Sec: XII_PASS_NEET_NC NEET MODEL 2022 Date: 23/12/2024

Time: 3.20 Hrs. CTN-04 (Warm up) Max. Marks: 720

IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS:
1. The test Booklet consists of 100 questions. The maximum marks are 400.
2. The test is of 1:30 hours duration and Test Booklet contains 100 multiple choice questions
3. Mark only one correct answer out of four alternatives.
4. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars/marking.
5. Use of Calculator is not allowed.
6. Dark the circle in the space provided only.
7. Use of white fluid or any other material which damage the answer sheet, is not permissible on the
Answer Sheet.

Subject Syllabus
40%- THERMAL PROPERITIES OF MATTER: Heat transfer-Conduction, Convection.
(Excluding Netwon’s law of cooling), THERMODYNAMICS, KINETIC THEORY
OF GASES (full chapter), Oscillations, Waves: Introduction, Transverse &
Longitudinal waves, Displacement relation in a progressive wave, The speed of a
travelling wave. The principle of superposition of wave.
40%- WAVES: Reflection of waves, Stationary Waves (Organ Pipes) , Beats.
Principles invoved in Experiments: Speed of sound in air at room temperature using
a resonance tube,
ELECTROSTATICS: Introduction, Electric charges, Conductors and insulators,
PHYSICS Basic properties of electric charges, Coulomb’law, Force between multiple charges,
Electric Field, Electric field due to system of charges, Electric dipole, Dipole in a
uniform external field, Electric field lines, Electric flux, Continuous charge
distribution, Gauss’s Law, Introduction, electrostatic potential, Potential due to an
electric dipole, Potential due to a system of charges.
20%- Units and Measurements, Basic mathematics, Vectors, Kinematics (Full chapter) Laws
of Motion (Full chapter) Work power and Energy, System of particles and Rotational
Motion, Rotation (Full chapter). Gravitation, Properties of solid, Fluids,
THERMALN PROPERTIES OF MATTER (Excluding Newton’s law of cooling)

40%- Chemical properties of alkenes(addition reaction), Alkyne, Benzene, EAS,

Haloalkanes: Preparation and physical Properties, Nucleophilic substitutions
reactions of haloalkanes(SN1,SN2), Elimination reactions in haloalkanes.
Elimination versus substitution , Elimination addition Reaction (benzyne
mechanism), Electrophilic substitution of Arx, Alcohol: Preparation from Alkene,
CHEMISTRY
alkylhalide from Grignards reagent- Reactions: Reaction with Na,HX.
40%- Alcohol: Reactions: Reaction with PX5, acetylation, Dehydration , Oxidation and
reduction, Lucas test, Victor maeyer test, Ethers and phenol,
Carbonyl Compound: Method of preparation from Alkene, alkyne, and alcohol –
361, Grignards reaegent. Method of preparation from By reduction of acid chlorides,
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esters, Preparation of aromatic aldehydes, reactivity towards nucleophilic

substitution, addition of NaHCO3, HCN and Nitrogen nucleophiles.
20%- Some basic concepts of Chemistry (Full Chapter), Atomic Structure (Full Chapter),
Periodic properties (Full Chapter), Chemical Bonding (Full Chapter),
Thermodynamics and Chemical Energetics (Full Chapter), Chemical Equilibrium
(Full Chapter),
Ionic Equilibrium (Full Chapter), GOC including Isomerism. Alkane and
Preparation of Alkene (From-Alkyl halides, Dihalides, From dehydration of
Alcohol).
40%- Plant Growth and Development- Dormancy - cause of dormancy, breaking of
dormancy, seed germination, Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants -
Introduction, Flower - A fascinating organ of angiosperms, Pre-fertilization -
structures and events - Stamen, Microsporangium, Microsporogenesis, Pre-
fertilization - structures and events - Stamen, Pollen grain, Development of male
gametophyte, The pistil, Megasporangium (ovule), Types of ovules, Objective, Kinds
- Autogamy, Geitonogamy, Xenogamy, Agents of pollination - Wind, Water, Insects
40%- Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants- Outbreeding devices, Pollen-pistil
interaction, Double fertilization, Post-fertilization, structures and events - Endosperm,
Embryo development, Seed, Fruit; Apomixis and Polyembryony, Introduction,
Mendel's law of inheritance, Inheritance of one gene : concept of factors and concept
of segregation.
BOTANY
20%- The Living World (Full chapter), Biological Classification (Full chapter), Plant
Kingdom (Full chapter), Morphology of Flowering Plants (Full chapter),
Biomolecules (Full chapter). Anatomy of Flowering Plants 9Full chapter),
Photosynthesis in Higher Plants (Full chapter), Respiration in Plants (Full chapter),
Plant Growth and Development-Growth, differentiation and development. Growth
- characteristics, phases of growth, growth curve, growth rates - arithmetic growth and
geometric growth, Absolute growth rate and relative growth rate, Differentiation,
Dedifferentiation and Redifferentiation, Definition with examples, Development -
Definition, factors regulating it, plasticity, Auxins, Gibberellins, Cytokinin w.r.t. their
discovery, nature, types, biosynthesis, transport, functions, Growth hormones -
Ethylene, abscisic acid w.r.t. all above features

