INSTRUMENT/CFII

STUDY GUIDE
 IMPORTANT INFORMATION FOR SEMINAR PREPARATION
PLEASE READ THIS CAREFULLY!

People attending our courses come to class with wide variations of both
knowledge and experience – from those who are still waiting to take their first
flight lesson, through those who have been ready for their flight tests for years
(private or commercial), but haven’t yet completed their FAA knowledge exam.
However, our recommendations below are applicable for everyone.

The first thing you will discover is that our course manual is intentionally small.
Many test preparation guides have 4 or 5 times as many pages, trying to cover
much more information than necessary for the FAA Knowledge Exam. We
believe that it is important to obtain all of the knowledge about flying that you can.
We do not produce this book with the belief that it will contain all the information
you need to know as a pilot, but instead wish to provide you with a study guide
that is concise and specific to your FAA Exam. We have written the summaries
to be as brief as possible while still providing the necessary background to
explain the topic and questions. You’ll find that we cover a lot more information
and detail in the classroom!

Here’s the most effective way to preview this material:

First, you will notice that we have bolded and italicized the correct answer to
each of the FAA test questions in the book. We’ve learned that it is
counterproductive to test yourself by reading a question and its selection of
answers without first knowing the correct answer.

Second, read through each of the summaries. Directly following each summary,
read each question followed by the associated correct answer. Don’t bother to
read the incorrect answers, and don’t worry about slowing down to analyze and
study at this time – we simply want you to become familiar with the type of
information the FAA wants you to learn, and become exposed to the questions
and correct answers. This will help you focus more productively in class, and will
help prepare you for additional learning and study. IF YOU DO NOTHING ELSE,
AT LEAST READ THROUGH THE BOOK THE DAY BEFORE THE TEST AS
DESCRIBED ABOVE. Most people find that this can be done in about 2 hours.

Finally, make sure to take the Aviation Seminars Online Practice Exams after the
class. Prior to taking the FAA exam, you should be scoring in the mid-80’s on
the practice exams.

THANK YOU FOR CHOOSING AVIATION SEMINARS FOR YOUR TEST

PREPARATION!
 INSTRUMENT PILOT/INSTRUMENT INSTRUCTOR COURSE SUMMARY

Airman Knowledge Testing Supplement for Instrument Rating

FAA-CT-8080-3F

Things You Should Know About the FAA Exam Pages 01-02

IFR Preflight and Departure 03-22

IFR Enroute and Arrival 23-32

IFR Approach and Landing 33-45

IFR Navigation 46-55

IFR Flight Planning 56

IFR Aircraft Instruments 57-69

IFR Flying Fundamentals 70-75

IFR Weather Theory 76-85

IFR Weather Reports and Forecasts 86-94

Additional FAA Questions 95

Copyright 2024
Aviation Seminars

Aviation Seminars
1934 N Marshall Ave, Suite 102
El Cajon, CA 92020
800-257-9444
 Things You Should Know
Aviation Seminars

THINGS YOU SHOULD KNOW ABOUT YOUR FAA COMPUTER EXAM

To achieve the best results on your exam: • Flight computer and Plotter. The printed
instructions and formulas on the slide rule
As time allows, answer all the questions in the Course computer are allowed during the exam.
Summary BEFORE coming to class, so the instructor can • Electronic calculator, if desired. You will need to
clarify any with which you have trouble. Allow some time memorize how to use the functions required on
Saturday evening for a second review of those questions the test. You are not allowed to bring the guide
you missed. booklet into the testing station.

Take some notes as you listen to the lecture, but also How to take the test:
keep an eye on the visuals the instructor uses in the
presentation. Computer tests are designed to be easy to understand
and user-friendly, requiring no previous computer
Complete all your available on-line practice tests. experience.

Take the exam within 3 days after the seminar. When you arrive at the test center, the test proctor will
review your registration information and exam sign-off,
About computer testing: and confirm the correct test. At the computer, you will
step through sample screens and answer practice
AVIATION SEMINARS constantly monitors for new areas questions, with the proctor available to assist as needed.
that the FAA is asking of its current pilot applicants in the
knowledge tests. Look through and identify the contents of the “Airman
Testing Supplement” book your proctor gives you. When
FAA airman knowledge testing is done by computer only. you are fully confident of how computer testing works, the
Two private companies are authorized by the FAA to allotted time for your test will begin.
administer computer tests. A complete list of those
companies and their testing sites is available through the Testing software allows you to review questions already
FAA’s website. answered (and change answers if needed), or to skip
over a difficult question and return to answer it later.
Each FAA-approved computer testing company sets its
own fees and maintains a nation-wide, toll-free Testing software keeps you advised of time remaining for
registration/information telephone number. your test. Use your full time to double-check your
answers.

There are no minimum flight time requirements to take How to answer each question:
the Private Pilot knowledge exam. However the applicant
must be at least 15 years old at the time they take the Know when one answer is correct and the other two are
written test. incorrect. All questions have the same score value and
are independent from each other.
The Instrument Pilot exam has 60 questions, which are
chosen from over 700 in the exam database. You are Answer EVERY question. There is no penalty for
allowed 2.5 hours to complete the exam. guessing, but unanswered questions are graded as
incorrect. If you have a baffling question, write the
A minimum score of 70% is required to pass the exam. question and all three answers on your scratch paper, to
think through them again.
Bring with you to the test:
After the computer exam:
• Any failed test report, signed by a certified
instructor. The best part - instant results! 70% is a passing grade.
• Government issued picture identification. Non- Your test report Is printed out immediately and embossed
US citizens should bring passport or immigration as “official” by the test center.
green card.
• Evidence of completion of ground school with Keep your Airman Computer Test Report. DO NOT LOSE
instructor sign-off. You will receive this at the end IT! It is valid for 24 months. Drop us a line on how you did
of our seminar. in our CONTACT US portal in our website!

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 Preflight Planning and Departure
Aviation Seminars

PREFLIGHT PLANNING AND DEPARTURE

PREFLIGHT PLANNING
Recent Flight Experience
Certificates And Ratings Required
No person may act as a pilot in command under IFR
The pilot in command must be instrument rated: of fly in weather conditions that are less than those
required for VFR, unless within the preceding 6
- on an IFR flight plan under instrument weather calendar months, that person has performed and
conditions, including a “VFR on TOP” clearance. logged under actual or simulated instrument
- in weather conditions less than minimum prescribed conditions:
for legal VFR flight.
- in Class A airspace. 1. At least 6 instrument approaches;
- under a special VFR clearance at night. 2. Holding procedures: and
- when, as a commercial pilot, carrying passengers 3. Intercepting and tracking courses through the use
for hire on cross country flights of more than 50 NM, of navigation systems.
or at night, regardless of distance.
These requirements must be met in the category for
Medical Certificates (Class) which the instrument rating is held. For example, an
airplane rated instrument pilot must meet these
To act as PIC with an Instrument Rating, you must requirements in an airplane or approved airplane
possess at least a 3rd Class Medical Certificate or be ground aviation training device.
on BasicMed. If any medical certificate (1st, 2nd, 3rd)
is obtained before the age of 40, it is valid as a 3rd If your instrument recency of experience has lapsed,
class for 60 months. but for less that 6 calendar months, you may either
obtain the IFR experience listed above, or pass an
If any medical certificate (1st, 2nd, 3rd) is obtained IFR competency check. If it has lapsed more than 6
after the age of 40, it is valid as a 3rd class for only 24 calendar months, you must pass an Instrument
months. (FAR 61.23) Proficiency Check (IPC) before acting as pilot in
command under IFR.
Medical Certificates (BasicMed)
Logging Of Flight Time
BasicMed allows a pilot who has previously held a
valid “class” medical certificate on or after July 15, You may log as instrument time only the flight time
2006, to act as PIC with 3rd class privileges in both you are controlling the airplane solely by reference to
VFR and IFR operations with no other restrictions.* flight instruments.
(*Not for hire)
An instrument flight instructor (CFII) may log as
Requirements for BasicMed instrument time all the time during which he acts as
instructor in actual instrument weather conditions.
- Must hold a valid state driver’s license.
- Must get a basic physical from a licensed physician, The safety pilot who occupies the other control seat
then again every 4 years (48 months) during simulated instrument flight must be
- Must take the on-line Medical Education Course appropriately rated (have a category and class rating
(MEC) then again every 2 years (24 months) for the aircraft being flown)

Limitations while flying IFR under BasicMed The logbook entry for simulated instrument conditions
must include the place and type of each instrument
- Flight in U.S and Bahamas only. approach completed and the name of the safety pilot.
- Maximum altitude 18,000 feet MSL.
- Maximum speed 250 KIAS.
- Maximum occupants 6 (including pilot).
- Maximum aircraft weight 6,000 MTOW.

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Aviation Seminars
VOR equipment tolerances are:

Preflight Action For The Flight - VOT: TO flag, 180 degrees + /- 4 degrees, FROM
flag, 000 degrees + /- 4 degrees.
The pilot in command is responsible for determining - VOR designated ground check: + /- 4 degrees of the
that an aircraft is safe for flight. designated radial with the TO-FROM flag indicating a
FROM. Dual VOR system comparison: On the
Before beginning any flight under an IFR clearance, ground or airborne, 4 degrees between the indicated
you must check: bearings to the station.
- VOR designated airborne check: + /- 6 degrees of
- weather reports and forecasts, the designated radial with the TO-FROM flag
- runway length at airports of intended use, indicating a FROM.
- alternatives available if the flight cannot be
completed as planned. VOR Ground, Airborne and VOT frequencies are
listed in the Chart Supplement. *
Fuel Requirements
*The FAA Test Supplement 8080-3F shows the Chart
You must have: Supplement still listed as the old Airport Facility
Directory.
- Fuel to first airport of intended landing, plus
- Fuel to alternate, if alternate required, plus A record of the VOR operational check must include
- 45 minutes reserve at normal cruise. the date, place, bearing error, and the person’s
signature and be kept in the aircraft.
Equipment Required For IFR Flight
Oxygen Requirement
To fly IFR, your aircraft must be equipped with
navigational equipment appropriate to the ground Above 12,500 and up to 14,000 MSL the crew must
facilities being used and appropriate communication use oxygen after 30 minutes at that altitude.
equipment.
Above 14,000 MSL the crew must use oxygen all the
A gyroscopic direction indicator is required. time.

DME is required at or above 24,000 MSL when VOR Above 15,000 MSL provide passengers with oxygen,
navigational equipment is used. but they are not required to use it.

In Class B or C airspace, or operating at or above

10,000 MSL and above 2,500 AGL your airplane must IFR Flight Plan (ICAO Form)
be equipped with a transponder having Mode C
capability (altitude reporting). New International Flight Plan Section is Pending for
2019-20. Only general flight plan questions asked.
If not transponder equipped, you must request
deviation from the Class B transponder requirement Currently, pilots must use the ICAO flight plan form
at least 1 hr before proposed flight.
when the flight will enter international airspace
Transponder must be on Mode C at all times if the controlled by FAA facilities.
equipment has been calibrated, unless requested
otherwise by ATC. Refer to Figure 51
Block 15 - Level: Enter initial cruising altitude.
Preflight Action For The Aircraft Block 16 - Aerodrome: Enter destination airport if no
To fly IFR, the pilot in command must verify the stopover is planned for more than 1 hour.
aircraft is in compliance to fly IFR: TEE - Time Estimated Enroute: Is total usable fuel on
board in hours and minutes.
- annual inspection within the last 12 calendar
months,
- altimeter system check within the last 24 calendar
months,
transponder test within the last 24 calendar months
and VOR test within the last 30 days.

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Aviation Seminars

Alternate Airport Requirements Distant (D) NOTAMS

An alternate airport is required if the destination The latest status of airport conditions (e.g. runway
airport has a forecast ceiling of less than 2000 feet or closures, runway lighting, snow conditions) is found in
forecast visibility of less than 3 miles within 1 hour the Chart Supplement, and Distant (D) NOTAMS.
before to 1 hour after the ETA at the destination.
Hot Spots
Then:
The forecast weather at the alternate airport (at your Hot Spots are areas on the airport prone to runway
ETA) must be no less than: incursions. How Spots can be found by airport on the
Runway Safety section on the FAA.gov website.
- with a precision approach, 600 foot ceiling and 2
miles visibility.
- with a non-precision approach, 800 foot ceiling and
2 miles visibility.
- with no instrument approach available, adequate
ceiling and visibility to allow descent from the MEA,
and an approach and landing under basic VFR.
- if nonstandard minimums are listed, adhere to those
minimums. Standard minimums apply except for the
specific situation listed.

T symbol on IAP indicates Take-off Mins not standard.

Preferred IFR Routes

Preferred routes are published to minimize the route

changes and to aid in the systematic flow of traffic.

Routes beginning or ending with a fix indicate that

aircraft will be routed to the fix via a DP, radar vectors,
or a STAR.

Chart Supplement * (Formerly Airport Facility

Directory)

*The FAA Test Supplement 8080-3F shows the Chart THE IFR DEPARTURE
Supplement still listed as the old Airport Facility
Directory. Authority Of Pilot In Command

The most current en route and destination flight The pilot in command may deviate in an emergency,
information should be obtained from FSS. from any Part 91 FAR to the extent necessary to meet
Look at the Chart Supplement to find availability of the emergency.
FSS, frequencies for communication, hours of
operation of the control tower or ATIS, and which If you deviate from an ATC clearance in an
enroute low attitude chart is applicable for your route emergency, you must notify ATC of the deviation as
of flight, and restrictions to NAVAIDs. soon as possible.

Flight Data Center NOTAMS ATC may request a detailed report of an

emergency even though a rule has not been violated
Flight Data Center Notams (FDC) advise of changes when priority has been given over another aircraft.
in flight data which affect IFR approach procedures,
aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior to
normal publications.

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When climbing to your assigned altitude on an airway,
ATIS (Automatic Terminal Information Service) Climb on the centerline of the airway except when
maneuvering to avoid other aircraft, or making
ATIS broadcasts at towered airports are updated clearing turns while in VFR conditions, or when
upon receipt of any official weather, regardless of authorized by ATC
content change or reported values.
ATC Traffic Information
The absence of sky condition and visibility implies
that the ceiling is more than 5000 feet and the You are responsible for avoiding other aircraft when
visibility is 5 miles or more. weather conditions permit regardless of whether
operating IFR or VFR.
The Clearance
"Traffic at 2 o’clock 5 miles southbound”
To receive the clearance, call Ground Control if tower
is operation or FSS on listed frequency if tower is Indicates traffic 60 degrees to the right of your
closed. direction of travel and five miles away. If holding a 20-
degree right crab, look 40 degrees to the right.
Read back parts of ATC clearances containing
altitude assignments or vectors, or any part requiring VFR Operations On An IFR Flight Plan
verification.
A VFR-On-Top clearance may be requested if you are
An abbreviated clearance (cleared as filed) indicates enroute and wish to maintain your IFR flight plan and
the route cleared is identical to that which you clearance, but fly at a VFR altitude of your choice.
requested. it always includes the name of destination
airport and a specified altitude, and DP name, When flying VFR-On-Top:
number and transition, if appropriate.
- Follow VFR and IFR rules.
When departing from an airport not served by a - maintain a VFR altitude (if your magnetic course is 0
control tower, the issuance of a clearance may be to 179, fly odd thousands plus 500 feet; magnetic
given by telephone, and will contain a "void time." The course of 1 80 to 359, fly even thousands plus 500
pilot must advise ATC as soon as possible, but not feet airway direction is given in magnetic course)
later than 30 minutes, of his intentions, if not off by between the MEA and below Class A airspace.
the void time. Highest allowable altitude is 16,500 westbound and
17,500 eastbound.
Instrument Departure Procedures (DP) and Standard -Maintain VFR distances from clouds. Below
Terminal Arrival Routes (STAR’s) are often assigned. 1,000 MSL 3 miles visibility, 500 below,
1000 above, 2000 horizontally from clouds.
DP’s are ATC coded departure routings established to
simplify departure clearance delivery problems.

The basic DP terminates, and the transition begins, at

the end of the bold black line.

You may be issued a clearance for a DP by ATC

unless you have indicated (in the remarks section of
you flight plan form) that you want “NO DP” If a DP is
accepted, the pilot must possess at least the textual
description.

Departure Control

After takeoff, departure control should be contacted

when advised by the control tower.

When given clearance to a new altitude, maintain an

optimum climb or descent without intermediate level-
offs until within 1, 000 feet of assigned attitude, then
between 500 and 1,500 FPM until reaching the
assigned altitude.

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 Preflight Planning and Departure
Aviation Seminars

When flying VFR-On-Top (Continued) TEST QUESTIONS (Use Test Supplement 8080-3F)

- in uncontrolled airspace during daylight NOTE: CORRECT ANSWER IN BOLD ITALICS

hours, you need 1 mile visibility.
- 10,000 MSL or above, 5 miles visibility,
1,000 below and above clouds, 1 mile horizontally. 4XXX. FAA AVSEM IRA
- make the same compulsory reports that are required Which statement is true regarding flying PIC as an
for an IFR flight at IFR altitudes. instrument pilot under BasicMed?
- report changes in altitudes. A) Must see a physician every 24 months and take
- follow the same procedure in the event of loss of the Medical Education Course (MEC) every 48
communication. months.
- realize that no traffic separation is provided. B) Must see a physician every 48 months and take
the Medical Education Course (MEC) every 24
Pilot would request a clearance "to VFR-On-Top" to months.
climb through a cloud layer and then continue VFR. C) Must have a Driver’s license with an expired class
medical certificate.
ATC will issue a VFR restriction to an IFR flight when
the pilot requests it. 4XXX. FAA AVSEM IRA
What conditions allow a pilot who is exercising the
In VFR conditions, including VFR-On-Top, continue privileges of BasicMed to act as a PIC under
the flight under VFR and land as soon as practical instrument flight rules (IFR)?
(not as soon as possible). A) Flight in IMC is not permitted under BasicMed.
B) When the PIC is instrument rated and current.
In IFR conditions, continue on the route specified in C) When there is a safety pilot who shares the PIC
your clearance. Fly at your assigned altitude, unless responsibilities.
the MEA is higher, or unless given an expected
further clearance to climb to a higher altitude. 4XXX. FAA AVSEM IRA
What is the maximum altitude allowed for a pilot who
If in a holding pattern, leave the holding pattern at the is exercising the privileges of BasicMed to act as a
EFC (expected further clearance) time. PIC under instrument flight rules (IFR)?
A) 10,000 feet MSL.
Loss Of Communications B) 12,000 feet MSL.
C) 18,000 feet MSL.
Squawk 7600 on your transponder.
4002. IRA
Malfunction Reports What limitation is imposed on a newly certificated
commercial airplane pilot if that person
You must report immediately to ATC: does not hold an instrument pilot rating?
A) The carrying of passengers or property for hire on
- complete loss of VOR, TACAN (DME), or ADF cross-country flights at night is limited to a radius of
capability; 50 nautical miles (NM).
- complete or partial loss of ILS capability; loss of B) The carrying of passengers for hire on cross-
DME if at or above FL 240 (notify ATC, then country flights is limited to 50 NM for night flights, but
continue to your destination airport as cleared not limited for day flights.
where repairs can be made). C) The carrying of passengers for hire on cross-
country flights is limited to 50 NM and the carrying of
passengers for hire at night is prohibited.

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Aviation Seminars
4009. IRA
4003. IRA What portion of dual instruction time may a
Before beginning any flight under IFR, the certificated instrument flight instructor log as
pilot in command must become familiar with all instrument flight time?
available information concerning that flight. In A) All time during which the instructor acts as
addition, the pilot must instrument instructor, regardless of weather
A) be familiar with all instrument approaches at conditions.
the destination airport. B) All time during which the instructor acts as
B) list an alternate airport on the flight plan and instrument instructor in actual instrument
confirm adequate takeoff and landing performance at weather conditions.
the destination airport. C) Only the time during which the instructor flies the
C) be familiar with the runway lengths at airports of aircraft by reference to instruments.
intended use, and the alternatives available if the
flight cannot be completed. 4010. IRA
Which flight time may be logged as instrument time
4005. IRA when on an instrument flight plan?
During your preflight planning for an IFR flight in an A) All of the time the aircraft was not controlled by
airplane you determine that the first airport of ground references.
intended landing has no instrument approach B) Only the time you controlled the aircraft solely by
prescribed in 14 CFR part 97. The weather forecast reference to flight instruments.
for one hour before through one hour after your C) Only the time you were flying in IFR weather
estimated time of arrival is 3000’ scattered with 5 conditions.
miles visibility. To meet fuel requirements for this flight
you must be able to fly to the first airport of intended 4011. IRA
landing; What are the minimum qualifications for a person who
A) and then fly for 45 minutes at normal cruising occupies the other control seat as safety pilot during
speed. simulated instrument flight?
B) then to the alternate airport, and then for 45 A) Private pilot certificate with appropriate category
minutes at normal cruising speed. and class ratings for the aircraft.
C) then to the alternate airport, and then for 30 B) Private pilot with instrument rating.
minutes at normal cruising speed. C) Private pilot with appropriate category class, and
instrument ratings.
4007. IRA
If the aircraft’s transponder fails during flight within 4012.
Class B airspace, The minimum instrument time required,
A) the pilot should immediately request clearance to within the last 6 months, to be current for IFR is
depart the Class B airspace. A) six instrument approaches, holding procedures,
B) ATC may authorize deviation from the transponder and intercepting and tracking courses.
requirement to allow aircraft to continue to the airport B) six hours in the same category aircraft.
of ultimate destination. C) six hours in the same category aircraft, and at
C) aircraft must immediately descend below 1,200 least 3 of the 6 hours in actual IFR.
feet AGL and proceed to destination.
4013. IRA
4008. IRA After your recent IFR experience lapses, how much
If a pilot enters the condition of flight in the pilot time do you have before you must pass an instrument
logbook as simulated instrument conditions, what competency check to act as pilot in command under
qualifying information must also be entered? IFR?
A) Place and type of each instrument approach A) 6 months.
completed and name of safety pilot. B) 90 days.
B) Number and type of instrument approaches C) 12 months.
completed and route of flight.
C) Name and pilot certificate number of safety pilot
and type of approaches completed.

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 Preflight Planning and Departure
Aviation Seminars

4014. IRA 4021. IRA

An instrument rated pilot, who has not logged any How long does a pilot remain current for IFR flight
instrument time in 1 year or more, cannot serve as after successfully completing an instrument
pilot in command under IFR, unless the pilot competency check if no further IFR flights are made?
A) completes the required 6 hours and six A) 90 days.
approaches, followed by an instrument competency B) 6 months.
check given by an C) 12 months.
FAA-designated examiner.
B) passes an instrument competency check in the 4023. IRA
category of aircraft involved, given by an approved What recent instrument flight experience
FAA examiner, instrument instructor, or FAA inspector. requirements must be met before you may act as pilot
C) passes an instrument competency check in the in command of an airplane under IFR?
category of aircraft involved, followed by 6 hours and A) A minimum of six instrument approaches
six instrument approaches, 3 of those hours in the in an airplane, or an approved simulator
category of aircraft involved. (airplane) or ground trainer, within the
preceding 6 calendar months.
4015. IRA B) A minimum of six instrument approaches
A pilot’s recent IFR experience expires on in an aircraft at least three of which must be
July 1 of this year. What is the latest date the pilot in the same category within the preceding 6
can meet the IFR experience requirement without calendar months.
having to take an instrument competency check? C) A minimum of six instrument approaches
A) December 31, this year. at least three of which must be in an aircraft
B) June 30, next year. within the preceding 6 calendar months.
C) July 31, this year.
4024. IRA
4017. IRA Under which condition are you required to have an
What minimum conditions are necessary for instrument rating for flight in VMC?
the instrument approaches required for IFR A) Flight through an MOA.
currency? B) Flight into an ADIZ.
A) The approaches may be made in an aircraft, C) Flight into class A airspace.
approved
instrument ground trainer, or any combination of 4025. IRA
these. The pilot in command of a civil aircraft
B) At least three approaches must be made in the must have an instrument rating only when
same operating
category of aircraft to be flown. A) under IFR in controlled airspace and in a
C) At least three approaches must be made in the positive control area or positive control route
same category and class of aircraft to be flown. segment.
B) under IFR, in weather conditions less
4020. IRA than the minimum for VFR flight, and in
How may a pilot satisfy the recent instrument Class A airspace.
experience requirement necessary to act as pilot in C) in weather conditions less than the
command in IMC in powered aircraft? minimum prescribed for VFR flight.
A) Log six instrument approaches, holding
procedures, and intercepting and tracking courses
using navigational systems.
B) Log six instrument approaches and 3 hours under
actual or simulated IFR conditions within the last 6
months; three of the approaches must be in the
category of aircraft involved.
C) Log 6 hours of instrument time under actual or
simulated IFR conditions within the last 3 months,
including at least six instrument approaches of any
kind. Three of the 6 hours must be in flight in any
category aircraft.

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4031. IRA
4026. IRA Under which condition must the pilot in command of a
What additional instrument experience is civil aircraft have at least an instrument rating?
required for you to meet the recent flight experience A) When operating in class E airspace.
to act as pilot in command of an airplane under IFR? B) For a flight in VFR conditions while on an
Your present instrument experience within the IFR flight plan.
preceding 6 calendar months is: C) For any flight above an altitude of 1,200
1.3 hours with holding, intercepting, and feet AGL, when the visibility is less than 3
tracking courses in an approved airplane flight miles.
simulator.
2. two instrument approaches in an airplane. 4032. IRA
What are the minimum fuel requirements in IFR
A) Four instrument approaches in an approved conditions, if the first airport of intended landing is
flight simulator that is representative of the forecast to have a 1,500 foot ceiling and 3 miles
airplane category. visibility at flight-planned ETA? Fuel to fly to the first
B) Three hours of simulated or actual instrument airport of intended landing,
flight time in a helicopter and two instrument A) and fly thereafter for 45 minutes at normal cruising
approaches in an airplane or helicopter. speed.
C) Three instrument approaches in a helicopter. B) fly to the alternate, and fly thereafter for 45
minutes at normal cruising speed.
4027. IRA C) fly to the alternate, and fly thereafter for 30
To meet the minimum required instrument experience minutes at normal cruising speed.
to remain current for IFR operations, you must
accomplish during the past 6 months at least six 4033. IRA
instrument approaches including Before beginning any flight under IFR, the pilot in
A) holding procedures intercepting and tracking command must become familiar with all available
courses through the use of navigation systems. information concerning that flight. In addition, the pilot
B) and 6 hours of instrument time in any aircraft. must
C) three of which must be in the same category and A) list an alternate airport on the flight plan and
class of aircraft to be flown, and 6 hours of instrument become familiar with the instrument approaches to
time in any aircraft. that airport.
B) list an alternate airport on the flight plan and
4028. IRA confirm adequate takeoff and landing performance at
A certificated commercial pilot who carries the destination airport.
passengers for hire in an airplane at night is required C) be familiar with the runway lengths at airports of
to have at least intended use, and the alternatives available if the
A) an associated type rating if the airplane is flight cannot be completed.
of the multiengine class.
B) a First-Class Medical Certificate. 4034. IRA
C) an airplane instrument pilot rating. Which limitation is imposed on the holder of a
Commercial Pilot Certificate if that person does not
4029. IRA hold an instrument rating?
You intend to carry passengers for hire on a night A) That person is limited to private pilot
VFR flight in a single engine airplane within a 25 mile privileges at night.
radius of the departure airport. You are required to B) The carrying of passengers or property
possess at least which rating(s)? for hire on cross-country flights at night is
A) A Commercial Pilot Certificate with a single engine limited to a radius of 50 NM.
land rating. C) The carrying of passengers for hire on
B) A Commercial Pilot Certificate with a single engine cross-country flights is limited to 50 NM and
and instrument (airplane) rating. the carrying of passengers for hire at night is
C) A Private Pilot Certificate with a single engine land prohibited.
and instrument airplane rating.

Pg. 10
 Preflight Planning and Departure
Aviation Seminars

4035. IRA 4044. IRA

To carry passengers for hire in an airplane on cross- Which data must be recorded in the aircraft log or
country flights of more than 50 NM from the departure other appropriate log by a pilot making a VOR
airport, the pilot in command is required to hold at operational check for IFR operations?
least A) VOR name or identification, date of check, amount
A) a Category II pilot authorization. of bearing error, and signature.
B) a First-Class Medical certificate. B) Place of operational check, amount of bearing
C) a Commercial Pilot Certificate with an error, date of check, and signature.
instrument rating. C) Date of check, VOR name or identification, place
of operational check, and amount of bearing error.
4036. IRA
When must an operational check on the aircraft VOR 4045. IRA
equipment be accomplished when used to operate What is the maximum cabin pressure altitude at which
under IFR? a pilot can fly for longer than 30 minutes without using
A) Within the preceding 10 days or 10 hours of flight supplemental oxygen.
time. A) 10,500 feet.
B) Within the preceding 30 days or 30 hours of flight B) 12,000 feet.
time. C) 12,500 feet.
C) Within the preceding 30 days.
4046. IRA
4037. IRA What record shall be made in the aircraft log or other
In the 48 contiguous states, excluding the airspace at permanent record by the pilot making the VOR
or below 2,500 feet AGL, an operable coded operational check?
transponder equipped with Mode C capability is A) The date, place, bearing error, and signature.
required in all controlled airspace at and above B) The date, frequency of VOR or VOT, number of
flight hours since last check, and signature.
A) 12,500 feet MSL. C) The date, place, satisfactory or unsatisfactory,
B) 10,000 feet MSL. and signature.
C) Flight level (FL) 180.
4047. IRA
4038. IRA Your aircraft had the static pressure system and
A coded transponder equipped with altitude reporting altimeter tested and inspected on January 5, of this
capability is required in all controlled airspace year, and was found to comply with FAA standards.
A) at and above 10,000 feet MSL, excluding at and These systems must be reinspected and approved for
below 2,500 feet AGL. use in controlled airspace under IFR by
B) at and above 2,500 feet above the surface. A) January 5, next year.
C) below 10,000 feet MSL, excluding at and below B) January 5, 2 years hence.
2,500 feet AGL. C) January 31, 2 years hence.

4039. IRA 4048. IRA

Who is responsible for determining that the altimeter Which checks and inspections of flight instruments or
system has been checked and found to meet 14 CFR instrument systems must be accomplished before an
part 91 requirements for a particular instrument flight? aircraft can be flown under IFR?
A) Owner. A) VOR within 30 days, altimeter systems within 24
B) Operator. calendar months, and transponder within 24 calendar
C) Pilot-in-command. months.
B) ELT test within 30 days, altimeter systems within
4042. IRA 12 calendar months, and transponder within 24
If an unpressurized aircraft is operated above 12,500 calendar months.
feet MSL, but not more than 14,000 feet MSL, for a C) VOR within 24 calendar months, transponder
period of 2 hours 20 minutes, how long during that within 24 calendar months, and altimeter system
time is the minimum flight crew required to use within 12 calendar months.
supplemental oxygen?
A) 2 hours 20 minutes. 4049. IRA
B) 1 hour 20 minutes. An aircraft altimeter system test and inspection must
C) 1 hour 50 minutes. be accomplished within
A) 12 calendar months.
B) 18 calendar months.
C) 24 calendar months.

