Rankers Test Series (2023)

PART TEST–10

DURATION ::200
DURATION Minutes
90 Minutes 19-03-2023 M. MARKS : 720

Topics Covered
Physics : Ray Optics and Optical Instruments, Wave Optics
Chemistry : Alcohols, Phenols and Ethers, Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids
Biology : (Botany) : Microbes in Human Welfare , Organisms and Populations, Strategies for Enhancement in
Food Production
(Zoology) : Human Health and Disease

General Instructions:
1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the test booklet.
2. The test is of 3 hour 20 minute duration.
3. The test booklet consists of 200 questions. The maximum marks are 720.
4. There are four Section in the Question Paper, Section I, II, III & IV consisting of Section-I (Physics), Section-II
(Chemistry), Section-III (Botany) & Section IV (Zoology) and having 50 Questions in each part.
5. There is only one correct response for each questions.
6. Each correct answer will give 4 marks while 1 Mark will be deducted for a wrong MCQ response.
7. No student is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile phone, any
electronic device, etc. inside the examination room/hall.
8. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty in the
Room/Hall. However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.

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[1]
 SECTION-I (PHYSICS)
SECTION - A
1. When white light is passed through a prism, the 9. A mirror is inclined at an angle of  with the
colour which shows maximum deviation is horizontal. If a ray of light is incident at an angle of
(1) Red (2) Violet incidence , then the reflected ray makes the
(3) Yellow (4) Green following angle with horizontal

2. The wavelength of sodium light in air is 5890 Å.

The velocity of light in air is 3 × 108 m/sec. The
wavelength of light in a glass of refractive index 1.6
would be closed to-
(1) 5890 Å (2) 3681 Å
(3) 9424 Å (4) 15078 Å (1)  (2) 2

(3) (4) None of these
3. An object has an image thrice of its original size 2
when kept at 8 cm and 16 cm from a convex lens.
Focal length of the lens is 10. Mark the correct statement.
(1) Less than 8 cm (1) Our eyes can distinguish between real and
(2) 8 cm virtual image
(3) 16 cm (2) Virtual image can also be taken on screen.
(4) Between 8 and 16 cm (3) If the incident rays are converging at a point,
then the object is real.
4. The critical angle for light going from medium X (4) None of the above
into medium Y is θ. The speed of light in medium X
is v, then speed of light in medium Y is 11. Assertion: A hollow lens behaves like a thin glass
v plate.
(1) v (1 – cos θ) (2)
sin  Reason: Power of this lens becomes zero.
v (1) If both Assertion and Reason are true and
(3) (4) vcos θ
cos  Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) If both Assertion and Reason are true but
5. A mark at the bottom of a liquid appears to rise by Reason is not the correct explanation of
0.1 m and the depth of the liquid is 1m. The Assertion.
refractive index of the liquid is
(3) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(1) 1.33 (2) 9/10
(4) If both Assertion and Reason are false.
(3) 10/9 (4) 1.5

6. The focal lengths of a thin convex lens for red and 12. The image formed by a convex mirror of focal
length 30 cm is a quarter of the size of the object.
blue colours are 100.5 cm and 99.5 cm,
The distance of the object from the mirror is-
respectively. The dispersive power of the lens is__
(1) 0.01 (2) 0.02 (1) 30 cm (2) 90 cm
(3) 1.005 (4) 0.995 (3) 120 cm (4) 60 cm

13. If c is the velocity of light in free space, the time

7. If the refractive index of a material of equilateral
taken by light to travel a distance x in medium of
prism is 3 , then angle of minimum deviation of
refractive index  is given by
the prism is ____
x
(1) 30° (2) 45° (1)  xc (2)
c
(3) 60° (4) 75°
c x
8. An object is 20 cm away from a concave mirror with (3) (4)
focal length 15 cm. If the object moves with a speed x c
of 5 m/sec along the axis, then the speed of the
image will be- 14. Diameter of the objective of a telescope is 200 cm.
(1) 45 m/sec What is the resolving power of a telescope? Take
(2) 27 m/sec
wavelength of light = 5000 Å.
(3) 9 m/sec
(4) 10 m/sec (1) 6.56 × 106 (2) 3.25 × 105
(3) 1 × 106 (4) 3.28 × 106
[2]
15. An air bubble in a glass slab with refractive index
1.5 (near normal incidence) is 5 cm deep when
viewed from one surface and 3 cm deep when
viewed from the opposite face. The thickness (in
cm) of the slab is
(1) 8 (2) 10 (1) 3  (2) 8 
5
(3) 12 (4) 16 (3) (4) 8.75 
4
16. Find the value of  in the given diagram.
22. Assertion: Two coherent sources transmit waves of
equal intensity I0. Resultant intensity at a point

where path difference is , is also I0.
3
Reason: In interference resultant intensity at any
 2   1 
(1) sin −1   (2) sin −1   point is the average intensity of two individual
 3  3 intensities.
1  1  (1) If both Assertion and Reason are true and
(3) sin −1   (4) sin −1   Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
 2  2
(2) If both Assertion and Reason are true but
Reason is not the correct explanation of
17. Calculate the focal length of the given lens if the Assertion.
magnification of this is – 0.5. (3) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) If both Assertion and Reason are false.

