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SR Elite NEET Practice GT-02 (26!12!24) - QP

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223 views30 pages

SR Elite NEET Practice GT-02 (26!12!24) - QP

Uploaded by

anishm60422
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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//

Sr Elite NEET Practice GT-02 (26-12-24)

(A) It is discovered by T.O.Diener in


Botany
1971.
Section A
(B) It contains free and low molecular
1. Toad stools are weight RNA.

(A) Edible fruiting body of algae (C) Protein coat is absent.

(B) Non-edible club fungi (D) It cause madcow disease in cattle.

(C) Edible root of a flowering plant 4. Leaf like photosynthetic organ in members
of phaeophyceae is
(D) Non-edible leaf structure of a plant
(A) Hold fast (B) Frond
2. Match the following and select the correct
option. (C) Stipe (D) Rhizoid

5. Read the statements carefully.


Column-I Column-II A) Algae are chlorophyll bearing complex,
Ciliated Flask shaped thalloid and largely terrestrial organisms
A. I.
protozoans archegonia
B) Plant body of liverwort is more
B. Ulothrix II. Gullet
differentiated than algae
C. Funaria III. Rhizome
D. Equisetum IV. Pyrenoid C) The sporophyte of pteridophyte
produces diploid spores
D)The microsporophylls and
megasporophylls are arranged spirally to
(A) A-IV,B-I,C-III,D-II
form female and male cones respectively
(B) A-I,B-IV,C-III,D-II Which of the above statements are correct ?

(C) A-III,B-II,C-I,D-IV (A) A, C and D (B) Only B

(D) A-II,B-IV,C-I,D-III (C) B and D (D) B, C and D

3. Identify the incorrect statements w.r.t 6. Which of the following is ornamental plant
viroids. of Brassicaceae?

Sr Elite NEET Practice GT-02 (26-12-24) Page 1 of 30


//

(A) Brassica oleracea


(A) epidermis and stele
(B) Helianthus (C) Petunia

(D) Iberis (B) pericycle and endodermis

7. Cotyledon of maize grain is called


(C) endodermis and pith
(A) Plumule (B) Coleorhiza

(C) Coleoptile (D) Scutellum


(D) endodermis and vascular bundle
8. Identify the mismatch.
12. Which among the following is not a
(A) Spines – Cacti surface structure projected outside the
bacterial cell ?
(B) Storage leaves – Garlic
(A) Glycocalyx (B) Flagella
(C) Photosynthetic petiole – Opuntia
(C) Pili (D) Fimbrie
(D) Tendril – Pea
13. Which organelle in the animal cell has its
9. In some plants fruit formation occurs own DNA and ribosomes?
without fertilization. Such fruits are termed
as:
(A) Plastids
(A) Simple fruits

(B) Aggregate fruits (B) Mitochondria

(C) True fruits


(C) RER
(D) Parthenocarpic fruit
(D) Golgi apparatus
10. Which of the following is not a feature of
the monocotyledon stem? 14. Study the following and identify the
incorrect statements with respect to cell
(A) Sclerenchymatous bundle sheath
membrane.
(B) Conspicuous parenchymatous I) The major types of lipids present in cell
ground tissue membranes are phospholipids.
II) The amount of proteins and lipids is
(C) Uniform size of vascular bundles
always the same in different cell types.
(D) Water containing cavities III) Neutral solutes may move across the
membrane by the process of simple
11. Cortex is the region found between diffusion against a gradient.

Sr Elite NEET Practice GT-02 (26-12-24) Page 2 of 30


//

IV) The quasi-fluid nature of lipids enables What is the name of the phospholipid
lateral movement of proteins within the shown in the diagram, which contains a
overall bilayer. glycerol backbone, two fatty acid chains, a
phosphate group, and choline?
(A) I, II only (B) II, III only

(C) I, II, IV only

(D) II, III, IV only


(A) Sphingomyelin
15. Which of the following is membrane bound
minute vesicles that contain various (B) Lecithin (C) Cholesterol
enzymes and are present in both plant and (D) Triglyceride
animal cells?
18. Given below are two statements.
(A) Cytoskeleton
Statement-1: The biomolecules are in a
(B) Inclusion bodies metabolic flux.
(C) Microbodies Statement-2: As living organisms work
continuously, they cannot afford to reach
(D) Centrioles equilibrium.

16. Match Column – I with Column – II In light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given
below.
Column -
Column - I
II
(A) Both Statement-1 and 2 are
i) Nitrogen containing lipid a) Morphine
correct.
Nitrogen containing
ii) b) Adenine
polysaccharide
(B) Both Statement-1 and Statement-2
Nitrogen containing
iii) c) Lecithin are incorrect.
alkaloid
Nitrogen containing ring
iv) d) Chitin (C) Statement-1 is correct but
structure acting as base
statiment-2 is incorrect.
(A) i - d ; ii - c ; iii - a ; iv - c
(D) Statement-1 is incorrect but
(B) i - c ; ii - d ; iii - b ; iv - c statement-2 is correct.

(C) i - a ; ii - b ; iii - c ; iv - d 19. Given below are two statements. One is


labeled Assertion(A) and the other is
(D) i - c ; ii - d ; iii - a ; iv - b
labeled Reason(R)..
17.

Sr Elite NEET Practice GT-02 (26-12-24) Page 3 of 30


//

Assertion (A) : Pairing or synapsis of below :


homologous chromosomes takes place
(A) Statement I is true but Statement II
during zygotene of prophase I
is false
Reason (R) : Synaptonemal complex is
present in between homologous pairs of (B) Both Statement I and Statement II
chromosomes in zygotene are true

In light of the above statements, choose the (C) Statement I is false but Statement
correct answer from the options given II is true
below.
(D) Both Statement I and Statement II
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) are false
is the correct explanation of (A)
22. Kranz anatomy is the feature of
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R)
is not the correct explanation of (A) Wheat (B) Maize
(A).
(C) Pea (D) Tomato
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false.
23. Given below are two statements :
Statement-I : Regeneration of the CO2
(D) Both (A) and (R) are false acceptor molecule RuBP is crucial if the C3
cycle is to continue uninterrupted.
20. Both the sister chromatids of a Statement-II : To form one glucose 18
chromosome move to the same pole during ATP, 12 NADPH molecules are used in
Calvin cycle.
(A) Anaphase of mitosis
In the light of the above statements, choose
(B) Anaphase I of meiosis the correct answer from the options given
below:
(C) Anaphase II of meiosis
(A) Both Statement I and Statement II
(D) Metaphase I of meiosis
are true
21. Given below are two statements:
(B) Statement I is false but Statement
Statement-I : Mitosis accomplishes only
II is true
the segregation of duplicated chromosomes
into daughter nuclei but the cell is not (C) Statement I is true but Statement II
divided into two daughter cells. is false
Statement-II : A very significant
(D) Both Statement I and Statement II
contribution of mitosis is cell repair.
are false
In the light of the above statements, choose
24. Match List - I with List – II
the correct answer from the options given