Pg. 11
Preflight Planning and Departure
Aviation Seminars
4060. IRA
4051. IRA When filing a composite flight plan where
An aircraft operated under 14 CFR part 91 IFR is the first portion of the flight is IFR, which fix(es)
required to have which of the following? should be indicated on the flight plan form?
A) Radar altimeter. A) All points of transition from one airway to another,
B) Dual VOR system. fixes defining direct route segments, and the
C) Gyroscopic direction indicator clearance limit fix.
B) Only the fix where you plan to terminate the IFR
4052. IRA portion of the flight.
What is the maximum IFR altitude you may fly in an C) Only those compulsory reporting points on the IFR
unpressurized aircraft without providing passengers route segment.
with supplemental oxygen?
A) 12,500 feet. 4061. IRA
B) 14,000 feet. What is the recommended procedure for transitioning
C) 15,000 feet. from VFR to IFR on a composite flight plan?
A) Prior to transitioning to IFR, contact the nearest
4053. IRA FSS, close the VFR portion, and request ATC
What is the oxygen requirement for an unpressurized clearance.
aircraft at 15,000 feet? B) Upon reaching the proposed point for change to
A) All occupants must use oxygen for the IFR, contact the nearest FSS and cancel your VFR
entire time at this altitude. flight plan, then contact ARTCC and request an IFR
B) Crew must start using oxygen at 12,000 clearance.
feet and passengers at 15,000 feet. C) Prior to reaching the proposed point for change to
C) Crew must use oxygen for the entire time IFR, contact ARTCC, request your IFR clearance, and
above 14,000 feet and passengers must be instruct them to cancel the VFR flight plan.
provided supplemental oxygen only above
15,000 feet. 4062. IRA
When is an IFR flight plan required?
4054. IRA A) When less than VFR conditions exist in either
When making an airborne VOR check, what is the Class E or Class G airspace and in Class A airspace.
maximum allowable tolerance between the two B) In all Class E airspace when conditions are below
indicators of a dual VOR system (units independent of VFR, in Class A airspace, and in defense zone
each other except the antenna)? airspace.
A) 4° between the two indicated bearings of a VOR. C) In Class E airspace when IMC exists or in Class A
B) Plus or minus 4° when set to identical radials of a airspace.
VOR.
C) 6° between the two indicated radials of a VOR. 4063. IRA
Prior to which operation must an IFR flight plan be
4055. IRA filed and an appropriate ATC clearance received?
What minimum navigation equipment is required for A) Flying by reference to instruments in
IFR flight? controlled airspace.
A) VOR/LOC receiver, transponder, and DME. B) Entering controlled airspace when IMC exists.
B) VOR receiver and, if in ARTS III environment, a C) Takeoff when IFR weather conditions exist.
coded transponder equipped for altitude reporting.
C) Navigation equipment appropriate to the ground 4064. IRA
facilities to be used. To operate under IFR below 18,000 feet, a pilot must
file an IFR flight plan and receive an appropriate ATC
4059. IRA clearance prior to
When may a pilot file a composite flight plan? A) entering controlled airspace.
A) When requested or advised by ATC. B) entering weather conditions below VFR
B) Any time a portion of the flight will be VFR. minimums.
C) Any time a landing is planned at an intermediate C) takeoff.
airport.
4065. IRA
To operate an aircraft under IFR, a flight plan must
have been filed and an ATC clearance received prior
to
A) controlling the aircraft solely by use of instruments.
B) entering weather conditions in any airspace.
C) entering controlled airspace.

Pg. 12
 Preflight Planning and Departure
Aviation Seminars

4066. IRA 4081. IRA

When is an IFR clearance required during What minimum weather conditions must be forecast
VFR weather conditions? for your ETA at an alternate airport, that has only a
A) When operating in the Class E airspace. VOR approach with standard alternate minimums, for
B) When operating in a Class A airspace. the airport to be listed as an alternate on the IFR flight
C) When operating in airspace above 14,500 feet. plan?
A) 800 foot ceiling and 1 statute mile visibility.
4067. B) 800 foot ceiling and 2 statute miles visibility.
Operation in which airspace requires filing C) 1,000 foot ceiling and visibility to allow descent
an IFR flight plan? from minimum en route altitude (MEA), approach, and
A) Any airspace when the visibility is less than 1 mile. landing under basic VFR.
B) Class E airspace with IMC and positive control
area. 4082. IRA
C) Positive control area, Continental Control Area, Is an alternate airport required for an IFR
and all other airspace, if the visibility is less than 1 flight to ATL (Atlanta Hartsfield) if the proposed
mile. ETA is 1930Z?

4068. IRA TAF

When departing from an airport located outside KATL l2l720Z 121818 20012KT 5SM HZ
controlled airspace during IMC, you must file an IFR BKN030 FM2000 3SM TRSA OVC025CB
flight plan and receive a clearance before FM2200 33015G20KT P6SM BKN015 OVC040
A) takeoff. BECMG 0608 02008KT BKN040 BECMG 1012
B) entering IFR conditions. 00000KT P6SM CLR=
C) entering Class E airspace.
A) Yes, because the ceiling could fall below 2,000
4070. IRA feet within 2 hours before to 2 hours after the ETA.
Preferred IFR routes beginning with a fix, indicate that B) No, because the ceiling and visibility are
departing aircraft will normally be routed to the fix by forecast to remain at or above 1,000 feet and 3
A) the established airway(s) between the departure miles, respectively.
airport and the fix. C) No, because the ceiling and visibility are
B) an instrument departure procedure (DP), or radar forecast to be at or above 2,000 feet and 3 miles
vectors. within 1 hour before to 1 hour after the ETA.
C) direct route only.
4083. IRA
4079. IRA What minimum conditions must exist at the
Which sources of aeronautical information, when destination airport to avoid listing an alternate airport
used collectively, provide the latest status of airport on an IFR flight plan when a standard IAP is
conditions (e.g., runway closures, runway lighting, available?
snow conditions)? A) From 2 hours before to 2 hours after ETA, forecast
A) Aeronautical Information Manual, aeronautical ceiling 2,000, and visibility 2 and 1/2 miles.
charts, and Distant (D) Notice to Airmen (NOTAM's). B) From 2 hours before to 2 hours after ETA, forecast
B) Chart Supplements, FDC NOTAM’s. ceiling 3,000, and visibility 3 miles.
C) Chart Supplements and Distant (D) NOTAM’s. C) From 1 hour before to 1 hour after ETA, forecast
ceiling 2,000, and visibility 3 miles.
4080. IRA
What is the purpose of FDC NOTAMs? 4085. IRA
A) To provide the latest information on the status of What standard minimums are required to
navigation facilities to all FSS facilities for scheduled list an airport as an alternate on an IFR flight plan
broadcasts. if the airport has a VOR approach only?
B) To issue notices for all airports and navigation A) Ceiling and visibility at ETA, 800 feet and 2 miles,
facilities in the shortest possible time. respectively.
C) To advise of changes in flight data which affect B) Ceiling and visibility from 2 hours before until 2
instrument approach procedure (IAP), aeronautical hours after ETA, 800 feet and 2 miles, respectively.
charts, and flight restrictions prior to normal C) Ceiling and visibility at ETA, 600 feet and 2 miles,
publication. respectively.

Pg. 13
Preflight Planning and Departure
Aviation Seminars

4086. IRA 4280. IRA

What are the minimum weather conditions that must (Refer to figure 34) At which altitude and location on
be forecast to list an airport as an alternate when the V573 would you expect the navigational signal of the
airport has no approved IAP? HOT VOR/DME to be unreliable?
A) The ceiling and visibility at ETA, 2,000 feet and 3 A) 3,000 feet at APINE intersection.
miles, respectively. B) 2,800 feet at MARKI intersection.
B) The ceiling and visibility from 2 hours before until 2 C) 6,000 feet at ELMMO intersection.
hours after ETA, 2,000 feet and 3 miles, respectively.
C) The ceiling and visibility at ETA must allow descent 4361. IRA
from MEA, approach, and landing, under basic VFR. (Refer to figure 211) At which point does the
basic instrument departure procedure terminate?
4087. IRA A) When Helena Departure Control establishes radar
What minimum weather conditions must be contact.
forecast for your ETA at an airport that has a precision B) At STAKK intersection.
approach procedure, with standard alternate C) Over the BOZEMAN VOR.
minimums, in order to list it as an alternate for the IFR
flight? 4362. IRA
A) 600-foot ceiling and 2 SM visibility at your (Refer to figure 76.) Which indication would be an
ETA. acceptable accuracy check of both VOR receivers
B) 600-foot ceiling and 2 SM visibility from 2 hours when the aircraft is located on the VOR receiver
before to 2 hours after your ETA. checkpoint at the Helena Regional Airport?
C) 800-foot ceiling and 2 SM visibility at your A) A.
ETA. B) B.
C) C.
4488. AVSEM IRA
(Refer to figures 163 and 165) Which restriction to the 4365. IRA
use of the OED VORTAC would be applicable to the (Refer to figure 214) Which en route low altitude
(GNATS6.KOLER) departure? navigation chart would cover the proposed routing
A) R 333 beyond 30 NM below 9,000 feet. departing Billings Logan (BIL)?
B) R 297 beyond 35 NM below 8,500 feet. A) H-1E.
C) R 251 within 15 NM below 6,600 feet. B) L-13D.
C) Billings Sectional Chart.
4488. IRA
(Refer to Figure 155.) Which restriction would be 4372. IRA
applicable for the Grand Junction Six Departure What is the maximum tolerance allowed for an
BRICK transition (JNC6.BRICK)? operational VOR equipment check when using
A) Minimum climb rate of 300’ per NM to 9,300 feet. a VOT?
B) Two VOR receivers required. A) Plus or minus 4°.
C) DME required. B) Plus or minus 6°.
C) Plus or minus 8°.
4275. IRA PLT281, IR.I.C.K4
(Refer to figure 190.) What are the hours of operation 4373. IRA
(local standard time) of the control tower at Santa When is a pilot on an IFR flight plan responsible for
Barbara (SBA)? avoiding other aircraft?
A) 0530am-10:00pm A) At all times when not in radar contact with ATC.
B) 0600-2300. B) When weather conditions permit, regardless of
C) 0700 - 2200 whether operating under IFR or VFR.
C) Only when advised by ATC.
4305. IRA
(Refer to figure 184.) What are the hours of operation 4375. IRA
(local time) of the Class D service for the Yakima Air The aircraft's transponder fails during flight within
Terminal when daylight savings time is in effect? Class D airspace.
A) 0500-2100 A) The pilot should immediately request clearance to
B) 0700-2300. depart the Class D airspace.
C) 0600 - 2200 B) No deviation is required because a transponder is
not required in Class D airspace.
C) Pilot must immediately request priority handling to
proceed to destination.

Pg. 14
 Preflight Planning and Departure
Aviation Seminars

4376. IRA
When using a VOT to make a VOR receiver check, 4382. IRA
the CDI should be centered and the OBS should (Refer to figure 81) When checking a dual
indicate that the aircraft is on the VOR system by use of a VOT, which illustration
A) 090 radial. indicates the VOR’s are satisfactory?
B) 180 radial. A) 1
C) 360 radial. B) 2
C) 4
4377. IRA
How should the pilot make a VOR receiver check 4383. IRA
when the aircraft is located on the designated While airborne, what is the maximum
checkpoint on the airport surface? permissible variation between the two indicated
A) Set the OBS on 180° plus or minus 4°; the CDI bearings when checking one VOR system against the
should center with a FROM indication. other?
B) Set the OBS on the designated radial. The CDI A) Plus or minus 4° when set to identical radials
must center within plus or minus 4° of that radial with of a VOR
a FROM indication. B) 4° between the two indicated bearings to a
C) With the aircraft headed directly toward the VOR VOR.
and the OBS set to 000°, the CDI should center within C) Plus or minus 6° when set to identical VOR radials.
plus or minus 4° of that radial with a TO indication.
4385. IRA
4378. IRA (Refer to figure 82) Which is an acceptable range of
When the CDI needle is centered during an airborne accuracy when performing an operational check of
VOR check, the omni-bearing selector and the TO/ dual VOR’s using one system against the other?
FROM indicator should read A) 1.
A) within 4° of the selected radial. B) 2.
B) within 6° of the selected radial. C) 4.
C) 0° TO, only if you are due south of the VOR.
4386. IRA
4379. IRA Where can the VOT frequency for a particular airport
What does declaring 'minimum fuel' to ATC imply? be found?
A) Traffic priority is needed to the destination airport. A) On the lAP Chart and in the Chart Supplement.
B) Emergency handling is required to the nearest B) Only in the Chart Supplement.
useable airport. C) In the Chart Supplement and on the A/G Voice
C) Merely an advisory that indicates an emergency Communication Panel of the En Route Low Altitude
situation is possible should any undue delay occur. Chart.

4380. IRA 4387. IRA

When ATC has not imposed any climb or descent Which indications are acceptable tolerances
restrictions and aircraft are within 1,000 feet of when checking both VOR receivers by use of the
assigned altitude, pilots should attempt to both climb VOT?
and descend at a rate of between A) 360° TO and 003° TO, respectively.
A) 500 feet per minute and 1,000 feet per minute. B) 001° FROM and 005° FROM, respectively.
B) 500 feet per minute and 1,500 feet per minute. C) 176° TO and 003° FROM, respectively.
C) 1000 feet per minute and 2,000 feet per minute.
4388. IRA
4381. IRA In which publication can the VOR receiver ground
During an IFR flight in IMC, a distress condition is checkpoint(s) for a particular airport be found?
encountered, (fire, mechanical, or structural failure). A) Airman’s Information Manual.
The pilot should B) En Route Low Altitude Chart.
A) not hesitate to declare an emergency and obtain C) Chart Supplement.
an amended clearance.
B) wait until the situation is immediately perilous 4389. IRA
before declaring an emergency. Which is the maximum tolerance for the VOR
C) contact ATC and advise that an urgency condition indication when the CDI is centered and the airplane
exists and request priority consideration. is directly over the airborne checkpoint?
A) Plus or minus 6° of the designated radial.
B) Plus or minus 7° of the designated radial.
C) Plus or minus 8° of the designated radial.

Pg. 15
Preflight Planning and Departure
Aviation Seminars

4390. IRA 4396. IRA

When should your transponder be on Mode C while Which clearance items are always given in an
on an IFR flight? abbreviated IFR departure clearance? (Assume radar
A) Only when ATC requests Mode C. environment.)
B) At all times if the equipment has been calibrated, A) Altitude, destination airport, and one or more fixes
unless requested otherwise by ATC. which identify the initial route of flight.
C) When passing 12,500 feet MSL. B) Destination airport, altitude, DP Name, Number
4391. IRA and/or Transition if appropriate.
When making an airborne VOR check, what is the C) Clearance limit, and DP Name, Number, and/or
maximum allowable tolerance between the two Transition, if appropriate.
indicators of a dual VOR system (units independent of
each other except the antenna)? 4398. IRA
A) 4° between the two indicated radials of a VOR. On the run-up pad, you receive the following
B) Plus or minus 4° when set to identical radials of a clearance from ground control:
VOR.
C) 6° between the two indicated radials of a VOR. CLEARED TO DALLAS-LOVE AIRPORT AS
FILED - MAINTAIN SIX THOUSAND -SQUAWK
4393. IRA ZERO SEVEN ZERO FOUR JUST
What is the recommended climb procedure when a BEFORE DEPARTURE - DEPARTURE
non-radar departure control instructs a pilot to climb CONTROL WILL BE ONE TWO FOUR POINT
to the assigned altitude? NINER.
A) Maintain a continuous optimum climb until
reaching assigned altitude and report passing each An abbreviated clearance, such as this, will always
1,000 foot level. contain the;
B) Climb at a maximum angle of climb to within 1,000 A) departure control frequency.
feet of the assigned altitude, then 500 feet per minute B) requested enroute altitude.
the last 1,000 feet. C) destination airport and route.
C) Maintain an optimum climb on the centerline of the
airway without intermediate level offs until 1,000 feet 4402. IRA
below assigned altitude, then 500 to 1500 feet per How should you preflight check the altimeter prior to
minute. an IFR flight?
A) Set the altimeter to 29.92” Hg. With current
4394. IRA temperature and the altimeter indication, determine
When departing from an airport not served by a the true altitude to compare with the field elevation.
control tower, the issuance of a clearance containing B) Set the altimeter first with 29.92” Hg and then the
a void time indicates that current altimeter setting. The change in altitude
A) ATC will assume the pilot has not departed if no should correspond to the change in setting.
transmission is received before the void time. C) Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting.
B) the pilot must advise ATC as soon as possible, but The indication should be within 75 feet of the actual
no later than 30 minutes, of their intentions if not off elevation for acceptable accuracy.
by the void time.
C) ATC will protect the airspace only to the void time. 4403. IRA
When are ATIS broadcasts updated?
4395. IRA A) Every 30 minutes if weather conditions are below
What response is expected when ATC issues an IFR basic VFR; otherwise, hourly.
clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft? B) Upon receipt of any official weather, regardless of
A) Read back the entire clearance as required by content change or reported values.
regulation. C) Only when the ceiling and/or visibility changes by a
B) Read back those parts containing altitude reportable value.
assignments or vectors and any part requiring
verification.
C) Read-back should be unsolicited and
spontaneous to confirm that the pilot understands all
instructions.

Pg. 16
 Preflight Planning and Departure
Aviation Seminars

4404. IRA
Absence of the sky condition and visibility on an ATIS 4420. IRA
broadcast specifically implies that During a takeoff into IFR conditions with low ceilings,
A) the ceiling is more than 5,000 feet and visibility is 5 when should the pilot contact departure control?
miles or more. A) Before penetrating the clouds.
B) the sky condition is clear and visibility is B) When advised by the tower.
unrestricted. C) Upon completing the first turn after takeoff or upon
C) the ceiling is at least 3,000 feet and visibility is 5 establishing cruise climb on a straight-out departure.
miles or more.
4421. IRA
4405. IRA During a flight, the controller advises
The most current en route and destination flight “traffic 2 o’clock 5 miles southbound.” The pilot is
information for planning an instrument flight should be holding 20° correction for a crosswind from the right.
obtained from Where should the pilot look for the traffic?
A) the ATIS broadcast A) 40° to the right of the airplane’s nose.
B) AFSS Publications B) 20° to the right of the airplane’s nose.
C) Notices to Airmen Publications C) Straight ahead.

4406. IRA 4426. IRA

From what source can you obtain the latest In addition to a VOR receiver and two-way
FDC NOTAM’s? communications capability, which additional
A) In Notices to Airmen. equipment is required for IFR operation in Class B
B) AFSS / FSS. airspace?
C) Chart Supplements U.S. A) Another VOR and communications receiver and a
coded transponder.
4407. IRA B) Standby communications receiver, DME, and
When may ATC request a detailed report of an coded transponder.
emergency even though a rule has not been violated? C) An operable coded transponder having Mode C
A) When priority has been given. capability.
B) Any time an emergency occurs.
C) When the emergency occurs in controlled 4427. IRA
airspace. No person may operate an aircraft in controlled
airspace under IFR unless he/she files a flight plan
4414. IRA A) and receives a clearance by telephone prior to
Which information is always given in an abbreviated takeoff.
clearance? B) prior to takeoff and requests the clearance upon
A) DP or transition name and attitude to maintain. arrival on an airway.
B) Name of destination airport or specific fix and C) receives clearance prior the entering controlled
altitude. airspace.
C) Altitude to maintain and code to squawk.
4439. IRA
4417. IRA Prior to operating an aircraft not equipped with a
What action Is recommended if a pilot does not wish transponder in Class B airspace, a request for a
to use an instrument departure procedure? deviation must be submitted to the
A) Advise clearance delivery or ground control before A) FAA Administrator at least 24 hours before the
departure. proposed operation.
B) Advise departure control upon initial contact. B) nearest FAA General Aviation District Office 24
C) Enter "No DP’ in the remarks section of the IFR hours before the proposed operation.
flight plan. C) controlling ATC facility at least 1 hour before the
proposed flight.
4419. IRA
Which procedure applies to instrument departure 4440. IRA
procedures? Which of the following is required equipment for
A) Instrument departure clearances will not be issued operating an airplane within Class B airspace?
unless requested by the pilot. A) A 4096 code transponder with automatic pressure
B) The pilot in command must accept an instrument altitude reporting equipment.
departure procedure when issued by ATC. B) A VOR receiver with DME.
C) If an instrument departure procedure is accepted, C) A 4096 code transponder.
the pilot must possess at least the textual description.

Pg. 17
Preflight Planning and Departure
Aviation Seminars

4441. IRA 4451. IRA

Which procedure is recommended while climbing to Which ATC clearance should instrument-rated pilots
an assigned altitude on the airway? request in order to climb through a cloud layer or an
A) Climb on the centerline of the airway except when area of reduced visibility and then continue the flight
maneuvering to avoid other air traffic in VFR VFR?
conditions. A) VFR on Top.
B) Climb slightly on the right side of the airway when B) Special VFR to VFR Over-the-Top.
in VFR conditions. C) VFR Over-the-Top.
C) Climb far enough to the right side of the airway to
avoid climbing or descending traffic coming from the 4452. IRA
opposite direction if in VFR conditions. When on a VFR-on-Top clearance, the cruising
altitude is based on;
4442. IRA A) true course.
Which clearance procedures may be issued by ATC B) magnetic course.
without prior pilot request? C) magnetic heading.
A) DP’s, STAR’s and contact approaches.
B) Contact and visual approaches. 4454. IRA
C) DP’s, STAR’s, and visual approaches. What cruising altitude is appropriate for VFR on Top
on a westbound flight below 18,000 feet?
4447. IRA A) Even thousand-foot levels.
Where are VFR-on-Top operations prohibited? B) Even thousand-foot levels plus 500 feet, but not
A) In Class A airspace. below MEA.
B) During off-airways direct flights. C) Odd thousand-foot levels plus 500 feet, but not
C) When flying through Class B airspace. below MEA.

4448. IRA 4455. IRA

What action should you take if your DME fails at FL What reports are required of a flight operating on an
240? IFR clearance specifying VFR on Top in a non-radar
A) Advise ATC of the failure and land at the nearest environment?
available airport where repairs can be made. A) The same reports that are required for any IFR
B) Notify ATC that it will be necessary for you to go to flight.
a lower altitude, since your DME has failed. B) All normal IFR reports except vacating altitudes.
C) Notify ATC of the failure and continue to the next C) Only the reporting of any unforecast weather.
airport of intended landing where repairs can be
made. 4457. IRA
What minimums must be considered in selecting an
4449. IRA altitude when operating with a VFR-on-Top
Which rules apply to the pilot in command when clearance?
operating on a VFR-on-Top clearance? A) At least 500 feet above the lowest MEA, or
A) VFR only. appropriate MOCA, and at least 1,000 feet above the
B) VFR and IFR. existing meteorological condition.
C) VFR when “in the clear” and IFR when “in the B) At least 1,000 feet above the lowest MEA,
clouds.” appropriate MOCA, or existing meteorological
condition.
4450. IRA C) Minimum IFR altitude, minimum distance from
When can a VFR-on-Top clearance be assigned by clouds, and visibility appropriate to altitude selected.
ATC?
A) Only upon request of the pilot when conditions are 4459. IRA
indicated to be suitable. What is the procedure when the DME malfunctions at
B) Any time suitable conditions exist and ATC wishes or above 24,000 feet MSL?
to expedite traffic flow. A) Notify ATC immediately and request an altitude
C) When VFR conditions exist, but there is a layer of below 24,000 feet.
clouds below the MEA. B) Continue to your destination in VFR conditions and
report the malfunction.
C) After immediately notifying ATC, you may continue
to the next airport of intended landing where repairs
can be made.

Pg. 18
 Preflight Planning and Departure
Aviation Seminars

4460. IRA
What action should you take if your No. 1 VOR 4465. IRA
receiver malfunctions while operating in controlled Which procedure should you follow if, during
airspace under IFR? Your aircraft is equipped with an IFR flight in VFR conditions, you have two-way
two VOR receivers. The No. 1 receiver has Omni/ radio communications failure?
Localizer/Glide Slope capability, and the No. 2 has A) Continue the flight under VFR and land as soon as
only Omni. practicable.
A) Report the malfunction immediately to ATC. B) Continue the flight at assigned altitude and route,
B) Continue the flight as cleared; no report is start approach at your ETA, or, if late, start approach
required. upon arrival.
C) Continue the approach and request a VOR or NDB C) Land at the nearest airport that has VFR
approach. conditions.

4461. IRA 4466. IRA

While on an IFR flight, a pilot has an emergency What altitude and route should be used if you are
which causes a deviation from an ATC clearance. flying in IMC and have two-way radio communications
What action must be taken? failure?
A) Notify ATC of the deviation as soon as possible. A) Continue on the route specified in your clearance,
B) Squawk 7700 for the duration of the emergency. fly at an altitude that is the highest of last assigned
C) Submit a detailed report to the chief of the ATC altitude, altitude ATC has informed you to expect, or
facility within 48 hours. the MEA.
B) Fly direct to an area that has been forecast to have
4462. IRA VFR conditions, fly at an altitude that is at least 1,000
You enter a holding pattern at a fix, not the same as feet above the highest obstacles along the route.
the approach fix, and receive an EFC time of 1530. At C) Descend to MEA and, if clear of clouds, proceed to
1520 you experience a complete two-way the nearest appropriate airport. If not clear of clouds,
communications failure. Which procedure should you maintain the highest of the MEA’s along the clearance
follow to execute the approach to a landing? route.
A) Depart the holding fix to arrive at the approach fix
as close as possible to the EFC time and complete 4470. IRA
the approach. What does the symbol T within a black triangle in the
B) Depart the holding fix at the EFC time, and minimums section of the lAP for a particular airport
complete the approach. indicate?
C) Depart the holding fix at the EFC time or earlier if A) Takeoff minimums are 1 mile for aircraft having two
your flight planned ETA is before the EFC. engines or less and ½ mile for those with more than
two engines.
4463. IRA B) Instrument takeoffs are not authorized.
Which procedure should you follow if you experience C) Takeoff minimums are not standard and/or
two-way communications failure while holding at a departure procedures are published.
holding fix with an EFC time? (The holding fix is not
the same as the approach fix.) 4471. IRA
A) Depart the holding fix to arrive at the approach fix What responsibility does the pilot in command of an
as close as possible to the EFC time. IFR flight assume upon entering VFR conditions?
B) Depart the holding fix at the EFC time. A) Report VFR conditions to ARTCC so that an
C) Proceed immediately to the approach fix and hold amended clearance may be issued.
until EFC. B) Use VFR operating procedures.
C) To see and avoid other traffic.
4464. IRA
You are in IMC and have two-way radio
communications failure. If you do not exercise
emergency authority, what procedure are you
expected to follow?
A) Set transponder to code 7600, continue flight on
assigned route and fly at the last assigned altitude or
the MEA, whichever is higher.
B) Set transponder to code 7700 for 1 minute, then to
7600, and fly to an area with VFR weather conditions.
C) Set transponder to 7700 and fly to an area where
you can let down in VFR conditions.

Pg. 19
Preflight Planning and Departure
Aviation Seminars

4489. IRA 4503. IRA

(Refer to figures 216 and 216A) What route should (Refer to figure 89.) What are the oxygen
you take if cleared for the RENO Nine Departure and requirements for an IFR flight northeast-bound from
your assigned route is to V6 from runway 25? Milford Municipal on V244 at the lowest appropriate
A) Climb on heading 254 degrees to 5,000 feet MSL, altitude in an unpressurized aircraft?
then climbing right turn heading 340 degrees and A) The required minimum crew must be provided and
expect radar vectors to V6. use supplemental oxygen for that part of the fight of
B) Climb on runway heading to 5,000 feet MSL, then more than 30 minutes.
climbing right turn heading 340 degrees to 9,700 feet B) The required minimum crew must be provided and
MSL, then direct V6. use supplemental oxygen for that part of the flight of
C) Climb on runway heading to 5,000 feet MSL, then more than 30 minutes, and the passengers must be
climbing right turn heading 340 degrees to 9,700 feet provided supplemental oxygen.
MSL, then direct V6. C) The required minimum crew must be provided and
use supplemental oxygen, and all occupants must
4490. IRA be provided supplemental oxygen for the entire flight
(Refer to figures 216 and 216A) What procedure above 15,000 feet.
should be followed if communication is not
established with departure control 1 minute after 4505. IRA
takeoff from runway 34L? In the event of two way radio communications failure
A) Turn right direct FMG VORTAC, then via assigned while operating on an IFR clearance in VFR
route. conditions the pilot should continue
B) Maintain 330 degrees heading up to 10,000 feet A) by the route assigned in the last ATC clearance
MSL, then right turn direct FMG VORTAC, then via received.
assigned route. B) the flight under VFR and land as soon as practical.
C) Turn right direct FMG VORTAC and hold until C) the flight by the most direct route to the fix
reaching 8,700 feet MSL, then via assigned route. specified in the last clearance.

4491. IRA 4510. IRA

(Refer to figures 216 and 216A) What is the minimum (Refer to figure 91.) What are the two limiting cruising
rate climb per NM to 9,700 feet departing runway 25? altitudes useable on V343 for a VFR-on-Top flight
A) 500 feet. from DBS VORTAC to RANEY intersection?
B) 450 feet. A) 14,500 and 16,500 feet.
C) 400 feet. B) 15,000 and 17,000 feet.
C) 15,500 and 17,500 feet.
4500. IRA
(Refer to figure 87) While holding at the 10 DME fix 4518. IRA
east of LCH for an ILS approach to RWY 15 at Lake What is the minimum flight visibility and distance from
Charles Muni airport, ATC advises you to expect clouds for flight at 10,500 feet with a VFR-on-Top
clearance for the approach at 1015. At 1000 you clearance during daylight hours? (Class E airspace.)
experience two-way radio communications failure. A) 3 SM, 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000
Which procedure should be followed? feet horizontal.
A) Squawk 7600 and listen on the LOM frequency for B) 5 SM, 1,000 feet above, 1,000 feet below, and 1
instructions from ATC. If no instructions are received, mile horizontal.
start your approach at 1015. C) 5 SM, 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 1 mile
B) Squawk 7700 for 1 minute, then 7600. After 1 horizontal.
minute, descend to the minimum final approach fix
altitude. Start your approach at 1015. 4519. IRA
C) Squawk 7600; plan to begin your approach at What is the required flight visibility and
1015. distance from clouds if you are operating in Class
E airspace at 9,500 feet MSL with a VFR-on-Top
clearance during daylight hours?
A) 3 SM, 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000
feet horizontal.
B) 5 SM, 500 feet above, 1,000 feet below, and 2,000
feet horizontal.
C) 3 SM, 500 feet above, 1,000 feet below, and 2,000
feet horizontal.