 3
23. The critical angle of a certain medium is sin −1   .
5
(1) 6.66 cm (2) 5.44 cm The polarising angle of the medium is
(3) 3.88 cm (4) 1.38 cm  4 5
(1) sin −1   (2) tan −1  
5  3
18. In Young’s double slit experiment, the angular 3 4
width of a fringe formed on a distance screen is 1°, (3) tan −1   (4) tan −1  
4 3
then wavelength of light used is 6000 A°, the
24. In a single slit diffraction of light of wavelength 
spacing between the slits is
by a slit of width e, the size of the central maximum
(1) 6 × 10–7 m (2) 6.8 × 10–5 m
–5 on a screen at a distance b is
(3) 3.4 × 10 m (4) 3.4 × 10–4 m
2b
(1) 2b  + e (2)
19. Two slits separated by a distance of 1mm, are e
illuminated with red light of wavelength 2b 2b
(3) +e (4) −e
6.5 × 10–7 m. The interference fringes are observed e e
on a screen placed 1 m from the slits. The distance
between the third dark fringe and the fifth bright 25. In young’s double slit experiment, the phase
fringe is equal to difference between the light waves reaching third
(1) 0.65 mm (2) 1.63 mm bright fringe from the central fringe will be
(3) 3.25 mm (4) 4.88 mm
( = 6000 Å).
(1) 0 (2) 2
20. In a YDSE,  = 5000 Å. The distance between slits
is 0.2 mm and distance between slits and screen is 2 (3) 4 (4) 6
m. If central maxima is at x = 0, the distance of 3rd
maxima from central maxima is: 26. In Young’s experiment, the ratio of maximum and
(1) 5 cm (2) 0.5 cm minimum intensities in the fringe system is 9 : 1.
(3) 1.67 cm (4) 1.5 cm The ratio of the amplitudes of coherent sources is:
(1) 9 : 1
21. Two coherent light sources A and B are at a distance (2) 3 : 1
3 from each other ( = wavelength). The distance (3) 2 : 1
from A on the x-axis at which the interference is
(4) 1 : 1
constructive, is-

[3]
27. Assertion: Distance between position of bright and 34. Two plane mirrors are inclined at 70°. A ray
dark fringes remain same in young’s double slit incident on one mirror at incidence angle , after
experiment. reflection falls on the second mirror and is reflected
D from there parallel to the first mirror the value of 
Reason: Fringe width,  =
d is
(1) If both Assertion and Reason are true and (1) 50 ° (2) 45°
Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion. (3) 30° (4) 25°
(2) If both Assertion and Reason are true but
Reason is not the correct explanation of 35. A glass prism of refractive index 1.5 is immersed in
Assertion. water (refractive index 4/3). A light beam incident
(3) If Assertion is true but Reason is false. normally on face AB is totally reflected at face AC
(4) If both Assertion and Reason are false. if

28. The Young’s double slit experiment is performed

with blue and green light of wavelengths 4360 A°
and 5460 A°, respectively. If x is the distance of 4th
maxima from the central one, then
(1) xblue = xgreen (2) xblue > xgreen
(3) xblue < xgreen (4) Date insufficient 8 2
(1) sin   (2) sin  
9 3
29. A plane polarized light is incident normally on a 2 8
3
tourmaline plate. Its E vectors make an angle of (3) sin  = (4)  sin  
2 3 9
60° with the optic axis of the plate. Find the
percentage difference between initial and final SECTION - B
intensities.
36. White light is incident from under water on the
(1) 25% (2) 50% water-air interface. If the angle of incidence is
(3) 75% (4) 90% slowly increased from zero, the emergent beam
coming out into the air will turn from
30. The polarising angle of glass is 57°. A ray of light (1) White to violet (2) White to red
which is incident at this angle will have an angle of (3) White to black (4) None of these
refraction is 37. The power in dioptre of an equi-convex lens with
(1) 43° (2) 25° radii of curvature of 10 cm and refractive index 1.6
(3) 38° (4) 33° is-
(1) +12 (2) +18
31. A plane mirror is lying in x-y plane. Object velocity (3) +1.2 (4) +1.8

( )
is V0 = 2iˆ − 3 ˆj + 4kˆ m/sec. Find the image 38. A thin equi-convex lens is made of glass of
velocity. refractive index 1.5 and its focal length is 0.2 m. If
it acts as a concave lens of 0.5 m focal length when
(1) 2iˆ + 3 ˆj + 4kˆ (2) 2iˆ − 3 ˆj + 4kˆ dipped in a liquid, the refractive index of the liquid
(3) 2iˆ + 3 ˆj − 4kˆ (4) 2iˆ − 3 ˆj − 4kˆ is:
17 15
(1) (2)
32. In a plano convex lens the radius of curvature of the 8 8
convex lens is 10 cm. If the plane side is polished, 13 9
(3) (4)
then the focal length will be: 8 8
(Refractive index = 1.5)
(1) 20 cm (2) 10 cm 39. The angle of minimum deviation for a glass prism
(3) 15 cm (4) 5 cm with  = 3 equals to the angle of the prism. What
is the angle of the prism?
33. An convex mirror of focal length (f) produces an (1) 60° (2) 45°
th (3) 30° (4) 90°
1
image   of the size of the object. The distance
n 40. A converging lens of focal length 5.0 cm is placed
of the object from the mirror is- in contact with a diverging lens of focal length 10.0
(1) nf (2) f/n cm. Find the combined focal length of the system.
(3) (n + 1) f (4) (n – 1) f (1) + 5.0 cm (2) +15.0 cm
(3) +20.0 cm (4) +10.0 cm
[4]
41. Assertion: Although the surfaces of goggle lens are 46. Two coherent sources of intensity ratio 2 interfere.
curved, it does not have any power. Then, the value of
Reason: In case of goggles, both the curved (Imax – Imin)/ (Imax + Imin) is ___
surfaces have equal radii of curvature and have 1+  1+ 
centre of curvature on the same side. (1) (2)
 
