledairport.
A-1/4SM.
B-3/4SM.
ALL C-1/2SM.
9369. If being radar vectored to the final approach
course of a published instrument approach that speci RVR minimum maybe converted toground visibility using
fies "NO PT," the pilot should FAA Legend 7. (PLT420) — 14 CFR§91.175
A— advise ATC that a procedure turn will not be
executed. ALL
B— not execute the procedure turn unless specifically 9392. The prescribed visibility criteria of RVR 32 for
cleared to do so by ATC. the runwayof intended operation is not reported. What
C—execute a holding-pattern type procedure turn. minimum ground visibility may be used instead of the
RVR value?
In the case ofa radar vector to a finalapproach course or
fix, a timed approach from a holding fix, oran approach A-3/8SM.
for which the approach procedurespecifies "NoPV'no B- 5/8 SM.
pilot may make a procedure turn unless cleared to do C-3/4SM.
so by ATC. (PLT420) — 14 CFR§91.175
RVR minimum may be converted to ground visibility using
Answer (A) is incorrect because a procedure turn is notauthorized
orexpected to be executed for this instrument approach; therefore, FAA Legend 7. (PLT420) — 14 CFR §91.175
advising ATC ofyour intention to omit a procedure turn is notneces
sary. Answer (C) is incorrect because if the published instrument
approach specifies "NoPT," you should follow the published proce ALL
dure rather than automatically reverting to a holding-pattern-type 9393. The visibility criteria for a particular instrument
procedure turn.
approach procedureis RVR 40. Whatminimum ground
visibility may be substituted for the RVR value?
A-5/8SM.
B-3/4SM.
C-7/8SM.

RVR minimum may be converted toground visibility using

FAA Legend7. (PLT420) — 14 CFR §91.175

Answers

9369 [B] 9021 [C] 9391 [A] 9392 [B] 9393 [B]
9036 [B]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 6-33

 Chapter 6 Flight Operations

ALL ALL
9384. Under which condition, ifany, may a pilotdescend 9368. When must the pilot initiate a missed approach
below DH or MDA when using the ALSF-1 approach procedure from an ILS approach?
light system as the primary visual reference for the
intended runway?
A— At the DA/DH when the runway is not clearly
visible.
A— Under no condition can the approach light system B— When the time has expired after reaching the DA/
serve as a necessary visual reference for descent DH and the runway environment is not clearly
below DH or MDA. visible.
B— Descent to the intended runway is authorized as C—At the DA/DH, if the visual references for the
long as any portion of the approach lightsystem intended runway are not distinctly visible or
can be seen. anytime thereafter that visual reference is lost.
C—The approach light system can be used as a
visual reference, except that descent below 100 Apilotmust initiate a missed approach procedurefrom
feet above TDZE requires that the red light bars an ILS approach at the DA/DH, if the required visual
be visible and identifiable. referencesfor intended runway are notdistinctly visible
oranytime thereafter ifvisual reference is lost. (PLT420)
A pilotmay descend below the MDA or DH using the — 14 CFR §91.175
approach lightsystem as the sole visual reference. How Answer(A) is incorrect because the runway itselfdoes not have to
ever, the pilot may not descend below 100 feet above be visible at the DA/DH to continue with theapproach; a pilot may
touchdown zone elevation (TDZE) using the approach use the required visualreferences. Answer (B) is incorrect because
lights as a reference unless the red terminating bars as soon as the DA/DH is reachedon an ILS approach, regardlessof
the elapsed time, a missed approachprocedureshould be executed
or the red side row bars are also distinctly visible and if visual references are not obtained, or any time thereafter that
identifiable. (PLT420) — 14 CFR §91.175 visual reference is lost.

Answer (A) is incorrect because approach lighting systems can be

used as a reference below the DH or MDA up to 100 feet above
the TDZE, at which point the redterminating bars must be insight. ALL
Answer (B) is incorrect because the approach lighting system can 9382. Assuming that all ILS components are operating
onlybe used to within 100 feet of the TDZE, at which pointthe red
side row bars must be in sight. and the required visual references are not acquired, the
missed approach should be initiated upon
A— arrival at the DH on the glide slope.
ALL
B— arrival at the visual descent point.
8726. (Refer to Figure 310.) What is the required C—expiration of the time listed on the approach chart
minimum reported weather to initiate the ILS Rwy 9L for missed approach.
approach at PHL inyourCAT C turbine-powered airplane
with no MEL items? A pilot mustinitiate a missed approach procedure from
A- Ceiling at least 200 feet and RVR 2400. an ILSapproach at the DH, if the requiredvisual refer
B— Ceiling 300 feet minimum. ences for intended runway are not distinctly visible or
C-Visibility 1800 RVR. any time thereafter if visual reference is lost. (PLT356)
— 14 CFR §91.175
The approach plates notes a minimum RVR of 1800 in Answer (B) is incorrect because a visual descentpoint is a point in
the top left portion of the approach plate. (PLT420) — which an aircraft operating visually can descend from a specified
Instrument Approach Procedures altitude to the runway and land. Ifon an ILS approach and no visual
flight is encountered, a missed approachshould be executed at the
DH. Answer (C) is incorrect because time listed on the approach
chartis used onlyif the glide slope were to fail. Ifthe aircraft reaches
the DH prior to the time listedon thechart, thepilot should execute
a missed approach.

Answers

9384 [C] 8726 [C] 9368 [C] 9382 [A]

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ALL ALL

9041. When may a pilot execute a missed approach 9090-2. Precision Runway Monitoring (PRM) is
during an ASR approach? A—an airborne RADAR system for monitoring
A— Anytime at the pilot's discretion. approaches to two runways.
B- Only at the MAP. B— a RADAR system for monitoring approaches to
C—Only when advised by the controller. closely spaced parallel runways.
C—a high update rate RADAR system for monitoring
Controllers will terminate guidance on an ASR approach multiple aircraft ILS approaches to a single
and instruct the pilot to execute a missed approach runway.
unless at the MAP, the pilothas the runway orairport in
sight. Also, ifat any time during an ASRapproach the Precision Runway Monitoring (PRM) is a high update-
controllerconsiders thatsafe guidance forthe remainder rate radar surveillance system, certified to provide
of the approach cannot be provided, he will terminate simultaneous independent approaches toclosely spaced
the approach and instruct the pilotto execute a missed parallel runways. (PLT172) — FAA-H-8083-16
approach. Amissed approach will also be effectedupon Answer (A) is incorrect because PRM is not an airborne radar
pilotrequest. (PLT420)—AIM 15-4-10 system; it is ground based. Answer (C) is incorrect because PRM
monitors simultaneous approaches to two closely spaced parallel
Answer(B) is incorrect because the controller will instruct the pilot runways.
to execute a missed approach at the MAP or anytime during the
approach that thecontroller considers that safe guidance cannot be
provided. Answer (C) is incorrect because a missedapproach will be
effected upon pilot request. ALL
9760. Precision runway monitoring requires
A— pilot responsibility to monitor 2 simultaneous
ALL
radios.
9090-1. Ifvisual reference is lost while circling to land B— pilot responsibility to monitor 2 ILS receivers.
from an instrument approach, what action(s) should C—detailed performance during the "decision region":
the pilot take? 1/3 dot localizer and 1/2 dot glideslope.
A— Make a climbing turn toward the landing runway
until established on the missed approach course. Theaircraft flying the ILS/PRM or LDA/PRM approach
B—Turn toward the landing runway maintaining must have the capability of enabling the pilots to listen
MDA, and if visual reference is not regained, to two communications frequencies simultaneously.
perform missed approach. (PLT172) — AIM 15-4-16
C- Make a climbing turn toward the VOR/NDB, and
request further instructions.

If visual reference is lost while circling to land from an

instrument approach, themissed approach specifiedfor
thatparticular procedure must be followed. To become
established on the prescribed missed approach course,
the pilot should make an initial climbing turn toward
the landing runway and continue the turn until he is
established on the missed approach course. (PLT170)
— AIM 15-4-21
Answer(B) is incorrect because while turning toward the runway, a
climbing turn shouldbe established. Answer (C) is incorrect because
a pilot should make a climbing turn toward the runway to ensure
obstacle clearance while becoming established on the missed
approach course.

Answers

9041 [A] 9090-1 [A] 9090-2 [B] 9760 [A]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 6-35

 Chapter 6 Flight Operations

ALL
"LPV" is the acronym for localizer performance with
9090-3. How can the pilot determine, foran ILS runway vertical guidance. LPV identifies the APV minimums
equipped with MALSR, that there may be penetration with electronic lateraland verticalguidance. The lateral
of the obstacle identification surfaces (OIS), and care guidance is equivalent to localizer, and the protected
should be taken in the visual segment to avoid any area is considerably smaller than the protected area
obstacles? for the present LNAV and LNAV/VNAV lateral protec
A— The runway has a visual approach slope indicator tion.Aircraft can fly this minima line with a statement in
(VASI). the Aircraft Flight Manual that the installed equipment
B—The published visibility for the ILS is no lower supports LPV approaches. This includes Class 3 and 4
than 3/4 SM. TSO-C146 WAAS equipment, and future LAAS equip
C—The approach chart has a visual descent point ment. (PLT354) — AIM 15-4-5
(VDP) published.

The visibility publishedon an approachchartis depen ALL

dent on many variables, including the height above 9744. Pilots are not authorized to fly a published RNAV
touchdown for straight-in approaches, or height above or RNP procedure unless it is retrievable by the proce
airport elevation for circlingapproaches. Other factors dure name from
include theapproach light system coverage, and type of A—the aircraft navigation database, or manually
approach procedure, such as precision, nonprecision, loaded with each individual waypoint in the
circling or straight-in. Another factor determining the correct sequence.
minimum visibility is the penetrationof the 34:1 and 20:1 B—the aircraft navigation database, or manually
surfaces. Thesesurfaces areinclinedplanes that begin loaded with each individual waypoint and verified
200 feet out from the runway and extend outward to by the pilot(s).
10,000feet Ifthere is a penetration of the 34:1 surface, C—the aircraft navigation database.
the published visibility can be no lower than 3/4 SM. If
there is penetration of the 20:1 surface, the published P/7ofs are notauthorized to flya publishedRNAV orRNP
visibility can be no lower than 1 SM with a note prohib procedure (instrument approach, departure, or arrival
iting approaches to the affected runway at night (both procedure) unless itis retrievable by theprocedurename
straight-inand circling). Pilots should be aware of these from the aircraft navigation database and conforms to
penetrating obstacles when entering the visual and/or the charted procedure. (PLT354) — AIM 15-5-16
circling segments of an approach and take adequate
precautions to avoid them. (PLT170) — FAA-H-8083-16
ALL
Answers (A) and (C) are incorrect because a VASI or VDP are not
indicators to a possible penetration of the OIS. 9744-1. GBAS approaches are
A—flown using the same techniques as an ILS once
selected and identified.
ALL

9738. To conduct a localizer performance with vertical

B— flown the same as an LDA with glide slope tuning
and identification.
guidance (LPV) RNAV (GPS) approach, the aircraft
must be furnished with
C—automaticallytuned and displayed after selection
of the three character procedure identifier.
A- a GPS/WAAS receiver approved for an LPV
approach by the AFM supplement. GBAS is a ground-based augmentation to GPS that
B- a GPS (TSO-129) receiver certified for IFR focuses its service on the airport area (approximately
operations. a 20-30 mile radius) for precision approach, departure
C—an IFR approach-certified system with required procedures, and terminal area operations. GBAS is the
navigation performance (RNP) of 0.5. ICAO term for LocalArea Augmentation System (LAAS).
LAAS wasdeveloped as an "ILS look-alike"system from
the pilot perspective. (PLT354) — AIM 11-1-21

Answers

9090-3 [B] 9738 [A] 9744 [C] 9744-1 [A]

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 Chapter 6 Flight Operations

ALL ALL
9773. Pilots are responsible for knowing 9817. When executing a stabilized approach, you
should use
A— if they can conduct an RNP approach with an arc
at a designated airspeed. A— no more than 1000 FPM rate of descent for a
B— if the RNP missed approach is normal or non-precision or precision approach from 1,000
reduced. feet above the airport or TDZE.
C— if the RNP registration is complete. B— no more than 1000 FPM for a precision approach
or 1200 FPM for a non-precision approach.
Some RNP approaches have a curved path, also called C—no more than 800 FPM for a non-precision
a radius-to-a-fix (RF) leg. Since not all aircraft have approach or 1000 FPM for a precision approach.
the capability to fly these arcs, pilots are responsible
for knowing whether or not they can conduct an RNP Forall straight-in-instrument approaches in IFR weather
approach with an arc. (PLT300) — AIM 15-4-18 conditions, the approach must be stabilized (descent
rate of less than 1,000 fpm) before descending below
1,000 feet above the airportor TDZE. (PLT420) — FAA-
ATM, DSP H-8083-16
8279. Under what conditions may an air carrier pilot
continue an instrument approach to the DH, after receiv
ing a weather report indicating that less than minimum ALL

published landing conditions exist at the airport? 8736. (Refer to Figure 1.) What does the 20:1 ratio
A— Ifthe instrument approach is conducted in a radar represent?
environment. A— Displaced threshold.
B— When the weather report is received as the pilot B— Final approach fix.
passes the FAF. C—Obstacle clearance surface (OCS).
C—When the weather report is received after the
pilot has begun the final approach segment of the The obstacle clearance surface (OCS). The OCS used
instrument approach. to evaluate the missed approach is a 20:1 inclined plane.
This surface is twice as steep for the helicopter as the
If a pilot has begun the final approach segment of OCS used to evaluate the airplane missed approach
an instrument approach procedure with the reported segment. (PLT170) - FAA-H-8083-16
weatherat orabove landingminimumsand laterreceives
a report indicating below minimum conditions, he may
continue the approach to DH or MDA. Thepilotmay land
from that approach if he discovers that the visibility is
at least that required by the approach, he/she has the
required visualreferences insight and a normaldescent
and landing can be made. (PLT420) — 14 CFR§121.651

Answers

9773 [A] 8279 [C] 9817 [A] 8736 [C]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 6-37

Chapter 6 Flight Operations

Landing
Except for emergencies, the landing priority of aircraft arriving at a tower controlled airport is on "first-
come, first-served" basis. When landing at a tower controlled airport, an aircraft should exit the runway at
the first suitable taxiway and remain on the tower frequency until instructed to do otherwise. The aircraft
should not turn onto any other taxiway unless a clearance to do so has been received.
If a flight is making an IFR approach at an uncontrolled airport, radar service will be terminated when
the aircraft lands or when the controller tells the pilot to change to advisory frequency. After changing
to the advisory frequency, the pilot should broadcast his/her intentions and continually update position
reports. The advisory frequency will be an FSS frequency, or ifthere is no FSS on the field, a UNICOM
frequency.
ATC furnishes pilots' braking action reports using the terms good, good to medium, medium, medium
to poor, or nil. If you give a braking action report to ATC, you should use the same terminology.
ALL landed should not change from the tower frequency to
9092. Except during an emergency, when can a pilot the ground control frequency until he is directed to do
expect landing priority? so by the controller. (PLT434) — AIM 14-3-20
A— When cleared for an IFR approach. Answer (A) is incorrect because upon landing, the pilot should exit
B—When piloting a large, heavy aircraft. the runway at the nearest suitable taxiway to clear the runway for
other traffic. Answer (C) is incorrect because while the crossing of
C— In turn, on a first-come, first-serve basis. the taxiwayhold lines indicates clearing of the active runway, a pilot
should not switch to ground control until directed to do so by the
Air Traffic Control towers handle all aircraft, regardless controller. Switching without permission may be confusing to ATC.
of the type of flightplan, on a 'Tirst-come, first-served"
basis. (PLT170)—AIM 15-4-25
ALL
Answer (A) is incorrect because a clearance for an IFR approach
does not mean landing priority willbe given over other traffic. Answer 9038. When is radar service terminated while vectored
(B) is incorrect because a large, heavy aircraftwillbe sequenced for for an IFR approach at an uncontrolled airport?
landing on a first-come, first-served basis, with no special priority
over other traffic. A— Only upon landing or advised to change to
advisory frequency.
B— When aligned on the final approach course.
ALL C—When cleared for the approach.
9044. What action is expected of an aircraft upon land
ing at a controlled airport? Whether aircraft are vectored to the appropriate final
A— Continue taxiing in the landing direction until approach course or provide their own navigation on
advised by the tower to switch to ground control publishedroutesto it, radarservice is automatically termi
frequency. nated when the landing is completed or when instructed
B— Exit the runway at the nearest suitable taxiway to change to advisory frequencyat uncontrolled airports,
and remain on tower frequency until instructed whichever occurs first. (PLT420) — AIM15-4-3
otherwise. Answer (B) is incorrect because when established on the final
approach course, radarseparation will be maintained and the pilot
C—Exitthe runway at the nearest suitable taxiway is expected to complete the approach utilizing the approach aid
and switch to ground control upon crossing the designated in the clearance (ILS, VOR, etc.). Answer (C) is incor
taxiway holding lines. rect because when cleared for the approach, approach control will
continue to maintain radar separation and the pilot is expected to
After landing, unless otherwise instructed by the control complete the approach utilizing the approach aid designated in the
clearance (ILS, VOR, etc.).
tower, continue to taxi in the landing direction, proceed
to the nearest suitable taxiway and exit the runway
without delay. Do not turn on another runway or make
a 180° turn to taxiback on an active runway or change
to ground controlfrequency whileon the active runway
without authorization from the tower. Apilot whohas just

Answers

9092 [C] 9044 [B] 9038 [A]

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 Chapter 6 Flight Operations

ALL Pilots should describe the quality of braking action by

9039. When cleared for an IFR approach to an uncon using the termsgood, good to medium,medium, medium
trolled airport with no FSS, what precaution should the to poor, or nil. (PLT144) — AIM 14-3-8
pilot take after being advised to change to advisory
frequency?
ATM, ATS, DSP
A— Monitor ATC for traffic advisories as well as
9005-1. A landing weight increase of 10% will result in
UNICOM.
a landing distance increase of approximately
B— Broadcast position and intentions on the
Common Traffic Advisory Frequency and monitor A- 7%.
the frequency. B-10%.
C—Wait until visual contact is made with the airport C-15%.
and then broadcast position and intentions to
land on UNICOM. The minimum landing distance will vary directly as the
gross weight varies. For example, a 10% increase in
When making an IFRapproach to an airportnot served gross weight at landing would cause a 5% increase in
by a tower or FSS, after the ATC controller advises, landing velocity and a 10%, increase in landing distance.
"CHANGE TO ADVISORY FREQUENCY APPROVED" (PLT247)—ANA
you should broadcast your intentions, including the type
of approach being executed, yourposition, and when you
are over the outer marker or final approach fix. Continue ATM, ATS, DSP

to monitor the appropriate frequency (UNICOM, etc.) for 9005-2. A landing weight increase of 10% will result in
reports from other pilots. (PLT170) — AIM 15-4-4 A— 7% increase in kinetic energy.
Answer (A) is incorrect because after ATC advises the pilot to B— 21% increase in kinetic energy.
change to advisory frequency, ATC willno longer be able to provide C—33% increase in kinetic energy.
traffic advisories. Answer (C) is incorrect because a pilot should
always broadcast intentions and continually update position reports
on UNICOM, not wait until visual contact is made with airport.
As an example of measuring the effectiveness ofaircraft
brakes, a 30,000-pound aircraft landing at 175 knots
has a kinetic energy of 41,000,000 ft-lbs at the instant
ALL of touchdown. While a 10% increase in landing weight
9055. How should a pilot describe braking action? causes a 5% higher landing speed and a 10%> greater
landing distance, italso produces a 21% increase in the
A— 00 percent, 50 percent, 75 percent, or 100 percent.
kinetic energy of the airplane to be dissipated during
B—Zero-zero, fifty-fifty, or normal.
the landing roll. (PLT247) — ANA
C—Good, good to medium, medium, medium to poor,
or nil.

Communications
The "Sterile Cockpit" Rule: Regulations say only those duties required for the safe operation of the
aircraft are allowed during critical phases of flight. Critical phases of flight are defined as climb and
descent when below 10,000 feet, taxi, takeoff, and landing. Excluded from the definition of critical phase
of flight are any operations at or above 10,000 feet and cruise flight below 10,000 feet. Activities which
are prohibited during critical phases of flight include filling out logs, ordering galley supplies, making
passenger announcements or pointing out sights of interest. Activities such as eating meals or engaging
in nonessential conversations are also prohibited.
The following should be reported without ATC request:
• Vacating a previously assigned altitude for a newly assigned one.
• An altitude change when operating under a VFR-On-Top clearance.
• When unable to climb or descend at a rate of at least 500 feet per minute.
Continued

Answers

9039 [B] 9055 [C] 9005-1 [B] 9005-2 [B]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 6-39

Chapter 6 Flight Operations

• When an approach has been missed.

• A change in cruising true airspeed of 10 knots or 5%, whichever is greater.
• The time and altitude (or Flight Level) upon reaching a holding fix or clearance limit.
• When leaving an assigned holding fix or point.
• The malfunction of navigation, approach or communication equipment.
• Any information pertaining to the safety of flight.

In addition to the reports listed above, when not in radar contact a pilot must report:
• When over designated compulsory reporting points.
• When leaving the final approach fix inbound on an instrument approach.
• When it becomes apparent that an estimate of arrival time over a fix is in error by more than 3 minutes.

Occasionally an ATC controller will query a pilotabout the aircraft's altitude or course. For example, a
controller says "Verify9000," meaning he/she wants confirmation that the aircraft is at 9,000 feet altitude.
If the aircraft is not at that altitude, the pilotshould reply, "Negative, maintaining 8,000 as assigned." No
climb or descent should be started unless specifically assigned by the controller.
Pilots should notify controllers on initial contact that they have received the ATIS broadcast by repeat
ing the alphabetical code used appended to the broadcast. For example, "Information Sierra received."

ALL ALL
8854. What report should the pilot make at a clearance 9014. Where are position reports required on an IFR
limit? flight on airways or routes?
A—Time and altitude/flight level arriving or leaving. A— Over all designated compulsory reporting points.
B—Time, altitude/flight level, and expected holding B— Only where specifically requested by ARTCC.
speed. C—When requested to change altitude or advise of
C—Time, altitude/flight level, expected holding weather conditions.
speed, and inbound leg length.
A position report is required by all flights regardless of
Pilots should report to ATC the time and altitude/flight altitude over each designated compulsory reporting
level at which the aircraft reaches the clearance limit, point along the route being flown.
and report when leaving the clearance limit. (PLT171) Note: When the controller states "radarcontact," this
— AIM 15-3-2 requirement is removed. However, the question states
Answer (B) is incorrect because ATC does not need the expected nothing about being in "radar contact."(PLT421) — AIM
holdingspeed reportedsince it will be below the maximum holding 15-3-2
airspeed. Forall aircraft between MHA and 6,000 feet MSL, holding
speed is 200 KIAS; for all aircraft between 6,001 and 14,000 feet Answer (B) is incorrect because the "on request" reporting point is
MSL, holding speed is 230 KIAS; for all aircraft 14,001 feet MSL indicated on enroute charts by an open triangle. Reports passing an
and above, holding speed is 265 KIAS. For turbojet airplanes, the "on request"reporting point are only necessary when requested by
maximum holding airspeed is 230 knots IAS from minimum holding ARTCC. Answer (C) is incorrectbecause pilots in IFRare expected
altitude to 14,000 feet.Answer(C) is incorrect because inbound leg to report weather conditions which have not been forecast, or haz
lengths are set by time or DME distance. At or below 14,000 feet ardous conditions which have been forecast.
MSL there is a 1-minute inbound leg. Above 14,000 feet MSL the
inbound leg is 1-1/2 minutes.

Answers
8854 [A] 9014 [A]

6-40 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 6 Flight Operations

ALL The following reports should be made when not in radar

9015. Which reports are required when operating IFR contact:
in radar environment?
1. When over designated compulsory reporting points
A— Position reports, vacating an altitude, unable to
climb 500 ft/min, and time and altitude reaching a 2. When leaving the final approach fix inbound
holding fix or point to which cleared. 3. When it becomes apparent that an ETA is in error
B— Position reports, vacating an altitude, unable by more than 3 minutes.
to climb 500 ft/min, time and altitude reaching (PLT171)— AIM 15-3-3
a holding fix or point to which cleared, and a
Answer (B) is incorrect because a pilot is required to report leaving
change in average true airspeed exceeding 5 the outer marker inbound on final approach. Answer (C) is incorrect
percent or 10 knots. because a pilot is not required to report leaving the outer marker
C—Vacating an altitude, unable to climb 500 ft/min, outbound, the execution of a procedure turn, and/or visual contact
with the runway.
time and altitude reaching a holding fix or point to
which cleared, a change in average true airspeed
exceeding 5 percent or 10 knots, and leaving any ALL
assigned holding fix or point. 9013. What action should a pilot take ifasked by ARTCC
to "VERIFY 9,000" and the flight is actually maintaining
The following reports should be made to ATC or FSS
8,000?
facilities without specific ATC request:
1. Vacating any previously assigned altitude. A— Immediately climb to 9,000.
B— Report climbing to 9,000.
2. Making an altitude change when VFR-On-Top. C—Report maintaining 8,000.
3. Unable to climb or descend at least 500 feet per
minute. At times controllers willask pilots to verify that they are
4. Making a missed approach. at a particular altitude. Pilots should confirm that they
are at the altitude stated. If this is not the case, they
5. Changing true airspeed from flight plan by 5%> or 10
should inform the controller of the actual altitude being
knots (whichever is greater).
maintained. Pilots should not take action to change their
6. Time and altitude of reaching a clearance holding actual altitude to the altitude stated in the controller's
fix or point. verification request unless the controller specifically
7. Leaving any holding fix. authorizes a change. (PLT171)—AIM 15-3-1
(PLT171)— AIM 15-3-3 Answers (A) and (B) are incorrect because pilots should not take
action to change their actual altitude to the altitude stated in the
Answers (A) and (B) are incorrect because position reports are not controller's verification request unless the controller specifically
required in a radar environment. authorizes a change.

ALL ALL

9016. Which reports are always required when on an 9022. Pilots should notify controllers on initial contact
IFR approach not in radar contact? that they have received the ATIS broadcast by
A— Leaving FAF inbound or outer marker inbound A— stating "Have Numbers".
and missed approach. B- stating "Have Weather".
B— Leaving FAF inbound, leaving outer marker C— repeating the alphabetical code word appended
inbound or outbound, and missed approach. to the broadcast.
C—Leaving FAF inbound, leaving outer marker
inbound or outbound, procedure turn outbound Pilots should notify controllers on initial contact that
and inbound, and visual contact with the runway. they have received the ATIS broadcast by repeating the
alphabetical code word appended to the broadcast. For
example, "Information Sierra received."(PLT196) —AIM
14-1-13

Answers

9015 [C] 9016 [A] 9013 [C] 9022 [C]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 6-41

Chapter 6 Flight Operations

ALL ATM, DSP

9022-1. While holding short for an intersection takeoff 8298. With regard to flight crewmember duties, which
runway 36 at taxiway C, tower clears you to "line up and of the following operations are considered to be in the
wait runway 36." You should "critical phase of flight"?
A— line up and wait for takeoff on taxiway C. A—Taxi, takeoff, landing, and all other operations
B— line up and wait on runway 36 at intersection C conducted below 10,000 feet MSL, including
for departure. cruise flight.
C— hold short and advise tower that you are at B— Descent, approach, landing, and taxi operations,
intersection C short of runway 36. irrespective of altitudes MSL.
C—Taxi, takeoff, landing, and all other operations
"Line up and wait"is an ATC phrase used to instruct conducted below 10,000 feet, excluding cruise
pilots to taxi onto the departure runway, line up, and flight.
wait forimminent departure. (PLT171) — AIMChapter 5
No certificate holder shall require, nor may any flight
crewmember perform, any duties during a criticalphase
ATM, DSP of flight except those duties required for the safe opera
8297. Below what altitude, except when in cruise flight, tion of the aircraft. For purposes of this section, critical
are non-safety related cockpit activities by flight crew phases of flight include all ground operations involving
members prohibited? taxi, takeoff and landing, and all other flight operations
A-10,000 feet. conducted below 10,000 feet, except cruise flight.
B-14,500 feet. (PLT029) — 14 CFR §121.542
C-FL180. Answer (A) is incorrect because critical phase of flight includes all
operations (except cruise flight) below 10,000 feet. Answer (B) is
No certificate holder shall require, nor may any flight incorrect because 14,500 feet is the base of Class E airspace (if not
set lower).
crewmember perform, any duties during a critical phase
of flight except those duties required for the safe opera
tion of the aircraft. For purposes of this section, critical
phases of flight include all ground operations involving
taxi, takeoff and landing, and all other flight operations
conducted below 10,000 feet, except cruise flight.
(PLT430) — 14 CFR §121.542

Speed Adjustments
ATC controllers often issue speed adjustments to radar controlled aircraft to achieve or maintain the
desired separation. The following minimum speeds are usually observed:
• Turbine-powered aircraft below 10,000 feet: 210 knots.
• Turbine-powered aircraft departing an airport: 230 knots.

If an ATC controller assigns a speed which is too fast or too slow for the operating limitations of the
aircraft under the existing circumstances, the pilot should advise ATC of the speed that will be used.
The controller will then issue instructions based on that speed.
Because of the great differences in speed and operating characteristics of helicopters and airplanes,
they are usually assigned different routing. Occasionally, larger/faster helicopters are integrated with
fixed-wing aircraft. These situations could occur on IFR flights, routes that avoid noise-sensitive areas,
or when the helicopter is assigned runways or taxiways to avoid downwash in congested areas.

Answers

9022-1 [B] 8297 [A] 8298 [C]

6-42 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 6 Flight Operations

ALL ALL
9094. When a speed adjustment is necessary to 9096. If ATC requests a speed adjustment that is not
maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC within the operating limits of the aircraft, what action
request of a turbine-powered aircraft operating below must the pilot take?
10,000 feet?
A—Maintain an airspeed within the operating
A— 200 knots. limitations as close to the requested speed as
B-210 knots. possible.
C-250 knots. B—Attempt to use the requested speed as long as
possible, then request a reasonable airspeed
When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain from ATC.
separation, the minimum airspeed for a turbine-pow C—Advise ATC of the airspeed that will be used.
ered aircraft operated below 10,000 feet is 210 knots.
(PLT161) —AIM 14-4-12 The pilots retain the prerogative of rejecting the applica
Answer (A) is incorrect because 200 knots is the maximum air tion of speed adjustment by ATC if the minimum safe
speed of any airplane operating within Class C or D airspace, a airspeed for any particular operation is greater than
VFR-designated corridor through Class B airspace, or in airspace
underlying Class B airspace. Answer (C) is incorrect because 250 the speed adjustment. In such cases, the pilots are
knots is the maximum airspeed of any airplane operating below expected to advise ATC of the speed that will be used.
10,000 feet MSL. (PLT172) — AIM 14-4-12
Answer (A) is incorrect because while a pilot should maintain at
least the minimum safe airspeed for any particular operation, a pilot
ALL is expected to advise ATCof the airspeed being used when it differs
9095. When a speed adjustment is necessary to main from ATC's requested speed adjustment. Answer (B) is incorrect
tain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request because a pilot who uses an airspeed that is not withinthe operating
limits of the airplane is not only in violation of regulations, but is also
of a turbine-powered aircraft departing an airport? risking the safety of all on board the airplane. A pilot must operate
A—188 knots. the airplane in a safe manner and advise ATC of the airspeed that
will be used.
B- 210 knots.
C-230 knots.
RTC
When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain
9042. Under what situations are faster/larger helicopters
separation, the minimum airspeed fora turbine-powered
integrated with fixed-wing aircraft?
aircraft on departure is 230 knots. (PLT161) — AIM
14-4-12 A— IFR flights, noise avoidance routes, and use of
Answer (A) is incorrect because 188 knots is not an applicable runways or taxiways.
airspeed for any ATC operation. All airspeeds used by ATC/regula- B— Use of taxiways, sequencing for takeoff and
tions are expressed in 10-knot increments. Answer (B) is incorrect landing, and use of the same traffic patterns.
because it is the minimum airspeed that ATC can request of a
turbine-powered airplane operating below 10,000 feet, excluding
C— Use of taxiways, sequencing for takeoff and
departing airplanes. landing, and use of the same loading ramps.

There willbe situations where faster/larger helicopters

may be integrated with fixed-wing aircraft. These include
IFR flights, avoidance of noise-sensitive areas, or use
of runway/taxiways to minimize the hazardous effects of
rotor downwash in congested areas. (PLT434) — AIM
14-3-17

Answers

9094 [B] 9095 [C] 9096 [C] 9042 [A]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 6-43

Chapter 6 Flight Operations

Holding
Holding may be necessary when ATC is unable to clear a flight to its destination. VORs, nondirectional
beacons, airway intersections, and DME fixes may all be used as holding points. Flying a holding pat
tern involves two turns and two straight-and-level legs as shown in Figure 6-4.
At and below 14,000 feet MSL (no wind), the aircraft flies the specified course inbound to the fix,
turns to the right 180°, flies a parallel course outbound for 1 minute, again turns 180° to the right, and
flies 1 minute inbound to the fix. Above 14,000 feet MSL, the inbound leg length is 1-1/2 minutes. If a
nonstandard pattern is to be flown, ATC will specify left turns.
When 3 minutes or less from the holding fix, the pilot is expected to start a speed reduction so as to
cross the fix at or below the maximum holding airspeed. For all aircraft between MHA (minimum holding
altitude) and 6,000 feet MSL, holding speed is 200 KIAS. For all aircraft between 6,001 and 14,000 feet
MSL, holding speed is 230 KIAS. For all aircraft 14,001 feet MSL and above, holding speed is 265 KIAS.
Exceptions to these speeds will be indicated by an icon.
The aircraft is in a holding pattern as of the initial time of arrival over the fix, and that time should be
reported to ATC. The initial outbound leg is flown for 1 minute at or below 14,000 feet MSL. Subsequently,
timing of the outbound leg should be adjusted as necessary to arrive at the proper inbound leg length.
Timing of the outbound leg begins over or abeam the fix, whichever occurs later. If the abeam position
cannot be determined, start timing when the turn to outbound is completed. The same entry and holding
procedures apply to DME holding, except distance in nautical miles are used to establish leg length.
The FAA has three recommended methods
Abeam
for entering a holding pattern, as shown in Figure
HOLDING SIDE 6-5. An aircraft approaching from within sector (A)
Outbound would fly a parallel entry by turning left to parallel
Fix end-»- Outbound end the outbound course, making another left turn to
- Inbound remain in protected airspace, and returning to the
Reciprocal NON-HOLDING SIDE Holding course holding fix. Aircraft approaching from sector (B)
would fly a teardrop entry, by flying outbound on a
track of 30° or less to the holding course, and then
Standard pattern: Right turns (illustrated)
Non-Standard Patterns: Left turns making a right turn to intercept the holding course
inbound to the fix. Those approaching from within
Figure 6-4 sector (C) would fly a direct entry by turning right
to fly the pattern.
If the holding pattern is charted, the controller
may omit all holding instructions, except the holding
direction and the statement "as published." Pilots
are expected to hold in the pattern depicted even if
it means crossing the clearance limit. If the holding
pattern to be used is not depicted on charts, ATC
will issue general holding instructions. The holding
clearance will include the following information:
direction of holding from the fix in terms of the eight
cardinal compass points; holding fix; radial, course,
bearing, airway, or route on which the aircraft is to
hold; leg length in miles if DME or RNAV is to be
used; direction of turn if left turns are to be made;
time to expect further clearance and any pertinent
Figure 6-5 additional delay information.

6-44 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 6 Flight Operations

ALL ALL
8853. What action should a pilot take ifwithin 3 minutes 8856. Maximum holding speed for a turbojet airplane
of a clearance limit and further clearance has not been above 14,000 feet is
received?
A—210 knots.
A— Assume lost communications and continue as B— 230 knots.
planned. C-265 knots.
B— Plan to hold at cruising speed until further
clearance is received. Forall aircraft between MHA (minimum holding altitude)
C—Start a speed reduction to holding speed in and 6,000 feet MSL, holding speed is 200 KIAS. For all
preparation for holding. aircraft between 6,001 and 14,000 feet MSL, holding
speed is 230 KIAS. For all aircraft 14,000 feet MSL and
When an aircraft is 3 minutes or less from a clearance above, holding speed is 265 KIAS. Exceptions to these
limit and a clearance beyond the fix has not been speeds will be indicated by an icon. (PLT296) — AIM
received, the pilot is expected to start a speed reduc 15-3-7
tion so that he willcross the fix, initially, at or below the
maximum holding airspeed. (PLT296) —AIM 15-3-7
ALL
Answer (A) is incorrect because if two-way communications are lost,
the pilot is required to hold at the clearance limit in a standard pat 8857. Maximum holding speed for a civil turbojet air
tern on the course that was used to approach the fix. Ifan expected craft at a joint use airport (civil/Navy) between 7,000
further clearance time was received, plan on leaving the fix at that
and 14,000 feet is
time. If none was given and the fix is an IAF, plan your arrival as
close as possible to the estimated time of arrival. Answer (B) is A— 265 knots.
incorrect because cruising speed may be greater than maximum
B- 230 knots.
holding speed.
C-200 knots.

ALL
The following are exceptions to the maximum holding
8855. The maximum speed a propeller-driven airplane airspeeds: Holding patterns at Navy fields only 230
may hold at is KIAS maximum, unless otherwise depicted. (PLT296)
— AIM 15-3-7
A— 265 knots.
B— 230 knots.
C-156 knots. ALL
9418. What is the maximum holding speed for a civil
For all aircraft between MHA and 6,000 feet MSL, hold turbojet holding at a civil airport at 15,000 feet MSL,
ing speed is 200 KIAS. For all aircraft between 6,001 unless a higher speed is required due to turbulence or
and 14,000 feet MSL, holding speed is 230 KIAS. For icing and ATC is notified?
all aircraft 14,000 feet MSL and above, holding speed is
A— 265 knots.
265 KIAS. Exceptions to these speeds willbe indicated
B— 230 knots.
by an icon. Since this question does not specify what
C-250 knots.
altitude the airplane is holding at, both answers (A) and
(B) are correct. Choosing either of these willresult in a For all aircraftbetween MHA(minimum holding altitude)
correct response. (PLT296) — AIM 15-3-7 and 6,000 feet MSL, holding speed is 200 KIAS. For all
aircraft between 6,001 and 14,000 feet MSL, holding
speed is 230 KIAS. For all aircraft 14,000 feet MSL and
above, holding speed is 265 KIAS. Exceptions to these
speeds will be indicated by an icon. (PLT296) — AIM
15-3-7

Answers

8853 [C] 8855 [A] or [B] 8856 [C] 8857 [B] 9418 [A]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 6-45

Chapter 6 Flight Operations

ALL ALL

9419. Civil aircraft holding at an altitude of 14,000 feet 8859. When holding at an NDB, at what point should
at a military or joint civil/military use airports should the timing begin for the second leg outbound?
expect to operate at which holding pattern airspeed? A— Abeam the holding fix or when the wings are
A— 250 knots. level after completing the turn to the outbound
B— 260 knots. heading, whichever occurs first.
C-230 knots. B— At the end of a 1-minute standard rate turn after
station passage.
Aircraftholding at military or joint civil/military use air C—When abeam the holding fix.
ports should expect to operate at a maximum holding
pattern airspeed of230 knots up to and including 14,000 Outbound leg timing begins over or abeam the holding
feet. (PLT296) — AIM 15-3-7 fix, whichever occurs later. If the abeam position cannot
be determined, start timing when the turn to outbound
is complete. (PLT296) — AIM 15-3-7
ALL
Answer (A) is incorrect because the pilot should start the timing
8858. When using a flight director system, what rate of when the turn is complete, only when a position abeam the fix can
turn or bank angle should a pilot observe during turns not be determined. Answer (B) is incorrect because abeam the fix
in a holding pattern? is preferable and should be used rather than at the completion of a
standard rate turn, especially if turn completion occurs before com
A— 3° per second or 25° bank, whichever is less. ing abeam the fix.
B— 3° per second or 30° bank, whichever is less.
C—1-1/2° per second or 25° bank, whichever is less.
ALL

When making turns in the holding pattern, use whichever 8860. When entering a holding pattern above 14,000
of the following requires the least angle of bank: feet, the initial outbound leg should not exceed
1. 3° per second; A— 1 minute.
B—1-1/2 minutes.
2. 30° bank angle; or
C—1-1/2 minutes or 10 NM, whichever is less.
3. 25° bank provided a flight director system is used.
(PLT047) — AIM 15-3-7 Inbound leg time should not exceed 1 minute when
holding at or below 14,000 feet, or 1-1/2 minutes when
holding above 14,000 feet. The outbound leg should be
flown for 1 minute or 1-1/2 minutes as appropriate on the
firstleg and then adjusted on subsequent legs to get the
correct time on the inbound leg. (PLT296) —AIM 15-3-7
Answer (A) is incorrect because an initial outbound leg of 1 minute
should be used only when below 14,000 feet. Answer (C) is incorrect
because a DME distance is issued only by the specified controller
for aircraft equipped with DME capability. A DME distance is not
required unless specified by the controller.

Answers

9419 [C] 8858 [A] 8859 [C] 8860 [B]

6-46 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 6 Flight Operations

ALL ALL
8861. (Refer to Figure 123.) You receive this ATC 8862. (Refer to Figure 123.) You receive this ATC
clearance: clearance:
"...HOLD EAST OF THE ABC VORTAC ON THE ZERO "...CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC. HOLD SOUTH
NINER ZERO RADIAL, LEFT TURNS..." ON THE ONE EIGHT ZERO RADIAL.
What is the recommended procedure to enter the hold What is the recommended procedure to enter the hold
ing pattern? ing pattern?
A— Parallel only. A—Teardrop only.
B— Direct only. B— Direct only.
C—Teardrop only. C—Parallel only.

Determine the holding pattern by placing your pencil on Determine the holding pattern by placing your pencil on
the holdingfixand draggingiton the holdingradial given the holdingfixand draggingiton the holdingradial given
by ATC, then returning back to the fix. Then draw the by ATC, then returning back to the fix. Then draw the
pattern from the fix with turns in the direction specified. pattern from the fix with turns in the direction specified.
Holding east on the 090° radial with left turns means Holding south on the 180° radial with right turns means
you will be south of R-090. you will be east of R-180.
The entry procedure is based on the aircraft's head The entry procedure is based on the aircraft'shead
ing. To determine which entry procedure to use, draw ing. To determine which entry procedure to use, draw
a line at a 70° angle from the holding fix, and cutting a line at a 70° angle from the holding fix, and cutting
the outbound leg at about one-third its length. With a the outbound leg at about one-third its length. With a
heading of 055°, we are in the middle-size piece of pie, heading of 055°, we are in the largest piece of pie, so
so a parallel entry would be used. See the figure below. a direct entry would be used. See the figure below.
(PLT296) — AIM 15-3-7 (PLT087) — AIM 15-3-7
Answer (B) is incorrect because a direct entry would be appropriate Answer (A) is incorrect because a teardrop entry would be appropri
if you were coming in on R-340 to R-160. Answer (C) is incorrect ate only from R-290 to R-360. Answer (C) is incorrect because a
because a teardrop entry wouldbe appropriateif you were coming parallel entry would only be appropriate from R-360 to R-110.
in from R-270 to R-340.

360°
Teardrop \340 pi
Direct
Parallel

D
270° 090°

110°

Parallel Direct Direct Direct

Hold on 090° Radial 160°

Non-Standard Hold on 180° Radial
Left Turns 180°
Standard Right Turns

Question 8861 Question 8862

Answers

8861 [A] 8862 [B]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 6-47

Chapter 6 Flight Operations

ALL ALL

8863. (Refer to Figure 123.) You receive this ATC 8864. (Refer to Figure 123.) You receive this ATC
clearance: clearance:

"...CLEARED TO THE XYZ VORTAC. HOLD NORTH "...CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC. HOLD WEST
ON THE THREE SIX ZERO RADIAL, LEFT TURNS..." ON THE TWO SEVEN ZERO RADIAL..."

What is the recommended procedure to enter the hold What is the recommended procedure to enter the hold
ing pattern? ing pattern?
A— Parallel only. A— Parallel only.
B— Direct only. B— Direct only.
C—Teardrop only. C—Teardrop only.

Determine the holding pattern by placing your pencil on Determine the holding pattern by placing your pencil on
the holding fixand dragging iton the holding radialgiven the holding fixand dragging iton the holding radialgiven
by ATC, then returning back to the fix. Then draw the by ATC, then returning back to the fix. Then draw the
pattern from the fix with turns in the direction specified. pattern from the fix with turns in the direction specified.
Holding north on the 360° radial with left turns means Holding west on the 270° radial with right turns means
you willbe east of R-090. you willbe south of R-090.
The entry procedure is based on the aircraft'shead The entry procedure is based on the aircraft's head
ing. To determine which entry procedure to use, draw ing. To determine which entry procedure to use, draw
a line at a 70° angle from the holding fix, and cutting a line at a 70° angle from the holding fix, and cutting
the outbound leg at about one-third its length. With a the outbound leg at about one-third its length. With a
heading of 055°, we are in the smallest piece of pie, so heading of 055°, we are in the largest piece of pie, so
a teardrop entry would be used. See the figure below. a direct entry would be used. See the figure below.
(PLT296) — AIM 15-3-7 (PLT296) — AIM 15-3-7
Answer (A) is incorrect because a parallel entry would be appropri Answer (A) is incorrect because a parallel entry would be appropri
ate only from R-070 to R-180. Answer (B) is incorrect because a ate only from R-090 to R-200. Answer (C) is incorrect because a
direct entry would only be appropriate from R-250 to R-070. teardrop entry would only be appropriate from R-020 to R-090.

360°

Direct
0 Direct ft
Direct Teardrop

^ ir .070° 270° 090°

250°

Direct 200 Parallel

Teardrop 180° Parallel

Hold on 270° Radial
Hold on 360° Radial Standard Right Turns
Non-Standard
Left Turns Question 8864

Question 8863

Answers

8863 [C] 8864 [B]

6-48 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 6 Flight Operations

ALL ALL

8865. (Refer to Figure 124.) A pilot receives this ATC 8866. (Refer to Figure 124.) A pilot receives this ATC
clearance: clearance:
"...CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC. HOLD WEST "...CLEARED TO THE XYZ VORTAC. HOLD NORTH
ON THE TWO SEVEN ZERO RADIAL..." ON THE THREE SIX ZERO RADIAL, LEFT TURNS..."
What is the recommended procedure to enter the hold What is the recommended procedure to enter the hold
ing pattern? ing pattern?
A— Parallel or teardrop. A—Teardrop only.
B— Parallel only. B— Parallel only.
C—Direct only. C—Direct.

Determine the holding pattern by placing your pencil on Determine the holding pattern by placing your pencil on
the holding fixand dragging iton the holding radialgiven the holding fixand dragging iton the holding radialgiven
by ATC, then returning back to the fix. Then draw the by ATC, then returning back to the fix. Then draw the
pattern from the fix with turns in the direction specified. pattern from the fix with turns in the direction specified.
Holding west on the 270° radial with right turns means Holding north on the 360° radial with left turns means
you willbe south of R-090. you willbe east of R-360.
The entry procedure is based on the aircraft's head The entry procedure is based on the aircraft'shead
ing. To determine which entry procedure to use, draw ing. To determine which entry procedure to use, draw
a line at a 70° angle from the holding fix, and cutting a line at a 70° angle from the holding fix, and cutting
the outbound leg at about one-third its length. With a the outbound leg at about one-third its length. With a
heading of 155°, we are in the largest piece of pie, so heading of 155°, we are in the largest piece of pie, so
a direct entry would be used. See the figure below. a direct entry would be used. See the figure below.
(PLT296) — AIM 15-3-7 (PLT296) — AIM 15-3-7
Answer (A) is incorrect because the parallel or teardrop entries Answer (A) is incorrect because a teardrop entry would be appropri
are alternatives only when approaching on R-090. Answer (B) is ate only from R-180 to R-250. Answer (B) is incorrect because, if
incorrect because a parallel entry would only be appropriate when you were approaching on R-070 to R-180, you would make a parallel
approaching from R-090 to R-200. entry.

Direct ** 020°/ Teardrop 360°

Hold on 360° Radial
Non-Standard
Left Turns

Direct Direct

270° 090°
.070°

250°
Direct 200 Parallel

Hold on 270° Radial Teardrop 180° Parallel

Standard Right Turns

Question 8866
Question 8865

Answers

8865 [C] 8866 [C]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 6-49

Chapter 6 Flight Operations

ALL

8867. (Refer to Figure 124.) A pilot receives this ATC 360° n Parallel
clearance:
"...CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC. HOLD SOUTH
ON THE ONE EIGHT ZERO RADIAL..."
What is the recommended procedure to enter the hold
ing pattern?
A—Teardrop only.
B— Parallel only. 110°

C—Direct only. 'r W

Determine the holding pattern by placing your pencil on
Direct Direct
the holding fixand dragging iton the holding radialgiven
by ATC, then returning back to the fix. Then draw the
pattern from the fix with turns in the direction specified. Hold on 180° Radial
Holding south on the 180° radial with right turns means Standard Right Turns 180°
you will be east of R-360.
The entry procedure is based on the aircraft's head Question 8867
ing. To determine which entry procedure to use, draw
a line at a 70° angle from the holding fix, and cutting
the outbound leg at about one-third its length. With a
heading of 155°, we are in the smallest piece of pie, so
a teardropentry wouldbe used. See the following figure.
(PLT296) — AIM 15-3-7
Answer (B) is incorrect because a parallel entry would be appropri
ate only from R-360 to R-110. Answer (C) is incorrect because a
direct entry would only be appropriate from R-110 to R-290.

Answers

8867 [A]

6-50 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 6 Flight Operations

Charts
The pilot-in-command must ensure that the appropriate aeronautical charts are on board the aircraft
for each flight.
There are a number of questions that require reference to a segment of the Chart Supplements U.S.
(previously A/FD). The legend for this publication is available in the FAA Legends 13 through 19.
Most of the questions concerning interpretation ofApproach Charts, DPs and STARs can be answered
by referring to the appropriate legend. These legends are available during the test in FAA Legend 40.
There are a few questions that require you to interpret the symbology on Enroute Charts. Unlike the
other charts, no legend is available in the test book.
Departure Procedures (DPs) are depicted in one of two basic forms. Pilot Navigation (Pilot NAV)
DPs are established where the pilot is primarily responsible for navigation on the DP route. Vector DPs
are established where ATC will provide radar navigational guidance to an assigned route or fix. Avector
DP will often include procedures to be followed in the event of a two-way communication radio failure.
Standard Terminal Arrival Routes (STARs) are ATC-coded IFR arrival routes established for certain
airports. STARs purpose is to simplify clearance delivery procedures. ATC will assign a STAR to a civil
aircraft whenever they deem it appropriate.
The Jet Route system consists of jet routes established from 18,000 feet MSL to FL450 inclusive.
The GPS Approach Overlay Program permits pilots to use GPS avionics under IFR for flying existing
instrument approach procedures, except localizer (LOC), localizer directional aid (LDA), and simplified
directional facility (SDF) procedures. Aircraft navigating by GPS are considered to be RNAV aircraft.
Therefore, the appropriate equipment suffix must be included in the ATC flight plan. The word "or" in
the approach title indicates that approach is in Phase III of the GPS Overlay Program. This allows the
approach to be flown without reference of any kind to the ground-based NAVAIDs associated with the
approach. When using GPS forthe approach at the destinationairport, the alternate must be an approach
other than a GPS.

ALL ALL

9012. In what way are SIDs depicted in plan view? 9034. What is the primary purpose of a STAR?
A—"Vectors" provided for navigational guidance or A— Provide separation between IFR and VFR traffic.
"Pilot NAV" with courses the pilot is responsible to B— Simplify clearance delivery procedures.
follow. C— Decrease traffic congestion at certain airports.
B— "Vectors" and "Pilot NAV" for pilots to use at their
discretion. A STAR is an ATC-coded IFR arrival route established
C—Combined textual and graphic form which are forapplication to arriving IFRaircraft destined forcertain
mandatory routes and instructions. airports. Its purpose is to simplify clearance delivery
procedures. (PLT170) — AIM15-4-1
Pilotnavigation (PilotNAV) DPs (previously called SIDs) Answer (A) is incorrect because separation between IFR and VFR
are established where thepilotis primarily responsible for traffic is provided by Stage III radarservice, not a STAR. Answer (C)
is incorrect because controlled airspace, e.g., Class B, Class C, can
navigation on the DP route. Vector DPs are established be used to decrease traffic congestion at some airports by allowing
where ATC will provide radar navigational guidance to ATCto regulate traffic flow and volume.
a filed/assigned route or to a fix depicted on the DP.
(PLT201) — AIM 15-2-8
Answer(B) is incorrect because DPs are departure proceduresand
must be followed as depicted (not at the pilot's discretion). Ifa pilot
does not wish to use a DP,then he/she must notifyATC. Answer (C) is
incorrectbecause a NOS DP does not list the textual description in the
planview. The plan view depicts a DPas either a "pilot nav" or"vector"
to signifyifnavigation is provided by the pilotorby radar vectors.