Pg. 20
 Preflight Planning and Departure
Aviation Seminars

4543. IRA 4638. IRA

If, while in Class E airspace, a clearance is received Which is true regarding the use of an instrument
to “maintain VFR conditions on top,” the pilot should departure procedure chart?
maintain a VFR cruising altitude based on the A) The use of an instrument departure procedure is
direction of the mandatory.
A) true course. B) To use an instrument departure procedure, the
B) magnetic heading. pilot must possess at least the textual description of
C) magnetic course. the approved standard departure.
C) To use an instrument departure procedure, the
4431. IRA pilot must possess both the textual and graphic form
When must a pilot fly at a cardinal altitude plus 500 of the approved standard departure.
feet on an IFR flight plan?
A) When flying above 18,000 feet in VFR conditions. 4640. IRA
B) When flying in VFR conditions above clouds. Which is true regarding STAR’s?
C) When assigned a VFR-on-Top clearance. A) STAR’s are used to separate IFR and VFR traffic.
B) STAR’s are established to simplify clearance
4555. IRA delivery procedures.
To comply with ATC instructions for altitude changes C) STAR’s are used at certain airports to decrease
of more than 1,000 feet, what rate of climb or descent traffic congestion.
should be used?
A) As rapidly as practicable to 500 feet above/below 4694. IRA
the assigned altitude, and then at 500 feet per minute (Refer to figure 131.) During a missed approach from
until the assigned altitude is reached. the VOR/DME RWY 33L approach at BOS, what
B) 1,000 feet per minute during climb and 500 feet course should be flown to the missed approach
per minute during descents until reaching the holding waypoint.
assigned altitude. A) 342°.
C) As rapidly as practicable to 1,000 feet above/below B) Runway Heading.
the assigned altitude, and then between 500 and C) 030°.
1,500 feet per minute until reaching the assigned
altitude. 4751. IRA
Under which condition does ATC issue a STAR?
4633. IRA A) To all pilots wherever STAR’s are available.
Under which of the following circumstances will ATC B) Only if the pilot requests a STAR in the “Remarks”
issue a VFR restriction to an IFR flight? section of the flight plan.
A) Whenever the pilot reports the loss of any C) When ATC deems it appropriate, unless the pilot
navigational aid. requests “No STAR.”
B) When it is necessary to provide separation
between IFR and special VFR traffic. 4760. IRA
C) When the pilot requests it. What are the alternate minimums that must be
forecast at the ETA for an airport that has a precision
4634. IRA approach procedure?
What is expected of you as pilot on an IFR flight plan A) 400-foot ceiling and 2 miles visibility.
if you are descending or climbing in VFR conditions? B) 600-foot ceiling and 2 miles visibility.
A) If on an airway, climb or descend to the right of the C) 800-foot ceiling and 2 miles visibility.
centerline.
B) Advise ATC you are in visual conditions and will 4761. IRA
remain a short distance to the right of the centerline What point at the destination should be used to
while climbing. compute estimated time en route on an IFR flight
C) Execute gentle banks, left and right, at a frequency plan?
which permits continuous visual scanning of the A) The final approach fix on the expected instrument
airspace about you. approach.
B) The initial approach fix on the expected instrument
approach.
C) The point of first intended landing.

Pg. 21
Preflight Planning and Departure
Aviation Seminars

4769. IRA
An airport without an authorized lAP may be included
on an IFR flight plan as an alternate, if the current
weather forecast indicates that the ceiling and
visibility at the ETA will;
A) be at least 300 feet and 2 miles.
B) be at least 1,000 feet and 1 mile.
C) allow for a descent from the MEA approach, and a
landing under basic VFR.

4637. IRA
When making an instrument approaching at the
selected alternate airport, what landing minimums
apply?
A) Standard alternate minimums (600-2 or 800-2).
B) The IFR alternate minimums listed for that
airport.
C) The landing minimums published for the type of
procedure selected.

Pg. 22
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Aviation Seminars

ENROUTE AND ARRIVAL

Airspace

CLASS A: Positive controlled airspace at and above VOR changeover point is the midpoint between radio
18,000 feet MSL to FL600. All aircraft must be on a aids, unless shown otherwise by a mileage
IFR flight plan. The maximum altitude for operation on breakdown "X" or a VOR changeover symbol.
a Low Altitude Chart (Victor Airway) is 17,000 feet
MSL. Jet Routes (J-Routes) are established on High An open arrow indicates a DME fix to identify an
Altitude charts. 18,000 feet is not used for VFR or IFR intersection and shows encircled mileage from the
operations. VOR.

CLASS B: Generally goes up to 10,000 feet. Aircraft

must be equipped with an operable coded
transponder with Mode C (altitude encoding) in and
within 30 NM of the primary Class B airport.

Transponder with Mode C is also required at and

above 10,000 MSL ATC may authorize a deviation
from the Class B transponder requirement if a request
to ATC is made at least 1 hour before flight.

CLASS C: A pilot must maintain two-way An ILS localizer course arrow symbol with an ILS
communication with ATC while in and above class C. frequency is ONLY shown on a low enroute chart
A Mode C transponder is required. ATC provides indicates it has an additional ATC function (forms an
separation from all IFR and participating VFR aircraft intersection).
within the outer area.

CLASS D: Class D airspace extends 4NM from the

center and 2,500 feet AGL. The top is shown in MSL.
When the control tower is not in operation, then
airport becomes class E airspace.

CLASS E: Any controlled airspace that is not Class A,

B, C, or D. Class E airspace that starts at the surface
is shown by a segmented circle, as the control zone
was shown

The floor of Class E airspace designated on an

airway is 1200 feet AGL. When designated in
conjunction with an airport with an approved
instrument approach (lAP), airspace is designated as
a transition area (700 Feet), unless there is a
segmented circle, then Class E starts at the surface.
Altitude Minimums
CLASS G: Any uncontrolled airspace, where ATC All minimum enroute altitudes provide for obstacle
does not control air traffic. The maximum altitude for clearance of 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle
Class G airspace is 14,500 feet MSL. within 5 miles, and 2,000 feet above the highest
obstacle within 5 miles in mountainous areas.
The IFR Route
MEA (Minimum Enroute Altitude) is a depicted
VHF/UHF aids are depicted in blue on the chart, and altitude, which assures, acceptable navigational
LF (NDB) aids are shown in brown. All courses listed signal coverage and obstruction clearance
are magnetic, and all distances are nautical. Airports requirements for that portion on an airway. The MEA
that have instrument approaches are printed in blue along a jet route is 18,000 feet MSL.
or green for GPS.

Pg. 23
Enroute and Arrival
Aviation Seminars
MOCA (Minimum Obstructions Clearance MAA (Maximum Authorized Altitude) is a published
Altitude), when listed, is a lower altitude than the altitude representing the maximum useable altitude
MEA and meets obstruction clearance requirements, on a federal airway, jet route or RNAV route. The
but only assures acceptable radio signals for accurate maximum useable altitude on a Victor Airway is
navigation within 22 NM of the VOR. (4,000 MEA, 17,000 MSL eastbound, and 16,000 MSL westbound.
2,000G GPS MEA (Tango Route), *1,700 MOCA. 18,000 feet is never used as an assigned altitude.

The lowest altitude an IFR flight may cross an

intersection or a radio aid is:
-MEA for your direction of flight;
-MOCA, if published and within 22 NM of the VOR;
-MCA, if published and applicable for your direction of
flight.

En Route Communications
As you proceed IFR, ATC will keep you updated on
current altimeter settings (below 18,000 feet) and
assign frequency changes when required and being
handed off between controllers. The nearest ATC
facility or Air Route Traffic Control Center (ARTCC)
MCA (Minimum Crossing Altitude) is a flag with an frequencies nearest your flight is indicated with a blue
“X” showing the lowest altitude at certain fixes which “Postage Stamp” with the frequency.
an aircraft must cross when proceeding in the
direction indicated due to approaching a higher Military Operation Areas (MOA) are established to
minimum MEA (9,300 Northbound on V21 and 9,100 separate certain military training activities from IFR
Westbound on V-86). traffic. ATC automatically clears your flight through
an MOA when the clearance routes you on the airway.

Flight Service Stations (FSS) located at an airport

without a control tower can provide airport advisories.

FSS can always receive on 122.2, and other

frequencies if listed on top of a navigation box. Also
frequencies marked with R (122.1R) can only receive,
and frequencies marked with a T (e.g.122.3T) can
only transmit.

En Route Flight Advisory Service (Flight Watch) is

obtained on the standard frequency of 122.0 MHz. An
inverse “T” inside a navigation box indicates TWEB
availability, and an inverse “H” indicates HIWAS.

MRA (Minimum Reception Altitude) is a flag with an

“R” showing the lowest altitude at an intersection that
can be flown to receive signals from an off-airway
VOR. Not needed if DME is used. (To identify GRICE,
must be at or above 4,000)

Pg. 24
 Enroute and Arrival
Aviation Seminars

Remote communications outlet (RCO) provides You may be issued a clearance for a STAR by ATC
communication capability with FSS. unless you have indicated (in the remarks section of
you flight plan form) that you want ““NO STAR”. If a
STAR is accepted, the pilot must possess at least the
textual description.

Holding Patterns
Patterns at most fixes are depicted on charts. Right
Turns are standard. Left are non-standard.

Maximum Holding Speeds

Up to and including 6,000 ft……………200 knots.
6,001 ft. up to & including 14,000 ft……230 knots.
14,001 and above…..……………………265 knots.
“Radar contact” means your aircraft has been
identified on the radar display and radar flight There are 3 types of holds the FAA can test you on.
following will be provided until identification is lost or They are DIRECT, PARALLEL or TEARDROP.
radar service is terminated.
Your classroom instructor will cover each hold pattern
“Radar service terminated” means you should resume and their respective entry procedures.
normal position reporting. ‘Resume own navigation’
means you should maintain the airway by use of your Timing for any hold on the outbound leg begins over
navigation equipment. or abeam the fix, whichever is later. If the abeam
position cannot be determined, start timing on the
A cruise clearance ("...cruise six thousand...’) allows completion of the turn to the outbound leg.
the pilot to fly at any altitude from the MEA up to and
including the specified altitude. Climb and descent A DME holding fix is defined using a distance in lieu
within the block is at the pilot’s discretion. of time values.

IFR Compulsory Reporting Points Visual Approach

ATC may issue a visual approach in lieu of
You must report to ATC: a standard instrument approach procedure
- when vacating any previously assigned altitude; without request only when:
- VFR conditions on-top altitude change; -you are in radar contact, and
- each fix used to define an off-airway direct -the weather is VFR, and/or
route; -you have the airport in sight, or the identified
- change in TAS of more than 10 knots or 5%, preceding aircraft in sight.
whichever is greater (maintain within 10 knots lAS of
directed speed); On a visual approach, radar service is terminated
- when unable to maintain a 500 FPM climb or when ATC instructs the pilot to contact the tower.
descent;
- time and altitude when reaching a holding fix; Contact Approach
- when leaving any assigned holding fix or point ATC may authorize a contact approach in lieu of a
when not in radar contact. standard instrument approach procedure only when:
- the pilot specifically requests it, and
ARRIVAL - there exists a published instrument approach
procedure for that airport, and
Blue and Green lettered airports mean they have - the reported visibility is at least 1 mile, and
published instrument approaches. - the pilot can reasonably be expected to remain clear
of clouds
Standard Terminal Arrival Routes (STAR) are ATC
coded arrival routings established to simplify arrival A ‘no-gyro’ approach is available if a pilot has
clearance delivery problems. an inoperative directional gyro. The controller will tell
you when to start and stop each turn. All turns should
On a STAR, the arrival begins at the beginning of the be made at standard rate until the pilot is turned on
bold black line. final approach, then at half-standard rate.

Pg. 25
Enroute and Arrival
Aviation Seminars

TEST QUESTIONS (Use Test Supplement 8080-3F)

VOR Service Volumes (Figure 37)
Three (3) types of VOR’s. HIGH, LOW and NOTE: CORRECT ANSWER IN BOLD ITALICS
TERMINAL. Know the maximum distance between
VOR’s that you can fly (dependent on altitude) and 4006. IRA
always be able to receive at least one of the VOR’s. Except when necessary for takeoff or landing
or unless otherwise authorized by the Administrator,
the minimum altitude for IFR flight is;
A) 3,000 feet over all terrain.
B) 3,000 feet over designated mountainous terrain;
2,000 feet over terrain elsewhere.
C) 2,000 feet above the highest obstacle over
designated mountainous terrain; 1,000 feet above the
highest obstacle over terrain elsewhere.

4071. IRA
For which speed variation should you notify
ATC?
A) When the groundspeed changes more than 5
knots.
B) When the average true airspeed changes 5
percent or 10 knots, whichever is greater.
C) Any time the groundspeed changes 10 MPH.

4077. IRA
Which airspaces are depicted on the En Route Low
Altitude Chart?
A) Limits of controlled airspace, military training
Airport Lighting Routes and special use airspace.
Use Legend 33 and 34 in the test supplement B) Class A, special use airspace, Class D and
(available to you for the test) when asked questions Class E.
pertaining to the IFR Enroute Low Altitude Chart. C) Special use airspace, Class A, Class B,
Class C, Class D, Class E and Class G.
Pilot controlled lighting at a Class D airport as
indicated by an encircled “L” on the chart. 4078. IRA
For IFR planning purposes, what are the compulsory
reporting points when using VOR/DME or VORTAC
fixes to define a direct route not on established
airways?
A) Fixes selected to define the route.
B) There are no compulsory reporting points
unless advised by ATC.
C) At the changeover points.

4261. IRA
(Refer to figure 24.) Proceeding southbound on V187,
(vicinity of Cortez VOR) contact is lost with Denver
Center. What frequency should be used to contact
Denver Center?
A) 118.575
B) 108.4.
C) 122.3.

Pg. 26
 Enroute and Arrival
Aviation Seminars

4262. AVSEM IRA 4318. IRA

(Refer to figure 24.) For planning purposes, what (Refer to figure 53.)What service is indicated by the
would the highest MEA on V382 for a flight planned inverse “H” symbol in the radio aids to navigation box
between Grand Junction, Walker Airport, and for PRB VORTAC?
Durango, La Plata Co. Airport? A) VOR with TACAN compatible DME.
A) 12,000 feet. B) Availability of HIWAS.
B) 15,300 feet. C) En Route Flight Advisory Service available.
C) 16,000 feet.

4263. IRA 4339. IRA

(Refer to figure 24.) At what point should a (Refer to figures 65 and 67.) What is the Significance
VOR changeover be made from JNC VOR to of the symbol at GRICE intersection?
MANCA intersection southbound on V187? A) It signifies a localizer-only approach is
A) 36 NM south of JNC. available at Harry P. Williams Memorial.
B) 52 NM south of JNC. B) The localizer has an additional navigation
C) 74 NM south of JNC. function.
C) GRICE intersection also serves as the FAF
4264. IRA for the ILS approach procedure to Harry P.
(Refer to figure 24.) What is the MOCA between JNC Williams Memorial.
and HERRM intersection on V187?
A) 15,000 feet MSL. 4348 IRA
B) 12,400 feet MSL. (Refer to Figure 71.) Which VORTAC along the
C) 12,100 feet MSL. proposed route of flight could provide HIWAS
information?
4287. IRA A) HUGUENOT.
(Refer to figure 34.) For planning purposes, what is B) CARMEL.
the highest useable altitude for an IFR flight on V573 C) KINGSTON.
from the HOT VORTAC to the TXK VORTAC?
A) 16,000 feet MSL. 4366. IRA
B) 14,500 feet MSL. (Refer to figure 78.) What is the maximum altitude
C) 13,999 feet MSL. that you may flight plan an IFR flight on V-86
EASTBOUND between BOZEMAN and BILLINGS
4291. IRA VORTACs?
(Refer to figure 40.) For planning purposes, what is A) 14,500 feet MSL.
the highest useable altitude for an IFR flight on V16 B) 17,000 feet MSL.
between the BGS and ABI VORTACs? C) 18,000 feet MSL.
A) 17,000 feet MSL.
B) 18,000 feet MSL. 4370. IRA
C) 6,500 feet MSL. (Refer to figure 78.) What is the minimum crossing
altitude over the BOZEMAN VORTAC for a flight
southeast bound on V86?
4317. A) 10,900 feet MSL.
(Refer to figure 53.) Where is the VOR COP on V27 B) 10,200 feet MSL.
between the GVO and MQO VORTACs? C) 10,500 feet MSL.
A) 20 DME from GVO VORTAC.
B) 20.DME from MQO VORTAC. 4392 IRA
C) 30 DME from SBA VORTAC. What is the significance of an ATC clearance which
reads “... CRUISE SIX THOUSAND“?
4499. A) The pilot must maintain 6,000 feet until reaching
(Refer to figure 87.) Where is the VOR changeover the IAF serving the destination airport, then execute
point on V70 between Lake Charles and Sabine the published approach procedure.
Pass? B) Climbs may be made to, or descents made
A) Halfway point. from, 6,000 feet at the pilot’s discretion.
B) POPEY intersection. C) The pilot may utilize any altitude from the MEA/
C) MARSA Back Course. MOCA to 6,000 feet, but each change in altitude must
be reported to ATC.

Pg. 27
Enroute and Arrival
Aviation Seminars
4458. IRA 4422. IRA
A “CRUISE FOUR THOUSAND FEET” clearance What is meant when departure control instructs you to
would mean that the pilot is authorized to; “resume own navigation” after you have been
A) vacate 4,000 feet without further ATC clearance. vectored to a Victor airway?
B) climb to, but not descend from 4,000 feet, without A) You should maintain the airway by use of
further ATC clearance. your navigation equipment.
C) use any altitude from minimum IFR to 4,000 feet, B) Radar service is terminated.
but must report leaving each altitude. C) You are still in radar contact, but must make
position reports.
4409. IRA
What service is provided by departure control to an 4423. IRA
IFR flight when operating from within the outer area of What does the ATC term “Radar Contact” signify?
Class C airspace? A) Your aircraft has been identified and you will
A) Separation from all aircraft operating in Class C receive separation from all aircraft while in contact
airspace. with this radar facility.
B) Position and altitude of all traffic within 2 miles of B) Your aircraft has been identified on the radar
the IFR pilot’s line of flight and altitude. display and radar flight-following will be provided
C) Separation from all IFR aircraft and participating until radar identification is terminated.
VFR aircraft. C) You will be given traffic advisories until
advised the service has been terminated or that
4416. radar contact has been lost.
Which service is provided for IFR arrivals by
a FSS located on an airport without a control 4429. IRA
tower? What is the definition of MEA?
A) Automatic closing of the IFR flight plan. A) The lowest published altitude, which meets
B) Airport advisories. obstacle clearance requirement and assures
C) All functions of approach control. acceptable navigational signal coverage.
B) The lowest published altitude, which meets
4078. IRA obstacle requirements, assures acceptable
What are the compulsory reporting points when using navigational signal coverage, two-way radio
VOR/DME or VORTAC fixes to define a direct route communications, and provides adequate radar
not on established airways? coverage.
A) Fixes selected to define the route. C) An altitude, which meets obstacle clearance
B) There are no compulsory reporting points requirements, assures acceptable navigation signal
unless advised by ATC. coverage, two-way radio communications, adequate
C) At the changeover points. radar coverage, and accurate DME

4400. IRA 4432. IRA

For operations off established airways at The altitude that provides acceptable navigational
17,000 feet MSL in the contiguous U.S., High Altitude signal coverage for the route, and meets obstacle
VORTAC facilities used to define a direct route of clearance requirements, is the minimum;
flight should be no farther apart than A) enroute altitude
A) 75 NM. B) reception altitude
B) 100 NM. C) obstacle clearance altitude.
C) 200 NM.
4432. AVSEM IRA
4400. AVSEM IRA The MEA assures acceptable navigational signal
For operations off established airways at coverage and;
17,000 feet MSL using VOR navigation to define the A) DME reception.
route, the maximum distance between NAIADS B) radar coverage.
should be; C) meets obstacle clearance requirements.
A) 40 NM.
B) 80 NM.
C) 90 NM.

Pg. 28
 Enroute and Arrival
Aviation Seminars

4542. IRA 4545. IRA

MEA is an altitude which assures; ATC may assign the MOCA when certain special
A) obstacle clearance, accurate navigational signals conditions exist, and when within;
from more than one VORTAC, and accurate DME A) 22NM of a VOR.
mileage. B) 25 NM of a VOR.
B) a 1,000-foot obstacle clearance within 2 miles of C) 30 NM of a VOR.
an airway and assures accurate DME mileage.
C) acceptable navigational signal coverage and
meets obstruction clearance requirements.

4541. IRA
In the case of operations over an area designated as
a mountainous area where no other minimum altitude 4546. IRA
is prescribed, no person may operate an aircraft Which aeronautical chart depicts Military Training
under IFR below an altitude of Routes (MTR) above 1,500 feet?
A) 500 feet above the highest obstacle. A) IFR Planning Chart.
B) 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle. B) IFR Enroute Low Altitude Chart.
C) 2,000 feet above the highest obstacle. C) IFR Enroute High Altitude Chart.

4XXX. FAA AVSEM IRA 4436. IRA

You are flying at an altitude of 7,000 feet MSL when Which condition is guaranteed for all of the following
you notice you are picking up ice. You request 9,000 altitude limits: MAA, MCA. MRA, MOCA and MEA?
feet because you know it is clear above. ATC replies (Non-mountainous area.)
unable. You then request 9,500 feet VFR-on-Top and A) Adequate navigation signals.
ATC approves it. Your enroute IFR clearance is now B) Adequate communications.
A) canceled. C) 1,000-foot obstacle clearance.
B) VFR only as conditions permit.
C) both VFR and IFR rules apply. 4437. IRA
If no MCA is specified, what is the lowest altitude for
4433. IRA crossing a radio fix, beyond which a higher minimum
You have filed an IFR flight plan with a VFR on Top applies?
clearance in lieu of an assigned altitude. If you A) The MEA at which the fix is approached.
receive this clearance and fly a course of 180°, at B) The MRA at which the fix is approached.
what altitude should you fly? (Assume VFR C) The MOCA for the route segment beyond the fix.
conditions.)
A) Any IFR altitude which will enable you to remain in 4544. IRA
VFR conditions. Reception of signals from a radio facility, located off
B) An odd thousand foot MSL altitude plus 500 feet. the airway being flown, may be inadequate at the
C) An even thousand foot MSL altitude plus 500 feet. designated MEA to identify the fix. In this case, which
altitude is designated for the fix?
4434. IRA A) MOCA.
MOAs are established to B) MRA.
A) prohibit all civil aircraft because of hazardous or C) MCA.
secret activities.
B) separate certain military activities from IFR traffic. 4438. IRA
C) restrict civil aircraft during periods of high density When an aircraft is not equipped with a transponder,
training activities. what requirement must be met before ATC will
authorize a flight within class B airspace?
4435. IRA A) A request for the proposed flight must be made to
Reception of signals from an off airway radio facility ATC at least 1 hour before the flight.
may be inadequate to identify the fix at the B) The proposed flight must be conducted when
designated MEA. In this case, which altitude is operating under instrument flight rules.
designated for the fix? C) The proposed flight must be conducted in visual
A) MRA. meteorological conditions (VMC).
B) MCA.
C) MOCA.

Pg. 29
Enroute and Arrival
Aviation Seminars
4605. IRA
4456. IRA During the en route phase of an IFR flight, the pilot is
Which report should be made to ATC without a advised “Radar service terminated.” What action is
specific request when not in radar contact? appropriate?
A) Entering instrument meteorological conditions A) Set transponder to code 1200.
B) When leaving final approach fix in bound on final B) Resume normal position reporting.
approach. C) Activate the IDENT feature of the transponder
C) Correcting an E.T.A. any time a previous E.T.A. is to re-establish radar contact.
in error in excess of 2 minutes.
4486. IRA
4473. IRA An abbreviated departure clearance '...CLEARED AS
Which airspace is defined as a transition area when FILED...' will always contain the name;
designated in conjunction with an airport which has a A) and number of the STAR to be flown when filed in
prescribed IAP? the flight plan.
A) The Class E airspace extending upward from 700 B) of the destination airport filed in the flight plan.
feet or more above the surface and terminating at the C) of the first compulsory reporting point if not in a
base of the overlying controlled airspace. radar environment.
B) That Class D airspace extending from the surface
and terminating at the base of the continental control 4609. IRA
area. (Refer to figure 112.) You arrive at the 15 DME fix on
C) The Class C airspace extending from the surface a heading of 350°. Which holding pattern correctly
to 700 or 1,200 feet AGL, where designated. complies with the ATC clearance below, and what is
the recommended entry procedure?
4476. IRA
What are the vertical limits of a transition area that is “...HOLD WEST OF THE ONE FIVE DME FIX ON
designated in conjunction with an airport having a THE ZERO EIGHT SIX RADIAL OF THE ABC
prescribed IAP? VORTAC, FIVE MILE LEGS, LEFT TURNS…”
A) Surface to 700 feet AGL.
B) 1,200 feet AGL to the base of the overlying What is the recommended procedure to enter the
controlled airspace. holding pattern?
C) 700 feet AGL or more to the base of the overlying A) 1; teardrop entry.
controlled airspace. B) 1; direct entry.
C) 2; direct entry.
4474. IRA
The vertical extent of the Class A airspace throughout Note* Your classroom instructor will work holding
the conterminous U.S. extends from; pattern procedures out with you during the course.
A) 18,000 feet to and including FL450.
B) 18,000 feet to and including FL600. 4610. IRA
C) 12,500 feet to and including FL600. (Refer to figure 113.) You receive this ATC clearance:

4475. IRA “HOLD EAST OF THE ABC VORTAC ON THE ZERO

Class G airspace is that airspace where; NINER ZERO RADIAL, LEFT TURNS…”
A) ATC does not control air traffic.
B) ATC controls only IFR flights. What is the recommended procedure to enter the
C) the minimum visibility for VFR flight is 3 miles. holding pattern?
A) Parallel only.
4485. IRA B) Direct only.
Unless otherwise specified on the chart, the minimum C) Teardrop only.
en route altitude along a jet route is;
A) 18,000 feet MSL. Note* Your classroom instructor will work holding
B) 24,000 feet MSL. pattern procedures out with you during the course.
C) 10,000 feet MSL.
Note* The question is asking the limits of the Jet
Route Chart, not what ATC would assign as a
minimum assigned altitude.

Pg. 30
 Enroute and Arrival
Aviation Seminars

4612. IRA
(Refer to figure 113.) You receive this ATC clearance: 4647. AVSEM IRA
(Refer to figure 47.) Enroute eastbound on V468 from
“...CLEARED TO THE XYZ VORTAC. HOLD NORTH BTG VORTAC, the minimum altitude at TROTS
ON THE THREE SIX ZERO RADIAL, LEFT intersection is;
TURNS...” A) 7,100 feet.
B) 10,000 feet.
What is the recommended procedure to enter the C) 11,500 feet.
holding pattern?
A) Parallel only. 4501. IRA
B) Direct only. (Refer to figure 89.) When flying from Milford
C) Teardrop only Municipal to Bryce Canyon via V235 and V293, what
minimum altitude should you be at when crossing
Note* Your classroom instructor will work holding Cedar City VOR?
pattern procedures out with you during the course. A) 11,400 feet.
B) 12,000 feet.
4617. IRA C) 13,000 feet.
To ensure proper airspace protection while in a
holding pattern, what is the recommended maximum 4517. IRA
airspeed above 14,000 feet? (Refer to figure 91.) What is the minimum crossing
A) 220 knots. altitude at SABAT intersection when eastbound from
B) 265 knots. DBS VORTAC on V298?
C) 200 knots. A) 8,300 feet.
B) 11,100 feet.
4626. IRA C) 13,000 feet.
To ensure proper airspace protection while
holding at 5,000 feet in a civil airplane, what is the 4506. IRA
recommended maximum indicated airspeed a pilot (Refer to figure 89.) What is the ARTCC discrete
should use? frequency at the COP on V208 southwest bound from
A) 230 knots. HVE to PGA VOR/DME?
B) 200 knots. A) 122.1.
C) 210 knots. B) 122.4.
C) 127.55.
4620. IRA
At what point should the timing begin for 4509. IRA
the first leg outbound in a nonstandard holding (Refer to figure 91.) What is the minimum crossing
pattern? altitude at DBS VORTAC for a northbound IFR flight
A) When over or abeam the holding fix, on V257?
whichever occurs later. A) 7,500 feet.
B) When the wings are level at the completion of B) 8,600 feet.
a 180 turn outbound C) 11,100 feet.
C) Abeam the holding fix, or wings level,
whichever occurs last. 4512. IRA
(Refer to figure 91.) What lighting is indicated on the
4496. IRA chart for Jackson Hole Airport?
(Refer to figure 87.) What is indicated by the localizer A) Lights on prior request.
course symbol at Beaumont-Port Arthur Airport? B) No lighting available.
A) A published LDA localizer course. C) Pilot controlled lighting.
B) A published SDF localizer course.
C) A published ILS localizer course, which has an 4515. AVSEM IRA
additional navigation function. (Refer to figure 91.) What is the function of the Boise
and Great Falls RCO (SW of Yellowstone vicinity)?
4497. IRA A) Long range communications outlet for Great Falls
(Refer to figure 87.) Which VHF frequencies, other Center.
than 121.5, can be used to receive De Ridder FSS in B) Remote communications outlet for Great Falls and
the Lake Charles area? Boise FSS.
A) 122.1, 126.4. C) Satellite remote controlled by Salt Lake Center
B) 123.6, 122.65. with limited service.
C) 122.2, 122.3.

Pg. 31
Enroute and Arrival
Aviation Seminars

4286. IRA
(Refer to figures 167 and 168.) At which point does
the BYP.BYP6 arrival begin?
A) At the LIT VORTAC.
B) At GLOVE intersection.
C) At the BYP VORTAC.

4292. AVSEM IRA

(Refer to figures 174 and 175) At which point does the
JEN.JEN9 arrival begin?
A) TEVON Waypoint
B) INK VORTAC.
C) JEN VORTAC.

4529. IRA
Which altitude is the upper limit for Class A airspace?
A) 14,500 feet MSL.
B) 18,000 feet MSL.
C) 60,000 feet MSL.

4530. IRA
What is the maximum altitude that Class G airspace
will exist? Does not include airspace less than 1,500
feet AGL.)
A) 18,000 feet MSL.
B) 14,500 feet MSL.
C) 14,000 feet MSL.

4531. IRA
What is generally the maximum altitude for Class B
airspace?
A) 4,000 feet MSL.
B) 10,000 feet MSL.
C) 14,500 feet MSL.

4532. IRA
What are the normal lateral limits for Class D
airspace?
A) 8NM.
B) 5NM.
C) 4NM.

4539. IRA
What minimum aircraft equipment is required for
operation within Class C airspace?
A) Two-way communications and Mode C
transponder.
B) Two-way communications.
C) Transponder and DME.

Pg. 32
 Approach & Landing
Aviation Seminars

THE APPROACH AND LANDING

IFR APPROACH PROCEDURES

Approach Plate Frequencies And Services

The top of an approach plate states the type of

approach, the runway it serves, the frequencies of
approach control, tower, ground control, ATIS and/or
FSS frequencies.

The Initial Approach

Initial approach fixes are identified with the letters

(IAF)

The Procedure Turn

Procedure turns allow you to reverse direction to

establish the aircraft inbound. Maximum speed in a
procedure turn is 200 knots.

If you are vectored to the final approach fix, no

Minimum safe altitudes (MSAs) provide 1,000 feet procedure turn will be necessary.
obstacle clearance within 25 NM from the facility.
When a holding pattern is shown in lieu of a
procedure turn, use the standard entry to the
depicted holding pattern as the means of becoming
established on the inbound course.

When a turn barb is depicted and a course reversal

is required, the turn must be executed in the
direction shown on the chart.

Know your route and minimum altitude when arriving

from any direction.

When cleared for an approach, maintain the last

assigned altitude until:
- a different altitude is assigned by ATC, or
- you are established on a segment of a published Holding Pattern Entry Turn Barb Entry
route or instrument approach procedure.