Sr Elite NEET Practice GT-02 (26-12-24) Page 4 of 30


//

Column-I Column-II (A) Parenchyma is a differentiated


ETS tissue
(A) (I) Cyt bc1
complex-l
ETS Cyt a, a3 and 2 (B) Tracheary elements are formed by
(B) (II)
complex-II copper centres the process of differentiation
ETS NADH
(C) (III)
complex-Ill dehydrogenase (C) Larkspur produces different
ETS Succinate
(D) (IV) shapes of leaves in different
complex-IV dehydrogenase
habitats
Choose the correct answer from the options
(D) Development in plants are
given below:
influenced by intra as well as
(A) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)- intercellular factors
(I)
28. In flowering plants, microsporogenesis and
(B) (A)-(III), (B)-(II), (C).(I), (D)- megasporogenesis occur respectively in
(IV)
(A) Anther and ovule
(C) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-
(B) Pollengrain and megaspore
(II)
(C) Ovary and ovule
(D) (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III)
(D) Anther and pollensac
25. How many NADH molecules are formed in
mitochondria when a glucose molecule is 29. Thousands of tiny seeds are produced by
completely oxidized in a plant cell? each fruit of the following plants, except

(A) 4 (B) 8 (A) Orobanche (B) Wheat

(C) 2 (D) 6 (C) Striga (D) Orchid

26. Production of Cucumber has increased 30. In majority of angiosperms, pollen grains
manyfold in recent years. Application release from anther in which stage?
of which of the following
phytohormones has resulted in this (A) 2 celled (B) 3 celled
increased yield as the hormone is known to
(C) 8 celled (D) 7 celled
produce female flowers in the plants :
31. What is double fertilisation in plants?
(A) Ethylene (B) Cytokinin
(A) The fusion of two sperm cells with
(C) ABA (D) Gibberellin
two different egg cells
27. Mark the incorrect statement.
(B) The fusion of a sperm cell with an
egg cell and another sperm cell

Sr Elite NEET Practice GT-02 (26-12-24) Page 5 of 30


//

with a polar body (A) Law of segregation

(C) One sperm fertilizes the egg and (B) Law of multiple alleles
another sperm combines with two
(C) Law of independent assortment
polar nuclei or secondary nucleus.
(D) Law of dominance
(D) The repeated fertilisation of an egg
by two sperm in two separate 34. If a colourblind boy has normal brother and
events colourblind sister, then their parents are
A) Normal father and colourblind mother.
32. Given below are two statements : one is
B) Both mother and father are normal.
labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is
C) Father is colourblind and mother is
labelled as Reason (R).
carrier.
Assertion (A) : If starch grain size is D) Both parents are colourblind.
considered as phenotype, then Bb genotype E) Father is colourblind and mother is
will show incomplete dominance. homozygous normal.
Choose the most appropriate answer from
Reason (R) : Pea plant having BB
the options given below.
genotype produces large sized starch
grains, Bb genotype produces intermediate (A) A and B only
sized starch grains and bb genotype
(B) B and C only
produces small sized starch grains.
(C) D and E only
In the light of the above statements, choose
the correct answer from the options given (D) C only
below.
35. In humans, what percent of the genome
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) codes for proteins?
is not the correct explanation of
(A) (A) 99.9 (B) 50

(B) (A) is true but (R) is false (C) More than ten

(C) (A) is false but (R) is true (D) Less than two

(D) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) 36. The polarity of a template strand of DNA
is the correct explanation of (A) which produces a discontinuous daughter
strand with respect to the replicaiton fork
33. If in a dihybrid cross, Mendel had used two is
such characters which have linked, he
(A) 5

→ 3 ' (B) 3

→ 5 '
would have faced difficulty in explaining
the results on the basis of his (C) 3

→ 3 (D) 5

→ 5

Sr Elite NEET Practice GT-02 (26-12-24) Page 6 of 30


//

37. DNA is negatively charged because of the restriction enzymes.


presence of ______
(B) Sticky ends allow DNA fragments
(A) Deoxy ribose to form hydrogen bonds with
complementary sequences,
(B) Thymine
facilitating the action of DNA
(C) Phosphate group ligase.

(D) Guanine (C) Sticky ends increase the


replication rate of DNA fragments.
38. Match the processes involved in the
processing of hnRNA with their (D) Sticky ends help in the
descriptions: transcription of DNA fragments.

An unusual nucleotide 41. Which of the following best describes


(methyl guanosine biotechnology?
A Splicing I
triphosphate) is added to
the 5'-end of hnRNA. (A) The study of ancient civilizations
Adenylate residues (200-
300) are added at the 3'- (B) The use of chemical compounds
B Capping II
end in a template- for medical purposes
independent manner.
The process where introns (C) The large scale production and
C Tailing III are removed and exons are
marketing of products and
joined in a defined order.
Polymerization of amino processes using live organisms,
D Translation IV
acids cells, or enzymes

(A) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV (D) The development of software


applications
(B) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
42. What will be the most suited name for the
(C) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
second restriction enzyme isolated from the
(D) A-I, B- II, C-III, D- IV T strain of Pseudomonas denitrificans ?

39. Bottled juices are clarified by the use of (A) Pde I (B) PdeT II

(A) lipases (B) pectinases (C) PdeT (D) PseT 12

(C) nucleases (D) ligases 43. Which one of the following has found its
use in genetic engineering of plants?
40. What is the primary function of 'sticky
ends' in the process of DNA ligation? (A) Bacillus coagulens

(A) Sticky ends prevent DNA (B) Agrobacterium tumefaciens.


fragments from being cut by

Sr Elite NEET Practice GT-02 (26-12-24) Page 7 of 30


//

(C) Clostridium septicum Three


I. Ichthyophis A. chambered P. Reptilia
(D) Xanthomonas citri poikilotherm
Electric
II. Clarius B. Q. Amphibia
44. Bt toxin kills insects by organs
Paired
(A) Inhibiting protein synthesis III. Torpedo C. appendages R. Osteichthyes
absent
(B) Generating excessive acid in Four pairs of
IV. Naja D. S. Chondrichthy
stomach gills

(C) Creating pores in the midgut I II III IV


epithelial cells, leading to cell 1 D,Q C,R B,S A,P
2 B,P C,S D,Q A,R
swelling and lysis
3 C,Q D,R B,S A,P
(D) Obstructing a biosynthetic 4 B,R A,P D,S C,Q
pathway (A) 1 (B) 2
45. The green revolution succeeded in tripling
(C) 3 (D) 4
the food supply but yet it was not enough to
feed the growing human population. 47. Bioluminescence is characteristically found
Increased yields have been mainly due to in this phylum
the use of
(A) Annelida (B) Amphibia
(a) Improved crop varieties
(b) Better management practices (C) Ctenophora
(c) Agrochemicals (fertilizers and
pesticides) (D) Platyhelminthes
Choose the correct option. 48. Match the Column I (Common name of
(A) a and b (B) b and c animals) with Column II (Scientific name)
and select the correct option.
(C) a and c (D) a, b and c