40%- Endocrine glands and hormones (Full chapter).Human Reproduction Male

reproductive system: Testes, epididymis, Vas deferens, penis, accessory glands of
male reproductive system, seminal plasma and semen, female reproductive system-
fallopian tubes, uterus, vagina, female external genitalia, Accessory gland of female
ZOOLOGY
reproductive system, Structure of Mammary glands
40%- Oogenesis and structure of ovum & ovary, Menstrual cycle: Various events and its
hormonal control, Capacitation and acrosomal reactions, fertilisation, fast block and
slow block to prevent polyspermy,embryonic development : cleavage, morula,
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blastula and implantation, Gastrulation, fate of three germinal layers,pregnancy and

embryonic development. Major features, function and types of placenta Parturition
and lactation, Reproductive Health- Reproductive Health, problems & strategies,
20%- Aves: General characters with examples, Mammalia: General characters, Subclasses-
Prototheria, Metatheria, Eutheria, CELL: THE UNIT OF LIFE (full Cell cycle (Full
chapter). BREATHING & EXCHANGE OF GASES (Full chapter), BODY FLUIDS
& CIRCULATION (Full chapter), EXCRETORY PRODUCTS & THEIR
ELIMINATION (Full chapter), LOCOMOTION & MOVEMENT, NEURAL
CONTROL & COORDINATION: Human neural system: Central and peripheral
neural system, neuron as structural and functional unit of neural system, different
types of neurons and their location. Nerve impulse, generation and its transmission-
Resting membrane potential, spike potential, action potential, depolarization,
repolarization, hyperpolarization.Synapses: Electrical and Chemical, synaptic
transmission, Neurotransmitters; excitatory and inhibitory.Structure of Brain:
Meninges of Brain, Forebrain, cerebrum, thalamus, hypothalamus, limbic system and
their functions, mid brain (corpora quadrigemina and crura cerebri), hind brain
(cerebellum, pons, medulla) ventricles of brain and cerebrospinal fluid.Spinal cord &
Peripheral nervous system: Cranial nerves, Spinal nerves; Autonomic nervous
System-sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous system and their functions.

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PHYSICS Max. Marks: 100

SECTION – A
You have to attempt all 25 questions from Section-A
Marking scheme: +4 for correct answer, -1 for Incorrect answer

1. Two particle of equal mass m and charge q are placed at a distance of 16 cm. They do not experience
q
any force. The value of is
m

 G
1) l 2) 0
3) 4) 4  0 G
G 4  0

2. In SHM match the following:

Table-1 Table-2
(A) Acceleration-displacement (P) Parabola
graph
(B) Kinetic energy-displacement (Q) Straight line
graph
(C) Velocity- displacement (R) Circle
graph
(D) Potential energy- (S) Ellipse
displacement graph

1) A(Q), B(P), C(S), D(P) 2) A(Q), B(R), C(R), D(P)

3) A(R), B(Q), C(P), D(S) 4)A (R), B(P), C (S), D (Q)

3. A balloon rises up with constant net acceleration of 10 m/s2. After 2 s a particle drops from the
balloon. After further 2 s match the following: (Take g =10 m/s2)
Table-1 Table-2
(A) Height of particle from ground (P) Zero
(B) Speed of particle (Q) 10 SI units
(C) Displacement of particle (R) 40 SI units
(D) Acceleration of particle (S) 20 SI units

1) A(Q), B(P), C(S), D(R) 2) A(Q), B(R), C(R), D(P)

3) A(R), B(Q), C(P), D(S) 4) A(R), B(P), C (S), D (Q)

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4. A football player is moving southward and suddenly turns eastward with the same speed to avoid an
opponent. The force that acts on the player while turning is
1) Along eastward 2) Along Northward 3) Along northeast 4) Along southwest
5. Force F on a particle moving in a straight line varies with distance d as shown in the figure. The work
done on the particle during its displacement of 12m is

1) 18 J 2) 21 J 3) 26 J 4) 13 J
6. The value of coefficient of volume expansion of glycerine is 5 × 10−4 𝐾 −1. The fractional change in
the density of glycerine for a rise of 40℃ in its temperature, is:
1) 0.020 2) 0.025 3) 0.010 4) 0.015
7. In the equation, y = A sin 2 (ax + bt + x/4) match the following:
Table-1 Table-2
(A) Frequency of wave (P) a
(B) Wavelength of wave (Q) b
(C) Phase difference between two (R) 
1
points distance apart
4a

