G12_ UNIT 1.

LIFE STORIES WE ADMIRE

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits
each of the numbered blanks.
Vincent van Gogh was a well-known painter whose work is famous for its beauty, emotion and colour.
Van Gogh was born on March 30, 1853, in Groot-Zundert, Netherlands. At age 15, Van Gogh’s family was struggling (1)
__________, and he was forced to (2) __________ school and go to work. He got a job at his Uncle Cornells’ art
dealership, Goupil & cie. By this time, Van Gogh was fluent in French, German and English, as well as his native Dutch.
In June of 1873, Van Gogh was transferred to the Groupil Gallery in London. There, he fell in love with English culture.
He visited art galleries in his spare time. He also fell in love with his landlady’s daughter, Eugenie Loyer. When she
refused his marriage proposal, Van Gogh suffered a breakdown. He threw away all his books except for the Bible, and
devoted his life (3) __________ God.
In the fall of 1880, van Gogh decided (4) __________ to Brussels and become an artist. Although he had no formal art
training, his brother Theo offered to support van Gogh financially. In 1885, he began work on what is considered to be his
first masterpiece, “Potato Eaters”.
Vincent van Gogh completed more than 2,100 works, consisting of 860 oil paintings and more than 1,300 watercolours,
drawings and sketches. Several of his paintings now rank among the most expensive in the world. A (5) __________ of van
Gogh’s most well-known artworks include: Starry Night and Sunflowers. Van Gogh painted the Starry Night in the asylum
where he (6) __________ in Saint-Rémy, France, in 1889, the year before his death. On July 29, 1890, Vincent van Gogh
died in the arms of his brother Theo. He was only 37 years old.
Today, Vincent van Gogh is considered one of the greatest artists in human history, but he struggled with mental illness and
remained poor and virtually unknown throughout his life.
Adapted from https://www.biography.com/artists/vincent-van-gogh
Question 1. A. financial B. financially C. finance D. unfinancially
Question 2. A. adopt B. resign C. attend D. leave
Question 3. A. for B. with C. to D. from
Question 4. A. to moving B. moving C. to be moved D. to move
Question 5. A. some B. lot C. few D. little
Question 6. A. was stayed B. was staying C. had stayed D. stays
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct option that best fits each of the
numbered blanks from 7 to 12.
Alexander Graham Bell was a Scottish-born scientist and inventor (7) _________ was best known for inventing the first
working telephone.
Bell was born in Edinburgh, Scotland, on March 3, 1847. During his youth, Bell was strongly (8) _________ by his family
and his environment. Bell’s hometown of Edinburgh, Scotland, was known as the “Athens of the North” for its rich culture
of arts and science.
By age 16, Alexander had joined his father in his work with the deaf. In 1870, the family settled in Brantford, Ontario,
Canada. There, Alexander set up a workshop to continue his study of the human voice. On July 11, 1877, Bell married
Mabie Hubbard who had been deaf (9) _________ her early childhood years.
On March 10, 1876, after (10) _________ years of work, Bell perfected his most well-known invention, the telephone, and
made his first telephone call. The Bell Telephone Company was organised on July 9, 1877. In 1880, Bell established the
Volta Laboratory in Washington, D.C., an experimental facility devoted to (11) _________ discovery.
(12) _________ his life, Bell continued his family’s work with the deaf. Bell died peacefully on August 2, 1922, at his
home in Baddeckon Cape Breton Island, Nova Scotia, Canada.
Adapted from https://www.biography.com/inventors/alexander-graham-bell
Question 7: A. whom B. which C. who D. when
Question 8: A. admired B. influenced C. devoted D. confused
Question 9: A. since B. because C. until D. despite
Question 10: A. little B. much C. many D. lot of
Question 11: A. scientifically B. science C. scientist D. scientific
Question 12: A. Throughout B. because C.Morever D. Inspite of

Rearrange the following sentences to make a meaningful paragraph/ letter.

Question 13.
a. In 1877, he created the phonograph while he was doing experiments with the telephone repeater.
b. His determination and innovative spirit made him one of the most famous figures in history.

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c. Thomas Edison, a brilliant inventor, was born in 1847 in Ohio, USA. His childhood was marked by curiosity, and at a
young age, he developed a keen interest in science.
d. In 1879, he successfully created the first practical electric light bulb, revolutionising the way people lived.
e. Thomas Edison passed away on October 18,1931.
f. Edison’s education was informal, but his passion for learning and experimentation led him to numerous inventions.
A. c-f-a-d-e-b B. c-e-b-a-d-f C. e-b-c-a-d-f D. c-e-b-d-a-f
Question 14.
a. That was a great film because the storyline was magical, the characters were so lovable, and the animation was
wonderful.
b. I’m so pleased to hear that you enjoyed our delightful movie night, and I’m looking forward to our next one.
c. Let’s definitely do this again sometime soon - maybe with another Disney classic or any movie you have in mind.
d. Best regards,
e. I hope this email finds you well. I just wanted to say a huge thank you for suggesting that amazing Walt Disney film for
our movie night!
f. Hi Minh,
g. I was on top of the world every moment, and it brought back some beautiful childhood memories.
A. f-e-a-g-c-b-d B. c-e-b-a-d-f C. e-b-c-a-d-f D. c-e-b-d-a-f
Question 15:
a. Moreover, we discover their significant contributions or achievements, seeing how they impacted the world.
b. Secondly, exploring their marriages and families gives us information about their personal lives and the support systems
they had.
c. Biographies of famous people teach us many things.
d. Finally, learning about their health issues helps us understand the challenges they faced.
e. First, we learn about their early life and education, understanding how their childhood shaped their future
A. e-b-a-d-c B. c-e-b-a-d C. e-b-c-a-d D. c-e-b-d-a
Question 16:
a. I hope you find Kim Dong’s biography as inspiring as I did and hope to hear from you soon.
b. Hi Anna,
c. He was a remarkable figure in Vietnamese history, known for his bravery and dedication to the country.
d. I hope this email finds you well. Today, I want to share with you the inspiring story of a Vietnamese hero, Kim Dong,
whose real name is Nong Van Den.
e. At a young age, Kim Dong actively participated in the resistance war against the French. He died at the age of 14 while
he was doing his duty.
f. Born in 1929 in Na Ma village, Truong Ha commune, Ha Quang district, Cao Bang province, A Kim Dong grew up
during the French colonial period.
g. Best regards,
A. b-c-d-f-e-a-g B. b-d-c-e-f-a-g C. b-d-c-f-e-a-g D. b-d-c-a-f-e-g
Question 17:
a, Thank you for giving us the best gift. I would love to come and visit you one day in the North Pole!
b, I have been writing to you every year since I was 4, and I want you to know that I have tried to be very good this year.
c, Dear Santa,
My name is Windy and I am 16 years old.
d, This year for Christmas I just want my family to be healthy and happy.
e, I made my mommy, daddy, and sister feel better when they were sick and I also studied harder to have better results.
f, And I wish you a very merry Christmas!
Love, Windy.
A. c-e-a-d-b-f B. c-a-d-e-b-f C. c-b-e-d-a-f D. c-b-d-a-f-e
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct option that best fits each of the
numbered blanks from 18 to 22.
Vo Thi Sau was born in Ba Ria- Vung Tau province in 1933. She was just a schoolgirl (18) ________ in revolutionary
activities. When Ho Chi Minh declared independence against the French in 1945, she was only 12 years old. A few years
later, she joined the Viet Minh and became a guerrilla fighter.
At the age of 14 while in a busy market, she threw a grenade at a group of French soldiers. She managed to kill one officer
and (19) ________. She was able to escape unnoticed. At 16, she planned another grenade attack, however, the grenade
failed to explode and (20) ________. She was then shipped off to three different prisons, the final being Con Son prison on
the Con Dao archipelago. She was executed by firing squad in 1952 when she was only 19-years-old. It’s said she refused
to be blindfolded and stared into the eyes of the soldiers while singing (21) ________.