Zoology Column I Column II


I Pearl oyster A Ancylostoma
II Hookworm B Pinctada
Section A
III Dogfish C Scoliodon
46. Match Column I (Animals) with Column II IV Tortoise D Chelone
(Characteristics) and Column III (Taxon) E Testudo
and choose the correct option.
I II III IV
1. E A D B
2. B A C E
Column I Column II Column III
3. E D A B
4. B A C D

Sr Elite NEET Practice GT-02 (26-12-24) Page 8 of 30


//

Statement I: Haemolymph of the


(A) 1 (B) 2
cockroach is colourless due to the absence
(C) 3 (D) 4 of haemocytes.

49. Read the following statements. Statement II: Blood vascular system of
cockroaches is categorised as open type
Statement I: All vertebrates are tetrapods. due to the absence of blood vessels.

Statement II: All the members of In light of the given statements, choose the
tetrapoda are vertebrates. correct answer from the options given
below.
In the light of given statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given (A) Both statement I and statement II
below. are correct.

(A) Both Statement I and Statement II (B) Both statement I and statement II
are true. are incorrect.

(B) Statement I is true and Statement (C) Statement I is correct, but


II is false. statement II is incorrect.
(C) Both Statement I and Statement II (D) Statement I is incorrect, but
are false. statement II is correct.

(D) Statement I is false and Statement 52. Unmyelinated nerve fibres enclosed in
II is true. Schwann cells are seen in

50. Which type of tissue correctly matches (A) white matter of brain
with its location?
(B) cranial nerves
Tissue Location
Dense irregular connective (C) autonomous neural system
1. Tendons
tissue
Simple squamous Fallopian (D) cerebral cortex
2.
epithelium tubes
Beneath the 53. The pO2 in the systemic arteries and
3. Areolar tissue
skin systemic veins are respectively.
Walls of the
4 Skeletal muscle tissue
heart (A) 95 and 40 mm Hg

(A) 1 (B) 2 (B) 95 and 45 mm Hg

(C) 3 (D) 4 (C) 40 and 95 mm Hg

51. Read the following statements. (D) 104 and 40 mm Hg

Sr Elite NEET Practice GT-02 (26-12-24) Page 9 of 30


//

54. Read the following and choose the correct (C) (A) is true but (R) is false.
statements
(D) Both (A) and (R) are false.
a) the branching network of bronchi,
bronchioles and alveoli comprise lungs 56. Choose correct set of statements about
b) Lungs are situated in the thoracic lymphatic system.
chamber which is anatomically an air –tight (A) It has specialised lymphocytes which
chamber are responsible for immune responses.
c) Larynx is the common passage for food (B) Lymph is an important carrier for
and air nutrients such as fats from intestine.
d) A healthy man can inspire or expire (C) Lymph is drained into major veins
approximately 500 mL of air per minute (D) Lymph nodes filter antigens
e) Any change in the volume of the thoracic (E) Larger plasma proteins and formed
cavity will be reflected in the pulmonary elements are not seen
cavity.
(A) All except E
(A) c, d and e only
(B) A, B, C only
(B) a, b and e only
(C) A, C, D only
(C) c and d only (D) b and e only
(D) All except D
55. Given below are two statements. One is
labeled Assertion (A) and the other is 57. Choose the incorrect pair.
labeled Reason (R).
(A) Fibroblasts – Collagen
Assertion (A): During ventricular systole,
(B) Basophils – Serotonin
blood flows from the left ventricle into the
aorta but not into the left atrium. (C) Neurons – Nissl’s granules

Reason (R): The tricuspid valve closes (D) Monocytes – Antibodies


during ventricular systole.
58. Terrestrial adaptations necessitated the
In light of the above statements, choose the production of
most appropriate answer from the options
(A) more toxic urea and uric acid for
given below.
conservation of water
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R)
(B) less toxic urea and uric acid for
is the correct explanation of (A).
conservation of water
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R)
(C) more toxic ammonia for
is not the correct explanation of
conservation of energy
(A).

Sr Elite NEET Practice GT-02 (26-12-24) Page 10 of 30


//

(D) less toxic ammonia for (B) P-Acetylcholine; Q-Receptor


conservation of energy
(C) P-Acetylcholine; Q-Enzyme
59. Arrange the events of renin angiotensin
(D) P-Thyroxine; Q-Enzyme
mechanism in correct sequence.
A) Release of aldosterone 63. Given below are two statements.
B) Release of renin Statement I: Cancer in thyroid gland
C) Activation of adrenal cortex increases rate of secretion of thyroid
D) Formation of angiotensin II hormones.
E) Fall in GFR Statement II: Enlargement of thyroid
Choose the correct answer from the options gland is never associated with
given below. hypothyroidism.
In the light of the above statements, choose
(A) E-B-C-D-A (B) C-B-D-E-A
the correct answer from the options given
(C) E-B-D-C-A (D) C-A-D-E-B below.

60. Euglena is a flagellate and exhibits (A) S-I is false but S-II is true.
locomotion by using flagella. In humans,
(B) Both S-I and S-II are false.
the same movement is exhibited by
(C) S-I is true but S-II is false.
(A) Spermatid (B) Leucocyte
(D) Both S-I and S-II are true.
(C) Phagocyte (D) Sperm
64. Thymosins are
61. Select the incorrect match.
(A) peptide hormones
(A) Myasthenia gravis - Autoimmune
disorder (B) steroid hormones

(B) Tetany - High Ca 2+


in body fluid (C) eicosanoids

(C) Arthritis - Inflammation at joints (D) amino acid derivatives

(D) Muscular dystrophy - Genetic 65. Read the following statements about testis
disorder and select the false statements.

62. During synaptic transmission ‘P’ is released I) It performs dual functions as a primary
by synaptic vesicle and it acts on ‘Q’ of sex organ as well as an endocrine gland.
postsynaptic membrane for transmission of II) Leydig cells are present in the
impulse into dendrites. Then ‘P’ and ‘Q’ are intertubular spaces of testis.
III) Androgens produce anabolic effects on
(A) P-Thyroxine; Q-Receptor
protein and carbohydrate metabolism.