(1) If both Assertion and Reason are true and
Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion. 1+ 
(3) (4) None of these
(2) If both Assertion and Reason are true but 
Reason is not the correct explanation of
Assertion. 47. When YDSE is conducted with white light, a white
(3) If Assertion is true but Reason is false. fringe is observed at the centre of the screen. When
(4) If both Assertion and Reason are false. the screen is moved towards the slits by 5mm, then
this white fringe
42. Interference fringes are produced by a double slit (1) Does not move (2) Becomes red
arrangement and a piece of plane parallel glass of (3) Disappeared (4) Nothing can be said
refractive index 1.5 is interposed in one of the
interfering beam. If the fringes are displaced 48. Two slits 4.0 × 10–6 m apart are illuminated by light
through 30 fringe widths for light of wavelength of wavelength 600 nm. What is the highest order
6×10–5 cm, find the thickness of the plate. fringe in the interference pattern?
(1) 3.6 × 10–3 cm (2) 3.6 × 10–4 cm (1) 5 (2) 6
–5
(3) 3.6 × 10 cm (4) 3.6 × 10–6 cm (3) 3 (4) 4

43. A parallel beam of monochromatic light of 49. The correct curve between fringe width  and
wavelength 450 nm passes through a slit of width distance between the slits (d) in YDSE is:
0.2 mm. Find the angular divergence in which most
of the light is diffracted.
(1) 4.5 × 10–4 rad (2) 4.5 × 10–5 rad
(1) (2)
(3) 4.5 × 10–3 rad (4) 4.5 × 10–6 rad

44. Young’s double slit experiment is made in a liquid.

The tenth bright fringe in liquid lies in screen where
6th dark fringe lies in vacuum. The refractive index (3) (4)
of the liquid is approximately
(1) 1.8 (2) 1.54
(3) 1.67 (4) 1.2
50. At what angle of incidence will the light reflected
45. The ratio of maximum to minimum intensity due to from material ( = 1.4) be completely polarised?
49 {tan–1 (1.4) = 54.46°, cot–1 (1.4) = 40.91°}
super position of two waves is . Then, the ratio (1) 80.6° (2) 74.45°
9
of the intensity of component waves is- (3) 40.91° (4) 54.46°
25 5
(1) (2)
4 4
25 7
(3) (4)
6 5

SECTION-II (CHEMISTRY)
SECTION - A 52. Arrange the following molecules in the order of
increasing acidity.
51. Arrange the following molecules in order of
decreasing acidity.
A. CH3CH2OH
B. CH3COOH

C.

(1) A>B>C
(2) A>C>B (1) A<B<C<D
(3) B>C>A (2) B<C<D<A
(4) C>A>B (3) D<C<A<B
(4) C<D<B<A
[5]
53. Arrange the following molecules in the order of 61. Benzoyl chloride reacts with hydrogen in the
decreasing acidity. presence of palladium and barium sulphate to give
(1) Benzyl alcohol (2) Benzaldehyde
(3) Cinnamic acid (4) Benzophenone

A. B. 62. Cinnamaldehyde is prepared by the treatment of

(1) Benzaldehyde with acetaldehyde in the
presence of NaOH
(2) Benzaldehyde with formaldehyde in the
presence of NaOH
(3) Benzophenone with acetaldehyde in the
presence of NaOH
C. D. (4) Benzophenone with formaldehyde in the
presence of NaOH

63. Benzaldehyde reacts with methyl magnesium

(1) D > B > A > C (2) B > D > C > A iodide followed by hydrolysis to form
(3) A > B > C > D (4) C > D > A > B (1) 1-phenyl ethanol
(2) Acetophenone
54. Sodium phenoxide reacts with CO2 at 125°C under (3) 2-phenyl ethanol
5 atm pressure to give salicylic acid. This reaction (4) Benzophenone
is called
(1) Kolbe’s reaction (2) Perkin reaction 64. Which of the following undergoes Aldol condensation?
(3) Wurtz reaction (4) HVZ reaction (1) Acetone
(2) Benzaldehyde
55. Phenol reacts with excess bromine water to give (3) Benzophenone
(1) Ortho and para-bromophenol (4) Benzoic acid
(2) Bromobenzene
(3) 2,4,6-tribromophenol 65. When benzaldehyde is treated with concentrated
(4) m-bromophenol NaOH, it gives
(1) Benzyl alcohol
56. Anisole is formed when phenol is treated with (2) Sodium benzoate
(1) CH3I in NaOH (2) CH3CH2I in NaOH (3) Benzoic acid
(3) CHCl3 in NaOH (4) Acetic anhydride (4) Benzyl alcohol + sodium benzoate

57. Anisole on heating with concentrated HI gives 66. Benzaldehyde does not react with
(1) Iodobenzene (1) Tollens’ reagent
(2) Phenol and methyl iodide (2) Fehling’s reagent
(3) Iodobenzene and methanol (3) Phenyl hydrazine
(4) Phenol and methanol (4) Sodium bisulphite

58. Which group forms the strongest H-bonding to

67. Benzaldehyde can be distinguished from
water molecules?
acetophenone by using
(1) Alcohols (2) Ethers
(1) Tollens’ reagent
(3) Phenols (4) All equally
(2) Fehling’s reagent
(3) Lucas’ reagent
59. How can phenol be distinguished from carboxylic
(4) All of these
acids?
(1) Solubility in water
68. Which of the following will yield a yellow ppt
(2) Solubility in HCl solution
when warmed with a mixture of iodine in aqueous
(3) Solubility in sodium bicarbonate solution
sodium hydroxide?
(4) Solubility in sodium hydroxide solution
(1) Acetophenone
60. Which of the following is the most acidic? (2) Benzaldehyde
(1) o-cresol (2) p-nitrophenol (3) Benzophenone
(3) p-cresol (4) p-chlorophenol (4) Propanal

