N10-009

Exam Name: CompTIA Network+ Certification

Full version: 159 Q&As

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1. 0.0 (/16): Provides a much larger network, not dividing the original /24 network.
2. A customer recently moved into a new office and notices that some wall plates are not
working and are not properly labeled.
Which of the following tools would be best to identify the proper wiring in the IDF?
A. Toner and probe
B. Cable tester
C. Visual fault locator
D. Network tap
Answer: A
Explanation:
A toner and probe tool, also known as a tone generator and probe, is used to trace and identify
individual cables within a bundle or to locate the termination points of cables in wiring closets
and patch panels. It generates a tone that can be picked up by the probe, helping technicians
quickly and accurately identify and label wall plates and wiring. This is the best tool for
identifying proper wiring in the Intermediate Distribution Frame (IDF).
Reference: CompTIA Network+ Exam Objectives and official study guides.

3. Which of the following is most commonly associated with many systems sharing one IP
address in the public IP-addressing space?
A. PAT
B. NAT
C. VIP
D. NAT64
Answer: A
Explanation:
Port Address Translation (PAT) allows multiple internal devices to share a single public IP
address by assigning each device a unique port number. This is the most common method used
in environments where many systems need internet access but there are limited public IP
addresses.

4. 1x Authentication: Requires devices to authenticate using credentials (e.g., username and

password, certificates) before gaining network access.
Access Control: Prevents unauthorized devices from connecting to the network, enhancing
security in public or semi-public areas.
Implementation: Typically used in conjunction with a RADIUS server to manage authentication
requests.
Network
Reference: CompTIA Network+ N10-007 Official Certification Guide: Covers 802.1x and its role
in network security.
Cisco Networking Academy: Provides training on implementing 802.1x for secure network
access control.
Network+ Certification All-in-One Exam Guide: Explains the benefits and configuration of 802.1x
authentication in securing network access.

5. A network administrator configured a router interface as 10.0.0.95 255.255.255.240. The

administrator discovers that the router is not routing packets to a web server with IP
10.0.0.81/28.
Which of the following is the best explanation?
Answer: B
Explanation:
Understanding Subnetting:
The subnet mask 255.255.255.240 (or /28) indicates that each subnet has 16 IP addresses (14
usable addresses, 1 network address, and 1 broadcast address).
Calculating the Subnet Range:
Subnet Calculation: For the IP address 10.0.0.95 with a /28 subnet mask:
Network address: 10.0.0.80
Usable IP range: 10.0.0.81 to 10.0.0.94
Broadcast address: 10.0.0.95
Router Interface Configuration:
Broadcast Address Issue: The IP address 10.0.0.95 is the broadcast address for the subnet
10.0.0.80/28. Configuring a router interface with the broadcast address will cause routing issues
as it is not a valid host address.
Comparison with Other Options:
The web server is in a different subnet: The web server (10.0.0.81) is within the same subnet
range (10.0.0.80/28).
The IP address space is a class A network: While 10.0.0.0 is a Class A network, this does not
explain the routing issue caused by the broadcast address.
The subnet is in a private address space: The private address space designation (RFC 1918)
does not impact the routing issue related to the broadcast address configuration. Resolution:
Reconfigure the router interface with a valid host IP address within the usable range, such as
10.0.0.94.
Reference: CompTIA Network+ study materials on subnetting and IP address configuration.

6. SIMULATION
You have been tasked with setting up a wireless network in an office. The network will consist of
3
Access Points and a single switch.
The network must meet the following parameters:
The SSIDs need to be configured as CorpNet with a key of S3cr3t!
The wireless signals should not interfere with each other
The subnet the Access Points and switch are on should only support 30 devices maximum
The Access Points should be configured to only support TKIP clients at a maximum speed

INSTRUCTONS
Click on the wireless devices and review their information and adjust the settings of the access
points to meet the given requirements.
If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the
Reset All button.
Answer:
On the first exhibit, the layout should be as follows
Exhibit 2 as follows
Access Point Name AP2
Exhibit 3 as follows
Access Point Name AP3
7. A company receives a cease-and-desist order from its ISP regarding prohibited torrent
activity.
Which of the following should be implemented to comply with the cease-and-desist order?
A. MAC security
B. Content filtering
C. Screened subnet
D. Perimeter network
Answer: B
Explanation:
Content filtering can be used to block or restrict access to websites and services that facilitate
torrenting and other prohibited activities. By implementing content filtering, the company can
comply with the ISP's cease-and-desist order and prevent users from accessing torrent sites
and engaging in prohibited activities.
Reference: CompTIA Network+ study materials.