Sr Elite NEET Practice GT-02 (26-12-24) Page 11 of 30


//

IV) Testosterone acts on peripheral neural Statement I: Placenta produces hCG, hPL,
system and influence the libido. oestrogens and progesterone during
pregnancy.
(A) Only I and IV
Statement II: During pregnancy, the levels
(B) Only II and III
of FSH and LH increase severalfold.
(C) Only IV
In light of the above statements, choose the
(D) Only I and II most appropriate answer from the options
given below.
66. Match the items given in column I with
those in column II and select the (A) Statement I is correct, but
correct option given below.
statement II is incorrect.
Column I Column II
(B) Statement I is incorrect, but
A Follicular phase I 1st - 5th day
statement II is correct.
B Secretory phase II 6th -13th day
C Menstrual phase III 15th-28th day (C) Both statement I and statement II
D Ovulation IV 14th day
are correct.
Choose the correct answer from the options
(D) Both statement I and statement II
given below.
are incorrect.
A B C D
69. Given below are two statements.
1 III II I IV
2 II III IV I Statement-I: LH surge induces ovulation.
3 I II III IV Statement-II: Corpus luteum secretes
4 II III I IV progesterone which is essential for
maintenance of endometrium.
(A) 1 (B) 2
In the light of the above statements, choose
(C) 3 (D) 4 the correct answer from the options given
below.
67. In women, the first and second polar bodies
are released in the following structures (A) Both Statement I and Statement II
respectively. are true.

(A) Ovary and uterus (B) Statement I is false but Statement


II is true.
(B) Ovary and vagina
(C) Statement I is true but Statement II
(C) Ovary and fallopian tube is false.

(D) Fallopian tube and uterus

68. Given below are two statements.

Sr Elite NEET Practice GT-02 (26-12-24) Page 12 of 30


//

(D) Both Statement I and Statement II (D) contraceptive pill with estrogen
are false.
73. Read the following features
70. Match the following columns. (a) Trisomic disorder
(b) Possible in both male and female
(c) Mental retardation
Column
Column II (d) Furrowed tongue and partially open
I
Transfer of ovum into mouth
A ZIFT I
fallopian tube The above features are related to
Transfer of embryo into the
B GIFT II (A) Down’s syndrome
uterus
Transfer of embryo into
C IUT III (B) Turner’s syndrome
fallopian tube

Transfer of embryo into fallopian tube (C) Klinefelter’s syndrome

(D) Edward’s syndrome


A B C
1 III II I 74. If a recessive gene is located on X-
2 I II III chromosome of male human,
3 II III I
(A) it expresses in both male and
4 III I II
female offspring
(A) 1 (B) 2
(B) it is carried by both male and
(C) 3 (D) 4 female offspring

71. Which of the following STI is curable if (C) it never enters into male offspring
detected early and treated properly?
(D) it expresses in male as a copy
(A) Genital herpes
75. The researchers of HGP can study all the
(B) Syphilis genes that

(C) HIV infection (A) all the transcripts in a particular


tissue or organ but not tumour
(D) Hepatitis – B
(B) all the transcripts in a particular
72. ‘Saheli’ is
tissue but not organ or tumour
(A) developed at CDC, in Lucknow
(C) all the transcripts in a particular
(B) once-a-week oral pill organ or tumour but not tissue

(C) injectable contraceptive

Sr Elite NEET Practice GT-02 (26-12-24) Page 13 of 30


//

(D) all the transcripts in a particular Spraying of insecticides in ditches,


tissue or organ or tumour drainage areas and swamps, etc. is one of
the important measures to prevent
76. Which one of these animals is not a
sauropsid? (A) ascariasis (B) amoebiasis

(A) Canis (B) Columba (C) dengue fever

(C) Crocodylus (D) Chelone (D) typhoid fever

77. Assertion (A) : In Mammals, the same 80. Match List I with List II.
structure developed along different
List - I List - II
directions due to adaptations to different
Treponema
needs. A. I. Syphilis
pallidum
Reason (R) : Homology is based on B. Trichophyton II. Ring worm
convergent evolution. C. Wuchereria III. Filaria
African sleeping
(A) If both A and R are true, and the R D. Trypanosoma IV.
sickness
is the correct explanation of the A
Choose the correct answer from the options
(B) If both A and R are true, and the R given below
is not the correct explanation of
A B C D
the A
1. I II III IV
(C) If A is true, but R is false 2. III I II IV
3. I III IV II
(D) If both A & R are false 4. III IV I II

78. During the post-industrialisation period (in (A) 1 (B) 2


1920) in England, dark-winged moths
(C) 3 (D) 4
became dominant in number because
81. The table given below represents the
(A) dark-winged moths were
various barriers of innate immunity.
distasteful to the predators
Identify the option that shows a correct
(B) white-winged moths emigrated to combination of missing words.
unpolluted areas

(C) dark-winged moths could Physical Physical


I A
barrier barrier
camouflage successfully
II B Saliva Lysozyme
(D) growth of lichens imparted dark Cellular Polymorphonuclear
III C
barrier leucocyte
colour to the tree trunks
IV Cytokine Virus D
barrier infected
79.

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cells 83. The four basic processes that involve to


increase in population density ----(1)----
(A) A – HCl, B – Physiological
and ----(2)---- and to decrease ----(3)----
barrier, C – Neutrophil, D –
and ----(4)---- respectively are
Interferons
(A) (1)-Natality; (2)-Mortality; (3)-
(B) A – Mucus, B – Physical barrier, C
Immigration; (4)-Emigration
– Macrophage, D – interleukins
(B) (1)-Natality; (2)-Immigration; (3)-
(C) A – HCl, B – Physical barrier, C –
Mortality; (4)-Emigration
NK cells, D – Complement
proteins (C) (1)-Natality; (2)-Emigration; (2)-
Mortality; (4)-Immigration
(D) A – Mucus, B – Physiological
barrier, C – Neutrophil, D – (D) (3)-Mortality; (2)-Emigration; (3)-
Interferons Natality; (4)-Immigration

82. Given below are two statements. 84. Math the following

Statement-I: The milk of transgenic cow


Rosie was nutritionally more balanced Gause’s Distributional range
A I
product for human babies than normal cow experiment of species
milk. Elimination of
B Pisaster II
inferior species
Statement-II: The human protein Connel’s
Morphological
C elegant field III
antitrypsin was used to treat emphysema, a defence
experiment
respiratory problem. Predators help in
D Acacia IV maintaining species
In the light of above statements, choose the diversity.
correct answer from the option given
below. A B C D
1 II IV I III
(A) Both statement-I and statement-II 2 IV III I II
are true 3 I IV II III
4 III I IV II
(B) Both statement-I and statement-II
(A) 1 (B) 2
are false
(C) 3 (D) 4
(C) Statement-I is correct statement-II
is false 85. The 'r' values of two closely related species
X and Y, competing for the same resources,
(D) Statement-I is incorrect but
are 0.015 and 0.12 respectively. According
statement-II is true