[6]
69. Which of the following is/are correct statements? 75. Predict the product of the following reaction.
A. Tollens’ test is given by both aliphatic and Cyclo pentanol + PCC → product
aromatic aldehydes. (1) Cyclopentane
B. Fehling’s test is given by aliphatic aldehydes. (2) Cyclopentanone
It is not given by aromatic aldehydes (3) Cyclopentaldehyde
C. Iodoform test is given by methyl ketones and (4) Cyclopentenone
acetaldehyde.
D. Lucas’ test is given by both aliphatic and 76. Which of the following reagents would distinguish
aromatic aldehyde. cis-cyclopenta-1, 2-diol from the trans-isomer?
(1) A and B are correct statements. (1) Ozone
(2) B, C and D are correct statements. (2) MnO2
(3) A, B and C are correct statements. (3) Aluminium isopropoxide
(4) All are correct. (4) Acetone

77. Which of the following statement is generally not

70. Which acid is weaker than benzoic acid?
true?
(1) p-methyl benzoic acid
(1) C=O is stronger than an equivalent C=C.
(2) p-chloro benzoic acid
(2) C=O has a larger bond dipole than C=C.
(3) p-nitro benzoic acid
(3) Aldehydes and ketone have higher boiling
(4) o-chloro benzoic acid points than similarly sized alkenes.
(4) Alkenes add nucleophiles more rapidly than
71. Which of the following is the strongest acid? aldehydes or ketones of similar structure.
(1) Trichloroacetic acid
(2) Phenol 78. Which of the following reactions is a good method
(3) Anisole for preparing an aldehyde?
(4) Benzoic acid
(1) Jones’ reagent and a primary alcohol
(2) Jones’ reagent and a secondary alcohol
72. Acetic acid undergoes chlorination in the presence
(3) PCC and primary alcohol
of P/Cl2 but formic acid does not. Why?
(4) Sulphuric acid and primary alcohol
(1) Formic acid is less reactive than acetic acid.
(2) Formic acid does not contain any –H to
79. Which of the following is the best pair of starting
proceed with the chlorination.
materials to make 3-methyl-2-pentene via a Wittig
(3) Formic acid is slightly more acidic than acetic
acid. reaction?
(4) Formic acid underdoes dimerization but acetic (1) Acetaldehyde + CH3(CH3CH2)C = PPh3
acid does. (2) Acetaldehyde + CH3CH = PPh3
(3) 2-butanone + CH3CH = PPh3
73. A compound with molecular formula C7H12O2 (4) 3-pentanone + CH3CH = PPh3
gives a positive Tollens’ silver mirror test and a
positive iodoform test. Which of the following 80. What is the function of the acid catalyst in the first step
would satisfy these facts? of the Fischer esterification of a carboxylic acid?
(1) 2-hydroxy-3,3-dimethyl cyclopentanone (1) To protonate the carbonyl oxygen
(2) 2,5-heptandione (2) To protonate the –OH group of the alcohol
(3) 2,2-dimethyl-3-oxopentanal (3) To protonate the carbonyl carbon
(4) 2,2-dimethyl-4-oxopentanal (4) To protonate the –OH oxygen of the carbonyl
group
74. Which of the following compounds form an imine
upon reaction with an amine? 81. Assertion: Acetone is a methyl ketone.
A. Benzaldehyde Reason: It gives positive iodoform and Tollens’ test.
B. Benzamide (1) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason
C. Acetophenone is a correct explanation for assertion.
D. Benzophenone (2) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason
(1) A and B is not a correct explanation for assertion.
(2) A, C and D (3) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect.
(3) A, B and C
(4) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct.
(4) A, B, C and D

[7]
82. Carboxylic acids have higher bp than aldehydes, (1) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason
ketones and even alcohols of comparable is a correct explanation for assertion.
molecular mass. It is due to (2) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason
(1) Formation of intramolecular H-bonding is not a correct explanation for assertion.
(2) Formation of carboxylate ion (3) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect.
(3) More extensive association of carboxylic acid (4) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct.
via Van der Waals’ forces of attraction
87. Match the following
(4) Formation of intermolecular H-bonding
Column I Column II

83. Which of the following mechanism is correct to A. Gatterman- 1. CHCl3 + NaOH

synthesize cyclohexane from cyclohexanone? Koch
(1) Reduction of cyclohexanone using sodium reaction
borohydride followed by acid dehydration
B. Reimer- 2. CO + HCl,
then catalytic hydrogenation. Tiemann AlCl3Cu2Cl2
(2) Catalytic hydrogenation of cyclohexanone Reaction
followed by acid dehydration
(3) Catalytic hydrogenation of cyclohexanone C. Benzoin 3. Conc. NaOH
followed by hydride reduction then acid condensation
dehydration D. Cannizzaro 4. KCN
(4) All of the above reaction