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Today, she is considered a national hero and a symbol of the revolutionary spirit. Her grave is frequently visited by
Vietnamese citizens, especially at night, to honour her memory. (22) ________.
Adapted from https://www.atlasobscura.com/places/grave-of-vo-th-sau
Question 18: A. when she became involved B. becoming involved
C. when became involved D. to become involved
Question 19: A. injured several others B. injure several others
C. injuring several others D. to injured several others
Question 20: A. she arrested the French authorities B. the French authorities was arrested
C. was arrested by the French authorities D. she was arrested by the French authorities
Question 21: A. until she was killed B. not until she was skilled
C. until was she skilled D. not until she killed
Question 22: A. Many streets, parks, and schools have names after her across Viet Nam.
B. Many streets, parks, and schools are named after her across Viet Nam.
C. She named after many streets, parks, and schools across Viet Nam.
D. She is named after by many streets, parks, and schools across Viet Nam.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions from 23 to 30.

Nguyen Du is a celebrated Vietnamese poet who wrote in Chữ Nôm, the ancient writing script of Viet Nam. His poetry is
celebrated for the directness of its language and of its metaphors. Despite a number of Vietnamese poets pre-dated him,
Nguyen Du is considered by many Vietnamese to be the founding-figure of Vietnamese literature. His epic poem Truyen
Kieu (The Tale of Kieu), relating the brief and tragic life of a Vietnamese girl, is considered as a masterpiece.
Nguyen Du was born in 1765 in Tien Dien village, Nghi Xuan district, NgheTinh province, Viet Nam. By the age of 13,
Nguyen had lost both of his parents, and for most of his teenage years he lived with his brother or with his brother-in-law.
At the age of 19, Nguyen passed the provincial examination. After that, he was appointed to the position of a military
advisor in the Trinh army. After the Trinh Lords were defeated in 1786 by Nguyen Hue, Nguyen Du refused to serve in the
new administration. He was arrested and held for some time before he moved back to his native village in the northern part
of the country.
Later, when yet another warlord, Nguyen Anh, ruled Viet Nam in 1802, Nguyen Du agreed to serve in his administration.
At first, he was given his old post of military advisor but after a decade, he was promoted to an ambassador to China in
1813.
While in China, he discovered and translated the Ming dynasty era tale “Kim Van Kieu” that would become the basis for
the Tale of Kieu. He was later appointed to two more missions to Beijing, but before he could depart for the last one, he
died of a long illness for which he refused treatment in 1820.
Nguyen Du’s father worked as a minister for the Lê dynasty, and his family did well during this time. However, Nguyen
Du spent much of his life feeling guilty because he worked for a new ruler who took over, and he thought this was a
betrayal of the true leaders of Viet Nam. He believed this brought dishonour to him and his family.
Adapted from https://www.newworldencyclopedia.org/entry/Nguy%E1%BB%85n_Du
Question 23: Which of the following can be the best title for the passage?
A. Nguyen Du: Life and Career
B. The Tale of Kieu: A Masterpiece in Vietnamese Literature
C. Vietnamese Warlords and Their Rule
D. The Life Challenges of Nguyen Du
Question 24: The word “masterpiece” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ____________.
A. genius B. neglect C. account D. treasure
Question 25: Which of the following is stated in paragraph 3 about Nguyen Du?
A. He refused to hold the position of an ambassador to China in 1813.
B. He worked as military advisor under Nguyen Anh’s rule in 1802.
C. He translated the tale “Kim Van Kieu” and wrote the Tale of Kieu in 1813.
D. He died of an illness after completing two more missions to Beijing in 1820.
Question 26: The word “appointed” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ____________.
A. resigned B. devoted C. selected D. defeated
Question 27: The word “one” in paragraph 4 refers to ____________.
A. post B. mission C. tale D. ambassador
Question 28: Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage?
A. Nguyen Du’s father was a military advisor in the Trinh army.
B. Nguyen Du disagreed to serve in Nguyen Hue’s administration.

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C. Nguyen Du passed the provincial examination in 1784.
D. Nguyen Du died of a long illness in spite of medical treatment.
Question 29:Which deseases did he die of?
A. he died of a long illness for which he refused treatment
B. he died of a long illness for which he accepted treatment
C. he died for a long illness for which he refused treatment
D. he died for a long illness for which he received treatment
Question 30: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. He considered himself the founding figure of Vietnamese literature.
B. He did not face any hardships after losing his parents at a young age.
C. Nguyen Du felt guilty for serving who he perceived to be a wrong ruler.
D. Nguyen Du played the same role in Trinh Army and under Nguyen Hue’s rule.