(D) Phase difference of a point after (S) 𝜋

1 2
a time interval of
8b
(T) None

1)A(Q), B(T), C(S), D(T) 2) A(Q), B(S), C(R), D(T)

3) A(Q), B(P), C(S), D(T) 4) A(P), B(T), C(S), D(T)

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8. Regarding speed of sound in gas match the following:

Table-1 Table-2
(A) Temperature of gas is made (P) speed becomes
4 times and pressure 2 2 2 time
times
(B) Only pressure is made 4 (Q) speed becomes 2
times without change in times
temperature
(C) Only temperature is (R) speed remains
changed to 4 times unchanged
(D) Molecular mass of the gas (S) speed remains half
is made 4 times

1)A(Q), B(P), C(S), D(R) 2) A(Q), B(R), C(R), D(P)

3) A(Q), B(R), C(Q), D(S) 4) A(P), B(Q), C(R), D(S)

9. Assertion: Machine parts are jammed in winter.

Reason: The viscosity of lubricant used in machine parts increase at low temperature.
1) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
2) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
4) The assertion and reason both are false.
10. Assertion: Blue star is at high temperature than red star.
Reason: Wein’s displacement law states that 𝑇 ∝ (1/𝜆𝑚 ).
1) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
2) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
4) The assertion and reason both are false.
11. A cylindrical rod having temperature 𝑇1 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑇2 at its end. The rate of flow of heat is 𝑄1 cal/sec/ If
all the linear dimensions are doubled keeping temperature constant, then the rate of flow of heat 𝑄2
will be
1) 4𝑄1 2) 2𝑄1 3) 𝑄1 /4 4) 𝑄1 /2
12. The electric field near a conducting surface having a uniform surface charge density  is given by
 2
1) and is parallel to the surface 2) and is parallel to the surface
 0  0

 2
3) and is normal to the surface 4) and is normal to the surface
 0  0

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13. Assertion: The tyres of aircraft are slightly conducting.

Reason: If a conductor is connected to ground, the extra charge induced on conductor will flow to
ground.
1) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
2) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
4) The assertion and reason both are false.

14. In thermodynamics processes which of the following statements is not true?

1) In an isochoric process pressure remains constant
2) In an isothermal process the temperature remains constant
3) In an adiabatic process 𝑃𝑉 𝛾 = constant
4) In an adiabatic process the system is insulated from the surroundings

15. An electric charge q is placed at the centre of a cube of side  . The electric flux on one of its faces
will be
𝑞 𝑞 𝑞 𝑞
1)6𝜀 2) 3) 4𝜋𝜀 4) 𝜀
0 𝜀0 𝑎 2 0𝑎
2
0

16. Increase in temperature of a gas filled in a container would lead to:

1) Increase in its mass
2) Increase in its kinetic energy
3) Decrease in its pressure
4) Decrease in intermolecular distance

17. The temperature of a gas is raised from 27℃ to 927℃. The root mean square speed is
1) √(927⁄27) times the earlier value
2) Remains the same
3) Gets halved
4) Get doubled
5
18. A charged particle of mass 5  10 kg is held stationary in space by placing it in an electric field of
1
strength 10 NC directed vertically downwards. The charge on the particle is
7

5 5 5 5
1)  20  10 C 2)  5  10 C 3) 5  10 C 4) 20  10 C

19. The period of oscillation of a mass M suspended from a spring of negligible mass is T. If along with
it another mass M is also suspended, the period of oscillation will now be
1) T 2) 𝑇⁄√2 3) 2T 4) √2T

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20. A body is executing S.H.M When the displacements from the mean position are 4 cm and 5 cm, the
corresponding velocities of the body are 10cm per sec and 8 cm per sec. Then the time period of the
body is
1) 2𝜋 sec 2) 𝜋⁄2 sec 3) 𝜋 sec 4) (3 𝜋⁄2) sec
21. Sound waves travel at 350m/s through a warm air and at 3500m/s through brass. The wavelength of
a 700Hz acoustic wave as it enters brass from warm air
1) Decreases by a factor 10
2) Increases by a factor 20
3) Increases by a factor 10
4) Decreases by a factor 20
22. Two sound waves having a phase difference of 60° have path difference of
𝜆 𝜆 𝜆
1) 2𝜆 2) 2 3) 3 4) 6
23. If an insulated non-conducting sphere of radius R has charge density  . The electric field at a
distance r from the centre of sphere (r  R ) will be
𝜌𝑅 𝜌𝑟 𝜌𝑟 3𝜌𝑅
1) 2) 3)3𝜀 4)
3𝜀0 𝜀0 0 𝜀0