8. 0.0/24: Part of the private IP address space, used for private networks, not designated for
multicast.
9. A network architect needs to create a wireless field network to provide reliable service to
public safety vehicles.
Which of the following types of networks is the best solution?
A. Mesh
B. Ad hoc
C. Point-to-point
D. Infrastructure
Answer: A
Explanation:
A mesh network is the best solution for providing reliable wireless service to public safety
vehicles. In a mesh network, each node (vehicle) can connect to multiple other nodes, providing
multiple paths for data to travel. This enhances reliability and redundancy, ensuring continuous
connectivity even if one or more nodes fail. Mesh networks are highly resilient and are well-
suited for dynamic and mobile environments such as public safety operations.
Reference: CompTIA Network+ study materials.

10. A network administrator is configuring a wireless network with an ESSID.

Which of the following is a user benefit of ESSID compared to SSID?
A. Stronger wireless connection
B. Roaming between access points
C. Advanced security
D. Increased throughput
Answer: B
Explanation:
An Extended Service Set Identifier (ESSID) allows multiple access points to share the same
SSID, enabling seamless roaming for users. This means that users can move between different
access points within the same ESSID without losing connection or having to reauthenticate.
This provides a better user experience, especially in large environments such as office buildings
or campuses.
Reference: CompTIA Network+ study materials.
11. A network technician is troubleshooting network latency and has determined the issue to be
occurring two network switches (Switch10 and Switch11). Symptoms reported included poor
video performance and slow file copying.
Given the following information:

Which of the following should the technician most likely do to resolve the issue?
A. Disable automatic negotiation on Switch11.
B. Modify Switch10 MTU value to 1500.
C. Configure STP on both switches.
D. Change the native VLAN on the ports.
Answer: B

12. A network administrator is planning to implement device monitoring to enhance network

visibility. The security that the solution provies authentication and encryption.
Which of the following meets these requirements?
A. SIEM
B. Syslog
C. NetFlow
D. SNMPv3
Answer: D
Explanation:
SNMPv3 (Simple Network Management Protocol version 3) provides device monitoring with
authentication and encryption. This enhances network visibility and security by ensuring that
monitoring data is securely transmitted and access to network devices is authenticated.
Authentication: SNMPv3 includes robust mechanisms for authenticating users accessing
network devices.
Encryption: It provides encryption to protect the integrity and confidentiality of the data being
transmitted.
Network Management: SNMPv3 allows for detailed monitoring and management of network
devices, ensuring better control and security.
Network
Reference: CompTIA Network+ N10-007 Official Certification Guide: Covers SNMP versions,
their features, and security enhancements in SNMPv3.
Cisco Networking Academy: Provides training on implementing and securing SNMP for network
management.
Network+ Certification All-in-One Exam Guide: Explains the benefits and security features of
SNMPv3 for network monitoring.

13. A network administrator is planning to host a company application in the cloud, making the
application available for all internal and third-party users.
Which of the following concepts describes this arrangement?
A. Multitenancy
B. VPC
C. NFV
D. SaaS
Answer: A
Explanation:
Multitenancy is a cloud computing architecture where a single instance of software serves
multiple customers or tenants. Each tenant's data is isolated and remains invisible to other
tenants. Hosting a company application in the cloud to be available for both internal and third-
party users fits this concept, as it allows shared resources and infrastructure while maintaining
data separation and security.
Reference: CompTIA Network+ Exam Objectives and official study guides.

14. 11ax, also known as Wi-Fi 6, is designed for high-density environments and improves
device saturation and coverage compared to previous standards.
15. Which of the following is used to describe the average duration of an outage for a specific
service?
A. RPO
B. MTTR
C. RTO
D. MTBF
Answer: B
Explanation:
MTTR (Mean Time to Repair) is the average time it takes to repair a system or service after a
failure.
It helps in measuring the downtime and planning recovery processes.
=

16. SIMULATION
A network technician was recently onboarded to a company. A manager has tasked the
technician with documenting the network and has provided the technician With partial
information from previous documentation.