84. Compound (A), C3H7Cl, reacts with alcoholic A B C D

KOH to form (B), C3H6. Compound (B) (1) 2 1 4 3
decolourizes bromine in CCl4 solution. Reaction of (2) 1 4 3 2
(A) with Mg in ether and subsequent treatment with (3) 3 2 1 4
CO2 and dilute acid gives a compound (C), whose (4) 4 3 2 1
molecular formula is C4H8O2. When we add
compound (C) to aqueous solution sodium 88. Phenol on treatment with chloroform in the
bicarbonate solution, bubbles are evolved. Identify presence of strong base followed by acidification
(A), (B) and (C), respectively. gives
(1) 2-chloropropane, propene, 2-methylpropanoic (1) Salicylaldehyde
acid (2) Salicylic acid
(2) 2-chloropropane, 2-methylpropanoic acid, (3) m-hydroxy benzaldehyde
propene (4) m-hydroxy benzoic acid
(3) 2-methylpropanoic acid, propene,
2-chloropropane 89. Which acid does not have a carboxylic group?
(4) Cannot be identified (1) Benzoic acid (2) Salicylic acid
(3) Picric acid (4) Methanoic acid
85. What is the order of increasing acidity for the
following?
90. Toluene upon oxidation with chromyl chloride
A. 4-methylpentanoic acid
gives
B. 3-chloropentanoic acid
(1) Benzaldehyde (2) Nitrobenzene
C. 2-bromopentanoic acid
(3) Benzoic acid (4) Benzyl alcohol
D. 2,2-dichloropentanoic acid
(1) D < C < B < A (2) C < B < A < D
(3) A < B < C < D (4) B < D < C < A 91. How will you distinguish between formic acid and
acetic acid?
SECTION - B (1) Using Tollens’ test
(2) Using mercuric chloride test
86. Assertion: In Lucas test, primary, secondary and
tertiary alcohols are distinguished on the basis of (3) Fehling test
their reactivity with conc. HCl+ZnCl2, known as (4) All of the above
Lucas reagent.
Reason: Primary alcohols are most reactive and 92. Which compound is most insoluble in water?
immediately produce turbidity at room temperature on (1) Propanoic acid (2) Propanol
reaction with Lucas reagent. (3) Propanone (4) Propane

[8]
93. Which method is the most general preparation of (3) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect.
acid anhydrides? (4) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct.
(1) An acid chloride and the salt of a carboxylic acid
(2) An acid chloride and an ester 97. What is the product of the dehydration of an amide
(3) An amide and the salt of a carboxylic acid with phosphorous pentoxide?
(4) The salt of carboxylic acid and an ester (1) An imide (2) A nitrile
(3) An alkene (4) An ether
94. Acetic anhydride is less reactive toward attack by a
nucleophile than 98. Which of the following reagents will react with
(1) Acetic acid acetamide to form methylamine?
(2) Ethyl acetate (1) LiAlH4 (2) Br2/NaOH
(3) Acetyl chloride (3) PCl5 (4) H2/Ni
(4) Acetonitrile
99. How will you synthesize p-cresol form benzene?
95. Which of the following would react with excess of (1) Friedel-crafts alkylation, sulphonation, fusion
ethyl magnesium bromide to make 3-pentanol? with strong solid base
(1) Ethanal (2) Ethyl formate (2) Sulphonation, fusion with strong solid base,
(3) Acetic acid (4) Acetone Friedel-crafts alkylation
(3) Both (1) and (2)
96. Assertion: Ethyl phenyl ether on reaction with (4) Neither (1) nor (2)
HBr form phenol and ethyl bromide.
Reason: Cleavage of C–O bond takes place on 100. The relation between o-cresol, m-cresol, p-cresol is
ethyl-oxygen bond due to the more stable
phenyl-oxygen bond. (1) Chain isomers (2) Position isomer
(1) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason (3) Tautomers (4) Geometrical isomers
is a correct explanation for assertion.
(2) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason
is not a correct explanation for assertion.
SECTION-III (BOTANY)
SECTION - A
101. Scientist who discovered fermentation (1) Cyanobacteria (2) Mycobacterium
is____________. (3) Archaebacteria (4) Eubacteria
(1) Alexander Fleming
(2) Louis Pasteur 105. Name the blank spaces A, B, C and D given in the
(3) John Mendal following table.
(4) Edward Jenner Types of Scientific Commercial
microbes name products
102. Biopesticides are
(1) The organisms which destroy the crop 1. Bacterium A Lactic acid
(2) The living organism can their products which 2. Fungus B Cyclosporin A
are used for pest contend
(3) The chemicals which are used to destroy the 3. Monascus
C Statins
pests purpureus
(4) None of these
4. Penicillium
Fungus D
notatum
103. Which of the following microorganisms is used for
production of citric acid in industries? (1) A-Lactobacillus, B-Trichoderma Polysporum,
(1) Penicillium citrinum C-Yeast (Fungus), D- Penicillin
(2) Aspergillus niger (2) A-Lactobacillus, B-Trichoderma Polysporum,
(3) Rhizopus nigricans C-Yeast (Algae), D-Penicillin
(4) Lactobacilus bulgaricus (3) A-Lactobacillus, B-Trichoderma Polysporum,
C-Yeast (Prokaryote), D- Penicillin
104. Which of the following are found in Gobar gas (4) A-Lactobacillus, B-Trichoderma Polysporum,
plants? C- Agaricus (Fungus), D- Penicillin

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106. Which of the following can be controlled by using 115. Which of the following statements is not correct
biopesticides? regarding plant breeding
(1) Insects (2) Diseases (1) It involves self-pollination of plants
(3) Weeds (4) All of these (2) It provides soma clonal variations
(3) It is independent of germ plasm of plants
107. Select the correct statement regarding activated (4) It reduces the dependence on fungicides and
sludge formed during secondary sewage treatment Bacteroides
(1) It absorbs pathogen bacteria present in waste
water while shinking to the bottom of the 116. Which of the following has been proven effective
settling tank in controlling Cotton bollworm?
(2) A small amount of it is rapidly pumped back (1) Bacillus thruringenesis
from sedimentation to aeration tank (2) Mucor
(3) A major part of it is an aerobically digested (3) Rhizopus
(4) Both (2) and (3) (4) Pseudomonas fluorescens