24. Shown below is a distribution of charges. The flux of electric field due to these charges through the
surface S is
S
+q +q

+q

1) 3q /  0
2) 2q /  0
3) q /  0 4) Zero

25. The value of electric potential at any point due to any short electric dipole is
→
𝑝 ×→
𝑟 →
𝑝 ×→
𝑟 →
𝑝 ⋅→
𝑟 →
𝑝 ⋅→
𝑟
(a) 𝑘. 𝑟2
(b) 𝑘. 𝑟3
(c)𝑘. 𝑟2
(d) 𝑘. 𝑟3

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CHEMISTRY Max. Marks: 100

SECTION – A
You have to attempt all 25 questions from Section-A
Marking scheme: +4 for correct answer, -1 for Incorrect answer

26. The reaction of 𝐶6 𝐻5 𝐶𝐻 = 𝐶𝐻𝐶𝐻3 with HBr produces:

1)

2) 𝐶6 𝐻5 𝐶𝐻2 𝐶𝐻2 𝐶𝐻2 𝐵𝑟

3)

4)

27. Which alkene on ozonolysis gives 𝐶𝐻3 𝐶𝐻2 𝐶𝐻𝑂 and

1)

2) 𝐶𝐻3 𝐶𝐻2 𝐶𝐻 = 𝐶𝐻𝐶𝐻2 𝐶𝐻3

3) 𝐶𝐻3 𝐶𝐻2 𝐶𝐻 = 𝐶𝐻𝐶𝐻3

4)

28. Which of the following compounds will not undergo Friedel-Craft’s reaction easily:
1) Xylene 2) Nitrobenzene 3) Toluene 4) Cumene
29. Which one of the following has the shortest carbon carbon bond length?
1) Benzene 2) Ethene 3) Ethyne 4) Ethane
30. Assertion (A): Presence of nitro group facilitates nucleophilic substitution reactions in aryl halides.
Reason (R): The intermediate carbocation is stable due to presence of nitro group.
1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion
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2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion
3) Assertion is true but Reason is false
4) Both Assertion and Reason are false
31. Identify A and predict the type of reaction

1)

2)

3)

4)

32. Consider the following statements.

Statement I: Thionyl chloride is preferred for the preparation of halo compounds from alcohol.
Statement II: Gaseous by products 𝑆𝑂2 and HCl escape easily from the reaction mixture.
1) Both Statement I and II are correct
2) Only Statement I is correct
3) Only Statement II is correct
4) Both Statement I and II are incorrect
33. Consider the following statements.
Statement I : 𝐶𝐻3 𝑂𝐻 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝐶𝐻3 𝐶𝐻2 𝑂𝐻 can be distinguish by haloform test.
Statement II: Haloform test is given by 2° alcohol.
1) Both Statements I and II are correct
2) Only Statement I is correct
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3) Only Statement II is correct

4) Neither Statement I nor Statement II is correct
34. Match the compounds given in Column I with Column II and select the suitable option

Column I Column II
A. Benzaldehyde i Phenolphthalein
B. Phthalic anhydride ii Etard reaction
C. Phenyl benzoate iii Oil of Wintergreen
D. Methyl salicylate iv Fries rearrangement

Choose the correct match

A B C D
1) ii i iv iii
2) iii iv i ii
3) iv i ii iii
4) iv iii ii i

35. Match the mixtures (in Column I) with the suitable reagents (in Column II) for distinction.
Column I Column II
A. i. Volatile nature/boiling points

B. ii. Neutral 𝐹𝑒𝐶𝑙3

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C. iii. Iodoform test

D. iv. Oxidative by 𝐾𝑀𝑛𝑂4

Codes:
A B C D
1) iv iii ii i
2) ii iii i iv
3) ii i iii iv
4) iii ii iv i
36. Match the starting materials given in Column I with the products formed by these (Column II) in the
reaction with HI and choose the correct answer using the code given below:

Column I Column II
1.

A. 𝐶𝐻3 − 𝑂 − 𝐶𝐻3

B.
2.

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C. 3.

D.