Pg. 33
Approach and Landing
Aviation Seminars

NoPT indicates a procedure turn is not authorized. - you can see the approach lights or runway
This is used when the approach can be made environment.
directly from a specified intermediate fix to the final
fix. Also, when there is no turn barb or hold depicted, - a step-down fix permits additional descent in a
a procedure turn is not authorized. segment by identifying a point at which a
controlling obstacle has been safely overflown.
“Remain within 10 miles” is a reminder to stay within
10 NM of the appropriate fix while completing your The Landing Minimums
procedure turn.
A straight-in approach is one in which the landing
The Intermediate Approach runway is aligned not more than 30 degrees from the
approach course. Circling approaches are all others.
The intermediate segment begins at the intermediate
fix (IF) or point, and ends at the final approach fix Aircraft approach categories are based on 1.3 times
(FAF). Positive course guidance is provided. The the stalling speed in landing configuration at
FAF is usually located at Outer Marker (OM) maximum gross landing weight. If maintaining a
speed 5 knots faster than specified for category B,
All altitudes listed in the Planview are minimum use approach minimums for category C.
altitudes. Profile diagram altitudes are:
If you are shooting an ILS approach, you may RVR (runway visual range) is the horizontal visibility
intercept the glide slope prior to the final approach fix or distance a pilot can see down the runway from the
and start your descent so as to be over the final approach end.
approach fix at the published “Glide Slope Altitude at
Outer Marker”. RVR is given in hundreds of feet. If RVR is
inoperative, minimums which are specified in the
The Final Approach procedures should be converted and applied as
ground visibility. (1,800 and 2,400 convert to 1/2 SM)
The final approach segment begins when you cross
the final approach fix (FAF). After passing the FAF, The minimum weather condition for landing upon
descend to the MDA or DH/DA. The DH / DA of 200 completion of an IFR approach is required visibility
feet AGL is usually located at the Middle Marker and is measured in statute miles (SM).
(MM).
If the published visibility for an ILS is 3/4 SM instead
A precision approach is one that has an electronic or of the normal 1/2 SM, the pilot should be aware there
radar glide slope to provide altitude information, for may be penetration of the Obstacle Identification
example, the ILS approach. ILS minimums are Surface (OIS) area and care should be taken in the
normally 200 ft above runway threshold and 1/2 mile visual segment below the DH/DA to avoid any
visibility. obstacles.

The missed approach point (MAP) on a precision Inoperative Components

approach is the decision height (DH) on the glide
slope. Decision altitude (DA) is referenced to mean If certain components are inoperative, your MDA/DH/
sea level and decision height (DH) is referenced to DA and required visibility will be affected, unless the
the runway threshold elevation. Both DA and DH are component can be replaced by a listed substitute.
the same position. To meet ICAO terminology, DH
(height above runway threshold) is being replaced by A compass locator or precision radar may be
DA (mean sea level). substituted for the ILS outer marker (OM) or middle
marker (MM).
A non-precision approach is one without a glide
slope. Examples of non-precision approaches If the glide Slope is inoperative, you should revert to
include VOR, ADF, LOC, ASR, SDF and LDA the localizer minimums.
approaches. On a non-precision approach, your
missed approach point is the minimum descent If two or more components are inoperative, raise the
altitude (MDA) at the runway threshold. minimum to the highest minimum required by any
single component that is inoperative.
You may not descend below MDA or DH/DA unless:
- the aircraft is in a position to make a normal
landing, and

Pg. 34
 Approach & Landing
Aviation Seminars

The Missed Approach

You must execute a missed approach if the runway

environment is not in sight, or anytime that visual
reference is lost:

- for a precision approach, after arrival at the

decision height on the glide slope, or
- for a non-precision approach, when passing the
runway threshold, either measured by time, DME,
crossing a NAVAID, or any other published means.

lf a missed approach is executed prior to reaching

the MAP, continue the approach to the MAP at or
above the MDA or DH before executing a turning
maneuver.

If circling and you lose visual references, make an Refer to Figure 138
initial climbing turn towards the landing runway, then
continue the turn until in a safe position to intercept Arrows leading to the threshold mark indicate a
the missed approach course procedure. displaced threshold, a non-landing area, usable for
taxiing, landing rollout, and takeoff run.
The Airport Sketch
Refer to Figure 259
This shows runway length, types of approach lighting A. Runway 4-22
available, airport elevation and touchdown elevation B. Runway 4 Approach Area
C. ILS Area
Daytime operation of an airport rotating beacon
identifies ground visibility less than 3 miles and/or D. No Entry for aircraft
the ceiling is less than 1000 feet in Class D airspace. E. Taxiway Bravo
F. Runway 22
Runway Markings G. Runway Safety Area / Obstacle Free Zone
H. ILS Critical Hold
REIL - runway and identifier lights are a pair of I. Inbound Destination Sign to terminal
synchronized flashing lights, one on each side of the J. Outbound Destination Sign to runway
runway threshold, that provide rapid identification of
the approach end of the runway during reduced K. Destination Sign to Taxiway Bravo
visibility. L. Runway Distance remaining
M. Hotspot
N. Taxiway Ending Marker

Know what each sign / marking is for the test.

The touchdown zone marker is 500 ft. from the end

of the runway. The fixed distance marker is 1000 ft.
from the end of the runway.

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Approach and Landing
Aviation Seminars

Closing The IFR Flight Plan Visual Approach Slope Indicator (VASI)

You may cancel your IFR flight plan anytime you can Normal glide path for VASI is 3.00 degrees.
proceed in VFR conditions and are outside Class A Regulations require you, if landing on a runway
airspace. Cancel your IFR flight plan by telling ATC served by VASI, to use the VASI glide slope and stay
to “Cancel IFR”. at or above the glide slope until a lower altitude is
necessary for landing.
At an airport with a control tower, your IFR flight plan
is automatically cancelled upon landing. If you have VASI glide slope assures safe obstruction clearance
earlier cancelled your IFR flight plan, you must in the approach area.
contact the control tower for clearance into Class D
airspace at least five miles from the airport. Precision Approach Path indicator (PAPI) consists of
one row of four lights. Two white and two red lights
If an FSS is located on the airport, and it has no indicate that you are on the glide path.
tower, or the control tower is closed, the FSS will
provide Airport Advisory Service, usually on the
tower frequency.

At an uncontrolled airport, cancel your IFR flight plan

by contacting the local FSS on the radio using a
remote communication site nearby, or by telephoning
the nearest FSS or ATC facility.

Wake Turbulence

Wake turbulence is created only when the wings are

producing lift. It is increased behind a jet transport
just after takeoff because of the high angle of attack Miscellaneous Information
and high gross weight.
When using a DME Arc to intercept a course, 10 to
Wake turbulence moves down below the flight path 20 degrees of relative bearing change should be
of the aircraft, and tends to move outward. A light used for each 1/2 mile of deviation.
crosswind of 3 to 7 knots will tend to keep the
upwind vortex in the touchdown zone. ATC may authorize a sidestep maneuver (“cleared
for the ILS runway 7L approach, sidestep to runway
When flying behind larger aircraft, remain above the 7R”). Commence the sidestep maneuver as soon as
other aircraft’s flight path. A light-quartering tailwind possible after runway environment is in sight.
prolongs hazard on landing runway.
If during a VFR practice approach, ATC assigns you
a heading that will cause you to enter the clouds,
avoid the clouds and inform ATC that altitude/
heading will not permit VFR.

While being vectored, if crossing the ILS final

approach course becomes imminent and an
approach clearance has not been issued, maintain
the last assigned heading and query ATC.

Hydroplaning is most likely to occur during conditions

of standing water, slush, high speed, and smooth
runway texture.

An ILS runway equipped with MALSR, that there

may be penetration of the obstacle identification
surfaces (OIS), and care should be taken in the
visual segment to avoid any obstacles?

Pg. 36
 Approach & Landing
Aviation Seminars

TEST QUESTIONS (Use Test Supplement 8080-3F) 4295. IRA

(Refer to figures 174,176 and 176A) Which
NOTE: CORRECT ANSWER IN BOLD ITALICS frequency should you expect to use for Regional
Approach Control, control tower, and ground control
4058. IRA respectively at DFW?
How is your flight plan closed when your destination A) 119.87; 126.55; 121.65.
airport has IFR conditions and there is no control B) 119.87; 124.15; 121.85.
tower or flight service station (FSS) on, the field? C) 125.25; 124.55; 121.65.
A) The ARTCC controller will close your flight
plan when you report the runway in sight. 4297. IRA
B) You may close your flight plan any time after (Refer to figure 177) What is the difference in
starting the approach by contacting any FSS elevation (in feet MSL) between the airport elevation
or ATC facility. and the threshold elevation?
C) Upon landing, you must close your flight plan by A) 25 feet.
radio or by telephone to any FSS or ATC B) 30 feet.
facility. C) 35 feet.

4076. IRA 4307. IRA

When may a pilot cancel the IFR flight plan prior to (Refer to figure 188) What are the MDA and visibility
completing the flight? criteria for a straight-in LOC/DME RWY 21 approach
A) Anytime. at Portland International at 100 knots?
B) Only in VFR conditions when not in Class A A) 1,120 feet MSL, visibility 1 SM.
airspace. B) 700 feet MSL, visibility 1 SM,
C) Only if an emergency occurs. C) 700 feet MSL, visibility 1 NM.

4274. IRA 4309. IRA

(Refer to figures 161 and 162) What is the TDZ (Refer to figure 188) You have been cleared to the
elevation for RWY 16R on Eugene/Mahlon Sweet CREAK intersection via the BTG 054 radial at 7,000
Field? feet. Approaching CREAK, you are cleared for the
A) 363 feet MSL. LOC/DME RWY 21 approach to PDX. Descent to
B) 365 feet MSL. procedure turn altitude should not begin prior to;
C) 396 feet MSL. A) completion of the procedure turn, and established
on the localizer.
4276. IRA B) intercepting the glide slope.
(Refer to figure 161 and Legend 27) Using a C) CREAK outbound.
groundspeed of 90 knots on the ILS final approach
course, what rate of descent should be used as a 4320. IRA
reference to maintain the ILS glide slope? (Refer to figure 192) As a guide in making range
A) 415 feet per minute. corrections; how many degrees of relative bearing
B) 478 feet per minute. change should be used for each one-half mile
C) 555 feet per minute. deviation from the desired arc?
A) 2° to 3°.
4282. IRA B) 5° maximum.
(Refer to figure 171) Under which condition should C) 10° to 20°.
the missed approach procedure for the RNAV RWY
33 approach be initiated? 4321. IRA
A) Upon reaching the LNAV MDA of 1,240 ft. MSL. (Refer to figures 192) Under which condition should
B) 10.1 NM from the FAF. a missed approach procedure be initiated if the
C) Runway 33 MAP locator. runway environment (Paso Robles Municipal Airport)
4283. IRA is not in sight?
(Refer to figure 171) What are the MDA and visibility A) After descending to 1,440 feet MSL.
criteria respectively for landing on runway 33? B) After descent to 1,440 feet or reaching the 1 NM
A) 596 feet; 1 NM. DME, whichever occurs first.
B) 1,240 feet; 1 SM C) When you reach the established missed
C) 600 feet; 1 SM. approach point and determine the visibility is
less than 1 mile.

Pg. 37
Approach and Landing
Aviation Seminars

4332. IRA 4356. IRA

(Refer to figure 196) What is the elevation of the (Refer to figure 210) After passing the OM, Bradley
TDZE for RWY 4? Approach Control advises you that the MM on the
A) 44 feet MSL. ILS RWY 6 approach is inoperative. Under these
B) 46 feet MSL. circumstances, what adjustments, if any, are
C) 70 feet MSL. required to be made to the DH and visibility?
A) DH 423/24.
4351. IRA B) No adjustments are required.
(Refer to figure 210) What is the minimum altitude at C) DH 373/24.
which you should intercept the glide slope on the ILS
RWY 6 approach procedure? 4357. IRA
A) 3,000 feet MSL. (Refer to figure 210) Which runway and landing
B) 1,800 feet MSL. environment lighting is available for approach and
C) 1,690 feet MSL. landing on RWY 6 at Bradley International?
A) HIRL, REIL, and VASI.
4352. IRA B) HIRL and VASI.
(Refer to figure 210) At which indication or C) ALSF2 and HIRL
occurrence should you initiate the published missed
approach procedure for the ILS RWY 6 approach 4350. IRA
provided the runway environment is not in sight? (Refer to figure 195) How many precision approach
A) When reaching 373 feet MSL indicated altitude. procedures are published for William P Hobby
B) When 3 minutes (at 90 knots groundspeed) have (HOU)?
expired or reaching 373 feet MSL, whichever occurs A) Two.
first. B) Three.
C) Upon reaching 373 feet AGL. C) Five.

4353. IRA 4401. IRA

Which indications will a pilot receive when passing What does the Runway Visual Range (RVR) value,
over an outer marker (OM) on a front course ILS depicted on certain straight-in lAP Charts, represent?
approach? A) The slant range distance the pilot can see
A) One dot per second. down the runway while crossing the threshold on
B) Four dots per second. glide slope.
C) Single dashes and a blue light. B) The horizontal distance a pilot should see down
the runway from the approach end of the runway in a
4353-1. IRA moving aircraft.
Which indications will a pilot receive when passing C) The slant visual range a pilot should see down the
over an inner marker (IM) on a front course ILS final approach and during landing.
approach?
A) One dot per second. 4408. IRA
B) Four dots per second. The operation of an airport rotating beacon during
C) Alternating dashes and a blue light. daylight hours may indicate that
A) the in-flight visibility is less than 3 miles and the
4353-2. IRA ceiling is less than 1,500 feet within Class
Which indications will a pilot receive when passing E airspace.
over a middle marker (MM) on a front course ILS B) the ground visibility is less than 3 miles and/or the
approach? ceiling is less than 1,000 feet in Class B, C, or D
A) One dot per second. airspace.
B) Four dots per second. C) an IFR clearance is required to operate within the
C) Alternating dots and dashes and an amber light. airport traffic area.

4355. IRA 4469. IRA

(Refer to figure 210) What is the touchdown zone When are you required to establish communications
elevation for RWY 6? with the tower, if you cancel your IFR flight plan 10
A) 173 feet MSL. miles from the destination?
B) 200 feet AGL. A) Immediately after canceling the flight plan.
C) 270 feet MSL. B) When advised by ARTCC.
C) At least 5 miles from the center of the airport.

Pg. 38
 Approach & Landing
Aviation Seminars

4540. IRA 4636. IRA

What obstacle clearance and navigation What does the absence of the procedure turn barb
signal coverage is a pilot assured with the Minimum on the planview on an approach chart indicate?
Sector Altitudes depicted on lAP charts? A) A procedure turn is not authorized.
A) 1,000 feet and acceptable navigation signal B Teardrop-type procedure turn is authorized.
coverage within a 25 NM radius of the C) Racetrack-type procedure turn is authorized.
navigation facility.
B) 1,000 feet within a 25 NM radius of the 4641. IRA
navigation facility but not acceptable navigation While being radar vectored, an approach clearance
signal coverage. is received. The last assigned altitude should be
C) 500 feet and acceptable navigation signal maintained until;
coverage within a 10 NM radius of the navigation A) reaching the FAF.
facility. B) advised to begin descent.
C) established on a segment of a published route or
4630. IRA lAP.
If a pilot elects to proceed to the selected alternate,
the landing minimums used at that airport should be 4642. AVSEM IRA
the; (Refer to figure 221) The final approach fix for the
A) minimums specified for the approach precision approach is located at;
procedure selected. A) SKOLL intersection.
B) alternate minimums shown on the approach chart. B) Glide slope intercept (lightning bolt).
C) minimums shown for that airport in a separate C) JETSA intersection locator outer marker.
listing of “IFR Alternate Minimums.”
4648. AVSEM IRA
(Refer to figure 227) Refer to the APA ILS RWY 35R
4631. IRA procedure. The FAF intercept altitude is;
If the pilot loses visual reference while circling to land A) 7,977 feet MSL.
from an instrument approach and ATC radar service B) 8,000 feet MSL.
is not available, the missed approach action should C) 9,000 feet MSL.
be to
A) execute a climbing turn to parallel the 4649. AVSEM IRA
published final approach course and climb to the (Refer to figure 227) The symbol on the planview of
initial approach altitude. the ILS RWY 35R procedure at APA represents a
B) climb to the published circling minimums then minimum safe sector altitude within 25 NM of;
proceed direct to the final approach fix. A) LECET 5.4 miles
C) make a climbing turn toward the landing runway B) CASSE outer marker.
and continue the turn until established on the missed C) Denver/Centennial Airport.
approach course.
4650. IRA
4632. IRA (Refer to figure 223) During the ILS RWY 30R
When the approach procedure involves a procedure procedure at DSM, the minimum altitude for
turn, the maximum speed should not be greater than; glide slope interception is;
A) 180 knots lAS. A) 2,365 feet MSL.
B) 200 knots lAS. B) 2,400 feet MSL.
C) 250 knots IAS. C) 3,000 feet MSL.

4635. IRA 4653. IRA

(Refer to figure 217) During the ILS RWY 13 (Refer to figure 230) What minimum navigation
procedure at DSM, what altitude minimum equipment is required to complete the VOR/DME-A
applies if the glide slope becomes inoperative? procedure?
A) 1,420 feet. A) One VOR receiver.
B) 1,380 feet. B) One VOR receiver and DME.
C) 1,121 feet. C) Two VOR receivers and DME.

Pg. 39
Approach and Landing
Aviation Seminars

4654. IRA 4668. IRA

(Refer to figure 230) The symbol on the planview of When more than one circuit of the holding pattern is
the VOR/DME or GPS-A procedure at 7D3 needed to lose altitude or become better established
represents a minimum safe sector altitude within 25 on course, the additional circuits can be made
NM of: A) at pilot’s discretion.
A) DEANI intersection. B) only in an emergency.
B) White Cloud VOR/DME. C) only if pilot advises ATC and ATC approves.
C) Baldwin Municipal Airport.
4670. IRA
4655. IRA When simultaneous approaches are in progress,
(Refer to figure 234) What options are available how does each pilot receive radar advisories?
concerning the teardrop course reversal for LOC A) On tower frequency.
RWY 18 approach to Lincoln? B) On approach control frequency.
A) If a course reversal is required, only the teardrop C) One pilot on tower frequency and the other on
can be executed. approach control frequency.
B) The point where the turn is begun and the type
and rate of turn are optional. 4671. IRA
C) A normal procedure turn may be made if a 10 During an instrument approach, under what
DME limit is not exceeded. conditions, if any, is the holding pattern course
reversal not required?
4657. IRA A) When radar vectors are provided.
(Refer to figure 234) You are cleared for RWY 18 at B) When cleared for the approach.
Lincoln and crossed the Lincoln VOR at 5,000 feet C) None, since it is always mandatory.
MSL, at what point in the teardrop could a descent to
3,200 feet commence? 4672. IRA
A) As soon as intercepting LOC inbound. During an instrument precision approach, terrain and
B) Immediately. obstacle clearance depends on adherence to
C) Only at the point authorized by ATC. A) minimum altitude shown on the lAP.
B) Terrain contour information.
4658. IRA C) natural and man-made reference point
(Refer to figure 234) If cleared for an S-LOC 18 information.
approach at Lincoln from over HUSKR, it means the
flight should; 4677. IRA
A) land straight in on runway 18. (Refer to figure 240) At which points may you initiate
B) comply with straight-in landing minimums. a descent to the next lower minimum altitude when
C) begin final approach without making a procedure cleared for the VOR/DME RWY 36 approach, from
turn. the PUC R-009 lAF (DME operative)?
A) Start descent from 8,900 when established on the
4660. AVSEM IRA PUC R-009 at 12 DME.
(Refer to figure 236) If cleared for a straight-in LOC B) Start descent from 8,900 when established on the
RWY 32 approach from over OALDY, it means the PUC R-009 at 8.3 DME.
flight should; C) Descent from 6,240 can be made once reaching
A) land straight in on runway 32. the PUC 12.0 DME.
B) comply with straight-in landing minimums.
C) begin final approach without making a procedure 4678. IRA
turn. (Refer to figure 240) What is the purpose of the
10,600 MSA on the Price/Carbon County Airport
4667. IRA Approach Chart?
If an early missed approach is initiated before A) It provides safe clearance above the highest
reaching the MAP, the following procedure should be obstacle in the defined sector out to 25 NM.
used unless otherwise cleared by ATC. B) It provides an altitude above which
A) Proceed to the missed approach point at or above navigational course guidance is assured.
the MDA or DH before executing a turning maneuver. C) It is the minimum vector altitude for aircraft in that
B) Begin a climbing turn immediately and follow defined sector.
missed approach procedures.
C) Maintain altitude and continue past MAP for 1
minute or 1 mile whichever occurs first.

Pg. 40
 Approach & Landing
Aviation Seminars

4692. IRA 4710. IRA

Which of the following statements is true regarding When landing behind a large jet aircraft, at which
Parallel ILS approaches? point on the runway should you plan to land?
A) Parallel ILS approach runway centerlines are A) If any crosswind, land on the windward side of the
separated by at least 4,300 feet and standard IFR runway and prior to the jet’s touchdown point.
separation is provided on the adjacent runway. B) At least 1,000 feet beyond the jet’s touchdown
B) Parallel ILS approaches provide aircraft a point.
minimum of 1 1/2 miles radar separation between C) Beyond the jet’s touchdown point.
successive aircraft on the adjacent localizer course.
C) Landing minimums to the adjacent runway will be 4714. IRA
higher than the minimums to the primary runway, but Which procedure should be followed by a pilot who is
will normally be lower than the published circling circling to land in a Category B airplane, but is
minimums. maintaining a speed 5 knots faster than the
maximum specified for that category?
4706. IRA A) Use the approach minimums appropriate for
A pilot is making an ILS approach and is, past the Category C.
OM to a runway which has a VASI. What action B) Use Category B minimums.
should the pilot take if an electronic glide slope C) Use Category D minimums since they apply to all
malfunction occurs and the pilot has the VASI in circling approaches.
sight?
A) The pilot should inform ATC of the malfunction 4715. IRA
and then descend immediately to the localizer DH How can an IAF be identified on a Standard
and make a localizer approach. Instrument Approach Procedure (SIAP) Chart?
B) The pilot may continue the approach and use the A) All fixes that are labeled lAF.
VASI glide slope in place of the electronic glide B) Any fix illustrated within the 10 mile ring other
slope. than the FAF or stepdown fix.
C) The pilot must request an LOC approach, and C) The procedure turn and the fixes on the feeder
may descend below the VASI at the pilot’s discretion. facility ring.

4707. IRA 4716. IRA

What wind condition prolongs the hazards of wake RVR minimums for landing are prescribed in an IAP,
turbulence on a landing runway for the longest but RVR is inoperative and cannot be reported for
period of time? the intended runway at the time. Which of the
A) Direct headwind. following would be an operational consideration?
B) Direct tailwind. A) RVR minimums which are specified in the
C) Light quartering tailwind. procedures should be converted and applied as
ground visibility.
4708. IRA B) RVR minimums may be disregarded, providing
Wake turbulence is near maximum behind a jet the runway has an operative HIRL system.
transport just after takeoff because C) RVR minimums may be disregarded, providing all
A) the engines are at maximum thrust output at slow other components of the ILS system are operative.
airspeed.
B) the gear and flap configuration increases the 4717. IRA
turbulence to maximum. Aircraft approach categories are based on;
C) of the high angle of attack and high gross weight A) certificated approach speed at maximum gross
weight.
4709. AVSEM IRA B) 1.3 times the stall speed in landing configuration
(Refer to Figure 158.) With winds reported as from at maximum gross landing weight.
330 degrees at 4 knots, you are given instructions to C) 1.3 times the stall speed at maximum gross
taxi to runway 4 for departure and to expect takeoff weight.
after an airliner departs from runway 29. What effect
would you expect from that airliner's vortices?
A) The winds will push the vortices SE of your
takeoff path.
B) The upwind vortex would tend to remain over the
runway.
C) The downwind vortex will rapidly dissipate.

Pg. 41
Approach and Landing
Aviation Seminars

4719. IRA 4733. IRA

When a pilot elects to proceed to the selected What facilities, if any, may be substituted for an
alternate airport, which minimums apply for landing inoperative middle marker during an ILS approach
at the alternate? without affecting the straight-in minimums?
A) 600-1 if the airport has an ILS. A) ASR.
B) Ceiling 200 feet above the published minimum; B) Substitution not necessary, minimums do not
visibility 2 miles. change.
C) The landing minimums for the approach to be C) Compass locator, PAR, and ASR.
used.
4734. IRA
4726. IRA When being radar vectored for an ILS approach, at
You are being vectored to the ILS approach course, what point may you start a descent from your last
but have not been cleared for the approach. It assigned altitude to a lower minimum altitude if
becomes evident that you will pass through the cleared for the approach?
localizer course. What action should be taken? A) When established on a segment of a published
A) Turn outbound and make a procedure turn. route or instrument approach procedure.
B) Continue on the assigned heading and query B) You may descend immediately to published glide
ATC. slope interception altitude.
C) Start a turn to the inbound heading and inquire if C) Only after you are established on the final’
you are cleared for the approach. approach unless informed otherwise by ATC.

4728. IRA 4738. IRA

How is ATC radar used for instrument approaches Under which conditions is hydroplaning most likely to
when the facility is approved for approach control occur?
service? A) When rudder is used for directional control
A) Precision approaches, weather surveillance, instead of allowing the nosewheel to contact the
and as a substitute for any inoperative component of surface early in the landing roll on a wet runway.
a navigation aid used for approaches. B) During conditions of standing water, slush,
B) ASR approaches, weather surveillance, and high speed, and smooth runway texture.
course guidance by approach control. C) During a landing on any wet runway when
C) Course guidance to the final approach course, brake application is delayed until a wedge of water
ASR and PAR approaches, and the monitoring of begins to build ahead of the tires.
nonradar approaches.
4740. IRA
4731. IRA When cleared to execute a published sidestep
Which pilot action is appropriate if more than one maneuver for a specific approach and landing on the
component of an ILS is unusable? parallel runway, at what point is the pilot expected to
A) Use the highest minimum required by any commence this maneuver?
single component that is unusable. A) At the published minimum altitude for a circling
B) Request another approach appropriate to the approach.
equipment that is useable. B) As soon as possible after the runway or runway
C) Raise the minimums a total of that required by environment is in sight.
each component that is unusable. C) At the localizer MDA minimum and when the
runway is in sight.
4732. IRA
If the ILS outer marker is inoperative, you may 4742. IRA
substitute? Which of these facilities may be substituted for an
A) A compass locator or precision radar. MM during a complete ILS lAP?
B) VOR radials that identify the location. A) Surveillance and precision radar.
C) Distance Measuring Equipment (DME). B) Compass locator and precision radar.
C) A VOR/DME fix.

Pg. 42
 Approach & Landing
Aviation Seminars

4744. IRA 4764. IRA

If all ILS components are operating and the required Immediately after passing the final approach fix
visual references are not established, the missed inbound during an ILS approach in IFR conditions,
approach should be initiated upon the glide slope warning flag appears. The pilot is
A) arrival at the DH on the glide slope. A) permitted to continue the approach and descend
B) arrival at the middle marker. to the DH.
C) expiration of the time listed on the approach chart B) permitted to continue the approach and descend
for missed approach. to the localizer MDA.
C) required to immediately begin the prescribed
4749. IRA missed approach procedure.
When may a pilot make a straight-in landing, if using
an lAP having only circling minimums? 4770. IRA
A) A straight-in landing may not be made, but the Which substitution is appropriate during an ILS
pilot may continue to the runway at MDA and then approach?
circle to land on the runway. A) A VOR radial crossing the outer marker site may
B) The pilot may land straight-in if the runway is the be substituted for the outer marker.
active runway and he has been cleared to land. B) LOC minimums should be substituted for ILS
C) A straight-in landing may be made if the pilot has minimums whenever the glide slope becomes
the runway in sight in sufficient time to make a inoperative.
normal approach for landing, and has been cleared C) DME, when located at the localizer antenna site,
to land. should be substituted for either the outer or middle
marker.
4753. IRA
Approximately what height is the glide slope 4771. IRA
centerline at the MM of a typical ILS? Assume this clearance is received:
A) 100 feet.
B) 200 feet. “CLEARED FOR ILS RUNWAY 07 LEFT
C) 300 feet. APPROACH, SIDE-STEP TO RUNWAY 07
RIGHT.”
4754. IRA
If the RVR is not reported, what meteorological value When would the pilot be expected to commence the
should you substitute for 2,400 RVR? side-step maneuver?
A) A ground visibility of ½ NM. A) As soon as possible after the runway environment
B) A slant range visibility of 2,400 feet for the final is in sight.
approach segment of the published approach B) Any time after becoming aligned with the final
procedure. approach course of Runway 07 left, and after
C) A ground visibility of ½ SM. passing
the final approach fix.
C) After reaching the circling minimums for
4763. AVSEM IRA Runway 07 right.
During an ILS to a runway equipped with MALSR,
how would a pilot know if there was penetration of 4774. IRA
the Obstacle Identification Surface (OIS) area and (Refer to figure 134.) Unless a higher angle is
what should the pilot know? necessary for obstacle clearance, what is the normal
A) There is a runway visual approach slope indicator glidepath angle for a 2-bar VASI?
(VASI) and all is clear. A) 2.75°.
B) The published visibility for the ILS is no lower than B) 3.00°.
3/4 SM and care should be taken to avoid any C) 3.25°.
obstacles.
C) The approach chart has a visual descent point
(VDP) published and all is clear.

Pg. 43
Approach and Landing
Aviation Seminars

4775. IRA 4783. IRA

Which of the following indications would a pilot see (Refer to figure 135.) Which illustration would a pilot
while approaching to land on a runway served by a observe when on the lower glidepath?
2-bar VASI? A) 4
A) If on the glidepath, the near bars will appear B) 5
red, and the far bars will appear white. C) 6
B) If departing to the high side of the glidepath, the
far bars will change from red to white. 4784. IRA
C) If on the glidepath, both near bars and far bars (Refer to figure 135.) Which illustration would a pilot
will appear white. observe if the aircraft is above both glidepaths?
A) 5
4776. IRA B) 6
The middle and far bars of a 3-bar VASI will C) 7
A) both appear white to the pilot when on the upper 4785. IRA
glidepath. (Refer to figure 135.) Which illustration would a pilot
B) constitute a 2-bar VASI for using the lower observe if the aircraft is below both glidepaths?
glidepath. A) 4
C) constitute a 2-bar VASI for using the upper B) 5
glidepath. C) 6

4778. IRA
When on the proper glidepath of a 2-bar VASI, the
pilot will see the near bar as 4963. IRA
A) white and the far bar as red. (Refer to Figure 259.) While clearing an active
B) red and the far bar as white. runway, you are clear of the ILS critical area when
C) white and the far bar as white. you pass which sign?
A) D.
4779. IRA B) G.
If an approach is being made to a runway that has C) H.
an operating 3-bar VASI and all the VASI lights
appear red as the airplane reaches the MDA, the 4791. IRA
pilot should (Refer to figure 137.) What is the distance (A) from
A) start a climb to reach the proper glidepath. the beginning of the runway to the fixed distance
B) continue at the same rate of descent if the marker?
runway is in sight. A) 500 feet.
C) level off momentarily to intercept the proper B) 1,000 feet.
approach path. C) 1,500 feet.

4781. IRA 4792. IRA

Which approach and landing objective is assured (Refer to figure 137.) What is the distance (B) from
when the pilot remains on the proper glidepath of the the beginning of the runway to the touchdown zone
VASI? marker?
A) Continuation of course guidance after transition to A) 250 feet.
VFR. B) 500 feet.
B) Safe obstruction clearance in the approach area. C) 750 feet.
C) Course guidance from the visual descent point to
touchdown. 4794. IRA
Which runway marking indicates a displaced
4782. IRA threshold on an instrument runway?
(Refer to figure 135.) Unless a higher angle is A) Arrows leading to the threshold mark.
required for obstacle clearance, what is the normal B) Centerline dashes starting at the threshold.
glidepath for a 3-bar VASI? C) Red chevron marks in the nonlanding portion of
A) 2.3° the runway.
B) 2.75°
C) 3.0°

Pg. 44
 Approach & Landing
Aviation Seminars

4795. IRA 4823. IRA

Which type of runway lighting consists of a pair of After being handed off to the final approach
synchronized flashing lights, one on each side of the controller during a “no-gyro” surveillance or precision
runway threshold? approach, the pilot should make all turns
A) RAIL. A) one-half standard rate.
B) HIRL. B) based upon the groundspeed of the aircraft.
C) REIL. C) standard rate.