Answers

9012 [A] 9034 [B]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 6-51

Chapter 6 Flight Operations

ALL 3. The altitude or flightlevel that ATChas advised may

9035. When does ATC issue a STAR? be expected in a further clearance.
A—Only when ATC deems it appropriate. (PLT052) — 14 CFR §91.185
B— Only to high priority flights. Answer (A) is incorrect because the pilot is in IFR conditions, and
C—Only upon request of the pilot. therefore must continue the flightaccording to the route and altitude
assigned in the last clearance. Answer (B) is incorrect because
Pilots of IFR civil aircraft destined to locations for which these are the actions fora non-DME equipped aircraft, and the ques
tion deals with an aircraft which has DME.
STARs have been published may be issued a clearance
containing a STAR whenever ATC deems itappropriate.
(PLT170) — AIM15-4-1 ALL
Answer (B) is incorrect because any type of IFR flightcan be issued 9613. (Refer to Figures 168,353, and 354.) What action
a STAR. High priority flights willnormally be handled in an expedi
tious manner by ATC. Answer (C) is incorrect because a STAR is a should be taken by the pilot if communications are lost
clearance delivery procedure that is issued by ATC. A pilot has the after departure from RWY 16 at PWK if VMC?
responsibility to accept or refuse that clearance. A pilot can list a
STAR in the flightplan, but ATC willissue one only if appropriate. A— Continue the flight under VMC and land as soon
as practicable.
B— Climb to 3,000 feet; after 3 minutes, turn direct to
ALL PMM and climb to FL 190.
9549. (Refer to Figures 94, 95, and 96.) What action C—Start right turn within 1 mile of the departure
should be taken by the pilot, if communications are end of RWY, remain east of ORD VOR/DME
lost, while IMC, after takeoff on RWY 13L at Chicago R-345, and maintain 3,000 feet; 3 minutes after
Midway Airport? departure, turn direct to PMM, and climb to FL
190.
A— Return and land immediately at Chicago Midway
Airport.
If a radio failure occurs in VFR conditions, or if VFR
B— Complete initially assigned turn south of DPA conditions are encountered after the failure, each pilot
R-096, maintain 3,000 feet or lower if assigned.
shall continue the flightunder VFRand land as soon as
Then 10 minutes after departure, climb to FL 190,
practicable. (PLT078) — 14 CFR §91.185
direct to GIJ, then flight plan route.
C—Complete initially assigned turn within 4 DME
of Midway and maintain 3,000 feet or lower, if ALL
assigned. Then 10 minutes after departure, climb 9616. (Refer to Figure 169A.) What action should be
to FL 190, direct to GIJ, and then flight plan route. taken by the PIC of PTZ 70 ifthe communication radios
fail after takeoff from RWY 16 at PWK while in IMC
Ifa two-way radio communications failure occurs while conditions?
in IFRconditions, the pilot ofa flightshould comply with
the route and altitude listed. A- Climb to 3,000 feet on RWY heading; after 3
Route: minutes, turn direct to PMM and climb to FL 190.
B—Start right turn within 1 mile of the departure end
1. By the route assigned in the last IFR clearance. of RWY 16 and remain east of the 345 radial of
2. Ifbeing radar vectored, by the direct route from the the ORD VOR/DME while climbing to 3,000 feet;
point of failure to the fix, route, or airway specified after 3 minutes, turn direct to PMM and climb to
in the vector clearance. FL190.
3. In the absence of an assigned route, by the route C—Set 7600 in Mode 3 of the transponder, turn direct
that ATChas advised may be expected in a further to Northbrook (the IAF), climb to 2,700 feet, and
clearance. fly the ILS RWY 16 to land at PWK.
4. Ifthereis no assigned orexpected route, by the route Ifa two-way radio communications failure occurs while
in the flightplan. in IFR conditions, the pilotof a flight should comply with
The pilot should maintain the highest of the following the route and altitude listed.
altitudes for the route segment flown: Route:

1. The altitude or flight level in the last clearance. 1. By the route assigned in the last IFR clearance.
2. Theminimum altitude for IFR operations (i.e., MEA).

Answers

9035 [A] 9549 [C] 9613 [A] 9616 [B]

6-52 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 6 Flight Operations

2. If being radar vectored, by the direct route from the ALL

point of failure to the fix, route, or airway specified 9551. (Refer to Figure 97A.) Greater Buffalo Intl was
in the vector clearance. closed upon N60JB's arrival and was not expected to
be open for 4 hours, for snow removal. N60JB received
3. In the absence of an assigned route, by the route
clearance to ROC. Upon arrival at ROC, the flight was
that ATC has advised may be expected in a further
cleared for the ILS RWY 28. To fly the ILS RWY 28 at
clearance.
ROC, the aircraft must have the following navigation
4. Ifthere is no assigned or expected route, by the route equipment:
in the flightplan.
A- Radar and VOR/DME.
The pilot should maintain the highest of the following B-VOR/DME and ADF.
altitudes for the route segment flown: C- Radar and VOR/ILS/DME.
1. The altitude or flight level in the last clearance.
The remarks listed in the bottom left-hand corner of
2. The minimum altitude for IFR operations (i.e., MEA). the instrument approach procedure (FAA Figure 97)
3. The altitude or flightlevel that ATChas advised may indicates ADF is required for this approach. (PLT083)
be expected in a further clearance. — Instrument Approach Procedures
(PLT391) — 14 CFR §91.185
ALL

ALL
9552. (Refer to Figure 97.) How can the FAF on the
9550. (Refer to Figure 97.) In the profile view of the RNAV RWY 32 approach at BUF be identified?
RNAVor GPS RWY 32 approach to Buffalo Intl, between A—The RNAV receiver will indicate 175.1° and 2.5
CYUGA and the MAP, the following appears: L 2 91 °. DME miles from BUF VORTAC.
What is it? B— The RNAV receiver will indicate a change from
TO to FROM and 0 deflection of the course
A—The required pitch attitude change at CYUGA, to
needle.
ensure arriving at 1,220 feet and 1.5 miles at the
C—Two flashes/second on the OM beacon light.
same time.
B— It indicates that 2.91 ° below level is
The FAF (CYUGA waypoint) is indicated by a Maltese
recommended on the attitude indicator.
Cross in the profile view of the chart. When passing
C—The Final Approach Angle for Vertical Path
CYUGA, the RNAV receiver will either indicate station
Computers.
passage by changing from TO to FROM, or by chang
The symbol in the profile section of a nonprecision ing the active waypoint to the missed approach point.
approach is used to designate the FinalApproach Path The RNAVdisplays navigational information to the pilot
Angle for Vertical Path Computers (RNAV Descent). with reference to the active waypoint and not to the
(PLT083) — Instrument Approach Procedures NAVAIDs that define the waypoint. (PLT083) — Instru
ment Approach Procedures
Answer (A) is incorrectbecause it is the verticalpath from CYUGA
to the runway, not the vertical path from CYUGA to arrive at 1,220 Answer (A) is incorrect because the waypoint would be set as the
feet and 1.5 miles at the same time. Answer (B) is incorrect because BUF 175.1° at 2.5 DME; thus at the waypoint, the indication would
it must indicate 2.91" below the level flight attitude indication on the change from TO to FROM withoutany right or left deflection of the
attitude indicator which may or may not be 2.91° below the horizon course line. Answer (C) is incorrect because the approach chart
on the attitude indicator. does not indicate that there is a marker beacon at the FAF.

Answers

9550 [C] 9551 [B] 9552 [B]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 6-53

Chapter 6 Flight Operations

ALL minimums (800-2) apply. The standard alternate mini

9553. (Refer to Figure 97.) Which of the following will mums are listed at the top of FAA Figure 97B. (PLT083)
define the position of the RNAV MAP for Greater Buf — Instrument Approach Procedures
falo Intl? Answers (B) and (C) are incorrect because the lowest minimums for
A- 116.4 BUF 286.9°, -3.5 NM. a precision approach in any category aircraft is 800-2.
B- 42°56.44'N - 78°38.48'W.
C-42°56.26'N - 78°43.57'W.
ALL

The MAP waypoint identification box lists the coordinates 9565. (Refer to Legends 43 and 43A and Figure 103.)
as N42°56.29' W78°43.54', with a frequency of 116.4. The RWYs at LAX are closed and expected to remain
The identifieris BUF, and the radial-distance (facility to closed for 2 hours when N91JB arrives. N91JB requests
waypoint) is 286.9° - 3.5NM. (PLT083) — Instrument 4,000 feet, Tower Enroute Control (TEC) with radar
Approach Procedures vectors to BUR. What altitude can N91JB expect based
upon the type aircraft?
Answers (B) and (C) are incorrect because they are the wrong coor
dinates for the MAP waypoint. A- 4,000 feet.
B- 5,000 feet.
C-6,000 feet.
ALL
9554. (Refer to Figure 259.) When performing the LOC Aircraft types (J, M, P, and Q) are given for each city
RWY 33R approach and sidestep, at what point would pair and should be used with the route of flight filed.
you initiate the missed approach? M = Turbo Props/Special (cruise speed 190 knots or
A— anytime after the FAF. greater). Not all city pairs are depicted; however, geo
B- 4.5 NM after JOLTE. graphic areas connected by tower enroute control are
C- IAH DME 1.0. shown. The closest paring given is the Coast Tracon
to Burbank (BUR). N91JB has filed the Downe Three
The FAF to MAP for the LOC approach is listed in the Arrival, which terminates with vectors to final approach
bottom left corner of the approach plate. FAF to MAP is course for runways 6 and 7 at Los Angeles Interna
4.5 NM. (PLT083) — Instrument Approach Procedures tional (LAX). This indicates that LAX is landing to the
East, therefore the CSTJ2 route should be used. The
altitude forCSTJ2 is 5,000 feet (JM50PQ40). (PLT073)
ALL — Chart Supplement U.S.
9555. (Refer to Figures 97A, 97B, and 97C.) N60JB
desired to list ROC as an alternate for BUF. The active
RWY at ROC was expected to be RWY 28. What weather ALL

forecast was required at Greater Rochester Intl, for 9563. (Refer to Figures 103 and 104.) If communica
N60JB to list it as an alternate? tions are lost soon after takeoff on RWY 11R at Tucson
A— Nonprecision approach 800-2, precision Intl, what altitude restrictions apply, in IMC conditions?
approach 800-2. A— Fly assigned heading for vectors to intercept
B— Nonprecision approach 800-2, precision appropriate transition, maintain 17,000 feet to
approach 600-2. GBN, then climb to assigned altitude.
C—Nonprecision approach 800-2 1/4, precision B— Fly assigned heading for vectors to intercept the
approach 600-2. Gila Bend transition; climb to 17,000 feet or lower
assigned altitude; climb to FL 220, 10 minutes
The A in the triangle in the bottom left-hand corner of after departure.
the approach chart indicates that Rochester has non C—Fly assigned heading for vectors to intercept the
standard alternate minimums. FAA Figure 97C lists all Gila Bend transition; climb to 17,000 feet; 10
the approaches at Rochester which have nonstandard minutes after departure, climb to FL 220.
alternateminimums. Assuming thatN60JB is inapproach
category A or B, the minimums for the ILS28 approach Ifa two-way radio communications failure occurs while
are 800-2. Since no nonstandard minimums are listed in IFR conditions, the pilotof a flight should comply with
for a nonprecision approachto runway 28 ina category the route and altitude listed.
AorB aircraft, we can assume that standard alternate Route:

Answers

9553 [A] 9554 [B] 9555 [A] 9565 [B] 9563 [B]

6-54 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 6 Flight Operations

1. By the route assigned in the last IFR clearance. ALL

9569. (Refer to Figures 110 and 112.) In addition to VOR
2. Ifbeing radar vectored, by the direct route from the
and DME, what other avionics equipment is required
point of failure to the fix, route, or airway specified
to be operational, at takeoff, to fly the VOR/DME RWY
in the vector clearance.
32R approach at IAH?
3. In the absence of an assigned route, by the route
A—Altitude alerting system.
that ATC has advised may be expected in a further
B— Standby VOR and DME receivers.
clearance.
C—VHF communications and transponder equipment.
4. Ifthere is no assigned or expected route, by the route
in the flight plan. The charts and the Chart Supplements U.S. (previously
The pilot should maintain the highest of the following A/FD) indicate Houston Intercontinental Airport is a
altitudes for the route segment flown: Class II TCA. TCAs have been redesignated as Class
B airspace. To operate in Class B airspace, an aircraft
1. The altitude or flight level in the last clearance. must be equipped with a VOR, two-way radio, and a
2. The minimum altitude for IFR operations (i.e., MEA). transponder. (PLT083) — 14 CFR §91.131
3. The altitude or flightlevel thatATC has advised may
be expected in a further clearance. ALL
See FAA Figure 104, DP Route Description. 9571. (Refer to Figure 259.) Which approach lighting
(PLT052) — 14 CFR §91.185 is available for RWY 33R?
Answers (A) and (C) are incorrect because the statement "or A- MALSR and RAIL.
assigned lower altitude" omits an important altitude restriction. The
pilot wouldbe requiredto maintain the lower assigned altitude until B-MIRL
10 minutes after the departure before climbing to the filed flightlevel. C-TDZandCL.

The A5 inside the circle with the dot indicates that runway
ALL 33R has MALSR approach lights with RAIL. See FAA
9564. (Refer to Figure 104.) What are the takeoff mini Legend 5. (PLT083) — Instrument Approach Procedures
mums for RWY 11R at Tucson Intl that apply to N91JB? Answer (B) is incorrect because MIRL indicates Medium Intensity
A-1 SM.
Runway Lights. Answer (C) is incorrectbecause TDZand CL light
ing is not available for RWY 33R and it is in-runway, not approach
B- 800/1. lighting.
C-4,000/3.

See FAA Figure 104, and reference the firstnote in the ALL
DP plan view that says, "Rwys 3, 11L/R ... require a 9573. (Refer to Figure 112.) At what point must the
ceiling of 4,000 and 3 miles visibility." or you must be missed approach be initiated on the VOR/DME RWY
able to meet the minimumclimb requirements of 250 feet 32R approach at IAH, if still IMC?
per NM to 6,500 feet. Figure 103 identifies N91JB as a
BE1900. The standard takeoff minimum fora BE1900 (2 A—Anytime after the FAF.
B-IAH 1.3 DME.
engines or less) is 1 SM, as long as the minimumclimb
C-IAH1 DME.
of 250 ft/min can be performed. (PLT052) — Departure
Procedure (DP) Chart
Theprofile viewof the approach chartshows the change
from the procedure track to the missed approach track at
the IAH 1.0 DME fix. (PLT083) — InstrumentApproach
Procedures
Answer (A) is incorrect because the question asks what is the latest
point at which you must initiate the missed approach. Answer(B) is
incorrect because it is the VDP, not the MAP.

Answers

9564 [A] 9569 [C] 9571 [A] 9573 [C]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 6-55

Chapter 6 Flight Operations

ALL ALL
9587. (Refer to Figure 118C.) What instrument approach 9596. (Refer to Figure 121, upper panel.) On the airway
light system or RWY lighting system is available for the J220 (BUF R-158) SE of Buffalo, the MAA is 39,000
LOC BC RWY26L approach at Phoenix Sky Harbor Intl? feet. What is the MAA on J547 between BUF and PMM
A-HIRL and REIL. (lower panel)?
B- MALS and REIL. A- 60,000 feet.
C-SALS and ODALS. B-43,000 feet.
C-45,000 feet.
The ChartSupplements U.S. (previouslyA/FD)indicates
that runway26L has HIRL and REIL. (PLT078)— Chart The Maximum Authorized Altitude is the maximum
Supplements U.S. usable altitude or flight level on an airway or jet route
for which an MEA is published. FL450 is the upper limit
of alljet routes. (PLT055) — Pilot/Controller Glossary
ALL
Answer (A) is incorrect because this is the upper limitof Class A air
9588. (Refer to Figure 273.) The touchdown zone space, but the jet route system stops above 45,000 feet. Answer (B)
elevation of the ILS RWY 25L approach at Phoenix is incorrect because the upper limitof the jet route system includes
Sky Harbor Intl is FL450 unless marked otherwise.

A-1,126 feet.
B-1,135 feet. ALL
C-1,458 feet. 9599. (Refer to Figure 161.) To receive the DME infor
mation from the facility labeled "DME Chan 22" at La
The notation 'TDZE 1126" indicates the touchdown zone Guardia requires that
elevation on runway 25L is 1,126 feet MSL. See FAA
Legend 4. (PLT049) — Instrument Approach Procedures A- N711JB be equipped with a UHF NAV radio,
which is tuned to channel 22.
B— a military TACAN tuned to channel 22.
ALL C-the VHF NAV radio be tuned to the ILS (108.5)
9590. (Refer to Figure 118A.) What is the HAT a Cat frequency.
egory B aircraft may descend to if the pilot has identi
fied HADEN INT on the LOC BC RWY 26L approach VOR/ILS frequencies are paired with TACAN channels
at Phoenix Sky Harbor Intl? so thatthe VHFand UHFfacilities can be tuned together.
FAA Legend 21 indicates thatDMEchannel 22 is paired
A-510 feet.
with LOCfrequency 108.5. (PLT202)— FAA-H-8083-15
B-667 feet.
C-670 feet.
ALL
The Height Above Touchdown (HAT) fora Category B 9600. (Refer to Figure 293.) The La Guardia weather
airplane with HADEN DMEis 510 feet. See FAA Legend goes below minimums and New YorkApproach Control
7. (PLT083) — InstrumentApproach Procedures issues a clearance to N711JB, via radar vectors, to
Answer (B) is incorrect because this is the HAT for the Category ASALT Intersection. As N711 JB is approaching ASALT,
B circling approach without HADEN INT. Answer (C) is incorrect
because this is the HAT for straight-in approach RWY26L without Approach Control clears the aircraft to fly the VOR RWY
HADEN. 13L/13R approach. What is the distance from ASALT
Intersection to RWY 13L?
A-11.2NM
B-12.2NM.
C-8.6NM.

The profile view indicates that the distance fromASALT

INT to CRI VOR is 6.0 NM, CRI VOR to MAP is 2.6 NM.
On the plan viewit is noted thatfrom MAP to Rwy 13L
is 3.6NM. 6 + 2.6 + 3.6= 12.2 (PLT083) — Instrument
Approach Procedures

Answers

9587 [A] 9588 [A] 9590 [A] 9596 [C] 9599 [C] 9600 [B]

6-56 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 6 Flight Operations

ALL The profile view indicates that the distance from CRI
9601. (Refer to Figure 293.) The La Guardia weather VOR to MAP is 2.6 NM and the distance from the MAP
goes below minimums and New York Approach Con toRwy 13R is2.6 NM. (PLT083) —Instrument Approach
trol issues a clearance to N711JB, via radar vectors, Procedures
to ASALT Intersection. What is the lowest altitude that
Approach Control may clear N711 JB to cross ASALT
Intersection? ALL
9614. (Refer to Figure 169A.) The PIC of PTZ 70 will
A- 3,000 feet. use 25° of bank during the turn after departing RWY 16
B-2,500 feet. at PWK. What is the maximum TAS that the aircraft may
C- 2,000 feet. maintain during the turn and remain east of the ORD
VOR/DME R-345 under a no wind condition?
The profile view showsa mandatory altitude of3,000feet
at ASALT unless advised by ATC, then2,000 feet is the A—160 knots.
minimum. (PLT049) — Instrument Approach Procedures B—162 knots.
C—164 knots.

ALL Thetable at the topof theplan viewshows themaximum

9602. (Referto Figure 293.) For landing on RWY 13R TAS for various bank angles. (PLT052) — Instrument
at JFK, how much RWY is available? Approach Procedures
A-12,468 feet.
B-14,511 feet.
ALL
C-9,095. 9615. (Refer to Figure 169A.) To remain east of the
ORD VOR/DME R-345, while flying the PAL-WAUKEE
The runway landing distance for 13R is listed in the
TWO DEPARTURE, requires a turn radius of
upper center left portion of the approach plate and is
12,468. (PLT083) — Instrument Approach Procedures A— over 5,000 feet.
Answer (B) is incorrect because 14,511 is theoverall length of run B- 5,000 feet.
way 13R/31L. Answer (C) is incorrect because 9,905 is the runway C—less than 5,000 feet.
landing distance for 13L.
The note in the bottom left corner of the plan view states
that a turn radius of less than 5,000 feet is required.
ALL (PLT052) — Instrument Approach Procedures
9603. (Referto Figure293.) What must be operational
for N711JB to execute the VOR RWY 13L/13R approach
to JFK? ALL

A— DME or radar.
9617. (Refer to Figure 172A.) The airport diagram of
B- LDIN and VOR.
Greater Buffalo Intl Airport has a symbol (appears to be
C-VOR, LDIN, and DME or radar. a triangle balanced on top of another triangle) located
close to the end of RWYs 14 and 32. What do these
VOR is required, as indicated by the approach title. symbols indicate?
The plan view indicates that DME orradar is required. A— Helicopter landing areas.
Thenotes section at the topof the chartshows thatthe B—That special takeoff and landing minimums apply
lead-in light systemmustbe operational toexecute the to RWYs 14 and 32.
procedure. (PLT083) —InstrumentApproach Procedures C- RWY Radar Reflectors.

The double triangle symbol in the airport diagram

ALL indicates runway radar reflectors. See FAA Legend4.
9604. (Refer to Figure 293.) Thedistance from Canarsie (PLT083) — Instrument Approach Procedures
(CRI) to RWY 13R at JFK is
A-5.2NM.
B-6.2NM.
C-8.6NM.

Answers
9603 [C] 9604 [A] 9614 [B] 9615 [C]
9601 [C] 9602 [A]
9617 [C]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 6-57

 Chapter 6 Flight Operations

ALL ALL
9619. (Refer to Figure 301.) During the approach (ILS 9629. (Refer to Figure 182A.) EAB 90 is a "CAT B"
RWY 10 at SYR) while maintaining an on glide slope aircraft and received a clearance to fly the LOC RWY
indication with a groundspeed of 110 knots, what was 09R approach, to circle to land RWY 27R. The Baldn
the approximate rate of descent for PTZ 70? fix was received. What are the minimums?
A—475 feet per minute. A-540-1.
B— 585 feet per minute. B- 600-1.
C— 690 feet per minute. C-680-1.

The profile view indicates that the final approach angle The note in the plan view shows category B circling
is 3.0°. The table in FAA Legend 9 shows that a 555 fpm minimums of600-1 ifthe BALDN fix is received. (PLT083)
descent rate is required for 105 knots, and 635 fpm is — InstrumentApproach Procedures
required for 120 knots. 585 is the only answer choice
to fall within these limits. (PLT049) — FAA-H-8083-15,
Chapter 7 ALL

9630. (Refer to Figure 182A.) EAB 90 is a "CAT B"

aircraft and received a clearance to fly the LOC RWY
ALL
09R, to land RWY 09R. The Baldn fix was received.
9620. (Refer to Figure 171, top panel.) The facility What are the minimums?
(Kankakee) thatislocated 9 miles NE ofChicago Midway A- 520/24.
or 27 miles SSE of Northbrook (OBK) is a/an
B-600/24.
A—Aeronautical Radio Inc. (AIRINC) transmitter. C-680/24.
B— Automated Weather Observing System (AWOS-
ASOS) with frequency. The noteintheplanview shows category AandBLOC
C—Flight Service, Remote Communications Outlet. 9R minimums of520-24 when the BALDNfixis received.
(PLT083) — Instrument Approach Procedures
This is the symbol fora Remote Communication Outlet
(RCO). The remoted FSS and frequency are shown.
(PLT058) — Enroute Low Altitude Chart Legend ALL

9631. (Refer to Figure 182A.) EAB 90 is a "CAT B"

aircraft and received a clearance to fly the LOC RWY
ALL
09R to sidestep and land RWY 09L. The Baldn fix was
9623. (Refer to Figure 175.) Four airways (V298, V25, received. What are the minimums?
V448 and V204) near YKM have a series of dots that
A- 680-1.
overlay the airway. What do these dots indicate?
B- 520/24.
A— That the airways penetrate a Prohibited and C-600-1.
Restricted Airspace.
B— That 2 miles either side of the airway, where The note in the plan view showscategory Bsidestep 9L
shaded, is a Controlled Firing Area. minimums are 600-1 when BALDN is received. (PLT083)
C—That the airways penetrate a Military Operations — InstrumentApproach Procedures
Area (MOA) and a special clearance must be Answer (A) is incorrect because itis the sidestep minimums without
received from ATC. BALDN fix. Answer(B) is incorrect because it is the LOC minimums
with the BALDN fix.

Aseries ofdotsoverlaying anairway segmentindicates

that it penetrates restricted or prohibited airspace.
ALL
(PLT058) —Enroute Low Altitude Chart Legend
9644. (Refer to Figure 192.) Onthe airway J10 between
OBH and LBF, the MAA is 41,000 feet. What is the MAA
on J197 between FSD and OBH?
A-43,000 feet.
B-45,000 feet.
C-60,000 feet.

Answers

9619 [B] 9620 [C] 9623 [A] 9629 [B] 9630 [A] 9631 [C]
9644 [B]

6-58 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 6 Flight Operations

The Maximum Authorized Altitude is the maximum ALL

usable altitude or flight level on an airway or jet route 9647. (Refer to Figures 193,193A, and 194.) The entry
which has a published MEA. FL450 is the upper limit points for the (NORTHEAST GATE) LANDR ONE and
of alljet routes. (PLT100) — Pilot/Controller Glossary SAYGE ONE arrivals are approximately
Answer(A) is incorrect because the upperlimit of the jet route sys A-11 NM apart.
tem includes FL450 unless marked otherwise. Answer (C) is incor B-12 NM apart.
rect because this is the upper limit of Class A airspace, but the jet C-13NM apart.
route system stops above 45,000 feet.
TheArrival Overview inthe upperleft-hand cornerof FAA
ALL
Figure 194 states that entry points for parallel arrivals
9645. (Refer to Figure 373.) Inbound to DEN from are approximately 12 NM apart. (PLT080) — Instrument
Dallas/Fort Worth (DFW), Center gives you a vector Approach Procedures
and a frequency for Denver Approach Control, but you
miss-copy the frequency. You determine you probably
ALL
were assigned 9648. (Refer to Figures 195, 195A, 196, and 196A.)
A—119.3 and should expect a tower frequency of When PIL 10 becomes visual, at 3.8 NM from the end
124.3. of Runway 35R, if the aircraft is on glide slope and on
B—120.35 and should expect a tower frequency of course, what should the pilotsee for a Visual Glideslope
132.35. Indicator?
C—120.35 and should expect a tower frequency of A— Two white and two red lights on the left side of
124.3.
the runway, in a row.
B—One white and one red light on the left or right
Approaching Denver from Dallas, you will use theDenver
side of the runway, in a row.
Approach Center designed for "South" which is 120.35,
and 132.35 for Denver tower. (PLT049) — Instrument
C—Two red and two white lights, in a row, on the
Approach Procedures right side of the runway.

FAA Figure 196A indicates Runway 35Rhas PAPI(P4R),

ALL
which means thevisualglideslope indicators are 4 identi
9645-1. (Refer to Figure 374.) Inbound to DEN from callight units placedon the right side ofthe runway. See
Dallas/Fort Worth (DFW), Center gives you a vector FAA Legend 17. (PLT147) — Chart Supplements U.S.
and a frequency for Denver Approach Control, but you
miss-copy the frequency. You determine you probably ALL
were assigned 9649. (Referto Figures195,195A, 196, and 196A.) All
A— 119.3 and should expect a tower frequency of of the runways at Denver Intl have what type of Visual
124.3. Glideslope Indicators?
B— 120.35 and should expect a tower frequency of
A- PVASI.
124.3.
B - PAPI.
C—120.35 and should expect a tower frequency of C-APAP.
132.35.
The airport diagrams display the P inside the circle at
Approaching Denver from Dallas, youwill use theDenver both end of all runways. FAA Legend 6 indicates this
Approach Center designedfor "South" which is 120.35, symbol means the runway has Precision Approach Path
and 124.3 for Denver tower. (PLT049) — Instrument Indicator (PAPI) approach lighting system. (PLT147) —
Approach Procedures Instrument Approach Procedures

Answers

9645 [B] 9645-1 [B] 9647 [B] 9648 [C] 9649 [B]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 6-59

 Chapter 6 Flight Operations

ALL ALL
9654. (Refer to Figure 198A.)The highest terrain shown 9659. (Refer to Figures 185 and 185A.) The threshold
inthe planview section ofthe LOC-B approach to Eagle of RWY 07L at McCarran Intl is displaced
County Regional is
A—874 feet, due to a pole.
A-11,275 feet. B— 2,133 feet, due to a hangar.
B-11,573 feet. C—1,659 feet, due to a pole.
C-12,354 feet.
The Chart Supplements U.S. (previously A/FD) listing
The highest terrain is indicated by a large dot in the for runway 07L states the threshold is displaced2,133
plan view. In this case, the large dot is in the upper left feet for a hangar. (PLT078) — Chart Supplements U.S.
corner above Denver Center. (PLT083) — Instrument
Approach Procedures
ALL

9660. (Refer to Figures 203 and 203A.) PTL 55 will be

ALL unable to cross the Oasis Intersection at 9,500 feet.
9655. (Refer to Figures 201 and 201A.) What type of What should the crew do?
weather information would normally be expected to
be available from the Weather Data Source at Ogden- A- Enter holding on R-211 LAS at 15 DME, right-
Hinckley? hand turns, advise Departure Control, climb to
9,500 prior to Oasis.
A— Cloud height, weather, obstructions to vision, B—Advise Las Vegas Departure Control and request
temperature, dewpoint, altimeter, surface winds, radar vectors.
and any pertinent remarks. C-Continue the climb on LAS R-211 to 9,500 feet,
B— Cloud bases/tops, obstructions to vision, then turn right to 260°.
altimeter, winds, precipitation, and the intensity of
the precipitation. The note on the plan view states that aircraft on the
C—Cloud height, obstructions to vision, temperature, Beatty transition which are unable to cross OASIS at
dewpoint, altimeter, wind data, and density 9,500 feet should continue the climb on the LAS R-211
altitude. until reaching 9,500 feet and then turn right to 260°.
(PLT052) — Instrument Approach Procedures
The Chart Supplements U.S. (previouslyA/FD) indicates
the weather source for Ogden-Hinckley is LAWRS
(Limited Aviation Weather Reporting Station). Observ ALL

ers reportcloud height, weather, obstructionsto vision, 9661. (Refer to Figures 205 and 206.) What is the
temperature and dew point(inmost cases), surface wind, maximum weight that PTL 55 may weigh for landing at
altimeter, and pertinent remarks. See FAA Legend 18. San Francisco Intl (SFO)?
(PLT078) — Chart Supplements U.S. A-710,000 pounds.
Answer(B) is incorrect because it does not report cloud bases or B-715,000 pounds.
tops, norprecipitation and intensity. Answer(C) is incorrect because
it does not report winddata and density altitude. C-720,000 pounds.

The remarks section of the Chart Supplements U.S.

ALL (previously A/FD) states that the maximum weight for
9658. (Refer to Figure 185A.) The maximum gross a B-747is 710,000pounds. (PLT078) — Chart Supple
weight that an L1011 can be operated on RWY 07R/25L ments U.S.
at McCarran Intl is
A-521,000 pounds. ALL
B-633,000 pounds. 9666. (Referto Figures205 and 206A.) AtSan Francisco
C-620,000 pounds. Intl (SFO), the runway hold position signs are
The runway weight limit for a dual tandem gearairplane A— all on the left-hand side of the taxiways.
on runway 07R-25L is listed as 633,000 pounds. How B— all on the right-hand side of the taxiways.
ever, the remarks section states the maximum weight C—on either side of the taxiways.
for an L1011 is 521,000 pounds. (PLT078) — Chart
Supplements U.S.

Answers

9654 [C] 9655 [A] 9658 [A] 9659 [B] 9660 [C] 9661 [A]
9666 [C]

6-60 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 6 Flight Operations

The note on the airport diagram states that several ALL

runway holdposition signs are on the right rather than 9686. (Refer to Figure 215A.) The airport diagram
the left side of the taxiways. (PLT083) — Instrument of Bradley Intl Airport has a symbol (appears to be a
Approach Procedures triangle balanced on top of another triangle) located
close to the approach end of RWY 19. What does this
symbol indicate?
ALL A— Runway Radar Reflectors.
9667. (Refer to Figures 207 and 207A.) Due to weather B— Practice hover area for the Army National Guard
PTL 55 was unable to land at SFO. PTL 55 was given helicopters.
radar vectors to COMMO Intersection and clearance C—Two course lights, back to back, which flash
to fly the ILS RWY 11 approach at Oakland Intl. What beams of light along the course of an airway.
frequencies will PTL 55 use for Oakland Tower and
Oakland Ground Control? Thedouble triangle symbolintheairport diagram stands
A-118.3 and 121.75. for runway radar reflectors. See FAA Legend 4. (PLT083)
B-127.2 and 121.75. — Instrument Approach Procedures
C-127.2 and 121.9.

The frequency listing on the plan viewof the approach ALL

chart lists the runway 11-29 tower frequency as 127.2 9691. The GPS Approach Overlay Program permits
and theground control frequency as 121.75.The Chart pilots to use GPS avionicswhen IFR for flying existing
Supplements U.S. lists these frequencies for thesouth instrument approach procedures, except
complex, which is runway 11-29. (PLT083) — Instrument A- LOC, LDA and ADF.
Approach Procedures B- LDA, TAC and SDF.
C-SDF, LOC and LDA.

ALL The GPS Approach Overlay Program permits pilots to

9670. (Refer to Figure 210.) The route between FIS use GPS avionics under IFRforflyingexisting instrument
(near Key West) and MTH, which is labeled B646, is approach procedures, exceptlocalizer (LOC), localizer
an example of a directional aid (LDA), and simplified directional facility
A—LF/MF Airway. (SDF)procedures. (PLT354)—AIM 11-1-19
B— LF/MF Oceanic Route.
C—Military Training Route.
ALL

Thebrown colorand airway designation (Blue646) indi 9692. Aircraft navigating by GPS are considered, on
cate itis a LF/MFairway. A solidnarrow lineindicatesthat the flight plan, to be
it is an Oceanic route. A domestic LF/MF airway would A— RNAV equipped.
be represented bya broader, shaded line. (PLT058) — B— Astrotracker equipped.
Enroute Low Altitude Chart Legend C-FMS/EFIS equipped.

Aircraft navigating by GPS are consideredto be RNAV

ALL aircraft. Therefore, theappropriate equipment suffix must
9675. (Refer to Figure 210.) The Miami ARTCC remote be included in the ATC flight plan. (PLT354) — Pilot/
site located near Pahokee has a discrete VHF frequency Controller Glossary
of

A-123.45.
B-133.55.
C-135.35.

The MiamiARTCC remote site communication box is the

light blue scalloped box southwest ofthe Pahokee VOR
TAC. (PLT058) — Enroute Low Altitude Chart Legend

Answers

9670 [B] 9675 [B] 9686 [A] 9691 [C] 9692 [A]
9667 [B]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 6-61

 Chapter 6 Flight Operations

ALL ALL
9693. The Instrument Approach Procedure Chart top 8794. (Refer to Figure 104.) Using an average ground-
margin identification is VOR or GPS RWY 25, AL-5672 speed of 140 knots, what minimum indicated rate of
(FAA), LUKACHUKAI, ARIZONA. In what phase of the climb must be maintained to meet the required climb
approach overlay program is this GPS approach? rate (feet per NM) to 9,000 as specified on the SID?
A- Phase I. A- 349 ft/min.
B- Phase III. B-560 ft/min.
C-Phase II. C-584 ft/min.

The word "or"in theapproach title indicates thatapproach The DP (previously called SID) requires a 250 footper
is in Phase III of the GPS Overlay Program. This allows NM climb gradient to 9,000 feet. FAA Legend 10 indi
the approach to be flown without reference of any kind cates thatat 140 knots, a rate of climb of 583 feet per
to the ground-based NAVAIDs associated with the minute is required tomeet this climb gradient. (PLT052)
approach. (PLT354) — AIM 11-1-19 — DP Chart

ALL ALL
9694. The weather forecast requires an alternate for 8796. (Refer to Figure 104.) How can the pilot receive
LUKACHUKAI (GPS RWY 25) ARIZONA. The alternate the latest NOTAMs for the TUS LAX flight?
airport must have an approved instrument approach
A-Monitor ATIS on 123.8 MHz.
procedure, which is anticipated to be operational and
B- Contact the FSS on 122.2 MHz.
available at the estimated time of arrival, other than
C— Request ADCUS on any FSS or Tower frequency.
A-GPS or VOR.
B-ILS or GPS. NOTAMs can be received through the FSS located on
C-GPS. the airport. ThestandardFSS frequency is 122.2 MHz.
(PLT078) — ChartSupplements U.S.
When using GPS for the approach at the destination
airport, the alternate must be an approach other than
a GPS. (PLT354)—AIM 11-1-19 ALL

8797. (Refer to Figure 348.) What distance is available

for takeoff on RWY 11R at Tucson Intl?
ALL
A- 6,998 feet.
8793. (Refer to Figure 104.) Determine the DEP CON
B- 8,408 feet.
frequency for the TUS3.GBN SID after takeoff from RWY
C-10,996 feet.
11R at Tucson Intl.
A-125.1 MHz. Runway 11R-29L is 8,408 feet long. The displaced
B-118.5 MHz. threshold does not reduce takeoff distance. (PLT078)
C-128.5 MHz. — Chart Supplements U.S.
Answer (A) is incorrect because 6,998 feet is the length of the
The Chart Supplements U.S. (previouslyA/FD) indicates runway without the displaced threshold. Answer (C) is incorrect
that the Departure Control Frequency for runway 11, because 10,996 feet is the length of RWY 11L-29R.
departures on bearings 090° through 285° from the air
port, is 125.1 Mhz. (PLT078) — Chart Supplements U.S.
Answer (B) is incorrect because 118.5 MHz is for departures from
RWY 11 with a departure headingbetween 286° to 089°. Answer
(C) is incorrect because 128.5 is the general approach/departure
control frequency.

Answers

9693 [B] 9694 [C] 8793 [A] 8794 [C] 8796 [B] 8797 [B]

6-62 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 6 Flight Operations

ALL ALL

8798. (Refer to Figure 348.) What effect on the takeoff 8784. (Refer to Figure 100.) Where is the VORchange
run can be expected on RWY 11R at Tucson Intl? over point on V369 between DFW Intl and TNV?
A—Takeoff length shortened to 6,986 feet by A- Ft. Worth/Houston ARTCC boundary.
displaced threshold. B- 81 NM from DFW Intl.
B—Takeoff run shortened by 0.7 percent runway C-TORNN Int.
slope to the SE.
C—Takeoff run will be lengthened by the 0.7 percent The distance on V369 between DFW and TNV is 162
upslope of the runway. NM. Since there is no VOR changeover symbol on the
chart, the changeover point is halfway (81 NM from
There is a 0.7% upslope to the southeast on runway DFW). (PLT058) — Enroute LowAltitude Chart Legend
11R-29L. (PLT078) — Chart Supplements U.S. Answer (A) is incorrect because the Ft. Worth/Houston ARTCC
Answer (A) is incorrect because a displaced threshold will shorten boundary would indicate a radio communication frequency change,
the usable runway buthas no effecton an airplane's required takeoff not a navigational frequency change. Answer (C) is incorrect
because TORNN intersection is 85 NM from DFW VORTAC. Even
distance. Answer (B) is incorrect because the takeoffrun is length
ened due to the 0.7% upslope to the southeast.
though a DME distance fix is shown for TORNN, there is no special
VOR changeover indicator that designates TORNN as a COP, thus
the midway point (81 NM) should be used.

ALL
8782. (Refer to Figures 99 and 101.) Which frequency ALL
should be selected to check airport conditions and 8785. (Referto Figure 100 or 101.) What is the magnetic
weather prior to departure at DFW Intl? variation at both DFW Intl and IAH?
A-117.0 MHz. A- 08 E.
B-134.9 MHz. B-0.
C-135.5 MHz. C-08W.

The departure ATIS for DFWairport is listed as 135.5 The Magnetic Variation for the DFW VOR is 8° East.
Mhz. (PLT078) — Chart Supplements U.S. (PLT078) — Chart Supplements U.S.
Answer (A) is incorrect because 117.0 MHz is the listed ATIS fre
quencyforarriving airplanes. Answer (B)is incorrect because 134.9
MHz is also a listed ATISfrequency forarrivingairplanes. ALL
8786. (Refer to Figures 100 and 102.) How should the
pilot identify the position to leave V369 for the Cugar
ALL
Four Arrival?
8783. (Referto Figures99,100, and 101.)The frequency
change from departurecontrol toARTCC afterdeparting A- Intercept R-305 of IAH.
DFW Intl for IAH is B- 21 DME miles from TNV.
C-141 DME miles from DFW.
A-135.5 to 126.0 MHz.
B-118.55 to 127.95 MHz. The CUGAR4 STAR begins at BILEE INTbut the ini
C-127.75 to 127.95 MHz. tial course is inbound on the TNV 334° radial which is
the same as V369. This is the course to be flown until
The Chart Supplements U.S. (previously A/FD) lists intercepting the IAH 305° radial. (PLT080) — Enroute
127.75 MHz as the southbound Departure Control
Low Altitude Chart Legend
frequency for DFW. That would be mostappropriate for
V369. The "postage stamp" symbol just above and to Answer (B) is incorrect because there is no DME fix for 21 DME
miles from TNV VORTAC on either the STAR or the IFR Enroute
the right ofKILLR INT in FAA Figure 100indicates that Chart. Answer (C) is incorrect because a pilot shouldhave changed
the Fort Worth Center frequency in that area is 127.95 over to TNV VORTAC, and there is no 141 DME fix from DFW on
Mhz. (PLT078) — Chart Supplements U.S. V369.

Answer (A) is incorrect because 135.5 MHz is the ATIS frequency

for departing airplanes and 126.0 MHz is the ARTCC discrete
frequency for northwest of DFW. Answer (B) is incorrect because
118.55MHz is the departure control frequency for eastbound traffic
from DFW.

Answers

8782 [C] 8783 [C] 8784 [B] 8785 [A] 8786 [A]
8798 [C]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 6-63

 Chapter 6 Flight Operations

ALL ALL
8824. (Refer to Figure 114.) The changeover point on 8810. (Refer to Figures 110 and 112.) How should the
V394 between DAG VORTAC and POM VORTAC is pilot identify the position to leave V369 for the Cugar
A— halfway. Four Arrival?
B- 38 DME miles from DAG VORTAC. A- Intercept R-305 of IAH.
C-64 DME miles from DAG VORTAC. B- 21 DME miles from TNV.
C-141 DME miles from DFW.
There is a changeover point marked on the enroute
chart at 64 NM from DAG VORTAC and 16 NM from The CUGAR4STARbegins at BILEE INTbut the initial
POM VORTAC. (PLT058) — EnrouteLowAltitude Chart course is inbound on the TNV 334° radial which is the
Answer(A) is incorrect because when the changeoverpointis not same as V369. This is the course to be flown until inter
located at the midwaypoint, aeronautical charts will depict the cepting the IAH 305° radial. (PLT080) — EnrouteChart
location and give mileage to the radio aids. Answer(B) is incorrect
because 38 DME miles from DAG VORTAC is APLES INT (not the Answer (B) is incorrect because the pilot should leave V369 when
change-over point). he/she intercepts R-305 of IAH, not21 DME miles from TNV. Answer
(C) is incorrectbecause the pilotshould have switched to TNVVOR
TAC for V369 course guidance before BILEEINTand should not be
using DFWVORTAC forany navigational guidance.
ALL

8825. (Refer to Figure 114.) The minimum crossing

altitude at APLES INT southwest bound on V394 is ALL

A- 7,500 feet. 8811. (Referto Figure 112.)What action should the pilot
B-9,100 feet. take if communicationswere lost duringthe Cugar Four
C-11,500 feet. Arrival, after turning on the 305 radial of IAH?
A— Proceed direct to IAH VORTAC, then outbound
There is a Minimum Crossing Altitude (MCA) of 9,100 on the IAH R-125 for a procedure turn for final
feet at APLES INT when southwest bound on V394. approach.
(PLT058) — Enroute Low Altitude Chart Legend B- From BANTY INT, proceed to the IAF on the IAH
Answer (A) is incorrect because 7,500 feet is the minimum enroute R-290, then continue on the IAH 10 DME Arc to
altitude (MEA) from DAG VORTAC to APLES INTon V394, not the final approach.
MCA at APLES INT. Answer (C) is incorrect because 11,500 feet
is the minimum enroute altitude after APLES INT, not the MCA at C- Proceed direct to IAH VORTAC, then to either
APLES INT. IAF on the IAH 10 DME Arc to final approach.
In the event of a two-way radio failure, the pilotshould
ALL fly the cleared route to the clearance limit If the clear
8826. (Refer to Figure 114, lower panel.) What is the ance limit is not a fix from which an approach begins,
minimum enroute altitude on V210, when crossing the he/she should leave the clearance limit (if no EFC has
POM VORTAC southwest bound and continuing on the been received) upon arrival at the limit and proceed to
same airway? a fix from which an approach begins. Then, commence
A-10,700 feet. descent and approach as close as possible to the esti
B-10,300 feet. mated time of arrival. (PLT208) — 14 CFR§91.185(c)
C-5,300 feet. Answer(A) is incorrect because thereis no procedureturn indicated
for the VOR/DME RWY 32R approach; thus, no procedure turn can
The Minimum Enroute Altitude (MEA) approaching be madetoreverse course. Answer (B) is incorrect because thepilot
would proceed to the IAH VORTAC, then to either IAFon the IAH 10
POM VORTAC southwest bound is 5,300 feet. Absent DMEarc to finalapproach.
an MCA, this is the minimum crossing altitude at the
VORTAC. There is no published MCA for V210 South
west bound crossing POM. (PLT058) — Enroute Low
Altitude ChartLegend
Answer (A) is incorrectbecause 10,700 feet is the MEA fromMEANT
INT to CALBE INT when southwest bound on V210. Answer (B) is
incorrect because 10,300 feet is the MCA on V210northeastbound.

Answers
8824 [C] 8825 [B] 8826 [C] 8810 [A] 8811 [C]

6-64 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 6 Flight Operations

ALL The "v" symbol in the profile view at the 1.3 DME fix
8812. (Refer to Figure 112.) The Cugar Four Arrival ends is a Visual Descent Point (VDP). If able to receive the
A- at BANTY INT. VDP, a pilot may not begin descent below the MDA until
B- at IAH VORTAC. reaching the VDP. (PLT083) — FAA Legend 3
C—when cleared to land. Answer(A) is incorrect because GALES INT is the final approach fix
(FAF) which indicates thepointat which a pilotmay initiate a descent
to the MDA. Answer (C) is incorrectbecause, at the IAH, 1 DMEis
The text portion of the STARsays to expect radar vec the MAP which must be initiated if the runway environment is not in
tors to finalafter BANTYINT. (PLT080) — STAR Chart sight. The earliest time the pilotmay initiate a descent from the MDA
Answer (B) is incorrect because the arrival ends at BANTY INT. of 460 feet at IAH is at the VDP.
Answer (C) is incorrect because a clearance to land willbe given
during the instrument approach procedure, which is afterthe end of
the Cugar Four Arrival. ALL
8818. (Refer to Figure 112.) Howshould the pilotidentify
the MAP on the IAH VOR/DME RWY 32R?
ALL
8816. (Refer to Figure 112.) What effect on approach A— After time has elapsed from FAF.
minimums, ifany, does an inoperative MALSR have for B- IAH 1.3 DME.
an aircraft with an approach speed of 120 knots at IAH? C-IAH 1 DME.

A— None. The IAH 1 DME fix is designated as the MAP. (PLT083)

B- Increases RVR to 5,000 feet. — IFR Approach Plate
C— Increases RVR to 6,000 feet.
Answer (A) is incorrectbecause timing from the FAFis used on non-
precision approaches that are not VOR/DME procedures, or when
A 120-knot approach speed makes this a Category B the facility is on the airport and the facility is the MAP. Answer (B) is
aircraft forapproach minimum purposes. WhenMALSR incorrect because IAH 1.3 DME is the VDP.
is inoperative on a VOR/DME approach, 1/2 mile must
be added to the required visibility. The published Cat
egory B minimums are 2,400 RVR (1/2 mile). Thehigher ALL

minimums are therefore 1 mile or 5,000 RVR. (PLT082) 8849. (Refer to Figure 122.) What is the lowest alti
— FAA Legend 11 tude at which the glide slope may be intercepted when
Answer (A) is incorrect because, with an inoperative MALSR,
authorized by ATC?
there is no change to the MDA, but an increase of 1/2 mile to the A- 2,500 feet.
required visibility. Answer (C) is incorrect because an airplane with B- 3,000 feet.
an approachspeed of 141-165 knots (CategoryD) or greater would
have the visibility increased to RVRof 6,000 feet. C-4,000 feet.

The lowest altitude at which the glide slope may be

ALL intercepted when authorized by ATC is 2,500 feet as
8817. (Refer to Figure 112.) When is the earliest time indicated by the number 2500 with a solid line below
the pilot may initiate a descent from 460 feet MSL to the altitudenext to the FAF. (PLT083)— FAA-H-8083-15
land at IAH? Answer (B) is incorrect because 3,000 feet is the minimum altitude
at GRETI, whichis priorto the FAFunless ATC authorizes a descent
A— Anytime after GALES INT ifthe runway to 2,500 feet. Answer (C) is incorrect because 4,000 feet is the
environment is visible. minimum altitude at KITTS (not the FAF), unless ATCauthorizes a
B- Only after the IAH 1.3 DME if the runway descent to 2,500 feet.
environment is visible.
C-Only after the IAH 1 DME if the runway
environment is visible.

Answers

8812 [A] 8816 [B] 8817 [B] 8818 [C] 8849 [A]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 6-65

Chapter 6 Flight Operations

ALL ALL
8850. (Refer to Figure 122.) What would be the DME 8799. (Refer to Figures 106 and 107.) Which approach
reading at the lowest altitude at which the glide slope control frequency is indicated for the TNP.DOWNE3
may be intercepted when authorized by ATC? Arrival with LAX as the destination?
A—12.4 miles. A-128.5 MHz.
B—9.4 miles. B-124.9 MHz.
C—7.7 miles. C-124.5 MHz.

The DMEreading at the lowest altitude for glide slope FAA Figure 106 lists the approach frequency as 124.5
intercept is at the FAF marker which indicates altitude for the TNP.DOWNE3 arrival. (PLT080) — Chart Supple
of2500 at 7.7 DME. See FAA Figure 122around Jockey ments U.S.
LOM. (PLT083) — Instrument Approach Procedure Answers (A) and (B) are incorrectbecause the Chart Supplements
Answer (A) is incorrect because 12.4 NM is the DME reading at U.S. frequencies do not apply when using the TNPDOWNE3 arrival.
KITTS. Answer(B) is incorrect because 9.4 NM is the DME reading
at GRETI.

ALL

8800. (Refer to Figures 106 and 107.) At what point

ALL
does the flight enter the final approach phase of the
8851. (Refer to Figure 122.) At what altitude and indi ILS RWY 25L at LAX?
cated airspeed would you expect to cross PIVOT INT
on the approach to ORD? A-FUELR INT.
B-HUNDAINT.
A-FL 200 and 300 KIAS. C— Intercept of glide slope.
B- 10,000 feet and 250 KIAS.
C-12,000 feet and 200 KIAS. The "Lightning Bolt"symbol indicates that 3,500 feet is
the glide slope interception altitude. An aircraftis con
You would expect to cross PIVOTintersection at 10,000 sidered to be on the final approach segment past this
feetand250 KIAS as indicated by the vertical navigation point when on an ILS approach. (PLT083) — Instrument
planning information on the upper left-hand corner of Approach Procedure
the STAR. (PLT083) — STAR Chart
Answer(A) is incorrect because FUELR INTis an initial approach fix
Answer (A) is incorrect because turbojet arrivals should expect a (IAF) and does not mark thepointat which the flight enters the final
clearance to cross PMM VORTAC at FL200. Answer(C) is incorrect approach phase. Answer (B) is incorrect because HUNDA INT is a
because 12,000 feet and 200 KIAS is not an expected clearance for fix at which the pilot should intercept the glide slope, but the inter
either a turbojet or turboprop aircraft using the Pullman Two Arrival section itselfdoes not mark thepointat which the airplane enters the
to ORD. final approach phase.

ALL ALL
8852. (Refer to Figure 279 and Legend 9.) What is 8801. (Refer to Figures 106 and 107.) What is the DH
the approximate rate of descent required (forplanning for the ILS RWY 25L at LAX if the pilot has completed
purposes) to maintain the electronic glide slope at 120 the initial Category II certification within the preceding
KIAS with a reported headwind component of 15 knots? 6 months, but has flown no CAT II approaches?
A- 635 ft/min. A- 201 feet.
B- 650 ft/min. B- 251 feet.
C-555 ft/min. C-301 feet.