4. 𝐶𝐻3 𝑂𝐻 + 𝐶𝐻3 𝐼

Codes:
A B C D
1) 4 3 2 1
2) 3 4 1 2
3) 3 4 2 1
4) 4 3 1 2

37. One mole of an organic compound A with the formula 𝐶3 𝐻8 𝑂 reacts completely with two moles of
HI to form X and Y. When Y is boiled with aqueous alkali it forms Z. Z gives the iodoform test. The
compound A is
1) Propan-2-ol 2) Propan-1-ol 3) Ethoxyethane 4) Methoxyethane
38. By Cannizzaro reaction A changes to B and C as given

Thus, A is

1) 3)

2) 4)

𝑂𝑧𝑜𝑛𝑜𝑙𝑦𝑠𝑖𝑠
39. 𝑋 𝑌+𝑍
(𝑟𝑒𝑑𝑢𝑐𝑡𝑖𝑣𝑒)

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Y can be obtained by Etard’s reaction, Z undergoes disproportionation reaction with Concentrated

alkali.
X could be

1) 3)

2) 4)

40. Which of the following is most reactive towards electrophilic reagent

41. The decreasing order of boiling point of alkanes is:

a) Heptane b) butane c) 2-methylbutane d) hexane
1) a > b > c > d 2) d > c > b > a
3) a > d > c > b 4) a > d > c > b
42. Which of the following cannot be prepared by using Williamson’s synthesis?
1) Methoxybenzene
2) Benzyl p-nitrophenylether
3) Methyl tert-butyl ether
4) Ditertiary butyl ether
43. Assertion (A): Glycerol is purified by distillation under reduced pressure.
Reason (R): Glycerol is a trihydric alcohol
1) Both A and R are correct and R is correct explanation of A
2) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A
3) A is correct but R is incorrect
4) Both A and R are incorrect
44. Decreasing order of reactivity of hydrogen halide acid in the conversion of 𝑅𝑂𝐻 → 𝑅𝑋 is
1) 𝐻𝐶𝑙 > 𝐻𝐵𝑟 > 𝐻𝐼 > 𝐻𝐹
2) 𝐻𝐼 > 𝐻𝐵𝑟 > 𝐻𝐶𝑙 > 𝐻𝐹
3) 𝐻𝐹 > 𝐻𝐶𝑙 > 𝐻𝐵𝑟 > 𝐻𝐼
4) 𝐻𝐹 > 𝐻𝐵𝑟 > 𝐻𝐼 > 𝐻𝐶𝑙
45. The order of decreasing reactivity towards on electrophilic reagent, for the following would be
(i) Benzene (ii) Toluene (iii) Chlorobenzene (iv) Phenol

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1) (𝑖𝑖) > (𝑖𝑣) > (𝑖) > (𝑖𝑖𝑖)

2) (𝑖𝑣) > (𝑖𝑖𝑖) > (𝑖𝑖) > (𝑖)
3) (𝑖𝑣) > (𝑖𝑖) > (𝑖) > (𝑖𝑖𝑖)
4) (𝑖) > (𝑖𝑖) > (𝑖𝑖𝑖) > (𝑖𝑣)
46. What is the weight of oxygen required for the complete combustion of 2.8 kg of ethylene?
1) 2.8 kg 2) 6.4 kg 3) 9.6 kg 4) 96 kg
47. Consider the following sets of quantum number:
n l m S
(i) 3 0 0 +1/2
(ii) 2 2 1 +1/2
(iii) 4 3 -2 -1/2
(iv) 1 0 -1 -1/2
(v) 3 2 3 +1/2
Which of the following sets of quantum number is not possible?
1) (i), (ii) , (iii) and (iv)
2) (ii), (iv) and (v)
3) (i) and (iii)
4) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
48. Match the oxide given in column A with its property given in column B
Column A Column B
(i) 𝑁𝑎2 𝑂 A) Neutral
(ii) 𝐴𝑙2 𝑂3 B) Basic
(iii) 𝑁2 𝑂 C) Acidic
(iv) 𝐶𝑙2 𝑂7 D) Amphoteric
Which of the following options has all correct pairs?
1) (i)-(B), (ii)-(D); (iii)-(A); (iv)-(C)
2) (i)-(B), (ii)-(A); (iii)-(D); (iv)-(C)
3) (i)-(C), (ii)-(B); (iii)-(A); (iv)-(D)
4) (i)-(A), (ii)-(D); (iii)-(B); (iv)-(C)
49. Which of the following molecules is planar?
1) 𝑆𝐹4 2) 𝑋𝑒𝐹4 3) 𝑁𝐹3 4) 𝑆𝑖𝐹4
50. The rapid change of pH near the stoichiometric point of an acid-base titration is the basis of indicator
detection. pH of the solution is related to ratio of the concentrations of the conjugate acid (HIn) and
base (𝐼𝑛− ) forms of the indicator by the expression
[𝐼𝑛− ]
1) log [𝐻𝐼𝑛] = 𝑝𝐾𝐼𝑛 − 𝑝𝐻
[𝐻𝐼𝑛]
2) log [𝐼𝑛−] = 𝑝𝐻 + 𝑝𝐾𝐼𝑛

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[𝐻𝐼𝑛]
3) log [𝐼𝑛−] = 𝑝𝐻 − 𝑝𝐾𝐼𝑛
[𝐼𝑛− ]
4) log [𝐻𝐼𝑛] = 𝑝𝐻 − 𝑝𝐾𝐼𝑛