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to Gause's law, what will happen when the (D) Upright pyramid of biomass
resources in the habitat are limited?
88. Which of the following statements are
(A) Species X will be competitively correct?
excluded. (a) Sacred groves are useful in conserving
rare and threatened species
(B) Species Y will be competitively
(b) Shifting cultivation is the main
excluded.
protecting method of ex situ conservation
(C) Both the species would co-exist by (c) Maximum nutritional diversity is found
resource-partitioning. in Animalia rather than Plantae
(d) In America, New York has maximum
(D) There would be an occurrence of number species of birds than Colombia
competitive release. Choose the correct answer from the options
given below:
86. Given below are few events taking place in
the pond ecosystem. Arrange these events (A) (a) and (c) only
in the ascending order of their occurrence
and choose the correct option. (B) (a), (c) and (d) only
i. Decomposition and mineralization of the
(C) (a), (b) and (c) only
dead matter to release organic and
inorganic nutrients back in the (D) (b) and (d) only
environment.
89. Given below are some differences between
ii. Heterotrophs consume autotrophs.
the environments of tropical and temperate
iii. Conversion of inorganic material to
regions. Identify the incorrect differences.
organic material with the help of solar
energy by the autotrophs. Tropical region Temperate region
environment environment
(A) ii → iii → i (B) i → ii → iii i Less seasonal More seasonal
ii More constant Not much constant
(C) iii → ii → i (D) ii → i → iii
iii Unpredictable Predictable
87. What type of pyramid would be obtained iv Less solar energy More solar energy
with the following data? (A) i and iv (B) i and ii
2
Secondary consumers: 1.5 g/m
Primary consumers: 37 g/m2 (C) ii and iii (D) iii and iv
Primary producers: 809 g/m2
90. Sixth mass extinction different from
(A) Triangular age pyramid previous episodes in

(B) Upright pyramid of energy (A) rate of extinction is very fast.

(C) Inverted pyramid of biomass (B) rate of extinction is very slow.

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(C) it does not involve human (C) 10 ms-1 due west


interference.
(D) 20 ms-1 due east
(D) it involves the extinction of just
94. A person can swim in still water at 5 m/s .
the plants.
He moves in a river which flows with a
velocity 3 m/s, first down the stream next
Physics
same distance up the stream. The ratio of
Section A times taken are

91. The period of oscillation of a simple (A) 1 : 1 (B) 1 : 2


pendulum is T = 2π√L/g. Measured
(C) 1 : 4 (D) 4 : 1
value of L is 20.0 cm known to 1 mm
accuracy and time for 100 oscillations of 95. For a particle moving along a circular path,
the pendulum is found to be 90s using a which of the following relations are correct.
wrist watch of 1 s resolution. What is →
a) ω ⊥ v
→ → →
b) ω ⊥ α
percentage error the determination of g ? → → → →
c) v ⊥ a c d) ω ⊥ a c

(Nearly)
(A) a, b, d
(A) 3 (B) 2 (B) b, c, d

(C) 1 (D) 4
(C) a, b, c (D) a, c, d
92. The velocity v of a particle at time t is
96. A heavy uniform chain lies on a horizontal
given by v = at + where a, b and c are
b

t+c
table top. If the coefficient of friction
constants. The dimensions of a, b and c are
between the chain and the table surface is
respectively
0.25, then the maximum fraction of the
(A) LT
−2
, L and T length of the chain, that can hang over one
edge of the table is
(B) 2
L ,T and LT
2

(A) 20% (B) 25%


(C) LT
2
, LT and L
(C) 35% (D) 15%
(D) L, LT and T
2

97. A body of mass 8 kg is moved by a force


93. Sphere 'B' approaches relative to sphere 'A' F = 3x N, where x is the distance covered.

with a velocity 10 ms-1 due east. If they Initial position is x = 2 m and the final
collide elastically, speed of 'B' relative to position is x = 10 m. The initial speed is
'A' is 0.0m/s. The final speed is

(A) 10 ms-1 due east (A) 6 m/s (B) 12 m/s

(B) 5 ms-1 due east (C) 18 m/s (D) 14 m/s

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98. A frictionless track ABCDE ends in a (D) A is false and R is true.


circular loop of radius R. A body slides
101.Assuming that the gravitational potential
down the track from point A, which is at a
energy of an object at infinity is zero, the
height h = 5 cm. Maximum value of R for
change in potential energy (final – initial)
the body to successfully complete the loop
of an object of mass m, when taken to a
is
height h from the surface of earth (of
radius R), is given by

(A) −GM mh

R(R+h)
(B) GM mh

R(R+h)

(C) mgh (D) GM m

R+h

(A) 5 cm (B) 15

4
cm
102.Three particles, each of mass m, are
(C) 10

3
cm (D) 2 cm situated at the vertices of an equilateral
triangle of side ‘a’. The only forces acting
99. The moment of inertia of a uniform
on the particles are their mutual
semicircular disc of mass M and radius r
gravitational forces. It is desired that each
about a line perpendicular to the plane of
particle moves in a circle while maintaining
the disc through the centre is
their original separation ‘a’. The initial
(A) 1

2
Mr
2
(B) Mr
2
velocity that should be given to each
particle is
(C) 2

5
Mr
2
(D) 1

4
Mr
2

100.Assertion(A) : Machines such as steam (A) √


3GM

a
(B) √
GM

engine, the automobile engine, etc., that


produce rotational motion have a disc (C) √
GM

2a
(D) √
GM

3a

called a flywheel. It prevents jerky


103.Determine the pressure required to reduce
motions, thereby ensuring a smooth ride.
the given volume of water by 2%. Bulk
Reason(R) : Because of large moment of
modulus of water is 2.2 × 10 Nm 9 −2

inertia, the flywheel resists the sudden


increase or decrease of the speed of the (A) 7
4.4 × 10 N/m
2

vehicle. It allows a gradual change in the


(B) 7
2. 2 × 10 N/m
2

speed.
(C) 7
3. 3 × 10 N/m
2

(A) A and R are true and R is the


(D) 7
1. 1 × 10 N/m
2

correct explanation of A
104.Two soap bubbles of radii r1 and r2 equal to
(B) A and R are true and R is not the
4 cm and 5 cm are touching each other with
correct explanation of A
a common surface. Its radius of curvature
(C) A is true and R is false will be

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(A) 4 cm (B) 20 cm 109.At what temperature is the root mean


square velocity of gaseous hydrogen
(C) 5 cm (D) 4.5 cm
molecules is equal to that of oxygen
105.A manometer connected to a closed tap molecules at 47°C
reads 3.5 × 10 N/m . When the valve is
5 2