Instructions:
Click on each switch to perform a network discovery by entering commands into the terminal.
Fill in the missing information using drop-down menus provided.
Answer:
(Note: Ips will be change on each simulation task, so we have given example answer for the
understanding)
To perform a network discovery by entering commands into the terminal, you can use the
following steps:
Click on each switch to open its terminal window.
Enter the command show ip interface brief to display the IP addresses and statuses of the
switch interfaces.
Enter the command show vlan brief to display the VLAN configurations and assignments of the
switch interfaces.
Enter the command show cdp neighbors to display the information about the neighboring
devices that are connected to the switch.
Fill in the missing information in the diagram using the drop-down menus provided.
Here is an example of how to fill in the missing information for Core Switch 1:
The IP address of Core Switch 1 is 192.168.1.1.
The VLAN configuration of Core Switch 1 is VLAN 1: 192.168.1.0/24, VLAN 2: 192.168.2.0/24,
VLAN 3:
17. Which of the following describes the best reason for using BGP?
A. Preventing a loop within a LAN
B. Improving reconvergence times
C. Exchanging router updates with a different ISP
D. Sharing routes with a Layer 3 switch
Answer: C
Explanation:
BGP (Border Gateway Protocol) is used for routing data between different ISPs, making it
essential for the functioning of the internet. Its primary use is for exchanging routing information
between autonomous systems, especially different ISPs. Preventing loops within a LAN is
handled by protocols like Spanning Tree Protocol (STP), while improving reconvergence times
and sharing routes with a Layer 3 switch are functions of other protocols or internal
mechanisms.
Reference: The CompTIA Network+ training emphasizes BGP’s role in the exchange of routing
information across different ISPs and autonomous systems.

18. 11ac: While it offers high throughput, it is not optimized for high-density environments as
effectively as 802.11ax.
19. While troubleshooting a VoIP handset connection, a technician's laptop is able to
successfully connect to network resources using the same port. The technician needs to identify
the port on the switch.
Which of the following should the technician use to determine the switch and port?
A. LLDP
B. IKE
C. VLAN
D. netstat
Answer: A
Explanation:
Link Layer Discovery Protocol (LLDP) is a network protocol used for discovering devices and
their capabilities on a local area network, primarily at the data link layer (Layer 2). It helps in
identifying the connected switch and the specific port to which a device is connected. When
troubleshooting a VoIP handset connection, the technician can use LLDP to determine the
exact switch and port where the handset is connected. This protocol is widely used in network
management to facilitate the discovery of network topology and simplify troubleshooting.
Other options such as IKE (Internet Key Exchange), VLAN (Virtual LAN), and netstat (network
statistics) are not suitable for identifying the switch and port information. IKE is used in setting
up secure IPsec connections, VLAN is used for segmenting networks, and netstat provides
information about active connections and listening ports on a host but not for discovering switch
port details.
Reference: CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam Objectives - Network Troubleshooting and
Tools section.

20. A user notifies a network administrator about losing access to a remote file server. The
network administrator is able to ping the server and verifies the current firewall rules do not
block access to the network file share.
Which of the following tools would help identify which ports are open on the remote file server?
A. Dig
B. Nmap
C. Tracert
D. nslookup
Answer: B
Explanation:
Nmap (Network Mapper) is a powerful network scanning tool used to discover hosts and
services on a computer network. It can be used to identify which ports are open on a remote
server, which can help diagnose access issues to services like a remote file server.
Port Scanning: Nmap can perform comprehensive port scans to determine which ports are open
and what services are running on those ports.
Network Discovery: It provides detailed information about the host’s operating system, service
versions, and network configuration.
Security Audits: Besides troubleshooting, Nmap is also used for security auditing and identifying
potential vulnerabilities.
Network
Reference: CompTIA Network+ N10-007 Official Certification Guide: Covers network scanning
tools and their uses.
Nmap Documentation: Official documentation provides extensive details on how to use Nmap
for port scanning and network diagnostics.
Network+ Certification All-in-One Exam Guide: Discusses various network utilities, including
Nmap, and their applications in network troubleshooting.

21. A network administrator is notified that a user cannot access resources on the network. The
network administrator checks the physical connections to the workstation labeled User 3 and
sees the Ethernet is properly connected. However, the network interface’s indicator lights are
not blinking on either the computer or the switch.
Which of the following Is the most likely cause?
A. The switch failed.
B. The default gateway is wrong.
C. The port Is shut down.
D. The VLAN assignment is incorrect.
Answer: C
Explanation:
When a network interface's indicator lights are not blinking on either the computer or the switch,
it suggests a physical layer issue.
Here is the detailed reasoning:
Ethernet Properly Connected: The Ethernet cable is correctly connected, eliminating issues
related to a loose or faulty cable.
No Indicator Lights: The absence of blinking indicator lights on both the computer and the
switch typically points to the port being administratively shut down.
Switch Port Shut Down: In networking, a switch port can be administratively shut down,
disabling it from passing any traffic. This state is configured by network administrators and can
be verified and changed using the command-line interface (CLI) of the switch.
Command to Check and Enable Port:
bash
Copy code
Switch> enable
Switch# configure terminal
Switch(config)# interface [interface id]
Switch(config-if)# no shutdown
The command no shutdown re-enables the interface if it was previously disabled. This will
restore the link and the indicator lights should start blinking, showing activity.
Reference: Basic Configuration Commands PDF, sections on interface configuration (e.g.,
shutdown, no shutdown).