BOTANY Max. Marks: 100

SECTION – A
You have to attempt all 25 questions from Section-A
Marking scheme: +4 for correct answer, -1 for Incorrect answer

51. Statement-I : Mesocarp is the edible part of mango.

Statement-II: Endocarp is the edible part of mango.
(1) Both S-I and S-II are correct (2) Both S-I and S-II are incorrect
(3) S-I is correct and S-II is incorrect (4) S-I is incorrect and S-II is correct

52. Polygonum type of embryo sac is

(1) 8 – nucleate, 7 – celled (2) 8 – nucleate, 8 – celled
(3) 7 – nucleate, 7 – celled (4) 4 – nucleate, 3 – celled

53. In free-nuclear endosperm

(1) PEN undergoes nuclear divisions and wall formation simultaneously.
(2) PEN undergoes successive nuclear divisions to give rise to free nuclei.
(3) first division is followed by a transverse wall resulting in a micropylar and a chalazal chamber.
(4) it is a very rare type of endosperm.

54. Identify the type of endosperm in coconut water and surrounding white kernel from tender coconut.
(1) Cellular endosperm and free nuclear endosperm respectively
(2) Free nuclear endosperm and helobial endosperm respectively
(3) Cellular endosperm and helobial endosperm respectively
(4) Free nuclear endosperm and cellular endosperm respectively

55. Integuments encircle the nucellus except at the tip where a small opening is present called:
(1) Hilum (2) Nucellus (3) Chalaza (4) Micropyle

56. A cell X floats in the cytoplasm of cell Y. The cell X is spindle shaped and the cell Y
has a large irregularly shaped nucleus. Identify cell X and cell Y.
(1) X- Antipodal cell and Y- Central cell (2) X- Generative cell and Y- Vegetative cell
(3) X- Vegetative cell and Y- Microspore (4) X- Synergids and Y- Egg cell

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57. Assertion: Exine of a pollen grain is made up of sporopollenins which are resistant to high
temperatures,strong acids or alkali as well as enzymatic degradation.
Reason: Sporopollenins are absent in the region of germ pores.
(1) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) If both Assertion and Reason are false

58. Statement-A: The pre-pollination growth of male gametophyte occurs inside the
microsporangium whereas the rest of the growth occurs over the female reproductive organs.
Statement-B: Growth of the entire female gametophyte occurs inside the megasporangium.
(1) Statements A and B are incorrect (2) Statements A and B are correct
(3) Statement A is incorrect and B is correct (4) Statement A is correct and B is incorrect

59. Assertion: Pollination by wind is more common amongst abiotic pollinations.

Reason: Pollination by water is known as hydrophily.
(1) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) If both Assertion and Reason are false.

60. Assertion: Pollen grains from male parent are mostly transferred to the stigma in the female
parent by some external agency.
Reason: This is because the male flowers or male organs have no internal device to reach the
female organs in another flower.
(1) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) If both Assertion and Reason are false.

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61. Identify A, B, C and D in this figure?

(1) A: Pollen grains, B: Filament (Stalk), C: Line of dehiscence, D: Pollen sacs

(2) A: Line of dehiscence, B: Filament (Stalk), C: Pollen sacs, D: Pollen grains
(3) A: Filament (Stalk), B: Pollen grains, C: Line of dehiscence, D: Pollen sacs
(4) A: Line of dehiscence, B: Pollen sacs, C: Pollen grains, D: Filament (Stalk)

62. Statement A: Ribbon shaped pollen grains are present in Zostera or Seagrass
Statement B: All aquatic angiosperms are pollinated by water
(1) Statements A and B are correct (2) Statement A is correct and B is incorrect.
(3) Statement A is incorrect and B is correct (4) Statements A and B are incorrect
63. Statement A: Pollination by water is known as hydrophily
Statement B:Pollination by wind is known as Anemophily.
(1) Statements A and B are correct (2) Statement A is correct and B is incorrect
(3) Statement A is incorrect and B is correct (4) Statements A and B are incorrect.
64. Match the following columns and choose the correct combination.
Column I Column II

A. Funicle (i) Small opening of ovule

B. Integuments (ii) Stalk of ovule

C. Chalaza (iii) Protective envelopes

D. Hilum (iv) Junction part of ovule and stalk

E. Micropyle (v) Basal part of ovule

A B C D E

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1 ii iii v iv i
2 i iii ii iv v

3 ii iii i iv v
4 iii iv v i ii

(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4

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65. Match the Column I with Column II and select the correct option using the codes given below.
Column I Column II

