Manpower Planning

Here are the answers to the questions based on the context of human resource management
and manpower planning:

1. Manpower planning is primarily focused on:

 Answer: Forecasting and managing the supply and demand of labor

o Explanation: Manpower planning is about forecasting the labor requirements
and managing the supply of workers to meet organizational goals.

2. Which is the simplest flow model used for forecasting?

 Answer: Vacancy Model

o Explanation: The vacancy model is a simple method used for forecasting
staffing needs based on current vacancies and replacements.

3. Which of these factors is not included in environmental scanning?

 Answer: Compensation management

o Explanation: Environmental scanning includes factors like political, economic,
and technical factors that impact the organization. Compensation management
is an internal factor.

4. Which of the following option is not the factor that hinders the human resource
planning process?

 Answer: Unite the perspectives of line and staff managers

o Explanation: While uniting the perspectives of line and staff managers can be
a challenge, it is not a direct hindrance to the planning process compared to
other options like environmental uncertainties or forecasting information.

5. What is the major issue faced while doing personnel planning?

 Answer: Type of information which should be used in making forecasts

o Explanation: A key challenge in personnel planning is deciding what kind of
information (historical data, trends, etc.) to use for accurate forecasting.

6. Choose the correct option, where Human Resource Information System can be used.

 Answer: Succession planning

o Explanation: HRIS can be used to track employee skills, experience, and
potential for succession planning.

7. Which of these is the most important external factor governing recruitments?

 Answer: Labour market

 o Explanation: The labor market is a crucial external factor affecting
recruitment, influencing the availability of candidates.

8. What is the external factor affecting Human resource planning?

 Answer: Government policies

o Explanation: Government policies, such as labor laws and regulations, are
important external factors in HR planning.

9. Which of the below mentioned option is not a retention plan?

 Answer: Induction crisis

o Explanation: Retention plans focus on keeping employees, while "induction
crisis" refers to challenges faced during the onboarding process.

10. Which of the following is a desirable feature of leadership?

 Answer: Coexistence of leaders and managers

o Explanation: Effective organizations benefit from the balance of leadership
and management roles, where leaders inspire and managers ensure tasks are
completed.

11. Which of the following is the first step in the strategic HR planning process?

 Answer: Analyzing current workforce capabilities

o Explanation: Understanding the current workforce is the first step to planning
HR needs for the future.

12. A toxic work environment is typically characterized by one of the following?

 Answer: High levels of stress, conflict, and lack of support

o Explanation: A toxic work environment is often marked by these negative
factors.

13. Which of the following is a key benefit of strategic recruitment?

 Answer: Increasing organizational adaptability and competitiveness

o Explanation: Strategic recruitment helps an organization adapt to changes and
remain competitive by hiring the right talent.

14. In strategic recruitment, “employer branding” refers to one of the followings?

 Answer: Building a reputation as a desirable place to work to attract top talent

o Explanation: Employer branding helps attract high-quality candidates by
creating a positive image of the organization.

15. ______ involves ensuring that training, development, and recruitment strategies are
in place to meet the future manpower needs of an organization.

 Answer: Human Resource development

 o Explanation: HR development focuses on training, development, and
recruitment strategies to address future workforce requirements.

16. ____________ is the process of assessing the current workforce to determine if the
organization has the right talent and skills for its future needs.

 Answer: Supply forecasting

o Explanation: Supply forecasting assesses the current workforce's capabilities
to meet future needs.

17. ________ is a key component of manpower planning that helps identify any gaps
between the organization’s future workforce needs and its current workforce supply.

 Answer: Skills gap analysis

o Explanation: Skills gap analysis identifies the difference between the skills an
organization needs and what is currently available.

18. Effective manpower planning helps in identifying the skills and competencies
required to meet future business goals.

 Answer: True
o Explanation: Manpower planning is essential for aligning workforce skills
with the organization's future objectives.

19. Manpower planning is a short-term activity focused only on immediate staffing

needs.

 Answer: False
o Explanation: Manpower planning is a long-term activity aimed at aligning
workforce strategies with future business needs.

20. Demand forecasting in manpower planning helps to estimate the number of

employees needed based on future business requirements.

 Answer: True
o Explanation: Demand forecasting helps estimate the required number of
employees to meet future business goals.

Let me know if you need further clarifications or assistance!

Here are the answers to the questions based on the case study provided:

2. Identify factors that determine the appropriateness of using this complicated

statistical tool in the hiring process of the company.