108. Which of the following enzymes are not released 117. Which one of the following crop varieties correctly
by yeast during leavening? matches with its resistance to a disease.
(1) Lipase (2) Maltase Variety Resistance to diseases
(3) Amylase (4) Zymase (1) Pusa shubhra Chili mosaic virus
(2) Pusa swarnim Tobacco mosaic virus
109. Bacteriostatic antibiotics are those that are (3) Pusa sadabahal White rust
(1) Harmful to the host (4) Pusa Komal Bacterial blight
(2) Kills the bacteria instantly
(3) Inhibit bacterial growth 118. Leavening of bread flour is due to
(4) Kills the normal microbial flora in the gut (1) Conversion of maltose into glucose
(2) Action of zymase on maltose
110. Which of the following food items are made using (3) Formation of ethyl alcohol and carbon dioxide
fermentation of soyabean? from glucose
(1) Soy sauce (2) Sausages (4) Breakdown of lactose into galactose and
(3) Sauerkraut (4) All of these glucose

111. Sour cream is obtained by churning of milk 119. Brewer’s yeast, that is used in alcoholic
inoculated with fermentation is:
(1) Lactobacillus sp. (1) Saccharomyces ellipsoidens
(2) Propionibacterium sharmanii (2) Lactobacillus sp.
(3) Streptococcus lactis (3) Propionibacteriuim sharmanii
(4) Streptococcus thermophilus (4) Saccharomyces cerevisiae

112. Flocs are formed in _____ during sewage 120. Fermentation products of the
treatment. yeast Monascus purpureus include
(1) Anaerobic sludge digester (1) Proteases (2) Statins
(2) Aeration tank (3) Rennet (4) Cyclosporin A
(3) Settling tank
(4) All of the above 121. Farmers have reported over 50% higher yields of
rice by using which of the following biofertilizers
113. The bacteria Acetobacter aceti carries out the (1) Azolla pinnata
______ reactions during acetic acid formation. (2) Mycorrhizae
(1) Aerobic (2) Anaerobic (3) Legume—Rhizobium symbiosis
(3) Fermentation (4) Enzymatic (4) Bacillus thuringiensis

114. Aerobic digestion during sewage treatment 122. The insecticidal Cry protein is found in
(1) Reduces BOD (1) Spores of Trichoderma
(2) Increases BOD (2) Spores of Bacillus thuringiensis
(3) Produces biogas (3) Baculoviruses
(4) Contains methanogenic bacteria (4) Aphids

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123. Emigration is (D) In nature, a given habitat has enough resources
(1) Going out of some individuals to return after to support a maximum possible number
some time How many of the above statements is/are correct?
(2) Temporary inward movement of some (1) Four
individuals (2) Two
(3) Outward movement of some individuals from (3) Three
a population during the time period under (4) One
consideration
(4) Permanent inward movement of some 130. Many fresh water organisms cannot survive for
individuals into a population long in marine water because the surrounding
water is _______ to body and _____ may occur
124. The sum total of the population of the same kind of (1) Hypotonic, Endosmosis
organisms constitute (2) Hypotonic, Exosmosis
(1) Colony (2) Genus (3) Hypertonic, Endosmosis
(3) Community (4) Species (4) Hypertonic, Exosmosis

125. The interaction between the organisms of one of

131. An animal that can survive at 10°C and 40°C both,
the following pairs is an example for
can be placed under the category of
commensalism
(1) Conformers
(1) Wasp and Fig tree
(2) Regulators
(2) Cuscuta with other plants
(3) Migratory organisms
(3) Cattle or sheep and egrets
(4) Modifiers
(4) Ascaris and human

132. Which of the following is an adaptation for

126. Homeostasis is
xerophytes?
(1) Tendency to change with change in
environment (1) Sunken stomata
(2) Tendency to resist change (2) Thin cuticle on leaves
(3) Disturbance in regulatory control (3) Thick cuticle on leaves
(4) Plants and animals extracts used in (4) Both (1) and (3)
homeopathy
133. Asymptote, in a logistic growth curve is obtained
127. When does the growth rate of a population when
following the logistic model equal zero? The (1) The value of r approaches zero
logistic model is given as dN/dt = rN(1 – N/K) (2) K = N
(1) When N nears the carrying capacity of the (3) K > N
habitat (4) K
(2) When N/K equals zero
(3) When death rate is greater than birth rate 134. The J shaped growth curve lacks
(4) When N/K is exactly one (1) Lag phase
(2) Exponential phase
128. The organism inhabiting a common environment (3) Stationary phase
belongs to the same (4) None of the above
(1) Species (2) Genus
(3) Population (4) Community 135. The population growth is generally described by
following equation
129. Read the following four statements (A-D) dN K − N 
= rN  
(A) The size of a population for any species is a dt  K 
static parameter. What does ‘r’ represents in given equation?
(B) Natality is the number of birth in the (1) The base of natural logarithms
population during a given period. (2) Carrying capacity
(C) Resource availability is essential for the (3) Intrinsic rate of natural increases
impeded growth of a population. (4) Population density at times ‘t’

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 SECTION - B 143. Which of the following is not a correct match
136. Plant species with wide range of distribution between a vitamin and the disease caused due to its
evolve into local populations called deficiency?
(1) Ecosystems (2) Populations (1) Vitamin-A – Xerophthalmia
(3) Ecotypes (4) Ephemerals (2) Vitamin-D – Rickets
(3) Vitamin-C – Scurvy
(4) Vitamin-K – Beri-beri
137. Proportion of young individuals is highest in case
of
144. Match Column I with the disease resistant variety
(1) Declining population
in Column II.
(2) Stable population
Column I Column II
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Expanding population A. Cowpea i. Himgiri