4796. IRA
The primary purpose of runway end identifier lights,
installed at many airfields, is to provide
A) rapid identification of the approach end of the
runway during reduced visibility.
B) a warning of the final 3,000 feet of runway
remaining as viewed from the takeoff or approach
position.
C) rapid identification of the primary runway during
reduced visibility.

4797. IRA
(Refer to figure 138.) What night operations, if any,
are authorized between the approach end of the
runway and the threshold lights?
A) No aircraft operations are permitted short of the
threshold lights.
B) Only taxi operations are permitted in the area
short of the threshold lights.
C) Taxi and takeoff operations are permitted,
providing the takeoff operations are toward the
visible green threshold lights.

4799-1. IRA
While on a GPS approach, you receive a RAIM
annunciation about the status of RAIM reliability. You
A) execute an immediate missed approach
regardless of where you are on the approach path.*
B) execute an immediate missed approach only if
you are past the FAWP.
C) continue the approach since you have up to 5
minutes of GPS accuracy to complete the approach
after you receive the annunciation.

* Although Aviation Seminars believes the wording in

the correct answer (A) is flawed, answer B and C are
much more incorrect because you wouldn’t want to
ever continue an approach after being alerted to a
position reliability issue.

4822. IRA
During a “no-gyro” approach and prior to being
handed off to the final approach controller, the pilot
should make all turns
A) one-half standard rate unless otherwise advised.
B) any rate not exceeding a 30° bank.
C) standard rate unless otherwise advised.

Pg. 45
IFR Navigation
Aviation Seminars

IFR NAVIGATION
General

All radio aids are oriented to Magnetic North.

The only way to identify a VOR / VORTAC is by reception

of the Morse Code or voice identification. If you do not
receive any identification, the station is unusable, even
though you may be receiving a strong navigational signal.

If you receive a single coded identification once every 30

seconds, the VOR is inoperative, but the DME is
operative.

Very High Frequency Omnirange (VOR)

VOR Components:
Omnibearing selector (OBS) enables you to select the
course you wish to fly. This selector should always agree
with your course or heading you wish to fly or intercept a
course. If reading a VOR indicator, imagine the aircraft on
the same heading as the OBS.
To interpret airplane position from a VOR indication,
TO-FROM flag tells you if flying the course selected will
imagine the airplane to be on the same heading as OBS,
take you closer TO or farther FROM the VOR station.
either going closer TO or farther FROM the VOR (as
Station passage occurs with the first positive, complete
indicated by TO-FROM flag), and having to turn towards
reversal of the TO-FROM indicator.
the needle to get on course.
Left-Right needle tells you, if flying the course selected, to
On a back course approach imagine the airplane to be on
turn right or left to center the needle and put you on
the inbound front course heading.
course.
Full needle deflection from the center indicates 10 to 12
degrees off course. Be able to compute the miles off
course by knowing that one degree off course at 60 miles
distance is one mile off course.

RMI (Radio Magnetic Indicator)

The RMI points to the station. The FAA may still refer to
an RMI, but only in a way that shows where a station is
relative to aircraft position.

Pg. 46
 IFR Navigation
Aviation Seminars

Horizontal Situation Indicator (HSI) As a rule of thumb, you should be one or more miles from
the station for each 1,000 feet of altitude above the facility
An HSI, simply put, is a basic Directional Gyro (DG) with for the DME to be considered accurate.
a basic VOR slapped on it’s face.
Instrument Landing System (ILS)
The HSI below indicates:
An ILS is the most common precision approach.
Aircraft heading, at top of instrument, is 240°. An ILS is an approach that has both Localizer (LOC) left
OBS setting, shown by arrowhead, is 180° TO and right guidance and Glide-slope (GS) vertical
The aircraft is flying a 60° intercept angle to intercept the guidance.
360° radial that will take it to the station from the North.

LOC course width is between 3 and 6 degrees.

and the GS angle is 3 degrees. (Standard)
ILS approaches normally have a 200 foot Decision Height
(DH / DA) and 1/2 SM visibility requirement.

The DH is the altitude where the pilot would make an

TO-FROM indicator shows TO since arrow points to the immediate decision to land if the runway environment is in
OBS arrowhead. sight OR execute the Missed Approach Procedure (MAP)
if the runway is not in sight.
Left-Right indicator shows getting closer to the selected
course. (60 degree intercept angle)

Glide slope information, if tuned to ILS localizer

frequency. (Not Showing a G/S Indicator)

DME (Distance Measuring Equipment)

DME measures the line of sight distance (Slant Range) in

nautical miles from the airplane to the ground VORTAC.

If you are over the VORTAC at 6,000 AGL, the DME

would show 1.0 miles, because you are that far above the
station.

The greatest errors occur at high altitudes close to the

station.

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IFR Navigation
Aviation Seminars

A LOC only (with no GS) is a non-precision approach The 4 Basic ILS Components:
procedure. LOC approaches normally have a standard
400 foot Minimum Descent Altitude (MDA) and a 1 SM or
more visibility requirement.

Localizer - frequencies of 108.1 - 111.9 MHz,

odd tenths only.

Morse code ident is preceded by the letter I (l-MSY).

• 2 1/2 degrees off course fully deflects the needle.
The MDA is the minimum altitude an aircraft would be
allowed to descend towards the runway while the pilot Glide-Slope - uses UHF frequencies automatically paired
tries to acquire the runway environment to land. with the localizer frequency.
• normally intercepts MM at 200 AGL
The pilot flying a non-precision approach would execute a • Your rate of descent on the glide slope increases with
missed approach when the aircraft arrives at a time or your groundspeed.
fixed point and the pilot doesn’t have the runway
environment in sight. Marker Beacons
ILS and LOC procedures are designed to be Straight-In Outer Marker - about 5 miles from runway.
procedures (S-ILS or S-LOC)
Middle Marker - within about a 1/2 mile from runway.
Localizer Type Directional Aid (LDA) courses differ from a Inner Marker - within a few 100 feet from runway.
standard ILS approach facility in that the LOC is 5
degrees and may be offset to the runway and usually has The code and light identifications of marker beacons are
a higher MDA. (Less Accurate) as follows:
• OM dash dash dash BLUE
Simplified Directional Facility (SDF) courses differ from • MM dot dash dot dash AMBER
both an ILS and LDA in that the LOC is either 6 or 12 • IM dot dot dot dot WHITE (4 dots per second)
degrees and may not be aligned with the runway and
usually has even higher MDAs. (Least Accurate)
RNAV (Area Navigation)

Requires any approved RNAV receiver.

Waypoint is a predetermined geographical position used

on an RNAV route or RNAV instrument approach.

Pg. 48
 IFR Navigation
Aviation Seminars

Global Positioning System (GPS) Wide Area Augmentation System (WAAS)

There 24 GPS satellites in the system available for WAAS-capable approaches can be certified for precision
civilian use. approaches using any IFR certified GPS.
Satellite based area navigation (RNAV) procedures are LNAV+V provides advisory vertical guidance that may be
used to fly optimum routes with minimal controller used in lieu of the published step-down fixes on the IAP.
intervention.
The LNAV+V vertical guidance is advisory and provides
A pilot can determine if a Global Positioning System an aid to the pilot during the descent to the runway.
(GPS) installed in an aircraft is approved for IFR enroute
and IFR approaches by looking in the Flight Manual At Decision Altitude (DA) The pilot would make an
Supplement. immediate decision to land if the runway environment is in
sight OR execute the Missed Approach Procedure (MAP)
When using GPS for navigation and instrument if the runway is not in sight.
approaches, any required alternate airport must have an
approved operational instrument approach procedure
other than GPS.

Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM)

RAIM verifies the accuracy of the GPS signal.

A RAIM prediction must be performed during preflight and

be predicted to be available during the entire route of
flight including the GPS approach.

If more than 5 minutes predicted loss, flight should be

delayed or re-routed.

If RAIM is not available when setting up a GPS approach,

the pilot should use a navigation system other than GPS
for the approach.

If you receive a RAIM annunciation (reliability warning)

during the approach, execute the missed approach.

Limitations

Hand-held GPS systems are never allowed to be used as

any required navigation equipment for IFR operations.

Hand-held GPS systems, and GPS systems certified for

VFR operation, may be used during IFR operations as an
aid to situational awareness ONLY.

During IFR en route operations using an approved TSO-

C129 or TSO-C196 GPS system for navigation the
aircraft must have an approved and operational alternate
navigation system appropriate for the route.

During IFR en route and terminal operations using an

approved GPS system for navigation, ground based
navigational facilities must be operational along the entire
route.

Pg. 49
IFR Navigation
Aviation Seminars

4306. IRA
TEST QUESTIONS (Use Test Supplement 8080-3F) (Refer to figure 188) What determines the MAP on the
LOC/DME RWY 21 approach at Portland international
NOTE: CORRECT ANSWER IN BOLD ITALICS Airport?
A) I-GPO 1.2 DME.
4069. IRA B) 5.8 NM from ROBOT FAF.
What is a waypoint when used for an IFR flight? C) 160 radial of BTG VORTAC.
A) A predetermined geographical position used for an
RNAV route or an RNAV instrument approach.
B) A reporting point defined by the intersection of two 4347. IRA
VOR radials. (Refer to Figures 71 and 71A.) What is your position
C) A location on a victor airway which can only be relative to the Flosi intersection Northbound on V213?
identified by VOR and DME signals. A) West of V213 and approaching the Flosi
intersection.
4269. IRA B) East of V213 and approaching the Flosi
(Refer to figure 163) During the arc portion of the intersection.
instrument departure procedure (GNATS 6. MOURN) a C) West of V213 and past the Flosi intersection.
left crosswind is encountered. Where should the bearing
pointer of the RMI be referenced relative to the wingtip to 4397. IRA
compensate for wind drift and maintain the 15 DME arc? Which distance is displayed by the DME indicator?
A) Behind the right wingtip reference point. A) Slant range distance in NM.
B) On the right wingtip reference point. B) Slant range distance in SM.
C) Behind the left wing tip reference point. C) Line-of-sight direct distance from aircraft to
VORTAC in SM.
4282. IRA
(Refer to Figure 171.) Under which condition should the 4399. IRA
missed approach procedure for the RNAV (GPS) RWY 33 Where does the DME indicator have the greatest error
approach be initiated? between ground distance to the VORTAC and displayed
A) Upon reaching the LNAV MDA of 1,240 ft. MSL. distance?
B) 10.1 NM from the FAF. A) High altitudes far from the VORTAC.
C) RWY 33 MAP. B) High altitudes close to the VORTAC.
C) Low altitudes far from the VORTAC.
4338. IRA
(Refer to figures 65 and 66) What is your position relative 4410. IRA
to the GRICE intersection? What indication should a pilot receive when a VOR
A) Right of V552 and approaching GRICE intersection. station is undergoing maintenance and may be
B) Right of V552 and past GRICE intersection. considered unreliable?
C) Left of V552 and approaching GRICE intersection. A) No coded identification, but possible navigation
indications.
4284. IRA B) Coded identification, but no navigation indications.
How can a pilot determine if a Global Positioning System C) A voice recording on the VOR frequency
(GPS) installed in an aircraft is approved for IFR enroute announcing that the VOR is out of service for
and IFR approaches? maintenance.
A) Flight manual supplement.
B) GPS operator’s manual. 4411. IRA
C) Aircraft owner’s handbook. A particular VOR station is undergoing routine
maintenance. This is evidenced by
4296. IRA A) removal of the navigational feature.
(Refer to figure 177) Which navigational information and B) broadcasting a maintenance alert signal on the voice
services would be available to the pilot when using the channel.
localizer frequency? C) removal of the identification feature.
A) Localizer and glide slope, DME, TACAN with no voice
capability.
B) Localizer information only, ATIS and DME are
available.
C) Localizer and glide slope, DME, and no voice
capability.

Pg. 50
 IFR Navigation
Aviation Seminars

4412. IRA 4550. IRA

What is the meaning of a single coded identification Which of the following should be considered as station
received only once approximately every 30 seconds from passage when using VOR?
a VORTAC? A) The first flickering of the TO-FROM indicator and CDI
A) The VOR and DME components are operative. as the station is approached.
B) VOR and DME components are both operative, B) The first full-scale deflection of the CDI.
but voice identification is out of service. C) The first complete reversal of the TO-FROM indicator.
C) The DME component is operative and the
VOR component is inoperative. 4551. IRA
When checking the sensitivity of a VOR receiver, the
4413. IRA number of degrees in course change as the OBS is
Which DME indication should you receive when you are rotated to move the CDI from center to the last dot on
directly over a VORTAC site at approximately 6,000 feet either side should be between
AGL? A) 5° and 6°. .
A) 0. B) 8° and 10°.
B) 1. C) 10° and 12°.
C)1.3.
4552. IRA
4472. IRA A VOR receiver with normal five-dot course sensitivity
As a rule of thumb, to minimize DME slant range error, shows a three-dot deflection at 30 NM from the station.
how far from the facility should you be to consider the The aircraft would be displaced approximately how far
reading as accurate? from the course centerline?
A) Two miles or more for each 1,000 feet of altitude A) 2 NM.
above the facility. B) 3 NM.
B) One or more miles for each 1,000 feet of C) 5NM.
altitude above the facility.
C) No specific distance is specified since the reception is 4553. IRA
line-of-sight. An aircraft which is located 30 miles from a VOR station
and shows a ½ scale deflection on theCDI would be how
4507. IRA far from the selected course centerline?
(Refer to Figures 89 and 90.) What is your relationship to A) 1½ miles.
the airway while en route from BCE VORTAC to HVE B) 2 ½ miles.
VORTAC on V8? C) 3 ½ miles.
A) Left of course on V8.
B) Left of course on V382. 4554. IRA
C) Right of course on V8. What angular deviation from a VOR course centerline is
represented by a ½ scale deflection of the CDI?
4548. IRA A) 2°.
What angular deviation from a VOR course centerline is B) 4°.
represented by a full-scale deflection of the CDI? C) 5°.
A) 4°.
B) 5° 4556. IRA
C) 10°. After passing a VORTAC, the CDI shows ½ scale
deflection to the right. What is indicated if the deflection
4549. IRA remains constant for a period of time?
When using VOR for navigation, which of the following A) The airplane is getting closer to the radial.
should be considered as station passage? B) The OBS is erroneously set on the reciprocal heading.
A) The first movement of the CDI as the airplane enters C) The airplane is flying away from the radial.
the zone of confusion.
B) The moment the TO-FROM indicator becomes blank. 4557. IRA
C) The first positive, complete reversal of the TO-FROM (Refer to figure 95.) What is the lateral displacement of
indicator. the aircraft in NM from the radial selected on the No. 1
NAV?
A) 5.0 NM.
B) 7.5 NM.
C) 10.0 NM.

Pg. 51
IFR Navigation
Aviation Seminars

4558. IRA 4962. IRA

(Refer to figure 95.) On which radial is the aircraft as During IFR operation using an approved TSO-C129 or
indicated by the No. 1 NAV? TSO-C196 GPS system for navigation,
A) R-175. A) no other navigation system is required.
B) R-165. B) active monitoring of an alternate navigation system Is
C) R-345. always required.
C) the aircraft must have an approved and operational
4559. IRA alternate navigation system appropriate for the route.
(Refer to figure 95.) Which OBS selection on the No. 1
NAV would center the CDI and change the ambiguity 4563.* IRA
indication to a TO? (Refer to figures 96 and 97.) To which aircraft position(s)
A) 175°. does HSI presentation “A” correspond?
B) 165°. A) 9 and 6.
C) 345°. B) 9 only.
C) 6 only.
4560. IRA
(Refer to figure 95.) What is the lateral displacement in 4564.* IRA
degrees from the desired radial on the No. 2 NAV? (Refer to figures 96 and 97.) To which aircraft position(s)
A) 1°. does HSI presentation “B” correspond?
B) 2°. A) 11.
C) 4°. B) 5 and 13.
C) 7 and 11.
4561. IRA
(Refer to figure 95.) Which OBS selection on the No. 2 4565.* IRA
NAV would center the CDI? (Refer to figures 96 and 97.) To which aircraft position
A) 174° does HSI presentation “C” correspond?
B) 166° A) 9.
C) 335°. B) 4.
C) 12.
4562. IRA
(Refer to figure 95.) Which OBS selection on the No. 2 4566.* IRA
NAV would center the CDI and change the ambiguity (Refer to figures 96 and 97.) To which aircraft position
indication to a TO? does HSI presentation “D” correspond?
A) 166° A) 1.
B) 346° B) 10.
C) 354°. C) 2.

4947. IRA 4567. * IRA

Hand-held GPS systems, and GPS systems certified for (Refer to figures 96. and 97.) To which aircraft position(s)
VFR operation, may be used during IFR operations as does HSI presentation “E” correspond?
A) the principal reference to determine en route A) 8 only.
waypoints. B) 3 only.
B) an aid to situational awareness. C) 8 and 3.
C) the primary source of navigation.
4572. IRA
4948. IRA (Refer to figures 98 and 99.) To which aircraft position
During IFR en route and terminal operations using an does HSI presentation “D” correspond?
approved GPS system for navigation, ground based A) 4.
navigational facilities B) 15.
A) are only required during the approach portion of the C) 17.
flight.
B) must be operational along the entire route. 4573. IRA
C) must be operational only if RAIM predicts an outage. (Refer to figures 98 and 99.) To which aircraft position
does HSI presentation “E” correspond?
A) 5.
B) 6.
C) 15.

Pg. 52
 IFR Navigation
Aviation Seminars

Note* Aviation Seminars is aware of the wrong ILS arrow 4663. IRA
shading in Figure 96 in the FAA 8080-3F Supplement. When a VOR/DME is collocated under frequency pairings
and the VOR portion is inoperative, the DME identifier will
If you get a test question using Figure 96, treat the front repeat at an interval of;
course as being shaded on the right side as it should be A) 20 second intervals at 1020 Hz.
instead of the incorrect left side depicted. B) 30 second intervals at 1350 Hz.
C) 60 second intervals at 1350 Hz.
4574. IRA
(Refer to figures 98 and 99.) To which aircraft position 4664. IRA
does HSI presentation “F” correspond? When installed with the ILS and specified in the approach
A) 10. procedures, DME may be used;
B) 14. A) in lieu of the OM.
C) 16. B) in lieu of visibility requirements.
C) to determine distance from TDZ.
4601. IRA
(Refer to figure 106.) The course selector of each aircraft 4666. IRA
is set on 360°. Which aircraft would have a FROM Full scale deflection of a CDI occurs when the course
indication on the ambiguity meter and the CDI pointing deviation bar or needle;
left of center? A) deflects from left side of the scale to right side of
A) 1. the scale.
B) 2. B) deflects from the center of the scale to either far
C) 3. side of the scale.
C) deflects from half scale left to half scale right.
4606. IRA
(Refer to figure 109.) In which general direction from the 4669. IRA
VORTAC is the aircraft located? How does a pilot determine if DME is available on an ILS/
A) Northeast. LOC?
B) Southeast. A) lAP indicate DME\TACAN channel in LOC frequency
C) Southwest. box.
B) LOC\DME are indicated on en route low altitude
4607. IRA frequency box.
(Refer to figure 110.) In which general direction from the C) LOC\DME frequencies available in the Airman’s
VORTAC is the aircraft located? Information Manual.
A) Southwest.
B) Northwest. 4674. IRA
C) Northeast. (Refer to figure 240.) How should a pilot determine when
the DME at Price/Carbon County Airport is inoperative?
4608. IRA A) The airborne DME will always indicate “0” mileage.
(Refer to figure 111.) In which general direction from the B) The airborne DME will “search,” but will not “lock on.”
VORTAC is the aircraft located? C) The airborne DME may appear normal, but there will
A) Northeast. be no code tone.
B) Southeast.
C) Northwest. 4680. IRA
(Refer to figure 242.) What indication should you get
4646. IRA when it is time to turn inbound while in the procedure turn
(Refer to figure 47.) When en route on V448 from YKM at FEHXE?
VORTAC to BTG VORTAC, what minimum navigation A) 4 DME miles from FEHXE.
equipment is required to identify ANGOO intersection? B) 10 DME miles from the MAP.
A) One VOR receiver. C) 12 DME miles from LIT VORTAC.
B) One VOR receiver and DME.
C) Two VOR receivers. 4682. IRA
(Refer to figure 242.) How should the missed approach
point be identified when executing the RNAV RWY 36
approach at Adams Field?
A) When the TO-FROM indicator changes.
B) Upon arrival at 760 feet on the glidepath.
C) When time has expired for 5 NM past the
FAF.

Pg. 53
IFR Navigation
Aviation Seminars

4684. IRA 4825.

(Refer to figure 129) What minimum airborne equipment (Refer to figures 139 and 141.) Which displacement from
is required to be operative for RNAV RWY 36 approach at the localizer centerline and glide slope at the 1,300-foot
Adams Field? point from the runway is indicated?
A) An approved RNAV receiver that provides both A) 21 feet below the glide slope and approximately 320
horizontal and vertical guidance. feet to the right of the runway centerline.
B) A transponder and an approved RNAV receiver B) 28 feet above the glide slope and approximately 250
that provides both horizontal and vertical guidance. feet to the left of the run way centerline.
C) Any approved RNAV receiver. C) 21 feet above the glide slope and approximately 320
feet to the left of the runway centerline.
4729. IRA
Which range facility associated with the ILS is identified 4826. IRA
by the last two letters of the localizer identification group? (Refer to figures 139 and 142.) Which displacement from
A) Inner marker. the localizer and glide slope at the outer marker is
B) Outer marker. indicated?
C) Middle compass locator. A) 1,550 feet to the left of the localizer centerline and 210
feet below the glide slope.
4799. IRA B) 1,550 feet to the right of the localizer centerline and
If Receiver Autonomous integrity Monitoring (RAIM) is not 210 feet above the glide slope.
available when setting up a GPS approach, the pilot C) 775 feet to the left of the localizer centerline and 420
should feet below the glide slope.
A) use another type of navigation system other than a
GPS approach. 4684. IRA
B) continue to the MAP and hold until the satellites are What are the primary benefits of satellite based area
recaptured. navigation (RNAV)?
C) continue the approach, expecting to recapture the A) Provides optimal routing and altitudes.
satellites before reaching the FAF. B) Radio tuning and controller communication is
minimized.
4799-2 IRA C) Standard terminal arrival routes and departure
As part of your GPS preflight planning, RAIM prediction procedures are not required.
should be verified. This means that
A) RAIM availability is assured for your entire route of 4685. IRA
flight including the GPS approach at your destination. (Refer to figure 244) How does an LDA facility, such as
B) RAIM is predicted to be available for your entire route the one at Roanoke Regional, differ from a standard ILS
of flight including the GPS approach at your destination. approach facility?
C) if RAIM is predicted to be available, you must still have A) The LOC is wider.
ILS capability to use a GPS approach. B) The LOC is offset from the runway.
C) The GS is unusable beyond the MM.
4801. IRA
When using GPS for navigation and instrument 4703. IRA
approaches, any required alternate airport must have What is the difference between a Localizer-Type
A) authorization to fly approaches under IFR using GPS Directional Aid (LDA) and the ILS localizer?
avionics systems. A) The LDA is not aligned with the runway.
B) a GPS approach that is anticipated to be operational B) The LDA uses a course width of 6° or 12°, while an ILS
and available at the ETA. uses only 5°.
C) an approved operational instrument approach C) The LDA signal is generated from a VOR-type facility
procedure other than GPS. and has no glide slope.

4824.* IRA 4704. IRA

(Refer to figures 139 and 140) Which displacement from How wide is an SDF course?
the localizer and glide slope at the 1.9 NM point is A) Either 3° or 6°
indicated? B) Either 6° or 12°.
A) 710 feet to the left of the localizer centerline and 140 C) Varies from 5° to 10°.
feet below the glide slope.
B) 710 feet to the right of the localizer centerline and 140
feet above the glide slope.
C) 430 feet to the right of the localizer centerline and 28
feet above the glide slope.

Pg. 54
 IFR Navigation
Aviation Seminars

4705. IRA
What are the main differences between the SDF and the
localizer of an ILS?
A) The useable off-course indications are limited to 35°
for the localizer and up to 90° for the SDF.
B) The SDF course may not be aligned with the runway
and the course may be wider.
C) The course width for the localizer will always be 5°
while the SDF course will be between 6° and 12°

4949. IRA
On a WAAS-capable GPS approach, what is the
significance of "LNAV+V" being displayed?
A) Advisory vertical guidance is provided to the pilot that
must be used in lieu of published step-down fixes on the
instrument approach.
B) Advisory vertical guidance is provided as an aid to the
pilot during the descent to the runway.
C) Approved vertical guidance to descend to the decision
height is provided to the pilot.

Pg. 55
Flight Planning
Aviation Seminars

Flight Planning Computations

Flight Planning Computation Tips 4313. IRA

What CAS must be used to maintain the filed TAS
There are three types of computation problems on of 158 knots at 8,000 feet if the outside air
the IFR/CFII written. temperature is 0 degrees C?
A) 136 KCAS.
• Determine the CAS (calibrated airspeed) B) 140 KCAS.
required to maintain a certain TAS at a given C) 147 KCAS.
OAT and altitude.
4345. IRA
• Use the E6-B flight computer, remembering that What CAS should be used to maintain the filed
CAS is read on the middle scale. TAS of 128 knots at 5,000 feet if the outside air
temperature is +05 °C?
• Determine fuel consumption for a given flight. A) 119 KCAS.
B) 124 KCAS.
TEST QUESTIONS (Use Test Supplement C) 126 KCAS.
8080-3F)
4265. IRA
NOTE: CORRECT ANSWER IN BOLD ITALICS (Refer to Figure 24.) Your original route of flight
was CEZ V391 JNC. However, due to
4267. IRA thunderstorms en route, ATC revises your route to
What CAS must be used to maintain the filed TAS CEZ V391 DVC V68 MTJ V26 JNC. Calculate
of 155 knots at 8,000 feet if the outside air how much additional fuel you will consume given
temperature is -.5 °C? the following:
A) 134 KCAS.
B) 139 KCAS. Winds = 230 at 40 knots
C) 142 KCAS. TAS = 130 knots
GPH = 17.0
4278. IRA
What CAS must be used to maintain the filed TAS A) 13.2 gallons.
of 180 knots at 8,000 feet if the outside air B) 5.5 gallons.
temperature is +8 °C? C) 9.1 gallons.
A) 154 KCAS.
B) 157 KCAS. Solution for 4265.
C) 163 KCAS. You will need to plot out both routes of flight. You
then will need to determine your magnetic
4289. IRA headings and distances for each flight.
What CAS must be used to maintain the filed TAS
of 156 knots at 11,000 feet if the outside air Then using flight computer you can determine
temperature is +05 °C? ground speed, leg time, and fuel burn for each
A) 129 KCAS. leg.
B) 133 KCAS.
C) 139 KCAS. Totals Route 1
Distance: 106 NM
4301. IRA Time En Route: 46:40
What CAS must be used to maintain the filed TAS Fuel Burn: 13.3 GPH
of 120 knots at 12,000 feet if the outside air
temperature is +5 °C? Totals Route 2
A) 147 KCAS. Distance: 152
B) 150 KCAS. Time En Route: 01:10
C) 154 KCAS. Fuel Burn: 19.8 GPH

(Choose the closest answer. Aviation Seminars

came up with 6.5 gallons)

Pg. 56
 Aircraft Instruments
Aviation Seminars

Aircraft Instruments
Pitot Static System

True Airspeed (TAS) is your actual speed, and is found

on a flight computer by matching pressure altitude with
temperature, then reading TAS on the outer scale
The pitot tube provides information to the airspeed opposite CAS on the middle scale.
indicator only. The static vent provides information to the
airspeed indicator, altimeter and vertical speed indicator. Maneuvering Speed (Va) is the maximum turbulence
speed and maximum speed for abrupt maneuvers. It is
If the pitot tube and drain hole are blocked the airspeed slower than cruising speed so the amount of excess load
indicator will react like an altimeter. In level flight, IAS that can be imposed on the wing will be decreased. (Not
remains the same as it was prior to the blockage with no shown on AS indicator)
variation in IAS. Once a climb is established, the
indicated airspeed will increase. (Altimeter Effect) Altimeter

If the static vent becomes blocked, the vertical speed

indicator will remain at zero.

If you switch to an alternate static source within the

aircraft (where the pressure is less) the lower static
pressure will cause the IAS to read higher, the altimeter
to read higher, and the vertical speed indicator (VSI) to
show a momentary climb.

Airspeed Indicator

Indicated Airspeed (IAS) is the direct reading you obtain

from the airspeed indicator, uncorrected for atmospheric
density or instrument error.

Calibrated Airspeed (CAS) is the indicated airspeed

corrected for installation and instrument errors.

‘Indicated Altitude’ is the direct reading from the altimeter,

and shows the height in relation to the pressure level set
in the barometric window.

Pg. 57
Aircraft Instruments
Aviation Seminars

Altimeter (Cont) charts, and also listed in the Airport/Facility Directory

(Chart Supplement)
If the current altimeter setting is set, the altimeter should
read the actual field elevation (true altitude) while on the Deviation is the angle between magnetic north and
ground at the departure area. compass north, caused by metals and electrical systems
within the aircraft.
True altitude is your actual altitude above sea level.
Errors (caused by magnetic dip) are:
Pressure Altitude is indicated any time 29.92 is set in the
Kollsman window. Use 29.92 as a standard setting when TURNING ERROR - Turning on a southerly heading (091
above 18,000 MSL. Pressure altitude equals true altitude degrees to 269 degrees) in either direction, the compass
whenever standard conditions exist. will lead your turn. Turning on any northerly heading (271
degrees to 089 degrees), the compass will turn in the
Density Altitude (DA) is pressure altitude corrected for opposite direction then lag your turn. There are no turning
non-standard temperature, and is used to determine errors on headings of east and west.
aircraft performance. Pressure altitude and density
altitude are equal at standard temperature. ACCELERATION ERROR - On an easterly or westerly
heading, if you accelerate, the compass turns north; if
The local altimeter setting should be used by all pilots in you decelerate, it turns south. There are no acceleration -
a particular area to provide for better vertical separation deceleration errors on headings of north or south.
of aircraft.

If the local altimeter setting is not available before takeoff, Turn Coordinator and Turn & Slip Indicators
set the altimeter to the airport elevation. In flight, ATC will
periodically advise you of the proper altimeter setting.

If you fly from HIGH to LOW pressure or temperature and

do not set the new altimeter setting, or into lower than
standard temperatures, look out below. Your altimeter
indicates higher than you actually are.

If you have the wrong altimeter setting in the Kollsman

window, your altimeter will read incorrectly at the rate of 1
inch per 1,000 feet. As you increase the Kollsman
window setting one inch, indicated altitude increases
1,000 feet.

Magnetic Compass
The standard rate of turn is 3 degrees per second. A 360
degree turn will take 2 minutes. A half-standard rate turn
will take 4 minutes.

Turn and slip indicators show rate of turn and

coordination.

Turn coordinators show roll rate, rate of turn,

coordination, and an indirect indication of bank.

The ball shows quality of turn, and skids to the outside of

the turn, or slips to the inside of the turn. The position of
the ball has no effect on the accuracy of the needle.

The horizontal component of lift (always equal to

centrifugal force) causes the airplane to turn, and
Magnetic variation is the angle between true and determines rate of turn. Radius of turn can be decreased,
magnetic north, and is found on the enroute low altitude and rate of turn increased by decreasing airspeed and
increasing bank.