(A) 20 K (B) 80 K
opened, the reading of manometer falls to
3.0 × 10
5
N/m
2
, then velocity of flow of (C) 73 K (D) 3 K
water is
110. Figure shows the circular motion of a
(A) 100 m/s (B) 10 m/s particle. The radius of the circle, the period,
(C) sense of revolution and initial position are
1 m/s (D) 10√ 10 m/s
indicated on the figure. The simple
106.Two cylinders P and Q have the same harmonic motion of the x-projection of the
length and same diameter are made of radius vector of the rotating particle P is
different materials having thermal
conductivities in the ratio 2 : 3. These two
cylinders are combined in series to make a
cylinder. One end of P is kept at 100°C and
another end of Q at 0°C. The temperature at
the interface of P and Q is

(A) 30°C (B) 40°C

(C) 50°C (D) 60°C (A) x(t) = B sin(


2πt

30
)

(B) x(t) = B cos(


πt
)
107.A diatomic ideal gas is supplied 140 J of 15

heat at constant pressure. The work done by (C) x(t) = B sin(


πt

15
+
π

2
)

the gas is
(D) x(t) = B cos(
πt

15
+
π

2
)

(A) 84 J (B) 100 J


111. Two open organ pipes of length 25 cm and
(C) 40 J (D) 70 J 25.5 cm produce 10 beat/sec. The velocity
of sound will be
108.An ideal gas at a pressure of 1 atmosphere
and temperature of 27ºC is compressed (A) 255 m/s (B) 250 m/s
adiabatically until its pressure becomes 8
(C) 350 m/s (D) 355 m/s
times the initial pressure, then the final
temperature is (γ = 3/2) 112. When two protons placed near one another
and released from rest with no other objects
(A) 600ºC (B) 527ºC
close by, then they move away from each
(C) 427ºC (D) 327ºC other with

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(A) increasing accelerations and same cell, the electric power consumed will
increasing velocities be

(B) decreasing accelerations and (A) 60W (B) 240W


increasing velocities
(C) 30W (D) 120W
(C) decreasing accelerations and
117. Consider the circuit shown in figure. The
decreasing velocities
current ‘I’ is equal to
(D) constant velocities

113. A point charge q is placed at a distance a/2


directly above the centre of a square of side
a. The electric flux through the square is

(A) q

ε0
(B) πε 0
q

(C) q

4ε 0
(D) 6ε 0
q

114. An electric dipole is placed as shown in


figure. The electric potential (in 102 V) at p
(A) 5A (B) 3A
due to the dipole is (K = )
1

4πε 0

(C) −3A (D) (−5/6) A

118. A proton, a deuteron and an α particle


having same momentum enter a uniform
(A) 8

5
qK (B) 8

3
qK magnetic field at right angles to the field.
Then the ratio of their angular momenta
(C) 3

8
qK (D) 5

8
qK
during their motion in the magnetic field is
115. Point charges q1= 2μC and q2 = -1μC are
(A) 2 : 2 : 1 (B) 2 : 1 : 3
kept at points x = 0 and x = 6 respectively.
Electric potential will be zero at the points: (C) 4 : 1 : 2 (D) 4 : 2 : 1

(A) x = 1 and x = 5 119. A galvanometer of resistance G is


(B) x = 2 and x = 9 connected in a circuit. Now, a resistance R
is connected in series with galvanometer.
(C) x = 4 and x = 12 To keep the main current in the circuit
unchanged, the resistance to be put in
(D) x = -2 and x = 2
parallel with the series combination of G
116. Two equal resistances when connected in and R is
series to an ideal cell, consume electric 2 2

(A) G
− G (B) R
+ G
power of 60 W. If these resistances are now R G

connected in parallel combination to the

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2 2

(C) R

G
− G (D) G

R
+ G (A) may be positive or negative or
zero
120.A short bar magnet placed with its axis at
300 with a uniform external magnetic field (B) positive always
of 0.16T experiences a torque of magnitude
(C) negative always
0.032Nm. If the bar magnet were free to
rotate, its P.E when it is in stable and (D) Zero
unstable equilibrium are respectively.
124.In E.M. wave, velocity of E.M. wave V̄
(A) –0.064J, +0.064J interms of electric field intensity Ē and
magnetic induction field B is
(B) –0.032J, +0.032J
¯
¯
¯
¯
¯
V =
E
V =
E×B
(A) (B)
¯
B B
2
(C) +0.064J, –0.064J
¯
¯
¯
¯
¯
¯
V =
B×E
2 V = E. B
(D) +0.032J, –0.032J (C) B
(D)

121.A current I = 10 sin (100πt)A is passed in 125.Parallel beam of light is incident on the
first coil, which induces a maximum emf of system of two convex lenses of focal
5πV in second coil. The mutual inductance lengths f = 20 cm and f = 10 cm . What
1 2

between the coils is should be the distance between the two


lenses so that rays after refraction from
(A) 15 mH (B) 10 mH both the lenses pass undeviated?

(C) 5 mH (D) 20 mH

122.When 100 V DC is applied across a


solenoid, a current of 1 A flows in it. When
100 V AC is applied across the same
solenoid the current drops to 0.5 A. If the
frequency of the AC source is 50 Hz, the
impedance and inductance of the solenoid (A) 60 cm (B) 30 cm
are
(C) 90 cm (D) 40 cm
(A) 200Ω and 0.55H
126.Compare the final images formed by
(B) 100Ω and 0.86H
different optical instruments
(C) 200Ω and 1.0H
List -I List -II
(D) 1100Ω and 0.93H
a) Simple e) Magnefied,
Microscope virtual and
123.The average value of an ac voltage over a
Inverted
duration of T/2 is (T is time period of ac b) Compound f) Virtual, errect
supply) Microscope and smaller
c) Astronomical g) Virtual and
telescope enlarged

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d)Terrestrial h) Virtual, inverted 130.The graph which shows the variation of


telescope and small
(
1

λ 2
) and kinetic energy of a particle. E is
(A) a → g, b → e, c → h, d → f (where λ is de Broglie wavelength of the
(B) a → h, b → g, c → e, d → f
free particle)

(C) a → g, b → h, c → g, d → e

(D) a → f , b → h, c → g, d → c

127.The principle of conservation of energy is (A)


valid in

(A) Interference only

(B) Diffraction only

(C) Both Interference and Diffraction


(B)
(D) Neither Interference and nor
Diffraction

128.Statement A : In a given bright band, all


points are equally bright
Statement B : By keeping a transparent
sheet in front of one of the slits in YDSE,
the fringe width is unaltered (C)

(A) A true, B true

(B) A false, B true

(C) A true, B false

(D) A false, B false


(D)
129.When a metallic surface is illuminated with
light of wavelength ‘λ’, stopping potential
is V, when the same surface is illuminated
by light of wavelength 2λ, stopping
131.Bohr’s atomic model is valid for
potential is . Threshold wavelength for
V

metallic surface is (A) Hydrogen atom

(A) 4λ

3 (B) 4 λ (B) He+ ion

(C) 6 λ (D) 8λ

3 (C) Dueterium atom

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(D) all the given (C) 1A, 1A (D) 0.5A, 2A