Read the following passage and choose the correct answer to each of the following questions.
William Shakespeare was an English poet, playwright, and actor of the Renaissance era. It is believed he was born
on April 23, 1564 Stratford-upon-Avon, located about 100 miles northwest of London. Shakespeare was the third child of
John Shakespeare, a glove-maker and leather merchant, and Mary Arden, a local heiress to land.
He most likely attended the King’s New School, in Stratford until he was 14 or 15 and did not continue to
university. Shakespeare married Anne Hathaway on November 28, 1582, in Worcester, in Canterbury Province. He had
three children, including one daughter and twins.
By 1592, there is evidence Shakespeare earned a living as an actor and a playwright in London and possibly had several
plays produced. Shakespeare’s most well-known poetry are his 154 sonnets, which were first published as a collection in
1609 and likely written as early as the 1590s.
In 1594, Shakespeare joined Lord Chamberlain’s Men, the London acting company that he worked with for the duration of
his career. Later called the King’s Men, it was considered the most important troupe of its time and he became central to
its success. Initially, he was an actor and eventually devoted more and more time to writing. Records show that
Shakespeare, who was also a company shareholder, had works published and sold as popular literature.
By 1599, Shakespeare and several fellow actors built their own theatre on the south bank of the Thames River,
which they called the Globe Theatre. Julius Caesar is thought to be the first production at the new open-air theatre.
From about 1590 to 1613, he wrote 37 plays revolving around three main themes: history, tragedy, and comedy.
Many of Shakespeare’s first plays were histories, for example, Henry VI, Richard II, and Henry V. Although Shakespeare
wrote three tragedies, including Romeo and Juliet, before 1600, it wasn’t until after the turn of the century that he truly
explored the genre. Possibly the best known of these plays is Hamlet, which explores betrayal, and moral failure.
Shakespeare wrote comedies throughout his career, including his first play The Taming of the Shrew.
Around 1603, Shakespeare is believed to have stopped acting in the King’s Men productions, instead focusing on
his playwriting work. He likely spent the last three years of his life in Stratford. Tradition holds that Shakespeare died of a
brief illness on his 52nd birthday, April 23, 1616, but some scholars believe this is a myth.
Adapted from https://www.biography.com/authors-writers/william-shakespeare
Question 31. Which of the following can be the best title for the passage?
A. William Shakespeare’s Life Stories B. William Shakespeare’s Contributions to Poetry
C. Biography of a Famous English Poet D. William Shakespeare’s Career Achievements
Question 32. According to the passage, what is true about Shakespeare’s early life and education?
A. Shakespeare was born in London on April 23,1564.
B. Shakespeare’s mother worked as a glove-maker and leather merchant.
C. Shakespeare’s marriage to Anne Hathaway took place in Worcester.
D. Shakespeare continued university education after attendingthe King’s New School.
Question 33. When were Shakespeare’s sonnets first published as a collection?
A.1582 B.1592 C. 1594 D. 1609
Question 34. The word ‘central’ in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to __________.
A. fundamental B. visionary C. accessible D. dedicated
Question 35. The word ‘it’ in paragraph 4 refers to __________.
A. Chamberlain’s Men B. the London acting theatre
C. Shakespeare’s career D. King’s Men
Question 36. According to the passage, from 1592 to 1599, Shakespeare did all of the following EXCEPT _______.
A. became a playwright and actor in London by 1592 B. started working for Lord Chamberlain’s Men in 1954
C. wrote 154 plays as early as the 1590s D. built an open-air theatre by 1599
Question 37. According to paragraph 5, what is the most famous tragic play written by Shakespeare?

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A. Romeo and Juliet B. Henry V C. Hamlet D. The Taming of the Shrew
Question 38. The word ‘myth’ in paragraph 7 is closest in meaning to __________.
A. truth B. legend C. account D. statement
Question 39. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage about Shakespeare?
A. Shakespeare played a significant role in the success of King’s Men.
B. Not until the turn of the 16th century did Shakespeare truly explore the tragedy genre.
C. Shakespeare had a career shift from acting to writing due to health issues.
D. Shakespeare focused on writing sonnets more than writing plays.
Question 40. Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage?
A. Shakespeare was an actor before he became a playwright.
B. Shakespeare concentrated on acting and spent time in Stratford in his later years.
C. Shakespeare was born and passed away on the same day, April 23, 52 years apart.
D. Shakespeare and his colleagues constructed the Global Theatre in 1599.

VI. LISTENING
Task 1. Listen to a talk about Alfred Nobel’s biography and fill in each blank with ONE suitable word. You can
listen to the recording TWICE.
Biography Descriptions
Early life and - born in Stockholm, (1) ______________ on October 21st, 1833
education - the third of the eight children of his parents
- loved Chemistry and languages
- (2) _____________ in English, German, French and Russian
- studied under the (3) ___________ Nikolai Zinin and went to Paris in 1850
- went to the United States at the age of 18 to (4) _____________ his knowledge on
Chemistry
- interested in studying explosives and doing experiments with nitroglycerin
Achievements - found dynamite, which was safer than than nitroglycerin and was patented in (5)
_________________
- developed Gelignite which was even more powerful than dynamite in 1876
- laid the (6) ___________ for the Nobel Prize in 1895

Marriage and - met Sophie Hesse in 1876 and developed a (7) __________ with her
Family - never married or had children
Death - died at San Remo Italy on December 10th ,1896 at the age of (8) _____63___

Task 2. Listen to a talk about Marie Curie’s biography and choose the correct answer to each of the following
questions. You can listen to the recording TWICE.
1. When did Marie Curie start attending the boarding school of J. Sikosra?
A. in 1867 B. in 1877 C. in 1876 D. in 1883
2. Marie Curie moved to France because __________.
A. she attended a gymnasium for girls. B. she started her practical scientific training.
C. she pursued education at the Sorbonne University. D. she wanted to get a PhD’s degree in Chemistry.
3. Which element was discovered by Marie Curie?
A. X-ray B. Uranium C. Noelium D. Polonium
4. What is not mentioned as an achievement of Marie Curie?
A. She received a master’s degree in Physics in 1893. B. She discovered two new elements for the periodic
table.
C. She was the first woman to be awarded two Nobel prizes.
D. She cured cancer and treated injuries for soldiers during World War I.
5. What is true about Marie Curie’s life?
A. She was the youngest of the nine children of her parents.
B. She met Pierre Curie in 1894 and they married one year later.
C. She won two Nobel Prizes in Physics in 1903 and in 1911.
D. She named one of the elements discovered radium after her homeland.