138. In a population, rate of addition of new members is B. Wheat ii. Pusa Komal
higher than the rate of individuals lost. It shows
C. Chilli iii. Pusa Sadabahar
(1) Zero population growth
(2) Declined growth D. Brassica iv. Pusa Swarnim
(3) Exponential growth
(4) None of these (1) A-iv, B-ii, C-iii, D-i
(2) A-ii, B-i, C-iii, D-iv
139. Select the correct pair of adaptations in desert (3) A-ii, B-iv, C-i, D-iii
lizards (4) A-i, B-iii, C-iv, D-ii
(a) Burrowing in the soil to escape high
temperature 145. In case of inbreeding depression, selected animal
(b) Use physiological ability instead of of the breeding population should be mated with
behavioural means to deal with the high (1) Related superior animals of the same breed
temperatures (2) Related superior animals of different breeds
(c) Bask in the sun when the temperature is low (3) Unrelated superior animals of the same breed
(d) Insulating body with thick fatty dermis (4) Unrelated superior animals of different breeds
(1) (b) and (d) (2) (a) and (b)
(3) (c) and (d) (4) (a) and (c) 146. Which of the following is the most important factor
that can lead to increased milk yield in cattle?
140. Antifreeze proteins or AFPs enable organisms that (1) Selection of good breeds
possess it to (2) Resistance to diseases
(1) Survive high temperatures (3) Stringent cleanliness and hygiene
(2) Survive extreme pressure (4) Provision of ideal environmental conditions to
(3) Survive subzero temperatures
cattle
(4) None of these
147. The reduction in fertility and productivity that is
141. Community is a group of independent and caused by continuous inbreeding can be overcome by
interacting population of (1) A single outcross
(1) Different species (2) Outcrossing for many generations
(2) Same species (3) Cross-breeding
(3) Same species in a specific area (4) Interspecific hybridisation
(4) Different species in a specific area
148. Assertion: Lichen is important for chemical
142. They may reduce the survival, growth and industries.
reproduction of the other organisms and reduce its Reason: Litmus and Orcein are formed from
population density. They might render the lichens.
(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and
organism more vulnerable to predation by making
Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
it physically weak. They are
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but
(1) Predator Reason is not the correct explanation of
(2) Parasite Assertion.
(3) Amensal (3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Commensal (4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

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149. Assertion: Leaf butterfly and stick insect show 150. Assertion: Griseofulvin extracted from P.
mimicry to dodge their enemies. griseofulvum is used for ringworm treatment.
Reason: Mimicry is a method to acquire body Reason: Trichophyton, Epidermophyton, etc.
colour blending with the surroundings. cannot grow well in presence of Penicillium
(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and griseofulvum.
Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion. (1) If both Assertion and Reason are true and
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
Reason is not the correct explanation of (2) If both Assertion and Reason are true but
Assertion. Reason is not the correct explanation of
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false. Assertion.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false. (3) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) If both Assertion and Reason are false.

SECTION-IV (ZOOLOGY)
SECTION - A
151. Health is affected by 158. Choose the incorrect statement about common
(1) Genetic disorders (2) Infections cold.
(3) Life style (4) All of these (1) It is one of the most infectious disease.
(2) It is caused by Rhino virus.
152. Choose the incorrect statement regarding health. (3) Rhinovirus infect lungs.
(1) Balance diet, personal hygiene and regular (4) Rhinovirus infect nose and respiratory passage
exercise are very important to maintain good but not the lungs.
health. 159. Which of the following is viral disease?
(2) Yoga is being practised to achieve physical (1) Chickenpox (2) Measles
and mental health. (3) Mumps (4) All of the above
(3) Health decrease economic prosperity.
(4) When people are healthy, they are more 160. Given below are two statements.
efficient at work. Statement I: Influenza is commonly called ‘flu’
Statement II: Fear of water is the most important
153. Which of the following is bacterial disease? characteristics symptoms of rabies
(1) Typhoid (2) Pneumonia Choose the correct statement.
(3) Both (1) and (2) (4) Mumps (1) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
(2) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
154. Pathogen of typhoid is (3) Both statement I and statement II are correct
(1) Salmonella typhi (4) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
(2) Streptococcus
(3) Yersinia pestis 161. Malaria is caused by
(4) Mycobacterium (1) Protozoan (2) Monera
(3) Fungi (4) Virus
155. Typhoid fever could be confirmed by.
(1) ELISA test (2) PCR 162. Host requires to complete life cycle of malaria are
(3) Widal test (4) Sputum test (1) Mosquito and human
(2) Human and snail
156. Haemophilus influenzae is a pathogen of (3) Human and pig
(1) Tuberculosis (2) Pneumonia (4) Human and buffalo
(3) Plague (4) Leprosy
163. Infective stage of Plasmodium is
157. If a person shows production of interferons in his (1) Schizont (2) Sporozoites
body, the chances are that he has got an infection (3) Merozoits (4) Cryptozoites
of
(1) Tetanus 164. Ringworm is a
(2) Malaria (1) Monera disease (2) Fungal disease
(3) typhoid (3) Bacterial disease (4) Viral disease
(4) Measles