A. Pistils fused together (i) Gametogenesis

B. Formation of gametes (ii) Pistillate

C. PMC or MMC (iii) Syncarpous

D. Unisexual female flower (iv) Diploid

A B C D

1 i ii iv iii

2 iii i iv ii

3 iv iii i ii

4 ii i iv iii

(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4

66. Statement-I : Nitrogen bases are part of nucleosides
Statement-II: Phosphate is absent in nucleotides
(1) Both S-I and S-II are correct (2) Both S-I and S-II are incorrect
(3) S-I is correct and S-II is incorrect (4) S-I is incorrect and S-II is correct
67. Statement-I : Monohybrid phenotypic ratio is 3:1
Statement-II: Monohybrid genotypic ratio is 1:2:1
(1) Both S-I and S-II are correct (2) Both S-I and S-II are incorrect
(3) S-I is correct and S-II is incorrect (4) S-I is incorrect and S-II is correct
68. Statement-I : Cyanobacteria is also known as blue green algae
Statement-II: Lichen is the symbiotic association between algae and fungi
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(1) Both S-I and S-II are correct (2) Both S-I and S-II are incorrect
(3) S-I is correct and S-II is incorrect (4) S-I is incorrect and S-II is correct
69. Sequence of development during the formation of embryo sac is
(1) Megaspore  Megaspore mother cell  Embryo sac.
(2) Megasporocyte  megaspore Embryo sac
(3) Megaspore Megaspore mother cell Embryo sac.
(4) Megaspore mother cell Megaspore Embryo sac.

70. Which of the following processes is necessary for the complete development of male gametophyte?
(1) One meiotic cell division and two mitotic cell divisions
(2) One meiotic cell division and one mitotic cell division
(3) Two meiotic cell divisions and one mitotic cell division
(4) Two mitotic cell divisions.
71. The ploidy n, 2n, and 3n conditions occur respectively in
(1) Antipodal, egg and endosperm. (2) Egg, nucellus and endosperm.
(3) Endosperm, nucellus and egg (4) Antipodals, synergids and integuments.
72. During double fertilization in plants, one sperm fuses with the egg cell and the other sperm fuses with
(1) Synergid cells (2) polar nuclei (3) Antipodal cell (4) Nucellar cell
73. Assertion : The method of development of embryo sac from a single functional megaspore is termed
as monosporic development.
Reason: Water hyacinth is not pollinated by water.
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false
(4) If both assertion and reason are false

74. Statement-I : Double fertilization is present in Gymnosperms

Statement-II: Double fertilization is the characteristic feature of all seed producing plants
(1) Both S-I and S-II are correct (2) Both S-I and S-II are incorrect
(3) S-I is correct and S-II is incorrect (4) S-I is incorrect and S-II is correct
75. Assertion: Glycolysis takes place in cytoplasm.
Reason: Glycolysis resulted in the production of pyruvic acid.
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false
(4) If both assertion and reason are false

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ZOOLOGY Max. Marks: 100

SECTION – A
You have to attempt all 25 questions from Section-A
Marking scheme: +4 for correct answer, -1 for Incorrect answer
76. The change undergone by the sperm to make it incompetent for fertilization in the male reproductive
tract is called
(1) Capacitation (2) Decapacitation (3) Castration (4) Cryptorchidism

77. Type of cleavage in humans is

(1) Meroblastic (2) Holoblastic (3) Spiral (4) Determinate
78. Read the following statements A and B.
Statement-A: Resting potential of the axolemma at the site of excitation is restored by rapid efflux of
potassium ions.
Statement-B: Ionic gradient across the resting membrane of a nerve fibre is maintained by the active
transport of ions by the sodium – potassium pump.
(1) Both statements A and B are incorrect
(2) Only statement A is correct
(3) Only statement B is correct
(4) Both statements A and B are correct

79. Select the mismatch

(1) Insemination - Transfer of sperms into the female genital tract
(2) Fertilisation - Fusion of male and female gametes
(3) Implantation - Formation and development of blastocyst and its attachment to myometrium
of uterus
(4) Gestation - Duration of embryonic development
80. Secretion from which of the following cells inhibits FSH in male
(1) Interstitial cells (2) Sertoli cells (3) Spermatogonia (4) Spermatozoa

81. Which of the following is not a part of intra-testicular duct system?

(1) Tubuli recti (2) Proximal part of Ductuli efferentia
(3) Rete testis (4) Epididymis
82. Consider the following statements:
(a) In all mammals’ testes remain permanently in scrotal sac.
(b) Secretions from Sertoli cells help in maintaining high level of testosterone inside the seminiferous
tubule
(c) Bull is castrated male cattle

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(d) For normal fertility out of 200-300 million sperms 40% sperm must have normal shape and size and
30% of them show vigorous motility.