UNIT 2. MULTICULTURAL WORLD

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 Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits
each of the numbered blanks.

We live in (1) __________ globalised world and we can imagine a travelling businessman having bacon and eggs for
breakfast in New York City, a plate of pasta and finishing the day out (2) __________ a traditional Middle Eastern dinner
in Dubai.
The world is open to us and that includes the world’s (3) __________ diversity of flavours and cuisines.
There has always an exchange of food culture and knowledge when two different cultures meet. From the black
peppertrade of the ancient Romans to the introduction of potatoes from the New World into Irish cuisine, new flavours and
cooking techniques (4) __________ into cuisines as a way to add a bit of interest.
It can often be hard to (5) __________ the line between what is truly “traditional” and what parts of a food culture have
been influenced by outside forces.
Today though, in our incredibly globalised world, it’s not just pieces of the cuisine that travel, in theform of ingredients
orsingle recipes, but the entire cuisine as a whole.
Immigrants bring their traditional food cultures with them, travellers seek out the flavours they encountered halfway
around the globe when they return back home, and even those people who might never leave the borders of their own
country seek out a bit of adventure while (6) __________ the “international cuisine” section of their local restaurant guide.
Adapted from: https://globalgastros.com/food-culture/globalization
Question 1. A. the B. an C. a D. Ø
Question 2. A. on B. of C. in D. with
Question 3. A. vast B. happy C. mild D. lengthy
Question 4. A. incorporated B. were incorporated C. incorporate D. incorporating
Question 5. A. draw B. look C. devote D. kill
Question 6. A. browse B. browsed C. browsing D. to browse
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct option that best fits each of the
numbered blanks from 7 to 12.

Dining together with family is an important tradition in many cultures, and for good reason. However, shifting social
realities might be painting a newer picture for the future of restaurants. (7) _________ an increasing number of individuals
choose to live alone, this means that the restaurant business will need to continue to evolve and adapt to allow customers to
savour their dining experience, (8) _________ translates to more single-serving meals, better food delivery options, or
more specialised restaurants and cafes. One thing is certain: the future of diners in Japan (9) _________ by the rise of
single households.
One of the most (10) _________ changes in the dining industry has been the rise of single-serving meals. This has led to a
rise (11) _________ “lonely meals”(12) ________o meals that are eaten alone at home or in public spaces like parks and
cafes.
Adapted from: https://www.linkedin.com/pulse/new-generation-diners-how-solo-dining-revolutionizing-aisha-stapi
%C4%87
Question 7: A. As B. Despite C. Although D. So
Question 8: A. when B. which C. that D. where
Question 9: A. is shaped B. shapes C. will be shaped D. will shape
Question 10: A. big B. noticeable C. global D. raw
Question 11: A. of B. on C. to D. in
Question 12: A. or B. but C. so D. and

Rearrange the following sentences to make a meaningful paragraph/ letter.

Question 13:
a. Firstly, it’s considered impolite to point your feet at someone, especially an older person, as the feet are considered the
lowest part of the body.
b. In conclusion, these cultural taboos reflect the importance placed on harmony, respect, and maintaining social order in
Vietnamese society.
c. Additionally, raising your voice or showing anger in public is seen as breaking social harmony.
d. In Viet Nam, respecting elders is a cultural norm that holds great significance.
e. Lastly, discussing personal matters or asking someone’s age, salary, or marital status upon first meeting is often seen as
intrusive.
A. d-a-c-e-b B. c-b-e-d-a C. b-d-a-c-e D. a-d-e-c-d
Question 14:

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 a. I hope you have a fantastic time exploring Vietnamese cuisine!
b. Secondly, using both hands to receive or give something is a sign of respect.
c. First and foremost, it’s common to wait for the host to start the meal before you begin eating.
d. Best regards,
e. Dear Michael, I hope you’re doing well! I am writing to share some dining etiquette tips for your upcoming visit to
Viet Nam.
f. Lastly, don’t be surprised if people insist you take more servings - it’s a way of expressing hospitality.
A. f-c-d-a-b-e B. d-a-e-b-c-f C. e-c-b-f-a-d D. c-e-a-b-f-d
Question 15.
a) Secondly, it’s a good idea that you try to cook traditional food frequently.
b) There are two main ways to maintain your cultural identity in a new culture.
c) Staying connected with your family and friends helps you to feel part of your native culture.
d) You should also remember to make mealtimes special and important occasions.
e) Firstly, keep in touch with people you know back home.
A. c – a – d – e – a B. b – a – e – d – c C. b – e – d – a – c D. b – e – c – a – d
Question 16:
a. In addition, I think the time of training is quite short, and the cost is also affordable for me and my family.
b. I like the fact that this course also provides apprenticeship opportunities.
c. This will help me fіnd a suitable job immediately after I fіnish the course.
d. Good morning, Ms Hoa.
e. I’d be interested in a cooking course because cooking has always been my hobby.
A. e – d – b – a – c C. b – a – c – d - e
B. d – e – a– b – c D. c – a – e – d – b
Question 17:
a. Shall we meet at 10 a.m?
b. Hi Mai,
c. Please tell me if I need to buy something in advance to prepare for the meal.
d . See you soon,
Linda
e.I am so glad to come to try some recipes from the book with you.
f, Thank you for inviting me to your house this Sunday.
A. a–c–d–e–f–b C. b – f – e –a –c -d
B. c–a–e–b–d–f D. f – b – a – c – d – e
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, c, or D to indicate the correct option that best fits each of the
numbered blanks from 18 to 23.