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165. Match the disease in column I with column II and 174. Which of the following diseases is due to an
choose the correct option allergic reaction?
Column I Column II (1) Enteric fever (2) Skin cancer
A. Amoebiasis i. STDs (3) Goitre (4) Hay fever
B. Diptheria ii. Use only sterilised
175. Active artificial immunisation is induced by
food and water administration of
C. Cholera iii. DPT vaccine (a) Bacterial products (b) Toxoids
D. Syphilis iv. Use ORS (c) Dead microbes (d) Antitoxins
A B C D (1) a and b only (2) a, b and c only
(3) b and d only (4) c and d only
(1) ii iii iv i
(2) i ii iii iv 176. Which of the following immune response is
(3) ii iv i iii responsible for graft rejection?
(4) ii i iii iv (1) Physical barrier of innate immunity
(2) Cellular barrier of innate immunity
166. Oncogene is another name for (3) Humoral immune response
(1) Inducer gene (2) Jumping gene (4) Cell mediated immune response
(3) Structural gene (4) Cancer causing gene
177. Symptoms of allergic reaction include
167. Tetanus is also known as– (1) Sneezing (2) Running nose
(1) Koch’s disease (2) Lock Jaw (3) Watery (4) All of these
(3) Mad cow disease (4) PKD
178. Which of the following drug reduces the symptoms
168. Immunity is of of allergy?
(1) Two type (2) Three type (1) Antihistamine
(3) One type (4) Four type (2) Adrenaline
(3) Steroid
169. Which of the following immunity is known as (4) All of the above
innate immunity?
(1) Inborn immunity 179. Primary lymphoid organs are
(2) Acquired immunity (1) Bone marrow
(3) Humoral immunity (2) Spleen
(4) All of these (3) Thymus
(4) Both (1) and (3)
170. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Innate immunity consist of four types 180. Assertion (A): Tapeworm, roundworm and
of barriers. pinworm are endoparasites of human intestine.
Statement II: Cellular barriers is not the part of Reason (R): Plasmodium vivax is responsible for
innate immunity. malaria.
Choose the correct statement Choose the correct option.
(1) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect (1) Both (A) and (R) are true and the (R) is correct
(2) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct explanation of (A)
(3) Both statement I and statement II are correct (2) Both (A) and (R) are true and the (R) is not the
(4) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true statement but (R) is false
171. Antibody found in colostrum, saliva and tears is (4) Both (A) and (R) are false
(1) IgA (2) IgG
(3) IgD (4) IgM 181. Identify the incorrectly matched pair.
(1) Plaque – Viral disease
172. Antibody that can cross placenta is (2) Malignant malaria – Plasmodium falciparum
(1) IgA (2) IgG (3) Common cold – Rhino virus
(3) IgM (4) IgE (4) Trichophyton – Ring worm

173. Choose the correct statement regarding immunity 182. Which of the following pairs of disease is viral as
(1) Active immunity is slow well as transmitted by mosquitoes?
(2) Active immunity can be artificial and natural (1) Elephantiasis and dengue
(3) In artificial active immunity, resistance (2) Yellow fever and sleeping sickness
inductance by vaccine (3) Encephalitis and sleeping sickness
(4) All of these (4) Yellow fever and dengue
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183. AIDS is 193. Causes of cancer are
(1) A type of cancer (1) Physical agent (2) Chemical agent
(2) A type of bacterial disease (3) Biological agent (4) All of these
(3) Deficiency disease
(4) Protozoan disease 194. Use of Cannabis product result in
(1) Stimulation of nervous system thus increases
184. Which of the following techniques is safest for the alertness and activity
detection of cancer? (2) Suppressed brain function and released in pain
(1) MRI (3) Depressed brain activity and feeling of calmness
(2) X-ray (4) Alternation of perception, thoughts and feeling
(3) CT scan
(4) Histopathological studies 195. Cocaine, commonly called, as
(1) Coke (2) Crack
185. Which of the following disease is now considered (3) Both (1) and (2) (4) Heroine
eradicated from the world?
(1) Small Pox (2) Typhoid 196. Cocaine is native to
(3) Malaria (4) Kala Azar (1) South Africa (2) South America
(3) North America (4) South Australia
SECTION - B
186. Which of the following pair of diseases is caused 197. This is the structure of
by virus?
(1) Rabies, Mumps
(2) Cholera, Tuberculosis
(3) Typhoid, Tetanus
(4) AIDS, Syphilis

187. Antibodies in our body are complex.

(1) Glycoproteins (2) Lipoproteins (1) Cannabinoid molecule
(3) Steroids (4) Prostaglandins (2) Cocaine molecule
(3) Morphine molecule
188. The letter T in T-lymphocyte refers to (4) All of these
(1) Thymus (2) Thyroid
(3) Thalamus (4) Tonsil 198. Smoking increases ______ content in blood and
reduces the concentration of haembound oxygen.
189. The blood cancer is known as This causes oxygen deficiency in the bodies
(1) Haemolysis (2) Haemophilia (1) Carbon dioxide
(3) Leukaemia (4) Thrombosis (2) Carbaminohemoglobin
(3) Carbon monoxide
190. Assertion (A): Vaccine against AIDS has not been
(4) Carboxylic acid
made inspite of repeated attempts.
Reason (R): HIV has the ability to get mutated to
199. Diptheria is caused by
form several subtypes
(1) Nematodes (2) Bacteria
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and the (R) is the
(3) Virus (4) None of these
correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
correct explanation of (A) 200. Assertion (A): Colostrum is very efficient means
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false of transferring immunity to a new born.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false Reason (R): IgM from mother’s milk protect the
baby from the respiratory infection usually
191. Antibody is represented as affecting in young age.
(1) N2M2 (2) H2L2 (1) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is the correct
(3) M2N2 (4) D2L2 explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but the (R) is not the
192. Mark the odd one correct explanation of (A)
(1) Peyer's Patches (2) Spleen (3) (A) is true and (R) is false
(3) Lymph nodes (4) Thymus (4) Both (A) and (R) are false

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