The ILS RWY 32L approach into Chicago-O'Hare has The IAP minimums section shows DHs of 251 and 201
a 3° glide slope as indicated within the profile section MSL, which represent 150-footand 100-foot DHs respec
of the approach chart. Using FAA Legend9 along with tively. Regulations restrict a pilot who has completed
a ground speed of 105 (120 KIAS - 15K headwind initial CATII qualification to the 150-foot DH untilhe/she
component) the rate of descent is 555 feet per minute. has completed 3 approaches to thatminimum within the
(PLT083) — IFRApproach Procedures previous 6 months. (PLT420) — 14 CFR §61.13
Answer (A) is incorrect because a rate of descent of 635 fpm is Answer (A) is incorrect because a DH of 201 feet is available once
appropriate for the indicated airspeed of 120 knots. Answer (B) is the initial Category II limitation is removed. Answer (C) is incorrect
incorrect because a rate of descent of 650 fpm is appropriate for a because a DH of 150 feet is the limitation placed upon an original
3.5° glide slope angle. issue for Category II operations.

Answers

8850 [C] 8851 [B] 8852 [C] 8799 [C] 8800 [C] 8801 [B]

6-66 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 6 Flight Operations

ALL Answer (B) is incorrect because RWY 25R has an out of service
8802. (Refer to Figures 106 and 107.) The radio altim (see Remarks) MALSR and a displaced threshold. Answer (C) is
incorrect because high intensity runway lights (HIRL), touchdown
eter indication for the DH at the inner marker on the ILS zone lights (TDZ), and centerline lights (CL) are runway lighting
RWY 25L approach at LAX is systems.

A-101.
B— 111.
ALL
C-201.
8805. (Refer to Figures 106 and 107.) Howcan DOWNE
INT be identified?
The RA height at the IM is also the DH forthe 100-foot
minimums.At this point, the radio altimeter will indicate A-ILAX15DME.
111 feet. (PLT083) — InstrumentApproach Procedure B-LAX 15 DME.
Answer (A) is incorrect because 101 feet is the touchdown zone C-LAX R-249 and SLI R-327.
elevation (TDZE). Answer (C) is incorrect because 201 feet is the
height above touchdown (HAT) at the inner marker. DOWNE INT can be identified by the SLI 327° radial
crossing the localizerorby the l-LAX 15 DME. (PLT083)
— Instrument Approach Procedure
ALL
Answer (B) is incorrect because LAX 15 DME defines a circle, not
8803. (Refer to Figure 257A.) If the glide slope indica an intersection. The correct answer would be LAX R-068, 15 DME.
tion is lost upon passing LIMMA INT on the ILS RWY Answer (C) is incorrect because DOWNE INT is located on the ILS
25L approach at LAX, what action should the pilottake? localizer, not on a radial from the LAX VORTAC.

A— Continue to the MAP, and execute the missed

approach as indicated. ALL
B—Continue the approach as an LOC, and add 100 8806. (Refer to Figure 107.) How should the IFR flight
feet to the DH. plan be closed upon landing at LAX?
C— Immediately start the missed approach left turn to
A- Contact Hawthorne FSS on 123.6 MHz.
CATLY INT.
B- Phone Hawthorne FSS on 644-1020.
Obstacle clearance on a missed approach is predicated C— LAX tower will close it automatically.
on the assumption that the abort is initiatedat the MAP
and not lower than the DH or MDA. When an early missed Ifoperating IFR to an airport with a functioning control
approach is executed, pilots should, unless otherwise tower, the flight plan is automatically closed upon land
authorized by ATC, fly the instrument approach pro ing. (PLT224) — AIM 15-1-14
cedure to the MAP at or above the DH or MDA before Answer (A) is incorrect because an IFR flight plan wouldbe closed
with a flight service station only if there is no operating tower.
executingany turning maneuver. (PLT083)—AIM 15-5-5 According to the Chart Supplement U.S. (previously A/FD) in Figure
Answer (B) is incorrect because the LOC minimums for this 107, 123.6 MHzis not a frequency on which to contact Hawthorne
approach are 540 feet MDA and 24 RVR. Answer (C) is incorrect FSS.
because protectedobstacle clearance areas for missed approaches
are made on the assumption that the abort is made at the MAP. No
consideration is made foran abnormally early turn, unless otherwise
ALL
directed by ATC.
8950. (Refer to Figure 134.) What are the required
weather minimums to execute the CONVERGING ILS
ALL RWY 9R approach procedure?
8804. (Refer to Figures 106 and 107.) What approach A— Ceiling 700 feet and 2-1/2 miles visibility.
lights are available for the ILS RWY 25L approach at B— At least 1,000 feet and 3 miles visibility.
LAX? C—Ceiling 800 feet and 2 miles visibility.
A— ALSF-2 with sequenced flashing lights.
B— MALSR with a displayed threshold. Therequired weather minimums are listedas 721-2-1/2
C-HIRL and TDZ/CL 700 (700-2-1/2).The 721 refers toDHinMSL. The 2-1/2
refers to visibility inmiles. The 700 refers toheightofDH
The "A" in the circle next to runway 25L on the Airport above touchdown zone. The minimums in parentheses
Diagram indicates that ALSF-2 approach lights are applyonlytomilitary pilots. (PLT083) — FAA-H-8083-15
available. The dot at the top of the circle indicates that Answer (B) is incorrect because 1,000 feet and 3 miles visibility
sequenced flashing lights are part of the system. See defines the minimums required for VFR flight in Class D or E air
space for an airport. Answer (C)is incorrect because 800 feet and2
FAA Legend5. (PLT078) — Chart Supplements U.S. milesvisibility with a nonprecision approach arealternate minimums.

Answers

8802 [B] 8803 [A] 8804 [A] 8805 [A] 8806 [C] 8950 [A]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 6-67

Chapter 6 Flight Operations

ALL ALL
8951. (Refer to Figure 134.) What is the final approach 8837. (Refer to Figure 118A.) How is course reversal
fix for the CONVERGING ILS RWY 9R approach pro accomplished when outbound on the LOC BC RWY 26L
cedure? approach at Phoenix Sky Harbor Intl?
A- BWINE INT and 3,000 feet MSL. A— Radar vector only.
B- KELEE INT. B— Procedure turn beyond 10 NM.
C—1,800 feet MSLand glide slope interception. C—Holding pattern entry beyond 10 NM.

The final approach fix is designated on government Theabsence of the procedure turn barbin the plan view
charts by the Maltese Cross symbol for nonprecision indicates thata procedure turn is not authorized for that
approaches and the lightningbolt symbol forprecision procedure. (PLT083) — AIM 15-4-9
approaches. The lightning bolt symbol on the descent Answer (B) is incorrectbecause no procedure turn is depicted on the
profile portion of the chart indicates the FAF as 1,800 IAP chart, and when radar is used for vectoring, no pilotmay make a
feet MSL. See Legend 3. (PLT083) — Pilot/Controller procedure turn unless he/she requests and is issued a clearance by
Glossary ATC. Answer(C) is incorrect because no holdingpattern is depicted
on the IAPchart and it may not be used as a course reversal.
Answer (A) is incorrect because by looking at the plan view of the
chart (Figure 6-38), BWINE Intersection is labeled as an IAF or
initialapproach fix (not a final approach fix). Answer (B) is incor
ALL
rect because KELEE Intersection only identifies the outer marker.
Note that the lightning bolt arrow is depicted just prior to KELEE 8839. (Refer to Figure 118A.) Identify the final approach
Intersection. fix on the LOC BC RWY 26L approach at Phoenix Sky
Harbor Intl.

ALL
A— Upon intercepting the glide slope beyond I PHX 5
DME.
8952. (Refer to Figure 134.) What is the MINIMUM
airborne equipment required to execute the CONVERG B- When crossing l-PHX 5 DME at 3,000 feet.
ING ILS RWY 9R approach procedure? C-When crossing the SRP VORTAC on the glide
slope.
A— Localizer and DME.
B— Localizer and glide slope. The"Maltese Cross"symbol indicates the final approach
C—Localizer only. fix for the LOC 26L approach is at the l-PHX 5 DME
fix. The minimum altitude for crossing that fix is 3,000
Neither the charttitle northemissed approach procedure feet MSL. See FAA Legend 3. (PLT083) — Instrument
specifies DME. Thecategoryminimums specify "NA"(not Approach Procedure
authorized) for localizer only and circling approaches.
Answers (A) and (C) are incorrect because an LOC approach is a
(PLT083) — AIM 15-5-4 nonprecisionapproach thatdoes not provideglide slope information.
On the back course a glide slope indication may be indicated, but it
must be ignored.
ALL

8836. (Refer to Figure 118A.) Straight-in minimums for

a Category B aircraft equipped with DME on the LOC ATM, ATS
BC RWY 26L approach are 8704. (Refer to Figure 263.) You are flying a turbojet
A- 1,800/1.
cleared for the RIICE THREE arrival, IAH landing to the
west. ATC tells you to cross RIICE at 12,000 feet and
B- 700/1.
C-1,640/1.
220 knots until BRKMN. What airspeed should you fly
after passing BRKMN?
Thestraight inminimums for the LOC 26Lapproach are A-200 knots.
an MDA of 1,640 and visibility of 1 mile if the HADEN B- 220 knots.
DME fix is identified. (PLT083) — Instrument Approach C-250 knots.
Procedure
Answer (A) is incorrect because 1,800/1 are the straight-in mini The chart notes, "TURBOJETS: Landing west at IAH
mums without DME. Answer (B) is incorrect because 700/1 are expect clearance to cross RIICE at 12000, cross BRKMN
military minimums without operatingDME. at250kts."(PLT083) — Instrument Approach Procedures

Answers

8951 [C] 8952 [B] 8836 [C] 8837 [A] 8839 [B] 8704 [C]

6-68 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 6 Flight Operations

ATM, DSP RTC

8242. Assuring that appropriate aeronautical charts are 9572. (Refer to Figures 111 and 112.) While N131JB
aboard an aircraft is the responsibility of the was flying the VOR/DME RWY32R approach to Houston
A— aircraft dispatcher. Intercontinental, approach control told them to contact
B— first officer.
copter control, at GALES. Approach control did not tell
C— pilot-in-command. them what frequency, and did not respond when N131JB
asked what frequency. What frequency should N131JB
The pilot-in-command shall ensure that appropriate use for copter control?
aeronautical charts containing adequate information A—118.1.
concerning navigation aids and instrument approach B-121.5.
procedures are aboard the aircraft for each flight. C-135.15.
(PLT444) — 14 CFR §121.549
Answer (A) is incorrect because the dispatcher may be hundreds The frequency for copter control at Houston Intercon
of miles from the origination of the flight, e.g., in a central dispatch tinental is found under the tower listing in the Chart
office. Answer (B) is incorrect because although a first officer may Supplements U.S. (previouslyA/FD). (PLT078)— Chart
be assigned the task of carrying aeronautical charts, the pilot-in-
command is responsible for ensuring that adequate charts are Supplements U.S.
aboard the aircraft.

Answers

8242 [C] 9572 [C]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 6-69

6-70 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep
Chapter 7
Emergencies, Hazards,
and Flight Physiology
Flight Emergencies and Hazards 7-3
Flight Physiology 7-11

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 7-1

Chapter 7 Emergencies, Hazards, and Flight Physiology

7-2 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 7 Emergencies, Hazards, and Flight Physiology

Flight Emergencies and Hazards

The Pilot/Controller Glossary divides emergencies into two categories: distress and urgency. Distress
is a condition of being threatened by serious and/or imminent danger and of requiring immediate assis
tance. Distress conditions include fire, mechanical failure or structural damage. An urgency condition is
one of being concerned about safety and of requiring timely but not immediate assistance. At least an
urgency condition exists the moment a pilot becomes doubtful about position, fuel endurance, weather
or any other condition that could adversely affect the safety of flight. A pilot should declare an emergency
when either an urgency or a distress condition exists.
When a distress or urgency condition exists, the pilot should set the radar beacon transponder to
code 7700. If an aircraft is being hijacked or illegally interfered with, the pilot can alert ATC to that fact
by setting the transponder to code 7500. Ifan aircraft has experienced a two-way communications radio
failure, the pilot should set the transponder to code 7600. The pilot should also conform to the radio
failure procedures of 14 CFR §91.185 (IFR operations: Two-way radio communications failure). In order
to avoid false alarms, pilots should take care not to inadvertently switch through codes 7500, 7600 and
7700 when changing the transponder.
If a two-way radio failure occurs in VFR conditions, or if VFR conditions are encountered after the
failure, the pilot must continue the flight under VFR and land as soon as practicable. If IFR conditions
prevail, the pilot must follow the rules listed below for route, altitude and time to leave a clearance limit:

Route to be Flown

• The route assigned in the last ATC clearance received.

• If being radar vectored, fly by the direct route from the point of the radio failure to the fix, route or
airway specified in the vector clearance.
• In the absence of an assigned route, fly by the route that ATC has advised may be expected in a
further clearance.
• In the absence of an assigned route or expected further routing, fly by the route filed in the flight
plan.

Altitude

Fly the highest of the following altitudes or flight levels for the route segment being flown:
• The altitude or flight level assigned in the last ATC clearance received.
• The minimum IFR altitude for the route segment being flown (MEA).
• The altitude or flight level that ATC has advised may be expected in a further clearance.

When to Leave a Clearance Limit

• When the clearance limit is a fix from which an approach begins, commence descent or descent and
approach as close as possible to the expect further clearance (EFC) time if one has been received;
or if one has not been received, as close as possible to the estimated time of arrival (ETA) as cal
culated from the filed or amended estimated time en route.
• If the clearance limit is not a fix from which an approach begins, leave the clearance limit at the
expect further clearance (EFC) time if one has been received; or if none has been received, upon
arrival over the clearance limit, and proceed to a fixfrom which an approach begins and commence
descent or descent and approach as close as possible to the estimated time of arrival (ETA) as
calculated from the filed or amended time en route.

Continued

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 7-3

Chapter 7 Emergencies, Hazards, and Flight Physiology

A near midair collision is defined as an occurrence in which the possibility of a collision existed as
the result of two aircraft coming within 500 feet or less of each other.
A minimum fuel advisory is used by a pilot to inform ATC that the fuel supply has reached a state
where the pilot cannot accept any undue delay upon arrival at the destination. The minimum fuel advisory
is not a declaration of an emergency, nor is it a request for priority. It does indicate that an emergency
situation may develop if any undue delay occurs during the rest of the flight.
Some airports have a number of wind indicators located around the perimeter of the field as well as
a center field windsock. When there is a significant difference in speed or direction between the center
field windsock and one or more of the boundary wind indicators, the tower can report that a wind shear
condition exists.

A safety alert will be issued to pilots being controlled by ATC in either of two circumstances. A con
troller will issue a safety alert when, in the controller's opinion, the aircraft's altitude will put it in unsafe
proximity to the surface or an obstacle. A controller will also issue an alert if he/she becomes aware of
another aircraft, not controlled by him/her, that will put both aircraft in an unsafe proximity to each other.
The wake turbulence developed by large aircraft can present a significant flight hazard to other
aircraft that encounter them. The main component of wake turbulence is wing-tip vortices. These are
twin vortices of air trailing behind an aircraft in flight. The vortex is a by-product of lift. The pressure
under each wing is greater than the pressure above it and this induces a flow of air outward, upward
and around the wing tip. This leaves two counter-
rotating spirals of air trailing behind the aircraft.
See Figure 7-1.
The characteristics of a vortex can be altered Vortex flow
by changing the aircraft's configuration. The most
intense vortices will be produced by an airplane
that is heavy, flying slowly, and with the landing
gear and flaps retracted.
The vortices generated by a large aircraft will
slowly sink below its flight path and dissipate by
Vortex core
the time they have descended about 1,000 feet.
They will also tend to drift away from each other at
a speed of about five knots. In a light crosswind, Figure 7-1
the upwind vortex will tend to stay over the same
position on the ground while the downwind vortex will move away at about twice its normal rate. It is
good wake turbulence avoidance technique to stay above and on the upwind side of the flight path of a
preceding large airplane.
If the vortices reach the ground before dissipating, they will move away from each other as noted
above. In a light crosswind, the upwind vortex can remain on the runway long after a large airplane has
taken offor landed. The most hazardous situation is a light quartering tailwind, which not only keeps a
vortex on the runway but also inhibits its dissipation.
If you plan to take off behind a large airplane, try to rotate prior to that airplane's point of rotation
and climbout above and on the upwind side of the other airplane's flight path. If you plan to takeoff from
a runway on which a large airplane has just landed, try to plan your lift-off point to be beyond the point
where that aircraft touched down. See Figure 7-2.

7-4 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 7 Emergencies, Hazards, and Flight Physiology

ALL
9052. Which range of codes should a pilot avoid switch

*~iMi00
Wake begins
ing through when changing transponder codes?
A-0000 through 1000.
B— 7200 and 7500 series.
C—7500, 7600, and 7700 series.

When making routine transponder code changes, pilot

should avoid inadvertent selection of codes 7500, 7600
Touchdown
or 7700 thereby causing momentary false alarms at
// / automated ground facilities. (PLT497) — AIM 14-1-20
666666555660oo66l^ Answer (A) is incorrect because codes 0000 through 1000 are
Wake ends acceptable codes that may be used during normal operations.
Answer (B) is incorrect because the 7200 series can be used during
normal operations, while 7500 should be avoided except in the case
Figure 7-2
of a hijack.

ALL
9097. What minimum condition is suggested for declar ALL
ing an emergency? 9362. After experiencing two-way radio communications
A—Anytime the pilot is doubtful of a condition that failure en route, when should a pilot begin the descent
could adversely affect flight safety. for the instrument approach?
B— When fuel endurance or weather will require an A— Upon arrival at any initial approach fix for the
en route or landing priority. instrument approach procedure but not before the
C—When distress conditions such as fire, flight plan ETA as amended by ATC.
mechanical failure, or structural damage occurs. B— Upon arrival at the holding fix depicted on the
instrument approach procedure at the corrected
An aircraftis in an emergency condition the moment the ETA, plus or minus 3 minutes.
pilot becomes doubtful about position, fuel endurance, C—At the primary initial approach fix for the
weather or any other condition that could adversely instrument approach procedure at the ETA shown
affect flightsafety. (PLT394) — AIM16-1-2 on the flight plan or the EFC time, whichever is
Answer (B) is incorrect because, if fuel endurance or weather will later.
require an en route or landing priority, this is beyond an urgency
situation and is now a distress condition. Answer (C) is incorrect During a two-way radio communications failure, if the
because this is the step after an urgency condition, one that has the
potential to become a distress condition. clearance limit is a fix from which an approach begins,
commence descent or descent and approach as close
as possible to the expect further clearance (EFC) time,
ALL if one has been received. If no EFC time has been
9051. What is the hijack code? received, commence descent and approach as close
A- 7200.
as possible to the estimated time of arrivalas calculated
B- 7500.
from the filed or amended (withATC) estimated time en
C-7777.
route. (PLT391) — 14 CFR §91.185
Answer (B) is incorrect because an approach should begin at the ini
tialapproach fix, not at a holding fix, as close as possible to the ETA.
Onlynondiscrete transpondercode 7500 will be decoded Answer (C) is incorrect because an EFC time supersedes a flight
as the hijack code. (PLT497) — AIM 14-1-20 plan ETA and should be used if one has been received (no matterif
Answer (A) is incorrect because 7200 is a code that is used for the EFC is sooner or later than the flightplan ETA).
normal operating procedures. Answer (C) is incorrect because code
7777 is reserved for militaryinterceptor operations.

Answers

9097 [A] 9051 [B] 9052 [C] 9362 [A]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 7-5

Chapter 7 Emergencies, Hazards, and Flight Physiology

ALL 3. The altitude that ATC has advised may be expected

9363. Ifa pilot is being radar vectored in IFR conditions in a further clearance.
and loses radio communications with ATC, what action
(PLT391) — 14 CFR §91.185
should be taken?
Answer (B) is incorrect because 1,000 feet above the highest
A— Fly directly to the next point shown on the IFR obstacle along the route is what a MOCA, (minimum obstruction
flight plan and continue the flight. clearance altitude) provides. Answer (C) is incorrect because VFR
altitudes or regulations should never be used while flying in IFR
B- Squawk 7700 and climb to VFR on Top. weather conditions.
C— Fly direct to a fix, route, or airway specified in the
vector clearance.
ALL
If a two-way radio communication failure occurs while 9365. A pilot is holding at an initial approach fix after
in IFR conditions the pilot should continue the flight by having experienced two-way radio communications
the following route: failure. When should that pilot begin descent for the
1. By the route assigned in the last ATC clearance; instrument approach?
2. Ifbeing radar vectored, by the direct route from the A— At the EFC time, if this is within plus or minus 3
point of the radio failure to the fix, route or airway minutes of the flight plan ETA as amended by
specified in the vector clearance; ATC.
3. In the absence of an assigned route, by the route B— At flight plan ETA as amended by ATC.
that ATC has advised may be expected in a further C—At the EFC time as amended by ATC.
clearance; or
During a two-way radio communications failure, if the
4. In the absence of an assigned route or a route that clearance limitis a fix from which an approach begins,
ATChas advised may be expected in a furtherclear commence descent or descent and approach as close
ance, by the route filed in the flight plan. as possible to the expect further clearance (EFC) time,
(PLT406) — 14 CFR §91.185 if one has been received. If no EFC time has been
Answer (A) is incorrect because the route shown on the flightplan received, commence descent and approach as close
should be the last route to be used and only if an assigned route, as possible to the estimated time of arrival as calculated
vector, or expected route has not been received. Answer (B) is incor from the filed or amended (with ATC) estimated time
rect because a climb should only be initiated in order to establish
the highest of either the assigned, MEA, or expected altitude. The
enroute. (PLT391) — 14 CFR §91.185
squawk of 7700 is no longer correct. Answer (A) is incorrect because the approach should begin at the
EFC time, regardless of whether it is close to the planned ETA or
not; ETA is only used ifan EFC has not been received. Answer (B) is
incorrect because a pilot who is holding at an initialapproach fix after
ALL
having experienced a two-way radio communication failure without
9364. A pilot is flying in IFR weather conditions and has an EFC time should begin descent for the instrument approach so
two-way radio communications failure. What altitude that the arrival will coincide as closely as possible with the ETA.
should be used?

A— Last assigned altitude, altitude ATC has advised ALL

to expect, or the MEA, whichever is highest. 9389. What altitude and route should be used if the
B— An altitude that is at least 1,000 feet above the pilot is flying in IFR weather conditions and has two-way
highest obstacle along the route. radio communications failure?
C—A VFR altitude that is above the MEAfor each leg.
A— Continue on the route specified in the clearance
A pilotshould maintainthe highest altitudeor flight level and fly the highest of the following: the last
of the following for each route segment: assigned altitude, altitude ATC has informed the
pilot to expect, or to the MEA.
1. The altitude or flight level assigned in the last ATC
B— Descend to MEAand, if clear of clouds, proceed
clearance received;
to the nearest appropriate airport. If not clear of
2. The minimumaltitude or flightlevel forIFRoperations clouds, maintain the highest of the MEAs along
(MEA); or the clearance route.
C— Fly the most direct route to the destination,
maintaining the last assigned altitude or MEA,
whichever is higher.

Answers

9363 [C] 9364 [A] 9365 [C] 9389 [A]

7-6 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 7 Emergencies, Hazards, and Flight Physiology

// a two-way radio communication failure occurs while 3. In the absence of an assigned route, by the route
in IFR conditions the pilot should continue the flight by that ATC has advised may be expected in a further
the following route: clearance; or
1. By the route assigned in the last ATC clearance; 4. In the absence of an assigned route or a route that
2. Ifbeing radar vectored, by the direct route from the ATC has advised may be expected in a further clear
point of the radio failure to the fix, route or airway ance, by the route filed in the flightplan.
specified in the vector clearance; (PLT391) — 14 CFR §91.185
3. In the absence of an assigned route, by the route
that ATC has advised may be expected in a further
ALL
clearance; or
9098. Itis the responsibility of the pilot and crew to report
4. In the absence of an assigned route or a route that a near midair collision as a result of proximity of at least
ATChas advised may be expected in a furtherclear
A— 50 feet or less to another aircraft.
ance, by the route filed in the flightplan.
B— 500 feet or less to another aircraft.
A pilot should maintain the highest altitude or flightlevel C— 1,000 feet or less to another aircraft.
of the following for each route segment:
A near midair collision is defined as an incident associ
1. The altitude or flight level assigned in the last ATC ated with the operation on an aircraft in which a pos
clearance received; sibility of collision occurs as a result ofproximity of less
2. The minimumaltitude or flightlevel forIFRoperations than 500 feet to another aircraft, or a report is received
(MEA); or from a pilot or flightcrewmember stating that a collision
3. The altitude that ATChas advised may be expected hazard existed between two or more aircraft. (PLT366)
— AIM 17-6-3
in a further clearance.

(PLT391) — 14 CFR §91.185

Answer (B) is incorrect because the highest of either the MEA, ALL
expected altitude, or assigned altitude should be used. Answer (C) 9010. Under what condition should a pilot on IFR advise
is incorrect because, if ATCadvises you may expect an altitude after ATC of minimum fuel status?
reaching a clearance limit, and it is higher than the published MEA or
assigned altitude, the expected altitude should be used. The route to A— When the fuel supply becomes less than that
be used should be the one assigned by ATC, as specified in a vector required for IFR.
clearance, by the route ATC has advised may be expected, or in the
absence of all of these, the route as filed in the flight plan, not the B— Ifthe remaining fuel suggests a need for traffic or
most direct route. landing priority.
C— Ifthe remaining fuel precludes any undue delay.

ALL A pilot should advise ATCof his/her minimum fuel status

9390. While in IFR conditions, a pilot experiences two- when the fuel supply has reached a state where, upon
way radio communications failure. Which route should reaching destination, he/she cannot accept any undue
be flown in the absence of an ATC assigned route or a delay. Itindicates a possible future emergency, but does
route ATC has advised to expect in a further clearance? not declare one and does not get priority handling.
A— The most direct route to the filed alternate airport. (PLT318)—AIM15-5-15
B— An off-airway route to the point of departure. Answer (A) is incorrect because a pilot must ensure the minimum
amount of fuel is on board the airplane for the planned IFR flight and
C—The route filed in the flight plan. alternatives, if needed, during the flight planning phase. Answer (B)
is incorrect because, if the remaining fuel suggests a need for traffic
If a two-way radio communication failure occurs while or landing priority, the pilot should declare an emergency (not mini
in IFR conditions the pilot should continue the flight by mum fuel status), and report fuel remaining in minutes.
the following route:
1. By the route assigned in the last ATC clearance;
2. Ifbeing radar vectored, by the direct route from the
point of the radio failure to the fix, route or airway
specified in the vector clearance;

Answers

9390 [C] 9098 [B] 9010 [C]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 7-7

Chapter 7 Emergencies, Hazards, and Flight Physiology

ALL ALL

9011. What does the term "minimum fuel" imply to ATC? 9054. What airport condition is reported by the tower
A— Traffic priority is needed to the destination airport. when more than one wind condition at different positions
B— Emergency handling is required to the nearest on the airport is reported?
suitable airport. A— Light and variable.
C—Advisory that indicates an emergency situation is B— Wind shear.
possible should an undue delay occur. C—Frontal passage.

A pilot should advise ATCof his/her minimum fuel status The Low-Level Wind Shear Alert System (LLWAS) is
when the fuel supply has reached a state where, upon a computerized system which detects low level wind
reaching destination, he/she cannot accept any undue shear by continuously comparing the winds measured
delay. Itindicates a possible future emergency, but does by sensors installed around the periphery of an airport
not declare one and does not get priority handling. with the wind measured at the center field location. When
(PLT318) — AIM 15-5-15 a significant difference exists, the tower controller will
Answer (A) is incorrect because a pilot should declare an emer provide aircraft with an advisory of the situation which
gency and report fuel remaining in minutes if trafficpriorityis needed includes the center field wind plus the remote site loca
to the destination airport. Answer (B) is incorrect because emer tion and wind. (PLT518) — AIM 14-3-7
gency handling to the nearest suitable airport would be required in a
distress or urgent type of emergency. Answer (A) is incorrect because "light and variable"is used to report
the wind conditions when wind speed is less than 5 knots. Answer
(C) is incorrect because a frontal passage is normally indicated by a
change in wind direction, but it is usually not reported by the tower.
ALL

9420. You should advise ATC of minimum fuel status

when your fuel supply has reached a state where, ALL
upon reaching your destination, you cannot accept any 9050. Under what condition does ATC issue safety
undue delay. alerts?
A—This will ensure your priority handling by ATC. A— When collision with another aircraft is imminent.
B— ATC will consider this action as if you had B— If the aircraft altitude is noted to be in close
declared an emergency. proximity to the surface or an obstacle.
C— If your remaining usable fuel supply suggests the C—When weather conditions are extreme and wind
need for traffic priority to ensure a safe landing, shear or large hail is in the vicinity.
declare an emergency due to low fuel and report
fuel remaining in minutes. A safety alert will be issued to pilots of aircraft being
controlled by ATC if the controller is aware the aircraft is
If the remaining usable fuel supply suggests the need at an altitude which, in the controller'sjudgment, places
for traffic priority to ensure a safe landing, you should the aircraft in unsafe proximity to terrain, obstructions
declare an emergency due to low fuel and report fuel or other aircraft. (PLT172) — AIM 14-1-16
remaining in minutes. (PLT318) —AIM 15-5-15 Answer (A) is incorrect because a safety alert is issued to a pilot if
Answer (A) is incorrect because minimum fuel advisory does not ATC believes that his/her airplane is at an altitude which wouldplace
imply a need for a traffic priority. Answer (B) is incorrect because it in unsafe proximity to another airplane. Answer (C) is incorrect
minimum fuel advisory is not an emergency situation, but merely an because, when weather conditions are extreme and wind shear or
advisory that indicates an emergency situation is possible should large hail is in the vicinity, a Convective SIGMET would be broadcast.
any undue delay occur.

ALL

9119. Which flight conditions of a large jet airplane cre

ate the most severe flight hazard by generating wingtip
vortices of the greatest strength?
A— Heavy, slow, gear and flaps up.
B— Heavy, slow, gear and flaps down.
C— Heavy, fast, gear and flaps down.

The greatest vortex strength occurs when the generat

ing aircraftis heavy, clean (gear and flaps up) and slow.
(PLT509) —AIM 17-3-3

Answers

9011 [C] 9420 [C] 9054 [B] 9050 [B] 9119 [A]

7-8 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 7 Emergencies, Hazards, and Flight Physiology

ALL ALL
9120. Hazardous vortex turbulence that might be 9123. Which statement is true concerning the wake
encountered behind large aircraft is created only when turbulence produced by a large transport aircraft?
that aircraft is
A— Vortices can be avoided by flying 300 feet below
A—developing lift. and behind the flightpath of the generating
B—operating at high airspeeds. aircraft.
C—using high power settings. B— The vortex characteristics of any given aircraft
may be altered by extending the flaps or
Liftis generated by the creation of a pressure differen changing the speed.
tial over the wing surface. The lowest pressure occurs C—Wake turbulence behind a propeller-driven
over the upper wing surface and the highest pressure aircraft is negligible because jet engine thrust is a
under the wing. Thispressure differentialtriggers the roll necessary factor in the formation of vortices.
up of the airflow aft of the wing resulting in swirling air
masses trailing downstream of the wing tips. (PLT509) The strength of the vortex is governed by the weight,
— AIM 17-3-2 speed and shape of the wing of the generating aircraft.
Answer (B) is incorrect because hazardous vortex turbulence is The vortex characteristics of a given aircraft can be
created only when the aircraft is developing lift, which can be while changed by extension of flaps or other wing configur
operating at low or high airspeeds. A slow, heavy, and clean airplane ing devices as well as by a change in speed. (PLT509)
will generate the most hazardous vortex turbulence. Answer (C) is
incorrect because most takeoff rolls are at high power settings, but — AIM 17-3-3
the generation of vortices does not occur until lift is produced. Land Answer (A) is incorrect because the vortices generated by large
ing approaches are also conducted at lower power settings; vortex transport aircraft tend to sink below and behind, thus vortices can be
turbulence is produced whenever an airplane is producing lift. expected by flying 300 feet below and behind the flight path of the
generating aircraft. Answer (C) is incorrect because wake turbulence
vortices are generated by lift produced by any airplane. It does not
ALL
matter whether the airplane is powered by propeller or jet engines.

9121. Wingtip vortices created by large aircraft tend to

A—sink below the aircraft generating the turbulence. ALL
B— rise from the surface to traffic pattern altitude. 9124. What effect would a light crosswind have on the
C—accumulate and remain for a period of time at the wingtip vortices generated by a large airplane that has
point where the takeoff roll began. just taken off?
A— The upwind vortex will tend to remain on the
Flight tests have shown that the vortices from large
runway longer than the downwind vortex.
aircraft sink at a rate of several hundred feet per min
B— A crosswind will rapidly dissipate the strength of
ute. They tend to level off at a distance about 900 feet
both vortices.
below the flightpath of the generating aircraft. (PLT509)
C—The downwind vortex will tend to remain on the
— AIM 17-3-4
runway longer than the upwind vortex.
Answer (B) is incorrect because vortices created by large aircraft
tend to sink from (not rise into) the traffic pattern altitude. Answer
(C) is incorrect because wing-tip vortices are not generated until the A crosswind will decrease the lateral movement of the
aircraft's wings develop lift, so no wing-tip vortices are generated at upwind vortex and increase the movement of the down
the point where the takeoff roll begins. wind vortex. Thus, a light wind of 3 to 7 knots could result
in the upwind vortex remaining in the touchdown zone
fora period of time and hasten the driftof the downwind
ALL
vortex toward another runway. (PLT509) — AIM 17-3-4
9122. How does the wake turbulence vortex circulate
Answer (B) is incorrect because a crosswind will hold the upwind
around each wingtip? vortex in the vicinity of the runway.Answer (C) is incorrect because
A— Inward, upward, and around the wingtip. the downwind vortex moves away at a faster rate than the upwind
vortex.
B—Counterclockwise when viewed from behind the
aircraft.
C—Outward, upward, and around the wingtip.

The vortex circulation is outward, upward and around

the wing tips when viewed from either ahead or behind
the aircraft. (PLT509) — AIM 17-3-4

Answers

9120 [A] 9121 [A] 9122 [C] 9123 [B] 9124 [A]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 7-9

Chapter 7 Emergencies, Hazards, and Flight Physiology

ALL ALL

9125. To avoid the wingtip vortices of a departing jet 9127. If you take off behind a heavy jet that has just
airplane during takeoff, the pilot should landed, you should plan to lift off
A— lift off at a point well past the jet airplane's flightpath. A— prior to the point where the jet touched down.
B— climb above and stay upwind of the jet airplane's B— beyond the point where the jet touched down.
flightpath. C—at the point where the jet touched down and on
C— remain below the flightpath of the jet airplane. the upwind edge of the runway.

When departing behind a large aircraft, note its rotation When departing behind a large aircraft which has just
point and rotate prior to that point. During the climb, stay landed, note the aircraft's touchdown point and rotate
above and upwind of the large aircraft's climb path until past that point on the runway. (PLT509) — AIM 17-3-6
turning clear of its wake. (PLT509) — AIM 17-3-4 Answer (A) is incorrect because a lift-offprior to the point where the
Answer (A) is incorrect because, if you rotate beyond the jet's rota jet touched down would force you to climb through the jet's vortices.
tion point, you will have to fly up into the jet's vortices. Answer (C) Answer (C) is incorrect because lift-off should be planned beyond
is incorrect because the jet's vortices will sink. Ifyou stay below the the point of touchdown toensure that you avoid the vortices, and you
jet's flight path, you will fly in the area of the vortices. should remain on the center of the runway during takeoff.

ALL ALL

9126. What wind condition prolongs the hazards of 9715. To allow pilots of in-trail lighter aircraft to make
wake turbulence on a landing runway for the longest flight path adjustments to avoid wake turbulence, pilots
period of time? of heavy and large jet aircraft should fly
A— Direct tailwind. A— below the established glidepath and slightly to
B— Light quartering tailwind. either side of the on-course centerline.
C— Light quartering headwind. B— on the established glidepath and on the approach
course centerline or runway centerline extended.
A crosswind will decrease the lateral movement of C—above the established glidepath and slightly
the upwind vortex and increase the movement of the downwind of the on-course centerline.
downwind vortex. Thus a light wind of 3 to 7knots could
result in the upwind vortex remaining in the touchdown Pilots of aircraft that produce strong wake vortices
zone for a period of time and hasten the drift of the should make every attempt to fly on the established
downwind vortex toward another runway. Similarly, a glidepath, and as closely as possible to the approach
tailwind condition can move the vortices of the preced course centerline or to the extended centerline of the
ing aircraft forward into the touchdown zone. The light, runway of intended landing. (PLT509) — AIM 17-3-8
quartering tailwindrequires maximum caution. (PLT509)
— AIM 17-3-4
ALL
Answer (A) is incorrect because, even though a direct tailwind can
move the vortices of a preceding aircraft forward into the touchdown 9858. Which phase of flight has the greatest occurrence
zone, it is not as hazardous because both vortices would move of fatal accidents?
to the sides (and not remain on the runway). Answer (C) is incor
A— Takeoff.
rect because a light quartering headwind would move the vortices
toward the runway threshold, away from (not into) the touchdown B— Landing.
zone on a landing runway. C—Approach.

The pilot's work requirements vary depending on the

mode of flight. The tasks increase significantly during
the landing phase, creating greater risk to the pilot and
warranting actions that require greater precision and
attention, but the greatest percentage of fatal accidents
occurs during the approach phase of flight. (PLT509)
— FAA-H-8083-2

Answers

9125 [B] 9126 [B] 9127 [B] 9715 [B] 9858 [C]

7-10 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 7 Emergencies, Hazards, and Flight Physiology

Flight Physiology
Even small amounts of alcohol have an adverse effect on reaction and judgment. This effect is magni
fied as altitude increases. No one may serve as a crewmember on a civil aircraft:
• Within 8 hours of the consumption of any alcoholic beverage.
• While having a blood alcohol level of .04% or higher.

Runway width illusion —A runway that is narrower than usual can create the illusion that the air
craft is higher than it really is. This can cause an unwary pilot to descend too low on approach. Awide
runway creates an illusion of being too low on glide slope.
Featureless terrain illusion —An absence of ground feature, as when landing over water, dark
ened areas and terrain made featureless by snow can create the illusion that the aircraft is higher than
it really is.
Autokinesis —Inthe dark, a static lightwill appear to move about when stared at for a period of time.
An effective scan pattern is necessary to ensure that a pilot will see other aircraft in time to avoid
potential midair collisions. This means that 2/3 to 3/4 of a pilot's time should be spent scanning outside
the aircraft. The best method would be to look outside for about 15 seconds and then inside for about
5 seconds. It is much easier to see an aircraft which is moving relative to the observer. Unfortunately,
aircraft which present a collision hazard are usually on the horizon with little or no apparent horizontal or
vertical movement. The image only grows larger as the threat aircraft gets closer. Special vigilance must
be exercised for this type of situation. A pilot's most acute night vision is off-center in his/her peripheral
vision. When looking for other aircraft at night, scan slowly to allow sufficient time for this off-center
viewing.
All pilots who fly in instrument conditions or at night are subject to spatial disorientation. This occurs
when body sensations are used to interpret flight attitudes, and there is no visual reference to the hori
zon. The only reliable wayto overcome this disorientation is to rely entirely on the indications ofthe flight
instruments. Some types of vertigo include:
The leans —An abrupt correction of a banked angle can create the illusion of banking inthe opposite
direction.
Coriolis illusion —An abrupt head movement during a constant rate turn can create the illusion of
rotation in an entirely different axis. This illusion can be overwhelming and so rapid head movements in
turns should be avoided.
Inversion illusion —An abrupt change from a climbto straight and level flight can create the illusion
of tumbling backwards.
Somatogravic illusion —A rapid acceleration during takeoff can create the illusion of being in a
nose up attitude.
Hypoxia iscaused by insufficient oxygen reaching the brain. The most usual reason isthe low partial
pressure of oxygen encountered at altitude. Carbon monoxide poisoning is similar to hypoxia in that it
causes too little oxygen to reach the brain. Carbon monoxide (usually from an exhaust leak) binds with
the hemoglobin in the blood, preventing its usual oxygen-carrying function. The symptoms of both are
similar and include dizziness, tingling ofthe hands, feet and legs, loss of higher thought processes, and
unconsciousness. The sufferer may not notice or react to any of the symptoms due to his degraded
mental faculties. Hyperventilation is caused by a reduction of carbon dioxide in the blood, usually due
to rapid breathing in a stressful situation. The symptoms of hyperventilation are similar to hypoxia, but
recovery is rapid once the rate of breathing is brought under control.

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 7-11

Chapter 7 Emergencies, Hazards, and Flight Physiology

ALL ALL
9354. A person may not act as a crewmember of a civil 9111-1. Pilot performance can be seriously degraded by
aircraft if alcoholic beverages have been consumed by A— prescribed and over-the-counter medications.
that person within the preceding
B— prescription medications only.
A—8 hours. C—over-the-counter medications only.
B—12 hours.
C—24 hours. Pilot performance can be seriously degraded by both
prescribed and over-the-counter medications, as well
No person may act or attempt to act as a crewmember as by the medical conditions for which they are taken.
of a civil aircraft within 8 hours after the consumption Manymedications have primaryeffects thatmay impair
of any alcoholic beverage. (PLT463) — 14 CFR §91.17 judgment, memory, alertness, coordination, vision, and
the ability to make calculations. Others have side effects
that may impair the same critical functions. Any medi
ALL
cation that depresses the nervous system, such as a
9354-1. A pilot should be aware the alcohol in one beer sedative, tranquilizer or antihistamine, can make a pilot
can be detected for as long as much more susceptible to hypoxia. Pilots are prohibited
A— minimum of 60 minutes. from performing crewmember duties while using any
B—2 hours. medication thataffects the faculties in any way contrary
C—3 hours. to safety. (PLT354) — AIM 18-1-1

As little as one ounce of liquor, one bottle of beer or four

ounces of wine can impairflyingskills, with the alcohol ALL

consumed in these drinks being detectable in the breath 9107. When making an approach to a narrower-than-
and blood forat least 3 hours. (PLT104) — AIM 18-1-1 usual runway, without VASI assistance, the pilot should
be aware that the approach
A—altitude may be higher than it appears.
ALL
B—altitude may be lower than it appears.
9111. What is the effect of alcohol consumption on C—may result in leveling offtoo high and landing hard.
functions of the body?
A— Alcohol has an adverse effect, especially as An approach to a narrower-than-usual runway can cre
altitude increases. ate the illusion thatthe aircraft is higherthanitactually
B— Small amounts of alcohol in the human system is. (PLT280) — AIM 18-1-5
increase judgment and decision-making abilities. Answer (A) is incorrect because wider-than-usual runways may
C—Alcohol has little effect iffollowed by an ounce of result in higher than desired approaches. Answer (C) is incorrect
black coffee for every ounce of alcohol. because levelingoff too high is not affected by the runway width, but
ratherby the pilot's landing proficiency.

Theadverse effect of alcohol is greatly multiplied when a

person is exposed to altitude. Two drinks on the ground ALL
are equivalent to three or fourat altitude. (PLT205) — 9107-1. You have just touched down hard in the rain
AIM 18-1-1
on a narrower-than-usual runway at night. You realize
Answer (B) is incorrect because even small amounts of alcohol you have just experienced
impair judgment and decision-making abilities. Answer (C) is incor
rect because there is no way to increase the body's metabolism of A— runway length illusion.
alcoholor to alleviate a hangover(including drinking black coffee). B— an atmospheric height illusion.
C—ground lighting illusion.

Anapproach to a narrower-than-usual runway can cre

ate the illusion that the aircraft is higher than itactually
is. (PLT280) — AIM 18-1-5

Answers
9354 [A] 9354-1 [C] 9111 [A] 9111-1 [A] 9107 [B] 9107-1 [B]

7-12 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 7 Emergencies, Hazards, and Flight Physiology

ALL ALL

9109. In the dark, a stationary light will appear to 9108. The illusion of being in a noseup attitude which
move when stared at for a period of time. This illusion may occur during a rapid acceleration takeoff is known as
is known as A— inversion illusion.
A— somatogravic illusion. B— autokinesis.
B—ground lighting illusion. C—somatogravic illusion.
C—autokinesis.
A rapid acceleration during takeoff can create the illu
In the dark, a stationary light willappear to move about sion of being in a nose-up attitude. This is known as a
when stared at formany seconds. This illusion is known Somatogravic Illusion. (PLT280) — AIM 18-1-5
as Autokinesis. (PLT280) — AIM 18-1-5 Answer (A) is incorrect because the inversion illusion results from
Answer (A) is incorrect because somatogravic illusion occurs witha an abrupt change from climb to straight-and-level flight which can
rapid acceleration during takeoff, creating the illusion of being in a create an illusion of tumbling backwards. Answer (B) is incorrect
nose-up attitude. Answer (B) is incorrect because a ground lighting because autokinesis refers to a stationary light appearing to move
illusion refers to lights on a straight path such as a road being mis about when stared at for many seconds in the dark.
taken by a pilot for runway or approach lights.

ALL

ALL 9114. What is the most effective way to use the eyes
9110. When making a landing over darkened or fea during night flight?
tureless terrain such as water or snow, a pilot should be A— Look only at far away, dim lights.
aware of the possibility of illusion. The approach may B—Scan slowly to permit offcenter viewing.
appear to be too C—Concentrate directly on each object for a few
A—high. seconds.
B— low.
C—shallow. One should scan slowly at night to permit off-center
viewing of dim objects. (PLT099) — FAA-H-8083-3
An absence of ground features, when landing over Answer (A) is incorrectbecause pilots must look at theirgauges and
water, darkened areas and terrain made featureless instruments, which are about 2 feet in frontof them. Answer (C) is
incorrectbecause peripheral (off-center) vision is more effective at
by snow, can create the illusion that the aircraft is at a night.
higheraltitude thanitactuallyis. (PLT280)—AIM 18-1-5

ALL
ALL 9116. Which observed target aircraft would be of most
9110-1. You have just touched down on the runway concern with respect to collision avoidance?
faster than planned in the haze at night. You realize
that you have just experienced A—One which appears to be ahead and moving from
left to right at high speed.
A— an atmospheric distance illusion. B— One which appears to be ahead and moving from
B—a gravotopic height illusion. right to left at slow speed.
C—the elevator illusion. C—One which appears to be ahead with no lateral or
vertical movement and is increasing in size.
An absence of ground features, when landing over
water, darkened areas and terrain made featureless Anyaircraft that appears to have no relative motion and
by snow, can create the illusion that the aircraft is at a stays in one scan quadrant is likely to be on a collision
higher altitude than itactually is. (PLT280) —AIM 18-1-5 course. Ifa target shows no lateral or vertical motion,
but increases in size, take evasive action. (PLT099) —
AIM 18-1-8
Answers (A) and (B) are incorrect because an airplane which is
ahead of you and moving from left to right, or from right to left,
should pass in frontof you.

Answers

9109 [C] 9110 [A] 9110-1 [A] 9108 [C] 9114 [B] 9116 [C]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 7-13

Chapter 7 Emergencies, Hazards, and Flight Physiology

ALL
When seated on an unstable moving platformat altitude
9117. Scanning procedures for effective collision avoid with your vision cut off from the earth, horizon or other
ance should constitute fixed reference, you are susceptible to misinterpreting
A— looking outside for 15 seconds, then inside for 5 certain body sensations caused by angular accelera
seconds, then repeat. tions. (PLT334) —AIM 18-1-5
B— 1 minute inside scanning, then 1 minute outside Answer (A) is incorrectbecause ignoring or overcoming the sensa
scanning, then repeat. tions of muscles and innerear is a means of avoiding (notbecoming
subject to) spatial disorientation. Answer (B) is incorrect because
C—looking outside every 30 seconds except in radar rapid eye movements have little or no impact on spatial disorienta
contact when outside scanning is unnecessary. tion and vision reference to reliable flight instruments helps avoid
spatial disorientation.
Studies show that the timea pilotspends on visual tasks
inside the cabin should represent no more than 1/4 to
1/3 of the scan time outside, or no more than 4 to 5 ALL

seconds on the instrument panel for every 16 seconds 9113. Which procedure is recommended to prevent or
outside. (PLT099) — AIM 18-1-6 overcome spatial disorientation?
Answer (B) is incorrectbecause pilots should spend the majority of A— Reduce head and eye movement to the greatest
scan time outside the airplane when in VFR conditions. Answer (C) possible extent.
is incorrect because pilots should spend the majority of scan time
outside the airplane, and outside scanning is necessary when in B— Rely on the kinesthetic sense.
radar contact in VFR conditions. C—Rely entirely on the indications of the flight
instruments.

ALL The best method to prevent or overcome spatial disori

9118. When using the Earth's horizon as a reference entation is to relyentirelyon the indications of the flight
point to determine the relative position of other aircraft, instruments. (PLT334) — AIM 18-1-5
most concern would be for aircraft Answer (A) is incorrectbecause head and eye movement have little
effect on spatial disorientation. Answer (B) is incorrect because
A— above the horizon and increasing in size. relying on the kinesthetic sense encourages (not prevents) spatial
B— on the horizon with little relative movement. disorientation.
C—on the horizon and increasing in size.

Any aircraftthat appears to have no relative motion and ALL

stays in one scan quadrant is likely to be on a collision 9115. While making prolonged constant rate turns under
course. If a target shows no lateral or vertical motion, IFR conditions, an abrupt head movement can create
but increases in size, take evasive action. (PLT099) — the illusion of rotation on an entirely different axis. This
AIM 18-1-8 is known as
Answer (A) is incorrect because an airplane above the horizon is A— autokinesis.
probably at a higher altitude. Answer (B) is incorrect because an
airplane on the horizon without movement may be traveling in the B—Coriolis illusion.
same direction as you. C—the leans.

An abrupt head movement while making a prolonged

ALL constant rate turn, can produce a strong sensation of
9112. A pilot is more subject to spatial disorientation rotation or movement in an entirely different axis. The
when phenomenon is known as Coriolis Illusion. (PLT280)
A— ignoring or overcoming the sensations of muscles — AIM 18-1-5
and inner ear. Answer (A) is incorrect because Autokinesis refers to a stationary
B— eyes are moved often in the process of cross light appearing to move about when stared at for many seconds
in the dark. Answer (C) is incorrect because the "leans"refer to an
checking the flight instruments. abrupt correction of a banked attitude which can create the illusion
C—body sensations are used to interpretflight of bank in the opposite direction.
attitudes.

Answers

9117 [A] 9118 [C] 9112 [C] 9113 [C] 9115 [B]

7-14 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 7 Emergencies, Hazards, and Flight Physiology

ALL ALL

9433. Haze can give the illusion that the aircraft is 9102. Which would most likelyresult in hyperventilation?
A—closer to the runway than it actually is. A— A stressful situation causing anxiety.
B— farther from the runway than it actually is. B—The excessive consumption of alcohol.
C—the same distance from the runway as when C—An extremely slow rate of breathing and
there is no restriction to visibility. insufficient oxygen.

Atmospheric haze can create an illusion of being at a You are most likely to hyperventilate when under stress
greater distance from the runwaythanyou actually are. or at high altitudes. (PLT332) — AIM 18-1-3
(PLT280)—AIM 18-1-5 Answer (B) is incorrect because excessive consumption of alcohol
results in intoxication, not hyperventilation. Answer (C) is incorrect
because a slow rate of breathing is the cure for hyperventilation,
and insufficient oxygen is the cause of hypoxia, not hyperventilation.
ALL
9434. Sudden penetration of fog can create the illusion of
A— pitching up. ALL
B— pitching down. 9103. What causes hypoxia?
C—leveling off. A— Excessive carbon dioxide in the atmosphere.
B—An increase in nitrogen content of the air at high
Penetration of fog can create an illusion of pitching up.
altitudes.
(PLT280) —AIM 18-1-5
C—A decrease of oxygen partial pressure.

ALL
Lowpartialpressureofoxygencauses hypoxia. (PLT330)
9435. What illusion, if any, can rain on the windscreen — AIM 18-1-2
create? Answer (A) is incorrect because the percentage of carbon dioxide
and oxygen in the atmosphere remains constant with changes
A— Does not cause illusions. in altitude, but there is less pressure as you increase in altitude.
B— Lower than actual. Answer (B) is incorrect because relative nitrogen content also
remains constant at high altitudes, but there is less pressure.
C—Higher than actual.