One of the most obvious effects of globalisation on local cultures is the spread of popular culture. (18) _________ global
media and the internet, cultural products such as music, films, and television shows (19) _________ in even the most
remote corners of the world. This has led to the erosion of traditional cultural practices and music. For example, many
traditional music styles and instruments are being replaced by Western pop music and electric instruments, and traditional
dress is being replaced by Western-style clothing. This can lead to a loss of cultural identity and (20) _________.
Another effect of globalisation on local cultures is the erosion of traditional languages. As people (21) _________ global
media and travel more, they are more likely to adopt the language of the dominant global culture, often at the expense of
their own traditional languages. This can lead to a loss of linguistic diversity. In some cases, it can also lead to the
extinction of languages (22) _________.
Adapted from: https://reflections.live/articles/986/impact-of-globalization-on-local-culture-an-article-by-ayesha-sana-
8142-ldimi231.html
Question 18: A. On the rise with B. On the rise of
C. With the rise on D. With the rise of
Question 19: A. now are accessible easy B. are now accessibly easily
C. are now easily accessible D. now are easy accessibly
Question 20: A. a sense of disconnection from one’s own heritage
B. a disconnection of sense from one’s own heritage
C. a heritage of disconnection from one’s own sense
D. a sense of own from one’s disconnection heritage
Question 21: A. become more exposing to B. become more exposed to
C. become more exposing on D. become more exposed on

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 Question 22: A. that not being passed down to future generations
B. not passing down to future generations
C. that do not pass down to future generations
D. that are not passed down to future generation
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions from 23 to 30.

Although Spain is widely credited with popularising the term “siesta” the idea of taking siestas seems to have roots in
Islamic Law. Siesta rests are specifically mentioned in the Koran.
But it’s worth mentioning that there is a strong Spanish connection to siestas. The word siesta is actually a Spanish word.
It comes from the Latin word “hora sexto,” which means “the sixth hour.”
Many people believe “the sixth hour” is a reference to noontime since noon is situated about six hours after dawn. That’s
why siesta is now defined as “a midday or afternoon nap or rest.”
There are several different theories about why siestas have become so popular in Spain over the years. They range from
practical theories to theories that are relatively dark in nature.
One of the dark theories suggests that people in Spain started taking siestas back in the 1930s at the height of the Spanish
Civil War. According to the theory, siestas were a necessity because of the economic conditions at the time.
During the Spanish Civil War, most of those living in Spain were forced to deal with poverty. To make ends meet, they
had to work two or three jobs at a time in order to generate enough income to support their families.
Siestas provided people with a break from their work. Many of them would work all morning long, take siestas, and then
get back to work in the afternoon before working a night shift as well.
Adapted from: https://barcelonaexclusiveprivatetours.com/blog/a-brief-history-of-the-spanish-siesta

Question 23: Which of the following could be the best title for the passage?
A. The Origin of Siestas B. Spain’s Influence on the Global Siesta Tradition”
C. Practical and Cultural Perspectives on Siestas in Spain D. Siesta in Spain Nowadays
Question 24: The word “credited” in paragraph 1 is CLOSEST in meaning to _________.
A. referred B. removed C. celebrated D. captivated
Question 25: What does the Latin term “hora sexto” mean, and why is it relevant to siestas?
A. It means noon, and it is related to the sixth hour after dawn. B. It means midnight, and it marks the end of the day.
C. It means the third hour, and it refers to mid-morning. D. It means dusk, and it relates to the end of the workday.
Question 26: The word “They” in paragraph 4 refers to _________.
A. siesta B. people C. years D. theories
Question 27: The word “relatively” in paragraph 4 is opposite in meaning to _________.
A. hardly B. extremely C. manually D. rudely
Question 28: Why did siestas become popular in Spain during the 1930s?
A. Siestas were a way to escape the crazy heat of Spanish afternoons.
B. Siestas were a response to the economic conditions during the Spanish civil War.
C. Siestas became fashionable due to the influence of the upper class.
D. Siestas were promoted by the government as a cultural practice.
Question 29: Which of the following is not mentioned to“siesta”?
A. slumber B.rest C.sleaze D. catnap
Question 30: It can be inferred from the passage that _________.
A. Siestas were entirely originated and popularised by Spain.
B. Most theories about siestas were not true.
C. People in Spain had to work many shifts during the Spanish civil War.
D. Spanish people were not allowed to have a break at work during the Spanish Civil War.
Read the following passage and choose the correct answer to each of the following questions.
About 35% of the world population drives on the left, and the countries that do are mostly old British colonies.
This strange custom is different from the rest of the world, but there is a perfectly good reason.
In the past, almost everybody travelled on the left side of the road because that was the most sensible option for violent
societies, since most people are right-handed, swordsmen preferred to keep to the left in order to have their right arm nearer
to an opponent and their sword cover further from him. Moreover, it reduced the chance of sword cover (worn on the left)
hitting other people.

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 After the Second World War, left-driving Sweden, the odd one out in mainland Europe, felt increasing pressure to change
sides in order to conform with the rest of the continent. The problem was that all their neighbours already drove on the
right side and since there are a lot of small roads without border guards leading into Norway and Finland, one had to
remember in which country one was.
In 1955, the Swedish government held an election on the introduction of right-hand driving. Although no less than 82.9%
voted “no” to this, the Swedish parliament passed a law on the conversion to right-hand driving in 1963. Finally, the
change took place on Sunday, 3 September 1967, at 5 o’clock in the morning. The day was referred to as Dagen H or, in
English, H day. The ‘H’ stands for ‘Högertrafik’, the Swedish word for ‘right-hand traffic’. All traffic with private motor-
driven vehicles was prohibited four hours before and one hour after the conversion, in order to be able to rearrange all
traffic signs. Even the army was called in to help. Also a very low speed limit was applied, which was raised in a number of
steps. The whole process took about a month to prepare.
Adapted from: https://www.worldstandards.eu/cars/driving-on-the-left/
Question 31. What would be the best title for the passage?
A. Driving on the Left: A Better Practice? B. A Shift from Driving on the Left to the Right
C. The Origins of Left-Side Driving and Sweden’s Switch to Right-hand Driving
D. Reasons for Driving on the Left
Question 32. Why did people traditionally travel on the left side of the road in the past?
A. cultural preference B. avoiding traffic
C. safety in violent societies D. government regulation
Question 33. The word “sensible” in paragraph 2 is CLOSEST in meaning to __________.
A. foolish B. reasonable C. advance D. confusing
Question 34. What event made Sweden consider changing its driving side after World War II?
A. invasion B. economic crisis
C. political pressure D. environmental concerns
Question 35. The word “him” in paragraph 2 refers to __________.
A. swordsman B. opponent C. colony D. Swedish
Question 36. The word “conform” in paragraph 3 is CLOSEST in meaning to __________.
A. prevent B. create C. remove D. follow
Question 37. What percentage of people voted against the introduction of right-hand driving in Sweden?
A. 19.1% B. 47.8% C. 82.9% D. 90.2%
Question 38. The word “this” in paragraph 4 refers to __________.
A. right-hand driving B. left-hand driving
C. Second World War D. parliament
Question 39. Why was traffic with private motor-driven vehicles prohibited before and after the conversion?
A. to save fuel B. to rearrange traffic signs
C. to reduce pollution D. to promote walking
Question 40. Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage?
A. The army was needed in the Dagen H.
B. Most countries allowing left-hand driving are old British colonies.
C. There are many small roads without border guards between Sweden, Norway and Finland.
D. It did not take long to prepare for Dagen H.