22. A network administrator needs to connect two routers in a point-to-point configuration and
conserve IP space.
Which of the following subnets should the administrator use?
A. /24
B. /26
C. /28
D. /30
Answer: D
Explanation:
Using a /30 subnet mask is the most efficient way to conserve IP space for a point-to-point
connection between two routers. A /30 subnet provides four IP addresses, two of which can be
assigned to the router interfaces, one for the network address, and one for the broadcast
address. This makes it ideal for point-to-point links where only two usable IP addresses are
needed.
Reference: CompTIA Network+ study materials and subnetting principles.

23. Which of the following are environmental factors that should be considered when installing
equipment in a building? (Select two).
A. Fire suppression system
B. UPS location
C. Humidity control
D. Power load
E. Floor construction type
F. Proximity to nearest MDF
Answer: A
Explanation:
When installing equipment in a building, environmental factors are critical to ensure the safety
and longevity of the equipment. A fire suppression system is essential to protect the equipment
from fire hazards. Humidity control is crucial to prevent moisture-related damage, such as
corrosion and short circuits, which can adversely affect electronic components. Both factors are
vital for maintaining an optimal environment for networking equipment.
Reference: CompTIA Network+ study materials.

24. 255.0 (/24): Maintains the original subnet size, not dividing it.
Reference: CompTIA Network+ study materials on subnetting and IP addressing.

25. A company is implementing a wireless solution in a high-density environment.

Which of the following 802.11 standards is used when a company is concerned about device
saturation and converage?
A. 802.11ac
B. 802.11ax
C. 802.11g
D. 802.11n
Answer: B
Explanation:
26. A network administrator is connecting two Layer 2 switches in a network. These switches
must transfer data in multiple networks.
Which of the following would fulfill this requirement?
A. Jumbo frames
B. 802.1Q tagging
C. Native VLAN
D. Link aggregation
Answer: B
Explanation:
27. A support agent receives a report that a remote user’s wired devices are constantly
disconnecting and have slow speeds. Upon inspection, the support agent sees that the user’s
coaxial modern has a signal power of -97dB.
A. Removing any spliters connecte to the line
B. Switching the devices to wireless
C. Moving the devices closer to the modern
D. Lowering the network speed
Answer: A
Explanation:
A signal power of -97dB indicates a very weak signal, which can cause connectivity issues and
slow speeds. Splitters on a coaxial line can degrade the signal quality further, so removing them
can help improve the signal strength and overall connection quality.
Signal Quality: Splitters can reduce the signal strength by dividing the signal among multiple
lines, which can be detrimental when the signal is already weak.
Direct Connection: Ensuring a direct connection from the modem to the incoming line can
maximize signal quality and reduce potential points of failure. Network
Reference: CompTIA Network+ N10-007 Official Certification Guide: Discusses troubleshooting
connectivity issues and the impact of signal strength on network performance.
Cisco Networking Academy: Provides insights on maintaining optimal signal quality in network
setups.
Network+ Certification All-in-One Exam Guide: Covers common network issues, including those
related to signal degradation and ways to mitigate them.

28. After running a Cat 8 cable using passthrough plugs, an electrician notices that connected
cables are experiencing a lot of cross talk.
Which of the following troubleshooting steps should the electrician take first?
A. Inspect the connectors for any wires that are touching or exposed.
B. Restore default settings on the connected devices.
C. Terminate the connections again.
D. Check for radio frequency interference in the area.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Cross talk can often be caused by improper termination of cables. The first step in
troubleshooting should be to inspect the connectors for any wires that might be touching or
exposed. Ensuring that all wires are correctly seated and that no conductors are exposed can
help reduce or eliminate cross talk. This step should be taken before attempting to re-terminate
the connections or check for other sources of interference.
Reference: CompTIA Network+ study materials.

29. Before using a guest network, an administrator requires users to accept the terms of use.
Which of the following is the best way to accomplish this goal?
A. Pre-shared key
B. Autonomous access point
C. Captive portal
D. WPA2 encryption
Answer: C
Explanation:
A captive portal is a web page that users must view and interact with before being granted
access to a network. It is commonly used in guest networks to enforce terms of use
agreements. When a user connects to the network, they are redirected to this portal where they
must accept the terms of use before proceeding. This method ensures that users are aware of
and agree to the network's policies, making it the best choice for this scenario.
Reference: CompTIA Network+ Exam Objectives and official study guides.
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