 Answer: To minimize deviations

 o Explanation: The purpose of using Six Sigma in the hiring process is to
minimize deviations from the set standards and improve the recruitment
process by analyzing and addressing the factors that cause defects.

3. Identify the ways in which Six Sigma can help the organization improve its hiring
process.

 Answer: Creating a qualification template to help establish the ideal candidates

with the right team, leadership, and technical abilities.
o Explanation: Six Sigma can help improve hiring by creating a clear and
defined qualification template to ensure that the company hires candidates
who align with the required team, leadership, and technical skills.

4. Identify the purpose of recruitment with Six Sigma?

 Answer: Help increase the success rate of the selection process by reducing the
number of visibly underqualified or overqualified job applicants.
o Explanation: Six Sigma improves the recruitment process by reducing errors
in the hiring process, particularly by minimizing the mismatch between the
candidates' qualifications and the job requirements.

5. Identify the benefits of Six Sigma to Matrix for recruitment in their company?

 Answer: Helped to analyze the root cause of defects in recruitment stages

o Explanation: Six Sigma helps Matrix analyze the root causes of issues or
defects in the recruitment stages, allowing the company to refine and improve
the process based on data-driven insights.

6. Estimate the success factors of Six Sigma for recruitment and selection process?

 Answer: Process-improvement strategy

o Explanation: Six Sigma is a process-improvement strategy that focuses on
minimizing deviations from established standards, which is crucial for
improving the recruitment and selection processes.

These answers align with the Six Sigma methodology described in the case study, which
emphasizes data-driven decision-making, continuous process improvement, and minimizing
errors or inefficiencies. Let me know if you need further clarification!
Compensation Management

Here are the answers to the questions:

1. Which of the following factors influence employee compensation?

 Answer: Cost of living

o Explanation: The cost of living is one of the key factors that influence
employee compensation, as companies often adjust wages to reflect changes in
the cost of living in the area.

2. Who proposed "Theory X and Theory Y"?

 Answer: Douglas McGregor

o Explanation: Douglas McGregor proposed the "Theory X and Theory Y,"
which describes two distinct views of individuals at work: Theory X assumes
people are inherently lazy, while Theory Y assumes people are motivated and
enjoy work.

3. According to the total reward approach, the variable pay of the employee is

 Answer: added into base pay

o Explanation: Variable pay is often added to base pay to create a total
compensation package that includes both fixed and performance-based
components.

4. The outcomes of competency-based systems such as improved and higher employee

satisfaction & commitment are classified as

 Answer: employee related outcomes

o Explanation: These outcomes directly affect the employees, such as their
satisfaction, engagement, and commitment to the organization.

5. What is the advantage of profit sharing?

 Answer: The pay for each employee moves up or down together

o Explanation: Profit sharing aligns employees' interests with the company's
success, as the pay is tied to company profitability.

6. What is Grant date?

 Answer: The date on which the company grants an option to its employee
o Explanation: The grant date refers to the day a company offers stock options
or other benefits to its employees.

7. Which company first developed the 360-degree system of appraisal?

  Answer: General Electric, US in 1992
o Explanation: General Electric is credited with developing the 360-degree
feedback system in the early 1990s.

8. What is the advantage of the Group Incentive Plan?

 Answer: Less Supervision

o Explanation: Group incentive plans encourage teamwork and reduce the need
for constant supervision, as employees work together to achieve common
goals.

9. The 'Praise' & 'Expression of Approval' in the form of program are best classified as

 Answer: Social recognition program

o Explanation: Praise and expressions of approval fall under social recognition
programs, which are non-monetary ways to recognize employee contributions.

10. Which allowances are included in the calculation of Bonus?

 Answer: Dearness Allowance

o Explanation: Dearness allowance is included in bonus calculations as part of
the total compensation.

11. The Ranking method is best suitable for which type of organization?

 Answer: Small Organization

o Explanation: The ranking method is simpler and works best in smaller
organizations where fewer employees are being compared.

12. What is the abbreviation for ESI?

 Answer: Employee State Insurance

o Explanation: ESI stands for Employee State Insurance, a social security
scheme for employees in India.

13. Paired comparison method can be used by

 Answer: Supervisors
o Explanation: The paired comparison method is often used by supervisors to
rank employees against one another based on certain attributes or
performance.

14. What is linked with performance appraisal?

 Answer: Development
o Explanation: Performance appraisals are directly linked with employee
development, as they help identify areas for growth and training.
15. A participative process that uses the entire capacity of employees and is designed to
encourage increased commitment to the organization’s success, is known as
______________ .

 Answer: Employee involvement

o Explanation: Employee involvement is a process that engages employees in
decision-making and helps increase commitment to organizational goals.