Rain on the windscreen can create an illusion of being

ALL
at a higheraltitude thanyou are. (PLT280)—AIM 18-1-5 9104. Which is a common symptom of hyperventilation?
A—Tingling of the hands, legs, and feet.
ALL B— Increased vision keenness.
9101. What is a symptom of carbon monoxide poisoning? C—Decreased breathing rate.
A— Rapid, shallow breathing.
Symptoms of hyperventilation include dizziness, tin
B— Pain and cramping of the hands and feet.
gling of the extremities, sensation of body heat, rapid
C—Dizziness.
heart rate, blurring of vision, muscle spasm and, finally,
Carbon monoxide poisoning produces the same symp unconsciousness. (PLT332) — AIM 18-1-3
toms as hypoxia, which include dizziness. (PLT097) Answer (B) is incorrectbecause hyperventilation distorts one's abili
ties. Answer (C) is incorrectbecause decreasing the breathing rate
— AIM 18-1-4 overcomes hyperventilation and is not a symptomof it.
Answer(A)is incorrect because rapid breathing can resultin hyper
ventilation, but it is not a symptom of carbon monoxide poisoning.
Answer(B) is incorrect because tingling in the extremities (notpain
and cramping) is one symptomof hyperventilation (not carbonmon
oxide poisoning).

Answers

9433 [B] 9434 [A] 9435 [C] 9101 [C] 9102 [A] 9103 [C]
9104 [A]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 7-15

Chapter 7 Emergencies, Hazards, and Flight Physiology

ALL ALL
9105. Loss of cabin pressure may result in hypoxia 9778. An experienced pilot trying to meet a schedule
because as cabin altitude increases
A—can expect the flight crew to alert them to
A—the percentage of nitrogen in the air is increased. problems or areas of concern.
B— the percentage of oxygen in the air is decreased. B— will always err on the side of caution.
C—oxygen partial pressure is decreased. C—can fail to perceive operational pitfalls.

Lowpartialpressure of oxygen causes hypoxia. (PLT330) Although more experienced pilots are likely to make
— AIM 18-1-2 more automatic decisions, there are tendencies or
Answers (A) and (B) are incorrectbecause the percentage of nitro operational pitfalls that come with the development of
gen, carbon dioxide and oxygen in the atmosphere remains constant pilot experience. These are classic behavioral traps into
with changes in altitude, but there is less pressure as you increase
in altitude.
whichpilots have been known to fall. More experienced
pilots (as a rule) try to complete a flight as planned,
please passengers, and meet schedules. The desire to
ALL meet these goals can have an adverse effect on safety
9106. Hypoxia is the result of which of these conditions? and contribute to an unrealistic assessment of piloting
skills. (PLT104) — FAA-H-8083-25
A— Insufficient oxygen reaching the brain.
B— Excessive carbon dioxide in the bloodstream.
C— Limited oxygen reaching the heart muscles. ALL
9778-1. Automatic Decision-Making is
Hypoxia is a resultof too little oxygen reaching the brain.
(PLT330) — AIM 18-1-2 A— a reflexive type of decision-making.
Answer (B) is incorrect because excessive carbon dioxide in the
B— an impulsive type of decision-making.
blood stream causes hyperventilation. Answer (C) is incorrect C—an internalized type of decision-making.
because it is the result of insufficientoxygen to the brain.
Automatic decision-making is a reflexive type of decision
making anchored in training and experience and is most
ALL often used in times of emergency when there is no
9856. Human behavior time to practice analytical decision-making. (PLT104)
A— rarely results in accidents unless deliberate — FAA-H-8083-2
actions are performed.
B— is responsible for three out of four accidents.
ALL
C—is well understood, so behavioral induced
accidents are exceedingly rare occurrences. 9804. The crew monitoring function is essential,
A— particularly during high altitude cruise flight
Three out of fouraccidents result from improperhuman modes to prevent CAT issues.
performance. The human element is the most flexible, B— particularly during approach and landing to
adaptable, and valuable part of the aviation system, prevent CFIT.
but it is also the most vulnerable to influences that can C—during RNAV departures in class B airspace.
adversely affect its performance. (PLT104) — FAA-H-
8083-2 Effective monitoring and cross-checkingcan be the last
line of defense thatprevents an accident because detect
ing an erroror unsafe situation may break the chain of
events leading to an accident. This monitoring function
is alwaysessential, andparticularly so during approach
and landing when controlled flight into terrain (CFIT)
accidents are most common. (PLT104)—AC 120-71A

Answers

9105 [C] 9106 [A] 9856 [B] 9778 [C] 9778-1 [A] 9804 [B]

7-16 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 7 Emergencies, Hazards, and Flight Physiology

ALL ALL
9804-1. In order to achieve the highest level of safety, 9805-2. CRM is defined as

A— each flight crewmember must carefully monitor A— application of team management in the flight deck
the aircraft's flight path. environment.
B— the crewmembers must continually monitor their B— the use of human factors principles in the aviation
seat dependent tasks. environment.
C—the captain's judgment must not be questioned. C—a human error avoidance approach to aviation
management in the flight deck.
The FAA expects the flight crew to monitorthe aircraft's
flightpath. (PLT354) — AC 120-71A Crew resource management (CRM) is the applica
tion of team management concepts in the flight deck
environment. It was initiallyknown as cockpit resource
ALL management, butas CRM programsevolved to include
9805. CRM training refers to cabin crews, maintenance personnel, and others, the
A—the two components of flight safety and resource phrase "crew resource management" was adopted.
management, combined with mentor feedback. (PLT104) — FAA-H-8083-2
B—the three components of initial indoctrination
awareness, recurrent practice and feedback, and
ALL
continual reinforcement.
9805-3. Cultural issues in CRM
C—the five components of initial indoctrination
awareness, communication principles, recurrent A— are not appropriate subjects for effective CRM
practice and feedback, coordination drills, and training in any population.
continual reinforcement. B— must be addressed for each training population.
C—can be discussed if the training syllabus allows
The critical components of effective crew resource training time for those topics.
management (CRM) training include initial indoctrina
tion awareness, recurrent practice and feedback, and While individuals and even teams of individuals may
continual reinforcement. (PLT104) — AC120-51 perform wellundermany conditions, theyare subject to
the influence of at least three cultures: the professional
cultures of the individuals themselves, the cultures of
ALL their organizations, and thenational cultures surrounding
9805-1. CRM error management includes the individuals and theirorganizations. Ifnot recognized
A— effective use of all available resources: human and addressed, factors related to culture may degrade
resources, hardware, and information. crew performance. Hence, effective CRM training must
B—error callout and error guidance training. address culture issues, as appropriate in each training
C—error prevention, error detection, and recovery population. (PLT104)—AC 120-51
from the error.

ALL
It is now understood that pilot errors cannot be entirely
eliminated. Itis important, therefore, thatpilots develop 9805-4. Crew resource management (CRM) is
appropriate error management skills and procedures. A— a dilution of the captain's authority.
It is certainly desirable to prevent as many errors as B— the only method of accident avoidance and error
possible, butsince they cannot all be prevented, detec prevention.
tion and recovery from errors should be addressed in C—one way to make good decisions.
training. Evaluation of pilots should also consider error
management (errorprevention, detection, andrecovery). CRM refers to the effective use ofall available resources:
(PLT104) — AC 120-51 human resources, hardware, and information. CRM
training is one way ofaddressing the challenge of opti
mizing the human/machine interface and accompany
ing interpersonal activities, including decisionmaking.
(PLT104) — AC 120-51

Answers

9804-1 [A] 9805 [B] 9805-1 [C] 9805-2 [A] 9805-3 [B] 9805-4 [C]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 7-17

Chapter 7 Emergencies, Hazards, and Flight Physiology

ALL ALL
9805-5. Risk management, as part of the aeronautical 9816. An experienced pilot mistakes the runway head
decision making (ADM) process, relies on which features ing for the instructed heading for departure. What kind
to reduce the risks associated with each flight? of error is this?
A—Application of stress management and risk A— Experience error.
element procedures. B— Detection error.
B—Situational awareness, problem recognition, and C—Insight detection.
good judgment.
C—The mental process of analyzing all information in Problem detection is the firststep in the decision-mak
a particular situation and making a timely decision ing process. It begins with recognizing that a change
on what action to take. occurred or that an expected change did not occur. A
problem is perceived first by the senses and then it is
Risk management is the part of the decision making determined through insightand experience. These same
process which relies on situational awareness, problem abilities, as wellas an objective analysis of all available
recognition, and goodjudgment to reduce risks associ information, are used to determine the nature and sever
ated with each flight. (PLT104) — FAA-H-8083-2 ity of the problem. Therefore, incorrectly detecting the
problem to begin with is an error thatis critical during a
decision-making process. (PLT104) — FAA-H-8083-25A
ALL

9806. The error management evaluation process

ALL
A— should recognize not all errors can be prevented.
B— may include error evaluation that should have 9816-1. An experienced, current, and proficient pilotfails
been prevented. to notice the landing gear is not extended for landing.
C—must count errors as disqualifying. This is an example of
A—systems training.
It is certainly desirable to prevent as many errors as B—problem detection.
possible, but since they cannot all be prevented, detec C—procedures knowledge.
tion and recovery from errors should be addressed in
training. Error management (errorprevention, detection, Problem detection is the first step in the decision-mak
and recovery) should be considered in the evaluation ing process. It begins with recognizing that a change
of pilots, as well as the fact that since not all errors can occurred or that an expected change did not occur. A
be prevented, it is important that errors be managed problem is perceived first by the senses and then it is
properly. (PLT104) — AC120-51 determined through insightand experience. These same
abilities, as well as an objective analysis of all avail
able information, are used to determine the nature and
severityof theproblem. Therefore, incorrectly detecting
a problem to begin with is an error thatis critical during
a decision-makingprocess. (PLT104) — FAA-H-8083-25

ALL

9832. Accident-prone pilots tend to

A— have disdain toward rules.
B—follow methodical information gathering
techniques.
C—excessively utilize outside resources.

Oneof theprimary characteristics exhibited byaccident-

prone pilots was their disdain toward rules. (PLT103)
— FAA-H-8083-2

Answers

9805-5 [B] 9806 [A] 9816 [B] 9816-1 [B] 9832 [A]

7-18 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter7 Emergencies, Hazards, and Flight Physiology

ALL ALL

9815. When a recently certificated pilot decides to not 9833. An air carrier crew fixated on completing the last
wait any longer for the fog and lowceilings to burn off, flight of a four day trip often may exhibit
this pilot may be exhibiting the hazardous A— get-there-itis.
A— resigned attitude. B— staged decision-making.
B— macho attitude. C—naturalistic decision-making.
C—impulsive attitude.
There are a number of classic behavioral traps into
ADM addresses the following five hazardous attitudes: which pilots have been known to fall. These danger
Antiauthority (don't tell me!), Impulsivity (dosomething ous tendencies or behavior patterns, which must be
quickly!), Invulnerability (it won't happen tome), Macho identified and eliminated, include: peer pressure, mind
(I can do it), Resignation (what's the use?). This pilot set, get-there-itis, duck-under syndrome, scudrunning,
is exhibiting an impulsive attitude by departing before continuing visual flight rules into instrument conditions,
conditions warrant. (PLT103) — FAA-H-8083-2 getting behind the aircraft, loss ofpositional orsituation
awareness, operating without adequate fuel reserves,
descent below the minimum enroute altitude, flying
ALL outside theenvelope, neglectof flight planning, preflight
9815-1. When an aircraft pilottakes offas ordered inthe inspections, checklists, etc. (PLT104) —FAA-H-8083-2
afternoon when embedded thunderstorms are indicated
on radar and NOAA is broadcasting weather watches,
it might be described as an example of ALL
9834. An air carrier aircraft flown into the ground while
A—the resigned effect. troubleshooting a landing gear fault is an example of
B— an anti-authority attitude.
C—an impulsive attitude. A— neglect and reliance on memory.
B— loss of situational awareness.
ADM addresses the following five hazardous attitudes: C—lack of aviation experience.
Antiauthority (don't tell me!), Impulsivity (dosomething
quickly!), Invulnerability (it won't happen to me), Macho Instances of human factoraccidents include operational
(I can doit), andResignation (what's the use?). This pilot errors that relate to loss of situational awareness and
is exhibiting a resignedattitude byleaving thedeparture flying outside the envelope. These can be termed as
decision up to others. Pilots who think, "What's the use?" operational pitfalls. (PLT104) — FAA-H-8083-2
will leave the action to others and may even go along
with unreasonable requests. (PLT103) — FAA-H-8083-25
Answer (B) is incorrect because the question involves an example
of thepilot following theauthority to a fault. Answer (C) is incorrect
because thequestion involves an example ofa pilot following orders;
the impulsive attitude isdemonstrated when the pilot doesnot select
thebest alternative and theydo the first thing that comes to mind.

Answers

9815 [C] 9815-1 [A] 9833 [A] 9834 [B]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 7-19

7-20 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep
Chapter 8
Meteorology and Weather Services
The Atmosphere 8-3
Weather Systems 8-8
Stability and Instability of Air 8-11
Fog and Rain 8-14
Thunderstorms 8-16

Wind Shear 8-21

Frost and Ice 8-28

Icing 8-28
Hazards of Structural Icing 8-29
Frost Formation 8-29

Turbulence 8-37

Arctic and Tropical Weather Hazards 8-40

Aviation Routine Weather Report (METAR) 8-42
The Terminal Aerodrome Forecast (TAF) 8-46
Enroute Forecasts 8-48

Surface Analysis and Constant Pressure Charts 8-51

Reports and Forecasts of Hazardous Weather 8-53
PIREPs 8-57

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 8-1

 Chapter 8 Meteorology and Weather Services

8-2 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 8 Meteorology and Weather Services

The Atmosphere
The primary cause of all the Earth's weather is the variation in solar radiation received at the surface.
When the surface is warmed by the sun, the air next to it is, in turn, heated and itexpands. This creates
a low pressure area where the air rises and, at altitude, expands outward. Air from regions of relatively
high pressure descends and then moves away from the center of the high toward the lower pressure
areas. On both a global and local scale, this movement of air sets off an immensely complex process that
generates all the Earth's weather. See Figure 8-1.
Another major influence in the pattern of the
weather is a phenomenon known as Coriolis
effect. This is an apparent force, caused by the
Earth's rotation, acting on any movement of air.
If the Earth did not rotate, air would move directly
from areas of high pressure to areas of low pres
sure. Coriolis force bends the track of the air over
the ground to right in the northern hemisphere
and to the left in the southern hemisphere. Viewed
from above (as on a weather map) this makes air
rotate clockwise around high pressure areas in the
northern hemisphere and counterclockwise around
lows. In the southern hemisphere, the rotation
around highs and lows is just the opposite. In the
northern hemisphere, the rotation of air around Figure 8-1. Circulation of air due to uneven
a low pressure area is called a cyclone and that surface heating
around a high is called an anticyclone.
The strength of the Coriolis force is determined by wind speed and the latitude. Coriolis hasthe least
effect at the equator and the most at the poles. It is also reduced in effect when wind speed decreases.
Air moving near the Earth's surface is slowed by friction. This reduces the Coriolis force. However, the
gradient pressure causing the air to move remains the same. The reduced Coriolis allows air to spiral
out away from the center of a high and in toward the center of a low, and atan angle to winds aloft which
are out of the friction level.
If the Earth did not rotate, air would move from the poles to the equator at the surface and from the
equator to the poles ataltitude. Because the Earth does rotate, Coriolis force and the pressure gradients
tend to form three bands of prevailing winds in each hemisphere. Weather systemstend to move from
east to west in the subtropical regions on the "trade winds." In the mid latitudes, the prevailing wester
lies move weather systems from west to east. See
North Pole Figure 8-2.
All air carrier flights take place in the two lowest
60° latitude levels of the atmosphere. These are the tropo
sphere and the stratosphere. The troposphere
starts- at the surface and extends vertically to
,30° latitude
roughly 35,000 feet. The thickness of the tropo
sphere varies with latitude, being thicker over the
equator than over the poles and with the season
Equator ofthe year (thicker in the summerthan inthe win
ter). The stratosphere extends from the top ofthe
Figure 8-2. Global wind systems

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 8-3

 Chapter 8 Meteorology and Weather Services

troposphere to about 26 to 29 miles altitude. See Figure 8-3. The main characteristic that distinguishes
thetroposphere from thestratosphere is thetemperature lapse rate. In the troposphere, the temperature
decreases with increasing altitude at an average rate of two degrees Celsius per one thousand feet
of altitude. In the stratosphere, there is little or no change in temperature with altitude. In fact, in some
regions the temperature increases with increasing altitude causing temperature inversions.
The thin boundary layer between the troposphere and the stratosphere is called the tropopause.
The height of the tropopause is of great interest to the pilots of jet aircraft for two reasons. First, there
is an abrupt change in the temperature lapse rate at the tropopause and that has a significant effect on
jet engine performance. Second, maximum winds (the jet stream) and narrow zones of wind shear are
found at the tropopause.
The jet stream is a few thousand feet thick and a few hundred miles wide. By arbitrary definition, it
has wind speedsof fifty knots orgreater. The highest wind speedscan befound on the polar side of the
jet core. See Figure 8-4. There may betwo or more jet streams in existence at one time. The jet stream
is always found at a vertical break in the tropopause where the tropical and polar tropopauses meet.
In addition to the high speed horizontal winds, the jet stream contains a circular rotation with rising air
on the tropical side and descending air on the polar side. Because of the rising air, cirrus clouds will
sometimes form on the equatorial side of the jet.

Figure 8-4. Cross-section of the jet stream

Figure 8-3. Levels of atmosphere

ALL
Every physical process of weather is accompanied by
9152. What is the primary cause of all changes in the or is the result of a heat exchange. Differences insolar
Earth's weather?
energycreate temperature variations. These temperature
A— Variations of solar energy at the Earth's surface. variations createforces that drive theatmosphere inits
B—Changes in air pressure over the Earth's surface. endless motion. (PLT510) — AC 00-6
C— Movement ofair masses from moist areas to dry Answer (B) is incorrect becausechanges in airpressure are due to
areas. temperature variations. Answer (C) is incorrectbecause movement
ofair masses is a result of varying temperatures andpressures.

Answers
9152 [A]

8-4 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 8 Meteorology and Weather Services

ALL ALL

9160. Where is the usual location of a thermal low? 9176. At which location does Coriolis force have the
least effect on wind direction?
A— Over the arctic region.
B— Over the eye of a hurricane. A— At the poles.
C— Over the surface of a dry, sunny region. B- Middle latitudes (30° to 60°).
C—At the Equator.
Adry, sunnyregion canbecome quite warm from intense
surface heating, thusgeneratinga surface low-pressure Coriolis force varies with latitude from zero at the Equa
area. This is called a thermal low. (PLT511) — AC 00-6 tor to a maximum at the poles. (PLT510) — AC 00-6
Answer (A) is incorrect because thermal lows develop over dry,
sunny regions, not in the arctic. Answer (B) is incorrect because
the eye of a hurricane marks the centerof a well-developed tropical ALL
cyclone. 9177. How does Coriolis force affect wind direction in
the Southern Hemisphere?
ALL
A— Causes clockwise rotation around a low.
9159. What is a feature of air movement in a high B— Causes wind to flow out of a low toward a high.
pressure area? C—Has exactly the same effect as in the Northern
Hemisphere.
A— Ascending from the surface high to lower
pressure at higher altitudes. Coriolisforce deflects airflowto the right causing winds
B— Descending to the surface and then outward. above the friction level to flowparallel to the isobars. In
C—Moving outward from the high at high altitudes the northern hemisphere, winds flowclockwise around
and into the high at the surface. high-pressure areas and counterclockwise around low-
pressure areas. In the southern hemisphere, Coriolis
Air in a high pressure system (in the northern hemi force causes a counterclockwise flow around highs
sphere) tends todescend to thesurface and then spiral and a clockwise flow around lows. (PLT516)— AC 00-6
out from the center of the high. (PLT173) — AC 00-6
Answer (B) is incorrect because the wind flows from a high to a low
(nota lowtoa high) inboth thenorthern andsouthern hemispheres.
Answer (C) is incorrect because theCoriolis force deflects air to the
ALL leftin the southernhemisphere, which is the opposite effect from the
9157. At lower levels of the atmosphere, friction causes northern hemisphere.
the wind to flow across isobars into a low because the
friction
ALL
A— decreases windspeed and Coriolis force. 9178. Which weather condition is defined as an anti
B— decreases pressure gradient force. cyclone?
C—creates air turbulence and raises atmospheric
A-Calm.
pressure.
B— High pressure area.
Frictional force slows wind speed near the surface C-COL
and Coriolis force is decreased. The stronger pressure
The clockwise flow of air around a high-pressure area
gradient force turns the wind at an angle across the
isobars toward lower pressure until the three forces in the northern hemisphere is called an anticyclone.
(Coriolis, pressure gradient, andfriction) arein balance. (PLT173) — AC 00-6
(PLT173) — AC 00-6 Answer (A) is incorrect because calm is defined as the absence
of wind or of apparent motion of the air. Answer (C) is incorrect
Answer (B)is incorrect because friction does notaffectthepressure because COLis the neutral area between two highs or two lows. Itis
gradient force. Answer (C) is incorrect because of surface obstruc also the intersection of a trough and a ridge.
tions.

Answers

9159 [B] 9157 [A] 9176 [C] 9177 [A] 9178 [B]
9160 [C]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 8-5

 Chapter 8 Meteorology and Weather Services

ALL
The troposphereis the layerof atmosphere from the sur
9178-1. A cyclone is face to an average altitude of 7 miles. Itis characterized
A— a hurricane force storm in the Indian Ocean. by an overall decrease of temperature with increasing
B— a tropical depression with sustained winds of 63 altitude. (PLT203) —AC00-6
knots. Answer (A) is incorrect because moisture can be found in the strato
C—a tropical depression with a barometric pressure sphere, as evidenced by some of the largest thunderstorms. Answer
in the center of the feature that is 35 mb lower (C) is incorrect because theaverage altitude of the top of the tropo
sphere is about 7 miles.
than pressure outside the weather feature.

The low pressure and its wind system is a cyclone. ALL

Strongtropical cyclones are known by different names 9240. What weather feature occurs at altitude levels
in different regions of the world. A tropical cyclone in near the tropopause?
the Atlantic and eastern Pacific is a "hurricane"; in the
western Pacific, "typhoon"; near Australia, "willy-willy"; A— Maximum winds and narrow wind shear zones.
and in the Indian Ocean, simply "cyclone." (PLT517) — B— Abrupt temperature increase above the tropopause.
AC 00-6 C—Thin layers of cirrus (ice crystal) clouds at the
tropopause level.

ALL Maximum winds generally occur at levels near the tro

9156. Whicharea or areas of the Northern Hemisphere popause. These strong winds create narrow zones of
experience a generally east to west movement of windshear whichoften generate hazardous turbulence.
weather systems? (PLT203) — AC 00-6
A—Arctic only. Answer(B)is incorrect because temperature is fairly constantabove
the tropopause. Answer (C) is incorrect because thin layers of cirrus
B—Arctic and subtropical. (ice crystal) clouds can develop at altitudes below the tropopause
C—Subtropical only. level and extend into the lowerstratosphere.

Polar easterlies carry storms from east to west. The

northeasterly trade winds carry tropical storms from ALL

east to west. The prevailing westerlies drivemid-latitude 9209. Which feature is associated with the tropopause?
storms generallyfrom west to east. (PLT510)—AC 00-6 A— Absence of wind and turbulence.
B—Absolute upper limit of cloud formation.
C—Abrupt change of temperature lapse rate.
ALL
9233. Summer thunderstorms in the arctic region will Anabrupt changeinthetemperature lapse rate character
generally move izes the tropopause. (PLT203)—AC 00-6
A— northeast to southwest in polar easterlies. Answer(A) is incorrect because the jet stream (wind) and clear air
B— southwest to northeast with the Jetstream flow. turbulence are found extensively in the tropopause. Answer (B) is
C—directly north to south with the low-level polar incorrect because clouds canbe presentinto thestratosphere, as in
very large thunderstorms andcirrus clouds madeupof ice crystals.
airflow.

Arctic thundershowers, usually circumnavigable, move ALL

generallyfrom northeasttosouthwest in thepolareast 9168. Where is a common location for an inversion?
erlies which is opposite from the general movement in
mid-latitudes. (PLT495) — AC 00-6 A—At the tropopause.
B— In the stratosphere.
C—At the base of cumulus clouds.
ALL

9151. What is a characteristic of the troposphere? Inversions are common in the stratosphere. (PLT203)
— AC 00-6
A— It contains all the moisture of the atmosphere.
Answer (A) is incorrectbecause a common location foran inversion
B— There is an overall decrease of temperature with is in the stratosphere, notat the tropopause. Answer (C) is incorrect
an increase of altitude. because the base of cumulus clouds is where the dew point lapse
C—The average altitude ofthe top ofthe troposphere rate and the dryadiabatic lapse rate converge. It is not a common
location for an inversion.
is about 6 miles.

Answers

9178-1 [A] 9156 [B] 9233 [A] 9151 [B] 9240 [A] 9209 [C]
9168 [B]

8-6 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 8 Meteorology and Weather Services

ALL ALL

9241. Where are jetstreams normally located? 9229-1. When high level moisture is available, cirrus
clouds form on the
A— In areas of strong low pressure systems in the
stratosphere. A— polar side of the jet stream.
B— In a break in the tropopause where intensified B— equatorial side of the jet stream.
temperature gradients are located. C—acute angle side of the jet stream.
C—In a single continuous band, encircling the Earth,
where there is a break between the equatorial When high-level moisture is present, cirriform clouds
and polar tropopause. form on the equatorial side of thejet stream. (PLT226)
— AC 00-6
Thejet stream is usuallyassociated with a breakin the
tropopause where intensifiedtemperature gradients are
ALL
located. (PLT302) — AC 00-6
9238. Where do the maximum winds associated with
Answer (A) is incorrect because a jet stream is located in a break
in the tropopause, not in the stratosphere. Answer (C) is incorrect the Jetstream usually occur?
because there may be more than one jet stream at any time; up to A— In the vicinity of breaks in the tropopause on the
three at one time are not uncommon.
polar side of the jet core.
B— Below the jet core where a long straight stretch of
ALL
the Jetstream is located.
9779. The tropopause is generally found when the free C—On the equatorial side of the Jetstream where
air temperatures are moisture has formed cirriform clouds.

A- between -55°C and -65°C. Maximum winds ina jet stream occur near a breakin the
B- between -40°C and -55°C. tropopause and on thepolarside. (PLT302) —AC00-6
C-colder than-60°C. Answer (B) is incorrect because in the jet stream, the maximum
winds are found in, not below, the core. Answer (C) is incorrect
In the absence of other information, the tropopause will because when moisture is available, cirriform clouds willform on the
generally have a temperature of between -55°C and upward motion ofairof thejet stream on theequatorial side. This will
occur in the slower winds of the jet stream.
-65°C (PLT302) — AC 00-30

ALL
ALL
9238-1. The rate of decrease in wind speed from the
9229. Which type clouds may be associated with the
jet stream core is considerably greater on the
Jetstream?
A— equatorial side.
A— Cumulonimbus cloud line where the Jetstream
B— polar side.
crosses the cold front.
C—acute angle side.
B—Cirrus clouds on the equatorial side of the Jetstream.
C—Cirrostratus cloud band on the polar side and The rate of decrease of wind speed is considerably
under the Jetstream. greater on the polarside than on the equatorial side;
hence, the magnitude of wind shear is greateron the
When high-level moisture is present, cirriform clouds polar side than on the equatorial side. (PLT226) —
form on the equatorial side of thejet stream. (PLT302)
AC 00-6
— AC 00-6
Answer (A) is incorrect because cirriform, notcumulonimbus, clouds
are associated with the jet stream.Answer (C) is incorrect because
ALL
cirriform clouds formon the equatorial side of the jet stream.
9810. Large areas of land
A—tend to increase temperature variations.
B— do not influence the troposhere.
C—minimize temperature variations.

Land and water surfaces underlying the atmosphere

greatly affect cloud and precipitation development.
(PLT512) — AC 00-6

Answers

9241 [B] 9779 [A] 9229 [B] 9229-1 [B] 9238 [A] 9238-1 [B]
9810 [A]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 8-7

Chapter 8 Meteorology and Weather Services

ALL
the land will rise throughout the day, causing lowpressure
871 o. For a flightto an airport in the vicinity of the coast, at the surface. Over the water, high surface pressure
land surface cooling means you can expect to encounter will form because of the colder air. To compensate, the
A— sea breezes. air will sink over the ocean. The wind will blow from the
B— land breezes. higher pressure over the water to lowerpressure over
C—a Chinook wind. the land causing the sea breeze. The opposite occurs at
night, with land surface cooling causing a land breeze.
During the day, the sun heats up both the ocean surface (PLT512) — AC 00-6
and theland. However, waterheats upmuch moreslowly Answer (A) is incorrect because a sea breeze is cause by land
than land and so the air above the land will be warmer surface warming. Answer (C) is incorrectbecause a Chinook windis
compared to the air over the ocean. The warm air over associated with mountainous terrain.

Weather Systems
When air masses ofdifferent temperature or moisture content collide, they force airaloft along the area
where they meet. An elongated line of low pressure is referred to as a trough.
A front is defined as the boundary between two different air masses. The formation of a front is
called frontogenesis. When a front dissipates, the area experiences frontolysis. All fronts lie in troughs.
This means that winds flow around a front more or less parallel to the front, and in a counterclockwise
direction. As an aircraft flies toward a front in the northern hemisphere, the pilot will notice a decreasing
pressure and a wind from the left ofthe aircraft. After passing through the front, the pilot will note a wind
shift to the right and increasing air pressure.
Afront is usually the boundary between air masses of different temperatures. If cold air is displacing
warm air, it is called a cold front. When warm airdisplaces cold air, it isa warm front. Thespeed of move
ment of the front is determined by the winds aloft. Acold front will move at about the speed of the wind
component perpendicular to the front justabove the friction level. It is harder for warm airto displace cold
air and so warm fronts move at about halfthe speed of cold fronts under the same wind conditions.
Astationary front is one with little or no movement. Stationary fronts or slow moving cold fronts can
form frontal waves and lowpressure areas. Asmall disturbance can cause a bend in the frontal line that
induces a counterclockwise flow of air around a deepening low pressure area. The wave forms into a
warm front followed by a cold front. The cold front can then overtake the warm front and force the warm
air between the two aloft. This is called an occluded front or an occlusion.
Most fronts mark the line between two air masses of different temperature. However, this is not
always the case. Sometimes, air masses with virtually the same temperatures will form a front. The only
difference between the two is the moisture content. The front formed in such conditions is called a dew
point front or a dry line.
The surface position of a front often marks the line where an arctic and a tropical air mass meet at
the surface. The jet stream is located in the area where these air masses meet at the altitude of the
tropopause. There is often a rough correlation between the surface position of a front and the location
of the jet stream. Generally speaking, the jet stream will lie to the north of the surface position of a front.
As a frontal wave forms, the jet will move toward the center of the deepening low pressure area. If an
occluded front forms, the jet stream will often cross the front near the point of the occlusion.

Answers

8710 [B]

8-8 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 8 Meteorology and Weather Services

ALL ALL
9165. What term describes an elongated area of low 9192. Which event usually occurs after an aircraft
pressure? passes through a front into the colder air?
A— Trough. A— Temperature/dewpoint spread decreases.
B— Ridge. B— Wind direction shifts to the left.
C— Hurricane or typhoon. C—Atmospheric pressure increases.

A trough is an elongated area of low pressure with the A front lies in a pressure trough, and pressure gener
lowest pressure along a line markingmaximumanticy- allyis higherin the cold air. Thus, when crossing a front
clonic curvature. (PLT173) — AC 00-6 directly into colder air, the pressure will usually rise
Answer(B) is incorrect because a ridgeis an elongated area of high abruptly. (PLT511) — AC 00-6
pressure. Answer(C) is incorrect because a hurricane or typhoon Answer (A) is incorrect because the temperature/dew point spread
is a tropical cyclone (low) with highest sustained winds of 65 knots usuallydiffers across a front. Butit might not decrease ifyou flyin to
or greater. a cold, dryairmass. Answer(B) is incorrect because in the northern
hemisphere the wind always shifts to the right due to the Coriolis
force.

ALL
9165-1. Low pressure areas are areas of
ALL
A—stagnant air. 9213. Ifthe winds aloft are blowing parallel to the front,
B—descending air.
C—ascending air. A—the front can be expected to move with the upper
winds.
At the surface when air converges into a low, it cannot B—the winds aloft can be expected to turn at the
go outward against thepressure gradient, norcan itgo frontal boundary.
downward into the ground; it must go upward. There C—the front moves slowly if at all.
fore, a low or trough is an area of rising air. (PLT173)
— AC 00-6
The upper winds will dictate to a great extent the move
ment of the front, along with the amount of cloudiness
and rain accompanying the frontal system. Ifwindsaloft
ALL parallel a front, the front moves slowlyif at all. Ifwinds
9191. What is a feature of a stationary front? aloft blow across a front it tends to move with the wind.
(PLT511)—AC00-6
A— The warm front surface moves about half the
speed of the cold front surface.
B— Weather conditions are a combination of strong ALL
cold front and strong warm front weather. 9215. Which atmospheric factor causes rapid move
C—Surface winds tend to flow parallel to the frontal ment of surface fronts?
zone.
A— Upper winds blowing across the front.
The opposing forces exerted by adjacent airmasses ina B— Upper low located directly over the surface low.
stationary front are such thatthe frontal surface between C—The cold front overtaking and lifting the warm
them shows little or no movement. In such cases, the front.
surface winds tend to blow parallel to the frontalzone.
(PLT511)—AC00-6 Cold fronts move at about the speed of the windcompo
nent perpendicularto the front just above the frictional
Answer(A) is incorrect because the movement of a warm front sur
face in comparison to a cold front surface has nothing to do with a layer. (PLT511) — AC 00-6
stationary front. Answer (B)is incorrect because weather conditions Answer(B) is incorrect because an upperlow located directly over
that are a combination of strong cold frontand strong warm front a surface low would be a factor in how extensive the weather would
weather are a feature of an occluded front. be, not in how fast it wouldmove. Answer (C) is incorrectbecause a
coldfront overtaking and lifting the warm front is a characteristic of
an advancing cold front.

Answers

9165 [A] 9165-1 [C] 9191 [C] 9192 [C] 9213 [C] 9215 [A]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 8-9

Chapter 8 Meteorology and Weather Services

ALL ALL
9215-1. Dew point fronts result from 9227. Where is the normal location of the Jetstream
A— air density differences due to the humidity levels. relative to surface lows and fronts?
B— air density due to temperature. A— The Jetstream is located north of the surface
C—temperatures aloft. systems.
B— The Jetstream is located south of the low and
During a considerable part of the year, dew point fronts warm front.
are common in Western Texas and New Mexico north C—The Jetstream is located over the low and crosses
ward over the Plains States. Moist air flowing north both the warm front and the cold front.
from the Gulf of Mexico abuts the drier and therefore
slightly denser air flowing from the southwest. Except Development of a surface low is usually south of the
for moisture differences, thereis seldom any significant jet stream. As the low deepens, it moves nearer the
air mass contrast across this "front"; therefore, it is com jet center. When a low occludes, thejet stream usually
monly called a "dry line." Nighttime and early morning crosses the frontal system at the point of the occlusion.
fog and low level clouds often prevail on the moist side (PLT302) — AC 00-6
of the line while generally clear skies markthe dryside. Answer (B) is incorrectbecause the jet stream is located to the north
(PLT511) — AC00-6 of the low and warm front. Answer (C) is incorrect because thejet
stream crosses the occlusion of the warm and cold front at the point
of occlusion.

ALL

9216. In which meteorological conditions can frontal

ALL
waves and low pressure areas form?
9228. Which type frontal system is normally crossed
A— Warm fronts or occluded fronts. by the Jetstream?
B— Slow-moving cold fronts or stationary fronts.
A— Cold front and warm front.
C—Cold front occlusions.
B— Warm front.
Frontal waves and cyclones (areas of low pressure) C—Occluded front.
usuallyform on slow moving cold fronts oron stationary
fronts. (PLT511) — AC 00-6 Development of a surface low is usually south of the
jet stream. As the low deepens, it moves nearer the
Answer (A) is incorrect because occluded fronts are formed by
frontal waves and areas of low pressure which cause a cold front jet center. When a lowoccludes, thejet stream usually
to close togetherwith a warm front. Frontal waves and lowpressure crosses the frontalsystem at the point of the occlusion.
areas normally form on slow-movingcold fronts. Answer(C)is incor (PLT302) — AC 00-6
rect because a cold front occlusion occurs when the air behind the
cold front is colderthan the airin advance of the warm front, lifting
the warm front aloft.
ALL

9228-1. Steep frontal surfaces are usually associated

ALL with

9217. What weather difference is found on each side A—fast moving warm front.
of a "dry line"? B— fast moving cold front.
A— Extreme temperature difference. C—dry lines.
B— Dewpoint difference.
C—Stratus versus cumulus clouds. The leading edge of an advancing cold air mass is a
cold front. Warm fronts on the surface are seldom as
A dew point front or "dry line"is formed when two air well marked as coldfronts, and theyusually moveabout
masses ofsimilar density and temperature meet.Except half as fast when the general windflow is the same in
forthe moisture differences, there is littlecontrast across each case. (PLT511) — AC 00-6
the front. (PLT511) — AC 00-6
Answer (A) is incorrect because except for moisture (not extreme
temperature) difference, there is seldom any significant air mass
contrast across the "dry line." Answer (C) is incorrect because the
side with moisture mayhave clouds, while generally clearskies mark
the dry side.

Answers

9215-1 [A] 9216 [B] 9217 [B] 9227 [A] 9228 [C] 9228-1 [B]

8-10 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 8 Meteorology and Weather Services

ALL The concentrated winds, by arbitrarydefinition, must be

9228-2. If a sample of air is forced upward and it is 50 knots or greater to classify it as a jet stream. Strong,
colder than the surrounding air, it long trajectory jet streams usually are associated with
A—sinks until it reaches denser air. well-developed surface lows and frontalsystems beneath
B—gets energy from surrounding air and remains in deep upper troughs or lows. (PLT302) — AC 00-6
place.
C—warms from the surrounding air and rises to
ALL
expansion.
9821. (Refer to Figure 154.) What areas does the jet
Ifthe upwardmoving airbecomes colder than surround stream overlie?
ing air, itsinks; but if it remains warmer it is accelerated A— North of California and Nevada.
upwardas a convective current. Whetheritsinks or rises B— South of the low pressure system in Canada.
depends on the ambient or existing temperature lapse C—North of the low pressure system in Canada.
rate. (PLT511)—AC00-6
The concentrated winds, by arbitrary definition, must be
50 knots or greater to classify itas a jet stream. Strong,
ALL long trajectoryjet streams usually are associated with
9776. A jet stream is a narrow, shallow, meandering well-developedsurface lows and frontal systems beneath
river of maximum winds extending around the globe in deep upper troughs or lows. (PLT302) — AC 00-6
a wavelike pattern with speeds of
A— 50 knots or greater.
ALL
B—71 knots or greater.
9822. (Refer to Figure 155.) What areas does the jet
C—100 knots or greater.
stream overlie?
The concentrated winds, by arbitrary definition, must A—South of the high pressure system located in
be 50 knots or greater to be classified as a jet stream. Texas.
(PLT302) — AC 00-6 B— Southern California and central Nevada.
C—South of the low pressure system in Canada.

ALL The concentrated winds, by arbitrary definition, must be

9820. (Refer to Figure 153.) What areas does the jet 50 knots orgreater to classify itas a jet stream. Strong,
stream overlie? long trajectory jet streams usually are associated with
A— Central portion of Texas. well-developedsurface lows and frontal systems beneath
B— North of Washington and Idaho. deep upper troughs or lows. (PLT302) — AC 00-6
C—South of Montana and North Dakota.

Stability and Instability of Air

When a parcel of air is forced to rise it expands because its pressure decreases. Air that is forced to
descend is compressed. When the pressure and volume change, so does the temperature. When air
expands, it cools and when it is compressed, it warms. This cooling or heating is referred to as being
adiabatic, meaning that no heat was removed from or added to the air.
When unsaturated air is forced to rise or descend it cools or heats at a rate of about 3°C per 1,000
feet of altitude change. This called the dry adiabatic rate. The saturated adiabatic rate is normally
much lower.
When moist air is forced upward, the temperature and the dew point converge on each other at a
rate of about 2.5°C per 1,000 feet. At the altitude where the dew point lapse rate and the dry adiabatic
rate meet, cloud bases will form. Once the condensation starts taking place the adiabatic rate slows
considerably because the process of condensation releases latent heat into the air and partially offsets
the expansional cooling.
Continued

Answers

9228-2 [A] 9776 [A] 9820 [C] 9821 [B] 9822 [C]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 8-11

Chapter 8 Meteorology and Weather Services

Saturated air flowing downward will also warm at less than the dry adiabatic rate because vaporiza
tion of water droplets uses heat. Once the air is no longer saturated it will heat at the normal dry rate.
An example of this is the "katabatic wind" which becomes warmer and dryer as it flows downslope.
The adiabatic rate should not be confused with the actual (ambient) lapse rate. The actual lapse
rate is the rate at which the air temperature varies with altitude when air is not being forced to rise or
descend. The actual lapse averages about 2°C per 1,000 feet, but that is highly variable. When a parcel
of air is forced to rise, the adiabatic rate may be different than the ambient rate.
When a parcel of air becomes colder (and more dense) than the air around it, it will tend to sink back
toward its original altitude. If the parcel becomes warmer than the surrounding air, it will tend to rise
convectively even though the original lifting force may have disappeared. If this happens, the air is said
to be unstable. When a parcel of air resists convective movement through it, it is said to be stable.
The best indication of the stability or instability of an air mass is the ambient temperature lapse rate.
If the temperature drops rapidly as the altitude increases, the air is unstable. If the temperature remains
unchanged or decreases only slightly as altitude is increased, the air mass is stable. If the temperature
actually increases as altitude increases, a temperature inversion exists. This is the most stable of weather
conditions.

ALL ALL
9170. Which term applies when the temperature of the 9158. Which type wind flows downslope becoming
air changes by compression or expansion with no heat warmer and dryer?
added or removed?
A— Land breeze.
A— Katabatic. B— Valley wind.
B—Advection. C—Katabatic wind.
C—Adiabatic.
A katabatic wind is any wind blowing down an incline
When air expands, it cools; and when compressed, it when the incline is influential in causing the wind. Any
warms. These changes are adiabatic, meaning that no katabatic windoriginates because cold, heavy airspills
heat is removed from or added to the air. (PLT024) — down sloping terrain displacing warmer, less dense air
AC 00-6 ahead of it. Air is heated and driedas itflowsdownslope.
Answer (A) is incorrectbecause katabaticis a windblowingdown an (PLT516) — AC 00-6
inclinecaused by cold, heavier air spillingdown the inclinedisplac Answer (A) is incorrect because a land breeze is a wind that flows
ing warmer, less dense air. Answer (B) is incorrect because advec from the cooler land toward warmer water. Answer (B) is incorrect
tion is the horizontal flow in a convective current, i.e., wind. because a valley wind is wind flowing up out of a valley because
colder, denser air settles downward and forces the warmer air near
the ground up a mountain slope.
ALL
9186. Which process causes adiabatic cooling?
ALL
A— Expansion of air as it rises.
9171. What is the approximate rate unsaturated air will
B— Movement of air over a colder surface.
cool flowing upslope?
C—Release of latent heat during the vaporization
process. A- 3°C per 1,000 feet.
B- 2°C per 1,000 feet.
When air expands, it cools; and when compressed, it C-4°C per 1,000 feet.
warms. These changes are adiabatic, meaning thatno
heat is removed from or added to the air. (PLT024) — Unsaturatedairmoving upwardand downwardcools and
AC 00-6 warms at about 3.0°C (5.4°F) per 1,000 feet. (PLT024)
Answer (B) is incorrect because adiabatic cooling means that no — AC 00-6
heat is removed from the air, as would be the case if the air was Answers (B) and (C) are incorrect because unsaturated air will cool
moved over a colder surface. Answer (C) is incorrect because flowing upslope at 3°C per 1,000 feet.
adiabatic cooling is the process in which no heat is removed from or
added to the air.

Answers
9170 [C] 9186 [A] 9158 [C] 9171 [A]

8-12 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 8 Meteorology and Weather Services

ALL ALL
9182. What is the result when water vapor changes 9187. When saturated air moves downhill, its tempera
to the liquid state while being lifted in a thunderstorm? ture increases

A— Latent heat is released to the atmosphere. A— at a faster rate than dry air because of the
B— Latent heat is transformed into pure energy. release of latent heat.
C— Latent heat is absorbed from the surrounding air B— at a slower rate than dry air because vaporization
by the water droplet. uses heat.
C—at a slower rate than dry air because
When water vapor condenses to liquid water or sub condensation releases heat.
limates directly to ice, energy originally used in the
evaporation reappears as heat and is released to the The saturated adiabatic rate of heating is slower than
atmosphere. This energy is "latent heat." (PLT512) — the dry rate because vaporization uses heat. (PLT024)
AC 00-6 — AC 00-6
Answer (B) is incorrect because latent heat cannot create pure Answer (A) is incorrect because when saturated air moves downhill,
energy. Latent heat is returned to the surrounding atmosphere. its temperature increases at a slower rate than dry air because of
Answer (C) is incorrect because this is the process of latent heat in the absorption of latent heat. Answer (C) is incorrect because as air
vaporization, which is changing liquid water to vapor. moves downhill, its temperature increases at a slower rate than dry
air because vaporization uses heat, not because of the release of
heat through condensation.
ALL
9185. What weather condition occurs at the altitude
ALL
where the dewpoint lapse rate and the dry adiabatic
9154. What feature is associated with a temperature
lapse rate converge?
inversion?
A— Cloud bases form.
A— A stable layer of air.
B— Precipitation starts.
B— An unstable layer of air.
C—Stable air changes to unstable air.
C—Air mass thunderstorms.

Unsaturated air in a convective current cools at about

A temperature inversion is defined as an increase in
5.4°F (3°C) per 1,000 feet. The dewpoint decreases at
temperature with increasing altitude, or a negative
about 1°F (5/9°C) per 1,000 feet. When the tempera
temperature lapse rate. Stable air masses have a low
ture and dew point converge, cloud bases will form.
or negative lapse rate. (PLT301) — AC 00-6
(PLT512) — AC 00-6
Answer (B) is incorrect because instability occurs when the tempera
Answer (B) is incorrect because precipitation starts when precipita ture decreases (not increases as in a temperature inversion) withan
tion particles have grown to a size and weight that the atmosphere increase in altitude, and the rising air continues to rise. Answer (C)
can no longer suspend, and the particles fall as precipitation. is incorrect because air mass thunderstorms result from instability.
Answer (C) is incorrect because air stabilitydepends on the ambient They do not occur when there is a temperature inversion.
or existing temperature lapse rate, not the convergence of the dew
point lapse rate and the dry adiabatic lapse rate.

ALL

ALL
9184. What is indicated about an air mass if the tem
9185-1. Adiabatic warming is also described as perature remains unchanged or decreases slightly as
altitude is increased?
A—chronographic warming.
B—expansional heating. A— The air is unstable.
C—compressional heating. B— A temperature inversion exists.
C—The air is stable.
The adiabatic process is the change of the temperature
of air without transferringheat. Inan adiabatic process, A mass of air in which the temperature decreases rap
compression results in warming, and expansion results idlywith height favors instability. Air tends to be stable if
in cooling. (PLT512) — AC 00-6 the temperature changes little or not at all with altitude.
(PLT512) — AC00-6
Answer (A) is incorrect because unstable air wouldhave a uniform
decrease (approaching 3°C/1,000 feet) in temperature with an
increase in altitude. Answer (B) is incorrect because in a tempera
ture inversion, the temperature increases with increases in altitude.

Answers

9182 [A] 9185 [A] 9185-1 [C] 9187 [B] 9154 [A] 9184 [C]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 8-13

Chapter 8 Meteorology and Weather Services

ALL ALL

9188. Which condition is present when a local parcel 9195. How can the stability of the atmosphere be
of air is stable? determined?
A— The parcel of air resists convection. A— Ambient temperature lapse rate.
B— The parcel of air cannot be forced uphill. B— Atmospheric pressure at various levels.
C—As the parcel of air moves upward, its C—Surface temperature/dewpoint spread.
temperature becomes warmer than the
surrounding air. A mass of air in which the temperature decreases rapidly
with height favors instability.Air tends to be stable if the
A parcel of air which resists convection when forced temperature changes little or not at all withaltitude. The
upward is called stable. (PLT173) — AC 00-6 rate of temperature decrease with altitude is referred
Answer (B) is incorrect because stable air can be forced uphill to to as the temperature lapse rate. (PLT173) — AC 00-6
form a mountain wave. Answer (C) is incorrect because rising air, Answer (B) is incorrect because the difference between ambient
warmer than the surrounding air, describes unstable air. temperature and adiabatic lapse rate, not atmospheric pressure at
various levels, determines stability.Answer (C) is incorrect because
the surface temperature/dew point spread is used to indicate prob
ability of fog, not atmospheric stability.

Fog and Rain

Fog is a surface-based cloud that always forms in stable air conditions. The three main types are radia
tion fog, advection fog and upslope fog.
Radiation fog occurs when there is a surface-based temperature inversion. On a clear, relatively
calm night the surface rapidly cools by radiating heat into space. This in turn cools the air within a few
hundred feet of the surface and leaves warmer air aloft. If the temperature drops to the dew point, fog
will form. Since the minimum temperature during the day occurs just after sunrise, this type of fog often
forms then. This fog will dissipate when the air warms up enough to raise the temperature above the
dew point again. However, if the inversion persists, visibility can remain limited due to lingering fog and
haze. Wind or any significant movement of air will disperse both radiation fog and haze.
Advection fog and upslope fog both require wind to form. Advection fog forms when warm moist
air flows over a colder surface. The temperature of the air drops to the dew point and fog forms. This
commonly occurs over bodies of water such as lakes or oceans. The fog can drift over land on the lee
ward (downwind) side of the body of water lowering visibility at nearby airports. If the wind increases to
over about 15 knots, the fog will tend to lift into low stratus clouds.
Upslope fog forms when moist, stable air is gradually moved over higher ground by the wind. As
the air rises, it cools adiabatically and fog forms. This type of fog is common in mountainous areas.
All clouds are composed of tiny droplets of water (or ice crystals). As these drops of water collide
with each other, they form larger drops until they precipitate out as rain. As a general rule, clouds need
to be at least 4,000 feet thick to produce precipitation reported as light or greater intensity.
ALL
Inversions can occur in warm and cold temperatures in
9153. What characterizes a ground-based inversion? stable air, and usually trap particles in the air causing
A— Convection currents at the surface. poor visibility. (PLT301) — AC 00-6
B— Cold temperatures. Answer (A) is incorrect because convective currents at the surface
C—Poor visibility. do not occur when there is a ground-based inversion. Answer (B) is
incorrect because when the temperature is cold, it is difficult for the
earth to radiate enough heat to become colder thanthe overlying air.

Answers

9188 [A] 9195 [A] 9153 [C]

8-14 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 8 Meteorology and Weather Services

ALL ALL
9155. When does minimum temperature normally occur 9206. You are planning a flight to a coastal area which
during a 24-hour period? is currently below published weather minimums for the
A— After sunrise. ILS approach due to fog. The winds are forecast to
B—About 1 hour before sunrise. increase to 20 knots from the west at your scheduled
C—At midnight. arrival time. What weather should you expect?
A— Surface ice.
At night, solar radiation ceases, but terrestrial radiation B— Advection fog thickening as the winds increase to
continues and cools the surface. Cooling continues after 20 knots.
sunrise until solar radiation again exceeds terrestrial C—A low layer of stratus or stratocumulus clouds.
radiation. Minimum temperature usually occurs after
sunrise, sometimes as much as 1 hour after. (PLT512) Advection fog is most common along coastal areas
— AC 00-6 and will develop into a layer of stratus of stratocumu
Answer (B) is incorrect because the minimum temperature normally lus clouds with winds speeds in excess of 15 knots.
occurs after sunrise. Answer (C) is incorrect because the minimum (PLT226) — AC 00-6
temperature normally occurs after sunrise, not at midnight.