132.Two nucleons are at a separation of


Chemistry
m. The nuclear force between
−15
1 × 10

them is F if both are neutrons, F if both


1 2 Section A
are protons and F if one is a proton and
3

136.The number of Glucose molecules present


other is a neutron. In such a case
in 10 ml of decimolar solution is
(A) F2 > F1 > F3

(A) 6.0 x 1020 (B) 6.0 x 1019


(B) F1 = F2 = F3

(C) 6.0 x 1021 (D) 6.0 x 1022


(C) F1 = F2 > F3

(D) F1 = F3 > F2 137.The number of significant figures in


‘1080072’ are
133.The binding energies per nucleon for a
deuteron and an α - particle are x and x 1 2 (A) 7 (B) 6
respectively. What will be the energy Q
(C) 4 (D) 3
released in the reaction
2 2 4
1H +1 H →2 H e + Q
138.Assertion (A): The quantized energy of an
(A) 4(x 1 + x 2 ) (B) 4(x 2 − x 1 ) electron is largely determined by its
principal quantum number.
(C) 2(x 1 + x 2 ) (D) 2(x 2 − x 1 )
Reason(R): The principal quantum number
134.Three photo diodes D1, D2 and D3 are made is a measure of the most probable distance
of semiconductors having band gaps of of finding the electron around the nucleus.
2.5eV, 2.0eV and 3.0eV, respectively.
Which ones will be able to detect light of
o (A) Both A and R are correct and R is
wavelength 6000A?
the correct explanation of A
(A) D1 and D2 (B) D2
(B) Both A and R are correct but R is
(C) D1 and D3 NOT the correct explanation of A

(D) D1, D2 and D3 (C) A is not correct but R is correct

135.The current through battery in each of the (D) A is correct but R is not correct
circuits shown in figure are
139.When electromagnetic radiation of
wavelength 300 nm falls on the surface of a
metal, electrons are emitted with the kinetic
energy of 1.68×10 J mol . What is the
5 -1

minimum energy needed to remove an


(A) 1A, 0.5 A (B) 2A, 1 A electron from the metal ?

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(b) All covalent substances are bad


-34 8 -1
(h=6.626×10 Js, c=3×10 ms ,
23 -1
N A =6.022×10 mol )
conductors of electricity.
(A) 2.31×10
6
mol
-1 (c) All covalent substances are gases at
room temperature.
(B) 3.84×10
4
mol
-1

(C) 3.84×10
19
mol
-1 (A) all are correct

(D) 2.31×10
5
mol
-1
(B) only a and b are correct
140.Statement-I : Electron gain enthalpy is
(C) only b and c are correct
always negative for all the elements.
Statement-II : Magnitude of ionization (D) all are wrong
enthalpy of Fluorine is greater than its
144.Which of the following statements is
electron gain enthalpy
incorrect?
(A) Both Statement I and Statement II
(A) The bond angle follows the order
are true
CH 4 >NH 3 >H 2 O>H 2 S

(B) Statement I is false but Statement (B) The bond order follows the order
II is true O
+

2
-
>O 2 >O 2 >O 2
2-

(C) Statement I is true but Statement II (C) Strength of ‘H’ bond follows the
is false order HF>H O>NH >HCl 2 3

(D) Both Statement I and Statement II (D) Decreasing order of bond


are false enthalpies: O >O >N > O 2-
2
-

2 2 2

141.Which of the following angle corresponds 145.For a given reaction,


to sp hybridization?
2
ΔH = 35.5 kJ mol and −1

. The reaction is
−1 −1
ΔS = 83.6 J K mol
(A) 90 º (B) 120 º
spontaneous at (Assume that ΔH = and
(C) 180 º (D) 109 º ΔS do not vary with temperature.)

142.The magnetic behavior of C2 vapour and its (A) T > 425K

bond order is
(B) all temperatures
(A) Para, 2 (B) Dia, 1
(C) T > 298K (D) T < 425K

(C) Para, 1 (D) Dia, 2 146.Statement I: Enthalpy of atomization is


always positive.
143.The following are some statements about
Statement II: Enthalpy of solution can be
the characteristics of covalent compounds
positive or negative.
(a) The combination of a metal and non-
metal must give a covalent compound.

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(A) If both Statement-I & Statement- Equivalent weight of F eC 2 O4 in the


II are correct change, F eC O → F e
2 4
3+
+ CO 2

(B) If both Statement-I & Statement-II (A) M/3 (B) M/6


are incorrect
(C) M/2 (D) M/1
(C) If Statement-1 is correct,
151.50 ml of 0.02 M KMnO4 oxidizes 50 ml of
Statement-II is incorrect
potassium iodide solution in faint alkaline
(D) If Statement-1 is incorrect, medium. Molarity of potassium iodide
Statement-II is correct. solution is

147.4.9 mg of H SO Is present in 1L of an
2 4 (A) 0.1 M (B) 0.01 M
aqueous solution. The p Of the solution is
H

(C) 0.0166 M (D) 0.06 M

(A) 4 (B) 3. 7
152.Assertion (A): Boron has highest melting
point in group 13, that is 2453K.
(C) 4. 3 (D) 5
Reason (R): Boron has solid crystalline
148.Which of the following combination has lattice structure.
buffer property
(A) Both A and R are correct and R is
(A) 1L of 1M N aOH + 1L of 1M the correct explanation of A
CH 3 COOH

(B) Both A and R are correct


(B) 1L of 1M N aOH + 1L of 2M
CH 3 COOH
(C) A is correct and R is incorrect

(D) Both A and R are correct and R is


(C) 1L of 1M N aOH + 1L of 1M
the not correct explanation of A
H Cl

153.Assertion (A) :- Catenation ability of


(D) 1L of 1M CH 3 COOH + 1L of phosphorous is greater than nitrogen
1M H Cl
Reason (R) :- Single N – N bond is
149.For a reversible reaction, the rate constants stronger than a single P – P bond
for forward and backward reactions are
In light of the above statements, choose the
2.38 x 10-4 and 8.15 x 10-5 respectively.
most appropriate answer from the options
The equilibrium constant for the reaction is
given below:
(A) 0.342 (B) 2.92
(A) Both A and R are correct and R is
(C) 0.292 (D) 3.42 the correct explanation of A

150.

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(B) Both A and R are correct but R is (D) III and IV only
NOT the correct explanation of A
156.Which of the following statements is not
(C) A is not correct but R is correct true about a homologous series ?