16. _______ are also called 'payments by result'.

 Answer: Incentives
o Explanation: Incentives are often referred to as "payments by result" because
they are tied to performance outcomes.

17. A ______ must be fixed considering the general economic conditions of the country.

 Answer: Minimum wages

o Explanation: Minimum wages are typically set considering the economic
conditions, including inflation and cost of living, in the country.

18. The dearness allowance is a part of the total compensation a person receives for
having performed his or her job.

 Answer: True
o Explanation: Dearness allowance is part of the compensation provided to
employees to offset inflation and the rising cost of living.

19. Absenteeism is authorized absence from work.

 Answer: False
o Explanation: Absenteeism refers to the habitual absence from work, whether
authorized or unauthorized. "Authorized absence" is typically termed as
"leave."

20. Career planning services can be considered part of an employer’s Total Rewards.

 Answer: True
o Explanation: Career planning is an important component of an employer’s
total rewards package, as it helps in employee development and long-term
career growth.

These answers reflect common HR concepts and compensation strategies. Let me know if
you need further explanations!

Here are the answers to the questions based on the provided case:
2. Why did XYZ Ltd. announce plans to reduce the variable component of employee
salaries?

 Answer: Economic challenges in the sector

o Explanation: The company was facing macroeconomic challenges, such as
the rapid appreciation of the rupee and the recession in the US economy,
which likely led to the pay cuts.

3. According to some analysts, what were the potential reasons for the pay cuts at XYZ
Ltd.?

 Answer: Macro-economic challenges in the sector

o Explanation: Analysts believed that the pay cuts were due to broader
economic challenges, particularly those affecting the sector, such as the
appreciation of the rupee and global economic downturns.

4. What model is the compensation management system at XYZ Ltd. based on?

 Answer: Economic Value Added (EVA)

o Explanation: The compensation system at XYZ Ltd. is based on the EVA
model, which considers business unit, corporate, and individual performance
to determine the variable component of salaries.

5. As per the case, which of the following are part of the remuneration model?

 Answer: Bonuses
o Explanation: The remuneration model discussed in the case includes a
combination of fixed and variable pay, with bonuses being part of the variable
pay linked to EVA performance.

6. Identify which of the following factors influence employee compensation?

 Answer: Labour market

o Explanation: The labor market is a crucial factor influencing employee
compensation, as market trends, skill shortages, and supply-demand factors
impact salary structures.

These answers reflect the key concepts discussed in the case related to compensation
management at XYZ Ltd.
Performance and Potential Management
Here are the answers to the performance management-related questions:

1. The important process required for a good performance management system is

 Answer: Alignment of employees' KRAs to corporate vision, mission, and

strategic objectives
o Explanation: A good performance management system aligns employee goals
and Key Result Areas (KRAs) with the broader organizational goals, ensuring
that everyone works towards the same objectives.

2. The performance review and feedback sessions are between people of

 Answer: Immediate superior/Reviewer and employee

o Explanation: Performance reviews typically occur between the employee and
their direct supervisor to assess job performance, provide feedback, and set
goals.

3. Who will facilitate the performance management system review between the
employee and his superior, when different opinions and conflicts prevail?

 Answer: Concerned HR Manager

o Explanation: The HR Manager typically facilitates such reviews, helping to
resolve conflicts and ensure that the performance management process is fair
and effective.

4. What are the four perspectives of Balanced Scorecard strategic initiatives?

 Answer: Financial, Customer, Internal perspective, and Learning &

Development
o Explanation: The Balanced Scorecard framework includes these four
perspectives to ensure a comprehensive view of organizational performance.

5. What is the important primary step in the appraisal process?

 Answer: Defining the Key Result Areas and job role

o Explanation: The first step in the appraisal process is to clearly define the
employee's job role and KRAs, which serve as the basis for evaluating
performance.

6. What are the best practices to improve Quality and Productivity?

 Answer: Six - Sigma, Kaizen, and TPM practices

o Explanation: These are methodologies aimed at continuous improvement,
enhancing quality, and boosting productivity in organizations.

7. A process in which the manager, supervisor, or an external expert acts as the advisor,
philosopher, and guide is called
  Answer: Mentoring
o Explanation: Mentoring involves a more experienced individual providing
guidance, advice, and support to a less experienced employee.

8. The process of assisting employees in their career decisions is known as

 Answer: Career management

o Explanation: Career management involves helping employees make informed
decisions about their career paths within the organization.