LISTENING
Task 1. Listen to a talk about tips to go green and fill in each blank with NO MORE THAN TWO words. You can
listen to the recording TWICE.
Speaker A
In Japan, it is customary to (1) ____ __________ loudly while eating them. Contrary to Western etiquette slurping is
actually seen as a sign of appreciation for the food and is
believed to enhance the flavour and aroma of the dish. In fact, it is considered rude not to slurp in some cases so next time
you’re enjoying a bowl of ramen, don’t be afraid to(2) ____ __________ .
Speaker B
The Day of the Dead in Mexico is a vibrant and (3) ____ __________ that celebrates the
lives of deceased loved ones from October 31st to November 2nd. Families create altars with flowers, candles and offerings
of food and drink. It’s believed that during this time the spirits of the Dead return to the world of the living to be with their
families. Once again it’s a beautiful and (4) ____ __________ to honour the memory of those who have (5) ____
__________.

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 Speaker C
(6) ____ __________ it is considered impolite to touch someone’s head as it is believed to be the most (7) ____
__________ of the body. This is because the head is seen as the seat of the soul
and touching it is thought to be an invasion of personal space. Instead it’s customary to place your hands together in a
prayer- (8) ____ __________ and bow slightly as a sign of respect so if you’re in Thailand remember to keep your hands
to yourself.
Task 2. Listen to a speech about cultural differences and choose the correct answer to each of the following
questions. You can listen to the recording TWICE.
Question 1. Why is it recommended to learn local greetings when traveling?
A. to avoid getting lost B. to make friends and show respect
C. to save money D. to get better service
Question 2. What types of greetings might be encountered when traveling?
A. only handshakes B. only verbal greetings
C. only bows D. handshakes, hugs, kisses, bows, or fist bumps
Question 3. How did the COVID-19 pandemic change the way people greet each other?
A. People stopped greeting each other. B. People only use verbal greetings now.
C. People are less likely to shake hands and prefer nods or gestures. D. Handshakes became more popular.
Question 4. How are greetings typically viewed in Britain?
A. a bit awkward B. warm and affectionate
C. extremely casual D. always loud
Question 5. What is the preference of younger British people regarding greetings?
A. They prefer not to greet anyone. B. They like more hugs and kisses.
C. They use formal greetings only. D. They only shake hands.
Question 6. In North America, what does physical contact during greetings usually express?
A. disrespect B. formality C. impatience D. affection and happiness
Question 7. How do most Asian countries approach greetings?
A. with loud greetings B. with casual high-fives
C. more formally D. more informally
Question 8. Where are hugs considered inappropriate when greeting people?
A. Thailand B. Hungary C. Russia D. Japan

UNIT 3: GREEN LIVING

Read the following advertisement/ announcement and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct option that
best fits each of the numbered blanks from 1 to 6.
Protecting Our Environment at Home
To make a difference for our planet, we can start by changing our habits at home.
Facts and figures:
The use of plastic has greatly affected wildlife, with many (1) struggling to survive. Additionally, we (2) ______
approximately 1 million plastic bottles every minute, which contributes to the pollution of our oceans.
Positive actions:
• Choose to buy (3) _ products whenever possible. This helps reduce waste and supports sustainable
farming practices.
• Instead of (4) disposable items, try using reusable alternatives. For example, opt for a reusable water bottle
instead of buying bottled water.
• Make sure to (5) _ your food scraps, as composting can significantly reduce the amount of waste that ends
up in landfills.
• Educate your family (6) recycling and how to sort materials properly.

Question 1: A. species B. special C. species’ D. Specialist

Question 2: A. produce B. throw away C. recycle D. consume
Question 3: A. packaged B. chemical C. synthetic D. organic
Question 4: A. using B. wasting C. buying D. throwing
Question 5: A. compost B. dispose C. manage D. collect
Question 6: A. with B. for C. from D. about
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of
the numbered blanks from 7 to 12.
CITIES GOING GREEN