ALL
ALL
9207. Which conditions are necessary for the formation
9169. What condition produces the most frequent type of upslope fog?
of ground- or surface-based temperature inversion?
A— Moist, stable air being moved over gradually
A— The movement of colder air under warm air or the rising ground by a wind.
movement of warm air over cold air. B—A clear sky, little or no wind, and 100 percent
B— Widespread sinking of air within a thick layer aloft relative humidity.
resulting in heating by compression. C— Rain falling through stratus clouds and a 10- to
C—Terrestrial radiation on a clear, relatively calm 25-knot wind moving the precipitation up the
night. slope.
An inversion often develops near the ground on clear, Upslope fog forms as a result of moist, stable air being
cool nights when the wind is light. The ground radiates cooled adiabatically as it moves up sloping terrain.
and cools much faster than the overlyingair. Airin contact (PLT226) — AC 00-6
with the ground becomes cold while the temperature a Answer (B) is incorrect because these are conditions necessary for
few hundred feet above changes very little. Thus, tem the formation of radiation fog which usually occurs at night. Answer
perature increases with height. (PLT301) — AC 00-6 (C) is incorrect because upslope fog is formed by moist air being
moved gradually over rising ground, not by rain falling through stra
Answer (A) is incorrect because the movement of colder air under
tus clouds and not by a wind blowing the precipitation up the slope.
warm air is what happens when a cold front is advancing, and the
movement of warm air over cold air is the process of an advancing
warm front. Answer (B) is incorrect because widespread sinking of
air describes compressional or adiabatic heating. ALL
9207-1. Precipitation induced fog

ALL
A— results from relatively warm rain or drizzle falling
9208. How are haze layers cleared or dispersed? through cooler air.
B— results from relatively cooler rain or drizzle falling
A— By convective mixing in cool night air. through warmer air.
B— By wind or the movement of air. C—is usually of short duration.
C— By evaporation similar to the clearing of fog.
When relatively warm rain or drizzle falls through cool
Haze or smoke must be dispersed by movement of air. air, evaporation from the precipitation saturates the cool
(PLT510) — AC 00-6 air and forms fog. (PLT226) — AC 00-6
Answer (A) is incorrect because convective mixing would be caused
by heating during the day, not by the cool night air. Answer (C) is
incorrect because haze must be dispersed by movement of air, it
cannot evaporate in a similar manner to the clearing of fog.

Answers

9155 [A] 9169 [C] 9208 [B] 9206 [C] 9207 [A] 9207-1 [A]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 8-15

Chapter 8 Meteorology and Weather Services

ALL ALL

9207-2. You are approaching an airport to land in 20 9193. What minimum thickness of cloud layer is
minutes. The METAR reports temperature 10°C, dew indicated if precipitation is reported as light or greater
point 10°C, winds 310/04, scattered clouds and rain. intensity?
You expect A-4,000 feet thick.
A—radiation fog. B-2,000 feet thick.
B—deepening fog. C—A thickness which allows the cloud tops to be
C—clearing conditions. higher than the freezing level.

Conditions favorable for radiation fog are clear sky, little When arriving at or departing from a terminal reporting
or no wind, and small temperature-dew point spread. precipitation of light or greater intensity, expect clouds
(PLT226) — AC 00-6 to be more than 4,000 feet thick. (PLT192) — AC 00-6
Answer (B) is incorrect because to produce significant precipitation
(light or greater intensity), clouds are normally at least 4,000 feet
ALL thick. Answer (C) is incorrect because a cloud thickness resulting in
9194. Which condition produces weather on the lee cloud tops above the freezing level means ice droplets and super
cooled water will develop.
side of a large lake?
A— Warm air flowing over a colder lake may produce
fog. ALL

B— Cold air flowing over a warmer lake may produce 8723. A flight is scheduled at daybreak. The current
advection fog. conditions are rainy, but conditions are expected to
C—Warm air flowing over a cool lake may produce clear. The forecast temperature is 10°C, dew point 10°C,
rain showers. with winds 330° at 5 knots. What weather conditions
can you expect?
When warm air flows over a colder lake, the air may A— The conditions are favorable for radiation fog.
become saturated by evaporation from the water while B— Dense fog which will deepen during the day.
also becoming cooler in the low levels by contact with the
C—Severe ground icing.
cool water. Fog often becomes extensive and dense to
the lee (downwind) side of the lake. (PLT226) —AC 00-6 Conditions favorable forradiationfog are clear sky, little
Answer (B) is incorrect because cold air flowing over a warmer lake or no wind, and small temperature/dew point spread
may produce rain showers, not advection fog, on the lee side of the
lake. Answer (C) is incorrect because warm air flowing over a cool
(high relative humidity). Radiation fog is restricted to
lake may produce fog, not rain showers, on the lee side of the lake. land because water surfaces cool little from nighttime
radiation. (PLT226)—AC00-6
Answer (B) is incorrect because as the temperature rises with sun
rise, fog will tend to burn off. Answer (C) is incorrect because the
temperature and dew point are not favorable for icing conditions.

Thunderstorms
Thunderstorms are always generated in very unstable conditions. Warm, moist air is forced upward
either by heating from below or by frontal lifting, and becomes unstable. When the rising air cools to its
dew point, a cumulus cloud forms. This "cumulus stage" is the first of three in a thunderstorm's life. It is
characterized by a continuous updraft as the cloud builds. As the raindrops and ice pellets in the cloud
grow larger, their weight begins to overpower the lifting force of the updrafts. As the drops fall through
the cloud, they cool the air making it more dense than in the surrounding updrafts. This process causes
downdrafts to form within the cloud.
When the downdrafts become strong enough to allow the first precipitation to reach the surface,
the mature stage of the thunderstorm has begun. Eventually, the downdrafts cut offthe updrafts and the
storm loses the source of warm air that is its driving force. When the storm is characterized predominantly
by downdrafts, it is in the dissipating stage.

Answers

9207-2 [A] 9194 [A] 9193 [A] 8723 [A]

8-16 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 8 Meteorology and Weather Services

Air mass thunderstorms are associated with local surface heating. On a clear, sunny day, local hot
spots form that are capable of making the air over them unstable enough to generate a thunderstorm.
Because the downdrafts in an air mass thunderstorm shut offthe updrafts fairly quickly, this type of storm
is relatively short-lived.
Steady-state thunderstorms are usually associated with weather systems. Fronts, converging
winds and troughs aloft force upward motion. In a steady-state storm the precipitation falls outside the
updraft allowing the storm to continue without abating for several hours.
The most violent type of steady-state thunderstorms are those generated by cold fronts or by squall
lines. A squall line is a non-frontal instability line that often forms ahead of a fast moving cold front.
Thunderstorms generated under these conditions are the most likelyto develop cumulonimbus mamma
clouds, funnel clouds and tornadoes. A severe thunderstorm is one which has surface winds of 50 knots
or more, and/or has hail 3/4-inch or more in diameter.
Pressure usually falls rapidly with the approach of a thunderstorm, then rises sharply with onset
of the first gust and arrival of the cold downdraft and heavy rain showers. As the storm passes on, the
pressure returns to normal.
Even though thunderstorms are cumulus clouds formed in unstable air they can sometimes penetrate
overlying bands of stratiform clouds. These are known as "embedded thunderstorms." Because these
thunderstorms are obscured by other clouds and it is impossible for a pilot to visually detour around
them, they present a particular hazard to IFR flight.
When they can, most pilots prefer to visually
avoid thunderstorms by flying around them or, if
they can maintain a high enough altitude, by flying
over the storm. If you are going to fly over the top
of a thunderstorm, a good rule of thumb to follow
is that the cloud should be overflown by at least
1,000 feet for each 10 knots of wind speed. Radar
is a very useful tool in thunderstorm avoidance,
especially at night or in IFR weather. The radar
displays an area of precipitation size rain drops as
a bright spot on the screen. Since thunderstorms
often contain large water drops, they usually show
up on the radar screen. A dark area on the screen
is one in which no precipitation drops are detected.
Areas of clouds may or may not be displayed
Figure 8-5. Radar display of a thunderstorm
depending on the size of the drops that make up
the clouds. See Figure 8-5.

ALL Precipitation beginning to fallfrom the cloud base is the

9196. Which weather phenomenon signals the begin indication that a downdraft has developed and a thun
ning of the mature stage of a thunderstorm? derstorm cell has entered the mature stage. (PLT495)
A—The appearance of an anvil top. — AC 00-6
B— The start of rain at the surface. Answer (A) is incorrect because the appearance of an anvil top occurs
C— Growth rate of the cloud is at its maximum. duringthe dissipating stage. Answer (C) is incorrectbecause the growth
rate of a thunderstormis at its greatest during the cumulus stage.

Answers

9196 [B]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 8-17

Chapter 8 Meteorology and Weather Services

ALL ALL

9197. During the life cycle of a thunderstorm, which 9200. Where do squall lines most often develop?
stage is characterized predominately by downdrafts? A— In an occluded front.
A—Cumulus. B— Ahead of a cold front.
B— Dissipating. C—Behind a stationary front.
C—Mature.
A squall line is a non-frontal, narrow band of active
Downdrafts characterize the dissipating stage of the thunderstorms. Often it develops ahead of a cold front
thunderstorm. (PLT495) — AC 00-6 in moist, unstable air. (PLT475) — AC 00-6
Answer (A) is incorrect because the cumulus stage is the building Answer (A) is incorrect because squall lines most often develop
stage characterized by updrafts. Answer (C) is incorrect because ahead of a cold front, not in an occluded front. Answer (C) is incor
the mature stage has both updrafts and downdrafts, which create rect because squall lines most often develop ahead of a cold front,
strong wind shears. not behind a stationary front.

ALL ALL
9198. What feature is normally associated with the 9204. What is a difference between an air mass thun
cumulus stage of a thunderstorm? derstorm and a steady-state thunderstorm?
A— Beginning of rain at the surface. A— Air mass thunderstorms produce precipitation
B— Frequent lightning. which falls outside of the updraft.
C—Continuous updraft. B— Air mass thunderstorm downdrafts and
precipitation retard and reverse the updrafts.
The key feature of the cumulus stage is a continuous
C—Steady-state thunderstorms are associated with
updraft. (PLT495) — AC 00-6
local surface heating.
Answer (A) is incorrect because the beginning of rain at a surface
marks the beginning of the mature stage. Answer (B) is incorrect
because frequent lightning occurs after the downdrafts have devel Air mass thunderstorms most often result from surface
oped and produce the static electricity which causes lightning. heating. When the storm reaches the mature stage, rain
falls through or immediately beside the updraft. Falling
precipitation induces frictional drag, retards the updraft
ALL and reverses it to a downdraft. Such a self-destructive
9203. Why are downdrafts in a mature thunderstorm cell usually has a life cycle of 20 minutes to 1-1/2 hours.
hazardous? In a steady-state thunderstorm, the precipitation falls
A— Downdrafts are kept cool by cold rain which tends outside the downdraft and so the cell can last several
to accelerate the downward velocity. hours. (PLT495) — AC 00-6
B— Downdrafts converge toward a central location Answer (A) is incorrect because steady-state, not air mass, thunder
under the storm after striking the surface. storms produce precipitation which falls outside the updraft. Answer
(C) is incorrect because air mass, not steady-state, thunderstorms
C— Downdrafts become warmer than the surrounding are associated with local surface heating.
air and reverse into an updraft before reaching
the surface.
ALL
Precipitation beginning to fall from the cloud base is 9205. Which type storms are most likely to produce
the indication that a downdraft has developed and a funnel clouds or tornadoes?
thunderstorm cell has entered the mature stage. Cold
rain in the downdraft retards compressional heating, A— Air mass thunderstorms.

and the downdraftremains cooler than surrounding air. B— Cold front or squall line thunderstorms.
Therefore, its downward speed is accelerated and may C—Storms associated with icing and supercooled
water.
exceed 2,500 feet per minute. (PLT495) — AC 00-6
Answer (B) is incorrect because after striking the ground the down-
drafts will move away from the storm's center. Answer (C) is incor
Tornadoes occur with isolated thunderstorms at times,
rect because downdrafts remain colder than the surrounding air and but much more frequently, they form with steady-state
accelerate downward into an updraft. thunderstormsassociated with cold frontsorsquall lines.
(PLT495) — AC 00-6

Answers

9197 [B] 9198 [C] 9203 [A] 9200 [B] 9204 [B] 9205 [B]

8-18 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 8 Meteorology and Weather Services

Answer (A) is incorrect because even though air mass thunder A severe thunderstorm is one which has surface winds
storms may produce funnel clouds or tornadoes, they are most likely
to occur with steady-state thunderstorms. Answer (C) is incorrect
of 50 knots (58 MPH) or more, and/or has hail 3/4 inch
because all thunderstorms that have updrafts and carry water above or more in diameter. (PLT495) — AC 00-45
the freezing level can produce icing and supercooled water. But
thunderstorms associated with cold fronts and squall lines are most
likely to produce funnel clouds or tornadoes. ALL
9708. A squall is a sudden increase of at least 15 knots
in average wind speed to a sustained speed of
ALL

9210. Which type cloud is associated with violent A— 24 knots or more for at least 1 minute.
turbulence and a tendency toward the production of B— 22 knots or more for at least 1 minute.
funnel clouds? C—20 knots or more for at least 1 minute.

A—Cumulonimbus mammatus.
A squall (SQ) means there has been a sudden increase
B— Standing lenticular. in wind speed ofat least 15 knots to a speed of20 knots
C—Stratocumulus.
or more, and it lasted at least one minute. (PLT475) —
AC 00-6
Frequently, cumulonimbus mammatus clouds occur in
connection with violent thunderstorms and tornadoes.
(PLT501) — AC00-6 ALL
Answer (B) is incorrect because standing lenticular clouds mark 9708-1. Shear turbulence from a thunderstorm has
mountain waves that are the product of stable air flowing over an been encountered
obstruction. Answer (C) is incorrect because stratocumulus some
times form from the breaking up of stratus or the spreading out of A—10 miles from the severe thunderstorm.
cumulus, and they are associated with some turbulence and pos B— 15 miles from the severe thunderstorm.
sible icing at subfreezing levels.
C—20 miles from the severe thurnderstorm.

ALL
Hazardous turbulence is present in all thunderstorms;
9214. Which weather condition is an example of a and in a severe thunderstorm, itcan damage an airframe.
nonfrontal instability band? Strongest turbulence within the cloud occurs with shear
between updrafts and downdrafts. Outside the cloud,
A—Squall line. shear turbulence has been encountered several thou
B— Advective fog. sand feet above and 20 miles laterally from a severe
C—Frontogenesis. storm. (PLT475)—AC00-6
An instability line is a narrow, nonfrontal line or band of
convective activity. If the activity is fully developed thun ALL
derstorms, the line is a squall line. (PLT511) —AC 00-6 9202. Atmospheric pressure changes due to a thun
Answer (B) is incorrect because advective fog occurs when warm derstorm will be at the lowest value
moist air moves over a cool surface. It forms in stable air. Answer
(C) is incorrect because frontogenesis is the generation of a A— during the downdraft and heavy rain showers.
frontal zone. B—when the thunderstorm is approaching.
C— immediately after the rain showers have stopped.

ALL Pressure usually falls rapidly with the approach of a

9706. A severe thunderstorm is one in which the sur thunderstorm, then rises sharply with the onset of the
face wind is firstgust and the arrivalof the cold downdraft and heavy
A—58 MPH or greater and/or surface hail is 3/4 inch rain showers, falling back to normal as the storm moves
or more in diameter. on. (PLT495) — AC 00-6
B— 50 knots or greater and/or surface hail is 1/2 inch Answer (A) is incorrect because during the downdraft and heavy rain
or more in diameter. showers the pressure rises sharply. Answer (C) is incorrect because
immediately after the rain showers have stopped the pressure will
C—45 knots or greater and/or surface hail is 1 inch or return to normal.
more in diameter.

Answers

9210 [A] 9214 [A] 9706 [A] 9708 [C] 9708-1 [C] 9202 [B]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 8-19

Chapter 8 Meteorology and Weather Services

ALL Airborne weather radar detects only precipitation size

9189. Convective clouds which penetrate a stratus layer raindrops and hail. Absence of a radar return does
can produce which threat to instrument flight? indicate an area free of clouds or turbulence. (PLT495)
A— Freezing rain. — AC 00-6
B— Clear air turbulence. Answer (A) is incorrect because weather radar detects only precipi
C— Embedded thunderstorms. tation drops, not clouds. Answer (B) is incorrect because convective
turbulence, which would not be detected by radar, could be found
under cumulus clouds. Radar does not detect turbulence.
A layer of stratiform clouds may sometimes form in a
mildly stable layer while a few convective clouds pen
etrate the layer thus merging stratiform with cumuliform. ALL
Under the right conditions, the cumuliform clouds can 9212. When flyingover the top of a severe thunderstorm,
become thunderstorms which are completely obscured the cloud should be overflown by at least
by the surrounding stratus clouds. (PLT192) — AC 00-6
A— 1,000 feet for each 10 knots windspeed.
Answer (A) is incorrect because the formation of freezing rain is
B- 2,500 feet.
dependent on rain falling through colder air. Convective clouds that
penetrate a stratus layer may or may not produce precipitation. C—500 feet above any moderate to severe
Answer (B) is incorrect because clear air turbulence is turbulence turbulence layer.
encountered in air where no clouds are present.
When flying over the top of a severe thunderstorm, clear
the top by 1,000 feet for each 10 knots of wind at the
ALL
cloud top. (PLT495) — AC 00-6
9199. What is indicated by the term "embedded thun
Answer (B) is incorrect because the cloud should be overflown by at
derstorms"? least 1,000 feet for each 10 knots windspeed, which would normally
A— Severe thunderstorms are embedded in a squall be greater than 2,500 feet with a severe thunderstorm. Answer (C)
is incorrect because the exact location of a turbulence layer will not
line. usually be known.
B— Thunderstorms are predicted to develop in a
stable air mass.
C—Thunderstorms are obscured by other types of ALL
clouds. 9835. A steady state thunderstorm is associated with
A—surface heating.
A layer of stratiform clouds may sometimes form in a
B— weather systems.
mildly stable layer while a few convective clouds pen
C—mature stage.
etrate the layer, thus merging stratiform withcumuliform.
Under the right conditions, the cumuliform clouds can
Steady state thunderstorms usually are associated with
become thunderstorms which are completely obscured
weather systems. Fronts, converging winds, and troughs
by the surrounding stratus clouds. (PLT495)—AC 00-6 aloft force upward motion spawning these storms which
Answer (A) is incorrect because a squall line consists of severe often forminto squall lines. Afternoon heating intensifies
thunderstorms which can always be seen. Answer (B) is incorrect
because thunderstorms do not occur in stable air masses. them. (PLT495) — AC 00-6

ALL

9211. A clear area in a line of thunderstorm echoes on

a radar scope indicates
A—the absence of clouds in the area.
B— an area of no convective turbulence.
C—an area where precipitation drops are not
detected.

Answers

9189 [C] 9199 [C] 9211 [C] 9212 [A] 9835 [B]

8-20 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 8 Meteorology and Weather Services

Wind Shear
Normally we think of changes in wind speed or direction as having an effect only on an aircraft's ground
speed and track. However, when there is a very rapid shift in wind speed or direction there is a notice
able change in the aircraft's indicated airspeed as well.
In a situation where there is a sudden increase in headwind (or decrease in tailwind) the aircraft's
momentum keeps it moving through space at the same ground speed as before. This means that the
aircraft will be moving through the air faster than before and there will be an increase in its indicated
airspeed. The aircraft will react to this increase by pitching up and by tending to climb (or descend more
slowly). When there is a sudden increase in a tailwind (or decrease in the headwind), just the opposite
occurs. There will be a loss of indicated airspeed accompanied by a tendency to pitch down and descend.
Wind shear is defined as any rapid change in wind direction or velocity. Often, there is little or no
turbulence associated with wind shear. Severe wind shear is defined as a rapid change in wind direction
or velocity causing airspeed changes greater than 15 knots or vertical speed changes greater than 500
feet per minute.
Wind shear may be associated with either a wind shift or a wind speed gradient at any level in the
atmosphere. Three common generators of wind shear conditions are thunderstorms, temperature inver
sions and jet stream winds. Thunderstorms generate a very significant wind shear hazard for two reasons.
The shear from thunderstorms is usually encountered close to the ground where there is little time or
altitude to recover. The magnitude of the shear is often very severe, especially in situations involving
microbursts, which we will discuss shortly. Wind shear can be encountered on all sides and directly
under the thunderstorm cell. Often, in a low altitude temperature inversion the winds are very light but
just above the inversion layer the wind is much stronger. When an aircraft either climbs or descends
through the top of the inversion it can encounter significant wind shear because of the change in wind
speed. A jet stream is a narrow "river" of wind where the speed can change a great deal over a very
short distance. This is the very definition of wind shear.
Microbursts are a very localized, but very dangerous, wind shear condition. They can occur any
where that convective weather conditions exist. This includes rain showers, virga and thunderstorms. It
is believed that about five percent of thunderstorms produce a microburst.
A microburst is a very narrow downdraft of very high speed wind. The downdraft is typically a few
hundred to 3,000 feet across with vertical speeds up to 6,000 feet per minute. When the downdraft
approaches the surface, the wind flows outward from the core in all directions. Not only are these outflow
winds very strong (up to 45 knots) but their effect is doubled when an aircraft flies through the shear.
For example, a 45 knot headwind approaching the microburst will be a 45 knot tailwind flying out the
other side —a change of 90 knots. This is usually a short-lived phenomena, seldom lasting more than
15 minutes from the time the burst strikes the ground until it dissipates.
An aircraft approaching a microburst will first experience an increasing headwind as it encounters
the outflow. The increasing headwind shear causes the indicated airspeed to increase and gives the
aircraft a tendency to pitch up and climb. This increase in performance without an increase in power
might induce an unwary pilot into reducing power to maintain airspeed and flight path. As the aircraft
flies into the core of the microburst the headwind shifts to a downdraft. The sudden loss of headwind
will cause indicated airspeed to drop and cause the aircraft to pitch down and descend. The strong
downdraft increases the tendency to descend and the aircraft can quickly get into the situation of having
low airspeed and a very high rate of descent. As the aircraft flies out the backside of the microburst, it
encounters an increasing tailwind shear that further reduces indicated airspeed and performance.

Continued

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 8-21

Chapter 8 Meteorology and Weather Services

There are some wind shear conditions that exceed the performance capability of typical air carrier
aircraft. For this reason it is imperative that pilots avoid situations where severe wind shear is either
reported or is likelyto exist. At this time only a couple of airports in the United States have experimental
Doppler radar units capable of detecting wind shear. Many airports have the less sophisticated Low-
Level Wind Shear Alert System (LLWAS), which is used to alert pilots to the possibility of wind shear on
or near the airport. This system consists of wind sensors located around the perimeter of the airport as
well as a center field wind sensor. When there is a significant difference in speed or direction between
any of these sensors and the center field sensor, the tower will broadcast the difference. Atypical tower
transmission would be:
"SOUTH BOUNDARY WIND ONE SIX ZERO AT TWO FIVE, WEST BOUNDARY WIND TWO FOUR
ZERO AT THREE FIVE."
The greatest danger from a wind shear encounter at low altitude is that the aircraft will pick up such
a high rate of descent that the pilots will be unable to stop it before hitting the ground. The technique
to be used during a wind shear encounter essentially involves trading airspeed for altitude. The exact
procedures vary from one aircraft to another but if an aircraft encounters severe wind shear, the pilot
should maintain or increase the pitch attitude, increase power to the maximum available and accept
lower than normal airspeed indications. If this does not arrest the descent, the pilot should continue to
pitch up until the descent does stop or until "stick shaker" is encountered.

ALL When a headwind shears to calm or a tailwind, the

9139. Which is a definition of "severe wind shear"? aircraft tends to lose airspeed, get low, and pitch nose
A— Any rapid change of horizontal wind shear in down. The aircraft willrequire more power and a higher
excess of 25 knots; vertical shear excepted. pitch attitudeto stay on glide slope. (PLT518)—AC 00-54
B— Any rapid change in wind direction or velocity Answer (A) is incorrect because as airspeed decreases, more
which causes airspeed changes greater than power is required. Answer (C) is incorrect because as the head
wind decreases, ground speed will increase, requiring a higher
15 knots or vertical speed changes greater than descent rate.
500 ft/min.
C—Any change of airspeed greater than 20 knots
which is sustained for more than 20 seconds or ALL
vertical speed changes in excess of 100 ft/min. 9133. Which INITIALcockpit indications should a pilot
be aware of when a headwind shears to a calm wind?
Severe wind shear is defined as any rapid change in
A— Indicated airspeed decreases, aircraft pitches up,
wind direction or velocity which causes airspeed changes
and altitude decreases.
greater than 15 knots or vertical speed changes greater
B— Indicated airspeed increases, aircraft pitches
than 500 feet per minute. (PLT518) — AC 00-54
down, and altitude increases.
Answer (A) is incorrect because a severe wind shear can be caused
to both horizontal and vertical shears. Answer (C) is incorrect
C—Indicated airspeed decreases, aircraft pitches
because a severe wind shear causes airspeed changes greater than down, and altitude decreases.
15 knots or vertical speed changes greater than 500 fpm.
With a headwind shearing to a calm wind there is a
loss of lift as airspeed decreases, the aircraft pitches
ALL down, and the aircraftdrops below glide slope (altitude
9220. In comparison to an approach in a moderate decreases). Responding promptlyby adding power and
headwind, which is an indication of a possible wind pitching up, a pilot may overshoot the glide slope and
shear due to a decreasing headwind when descending airspeed target but then recover. (PLT518) — AC 00-54
on the glide slope? Answer (A) is incorrect because the aircraft will pitch down due to
A— Less power is required. the relatively small angle of attack used during the headwind and the
sudden decrease in the airflow over the wing when the wind shears
B— Higher pitch attitude is required. to calm. Answer (B) is incorrect because less power is required
C— Lower descent rate is required. to maintain an indicated airspeed in a headwind than in calm air
because of ram air; thus, a shear from a headwind to calm would
be indicated by a decrease in airspeed and a decrease in altitude.

Answers

9139 [B] 9220 [B] 9133 [C]

8-22 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 8 Meteorology and Weather Services

ALL ALL
9134. Which condition would INITIALLY cause the 9137. Which wind-shear condition results in a loss of
indicated airspeed and pitch to increase and the sink airspeed?
rate to decrease? A— Decreasing headwind or tailwind.
A— Sudden decrease in a headwind component. B— Decreasing headwind and increasing tailwind.
B—Tailwind which suddenly increases in velocity. C— Increasing headwind and decreasing tailwind.
C—Sudden increase in a headwind component.
Decreasing headwind by itself or with a shear to a tail-
An increase in headwind component (which could wind will result in loss of indicated airspeed. (PLT518)
also be caused by a tailwind shearing to calm) causes — AC 00-54
airspeed and pitch to increase, sink rate to decrease. Answer (A) is incorrect because in a decreasing tailwind condition,
(PLT518) — AC 00-54 airspeed initially increases. Answer (C) is incorrect because an
increasing headwind and a decreasing tailwindboth initially increase
Answer (A) is incorrect because a sudden decrease in a headwind airspeed.
component would decrease aircraft performance and would be
indicated by a decrease in airspeed, pitch, and altitude. Answer (B)
is incorrect because an increase in tailwind velocity would decrease
performance and be indicated by a decrease in airspeed, pitch, and ALL
altitude. 9138. Which wind-shear condition results in an increase
in airspeed?
ALL
A— Increasing tailwind and decreasing headwind.
9135. Which INITIAL cockpit indications should a pilot B— Increasing tailwind and headwind.
be aware of when a constant tailwind shears to a calm C—Decreasing tailwind and increasing headwind.
wind?
A headwind increasing against the pitotand airframe will
A—Altitude increases; pitch and indicated airspeed result in an airspeed increase. (PLT518) — AC 00-54
decrease.
Answers (A) and (B) are incorrect because when a headwind shears
B— Altitude, pitch, and indicated airspeed decrease. to a tailwind, increasing tailwind component and decreasing head
C—Altitude, pitch, and indicated airspeed increase. wind component, the reduction of the ram air pressure on the pitot
tube causes an initial reduction of indicated airspeed. The reduced
headwind component willalso cause a pitch down moment and a
When a tailwind on final shears to calm (or headwind),
decrease in altitude.
descent rate decreases. The closest answer suggests
altitude decreases, which is still true when one considers
the ground speed decreases in this situation. Indicated ALL
airspeed and pitch increase. An overshoot can result 9141. Which airplane performance characteristics
from insufficientpower reduction. (PLT518)—AC 00-54 should be recognized during takeoff when encountering
Answer (A) is incorrect because pitch and indicated airspeed also a tailwind shear that increases in intensity?
increase. Answer (B) is incorrect because altitude, pitch, and indi
cated airspeed decrease when a headwind (not tailwind) shears to A— Loss of, or diminished, airspeed performance.
a calm wind. B— Decreased takeoff distance.
C— Increased climb performance immediately after
takeoff.
ALL
9135-1. Which initial cockpit indications should a pilot When a tailwind is encountered at liftoff, airspeed will
be aware of when a constant headwind shears to a decrease. The pilot must overcome the instinct to lower
calm wind? pitchattitudeto recover airspeed or the aircraft may sink
A—Altitude increases; pitch and indicated airspeed beyond recovery limits. Use all available performance
decrease. by commanding a higher-than-normal pitch attitudeand
B— Altitude, pitch, and indicated airspeed decrease. accepting the lower airspeed. (PLT518) —AC 00-54
C—Altitude, pitch, and indicated airspeed increase. Answer (B) is incorrect because as a tailwind shear increases,
takeoff distance is increased because more power or distance is
required to attain lift-off speed. Answer (C) is incorrectbecause as
An increasing tailwind (ordecreasing headwind) shear a tailwind shear increases during climb-out, the climb performance
will decrease indicated airspeed and performance will decrease.
capability. Due to airspeed loss, the airplanemay tend to
pitch down to regain trim speed. (PLT518)—AC 00-54

Answers

9134 [C] 9135 [C] 9135-1 [B] 9137 [B] 9138 [C] 9141 [A]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 8-23

Chapter 8 Meteorology and Weather Services

ALL Wind shear can be found on all sides of a thunderstorm

9142. Thrust is being managed to maintain desired cell and in the downdraftdirectlyunder the cell. (PLT495)
indicated airspeed and the glide slope is being flown. — AC 00-54
Which characteristics should be observed when a tail- Answer (A) is incorrect because the wind shear associated with a
wind shears to a constant headwind? thunderstorm is on all sides and directly under the cell, not just in
the frontand on the southwest side. Answer (B) is incorrect because
A- PITCH ATTITUDE: Increases. VERTICAL the wind shear associated with a thunderstorm is on all sides and
SPEED: Increases. INDICATED AIRSPEED: directly under the cell. A roll cloud is not present on all thunder
Decreases, then increases to approach speed. storms, and when present it marks the eddies of the shear zone
B- PITCH ATTITUDE: Increases. VERTICAL between the downdraft and surrounding air.
SPEED: Decreases. INDICATED AIRSPEED:
Increases, then decreases.
ALL
C-PITCH ATTITUDE: Decreases. VERTICAL
9225. Which is a necessary condition for the occurrence
SPEED: Decreases. INDICATED AIRSPEED:
of a low-level temperature inversion wind shear?
Decreases, then increases to approach speed.
A—The temperature differential between the cold and
Shearing to a headwind will create an increased air warm layers must be at least 10°C.
speed condition, causing a pitch up witha verticalspeed B— A calm or light wind near the surface and a
decrease. (PLT518) — AC 00-54 relatively strong wind just above the inversion.
Answer (A) is incorrect because indicated airspeed will initially C—A wind direction difference of at least 30°
increase. Answer (C) is incorrect because pitch and indicated air between the wind near the surface and the wind
speed will both initially increase. just above the inversion.

When taking off or landing in calm wind under clear

ALL
skies within a few hours before or after sunrise, a pilot
9166. What is an important characteristic of wind shear? should be prepared for a temperature inversion near
A— It is primarily associated with the lateral vortices the ground. A shear zone in the inversion is relatively
generated by thunderstorms. certain if the wind at 2,000 to 4,000 is 25 knots or more.
B— It usually exists only in the vicinity of (PLT501) — AC00-6
thunderstorms, but may be found near a strong Answer (A) is incorrect because magnitude of temperature differ
temperature inversion. ential in the inversion is not important; the windshear is caused by
C— It may be associated with either a wind shift the variation in wind speed. Answer (C) is incorrect because surface
windand a relativelystrong windjust above the inversion, not a wind
or a windspeed gradient at any level in the direction difference of at least 30°, are needed to form a low-level
atmosphere. temperatureinversion windshear. The windshear is caused by wind
speed variation, not variation in wind direction.
Wind shear may be associated with either a wind shift
or a windspeed gradient at any level in the atmosphere.
ALL
(PLT518)—AC00-6
Answer (A) is incorrect because wind shear can be vertical (as well
9701. The horizontal wind shear, critical for turbulence
as lateral) in thunderstorm clouds between the updrafts and down- (moderate or greater) per 150 miles is
drafts, as well as in other areas such as frontal zones and low-level
A— 18 knots or less.
temperature inversions. Answer (B) is incorrect because wind shear
can be encountered in areas other than thunderstorms; e.g., within a B— greater than 18 knots.
frontal zone, in and near the jet stream, low level inversions. C— not a factor, only vertical shear is a factor.

Horizontal wind shear can be determined from the

ALL spacing of isotachs. The horizontal wind shear critical
9201. Where can the maximum hazard zone caused by for turbulence (moderate orgreater)is greater than 18
wind shear associated with a thunderstorm be found? knotsper 150 miles. 150 nauticalmiles is equal to2-1/2
A— In front of the thunderstorm cell (anvil side) and degrees latitude. (PLT263) — AC 00-45
on the southwest side of the cell.
B— Ahead of the roll cloud or gust front and directly
under the anvil cloud.
C— On all sides and directly under the thunderstorm
cell.

Answers

9142 [B] 9166 [C] 9201 [C] 9225 [B] 9701 [B]

8-24 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 8 Meteorology and Weather Services

ALL With a headwind of 40 knots, the pilot may expect a

9130. What is the expected duration of an individual total shear of 80 knots across the microburst. (PLT317)
microburst? — AIM 17-1-25
A—Two minutes with maximum winds lasting Answers (A) and (C) are incorrect because the total shear is the total
headwind to tailwind change of a traversing airplane, thus a 40-knot
approximately 1 minute.
headwind would shear 80 knots to a 40-knot tailwind.
B— One microburst may continue for as long as 2 to
4 hours.
C—Seldom longer than 15 minutes from the time the ALL
burst strikes the ground until dissipation. 9140. Doppler wind measurements indicate that the
windspeed change a pilot may expect when flying
Wind speeds intensify for about 5 minutes after a through the peak intensity of a microburst is approxi
microburst initially contacts the ground. An encounter mately
during the initialstage of microburst development may
not be considered significant, but an airplane following A— 15 knots.
may experience an airspeed change two to three times B— 25 knots.
greater. Microbursts typically dissipate within 10 to 20 C - 45 knots.
minutes after ground contact. (PLT317) —AIM 17-1 -25
The downdrafts can be as strong as 6,000 feet per
minute. Horizontal winds near the surface can be as
ALL strong as 45 knots resulting in a 90-knot shear across
9131. Maximum downdrafts in a microburst encounter the microburst. (PLT317)—AIM 17-1-25
may be as strong as
A—8,000 ft/min. ALL
B- 7,000 ft/min. 9143. Maximum downdrafts in a microburst encounter
C—6,000 ft/min. may be as strong as

The downdrafts can be as strong as 6,000 feet per A-8,000 ft/min.

minute. Horizontal winds near the surface can be as B- 7,000 ft/min.
strong as 45 knots resulting in a 90-knot shear across C- 6,000 ft/min.
the microburst. (PLT317) — AIM 17-1-25
The downdrafts can be as strong as 6,000 feet per
minute. Horizontal winds near the surface can be as
ALL strong as 45 knots resulting in a 90-knot shear across
9814. Maximum downdrafts in a microburst encounter the microburst. (PLT317) — AIM 17-1-25
are strong and may include horizontal winds near the
surface as strong as
ALL
A— 34 knots. 9144. An aircraft that encounters a headwind of 45
B— 20 knots. knots, within a microburst, may expect a total shear
C—45 knots. across the microburst of

Microburst downdrafts can be as strong as 6,000 feet A— 40 knots.

per minute. Horizontal winds near the surface can be as B—80 knots.
strong as 45 knots resulting in a 90-knot shear across C—90 knots.
the microburst. (PLT317) — AIM 17-1-25
With a headwind of 45 knots, the pilot may expect a
total shear of 90 knots across the microburst. (PLT317)
ALL — AIM 17-1-25
9132. An aircraft that encounters a headwind of 40 Answer(A) is incorrect because the totalshear is the totalheadwind
knots, within a microburst, may expect a total shear to tailwind change of a traversing airplane, thusa 45-knotheadwind
would shear 90 knots, not 40 knots, to a 45-knot tailwind.Answer (B)
across the microburst of is incorrect because the total shear is the total headwind to tailwind
A— 40 knots.
change of a traversing airplane, thus a 45-knot headwind would
shear 90 knots, not 80 knots, to a 45-knot tailwind.
B— 80 knots,
C—90 knots.

Answers

9130 [C] 9131 [C] 9814 [C] 9132 [B] 9140 [C] 9143 [C]
9144 [C]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 8-25

Chapter 8 Meteorology and Weather Services

ALL An airplane flying through the microburst as depicted

9145. (Refer to Figure 144.) If involved in a microburst in FAA Figure 144 would encounter increasing perfor
encounter, in which aircraft positions will the most severe mance inposition 1, followed by a decreasing headwind
downdraft occur? in position 2. At position 3 the aircraft would encounter
A—4 and 5. the strong downdraft followed by a strong tailwind at
B—2 and 3. position 4. Position 5 represents the situationjust before
C—3 and 4. ground contact. (PLT317) — AIM 17-1-25
Answer (A) is incorrect because at position 2, not 3, the airplane
An airplane flying through the microburst as depicted encounters decreasing headwind. Answer (B) is incorrect because
in FAA Figure 144 would encounter increasing perfor at position 5 the airplane encounters an increasing tailwind and
it may result in an extreme situation as pictured, i.e., just before
mance inposition 1, followed by a decreasing headwind impact.
in position 2. At position 3 the aircraft would encounter
the strong downdraft followed by a strong tailwind at
position 4. Position 5 represents the situationjust before ALL
ground contact. (PLT317) — AIM 17-1-25 9148. (Refer to Figure 144.) What effect will a microburst
Answer (A) is incorrect because position 5 has significantly less encounter have upon the aircraft in position 4?
downdraft even though it has considerably more tailwind. Answer
(B) is incorrectbecause position 2 has not as significanta downdraft A— Strong tailwind.
as 3 and 4, but it contains a significant headwind even though it is B— Strong updraft.
decreasing. C—Significant performance increase.

An airplane flying through the microburst as depicted

ALL in FAA Figure 144 would encounter increasing perfor
9146. (Refer to Figure 144.) When penetrating a mance inposition 1, followed by a decreasing headwind
microburst, which aircraft will experience an increase in position 2. At position 3 the aircraft would encounter
in performance without a change in pitch or power? the strong downdraft followed by a strong tailwind at
A-3. position 4. Position 5 represents the situation just before
B-2. ground contact. (PLT317) — AIM 17-1-25
C-1. Answer (B) is incorrect because updrafts will occur in thunder
storms, not in microbursts from thunderstorms. Answer (C) is
An airplane flying through the microburst as depicted incorrect because the significant increase in performance occurs at
position 1 where the headwind component is the greatest.
in FAA Figure 144 would encounter increasing perfor
mance inposition 1, followed by a decreasing headwind
in position 2. At position 3 the aircraft would encounter ALL
the strong downdraft followed by a strong tailwind at 9149. (Refer to Figure 144.) How will the aircraft in
position 4. Position 5 represents the situation just before position 4 be affected by a microburst encounter?
ground contact. (PLT317) — AIM 17-1-25
A— Performance increasing with a tailwind and
Answer (A) is incorrect because position 3 indicates where the most
severe downdraft occurs, which results in a decrease in perfor updraft.
mance. Answer (B) is incorrect because position 2 does not have B— Performance decreasing with a tailwind and
as significanta headwind component as position 1, and thus perfor downdraft.
mance is less than at position 1.
C—Performance decreasing with a headwind and
downdraft.

ALL
An airplane flying through the microburst as depicted
9147. (Refer to Figure 144.) What effect will a microburst
in FAA Figure 144 would encounter increasing perfor
encounter have upon the aircraft in position 3?
mance inposition 1, followedby a decreasing headwind
A— Decreasing headwind. in position 2. At position 3 the aircraft would encounter
B— Increasing tailwind. the strong downdraft followed by a strong tailwind at
C—Strong downdraft. position4. Position 5 represents the situation just before
ground contact. (PLT317)—AIM 17-1-25
Answer (A) is incorrect because performance will decrease with a
tailwind, and thunderstorms (not microbursts) will have updrafts.
Answer (C) is incorrectbecause the airplane at position 2 indicates
where performance will decrease due to a headwind and downdraft.

Answers

9145 [C] 9146 [C] 9147 [C] 9148 [A] 9149 [B]

8-26 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 8 Meteorology and Weather Services

ALL ALL
9150. What is the expected duration of an individual 9136. What is the recommended technique to counter
microburst? the loss of airspeed and resultant liftfrom wind shear?
A— Two minutes with maximum winds lasting A— Lower the pitch attitude and regain lost airspeed.
approximately 1 minute. B— Avoid overstressing the aircraft, "pitch to
B— One microburst may continue for as long as 2 to airspeed," and apply maximum power.
4 hours. C—Maintain, or increase, pitch attitude and accept
C—Seldom longer than 15 minutes from the time the the lower-than-normal airspeed indications.
burst strikes the ground until dissipation.
Pitch attitude must be maintained or increased even
An individual microburst willseldom last longer than 15 when lower-than-normal airspeed indications are
minutes from the time it strikes the ground until dissipa required. (PLT518) — AC 00-54
tion. The horizontal winds continue to increase during the Answer (A) is incorrect because lowering the pitch attitude to regain
first5 minutes with the maximum intensity winds lasting lost airspeed is a result of past training emphasis on airspeed
control, not recovering from a wind shear. Answer (B) is incorrect
approximately2 to 4 minutes. (PLT317) —AIM 17-1-25 because the recommended technique to recover from a wind shear
Answer (A) is incorrect because microbursts last 15, not 2 minutes, is to maintain or increase pitch attitude and not "pitch to airspeed,"
and maximum winds last 2 to 4 minutes, not 1 minute. Answer (B) is which may decrease pitch to regain lost airspeed.
incorrect because the maximum winds last 2 to 4 minutes, not 2 to
4 hours, and the microburst is usually limited to about 15 minutes.

ALL
9167. What information from the control tower is indi
cated by the following transmission?
"SOUTH BOUNDARY WIND ONE SIX ZERO AT TWO
FIVE, WEST BOUNDARY WIND TWO FOUR ZERO
AT THREE FIVE."
A— A downburst is located at the center of the airport.
B— Wake turbulence exists on the west side of the
active runway.
C—There is a possibility of wind shear over or near
the airport.

The Low-Level Wind Shear Alert System (LLWAS) is

a computerized system which detects the presence
of a possible hazardous low-level wind shear by con
tinuously comparing the winds measured by sensors
installedaround the peripheryon an airport with the wind
measured at the center field location. If the difference
between the center field wind sensor and peripheral
sensor becomes excessive, a thunderstorm or thun
derstorm gust front windshear is probable. When this
condition exists, the tower controller willprovide arrival
and departure aircraft with an advisory of the situation
which includes the center field wind plus the remote
location and wind. The broadcast quoted in the question
is an example of this type of advisory. (PLT044) — AIM
14-3-7
Answer (A) is incorrectbecause a downburstis a verticalmovement
of air which is not measured by the LLWAS until it has horizontal
movement. Also the wind direction is toward the center of the airport,
not away from it. Answer (B) is incorrect because wake turbulence
does not produce wind. Itis generated by an aircraft thatis produc
ing lift, which could be on eitherside of the active runway.

Answers

9150 [C] 9167 [C] 9136 [C]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 8-27

Chapter 8 Meteorology and Weather Services

Frost and Ice

No person may dispatch or release an aircraft, continue to operate en route, or land when in the opinion
of the pilot-in-command or aircraft dispatcher, icing conditions are expected or met that might adversely
affect the safety of the flight. No person may takeoff when frost, snow or ice is adhering to the wings,
control surfaces or propellers of the aircraft.
Deicing is a procedure in which frost, ice, or snow is removed from the aircraft in order to provide
clean surfaces. Anti-icing is a process that provides some protection against the formation of frost or
ice for a limited period of time.
The equipment most commonly used for deicing and anti-icing airplanes on the ground is the
truck-mounted mobile deicer/anti-icer. The two basic types of fluids used are Type 1 (unthickened) fluids
and Type 2 (thickened) fluids. Type 1 fluids have a minimum 80% glycol content and a relatively low
viscosity, except at very low temperatures. The viscosity of Type 1 fluids depends only on temperature.
The holdover time is relatively short for Type 1 fluids. Type 2 fluids have a significantly higher holdover
time. Type 2 fluids have a minimum glycol content of 50% with 45% to 50% water plus thickeners and
inhibitors. Water decreases the freeze point. The freeze point should be no greater than 20°F below
ambient or surface temperature, whichever is less.
There is a one-step process and a two-step process for deicing and anti-icing. The one-step process
uses heated fluid to remove snow, ice and frost. The primary advantage of this process is that it is quick
and uncomplicated. However, where large deposits of snow or ice must be flushed off, fluid usage will
be greater than with the two-step process. The two-step process consists of separate deicing and anti-
icing steps. A diluted fluid, usually heated, is used to deice and a more concentrated fluid (either 100%
or diluted, depending on the weather), usually cold, is used to anti-ice. Type 1 or 2 fluids can be used
for both steps, or Type 1 for step 1 and Type 2 for step 2.
Two precautions to observe when using this equipment are:
1. Do not spray deice/anti-ice fluid at or into pitot inlets, TAT probes, or static ports; and
2. Apply deice/anti-ice fluid on pressure relief doors, lower door sills, and bottom edges of doors prior
to closing for flight.

Icing
For ice to form, there must be moisture present in the air and the air must be cooled to a temperature
of 0°C (32°F) or less. Aerodynamic cooling can lower the temperature of an airfoil to 0°C even though
the ambient temperature is a few degrees warmer.
Ice is identified as clear, rime, or mixed. Rime ice forms if the droplets are small and freeze imme
diately when contacting the aircraft surface. This type of ice usually forms on areas such as the leading
edges of wings or struts. It has a somewhat rough looking appearance and is a milky white color. Clear
ice is usually formed from larger water droplets or freezing rain that can spread over a surface. This is
the most dangerous type of ice since it is clear, hard to see, and can change the shape of the airfoil.
Mixed ice is a mixture ofclear ice and rime ice. It has the bad characteristics of both types and can form
rapidly.
There are two kinds oficing thatare significant to aviation: structural icing and induction icing. Structural
icing refers to the accumulation oficeon the exterior ofthe aircraft; induction icing affects the powerplant
operation. Structural icing occurs on an aircraft whenever supercooled droplets of water make contact
with any part of the aircraft that is also at a temperature below freezing.

8-28 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 8 Meteorology and Weather Services

One inflight condition necessary for structural icing is visible moisture (clouds or raindrops). Freez
ing rain always occurs in a temperature inversion. As the rain falls through air that is below freezing, its
temperature begins to fall below freezing yet it does not freeze solid —i.e., freezing rain. The process
requires the temperature of the rain to be above freezing before it becomes supercooled. Eventually,
the water drops will freeze into ice pellets. Any encounter with ice pellets in flight indicates that there is
freezing rain at a higher altitude.
Aircraft structural ice will most likely have the highest accumulation in freezing rain; therefore, an
operational consideration if you fly into rain which freezes on impact is that temperatures are above
freezing at some higher altitude.

Hazards of Structural Icing

The most hazardous aspect of structural icing is its aerodynamic effects. Ice can alter the shape of an
airfoil. This can cause control problems, change the angle of attack at which the aircraft stalls, and cause
the aircraft to stall at a significantly higher airspeed. Ice can reduce the amount of lift that an airfoil will
produce and increase the amount of drag byseveral times. It can partially block or limit control surfaces,
which will limit or make control movements ineffective. If the extra weight caused by ice accumulation is
too great, the aircraft might not be able to become airborne, and if inflight, might not be able to maintain
altitude.
For this reason, regulations prohibit takeoffwhen snow, ice, or frost is adhering to wings, propellers,
or control surfaces of an aircraft. Yet another hazard of structural icing is the possible uncommanded
and uncontrolled roll phenomenon referred to as "roll upset," which is associated with severe inflight
icing. Therefore, pilots flying airplanes certificated for flight in known icing conditions should be aware
that severe icing is a condition that is outside of the airplane's certificated icing envelope.
Structural icing can also cause tailplane (empennage) stall. The tail can collect ice faster than the
wing and because it is not visible to the pilot inflight, the situation could go undetected. Atailplane stall
occurs when, same as with the wing, the critical angle of attack is exceeded. Since the horizontal stabi
lizercounters the natural nose-down tendency caused by the center of lift of the main wing, the airplane
will react by pitching down, sometimes uncontrollably, when the tailplane is stalled. Application of flaps
can aggravate or initiate the stall.
Because of this, the pilot should use caution when applying flaps during an approach if there is the
possibility of icing on the tailplane. Ice buildup will cause the airplane to require more power to maintain
cruise airspeed. Ice on the tailplane can cause diminished nose-up pitch control and heavy elevator
forces, and the aircraft may buffet if flaps are applied. Ice on the rudder or ailerons can cause control
oscillations or vibrations.
For an airplane to be approved for flight into icing conditions, the airplane must be equipped with
systems that will adequately protectvarious components. Not all airplanes with these components are
approved for flight into known icing; check your POH to know if your airplane has been certificated to
operate in known icing conditions.

Frost Formation
Frost is described as ice deposits formed by sublimation on a surface when the temperature of the
collecting surface is at or below the dew point of the adjacent air and the dew point is below freezing.
Frost causes early airflow separation on an airfoil resulting in a lossof lift. Therefore, all frost should be
removed from the lifting surfaces ofan airplane before flight or it may prevent the airplane from becom
ing airborne.
Continued

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 8-29

Chapter 8 Meteorology and Weather Services

Snow always forms in colder than freezing temperatures by the process of sublimation. This is when
water goes straight from its vapor state into ice without ever being a liquid. Wet snow occurs when it
falls to altitudes with above freezing temperatures and begins to melt.
Test data indicate that ice, snow,or frostformations having a thickness and surface roughness similar
to medium or course sandpaper on the leading edge and upper surface of a wing can reduce wing lift
by as much as 30% and increase drag by 40%.

ALL ALL
9440. Which is an effect of ice, snow, or frost formation 9451. Test data indicate that ice, snow, or frost having
on an airplane? a thickness and roughness similar to medium or coarse
A— Increased stall speed. sandpaper on the leading edge and upper surface of
B— Increased pitchdown tendencies. a wing can
C— Increased angle of attack for stalls. A— reduce lift by as much as 40 percent and increase
drag by 30 percent.
Aircraft with ice, snow, or froston the wings may experi B— increase drag and reduce lift by as much as 40
ence increased stall speed, decreased angle of attack percent.
for stalls, and increased pitchup tendencies. (PLT493) C—reduce lift by as much as 30 percent and increase
— AC 20-117 drag by 40 percent.

Test data indicate that ice, snow, or frost formations

ALL
having a thickness and surface roughness similar to
9440-1. Frozen dew is
medium or coarse sandpaper on the leading edge
A— white and opaque. and upper surface of a wing can reduce wing lift by as
B— hard and opaque. much as 30 percent and increase drag by 40 percent.
C— hard and transparent. (PLT128) — AC 120-58

Frostformsin much the same wayas dew. Thedifference

is that the dew point of surrounding air must be colder ALL

than freezing. Water vapor then sublimates directly as 9695. The adverse effects of ice, snow, or frost on
ice crystals or frost rather than condensing as dew. aircraft performance and flight characteristics include
Sometimes dew forms and later freezes; however, fro decreased lift and
zen dew is easily distinguished from frost. Frozen dew A— increased thrust.
is hardand transparent while frost is white and opaque. B—a decreased stall speed.
(PLT493) — AC 00-6 C—an increased stall speed.