9. The feedback in career planning that focuses on how well employees fit into future
organizational plans is classified as

 Answer: Reality feedback

o Explanation: Reality feedback helps employees understand how their skills
and career goals align with the organization's future plans.

10. What is Critical Incident Method in Performance Management System?

 Answer: Creating critical incidents and recording the same

o Explanation: The Critical Incident Method involves documenting specific
instances of good or poor performance that have significant impact on the
employee's effectiveness.

11. In what way can the performance appraisal contribute to organizational success and
achieve its goals?

 Answer: Analyse, align & improve the performance level of all employees
o Explanation: Performance appraisals are used to assess, align, and improve
employee performance, which is key to achieving organizational goals.

12. Succession planning should be part of which process and whose commitment is
required?

 Answer: HR Process, Policies, and management commitment

o Explanation: Succession planning is a critical part of the HR process and
requires strong commitment from management to ensure leadership
continuity.

13. The entire process of goal setting, performance appraisal, feedback, coaching, and
employee development consolidated as one system to support a company’s strategy is
called

 Answer: Performance management system

o Explanation: A performance management system integrates all these
elements to ensure that employees' activities and outcomes align with the
company's strategic objectives.

14. The primary purpose of providing employees with feedback and coaching during a
performance appraisal is to motivate employees for which of the following?
  Answer: Remove any performance deficiencies and act on development plans of
employee
o Explanation: The goal of feedback and coaching is to help employees address
performance gaps and improve their skills and productivity.

15. The first step in the Performance Management system is…

 Answer: Planning
o Explanation: Planning is the first step in performance management, as it
involves setting clear goals, expectations, and standards for employees.

16. The process of filling key positions in the organization hierarchy as vacancies arise is
known as

 Answer: Succession Planning

o Explanation: Succession planning ensures that the organization has a pipeline
of talent ready to fill key leadership positions when they become vacant.

17. What employees receive in exchange for their contribution/service to the

organization is

 Answer: Compensation & Reward

o Explanation: Compensation and rewards are provided to employees in return
for their work and contributions to the organization.

18. Performance of an organization is influenced by the organization culture and

management commitment.

 Answer: True
o Explanation: The culture and management's commitment to supporting
performance improvements are critical factors that influence overall
organizational performance.

19. Performance appraisals are done by the Human Resource Department only without
involving other departments for organizational employees.

 Answer: False
o Explanation: Performance appraisals are typically a collaborative process
involving the employee's supervisor and HR, and in some cases, other
departments may also participate.

20. The KRA's of employees do not have any linkage or correlation with Organizational
objectives and goals.

 Answer: False
o Explanation: Key Result Areas (KRAs) should always be aligned with the
organization's objectives and goals to ensure that employee performance
contributes to the success of the company.

Here are the answers based on the scenario provided about Mr. Rohit:
1. Identify the traits responsible for organizing self-performance

 Answer: Self-motivation
o Explanation: Self-motivation is key to organizing one's performance, as it
drives the individual to take initiative and consistently perform at a high level.

2. What were the learnings of Mr. Rohit after the counselling session of his manager?

 Answer: Team Spirit

o Explanation: After the counseling session, Mr. Rohit learned the importance
of maintaining team spirit and diversifying decision-making, which helped
him improve his team’s cohesion and overall performance.

3. What made Rohit win the award on a continuous basis?

 Answer: Discipline
o Explanation: Mr. Rohit's discipline, along with his other traits like
consistency and dedication, played a major role in his continuous success and
winning the award for two years.

4. What is your opinion about organizational training programmes that must include
self-performance techniques?

 Answer: Based on employee attitude and requirements

o Explanation: Training programs should indeed include self-performance
techniques, but they must be tailored to the needs and attitudes of the
employees to be effective.

5. Which are the key indicators for maintaining organizational performance levels?

 Answer: Training
o Explanation: Training is crucial in maintaining and improving organizational
performance, as it ensures employees have the necessary skills and knowledge
to meet performance goals.

These answers are aligned with the situation described in the case about Mr. Rohit’s
performance, challenges, and growth within the company.

Labour Laws

Here are the answers based on the questions provided:

1. The primary objective of the "Industrial Employment Standing Orders Act" is

  Answer: Increase uniformity in employment conditions
o Explanation: The primary aim of this Act is to ensure that employers and
employees have a clear understanding of the conditions of employment and
that there is uniformity in employment practices.

2. When did the Minimum Wages Act come into force?

 Answer: 01 April 1948

o Explanation: The Minimum Wages Act came into effect on April 1, 1948, to
ensure workers are paid minimum wages.