Pg. 58
 Aircraft Instruments
Aviation Seminars

Attitude Indicator Primary And Supporting instruments*

Pitch instruments consist of attitude indicator, altimeter,

airspeed indicator and VSI.

Bank instruments consist of attitude indicator, heading

indicator, and turn coordinator. (Notice-magnetic
compass not listed.)

Power instruments consist of manifold pressure or

tachometer, and airspeed indicator.

A PRIMARY instrument is one that defines the quality of

each maneuver, in terms of pitch, bank and power. The
primary instruments for pitch, bank and power tell you if
you are doing exactly what you mean to do.

SUPPORTING instruments confirm the information

shown on the primary instruments, but it is the primary
instruments that tell you if you are being successful.

Conditions that determine pitch attitude required to

Centrifugal force during turns, especially skidding turns, maintain level flight are airspeed, air density, wing design,
will cause errors of 5 degrees bank and slight nose-up and angle of attack.
pitch after 180 degrees of turn. After a 180 degree turn to
the right, if the airplane is rolled out to straight-and-level Wind Shear On The Glideslope
by visual references, the miniature aircraft will show a
slight climb and a turn to the left. If a headwind shears to a calm or tailwind, aircraft pitch
decreases, IAS decreases then increases, VSI increases,
Acceleration will cause some attitude indicators to and you must first add thrust then reduce it. There is a
precess and incorrectly indicate a climb, and deceleration tendency to go below the glideslope.
will indicate a descent.
If a tailwind shears to a calm or headwind, pitch
Preflight Engine And Instrument Indications increases, IAS increases then decreases, VSI decreases,
and you must decrease thrust then increase it. There is a
Prior to electrical power being turned on: tendency to go above the glideslope.

- Turn and Slip - make sure the needle is centered and

the tube full of fluid.
- Magnetic Compass - check the approximate magnetic
heading and the amount of fluid.

Listen for any unusual or irregular mechanical noises

when electrical power first is turned on.

Pre-takeoff indications should be:

- VSI - if the needle is not zeroed (100FPM), use this as

your zero indication.
- Altimeter - with correct altimeter setting, it should show
within 75 feet of airport elevation.
- Magnetic Compass - card should swing freely.
- Turn and Slip - the ball moves freely opposite the turn,
and the needle deflects in the direction of the turn.
- Heading indicator - set the indicator and check for
proper alignment after taxi turns.
- Attitude Indicator - the horizon bar (not miniature
aircraft) should be erect and stable within 5 minutes.

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Aircraft Instruments
Aviation Seminars

TEST QUESTIONS (Use Test Supplement 8080-3F) 4110. IRA

Which of the following defines the type of altitude used
NOTE: CORRECT ANSWER IN BOLD ITALICS when maintaining FL 210?
A) Indicated.
4056. IRA B) Pressure.
You check the flight instruments while taxiing and find C) Calibrated.
that the vertical speed indicator (VSI) indicates a descent
of 100 feet per minute. In this case, you; 4111. IRA
A) must return to the parking area and have the Altimeter setting is the value to which the scale of the
instrument corrected by an authorized instrument pressure altimeter is set so the altimeter indicates
repairman. A) true altitude at field elevation.
B) may take off and use 100 feet descent as the zero B) pressure altitude at field elevation.
indication. C) pressure altitude at sea level.
C) may not take off until the instrument is corrected
by either the pilot or a mechanic. 4444. IRA
What is the procedure for setting the altimeter when
4089. IRA assigned an IFR altitude of 18,000 feet or higher on a
Under what condition is pressure altitude and density direct flight off airways?
altitude the same value? A) Set the altimeter to 29.92” Hg before takeoff.
A) At standard temperature. B) Set the altimeter to the current • altimeter
B) When the altimeter setting is 29.92” Hg. setting until reaching the assigned altitude, then set to
C) When indicated, and pressure altitudes are the same 29.92” Hg.
value on the altimeter. C) Set the altimeter to the current reported setting
for climbout and 29.92” Hg upon reaching 18,000
4090. IRA feet.
Under which condition will pressure altitude be equal to
true altitude? 4445. IRA
A) When the atmospheric pressure is 29.92” Hg. En route at FL 290, the altimeter is set
B) When standard atmospheric conditions exist. correctly, but not reset to the local altimeter setting
C) When indicated altitude is equal to the pressure of 30.57” Hg during descent. If the field elevation is
altitude. 650 feet and the altimeter is functioning properly,
what is the approximate indication upon landing?
4091. IRA A) 715 feet.
Which condition would cause the altimeter to indicate a B) 1,300 feet.
lower altitude than actually flown (true altitude)? C) Sea level.
A) Air temperature lower than standard.
B) Atmospheric pressure lower than standard. 4446. IRA
C) Air temperature warmer than standard. While you are flying at FL 250, you hear ATC give an
altimeter setting of 28.92” Hg in your area. At what
4093. IRA pressure altitude are you flying?
When an altimeter is changed from 30.11” Hg to 29.96” A) 24,000 feet.
Hg, in which direction will the indicated altitude change B) 25,000 feet.
and by what value? C) 26,000 feet.
A) Altimeter will indicate 15 feet lower.
B) Altimeter will indicate 150 feet lower. 4477. IRA
C) Altimeter will indicate 150 feet higher. How can you obtain the pressure altitude on flights below
18,000 feet?
4109. A) Set your altimeter to 29.92” Hg.
Under what condition will true altitude be lower than B) Use your computer to change the indicated altitude to
indicated altitude with an altimeter setting of 29.92” Hg? pressure altitude.
A) In warmer than standard air temperature. C) Contact an FSS and ask for the pressure
B) In colder than standard air temperature. altitude.
C) When density altitude is higher than indicated
altitude.

Pg. 60
 Aircraft Instruments
Aviation Seminars

4478. IRA 4720. IRA

How can you determine the pressure altitude at an airport When passing through an abrupt wind shear which
without a tower of FSS? involves a shift from a tailwind to a headwind, what power
A) Set the altimeter to 29.92” Hg and read the altitude management would normally be required to maintain a
indicated. constant indicated airspeed and ILS glide slope?
B) Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting of a A) Higher than normal power initially, followed by a
station within 100 miles and correct this indicated altitude further increase as the wind shear is encountered, then
with local temperature. a decrease.
C) Use your computer and correct the field elevation for B) Lower than normal power initially, followed by a
temperature. further decrease as the wind shear is encountered, then
an increase.
4479. IRA C) Higher than normal power initially, followed by a
Which altitude is indicated when the altimeter is set to decrease as the shear is encountered, then an increase.
29.92” Hg?
A) Density. 4721. IRA
B) Pressure. What effect will a change in wind direction have
C) Standard. upon maintaining a 3° glide slope at a constant true
airspeed?
4480. IRA A) When groundspeed decreases, rate of descent must
If you are departing from an airport where you cannot increase.
obtain an altimeter setting, you should set your altimeter; B) When groundspeed increases, rate of descent must
A) on 29.92” Hg. increase.
B) on the current airport barometric pressure, if C) Rate of descent must be constant to remain on the
known. glide slope.
C) to the airport elevation.
4727. IRA
4481. IRA While flying a 3° glide slope, a constant tailwind shears to
En route at FL 290, your altimeter is set correctly, but you a calm wind. Which conditions should the pilot expect?
fail to reset it to the local altimeter setting of 30.26” Hg A) Airspeed and pitch attitude decrease and there is a
during descent. If the field elevation is 134 feet and your tendency to go below glide slope.
altimeter is functioning properly, what will it indicate after B) Airspeed and pitch attitude increase and there is a
landing? tendency to go below glide slope.
A) 100 feet MSL. C) Airspeed and pitch attitude increase and there is a
B) 474 feet MSL. tendency to go above glide slope.
C) 206 feet below MSL.
4739. IRA
4482. IRA Thrust is managed to maintain lAS, and
How does a pilot normally obtain the current altimeter glide slope is being flown. What characteristics
setting during an IFR flight in Class E airspace below should be observed when a headwind shears to be
18,000 feet? a constant tailwind?
A) The pilot should contact ARTCC at least every A) PITCH ATTITUDE: Increases; REQUIRED THRUST:
100 NM and request the altimeter setting. Increased, then reduced; VERTICAL SPEED:
B) FSS’s along the route broadcast the weather Increases; lAS: Increases, then decreases to approach
information at 15 minutes past the hour. speed.
C) ATC periodically advises the pilot of the proper B) PITCH ATTITUDE: Decreases; REQUIRED
altimeter setting. THRUST: Increased, then reduced; VERTICAL
SPEED: Increases; lAS: Decreases, then increases to
approach speed.
C) PITCH ATTITUDE: Increases; REQUIRED
THRUST: Reduced, then increased;
VERTICAL SPEED: Decreases; lAS:
Decreases, then increases to approach speed.

Pg. 61
Aircraft Instruments
Aviation Seminars

4755. IRA 4832. IRA

While flying a 3° glide slope, a headwind shears to a The gyroscopic heading indicator is inoperative. What is
tailwind. Which conditions should the pilot expect on the the primary bank instrument in unaccelerated straight-
glide slope? and-level flight?
A) Airspeed and pitch attitude decrease and there is a A) Magnetic compass.
tendency to go below glide slope. B) Attitude indicator.
B) Airspeed and pitch attitude increase and there is a C) Miniature aircraft of turn coordinator.
tendency to go above glide slope.
C) Airspeed and pitch attitude decrease and there is a 4833. IRA
tendency to remain on the glide slope. When airspeed is decreased in a turn, what must be
done to maintain level flight?
4756. IRA A) Decrease the angle of bank and/or increase the
The glide slope and localizer are centered, but the angle of attack.
airspeed is too fast. Which should be adjusted initially? B) Increase the angle of bank and/or decrease the angle
A) Pitch and power. of attack.
B) Power only. C) Increase the angle of attack.
C) Pitch only.
4834. IRA
4820. IRA On the taxi check, the magnetic compass
As a rule of thumb, altitude corrections of less than 100 should
feet should be corrected by using a A) swing opposite to the direction of turn when
A) full bar width on the attitude indicator. turning from north.
B) half bar width on the attitude indicator. B) exhibit the same number of degrees of dip as the
C) two bar width on the attitude indicator. latitude.
C) swing freely and indicate known headings.
4821. IRA
If both the ram air input and drain hole of the pitot system 4835. IRA
are blocked, what airspeed indication can be expected? Which condition during taxi is an indication that an
A) No variation of indicated airspeed in level flight even attitude indicator is unreliable?
if large power changes are made. A) The horizon bar tilts more than 5° while making taxi
B) Decrease of indicated airspeed during a climb. turns.
C) Constant indicated airspeed during a descent. B) The horizon bar vibrates during warmup.
C) The horizon bar does not align itself with the
4830. IRA miniature airplane after warmup.
If both the ram air input and the drain hole of the pitot
system are blocked, what reaction should you observe on 4836. IRA
the airspeed indicator when power is applied and a climb What instruments are considered supporting bank
is initiated out of severe icing conditions? instruments during a straight, stabilized climb at a
A) The indicated airspeed would show . a continuous constant rate?
deceleration while climbing. A) Attitude indicator and turn coordinator.
B) The airspeed would drop to, and remain at, zero. B) Heading indicator and attitude indicator.
C) No change until an actual climb rate is C) Heading indicator and turn coordinator.
established, then indicated airspeed will increase.
4837. IRA
4831. IRA What instruments are primary for pitch, bank, and power,
What indication should be observed on a turn coordinator respectively, when transitioning into a constant airspeed
during a left turn while taxiing? climb from straight-and-level flight?
A) The miniature aircraft will show a turn to the left and A) Attitude indicator, heading indicator, and manifold
the ball remains centered. pressure gauge or tachometer.
B) The miniature aircraft will show a turn to the left and B) Attitude indicator for both pitch and bank; airspeed
the ball moves to the right. indicator for power.
C) Both the miniature aircraft and the ball will remain C) Vertical speed, attitude indicator, and manifold
centered. pressure or tachometer.

Pg. 62
 Aircraft Instruments
Aviation Seminars

4838. IRA 4848. IRA

What is the primary bank instrument once a standard rate What is the primary pitch instrument during a stabilized
turn is established? climbing left turn at cruise climb airspeed?
A) Attitude indicator. A) Attitude indicator.
B) Turn coordinator. B) VSI.
C) Heading indicator. C) Airspeed indicator.

4839. IRA 4850. IRA

What does the miniature aircraft of the turn coordinator What is the primary pitch instrument when establishing a
directly display? constant altitude standard rate turn?
A) Rate of roll and rate of turn. A) Altimeter.
B) Angle of bank and rate of turn. B) VSI.
C) Angle of bank. C) Airspeed indicator.

4842. IRA 4851. IRA

What pre-takeoff check should be made of the attitude What is the initial primary bank instrument when
indicator in preparation for an IFR flight? establishing a level standard rate turn?
A) The horizon bar does not vibrate during warmup A) Turn coordinator.
B) The miniature airplane should erect and become B) Heading indicator.
stable within 5 minutes. C) Attitude indicator.
C) The horizon bar should erect and become stable
within 5 minutes. 4856. IRA
What indication is presented by the miniature aircraft of
4870. IRA the turn coordinator?
What force causes an airplane to turn? A) Indirect indication of the bank attitude.
A) Rudder pressure or force around the vertical axis. B) Direct indication of the bank attitude and the
B) Vertical lift component. quality of the turn.
C) Horizontal lift component. C) Quality of the turn.

4843. IRA 4857. IRA

The rate of turn at any airspeed is dependent upon During normal operation of a vacuum-driven attitude
A) the horizontal lift component. indicator, what attitude indication should you see when
B) the vertical lift component. rolling out from a 180° skidding turn to straight-and-level
C) centrifugal force. coordinated flight?
A) A straight-and-level coordinated flight indication.
4844. IRA B) A nose-high indication relative to level flight.
During a skidding turn to the right, what is the relationship C) The miniature aircraft shows a turn in the direction
between the component of lift, centrifugal force, and load opposite the skid.
factor?
A) Centrifugal force is less than horizontal lift and the 4858. IRA
load factor is increased. What is the primary bank instrument while transitioning
B) Centrifugal force is greater than horizontal lift and the from straight-and-level flight to a standard rate turn to the
load factor is increased. left?
C) Centrifugal force and horizontal lift are equal and the A) Attitude indicator.
load factor is decreased. B) Heading indicator.
C) Turn coordinator (miniature aircraft).
4845. IRA
As power is increased to enter a 500 feet per minute rate 4860. IRA
of climb in straight flight, which instruments are primary During normal coordinated turns, what error due to
for pitch, bank, and power respectively? precession should you observe when rolling out to
A) Attitude, indicator, heading indicator, and straight-and-level flight from a 180° steep turn to the
manifold pressure gauge or tachometer. right?
B) VSI, attitude indicator, and airspeed indicator. A) A straight-and-level coordinated flight indication.
C) Airspeed indicator, attitude indicator, and B) The miniature aircraft would show a slight turn
manifold pressure gauge or tachometer. indication to the left.
C) The miniature aircraft would show a slight descent
and wings-level attitude.

Pg. 63
Aircraft Instruments
Aviation Seminars

4863. IRA 4869. IRA

As power is reduced to change airspeed from high to low Which instruments, in addition to the attitude indicator,
cruise in level flight, which instruments are primary for are pitch instruments?
pitch, bank, and power, respectively? A) Altimeter and airspeed only.
A) Attitude indicator, heading indicator, and manifold B) Altimeter and VSI only.
pressure gauge or tachometer. C) Altimeter, airspeed indicator, and vertical speed
B) Altimeter, attitude indicator, and airspeed indicator. indicator.
C) Altimeter, heading indicator, and manifold
pressure gauge or tachometer. 4871. IRA
Which instrument provides the most pertinent information
4864. IRA (primary) for pitch control in straight-and-level flight?
What information does a Mach meter present? A) Attitude indicator.
A) The ratio of aircraft true airspeed to the speed of B) Airspeed indicator.
sound. C) Altimeter.
B) The ratio of aircraft indicated airspeed to the
speed of sound. 4872. IRA
C) The ratio of aircraft equivalent airspeed, corrected Which instruments are considered to be supporting
for installation error, to the speed of sound. instruments for pitch during change of airspeed in a level
turn?
4865. IRA A) Airspeed indicator and VSI.
Which instrument provides the most pertinent information B) Altimeter and attitude indicator.
(primary) for bank control in straight-and-level flight? C) Attitude indicator and VSI.
A) Turn-and-slip indicator.
B) Attitude indicator. 4873. IRA
C) Heading indicator. If an airplane is in an unusual flight attitude and the
attitude indicator has exceeded its limits, which
4866. IRA instruments should be relied on to determine pitch
Which instruments are considered primary and attitude before starting recovery?
supporting for bank, respectively, when establishing a A) Turn indicator and VSI.
level standard rate turn? B) Airspeed and altimeter.
A) Turn coordinator and attitude indicator. C) VSI arid airspeed to detect approaching VSI or VMO.
B) Attitude indicator and turn coordinator.
C) Turn coordinator and heading indicator. 4874. IRA
Which instrument is considered primary for power as the
4867. IRA airspeed reaches the desired value during change of
While recovering from an unusual flight attitude without airspeed in a level turn?
the aid of the attitude indicator, approximate level pitch A) Airspeed indicator.
attitude is reached when the B) Attitude indicator.
A) airspeed and altimeter stop their movement and the C) Altimeter.
VSI reverses its trend.
B) airspeed arrives at cruising speed, the altimeter 4876. IRA
reverses its trend, and the vertical speed stops its Which instruments should be used to make
movement. a pitch correction when you have deviated from
C) altimeter and vertical speed reverse their trend and your assigned altitude?
the airspeed stops its movement. A) Altimeter and VSI.
B) Manifold pressure gauge and VSI.
4868. IRA C) Attitude indicator, altimeter, and VSI.
What is the relationship between centrifugal force and the
horizontal lift component in a coordinated turn?
A) Horizontal lift exceeds centrifugal force.
B) Horizontal lift and centrifugal force are equal.
C) Centrifugal force exceeds horizontal lift.

Pg. 64
 Aircraft Instruments
Aviation Seminars

4877. IRA 4882. IRA

What should be the indication on the magnetic compass Prior to starting an engine, you should check the turn-
as you roll into a standard rate turn to the left from an and-slip indicator to determine if the
east heading in the Northern Hemisphere? A) needle indication properly corresponds to the angle
A) The compass will initially indicate a turn to the of the wings or rotors with the horizon.
right. B) needle is approximately centered and the tube is full
B) The compass will remain on east for a short time, of fluid.
then gradually catch up to the magnetic heading of C) ball will move freely from one end of the tube to the
the aircraft. other when the aircraft is rocked.
C) The compass will indicate the approximate correct
magnetic heading if the roll into the turn is smooth. 4883. IRA
What indications should you observe on the turn-and-slip
4878. IRA indicator during taxi?
When airspeed is increased in a turn, what must be done A) The ball moves freely opposite the turn, and the
to maintain a constant altitude? needle deflects in the direction of the turn.
A) Decrease the angle of bank. B) The needle deflects in the direction of the turn, but
B) Increase the angle of bank and/or decrease the angle the ball remains centered.
of attack. C) The ball deflects opposite the turn, but the needle
C) Decrease the angle of attack. remains centered.

4879. IRA 4884. IRA

What would be the indication on the VSI during entry into Which instrument indicates the quality of a turn?
a 500 FPM actual descent from Level flight if the static A) Attitude indicator.
ports were iced over? B) Heading indicator or magnetic compass.
A) The indication would be in reverse of the actual rate C) Ball of the turn coordinator.
of descent (500 FPM climb).
B) The initial indication would be a climb, then descent 4885. IRA
at a rate in excess of 500 FPM. What pre-takeoff check should be made of a vacuum-
C) The VSI pointer would remain at zero regardless of driven heading indicator in preparation for an IFR flight?
the actual rate of descent. A) After 5 minutes, set the indicator to the magnetic
heading of the aircraft and check for proper alignment
4880. IRA after taxi turns.
How should you preflight check the altimeter prior to an B) After 5 minutes, check that the heading indicator card
IFR flight? aligns itself with the magnetic heading of the aircraft.
A) Set the altimeter to the current temperature. With C) Determine that the heading indicator does not
current temperature and the altimeter indication, precess more than 2° in 5 minutes of ground operation.
determine the calibrated altitude to compare with the
field elevation. 4886. IRA
B) Set the altimeter first with 29.92” Hg and then the What should be the indication on the magnetic compass
current altimeter setting. The change in altitude should as you roll into a standard rate turn to the right from an
correspond to the change in setting. easterly heading in the Northern Hemisphere?
C) Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting. The A) The compass will initially indicate a turn to the left.
indication should be within 75 feet of the actual elevation B) The compass will remain on east for a short time,
for acceptable accuracy. then gradually catch up to the magnetic heading of the
aircraft.
4881. IRA C) The compass will indicate the approximate correct
Which practical test should be made on the electric gyro magnetic heading if the roll into the turn is smooth.
instruments prior to starting an engine?
A) Check that the electrical connections are. secure on 4887. IRA
the back of the instruments. What should be the indication on the magnetic compass
B) Check that the attitude of the miniature aircraft is as you roll into a standard rate turn to the right from a
wings level before turning on electrical power. south heading in the Northern Hemisphere?
C) Turn on the electrical power and listen for any A) The compass will indicate a turn to the right, but at a
unusual or irregular mechanical noise. faster rate than is actually occurring.
B) The compass will initially indicate a turn to the left.
C) The compass will remain on south for a short time,
then gradually catch up to the magnetic heading of the
aircraft.

Pg. 65
Aircraft Instruments
Aviation Seminars

4888. IRA 4893. IRA

On what headings will the magnetic compass read most What should be the indication on the magnetic compass
accurately during a level 360° turn, with a bank of as you roll into a standard rate turn to the left from a west
approximately 15°? heading in the Northern Hemisphere?
A) 135° through 225°. A) The compass will initially indicate a turn to the right.
B) 90° and 270°. B) The compass will remain on west for a short time,
C) 180° and 0°. then gradually catch up to the magnetic heading of the
aircraft.
4889. IRA C) The compass will indicate the approximate correct
What causes the northerly turning error in a magnetic magnetic heading if the roll into the turn is smooth.
compass?
A) Coriolis force at the mid-latitudes. 4895. IRA
B) Centrifugal force acting on the compass card. If a half-standard rate turn is maintained, how long would
C) The magnetic dip characteristic. it take to turn 360°?
A) 1 minute.
4890. IRA B) 2 minutes.
What should be the indication on the magnetic compass C) 4 minutes
when you roll into a standard rate turn to the left from a
south heading in the Northern Hemisphere? 4896. IRA
A) The compass will indicate a turn to the left, but at a If a standard rate turn is maintained, how long would it
faster rate than is actually occurring. take to turn 180°?
B) The compass will initially indicate a turn to the right. A) 1 minute.
C) The compass will remain on south for a short time, B) 2 minutes.
then gradually catch up to the magnetic heading of the C) 3 minutes.
aircraft.
4897. IRA
4891. IRA If a half-standard rate turn is maintained, how much time
What should be the indication on the magnetic compass would be required to turn clockwise from a heading of
as you roll into a standard rate turn to the right from a 090° to a heading of 180°?
westerly heading in the Northern Hemisphere? A) 30 seconds.
A) The compass will initially show a turn in the opposite B) 1 minute.
direction, then turn to a northerly indication but lagging C) 1 minute 30 seconds.
behind the actual heading of the aircraft.
B) The compass will remain on a westerly heading for a 4898. IRA
short time, then gradually catch up to the actual heading During a constant-bank level turn, what effect would an
of the aircraft. increase in airspeed have on the rate and radius of turn?
C) The compass will indicate the approximate correct A) Rate of turn would increase, and radius of turn would
magnetic heading if the roll into the turn is smooth. increase.
B) Rate of turn would decrease, and radius of turn would
4892. IRA decrease.
What should be the indication on the magnetic compass C) Rate of turn would decrease, and radius of turn
as you roll into a standard rate turn to the right from a would increase.
northerly heading in the Northern Hemisphere?
A) The compass will indicate a turn to the right, but at 4899. IRA
a faster rate than is actually occurring. Conditions that determine pitch attitude required to
B) The compass will initially indicate a turn to the left. maintain level flight are;
C) The compass will remain on north for a short time, A) flight path, wind velocity, and angle of attack.
then gradually catch up to the magnetic heading of the B) airspeed, air density, wing design and angle of attack.
aircraft. C) relative wind, pressure altitude, and vertical
lift component.

4900. IRA
Errors in both pitch and bank indication on an attitude
indicator are usually at a maximum as the aircraft rolls
out of a;
A) 180° turn.
B) 270° turn.
C) 360° turn.

Pg. 66
 Aircraft Instruments
Aviation Seminars

4902. IRA 4910. IRA

One characteristic that a properly functioning gyro The local altimeter setting should be used by all pilots in
depends upon for operation is the; a particular area, primarily to provide for
A) ability to resist precession 90° to any applied A) the cancellation of altimeter error due to
force. nonstandard temperatures aloft.
B) resistance to deflection of the spinning wheel or B) better vertical separation of aircraft.
disc. C) more accurate terrain clearance in mountainous
C) deflecting force developed from the angular areas.
velocity of the spinning wheel.
4911. IRA
4904. IRA At an altitude of 6,500 feet MSL, the current altimeter
If a standard rate turn is maintained, how much time setting is 30.42” Hg. The pressure altitude would be
would be required to turn to the left from a heading of approximately
090° to a heading of 300°? A) 7,500 feet.
A) 30 seconds. B) 6,000 feet.
B) 40 seconds. C) 6,500 feet.
C) 50 seconds.
4912. IRA
4905. IRA The pressure altitude at a given location is
If a half-standard rate turn is maintained, how long would indicated on the altimeter after the altimeter is set
it take to turn 135°? to;
A) 1 minute. A) the field elevation.
B) 1 minute 20 seconds. B) 29.92” Hg.
C) 1 minute 30 seconds. C) the current altimeter setting.

4906. IRA 4913. IRA

Approximately what percent of the indicated If the outside air temperature increases during a flight at
vertical speed should be used to determine the constant power and at a constant indicated altitude, the
number of feet to lead the level-off from a climb to true airspeed will
a specific altitude? A) decrease and true altitude will increase.
A) 10 percent. B) increase and true altitude will decrease.
B) 20 percent. C) increase and true altitude will increase.
C) 25 percent.
4914. IRA
4908. IRA Rate of turn can be increased and radius of turn
If, while in level flight, it becomes necessary to use an decreased by
alternate source of static pressure vented inside the A) decreasing airspeed and shallowing the bank.
airplane, which of the following should the pilot expect? B) decreasing airspeed and increasing the bank.
A) The altimeter to read lower than normal. C) increasing airspeed and increasing the bank.
B) The vertical speed to momentarily show a
descent. 4915. IRA
C) The vertical speed to momentarily show a climb. The primary reason the angle of attack must be
increased, to maintain a constant altitude during a
4909. IRA coordinated turn, is because the
During flight, if the pitot tube becomes clogged with ice, A) thrust is acting in a different direction, causing a
which of the following instruments would be affected? reduction in airspeed and loss of lift.
A) The airspeed indicator only. B) vertical component of lift has decreased as the
B) The airspeed indicator and the altimeter. result of the bank.
C) The airspeed indicator, altimeter, and Vertical C) use of ailerons has increased the drag.
Speed Indicator.

Pg. 67
Aircraft Instruments
Aviation Seminars

4916. IRA 4924. IRA

If severe turbulence is encountered during your IFR flight, To enter a constant-airspeed descent from level-cruising
the airplane should be slowed to the design maneuvering flight, and maintain cruising airspeed, the pilot should;
speed because the; A) first adjust the pitch attitude to a descent using the
A) maneuverability of the airplane will be increased. attitude indicator as a reference, then adjust the power to
B) amount of excess load that can be imposed on the maintain the cruising airspeed.
wing will be decreased. B) first reduce power, then adjust the pitch using the
C) airplane will stall at a lower angle of attack, giving an attitude indicator as a reference to establish a specific
increased margin of safety. rate on the VSI.
C) simultaneously reduce power and adjust the pitch
4917. IRA using the attitude indicator as a reference to maintain the
When a climb or descent through an inversion or wind- cruising airspeed.
shear zone is being performed, the pilot should be alert
for which of the following change in airplane 4927. IRA
performance? During recoveries from unusual attitudes, level flight is
A) A fast rate of climb and a slow rate of descent. attained the instant;
B) A sudden change in airspeed. A) the horizon bar on the attitude indicator is exactly
C) A sudden surge of thrust. overlapped with the miniature airplane.
B) a zero rate of climb is indicated on the VSI.
4918. IRA C) the altimeter and airspeed needles stop prior to
When an airplane is accelerated, some attitude indicators reversing their direction of movement.
will precess and incorrectly indicate a
A) climb. 4928. IRA
B) descent. While cruising at 160 knots, you wish to establish a climb
C) right turn. at 130 knots. When entering the climb (full panel), it is
proper to make the initial pitch change by increasing back
4919. IRA elevator pressure until the;
When an airplane is decelerated, some attitude indicators A) attitude indicator, airspeed, and vertical speed indicate
will precess and incorrectly indicate a a climb.
B) vertical speed indication reaches the predetermined
A) left turn. rate of climb.
B) climb. C) attitude indicator shows the approximate pitch attitude
C) descent. appropriate for the 130-knot climb.

4920. IRA 4930. IRA

For maintaining level flight at constant thrust, which If while in level flight, it becomes necessary to use an
instrument would be the least appropriate for determining alternate source of static pressure vented inside the
the need for a pitch change? airplane, which of the following variations in instrument
A) Altimeter. indications should the pilot expect?
B) VSI. A) The altimeter will read lower than normal, airspeed
C) Attitude indicator. lower than normal, and the VSI will momentarily show a
descent.
4921. IRA B) The altimeter will read higher than normal, airspeed
The displacement of a turn coordinator during a greater than normal, and the VSI will momentarily show
coordinated turn will; a climb.
A) indicate the angle of bank. C) The altimeter will read lower than normal, airspeed
B) remain constant for a given bank regardless of greater than normal, and the VSI will momentarily show
airspeed. a climb and then a descent.
C) increase as angle of bank increases.
4931. IRA
4922. IRA (Refer to figure 144.) What changes in control
Altimeter setting is the value to which the scale of the displacement should be made so that “2” would result in
pressure altimeter is set so the altimeter indicates a coordinated standard rate turn?
A) pressure altitude at sea level. A) Increase left rudder and increase rate of turn.
B) true altitude at field elevation. B) Increase left rudder and decrease rate of turn.
C) pressure altitude at field elevation. C) Decrease left rudder and decrease angle of bank.

Pg. 68
 Aircraft Instruments
Aviation Seminars

4932. IRA 4941. IRA

(Refer to figure 144.) Which illustration indicates a (Refer to figure 150.) What is the flight attitude? One
coordinated turn? instrument has malfunctioned.
A) 3. A) Climbing turn to the right.
B) 1. B) Climbing turn to the left.
C) 2. C) Descending turn to the right.

4933. IRA 4942. IRA

(Refer to figure 144.) Which illustration indicates a (Refer to figure 151.) What is the flight attitude? One
skidding turn? instrument has malfunctioned.
A) 2. A) Climbing turn to the right.
B) 1. B) Level turn to the right.
C) 3. C) Level turn to the left.