Ice, frost, or snow on an aircraft can cause decreased

ALL
lift, increased stall speed, and loss of thrust. (PLT493)
9449. Clear ice generally forms in outside temperature — AC 120-58
ranges of
A--15to-25°C.
B-0to-10°C. ALL

C-colder than-25°C. 9302. Even a small amount of frost, ice, or snow may
A— increase takeoff performance.
Temperatures close to thefreezing point, large amounts B— hinder lift production to a point where takeoff will
ofliquid water, high aircraft velocities, andlarge droplets be impossible.
are conducive to the formation of clear ice. (PLT493) C—decrease takeoff ground run.
— AC 91-51
Aircraft that have ice, snow, or frost on their surfaces
must be carefully cleaned prior to beginning a flight
because of the possible airflow disruption and loss of
lift. (PLT128) — FAA-H-8083-25

Answers

9440 [A] 9440-1 [C] 9449 [B] 9451 [C] 9695 [C] 9302 [B]

8-30 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 8 Meteorology and Weather Services

ALL ALL

9441. Which is a disadvantage of the one-step over the 9444. Which of the following will decrease the holding
two-step process when deicing/anti-icing an airplane? time during anti-icing using a two-step process?
A— It is more complicated. A—Apply heated Type 2 fluid.
B—The holding time is increased. B— Decrease the water content.
C—More fluid is used with the one-step method when C— Increase the viscosity of Type 1 fluid.
large deposits of ice and snow must be flushed
off airplane surfaces. Heating fluids increases their deicing effectiveness;
however, in the anti-icing process, unheated fluids are
Use the two-stageprocess to remove ice deposits with more effective. (PLT108) — AC 120-58
hot waterora mixof FPD (Freezing Point Depressant) Answer (B) is incorrect because decreasing the water content will
and water. This reduces the amount of fluid required. increase the holding time. Answer(C) is incorrect because increas
ing the viscosity of Type 1 fluid will increase the holding time.
(PLT108) — AC 120-58
Answer (A) is incorrect becausethe one-step processis less compli
cated. Answer (B) is incorrect because one of theadvantages of the
ALL
one-step process is increased holding time.
9753. When icing is detected, particularly while operating
an aircraft without deicing equipment, the pilot should
ALL A— fly to an area with liquid precipitation.
9442. The purpose of diluting ethylene glycol deicing B—fly to a lower altitude.
fluid with water in non-precipitation conditions is to C—leave the area of precipitation or go to an altitude
A— raise the eutectic point. where the temperature is above freezing.
B— decrease the freeze point.
C—increase the minimum freezing point (onset of When icing is detected, a pilot should do one of two
crystallization). things, particularly if the aircraft is not equipped with
deicing equipment: leave the areaofprecipitation orgo
Pureethyleneglycol will freeze at warmer temperatures to an altitude where the temperature is above freezing.
than aqueoussolutions of ethylene glycol. (PLT108) — This "warmer"altitude maynotalwaysbe a loweraltitude.
AC 20-117 Proper preflight action includes obtaining information
Answer (A) is incorrect because diluting ethylene glycol lowers the on the freezing level and the above-freezing levels in
eutectic point. Answer (C) is incorrect becausediluting ethylene gly precipitation areas. (PLT493) — FAA-H-8083-15
col decreases the minimum freezing point(onset of crystallization). Answer (A) is incorrect because pilots should leave the area of
any precipitation; even liquid precip can result in an icing scenario.
Answer (B) is incorrect because a "warmer" altitude may not always
be a lower altitude.
ALL
9443. Which procedure increases holding time when
deicing/anti-icing an airplane using a two-step process?
A— Heated Type 1 fluid followed by cold Type 2 fluid.
B- Cold Type 2 fluid followed by hot Type 2 fluid.
C— Heated Type 1 or 2 fluid followed by cold Type 1
fluid.

Type 2 fluid isapplied cold to increase its thickness and

increase holding time. (PLT108)—AC 120-58
Answer (B) is incorrect because cold Type 2 would not be an effec
tive deicer. Answer (C) is incorrect because step 2 should be Type 2.

Answers

9441 [C] 9442 [B] 9443 [A] 9444 [A] 9753 [C]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 8-31

 Chapter 8 Meteorology and Weather Services

ALL ALL
9756. If icing is suspected on an airplane equipped with 9447. What is the minimum glycol content of Type 2
deicing equipment, the pilot should deicing/anti-icing fluid?
A— first confirm ice with the ice light prior to deploying A— 30 percent.
the pneumatic boots. B—50 percent.
B— operate the pneumatic deicing system several C—80 percent.
times to clear the ice.
C—operate the pneumatic deicing system once to SAE and ISO Type 2 fluids contain a minimum of 50
allow time for the ice removal. percent glycols and are considered "thickened"because
of added thickening agents that enable the fluid to be
Pneumatic boots areone method capable of removing deposited in a thicker film and to remain on the aircraft
ice from an aircraft surface. This system is commonly surfaces until thetime for takeoff. (PLT108) —AC 120-58
used on smalleraircraft and usuallyprovides ice removal
for the wing and tail section by inflating a rubber boot.
(PLT493) — FAA-H-8083-15 ALL

Answer (A) is incorrect because the deicing system shouldbe used 9448. Anti-icing fluid should provide freezing point
as soon as icing is suspected. Answer (C) is incorrect because the protection to
pneumatic boots should be inflated/deflated several times to try to
remove the ice. A— -20°F ambient temperature.
B— +32°F outside temperature or below.
C—a freezing point no greater than 20°F below the
ALL ambient or airplane surface temperature.
9445. Whatshould the deice/anti-ice fluid temperature
be during the last step of a two-phase process? In anycase the freezing point of residual fluids (water,
A- Hot. FPD fluids ormixtures) should notbe greater than 20°F
B-Warm. belowambient orsurfacetemperature, whichever is less.
C-Cold. (PLT108)—AC 20-117
Answers (A) and (B) are incorrect because anti-icing fluid should
The two-step procedure involves both deicing and protect from icing to a freezing point no greater than 20°F belowthe
ambientor aircraft surface temperature.
anti-icing. Deicing is accomplished with hot water or
a hot mixture of FPD and water. The ambient weather
conditions and the type of accumulation to be removed ALL
from the aircraft must beconsidered when determining 9450. Freezing Point Depressant (FPD) fluids used
which type of deicing fluid to use. The second (anti- for deicing
icing) step involves applying a mixture of SAE or ISO
Type 2 and water to the critical surfaces of the aircraft. A— provide ice protection during flight.
(PLT108) — AC 120-58 B— are intended to provide ice protection on the
ground only.
Answers (A) and (B) are incorrect because heated fluids are used
during the first step of a two-phase process. C—on the ground, cause no performance
degradation during takeoff.

ALL FPD fluids are usedtoaidthe ground deicing process

9446. What is the minimum glycol content of Type 1 andprovide a protective film todelayformations of frost,
deicing/anti-icing fluid? snow, or other ice. (PLT108)—AC 120-58
A—30 percent. Answer (A) is incorrect because FPD does not provide inflight pro
tection. Answer (C) is incorrect because some large aircraft experi
B—50 percent. ence performance degradation and may require weight or other
C—80 percent. compensation.

SAE and ISO Type 1 fluids in the concentrated form

contain a minimum of 80 percentglycols and are con
sidered "unthickened" because of their relatively low
viscosity. (PLT108) — AC 120-58

Answers
9756 [B] 9445 [C] 9446 [C] 9447 [B] 9448 [C] 9450 [B]

8-32 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 8 Meteorology and Weather Services

ALL ALL

9452. Snow on top of deicing or anti-icing fluids 9454. Freezing Point Depressant (FPD) fluid residue
on engine fan or compressor blades
A— need not be considered as adhering to the aircraft.
B—must be considered as adhering to the aircraft. A— can increase performance and cause stalls or
C—must be considered as adhering to the aircraft, surges.
but a safe takeoff can be made as it will blow off. B— could cause FPD vapors to enter the aircraft but
would have no affect on engine thrust or power.
FPD fluids are highly soluble in water; however, ice is C—can reduce engine performance and cause
slow to absorb FPD or to melt when in contact with it. surging and/or compressor stalls.
Iffrost, ice, or snow is adhering to an aircraft surface,
the formation may be melted by repeated application Fluid residue on engine fan or compressorblades can
ofproper quantities of FPD fluid. This process can be reduce engine performance or cause stall or surge.
significantly accelerated by thermal energy from heated (PLT108) — AC 120-58
fluids. As the ice melts, the FPD mixes with the water Answer (A) is incorrect because fluid residue would cause a
thereby diluting the FPD. Asdilution occurs, the resulting decrease in performance. Answer (B) is incorrect because fluid resi
due would have an affect on engine thrust or power.
mixture may begin to run off. If allthe ice is not melted,
additional applications of FPD become necessaryuntil
the fluid penetrates to the aircraft surface. When all the ALL
ice has melted, the remaining liquid residue is a mixture 9698. The practice developed and accepted by the
of water and FPD. Theresulting film couldfreeze (begin North Americanair carrier industry using traditional North
to crystallize) with only a slight temperature decrease. American fluids is to ensure that the freeze point of the
(PLT108) — AC 120-58 remaining film is below ambient temperature byat least
Answer (A) is incorrect because snow (ice) needs to be considered
as adhering tothe aircraft (see explanation). Answer (C) is incorrect A-10°F.
becausesnowmay notnecessarily blow offduring takeoff. B- 20°F.
C-20°C.

ALL
As itis applied, deicing fluid is often diluted bymelted
9453. Freezing Point Depressant (FPD) fluids are highly snow and ice. It is standardpractice to ensure that the
soluble in water; however, remaining film ofdiluted fluid hasa freeze point atleast
20°F below the ambient temperature. (PLT108) — AC
A— ice is slow to absorb it but fast to melt when in
120-58
contact with FPD.
B— ice absorbs it very fast but is slowto melt when in
contact with it. ALL
C— ice is slow to absorb it, and to melt when in 9700. What is the effect of Freezing Point Depressant
contact with it. (FPD) fluid residue onengine fan orcompressor blades?
FPD fluids are highly soluble in water; however, ice is A— could cause FPD vapors to enter the aircraft but
slow to absorb FPD or to melt when in contact with it. would have no affect on engine thrust or power.
(PLT108) — AC 120-58
B— It can increase performance and cause stalls or
surges.
Answer (A) is incorrect because FPD fluids areslow tomelt. Answer
(B) is incorrect because FPD fluids areslow toabsorb. C—It can reduce engine performance and cause
surging and/or compressor stalls.
Fluid residue on engine fan orcompressorblades can
reduce engine performance orcause stall orsurge. In
addition, this could increase the possibility of, or the
quantity of, glycol vapors entering the aircraft through
the engine bleed air system. (PLT108) —AC 120-58

Answers

9452 [B] 9453 [C] 9454 [C] 9698 [B] 9700 [C]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 8-33

 Chapter 8 Meteorology and Weather Services

ALL ALL
9183. What is a feature of supercooled water? 9161. Freezing rain encountered during climb is nor
A— The waterdrop sublimates to an ice particle upon mally evidence that
impact. A— a climb can be made to a higher altitude without
B— The unstable water drop freezes upon striking an encountering more than light icing.
exposed object. B—a layer of warmer air exists above.
C—Thetemperature of the water drop remains at C—ice pellets at higher altitudes have changed to
0°C until it impacts a part of the airframe, then rain in the warmer air below.
clear ice accumulates.
Rain ordrizzle is always formed in temperatures which
Rain ordrizzle is always formed in temperatures which are above freezing. Rain falling through colder air may
are above freezing. Rain falling through colder air may become supercooled, freezing on impact as freezing
become supercooled, freezing on impact as freezing rain. (PLT512) — AC 00-6
rain. (PLT512)—AC00-6 Answer (A) isincorrect because freezing rain only means that a layer
Answer (A) isincorrect because sublimation isthe process ofchang ofwarmer air exists above; it does not indicate the amount oficing
ing water vapor to ice crystals (not liquid water to ice). Answer (C) that may be encountered during a climb. Answer (C) is incorrect
is incorrect because supercooled water temperature is below 0°C. because freezing rain is formed byrain falling through colder air, not
from ice pellets melting through warmer air.

ALL
ALL
9221. What condition is necessary for the formation of
structural icing in flight? 9223. Which type precipitation is an indication that
supercooled water is present?
A— Supercooled water drops.
B—Water vapor. A— Wet snow.
C—Visible water. B— Freezing rain.
C— Ice pellets.
For structural icing to form, the aircraft must be flying
through visible moisture andthetemperature where the Rain ordrizzle is always formed in temperatures which
moisture strikes the aircraft must 0°C or colder. Note are above freezing. Rain falling through colder air may
that the moisture does not need to be supercooled become supercooled, freezing on impact as freezing
(PLT274) — AC 00-6 rain. (PLT344) — AC 00-6
Answer (A) is incorrect because supercooled water drops increase Answer (A) is incorrect because wet snow is an indication that
the rate oficing, but arenot a condition necessary for the formation temperature is above freezing at the present level. Answer (C) is
of structural icing. Answer (B) is incorrect because water must be incorrect becauseicepellets indicate that water has frozen, notthat
visible, not in a gaseous (vapor) state. is has become supercooled.

ALL ALL

9224. Which type of icing is associated withthe smallest 9180. Whatcondition is indicated when ice pellets are
size of water droplet similar to that found in low-level encountered during flight?
stratus clouds? A— Thunderstorms at higher levels.
A— Clear ice. B— Freezing rain at higher levels.
B— Frost ice. C—Snow at higher levels.
C—Rime ice.
Rain ordrizzle is always formed in temperatures which
Rime ice forms when drops are small, such as those are above freezing. Rain falling through colder air may
in stratified clouds orlight drizzle. (PLT274) —AC 00-6 become supercooled, freezing on impact as freezing
Answer (A) is incorrect because clear ice forms when drops are rain. As it continues to fall in the freezing temperature,
large, not small, as found in rain or cumuliform clouds. Answer (B) it will form into ice pellets. (PLT493) — AC 00-6
is incorrect because frost is not a structural icing condition found in Answer (A) isincorrect because ice pellets always indicate freezing
flight; ithappens toairplanes parked onthe ground as well. rain, not thunderstorms, at higher altitudes. Answer (C) is incorrect
because freezing rain, not snow, is indicated athigher altitude when
ice pellets are encountered.

Answers

9183 [B] 9221 [C] 9224 [C] 9161 [B] 9223 [B] 9180 [B]

8-34 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 8 Meteorology and Weather Services

ALL ALL

9774. The most likely condition in which to experience 9179. Which conditions result in the formation of frost?
severe inflight icing with the ambient temperature below A— The temperature of the collecting surface is at or
0°Cis below freezing and small droplets of moisture are
A—rain. falling.
B—visible moisture. B— Dew collects on the surface and then freezes
C-fog. because the surface temperature is lower than
the air temperature.
For structural icing to occur two conditions must be C—Temperature of the collecting surface is below the
present: The aircraft must be flying through visible water dewpoint and the dewpoint is also below freezing.
such as rain or cloud droplets and temperature at the
point where the moisture strikes the aircraft mustbe 0° Frost forms when both the temperature and the dew
or colder. (PLT274) — AC 00-6 point of thecollecting surface are belowfreezing. When
this occurs, water vapor sublimates directly into frost.
This condition most often occurs on clear nights with
ALL littleor no wind. (PLT493) — AC 00-6
9775. Which of the following weather conditions are Answer (A) is incorrect because moisture that falls on a collecting
conducive to inflight icing? surface thatis at or below freezing will form ice. Answer(B) is incor
rect because frozen dew is hard and transparent, while frost is the
A— Visible rain with temperatures below 0°C. sublimationof vaporinto ice, and is whiteand opaque.
B—Visible rain with temperatures below 10°C.
C—Visible moisture with temperatures below 5°C.
ALL
The following weather conditions may be conducive to 9748. When flying in the rain and an air temperature
severe in-flight icing: visible rain at temperatures below of 1°C, a pilot should
0°C ambient air temperature; droplets that splash or A— not expect icing until the air temperature is 0°C or
splatter on impact at temperatures below0°Cambient
less.
air temperature. (PLT274) — AC 91-51 B— Use autopilot in icing to lower the work load.
C—be aware of the possibility of airframe icing.
ALL
Pilots shouldbe vigilant and awareof icing possibilities,
9162. What temperature condition is indicated if pre
particularly when flying in conditions between -5and+2
cipitation in the form of wet snow occurs during flight?
degrees C. (PLT274) — AC 91-74
A— The temperature is above freezing at flight
altitude.
B— The temperature is above freezing at higher ALL

altitudes. 9181. When will frost most likely form on aircraft sur
C—There is an inversion with colder air below. faces?
A— On clear nights with stable air and light winds.
Snow!lakes are formedby sublimation inbelow-freezing B—On overcast nights with freezing drizzle
temperatures. If the snow falls into an area of above- precipitation.
freezing temperatures it will start to melt, become wet C—On clear nights with convective action and a
snow and eventually turn into rain. (PLT493) — AC00-6 small temperature/dewpoint spread.
Answer (B) is incorrect because wetsnowindicates above-freezing
temperature at flight level, not at higher altitudes. The temperature Frost forms when both the temperature and the dew
was belowfreezing at the altitudes where the snow formed. Answer
(C) is incorrect because wet snow indicates falling snow that has point of the collecting surface arebelow freezing. When
begun to melt due to above-freezing temperature at flight level. An this occurs, water vapor sublimates directly into frost.
inversion mayormaynotbe thecause of the warmer air. This condition most often occurs on clear nights with
little or no wind. (PLT493) — AC 00-6
Answer (B) is incorrect because freezing drizzle would produce ice
on the aircraft surfaces, not frost. Answer (C) is incorrect because
stable airis required. Convective action requires unstable conditions.

Answers

9775 [A] 9162 [A] 9179 [C] 9748 [C] 9181 [A]
9774 [A]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 8-35

 Chapter 8 Meteorology and Weather Services

ALL ATM, DSP

9736. During an IFR cross-country flight you picked up 8265. What action is required prior to takeoff ifsnow is
rime icing which you estimate is 1/2" thick on the lead adhering to the wings of an air carrier airplane?
ing edge of the wings. You are now below the clouds
A— Sweep off as much snow as possible and the
at 2000 feet AGLand are approaching your destination
residue must be polished smooth.
airport under VFR. Visibility under the clouds is more
than 10 miles,windsat the destination airportare 8 knots
B— Assure that the snow is removed from the airplane.
right down the runway, and the surface temperature is C—Add 15 knots to the normal VR speed as the
snow will blow off.
3 degrees Celsius. You decide to:
A— use a faster than normal approach and landing No person may take offin an aircraft when frost, snow,
speed. or ice is adhering to the wings, control surfaces, or
B— approach and land at your normal speed since propellers of the aircraft. (PLT493) — 14 CFR§121.629
the ice is not thick enough to have any noticeable Answer (A) is incorrect because all of the snow must be removed
effect. prior totakeoff. Answer (C) is incorrect becausethere is no V-speed
C—fly your approach slower than normal to lessen adjustment authorized tocompensate for snowon the wings; itmust
be removed prior to takeoff.
the "wind chill" effect and break up the ice.

Ice will accumulate unevenly on theairplane. It will add ATS

weight and drag, and decrease thrust and lift. With ice 9696. A pretakeoff contamination check for snow, ice
accumulations, landingapproaches should be made with or frost is required by 14 CFR Part 135. This check is
a minimum wing flap setting and with an addedmargin of required to
airspeed. Sudden andlarge configuration andairspeed
changes shouldbe avoided. (PLT274) — FAA-H-8083-3 A— be made within 2 minutes of starting the takeoff roll.
Answer (B) is incorrect because ice having a thickness similar to B— be completed within 5 minutes prior to beginning
sandpaper on the leading edge and upper surface of a wing can the taxi to the runway.
reduce wing lift by as much as 30% and increase drag by 40%. C—see that the aircraft is clean, therefore, a safe
Answer (C) is incorrect because ice will increase drag, requiring takeoff can be made during the next 5 minutes.
additional lift (airspeed); "wind chill" effectcannotbe relied upon to
melt/remove theice that has already accumulated; flying slowerthan
normal increases the possibility of a stall due to the decreased lift. A pre-takeoff inspection for ice, snow, or frost must be
completed no more than 5 minutes prior to takeoff any
time conditions require it. (PLT108) — 14CFR §135.227
ATM, DSP
8258. The pilot in command of an airplane en route
determines that icing conditions can be expected that ATS

mightadversely affect safety of the flight. Which action 9697. Deicing procedures and equipment developed
is appropriate? for large transport airplanes
A— The pilot in command may continueto the original A— will not be appropriate for the smaller aircraft,
destination airport, after climbing to a higher used under 14 CFR Part 135.
altitude. B— will be appropriate for all of the smaller aircraft,
B— The pilot in command shall not continueflight into used under 14 CFR Part 135.
the icing conditions. C—may not be appropriate for some of the smaller
C—The flight may continue to the original destination aircraft, used under 14 CFR Part 135.
airport, provided all anti-icing and deicing
equipment is operational and is used. Deicing procedures developed for large transport air
craft may not be appropriate for smaller, sloweraircraft.
No person maydispatch orrelease an aircraft, continue (PLT108) — AC 120-58
tooperatean aircraft en route, orlandan aircraft when, in
the opinion ofthe pilot-in-commandoraircraft dispatcher,
icing conditions are expected ormet that mightadversely
affect thesafetyofflight. (PLT379) — 14CFR §121.629

Answers

9736 [A] 8258 [B] 8265 [B] 9696 [C] 9697 [C]

8-36 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 8 Meteorology and Weather Services

Turbulence
Light chop causes slight, rapid andsomewhat erratic bumpiness without appreciable changesin altitude
or attitude. Light turbulence causes momentary slight erratic changes in altitude and/or attitude. Light
chop causes rapid bumps or jolts without appreciable changes in aircraft altitude or attitude. Moderate
turbulence is similar to light turbulence, but of greater intensity. Changes in altitude or attitude occur
butthe aircraft remains in positive control at all times. It usually causes variations in indicated airspeed.
Severe turbulence causes large, abrupt changes in altitude or attitude. It usually causes large varia
tions in indicated airspeed. The aircraft may be momentarily out of control. In extreme turbulence the
aircraft is violently tossed about and is practically impossible to control. Extreme turbulence may cause
structural damage.
Turbulence that occurs less than 1/3 of the time should be reported as occasional. Turbulence that
occurs 1/3 to 2/3 of the time is intermittent. Turbulence that occurs more than 2/3 of the time is continu
ous. High altitude turbulence (normally above 15,000 feet MSL) not associated with cumuliform cloudi
ness should be reported as CAT (Clear Air Turbulence).
Strong winds across mountain crests can cause turbulence for 100 or more miles downwind of the
mountains and to altitudes as high as 5,000 feet above the tropopause. If there is enough moisture in
the air, a mountain wave can be marked by standing lenticular clouds. These clouds mark the crest of
each wave. Under the right conditions, several lenticulars can form one above another. A rotor current
forms below the crest of a mountain wave. This is sometimes marked by a rotor cloud which will be the
lowest of a group of stationary clouds. See Figure 8-6.
The jet stream is a common source of CAT. The strong winds and steep wind gradients will almost
always produce some turbulence. The most likely place to find turbulence is on the polar side of the
stream in an upper trough. Thestrongest turbulence will be found in a curving jetstream associated with
such a trough. If you encounter turbulence in the jet stream and you have a direct headwind ortailwind
you should change course or altitude. With the wind parallel to your heading, you are likely to remain in
the jet and the turbulence for a considerable distance. If you approach a jet stream from the polar side
the temperature will drop. When you approach it from the tropical side, the temperature rises. Recall that
there is a downdraft on the polar side and an updraft on the tropical side. Therefore, to avoid jet stream
turbulence descend if the temperature is falling and climb if the temperature is rising as you approach
the stream.
Fronts often have turbulence due to the wind shift associated with a sharp pressure trough. Try to
cross the front at right angles to minimize the time you are exposed to this turbulence.

Figure 8-6. Mountain wave and associated clouds

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 8-37

 Chapter 8 Meteorology and Weather Services

ALL ALL
9262. What type turbulence should be reported when it 9235. Turbulence encountered above 15,000 feet
causes slight, rapid, and somewhat rhythmicbumpiness AGL, not associated with cloud formations, should be
without appreciable changes in attitude or altitude, less reported as
than one-third of the time?
A— convective turbulence.
A—Occasional light chop. B— high altitude turbulence.
B— Moderate turbulence. C—clear air turbulence.
C—Moderate chop.
High-level turbulence (normally above 15,000feetAGL)
This description meets the criteria for occasional light not associated with cumuliform cloudiness, including
chop. (PLT501) — AC 00-45 thunderstorms, should be reported as CAT (Clear Air
Answer (B) is incorrect because moderate turbulence causes a Turbulence). (PLT501)—AC00-45
change in the aircraft's attitude and/or altitude. Answer (C)is incor Answer (A) is incorrect because convective turbulence is normally
rect because moderate chop causes rapid, not rhythmic, bumpsor associated with cumuliform clouds and is reported as turbulence.
jolts, which are not "slight." Answer (B) is incorrect because turbulence above 15,000 feet AGL,
notassociated with clouds, is termed clearairturbulence, not high
altitude turbulence.
ALL

9263. What type turbulence should be reported when

it causes changes in altitude and/or attitude more than ALL

two-thirds of the time, with the aircraft remaining in 9190. Which type clouds are indicative of very strong
positive control at all times? turbulence?

A— Continuous severe chop. A— Nimbostratus.

B—Continuous moderate turbulence. B—Standing lenticular.
C— Intermittent moderate turbulence. C—Cirrocumulus.

This description meets the criteriaforcontinuous moder Standing lenticular clouds form at the crests of waves
ate turbulence. (PLT501)—AC00-45 created by barriers to the wind flow. Though the clouds
Answer (A) is incorrect because severe chop is not a turbulence
do not move, they are indicative of strong winds and
reporting term. Answer (C) is incorrect because intermittentmeans possible turbulence. (PLT192) — AC 00-6
that turbulenceis occurringfrom one-thirdto two-thirds of the time. Answer (A) is incorrect because nimbostratus is a gray ordark mas
sive cloudlayer, diffused by continuous rain, snow, or ice pellets.
The stratus feature indicates very little turbulence. Answer (C) is
ALL incorrect because cirrocumulus are thin clouds appearing as small
white flakes or patches of cotton. Their presence indicates some
9264. What type turbulence should be reported when turbulence and possible icing.
it momentarily causes slight, erratic changes in altitude
and/or attitude, one-third to two-thirds of the time?
A— Occasional light chop. ALL

B— Moderate chop. 9226. What is the lowest cloud inthe stationary group
C— Intermittent light turbulence. associated with a mountain wave?
A— Rotor cloud.
This description meets the criteria for intermittent light B—Standing lenticular.
turbulence. (PLT501) — AC 00-45 C—Low stratus.
Answer (A) is incorrect because light chop does not cause any
appreciable changes in altitude and/or attitude, and occasional is
less than one-third of the time. Answer (B) is incorrect because Mountain waves cangenerate standing lenticular clouds
moderate chopdoes notcause anyappreciable changes inaltitude androtor clouds. Ofthese, therotor cloud is likely tobe
and/or attitude. the lowest. (PLT501)—AC 00-6
Answer (B) is incorrect because thestanding lenticular clouds mark
the crest, orthe top, of each standing wave. Answer (C) is incorrect
because low stratus clouds are not associated with a mountain wave.

Answers

9262 [A] 9263 [B] 9264 [C] 9235 [C] 9190 [B] 9226 [A]

8-38 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 8 Meteorology and Weather Services

ALL ALL
9232. Clear air turbulence (CAT) associated with a 9237. What is a likely location of clear air turbulences?
mountain wave may extend as far as A— In an upper trough on the polar side of a Jetstream.
A— 1,000 miles or more downstream of the mountain. B— Near a ridge aloft on the equatorial side of a high
B— 5,000 feet above the tropopause. pressure flow.
C—100 miles or more upwind of the mountain. C— Downstream of the equatorial side of a Jetstream.

Mountain wave CAT may extend from the mountain A likely location of CATis in an upper trough on the
crests to as high as 5,000 feet above the tropopause, cold (polar) side of thejet stream. (PLT302) — AC 00-6
and can range 100 miles or more downwind from the Answer (B) is incorrectbecause CAT is likely to occur on the polar
mountains. (PLT501) — AC 00-6 side of the jet stream in an upper trough. Answer (C) is incorrect
because CAT is likely on the polar, not equatorial, side of a jet
Answer (A) is incorrectbecause mountainwave CAT can range 100, stream.
not 1,000, miles or more downstream of the mountain. Answer (C) is
incorrect because mountain wave CAT is downwind of the mountain.

ALL

ALL
9239. Which type Jetstream can be expected to cause
9777. Clear air turbulence associated with a jet stream is the greater turbulence?
A— most commonly found in temperatures between A— A straight Jetstream associated with a high
-40 and -50 degrees C. pressure ridge.
B—most commonly found in the vicinity of the B— AJetstream associated with a wide isotherm
tropopause. spacing.
C—similar to that associated with a tropical maritime C—A curving Jetstream associated with a deep low
front.
pressure trough.

Maximum winds generally occur at levels near the tro A frequent CAT location is along the jet stream where
popause. These strong winds create narrow zones of it curves north and northeast of a rapidly deepening
windshear which often generate hazardous turbulence. surface low. (PLT302)—AC 00-6
(PLT501) — AC 00-6 Answer (A) is incorrect because greaterturbulence is expected in
a curved, not a straight jet stream. Answer(B) is incorrect because
Answer (A) is incorrect because temperatures are nota primary fac greater turbulence is more pronounced when isotherm spacing
torforCAT. Answer(C) is incorrect because CAT is associated with is narrow.
the tropopause, not a tropicalmaritime front.

ALL
ALL
9230. Which action is recommended if Jetstream turbu
9777-1. The threshold wind speed in the jet stream for lence is encountered with a direct headwind or tailwind?
clear air turbulence is generally considered to be
A— Increase airspeed to get out of the area quickly.
A-100 kts.
B— Change course to fly on the polar side of the
B-110 kts.
Jetstream.
C-120 kts. C—Change altitude or course to avoid a possible
elongated turbulent area.
The threshold wind speed in the jet stream for CAT is
generally consideredtobe 110knots. Wind speed injet Ifjet stream turbulence is encountered with direct tail-
streams can be much stronger than 110 knots and the winds or headwinds, a change of flight level or course
probability ofencountering CATincreases proportionally should be initiated since these turbulent areas are
with the wind speed and the wind shear it generates. elongated with the wind, and are shallow and narrow.
Itis not the windspeed itself that causes CAT; it is the (PLT263) — AC 00-30, Appendix 1
wind shear or difference in wind speed from one level
Answer(A) is incorrect because an increase in airspeed may over-
or point to another that causes the wave motion or stress the airplane in turbulent conditions. Normally, a reduction in
overturning in the atmosphere thatis turbulence to an airspeed is required for turbulent airpenetration. Answer (B) is incor
aircraft. (PLT501) — AC 00-30B rect because CAT is normallyon the polar side of the jet stream, so
you would be flying into more turbulent weather.

Answers

9232 [B] 9777 [B] 9777-1 [B] 9237 [A] 9239 [C] 9230 [C]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 8-39

Chapter 8 Meteorology and Weather Services

ALL ALL
9231. Which action is recommended regarding an alti 9219. What action is recommended when encountering
tude change to get out of Jetstream turbulence? turbulence due to a wind shift associated with a sharp
A— Descend if ambient temperature is falling. pressure trough?
B— Descend if ambient temperature is rising. A— Establish a straight course across the storm area.
C— Maintain altitude if ambient temperature is not B— Climb or descend to a smoother level.
changing. C—Increase speed to get out of the trough as soon
as possible.
If you want to traverse an area of CAT more quickly,
watch the temperature gauge for a minute or two. If If turbulence is encountered in an abrupt wind shift
the temperature is rising—climb; if the temperature is associated witha sharp pressure storm area, establish a
falling—descend. Application of these rules will prevent straight course across the stormarea rather thanparallel
you from following theslopingtropopause and stayingin to it. A change in flight level is not likely to alleviate the
the turbulentarea. Ifthe temperature remains constant, bumpiness. (PLT501) —AC 00-30, Appendix 1
the flight is probably close to the level of the core, so Answer(B) is incorrect because there is no indication to identify in
either climb or descend as is convenient. (PLT263) — which direction the turbulence is stronger. A change in altitude will
AC 00-30, Appendix 1 normally remove the aircraft from the turbulent zone. Answer (C) is
incorrect because speed should be decreased to the recommended
Answer (B) is incorrectbecause to get out of jet stream turbulence airspeed forrough air. Thiswill avoid overstressing the airplane.
with a rising ambient temperature you would climb, not descend.
Answer (C) is incorrect because you would need to make an altitude
change due tojet streamturbulence, and thereshouldbe a tempera
ture change due to a sloping tropopause.

Arctic and Tropical Weather Hazards

"Whiteout" is a visibility restricting phenomenon that occurs in the Arctic when a layer of cloudiness of
uniform thickness overlies a snow or ice covered surface. Parallel rays of the sun are broken up and
diffused when passing through the cloud layer so that they strike the snow surface from many angles.
The diffused light then reflects back and forth between the clouds and thesnow eliminating all shadows.
The result is a loss of depth perception that makes takeoff or landing on snow-covered surfaces very
dangerous.
"Tropical Cyclone" is the term for any low that originates over tropical oceans. Tropical cyclones are
classified according to their intensity based on average one minute wind speeds. These classifications are:
Tropical Depression —highest sustained winds up to 34 knots.
Tropical Storm —highest sustained winds of 35 knots through 64 knots.
Hurricane or Typhoon —highest sustained winds of 65 knots or more.
The movement of hurricanes is erratic and very difficult to predict with any degree of precision. As a
general rule, hurricanes in the northern hemisphere tend to move to the northwest while they are in the
lower latitudes and under the influence of the trade winds. Once they move far enough north to come
under the influence of the prevailing westerlies of the mid-latitudes their track tends to curve back to
the northeast.

Answers

9231 [A] 9219 [A]

8-40 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 8 Meteorology and Weather Services

ALL ALL

9234. Which arctic flying hazard is caused when a 9260. What is the general direction of movement of a
cloud layer of uniform thickness overlies a snow or ice hurricane located in the Caribbean or Gulf of Mexico
covered surface? region?
A— Ice fog. A— Northwesterly curving to northeasterly.
B- Whiteout. B—Westerly, until encountering land, then easterly.
C—Blowing snow. C—Counterclockwise over open water, then
dissipating outward over land.
"Whiteout" is a visibility restricting phenomenon that
occurs in the Arctic when a layerof cloudiness of uniform Hurricanes located in the Caribbean or Gulf of Mexico
thickness overlies a snow or ice covered surface. The move northwesterly in the lower latitudes curving to
resultis a loss of depth perception. (PLT512) —AC 00-6 northeasterly inthehigherlatitudes. (PLT068) —AC 00-6
Answer (A) is incorrect because ice fog forms in moist air during Answer (B) is incorrect because a hurricane will curve easterly
extremely cold conditions. Itis not formedby a cloud layer overlying because of prevailing winds, not because of land. Answer (C) is
a snow-covered surface. Answer (C) is incorrect because blow incorrect because the windflow in the hurricane is counterclockwise,
ing snow is snow that is blown by light or greater winds, causing not the general movement of the hurricane itself.
decreased visibility. It is not formed by a cloud layer overlying a
snow-covered surface.

ALL
9259. Which weather condition is present when the
tropical storm is upgraded to a hurricane?
A— Highest windspeed, 100 knots or more.
B— A clear area or hurricane eye has formed.
C— Sustained winds of 65 knots or more.

Tropical cyclone international classifications are:

1. Tropical depression — highest sustained winds up
to 34 knots;
2. Tropical storm — highest sustained winds of 35
through 64 knots;
3. Hurricane or typhoon— highest sustained winds of
65 knots or more.

(PLT511)—AC00-6
Answer (A) is incorrect because tropical cyclones are classified
based on the sustained winds, not the highest wind speed. Answer
(B) is incorrect because a clear area, or eye, usuallyforms in the
tropicalstorm stage and continues through the hurricane stage.

Answers

9234 [B] 9259 [C] 9260 [A]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 8-41

Chapter 8 Meteorology and Weather Services

Aviation Routine Weather Report (METAR)

Weather reports (METAR) and forecasts (TAF) follow the format shown in Figure 8-7.

mtmwm
Key to Aerodrome Forecast (TAF) Key to Aerodrome Forecast (TAF)
and Aviation Routine Weather Report (METAR) and Aviation Routine Weather Report (METAR)
TAF KPIT 091730Z 0918/1024 15005KT 5SM HZ FEW020 WS010/31022KT Forecast Explanation Report
FM091930 30015G25KT 3SM SHRA OVC015 WS010/ In U.S. TAF, nonconvective low-level (52,000 feet) Wind Shear;
TEMPO 0920/0922 1/2SM +TSRA OVC008CB 31022KT 3-digit height (hundreds of feet); "J_"\ 3-digit wind direction and 2-3
FM100100 27008KT 5SM SHRA BKN020 OVC040 digit wind speed above the indicated height, and unit, £[
PROB30 1004/1007 1SM -RA BR
In METAR,BeMarK indicator and remarks. For example: Sea-Level RMK SLP045
FM101015 18005KT 6SM -SHRA OVC020
Pressure in hectoPascals and tenths, as shown: 1004.5 hPa; Temp/ T01820159
BECMG 1013/1015 P6SM NSW SKC dewpoint in tenths °C, as shown: temp. 18.2°C, dewpoint 15.9°C
Note: Users are cautioned to confirm DATE and TMfEof the TAF. FM091930 EroM: Changes are expected at: 2-digitdate, 2-digithour,and 2-digit
For example FM100000 is 0000Z on the 10th. Do not confuse with 1000Z! minute beginning time: indicates significant change. Each FMstarts
METAR KPIT 091955Z COR 22015G25KT 3/4SM R28U2600FT TSRA OVC010CB on a new line, indented 5 spaces
18/16 A2992 RMK SLP045 T01820159 TEMPO TEMPOrary: Changes expected for <1 hour and in total, < half of
0920/0922 the period between the 2-digitdate and 2-digit hour beginning, and
Forecast Explanation Report 2-digit date and 2-digit hour ending time
TAF Message type: JA£: routine or TAF AMD:amended forecast; METAR: METAR PROB30 PROBability and 2-digit percent (30 or 40): Probable condition in the
hourly; SPECI: special orTESTM: noncommissioned ASOS report 1004/1007 period between the 2-digitdate and 2-digit hour beginning time,
KPIT ICAO location Indicator KPIT
and the 2-digit date and 2-digit hour ending time
091730Z Issuance time: ALL times in UTC"Z", 2-digit date, 4-digittime 091955Z
BECMG BECoMinQ: Change expected in the period between the 2-digitdate
1013/1015 and 2-digithour beginning time, and the 2-digitdate and 2-digit
0918/1024 Validperiod: Either 24 hours or 30 hours. The first two digits of
hour ending time
EACHfour-digitnumber indicate the date of the valid period, the final
two digits indicate the time (valid from 18Z on the 9th to 24Z on the
10th). Table of Significant Present, Forecast and Recent Weather-Grouped In categories
In U.S. METAR: CQJSrected Ob; or AUTOmated ob for automated COR and used In the order listed below; or as needed InTAF, No Significant Weather
report with no human intervention; omitted when observer logs on. QUALIFIERS
15005KT Wind:3-digittrue-north direction, nearest 10 degrees (orYaEiaBJe); 22015Q2SKT Intensity or Proximity
next 2-3 digits for speed and unit, KI (KMHor MPS); as needed, "-" = Light No sign = Moderate "+" = Heavy
Gust and maximum speed; OO00OKT for calm; for METAR, if "VC" = Vicinity, but not at aerodrome. Inthe U.S.METAR, 5 to 10 SMfromthe pointof observation.
direction varies 60 degrees or more, Variability appended, e.g., In the U.S.TAF,5 to 10 SM from the center of the runway complex. Elsewhere, within8000m.
180Y260
Descriptor
MM Prevailing visibility: In U.S., Statute Miles and fractions; above 6 3/4SM BC Patches BL Blowing Dfl Drifting FZ Freezing
miles in TAF Plus6SM. (Or, 4-digit minimum visibilityin meters and Ml Shallow PR Partial SH Showers TS Thunderstorm
as required, lowest value with direction.)
WEATHER PHENOMENA
RunwayVisual Range: B; 2-digit runway designator Left, Center, or R28L/2600FT Precipitation
Bight as needed; "_L"; Minus or Elus in U.S., 4-digitvalue, Eeel in DZ Drizzle GR Hail GS Smallhailor snow pellets
U.S.(usuallymeters elsewhere); 4-digitvalue Variability, 4-digitvalue IC Ice crystals PL Ice pellets RA Rain SG Snow grains
(and tendency Qown, Up or Ho change) SN Snow UP Unknown precipitation in automated observations
HZ Significant present, forecast and recent weather: See table (to the TSRA Obscuration
right) BR Mist(£5/8SM) DU Widespread dust FG Fog<<5/8SM) FU Smoke
HZ Haze PY Spray SA Sand VA Volcanic ash
FEW020 Cloud amount, height and type: SKy Clear 0/8, FEW >0/8-2/8, OVC010CB
Other
SCaltered 3/8-4/8,BroKeN 5/8-7/8, OVerCast8/8; 3-digitheight in
DS Dust storm FC Funnel cloud +FC Tornado or waterspout
hundreds of feet; lowering CUmulus or Cumulonimgus in METAR;in
PO Well-developed dust or sand whirls SQ Squall SS Sandstorm
TAF, onlyCB.Vertical Visibility for obscured sky and height"W004".
More than 1 layer may be reported or forecast. In automated METAR • Explanations in parentheses"()" indicate differentworldwidepractices.
reports only, cleaB for "clear below 12,000 feet." • Ceiling is notspecified; defined as the lowestbrokenor overcastlayer, orthe vertical visibility.
Temperature: Degrees Celsius; first 2 digits, temperature "_/_" last 2 • NWS TAFs exclude BECMG groups and temperature forecasts, NWS TAFs do not use PROB in the first 9 hours
18/16
digits, dewpoint temperature; Minusfor below zero, e.g., M06 ofa TAF; NWS METARs exclude trend forecasts. U.S. Military TAFs include Turbulence andIcing groups.
Altimetersetting: Indicator and 4 digits; in U.S., A:inches and A2992
hundredths; (Q.:hectoPascals, e.g., Q1013)
Continued

Figure 8-7. TAF/METAR weather card

ALL ALL
9266. (Refer to Figure 145.) What was the local Central 9267. (Refer to Figure 145.) What type of report is listed
Standard Time ofthe Aviation Routine Weather Report for Lubbock (KLBB) at 1818Z?
at Austin (KAUS)?
A— AnAviation selected special weather report.
A—11:53 a.m. B— Aspecial report concerning very low station
B—5:53 p.m. pressure.
C-10:53 p.m. C—A Special METAR weather observation,
concerning significant weather changes.
"131753Z" indicates that this METAR report is for the
thirteenthday of the month, at 1753 Coordinated Univer The designation "SPECI" means that this is a special
sal Time (UTC). Central Standard Time is UTC minus 6 weather observation. (PLT059) — AC 00-45
hours (1753-6=1153). (PLT059) — AC 00-45

Answers

9266 [A] 9267 [A]

8-42 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 8 Meteorology and Weather Services

ALL ALL
9268. (Refer to Figure 146.) What method was used to 9272. SPECI KGLS 131802Z 10012G21KT 060V140
obtain the METAR at Tyler (KTYR) at 1753Z? 2SM +SHRASCT005 BKN035 OVC050CB 24/23 A2980
RMK RAB57 WS TKO RW09L WSHFT 58 FROPA.
A—Automated Surface Observing System (ASOS),
having a precipitation discriminator. This SPECI report at Galveston (KGLS) indicates which
B— Automatic Meteorological Observing Station condition?
(AMOS), with a precipitation discriminator. A—Wind steady at 100° magnetic at 12 knots, gusts
C—Automated Weather Observing System (AWOS), to 21.
without a precipitation discriminator. B— Precipitation started at 1757.
C—5,000 feet overcast with towering cumulus.
The word "AUTO" after the date-time group indicates
that this is an automated weather report. The "A02" The remarks "RAB57"indicates rain began at 57 minutes
in the remarks section indicate that it was made by past the hour. (PLT059) — AC 00-45
an unattended Automated Surface Observing System Answer (A) is incorrect because "10012G21KT 060V140" indicates
(ASOS). The ASOS will automatically report precipita the wind was from 100° at 12 knots with gusts to 21 knots; however,
tion amounts. (PLT059) — AC 00-45 the wind direction was variable between 60-140°, and wind direc
tion in written reports and forecasts are referenced to true north.
Answer (C) is incorrect because "OVC050CB" indicates there was
an overcast cumulonimbus cloud at 5,000 feet. Towering cumulus is
ALL
abbreviated "TCU."
9269. (Refer to Figure 145.) What condition is reported
at Childress (KCDS)?
A— Light rain showers. ALL

B— Heavy rain showers began 42 minutes after the 9273. (Refer to Figure 145.) What weather improve
hour. ment was reported at Lubbock (KLBB) between 1750
C—The ceiling is solid overcast at an estimated and 1818 UTC?
1,800 feet above sea level. A—The wind shift and frontal passage at 1812Z.
B—The vertical visibility improved by 2,000 feet.
"-SHRA"indicates an observation of light rain showers. C—The temperature and dew point spread improved.
(PLT059) — AC 00-45
Answer (B) is incorrect because the remark "RERAB42" means an At 1750Z, the vertical visibility was 1,000 feet (VV010).
observed recent weather event was that rain began at 42 minutes At 1818Z, the vertical visibility had improved to 3,000
past the previous hour. Answer (C) is incorrect because the abbre
viation "OVC180"indicated the base of an overcast layer is at 18,000 feet (VV030). (PLT059) — AC 00-45
feet above the station. Answer (A) is incorrect because even though the description of the
events is correct, it is not an improvement since the wind speed
increased and the visibility decreased. Answer (C) is incorrect
because the temperature and dew point actually converged. At
ALL
1750Z, the spread was 4°C (03/M01), but by 1818Z, there was a 0°
9270. (Refer to Figure 145.) What condition is reported spread (M01/M01).
at Dallas (KDAL)?
A—The tops of the overcast is 10,000 feet.
B— Temperature/dewpoint spread is 8°F.
C—Altimeter setting is 30.07.

"A3007" indicates an altimeter setting of 30.07" Hg.

(PLT059) — AC 00-45
Answer (A) is incorrect because "OVC100" indicates the base of
the overcast layer is 10,000 feet above the station. Answer (B) is
incorrect because the reported temperature/dew point are given in
degrees Celsius, not Fahrenheit.

Answers

9268 [A] 9269 [A] 9270 [C] 9272 [B] 9273 [B]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 8-43

Chapter 8 Meteorology and Weather Services

ALL ALL

8735. What hazard should you expect for a morning 9276. (Refer to Figure 146.) What was the ceiling at
departure from KPDX, based on this METAR? Walnut Ridge (KARG)?
KPDX 271154Z 00000KT 9SM CLR -10/-10 A2979. A-1,000 feet AGL.
A— Wind shear. B-2,400 feet AGL.
B— Frost on the aircraft. C-1,000 feet MSL.
C—Sea breeze.
"OVC010"indicates an overcast layer with bases at
On calm clear nights with little-to-no wind, and a tem 1,000 feet AGL. (PLT059)—AC 00-45
perature at or below the dew point, you should expect Answer (B) is incorrect because 2,400 feet is the RVR for runway
28 at Walnut Ridge airport. Answer (C) is incorrect because the sky
dew or frost. Because the temperature and dew point condition is reported in feet above the ground.
are both -10 there is a high likelihood of the presence
of frost on the aircraft surfaces. (PLT059) — AC 00-6
Answers (A) and (C) are incorrect because the wind is calm. ALL
9277. METAR KHRO 131753Z 09007KT7SM FEW020
BKN040 30/27 A3001.
ALL
SPECI KHRO 131815Z 13017G26KT 3SM +TSRA
9274. METAR KMAF 131756Z 02020KT12SM BKN025 SCT020 BKN045TCU 29/24 A2983 RMK
OVC250 27/18 A3009 RMK RAE44. RAB12 WS TKO LDG RW14R FRQ LTGICCG VC.
Which weather condition is indicated by this METAR What change has taken place between 1753 and 1815
report at Midland (KMAF)? UTC at Harrison (KHRO)?
A— Rain of unknown intensity ended 16 minutes A—The ceiling lowered and cumulonimbus clouds
before the hour. developed.
B— The ceiling was at 25,000 feet MSL. B— Thundershowers began at 12 minutes past the
C—Wind was 020° magnetic at 20 knots. hour.
C—Visibility reduced to IFR conditions.
"RAE44" indicates the rain ended 44 minutes past the
hour, which is the same thing as 16 minutes before the At 1815Z, the station was reportingheavy thunderstorms
hour. (PLT059) — AC 00-45 and rain (+TSRA). "RAB12"indicates thatthe rain began
Answer (B) is incorrect because a ceiling is the lowest broken or at 12 minutes past the hour. (PLT059) — AC 00-45
overcast layer. "BKN025" indicates a broken layer (not a ceiling) at
2,500 feet. The base of the higher overcast layer is at 25,000 feet
above the station (not sea level). Answer (C) is incorrect because the
winds are 020° true at 20 knots. ALL
9824. In this METAR excerpt, "SLP993 SNINCR 1/10"
means
ALL
A— 0.1" of snow on the runway land zone during the
9275. METAR KSPS 131757Z 09014KT 6SM -RA
last hour.
SCT025 OVC090 24/22 A3005.
B— 1" of snow in the last 10 hours.
SPECI KSPS 131820Z 01025KT 3SM +RA FC OVC015
C—1" and a total of 10" of snow is on the ground with
22/21 A3000.
1" in the last hour.
Which change took place at Wichita Falls (KSPS)
between 1757 and 1820 UTC? At designated stations, the "snow increasing rapidly"
A—The rain became lighter. remark is reported in the next METAR whenever the
B— Atmospheric pressure increased.
snow depth increases by 1 inch or more in the past hour.
C—A funnel cloud was observed.
The remarkis coded in the following format: the remark
indicator SNINCR, the depth increase in the past hour,
"FC" in the 1820Z report indicates that a funnel cloud/ and the totaldepth on the ground, separated from each
tornado/waterspout was observed. (PLT059) —AC 00-45 other by a "/". (PLT059) — AC 00-45
Answer (A) is incorrect because the rain increased in intensity. At
1757Z, the abbreviation "-RA" indicated light rain;at 1820Z, "+RA"
indicates heavy rain. Answer (B) is incorrect because the atmo
spheric pressure is decreased. The altimeter went from 30.05" Hg
(A3005) at 1757Z, to 30.00" Hg (A3000) at 1820Z.

Answers

8735 [B] 9274 [A] 9275 [C] 9276 [A] 9277 [B] 9824 [C]

8-44 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 8 Meteorology and Weather Services

ALL ALL
9704. Data that may be added (manual weather aug 9718. The VV001 in the following METAR indicates
mentation) to the Automated Weather Observing System
(AWOS) report is limited to METAR KFSM 131756Z AUTO 00000KT M1/4SM
R25/0600V1000FT -RA FG VV001
A— the precipitation accumulation report, an auto A2989 RMK A02 VIS 3/4 RWY19 CHINO RWY19 $
mated variable visibility, and wind direction
remark. A— an observer reported the vertical visibility as 100
B—thunderstorms (intensity and direction), feet.
precipitation (type and intensity), and obstructions B— a 100 foot indefinite ceiling.
to visibility (dependent on the visibility being 3 C—the variability value is 100 feet.
miles or less).
The height into an indefinite ceiling is preceded by
C—density Altitude, NOTAMs, and reported slant
range visibility. "VV'and followed by three digits indicating the vertical
visibility in hundreds of feet. This layer indicates total
In addition to the information automatically included in obscuration. The indefinite ceiling is 100 feet. (PLT059)
an AWOS report, information can be manually added. — AIM 17-1-11
The remarks are limited to thunderstorms (type and
intensity), and obstructions to vision when the visibility
ALL
is 3 SM or less. Augmentation is identified in the obser
9242. METAR KFSO 031053Z VRB02KT 7SM MIFG
vation as "observer weather." (PLT515) — AIM 17-1-11
SKC 15/14 A3012 RMK SLP993 6/////T01500139 56012
In the above METAR, the "SLP993 6////" indicates
ALL
A— sea-level pressure 999.3 hectopascais which in
9716. The prevailing visibility in the following METAR is
the last 6 hours has dropped .4 hectopascais.
METAR KFSM 131756Z AUTO 00000KT M1/4SM B—sea-level pressure 999.3 hectopascais and
R25/0600V1000FT -RA FG VV004 06/05 an indeterminable amount of precipitation has
A2989RMKA02$ occurred over the last 3 hours.
A— less than 1/4 statute mile. C—sea-level pressure 999.3 hectopascais and in
B— measured 1/4 statute mile. the last 6 hours that four-tenths of an inch of
C—a mean (average) of 1/4 statute mile. precipitation has fallen.

The prevailing visibility is less than 1/4 statute miles, The "SLP993 6////" in the Remarks section of the METAR
indicated by the "M1/4SM." (PLT059) — AIM 17-1-11 indicates sea-level pressure 999.3 hectopascais and an
indeterminable amount of precipitation has occurred
over the last 3 hours. (PLT059) — AC 00-45
ALL
9717. The symbol ($) at the end of the following METAR
indicates that
METAR KFSM 131756Z AUTO 00000KT M1/4SM
R25/0600V1000FT -RA FG VV004 06/05
A2989 RMK A02 $
A— the latest information is transmitted over a
discrete VHF frequency at KFSM.
B— the latest information is broadcast on the voice
portion of a local navaid at KFSM.
C—maintenance is needed on the system.

The dollar symbol ($) indicates the system may need

maintenance. (PLT059) — AIM 17-1-11

Answers

9704 [B] 9716 [A] 9717 [C] 9718 [B] 9242 [B]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 8-45

Chapter 8 Meteorology and Weather Services

The Terminal Aerodrome Forecast (TAF)

TAFs use the same code used in the METAR weather reports. {See Figure 8-7.)