3. As per the act, a child should not be permitted to work between

 Answer: 8 PM; 7 AM
o Explanation: The law prohibits child labor during the night hours between 8
PM and 7 AM.

4. The space for every worker employed in the factory after the commencement of the
Factories Act, 1948 should be how much cubic meters?

 Answer: 9.9 cubic meters

o Explanation: The Factories Act requires that each worker should have a
minimum of 9.9 cubic meters of space.

5. Identify the criteria on which the bonus can be calculated?

 Answer: Profit & Productivity

o Explanation: Bonuses are often calculated based on the company’s profits
and productivity, ensuring that employees are rewarded for contributing to
these factors.

6. When the worker fails to report to work for more than 72 hrs. under the Mines Act,
1952 due to injury will be distinguished as

 Answer: Serious bodily injury

o Explanation: Serious bodily injury refers to injuries that result in an employee
being unable to return to work for a certain period.

7. A person who undertakes to produce a given result for the establishment through
contract labor or who supplies contract labor for any work of the establishment and
includes a sub-contractor can be summarized as

 Answer: Contractor
o Explanation: A contractor is responsible for engaging workers on behalf of
the establishment and ensuring that the work is completed as per the agreed-
upon result.

8. Provision of Spittoons comes under which act?

 Answer: The Factories Act 1948

 o Explanation: The Factories Act includes provisions related to cleanliness in
the factory, including the requirement of spittoons for workers.

9. "Any dispute or difference between employers and employers or between employers

and workmen or between workmen and workmen which is connected with the
employment or non-employment or with the condition of labor" can be categorized as

 Answer: The Industrial Disputes Act 1947

o Explanation: This Act deals with the resolution of disputes between
employers and employees regarding employment conditions and labor issues.

10. Under the Industrial Dispute Act 1948, whether settlement is reached or not, the
Board must submit the report within which period the dispute was referred to it.

 Answer: 2 months of the date

o Explanation: The Industrial Dispute Act requires the Board to submit a report
on the dispute within 2 months.

11. The objective of the Plantation Act is to provide which kind of benefits to
employees?

 Answer: Welfare
o Explanation: The Plantation Act focuses on ensuring welfare measures such
as health, safety, and other benefits for employees in plantations.

12. "An Act is to require employers in industrial establishments to formally define

conditions of employment under them and submit draft of standing orders to certifying
Authority for its Certification." can be distinguished as…

 Answer: The Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Act 1946

o Explanation: This Act requires employers to define the conditions of
employment and submit the standing orders for certification.

13. The relevant factor that can cause industrial dispute among various parties is…
select the most appropriate option.

 Answer: Unjust layoff & Retrenchment

o Explanation: Unjust layoffs and retrenchments are often major causes of
industrial disputes as they can lead to dissatisfaction among workers.

14. The Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act, 1986 is an example of

 Answer: Protective Labour Legislation

o Explanation: This Act is designed to protect children from being employed in
hazardous conditions.

15. Gratuity will be paid to the nominee of the deceased employee if he is…

 Answer: 18 years or above

 o Explanation: Gratuity can be paid to the nominee of a deceased employee
who is 18 years or older.

16. The maximum amount of bonus to be paid in an accounting year as per section 10 of
this act is ____

 Answer: 0.0833
o Explanation: The maximum bonus as per the Payment of Bonus Act is 8.33%
of the annual salary.

17. Minimum wages consist of…

 Answer: Basic + Dearness Allowance + House Rent Allowance

o Explanation: Minimum wages include the basic salary along with allowances
such as dearness allowance and house rent allowance.

18. Central advisory board is one which is made to advise the Central Government on
matters arising out of the administration of the Contract Labour Act and to carry out
other functions assigned to it under this Act.

 Answer: True
o Explanation: The Central Advisory Board advises the government on the
administration of the Contract Labour Act.

19. Extra wages for overtime: at the rate will be 3 * daily wages under this act.

 Answer: False
o Explanation: Typically, overtime wages are paid at 1.5 times or 2 times the
normal rate depending on the applicable labor laws, but 3 times is not the
standard.

20. Plantation is mainly concerned with the cultivation or production for commercial
purposes of coffee, tea, sugarcane, rubber, bananas, cocoa, coconuts, groundnuts,
cotton, tobacco, jute, palm oil.

 Answer: True
o Explanation: The plantation sector is concerned with the commercial
cultivation of crops like tea, coffee, and other products listed in the statement.

These answers are aligned with the relevant labor laws and acts in India.