Number of correct statements from the above mentioned are

(1) 3 (2) 1 (3) 4 (4) Zero

83. Which of the following cell undergoes first meiotic division during spermatogenesis?
(1) Spermatogonia (2) Primary spermatocyte
(3) Secondary spermatocyte (4) Spermatids
84. Which one of the following statements in regard to the excretion by the human kidneys is correct?
(1) Ascending limb of Loop of Henle is impermeable to electrolytes
(2) Descending limb of Loop of Henle is impermeable to water
(3) Distal convoluted tubule is incapable of reabsorbing HCO3
(4) Nearly 99 per cent of the glomerular filtrate is reabsorbed by the renal tubules

85. The principal nitrogenous excretory compound in humans is synthesised:

(1) In the liver, but eliminated mostly through kidneys
(2) In kidneys but eliminated mostly through liver
(3) In kidneys as well as eliminated by kidneys
(4) In liver and also eliminated by the same through bile

86. Statement - 1: Vagina acts as birth canal along with cervix

Statement - 2: It is lined with non-keratinised stratified cuboidal epithelium
(1) Both statements are correct
(2) Statement -1 is correct and Statement -2 is incorrect
(3) Statement -1 is incorrect and Statement -2 is correct
(4) Both statements are incorrect
87. Which of the following is a correct match?
Column - I Column-II
(1) Isthmus → Convoluted part of oviduct
→ Muscular and glandular layer of
(2) Endometrium
uterus
(3) Myometrium → Protective layer of uterus
(4) Ampulla → Wider part of oviduct

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88. If ADH level of blood is less :-

(1) Volume of urine increases (2) Volume of urine decreases
(3) Volume of urine is normal (4) Volume of urine is unaffected

89. Which of the following organ pairs are not homologous?

(1) Labia majora and scrotum
(2) Labia minora and glans penis
(3) Clitoris and penis
(4) Cowper's gland and Bartholin’s gland

90. Which of the following hormone stimulates milk production (A) and milk ejection (B)?
A B
(1) Oxytocin Prolactin
(2) Prolactin Progesterone
(3) Prolactin Oxytocin
(4) Oxytocin Progesterone

91. Milk is secreted by cells of alveoli of mammary lobes reached nipples through:
(i) Lactiferous duct (ii) Mammary ducts
(iii) Mammary ampulla (iv) Mammary tubule
Arrange in correct order.
(1) (i) → (ii) → (iii) → (iv) (2) (ii) → (iv) → (iii) → (i)
(3) (iv) → (iii) → (ii) → (i) (4) (iv) → (ii) → (iii) → (i)

92. Spermatids are transformed into spermatozoa by the process

(1) Spermiogenesis (2) Spermiation
(3) Spermatogenesis (4) Spermatolysis
93. Assertion (A): Removal of ovary during first trimester will lead to abortion.
Reason (R): Ovariectomy leads to decline in levels of the pregnancy hormone.
Choose the correct option.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is the correct statement but (R) is incorrect
(4) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect

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94. Choose the correct statement among following.

(1) The first menstruation that begins in primates, Homo sapiens is called menopause.
(2) Ovum released during ovulation is released directly into the fallopian tube.
(3) Amenorrhea i.e., lack of menstruation is not a sure indicator of pregnancy.
(4) The event parallel to proliferative phase in uterus is luteal phase in ovary.

95. Hormone secreted by both developing follicles and corpus luteum is

(1) Progesterone (2) LH (3) Relaxin (4) Estrogen

96. In non-pregnant female, the first hormone to peak in secretory phase is

(1) Progesterone (2) Estrogen (3) LH (4) FSH
97. Given below are two statements :
Statement I : Mitochondria and chloroplasts are both double membrane bound organelles.
Statement II : Inner membrane of mitochondria is relatively less permeable, as compared to
chloroplast.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below:
(1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
(3) Both Statement-I and Statement II are correct.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
98. Assertion (A): The two lungs are covered by a double layered pleura, with pleural fluid between
them.
Reason (R): Pleural fluid reduces the friction on the lung surface
1) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
2) Both A and R are true, And R is the correct explanation of A
3) A is true but R is false
4) A is false but R is true
99. Which of the following is not correct w.r.t. the functions of the thyroid hormones?
1) Play important role in the regulation of the basal metabolic rate
2) Influence the maintenance of water and electrolyte balance
3) Play no role in the metabolism of proteins and fats
4) Support the process of red blood cell formation
100. Given below are two statements.
Statement I: Transmission of an impulse across chemical synapses is very similar to impulse
conduction along a single axon.
Statement II: Synaptic vesicles release neurotransmitters into synaptic cleft in chemical synapse.
Choose the correct answer from the option given below.
1) Both statement I and statement II are true.
2) Statement I is false and statement II is true.

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3) Both statement I and statement II are false.

4) Statement I is true and statement II is false

************

Subject Physics Chemistry Botany Zoology

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