(D) A is correct but R is not correct (A) Adjacent members of a series


differ by a mass of 14
154.Statement-I: Ionisation enthalpies of group
15 elements are much greater than that of (B) Adjacent members of a series
group 14 elements in corresponding differ by one -CH4 group
periods.
(C) Members of a homologous series
Statement-II: Oxygen exist as diatomic
can be prepared by the same
molecule where sulphur exist as octa
general methods
atomic molecule.
(D) Members of a homologous series
(A) Both S-I, S-II are true
have the same physical and
(B) S-I is true, S-II is false chemical properties

(C) Both S-I, S-II are false 157.How many structural isomers are possible
for the compound having molecular
(D) S-I is false, S-II is true
formula C3H5Br3?
155.Select R-isomers from the following
(A) 5 (B) 4

(C) 6 (D) 8

158.Select the reagent that favours electrophilic


addition on olefins?

(A) NaOH (B) H3O+

(C) HCl

(D) Both 2 and 3

159.The following structure represents

(A) I only (B) II only

(C) I and II only (A) Benzpyrene

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(B) Cholanthrene (B) O2 is formed at cathode

(C) Benzanthracene (C) H2 is formed at anode

(D) Pheanthrene (D) H2 is formed at cathode

160.In the following reaction 163.Which one of the following is incorrect?

(A) Electrolysis of fused NaH


liberates H at cathode using Pt.
The major product is 2

electrodes

(B) Specific conductance of electrolyte


(A) decreases on dilution

(C) Molar conductance of electrolyte


increases on dilution

(D) Electrolysis of aq.NaCl solution


(B) gives Cl instead of O at anode
2 2

using Pt. electrodes

164.Pick the appropritate choice about collision


theory of reaction rates.
(C) (I) It explains the effect of temperature on
rate of reaction
(II) It assumes that the reactants must be in
correct orientation to react.
(D) (III) It says the rate depends upon the
frequency at which reactants collide.
(IV) The collisions having energy higher
161.Density of a solution of ‘X’ is 1 g/cc. More than the threshold value will give a
concentrated solution of ‘X’ is successful reaction.
The correct statements are
(A) 1m (B) 1N
(A) I, II, III and IV
(C) 1M (D) 1%(
w

v
)

(B) II and IV only


162.Which one of the following statements is
correct for electrolysis of brine solution? (C) II and IV only

(A) Cl 2 is formed at cathode (D) I, III and IV only

165.

Sr Elite NEET Practice GT-02 (26-12-24) Page 27 of 30


//

A → products, follows zero order kinetics. C σ bond is formed by the donation of a


A graph is plotted between [R]t (y-axis) and pair of electrons from a filled d orbital of
time in minutes (x-axis). If half life of the metal into the vacant antibonding π*
reaction is 72 minutes then the value of orbital of carbon monoxide.
[
Magnitude of y-intercept
] will be ([R]
Magnitude of slope t
In light of the given statements, choose the
concentration of ‘A’ in mol/lit left after
most appropriate answer from the options
time ‘t’)
given below.
(A) 144 (B) 72 (A) Both statement I and statement
(C) 36 (D) 0.09 II are correct.

166.Which of the following transition element (B) Both statement I and statement II
does not exhibit variable oxidation states? are incorrect.

(A) Mn (B) Ni (C) Statement I is correct but


statement II is incorrect.
(C) Ti (D) Sc
(D) Statement I is incorrect but
167.How many of the following statements are statement II is correct.
true ?
(i)Chromate ion is square planar 169.Which of the following square planar
(ii) Green manganate ion is diamagnetic complexes will exihibit three geometrical
(iii) Sodium dichromate can be prepared isomers (2 cis and 1 Trans )
from sodium chromate. (A) [Pt(NH3)2Cl2]
(iv) Purple KMnO disproportionates in
4

acidic medium and neutral medium (B) [Pt(NH3)(H2O)BrCl]


(v) Ionic character of oxides decreases with
(C) [Pt(NH3)4]+2
increase in oxidation number of transition
metal (D) [Pt (NH 3 )
3
Cl]
+

170.Assertion : Alkaline hydrolysis of methyl


(A) 1 (B) 2 bromide gives a product with inversion in
configuration
(C) 3 (D) 4
Reason : Alkaline hydrolysis of methyl
168.The question has two statements. bromide follows S 2 mechanism
N

Statement I and statement II.


(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R)
Statement I: The metal-carbon bond in is the correct explanation of (A)
metal carbonyls possess ‵ σ′ character
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R)
only.
is not the correct explanation of
Statement II: In metal carbonyls, the M –

Sr Elite NEET Practice GT-02 (26-12-24) Page 28 of 30


//

(A) 2,4 – DNP, Tollen’s,


I C 6 H 5 CH O A Fehling ‘s but not
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false Iodoform
CH 3 − CO 2,4-DNP,Haloform but
II B
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true − CH 3 not Tollen’s
2,4-DNP, Tollen’s but
III CH 3 − CH
C
171.Which one of the following species will be O not Fehling’s
most reactive in SN2 recation? 2,4-DNP,Fehling’s and
IV H CH O D
Iodoform

(A) Correct match is

I II III IV
1 A B C D
(B) 2 C B D A
3 C B A A
4 A B D C

(A) 1 (B) 2
(C)
(C) 3 (D) 4

175.Identify compound X in the following


sequence of reactions:

(D)

172.Number of –COOH groups in picric acid is

(A) 2 (B) 0
(A)
(C) 1 (D) 3

173. Conc. HI/Δ

A
CH 3 -O - C(CH 3 )
− → A + B.
3

and B are respectively

(A) CH 3 I, (CH 3 ) COH


3

(B) CH 3 OH, (CH 3 ) CI


3
(B)
(C) CH 3 OH, (CH 3 ) COH
3

(D) CH 3 OH, (CH 3 ) CHCH 2 I


2

174. Organic
Positive test
compound

Sr Elite NEET Practice GT-02 (26-12-24) Page 29 of 30


//

(B) N-methyl-N-ethyl-propanamine

(C) N-methyl-N-propyl ethanamine


(C)
(D) N-propyl- N-ethyl methanamine

178.Reaction of propanamide with Br2 / KOH


(aq) produces:

(A) Ethyl nitrile

(B) Propyl amine


(D)
(C) Propane nitrile

(D) Ethyl amine

176.Total number of aldehyde (structural and 179.Essential basic amino acid among the
stereo) possible with the formula, C5H10O following
is
(A) Glycine (B) Valine
(A) 3 (B) 6
(C) Leucine (D) Lysine
(C) 5 (D) 4
180.When nucleotide forms dimer the linkage
177.What is the IUPAC name for present between is ?

(A) Glycosidic linkage

(B) Disulphide linkage

(C) Peptide linkage


(A) N-ethyl-N-methyl propanamine
(D) phosphodiester linkage

Sr Elite NEET Practice GT-02 (26-12-24) Page 30 of 30

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