Here are the answers based on the details provided in the case:

2. What was the reason behind the conflict between Zara Manufacturing Company and
the employee union?
  Answer: Changes in the shift schedule
o Explanation: The main reason for the conflict was the company's decision to
change its shift schedule, which the employee union felt would negatively
impact the work-life balance and job security of the workers.

3. What is the purpose of the Industrial Disputes Act of 1947?

 Answer: To promote harmonious relations between employers and employees

o Explanation: The primary purpose of the Industrial Disputes Act is to provide
a framework for the resolution of industrial disputes, including promoting
harmonious relations between employers and employees, and offering
mechanisms for conciliation and arbitration.

4. What was the management's stance on the implementation of the new shift schedule?

 Answer: They insisted on implementing the new shift schedule without delay.
o Explanation: Despite the concerns raised by the employee union, the
management was firm on implementing the new shift schedule to improve
operational efficiency and reduce costs.

5. How did the employee union express their dissatisfaction with the proposed changes
in the shift schedule?

 Answer: By threatening to go on strike

o Explanation: The employee union expressed their dissatisfaction by
threatening to go on strike if their concerns about the shift schedule were not
addressed adequately.

6. What is the role of negotiation under the Industrial Disputes Act of 1947?

 Answer: To help both parties arrive at amicable solutions

o Explanation: Negotiation under the Industrial Disputes Act plays a critical
role in helping both employers and employees come to mutually agreeable
solutions to resolve disputes before legal interventions or strikes take place.

These answers are aligned with the key points of industrial dispute resolution processes in
India as per the Industrial Disputes Act of 1947.

Training and Development

Here are the answers to the given questions:

1. Analyzing and identifying specific skills needed for a specific job is called -
o Answer: Task analysis
 Explanation: Task analysis involves identifying the specific skills,
knowledge, and abilities required to perform a particular job.
2. Formulating 'SMART' performance training objectives are a part of -
o Answer: HRM interventions
 Explanation: SMART (Specific, Measurable, Achievable, Relevant,
Time-bound) objectives are typically a part of Human Resource
Management (HRM) interventions in performance management and
training.
3. Which of the following is not a method of individual training need identification?
o Answer: Exit Interview
 Explanation: Exit interviews typically provide feedback on an
employee's departure and are not a direct method of identifying
individual training needs.
4. Which of the below does not describe the nature of Training?
o Answer: Conceptual
 Explanation: Training is typically application-oriented, task-specific,
and has a broad perspective, whereas "conceptual" refers more to
theoretical understanding, not directly related to training.
5. "Learning is a relatively enduring change in the potential to engage in a
particular behavior resulting from experience with environmental events
specifically related to that behavior". This definition is given by -
o Answer: M. Domjan
 Explanation: This definition of learning is attributed to M. Domjan, a
psychologist known for his work in behavioral science.
6. In which curve the graph levels off at some stage, indicating that maximum
performance has been achieved.
o Answer: Learning
 Explanation: In the learning curve, performance improves initially but
levels off as the person reaches a point where maximum performance
is achieved.
7. Which segment should help bridge the gap between training and implementation
and promote a positive feeling of closure.
o Answer: Wrap-Up and Evaluation segment
 Explanation: The wrap-up and evaluation segment helps summarize
the training, review what was learned, and evaluate the outcomes,
providing closure and ensuring the knowledge is applied effectively.
8. How many steps does the Career Development Process have?
o Answer: Five
 Explanation: The typical career development process includes five
steps: self-assessment, career exploration, goal setting, career planning,
and implementation.
9. What is a developmental partnership through which one person shares
knowledge, skills, information, and perspective to foster the personal and
professional growth of someone else?
o Answer: Mentoring
 Explanation: Mentoring is a developmental relationship in which an
experienced individual helps guide and support the growth of a less
experienced person.
10. "Management is what the modern world is all about" Who remarked the above
sentence?
o Answer: Peter Drucker
 Explanation: Peter Drucker, a renowned management consultant and
author, made this remark about the importance of management in the
modern world.
11. What is the full form of CMI?
o Answer: Computer Managed Instruction
 Explanation: CMI stands for Computer Managed Instruction, a system
that uses computers to manage, track, and deliver educational content.
12. It is a journey towards self-realization through continuous learning.
o Answer: NLP
 Explanation: NLP stands for Neuro-Linguistic Programming, which
involves continuous learning and personal growth through
understanding and changing behavior.
13. It is an educational process whereby people work and learn together by tackling
real issues and reflecting on their actions.
o Answer: Action learning
 Explanation: Action learning involves solving real problems through
group work and reflecting on the actions taken.
14. Which skills it is strongly recommended to identify and select a few of the line
functionaries from within.
o Answer: Functional
 Explanation: Functional skills are specific to certain jobs or tasks, and
it’s recommended to identify internal candidates with the right
functional skills for key positions.
15. __________ refers to the learning opportunities designed to help employees
grow.
o Answer: Development
 Explanation: Development refers to learning opportunities that help
employees grow and enhance their careers over time.
16. __________ is not the method of off-the-job training.
o Answer: Job instruction
 Explanation: Job instruction is a method of on-the-job training, not
off-the-job.
17. General training is related to________
o Answer: Human skills
 Explanation: General training focuses on human skills such as
interpersonal and communication skills, which are important across
various job functions.
18. Training and development programme should be continuously improved to
provide better value and increased benefits for an organization.
o Answer: True
 Explanation: Continuous improvement in training programs ensures
that employees' skills remain relevant and aligned with organizational
goals.
19. The potential value of E-learning does not fall into many areas.
o Answer: False
  Explanation: E-learning has broad potential, including flexibility,
cost-effectiveness, and the ability to reach a wide audience across
different areas of training.
20. HR managers cannot look for hiring soft skills trainers from outside the
organization in case suitable persons are not available within.
o Answer: False
 Explanation: HR managers can seek external trainers for soft skills if
the required expertise is not available within the organization. External
expertise can bring fresh perspectives and specialized skills.