4934. IRA
(Refer to figure 144.) What changes in control
displacement should be made so that “1” would result in
a coordinated standard rate turn?
A) Increase right rudder and decrease rate of turn.
B) Increase right rudder and increase rate of turn.
C) Decrease right rudder and increase angle of bank

4935. IRA
(Refer to figure 144.) Which illustration indicates a
slipping turn?
A) 1.
B) 3.
C) 2.

4937. IRA
(Refer to figure 146.) Identify the system that has failed
and determine a corrective action to return the airplane to
straight-and-level flight.
A) Static/pitot system is blocked; lower the nose and
level the wings to level-flight attitude by use of attitude
indicator.
B) Vacuum system has failed; reduce power, roll left to
level wings, and pitch-up to reduce airspeed.
C) Electrical system has failed; reduce power, roll left to
level wings, and raise the nose to reduce airspeed.

4939. IRA
(Refer to figure 148.) What is the flight attitude? One
system which transmits information to the instruments
has malfunctioned.
A) Climbing turn to left.
B) Climbing turn to right.
C) Level turn to left.

4940. IRA
(Refer to figure 149.) What is the flight attitude? One
system which transmits information to the instruments
has malfunctioned.
A) Level turn to the right.
B) Level turn to the left.
C) Straight-and-level flight.
IFR Flying Fundamentals
Aviation Seminars
IFR FLYING FUNDAMENTALS
Unusual Attitude Recovery
Attitude Instrument Flying
For a NOSE LOW recovery, Reduce power, Level the
The three skills used in instrument flying are (given in wings, Pitch attitude to level flight. (Figure 145)
the correct sequence): Cross-Check, Instrument
Interpretation, and Aircraft Control.

For a NOSE HIGH recovery, Add power, Lower nose,

Level wings and return to original attitude and
To level-off from a descent, lead the desired heading. (Figure 147)
altitude by 10% of the vertical speed, or about
50 feet.

Altitude corrections of less than 100 feet, use only a

half bar on the attitude indicator.

Addition of power should be made 100 to 150 feet

above the desired altitude.

If you wish to establish a climb at a slower speed,

increase back elevator pressure until the attitude
indicator shows the approximate pitch attitude for the
climb airspeed.

When tracking inbound on a localizer, drift corrections

should be accurately established before reaching the
outer marker and completion of the approach should
be accomplished with heading corrections no greater
than 2°.

The rate of descent on the glide slope is dependent Recovering from an unusual flight attitude without the
upon the ground speed. aid of the attitude indicator, approximate level pitch
attitude is reached when the airspeed and altimeter
During a precision radar or ILS approach, the rate of stop their movement and the VSI reverses its trend.
descent required to remain on the glide slope will
need to increase as ground speed increases.

Pg. 70
 IFR Flying Fundamentals
Aviation Seminars
Haze creates the illusion of being a greater distance
Physiological Effects than actual from other traffic, and from the runway,
and causes pilots to fly a lower approach.
Hypoxia is a lack of oxygen. Can experience tunnel
vision and cyanosis (discoloration) Symptoms may be Cockpit Lighting and Scanning for Traffic
difficult to recognize before the pilot’s reactions are
affected. Coloration shown on maps is HIGHLY affected by the
use of direct red lighting. Anything red on the map will
Hyperventilation is a lack of carbon dioxide as a result virtually be invisible to the pilot trying to read it.
of over-breathing and exhaling too fast. To remedy,
consciously breathe at a slower rate or into a bag. The use of regular white light, such as a flashlight, will
impair night vision.
Spatial Disorientation
To scan for traffic to the right and left in straight and
Spatial disorientation is more likely if you use body level flight, systematically focus on different segments
signals to interpret flight attitude. If a pilot experiences of the sky for short intervals.
these false sensations, they must be suppressed and
complete reliance placed on the indications of the Hazards to Safe Flight
flight instruments.
Pilots on IFR flights seeking ATC in-flight weather
An instrument pilot can best overcome spatial avoidance assistance should keep in mind that ATC
disorientation by properly reading and interpreting the radar limitations and frequency congestion may limit
flight instruments and act accordingly. the controllers capability to provide this service.

A pilot often interprets centrifugal force as a sensation The radarscope of ATC provides no assurance of
of rising or falling. avoiding instrument weather conditions.

Abrupt head movement during a prolonged constant If a pilot should unintentionally penetrate an
rate turn in IMC or simulated instrument conditions embedded thunderstorm, set power for recommended
can cause Coriolis Illusion. turbulence penetration airspeed and attempt to
maintain a level flight attitude best you can without
An abrupt change from climb to straight-and-level over stressing the airframe.
flight can create the illusion of tumbling backwards.
Light turbulence is defined as turbulence that
A rapid acceleration during takeoff can create the momentarily causes slight, erratic changes in attitude
illusion of being in a nose-up attitude. Navy pilots and/or altitude.
flying off aircraft carriers must combat this type of
disorientation. Risk Management

Optical Illusions An aircraft which is equipped with an Electronic Flight

Display (EFD) can offer new capabilities and simplify
A narrower-than-usual runway can create the illusion the basic flying task. But there is risk to this newer
that the aircraft is at a higher altitude than it actually is capability, such as complacency.
flying.
A pilot who does not recognize this illusion will fly a Automation in aircraft has proven to present new
lower approach, increasing the risk of hitting ground hazards in its limitations.
objects or landing short of the runway.
When a pilot believes advanced avionics enable
An up-sloping runway , up-sloping terrain or both can operations closer to personal or environmental limits,
create the illusion that the aircraft is flying higher than risk is increased.
it actually is.
A pilot who does not recognize this illusion will fly a
lower approach. This is the same effect as a
narrower-than-usual runway.

A sloping cloud formation, an obscured horizon, and a

dark scene spread with ground lights and stars can
create an illusion known as False Horizons.

Pg. 71
IFR Flying Fundamentals
Aviation Seminars
NTSB Reporting 4807. IRA
An abrupt change from climb to straight-and-level
NTSB Part 830 contains regulations pertaining to flight can create the illusion of
notification and reporting of aircraft accidents, A) tumbling backwards.
incidents and overdue aircraft, preservation of aircraft B) a nose-up attitude.
wreckage after a crash and other areas. C) a descent with the wings level.

If you cannot avoid penetrating a thunderstorm, set 4808. IRA

power for recommended turbulence penetration A rapid acceleration during takeoff can create the
airspeed and attempt to maintain a level flight illusion of
attitude. A) spinning in the opposite direction.
B) being in a nose-up attitude.
Turbulence that momentarily causes slight, erratic C) diving into the ground.
changes in altitude and/or attitude is defined as light
turbulence. 4809. IRA
Why is hypoxia particularly dangerous during flights
with one pilot?
TEST QUESTIONS (Use Test Supplement 8080-3F A) Night vision may be so impaired that the pilot
cannot see other aircraft.
NOTE: CORRECT ANSWER IN BOLD ITALICS B) Symptoms of hypoxia may be difficult to
recognize before the pilot’s reactions are affected.
4802. IRA C) The pilot may not be able to control the aircraft
Without visual aid, a pilot often interprets centrifugal even if using oxygen.
force as a sensation of;
A) rising or falling. 4810. IRA
B) turning. The sensations which lead to spatial disorientation
C) motion reversal. during instrument flight conditions;
A) are frequently encountered by beginning
4803. IRA instrument pilots, but never by pilots with moderate
Due to visual illusion, when landing on a narrower- instrument experience.
than-usual runway, the aircraft will appear to be; B) occur, in most instances, during the initial period
A) higher than actual, leading to a lower-than-normal of transition from visual to instrument flight.
approach. C) must be suppressed and complete reliance
B) lower than actual, leading to a higher-than-normal placed on the indications of the flight instruments.
approach.
C) higher than actual, leading to a higher-than- 4811. IRA
normal approach. How can an instrument pilot best overcome spatial
disorientation?
4804. IRA A) Rely on kinesthetic sense.
What visual illusion creates the same effect as a B) Use a very rapid cross-check.
narrower-than-usual runway? C) Read and interpret the flight instruments, and act
A) An up sloping runway. accordingly.
B) A wider-than-usual runway.
C) A down sloping runway. 4812. IRA
Which statement is correct regarding the use of
4805. IRA cockpit lighting for night flight?
Abrupt head movement during a prolonged constant A) Reducing the lighting intensity to a minimum level
rate turn in IMC or simulated instrument conditions will eliminate blind spots.
can cause; B) The use of regular white light, such as a
A) coriolis illusion. flashlight, will impair night adaptation.
B) false horizon. C) Coloration shown on maps is least affected by the
C) elevator illusion. use of direct red lighting.

4806. IRA 4813. IRA

A sloping cloud formation, an obscured horizon, and a How can an instrument pilot best overcome spatial
dark scene spread with ground lights and stars can disorientation?
create an illusion known as; A) Use a very rapid cross-check.
A) elevator illusions. B) Properly interpret the flight instruments and act
B) auto kinesis. accordingly.
C) false horizons. C) Avoid banking in excess of 30°.

Pg. 72
 IFR Flying Fundamentals
Aviation Seminars
4855. IRA
4814. IRA What are the three fundamental skills involved in
A pilot is more subject to spatial disorientation if attitude instrument flying?
A) kinesthetic senses are ignored. A) Instrument interpretation, trim application, and
B) eyes are moved often in the process of cross- aircraft control.
checking the flight instruments. B) Cross-check, instrument interpretation, and
C) body signals are used to interpret flight attitude. aircraft control.
C) Cross check, emphasis, and aircraft control.
4815. IRA
Which procedure is recommended to prevent or 4859. IRA
overcome spatial disorientation? What is the third fundamental skill in attitude
A) Reduce head and eye movements to the extent instrument flying?
possible. A) Instrument cross-check.
B) Rely on the kinesthetic sense. B) Power control.
C) Rely on the indications of the flight instruments. C) Aircraft control.

4816. IRA 4862. IRA

What action should be taken if hyperventilation is What is the first fundamental skill in attitude
suspected? instrument flying?
A) Breathe at a slower rate by taking very deep A) Aircraft control.
breaths. B) Instrument cross-check.
B) Consciously breathe at a slower rate than normal. C) Instrument interpretation.
C) Consciously force yourself to take deep breaths
and breathe at a faster rate than normal. 4925. IRA
To level off at an airspeed higher than the descent
4818. IRA speed, the addition of power should be made,
Which technique should a pilot use to scan for traffic assuming a 500 FPM rate of descent, at
to the right and left during straight-and-level flight? approximately;
A) Systematically focus on different segments of the A) 50 to 100 feet above the desired altitude.
sky for short intervals. B) 100 to 150 feet above the desired altitude.
B) Concentrate on relative movement detected in the C) 150 to 200 feet above the desired altitude.
peripheral vision area.
C) Continuous sweeping of the windshield from right 4926. IRA
to left. To level off from a descent maintaining the
descending airspeed, the pilot should lead the desired
4819. IRA altitude by approximately;
What effect does haze have on the ability to see A) 20 feet.
traffic or terrain features during flight? B) 50 feet.
A) Haze causes the eyes to focus at infinity, making C) 60 feet.
terrain features harder to see.
B) The eyes tend to overwork in haze and do not 4146. IRA
detect relative movement easily. Which procedure is recommended if a pilot should
C) Haze creates the illusion of being a greater unintentionally penetrate embedded thunderstorm
distance than actual from the runway, and causes activity?
pilots to fly a lower approach. A) Reverse aircraft heading or proceed toward an
area of known VFR conditions.
4840. IRA B) Reduce airspeed to maneuvering speed and
What is the correct sequence in which to use the maintain a constant altitude.
three skills used in instrument flying? C) Set power for recommended turbulence
A) Aircraft control, cross-check, and instrument penetration airspeed and attempt to maintain
interpretation. a level flight attitude.
B) Instrument interpretation , cross-check , and
aircraft control. 4160. IRA
C) Cross-check, instrument interpretation, and aircraft If you fly into severe turbulence, which flight condition
control. should you attempt to maintain?
A) Constant airspeed (VA).
B) Level flight attitude.
C) Constant altitude and constant airspeed.

Pg. 73
IFR Flying Fundamentals
Aviation Seminars

4210. IRA 4772. IRA

A pilot reporting turbulence that momentarily causes During a precision radar or ILS approach, the rate of
slight, erratic changes in altitude and/or attitude descent required to remain on the glide slope will
should report it as; A) remain the same regardless of groundspeed.
A) light turbulence. B) increase as the groundspeed increases.
B) moderate turbulence. C) decrease as the groundspeed increases.
C) light chop.
4773. IRA
4468. IRA When tracking inbound on the localizer, which of the
Pilots on FR flights seeking ATC in flight weather following is the proper procedure regarding drift
avoidance assistance should keep in mind that; corrections?
A) ATC radar limitations and, frequency congestion A) Drift corrections should be accurately established
may limit the controllers capability to provide this before reaching the outer marker and completion of
service. the approach should be accomplished with heading
B) circumnavigating severe weather can only be corrections no greater than 2°.
accommodated in the en route areas away from B) Drift corrections should be made in 5° increments
terminals because of congestion. after passing the outer marker.
C) ATC Narrow Band Radar does not provide the C) Drift corrections should be made in 10° increments
controller with weather intensity capability. after passing the outer marker.

4092. IRA 4875. IRA

Which is true regarding the use of airborne weather- Which is the correct sequence for recovery from a
avoidance radar for the recognition of certain weather spiraling, nose-low, increasing airspeed, unusual flight
conditions? attitude?
A) The radarscope provides no assurance of A) Increase pitch attitude, reduce power, and level
avoiding instrument weather conditions. wings.
B) The avoidance of hail is assured when flying . B) Reduce power, correct the bank attitude, and raise
between and just clear of the most intense the nose to a level attitude.
echoes. C) Reduce power, raise the nose to level attitude,
C) The clear area between intense echoes indicates and correct the bank attitude..
that visual sighting of storms can be maintained
when flying between the echoes. 4936. IRA
(Refer to figure 145.) What is the correct sequence for
4745. IRA recovery from the unusual attitude indicated?
The rate of descent required to stay on the ILS glide A) Reduce power, increase back elevator pressure,
slope and level the wings.
A) must be increased if the groundspeed is B) Reduce power, level the wings, bring pitch attitude
decreased. to level flight.
B) will remain constant if the indicated airspeed C) Level the wings, raise the nose of the aircraft to
remains constant. level flight attitude, and obtain desired airspeed.
C) must be decreased if the groundspeed is
decreased. 4938. IRA
(Refer to figure 147.) Which is the correct sequence
4748. IRA for recovery from the unusual attitude indicated?
To remain on the ILS glidepath, the rate of descent A) Level wings, add power, lower nose, descend to
must be original attitude, and heading.
A) decreased if the airspeed is increased. B) Add power, lower nose, level wings, return to
B) decreased if the groundspeed is increased. original attitude and heading.
C) increased if the groundspeed is increased. C) Stop turn by raising right wing and add power at
the same time, lower the nose, and return to original
4752. IRA attitude and heading.
The rate of descent on the glide slope is dependent
upon 4976. IRA
A) true airspeed. When a pilot believes advanced avionics enable
B) calibrated airspeed. operations closer to personal or environmental limits;
C) groundspeed. A) greater utilization of the aircraft is achieved.
B) risk is increased.
C) risk is decreased.

Pg. 74
 IFR Flying Fundamentals
Aviation Seminars

4977. IRA
Automation in aircraft has proven;
A) to present new hazards in its limitations.
B) that automation is basically perfect.
C) effective in mitigating accidents.

4977-1 IRA
An aircraft which is equipped with an Electronic Flight
Display (EFD) can;
A) offer new capabilities and simplify the basic flying
task.
B) compensate for an airman's lack of skill or
knowledge.
C) improve flight awareness by allowing the pilot to
simply watch for alerts.

4978. IRA
The lighter workloads associated with glass (digital)
flight instrumentation;
A) are instrumental in decreasing flightcrew fatigue.
B) have proven to increase safety in operations.
C) may lead to complacency by the flightcrew.

4978-1. IRA
The advancement of avionics in light general aviation
airplanes has enhanced situational awareness for
properly trained pilots. However, there is concern that
this technology could lead to;
A) complacency.
B) fatigue.
C) resignation.

4088. IRA
Which publication covers the procedures required for
aircraft accident and incident reporting responsibilities
for pilots?
A) FAR Part 61.
B) FAR Part 91.
C) NTSB Part 830.

Pg. 75
Weather Theory
Aviation Seminars

WEATHER THEORY

Temperature, Pressure and Precipitation Above 2,000 AGL, wind flow is parallel to the
isobars, and when the isobars are closer together,
The primary cause of all changes in the earth’s the pressure gradient is steeper and the winds
weather is variation of solar energy received by are stronger.
the earth’s regions.
Surface friction causes surface winds to flow
The average (Standard) sea level temperature is across the isobars at an angle, rather than
15 degrees Celsius, decreasing 2 degrees parallel to the isobars.
Celsius per 1000 feet. This decrease is called the
Standard Temperature Lapse Rate. Unsaturated Fronts
air flowing upslope will cool at 3 degrees per 1000
feet. The passage of any front always produces a wind
and/or temperature change. Frontal waves are
The average (Standard) sea level pressure is areas of low pressure that develop with slow
29.92 inches Hg., or 1013.2 millibars. Pressure moving cold fronts or stationary fronts.
decreases 1 inch per 1000 feet.
Stability
The tropopause is the boundary between the
troposphere and the stratosphere. The average The stability of air is determined by the ambient
height is 37,000 feet. The tropopause contains an (actual) temperature lapse rate. It is a
abrupt change in temperature lapse rate. In the measurement of the vertical movement of the
stratosphere, there are relatively small changes in atmosphere.
temperature with an increase in altitude.
The lower the temperature lapse rate (< 2°) the
The jet stream is a trough of high speed winds (50 more STABLE the air.
knots or greater) Jetstream winds are weaker and
farther north in the summer. Stable air forced upward will remain stable and
produce layer-like stratus clouds with steady
The amount of moisture air can hold largely precipitation and little vertical development.
depends on the temperature. Warm air can hold
more moisture than cold air. Upward currents
enhance the growth rate of precipitation

Precipitation, clouds, and poor visibility can occur

when the air is cooled to its dew point (the
temperature at which the air is saturated)

Steady Precipitation refers to continuous rain

most often from widespread stratus type clouds.

Showery Precipitation refers to rain showers

found most often under isolated cumuliform type
clouds.

Pressure Systems

An air mass is a body of air that covers an

extensive area and has fairly uniform properties of
temperature and moisture.
The higher the temperature lapse rate (2>
Pressure gradient toward a low pressure area, degrees) the more UNSTABLE the atmosphere.
and coriolis force that deflects winds to the right,
counteract to cause winds to flow parallel to the Unstable air forced upward by convective activity
isobars. (heating) or (orographic) produce cumuliform
clouds with considerable vertical development
and associated severe turbulence.

Pg. 76
 Weather Theory
Aviation Seminars

Cloud Groups (Family)

Temperature Inversions
The 4 groups (or family) of clouds are High,
A temperature inversion exists where there is an Middle, Low and those with Considerable Vertical
increase in temperature as altitude is increased. Development.

When this happens, cold air stays near the Expect turbulence below cumulus clouds.
surface (does not rise) making the air super
stable. High clouds are small ice crystals and least likely
to contribute to structural icing on an aircraft.
Expect smooth air and poor visibility due to fog,
haze, or low clouds. Cumulonimbus Clouds (CB’s)

The most frequent type of ground based inversion The three ingredients needed to form a
is that produced by ground radiation on clear, cool thunderstorm are UNSTABLE air, high moisture
nights when the wind is light. content, and a lifting action.

Lenticular Clouds Thunderstorms ALWAYS produce lightning.

Nimbus means rain cloud.
(ACSL) Altocumulus standing lenticular clouds are
almond or lens-shaped clouds that show little or The three stages of a thunderstorm:
no movement, but contain very strong winds and
turbulence. Stage One - CUMULUS (building) - Updrafts
extend from the surface to above the cloud tops.
Wind Shear Stage Two - MATURE - Rain begins to fall from
the cloud base..
Wind shear is a change in wind direction and/ or Stage Three - DISSIPATING - Severe
speed in a horizontal or vertical direction. downdrafts.

It may be encountered during periods of strong Squall Line Thunderstorms

temperature inversions and near thunderstorms.
They most often develop ahead of a cold front,
With a warm front, the most critical period is and produce the most severe conditions including
before the front passes the airport. heavy hail and destructive winds.

During a climb or descent through an inversion, Squalls are sudden increases in windspeed of at
be alert for a sudden change in airspeed. least 16 knots, rising to 22 knots or more, lasting
for at least 1 minute.

Embedded thunderstorms are obscured by

massive cloud layers and cannot be seen.

Pg. 77
Weather Theory
Aviation Seminars

Microbursts

Strong downdrafts from a thunderstorm may

reach 6,000 FPM, and seldom last more than 15
minutes.

At position 1, expect a performance increase

without a change in pitch or power.

At positions 3 and 4, expect the most severe

downdraft.

At position 4, expect decreasing performance with

a tailwind and downdraft.

The tailplane is often the first place ice forms.

Once detected RETRACT FLAPS, ADD POWER.

A ROLLING condition indicates main wing stall.

Set power and angle of attack (AOA) for a
controlled descent.

Freezing Precipitation
An aircraft that encounters a 45 knot headwind
within a microburst may expect a total of 90 knot Freezing rain occurs where rain is falling into
wind-shear across the microburst freezing temperatures. Temperatures are above
freezing at some higher altitude.
Fog
Freezing rain causes the highest rate of ice
The most frequent type is Radiation Fog. It occurs accumulation.
with clear sky, little or no wind, small temperature/
dew point spread, and over a land surface. Ice pellets are freezing rain that has frozen, and
indicates freezing rain at a higher altitude.
Advection Fog requires wind. It occurs in coastal Wet snow is an indication that the temperature is
areas as the result of an addition of moisture, above freezing at your altitude.
when warm air flows from a body of water over a
colder surface. Frost is formed if the surface temperature of the
airplane is below dew point and the dew point is
Fog is usually prevalent in industrial areas below freezing.
because of an abundance of condensation nuclei
from combustion products. Frost causes early airflow separation, resulting in
a loss of lift.
Structural icing
Ice on the upper surface of a wing can reduce lift
Structural icing has the most hazardous aspects by as much as 30 percent and increase drag by
because of loss of control due to aerodynamic 40 percent.
degradation from a build up of ice on wings and
control surfaces.

Tailplane icing is detected by a sudden change in

elevator force or un-commanded nose-down pitch
condition.

Pg. 78
 Weather Theory
Aviation Seminars

TEST QUESTIONS (Use Test Supplement 4099. IRA

8080-3F) The presence of ice pellets at the surface is
evidence that
NOTE: CORRECT ANSWER IN BOLD ITALICS A) there are thunderstorms in the area.
B) a cold front has passed.
4094. IRA C) there is freezing rain at a higher altitude.
A common type of ground or surface based
temperature inversion is that which is produced 4100. IRA
by; Which conditions result in the formation of frost?
A) warm air being lifted rapidly aloft in the A) The temperature of the collecting surface is at
vicinity of mountainous terrain. or below freezing and small droplets of moisture
B) the movement of colder air over warm air, are falling.
or the movement of warm air under cold air. B) When dew forms and the temperature is below
C) ground radiation on clear, cool nights when the freezing.
wind is light. C) Temperature of the collecting surface is below
the dewpoint of surrounding air and the
4095. IRA dew point is colder than freezing.
How much colder than standard temperature is
the actual temperature at 9,000 feet, as indicated 4101. IRA
in the following excerpt from the Winds and To which meteorological condition does the term
Temperature Aloft Forecast? “dew point” refer?
A) The temperature to which air must be cooled to
become saturated.
B) The temperature at which condensation and
evaporation are equal.
C) The temperature at which dew will
always form.

4102. IRA
What temperature condition is indicated if wet
A) 3° C. snow is encountered at your flight altitude?
B) 10° C. A) The temperature is above freezing at your
C) 7° C. altitude.
B) The temperature is below freezing at your
4096. IRA altitude.
The primary cause of all changes in the Earth’s C) You are flying from a warm air mass into a cold
weather is; air mass.
A) variation of solar energy received by the
Earth’s regions. 4103. IRA
B) changes in air pressure over the Earth’s The amount of water vapor which air can hold
surface. largely depends on;
C) movement of the air masses. A) relative humidity.
B) air temperature.
4097. IRA C) stability of air.
A characteristic of the stratosphere is
A) an overall decrease of temperature with an 4104. IRA
increase in altitude. Clouds, fog, or dew will always form when
B) a relatively even base altitude of approximately A) water vapor condenses.
35,000 feet. B) water vapor is present.
C) relatively small changes in temperature with an C) the temperature and dew point are equal.
increase in altitude.
4098. IRA 4105. IRA
Steady precipitation, in contrast to showers, What causes surface winds to flow across the
preceding a front is an indication of; isobars at an angle rather than parallel to the
A) stratiform clouds with moderate turbulence. isobars?
B) cummuliform clouds with little or no turbulence. A) Coriolis force.
C) stratiform clouds with little or no turbulence. B) Surface friction.
C) The greater density of the air at the surface.

Pg. 79
Weather Theory
Aviation Seminars

4106. IRA 4115. IRA

Winds at 5,000 feet AGL on a particular flight are What type of clouds will be formed if very stable
southwesterly while most of the surface winds are moist air is forced upslope?
southerly. This difference in direction is primarily A) First stratified clouds and then vertical clouds.
due to; B) Vertical clouds with increasing height.
A) a stronger pressure gradient at C) Stratified clouds with little
higher altitudes. vertical development.
B) friction between the wind and the surface.
C) stronger Coriolis force at the surface. 4117. IRA
Which is a characteristic of stable air?
4107. IRA A) Fair weather cumulus clouds.
What relationship exists between the winds at B) Stratiform clouds.
2,000 feet above the surface and the surface C) Unlimited visibility.
winds?
A) The winds at 2,000 feet and the surface winds 4116. IRA
flow in the same direction, but the surface winds The general characteristics of unstable air are;
are weaker due to friction. A) good visibility, showery precipitation, and
B) The winds at 2,000 feet tend to parallel the cumuliform-type clouds.
isobars while the surface winds cross the isobars B) good visibility, steady precipitation,
at an angle toward lower pressure and and stratiform type clouds.
are weaker. C) poor visibility, intermittent precipitation, and
C) The surface winds tend to veer to the right of cumuliform-type clouds.
the winds at 2,000 feet and are usually weaker.
4118. IRA
4108. IRA What type clouds can be expected when an
Which force, in the Northern Hemisphere, acts at unstable air mass is forced to ascend a mountain
a right angle to the wind and deflects it to the right slope?
until parallel to the isobars? A) Layered clouds with little vertical development.
A) Centrifugal. B) Stratified clouds with considerable associated
B) Pressure gradient. turbulence.
C) Coriolis. C) Clouds with extensive vertical development.

4112. IRA 4119. IRA

The most frequent type of ground or surface What are the characteristics of stable air?
based temperature inversion is that produced by; A) Good visibility, steady precipitation,
A) radiation on a clear, relatively still night. and stratus type clouds.
B) warm air being lifted rapidly aloft in the vicinity B) Poor visibility, intermittent precipitation, and
of mountainous terrain. cumulus type clouds.
C) the movement of colder air under warm air, or C) Poor visibility, steady precipitation, and stratus
the movement of warm air over cold air. type clouds.

4113. IRA 4120. IRA

If the air temperature is +8 °C at an elevation of What are some characteristics of unstable air?
1,350 feet and a standard (average) temperature A) Nimbostratus clouds and good
lapse rate exists, what will be the approximate surface visibility.
freezing level? B) Turbulence and poor surface visibility.
A) 3,350 feet MSL. C) Turbulence and good surface visibility.
B) 5,350 feet MSL.
C) 9,350 feet MSL. 4121. IRA
Stability can be determined from which
4114. IRA measurement of the atmosphere?
What feature is associated with a temperature A) Low-level winds.
inversion? B) Ambient lapse rate.
A) A stable layer of air. C) Atmospheric pressure.
B) An unstable layer of air.
C) Air mass thunderstorms.

Pg. 80
 Weather Theory
Aviation Seminars

4122. IRA 4129. IRA

What determines the structure or type of clouds Which clouds have the greatest turbulence?
which form as a result of air being forced to A) Towering cumulus.
ascend? B) Cumulonimbus.
A) The method by which the air is lifted. C) Altocumulus castellanus.
B) The stability of the air before lifting occurs.
C) The amount of condensation nuclei 4130. IRA
present after lifting occurs. Standing lenticular clouds, in mountainous areas,
indicate
4123. IRA A) an inversion.
Which of the following combinations of weather B) unstable air.
producing variables would likely result in C) turbulence.
cumuliform type clouds, good visibility, rain
showers, and possible clear type icing in clouds? 4131. IRA
A) Unstable, moist air, and no lifting mechanism. The suffix ‘nimbus’, used in naming clouds,
B) Stable, dry air, and orographic lifting. means a;
C) Unstable, moist air, and orographic lifting. A) cloud with extensive vertical development.
B) rain cloud.
4124. IRA C) dark massive, towering cloud.
Unsaturated air flowing upslope will cool at the
rate of approximately (dry adiabatic lapse rate) 4132. IRA
A) 3°C per 1,000 feet. The presence of standing lenticular altocumulus
B) 2°C per 1,000 feet. clouds is a good indication of
C) 2.5°C per 1,000 feet. A) a jetstream.
B) very strong turbulence.
4125. IRA C) heavy icing conditions.
A temperature inversion will normally form only;
A) in stable air. 4134. IRA
B) in unstable air. What are the four families of clouds?
C) when a stratiform layer merges with a A) Stratus, cumulus, nimbus, and cirrus.
cumuliform mass. B) Clouds formed by updrafts, fronts,
cooling layers of air, and precipitation into
4126. IRA warm air.
Which weather phenomenon signals the C) High, middle, low, and those with extensive
beginning of the mature stage of a thunderstorm? vertical development.
A) The start of rain at the surface.
B) Growth rate of cloud is maximum. 4133. IRA
C) Strong turbulence in the cloud. Which family of clouds is least likely to contribute
to structural icing on an aircraft?
4127. IRA A) Low clouds.
Frontal waves normally form on; B) High clouds.
A) slow moving cold fronts or stationary fronts. C) Clouds with extensive vertical development.
B) slow moving warm fronts and strong occluded
fronts. 4135. IRA
C) rapidly moving cold fronts or warm fronts. Where can wind shear associated with a
thunderstorm be found? Choose the most
4128. IRA complete answer.
Which are characteristics of an unstable cold air A) In front of the thunderstorm cell (anvil side) and
mass moving over a warm surface? on the right side of the cell.
A) Cumuliform clouds, turbulence, and poor B) In front of the thunderstorm cell and
visibility. directly under the cell.
B) Cumuliform clouds, turbulence, and good C) On all sides of the thunderstorm cell
visibility. and directly under the cell.
C) Stratiform clouds, smooth air, and poor
visibility.