ALL "VC" applies to weather conditions expected to occur

9244. Which primary source contains information regard in the vicinity of the airport (between a 5 to 10 statute
ing the expected weather at the destination airport, at mile radius of the airport), but not at the airport itself.
the ETA? "TS" denotes thunderstorms. Therefore, "VCTS" in a
A— Low-Level Prog Chart. Terminal Aerodrome Forecast indicates thunderstorms
B— Weather Depiction Charts. are expected between a 5 to 10 mile radius of the air
C—Terminal Aerodrome Forecast. port, but not at the airport itself. (PLT288) — AC 00-45

A Terminal Aerodrome Forecast (TAF) is a concise

ALL
statement of the expected meteorological conditions at
an airport during a specified period (usually 24 hours). 9246. Which are the only cloud types forecast in the
(PLT288) — AC 00-45 Terminal Aerodrome Forecast?

Answer (A) is incorrect because a Low-Level Prog Chart is a fore A—Altocumulus

cast of significant weather for the United States, not a forecast for B—Cumulonimbus
a specific destination. Answer (B) is incorrect because Weather
C—Stratocumulus
Depiction Charts are national weather maps of observed weather
at a specific time; they do not provide specific information about a
particular destination. Ifcumulonimbus clouds are expected at the airport, the
contraction "CB" is appended to the cloud layer which
represents the base of the cumulonimbus cloud(s).
ALL Cumulonimbus clouds are the only cloud type forecast
9245. Weather conditions expected to occur in the in TAFs. (PLT288) — AC 00-45
vicinity of the airport, but not at the airport, are denoted
by the letters "VC." When VC appears in a Terminal
Aerodrome Forecast, it covers a geographical area of ALL

A— a 5 to 10 statute mile radius from the airport.

9278. A PROB40 (PROBability) HHhh group in an Inter
B— a 5-mile radius of the center of a runway
national Terminal Aerodrome Forecast (TAF) indicates
complex.
the probability of
C—10 miles of the station originating the forecast. A— thunderstorms or other precipitation.
B— precipitation or low visibility.
Proximity applies to weather conditions expected to C—thunderstorms or high wind.
occur in the vicinity of the airport (between a 5 to 10
mile radius of the airport), but not at the airport itself. A PROB40 (PROBability) HHhhgroup in a TAFindicates
It is denoted by the letters "VC." (PLT288) — AC 00-45 the probability of occurrence of thunderstorms or other
precipitation events. (PLT288) — AC 00-45

ALL

9248. What weather is predicted by the term VCTS in ALL

a Terminal Aerodrome Forecast? 9279. (Refer to Figure 147.) At which time is IFR weather
A—Thunderstorms are expected in the vicinity. first predicted at Lubbock (KLBB)?
B—Thunderstorms may occur over the station and A-0100Z.
within 50 miles of the station. B-2100Z.
C—Thunderstorms are expected between 5 and 25 C-0400Z.
miles of the runway complex.
"PROB40 0103 06025G35KT 1/8SM +SHRASNPE
OVC003" indicates there is a 40% probability between
0100 and 0300Z that the visibility willdrop to 1/8 SM in
heavy rain showers, snow and ice pellets, and the ceiling
will be 300 feet overcast. Consequently, the first predic
tion of IFR would be at 0100Z. (PLT072) — AC 00-45

Answers

9244 [C] 9245 [A] 9248 [A] 9246 [B] 9278 [A] 9279 [A]

8-46 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 8 Meteorology and Weather Services

ALL ALL

9280. (Refer to Figure 147.) What type conditions can 9709. A calm wind that is forecast, in the International
be expected for a flight scheduled to land at San Angelo Terminal Aerodrome Forecast (TAF) is encoded as
(KSJT)at1500Z? A-VRBOOKT.
A— Chance of 1 statute mile visibility and B- OOOOOKT.
cumulonimbus clouds. C-00003KT.
B— IFR conditions due to low visibility, rain, and mist.
C— IFR conditions due to low ceilings, rain, and fog. A forecast of "OOOOOKV (calm) on a TAFmeans winds
are expected at 3 knots or less. (PLT288) — AC 00-45
The last line of the forecast includes 1500Z. "FM0900
17020G34KT 2SM RA BR OVC010CB" means that
from 0900Z on, the forecast is for winds from 170° at ALL

20 knots with gusts to 34 knots. The visibility willbe two 9710. In the International Terminal Aerodrome Forecast
statute miles. There willbe a 1,000 foot overcast ceiling, (TAF), a variable wind direction is noted by "VRB" where
withcumulonimbus clouds along withrain(RA) and mist the three digit direction usually appears. A calm wind
(BR). (PLT072) — AC 00-45 appears in the TAF as
A- 00003KT.
B- VRBOOKT.
ALL
C-OOOOOKT.
9707. On the constant pressure analysis chart, satellite
and aircraft observations are used in the analysis, over Calm wind forecasts in a TAF are entered as "OOOOOKT."
areas of sparse data. Asatellite observation plotted using (PLT288) — AC 00-45
A— a station circle at the cloud top location.
B— a square at the cloud top location.
ALL
C—a star at the cloud top location.
9711. On the constant pressure analysis chart, aircraft
A star identifies satellite wind estimates made from cloud and satellite observations are used in the analysis over
types. (PLT283) — AC 00-45 areas of sparse data. An aircraft observation is plotted
Answer (A) is incorrect because a station circle is used for the
using
weather stations which send up radiosondes. Answer (B) is incor A— a station circle at the aircraft location.
rect because a square at the aircraft location is used to signify an
aircraft report.
B— a square at the aircraft location.
C— a star at the aircraft location.

A square is used to signify an aircraft report. (PLT283)

— AC 00-45
Answer (A) is incorrect because a station circle is used for the
weather stations which send up radiosondes. Answer (C) is incor
rect because a star identifies satellite wind estimates made from
cloud tops.

Answers

9280 [B] 9707 [C] 9709 [B] 9710 [C] 9711 [B]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 8-47

Chapter 8 Meteorology and Weather Services

Enroute Forecasts
Winds and temperatures aloft are forecast for various stations around the country. Wind directions are
always relative to true north and the speed is in knots. Temperatures, in degrees Celsius, are forecast
for all altitudes except for 3,000 feet. At altitudes where the wind or temperature is not forecast, a blank
space is used to signify the omission. At 30,000 feet and above the minus sign is deleted from the tem
perature to save space.
When winds are light and variable the notation 9900 is used. When wind speeds exceed 99 knots,
fifty is added to the wind direction and only the last two digits of the wind speed is printed. For example,
an FB (previously FD) forecast of "731960" at FL390 is 230° true (73 - 50 = 23) at 119 knots with a tem
perature of -60°C. When winds exceed 199 knots they are indicated as a forecast speed of 199 knots.
For example, winds from 280° at 205 knots are coded as 7899.
The temperature in the tropopause (36,000 feet and above) is approximately -56°C. ISA at sea level is
15°C and decreases at a rate of 271,000 feet up to 36,000 feet MSL.
Forecast winds and temperatures aloft for international flights may be obtained by consulting wind
and temperature aloft charts prepared by a Regional Area Forecast Center (RAFC).

ALL ALL
9281. Constant Pressure Analysis Charts contain 9287. (Refer to Figure 149.) What approximate wind
contours, isotherms and some contain isotachs. The direction, speed, and temperature (relative to ISA) are
contours depict expected for a flight over OKC at FL 370?
A— ridges, lows, troughs and highs aloft. A- 265° true; 27 knots; ISA +1°C.
B— highs, lows, troughs, and ridges on the surface. B- 260° true; 27 knots; ISA +6°C.
C—highs, lows, troughs, and ridges corrected to MSL. C-260° magnetic; 27 knots; ISA+10°C.

Heights of the specified pressure for each station are The Winds Aloft forecast (FD) for OKC at 34,000 feet
analyzed through the use of solid lines called contours. shows a wind of 250° at 27 knots and a temperature of
This contour analysis gives the charts a height pattern. -43°C At 39,000 feet the winds are 270° at27 knots with
The contours depict highs, lows, troughs, and ridges, a temperature of-54°C Interpolation of these forecasts
and all heights are given as pressure altitude. (PLT283) yields a forecast for37,000 feet of winds from 260° at 27
— AC 00-45 knots with a temperature of-50°C The ISA temperature
at 37,000 feet is -56°C All wind directions on a FD are
relative to true north. (PLT076) — AC 00-45
ALL
Answer (A) is incorrect because the direction is rounded to the
9283. Vertical wind shear can be determined by com nearest 10° and temperature is ISA +6°C Answer (C) is incorrect
paring winds on vertically adjacent constant pressure because winds are in degrees true, not magnetic.
charts. The vertical wind shear that is critical for prob
ability of turbulence is
ALL
A— 4 knots or greater per 1,000 feet. 9288. (Refer to Figure 149.) What approximate wind
B— 6 knots or more per 1,000 feet.
direction, speed, and temperature (relative to ISA) are
C—greater than 8 knots per 1,000 feet. expected for a flight over TUS at FL 270?
Vertical wind shear can be identified by comparing A-347° magnetic; 5 knots; ISA-10°C.
winds on vertically adjacent constant pressure charts. B- 350° true; 5 knots; ISA +5°C.
The vertical shear critical for probable turbulence is 6 C-0100 true; 5 knots; ISA+13°C.
knots per 1,000 feet. (PLT518) — AC 00-45

Answers

9281 [A] 9283 [B] 9287 [B] 9288 [C]

8-48 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 8 Meteorology and Weather Services

The FD forecast of TUS at 24,000 feet is 050° at 5 knots ALL

with a temperature of -17°C At 30,000 feet, the winds 9291. (Refer to Figure 149.) What will be the wind and
are 330° at 5 knots with a temperature of -33°C Inter temperature trend for a DEN ICTOKC flight at 11,000 feet?
polation of these forecasts yields a forecast for 27,000 A— Temperature decrease.
feet of winds from 010° at 5 knots with a temperature B— Windspeed increase slightly.
of -25°C. ISA temperature at 27,000 feet is -39°C All C—Wind shift from calm to a westerly direction.
wind directions on a FD are referenced to true north.
(PLT076) — AC 00-45 Interpolation of the FD forecasts for 9,000 and 12,000
Answer (A) is incorrect because wind direction is degrees true (not feet yield a forecast at 11,000 feet of:
magnetic). Answer (B) is incorrect because wind direction is 010°
true, not 350° true. DEN — Wind light and variable (9900), temperature
+6°C
ICT — Wind 060° at 2 knots, temperature +5°C
ALL OKC — Wind 110° at 2 knots, temperature +6°C
9289. (Refer to Figure 149.) What will be the wind and (PLT076) — AC 00-45
temperature trend for an SAT ELP TUS flight at 16,000
Answer (A) is incorrect because the temperature increases at OKC
feet? to a temperature higher than DEN. Answer (C) is incorrect because
the wind shifts from calm to an easterly direction.
A—Temperature decrease slightly.
B— Windspeed decrease.
C—Wind direction shift from southwest to east.
ALL
9292. (Refer to Figure 149.) What will be the wind and
SAT— Winds 196°at 8 knots, temperature -2°C
temperature trend for a DSM LIT SHV flight at 12,000
ELP—Winds 026°at 14 knots, temperature -1°C
feet?
TUS — Winds 080° at 11 knots, temperature 0°C
A— Windspeed decrease.
(PLT076) — AC 00-45
B— Temperature decrease.
Answer (A) is incorrect because temperatures increase slightly.
C—Wind direction shift from northwest to southeast.
Answer (B) is incorrect because wind speed increases between SAT
and ELP, but decreases from ILP to TUS.
The FB forecasts for 12,000 feet are:
DSM — Wind 300° at 22 knots, temperature 0°C
ALL
LIT— Wind280°at8 knots, temperature +6°C
9290. (Refer to Figure 149.) What will be the wind and SHV — Wind 210° at 6 knots, temperature +6°C
temperature trend for an STL MEM MSY flight at FL 330?
(PLT076) — AC 00-45
A— Windspeed decrease.
Answer (B) is incorrect because the temperature increases en route.
B— Wind shift from west to north. Answer (C) is incorrect because the wind direction shifts from north
C—Temperature increase 5°C. west to southwest.

Interpolation of the FD forecasts for 30,000 and 34,000

feet yield a forecast at 33,000 feet of: ALL
9293. (Refer to Figure 149.) What is the forecast tem
STL — Wind 260° at 56 knots, temperature -42°C
perature at ATLfor the 3,000-foot level?
MEM — Wind 260° at 20 knots, temperature -41 °C
MSY — Wind light and variable (9900), temperature A- +6°C.
-41 °C B - +6°F.
C—Not reported.
(PLT076) — AC 00-45
Answer (B) is incorrect because the wind direction remains westerly Temperatures are not forecast on the FB at the 3,000
and becomes light and variable (not shifting to the north). Answer (C)
is incorrect because temperature increases 1°C. feet level when within 2,500 of the surface. (PLT076)
— AC 00-45
Answer (A) is incorrect because no temperature is reported at the
3,000-foot level or for a level within 2,500 feet of station elevation.
Answer (B) is incorrect because no temperature is reported at the
3,000-foot level, and temperatures are depicted in degrees Celsius,
not Fahrenheit. The 06 indicates wind velocity of 6 knots.

Answers

9289 [C] 9290 [A] 9291 [B] 9292 [A] 9293 [C]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 8-49

Chapter 8 Meteorology and Weather Services

ALL FB forecasts of wind speeds from 100 knots through

9294. (Refer to Figure 149.) What approximate wind 199 knots have 50 added to the wind direction code
direction, speed, and temperature (relative to ISA) are and 100 subtracted from the speed. The forecast of
expected for a flight over MKC at FL 260? 731960 decodes as a wind of 230° at 119 knot with a
A- 260° true; 43 knots; ISA +10°C. temperature of -60°C. (PLT076) — AC 00-45
B- 260° true; 45 knots; ISA -10°C. Answer (B) is incorrect because coded directions with wind speed
over 100 knots range from 51 through 86. The direction is 230° (not
C-260° magnetic; 42 knots; ISA +9°C.
131°) at 119 knots (not 96 knots). Answer (C) is incorrect because
50 must be subtracted from the first two digits and 100 added to the
The FB forecast for MKC at 24,000 feet is winds of second two digits. The last two digits are the temperature.
260°at 38 knots witha temperature of-21°C At 30,000
feet, the winds are forecast to be 260° at 50 knots with
a temperature of -36°C Interpolation for 26,000 feet ALL

yields a forecast of 260° at 42 knots witha temperature 9251. Forecast winds and temperatures aloft for an
of -26°C ISA temperature for 26,000 feet is -36°C. All international flight may be obtained by consulting
wind directions on a FD are referenced to true north. A— Area Forecasts published by the departure
(PLT076) — AC 00-45 location host country.
Answer (B) is incorrect because forecast temperature is warmer B— The current International Weather Depiction
than ISA. Answer (C) is incorrect because wind direction is degrees
true, not magnetic.
Chart appropriate to the route.
C—Wind and Temperature Aloft Charts prepared
by the U.S. National Centers of Environmental
ALL Prediction (NCEP).
9295. What wind direction and speed aloft are forecast
by this WINDS AND TEMPERATURE ALOFT FORE Computer-generated forecast charts of winds and
CAST (FD) for FL390 - "750649"? temperatures aloft are available for international flights
at specified levels. The U.S. National Centers for Envi
A-350° at 64 knots.
ronmental Prediction (NCEP), near Washington DC,
B-250° at 106 knots.
prepares and supplies to users charts of forecast winds,
C-150°at6knots.
temperatures, and significant weather. (PLT284) — AC
00-45
For FB forecasts of wind speeds from 100 knots through
Answer (A) is incorrect because Area Forecasts are forecasts of
199 knots, subtract 50 from the wind direction code and
general weather conditions over an area of several states and do not
add 100 to the speed code. The forecast of 750649 contain forecasts of the winds and temperatures aloft. Answer (B) is
decodes as a wind of 250° (75 -50 = 25) at 106 knots incorrect because the International Weather Depiction Chart indicates
(100 + 06 = 106) with a temperature of -49°C (tem current weather and does not forecast winds and temperatures aloft.
peratures above FL240 are always negative). (PLT076)
— AC 00-45
ALL
Answer (A) is incorrect because direction is the first two, not three,
digits, and 50 must be subtracted from the first two digits. Speed is
9255. A station is forecasting wind and temperature aloft
the second group of digits, not the fourth and fifth digits. Answer (C) to be 280° at 205 knots; temperature -51 °C at FL390.
is incorrect because 50 must be subtracted from the first two digits How would this data be encoded in the FD?
and 100 added to the second two digits, because the wind speed is
forecast to be greater than 100 knots. A-780051.
B-789951.
C-280051.
ALL
9296. What wind direction and speed aloft are forecast FB forecasts of wind speeds from 100 knots through
by this WINDS AND TEMPERATURE ALOFT FORE 199 knots have 50 added to the wind direction code and
CAST (FD) for FL390 - "731960"? 100 subtracted from the speed code. Winds over 200
knots are coded as 199 knots. A wind of 280° at 205
A-230° at 119 knots.
B-131° at 96 knots.
knots witha temperature of-51 °C is coded as "789951."
C-073° at 196 knots.
(PLT076) — AC 00-45
Answer (A) is incorrect because it indicates a wind at 280° at 100
knots. The minus sign is to be omitted above 24,000 feet MSL.
Answer (C) is incorrect because if the wind is 0 knots, the direction
and wind group is coded "9900."

Answers

9294 [A] 9295 [B] 9296 [A] 9251 [C] 9255 [B]

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 Chapter 8 Meteorology and Weather Services

Surface Analysis and Constant Pressure Charts

The Surface Analysis Chart shows pressure patterns, fronts and information on individual reporting sta
tions. The pressure patterns are shown by lines called isobars. The isobars on a surface weather map
represent lines of equal pressure reduced to sea level.
Constant pressure charts are similar in many ways to the surface analysis chart in that they show
the pressure patterns and some weather conditions for reporting stations. These charts show condi
tions at one of five pressure levels from 850 millibars to 200 millibars. These pressure levels correspond
roughly with altitudes from 5,000 feet MSL to 39,000 feet MSL. The chart is for a pressure level rather
than an altitude. The altitude (in meters) of the pressure level is shown by height contours. In addition
to the height contour lines, constant pressure charts can contain lines of equal temperature (isotherms)
and lines of equal wind speed (isotachs). Since these are both dotted lines, be careful not to get them
confused when looking at a chart. Six items of information are shown on the charts for reporting stations.
These are the wind, temperature, temperature/dew point spread, height of the pressure level and the
change of the height level over the previous 12 hours.
These charts can be used to locate the jet stream and its associated turbulence and wind shear. When
there is a large change in wind speed over a short distance, as indicated by closely spaced isotachs,
the probability of turbulence is greatly increased. Since the jet stream is associated with discontinuities
in the temperature lapse rate at breaks in the tropopause, closely spaced isotherms indicate the pos
sibility of turbulence or wind shear.
Charts can be used together to get a three dimensional view of the weather. For example, lows
usually slope to the west with increasing height. If a low stops moving, it will extend almost vertically.
This type of low is typical of a slow moving storm that may cause extensive and persistent cloudiness,
precipitation, and generally adverse flying weather.

ALL ALL
9175. Isobars on a surface weather chart represent 9218. Under what conditions would clear air turbulence
lines of equal pressure (CAT) most likely be encountered?
A— at the surface. A— When constant pressure charts show 20-knot
B— reduced to sea level. isotachs less than 150 NM apart.
C— at a given atmospheric pressure altitude. B— When constant pressure charts show 60-knot
isotachs less than 20 NM apart.
Sea level pressures are plotted on a surface weather C—When a sharp trough is moving at a speed less
chart and lines are drawn connecting lines of equal pres than 20 knots.
sure. These lines of equal pressure are called isobars.
(PLT287) — AC 00-45 Clear Air Turbulence (CAT) is likely in areas where the
Answer (A) is incorrect because the isobars are depicted at the vertical wind shear exceeds 6 knots per 1,000 feet
sea level pressure pattern at 4 MB intervals, not just at the surface. or horizontal shear exceeds 40 knots per 150 miles.
Answer (C) is incorrect because the isobars are reduced to sea level (PLT501) — AC 00-6
pressure, not any given atmospheric pressure altitude.
Answer (B) is incorrect because when constant pressure charts
show 20-knot isotachs less than 60 NM, CAT is most likely to be
encountered, and "60-knot isotachs" do not exist. Answer (C) is
incorrect because CAT can be expected upwind of the base of a
deep upper trough, not because a sharp trough is moving.

Answers

9175 [B] 9218 [A]

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Chapter 8 Meteorology and Weather Services

ALL ALL

9236. A strong wind shear can be expected 9312. (Refer to Figure 153.) What type weather system
A— on the low pressure side of a 100-knot Jetstream is approaching the California Coast from the west?
core. A- LOW.
B—where the horizontal wind shear is 15 knots, in a B-HIGH.
distance equal to 2.5° longitude. C-Cold front.
C—if the 5°C isotherms are spaced 100 NM or closer
together. The counterclockwise flow around the system indicates
that it is a low-pressure area. (PLT043) — AC 00-45
Jet streams stronger than 110 knots are apt to have Answer (B) is incorrect because the height contours would increase
significant turbulence in them in the sloping tropopause for a high. Answer (C) is incorrect because pressure systems, not
above the core, in the jet stream front below the core fronts, are depicted on a Constant Pressure Chart.
and on the low-pressure side of the core. (PLT518) —
AC 00-30, Appendix 1
ALL
9313. (Refer to Figures 153,154, and 155.) What type
ALL
weather is inferred by the almost vertical extent of the
9310. (Refer to Figure 154.) What is the height of the LOW in Canada?
300-millibar level at the low pressure center in Canada? A— A rapid-moving system with little chance of
A-9,120 meters MSL. developing cloudiness, precipitation, and adverse
B-18,000 meters MSL. flying conditions.
C-11,850 meters MSL. B— A slow-moving storm which may cause extensive
and persistent cloudiness, precipitation, and
The "912"just below the "L"symbolindicates an altitude generally adverse flying weather.
of 9,120 meters. (PLT043) — AC 00-45 C—A rapid-moving storm, leaning to west with
Answer (B) is incorrect because the height of the 300-mb level of the altitude, which encourages line squalls ahead of
low-pressure center is 9,120 meters MSL. Answer (C) is incorrect the system with a potential of severe weather.
because it is the 200 MB (not 300 MB) pressure chart. The "185"
below the "W indicates the height of the 200 MB low-pressure center An old, non-developing low-pressure system tilts little
to be 18,500 meters MSL.
with height. The low becomes almost vertical and is
clearly evident on both surface and upper air maps.
ALL
Upper winds encircle the surface low rather than blow
9311. (Refer to Figures 153, 154, and 155.) Interpret across it. Thus, the storm moves very slowly and usually
the path of the Jetstream. causes extensive and persistent cloudiness, precipita
tion, and generally adverse flying weather. (PLT042)
A— Southern California, Nevada, Utah, Nebraska/ — AC 00-45
Kansas, and then southeastward.
Answer (A) is incorrect because the wind aloft is encircling the low
B—Oregon, Idaho, Wyoming, Nebraska, Iowa, and which means it is a slow moving system. Answer (C) is incorrect
across the Great Lakes. because the low is leaning very little, and the winds are encircling
C—The Alaska area, across Canada to Montana, the low, which means it is a slow moving system.
South Dakota, then across the Great Lakes area.
ALL
The strongest winds shown on the 300 MB and 200 MB
charts indicate the jet stream flows from Alaska, across 9314. (Refer to Figures 153 through 155.) What is the
Canada to Montana, etc. Hatching indicates winds of approximate temperature for a flight from southern
70 to 110 knots. (PLT042) — AC 00-45 California to central Kansas at FL 350?
Answer (A) is incorrect because the isotachs in southern California A--16°C.
area are between 30 to 50 knots Answer (B) is incorrect because B- -39°C.
Oregon has isotachs between 10 to 30 knots.
C—41 °C.

Temperatures at the 300 MB level are in the -30°C

range, and the temperatures at the 200 MB level are in
the -52°C range. (PLT043) — AC 00-45

Answers

9236 [A] 9310 [A] 9311 [C] 9312 [A] 9313 [B] 9314 [C]

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 Chapter 8 Meteorology and Weather Services

Answer (A) is incorrect because -16°C is the approximate tempera ALL

ture at FL230 (not FL350) from southern CA to central KS. Answer 9316. (Refer to Figures 153 through 155.) What is the
(B) is incorrect because -39°C is the approximate temperature at
FL340 (not FL350). relative moisture content of the air mass approaching
the California coast?
A-Dry.
ALL B— Moist enough for condensation.
9315. (Refer to Figures 153 through 155.) Determine C—Very wet with high potential for clouds and
the approximate wind direction and velocity at FL 240 precipitation.
over the station in central Oklahoma.
A-280°at10knots. The 500 MB chart shows either dry air or high tempera-
B-320°at10knots. ture/dewpoint spreads for stations at the leading edge
C-330°at13knots. of the air mass. (PLT043) — AC 00-45
Answer (B) is incorrect because there is very little moisture, as
The 500 MB chart shows a wind of WNW at 10 knots. depicted by the wide temperature/dewpoint spread. Answer (C) is
incorrect because the air mass is dry, not wet.
The 300 MB chart shows a north wind at 10 knots.
(PLT043) — AC 00-45
Answer (A) is incorrect because 280° at 10 knots is the wind direc
tion and speed at the 500 MB pressure level (FL180). Answer (C) is
incorrect because 330° at 13 knots is the interpolation between the
200 and 300 MB Charts, not the 300 and 500 MB Charts.

Reports and Forecasts of Hazardous Weather

A Convective Outlook (AC) describes the prospects for general thunderstorm activity during the fol
lowing 24 hours. Areas in which there is a high, moderate or slight risk of severe thunderstorms are
included as well as areas where thunderstorms may approach severe limits.
The Severe Weather Outlook Chart is a preliminary 24-hour outlook for thunderstorms presented
in two panels. A line with an arrowhead delineates an area of probable general thunderstorm activity. An
area labeled APCHG indicates probable general thunderstorm activity may approach severe intensity.
"Approaching" means winds of 35 to 50 knots or hail 1/2 to 3/4 of an inch in diameter.
AIRMETs and SIGMETs are issued to alert pilots to potentially hazardous weather not adequately
forecast in the current Area Forecast (FA). They are appended to the current FA and are broadcast by
the FSS upon issue and at H+15 and H+45 while they are in effect. ARTCC facilities will announce that
a SIGMET is in effect and the pilot can then contact the nearest FSS for the details.

AIRMET forecast:
• Moderate icing
• Moderate turbulence
• Sustained winds of 30 knots or more at the surface
• Widespread areas of ceilings less than 1,000 feet or visibilities of less than 3 miles
• Extensive mountain obscurement

SIGMET forecast:
• Severe and extreme turbulence
• Severe icing
• Widespread dust storms, sandstorms or volcanic ash lowering visibility to below three miles

Continued

Answers

9315 [B] 9316 [A]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 8-53

Chapter 8 Meteorology and Weather Services

Convective SIGMETs cover the following:

• Tornadoes
• Lines of thunderstorms
• Embedded thunderstorms
• Thunderstorm areas greater than or equal to intensity level 4
• Hail greater than 3/4 of an inch in diameter

Convective SIGMETs are each valid for one hour and are removed at H+40. They are reissued as
necessary. On an hourly basis, an outlook is made up for each of the WST regions. This outlook covers
the prospects for 2 to 6 hours.
Telephone Information Briefing Service (TIBS) is provided by automated flight service stations (AFSS).
It is a continuous recording of meteorological and aeronautical information, available by telephone by
calling 1-800-WX-BRIEF. Each AFSS provides at least four route and/or area briefings. In addition,
airspace procedures and special announcements (if applicable) concerning aviation interests may also
be available. Depending on user demand, other items may be provided, such as METAR observations,
terminal aerodrome forecasts, wind/temperatures aloft forecasts, etc. TIBS is not intended to substitute
for specialist-provided preflight briefings. It is, however, recommended for use as a preliminary briefing,
and often will be valuable in helping you to make a "go or no go" decision.

ALL On a Severe Weather Outlook Chart, an area labeled

9305. What information is provided by a Convective "APCHG"indicates thatprobable general thunderstorm
Outlook (AC)? activity may approach severe intensity. (PLT518) —AC
A— It describes areas of probable severe icing and 00-45
severe or extreme turbulence during the next 24 Answer (A) is incorrect because a cross-hatched area identifies a
hours. tornado watch area. Answer (C) is incorrect because the term SVR
is not used on the Severe Weather Outlook Chart.
B— It provides prospects of both general and severe
thunderstorm activity during the following 24
hours. ALL
C— It indicates areas of probable convective 9578. When are severe weather watch bulletins (WW)
turbulence and the extent of instability in the issued?
upper atmosphere (above 500 mb).
A— Every 12 hours as required.
A Convective Outlook (AC) describes the prospects for B— Every 24 hours as required.
general and severe thunderstorm activity during the fol C—Unscheduled and issued as required.
lowing24 hours. Use the outlookprimarily forplanning (or
canceling) flights later in the day. (PLT514)—AC 00-45 A severe weather watch bulletin (WW) defines areas of
possible severe thunderstorms or tornado activity. They
Answer (A) is incorrect because severe icing and severe or extreme
turbulence are the subjects of SIGMETs. Answer (C) is incorrect are unscheduled and are issued as required. (PLT316)
because it describes a 500-mb Constant Pressure Analysis Chart. — AC 00-45

ALL
9252. How will an area of thunderstorm activity, that
may grow to severe intensity, be indicated on the Severe
Weather Outlook Chart?
A— SLGT within cross-hatched areas.
B- APCHG within any area.
C—SVR within any area.

Answers

9305 [B] 9252 [B] 9578 [C]

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 Chapter 8 Meteorology and Weather Services

ALL ALL
9705. The Hazardous InflightWeather Advisory Service 9249. If squalls are reported at the destination airport,
(HIWAS) is a continuous broadcast over selected VORs of what wind conditions existed at the time?
A- SIGMETs, CONVECTIVE SIGMETs, AIRMETs, A— Sudden increases in windspeed of at least 15
Severe Weather Forecast Alerts (AWW), and knots, to a sustained wind speed of 20 knots,
Center Weather Advisories (CWA). lasting for at least 1 minute.
B- SIGMETs, CONVECTIVE SIGMETs, AIRMETs, B— A sudden increase in wind speed of at least 16
Wind Shear Advisories, and Severe Weather knots, the speed rising to 22 knots or more for 1
Forecast Alerts (AWW). minute or longer.
C—Wind Shear Advisories, Radar Weather Reports, C— Rapid variation in wind direction of at least
SIGMETs, CONVECTIVE SIGMETs, AIRMETs, 20° and changes in speed of at least 10 knots
and Center Weather Advisories (CWA). between peaks and lulls.

HIWAS broadcasts include SIGMETs, Convective A squall (SQ) is a sudden increase in wind speed of at
SIGMETs, AIRMETs, Severe Weather Forecast Alerts, least 16 knots, the speed rising to 22 knots or more, and
and Center Weather Advisories. (PLT515) — AC 00-45 lasting at least 1 minute. (PLT475) — AC 00-45

ALL ALL

9256. At what time are current AIRMETs broadcast in 9284. (Refer to Figure 148.) Which system in the Con
their entirety by the Hazardous Inflight Weather Advisory vective SIGMET listing has the potential of producing
Service (HIWAS)? the most severe storm?

A— 15 and 45 minutes after the hour during the first A— The storms in Texas and Oklahoma.
hour after issuance, and upon receipt. B—The storms in Colorado, Kansas, and Oklahoma.
B— Every 15 minutes until the AIRMET is canceled. C—The isolated storm 50 miles northeast of
C—There is a continuous broadcast over selected Memphis (MEM).
VORs of Inflight Weather Advisories.
Convective SIGMET 44C forecasts level 5 thunderstorms
The Hazardous Inflight Weather Advisory Service 50 miles northeast of MEM. (PLT067) — AC 00-45
(HIWAS) is a continuous broadcastservice overselected
VORs of In-Flight Weather Advisories; i.e. SIGMETs,
CONVECTIVE SIGMETs, AIRMETs, Severe Weather ALL

Forecast Alerts (AWW), and Center WeatherAdvisories 9285. When you hear a SIGMET on an ATCfrequency
(CWA). (PLT515) — AC 00-45 forecasting severe icing conditions on the route to your
destination, you plan for
A—the installed transport category airplane ice
ALL
protection system protecting against all types and
9257. If a SIGMET alert is announced, how can informa
levels of icing as designed.
tion contained in the SIGMET be obtained? B— very little airframe icing because of an OAT of
A— ATC will announce the hazard and advise when -10°C or colder, the moisture is already frozen
information will be provided in the FSS broadcast. and cannot adhere to airplane surfaces.
B— By contacting a weather watch station. C—the possibility of freezing rain and freezing drizzle
C— By contacting the nearest flight service. that can accumulate on and beyond the limits of
any deicing/anti-icing equipment.
SIGMETs, CWAs, and AIRMETs are broadcast by
FSS's upon receipt and at 30-minute intervals atH+15 Severe icing means the rate of accumulation is such
and H+45 for the first hour after issuance. Thereafter, that deicing/anti-icing equipment fails to reduce or
a summarized alert notice will be broadcast at H+15 control the hazard. Immediate diversion is necessary.
and H+45 during the valid period of the advisories. Ifa (PLT274) — AC 00-45
pilot has notpreviously received the SIGMET, etc., he/
she should call the nearest FSS. (PLT290) — AC 00-45
Answer(A)is incorrect because ATC does not advise when to listen
to an FSS broadcast, rather they tell you to contact FSS. Answer
(B) is incorrect because the pilot may monitor an FSS broadcast
or contact any FSS. "Weather watch station" is a nonexistent term.

Answers

9705 [A] 9256 [C] 9257 [C] 9249 [B] 9284 [C] 9285 [C]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 8-55

Chapter 8 Meteorology and Weather Services

ALL ALL
9286. Which type weather conditions are covered in 9747-1. All ATC facilitiesusing radar weather processors
the Convective SIGMET? with the ability to determine precipitation intensities will
A— Embedded thunderstorms, lines of thunderstorms, describe the intensity as
and thunderstorms with 3/4-inch hail or tornadoes. A— light, moderate, heavy, intense, extreme, or
B—Cumulonimbus clouds with tops above the severe.
tropopause and thunderstorms with 1/2-inch hail B— light, moderate, heavy, extreme, severe.
or funnel clouds. C—light, moderate, heavy, extreme.
C—Any thunderstorm with a severity level of VIP 2 or
more. AllATC facilities using radarweatherprocessors with the
abilityto determine precipitation intensity describes the
Convective SIGMET forecast: intensity topilots as: "LIGHT(< 30 dBZ), "MODERATE"
1. Severe thunderstorms which have either surface (30 to 40 dBZ), "HEAVY" (>40 to 50 dBZ), or "EXTREME"
winds greater than 50 knots, hail equal to or greater (>50 dBZ). (PLT515) — FAA-H-8083-15
than 3/4 inches in diameter, or tornadoes;
2. Embedded thunderstorms; ALL

3. Lines of thunderstorms; or 9747-2. Maximum turbulence potential charts (GTG-2)

are issued
4. Thunderstorms equal to or greater than VIP level
4 affecting 40% or more of an area at least 3,000 A— every morning at 0400.
square miles. B—two times a day.
C—hourly.
(PLT290) — AC 00-45
Answer (B) is incorrect because cumulonimbus clouds with tops The GraphicalTurbulence Guidance (GTG-2)graphics
above the tropopause is not a weather condition covered in a Con
vective SIGMET. Answer (C) is incorrect because thunderstorms are computer-generated four-dimensional forecasts of
must be at least VIP level 4. information related tothelikelihood ofencountering Clear
AirTurbulence (CAT) associated with upper-level fronts
and jet streams. The GTG-2product consists of a 00, 01,
ALL 02, and 03 hourforecast, whichare updated every hour,
9747. The Telephone Information BriefingService (TIBS) and a 06, 09, and 12 hour forecast, which are updated
recordings are provided by selected Automated Flight every three hours startingat 00Z. GTG-2graphics are
Service Stations and "snapshot'graphics, intended to depict forecasted clear
A— are updated on the hour. air turbulence conditionsat the valid time (forexample,
B— are designed to replace the standard briefing at 1200Z), not fora validtime range (forexample, from
given by a flight service specialist. 1200Z to 1300Z). (PLT515) — AC 00-45
C—contain area briefings encompassing a 50 NM
radius.

TIBS provides continuous telephone recordings of

meteorological and aeronauticalinformation, specifically
area and route briefings, as wellas airspace procedures
and special announcements, ifapplicable. Itis designed
to be a preliminary briefing tool and is not intended to
replacea standardbriefing from a flight service specialist.
TIBS is available 24 hours a day by calling 1-800-WX-
BRIEF and is updated when conditions change. As a
minimum, area briefings encompass a 50 NM radius.
(PLT515) —AIM 17-1-7

Answers

9286 [A] 9747 [C] 9747-1 [C] 9747-2 [C]

8-56 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 8 Meteorology and Weather Services

PIREPs
Apilot weather report (PIREP) is often the most timely source of information about such weather condi
tions as icing and multiple cloud layers. While area forecasts and freezing level charts can give the pilot
a good idea of the potential for icing, only a PIREP can let the pilot know what is happening currently.
Atypical PIREP appended to an SAis:
FTW UA /OV DFW 18005/TM1803/FL095/TP PA 30/SK 036 OVC 060/070 OVC 075/OVC ABV
The translation is:
FTW / UA - PIREP from reporting station FTW.
OV DFW 18005 - location is the DFW 180° radial at 5 miles.
TM 1803 - time of the report is 1803.
FL095 — altitude is 9,500 feet.
TP PA 30 — Type of aircraft is a PA 30.
SK 036 OVC 060/070 OVC 075/OVC ABV —Sky condition. The base of an overcast layer is at 3,600
feet with top at 6,000 feet. Asecond overcast layer has its base at 7,000 feet and its top is 7,500
feet. There is another overcast layer above the aircraft's altitude of 9,500 feet.

ALL ALL

9247. What sources reflect the most accurate informa 9271. (Refer to Figure 145.) The peak wind at KAMA
tion on current and forecast icing conditions? was reported to be from 320° true at 39 knots,
A— Low-Level Sig Weather Prog Chart, RADATs, and A—which occurred at 1743Z.
the Area Forecast. B— with gusts to 43 knots.
B— PIREPs, Area Forecast, and the Freezing Level C—with .43 of an inch liquid precipitation since the
Chart. last report.
C-AIRMET Zulus.
"PK WND 32039/43" indicates that the peak wind was
AIRMETZulu describes moderate icing and provides reported tobe from 320° true at 39 knots, which occurred
freezing level heights. (PLT294) — AC 00-45 at 43 minutes past the hour. (PLT059) — AC 00-45
Answer(A) is incorrect because Low-Level Sig Weather Prog Charts
do not forecast icing conditions but do forecast freezing levels.
Answer (B) is incorrect because although the Freezing Level Panel ALL
of the Composite Moisture Stability Chart gives you the lowest 9713. KFTW UA/OV DFW/TM 1645/FL100/TP PA30/
observed freezing level, it does not indicate the presence of clouds SK SCT031-TOP043/BKN060-TOP085/OVC097-
or precipitation, whichmust be present foricing to occur.
TOPUNKN/WX FV00SM RA/TA07.

This pilot report to Fort Worth (KFTW) indicates

ALL
9250. Which type of weather can only be directly A—the aircraft is in light rain.
observed during flight and then reported in a PIREP? B—that the top of the ceiling is 4,300 feet.
C-the ceiling at KDFW is 6,000 feet.
A—Turbulence and structural icing.
B—Jetstream-type winds and icing. "BKN060-TOP085"indicates the ceiling (definedas the
C— Level of the tropopause and turbulence. lowest broken or overcast layer aloft) is broken at 6,000
feet with tops at 8,500 feet. (PLT061) — AC 00-45
Aircraft inflight are the onlymeans of directly observing
cloudtops, icing and turbulence. (PLT061) —AC 00-45 Answer (A) is incorrect because "WX FV00SM RA" indicates the
flight visibility is 0 statute miles due tomoderate rain. Answer (B) is
Answer (B) is incorrect because a pilot would not be able to deter incorrect because the scattered layerhas tops at 4,300 feet, but this
mine from observation ifjet stream type winds or other CAT were does not constitute a ceiling.
encountered. Answer (C) is incorrect because the level of the tro
popause is determined byradiosondes released by ground weather
observing stations. It is not a type of weather that can be directly
observed by a pilot during flight.

Answers

9247 [C] 9250 [A] 9271 [A] 9713 [C]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 8-57

8-58 ASA Airiine Transport Pilot Test Prep
Cross-Reference A
Question Number and Page Number

The following list of the numbered questions included inthis ASA Test Prep is given in sequential order;
however, as a result of our ongoing reviewof FAA test question databases, some question numbers may
have been removed due to changes in the database. All currently existing questions are accounted
for in this list. For more information about the questions included in ASATest Preps, please read Pages
v-vi in the front matter for this book.

Question Page Question Page Question Page Question Page

Number Number Number Number Number Number Number Number
8001 1-80 8050 1-79 8099 1-25 8148 2-15
8002 1-93 8051 1-79 8100 1-18 8149 2-22
8003 1-38 8052 1-84 8101 1-25 8150 2-14
8004 1-82 8053 1-77 8102 1-25 8151 2-15
8005 1-80 8054 1-77 8103 1-19 8152 2-22
8006 1-82 8055 1-70 8104 1-26 8153 1-52
8007 1-54 8056 1-70 8105 1-26 8154 2-15
8008 1-54 8057 1-86 8106 1-26 8155 1-64
8009 1-54 8058 1-85 8107 1-19 8156 1-64
8010 1-80 8059 1-85 8108 1-19 8157 1-63
8011 1-80 8060 1-85 8109 1-20 8158 1-63
8012 1-82 8061 1-85 8110 1-20 8159 1-62
8013 1-81 8062 1-85 8111 1-20 8160 1-62
8014 1-83 8063 1-87 8112 1-82 8161 1-62
8015 1-83 8064 1-87 8113 1-26 8162 1-62
8016 1-83 8065 1-87 8114 1-89 8163 1-69
8017 1-83 8066 1-87 8115 1-78 8164 1-66
8018 1-22 8067 5-12 8116 1-78 8165 1-78
8019 1-82 8068 1-87 8117 4-51 8166 1-66
8020 1-70 8069 1-77 8118 4-51 8167 1-66
8021 1-71 8070 1-86 8119 4-51 8168 1-66
8022 1-70 8071 1-86 8120 4-51 8169 1-66
8023 1-71 8072 1-70 8121 4-52 8170 1-67
8024 1-72 8073 1-71 8122 4-52 8171 1-67
8025 1-72 8074 1-71 8123 4-52 8172 1-67
8026 1-22 8075 1-77 8124 4-52 8173 1-63
8027 1-22 8076 1-24 8125 4-52 8174 1-65
8028 1-22 8077 1-86 8126 4-53 8175 1-53
8029 1-23 8078 1-86 8127 4-53 8176 1-61
8030 1-72 8079 1-86 8128 4-53 8177 1-61
8031 1-72 8080 1-71 8129 4-53 8178 1-63
8032 1-54 8081 1-72 8130 4-54 8179 1-63
8033 1-81 8082 1-18 8131 1-50 8180 1-65
8034 1-23 8083 1-18 8132 1-51 8181 1-51
8035 1-23 8084 1-88 8133 4-35 8182 1-65

8036 1-23 8085 1-88 8134 4-12 8183 1-64

8037 1-83 8086 1-88 8135 2-17 8184 1-64
8038 1-81 8087 1-88 8136 1-51 8185 1-65
8039 1-55 8088 1-78 8137 1-50 8186 1-65
8040 1-55 8089 1-78 8138 1-53 8187 1-64
8041 1-56 8090 1-89 8139 1-52 8188 1-9
8042 1-56 8091 1-89 8140 2-15 8189 1-8
8043 1-56 8092 1-89 8141 2-16 8190 1-8
8044 1-23 8093 1-82 8142 2-16 8191 1-7
8045 1-83 8094 1-18 8143 2-16 8192 1-9
8046 1-84 8095 1-24 8144 1-62 8193 1-9
8047 1-84 8096 1-24 8145 2-21 8194 1-36
8048 1-84 8097 1-24 8146 2-22 8195 2-21
8049 5-12 8098 1-25 8147 2-22 8195-1 2-21

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA A-1

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 Cross-Reference A Question Number and Page Number

Question Page Question Page Question Page Question Page

Number Number Number Number Number Number Number Number
8454 5-21 8515 5-23 8576 5-11 8637 4-27
8455 5-21 8516 5-24 8577 5-11 8638 4-27
8456 5-22 8517 5-24 8578 5-9 8639 4-27
8457 5-22 8518 5-25 8579 5-9 8640 4-27
8458 5-22 8519 5-25 8580 5-10 8641 4-27
8459 4-48 8520 5-25 8581 5-10 8642-1 4-27
8460 4-48 8521 5-25 8582 5-10 8642-2 4-28
8461 4-49 8522 5-25 8583 4-18 8642-3 4-28
8462 4-49 8523 5-26 8584 4-18 8642-4 4-21
8463 4-49 8524 5-26 8585 4-18 8643 4-79
8464 4-49 8525 5-26 8586 4-18 8644 4-79
8465 4-49 8526 5-27 8587 4-19 8645 4-79
8466 4-50 8527 5-27 8588 5-7 8646 4-79
8467 4-50 8528 5-28 8589 5-7 8647 4-80
8468 4-50 8529 5-28 8590 5-7 8648 4-80
8469 4-59 8530 5-28 8591 5-7 8649 4-80
8470 4-60 8531 5-29 8592 5-7 8650 4-80
8471 4-60 8532 5-29 8593 4-25 8651 4-80
8472 4-60 8533 4-70 8594 4-25 8652 4-81
8473 4-60 8534 4-70 8595 4-25 8653 4-43
8474 4-61 8535 4-71 8596 4-29 8654 4-43
8475 4-61 8536 4-71 8597 4-29 8655 4-43
8476 4-61 8537 4-71 8598 4-29 8656 4-43
8477 4-62 8538 4-71 8599 4-29 8657 4-43
8478 4-62 8539 4-71 8600 4-30 8658 4-81
8479 4-50 8540 4-72 8601 4-30 8659 4-81
8480 4-50 8541 4-72 8602 4-30 8660 4-81
8481 4-50 8542 4-72 8603 4-82 8661 4-81
8482 4-63 8543 4-72 8604 4-82 8662 4-81
8483 4-63 8544 4-72 8605 4-83 8663 4-82
8484 4-64 8545 4-72 8606 4-83 8664 4-82
8485 4-64 8546 4-73 8607 4-83 8665 4-82
8486 4-64 8547 4-73 8608 4-83 8666 4-82
8487 4-64 8548 4-73 8609 4-83 8667 4-82
8488 4-64 8549 4-73 8610 4-84 8668 4-40
8489 4-65 8550 4-73 8611 4-84 8669 4-40
8490 4-65 8551 4-73 8612 4-84 8670 4-40
8491 4-65 8552 4-74 8613 4-22 8671 4-40
8492 4-65 8553 4-74 8614 4-23 8672 4-41
8493 4-65 8554 4-74 8615 4-23 8673 4-41
8494 4-65 8555 4-74 8616 4-23 8674 4-41
8495 4-66 8556 4-75 8617 4-23 8675 4-41

8496 4-66 8557 4-75 8618 4-19 8676 4-41

8497 4-66 8558 4-75 8619 4-19 8677 4-41
8498 4-66 8559 4-75 8620 4-19 8678 4-47
8499 4-66 8560 4-75 8621 4-19 8679 4-47
8500 4-66 8561 4-76 8622 4-19 8680 4-47
8501 4-67 8562 4-76 8623 5-6 8681 4-47
8502 4-67 8563 4-76 8624 5-6 8682 4-47
8503 4-67 8564 4-76 8625 5-6 8683 4-48
8504 4-67 8565 4-76 8626 5-6 8684 4-48
8505 4-55 8566 4-77 8627 5-6 8685 4-48
8506 4-55 8567 4-77 8628 4-25 8686 4-48
8507 4-55 8568 4-77 8629 4-26 8687 4-38
8508 4-55 8569 4-77 8630 4-26 8688 4-38
8509 4-55 8570 4-78 8631 4-26 8689 4-38
8510 4-56 8571 4-78 8632 4-26 8690 4-38
8511 4-56 8572 4-78 8633 4-26 8691 4-39
8512 4-56 8573 5-11 8634 4-26 8692 4-37
8513 5-23 8574 5-11 8635 4-26 8693 4-37
8514 5-23 8575 5-11 8636 4-27 8694 4-38

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA A-3

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A - J-
Cross-Reference B
Learning Statement Code and Question Number

The expression "learning statement," as used in FAA airman testing, refers to measurable statements
about the knowledge a student should be able to demonstrate following a certain segment of training.
When you take the applicable airman knowledge test required for an airman pilot certificate or rating,
you will receive an Airman Knowledge Test Report. The test report will list the learning statement codes
for questions you have answered incorrectly. Match the codes given on your test report to the ones in
theofficial FAA Learning Statement Codes (listed in this cross-reference). Use Cross-Reference Ain this
book to find the page number for the question numbers listed in the table beginning on the next page.
Your instructor isrequired to provide instruction on eachof theareas of deficiency listed onyour Air
man Knowledge Test Report (as LSCs), and give you an endorsement for this instruction. The Airman
Knowledge Test Report must be presented to the examiner conducting your practical test. During the
oral portion of the practical test, the examiner is required to evaluate the noted areas of deficiency.
The FAA's learning statement codes are a hierarchical sequence of classification codes that places
a knowledge item in a unique category, which can then be used for reference to source textbooks and
study material. The LSCs are assigned to all FAA test questions in order to categorize them for place
ment on a given Knowledge Exam. This classification code system uses the following hierarchy (which
is further detailed in the cross-reference table):
• Topic- this is the overall subject matter topic code, the highest classification of overall subject mat
ter a knowledge test item was developed to assess (for example, "Aerodynamics").
• Content— the secondary level subject matter code (for example, "Airspeed").
• Specific- the basic hierarchical classification code the subject matter for a knowledge test item (for
example, 'Thrust").
If you received a code on your Airman Test Report that is not listed in this cross-reference, email ASA
at cfi@asa2fly.com. We will provide the definition so you can review that subject area.
The FAA appreciates testing experience feedback. You can contact the branch responsible for the FAA
Knowledge Exams directly at:
Federal Aviation Administration
AFS-630, Airman Testing Standards Branch
PO Box 25082
Oklahoma City, OK 73125
Email: AFS630comments@faa.gov

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA B-1

Cross-Reference B Learning Statement Code and Question Number

Learning FAA Reference SubjectDescription (or Topic ) Content)Specificclassification)

Statement Code Question Numbers

PLT002 FAA-H-8083-25 Aircraft Performance) Computations) Airspeeds

8563, 8564, 8565, 8566, 8567, 8696
PLT003 FAA-H-8083-25 Aircraft Performance) Computations) Center of Gravity
8697

PLT004 FAA-H-8083-25 Aircraft Performance ) Charts) Climb; Engine Out Performance

8382, 8474, 8475, 8476, 8477, 8478, 8480, 8481, 8482, 8553, 8554, 8555, 8556,
8557, 8558, 8559, 8560, 8561, 8562, 8593, 8594, 8595, 8596, 8597, 8598, 8599,
8600, 8601, 8602, 8628, 8629, 8630, 8631, 8632, 8635, 8636, 8637, 8682, 8683,
8684, 8685, 8686, 9875, 9876, 9877
PLT005 AC 00-6 Aircraft Performance) Computations ) Density Altitude
FAA-H-8083-25
9813
PLT006 FAA- H-8083-3 Calculate aircraft performance -glide
8381
PLT007 FAA-H-8083-25 Aircraft Performance) Charts) Holding; Landing; Takeoff
8615, 8616, 8617, 8638, 8639, 8640, 8641, 8642-1, 8668, 8669, 8670, 8671,
8672, 8687, 8688, 8689, 8690, 8691, 8763, 9874
PLT008 FAA-H-8083-25 Aircraft Performance ) Charts) Landing
8117, 8118, 8119, 8120, 8121, 8122, 8123, 8124, 8125, 8126, 8129, 8504, 8505,
8506, 8507, 8508, 8509, 8510, 8511, 8512, 8608, 8609, 8610, 8611, 8612, 8692,
8742, 8743, 8744, 8745, 8750, 8753, 8756, 9907, 9908, 9909, 9910, 9911 9912
9913, 9914
PLT009 FAA-H-8083-21 Aircraft Performance) Charts) Power Check; Turbine Engine
8533, 8534, 8535, 8536, 8537, 8604
PLT010 FAA-H-8083-25 Aircraft Performance) Charts) Takeoff
8588, 8589, 8590, 8591, 8592, 8623, 8624, 8625, 8626, 8627
PLT011 FAA-H-8083-25 Aircraft Performance ) Charts) Takeoff
8115, 8116, 8466, 8467, 8468, 8469, 8470, 8471, 8472, 8743, 8479, 8548, 8549,
8550, 8551, 8552, 8568, 8569, 8570, 8571, 8572, 8603, 8613, 8614, 8618, 8619,
8620, 8642-4, 8712, 8713, 8714, 8715, 8716, 8717, 8718, 9076, 9797, 9797-1,
9797-2, 9864, 9865, 9866, 9867, 9868, 9899, 9900, 9901, 9902, 9903
PLT012 FAA-H-8083-15 Aircraft Performance) Computations) ETE; Fuel; Mach; Preflight Planning
FAA-H-8083-25 Aircraft Performance ) Charts) Alternate; Cruise
Navigation ) Radio ) VOR
8483, 8489, 8490, 8491, 8492, 8493, 8494, 8495, 8496, 8497, 8498, 8499, 8500,
8605, 8606, 8607, 8621, 8622, 8633, 8634, 8643, 8644, 8645, 8646, 8647, 8648,
8649, 8650, 8651, 8652, 8658, 8659, 8660, 8661, 8662, 8663, 8664, 8665, 8666,
8667, 8673, 8674, 8675, 8676, 8677, 8693, 8694, 8695, 8702, 8720, 8721, 8795,
8822, 8823, 8835, 9546, 9547, 9548, 9556, 9557, 9558, 9559, 9560, 9561, 9566,
9567, 9568, 9574, 9575, 9578, 9579, 9581, 9582, 9583, 9584, 9585, 9591, 9592,
9594, 9595, 9597, 9598, 9607, 9608, 9610, 9611, 9612, 9621, 9627, 9628, 9639,
9640, 9642, 9643, 9652, 9653, 9904, 9905, 9906, 9915, 9916
PLT013 FAA-H-8083-25 Aircraft Performance ) Charts) Takeoff
8727