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 As more and more people concentrate in cities, planners are looking for ways to transform cities into better living
spaces, (7) ________ can be done by improving existing infrastructure while also creating more public (8) ________ that
are both beautiful and green. This can be hard to accomplish, especially in cities with a haphazard fashion. Some cities
have been created with the idea of a green city as the goal.
One such city, Masdar City in the United Arab Emirates, aims to become a model for (9) ________ cities to follow. It
is being known as a truly green city that relies strictly on renewable sources such as solar energy to provide all of its energy
needs. (10) ________ , it will be a zero waste city in which everything that is used can be recycled. Whether it will truly
(11) ________ its goal remains to be seen, but it will also act as an experiment for environmentally friendly areas to be (12)
__________.
Question 7: A. why B. when C. which D. that
Question 8: A. rooms B. places C. spaces D. breaks
Question 9: A. other B. every C. one D. another
Question 10: A. Therefore B. In addition C. although D. However
Question 11: A. accompany B. access C. account D. accomplish
Question 12: A. tested B. test C. are tested D. have tested
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the best arrangement of utterances or sentences to make
a meaningful exchange or text in each of the following questions from 13 to 17.
Question 13:
a. Sam: What did you think of the movie we watched last night?
b. Sam: I agree! I think it was one of the best films I’ve seen this year.
c. Jenny: I loved it! The acting was amazing, especially the main character.
A. c-a-b B. a-c-b C. b-c-a D. c-b-a
Question 14:
a. Mom: Don't, Mark. I'm making a compost pile from rubbish.
b. Mom: The best way to build a compost pile is by sing things we often throw away after cooking or things we burn in
the garden.
c. Mark: Really? I didn’t know that.
d. Mark: Mum, there's lots of rubbish in the garden. Should put it in the bin?
e. Mark: Yes.
A. c-b-a-e-d B. c-e-d-b-a C. d-a-e-b-c D. d-e-a-b-c
Question 15:
a. Burning leaves can lead to air pollution, which harms both the environment and people’s health.
b. What are your thoughts on this? Please share with me about it!
c. Hi Mia,
d. We can collect those dry leaves and turn them into nutrient-rich compost for our school garden.
e. Best regards,
f. I hope you’re well! Lately, I’ve been noticing a small but important issue - dry leaves are sometimes burned in the school
yard.
g. What if we suggest creating a compost pile instead?
A. c-f-d-g-a-b-e B. c-a-f-g-d-b-e C. c-f-a-g-d-b-e D. c-f-g-a-d-b-e
Question 16.
a. Second, it prevents environmental destruction by promoting sustainable practices.
b. Making small changes today can lead to a more sustainable and prosperous tomorrow.
c. By reducing single-use items, we conserve resources and minimise waste.
d. Going green offers numerous advantages for both individuals and the planet.
e. First, it helps reduce our carbon footprint, lessening the harm caused by greenhouse gases.
Additionally, going green raises awareness about environmental issues, fostering a sense of responsibility towards the
Earth.
f. Finally, embracing eco-friendly habits not only benefits the environment but also promotes healthier lifestyles for
ourselves and future generations.
A. d – e – a – b – c – f – g B. b – d – e – a – c – f – g
C. d – e – a – c – f – g – b D. d – e – a – c – g – f – b
Question 17:
a. It’s also a good habit to reduce idling when possible.
b. If you live further away, you can ride the bus or even gather some of your classmates to carpool to school every day.
c. A new school year is a new chance to act against emission pollution and to do your part to improve air quality.
d. While you’re sitting in your car and waiting for class to start, do your best to remember to turn off your car!

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e. If you live near campus, you can choose to walk or bike to class!
Adapted from https://cleanriver.com/resource/ways-to-go-green-at-school/
A. c-b-e-a-d B. c-e-b-a-d C. c-a-d-b-e D. c-d-a-b-e

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct option that best fits each of the
numbered blanks from 18 to 22.
Using plastic bags poses several disadvantages to (18) . Firstly, plastic bags often end up in
landfills, where they take hundreds of years to decompose, (19) . Secondly, many plastic bags are not
reused or recycled, worsening the waste problem.
Thirdly, plastic bags can contaminate soil and waterways, harming wildlife and ecosystems. Moreover, the production
of plastic bags (20) _________ and contributes to greenhouse gas emissions. Finally, (21)
causes environmental degradation and then increases human health risks. (22) , it is
essential to reduce the use of plastic bags and adopt more sustainable alternatives.
Question 18. A. either the environment nor human health
B. neither the environment or human health
C. both the environment and human health
D. not only the environment and human health
Question 19. A. which contributes to pollution and habitat destruction
B. when it contributes to pollution and habitat destruction
C. which it contributes to pollution and habitat destruction
D. contributed to pollution and habitat destruction
Question 20. A. consumes valuable resources B. consumed valuable resources
C. consuming valuable resources D. to consume valuable resources
Question 21. A. the use of widespread plastic bags B. the widespread use of plastic bags
C. the widespread plastic bags use D. the plastic bags of widespread use
Question 22. A. If we mitigated the issues B. Mitigating these issues
C. Unless we mitigate the issues D. To mitigate these issues
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the best answer to each of
the following questions from 23 to 30..
Forests cover 31% of the land area on our planet. They help people thrive and survive by, for example, purifying
water and air and providing people with jobs; some 13.2 million people across the world have a job in the forest sector and
another 41 million have a job that is related to the sector. Many animals also rely on forests. Forests are home to more than
three-quarters of the world’s life on land. Forests also play a critical role in reducing climate change because they act as a
carbon sink - soaking up carbon dioxide that would otherwise be free in the atmosphere and contribute to ongoing changes
in climate.
But forests around the world are under threat, which affects these benefits. The threats are deforestation and forest
degradation. The main cause of deforestation is agriculture (poorly planned infrastructure is developing as a big threat too)
and the main cause of forest degradation is illegal tree-cutting. In 2019, the tropics lost close to 30 soccer fields’ worth of
trees every single minute.
Deforestation is a particular concern in tropical rain forests because these forests are home to much of the world’s
biodiversity. For example, in the Amazon around 17% of the forest has been lost in the last 50 years, mostly due to forest
change for cattle raising. Deforestation in this region is particularly common in more populated areas, roads and rivers, but
even remote areas have been polluted when valuable gold and oil are discovered.
Adapted from: https://www.worldwildlife.org/threats/deforestation-and-forest-degradation
Question 23: What would be the most suitable title for the passage?
A. The Threats to Biodiversity in Tropical Rainforests
B. The Impact of Deforestation on Climate Change
C. Forests: Our Treasure in Danger
D. Jobs in the Forest Sector and Related Industries
Question 24: The word “thrive” in paragraph 1 is CLOSEST in meaning to ________.
A. protect B. decline C. ban D. develop
Question 25: The word “they” in paragraph 1 refers to ________.
A. animals B. forests C. people D. changes
Question 26: How do forests help in reducing climate change?
A. by providing jobs B. by purifying water and air
C. by acting as a carbon sink D. by being wildlife
Question 27: The phrase “soaking up” in paragraph 1 is CLOSEST in meaning to ________.