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4136. IRA 4143. IRA

Which weather phenomenon is always associated During the life cycle of a thunderstorm, which
with the passage of a frontal system? stage is characterized predominately by;
A) A wind change. downdrafts?
B) An abrupt decrease in pressure. A) Cumulus.
C) Clouds, either ahead or behind the front. B) Dissipating.
C) Mature.
4137. IRA
Where do squall lines most often develop? 4144. IRA
A) In an occluded front. Which weather phenomenon is always associated
B) In a cold air mass. with a thunderstorm?
C) Ahead of a cold front. A) Lightning.
B) Heavy rain showers.
4138. IRA C) Supercooled raindrops.
Where does wind shear occur?
A) Exclusively in thunderstorms. 4145. IRA
B) Wherever there is an abrupt decrease in Which thunderstorms generally produce the most
pressure and/or temperature. severe conditions, such as heavy hail and
C) With either a wind shift or a windspeed destructive winds?
gradient at any level in the atmosphere A) Warm front.
B) Squall line.
4140. IRA C) Air mass.
Which is a characteristic of low-level wind shear
as it relates to frontal activity? 4147. IRA
A) With a warm front, the most critical period is What is an indication that downdrafts have
before the front passes the airport. developed and the thunderstorm cell has entered
B) With a cold front, the most critical period is just the mature stage?
before the front passes the airport. A) The anvil top has completed its development.
C) Turbulence will always exist in wind-shear B) Precipitation begins to fall from the cloud
conditions. base.
C) A gust front forms.
4141. IRA
What is indicated by the term “embedded 4148. IRA
thunderstorms”? What are the requirements for the formation of a
A) Severe thunderstorms are embedded within a thunderstorm?
squall line. A) A cumulus cloud with sufficient moisture.
B) Thunderstorms are predicted to develop in a B) A cumulus cloud with sufficient moisture and
stable air mass. an inverted lapse rate.
C) Thunderstorms are obscured by massive cloud C) Sufficient moisture, an unstable lapse rate,
layers and cannot be seen. and a lifting action.

4142. IRA 4149. IRA

If squalls are reported at your destination, what Fair weather cumulus clouds often indicate;
wind conditions should you anticipate? A) turbulence at and below the cloud level.
A) Sudden increases in windspeed of at least 16 B) poor visibility.
knots to a peak of 22 knots or more, lasting for at C) smooth flying conditions.
least 1 minute.
B) Peak gusts of at least 35 knots for a sustained 4150. IRA
period of 1 minute or longer. What is an important characteristic of wind shear?
C) Rapid variation in wind direction of at least 20° A) It is an atmospheric condition that is
and changes in speed of at least 10 associated exclusively with zones
knots between peaks and lulls. of convergence.
B) The Coriolis phenomenon in both high- and
low-level air masses is the principal generating
force.
C) It is an atmospheric condition that may be
associated with a low-level temperature inversion,
a jet stream, or a frontal zone.

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4151. IRA 4158. IRA

Why is frost considered hazardous to flight An air mass is a body of air that;
operation? A) has similar cloud formations associated with it.
A) Frost changes the basic aerodynamic shape of B) creates a wind shift as it moves across the
the airfoil. Earth’s surface.
B) Frost decreases control effectiveness. C) covers an extensive area and has fairly
C) Frost causes early airflow separation resulting uniform properties of temperature and moisture.
in a loss of lift.
4159. IRA
4152. IRA What enhances the growth rate of precipitation?
In which meteorological environment is aircraft A) Advective action.
structural icing most likely to have the highest rate B) Upward currents.
of accumulation? C) Cyclonic movement.
A) Cumulonimbus clouds.
B) High humidity and freezing temperature. 4161. IRA
C) Freezing rain. Which precipitation type normally indicates
freezing rain at higher altitudes?
4153. IRA A) Snow.
What is an operational consideration if you fly into B) Hail.
rain which freezes on impact? C) Ice pellets.
A) You have flown into an area of thunderstorms.
B) Temperatures are above freezing at some 4162. IRA
higher altitude. Which weather condition can be expected when
C) You have flown through a cold front. moist air flows from a relatively warm surface to a
colder surface?
4154. IRA A) Increased visibility.
The average height of the troposphere in the B) Convective turbulence due to surface heating.
middle latitudes is; C) Fog.
A) 20,000 feet.
B) 25,000 feet. 4163. IRA
C) 37,000 feet. Fog is usually prevalent in industrial areas
because of;
4155. IRA A) atmospheric stabilization around cities.
A jetstream is defined as wind of; B) an abundance of condensation nuclei from
A) 30 knots or greater. combustion products.
B) 40 knots or greater. C) increased temperatures due to industrial
C) 50 knots or greater. heating.

4156. IRA 4164. IRA

Under which condition does advection fog usually In which situation is advection fog most likely to
form? form?
A) Moist air moving over colder ground or water. A) An air mass moving inland from the coast in
B) Warm, moist air settling over a cool surface winter.
under no-wind conditions. B) A light breeze blowing colder air out to sea.
C) A land breeze blowing a cold air mass over a C) Warm, moist air settling over a warmer surface
warm water current. under no-wind conditions.

4157. IRA 4165. IRA

A high cloud is composed mostly of; In what localities is advection fog most likely to
A) ozone. occur?
B) condensation nuclei. A) Coastal areas.
C) ice crystals. B) Mountain slopes.
C) Level inland areas.

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4166. IRA 4238. IRA

What types of fog depend upon a wind in order to Hazardous wind shear is commonly encountered
exist? . near the ground
A) Steam fog and downslope fog. A) during periods when the wind velocity is
B) Precipitation induced fog and ground fog. stronger than 35 knots.
C) Advection fog and upslope fog. B) during periods when the wind velocity is
stronger than 35 knots and near mountain valleys.
4167. IRA C) during periods of strong temperature inversion
What situation is most conducive to the formation and near thunderstorms.
of radiation fog?
A) Warm, moist air over low, flatland areas on 4251. IRA
clear, calm nights. What is the expected duration of an individual
B) Moist, tropical air moving over cold, offshore microburst?
water. A) Two minutes with maximum winds lasting
C) The movement of cold air over much warmer approximately 1 minute.
water. B) One microburst may continue for as long as 2
to 4 hours.
4168. IRA C) Seldom longer than 15 minutes from the time
The strength and location of the jetstream is the burst strikes the ground until dissipation.
normally
A) stronger and farther north in the winter. 4252. IRA
B) weaker and farther north in the summer. Maximum downdrafts in a microburst encounter
C) stronger and farther north in the summer. may be as strong as
A) 8,000 feet per minute.
4171. IRA B) 7,000 feet per minute.
Test data indicate that ice, snow, or frost having a C) 6,000 feet per minute.
thickness and roughness similar to medium or
coarse sandpaper on the leading edge and upper 4253. IRA
surface of a wing can; An aircraft that encounters a headwind of 45
A) reduce lift by as much as 50 percent and knots, within a microburst, may expect a total
increase drag by as much as 50 percent. shear across the microburst of
B) increase drag and reduce lift by as much as 25 A) 40 knots.
percent. B) 80 knots.
C) reduce lift by as much as 30 percent and C) 90 knots
increase drag by 40 percent.
4254. IRA
4200. IRA (Refer to figure 13.) If involved in a microburst
Which weather conditions should be expected encounter, in which aircraft positions will the most
beneath a low-level temperature inversion layer severe downdraft occur?
when the relative humidity is high? A) 4 and 5.
A) Smooth air and poor visibility due to fog, haze, B) 2 and 3.
or low clouds. C) 3 and 4.
B) Light wind shear and poor visibility due to haze
and light rain. 4255. IRA
C) Turbulent air and poor visibility due to fog, low (Refer to figure 13.) When penetrating a
stratus-type clouds, and showery precipitation. microburst, which aircraft will experience an.
increase in performance without a change in pitch
4227. IRA or power?
Which feature is associated with the tropopause? A) 3.
A) Absence of wind and turbulent conditions. B) 2.
B) Absolute upper limit of cloud formation. C) 1.
C) Abrupt change in temperature lapse rate.

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4256. IRA
(Refer to figure 13.) The aircraft in position 3 will
experience which effect in a microburst
encounter?
A) Decreasing headwind.
B) Increasing tailwind.
C) Strong downdraft.

4257. IRA
(Refer to figure 13.) What effect will a microburst
encounter have upon the aircraft in position 4?
A) Strong tailwind.
B) Strong updraft.
C) Significant performance increase.

4258. IRA
(Refer to figure 13.) How will the aircraft in
position 4 be affected by a microburst encounter?
A) Performance increasing with a tailwind and
updraft.
B) Performance decreasing with a tailwind and
downdraft.
C) Performance decreasing with a headwind and
down draft.

4959. AVSEM IRA

The most pronounced characteristic of tailplane
icing is:
A) a slow and deliberate loss of altitude.
B) the failure of flaps to operate.
C) a sudden change of elevator force causing an
un-commanded nose down pitch condition.

4960. AVSEM IRA

If tailplane icing causes a tailplane stall, the pilot
should;
A) retract the flaps and increase power
B) decrease airspeed to VFE
C) reduce power, lower the flaps and decrease
airspeed

4960-1. AVSEM IRA

What should a pilot do if icing is detected while
experiencing a change in elevator pressure with a
rolling condition?
A) Lower the flaps and decrease airspeed.
B) Set power, lower the nose for a controlled
descent.
C) Retract the flaps and increase power.

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Aviation Seminars

WEATHER REPORTS and SERVICES

Graphical Forecasts for Aviation (GFA) Common GFA Symbology

To best determine general forecast weather The GFA format uses colors and various
conditions within a flight information region. symbology to depict various weather conditions.
Example: Continental U.S. (CONUS) You will need to memorize some of these for the
test.

To interpret a GFA chart, look at the region, then For example, in Figure 266, Washington and
the Valid Time on the chart in the upper right hand Oregon States have predominately Light Rain
corner to assure it is the correct time, then the Showers and Rain as depicted by the Rain Dots
area they are referring to. symbology.
Answer the question they are asking. For Instrument pilots are encouraged to download
example in Figure 260, Area “A” it is showing and print the many various symbology icons that
Washington State as +3 hours and predominately are used within a GFA.
3-5 statute miles visibility in MVFR (Marginal
VFR) with Moderate Rain. These charts are available on-line through NOAA
or Googling them. Aviation Seminars utilizes the
In Figure 261, Area “C” it is showing Freezing most common and those that are used by the FAA
Rain in Southern North Dakota. for testing purposes. There are many more a true
IFR pilot would want to know.
In Figure 262, Area “A” they are showing the
Winds in Eastern Washington State at 10 Knots Surface Analysis Chart (Report)
sustained with Gusts 20-30. Each full barb on a
Wind Arrow depicts 10 knots. Red barbs indicate The Surface Analysis chart provides a graphic
Gusts. display of actual frontal positions, pressure
patterns, temperature, dew point, wind, weather,
In Figure 263, Area “C” the color in Southern and obstructions to vision at the valid time of the
Texas depicts Overcast (OVC) conditions. chart.
In Figure 269, Area “B” the color along with the NOTE* The Surface Analysis chart is not shown in
text depicts the Bases of the Overcast 6,000 and the IFR Test Supplement 8080-3F. Only need to
the Top of the Overcast to be 7,000 feet MSL. know what this chart represents for the test.

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Weather Depiction Chart (Report) High Level Significant Weather Prognostic

(Forecast)
The Weather Depiction chart provides a graphic
display of VFR / IFR, actual frontal positions, The High Level Significant Weather Prognostic
precipitation intensity, sites with automated Chart forecasts conditions from 24,000 feet MSL
observation stations, cloud height and/or ceilings. to 63,000 feet MSL. (Example on Figure 7.)

O] = Automated Observation Station.

Shows Tropopause Height, CB Cloud
Ceilings coverage,Turbulence and Jet stream height and
velocity.
Defined as the lowest layer of clouds reported as
BROKEN (BKN), OVERCAST (OVC) or
OBSCURED (VV)

Few or Scattered do not constitute a ceiling.

Low Level Significant Weather Prognostic

(Forecast)

The Low Level Significant Weather Prognostic

Chart forecasts conditions up to 24,000 ft. MSL.

It forecasts VFR, MVFR and IFR weather

including areas of precipitation that are expected
to exist at the time on the chart.

Using this chart is simple. Often you just match up

the 12 or 24 hour chart with the colors and line
designs within a specific area to match what the
question is asking about. The forecast exists for a
a specific time in the future. (12 or 24 hours)

Example on Figure 18.

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Aviation Seminars

METARS and SPECI Reports (METAR / SPECI)

A Meteorological Terminal Aerodrome Report

(METAR) is an observation report of weather
conditions existing at the airport at the time the
report was issued. (Usually once per hour)

Special METAR (SPECI) are unscheduled and WS 005 / 27050KT means wind-shear at 500 feet
issued as soon as possible when conditions AGL from 270° at 50 KT.
change significantly between the scheduled
reporting times. Winds reported as ‘VRB’ means winds are
variable at less than 6 knots.

Winds reported as ‘00000KT’ means winds are

less than 3 knots.

‘P6SM’ means prevailing visibility is or is expected

to be greater than 6 statute miles.

Winds and Temperatures Aloft Forecast (FB)

Predict wind direction, knots and temperature in

KBNA (Nashville) 1250Z (Time Issued) 33018KT Celsius. Only available above 1,500 feet above
= Wind from 330 degrees at 18 knots variable the surface.
from 290 to 360 degrees. 1/2 statute mile visibility.
R31/2700 = Runway 31 reporting 2,700 feet
visibility down the runway due to heavy blowing
snow and fog. VV008 = vertical visibility into
obscured sky measured 800 feet. 00/M03 =
temperature 0c / dew point -3c. RMK = Rain
ended at 1242Z and Snow began at 1242Z.

Terminal Aerodrome Forecast (TAF) Figure 2. No temperature given within 3,000 feet
AGL or within 2,500 feet of the station. 9900 =
A TAF is similar to a METAR except it is a calm winds.
forecast. It is a concise statement of expected
meteorological conditions for a specified time Winds greater than 100 knots or more is indicated
period. by adding ’50’ to the first digit in the wind
direction.
A TAF covers an area within 5 statute miles of the
center of an airport runway complex. STL at 30,000 feet shows 760142 = Wind is from
260 degrees at 101 knots and an aloft
A TAF is also the primary source to obtain temperature of -42c.
information regarding destination weather at the
planned ETA.

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Convective Outlook (AC) TEST QUESTIONS (Use Test Supplement

8080-3F)
Defines the prospects of general thunderstorm
outlook areas. NOTE: CORRECT ANSWER IN BOLD ITALICS

4170. IRA
Defined as areas of slight, moderate, or high risk The body of a Terminal Aerodrome Forecast
of severe thunderstorms during the following 24 (TAF) covers a geographical proximity within a;
hours. A) 5 statute mile radius of the center of an airport
runway complex.
B) 5 nautical mile radius of the center of an
Note* Actual AC not shown in the 8080-3F Test
airport.
Supplement. Just know what an AC forecasts. C) 5 to 10 mile radius of the center of an airport
runway complex.
Severe Weather Watch Bulletins (WW)
4170-1. IRA
Which weather product is a concise statement of
A severe weather watch bulletin (WW) defines the expected weather for an airport's runway
areas of possible severe thunderstorms or complex?
tornado activity. A) Area Forecast (FA)
B) Weather Depiction Charts
They are unscheduled and are issued as C) Terminal Aerodrome Forecast (TAF)
required. 4172. IRA
What wind direction and speed is represented by
AIRMET’s (WA) the entry 9900 +00 for 9,000 feet, on an Winds
and Temperatures Aloft Forecast (FD)?
AIRMET’s are issued as a warning for weather A) Light and variable; less than 5 knots.
particularly hazardous to small aircraft. B) Vortex winds exceeding 200 knots.
C) Light and variable; less than 10 knots.
Issued on a scheduled basis every 6 hours.
Maximum forecast period is also 6 hours. 4175. IRA
What does a Convective Outlook (AC) describe
SIGMET’s (WS) for a following 24 hour period?
A) Areas of slight, moderate, or high risk of
SIGMET’s are issued as a warning of weather severe thunderstorms.
conditions potentially hazardous to all aircraft. B) A severe weather watch bulletin.
C) When forecast conditions are expected to
Examples of a SIGMET include widespread sand continue beyond the valid period.
or dust storms affecting at least 3,000 square
4176. IRA
miles or an area deemed to have a significant Which primary source should be used to obtain
effect on the safety of all aircraft operations. forecast weather information at your destination
for the planned ETA?
Pilot Reports A) Area Forecast.
B) Radar Summary and Weather Depiction
PIREP’s are reports from pilots to ATC or FSS of Charts.
C) Terminal Aerodrome Forecast (TAF).
conditions they encounter while enroute.
4177. IRA
MRB UA/OV MRB/TM 1430 FL060/TP C182/ A "VRB" wind entry in a Terminal Aerodrome
SK BKN BL/WX RA/TB MDT. Forecast (TAF) will be indicated when the wind is;
A) 3 knots or less.
MRB (East West Virginia Regional) at 1430Z at B) 6 knots or less.
6,000 feet from a Cessna 182, sky was broken C) 9 knots or less.
between layers; moderate rain and moderate
turbulence. 4178. IRA
When the visibility is greater than 6 SM on a TAF
it is expressed as;
A) 6PSM.
B) P6SM.
C) 6SMP.

Pg. 89
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4179. IRA 4184. IRA

To best determine general forecast weather A pilot planning to depart at 1100Z on an IFR flight
conditions covering a flight information region, the is particularly concerned about the hazard of
pilot should refer to; icing. What sources reflect the most accurate
A) Graphical Forecasts for Aviation (GFA). information on icing conditions (current and
B) Satellite Maps forecast) at the time of departure?
C) Weather Depiction Charts A) Low-Level Significant Weather Prognostic
Chart, and the Area Forecast.
4180. IRA B) The Area Forecast, and the Freezing Level
What is the forecast wind at 1800Z in the Chart.
following TAF? C) Pilot weather reports (PIREP’s), AIRMET’s,
and SIGMET’s.
KMEM 091 740Z 1818 00000KT 1 /2SM RAFG
OVC005 4186. IRA
When are severe weather watch bulletins (WW)
A) Calm. issued?
B) Unknown. A) Every 12 hours as required.
C) Not recorded. B) Every 24 hours as required.
C) Unscheduled and issued as required.
4181. IRA
SIGMET’s are issued as a warning of weather 4187. IRA
conditions potentially hazardous; What Is the maximum forecast period for
A) particularly to light aircraft. AIRMET’s?
B) to all aircraft. A) Two hours.
C) only to light aircraft operations. B) Four hours.
C) Six hours.
4182. IRA
What significant sky condition is reported in this 4188. IRA
METAR observation? When is the temperature at one of the forecast
altitudes omitted at a specific location or station in
METAR KBNA 1 250Z 3301 8KT 290V360 1 /2SM the Winds and Temperatures Aloft Forecast (FB)?
R31/2700FT +SN BLSNFG W008 00/M03 A2991 A) When the temperature is standard for that
RMK RAE42SNB42 altitude.
B) For the 3,000 foot altitude (level) or when the
A) Runway 31 ceiling is 2700 feet. level is within 2,500 feet of station elevation.
B) Sky is obscured with vertical visibility of 800 C) Only when the winds are omitted for that
feet. altitude (level).
C) Measured ceiling Is 300 feet overcast.
4189. IRA
4183. IRA When is the wind group at one of the forecast
Which meteorological condition is issued in the altitudes omitted at a specific location or station In
form of a SIGMET (WS)? the Winds and Temperatures Aloft Forecast (FD)?
A) Widespread sand or dust storms affecting at When the wind
least 3,000 square miles or an area deemed to A) is less than 5 knots.
have a significant effect on the safety of aircraft B) is less than 1 0 knots.
operations. C) at the altitude is within 1 ,500 feet of the
B) Moderate icing. station elevation.
C) Sustained winds of 30 knots or greater at the
surface. 4190. IRA
Decode the excerpt from the Winds and
Temperature Aloft Forecast (FD) for OKC at
39,000 feet.

FT 39000 OKC 830558

A) Wind 130° at 50 knots, temperature -58 °C.

B) Wind 330° at 105 knots, temperature -58 °C.
C) Wind 330° at 205 knots, temperature -58 °C.

Pg. 90
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4191. IRA 4198. IRA

Which values are used for winds aloft forecasts? Which response most closely Interprets the
A) Magnetic direction and knots. following PIREP?
B) Magnetic direction and MPH.
C) True direction and knots. UA/OV OKC 063064/TM 1522 /FLO8OJTP C172/
TA-04/WV 245040/TB LGT/RM IN CLR.
4192. IRA
(Refer to figure 2.) What approximate wind A) 64 nautical miles on the 63 degree radial from
direction, speed, and temperature (relative to ISA) Oklahoma City VOR at 1522 UTC, flight level
should a pilot expect when planning for a flight 8,000 ft. Type of aircraft is a Cessna 172.
over PSB at FL270? B) Reported by a Cessna 172, turbulence and
A) 260° magnetic at 93 knots; ISA + 7 °C. light rime icing in climb to 8,000 ft.
B) 280° true at 113 knots; ISA +3 °C. C) 63 nautical miles on the 64 degree radial from
C) 255° true at 93 knots; ISA +6 °C. Oklahoma City, thunderstorm and light rain at
1522 UTC.
4193. IRA
(Refer to figure 2.) What approximate wind 4199. IRA
direction, speed, and temperature (relative to ISA) A station is forecasting wind and temperature aloft
should a pilot expect when planning for a flight at FL 390 to be 300° at 200 knots; temperature
over ALB at FL270? -54 C. How would this data be encoded in the
A) 270° magnetic at 97 knots; ISA -4 CC. FD?
B) 260° true at 110 knots; ISA +5 °C A) 300054.
C) 275° true at 97 knots; ISA +4 °C B) 809954.
C) 309954.
4194. IRA
4201. IRA
(Refer to figure 2.) What approximate wind
direction, speed, and temperature (relative to ISA) (Refer to Figure 5.) On a low-level significant
should a pilot expect when planning a flight over weather prognostic chart, this symbol represents;
EMI at FL 270? A) Freezing rain.
A) 265° true; 100 knots; ISA +3 °C B) Mixed precipitation.
B) 270° true; 1 10 knots; ISA +5 °C C) Snow showers.
C) 260° magnetic; 100 knots; ISA -5 °C
4202. IRA
4196. IRA A ceiling is defined as the height of the;
The station originating the following weather A) highest layer of clouds or obscuring
report has a field elevation of 1,300 feet MSL phenomena aloft that covers over 6/10 of the sky.
From the bottom of the overcast cloud layer, what B) lowest layer of clouds that contributed to the
is its thickness? (tops of OVC are reported at overall overcast.
3,800 feet) C) lowest layer of clouds or obscuring
phenomena aloft that is reported as broken or
SPECI KOKC 2228Z 28024G36KT 3/4SM overcast.
BKN008 OVC020 28/23 A3000
4203. IRA
A) 500 feet. The reporting station originating this Aviation
B) 1,700 feet. Routine Weather Report has a field elevation of
C) 2,500 feet. 620 feet. If the reported sky cover is one
continuous layer, what is its thickness? (tops of
OVC are reported at 6500 feet)

METAR KMDW 121856Z AUTO 32005KT

1 1 /2SM +RABR OVCOO7 17/16 A2980

A) 5,180 feet.
B) 5,800 feet.
C) 5,880 feet.

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Aviation Seminars

4204. IRA 4209. IRA

What is the wind shear forecast in the TAF? The Surface Analysis Chart depicts;
A) actual pressure systems, frontal locations,
KCVG 23105IZ 231212 12012KT 4SM -RA BR cloud tops, and precipitation at the time shown on
OVCOO8 WS005/27050KT TEMPO 1719 the chart.
1/2SM -RA FG FM1930 09012KT 1SM -DZ BR B) frontal locations and expected movement,
VV003 BECMG 2021 5SM HZ pressure centers, cloud coverage, and
obstructions to vision at the time of chart
A) 5 feet AGL from 270° at 50 KT. transmission.
B) 50 feet AGL from 270° at 50 KT. C) actual frontal positions, pressure patterns,
C) 500 feet AGL from 270° at 50 KT. temperature, dew point, wind, weather, and
obstructions to vision at the valid time of the chart.
4205. IRA
What is meant by the entry in the remarks section 4211. IRA
of METAR surface report for KBNA? The Low-Level Significant Weather Prognostic
Chart depicts weather conditions;
METAR KBNA 211250Z 3301 8KT 290V260 A) that are forecast to exist at a valid time
1/2SM R31/2700FT +SN BLSNFG VV008 00/M03 shown on the chart.
A2991 RMK RAE42SNB42 B) as they existed at the time the chart was
prepared.
A) The wind is variable from 290°to 360. C) that existed at the time shown on the chart
B) Heavy blowing snow and fog on runway 31. which is about 3 hours before the chart Is
C) Rain ended 42 past the hour, snow began 42 received.
past the hour.
4212. IRA
4206. IRA Which meteorological conditions are depicted by
(Refer to figure 4.) What is the meaning of a a prognostic chart?
bracket ( ] ) plotted to the right of the station circle A) Conditions existing at the time of the
on a weather depiction chart? observation.
A) The station represents the en route conditions B) Interpretation of weather conditions for
within a 50 mile radius. geographical areas between reporting stations.
B) The station is an automated observation C) Conditions forecast to exist at a specific time
location. shown on the chart.
C) The station gives local overview of flying
conditions for a six hour period. 4213. IRA
(Refer to figure 5.) What is the meaning of the
4207. IRA symbol depicted as used on the U.S. Low-Level
(Refer to Figure 18.) The right panel of the Significant Weather Prog Chart?
significant weather prognostic chart provides a A) Showery precipitation (e.g. rain showers)
forecast of selected aviation weather hazards up embedded in an area of continuous rain covering
to FL240 until what time? half or more of the area.
A) March 18th at 0600. B) Continuous precipitation (e.g. rain) covering
B) March 17th at 1800. half or more of the area.
C) March 18th at 1800. C) Showery precipitation (e.g. thunderstorms/rain
showers) covering half or more of the area.
4208. IRA
(Refer to Figure 19.) The next issuance of the 12- 4214. IRA
hour significant weather prognostic chart will A prognostic chart depicts the conditions;
become valid at; A) existing at the surface during the past 6 hours.
A) 0000Z B) which presently exist from the 1000 millibar
B) 1200Z through the 700 millibar level.
C) 1800Z C) forecast to exist at a specific time in the future.

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4215. IRA 4224. IRA

What information is provided by a Convective (Refer to figure 7.) What weather conditions are
Outlook (AC)? depicted within area 1?
A) It describes areas of probable severe icing and A) Moderate turbulence from below FL250 up to
severe or extreme turbulence during the next 24 FL360.
hours. B) Moderate to severe turbulence at FL310
B) It provides prospects of both general and C) Severe CAT up to FL360.
severe thunderstorm activity during the following
24 hours. 4225. IRA
C) It indicates areas of probable convective (Refer to figure 7.) What information is indicated
turbulence and the extent of instability in the to the right of 8??
upper atmosphere (above 500 MB). A) The height of the tropopause in meters above
sea level.
4220. IRA B) The maximum height of CAT.
Interpret this PIREP. C) The height of the tropopause in hundreds of
feet above MSL
MRB UA/OV MRB/TM 1430 FL060/TP C182/ 4226. IRA
SK BKN BL/WX RA/TB MDT. Which weather forecast describes prospects for
an area coverage of both severe and general
A) Ceiling 6,000 feet intermittently below thunderstorms during the following 24 hours?
moderate thundershowers; turbulence increasing A) Terminal Aerodrome Forecast.
westward. B) Convective outlook.
B) FL 60,000, Intermittently below clouds; C) Radar Summary Chart.
moderate rain, turbulence increasing with the
wind. 4228. IRA
C) At 6,000 feet; between layers; moderate From which primary source should you obtain
turbulence; moderate rain. Information regarding the weather expected to
exist at your destination at your estimated time of
4221. IRA arrival?
(Refer to figure 7.) What weather conditions are A) Weather Depiction Chart.
depicted around area 7? B) Surface Analysis Chart.
A) Occasional cumulonimbus, 1/8 to 4/8 sky C) Terminal Aerodrome Forecast.
coverage, bases below 25,000 ft MSL tops
53,000. 4229. IRA
B) Moderate or severe turbulence up to (Refer to figure 7.) What weather conditions are
FL530.
depicted within area 6?
C) Occasional cumulonimbus, 5/8 to 8/8 sky
coverage, tropopause height 53,000 ft. MSL. A) Occasional embedded cumulonimbus clouds,
bases below 25,000 ft. MSL, tops 45,000 ft. MSL.
4222. IRA B) Embedded cumulonimbus clouds, less than
(Refer to figure 7). What weather conditions are 1/8 coverage.
depicted around area 9? C) Embedded thunderstorm activity from the
A) Existing isolated cumulonimbus clouds, bases surface up to FL450.
below 25,000 ft. MSL, tops 33,000 ft. MSL.
B) Forecast isolated cumulonimbus clouds, 4241. IRA
tops 33,000 ft. MSL, with less than 1/8 The Hazardous in-flight Weather Advisory Service
coverage. (HIWAS) is a continuous broadcast over selected
C) Forecast isolated cumulonimbus clouds, tops VORs of;
33,000 ft. MSL, with 1/8 to 4/8 coverage. A) SIGMETs, CONVECTIVE SIGMETs, AIRMETs,
Severe Weather Forecasts Alerts (AWW), and
4223. IRA Center Weather Advisories.
(Refer to figure 7.) What weather conditions are B) SIGMETs, CONVECTIVE SIGMETs, AIRMETs,
depicted within area 3? Wind Shear Advisories, and Severe Weather
A) Moderate CAT turbulence at FL370. Forecast Alerts (AWW).
B) Severe turbulence from FL300 up to FL370. C) Wind Shear Advisories, Radar Weather
C) Reported moderate turbulence from FL300 up Reports, SIGMETs, CONVECTIVE SIGMETs,
to FL370. AIRMETs, and Center Weather Advisories (CWA)

Pg. 93
Weather Reports
Aviation Seminars

4243. IRA
(Refer to figure 20.) What is the maximum wind
velocity forecast in the jet stream shown on the
high level significant weather prognostic chart
over the southern United States?
A) 50 knots.
B) 140 knots.
C) 90 knots.

4244. IRA
(Refer to figure 20.) What is the height of the
tropopause over the northwest United States?
A) 45,000 feet MSL.
B) 45,000 meters.
C) 450,000 feet MSL.

4245. IRA
(Refer to figure 7.) The area indicated by the
arrow in area 3 indicates;
A) light turbulence below 34,000 feet.
B) isolated embedded cumulonimbus clouds with
bases below FL180 and tops at FL340.
C) severe turbulence at and below 37,000 feet.

4467. IRA
AIRMET’S are issued on a scheduled basis
every;
A) 15 minutes after the hour only.
B) 15 minutes until the AIRMET is canceled.
C) six hours.

Pg. 94
 Additional FAA Questions
Aviation Seminars

ADDITIONAL INSTRUMENT PILOT QUESTIONS

4611. IRA 4979. IRA

(Refer to figure 113.) You receive this ATC What system does the primary flight display (PFD)
clearance: pull it’s data from?
A) AHRS
“...CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC. HOLD B) Vacuum System
SOUTH ON THE ONE EIGHT ZERO RADIAL...” C) Pitot Static System

What is the recommended procedure to enter the

holding pattern?
A) Teardrop only.
B) Direct only.
C) Parallel only.

4613. IRA
(Refer to figure 113.) You receive this ATC
clearance:

“...CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC. HOLD

WEST ON THE TWO SEVEN ZERO RADIAL...”
What is the recommended procedure to enter the
holding pattern?

A) Parallel only.
B) Direct only.
C) Teardrop only.

4614. IRA
(Refer to figure 114.) A pilot receives this ATC
clearance:

“...CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC. HOLD

WEST ON THE TWO SEVEN ZERO RADIAL...”
What is the recommended procedure to enter the
holding pattern?

A) Parallel or teardrop.
B) Parallel only.
C) Direct only.

4960. IRA
On initial climb-out after takeoff and with the
autopilot engaged, you encounter icing
conditions. In this situation you can expect;
A) ice to accumulate on the underside of the
wings due to the higher AOA.
B) the autopilot to hold the vertical speed, if the
anti-icing boots are working.
C) the increased airflow under the wings to
prevent the accumulation of ice.

Pg. 95