These answers cover a range of topics related to training, development, and management.

Here are the answers based on the given case:

1. Identify the training objective as per the case.

o Answer: To provide job-related knowledge
 Explanation: The case highlights that the training is focused on
improving knowledge about the market, sales processes, product
information, and company policies, which are all job-related aspects.
2. As per the case, identify the points which the salesman need to focus on to
improve performance.
o Answer: Focused
 Explanation: The salespeople are expected to focus on mastering the
material and completing the training successfully. Being focused helps
them learn the material effectively and pass the exam.
3. Identify the points which match with the sales process in training and
development.
o Answer: Roadmap
 Explanation: The training includes creating a clear structure or
"roadmap" for the sales process, such as how to deal with customer
conflicts, use product information, and apply sales strategies, which
aligns with the sales process in training.
4. Identify which of the following are the advantages of employee training?
o Answer: Increased efficiency of employees
 Explanation: Employee training, as described in the case, aims to
increase the efficiency of the sales force by equipping them with the
necessary knowledge and skills, improving overall performance.
5. As per the case, identify the learning principle.
o Answer: Recognition of individual differences
 Explanation: The case demonstrates how the training allows
salespeople to learn at their own pace, reflecting individual differences
in learning. Salespeople who fail the exam are given additional
opportunities to review the material and retake the test, acknowledging
their unique learning needs.
These answers reflect the key elements of the training strategy used by ABC Company to
enhance the performance of its global sales force.

Organisational Design Development and Change

Here are the answers to the questions:

1. Which of the following is not the goals of OD programs?

o Answer: Demotivate the employees.
o Explanation: Organizational Development (OD) programs are aimed at
improving the functioning of individuals, teams, and the organization as a
whole, while motivating employees. Demotivation is not a goal of OD.
2. What is the fact-finding phase which produces a picture of the situation through
interviews, observations, questionnaires, examination of the organization’s
documents, and information and the like?
o Answer: Diagnosis
o Explanation: In the fact-finding phase of OD, data is gathered to understand
the current situation, which is part of the diagnosis phase.
3. Which activity includes theory and experience in planning and goal setting,
problem-solving models, planning paradigms, ideal organization versus real
organization “discrepancy” models, and the like?
o Answer: Planning and Goal-Setting Activities
o Explanation: This activity involves setting objectives and goals, which is
essential for planning the future course of the organization.
4. What is the full form of QWL?
o Answer: Quality of Work Life
o Explanation: QWL stands for Quality of Work Life, focusing on improving
the work environment and employee satisfaction.
5. “Organizations are social entities that are goal-directed, are designed as
deliberately structured and coordinated activity systems, and are linked to the
external environment.” The above definition is given by:
o Answer: Chester Barnard
o Explanation: This definition is attributed to Chester Barnard, who defined
organizations as structured systems that interact with the external
environment.
6. Which ethics are the moral rules and values that a group of people uses to
control the way they perform a task or use resources?
o Answer: Professional
o Explanation: Professional ethics are the moral rules and values guiding the
behavior and tasks of individuals in a profession.
7. “Identifying and evaluating key social, political, economic, technological, and
competitive trends and events.” Which of the following best describes this
statement?
o Answer: Performing an external audit
o Explanation: An external audit involves assessing the external factors
influencing an organization, such as social, political, economic, and
technological trends.
8. What is the central purpose of strategic evaluation?
o Answer: Evaluate effectiveness of strategy to achieve organizational
objectives.
o Explanation: Strategic evaluation is aimed at assessing whether strategies are
effectively helping the organization meet its objectives.
9. Which of the following is not a driver of responsible competitiveness?
o Answer: Social enablers
o Explanation: Drivers of responsible competitiveness include policy drivers,
development drivers, and business actions, while "social enablers" are not
typically categorized as such.
10. The ability to interpret and adapt successfully to different national,
organizational, and professional cultures is called:
o Answer: Cultural Intelligence
o Explanation: Cultural Intelligence refers to the ability to understand and adapt
to various cultural contexts.
11. What is the triple bottom line?
o Answer: An accounting tool that looks at the impact on people, planet,
and profits.
o Explanation: The triple bottom line focuses on measuring an organization’s
impact on three areas: social, environmental, and financial (people, planet,
profit).
12. Why do alternative organizations run differently from conventional shareholder-
led approaches?
o Answer: They are run in non-hierarchical ways which aim to provide a
positive impact on society rather than to make profit.
o Explanation: Alternative organizations often prioritize social impact and non-
hierarchical structures over profit maximization.
13. Which of the following is not a change agent ability?
o Answer: Not committed
o Explanation: Change agents should be resilient, optimistic, and tenacious.
Being "not committed" goes against the qualities expected of a change agent.
14. Which of the following is not the phase of Diagnosis?
o Answer: Design failure
o Explanation: The phases of diagnosis generally include entry, contracting,
and data gathering, but design failure is not typically a phase in diagnosis.
15. Codes of conduct and codes of ethics:
o Answer: Are formal statements that describe what an organization
expects of its employees.
o Explanation: Codes of conduct and ethics are formal documents that guide
employees on the expected behaviors and ethical standards.
16. ________ is not part of an external audit.
o Answer: Analyzing financial ratios
 o Explanation: Financial ratio analysis is part of an internal audit, not an
external audit. External audits focus more on external factors like competitors
and the political environment.
17. __________ includes raw materials required for production, land, capital,
technological know-how, skilled employees, availability of finance from banks
and financial institutions, support of the outside stakeholders.
o Answer: Resources
o Explanation: Resources encompass all the inputs required for the production
process, including raw materials, capital, and skills.
18. Job evaluation is usually performed by a single individual.
o Answer: False
o Explanation: Job evaluation is typically done by a committee or group to
ensure fairness and objectivity.
19. Every organization in its journey of evolution is confronted with change, and it
could be pursued with different intensities of effort depending on its magnitude.
o Answer: True
o Explanation: Organizations go through various stages of change, and the
intensity of change depends on its scale and impact.
20. Organizations decide to act on these assumptions, tremendous amounts of
constructive energy can be tapped and realized.
o Answer: True
o Explanation: When organizations act on assumptions that align with their
goals, they can harness energy and resources to drive positive outcomes.

These answers reflect key concepts related to Organizational Development (OD), strategic
management, and the processes involved in organizational change.

Here are the answers based on the provided case:

2. What were the primary reasons for AlphaTech's need for transformation?
o Answer: Rapid evolution of technology and Changing market demands
o Explanation: The company needed transformation due to the rapid evolution
of technology and changing market demands, which were impacting its ability
to remain competitive.
3. Which strategies did Lisa Turner implement to manage the change at
AlphaTech?
o Answer: Hired a change management consultant, Established open
communication channels
o Explanation: Lisa hired Maria Sanchez as a change management consultant
and established open communication channels (town hall meetings, intranet
portal) to facilitate the change process.
4. What were the main concerns of the middle management regarding the
transformation?
o Answer: Undermining of long-standing expertise
 o Explanation: Middle management felt threatened because the new strategy
focused on cloud computing and AI-driven solutions, which undermined their
long-standing expertise in traditional products.
5. How did Maria Sanchez address the cultural resistance to the new strategy?
o Answer: Implemented a culture change program, Recognized employees
who embraced change
o Explanation: Maria introduced a culture change program to address
resistance, celebrated small wins in the new direction, and recognized
employees who embraced the change.
6. What were the key components of the change management plan at AlphaTech?
o Answer: Workshops and training programs, Open communication
channels
o Explanation: The change management plan included workshops and training
programs to upskill the workforce, as well as open communication channels to
keep employees informed and engaged.