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 A. absorb B. refuse C. conserve D. plant
Question 28: Which of the following is a major cause of deforestation in tropical rainforests?
A. population growth B. industrialisation C. cattle raising D. road construction
Question 29: Which of the following is not mentioned in the text as a cause of deforestation?
A. Wood trade B. Climate change C. Illegal hunting D. Farming
Question 30: Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage?
A. Agriculture is becoming a big threat to forests.
B. Deforestation is the main cause of forest degradation.
C. The Amazon has lost 17% of its forest in the last 50 years.
D. 41 million people across the world have a job in the forest.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the best answer to each of
the following questions from 31 to 40..
The pandemic and the lockdown have ruined businesses worldwide. Businesses will want to make commitments to
the environment as they try to recover, especially as some governments reduce requirements for environmental protection.
This is short-sighted: Businesses do not have to sacrifice their environmental goals for protecting their growth.
Green ideas like offering green products or services, introducing green processes and hiring employees to promote
sustainable practices can actually help businesses. Using data on 9,236 businesses in 35 countries across Europe and the
US, our research suggests that on average, businesses benefit from going green, although the type of greening that gives the
most significant benefit may differ between businesses.
By offering new green products or services, a business is more likely to serve an emerging trend or niche market,
which can make it more competitive. Frugalpac, a UK-based company that makes paper-based packaging for liquids that
cut carbon footprints, received a £2 million investment during the pandemic - a time when most other companies were
facing financial problems. Already seeing success for their recycled paper coffee cup, Frugalpac’s innovative paper wine
bottle, also made from 94% recycled paper, has led to new opportunities and partnerships.
Job seekers are increasingly attracted to companies that care for the environment. The employees of companies that
promote sustainability are more likely to believe that their employer will care for them, and are more satisfied with their
jobs. Such companies create a higher sense of purpose that makes work meaningful. By some estimates, companies that
follow green practices have a 16% increase in employee productivity. Some of the greenest companies, such as Cisco,
Tarmac or Stantec, are also considered the greatest companies by employees.
Greening processes can increase efficiency by reducing energy costs, allowing businesses to secure green tax
credits and improving operational efficiency. As many as 75% of UK businesses that invested in green technologies
enjoyed commercial benefits, even if financial concerns are barriers to making these green investments in the first place.
For large companies such as Procter & Gamble, these gains can run into billions of pounds. In contrast, in cases where
businesses harm the environment, they have to be prepared to pay for huge costs.
Adapted from https://theconversation.com/going-green-dramaticaliy-benefits-businesses-it-should-be-central-to-their-
coronavirus-recovery-strategy-143855
31. Which of the following can be the best title for the passage?
A. The Global Impact of the Pandemic on Businesses B. The Importance of Green Practices for Companies
C. Employee Productivity in Green Companies D. Increased Efficiency Gained by Going Green
32. The word “ruined” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _________.
A. threatened B. assisted C. promoted D. proposed
33. Which of the following is stated in paragraph 2?
A. It is crucial for businesses to sacrifice their environmental goals to protect their growth.
B. Greening initiatives, such as offering green products can be harmful to businesses.
C. Hiring employees to refuse sustainable practices is a measure to go green.
D. Benefits of going green may be unsimilar among different types of businesses.
34. Which benefit does a business offering green products get according to paragraph 3?
A. the decrease in competitiveness B. the increase in new financial struggles
C. the development in a large market D. the development in a niche market and increased competitiveness
35. According to paragraph 4, why do job seekers want to apply for companies promoting sustainability?
A. because they give higher salary offerings. B. because they have a high sense of achievement.
C. because they care for the environment and their employees. D. because they offer innovative products.
36. The word ‘secure’ in paragraph 5 is closest in meaning to _________.
A. sort B. exist C. remove D. ensure
37. The word ‘they’ in paragraph 5 refers to _________.
A. technologies B. businesses C. investments D. gains
38. What is a potential benefit mentioned for businesses that follow green practices according to paragraph 5?

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 A. lower employee productivity B. increased operational inefficiency
C. decreased energy costs D. limited access to green tax credits
39. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. The more employees care for the environment, the more they are satisfied with their jobs.
B. Businesses should focus solely on financial recovery after the pandemic.
C. Financial concerns are always main obstacles to businesses making green investments.
D. Frugalpac’s success during the pandemic demonstrates the potential of green initiatives.
40. Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage?
A. The pandemic and lockdown have had a negative impact on businesses worldwide.
B. A quarter of UK businesses investing in green technologies gained commercial benefits.
C. Frugalpac did not face financial problems like most other companies during the pandemic.
D. Proctor & Gamble is mentioned as a large company benefiting from green practices.
LISTENING
Task 1. Listen to a talk about tips to go green and fill in each blank with NO MORE THAN TWO words. You can
listen to the recording TWICE.
Tips to go green
Reuse - invest in canvas bags and reuse them (cutting down on the amount of
plastic going into (1) ____ __________ or the ocean)
- buy a (2) _______ ________ water bottle (saving money and the planet by just (3) _______
________ the same bottle)

Reduce - take shorter showers to (4) _______ ________ water

- set your thermostat a little lower in the winter and a little higher during the summer
- turn off the lights when you leave a room and use (5) _____ ________ lights as little as
possible
- turn off your computer before you go to bed at night
Recycle - recycle an old cell phone and (6) ______ _______ it in to a local electronics store (reducing
the (7) ______ ________ problem and maybe getting some money)
- recycle pop bottles, paper, (8) _____ _________

Task 2. Listen to four people talking about four environmental problems and decide the best answer. You can listen
to the recording TWICE.
1. What critical issue does Speaker A highlight?
A) The rise of renewable energy to threaten marine life
B) The negative impact of plastic usage on the environment
C) The benefits of recycling in our daily lives
D) The importance of public transportation
2. Which of the following habits does Speaker B mention as contributing to excessive energy and water consumption?
A) Buying in bulk empty rooms B) Using public transportation
C) Leaving lights on in empty rooms D) Planting trees in the streets
3. According to Speaker C, what are some consequences of using private vehicles and burning fossil fuels?
A) Improved air quality in the atmostphere B) Increased wildlife sightings
C) Release of harmful pollutants into the air D) Decreased utility bills
4. What behavior does Speaker D criticize regarding consumer habits?
A) Buying eco-friendly products B) Impulsive buying without considering long-term effects
C) Donating unused items D) Planning purchases carefully
5. What is one of the negative results mentioned by Speaker D of using items only once?
A) It leads to more recycling efforts
B) It results in excessive waste and resource depletion
C) It encourages sustainable shopping habits
D) It saves money in the long run

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