-2 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Cross-Reference B Learning Statement Code and Question Number

Learning FAA Reference Subject Description (or Topic) Content) Specific classification)
Statement Code Question Numbers

PLT015 ANA Aerodynamics) Performance) Normal Flight

FAA-H-8083-25 Aircraft Performance ) Computations) Specific Range: NAM/1000# Fuel
Aircraft Performance ) Limitations ) Best Range
8397, 9077, 9078, 9580, 9593
PLT016 FAA-H-8083-1 Aircraft Performance) Computations) Fuel Dump
8678, 8679, 8680, 8681
PLT018 FAA-H-8083-25 Aerodynamics) Load Factor) Angle of Bank
8354,8728
PLT020 FAA-H-8083-25 Aircraft Performance) Charts) TurbulentAir Penetration
8653, 8654, 8655, 8656, 8657
PLT021 FAA-H-8083-1 Aircraft Performance) Charts) Climb; Landing
FAA-H-8083-25 Weight and Balance) Aircraft Loading ) Weight/Moment Indexes
Weight and Balance) Center of Gravity) Computations; Shifting Weight
8434, 8435, 8436, 8437, 8438, 8439, 8440, 8441, 8442, 8443, 8444, 8445, 8446,
8447, 8448, 8449, 8450, 8451, 8452, 8453, 8454, 8455, 8456, 8457, 8458, 8513,
8514, 8515, 8516, 8517, 8518, 8519, 8520, 8521, 8522, 8523, 8524, 8525, 8526,
8527, 8528, 8529, 8530, 8531, 8532, 8573, 8574, 8575, 8576, 8577, 8578, 8579,
8580, 8581, 8582
PLT023 AC 00-6 Navigation ) Instrument) Altimeter
9164, 9172, 9173, 9173-1
PLT024 AC 00-6 Meteorology) Atmosphere ) Stability
9170, 9171, 9186, 9187
PLT029 14 CFR 121 Regulations) 14 CFR Part 121 ) Flight Crewmember Duties
FAA-H-8083-16
8106,8298
PLT032 FAA-H-8083-25 Aerodynamics) Airspeed ) Mach
8387

PLT034 14 CFR 121 Regulations) 14 CFR Part 121 ) Takeoff Minimums

8134

PLT040 14 CFR 71 Navigation ) Airspace ) Class B

AIM Regulations ) 14 CFR Part 91 ) Airspace
8872, 8873, 8874, 8875, 8876, 8877, 8881, 8882, 8883, 8884, 8885, 8886, 8888
PLT042 AC 00-45 Weather) Aeronautical Weather Reports) Constant Pressure Analysis Charts
9311,9313 __

PLT043 AC 00-45 Weather) Aeronautical Weather Reports) Constant Pressure Analysis Charts
9310, 9312, 9314, 9315, 9316
PLT044 AIM Air Traffic Control Procedures) Arrival) After Landing
Air Traffic Control Procedures) Departure) Speed Adjustments; Takeoff
Air Traffic Control Procedures) En Route) Speed Adjustments
Air Traffic Control Procedures) Ground ) Ground Hold Delays
9167, 9388
PLT045 FAA-H-8083-25 Aircraft Performance) Charts) Descent
8501, 8502, 8503, 9749

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA B-3

Cross-Reference B Learning Statement Code and Question Number

Learning FAA Reference Subject Description (orTopic) Content) Specific classification)

Statement Code Question Numbers

PLT047 AIM Navigation ) Avionics) Airborne Equipment

8858

PLT048 FAA-H-8083-21 Aircraft Performance ) Charts ) Hovering

8538, 8539, 8540, 8541, 8542, 8543, 8544, 8545, 8546, 8547
PLT049 14 CFR 61 Navigation ) Avionics) Airborne Equipment
14 CFR 91 Navigation ) Flight Operations ) Approach Chart
AC 00-45 Navigation ) Radio ) ILS; Instrument Approach; Non-precision approach
AIM
8972, 9588, 9601, 9619, 9645, 9645-1
U.S. Terminal
Procedures
PLT052 14 CFR 21 Instrument Procedures) Instrument Departures) SID
AIM Regulations) 14 CFR Part 121/135) Performance Requirements
U.S. Terminal
8794, 9549, 9563, 9564, 9614, 9615, 9660
Procedures
PLT055 AIM Air Traffic Control Procedures) En Route) Airways and Route Systems
IFR Enroute Navigation ) Flight Operations ) IFR En Route Charts
High Altitude
9596
Chart
PLT058 FAA-H-8083-15 Instrument Procedures) En Route ) Chart Interpretation
FAA-H-8083-16 Publications) Aeronautical Charts ) IFR En Route
IFR Enroute
8784, 8824, 8825, 8826, 9620, 9623, 9670, 9675
Low Altitude
Chart
PLT059 AC 00-45 Weather) Aeronautical Weather Reports )Aviation Routine Weather Reports
(METAR); Aviation Selected Special Report (SPECI); Aviation Weather Reports
8735, 9242, 9266, 9267, 9268, 9269, 9270, 9271, 9272, 9273, 9274, 9275, 9276
9277, 9716, 9717, 9718, 9824
PLT061 AC 00-45 Weather) Aeronautical Weather Reports) PIREPS
9250, 9713
PLT065 FAA-H-8083-25 Aircraft Performance ) Charts) Engine Out Performance
8484, 8485, 8486, 8487, 8488
PLT067 AC 00-45 Weather) Aeronautical Weather Forecasts) Inflight Aviation Weather Advisories-
SIGMETS

9284
PLT068 AC 00-45 Weather) Aeronautical Weather Reports) Significant Weather Prognostic Charts
9260
PLT069 FAA-H-8083-25 Aircraft Performance ) Charts ) Takeoff
8642-3
PLT072 AC 00-45 Weather) Aeronautical Weather Forecasts)TAF
9279, 9280
PLT073 Chart Air Traffic Control Procedures) En Route ) Tower Enroute
Supplements 9565
U.S.
PLT076 AC 00-45 National Weather Service (NWS)) Functions) Aeronautical Weather Forecasts
Weather) Aeronautical Weather Forecasts) Winds/Temperatures Aloft Forecasts
9255, 9287, 9288, 9289, 9290, 9291, 9292, 9293, 9294, 9295, 9296

B-4 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Cross-Reference B Learning Statement Code and Question Number

Learning FAA Reference Subject Description (or Topic ) Content) Specific classification)
Statement Code Question Numbers

PLT078 Chart AirTraffic Control Procedures) Communications ) Pilot Procedures

Supplements AirTraffic Control Procedures ) Ground ) Taxi
U.S. National Weather Service) Functions) Aeronautical Weather Reports; Weather
U.S. Terminal Outlets
Procedures Navigation ) Flight Operations ) Airport; Communications; Runway
8782, 8783, 8785, 8793, 8796, 8797, 8798, 8804, 9572, 9587, 9613, 9625, 9637,
9655, 9658, 9659, 9661, 9782
PLT080 AIM AirTraffic Control Procedures) Arrival) Approach Control
U.S. Terminal Air Traffic Control Procedures ) Communications) ATC Communications;
Procedures Clearances
Navigation ) Flight Operations ) Arrivals
Navigation ) Radio ) STAR
8786, 8799, 8810, 8812, 9647, 9818
PLT082 U.S. Terminal Regulations) 14 CFR Parts 121/135) Flight Planning
Procedures
8816, 8842, 9618
PLT083 AIM Air Traffic Control Procedures ) Arrival) Instrument Approach Procedures; Missed
FAA-H-8083-15 Approach
U.S. Terminal Navigation ) Flight Operations) Approach Chart
Procedures Navigation ) Radio ) DME; ILS
8704, 8800, 8802, 8803, 8805, 8817, 8818, 8836, 8837, 8839, 8849, 8850, 8851,
8852, 8950, 8951, 8952, 8954, 9040, 9550, 9551, 9552, 9553, 9554, 9555, 9569,
9571, 9573, 9586, 9589, 9590, 9600, 9602, 9603, 9604, 9617, 9629, 9630, 9631,
9654, 9666, 9667, 9686
PLT085 FAA-H-8083-25 Aircraft Performance) Charts) Takeoff
8642-2

PLT087 FAA-H-8083-15 Navigation ) Radio) DME; Holding

8862

PLT089 FAA-H-8083-25 Aircraft Performance ) Charts) Takeoff

8719

PLT094 ANA Aerodynamics) Stalls/Spins) Angleof Attack

8391-1, 8391-2, 8394-2
PLT097 AIM Human Factors) Aeromedical Factors ) Physiological
9101

PLT099 AIM Human Factors) Aeromedical Factors ) Flight Illusions; Physiological

9114, 9116, 9117,9118
PLT100 AIM Recall aeronautical charts • IFR En Route Low Altitude
IFR Enroute
9049, 9644
Low Altitude
Chart

PLT103 FAA-H-8083-25 Aeronautical Decision Making ) Judgment) Hazardous; Training

9832, 9815, 9815-1
PLT104 FAA-H-8083-25 Aeronautical Decision Making (ADM), CRM ) Judgment) Automatic Decisions
Aeronautical Decision Making (ADM), CRM ) Risk Management) Phase of Flight
Human Factors) Aeronautical Decision Making (ADM), CRM ) Problem Detection
8711, 9354-1, 9778, 9778-1, 9804, 9805, 9805-1, 9805-2, 9805-3, 9805-4,
9805-5, 9806, 9816, 9816-1, 9830, 9833, 9834, 9853, 9854, 9855, 9856, 9857

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA B-5

Cross-Reference B Learning Statement Code and Question Number

Learning FAA Reference Subject Description (or Topic) Content) Specific classification)
Statement Code Question Numbers

PLT108 AC 120-58 Aerodynamics) Powerplant) Turbine

AC 135-17 Meteorology) Hazardous ) Icing
9441, 9442, 9443, 9444, 9445, 9446, 9447, 9448, 9450, 9452, 9453, 9454, 9696,
9697, 9698, 9700
PLT112 AIM Recall aircraft controls —proper use/techniques
9043
PLT121 FAA-H-8083-1 Weight and Balance) Aircraft Loading ) Limitations
8431, 8432, 8433, 8698, 8699, 8700, 8729, 8730, 8746, 8769, 8770, 8771, 8772,
8773, 8776, 8777, 8778, 8779, 8781, 8787, 8788, 8789, 8790, 8791, 8844, 8845,
8846, 8847, 8848
PLT123 FAA-H-8083-25 Aircraft Performance) Charts) Takeoff
8583, 8584, 8585, 8586, 8587
PLT124 FAA-H-8083-25 Aircraft Performance) Atmospheric Effects) Instrumentation Error
8374, 8404, 8405, 8417, 8418, 9767
PLT127 FAA-8083-3 Aerodynamics ) Powerplant) Turbine; Turboprop
Aircraft Performance) Atmospheric Effects) Density Altitue
9059, 9061, 9061-1, 9062, 9063
PLT128 AC 91-74 Aerodynamics) Flight Characteristics) Flight Hazards
AC 120-58 Meteorology) Hazards) Icing
AC 135-17
9080, 9302, 9451
PLT129 FAA-H-8083-25 Aircraft Performance ) Charts ) Runway
9083
PLT130 FAA-H-8083-25 Recall aircraft performance —fuel
9071

PLT131 FAA-H-8083-25 Aerodynamics ) Principlesof Flight) Ground Effect

8375, 8379
PLT132 FAA-H-8083-25 Navigation ) Instrumentation ) Airspeed Indicator
8364, 9321
PLT134 ANA Recall aircraft performance • • takeoff

9075, 9801, 9802

PLT139 14 CFR 121 Aerodynamics) Stall/Spins) Stall Warning Devices
ANA Regulations ) 14 CFR Part 121 Subpart K) Navigation Equipment
8069, 8070, 8071, 8154
PLT140 AIM Recall airport operations —LAHSO
9731, 9732, 9733, 9734
PLT141 AIM Air Traffic Control Procedures) Ground ) Landing Roll Out
Navigation ) Flight Operations) Airport; Heliport; Runway
Navigation ) Pilotage) Runway Markings; Runway Signs; Taxiway Markings;
Taxiway Signs
8722, 8903, 8904, 8905, 8906, 8907, 8922, 8923, 8924, 8925, 8926, 8927, 8928,
8929, 8930, 8931, 8932, 9416, 9416-1, 9416-2, 9417, 9421, 9421-1, 9421-2,
9422, 9423, 9423-1, 9436, 9437, 9735, 9735-1, 9735-2, 9735-3, 9737, 9764,
9785, 9785-1, 9786, 9786-1, 9798, 9799

B-6 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Cross-Reference B Learning Statement Code and Question Number

Learning FAA Reference Subject Description (or Topic ) Content) Specific classification)
Statement Code Question Numbers

PLT143 Chart Navigation ) Flight Operations ) Airport

Supplements 9636, 9668, 9669, 9690
U.S.

PLT144 AIM AirTraffic Control Procedures) Ground ) Braking Action

FAA-H-8083-3 Aircraft Performance ) Atmospheric Effects) BrakingAction
Aircraft Performance ) Limitations ) Braking Action
8133, 8933, 8934, 8935, 8936, 8937, 8938, 8939, 9055
PLT145 AIM Navigation ) Flight Operations) Runway
8914, 8915
PLT147 AIM Navigation ) FlightOperations) Airport; Runway
U.S. Terminal 8705, 8908, 8909, 8910, 8911, 8912, 8913, 8921, 9378, 9648, 9649
Procedures

PLT148 AIM Navigation ) Flight Operations) Runway

Chart Navigation ) Pilotage) Approach Lights
Supplements 8901, 8902
U.S.

PLT149 AIM Air Traffic Control Procedures) Communications) Gate Hold Procedures; Pilot
Procedures

8203, 8701, 9057, 9258, 9421-3, 9783, 9784, 9787, 9788, 9789, 9790
PLT161 14 CFR 91 Air Traffic Control Procedures) Communications) Airspace Requirements
AIM Air Traffic Control Procedures ) En Route ) ADIZ
Navigation ) 14 CFR Part 91 ) Airspace; Equipment/Instrument/Certificate
Requirement; Flight Rules
8878, 8879, 8880, 8887, 8889, 8890, 8891, 9048, 9094, 9095, 9100, 9395, 9396,
9397, 9398, 9399, 9400, 9741, 9780
PLT162 14 CFR 91 Air Traffic Control Procedures) Communications) Traffic Alert/Collision
AIM Avoidance
AirTraffic Control Procedures) En Route) MOA
Air Traffic Control Procedures ) Services) Outer Class C
Regulations) 14 CFR Part 91 ) Flight Rules
8892, 9018, 9374, 9381
PLT163 14 CFR 91 Regulations ) 14 CFR Part 91 ) Enroute
14 CFR 121 Regulations ) 14 CFR Part 121 ) Flight Rules
8114, 8893, 8894, 8895, 8896, 8897, 8898, 8899, 8900
PLT166 AC 00-6 Navigation ) Instrumentation ) Altimeter
9099, 9163,9174
PLT168 FAA-H-8083-25 Recall angle of attack —characteristics/forces/principles
8378

PLT169 FAA-H-8083-25 Recall antitorque system —components/functions

8459, 8460, 8461, 8462, 8463, 8464, 8465, 9894, 9895, 9896, 9897, 9898
PLT170 FAA-H-8083-3 Aerodynamics) Performance) Brakes
FAA-H-8083-16 Navigation ) Flight Operations) Approach
8402, 8403, 8736, 8955, 8969, 9034, 9035, 9039, 9074, 9074-1, 9084, 9090-1,
9090-3, 9091, 9092, 9438, 9791, 9792, 9793

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA B-7

Cross-Reference B Learning Statement Code and Question Number

Learning FAA Reference Subject Description (or Topic) Content) Specific classification)
Statement Code Question Numbers

PLT171 AIM Air Traffic Control Procedures) En Route) Reporting

Air Traffic Control Procedures) Communications) Pilot Procedures; Radio
Procedures

8854, 9013, 9015, 9016, 9022-1

PLT172 AIM Air Traffic Control Procedures ) Approach ) Priority
Air Traffic Control Procedures ) Arrival) Approach Control; Uncontrolled Field
Air Traffic Control Procedures) Communications) ATC Altitude Alerts
Air Traffic Control Procedures) Services) Class C; IFR Flight Plans; Weather
Radar

9050, 9090-2, 9093, 9096, 9760

PLT173 AC 00-6 Meteorology) Atmosphere ) Pressure; Stability; Temperature
9757, 9159, 9165, 9165-1, 9178, 9188, 9195
PLT192 AC 00-6 Meteorology) Clouds ) Turbulence
9189, 9190, 9193
PLT195 AIM Air Traffic Control Procedures ) Communications) Traffic Alert/Collision
Avoidance System
9425, 9426, 9427, 9427-1, 9428
PLT196 AIM Recall communications • -ATIS broadcasts

9022

PLT197 FAA-H-8083-21 Aerodynamics) Principles of Flight) ForcesActing on Rotary Wing

8420
PLT201 FAA-H-8083-16 Navigation ) Radio) Departure Obstruction Clearance
9012
PLT202 FAA-H-8083-15 Navigation ) Radio ) DME
9023, 9024, 9570, 9599
PLT203 AC 00-6 Meteorology)Atmosphere) Temperature; Troposphere
9151, 9168, 9209, 9240
PLT205 AIM Human Factors ) Aeromedical Factors) Alcohol
9111
PLT208 14 CFR 91 Navigation ) FlightOperations) Communications
14 CFR 121 Regulations) 14 CFR Part 121 ) Crew Equipment/Publications/Checklists
8360, 8369, 8406, 8811, 9827-1, 9827-2, 9827-3
PLT213 FAA-H-8083-25 Aerodynamics) Stability/Control) Static
8366, 8372
PLT214 FAA-H-8083-3 Aerodynamics) Flight Controls) Normal Flight
FAA-H-8083-25 Aerodynamics) Principles of Flight) Forces Acting on Aircraft; Lift
8368, 8388, 8389, 8390, 8391, 8392, 8393, 8395
PLT219 FAA-H-8083-3 Flight Operations) Maneuvers ) Basics
FAA-H-8083-21
9831

PLT223 FAA-H-8083-3 Aerodynamics) Airspeed ) VY

Aerodynamics) Principles of Flight) Drag
8051, 8241, 8357, 8359, 8370

B-8 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Cross-Reference B Learning Statement Code and Question Number

Learning FAA Reference Subject Description (or Topic ) Content) Specific classification)
Statement Code Question Numbers

PLT224 AIM Air Traffic Control Procedures ) Preflight) Flight Plan

8806, 9005, 9026, 9031, 9032
PLT225 AIM AirTraffic Control Procedures) Preflight) Flight Plan
9027, 9033, 9053
PLT226 AC 00-6 Meteorology) Clouds ) Fog
8723, 9194, 9206, 9207, 9207-1, 9207-2, 9229-1, 9238-1
PLT234 FAA-H-8083-15 Recall forces acting on aircraft —3 axis intersect
9740

PLT236 FAA-H-8083-25 Recall forces acting on aircraft —airfoil/center of pressure/mean camber line
8365, 8367, 8373, 8376
PLT237 ANA Aerodynamics) Load Factor) Lift
8345-1, 8345-2, 8421
PLT240 FAA-H-8083-25 Weight and Balance) Center of Gravity) Effect of Load Distribution
8380, 8419
PLT242 FAA-H-8083-3 Aerodynamics ) Airspeed ) General
FAA-H-8083-25 Aerodynamics) Principles of Flight) Forces Acting on Wing; Lift
8377, 8383
PLT244 FAA-H-8083-25 Recall forces acting on aircraft —stability/controllability
9079

PLT245 FAA-H-8083-25 Aerodynamics ) Load Factor) Lift

8344

PLT247 ANA Aerodynamics) Normal Flight) Landing

9005-1, 9005-2, 9793-1
PLT248 FAA-H-8083-3 Aerodynamics ) Principles of Flight) Forces Acting on Aircraft; Load Factor
FAA-H-8083-25
8345, 8352, 8353, 8422, 8423
PLT263 AC 00-6 Weather) Meteorology) Icing; Moisture
AC 00-45 Windshear/Turbulence ) Clear Air Turbulence ) Jet Stream; Windshear
9230, 9231, 9701

PLT266 ANA Aerodynamics ) Performance) Normal Flight

FAA-H-8083-25 Aerodynamics) Principles of Flight) Lift
8341, 8356, 8384, 8385, 8386, 9759, 9766, 9771, 9803
PLT268 FAA-H-8083-25 Aerodynamics ) Principles of Flight) Forces Acting on Aircraft
8409

PLT274 AC 00-6 Meteorology) Hazardous ) Icing

AC 91-74 Meteorology) Icing ) Freezing Rain
9221, 9224, 9285, 9736, 9748, 9774, 9775
PLT276 FAA-H-8083-15 Navigation ) Radio ) VOR
8968, 8971, 8973, 8984, 8985, 8986, 8987, 8988, 8989
PLT277 FAA-H-8083-15 Navigation ) Radio ) ILS
8959, 8960, 8962, 8970

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA B-9

Cross-Reference B Learning Statement Code and Question Number

Learning FAA Reference Subject Description (or Topic) Content) Specific classification)
Statement Code Question Numbers

PLT280 AIM Human Factors ) Aeromedical Factors) Flight Illusions; Spatial Disorientation
9107, 9107-1, 9108, 9109, 9110, 9110-1, 9115, 9433, 9434, 9435
PLT282 14 CFR 121 Regulations) 14 CFR Part 121 ) Dispatch/Redispatch
8004, 8005, 8011, 8019, 8068, 8093
PLT283 AC 00-45 Weather) Aeronautical Weather Reports) Constant Pressure Analysis Charts
9281, 9707, 9711
PLT284 AC 00-06 Recall information on a Forecast Winds and Temperatures Aloft (FD)
9251

PLT287 AC 00-45 Meteorology) Air Masses and Fronts ) Pressure

9175

PLT288 AC 00-45 Weather) Aeronautical Weather Forecasts) Aviation Weather Forecasts; TAF
9244, 9245, 9246, 9248, 9278, 9709, 9710
PLT290 AC 00-45 National Weather Service (NWS)) Functions) Aeronautical Weather Forecasts;
Aeronautical Weather Reports
Weather) Aeronautical Weather Forecasts ) SIGMETS
9257, 9286
PLT294 AC 00-45 National Weather Service (NWS)) Functions) Aeronautical Weather Forecasts;
AIM En Route Flight Advisory Service
9247

PLT296 AIM Navigation ) Radio ) ADF/NDB; Holding; Instrument Approach

FAA-H-8083-15
8853, 8855, 8856, 8857, 8859, 8860, 8861, 8863, 8864, 8865, 8866, 8867, 9418,
9419

PLT300 AIM Recall instrument/navigation system

checks /inspections —limits /tuning / identifying / logging
9019, 9020, 9773
PLT301 AC 00-6 Meteorology) Atmosphere ) Temperature
9153, 9154, 9169
PLT302 AC 00-6 Meteorology) High Altitude ) Jet Stream
Windshear/Turbulence ) Clear Air Turbulence ) High Altitude
9227, 9228, 9229, 9237, 9238, 9239, 9241, 9776, 9779, 9820, 9821, 9822
PLT303 ANA Recall L/D ratio
FAA-H-8083-3
8346, 8398, 8399, 8400, 8401
FAA-H-8083-25
PLT309 FAA-H-8083-25 Aerodynamics) Load Factor) Angle of Bank
8396

PLT310 FAA-H-8083-25 Aerodynamics ) Load Factor) Lift

8347, 8355
PLT314 FAA-H-8083-3 Recall longitudinal axis —aerodynamics/center of gravity/direction of motion
8362
PLT316 AC 00-45 Weather) Hazardous) Thunderstorms
9758

B-IO ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Cross-Reference B Learning Statement Code and Question Number

Learning FAA Reference Subject Description (or Topic) Content) Specific classification)
Statement Code Question Numbers

PLT317 AC 00-54 Weather/Turbulence) Microbursts ) Performance; Windshear

AIM
9130, 9131, 9132, 9140, 9143, 9144, 9145, 9146, 9147, 9148, 9149, 9150, 9814
PLT318 AIM AirTraffic Control Procedures ) Arrival) Low Fuel
Air TrafficControl Procedures ) Communications) Pilot Procedures
9010, 9011, 9420
PLT322 14 CFR 121 Regulations) 14 CFR Part 121 Subpart K) Navigation Equipment
8145, 8147
PLT323 14 CFR 121 AirTraffic Control Procedures ) Preflight) NOTAMS
AIM Regulations ) 14 CFR Part 121 ) Crew Equipment/Publications/Checklists
8283, 9086, 9087, 9089
PLT325 49 CFR 830 Recall operations manual —transportation of prisoner
8132, 8136
PLT328 FAA-H-8083-25 Recall performance planning, aircraft loading
8733, 8734
PLT330 AIM Human Factors) Aeromedical Factors ) Physiological
FAA-H-8083-25
9103, 9105, 9106
PLT332 AIM Human Factors) Aeromedical Factors ) Fitness for Flight; Physiological
9702, 9704
PLT334 AIM Human Factors ) Aeromedical Factors) Flight Illusions
97 72,97 73
PLT337 AC 91-43 Navigation ) Instrumentation ) Airspeed Indicator
9087, 9082, 9222
PLT343 14 CFR 1 Aerodynamics) Powerplant) Reciprocating
FAA-H-8083-25
9064, 9065, 9066, 9067, 9072, 9073
PLT344 AC 00-6 Meteorology) Hazardous) Icing
9223

PLT346 AC 65-15 Aerodynamics ) Flight Characteristics ) Normal Flight

Aerodynamics ) Flight Controls ) Primary; Secondary
8324, 8325, 8326, 8337, 8342, 8343
PLT347 ANA Recall principles of flight —critical engine
FAA-H-8083-3
8367, 9085
PLT348 FAA-H-8083-3 Aerodynamics) Principles of Flight) Forces Acting on Wing
8349, 8350, 8351, 9823
PLT354 AIM Air Traffic Control Procedures) Preflight) Flight Plan
Instrument Navigation ) Avionics ) Airborne Equipment; GPS
Approach Navigation ) Flight Operations ) Approach Chart; Preflight Planning/Calculations
Procedure Navigation ) Radio ) GPS; Non-precision Approach
Charts 8703, 9111-1, 9429, 9430, 9431, 9432, 9691, 9692, 9693, 9694, 9722, 9723,
U.S. Terminal 9725, 9726, 9727, 9728, 9729, 9729-1, 9730, 9738, 9739, 9743, 9744, 9744-1,
Procedures
9794, 9795, 9796, 9796-1, 9804-1, 9812, 9812-1

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA B-11

Cross-Reference B Learning Statement Code and Question Number

Learning FAA Reference Subject Description (or Topic ) Content) Specific classification)
Statement Code Question Numbers

PLT355 FAA-H-8083-15 Navigation ) Radio ) HSI; ILS

8990, 8991, 8992, 8993, 8994, 8995, 8996, 8997, 8998, 8999, 9000, 9001, 9002,
9003, 9004
PLT356 AIM Navigation ) Radio ) ILS
8956, 8957, 8958, 8963, 8966, 8967, 8975, 9380, 9382, 9403, 9412
PLT358 AIM Navigation ) Radio ) ILS
8967

PLT361 FAA-H-8083-15 Navigation ) Radio ) SDF

8965

PLT362 AC 120-74 Recall radio —VHF/Direction Finding

9783-1

PLT365 FAA-H-8083-25 Recall reciprocating engine —components/operating principles/characteristics

9068, 9068-1, 9069
PLT366 49 CFR 830 Regulations ) NTSB Part 830) Definitions; Reports/Reporting
8233, 8236, 8246, 8317, 8318, 8322, 8323, 8725, 9098
PLT367 14 CFR 91 Regulations) 14 CFR Part 91 ) Limitations
14 CFR 121 Regulations) 14 CFR Part 121 ) Aircraft Equipment
14 CFR 135 Regulations) 14 CFR Part 135) Aircraft Equipment
8067, 8062, 9355, 9355-1, 9358, 9359, 9360, 9361, 9809
PLT370 14 CFR 91 AirTraffic Control Procedures) Communications ) ATC Communications;
AIM Clearances
AirTraffic Control Procedures) Departure) Clearances
AirTraffic Control Procedures) En Route) Speed Adjustments
Regulations) 14 CFR Part 91 ) Flight Rules
9006, 9007, 9008, 9009, 9045, 9046, 9047, 9439
PLT373 14 CFR 121 Regulations ) 14 CFR Part 121 ) Flight Crewmember Duties
9745, 9807
PLT374 14 CFR 121 Recall regulations —aircraft owner/operator responsibilities
14 CFR 135
8006, 8199, 8200
PLT375 14 CFR 135 Regulations) 14 CFR Part 135 Subpart B) Records Keeping
8072

PLT379 14 CFR 121 Regulations) 14 CFR Part 121 ) Flight Release

8063, 8064, 8086, 8247, 8248, 8249, 8251, 8252, 8256, 8258, 8262, 9394-2
PLT380 14 CFR 121 Regulations) 14 CFR Part 121 ) AlternateAA/eather/Fuel/Requirements
8087, 8254, 8255, 8261, 8264, 9826, 9827
PLT382 14 CFR 121 Navigation ) Radio) VOR
U.S. Terminal Regulations) 14 CFR Part 121 ) Landing Minimums
Procedures
9727

PLT383 14 CFR 121 Regulations) 14 CFR Part 121 ) Icing Conditions

9379

PLT384 14 CFR 121 Regulations ) 14 CFR Part 121 ) Seat Belts/Cabin Announcements
8027, 8029, 8225

B-12 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Cross-Reference B Learning Statement Code and Question Number

Learning FAA Reference Subject Description (or Topic) Content) Specific classification)
Statement Code Question Numbers

PLT385 14 CFR 121 Regulations) 14 CFR Part 121 ) Cargo

8032, 8038, 8039, 8040, 8041, 8042, 8138, 8139, 8175, 8832
PLT388 14 CFR 91 Regulations) 14 CFR Part 91 ) Equipment/Instrument/Certificate Rating;
14 CFR 121 Limitations
Regulations) 14 CFR Part 121 Subpart K) FDR
8047, 8141, 8142, 8143, 8833, 9356, 9357, 9410
PLT389 14 CFR 119 Navigation ) Radio ) GPS
AIM Regulations) 14 CFR Part 119) Definitions
8003, 8192, 8193, 8196, 8197, 8201, 8202, 8430, 8767, 8768, 9724
PLT390 14 CFR 121 AirTraffic Control Procedures) En Route) Reporting
AIM Regulations) 14 CFR Part 121 ) Communications
8735

PLT391 14 CFR 91 Regulations) 14 CFR Part 91 ) Instrument Flight Rules

9362, 9364, 9365, 9389, 9390, 9616
PLT392 14 CFR 135 Regulations) 14 CFR Part 135) Operator/Control/Manual(s)
8070

PLT393 14 CFR 91 Regulations) 14 CFR Part 91 ) Flight Rules

9352, 9353
PLT394 14 CFR 121 Recall regulations —declaration of an emergency
AIM
8239, 9097
PLT395 14 CFR 1 Regulations ) 14 CFR Part 1 ) General Definitions
14 CFR 119 Regulations) 14 CFR Part 119 ) Definitions
8379, 8320, 8429, 9324, 9325, 9327, 9837
PLT396 14 CFR 121 Regulations) 14 CFR Part 121 ) Takeoff Minimums
8250

PLT398 14 CFR 121 Navigation ) Flight Operations ) Preflight Planning/Calculations

Regulations) 14 CFR Part 121 ) Dispatch/Redispatch
Regulations >14 CFR Part 121 Subpart E) ETOPS
8257, 8259, 8260, 8266, 8267, 8280, 8284, 9746-2
PLT400 14 CFR 121 Regulations ) 14 CFR Part 121 ) Dispatch/Redispatch
8007, 8226, 8286, 8292, 8296
PLT402 14 CFR 121 Regulations ) 14 CFR Part 121 ) Emergency Equipment/Survival
8777

PLT403 14 CFR 121 Regulations ) 14 CFR Part 121 ) Emergency Authority/Actions/Reports

8240, 8245
PLT404 14 CFR 121 Regulations) 14 CFR Part 121 ) Emergency Equipment/Survival
Regulations ) 14 CFR Part 121 Subpart K) Emergency Equipment
8058, 8059, 8060, 8144, 8157, 8159, 8163, 8164, 8165, 8167, 8168, 8170, 8172,
8177, 8834
PLT405 14 CFR 91 Regulations) 14 CFR Part 91 ) Equipment/Instrument/Certificate Requirement
14 CFR 121 Regulations) 14 CFR Part 121 ) Crew Equipment/Publications/Checklists;
Dispatch/Redispatch
8045, 8046, 8053, 8054, 8140, 8146, 8235, 8808, 9407, 9414, 9415

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA B-13

Cross-Reference B Learning Statement Code and Question Number

Learning FAA Reference Subject Description (or Topic) Content) Specific classification)
Statement Code Question Numbers

PLT406 14 CFR 91 Regulations) 14 CFR Part 91 ) Equipment/Instrument/Certificate Requirement;

Flight Rules
8237, 9363, 9386, 9387
PLT407 14 CFR 61 Regulations) 14 CFR Part 61 ) Limitations
14 CFR 121 Regulations) 14 CFR Part 121 ) Landing Minimums; Line-Oriented Simulator
Training Course; Training/Currency
8034, 8103, 8108, 8109, 8110, 8111, 8205, 8207, 8215, 8216, 8217, 8218, 8820,
8821, 8827, 8829, 9346, 9347, 9618, 9632, 9720, 9847-1
PLT408 14 CFR 121 Regulations) 14 CFR Part 121 ) Emergency Equipment/Survival
8776

PLT409 14 CFR 61 Regulations) 14 CFR Part 61 ) Limitations

14 CFR 121 Regulations) 14 CFR Part 121 ) FlightTime/Duty/Rest/Requirements
8002, 8104, 8189, 8211, 8219, 8220, 8221, 8222, 8223, 8224, 8227, 8228, 8229,
8231, 8238, 8706, 8707, 8708, 8709, 8724, 8814, 8815, 9342, 9714, 9838, 9839,
9840, 9841, 9842, 9843, 9844, 9845, 9846, 9847, 9848, 9849, 9850, 9851, 9852
PLT412 14 CFR 121 Regulations) 14 CFR Part 121 ) Flight Release
8293, 8294, 8295
PLT413 14 CFR 121 Regulations) 14 CFR Part 121 ) AlternateAA/eather/Fuel/Requirements
8088, 8089, 8268, 8269, 8270, 8271, 8272, 8273, 8274, 8275, 8276, 8277
PLT416 49 CFR 830 Regulations ) NTSB Part 830 ) Reports/Reporting
8327

PLT417 14 CFR 121 Regulations) 14 CFR Part 121 Subpart K) Emergency Equipment
8766, 8769
PLT420 14 CFR 91 Regulations) 14 CFR Part 91 ) Instrument Flight Rules
8092, 8279, 8726, 8801, 8953, 9021, 9036, 9037, 9038, 9041, 9348, 9368, 9369,
9384, 9391, 9392, 9393, 9411, 9413, 9742, 9770, 9817
PLT421 14 CFR 91 Recall regulations —instrument flight rules
AIM
9074, 9370, 9383, 9385, 9394-1
PLT424 14 CFR 135 Regulations) 14 CFR Part 135 ) Aircraft Equipment; FlightOperations
Regulations) 14 CFR Part 135 Subpart B ) Flight/Crewmember Duties
8073, 8074, 8075, 8076, 8077, 8037, 8102
PLT425 14 CFR 135 Regulations) 14 CFR Part 135 Subpart B) Records Keeping
9746, 9746-1, 9761, 9762
PLT427 14 CFR 61 Regulations ) 14 CFR Part 61 ) Limitations
9333, 9335, 9340, 9343, 9349, 9811
PLT428 14 CFR 135 Regulations) 14 CFR Part 135) MEL/CDL; Operator/Control/Manual(s)/
Operation Specs
8052, 8731, 8732, 8807
PLT429 14 CFR 121 Regulations ) 14 CFR Part 121 Subpart K) Navigation Equipment
8749, 8752, 8795, 8795-7, 9408, 9409
PLT430 14 CFR 91 Regulations) 14 CFR Part 91 ) Instrument Flight Rules
8297, 9366, 9367, 9373

B-14 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Cross-Reference B Learning Statement Code and Question Number

Learning FAA Reference Subject Description (or Topic) Content) Specific classification)
Statement Code Question Numbers

PLT432 14 CFR 1 Regulations) 14 CFR Part 1 ) General Definitions

9326

PLT434 AIM Airport Operations ) Taxiing ) Airport Taxi Modes; Taxiing After Landing
Airport Operations) Tower Controlled ) ATC Procedures
9042, 9044, 9056, 9424
PLT436 14CFR121 Regulations ) 14 CFR Part 121 ) Crew Equipment/Publications/Checklists;
Enroute

8798, 8278
PLT437 14 CFR 135 Regulations ) 14 CFR Part 135 ) Aircraft Equipment; Performance Requirements
8050, 8078, 8079, 8838, 8840, 8841
PLT438 14 CFR 121 Regulations ) 14 CFR Part 121 ) Supplemental; Oxygen for Sustenance: Turbine
Engine
Regulations) 14 CFR Part 121 Subpart K) Emergency Equipment
8020, 8021, 8022, 8023, 8024, 8025, 8028, 8030, 8031, 8055, 8056, 8072, 8073,
8074, 8080, 8081, 8156, 8173, 8174, 8180, 8181, 8182, 8183, 8184, 8185, 8186,
8187, 9576, 9577, 9605, 9606, 9638, 9650, 9651, 9819
PLT440 14 CFR 121 Regulations) 14 CFR Part 121 Subpart M ) Flight Engineer Requirements
8008, 8009, 8026, 8033, 8043, 8113, 8155, 8188, 8190, 8212, 8213
PLT442 14 CFR 61 Regulations ) 14 CFR Part 61 ) Instrument Currency
14 CFR 121 Regulations ) 14 CFR Part 121 ) Recent Experience; Training Currency
14 CFR 135 Regulations ) 14 CFR Part 135 ) Crew Requirements
8095, 8096, 8097, 8098, 8099, 8100, 8101, 8105, 8208, 8209, 8210, 8809, 8830,
9329, 9329-2, 9334, 9336, 9337, 9338, 9339, 9341, 9344, 9345
PLT443 14 CFR 61 Regulations) 14 CFR Part 61 ) Type Rating
14 CFR 121 Regulations) 14 CFR Part 121 ) Flight Time/Duty/Rest/Requirements
Regulations) 14 CFR Part 121 Subpart M) Flight Engineer Requirements
8035, 8036, 8044, 8082, 8083, 8107, 8112, 8191, 8289, 9328, 9329-1, 9350,
9633, 9634, 9646, 9663
PLT444 14 CFR 121 Regulations ) 14 CFR Part 121 ) Crew Equipment/Publications/Checklists;
Emergency Authority/Actions/ Reports; Operational Control/ Flight Release
8078, 8234, 8242, 8243, 8244, 8281, 8282, 8285, 8819, 9402
PLT447 14 CFR 61 Regulations ) 14 CFR Part 61 ) Limitations
9357

PLT449 14 CFR 121 Regulations ) 14 CFR Part 121 ) Training/Currency

8274

PLT450 14 CFR 63 Regulations) 14 CFR Part 63) Experience Requirements

14 CFR 121 Regulations) 14 CFR Part 121 ) FlightTime/Duty/Rest Requirements
Regulations) 14 CFR Part 121 Subpart P ) Dispatcher Duty Limitations
8794, 8230, 9342-1, 9342-2, 9350-1
PLT452 14 CFR 121 Recall regulations —re-dispatch
8232

PLT453 14 CFR 121 Regulations) 14 CFR Part 121 ) Records Keeping

8287, 8288

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA B-15

Cross-Reference B Learning Statement Code and Question Number

Learning FAA Reference Subject Description (or Topic ) Content) Specific classification)
Statement Code Question Numbers

PLT454 14 CFR 135 Regulations) 14 CFR Part 135 ) Aircraft Equipment

8007, 8049, 8067
PLT455 14 CFR 121 Regulations) 14 CFR Part 121 ) Dispatch/Redispatch
8290, 8291
PLT456 14 CFR 121 Regulations ) 14 CFR Part 121 ) Landing Minimums
8094, 8127, 8128, 8130, 8831
PLT459 14 CFR 91 Regulations ) 14 CFR Part 91 ) Instrument Flight Rules
14 CFR 121 Regulations ) 14 CFR Part 121 ) Takeoff Minimums
8057, 8065, 8066, 8085, 8090, 8091, 8158, 8263, 8358, 8363, 8843, 9371, 9372,
9401

PLT460 14 CFR 121 Regulations ) 14 CFR Part 121 ) Training/Currency

14 CFR 135 Regulations) 14 CFR Part 121/135) Training
8204, 8828, 9330, 9331
PLT462 14 CFR 121 Regulations) 14 CFR Part 121 Subpart K) Emergency Equipment
14 CFR 135 Regulations) 14 CFR Part 121/135 ) Aircraft Equipment
8048, 8160, 8161, 8162, 8178, 8179, 8792
PLT463 14 CFR 61 Regulations ) 14 CFR Part 61 ) Limitations
14 CFR 121 Regulations ) 14 CFR Part 121 ) Passenger/Flight Events/Disturbances
8873, 9332, 9354,
PLT464 14 CFR 135 Regulations ) 14 CFR 135) Aircraft Equipment
Regulations ) 14 CFR Part 135 Subpart B) Flight/Crewmember Duties
8075, 8076, 8077
PLT465 14 CFR 121 Regulations) 14 CFR Part 121 ) Seat Belts/Cabin Announcements
8753

PLT466 FAA-H-8083-3 Weight and Balance ) Center of Gravity) Limitations

8377, 8775, 8780, 9317, 9318, 9319, 9320, 9322, 9323
PLT468 14 CFR 121 Recall regulations —Visual Meteorological Conditions (VMC)
8253

PLT469 14 CFR 121 Regulations) 14 CFR Part 121 Subpart K) Navigation Equipment
8748, 8750, 8757
PLT470 ANA Aerodynamics ) FlightCharacteristics ) Flight Limitations; Rotocraft Hazards
Aerodynamics ) Principles of Flight) Forces Acting on Aircraft; Forces Acting on
Rotor Wings; Hazards; Lift
8407, 8408, 8410, 8411, 8412, 8413, 8424, 8425, 8426, 8427, 8428, 9781
PLT472 FAA-H-8083-21 Aerodynamics ) Flight Characteristics) Abnormal Flight
8474, 8475, 8476, 9800
PLT473 AC 65-15 Aerodynamics ) Flight Controls) Secondary Flight Controls; Servos
8327, 8328, 8329, 8330, 8331, 8332, 8333, 8334, 8336, 8338, 8339, 8340
PLT475 AC 00-6 Meteorology) Hazards ) Definitions;Thunder Storms
9200, 9249, 9708, 9708-1

B-16 ASA Airiine Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Cross-Reference B Learning Statement Code and Question Number

Learning FAA Reference Subject Description (or Topic) Content) Specific classification)
Statement Code Question Numbers

PLT477 ANA Aerodynamics ) Load Factor) Stall Speed

FAA-H-8083-25 Aerodynamics ) Stall/Spins ) Angle of Attack; Stall Warning Devices
8348, 9808
PLT493 14 CFR 121 Aerodynamics) Principles of Flight) Hazards
AC 00-6 Regulations) 14 CFR Part 121 ) Icing Conditions
AC 20-117 Meteorology) Icing ) Frost
AC 135-17
8084, 8265, 9162, 9179, 9180, 9181, 9440, 9440-1, 9449, 9695, 9753, 9756
PLT495 AC 00-6 Meteorology) Hazardous ) Arctic Flying; Thunderstorms
AC 00-24 Windshear/Turbulence ) Clear Air Turbulence) Windshear
9796, 9797, 9798, 9799, 9207, 9202, 9203, 9204, 9205, 9211, 9212, 9233, 9706,
9835

PLT497 AIM Navigation ) Avionics) Transponder Equipment

9057, 9052
PLT498 49 CFR 830 Recall Transportation Security Regulations
8737, 8737, 9763
PLT499 FAA-H-8083-25 Aerodynamics) Performance) Normal Flight
Aerodynamics) Powerplant) Turbine
8394, 8974, 9058, 9060, 9768
PLT500 FAA-H-8083-3 Aerodynamics) Powerplant) Turboprop
9070

PLT501 AC 00-6 Meteorology) High Altitude ) Jet Stream

AC 00-30 Windshear/Turbulence ) Clear Air Turbulence) Encountering; Reports;
AIM Windshear

9728, 9729, 9270, 9278, 9279, 9225, 9226, 9232, 9235, 9262, 9263, 9264, 9777,
9777-1

PLT506 14 CFR 1 Regulations) 14 CFR Part 1 ) General Definitions

8774

PLT508 14 CFR 91 Regulations) 14 CFR Part 91 ) Equipment/Instrument/Certificate Requirement

9375, 9376, 9377, 9404, 9405, 9406
PLT509 AC 00-6 Aerodynamics) Principles of Flight) Forces Acting on Wing
AIM Windshear/Turbulence ) Wake Turbulence ) Turbulence Factors
97 79, 9720, 9727, 9722, 9723, 9724, 9725, 9726, 9727, 9775, 9858
PLT510 AC 00-6 Meteorology) Air Masses and Fronts ) Winds
Meteorology) Airflow) Temp
Meteorology) Atmosphere) Haze
9752, 9756, 9776, 9208
PLT511 AC 00-6 Meteorology) Air Masses and Fronts) Dry Line; Fronts
Meteorology) Atmosphere ) Pressure
Meteorology) Hazardous) Thunderstorms
9760, 9797, 9792, 9273, 9274, 9275, 9275-7, 9276, 9277, 9228-1, 9228-2, 9259
PLT512 AC 00-6 Meteorology) Atmosphere) Temperature
Meteorology) Moisture) Change of State
8770, 9755, 9767, 9782, 9783, 9784, 9785, 9785-7, 9234, 9810

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA B-17

Cross-Reference B Learning Statement Code and Question Number

Learning FAA Reference Subject Description (or Topic) Content) Specific classification)
Statement Code Question Numbers

PLT514 AC 00-6 Meteorology) Atmosphere) Pressure

9305

PLT515 AIM National Weather Service (NWS)) Functions ) Aeronautical Weather Forecasts;
Aeronautical Weather Reports
9256, 9704, 9705, 9747, 9747-1, 9747-2
PLT516 AC 00-6 Meteorology) Air Masses and Fronts) Winds
9758, 9777
PLT517 AC 00-6 Meteorology) Hazardous) Tropic Storms
9778-7

PLT518 AC 00-6 Windshear/Turbulence ) Clear AirTurbulence) Windshear

AC 00-54 Windshear/Turbulence ) Microbursts) Loss of Airspeed Recovery; Windshear
AIM Windshear/Turbulence ) Windshear) Characteristics; LLWAS
9054, 9133, 9134, 9135, 9135-1, 9136, 9137, 9138, 9139, 9141, 9142, 9166,
9220, 9236, 9252, 9283
PLT524 FAA-H-8083-6 Navigation ) Avionics) Primary Flight Displays (PFD)
Navigation ) Radio ) Electronic Displays
8206, 9750, 9751, 9769, 9769-1, 9769-2
PLT526 AIM Recall near midair collision report
9836

B-18 ASA Airiine Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Professional aviation
Written by the industry experts, these books provide insight for career pilots.
Rely on ASA authors for advice on how to get your foot in the door at the airlines,
hone your interview skills, and operate effectively as a professional aviator.

Checklist for Success Mental Math for Pilots

by Cheryl Cage by RonaldMcElroy
Takes aspiring professional pilots step- Sharpen your math skills for the interview as
by-step from preparing their resume and well as for the cockpit with these great tips for
application, through to the interview itself. figuring math problems in your head without
A must-have reference for all job seekers. paper or calculator—everything from fuel
planning to temperature conversions to
crosswind components.

Managing Risk: Best Practices for Pilots Airline Pilot Technical Interviews
by Dale Wilson and GeraldBinnema by RonaldMcElroy
This book provides viable strategies as well Prepares you for the airlines' technical side
as "best-practice" countermeasures pilots of the interview process with real-world
can use to avoid or effectively manage risks exercises. Aspiring professional pilots will be
during critical phases of flight. Students and prepared to display their flying skills during
pilots at all certificate levels will improve the simulator ride, as well as their aeronautical
their risk management skills by learning the knowledge during the face-to-face oral
procedures described in this book. questioning.

Pilots in Command: Job Hunting for Pilots

Your Best Trip, Every Trip by Greg Brown
PILOTS byKristofer Pierson Covers all aspects of the job-hunting process
IN COMMAND and specifically focuses on how to get a resume
This book goes beyond what is required by
flight training curricula, into what is both a hand-carried into flight departments. Not just
rarity and a necessity: solid advice from real another airline interview book—the author

pilots to student and professional aviators offers tips and techniques for job-seeking pilots
alike about how to be true leaders. at all levels of the industry, from commuter,
corporate and airline pilots, to new CFIs and
those flying helicopters. Second edition.

The Turbine Pilot's Flight Manual Air Carrier Operations

byGreg Brown and Mark Holt by MarkJ. Holtand Phillip J. Poynor
Whether you are a piston pilot preparing Ideal for AirCarrier Flight Operations or Airline
for turbine ground school, a military pilot Operations courses, this book examines the
transitioning to a corporate or airline job, or regulations governing Part 121 air carriers.
an old pro brushing up on turbine aircraft Includes Part 119and relevant portions of
operations, this book is designed for you. Parts 135,91 and 61 with emphasis on IFR
Covers all major turboprop and jet systems, operations.
CRM, high-altitude weather, high-speed
aerodynamics, and more. Also available as
an eBook!

AWniVia jf^cvvvy fte^ve/.

AVIATIONSUPPLIES & ACADEMICS, INC. See our complete line of study aids, textbooks, pilot supplies and more at your
Quality &Service You Can Depend On local airport and in bookstores nationwide, www.asa2fly.com | 425-235-1500
 You've passed your
written, now get ready
for the checkride.
^©ii^
.
FAA-S-8081-5F.7

• 1 EffectiveJuty 1,1

Airline
Transport Pilot
Airline Transport
Pilot and
Type Rating
ORAL For Airplane
EXAM m
GUIDE
MICHAEL D. MAYES
C MPS!
1 Practical Test
Standards

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Air line
Tram sport

Airline Transport Pilot Airline Transport Pilot and Type

Oral Exam Guide Rating Practical Test Standards
This book lists the questions most likely to be The Practical Test Standards are a guide for
asked by examiners and provides succinct, students, instructors, and FAA-designated
ready responses. Pilots will find this an examiners to know what is expected of pilots
indispensable tool in both planning for what in a checkride, with details on the knowledge
to expect during the airplane checkride, and and skills pilots must demonstrate to earn an
mastering the subject matter. Allthe subjects Airline Transport Pilot certificate and Type
an ATP candidate will be tested on during Rating.
checkrides, career interviews, and aircraft
transition rides are covered. Also available as
an App and an eBook!

(i/tvivwtxa ^M<*iA4' rt&i&.

AVIATION SUPPLIES & ACADEMICS, INC. See our complete line of study aids, textbooks, pilot supplies and more at your
Quality & Service You Can Depend On local airport and in bookstores nationwide, www.asa2fly.com | 425-235-1500